1.

In deciding the settlement of the controversy, in mediation both disputing parties’

settlement shall be made by the parties themselves. In Arbitration, it shall be made
by_______.

a. Both Parties c. Arbitrator

b. Judge d. Office for Alternative Dispute Resolution

2. ADR: Private Settlement. Litigation:_______.

a. Public Settlement c. Regular Court Settlement

b. Negotiation Settlement d. Private Settlement

3. This method of resolving conflict is focus on the filing an appropriate case before the
court.

a. Mediation c. Arbitration

b. Litigation d. Alternative Dispute Resolution

4. This general strategy is focus on giving consideration to the needs of the other party
in order to settle the issue.

a. Assertiveness c. Cooperativeness

b. Accommodating d. Collaborating

5. In the conduct of negotiation as an alternative measure for settling conflict, who is

the negotiator?

a. Mediator c. Arbitrator

b. Conciliator d. None

6. Who selects the Arbitrators?

a. Respondent c. Complainant

b. Any disputing parties d. None

7. Arbitration:_______ ; Court: Judgement

a. Award c. Settlement

b. Decision d. Reward

8.Who shall decide on how to resolve conflict for mediation process?

a. Both Disputing Parties c. Mediator

b. Complainant d. Respondent

9. Mr. Salsalani compels Ms. Delilah to pay her debt on due time, despite that the latter
requested consideration and extension of due. The former used a conflict resolution
strategy of_______.

a. Accommodating c. Collaborating

b. Competing d. Compromising

10. Followings are objective of RA 9285. EXCEPT.

a. Encourage party autonomy to resolve their issues in their own way.

b. To achieve speedy and impartial justice.

c. To help the court unclog cases filed before them.

d. To settle criminal and civil liability through a peaceful manner.

11. Alternative Dispute Resolution System means any process or procedure used to
resolve a dispute or controversy, other than by adjudication of a presiding judge of a
court or an officer of a government agency. Under this principle, procedure means.

a. An established or official way of doing something to attain the goals.

b. Step-by-step processes in order to come-up with the resolution of conflict.

c. A simultaneous process that requires to accomplish the settlement of the issue.

d. A policy that serve as guidelines in attaining the resolution of the cases brought
before

the court.

12. Disputing parties means______.

a. Meditation Party c. Med-Arb Party

b. Arbitration Party d. Conflicting Party

13. Which among the following ADR mechanism is considered formal?

a. Arbitration c. Mediation

b. Conciliation d. Early Neutral Evaluation

14. If the disputing parties failed to come-up with alternatives in settling conflict, who
shall give alternatives?

a. Negotiator c. Conciliator

b. Mediator d. Arbitrator

15. Following are ADR providers. EXCEPT. (BONUS)

a. Conciliator c. Mediator

b. Arbitrator d. Office for Alternative Dispute Resolution

16. What liability shall be given to ADR practitioner if found guilty in violating the
provisions of RA 9285?

a. Criminal c. Civil

b. Administrative d. Criminal and Civil

17. Mr. Abdul General and Ms. Loxi De Lore agreed that will be separated in principle,
without undergoing in litigation process. Is their agreement valid under RA 9285?

a. Yes, as long as they are voluntarily agreed to separate.

b. Yes, because RA 9285 encourage disputing parties to settle conflict in their own.

c. No, legal separation can only be resolve by the court

d. No, it is provided under the limitation of RA 9285.

18. DOJ Secretary: President; OADR Executive Director:__________.

a. DOJ Secretary c. President

b. Executive Secretary d. Assistant Secretary

19. Who is the appointing authority for mediator or arbitrator when the parties
empowered to do so?

a. DOJ c. ADR Institution Provider

b. OADR d. President

20. It provides support to the Executive Director and designate other functions relating
to OADR.

a. Secretariat c. Advisory Council

b. ADR Practitioner d. Secretary of Executive Director

21. How many members of Advisory Council are there to support the Executive
Director?

a. 3 c. 7

b. 5 d. 9

22. Which among the following does not belong to the group?

a. Meditation c. Arbitration

b. Conciliation d. Negotiation

23. Can disputing parties choose non-accredited ADR provider?

a. Yes, what most important is they can resolve their issues

b. Yes, they can ask the assistance of Lupon Members in the barangay

c. No, only accredited provider is allowed to assist the disputing parties

d. No, they cannot be allowed as it is strictly provided by RA 9285

24. This method whereas the arguments of the parties is brought before a panel of
senior decision makers.

a. Mini-Trial c. OADR

b. Arbitration d. Early Neutral Evaluation

25. Alternative Dispute Resolution System means any process or procedure used to
resolve or controversy, other than by adjudication. Under the context of RA 9285,
adjudication means.

