Law Enforcement

Administration
Ariel C. Manlusoc
Licensed Criminologist
 Law Enfrocement Organization
 Law Enforcement Administration
1. The Greek word which means “government of a city”
or “civil organization and state”, which is claimed as
the origin of the word police refers to:
A. Politia C. Policia
B. Politeia D. Polis
Polis = a Greek word which means “city-state” or a system
of organized civil enforcement to preserve life, liberty,
property, food sources, community health and the
enforcement of laws.
Policer =, from Old French policie, civil organization, from
Late Latin politia, from Latin, the State, from Greek
politeia, from polites, citizen, from polis, city;)
2. The idea of policing originated from military bodies
as guardians of peace in ancient Rome known as:
A. Praetorian guards C. Medjays
B. Soldati D. Polis

POLICE = The governmental department charged

with the regulation and control of the affairs of a
community, now chiefly the department
established to maintain order, enforce the law, and
prevent and detect crime. (French word )
Officer de la paix = a French term which claimed
to be the origin of the term police officer:
3. This is a system of policing that emerged during the
Anglo-Saxon period. Under this system, all male
residents were required to guard the town to preserve
peace and protect the lives and properties of the
people:
A. Tun policing C. Watch and Ward
B. Hue and cry D. Frankpledge system

Frankpledge System = a system of policing

whereby a group of ten neighboring male
residents over twelve years of age were required
to guard the town to preserve peace and protect
the lives and properties of the people.
4. This system of apprehending suspects whereby the
complaint goes to the middle of the community and
shout to call all male residents to assemble and arrest
the suspect is known as:
A. Trial by ordealC. Tun policing
B. Hue and cry D. Keeper’s of the peace
 Keeper’s of the peace = is the proclamation issued
by king Richard of England sometime in 1195 that
required the appointment of knights to keep the
King’s peace by standing as guards on bridges
and gates while checking the people entering and
leaving the cities and towns?
 Trial by Ordeal = an ancient method of determining
the guilt or innocence of a suspect by subject the
suspect to a test or a trial. (Using this procedure it
should be said that the citizen police were able to
secure 100% convictions)
 5. The document sealed by King John of England that
became law upon the demand of the knights of the
round table which stated that no freeman shall be
imprisoned except by legal judgment, no person
shall be tried of murder unless there is proof of the
body of the of the victim and that there shall be a
national and local government and legislation refers
to:
 A. Magna Carta C. Statute of Winchester
B. Leges Henrici D. Statute of 1295
 10. The law enacted that classified offenses against the
King and the individuals, made policemen public
official, empowered the police and the citizens to
conduct arrest and assigned grand jury to inquire on
the facts of the law refers to:
A. Leges Henrici C. Statute of Winchester
B. Magna Carta D. Statute of 1295
Statute of 1295 = the law that mark the beginning of
the curfew hours, which demanded the closing of
the gates of London during sundown. The law that
introduced warrantless or citizen’s arrest was:
Statute of Winchester = The law that introduced the
policing system of watch and ward was:
11. The policing system during the Norman period which is
claimed as the forerunner of the word Sheriff, whereby
England was divided into fifty military districts, each
headed by a ruler in order to enhance policing was:
A. Frankpledge system C. Tun policing
B. Shire reeve system D. Magna Carta
Shire-reeve system = is the policing system during the
Norman period when England was divided into fifty-five
(55) military areas, each headed by a ruler called the Rieve.
“Constabuli” or “The Keeper of the Horse” = (2)
constabuli were appointed to each village to aid the Rieve
in his duties. It becomes the source of the word Constable.
Justice of the Peace (about 1361) = this is in response
to a study made on the works of the Shire-rieves or
Sheriffs which reveals to be inefficient in law
enforcement
12. Who passed an act in 1663 that provided for the
employment of night watchmen or bellmen to be on
duty from sunset to sunrise?
A. King John of England
B. King Charles II of England
C. King Louis XIV of France
D. King Hammurabi
13. The forerunner of the circuit trial judge was:
A. Travelling judge C. Justice of the peace
B. Courts of the Star-chamber D. Grand jury
“Grand Jury” (a body of men) = 1215, a system which
make inquisition into the facts of a crime and eliminate
the Anglo-Saxon trial or “trial by ordeal system”.
Courts of the Star-Chamber (1487) = a special court
designed to try offenders against the state. The room
set-up is formed in a shape of a star and judges were
given great powers such as the power to force
testimony from a defendant leading to a great abuse of
power or brutality on the part of the judges.
14. The term that is used to call the group of men organized by
Hendy Fielding and named by his brother John Fielding,
tasked to catch thieves was:
A. Praetorian guards C. Bow Street Runners
B. Scotland yard D. Royal Guard
15. The one regarded as the Father of Modern Policing System
for contributing his brilliant concepts in policing which are
still being used to day and paving the way for the creating of
one of the most efficient police organization in the world
was “Bobbies= the acclaimed first formally organized
modern police force ”:
 A. Henry Fielding C. Stephen Austin
B. Sir Robert Peel D. Allan Pinkerton
Stephen Austin = The Founder of the Texas Ranger, also
known as the “Father of Texas”
16. The following are the policing principles used in the
administration of the London Metropolitan Police, except:
 A. Stable and effective civil police under government control
 B. Absence of crime is the best proof of efficiency
 C. Past distribution of crime news to the police is essential
 D. Proper distribution of personnel according to shift
 E. None of them 

