CRI 190
1. This type of crisis arises when management makes certain decisions knowing the harmful
consequences of the same towards the stakeholders and external parties.
A. Crises of organizational misdeeds B. Technological Crisis C. Crisis D. Confrontation Crises
2. This type of crisis arises as a result of failure in technology.
A. Crises of organizational misdeeds B. Technological Crisis C. Crisis D. Confrontation Crises
3. This type of crisis arises when employees fight amongst themselves.
A. Crises of organizational misdeeds B. Technological Crisis C. Crisis D. Confrontation Crises
4. This type of crisis arise when some notorious employees take the help of criminal activities and
extreme steps to fulfil their demands.
A. Crises of organizational misdeeds B. Technological Crisis C. Crisis of malevolence D. Confrontation Crises
5. It refers to a sudden unplanned event that cause major disturbances
A. Crises of organizational misdeeds B. Technological Crisis C. Crisis D. Confrontation Crises
6. This justice essentially refers to the repair of justice through the unilateral imposition of punishment.
A. Retributive B. Restorative C. Mediation D. Arbitration
7. This justice means the repair of justice through reaffirming a shared value-consensus in a bilateral
process.
A. Retributive B. Restorative C. Mediation D. Arbitration
8. It concerns that shared values are primarily related to restorative justice.
A. Retributive B. Restorative C. Mediation D. Arbitration
9. Restorative Justice aims to_____?
A. Hurt B. Heal C. Bless D. Guidance
10. Retributive Justice aims to______?
A. Hurt B. Heal C. Bless D. Guidance
11. It is a process where a neutral person assists the parties in discussing the matter and reaching a
resolution.
A. Retributive B. Restorative C. Mediation D. Arbitration
12. Arbitration is a process where a neutral third party decides.
A. Retributive B. Restorative C. Mediation D. Arbitration
13. It is a process where two parties in a conflict or disagreement try to reach a resolution together.
A. Retributive B. Restorative C. Negotiation D. Arbitration
14. Mediation is a mode of dispute resolution, where an amicable decision arises with the help of a third
party known as a______?
A. Mediator B. Arbitrator C. Jury D. Judge
15. When a person begins a civil lawsuit, the person enters into a process called?
A. Mediator B. Litigation C. Negotiation D. Restorative
16. Crisis management is continuing activity that has ________distinct phases.
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
17. It occurs when they are least expected.
A. Crisis B. Management C. Incident D. Crisis incident
18. Crisis, came from the _______ word crisis, which means to separate.
A. Roman B. Greek C. Latin D. Spanish
19. It is a turning point in the progress of an affair or a series of events.
A. Crisis B. Management C. Incident D. Crisis incident
20. This phase is designed to predict or prevent the probability of occurrence the same time prepare to
handle them when they occur.
A. Proactive Phase B. Active Phase C. Reactive Phase D. Counter Active Phase
21. The decision-makers in arbitration are called?
A. Mediator B. Arbitrator C. Jury D. Judge
22. All except one are characteristics of mediation.
A. Promotes communication and cooperation B. Provides a basis for you to resolve disputes on your own
C. Voluntary, informal and flexible D. None of the above
23. All except one are characteristics of Litigation.
A. Public - court proceedings and records are open B. The decision is based on the law
C. The decision can be final and binding D. None of the above
24. A type of crisis arises when employees are indulged in violent acts such as beating employees,
superiors in the office premises itself.
A. Crisis due to Workplace Violence B. Technological Crisis
C. Crisis D. Confrontation Crises
25. Spreading false rumors about the organization and brand lead to crisis.
A. Crisis Due to Rumors B. Technological Crisis
C. Crisis D. Confrontation Crises
26. It is a method of facilitating frank engagements between minority communities, police and other
authorities that allow them to address historical tensions, grievances, and misconceptions, and reset