a. Court c. Judge

b. Arbitration d. Litigation

26. What court that have jurisdiction in deciding cases involving RA 9285?

a. MTC c. CA

b. RTC d. SC

27. Can complainant proceed in arbitration to settle the controversy against another
party?
a. Yes, the complainant can file case before arbitrators.

b. Yes, as long as the other party agreed in arbitration

c. Yes, complainant has the right as provided by RA 9285

d. No, there should be a hearing first before the OADR

28. Mr. Balingkado was found guilty of falsification of public documents and usurpation
of authority before the RTC. Can he apply the benefits of RA 9285 in order to settle his
civil liability?

a. Yes, settlement of civil liability is allowed by RA 9285 even in criminal cases.

b. Yes, even the criminal liability, since there is a private offended party.

c. No, because civil liability on the violation of the said cases cannot be
settled.

d. No, since criminal cases cannot apply the benefits of RA 9285.

29. Can Executive Director be appointed to head the OADR even without the
recommendation from the Secretary of Justice?

a. Yes, it is the right of the President as the appointing authority.

b. Yes, it is the privilege of the President to appoint cabinet member

c. No, RA9285 strictly provides that Executive Director shall be recommended by the
DOJ Secretary

d. No, only the Secretary of Justice can appoint the Executive Director since it is under
his/her office.

30. Mr. Johnny , unexpectedly got pregnant her girlfriend Ms. Sins. However, the former
did not face his responsibilities because he believed that the father of the child is the
former boyfriend of the latter, thereafter, he immediately broke Ms. Sins. Mr. Johnny
used a conflict resolution strategy of_______.

a. Avoiding c. Assertiveness

b. Compromising d. Competing

31. When a dispute was resolved by means of filing a complaint through the court
system, the process involved resolution in conflict resolution is _______.

a. Arbitration Process c. Litigation Process

b. Court Process d. Judge System

32. A Conflict Resolution Strategies introduced by Thomas and Kilmann wherein the
person neither pursues his own concerns nor those of the other individual.

a. Accommodating c. Competing

b. Avoiding d. Compromising

33. Which procedure is being used to resolve a dispute without resorting to court
process but rather neutral third party is involved in the resolution?

a. Arbitration c. Alternative Dispute Resolution

b. Litigation Process d. Mediation

34. When parties and their lawyers are brought in a pre-trial phase to present their
respective cases and receive a nonbinding assessment by an experienced and neutral
person, the process is called_____.

a. Mediation c. Alternative Dispute Resolution

b. Early Neutral evaluation d. Pre-Trial Assessment

35. Which of the following is the main advantage of mediation over arbitration?

a. It provides opportunities to parties to negotiate and come to final solution catering

the needs of both sides.

b. Third party who is neutral will assist the parties in reaching the agreement, thus, bias
is eliminated.

c. The settlement is made by the parties themselves rather than a third

party.

d. The dispute is resolved in the interest of parties .

36. An important composition of representative from different profession and

organization who advises the Executive Director of OADR on policy, operational and
other relevant matters.

a. Secretariat c. IBP

b. Advisory Council d. Public Information and Promotion Division

37. Which mediation process is ordered by the court in accordance with the agreement
of the parties when an action of prematurely commenced in violation of the
agreement?

a. Court-Annexed Mediation c. Court-Ordered Mediation

b. Court-Referred Mediation d. Institutional Mediation

38. It refers to the structured dispute resolution method in which the merits of a case
are argued before a panel comprising senior decision makers with or without the
presence of a neutral third person after which the parties seek a negotiated settlement.

