0% found this document useful (0 votes)
5 views22 pages

Research Methodology

The document outlines key concepts in research methodology, including definitions of sampling, sample size, census, and types of data. It explains various research methods, types of errors in research, and the importance of objectivity and systematic approaches in scientific studies. Additionally, it covers the steps in the research process, including problem formulation, hypothesis testing, and report writing.

Uploaded by

ambika s
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
5 views22 pages

Research Methodology

The document outlines key concepts in research methodology, including definitions of sampling, sample size, census, and types of data. It explains various research methods, types of errors in research, and the importance of objectivity and systematic approaches in scientific studies. Additionally, it covers the steps in the research process, including problem formulation, hypothesis testing, and report writing.

Uploaded by

ambika s
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

RESEARCH METHODOLOGY

Q1. A part of the population selected to know something about the population is called:
a) Sampling
b) Sample
c) Sampling Technique
d) All

b) Sample
A sample is a portion chosen from the total population (universe) from which data is collected to
understand the characteristics of the larger population.

Q2. The number of individuals selected in a sample is called:


a) Sampling
b) Quantity
c) Sample Size
d) Sample Height

c) Sample Size
The number of individuals included in a sample is referred to as the sample size.

Q3. In which method are all the elementary units connected with the problem of study included?
a) Questionnaire
b) Census
c) Interview
d) All

b) Census
Census involves complete enumeration where data is collected from every individual in the
population, rather than from a sample.

Q4. Which one is an essential element of a sample?


a) Representative
b) Independent
c) Similar/Homogeneous
d) All

d) All
An essential sample should be representative, independent, similar (homogeneous), and also possess
adequacy.

Q5. Which law is related to sample investigation?


a) Law of Statistical Regularity
b) Law of Inertia of Large Numbers
c) Both A and B
d) None of these

c) Both A and B
Both the Law of Statistical Regularity and the Law of Inertia of Large Numbers are relevant to sample
investigation.

Q6. Both the Law of Statistical Regularity and the Law of Inertia of Large Numbers depend on:
a) Theory of Probability
b) Theory of Motivation
c) Theory of Statistics
d) All of these

a) Theory of Probability
Both of these laws are based on the Theory of Probability.

Q7. Which one is NOT a type of non-random sampling technique?


a) Quota Sampling
b) Convenience Sample
c) Systematic Sampling
d) Snowball Sampling

c) Systematic Sampling
Systematic sampling is a type of random (or probability) sampling, whereas quota, convenience, and
snowball sampling are non-random (non-probability) techniques.

Q8. Lottery system is a method of:


a) Simple Random Sampling
b) Stratified Random Sampling
c) Systematic Sampling
d) Multi-stage Sampling

a) Simple Random Sampling


The lottery system is used in Simple Random Sampling, where selections are made randomly, like
drawing chits with names.

Q9. When a heterogeneous group is classified into homogeneous groups and then randomly sampled,
this is known as:
a) Quota Sampling
b) Stratified Random Sampling
c) Systematic Sampling
d) Multi-stage Sampling

b) Stratified Random Sampling


Stratified Random Sampling involves creating homogeneous strata (groups) from a heterogeneous
population and then randomly selecting samples from these strata.

Q10. When data has been collected and then passed through statistical methods, organization,
classification, tabulation, computation, etc., it is called:
a) Raw Data
b) Processed Data
c) Original Data
d) None of these

b) Processed Data
Data that has undergone organization, classification, tabulation, and computation using statistical
methods is referred to as Processed Data. Raw data, in contrast, is in its original, unorganized state.

Q11. A person who helps the investigator in data collection during an investigation is known as a/an:
a) Investigator
b) Enumerator
c) Respondent
d) None
b) Enumerator
An enumerator assists the researcher or investigator in collecting data, often by directly filling out
schedules or questionnaires.

Q12. Schedules are filled by:


a) Enumerator
b) Researcher
c) Respondent
d) All

a) Enumerator
Schedules are typically filled by the enumerator who asks the questions and records the answers,
similar to how data is collected during a census.

Q13. A questionnaire should have what number of questions?


a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) According to the need of the survey

d) According to the need of the survey


The appropriate number of questions in a questionnaire should be determined based on the specific
requirements and objectives of the survey.