17. The concept of policing introduced by the father of modern

policing system are the following, except:
A. The police should be organized along military lines
 B. The police should be placed under screening and training
 C. The police should be hired on probationary basis
 D. The police should be developed by time and by area
 E. None of them
18. The following are the law enforcement principles enunciated
by the Father of Modern Policing system, except:
A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of the police
B. The police m1t have full respect of the citizenry
C. The police are the public and the public are the police
D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by final judgment
E. None of them
19. The contributions of the French in policing are the following,
except:
 A. Use of handcuff
 B. Assigning house numbers
 C. Installing street lights
 D. Use of police ambulance
 E. Use of warrant card and ID signifying the authority to arrest
20. This law established the first organized police force
in England?
a. Metropolital Police Law of 1829
b. Metropolitan Police Act of 1829
c. Metropolitan Police Act of 1839
d. Metropolitan Police Law of 1839
21. What is the name of the acclaimed first formally
organized modern police force in the world with
its first Commissioner Charles Rowan ?
 A. Interpol C. Scotland Yard
 B. New York Police District D. Texas rangers
22. The first full time organized police force in United
States was formed in:
A. New York City C. Los Angeles
B. Boston D. Philadelphia
23. The police force which is originally created in
response to colonization refers to:
A. Texas Ranger C. Los Angeles Police District
B. New York Police District D. Scotland Yard
24. The regular German police force is termed as:
 A. Ordnungspolizei C. Police Nationale
 B. Surete Nationale D. Red Gestapo
25. These are police employ to protect religious areas
and parishes in the 16th century:
a. The Parochial Police c. Military Police
b. The merchant police d. Petermen
The Merchant Police (1500) = Merchants began
employing persons to protect their property, banks
employ guards and night watchmen were hired to
watch business establishments and private detectives
were employed to locate and identify stolen property.
Military Police (1655) = under Oliver Cromwell, the
England and Wales were divided into 12 military
districts as “Provost Marshall” and to act as judges.
26. It is the theory of police service which maintains that
police officers are servants of higher authorities.
This theory prevails in the continental countries like
France, Italy and Spain.
A. Continental c. Modern police service
B. Old police service d. Home rule
Home Rule = the theory of police service which states
that police officers are servants of the community or
the people. This theory prevails in England and United
States. It is also the police service which prevails in
country with decentralized form of government. This
is likewise the police service theory that should
prevail in the Philippines based on the existing laws,
concepts and principles.
27. It is the principle of police service which states that the
yardstick of police proficiency relies on the number of
arrest made.
A. Old police service c. modern police service
B. Deviance control d. home rule
Modern police service = states that the yardstick of police
proficiency relies on the absence of crime.
Deviance Control = is the modern police function which
primarily involves the mission to reinforce community
values and laws. This was adopted by Germany, China
and Japan.
Civil order control is not organizationally separated from deviance
control but is performed by regular street police in the country of
England and United States.
28. The body of rural police officers organized in each town
by the Royal Decree of January 8, 1836, composed of 5%
of the able bodied male inhabitants of each province,
enlisted in such police organization for 3 years refers to:
A. Guardrilleros C. Guardia Civil
B. Carabineros de Seguridad Publico D. Kempetai
Carabineros De Seguridad Publica = Organized in
1712 for the purpose of carrying the regulations of the
Department of State. This was armed and considered as
the mounted police who later discharged the duties of a
port, harbor and river police. It was later given special
commission by Royal Decree of December 20, 1842 and
it was called – Cuerco De Seguridad Publica ( Corps of
Crabbiness for Public Security).
 Gurdia Civil = Created by Royal decree on
February 12, 1852, to partially relieve the Spanish
peninsula troops of their works in policing towns.
It is consisted of a body of Filipino policemen
organized originally in each of the provincial
capital of the province of Luzon under the
Alcalde Mayor.)
29. The law that created the first insular constabulary in
the Philippines was:
A. Act No. 255 C. Act No. 175
B. Act No. 70 D. E.O. 389