relationships
A. Mediator B. Reconciliation C. Negotiation D. Restorative
27. Arbitral decisions are sometimes called?
A. Awards B. Winner C. Power D. Great
28. The act or process of bringing a lawsuit in and of itself a judicial contest; any dispute.
A. Mediator B. Litigation C. Negotiation D. Restorative
29. An action brought in court to enforce a particular right.
A. Mediator B. Litigation C. Negotiation D. Restorative
30. This Justice is much more community-centric and focuses on making the victim whole.
A. Mediator B. Litigation C. Negotiation D. Restorative
31. All of the following are important in crisis management except one?
A. Be Prepared B. Act Quickly C. Be Transparent and Accountable D. None of the above
32. All of the following are duties of the incident management team except one?
A. As the overall in-charge of on-scene response decisions; B. Manage all resources checked-in;
C. Receive and implement the directives of the RO D. None of the above
33. Republic Act No. 9285 is also known as?
A. Alternative Dispute Resolution Act of 2004 B. Local Government Code of 1991.
C. Katarungan Pambarangay D. All of the above
34. It means a foreign arbitral award made in a Convention State.
A. Convention Award B. Arbitration C. Award D. Authenticate
35. It refers to the person appointed to render an award, alone or with others, in a dispute that is the
subject of an arbitration agreement
A. Convention Award B. Arbitration C. Award D. Authenticate
36. It refers to any partial or final decision by an arbitrator to resolve an issue in a controversy.
A. Convention Award B. Arbitration C. Award D. Authenticate
37. It refers to a sign, execute or adopt a symbol, or encrypt a record in whole or in part, intended to
identify the authenticating party and to adopt, accept, or establish the authenticity of a record or term.
A. Convention Award B. Arbitration C. Award D. Authenticate
38. It is any person exercising similar functions in any Alternative Dispute Resolution system.
A. Convention Award B. Arbitration C. ADR Provider D. Authenticate
39. It is a critical area of concern for protecting life, property, and information.
A. Emergency management B. Convening Processes C. Ripeness-Promoting Strategies D. Awards
40. The role of convening is to bring disputants to a preliminary meeting where they will discuss the
issues of a conflict and consider options for its resolution?
A. Emergency management B. Convening Processes C. Ripeness-Promoting Strategies D. Awards
41. It is a strategy to convince people that negotiation is preferable to continued confrontation.
A. Emergency management B. Convening Processes C. Ripeness-Promoting Strategies D. Awards
42. The act or process of bringing a lawsuit in and of itself.
A. Emergency management B. Convening Processes C. Ripeness-Promoting Strategies D. Awards
43. It refers to a person who can assist by clarifying issues, identifying concerns, and helping parties
understand each other’s interests.
A. Mediation B. Arbitrators C. Mediators D. Litigation
44. It is a process where a neutral third party makes a decision.
A. Mediation B. Arbitrators C. Mediators D. Litigation
45. It ensures that communication between the parties is fair and honest.
A. Mediation B. Arbitrators C. Mediators D. Litigation
46. What is an incident in the context of crisis situations?
A) A planned event B) A routine occurrence C) Any specific event that disrupts normal operations D) A positive outcome
47. How is a critical incident characterized?
A) Routine occurrence B) Low intensity
C) Emotional significance, exceptionality, and intensity D) Predictable and mundane
48. What does CIM stand for in crisis management?
A) Crisis Intervention Method B) Critical Incident Method C) Crisis Impact Model D) Critical Insight Mechanism
49. What is the purpose of the Critical Incident Method (CIM)?
A) Collecting and analyzing routine incidents B) Identifying patterns in natural disasters
C) Analyzing detailed descriptions of critical incidents D) Predicting future crises
50. In which crisis contexts has CIM been applied?
A) Only natural disasters
B) Only human-induced crises
C) Only technological accidents
D) Diverse crisis contexts including natural disasters, technological accidents, and
human-induced crises
51. What is Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) focused on in the pre-disaster phase?
A) Responding to disasters B) Identifying hazards, mapping vulnerabilities, and building community resilience
C) Rebuilding damaged infrastructure D) Implementing evacuation plans
52. What does the National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC) do during a
disaster?
A) Leads the recovery efforts B) Coordinates the overall disaster response
C) Conducts after-action assessments D) Focuses on risk assessments
53. Who are the first responders in a disaster situation?
A) Community leaders B) National government officials
C) Medical personnel, police, firefighters, and volunteers D) Debris removal teams
54. What is Community-Based Early Warning Systems (CBEWS) utilized for?
A) Analyzing past incidents B) Identifying hazards
C) Providing immediate emotional support D) Disseminating warnings quickly and effectively
55. Which council leads the disaster response at the national level in the Philippines?
A) Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Councils (LDRRMCs) B) First Responders Council
C) National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC) D) Critical Incident Council
56. What is the primary characteristic of an emergency?
A) Long-term impacts B) Proactive response C) Sudden and unexpected D) Planned event
57. What is a characteristic of a crisis?
A) Immediate action is not required B) Predictable and mundane
C) Limited duration D) Requires proactive response and planning
58. In which phase does the Philippines focus on rebuilding damaged infrastructure and restoring
livelihoods?