Q14. Data collected for the first time by an investigator is called:


a) Primary Data
b) Secondary Data
c) Tertiary Data
d) All of these

a) Primary Data
Primary Data refers to information collected directly by the investigator for the first time, unlike
secondary data which is already existing.

Q15. The list of all units in a population is called:


a) Sampling Frame
b) Parameter
c) Statistics
d) Random Sampling

a) Sampling Frame
A Sampling Frame is a comprehensive list of all units within a population from which a sample is
selected.

Q16. Snowball sampling is a method of data collection from:


a) Known individuals
b) Connecting relations
c) Small population
d) Representative population

b) Connecting relations
Snowball sampling involves collecting data by leveraging existing relationships, where one
respondent refers the researcher to others.
Q17. Approximation can be done by:
a) Adding in figures
b) Discarding figures
c) Rounding to the nearest figure
d) All of these

d) All of these
Approximation can be achieved through various methods, including adding or discarding figures, or
rounding to the nearest figure.

Q18. Sampling error arises due to:


a) Homogeneity
b) Inadequacy
c) Manipulation
d) All of these

d) All of these
Sampling error can result from factors such as homogeneity (or lack thereof), inadequacy of the
sample size, manipulation, and also errors in interpretation or analysis.

Q19. Error that occurs due to accident or by chance is called:


a) Biased Error
b) Systematic Error
c) Constant Error
d) Unbiased Error

d) Unbiased Error
Unbiased error (also known as compensating error, accidental error, or random error) is an error that
occurs unintentionally or by chance.

Q20. Errors due to non-response bias or publication errors (e.g., typing errors) are called:
a) Sampling Error
b) Non-sampling Error
c) Response bias
d) All of these

b) Non-sampling Error
Errors arising from non-response or publication issues like typing errors are categorized as non-
sampling errors, distinguishing them from sampling errors which occur during data collection,
organization, or analysis.

Q21. The difference when an estimated value is subtracted from the actual value is called:
a) Absolute Error
b) Estimated Error
c) Relative Error
d) Percentage Error

a) Absolute Error
Absolute Error is defined as the difference between the actual value and the estimated value (Actual
Value - Estimated Value).

Q22. A systematic, step-by-step procedure and logical process of reasoning is called:


a) Experiment
b) Observation
c) Deduction
d) Scientific Method

d) Scientific Method
The Scientific Method is characterized by a systematic, step-by-step procedure that involves logical
reasoning and experimentation.

Q23. An essential ingredient for scientific studies is:


a) Belief
b) Value
c) Objectivity
d) Subjectivity

c) Objectivity
Objectivity is a crucial requirement for any scientific study.

Q24. Reasoning from general to particular is called:


a) Induction
b) Deduction
c) Observation
d) Experience

b) Deduction
Reasoning that proceeds from general principles to specific conclusions is known as Deduction.

Q25. Research undertaken for knowledge's sake, to improve or increase knowledge, is called:
a) Survey Research
b) Applied Research
c) Pure Research
d) Action Research

c) Pure Research
Pure Research (also known as Basic or Fundamental Research) is conducted primarily to enhance
existing knowledge or to gain new information.

Q26. Fact-finding with long-term interest is known as:


a) Survey
b) Action Research
c) Analytical Research
d) Pilot Study

a) Survey
Survey research typically involves collecting data to find facts and information over a longer term.

Q27. Facts and information are analyzed and a critical evaluation is made in:
a) Survey
b) Action Research
c) Analytical Research
d) Pilot Study

c) Analytical Research
Analytical Research involves the analysis and critical evaluation of existing facts and information.
Q28. Research conducted to find solutions for immediate problems is called:
a) Action Research
b) Pure Research
c) Applied Research
d) Diagnostic Research

a) Action Research
Action Research is conducted to find prompt solutions to immediate problems, and it is a type of
Applied Research.

Q29. Motivation Research is a type of ____ research:


a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Pure
d) Applied

b) Qualitative
Motivation research falls under Qualitative Research, focusing on understanding the "quality" of
motivation.