a. Early Neutral Evaluation c. Mini Trial

b. Mediation d. Arbitration

39. Can jurisdiction be agreed upon by the parties?

a. Yes, as provided by RA 9285 c. Yes, it is the discretion of the party

b. No, it limits in the benefits of RA 9285 d. No, they are not allowed by
OADR

40. Arbitration: Neutral Third party. Mediation: Neutral Third Party

Negotiation:______.

a. None c. Neutral 1st Party

b. Neutral 2nd Party d. Neutral 3” Party

41. Which among the following is considered the most effective way in resolving
conflict taking into consideration of the cost for dispute resolution process?

a. Arbitration c. Conciliation
b. Mediation d. Negotiation

42. The ADR practitioner may be held liable upon clearly showing of the following.
EXCEPT.

a. Bad Faith c. Malice

b. Intent d. None

43. The OADR is directly under the___________.

a. DOJ c. Supreme Court

b. Office of the President d. Regional Trial Court

44. Which among the following is the least consideration in asking the assistance
pertinent to training programs for ADR practitioner?

a. IBP c. Local Government Unit

b. Private ADR Organization d. Foreign Agencies engage in ADR practice

45. In conducting mediation, who shall negotiate to come-up with the resolution of the
conflict?

a. Mediator c. Both Parties

b. Complainant d. Respondent

46. Is it necessary to secure approval from the OADR in order for the practitioner to
conduct mediation or conciliation?

a. Yes, for the proper documentation of the parties’ agreement

b. Yes, they are obliged as provided by RA 9285

c. No, as long as the parties agree to settle their issue

d. No, it lies on the discretion of the parties.

47, Arbitration:__________. Mediation: Selected by the Parties.

a. Appointed by the OADR/ADR Institution c. Selected by the Chief

Arbitrator

b. Appointed by the Parties d. Selected by the Parties

48. Which among the following is considered most advantageous in settling the conflict
between parties?

a. Mediation c. Conciliation

b. Arbitration d. Litigation

49. Collaborating involves general strategies of

a. High degree of cooperativeness and low degree assertiveness

b. Low degree of assertiveness and high degree of cooperativeness

c. Both assertiveness and cooperativeness

d. High degree of cooperativeness

50. Accommodating: Cooperativeness. Avoiding:__________.

a. Assertiveness c. Medium degree of Assertiveness

b. Cooperativeness d. Medium degree of Cooperativeness

51. This principle is focus on the settlement of conflict which embrace the promotion of
mercy and compassion.

a. Restorative Justice c. Criminal Justice

b. Retributive Justice d. Dispute Resolution

52. This principle is also use in the prevention of crimes in the community.

a. Retributive c. Criminal Justice

b. Restorative d. Litigation

53. Restorative: Mercy. Retributive:______.

a. Litigation c. Punishment

b. Criminal Justice d. Suffering

54. In Restorative Justice, it encourages the maximum involvement of the following.

EXCEPT.

a. Offender c .Community

b. Victim d. Mediator

55. Restorative: Criminal Justice System. Retributive:______.

a. Mediation c. Dispute Resolution

b. Community d. Crime Prevention

56. It means any partial or final decision by an arbitrator in resolving the issue or
controversy.

a. Award c. Recognition

b. Reward d. Penalty

57. Which Court has jurisdiction to try the Arbitral award cases.

a. RTC c. MTC

b. CA d. SC

58. The Institutions or persons accredited as mediators, conciliators, arbitrators, neutral

evaluators or any person exercising similar functions in any Alternative dispute
resolution system.

a. ADR Provider c. Conflict Management

b. Alternative Dispute Resolution System d. Crisis Management Team

59. It is an agreement reached during mediation and conciliation proceedings.

a. Amicable Settlement c. Adjudication

b. Arbitration d. Attachment

60. The following are grounds for vacating the award in an arbitration proceeding,
except:
a. The award was procured by corruption, fraud, or other undue means.

b. There was evident impartiality in the arbitrators.

c. There was evident partiality or corruption in the arbitrators or any of them.

d. The arbitrators exceeded their powers

61. It is an activity which takes place when conscious beings (individuals or groups)
wish to carry out mutually inconsistent acts concerning their wants, needs or
obligations.