A) Pre-disaster B) During disaster C) Post-disaster D) Critical incident phase
[Link] is the purpose of Cash-for-Work Programs in disaster management?
A) Providing immediate emotional support B) Engaging affected communities in reconstruction activities while providing income
C) Analyzing critical incidents D) Coordinating information flow
60. Which term refers to a specific type of incident with a significant impact on the people involved?
A) Emergency B) Critical Incident C) Routine Incident D) Planned Incident
61. What is the primary focus of Debris Removal and Sanitation in the post-disaster phase?
A) Identifying hazards B) Coordinating information flow
C) Cleaning up debris and preventing outbreaks of disease D) Providing immediate emotional support
[Link] does CIM stand for in the context of crisis research?
A) Crisis Intervention Method B) Critical Incident Method C) Crisis Impact Model D) Critical Insight Mechanism
[Link] organization leads the overall disaster response at the national level in the Philippines?
A) Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Councils (LDRRMCs) B) First Responders Council
C) National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC) D) Critical Incident Council
[Link] is the primary characteristic of an emergency?
A) Long-term impacts B) Proactive response C) Sudden and unexpected D) Planned event
[Link] is the primary focus of Needs Assessment during a disaster?
A) Identifying hazards B) Coordinating information flow
C) Evaluating the extent of damage to infrastructure and property D) Identifying the needs of affected communities
[Link] term refers to a specific type of incident with a significant impact on the people involved?
A) Emergency B) Critical Incident C) Routine Incident D) Planned Incident
[Link] is the focus of the "whole-of-society" approach in disaster management?
A) Involving only government agencies B) Engaging communities in planning and response
C) Relying solely on first responders D) Ignoring the private sector
[Link] is the focus of Psychological First Aid in crisis situations?
A) Rebuilding infrastructure B) Providing immediate emotional support
C) Coordinating information flow D) Conducting damage assessments
[Link] does the Philippines utilize in disaster management that involves various sectors of society?
A) Individual-based approach B) Whole-of-society approach
C) Government-only approach D) Localized approach
[Link] country utilizes a "whole-of-society" approach in disaster management?
A) United States B) Japan C) Philippines D) Australia
71. What is the minimum distance that a CDM contingent should be stationed away from the place
where a public assembly is being held, according to Batas Pambansa 880?
a) 50 meters b) 75 meters c) 100 meters d) 150 meters
72. In lightning rallies or demonstrations, what should the Ground Commander exhaust efforts through
before resorting to orderly dispersal?
a) Use of tear gas b) Negotiation with leaders/organizers
c) Immediate arrest of participants d) Deployment of water cannons
73. Which anti-riot device should not be used unless the public assembly is attended by actual violence
or serious threats of violence, or deliberate destruction of property?
a) Water cannons b) Smoke grenades c) Batons d) Kevlar helmets
74. When is the deployment and employment of CDM contingents in accordance with existing PNP
rules and regulations?
a) Only during violent assemblies b) At the discretion of the Ground Commander
c) Always, regardless of the situation d) Only when a permit is obtained
75. What must be available for every CDM contingent according to the guidelines?
a) Medical team b) Negotiators c) Firearms d) Riot sticks
76. What is the controlling principle in CDM operations regarding the use of force?
a) Maximum tolerance b) Minimum force c) Excessive force d) Tactical aggression
77. In situations requiring the use of batons/truncheons, which parts of the body should be targeted to
avoid serious injuries?
a) Head, face, and neck b) Arms, torso, and legs c) Groins, knees, and ankles d) Shoulder blades, elbows, and fingers
78. What should be done to arrested protesters during CDM operations?
a) Release them immediately b) Apply maximum force
c) Restrain, handcuff, and bring them safely to the police station d) Negotiate for their release
79. In any CDM deployment, there should be trained and equipped ______________ personnel.
a) Senior b) Female c) Negotiation d) Medical
80. According to the Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials, when should the use of force be
limited?