Q30. Research related to abstract ideas or concepts is called:


a) Empirical Research
b) Conceptual Research
c) Quantitative Research
d) Qualitative Research

b) Conceptual Research
Conceptual Research deals with abstract ideas, theories, or concepts.

Q31. Which research type follows case study methods?


a) Clinical/Diagnostic
b) Causal
c) Analytical
d) Qualitative

a) Clinical/Diagnostic
Case study methods are often employed in Clinical or Diagnostic research to investigate specific
instances or cases.

Q32. Research conducted in a classroom atmosphere is called:


a) Field Study
b) Survey
c) Laboratory Research
d) Field Research

c) Laboratory Research
Research conducted in a controlled environment, such as a classroom or a lab, is referred to as
Laboratory Research.

Q33. A systematic way to solve a research problem is:


a) Research
b) Research Methodology
c) Research Problem
d) None of these
b) Research Methodology
Research Methodology provides a systematic approach for solving research problems.

Q34. Research Method is a part of:


a) Problem
b) Experiment
c) Research Technique
d) Research Methodology

d) Research Methodology
A research method is a specific procedure or technique used within the broader framework of
Research Methodology, which is a wider scope encompassing various procedures and techniques.

Q35. Identifying the causes of a problem and its possible solutions is known as:
a) Descriptive
b) Co-relational
c) Explanatory
d) Diagnostic

d) Diagnostic
Diagnostic research involves identifying the causes of a problem and then proposing potential
solutions, similar to a doctor diagnosing a patient's ailment.

Q36. Which of the following is an example of Primary Data?


a) Book
b) Journal
c) Newspaper
d) Census Report

c) Newspaper
While books, journals, and census reports are typically secondary data, a newspaper can provide
current information as a primary source, especially for immediate events.

Q37. The major drawback to research in India is:


a) Lack of sufficient number of researchers
b) Lack of sufficient research guides
c) Lack of sufficient funds
d) Lack of scientific training in research

d) Lack of scientific training in research


According to the video, a significant impediment to research in India is the insufficient scientific
training provided to researchers.

Q38. The full form of ICSSR is:


a) Indian Council for Social Science Research
b) International Council for Social Science Research
c) Indian Centre for Social Science Research
d) Indian Commerce and Science Research

a) Indian Council for Social Science Research


ICSSR stands for Indian Council for Social Science Research, established in 1969.
Q39. The first step in the research process is:
a) Review of Literature
b) Research Design
c) Data Collection
d) Selection of Problem

d) Selection of Problem
The initial step in the research process is defining or selecting the research problem.

Q40. A question that requires a solution is a:


a) Observation
b) Problem
c) Debate
d) Problem Statement

b) Problem
A question that inherently demands a solution is fundamentally a Problem.

Q41. Converting a question into a researchable problem (one that can be researched) is called:
a) Solution
b) Examination
c) Problem Formulation
d) Problem Solving

c) Problem Formulation
The act of transforming a general question into a specific, researchable problem is known as Problem
Formulation.

Q42. What is the first step in formulating a problem?


a) Statement of the Problem
b) Understanding its Nature
c) Survey of Literature
d) Developing Ideas

a) Statement of the Problem


The very first step in problem formulation is clearly articulating what the problem is, known as the
Statement of the Problem.

Q43. In the formulation of a problem, what should we provide?


a) Title
b) Index
c) References
d) Hypothesis

a) Title
When formulating a problem, it is essential to give it a clear title.

Q44. Research in the form of guesses or statements is called:


a) Theory
b) Hypothesis
c) Conclusion
d) Finding

b) Hypothesis
In research, a hypothesis is a tentative guess or statement made about a problem that will be tested
during the investigation.

Q45. When planning investigation for a hypothesis, what is it called?


a) Alternative Hypothesis
b) Working Hypothesis
c) Research Hypothesis
d) Null Hypothesis

b) Working Hypothesis
A hypothesis that guides the ongoing investigation or research is often referred to as a Working
Hypothesis.

Q46. When a hypothesis is stated negatively, it is called:


a) Relation Hypothesis
b) Research Hypothesis
c) Null Hypothesis
d) Alternative Hypothesis

c) Null Hypothesis
A hypothesis stated in a negative form (e.g., indicating no difference or relationship) is called a Null
Hypothesis.

