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BCQs

By: Prof, Dr. Nazim Jat


1. The hormone involved in sodium regulation in
body as.
A. Adrenaline
B. Noradrenaline
C. Aldosterone
D. Renin
E. Cortisol
2. The clinical presentation of Hyponatremia is.
A. Diarrhea
B. vomiting
C. Drowsiness
D. Sweating
E. cramps
3. The known side effect as “Hyponatremia”of which
drug.
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Sulfonamides
C. Begunides
D. Cephalosporins
E. ACE inhibitors
4.Fluid of choice for patient with Hypokalemia due
to diarrhea as.
A. Ringerlactate
B. 0.45%Nsaline
C. 5%Dextrose water
D. 10%Dextrose water
E. 25%Dextrose
5.The congenital condition that can cause
significant Hypokalemia in infants as.
A. Pyloric stenosis
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Hirschsprung disease
D. Volvulus
E. Oesophagotracheal fistula
6. Young male with abdominal pain and vomiting
due to pancreatitis,renal colic due to stone
disease and mania likely electrolyte abnormality.
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
E. Hypocalcemia
7. Calcium homeostasis regulated by hormone
released from parafollicular C cells as.

A. Cortisol
B. Androgens
C. Adrenaline
D. Calcitonin
E. Paratharmone
8. 29 years old female post total thyroidectomy
developed tetany on first postoperative day,likely
electrolyte abnormality.
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypermagnesima
D. Hypophostemia
E. Hypernatemia
9. In primary Hyperparathyroidism the
characteristic electrolyte abnormality as.

A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypercalcemia,Hypophosphatemia
D. Hypocalciuria
E. Hyperkalemia
10.Nutrition when given via intravenous route
called.
 
A. Enteral nutrition
B. parentral nutrition
C. Oral nutrition
D. Venous nutrition
E. nasogastric feeding
11.Parenteral nutrition can give via all of the
following veins except.
 
A. Radial vein
B. brachial vein
C. Cephalic vein
D. Subclavian vein
E. femoral vein
12.If nutrition is given through peripheral
channels is called.

A. Total parenteral nutrition


B. Central parenteral nutrition
C. Enteral nutrition
D. Peripheral parenteral nutrition
E. intravenous route
13.Which of the following is preferable in conscious
healthy person for nutrition?

A. Enteral nutrition
B. Parenteral nutrition
C. Oral route
D. northing per oral
E. Intra arterial rroute
14.Which of following is preferable in unconscious
patient with normally functioning gut?

A. Oral route for nutrition


B. Nasogastric
C. orogastric tube
D. Central parenteral route
E. paraentral nutrition
15. All the Following are complications of passing
central line for nutrition except.
A. Haemothorax
B. Pneumothorax
C. Septicemia
D. Local infection
E. Air embolism
16. In parenteral nutrition food is given in its.

A. a)Actual form and shape


B. b)Predigested form
C. c)Digested form
D. d)Absorbed form
E. e)semidigested form
 17 .Proteins are given intravenously in form of
 
A. a)Long chain proteins
B. b)Short chain proteins
C. c)Semi propteins
D. d)Amino acids
E. e)dipeptides
18. Which one of following is indication of TPN
 
A. a)Nil Per Oral for > 7 days
B. b)Patient with Diarrhea
C. c)Patient in dehydration
D. d)Terminally ill patient
E. e)post hernioplasty
19. Which of the following is contraindication for TPN?
 
a) Patient with normal gut functions
b) Face injuries
c) NPO >7days
d) Preoperative stabilization in patients with
malignancy
e) chronic malnourishment
20. Regarding intussusception.