Sec. 1, Act 255 of October 3, 1901 = renamed the

Insular Constabulary to Philippine Constabulary (a
national police institution for preserving peace,
keeping order and enforcing the law.
Act No 70 = (On January 9, 1901) The Metropolitan
Police Force of Manila was organized:
E.O. 389 = Ordered that the PC be one of the four
services of the AFP, dated December 23, 1940.
30. He was the first Filipino Chief of the Philippine
Constabulary, to whom the national headquarters
of the PNP was named:
A. Antonio Torres C. Rafael Crame
B. Henry Allen D. Emilio Aguinaldo
e. Cesar Nazareno
Henry Allen =the first Chief of the Philippine
Constabulary
Antonio Torres =The first Filipino Chief of the Manila
Police Department
Cesar Nazareno = the first Director General of the PNP.
31. The Integration Act of 1975, dated August 8, 1975,
established the Integrated National Police (INP)
composed of the PC as the nucleus and the Integrated
local police forces as components, under the Ministry
of National Defense.
a.P.D. 765 b. E.O.1040 c. E.O.1012 d. R.A. 4864
E.O. 1012 =transferred to the city and municipal
government the operational supervision and direction
over the INP units assigned within their locality.
E.O. 1040 = Transferred the Admin. Control and
Supervision of the INP from the ministry of National
Defense to the National Police Commission
32. The law which created the POLCOM as a
supervisory agency to oversee the training and
professionalization of the local police under the
Officer of the President. Otherwise known as the
Police Professionalization act of 1966, dated
September 8, 1966. It was later renamed as the
National Police Commission.
a.R.A.4864 b.R.A.157 c.Act. No181 d.R.A. 6506
Act No. 181 =created the Division of Investigation(DI)
of the Department of Justice dated November 1938.
R.A. 157 = created the National Bureau of Investigation,
enacted June 19, 1947 and later reorganized by R,A.
2678
33. This law created the PNP as one of the tri-bureaus of
public safety under the DILG, along with the BFP and
BJMP. It is also known as the "Department of the
Interior and Local Government Act of 1990.“
(Approved December 13, 1990
A. RA No. 8551 C. RA No. 9708
B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 6040
R.A. 8551 Philippine National Police Reform and
Reorganization Act of 1998, enacted 1998, amending the
provision of R.A. 6975 (Approved: February 25, 1998
and took effect March 6, 1998)
R.A. 6040 = The law that empowered the police
commission to conduct entrance and promotional
examination for police members refers to:
 Republic Act No. 9708             August 12, 2009
 AN ACT EXTENDING FOR FIVE (5) YEARS
THE REGLEMENTARY PERIOD FOR
COMPLYING WITH THE MINIMUM
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION FOR
APPOINTMENT TO THE PHILIPPINE
NATIONAL POLICE (PNP) AND ADJUSTING
THE PROMOTION SYSTEM THEREOF,
AMENDING FOR THE PURPOSE PERTINENT
PROVISIONS OF REPUBLIC ACT NO. 6975
AND REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8551 AND FOR
OTHER PURPOSES
34. The law that governs the Code of Conduct and Ethical
Standards for officials and employees of the
Government- National or Local.
a.R.A.716o b.R.A.6713 c.R.A. 6975 d.R.A. 8551
R.A. 7160 = Local Government Code of 1991
35. The parcel of the 1987 Philippine Constitution which
provides that the PNP shall by nature, national in scope
and civilian in character refers to:
A. Art. 16, Sec.16 C. Art. 16, Sec.6
B. Art. 6, Sec.16 D. Art. 6, Sec.6
36. The PNP police should be National in Scope and
Civilian in Character. What does Civilian in
Character connotes?
a. That member ship/appointment in the PNP is by
Palakasan “Bata” System.
b. That members of the PNP personnel should wear
Civilian Clothes
c. That member ship/appointment in the PNP should be
based on the merits of their credentials.
d. That member ship/appointment in the PNP is by
Collateral System.
37. The Department of Interior and local Government
shall consist of the following:
1. Department Proper
2. Existing bureaus and offices of the Department of
Local Government
3. The National Police Commission
4. The Philippine Public Safety College
5. The following bureaus: the Philippine National
Police, the Bureau of Fire Protection, and the Bureau
of Jail Management and Penology.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only c. 1, 3, 4, 5 only
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 only d. all of them
38. The DILG shall be headed by a Secretary who is
appointed by the President and Confirmed by the
Commission on Appointment. He /She shall be assisted
by two (2) under secretaries for:
a. One for Administration and one for operation
b. One for line function and one for staff function
c. One for Local Government and one for peace and
order.
d. One for Napolcom and one for Local Government
39. No retired or resigned military officer or police official
may be appointed as Secretary within _____ period from
the date of his retirement or resignation.
a. six months c. 1 year
b. 2 years d. 5 years
40. In addition to his powers and functions as provided in
Executive Order No. 262, the Secretary as Department
head shall have the following powers and functions,
EXCEPT:
(a) Prepare and submit periodic reports, including a
Quarterly Anti-Crime Operations Report and such other
reports as the President and Congress may require;
(b) Act as Chairman and Presiding Officer of the National
Police Commission; and
(c) Delegate authority to exercise any substantive or
administrative function to the members of the National
Police Commission or other officers of rank within the
Department.
(d) None of this
41. The DILG shall established regional offices headed by
regional director and assisted by two assistant director s
for______in addition to the present assistant regional
directors of the Department of Local Government.