a. Stress c. Crisis

b. Conflict d. Frustration

62. This Act shall ne known as “The Arbitration Law”.

a. RA 876 c. RA 9285

b. RA 11131 d. RA 6975

63. It is a voluntary dispute resolution process in which one or more arbitrators,

appointed in accordance with the agreement of the parties, or rules promulgated
pursuant to this RA 9285, resolve a dispute by rendering an award.

a. Mediation c. Arbitration

b. Trial d. Conciliation

64. Below is the 4 Stages of Crisis. Except;

a. Crisis Resolution c. Prodomal

b. Crisis Management d. Acute

65. ADR means?

a. Alternative Dispute Resolutions b. Arbitration Dispute Resolution

c. Alternative Despute Resolution d. Alternative Dispute Resolution

66. According to Karl Marx what are the 3 theories conflict, except?

a. Conflict Theory c. Feminist Theory

b. Critical Race Theory d. Queer Theory

67. How many days you can apply the arbitration award?

a.15 days c.10 days

b. 30 days d. 60 days

68. Which of the following are essential ingredients of a valid arbitration agreement.

a. All of the above

b. There must be an agreement between the party

c. Agreement between the party should be in the presence of Arbitral tribunal

d. Arbitration clause

69. A principle that requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum
involvement of the victim the offender and the community.
a. Juvenile Justice c. Retributive Justice

b. Restorative Justice d. Criminal Justice

70. If you are raped by an unknown person, you can use restorative justice.

a. No c. Yes

b. Maybe No d. Maybe Yes

71. It means a voluntary process in which a mediator selected by the disputing parties,
facilitates communication and negotiation, and assist the parties in reaching a
voluntary agreement regarding a dispute.

a. Mediation c. Conciliation

b. All of the Above d. Arbitration

72. Such method shall be followed; but if no method be provided therein the Court of
First Instance shall designate an arbitrator or arbitrators.

a. Challenge of arbitrators c Procedure by arbitrators

b. Appointment of arbitrators d. Hearing by court

73. Arbitrator shall have the power to require any person to attend a hearing as a
witness. They shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and documents.

a. Time for rendering award. c. Subpoena and Subpoena Duces Tecum

b. Oath of arbitrators d. Subpoena Ad Testificandum And Subpoena

Duces Tecum

74. Notice of a motion to vacate, modify or correct the award must be served upon the
adverse party or his counsel within thirty days after award is filed or delivered, as
prescribed by law for the service upon an attorney in an action.

a. Motion to vacate, modify or correct award. C. Fees of arbitration

b. Grounds for modifying or correcting award. D. Grounds for vacating award

75. Who is the person that can file a complaint if the punong barangay neglected
his/her duties?

a. Mayor c. Taong Bayan

b. Barangay Chairman d. Kagawad

76. It is one of the types of crisis which is typically natural disaster considered as acts
of god such as environmental phenomena like earth quakes, volcanic eruptions,
tornadoes and hurricanes that threatens life, property and environment itself.

a. Man-made crisis c. Environment crisis

b. Disaster crisis d. Natural crisis

77. Mediator maybe called to testify to provide information gathered in mediation. The
statement is?

a. No, they cannot testify c. Only if they are called or requested by the parties

b. None of the above d. Yes, they can testify

78. A sole arbitrators or Panel of arbitrators is called?

a. Panel of Arbitrators c. Sole Arbitrators

b. Judiciary Arbitrators d. Arbitral Tribunal

79. _____________Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration

a. UNICITTRAL c. UNCITRAL

b. UNICITRAL d. UINCITRAL

80. An attached agency of the Department of Justice

a. Alternative Despicable Resolution c. Alternate Dispute Resolution

b. Alternative Dispute Resolution d. Alternative Dispute Reservation

81. Neglect Minor issues is the beginning?

a. Crisis of malevolence c. Smoldering Crisis

b. Natural Crisis d. Sudden Crisis

82. Who is the neutral Third Party?

a. Arbitrator c. Facilitator

b. All of the above d. Mediator

83. Adopting a negative attitude goes a long way in increasing stress among

Individuals. Don’t take things to heart. It is best to ignore minor issues.

a. Help your fellow workers during emergency situations

b. It is absolutely okay to take short breaks at work even during emergency situations .