Q47. The meaning of 'Null' in Null Hypothesis is:


a) Zero
b) Nothing
c) No Effect
d) All of these

d) All of these
In the context of a Null Hypothesis, 'Null' implies zero, nothing, or no effect.

Q48. In hypothesis testing, the common errors are:


a) Type I error
b) Type II error
c) Both Type I and Type II error
d) None of these

c) Both Type I and Type II error


During hypothesis testing, researchers commonly encounter two types of errors: Type I error and
Type II error.

Q49. Survey is a type of ____ study:


a) Descriptive
b) Fact-finding
c) Analytical
d) Systematic

b) Fact-finding
Survey research is primarily considered a fact-finding study, focused on collecting data about existing
facts.

Q50. The final stage in the research process is:


a) Problem Definition
b) Population Selection
c) Data Collection
d) Report Writing

d) Report Writing
Report Writing is the conclusive stage in the research process, where all findings and processes are
documented.

Q51. A report submitted when there is a time lag between data collection and presentation of results is
called:
a) Thesis
b) Interim Report
c) Summary Report
d) Article

b) Interim Report
An Interim Report is presented during a research project when there is a significant time gap between
data collection and the expected completion of the final report.

Q52. What does a Bibliography contain?


a) Footnotes
b) Quotations
c) List of Books
d) Biography

c) List of Books
A bibliography provides a list of books and other academic sources that have been referred to or cited
in the research report.

Q53. The first page of a research report is the:


a) Table of Contents
b) Executive Summary
c) Acknowledgments
d) Title Page

d) Title Page
The Title Page serves as the very first page of any research report or thesis.

Q54. In a research report, ____ is used to acknowledge indebtedness/sources:


a) Bibliography
b) Appendix
c) Endnotes
d) Footnote

d) Footnote
Footnotes are used within a research report to acknowledge sources or specific points of indebtedness,
typically appearing at the bottom of the page where the reference is made.

Q55. Failure to acknowledge borrowed material is called:


a) Acknowledgment
b) Footnote
c) Index
d) Plagiarism
d) Plagiarism
Plagiarism is the act of using someone else's material or ideas without proper acknowledgment,
essentially presenting it as one's own work.

Q56. A blueprint of research work is called:


a) Thesis
b) Problem
c) Research Design
d) Research Method

c) Research Design
A Research Design functions as a blueprint or comprehensive plan that guides the entire research
process.

Q57. Facts, figures, and other relevant material that serve as the basis for a study are called:
a) Sample
b) Method
c) Data
d) Hypothesis

c) Data
Data comprises facts, figures, and other pertinent materials that form the foundational basis for any
study.

Q58. There are mainly ____ sources of data:


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

b) Two
Primarily, there are two sources of data: Primary Data and Secondary Data.

Q59. The original source from which a researcher collects information is:
a) Primary Source
b) Secondary Source
c) Tertiary Source
d) None of these

a) Primary Source
A Primary Source is the original point from which an investigator directly collects information for the
first time.

Q60. Data related to human beings is called:


a) Data
b) Organization
c) Material
d) Demographic Data

d) Demographic Data
Data concerning human characteristics and populations is categorized as Demographic Data.

Q61. An instrument used in a research method is called a/an:


a) Sample
b) Technique
c) Tool
d) Method

c) Tool
An instrument that is utilized within a research method for various purposes, such as data collection,
is referred to as a Tool.

Q62. In which type of observation does the researcher become a part of the observation?
a) Non-Participant Observation
b) Participant Observation
c) Structured Observation
d) Unstructured Observation

b) Participant Observation
In Participant Observation, the researcher actively engages with and becomes a part of the group or
event being observed.

Q63. Observation of an event personally by the observer is called:


a) Direct Observation
b) Indirect Observation
c) Controlled Observation
d) Uncontrolled Observation

a) Direct Observation
When an observer personally witnesses and records an event, it is known as Direct Observation.

Q64. A conversation between an investigator and a respondent, typically a two-way communication,


is called:
a) Observation
b) Schedule
c) Interview
d) Deliberation

c) Interview
An Interview is a direct, two-way conversational method used between an investigator and a
respondent, usually for gathering data.