a. One for Administration and one for operation

b. One for line function and one for staff function
c. One for Local Government and one for peace and
order.
d. One for Jail Management and Penology and one for
Fire Protection
42. The NAPOLCOM shall consist of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. Chairman
b. Four (4) Regular Commissioner
c. Vice Chairman who was designated by the president
from among the four (4) regular commissioners and
should act as Executive Officer.
d. Chief, PNP as ex-officio member
e. None of them
The Secretary of the DILG shall act as the EX-Officio
Chairman of the NAPOLCOM
43. The NAPOLCOM is attached to the DILG for policy and:
 A. Instruction C. Program coordination
 B. Cooperation D. Supervision
 44. No person shall be appointed regular member of the
Commission unless:
 (a) He is at least thirty-five (35) years of age;
 (b) A member of the Philippine Bar or a holder of a master's
degree in public administration, business administration,
management, sociology, criminology, law enforcement,
national security administration, defense studies, and other
related discipline; and
 (c) Has had experience in law enforcement work for at least
five (5) years .
 (d) All of these
45. The term of office of the Commissioner s of the NAPOLCO
shall be for ____ , without reappointment or extension.
a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 6 years
46. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to
national security?
a. The AFP operating through the area commander is
the one primarily responsible on matters involving
insurgency and other serious treats to national
security.
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards
insurgency and other serious treats to national
security.
c. The PNP shall provide support to the AFP in
insurgency-affected areas.
d. All of these
47. The NAPOLCOM Exercise what power over the
PNP.
a. It exercises Administrative Control and
Operational supervision
b. For Plans and Program formulation
c. Examine and audit PNP
d. Establish a uniform crime reporting
48. In case of temporary incapacity or permanent
incapacity of the Chairperson who shall act as
chairperson?
a. In case of Temporary incapacity the Vice
Chairperson shall act as chairperson until the
chairperson regains capacity to serve.
b. In case of Permanent Incapacity the Acting
Chairperson shall act as such until a new
chairperson be appointed by the president and
qualified.
c. The Vice Chairperson automatically becomes the
chairperson.
d. A and B