c. One should always look at the brighter sides of things

d. Make individuals work as a team

84. In OADR accreditation, how many years is the validity of the certificate of
accreditation without prejudice to renewal?

a. 1 Year c. 2 Years

b. 4 Years d. 3 Years

28. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within the Barangay level. It is

Also referred to as the LUPON?

a. Quasi Judicial Body c. Lupong Tagapagkasundo

b. Lupong Tagapamayapa d. Barangay Chairman

86. This is the warning stage. The event hasn’t happened yet and you may have not
even recognized that is could?

a. Chronic (clean-up) c. Crisis resolution (Post crisis)

b. Prodromal (Pre-Crisis) d. Acute

87. A proceeding in which evidence and arguments are presented, usually to a

decision-maker who will issue ruling.

a. Negotiation c. Hearing
b. Arbitration d. Mediation

88. Return to a normal or other desired state after a crisis or an emergency

a. Creeping Crises c. Mitigation

b. Recovery d. Preparedness

89. Mang Tilian convicted a crime of murder serving half of his sentence is granted a
CONDITIONAL PARDON. He wants to apply in Lupon, is he eligible?

a. No, He had a record c. No, he will not be accepted

b. Yes, he already serve his sentence d. Yes, As long as he met the standards

90. What is the meaning of UNCITRAL?

a. United Nation Commission of International Trading Law

b. Universal Nationalist Commission of International Trade Law

c. United Nation Commission of International Trade Law

d. Universal Nation Commission of International Trade Law

91. Mr. Lee, a company Chief Executive having a dispute against his co-worker

Abdul. What kind of settlement they should do if they want to settle the case in legal
action in court?

a. Mediation c. Negotiation

b. Litigation d. Arbitration

92. He is the one where conflict theory originated?

A. Karl Augustus C. Karl Maxr

B. Karl Malone D. Karl Marx

93. The following are disadvantages of Arbitration? Except

A. Limited appeal C. Legal point

B. All of the above D. Fees expensive

94. What in the situation in a hostage incident wherein there is no agreement in other
words, failure of the negotiation

A. State time C. Assault

B. Deadlock D. Demand

95. In ADR the issue is

A. Proved C. Disposed

B. Agreed upon D. Inquired into

96. The following are grounds for vacating an award, except:

A. The award was procured by corruption, fraud, or other undue means.

B. That the arbitrators exceeded their powers, or so imperfectly executed them, that a
mutual, final and definite award upon the subject matter submitted to them was not
made.
C. All of the above

D. Where the award is imperfect in a matter of form not affecting the merits
of the controversy, and if it had been a commissioner’s report, the defect
could have been amended or disregarded by the court.

97. Grounds for modifying or correcting award.

A. Evident miscalculation of figures C. Thing or property referred to in the award.

B. An evident mistake in the description of any person d. All of the above

98. Means any mediation process conducted under the court, after such court has
acquired jurisdiction of dispute.

A. Early neutral evaluation C. Court annexed mediation

B. Court referred mediation D. All of the above

99. A point of view that focuses on inequality and conflict between people of different
racial and ethnic categories.

A. Feminist theory:

B. Critical theory

C. Queer theory:

D. Race-Conflict Approach

100. An approach that is critical of modernism, with a mistrust of grand theories and
ideologies.

A. Feminist theory

B. Postmodern theory

C. Queer theory

D. Race-Conflict Approach

101. A growing body of research findings that challenges the heterosexual bias in

Western society

A. Feminist theory

B. Critical theory

C. Queer theory

D. Race-Conflict Approach

102. An approach that recognizes women’s political, social, and economic equality to
men.

A. Feminist theory

B. Critical theory

C. Queer theory

D. Race-Conflict Approach

103. Means any mediation other than institutional or court-annexed

A. Ad hoc Mediation

B. Institutional Mediation

C. Court-Annexed Mediation

D. Court-Referred Mediation

104. Means mediation ordered by a court to be conducted in accordance with the

Agreement of the parties when an action is prematurely commenced in violation of

such agreement.

A. Ad hoc Mediation

B. Institutional Mediation

C. Court-Annexed Mediation

D. Court-Referred Mediation

105. Mediation means any mediation process conducted under the auspices of the
court and in accordance with Supreme Court approved guidelines, after such court has
acquired jurisdiction of the dispute.