Q65. An interview conducted with a detailed, standardized tool is called:


a) Unstructured Interview
b) Group Interview
c) Directed Interview
d) Structured Interview

d) Structured Interview
A Structured Interview follows a pre-defined format and uses standardized questions to ensure
consistency across all interviews.

Q66. An interview that requires probing for in-depth knowledge is called:


a) Unstructured Interview
b) Depth Interview
c) Focused Interview
d) All of these
b) Depth Interview
A Depth Interview is designed to gather comprehensive and profound insights into a topic by
extensively probing the respondent's answers.

Q67. An example of a non-personal method of data collection is:


a) Interview
b) Group Interview
c) Schedule
d) Telephonic Interview

d) Telephonic Interview
A Telephonic Interview is considered a non-personal method of data collection as it does not require
face-to-face interaction, unlike other methods where the researcher is physically present.

Q68. The friendly relationship between an interviewer and a respondent is called:


a) Morale
b) Management
c) Rapport
d) Conclusion

c) Rapport
A friendly and harmonious relationship established between an interviewer and a respondent is known
as Rapport.

Q69. A method of primary data collection where a number of interviewees with a common interest are
grouped together is called:
a) Telephonic Interview
b) Focus Group
c) Group Interview
d) Panel Interview

c) Group Interview
A Group Interview involves conducting interviews with several individuals who share a common
interest, all at once.

Q70. When a questionnaire is sent to a respondent by post to be completed and returned, it is called:
a) Mail Survey
b) Interview
c) Observation
d) Panel

a) Mail Survey
Sending a questionnaire through postal services for respondents to complete and return is a method
known as a Mail Survey.

Q71. Schedules are filled by:


a) Enumerator
b) Researcher
c) Respondent
d) All

a) Enumerator
This is a repeated question; schedules are filled by the enumerator.
Q72. A question that allows only a few alternative answers is called:
a) Open-ended Question
b) Unstructured Question
c) Structured Question
d) Dichotomous Question

c) Structured Question
A Structured Question provides a limited set of pre-defined answer options, thereby directing the
respondent's choice.

Q73. A question that is biased in content, structure, or wording, leading the respondent towards a
certain answer, is called:
a) Factual Question
b) Open Question
c) Leading Question
d) Structured Question

c) Leading Question
A Leading Question is framed in a way that suggests or pushes the respondent towards a particular
answer, often due to biased phrasing.

Q74. The aggregate of all units pertaining to a study is called:


a) Population
b) Sample
c) Group
d) Frame

a) Population
The entire collection of individuals, objects, or units that are the subject of a study is known as the
Population or Universe.

Q75. A member of a population is called a/an:


a) Element
b) Sample
c) Group
d) Subset

a) Element
An individual member or a single unit within a population is referred to as an Element.

Q76. Probability sampling is also known as:


a) Multiple Choice
b) Univariate Analysis
c) Random Sampling
d) Biased Sampling

b) Univariate Analysis
The video states that Probability sampling is also called Univariate Analysis, which is described as a
process where a single factor is changed, and its effect is observed. (Self-correction note: As
mentioned earlier, this appears to be a misstatement in the video, as probability sampling is generally
known as random sampling, and univariate analysis is a statistical method. Please verify
independently.)
Q77. An example of Probability Sampling is:
a) Quota Sampling
b) Snowball Sampling
c) Purposive Sampling
d) Lottery Method

d) Lottery Method
The Lottery Method is a technique used in probability sampling, ensuring that each unit has an equal
chance of selection.

Q78. In which sampling technique is the population divided into different strata and samples are taken
from different strata?
a) Quota Sampling
b) Snowball Sampling
c) Stratified Sampling
d) Cluster Sampling

c) Stratified Sampling
Stratified Sampling involves dividing a heterogeneous population into homogeneous subgroups
(strata) and then drawing samples from each of these strata.

Q79. Drawing samples from each stratum in proportion to their share in the total population is called:
a) Proportionate Stratified Sampling
b) Disproportionate Stratified Sampling
c) Convenience Sampling
d) Cluster Sampling

a) Proportionate Stratified Sampling


When samples are selected from each stratum such that their size is proportional to the stratum's size
in the total population, it is known as Proportionate Stratified Sampling.

