QUESTION 8:

1. One of the following suturing techniques is commonly advisable for cosmetics

purpose?
A. Continuous suturing
B. Interrupted suturing
C. Purse string suturing
D. Subcuticular suturing
2. Is the retention of CO2 in the blood when PaCO2>45mmHg at rest
A. Apnea
B. hypercapnia
C. hypoxemia
D. hyperoxygenemia
3. Which one of the following true about urine volume <400ml/24hr and
<100ml/24hrs respectively?
A. Oliguria and Anuria
B. Anuria and oliguria
C. Polyurea and Anuria
D. Oliogohydramnios and oliguria
4. The nurse draws 2ml of acetaminophen syrup 120mg/5ml in to an oral dosing cup
the dose containing ______mg.
A. 100mg
B. 50mg
C. 240mg
D. 48mg
5. The cardinal sign of infection
A. Pulse
B. Hypothermia
C. Raised BP
D. Fever
6. Hormone secreted by islets of langerhans
A. Progesterone
B. Insulin
C. Testosterone
D. Hemoglobin
7. Early rupture of membrane can leads to
A. APH
B. Infection and fetal distress
C. Bleeding and cord prolapsed

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 D. Cord prolapse
8. The mucosal ulceration lesion of stomach or duodenum
A. PUD
B. CHF
C. Gastritis
D. Osteomyelitis
9. Component of chain of infection includes, except
A. Medication
B. Reservoir and susceptible host
C. Portal of entry and portal of exit
D. Infectious agent
10. Termination of pregnancy before 28wks of gestation is called _______
A. Still birth
B. Live birth
C. Abortion
D. Newborn
11. One is contraindication of cleansing enema
A. Hemorrhoid
B. Rectal infection
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Myocardial infarction
12. Which one of the following administering intravenous
A. B. penciline
B. P. penciline
C. Tetanus toxoid
D. Ceftriaxone
13. Which of the following mismatched
A. Fungus ------candidiasis
B. Heliments -------- hookworms
C. Virus ----- hepatitis
D. Virus ------ tuberculosis
14. ________ is number of delivery
A. Gravida
B. Para
C. Multipara
D. All
15. ________ may result when the patient or resident ignore the urge to defecate
A. Constipation
B. Diarrhea
C. Incontinence

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 D. Hemorrhoids
16. Which one is transmitted through air born
A. Tetanus
B. Measles
C. Typhoid
D. Typhus
17. While we want to remove NG tube? What we instruct the patient
A. To take and hold deep breathing
B. To continue inhale and exhale
C. To exhale and continue breathing
D. To exhale
18. What is the normal appearance of surgical wound
A. Red and thick skin
B. Serous discharge
C. Purulent discharge
D. Warm and tender
19. If the fetal heart beat is 174bt/min during pregnancy what you are going to do
A. Recording
B. Tell to the physician
C. Tell for the mother as it is normal
D. Accompany the mother to her home
20. Tracheostomy care suction time is
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 10 -15 minutes
C. 10 – 15 second
D. 3-5 second
21. Which of the following are highly contagious
A. TB
B. Hepatitis
C. HIV
D. Epilepsy
22. Which of the following are not chronic complications of diabetes mellitus
A. Retinopathy
B. Neuropathy
C. DKA
D. Renal failure
23. Which vitamins are not stored in the liver
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C

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 D. Vitamin D
24. All of the following are the main reason for providing primary health care, except
A. Promotion
B. Disease prevention
C. Rehabilitation
D. Disease progression
25. Hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by sharp raise in BP, edema and
protienuria is called ______
A. Pre-eclampsia
B. Eclampsia
C. Gestational DM
D. None
26. The surest sign of pregnancy
A. HCG +ve in urine
B. Uterine size increase
C. Absence of menses
D. Fetal heart beat positive by Ultrasonograpy
27. The surest sign of true labor
A. Regular uterine contraction
B. Show
C. Cervical dilatation and effacement
D. All
28. One is not nursing intervention during 1st stage of labor
A. Great the mother
B. Check show and the presence of uterine contraction
C. Ask the mother about onset of contraction
D. Emotional support
29. One is not an indication of caesarian section (C/S)
A. CPD
B. Abruption placenta
C. Mal-presentation
D. IUFD
30. The most common type of shock is
A. Septic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
31. The most common type of atypical pneumonia is
A. PCP
B. Haemophilus influenza