A. Ad hoc Mediation

B. Institutional Mediation

C. Court-Annexed Mediation

D. Court-Referred Mediation

106. means any mediation administered by, and conducted under the rules of, a
mediation institution.

A. Ad hoc Mediation

B. Institutional Mediation

C. Court-Annexed Mediation

D. Court-Referred Mediation

107. A person who conducts mediation.

A. Mediator

B. Judge

C. Court

D. PNP

108. A person, other than a party or mediator, who participates in a mediation

proceeding as a witness, resource person or expert.

A. Non-Party Participant

B. Mediation Party

C. Certified Mediator

D. Mediation Party
109. Means a person who participates in a mediation and whose consent is necessary
to resolve the dispute.

A. Non-Party Participant

B. Mediation Party

C. Certified Mediator

D. Mediation Party

110. Mediator means a mediator certified by the Office for ADR as having successfully
completed its regular professional training program.

A. Non-Party Participant

B. Mediation Party

C. Certified Mediator

D. Mediation Party

111. Is a strategy where one party gives in to the wishes or demands of another.
They’re being cooperative but not assertive.

A. Accommodating

B. Collaborating

C. Competing

D. Avoiding

112. Is when people just ignore or withdraw from the conflict. They choose this method
when the discomfort of confrontation exceeds the potential reward of resolution of the
conflict.

A. Accommodating

B. Collaborating

C. Competing

D. Avoiding

113. Is used by people who go into a conflict planning to win. They’re assertive and not
cooperative

A. Accommodating

B. Collaborating

C. Competing

D. Avoiding

114. Is the method used when people are both assertive and cooperative. A group may
learn to allow each participant to make a contribution with the possibility of co-creating
a shared solution that everyone can support.

A. Accommodating

B. Collaborating

C. Competing
D. Avoiding

115. Where participants are partially assertive and cooperative. The concept is that
everyone gives up a little bit of what they want, and no one gets everything they want.

A. Compromising

B. Competing

C. Avoiding

D. Discussing

116. Which crisis involves experiencing a lack of interest, confidence, and social skills
to relate?

A. Physical Crisis

B. Economics Crisis

C. Emotional Crisis

D. Social Crisis

117. When an individual is affected by negative feelings such as emotional

disturbances and fear, which type of crisis is being experienced?

A. Physical Crisis

B. Economics Crisis

C. Emotional Crisis

D. Social Crisis

118. In which crisis do individuals experience a deprivation of basic necessities like food
and material things?

A. Physical Crisis

B. Economics Crisis

C. Emotional Crisis

D. Social Crisis

119. Which crisis is associated with health problems or bodily sickness/sufferings?

A. Physical Crisis

B. Economics Crisis

C. Emotional Crisis

D. Social Crisis

120. Which phase involves advance planning, organization, and coordination in

response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence?

A. Reactive Phase

B. Prediction

C. Pro-active Phase

D. Prevention
121. What is the first stage of anticipating future crisis occurrences?

A. Preparation

B. Update-Intelligence

C. Prediction

D. Prevention

122. This pro-active phase considers counter measures as part of the total system of
operation.

A. Preparation

B. Update-Intelligence

C. Prediction

D. Prevention

123. What does the pro-active phase of Prevention consider?

A. Equipment personnel of the organization

B. Counter measures as part of the total system of operation

C. Organizing training and preparation

D. Advance planning for crisis management

124. Which pro-active phase involves organizing training and equipping personnel of
the organization?

A. Preparation

B. Update-Intelligence

C. Prediction

D. Prevention

125. What is the purpose of the Update-Intelligence phase?

A. Advance planning for crisis management

B. Organizing training and equipment personnel

C. Collection of information for contingency planning

D. Conducting operations in a secure and effective manner

126. What does the term “Events” refer to in the context of crisis management?

A. Organizing training and equipping personnel

B. Counter measures as part of the total system of operation

C. Advance planning for crisis management

D. Incidents that have passed, facilitating analysis

127. Which counterintelligence measure focuses on preventing threat groups from

learning the unit’s plans and methods of operations?