49. How vacancy is filled up in the commission, except
through expirations of term?
a. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only
with the capacity for regular appointment for
another full term.
b. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only
without re appointment.
c. It shall be filed up by another person with full
term
d. None of these.
 50. It is the Disciplinary Appellate machinery of the
NAPOLCOM which decides cases on appeal from
the decisions rendered by the Chief of the PNP.
a. Regional Appellate Board
b. Internal Affairs Service
c. National Appellate Board
d. People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)

 Regional Appellate Board = It shall decide cases

on appeal from the decisions rendered by the PNP
Regional Director, the mayor, and the PLEB.

51. The N,APOLCOM shall consists of the following
Units, EXCEPT:
a. The Commission Proper
b. The Disciplinary Appellate Board
c. The Staff Services
d. Operational Unit
The Staff Services of the NAPOLCOM
(1) The planning and Research Service
(2) The Legal Affairs Service
(3) The Crime Prevention and Coordination Service
(4) The Administrative Service
(5) The Inspection and Monitoring Service
(6) The Installations and Logistics Service
52. The following are  Qualifications for Regional
Directors of the NAPOLCOM:
 (a) He is at least thirty (30) years of age;
 (b) A holder of a baccalaureate degree and appropriate
civil service eligibility; and
 (c) Has at least five (5) years experience in the field of
law enforcement, criminology or police administration.
 (d). All of these
53. The PNP shall be headed by a Chief, with the Rank of :
a. Commissioner General
b. Director
c. Director General
d. Chief Superintendent
54. R.A. 6975 provides that on the average nationwide,
the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately
in accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
a. One policeman for every seven hundred inhabitants.
b. One policeman for every five hundred inhabitants.
c. One police man for every one thousand-five hundred
inhabitants.
d. One policeman for every one thousand inhabitants.
55. The PNP shall be headed by Chief who shall be
assisted by two (2) deputy chief:
a. One for operation and one for administrative.
b. One for peace and order and one for administrative
c. One for peace and order and one for operation
d. One for operation and one for Supervision
56. How many Deputy Director General Rank are there in
the PNP?
a. 1 only b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
57. No officer who has retired or is retirable within
_______ from his compulsory retirement age be
appointed as chief of the PNP.
a. Five months c. six months
b. One year d. two years
58. The PNP shall be composed of the National, Regional,
Provincial, _____, ____ or _____?
a. District, City or Municipal Stations
b. District, City or Police Station
c. District, City or Precinct Station
d. Division, City or municipal Station
59. The Chief of the PNP shall be appointed by the
President from among the senior officers down to the
rank of chief superintendent, subject to
confirmation by the Commission on
Appointments: Provided, That the Chief of the PNP
shall serve a term of office not to exceed _____?
a. three years
b. four years
c. six months to one year
d. six years
60. The head of the NCR shall have the rank
of_____?
a. Chief Superintendent
b. Director
c. Senior Superintendent
d. Superintendent
 61. The principle which states that some members
of the police organization are tasked for the direct
accomplishment of the police objectives while the
others are assigned to support them refers to:
A. Function principle
B. Principle of unity of objectives
C. Line and staff principle
D. Principle of balance

The PNP is a Line and Staff in Organizational

principle.
62. It shall a community and service oriented agency
responsible for the maintenance of peace and order
and public safety.
a. NBI c. All law enforcement agency
b. PNP d. PNPA