Q80. Selecting sample units in a hit-and-miss fashion is called:


a) Convenience or Accidental Sample
b) Quota Sample
c) Purposive Sample
d) Snowball Sample

a) Convenience or Accidental Sample


Selecting sample units purely based on ease of access or without a structured method (a 'hit-and-miss'
approach) is termed Convenience or Accidental Sampling.

Q81. Office editing and another type of editing is:


a) Lab Editing
b) Field Editing
c) Classroom Editing
d) Bid Editing

b) Field Editing
The two main categories of editing in research data are Office Editing (done at a central location) and
Field Editing (done at the location of data collection).

Q82. Assigning numerals or other symbols to categories or responses is called:


a) Editing
b) Coding
c) Transcription
d) Tabulation

b) Coding
Coding is the process of assigning numerical or symbolic labels to various categories or responses in
data, enabling systematic analysis.

Q83. Summarizing and displaying data in a compact statistical table for analysis is called:
a) Graphic representation
b) Tabulation
c) Classification
d) Organization

b) Tabulation
Tabulation involves organizing and presenting summarized data in a compact statistical table for
detailed analysis.

Q84. If a researcher divides the population into PG, Graduate, and 10+2 students and then randomly
selects some from each, this technique is called:
a) Stratified Random Sampling
b) Representative Sampling
c) None of these
d) Simple Random Sampling

a) Stratified Random Sampling


This method is Stratified Random Sampling because the population is first divided into distinct
(homogeneous) groups or strata, and then random samples are drawn from each stratum.

Q85. If a researcher divides the population into groups and fixes a specific number of samples from
each group, it is called:
a) Stratified Sampling
b) Quota Sampling
c) Cluster Sampling
d) All of these

b) Quota Sampling
Quota Sampling is a non-probability method where the population is divided into groups, and a
predetermined number or quota of samples is then selected from each group.

Q86. Why would a researcher take only 10 samples from a population of 5000?
a) He was guided by his supervisor
b) The population was homogeneous
c) He liked to sample a fixed quota
d) All of these

b) The population was homogeneous


A smaller sample size can be considered sufficient even in a large population if the population is
highly homogeneous, as a few samples can adequately represent the whole.

Q87. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?


a) Area Sampling Technique
b) Quota Sampling Technique
c) Systematic Sampling Technique
d) None of these
c) Systematic Sampling Technique
When the population is finite and its size is known, Systematic Sampling Technique is often
preferred, involving a random starting point and selection at regular intervals.

Q88. A statistical measure based on the entire population is called a parameter, while a statistical
measure based on samples is known as a/an:
a) Sample
b) Parameter
c) Inference
d) Statistic

d) Statistic
A statistical measure derived from a sample is termed a Statistic, in contrast to a Parameter which
describes the entire population.

Q89. The final result of a study will be more accurate if the sample is:
a) Randomly selected
b) Fixed quota
c) Representative of the population
d) Purposive

c) Representative of the population


The accuracy of a study's findings is significantly enhanced when the sample is truly representative of
the population it is drawn from.
Note: As mentioned earlier, the video incorrectly equated "Univariate Analysis" with "Probability
Sampling." Probability sampling generally refers to random sampling, whereas univariate analysis is a
statistical analytic technique.

Q90. Which of the following is a non-probability sampling technique?


a) Quota Sample
b) Simple Random Sample
c) Purposive Sample
d) Both A and C

d) Both A and C
Both Quota Sampling and Purposive Sampling are classified as non-probability sampling techniques,
unlike Simple Random Sample which is a probability technique.
Q91. Area/Cluster sampling technique is used when:
a) Population is scattered
b) A large sample is to be chosen
c) Long survey is required
d) All of these

d) All of these
Area or Cluster Sampling is commonly employed when the population is widely dispersed, a large
sample is necessary, and/or the survey duration is extensive.

Q92. All are non-sampling errors except one, which is a sampling error:
a) Quality of Measurement
b) Inadequate Sample
c) Non-response
d) Defect in Data Collection
d) Defect in Data Collection
Defects occurring during the data collection process itself are considered sampling errors, whereas the
quality of measurement, an inadequate sample, and non-response are non-sampling errors.