a) Only in violent situations b) To the extent required for the performance of duty
c) Without any limitations d) Only when firearms are involved
81. Public assemblies held in freedom parks or on private property do not need a permit.
a) absolutely true b) Partially true c) False d) Maybe
82. When may a public assembly with a permit be dispersed according to the guidelines?
a) Anytime the police deem it necessary b) If the organizers violate the terms and conditions of the permit
c) Only during violent stages d) When the Ground Commander decides
83. What is the primary responsibility of Ground Commanders during the Violent Stage of a public
assembly?
a) Make arrests b) Disperse the assembly c) Ensure the safety of participants d) Negotiate with leaders
84. What are the prohibited acts during a public assembly according to Section 13 of Batas Pambansa
880?
a) Carrying bladed weapons b) Drinking of liquor or alcoholic beverages
c) Obstructing the right to peaceful assembly d) All of the choices
85. What should be observed to ensure the protection, safety, and welfare of the public and
demonstrators during assemblies, rallies, demonstrations, and marches?
a) Maximum force b) Minimal police presence
c) Guidelines specified for each type of assembly d) Lack of coordination
86. What is the responsibility of the First Responders (FR) during a hostage situation?
a) Conduct negotiations b) Establish perimeter security c) Issue press statements d) Facilitate hostage release
87. How should negotiators handle negotiations during a hostage situation?
a) Allow outsiders into the negotiation process b) Use force if necessary
c) Negotiate remotely d) Only negotiate with law enforcement officers
88. When may a tactical assault be considered during a hostage situation?
a) As the first response b) When peaceful means fail, and the hostage-taker becomes more violent
c) Only as a last resort d) When negotiators are unavailable
89. What is the role of the Hostage Negotiation Team (HNT) during a hostage situation?
a) Conduct tactical assaults b) Establish perimeter security
c) Initiate contact with the hostage-taker and obtain information d) Issue press statements
90. After the neutralization of the hostage-taker, what procedures should be undertaken during the
post-operation stage?
a) Conduct debriefing on hostages and participating personnel b) Facilitate transport of hostages to the nearest police station
c) Secure the crime scene d) All of the choices
91. What is the first step in the procedures for FR upon receipt of any bomb threat?
A) Coordinate with the security manager or administrator B) Treat all threats as serious until proven otherwise
C) Determine the exact location of the establishment under threat D) Proceed immediately to the scene
92. In the procedures for FR if a suspected item is found and the EOD/K9 recommends evacuation,
what should be coordinated with the management or administrator?
A) Conducting a visual search in the area B) Identifying safety areas for evacuation
C) Notifying HHQ of any development D) Coordinating with the security manager
93. If the EOD/K9 confirms the presence of an explosive component or IED, what action should be
taken to establish traffic control, crowd control, and security?
A) Cordon the area at least 150 meters from the location B) Summon ambulance and fire trucks to the scene
C) Notify HHQ of the situation D) Request deployment of additional police personnel
94. What should be done upon arrival at the scene in case of a bomb explosion, according to the
procedures for FR?
A) Isolate the specific place if a suspicious item is located B) Coordinate with the management for evacuation
C) Cordon the area at least 150 meters from the location D) Brief the EOD/K9 team upon arrival
95. What information should be included in the initial incident report after a bomb explosion?
A) Description of the type of device B) Time when the call for bomb threat was received
C) Coordinates of the EOD/K9 team D) Results of the Post-Blast Investigation (PBI)
96. What is the recommended distance to lock down the affected area if the EOD/K9 confirms the
presence of an explosive component or IED?
A) 100 meters B) 200 meters C) 300 meters D) 400 meters
97. What action should be taken if a secondary device is suspected after a bomb explosion?
A) Conduct rescue operations at the scene B) Seal off the location until the EOD/K9 team determines
C) Coordinate with the IOC for press releases D) Evacuate the injured immediately
98. What is the immediate responsibility upon receipt of a report of a bomb explosion?
A) Conduct a visual search in the area B) Coordinate with the management for evacuation
C) Identify the exact location and proceed to the scene D) Notify HHQ of the situation
99. What should be avoided in the procedures for FR in case of a bomb explosion?
A) Issuing speculative press releases or statements B) Coordinating with the Post-Blast Investigation (PBI) team
C) Conducting a visual search in the area D) Isolating the specific place if a suspicious item is located
100. What action should be taken if witnesses are identified after a bomb explosion?
A) Bring them to the nearest police station for statements B) Request additional police personnel for security
C) Coordinate with the security manager for evacuation D) Conduct a visual search in the area