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 C. Mycoplasma pneumonia
D. Klebsiella pneumonia
32. All can be considered modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disorder but
not one
A. Obesity
B. Stress
C. Cigarette smoking
D. Race
E. None
33. One is not clinical feature of left sided heart failure
A. Dyspnea
B. Orthopnea
C. Cough
D. Edema
E. None
34. The most common type of anemia in pregnant mother is
A. Fe – deficiency
B. Megaloblastic
C. Sickle cell
D. Aplastic anemia
35. Severe nausea and repeated vomiting that precludes oral intake and leads to
DHN and ketoacidosis during pregnancy is called ______
A. Pre-eclampsia
B. Eclampsia
C. Hyper emesis gravidrum
D. Varicose veins
36. Which one of the following is the sign& symptoms of foreign body in the eye
A. Redness of the eye
B. Burning sensation
C. Overproduction of tears
D. Swelling
E. All
37. According to the current Ethiopia HIV guidelines ARV treatment is indicated
for HIV positive pregnant women whose CD4 count is
A. 200 and below
B. 250 and below
C. 350 and below
D. 400 and below
38. An HIV infected person with unexplained chronic diarrhea lasting for more
than one month is staged as

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 A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. stage 4
39. which one of the following ARV drugs is not preferred during the 1st weeks of
pregnancy
A. AZT
B. NVP
C. 3TC
D. EFV
40. Which one of the following is not complication of septic wound
A. Fast wound healing
B. Scar
C. Tetanus
D. Contracture
E. Decayance
41. A client with type 1 DM asks the nurse about taking an oral hypoglycemic agent.
The nurse explained that those medications are only effective if the client;
A. Prefers to take insulin orally
B. Has type 2 diabetes
C. Has type 1 diabetes
D. Is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes
42. An accident has just occurred before doing anything?
A. Take any definitive action
B. Get an assistant/call for a help
C. Observe the situation and make initial assessment
D. Approach the victim
43. The commonest artery to measure blood pressure is __________ and to measure
pulse is __________.
A. Poplitial artery and radial artery
B. Radial and Poplitial artery
C. Brachial and radial artery
D. Carotid and radial artery
44. Hoarseness or complete loss of voice and severe cough is a manifestation of
A. Pharyngitis
B. Laryngitis
C. Tonsillitis
D. Sinusitis
45. It is intermittent reversible obstructive airway disease in which the trachea and
bronchi respond in a hyperactive way to certain stimuli.

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 A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bronchiectatis
D. Chronic bronchitis
46. It is a presence of productive cough that lasts 3 months a year for two consecutive
years in the absence of major lung diseases.
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bronchiectatis
D. Chronic bronchitis
47. It is a localized necrotic lesion of the lung parenchyma containing purulent
material. The lesion collapses and forms a cavity.
A. Bronchiectatis
B. pneumonia
C. lung abscess
D. Atelectasis
48. An inflammation of external ear canal
A. Otitis external
B. Otitis media
C. Mastoiditis
D. Chronic otitis media
49. Ear inflammation with tenderness around the ear canal
A. Otitis external
B. Acute otitis media
C. Mastoiditis
D. Chronic otitis media
50. Procedure in which the peritoneal cavity puncture needle to sample peritoneal fluid
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Paracentesis
C. Phlebotomy
D. Thoracentesis
51. Procedure in which the pleural cavity puncture needle to sample pleural fluid
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Paracentesis
C. Phlebotomy
D. Thoracentesis
52. Insertion of needle into lumbar subarachnoid space to withdraw Cerebro spinal
fluid.
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Vein cut down