A. It is the commonest cause of intestinal obstruction in


neonates
B. Usually occurs in the jejunum
C. The lead point may be a Peyer's patch or Meckel's
diverticulum
D. Usually presents with few clinical signs
E. Has a characteristic 'double bubble' appearance on
ultrasound
21. Which of the following is more prone to develop
surgical site infection?
A. Normal healthy person
B. Patient on steroid therapy
C. Nutritionally balanced patient
D. Patient is poor
E. Patient is rich.
22. Surgical site inscision if gets hyperemic with
serosanguinous discharge then labeled as:
A. Grade I wound infection
B. Grade II wound infection
C. Grade III wound infection
D. Grade IV wound infection
E. No wound infection
23. Surgical inscision present with redness, swelling and
pus discharge. What will be grading of infection.?
A. Grade I
B. Grade II
C. Grade III
D. Grade IV
E. Grade V
24.An immuno comprised person due to malignancy
operated for some emergency procedure. What
following condition he is prone develop?
A. High grade fever
B. Nausea/Vomiting
C. Wound infection
D. Diarrhea
E. Malaria
25. Local complication of wound infection is following
A. Fever
B. Tachycardia/Tachepnea
C. Leucocytosis
D. Hypotension
E. Cellulitis
26. A 3 years old child with dry mucous membrane,
rapid pulse and urine output < 30 ml/hr likely type of
shock.
A. Cardiogenic
B. Hypovolemic
C. Anaphylatic
D. Septic
E. Obstructive
27. Clinical parameters assessed for shock include all
except
A. Pulse
B. Blood pressure
C. Urine output
D. Hydration status
E. Colour of skin
28. A 35 Year old male landing up in Emergency after a
stab injury of chest suspected <15 % volume loss
classified as.
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. No shock
29. Young type II diabetic patient came in Emergency
with fever, lower blood pressure (90/60 mmHg) and
altered conscious level, WBC count found on lab as
30,000 / ul, likely type of shock.
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive
D. Obstructive
E. Haemorrhagic
30. 27 years old male with Right forearm glass cut injury
is .
A. Revealed Haemorrhage
B. Concealed Haemorrhage
C. Secondary haemorrhage
D. Reactionary Haemorrhage
E. Primary Haemorrhage
31. 65 years old male known case of Hypertension
developed chest pain and severe shortness of breath
with raised JVP likely having
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Obstructive shock
D. Distributive shock
E. Haemorrhagic shock
32. A 50 years old female post thyroidectomy in evening
of operated day developed revealed haemorrhage and
swelling over wound side in neck as,
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Patient malingering
E. None of the above
33. The most common hernia in females is:
A. Femoral hernia.
B. Direct inguinal hernia.
C. Indirect inguinal hernia.
D. Obturator hernia.
E. Umbilical hernia.
34. Which of the following statements concerning the
abdominal wall layers are correct?
A. Scarpa's fascia affords little strength in wound closure.
B. The internal abdominal oblique muscles have fibers that
continue into the scrotum as cremasteric muscles.
C. The transversalis fascia is the most important layer of the
abdominal wall in preventing hernias.
D. The lymphatics of the abdominal wall drain into the
ipsilateral axillary lymph nodes above the umbilicus and into
the ipsilateral superficial inguinal lymph nodes below the
umbilicus.
E. None of the above
35. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning
the diagnosis and management of epigastric hernias?
A. large peritoneal sac containing abdominal viscera is common
B. At the time of surgical repair, a careful search for other
defects should be performed
C. Recurrent epigastric hernias after simple closure is
uncommon
D. Patients with symptoms of a painful midline abdominal
mass frequently will contain incarcerated small bowel
E. None of the above
36. Chest X ray to see lung disease which exposure
should be the best.
A. AP view
B. PA view
C. Both views
D. Lateral view
E. Decubetus view
37. To see abnormality of the heart, which view is the
best?
A. PA view
B. AP view
C. Lateral view
D. Oblique view
E. Sky view.
38.What C-spine views are used to rule out bony injury?
A. PA view
B. AP view
C. AP lateral view with open mouth odontoid view
D. Oblique view
E. Dorsal view
39. What are the signs which favour small bowel
obstruction v/s paralytic ileus. except!
A. Cut off sign
B. Proximal dilatation
C. Distal bowel collapse
D. Equal dilatation of all small bowel
E. Conventis running through the all lumen.
40. What is the significance of an air fluid level?
A. Show the dilatation of the bowel with separation of
fluid and gas
B. Show the narrowing of the bowel without fluid and gas
C. Show the complete collapse of the bowel
D. No clinical significance
E. Not important in clinical practise
41. Following are the suction drains
A. Corogatet Rubber Tubing
B. Urinary Catheter
C. Radivac Drains
D. Penrose Drain
E. NG Tube
42. Complications of Drains
A. Increases the chance of infection
B. Decreases the chance of infection
C. Can produce Air emboli
D. Can produce fat embolism
E. No chance of hernia
43. T tube
A. Used for decompressing the urinary bladder
B. Used for decompressing the stomach
C. Used for decompressing the common bile duct
D. Used for general drainage of abdominal cavity
following surgery
E. Used for peritoneal lavage.
44. Chest Tube
A. Used for decompressing the hydrocephalus
B. Used for general drainage of abdominal cavity
C. Used for draining the pleural cavity
D. Should always be placed above the level of body of the
patient
E. It can be attached to simple drainage bag.
45. Following splenictomy
A. Drain should be put in left ileac fosa
B. Drain should be placed on left sub phrenic space
C. Drain induced the formation of haematoma
D. Drain should be put in lower abdomen cavity
E. Drain increases the chances of sub phrenic flection
46. Under water seal drain
A. Water doesn’t prevent air from re entering the tube
B. It prevents air and fluid from re entering in the body
C. High level prevents fluid from re entering back
D. It also promote closure of the dead space
E. They are not seal it either ends
47. Proline
A. It is not absorbable suture
B. It is delay absorbable suture
C. It is absorbable suture
D. It is made up of sheep intestine
E. It is also called silk.
48. Corrugated Drain
A. It is used in tension pneumothorax
B. It drains large volume of fluid
C. It is also called Nelton drain
D. They are sealed at either ends
E. It is a open Drain
49. Ultrasound
A. It is not operator depending procedure.
B. It is very painful procedure
C. It performs very good results when there is a gas
between the transducer and organ of interest.
D. Is done using the transducer on the surface of the skin
E. It is also called X-ray computed tomography.
50. Non absorbable sutures are
A. Plain Catgut
B. Chromic catgut
C. Vicryl
D. Silk
E. Dexon
(Answers)
1 (C) 13 (C) 25 (E) 37 (B) 49 (D)
2 (C) 14 (C) 26 (B) 38 (C) 50 (D)
3 (A) 15 (C) 27 (E) 39 (D)
4 (A) 16 (D) 28 (E) 40 (A)
5 (A) 17 (D) 29 (C) 41 (C)
6 (B) 18 (A) 30 (A) 42 (A)
7 (D) 19 (A) 31 (B) 43 (C)
8 (B) 20 (C) 32 (B) 44 (C)
9 (A) 21 (B) 33 (B) 45 (D)
10 (B) 22 (E) 34 (D) 46 (B)
11 (A) 23 (C) 35 (B) 47 (A)
12 (D) 24 (C) 36 (B) 48 (E)

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