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POLICY
DIVIDENDS
ARE
I R R E L E VA N T
Group 04
Khadiza Akter Lima 2022331011
a. High-risk companies.
Question: 09
b. Companies that have experienced an unexpected decline in profits.
The P/E shows what the market is willing to pay today for a stock based on its past or
future earnings. A high P/E could mean that a stock's price is high relative to earnings
and possibly overvalued. Conversely, a low P/E might indicate that the current stock
price is low relative to earnings.
a. High-risk companies distribute a low proportion of current earnings and
these companies will have lower price-earnings ratio.
Answer
For the firm that has valuable growth opportunities, the higher the growth
opportunities, the lower the earnings–price ratio and the higher the price–earnings
Answer ratio. Thus the high price–earnings ratios observed for growth companies imply
that investors forecast future earnings growth and are willing to pay more for
them. But they can’t be systematically short-sighted. Growth business depends on
investments made many years in the future. Growth stocks are often higher in
volatility and this puts a lot of pressure on companies to do more to justify their
higher valuation. So shareholders of a “growth stock,” expect that the company
will retain earnings so as to fund growth internally.
PROBLEM
10
Question 10
Little Oil has outstanding 1 million shares with a total market value of
$20 million. The firm is expected to pay $1 million of dividends next
year, and thereafter the amount paid out is expected to grow by 5% a
year in perpetuity. Thus, the expected dividend is $1.05 million in
year 2, $1.105 million in year 3, and so on.
10
a. At what price will the new shares be issued in year 1?
At
t=1, Price per share=
New Share issued = N
V1 = P1 (1,000,000 + N) = $21,000,000
10.c = $1,050,000
So, At t=2, Dividend per share = $1
Old share = 1,000,000
At t=2, Dividend paid to old shareholders= $1 1,000,000
= $1,000,000
PROBLEM
11
DIVIDEND POLICY IS IRRELEVANT:
THE MILLER-MODIGLIANI (MM) HYPOTHESIS
•In 1961 Miller and Modigliani published a proof that dividend policy is irrelevant in a world without
taxes, transaction costs, or other market imperfections.
•For example, a firm wants to increase their total payout by increasing the dividend without changing
their investment and financing policy. The firm can finance the extra dividend by printing some
more shares and sell them.
•The firm can sell more shares while keeping its assets, earnings, investment opportunities, and,
therefore, market value unchanged through transfer of value from the old to the new stockholders.
•The new shareholders get the newly printed shares, each one worth less than before the dividend
change was announced, and the old shareholders bear a capital loss on their shares. The capital loss
borne by the old shareholders just offsets the extra cash dividend they receive.
•Now the old shareholders can also raise cash by selling their shares. So, investors do not need
dividends to earn cash, they will not pay higher prices for the shares of firms with high payouts. So,
the firm ought not to worry about dividend policy.
DIVIDEND POLICY IS IRRELEVANT:
THE MILLER-MODIGLIANI (MM) HYPOTHESIS
Before After
Dividend Dividend
New
shareholders
Total value of firm
Each share
Worth this …and worth
before.. this after
Old
shareholders
• As pointed out in the text, any increase in cash dividend must be offset by a stock
issue if the firm’s investment and borrowing policies are to be held constant.
PROBLEM • The old stockholders can also raise cash by selling their shares. Thus the old
shareholders can cash in either by persuading the management to pay a higher
11
dividend or by selling some of their shares. In either case there will be a transfer
of value from old to new shareholders. The only difference is that in the former
case this transfer is caused by a dilution in the value of each of the firm’s shares,
and in the latter case it is caused by a reduction in the number of shares held by
the old shareholders.
• Because investors do not need dividends to earn cash, they will not pay higher
prices for the shares of firms with high payouts. So, the firm ought not to worry
about dividend policy.
TRANSFER OF VALUE
Shares
Cash
Cash Shares
Firm
Cash
b) Assume that there are no taxes. By how much is the stock price likely
Answer
to fall?
Answer: The stock price will fall by $1.
c) Now assume that all investors pay tax of 30% on dividends and nothing on
capital gains. What is the likely fall in the stock price?
The stock price will fall by the after-tax dividend, i.e., by $1 (1-0.3) = $0.70,
so that the after-tax return on dividends and capital gains are the same. To see
this more clearly, suppose the stock price is 10 before the dividends is paid. If
you buy the stock right before the dividend is paid and sell it right after, your
Answer net profit should be essentially zero since you have held the stock for a small
amount of time. Here are your cash flows:
buy now: -10.00
dividend: + 1.00
tax on dividend: -0.30
sell after dividend: S (to be found)
So, the sum of all these cash flows should be zero:
-10+1-0.30+S=0
S= 9.30
The stock price fell by $10.00-$9.30= $0.70.
d) Suppose, finally, that everything is the same as in part (c), except that security
dealers pay tax on both dividends and capital gains. How would you expect your
answer to (c) to change? Explain.
In this case, there should be no tax effects, i.e., the stock price will fall
by $1. To better see this, suppose you buy the stock (for $10, say) right
before the dividend is paid, and sell it right after the dividend is paid.
Answer Because you hold the stock for a small amount of time (a second, say),
your net profit should be zero. You pay $10 for the stock; you receive
$1 as a dividend which is taxed at 30%; then you sell it for S (To be
found) and pay taxes of 30%*(S-10) on your capital gains (which are
going to be negative here).
So, your net profit is,
-10+ (1-0.30) +S-0.30 (S-10) =0
Solving for S, we find S=9. So, the change in S is $10-$9=$1
PROBLEM
20
Question 20: Firms A and B are both unlevered. The shares of both
companies are currently trading at $100, and both offer an annual pre-tax
return of 10%. In the case of firm A, the return is entirely in the form of a
dividend yield (i.e., the company pays a regular annual dividend of $10 a
share). In the case of firm B, the return comes entirely as capital gain (the
shares appreciate by 10% a year). Suppose that an investor buys a share
of each firm today, and plans to sell them in 10 years. Suppose that
dividends and capital gains are both taxed at 30%.
a. What is the annual after-tax yield (rate of return) on firm A’s
share over the 10-year period?
Every year, the investor receives $10, which is taxed at 30%. So,
after taxes, the investor receives $7 each year. At the end of year
10, the investor will sell his share of firm A for $100, and so will
not have any capital gain. His annual after-tax return on his $100,
is therefore 7/100=7%
b. What is the annual after-tax yield (rate of return) on firm B’s share
over the 10-year period?
The investor will not receive any money until year 10, at which point
he will sell his share of firm B for 100( = 259.37. The capital gains of
259.37-100 = 159.37 will then be taxed at 30%. Therefore, the annual
after-tax rate of return r satisfies
r = 7.781%
THANK
YOU