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 C. Vein puncture
D. Thoracentesis
53. The normal saturation level of oxygen in the artery
A. SpO2 = 90%-95%
B. SpO2 = 85%-90%
C. SpO2 = 95%-100%
D. SpO2 = 60%-90%
54. Massive hemorrhage (blood loss exceeds 25-30% of blood volume) is an indication
of
A. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Whole blood
C. Packed RBC
D. Human albumin
55. True about contaminated wound
A. A wound made under a sterile condition
B. Result of accident/injury
C. No organisms present in the wound
D. A wound showing clinical sign of infection
56. The partial or complete separation of the wound edges and the layers below the
skin.
A. Dehiscence
B. Evisceration
C. Wound healing
D. Open wound
57. Occurs when the client’s viscera protrude through the disrupted wound.
A. Dehiscence
B. Evisceration
C. Wound healing
D. Open wound
58. True about Intentional wounds
A. A wound made under a sterile condition
B. A wound made under unsterile condition
C. the result of trauma or an accident
D. all
59. Seen in wounds with extensive tissue loss and wounds in which the edges cannot
be approximated.
A. Primary intention healing
B. Secondary intention healing
C. Tertiary intention healing
D. All

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60. Highly pathologic infectious wastes dispose on which color of waste receiver
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Black
D. All
E. None
61. One of the following is an area designed the parking of stretcher with patient
awaiting surgery which?
A. Dressing room
B. Holding area
C. Storage area
D. Operating suits
62. One of the following OR team member is unsterile which?
A. Surgeon
B. Circulatory nurse
C. Assistance to the surgeon
D. Scrub nurse
63. From all listed preoperative nursing interventions one should be done first which?
A. Moving ambulation
B. Taking informed consent
C. Deep breathing and coughing exercise
D. Preparing the skin
64. A Lochia which is red in color lasts 1-4 days consists of blood Chorion deciduas
amniotic fluid vernix and Meconium
A. Lochia rubra
B. Lochia serosa
C. Lochia alba
D. Shock
65. A new implant that has 1 rod and effective for 3 years
A. Norplant
B. Implanon
C. Jadelle
D. Sinoplant
66. Is defined as the clarity or sharpness of vision, which is the ability of the eye to see
and distinguish fine details
A. Visual field
B. Weber test
C. Visual acuity
D. Count finger
67. Airborne viral communicable disease which is prevented by routine immunization

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 A. Common cold, influenza, measles
B. Measles, pertusis, meningitis
C. Measles, whooping cough, TB
D. Poliomyelitis, measles
68. Which one is false about DM?
A. Type 1 DM is 1st controlled by weight reduction
B. Type 2 DM can be treated by oral hypoglycemic agents
C. Type 2 DM is 1st controlled by weight loss
D. Type 2 DM can be treated with diet and exercise
69. The most common cause of under 5 age death in Ethiopia is
A. Diarrheal disease
B. Pneumonia
C. AIDS
D. Malnutrition
70. The correct skin test for TB patients considered as negative test
A. 0-4 mm with 8hrs
B. 0-5 mm with 8hrs
C. 0-6 mm with 8hrs
D. 0-7 mm with 8hrs
71. The normal value of PCO2 is
A. 20-40
B. 22-26
C. 15-35
D. 35-45 (38-42)
72. The normal value of HCO3 is
A. 20-40
B. 22-26
C. 15-35
D. 35-45
73. The commonest period of HIV transmission from mother to child is during
A. Prepartum
B. Postpartum
C. Intrapartum
D. None
74. Tetracycline is not usually recommended for children <8 years because
A. It has effect on the bone
B. Its effect is on the sodium concentration
C. Its effects on the tooth
D. A&B
E. All

