30/04/2025 Code-A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Physical World, Units & Measurement
Chemistry: Structure of Atom
Mathematics: Basics of Mathematics, Relations

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 25 questions in each part of
equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4
marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-II : This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to
the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
4. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for
you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or
submit your examination.
5. The Questions Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following:
Answered
Not Answered
Marked for Review
Not Visited
Answered and Marked for Review
6. Ensure that the battery in your device is sufficiently charged for serving 3 hr before starting the test. We recommend your device is on
charging mode during the test.
7. Make sure you begin the test with a plan. Start with your strongest section.
8. Go through the entire paper and attempt the questions you know first.
9. Make sure you save at least 5-10 min in the end to revisit your answers. In an online test, you can change your answer at any time.
You can only attempt the test from one device. You will be logged out from the first device if you log in from another device.
10. Don’t change the date and time of the device in between the test.
11. Don’t submit the test before time. Try to use the entire duration of the test wisely.

1
Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

PHYSICS

Section-I

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

1. If displacement wave equation of sound wave is given as 6. If resistance R = (100 ± 5) Ω and current I = (10 ±0.2) A.
The error in thermal power (P = I2R) is
2

s = Asin(Bx – Ct), then dimensions of A C

B
is (s is the
displacement of the particle which is at x = x at any time t). (1) 1%
(1) ML2T–1 (2) 7%

(2) M0L3T–1 (3) 9%

(4) 3%
(3) M0LT–3
7. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(4) ML3T–2
(1) Albert Einstein → Theory of relativity
2. Temperature of two bodies are measured as θ1 = 50°C ± Michael Faraday → Laws of electromagnetic
0.2°C and θ2 = 30°C ± 0.1°C by two thermometers. Then (2)
induction
select incorrect option.
(3) Galileo Galilei → Law of inertia
(1) θ1 + θ2 = 80°C ± 0.3°C (4) Isaac Newton → X-rays
(2) θ1 – θ2 = 20°C ± 0.3°C 8. Pressure × volume has same dimensions as that of
(3) Percentage error in θ1 is 0.4% (1) Energy

(4) Percentage error in θ2 is 0.4% (2) Pressure

3. The length and breadth of a rectangular plate are (3) Force

measured to be 16.6 cm and 4.7 cm respectively. Its area (4) Momentum
in appropriate significant figures is
9. Force depends on time as, F =
α −βt
e , where α, β are
(1) 78 cm2 β

constants and t is time. The dimensions of α are

(2) 78.0 cm2
(1) [M1L1T–1]
(3) 78.02 cm2
(2) [M1L1T–3]
(4) 78.020 cm2
(3) [M1L1T–2]
4. The strongest force in nature is
(4) [M1L2T–1]
(1) Nuclear force
10. The least count of a stop watch is ½ s and time period of
(2) Gravitational force
20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured by using this
(3) Coulomb force watch and the time taken is 25 seconds. The maximum %
error in the measurement of time period is
(4) Frictional force
(1) 8%
5. The dimensions of calorie are
(2) 1%
(1) ML2T–2
(3) 2%
(2) MLT–2 (4) 5%

(3) ML2T–1

(4) ML2T–3

2
Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

11. If momentum (P), length (L) and time (T) are fundamental 17. A pair of physical quantities having the same dimensional
units, then mass has dimensional formula formula is

(1) [PL2T–1] (1) Force and work

(2) Work and energy
(2) [PLT–1]
(3) Force and torque
(3) [PL2T–2]
(4) Work and power
(4) [PL–1T] 18. Dimensional formula of energy density is
12. If error in measuring diameter of a circle is 4 %, the error (1) [MLT–2]
in circumference of the circle would be
(1) 2% (2) [ML–1T–2]

(2) 8% (3) [ML–1T2]

(3) 4% (4) [M2L–1T–2]
(4) 1%
19. Given below are two statements:
13. kg
−1 3
m
Statement I: Different physical quantities may have the
The unit in C.G.S system is same dimension but they may have different units.
s2

Statement II: Different units of same physical quantity are

cm
2
related by a dimensions numerical multiplier called
(1) 10
5
2
conversion factor.
gs
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
2 answer from the options given below
cm g
(2) 10
5
2

s (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false

2
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
cm g
(3) 10
3
2 (3) Both statement I and statement II are true
s