63. The second man in command of PNP is the:

 A. Chief of the Directorial Staff
 B. Inspector General
 C. Deputy Director General For Administration
 D. Deputy Director General for Operation
64. Officers and members of the PNP from the rank of
Inspector to Superintendent is appointed by:
a. Chief PNP, recommended by immediate superiors and
attested by the Civil Service Commission.
b. Regional director or office of the PNP for the national
headquarters personnel attested by the Civil Service
Commission. (PO1 to SPO4)
c. President, upon recommendation of Chief PNP, endorsed
by the Civil Service and subject to confirmation by the
Commission of Appointment.(SSupt to Deputy Dir. Gen.)
d. President from among the senior officers down to the rank
of Chief Superintendent, subject to the confirmation of
the Commission on Appointment. (Chief , PNP)
65. New applicant must be of what age to be able to qualify
for the age requirements in the PNP service?
a. Not less than 20 years old nor over 35 years of age.
(waiver)
b. Not less than 21 years nor more than 30 years of age
c. Not less than 20 years old not more than 30 years
d. Not less than 21 years nor more than 35 years
66. The following qualification can be subjected to waiver
only when the numbers of qualified applicants fall below
the minimum quota, EXCEPT.
a. Height c. Weight
b. Age d. related talent
67. Who may automatically granted height waiver, as provided
under section 15 of R.A. 8551?
a. Police retirable requesting for extension of service.
b. Gov’t employees wishing to be transferred to the PNP.
c. Members of the cultural minority duly accredited by the
appropriate gov’t agency.
d. Graduates of Criminology
68. The examination conducted to exclude PNP applicants who are
emotionally and mentally unstable, psychotic and suffering
from mental disorders.
a. Mental aptitude test c. Medical examination
b. Neuro-psychiatric examination d. Psychological
examination

69. The minimum educational qualification for
appointment in the PNP under the PNP reform and
reorganization act is:
 A. Baccalaureate degree C. College level
 B. 72 collegiate units D. Master’s degree
  
70. The minimum height requirement for male
applicants in the PNP under regular recruitment is:
 A. 1.62 m C. 1.57 m
 B. 1.60 m D. 1.56 m

 1.57 for female applicant

71. An applicant in the PNP must not be more than or
less than how many kilograms from the standard
weight corresponding to his height, age and sex?
 A. 6 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15

72. The requirements for initial appointment in the PNP

shall be waived in what order?
 A. Age, height, education, weight
 B. Height, age, education, weight
 C. Age, height, weight, education
 D. Any order
73. The certification of membership to cultural minority group
for PNP applicants who want to avail of the waiver for height
requirement shall come from the:
A. Congress
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Office of the Mayor of the town to which the applicant
belongs
D. Office of the Muslim Affairs or other appropriate
government agency
74. Waiver of educational requirement may be granted to an
applicant who has finished at least 72 collegiate units leading
to a bachelor’s degree, provided that he shall be given at least
how many years to obtain the required educational
qualification?
 A. 5 B. 4 C. 6 D. 3
75. The nature of PNP appointment under the waiver
program is:
 A. Permanent C. Temporary
 B. Probationary D. Special
 Probationary = does undergoing OJT (field training
program)
 Permanent = those who finished their OJT (FTP)
76. A chief of city police station must be a holder of
master’s degree or:
 A. Has earned 72 units in Bachelor of laws
 B. A graduate of Bachelor of Laws
C. Has earned 12 units of master’s degree
D. Has earned 24 units of master’s degree
77. The equivalent rank of a director in the AFP is:
A. Lieutenant general C. Brigadier general
B. Major general D. Colonel

78. The highest non-commissioned rank in the PNP is:

A. Director general C. SPO4
B. Inspector D. PO1
  
79. The lowest rank of a police commissioned officer is:
 A. PO1 C. SPO4
 B. Inspector D. SPO1
80. The appropriate training required for permanent
appointment as PO1 is:
 A. Junior leadership course
 B. Police basic course
C. Officer’s candidate course
D. Officer’s advance course
81. The members of the PNP draw their salary from:
A. The national government
B. The local government unit in the place where they are
assigned
C. The pork barrel of the senators
D. Any of them
PNP members are considered employee s of the National
government
82. The PNP performance evaluation result from January to
June shall be submitted on the first week of July, then the
PNP performance evaluation result from July to
December shall be submitted on:
A. Last week of December of the same year
B. Third week of December of the same year
C. First week of January of the succeeding year
D. Same schedule as the first evaluation