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75. Vision can be tested by
A. Visual acuity
B. Visual field
C. Color vision
D. All
76. Symptoms which is felt by patient is known as
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Subjective &objective
D. All
77. The 1st step in all procedure is
A. Hand washing
B. Assemble equipment
C. Great the patient
D. Assess the situation
78. Which of the following disease results blindness
A. Leishmaniasis
B. Onchocerciasis
C. Schistosomiasis
D. Hydatid disease
79. If the pulse is irregular it should be counted for
A. Full minute
B. 1 full minute
C. Half minute
D. 15 second
80. A known renal or heart case patient restricted to eat
A. Salty food
B. Salt free food
C. Carbohydrate food
D. None
81. The correct temperature to store the vaccine in the refrigerator at health care level
is
A. 0oc – 8oc
B. 0oc - 4oc
C. 2oc – 8oc
D. Below 0oc
82. A device inserted to the uterus and prevents pregnancy
A. Loop/IUCD
B. Condom
C. Diaphragm

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 D. A&C
83. The commonest cause of diarrhea in children’s <2years is
A. Virus
B. Malabsorption
C. Food intolerance
D. Bacteria
84. The birth weight of a child is triple at the age of
A. 3 month
B. 6 month
C. 8 month
D. 1 year
85. The primary complication of catheterization is
A. Incontinence
B. Paralysis
C. Ascending infection
D. Injury to the rectum
86. The presence of stone in the urinary system is
A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Urolithiasis
C. Cholecystitis
D. Cholilithiasis
87. The presence of stone in the gall bladder is
A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Urolithiasis
C. Cholecystitis
D. Cholilithiasis
88. Which of the following routes of drug administration is most dangerous
A. IV
B. SC
C. IM
D. ID
89. Drug used for active management of third stage of labor (AMTSL)
A. Oxytoxin
B. Ergometrin
C. Misoprostole
D. all
90. Before administration of maintenance dose of mgso4 which condition should be
checked
A. Respiratory rate
B. Patellar reflexes

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 C. Urine output
D. All
91. Newborn respiratory rate is
A. Slower than adults
B. Faster than adults
C. The same as adults
D. All
92. Which is not cause of PPH
A. Vaginal spasm
B. Retained placenta
C. Laceration/tear
D. Uterine atony
93. Not appendicial sign
A. Dumphys sign
B. Murphy’s sign
C. Psoas sign
D. Bartomers sign
94. The most common cause of large bowel obstruction is
A. Adhesion
B. Volvulus
C. Intussusceptions
D. Hernia
95. The most common cause of bowel obstruction in children
A. Adhesion
B. Volvulus
C. Intussusceptions
D. Hernia
96. The most common cause of small bowel obstruction
A. Adhesion
B. Volvulus
C. Intussusceptions
D. Hernia
97. Which drug used for diagnostic purpose
A. Barium
B. TTC
C. Dopamine
D. None
98. A type of procedure performed to withdraw CSF between 4th and 5th lumbar
vertebra is ________
A. Spinal taping

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 B. Bone marrow aspiration
C. Liver biopsy
D. None
99. Mantoux test or TAT test is given
A. IM
B. SC
C. ID
D. IV
100. The most common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis among diabetic patient in the
community is
A. Infection
B. Poorly absorbed blood glucose level
C. Ineffective insulin
D. none

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ANSWER FOR QUESTION 8:
1. D 21. B 41. B 61. D 81. A

2. B 22. C 42. C 62. B 82. C

3. A 23. D 43. C 63. B 83. A

4. D 24. D 44. B 64. A 84. D

5. D 25. A 45. B 65. B 85. C

6. B 26. D 46. D 66. C 86. B

7. B 27. D 47. D 67. D 87. D

8. A 28. C 48. A 68. A 88. A

9. A 29. D 49. C 69. D 89. D

10. C 30. C 50. B 70. A 90. D

11. A 31. C 51. D 71. D 91. B

12. D 32. D 52. A 72. B 92. A

13. D 33. D 53. C 73. C 93. B

14. B 34. A 54. B 74. C 94. B

15. B 35. C 55. A 75. D 95. C

16. B 36. E 56. A 76. A 96. A

17. A 37. C 57. B 77. C 97. A

18. A 38. C 58. A 78. B 98. A

19. B 39. D 59. B 79. B 99. C

20. C 40. A 60. B 80. B 100. B

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