(4) Both statement I and statement II are false

3

cm
(4) 10
3
2
20. The duration of a second’s pendulum is measured
gs
repeatedly four times by two chronometers X and Y. The
readings are as follows.
14. The number of significant figures in quantity 0.00005041
J is S. No. X Y
1 2.03 sec 2.52 sec
(1) 9
2 2.12 sec 2.51 sec
(2) 4 3 2.05 sec 2.53 sec
(3) 3 4 1.98 sec 2.52 sec
(4) 10 Note : In the context of the problem, the time period of a
seconds pendulum is close to 2.0 seconds.
15. Suppose in a new system of units, fundamental unit of Choose the correct option.
mass, length and time are 100 gm, 20 cm and 2 second
respectively, the numerical value of 15 pascal in the new (1) X is more accurate but Y is more precise
system is (2) X is more precise but Y is more accurate
(1) 240 (3) X and Y are equally accurate
(2) 120 (4) X and Y are equally precise
(3) 60
(4) 90
16. A particle is moving with a uniform speed of 50.42 ms–1.
The distance travelled by the particle in time 0.255 s with
appropriate significant digits is
(1) 12.8571 m
(2) 12.86 m
(3) 12.9 m
(4) 13 m

3
Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

Section-II

This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

21. The energy of a system as function of time t is given as, E 23. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and
= A2t. The percentage error in the measurement of A is speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How much will be the
2.0% and that in the measurement of t is 1%. The maximum percentage error in the estimation of the kinetic
percentage error in the value of E is ____. energy obtained by measuring mass and speed?
[K = mv2]
1

22. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are assumed to be 2

fundamental units, then the dimensional formula for mass 24. What is the number of significant figures in 0.310 × 103 ?
will be FaLbTc. Value of c is
25. The air bubble formed by explosion inside water perform
oscillations with time period T, which depends on
pressure (P), density (ρ), and on energy due to explosion
x y
ρ E
(E). If T
6
= z
, then value of (x + y +z) is ___
P

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

26. “No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of all 29. A subshell n = 3, l = 2 can accommodate maximum of
four quantum numbers”. This principle is called __________
(1) Zeeman effect (1) 10 electrons
(2) Pauli's Exclusion Principle (2) 6 electrons
(3) Stark Effect (3) 18 electrons
(4) Heisenberg Principle (4) 16 electrons
27. All spectral lines of two series of atomic hydrogen which 30. With increasing Principal Quantum number, the energy
do not belong to infrared spectral region are difference between adjacent energy levels in H-
atom_________
(1) Lyman and Paschen
(1) Decreases
(2) Balmer and Brackett
(2) Increases
(3) Pfund and Lyman
(3) Remain constant
(4) Lyman and Balmer
Decreases at low level of 'n' and increases for higher
28. Calculate the number of protons, neutrons and electrons (4)
value of 'n'
in S
32
16
2−

31. Some of the transitions of electron in H-atom are given

(1) 14, 18, 16 below. Select the transition which produce visible spectral
line.
(2) 16, 16, 14
(1) Orbit 8 to orbit 1
(3) 18, 16, 14
(2) Orbit 3 to orbit 1
(4) 16, 16, 18
(3) Orbit 4 to orbit 2
(4) Orbit 5 to orbit 3

4
Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

32. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in a 37. Match List-I with List-II
species are equal to 17, 18 and 18 respectively. Which of List-I List-II
the following will be the proper symbol of this species? −−−−−−
P. Orbit angular momentum 1. √ℓ(ℓ + 1)
h

2π
(1) 35
17
Cl
−−−−−− −
Q. Spin multiplicity 2. √n(n + 2)

(2) 35 –
Cl
17
R. Magnetic moment 3. 2∑ s +1

(3) 36
17
Cl
S. Orbital angular momentum 4. n
h

2π

(4) 36 –
Cl
17 (1) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2
33. The spectral series formed when electrons of excited (2) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1
hydrogen atoms return to the third orbit from higher
energy orbits is (3) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1

(1) Lyman series (4) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1

(2) Paschen series 38. Consider the following statements.