A. Physical Security
B. Operation Security

C. Personal Security

D. Negotiation

128. It considers that all personnel are susceptible to terrorist attack so there is a need
for securing them.

A. Physical Security

B. Operation Security

C. Personal Security

D. Negotiation

129. What does “Physical Security” encompass in crisis management?

A. Negotiation with threat groups

B. Protection of information, material, and people

C. Securing all personnel susceptible to terrorist attacks

D. Protection of information, material, and people

130. The stage taken by the Initial Action Unit, which is composed of police and military
personnel immediately organized into a team to initially respond to take the incident
and begin the containment effort.

A. The Initial Action

B. The Action Stage

C. The Post Action Stage

D. Talking Stage

131. The stage that starts as soon as the tactical, support unit and the negotiation unit
arrived and are deployed. The OSC discusses the incident with his commander and staff
and decides on the plans and actions to be taken.

A. The Initial Action

B. The Action Stage

The Post Action Stage

D. Talking Stage

132. This stage begins as soon as the perpetrator surrendered, captured or neutralized.

A. The Initial Action

B. The Action Stage

C. The Post Action Stage

D. Talking Stage

133. The emotion of the hostage taker is exceedingly in its highest peak, his
rationalization and proper thinking is low, He may be extremely aggressive in his
reaction to any perceived threat.
A. Alarm Stage

B. Crisis Stage

C. Accommodation Stage

D. Resolution Stage

134. This is the stage when the hostage taker is being stressed out or fatigued of the
situation. He is seemingly losing interest of the situation and lost most of his bargaining
points.

A. Alarm Stage

B. Crisis Stage

C. Accommodation Stage

D. Resolution Stage

135. This is distinguished by boredom, and with moments of terror. Though is

considered as the longest yet is the most tranquil. In the crisis stage, and even in the
alarm stage, hostages are considering escape options but in the accommodation stage,
their initiative and planning are narrowed since captors has increased control over
them.

A. Alarm Stage

B. Crisis Stage

C. Accommodation Stage

D. Resolution Stage

136. What is the definition of “Alternative Dispute Resolution System”?

A. Any process used to increase court adjudication.

B. Any procedure that involves a judge presiding over a court.

C. Any process or procedure, other than court adjudication, with a neutral

third

Person participating in dispute resolution.

D. Any method that excludes neutral third persons from the resolution of disputes.

137. What is the essence of Arbitration?

A. Involuntary dispute resolution with no neutral third party.

B. Voluntary dispute resolution involving adjudication by a judge.

C. Voluntary dispute resolution where one or more arbitrators render an

award

D. Mandatory dispute resolution with no arbitrators involved.

138. What does an “Arbitration Agreement” involve?

A. An agreement to avoid arbitration and proceed to court adjudication.

B. An agreement by the parties to submit to arbitration all disputes, whether

contractual or not.
C. An agreement to involve multiple arbitrators in the dispute resolution process.

D. An agreement to exclude certain disputes from the arbitration process

139. What does the term “Authenticate” mean?

A. To initiate legal proceedings

B. To establish the authenticity of a record or term.

C. To appoint an arbitrator.

D. To submit pleadings in arbitration.

140. In the context of ADR, what does “Award” refer to?

A. An arbitration agreement.

B. A mediator’s final decision.

C. Any partial or final decision by an arbitrator in resolving the issue or

controversy.

D. A court’s judgment in an ADR process.

141. What is the significance of “Confidential Information” in mediation or arbitration?

A. Information disclosed during court proceedings.

B. Any information intended by the source to be disclosed.

C. Information related to the legal relationship between disputing parties,

D. Information expressly intended not to be disclosed during dispute

resolution.

142. Who is considered “Counsel” in the context of ADR?

A. A neutral third party in dispute resolution.

B. A government agency officer.

C. A lawyer duly admitted to the practice of law representing a party in any

ADR process

D. A person initiating the ADR process

143. What does “Court” mean in the provided text?

A. court adjudicating disputes based on the Model Law.

B. Any regional tribunal involved in dispute resolution.

C. Regional Trial Court, except as otherwise defined under the Model Law.

D. A government agency overseeing ADR processes.

144. What does the term “Roster” mean according to the provided text?

A. A list of accredited ADR Providers initiating ADR

B. The process of in

C. A cos A court’s decision in an ADR process.

D. A list of persons qualified to provide ADR services as neutrals or serve as
arbitrators

145. The provisions of the ADR Act shall not apply to the resolution or settlement of the
following:

A. the civil status of persons

B. the validity of marriage:

C. criminal liability:

D. All of the above

146. The ADR providers/practitioners shall have the same civil liability for acts done in
the performance of their official duties as that of public officers, upon a clear showing

Of bad faith, malice or gross negligence. This statement is correct.