Q93. A research problem is feasible only when:


a) It is researchable
b) It is new and adds to knowledge
c) It has utility
d) All of these

d) All of these
A research problem is considered feasible if it is researchable, contributes new knowledge, and
possesses practical utility or usefulness.

Q94. The validity and reliability of research will be at stake when:


a) The author/source of information is biased, incompetent, or dishonest
b) Incidents are reported after a long period from the date of occurrence
c) The researcher himself is not competent to draw logical conclusions
d) All of the above

d) All of the above


The validity and reliability of research are compromised under all these conditions: if the information
source is biased or unreliable, if reports are significantly delayed, or if the researcher lacks the
competence to draw sound conclusions.

Q95. If a researcher wants to study the future of Congress in India, which tool would be most
appropriate?
a) Questionnaire
b) Schedule
c) Interview
d) Rating Scale

a) Questionnaire
To gather information and opinions from a large number of people regarding the future of a political
party across a wide area like India, a Questionnaire is the most appropriate and efficient tool.

Q96. What does the bibliography in a research report do?


a) Shows researcher's interest in the problem
b) Makes the report authentic
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above

c) Both A and B
A bibliography in a research report serves two key purposes: it assists other researchers in exploring
the problem further and helps to authenticate the research by listing all referenced sources.

Q97. Complete this sentence: A hypothesis is...


a) A statement that serves as the basis for investigation
b) A methodical evaluation of empirical evidence
c) A statement of the aims of investigation
d) All of these

a) A statement that serves as the basis for investigation


A hypothesis is essentially a tentative statement or assumption that acts as the foundational basis for
conducting an investigation or research.

Here are all the MCQs with their answers as explained in the video:

Question Number 1: Action-oriented research is the Right Answer Option A: applied


research.

Question Number 2: This is used to gain a deeper understanding of the issue or problem that
is troubling the researcher. Right Answer Option B: exploratory research.

Question Number 3: This is the first and the most critical stage of the research journey.
Right Answer Option C: defining research problem.

Question Number 4: Is the chief of the West is West and improves asset pricing, corporate
finance and capital markets, market-based accounting modeling and accounting in volatility
and risk etc. Right Answer Option B: financial and accounting research.

Question Number 5: The formulated framework is explained verbally is called a. Right


Answer Option A: verbal model.

Question Number 6: Any variable that can be stated as an interference in or in acting an


independent variable is referred to as. Right Answer Option C: intervening variable.

Question Number 7: The ______ is a statement about the magnitude, trend, or behavior of a
population under study. Right Answer Option B: descriptive hypothesis.

Question Number 8: A formal document that presents research objectives, design of


achieving these objectives, and expected outcomes/deliverables of the study is. Right
Answer Option A: research proposal.

Question Number 9: This is the working section of the proposal. It indicates the logical and
systematic approach to be followed to achieve the listed objectives. Right Answer Option
C: research design.

Question Number 10: ______ are the simplest and most loosely structured research designs.
Right Answer Option A: exploratory designs.

Question Number 11: In _______ design, the researcher randomly assigns units and
treatments to an experimental group. Right Answer Option B: true experimental.

Question Number 12: _______ design is used when a researcher is investigating the effect
of one independent variable on the dependent variable. Right Answer Option B: completely
randomized.

Question Number 13: _______ is conducted during focus group discussion, secondary data
analysis of case study and expert opinion survey. Right Answer Option D: exploratory
research.
Question Number 14: In comparison to primary data, secondary data can be collected with.
Right Answer Option D: all of the above options: rapidly and easily, at virtually no cost,
and in a short time.

Question Number 15: _______ refers to articles, research papers, abstracts, other printed
news, content in other sources, and are called bibliography databases. Right Answer Option
D: reference database.

Question Number 16: _______ is an ideal method of collecting data from a target group of
respondents and involves a moderator who facilitates the discussion on the topic under study.
Right Answer Option C: focus group discussion.

Question Number 17: Which of the following is not a type of personal interview? Right
Answer Option A: unstructured.