Statement I : Value of azimuthal quantum number (l)
(3) Brackett series depends on value of magnetic quantum number.
(4) Pfund series Statement II : Value of azimuthal quantum number and
magnetic quantum number for at least one valence
34. Which of the following electron arrangement does not electron of P, O and Na is same.
obey Hund’s rule? Statement III : Magnetic quantum number give information
about orientation of orbital with respect to standard set of
coordinate axis.
(1) The correct statement is
(1) Only I
(2) Only I and II
(2) (3) Only II and III
(4) Only III

39. Assertion : Total number of orbitals associated with

principal quantum number n = 3 is 6.
(3)
Reason : Number of orbitals in a shell equals to 2n.
Select correct choice among following:
Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(4)
Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion.
35. The expression for Bohr's radius of an atom is (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
2 2
(4) Assertion and reason both are false.
(1) r =
2
n h

4 2
4π Kme z

40. Consider the following statements.

(2) r =
2
n h
2
STATEMENT-1 : Orbital angular momentum is given by
2
4π 2 Kme z −− −−− − h
√l(l + 1)
2π

and
2 2

(3) r =
n h

2
4π 2 Kme z2
STATEMENT-2 : l (Quantum number) decides the shape
2 2 of orbital.
(4) r =
2
n h

2 2 2
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
4π m Ke z

option.
36. The two electrons in the first shell will differ in the value
for Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2
(1)
is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(1) n
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(2) ℓ
(2) Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(3) m Statement-1
(4) s (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

5
Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

41. de Broglie equation describes the relationship of 44. Which of the following represent the correct graph
wavelength associated with the motion of an electron and between orbital wave function [ψ(r)] and distance (r) of
its electron from the nucleus for 1s orbital?
(1) Mass
(2) Energy
(3) Momentum
(1)
(4) Charge
42. The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that
of the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom?

(1) He+ (n = 2)

(2) Li+2 (n = 2)

(3) Li+2 (n = 3)
(2)
(4) Be+3 (n = 2)

43. If the radius of 2nd Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is r . The

2
rd
radius of 3 Bohr orbit will be

(1) 4

9
r2

(2) 4r2
(3)
(3) 9

4
r2

(4) 9r2

(4)

45. The first IE of Li atom is 5.4 eV. If the total energy required
in the below reaction is 203.4 eV.

3+
Li(g) → Li (g)

Then find the second IE of Li atom in eV.

(1) 122.4
(2) 198
(3) 75.6
(4) 92.6

6
Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

Section-II

This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

46. The total number of electrons corresponding to (n + l) = 49. Number of spectral lines obtained in He+ spectra, when
even, in ground state electronic configuration of Cu is an electron makes transition from fifth excited state to first
47. How many electrons have m = 0 in potassium atom? excited state will be
ℓ

50. How many radial nodes are present in orbital that contain
48. The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of last electron in chlorine atom?
frequency 2 × 1012 Hz in J mol–1 is _______. (Nearest
integer)
[Given: h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1]

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

51. A, B, C are three sets such that n(A) = 4, n(B) = 3, n(C) = 54. In a class of 100 students, 45, 40 and 30 have passed in
5. The value of
n(P (P (A)))
is (P(x) is a power set of physics, chemistry and mathematics respectively, 15 have
n(P (P (B)))n(P (C)) passed in both physics and chemistry, 5 passed in both
set x) chemistry and mathematics and 10 passed in both
physics and mathematics. If exactly 5 students are
(1) 26 passed in all three, then the number of students who
have not passed in any of the three subjects, is
(2) 23
(1) Zero
(3) 25
(2) 5
(4) 24 (3) 10

52. If set A = {x : x2 – 7x – 8 = 0}, set B = {2, 4}, set C = {4, 5, (4) 25

6} then A × (B ∩ C) is 55. The number of integral value(s) of x which do not belong
(1) {(–1, 4), (8, 4)} to the domain of f (x) = log ( x + 2x + 1), is
(x2 −2x+1)
2

(2) {(1, 4), (8, 4)} (1) Zero

(3) {(–1, 2), (8, 2)} (2) Two
(4) {(–1, 4), (–1, 2), (8, 2), (8, 4)} (3) Three
53. The number of solution(s) of the equation 2[–x] + 3x = 7 (4) Four
{x} (where [.] and {·} denote the Greatest Integer Function
and fractional part function respectively) 56. If f : R → R is given by f (x) =
x
a
∀x ∈ R , then
ax + √a

(1) 2 f (
1
)+f (
2
) + … . +f (
1995
)+f (
1996
) is equal to
1997 1997 1997 1997

(2) 4
(1) 997
(3) 1
(2) 998
(4) 0
(3) 1997
(4) 1998

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Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

57. If the sets A and B are defined as 63.

2
For the function f (x) = [
2

[x]
], where [.] represents the
A = {(x, y) : y = ∣
∣x + 4x − 3∣
∣ , x ∈ R}
greatest integer function, which of the following is
B = {(x, y) : y = (x + 3), x ∈ R}
correct?
then the number of elements in (A ∩ B) is
The number of integral values of x which do not
(1) Zero (1)
belong to the domain of f(x) is 2
(2) 2 The number of integral values of x which do not
(2)
(3) 3 belong to the domain of f(x) is zero
(4) 4 (3) Range of f(x) is {–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}