A, Yes

B. No

C. True

D. False

147. Functions of the Office of Alternative Dispute Resolution.

A. To promote, develop and expand the use of ADR in the private and public sectors
through information, education and communication.

B. To monitor, study and evaluate the use of ADR by the private and public sectors for
purposes of, among others, policy formulation.

C. To recommend to Congress needful statutory changes to develop, strengthen and

improve ADR practices in accordance with international professional standards.

D. All of the above

148. Powers of the Alternative Dispute Resolution.

A. To act as appointing authority of mediators and arbitrators when the parties

Agree in writing that it shall be empowered to do s so.

B. To conduct seminars, symposia, conferences and other public fora and publish
proceedings of said activities and relevant materials/information that would promote,
develop and expand the use of ADR.

C. To certify those who have successfully completed the regular professional training
programs provided by the OADR.

D. All of the above

149. Composition of the Advisory Council.

A. Mediation profession

B. Arbitration profession

C. ADR organizations

D. All of the above

150. The certified mediator shall:

A. maintain and continually upgrade his/her professional competence in mediation skills

B. ensure that his/her qualifications, training and experience are known to and
accepted by the parties;

C. serve only when his/her qualifications, training and experience enable him her to
meet the reasonable expectations of the parties and shall not hold himself/herself out
or give the impression that he/she has qualifications, training and experience that
he/she does not have

D. All of the above

151. The Role of the Counsel

A. The lawyer shall view his/her role in mediation as a collaborator with the other
lawyer in working together toward the common goal of helping their clients resolve
their differences to their mutual advantage.

B. The lawyer must assist his/her client to comprehend and appreciate the mediation
process and its benefits, as well as the client’s greater personal responsibility for the
success of mediation in resolving the dispute.

C. The possible options for settlement but stressing the need to be open-minded about
other possibilities

D. All of the above

152. The following articles shall be considered in the Conduct of Mediation, except:

A. The mediator shall not make untruthful exaggerated claims about the dispute
resolution process, its costs and benefits, its outcome or the mediator’s qualifications
and abilities during the entire mediation process.

B. The mediator shall help the parties reach a satisfactory resolution of their dispute
but has no authority to impose a settlement on the parties.

C. The parties shall personally appear for mediation and may be assisted by a lawyer.
A party may be represented by an agent who must have full authority to negotiate and
settle the dispute.

D. Shall give support to the mediator so that his/ her client will fully
understand the rules and processes of mediation

153. How should mediation be closed?

A. by the execution of a settlement agreement by the parties.

B. by the withdrawal of any party from mediation

C. by the written declaration of the mediator that any further effort at mediation would
not be helpful

D. All of the above

154. The field location where the primary functions are performed. The ICP may be co-
located with the incident base or other incident facilities.

A. Incident Command Post C. Incident Commander

B. Incident Command System D. ICS National Cadre

155. Group of individuals who successfully underwent the National Training of Trainers
on Incident Command System, didactic and practicum, covering the six (6) ICS courses
conducted by the US Department of Agriculture.

A. Incident Commander C. Assault Team

B. ICS National Cadre D. OIC

156. Is a standardized, on-scene, all-hazard incident management concept; allows its

users to adopt an integrated organizational structure to match the complexities and
demands of single.

A. Incident Command Post C. Incident Commander

B. Incident Command System D. ICS National Cadre

157. Provides a concise, coherent means of capturing and communicating the overall
incident priorities, objectives, strategies, and tactics in the context of both operational
and support activities.

A. Incident Action Plan C. Resource Management

B. Span of Control D. Information and Intelligence Management

158. Must establish a process for gathering, analyzing, assessing, sharing, and
managing incident-related information and intelligence.

A. Incident Action Plan C. Resource Management

B. Span of Control D. Information and Management