Question Number 18: In a focus group discussion, where there are two moderators, one
being responsible for the group discussion and the other trying to optimize group
performance is called. Right Answer Option C: double moderator group.

Question Number 19: _______ is the lowest level of measurement. Right Answer Option
C: nominal scale.

Question Number 20: In _______ scale, there is a one-to-one correspondence to measure a


construct. Right Answer Option A: single item.

Question Number 21: In _______ scaling, respondents are presented with several objects
simultaneously and are asked to order or rank them according to some criterion. Right
Answer Option C: rank order.

Question Number 22: _______ is concerned with consistency, accuracy, and predictability
of the scale. Right Answer Option D: reliability.

Question Number 23: _______ kind of structured questionnaire is easy to administer and is
frequently used by management researchers. Right Answer Option B: formalized and
concealed.

Question Number 24: The first stage in the questionnaire design process is _______. Right
Answer Option A: convert research objectives into information areas.

Question Number 25: _______ questions are restrictive alternatives and provide the
respondent with two answers. Right Answer Option A: dichotomous.

Question Number 26: The reasons for the respondent's inability to answer the question in a
questionnaire refer to. Right Answer Option D: all of the above options: the person might
not have the required information, the person might not remember the answer, the person
might not be able to articulate the answer.

Question Number 27: The process of testing and administrating the designed instrument on
a small group of people from the population under study in order to refine, pinpoint and
validate the final version of is called. Right Answer Option C: pilot testing.
Question Number 28: Carrying out an organized inquiry is called. Right Answer Option A:
research.

Question Number 29: Logical reasoning process used in research is important to. Right
Answer Option A: draw inferences.

Question Number 30: Which of the following is not a probability sampling design? Right
Answer Option C: snowball sampling.

Question Number 31: Requesting people to test products is an example of the. Right
Answer Option D: convenience sampling.

Question Number 32: The process of going back to the respondent to get the answer to
inconsistencies or null responsive is called. Right Answer Option B: backtracking.

Question Number 33: The process of identification and labelling of general responses given
by the respondent is called. Right Answer Option A: coding.

Question Number 34: _______ involves an orderly arrangement of data into a table that is
suitable for statistical analysis and uses an orderly arrangement of rows and columns. Right
Answer Option A: tabulation of data.

Question Number 35: On which type of measurement the coefficient of variance can be
computed? Right Answer Option D: ratio scale.

Question Number 36: Mean can be computed for. Right Answer Option C: ratio, interval,
or ordinal scale data.

Question Number 37: _______ measures the degree of association between two variables
and could be positive, negative, or zero. Right Answer Option C: sample correlation.

Question Number 38: Research is really difficult. The researcher experiences _______.
Right Answer Option C: confusion.

Question Number 39: A verifiable experience in research is also called as _______. Right
Answer Option D: empirical evidence.

Question Number 40: The assignment of numbers to represent properties with specific
definitions is related to. Right Answer Option A: measurement.

Question Number 41: From which of these a research problem could be identified? Right
Answer Option A: daily experiences.

Question Number 42: This is used in agricultural research. Right Answer Option C: Latin
square design.

Question Number 43: In analysis of variance, which of the following test statistics is used to
compare the variance between the samples and the variance within the sample? Right
Answer Option B: F-statistic.
Question Number 44: _______ are written for the purpose of recording the process carried
out in terms of scope and framework of the study, the methodology followed, and instrument
design. Right Answer Option A: basic reports.

Question Number 45: _______ in the 'early' section of the research report should be brief
and indicative of the nature of the project. Right Answer Option B: title.

Question Number 46: The methodology or research section includes all the following
except. Right Answer Option D: glossary of terms.

Question Number 47: In the _______ along with the details of the city, information about
the nature of information sought from the articles as per year is also given. Right Answer
Option B: annotated bibliography.

Question Number 48: Research ethics clearly communicates the purpose of the nature and
the unlikely outcome of the study is advisable to make sure written or unwritten _______.
Right Answer Option C: contract.

Question Number 49: Stability means _______. Right Answer Option C: consistency.

Question Number 50: The editing process is carried out at two levels. The first of these is
the _______ and the second is _______. Right Answer Option D: field editing and central
editing.

You might also like