58. The number of elements in the range of f(x) = sgn(|x|) + (4) f(x) is an even function
sgn({x}) + sgn([x]) is 64. The total number of solutions of [x] = x + 2 {x} , where 2

(where [.] and {.} represent the greatest integer function

and fractional part function respectively) [. ] and {. } denote the greatest integer and fractional part

functions respectively, is equal to

(1) Zero
(1) 2
(2) 3
(2) 4
(3) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7
(4) 0
59. The domain of definition of the function f(x) =
−−−−−−−−−−
−x
−−−−− 65. If A and B be two sets such that n(A) = 15, n(B) = 25, then
√(27)
−x
−
3
+ √[x] + 1 (where [x] represents the
81 the number of possible values of n(A Δ B) (symmetric
greatest integer ≤ x) is difference of A and B) is
(1) [2, ∞) (1) 16
(2) [–1, 2] (2) 30

(3) (−1, ∞)
(3) 26

(4) (4) 40
(−∞, − 1] ∪ [2, ∞)

66. Let [ ] represents the greatest integer function and [x3 +

60. Solution set of inequation |x – 1| + |x – 2| ≥ 5 is
x2 + 1 + x] = [x3 + x2 + 1] + x. The number of solution(s) of
(1) (–∞, –1] ∪ [4, ∞)
the equation ln|[x]| = 2 – |[x]| is
(2) (–∞, 2) ∪ (3, ∞)
(1) 1
(3) (–∞, ∞)
(2) Zero
(4) (–∞, 0)
(3) 3
61. If a polynomial function ‘f’ satisfies the relation (4) 2
2 2
log f (x) = log (2 + + + ....∞)
2 2 3 9
67. If (x2 – 2x + 1)(x – 7)3(x + 9)5 ≥ 0, then the x belongs to
f(x)
⋅ log
3
(1 +
1
) (1) (–∞, –9)
f( )
x

(2) (–9, 1) ∪ (1, 7)

and f(5) = 126 then the value of f(10) is
(3) (–2, 7] ∪ {1}
(1) 1002
(4) (–∞, –9] ∪ [7, ∞) ∪ {1}
(2) 999
68. For three sets A, B and C; (A ∪ B ∪ C )∩
(3) 1000 '
'
(A ∩ B ∩ C )
'
∩C
'
equals
(4) 1001
(1) (B ∩ C )
62. Domain of the function
f (x) =
x−3
+ log ( x
2
2
− 1) +
1
is (Where [.] (2) '
(B ∩ C )
x−4
√|[2x−1]|−3

denotes the greatest integer function) (3) (A ∩ B) − C

(1) (–∞, –1) ∪ [2, ∞) – {4} (4) A∩B∩C

(2) (−1,
5

2
]

(3) [
5

2
, ∞)

(4) (−∞, −1) ∪ [

5

2
, ∞) − {4}

8
Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

69. The possible graph of f(x) = |ln |x| – 1| is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

70. The set of real values of x satisfying the equality

[
3

x
] +[
4

x
] = 5 (where [·] denotes greatest integer

function) belongs to interval (a,

b

c
] where a, b, c ∈ N and

b, c are coprime, then the value of (a2 + bc) is

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 15

9
Unit Practice Test for First Step (Phase-1)-2027_T01 (Code-A)_Weekday

Section-II

This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

71. Let U = {x∈N ; x≤ 10}, A = {x∈N ; 1 ≤ x3 < 150} and B = 74. In an examination, at least 70% of students failed in
{x∈N ; x is prime number greater than 2} and C = {x∈N ; physics, at least 72% failed in chemistry, at least 80%
failed in mathematics, and atleast 85% failed in English. If
5x}, then number of elements in (AC ∩BC ∩CC ) is x% students have failed in all four subjects then minimum
(Where U is the universal set of A, B and C) possible value of x is _____
72. Two finite sets A & B have p & q elements respectively. 75. If f(x + y) = f(x).f(y), ∀ x, y ∈ R, f(0) = 1 and g(x) =
n(P (P (P (A)))) − n(P (P (B))) = 0 then number of ordered f(x)

pair (p, q) possible is … (p, q ∈ W , p, q < 10) 2

such that g(5) = 7. Then the value of g(–5) is
1+(f(x))

equal to
73. The number of integral points in the domain of the
√100−x2

function f (x) =
[x−2][x+1]
, where [·] represents greatest
integer function, is equal to

10