83. In no instance shall a candidate be considered for

promotion unless be obtained a performance rating of
at least:
A. Outstanding C. Satisfactory
B. Very satisfactory D. Fair
84. The chairman of the Regional Screening Committee for
PNP applicants is the:
A. Regional Chief of the Personnel Division
B. PNP Regional Director
C. NAPOLCOM Regional Director
D. Representative from the peace and order council 
85. The first step in police applicant selection is:
A. Preliminary interview
B. Physical examination
C. Medical examination
D. Physical agility test
86. The test conducted to determine if the PNP applicant
possesses the required strength, speed and coordination
necessary for police work is:
A. Medical examination C. Physical agility test
B. Physical examination D. Both b and c
87. This is conducted to determine the motivation of PNP
applicants:
A. Panel interview
B. Psychological examination
C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
D. Medical examination
88 The prime purpose of conducting background
investigation for PNP applicant is:
A. To determine if he has the obligation to support a
child or family
B. To determine from his relatives his mental sanity
C. To determine his reputation from various sources
D. All of them
89. In the PNP performance evaluation standard,
rating is distributed as:
A. 50% administrative and 50% operational
B. Larger operational
C. Larger administrative
D. Purely operational
90. This is done to increase efficiency and
assimilate supervision among PNP members:
A. Salary increase C. Disciplinary action
B. Promotion D. Performance evaluation
91. The purposes of performance evaluation are the
following, except:
 A. It serves as a guide for promotion, salary increase or
disciplinary action
 B. It increase efficiency
 C. It assimilates supervision
 D. It informs the police officer of the quality of his
improvement
 E. None of them

92. The rating system in the PNP is based on the standards

set by the:
 A. DILG C. Congress
 B. NAPOLCOM D. PNP Chief
93. The following are agility tests for PNP
applicants, except:
A. Push up D. Squat jump
B. Pull up E. None of them
C. Sit up
94. A type of promotion that may be extended to any
member of the PNP for acts of conspicuous courage
and gallantry at the risk of his life above and beyond
the call of duty, or selected as such in a nationwide
search conducted by the PNP or any accredited civic
organization.
a. Regular promotion c. special promotion
b. Spot promotion d. promotion from position

95. The percentage of PNP annual quota that is allotted

for women is:
 A. 50% B. 15% C. 10% D. 20%
96. PNP members shall be retired automatically at what age?
a. 56 y/o b. 45 y/oc.60 y/o d. 65 y/0

 Provided, That, in case of any officer with the rank of

chief superintendent, director or deputy director
general, the Commission may allow his retention in
the service for an unextendible period of one (1) year.
 Optional Retirement. – Upon accumulation of at least
twenty (20) years of satisfactory active service, an
officer or non-officer, at his own request and with the
approval of the Commission, shall be retired from the
service and entitled to receive benefits provided by law.
97. The type of police function that includes patrol,
investigation, traffic and juvenile and vice control
pertains to:
A. Line function
B. Auxiliary function
C. Administrative function
D. Staff function
98.Citizen's Complaints is Any complaint by an
individual person against any member of the PNP
shall be brought before the Chief of Police where the
offense is punishable by withholding of privileges,
restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture
of salary, or any combination thereof for a period not
exceeding:
a. 15 days
b. Not less than 16 but not more than 30 days
(Mayor)
c. exceeding 30 days or by dismissal (PLEB)
d. not more than 180 days
99 . Internal discipline found to have been committed by any regular
member of their respective commands, the duly designated
supervisors and equivalent officers of the PNP shall, after due
notice and summary hearing, exercise disciplinary powers as
follows, EXCEPT:
a. Chief of police = total period shall not exceed 15 days
b. Provincial Director = total period does not exceed 30 days
c. Regional Director = total period does not exceed 60 days
d. Chief, PNP = disc. punishment of dismissal from the service;
suspension or forfeiture of salary; or any combination thereof for
a period not exceeding one hundred eighty (180) days.
e. None
 100. A "minor offense" shall refer to an act or
omission not involving moral turpitude, but affecting
the internal discipline of the PNP, and shall include,
but not limited to:
 (1) Simple misconduct or negligence;
 (2) Insubordination;
 (3) Frequent absences or tardiness;
 (4) Habitual drunkenness; and
 (5) Gambling prohibited by law.
 A. 1 , 2, 3, and 5 only c. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
 B. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only d. all of the above
101. The Chief of the PNP and regional directors, after
due notice and summary hearings, may immediately
remove or dismiss any respondent PNP member in
any of the following cases, EXCEPT:
 (a) When the charge is serious and the evidence of
guilt is strong;
 (b) When the respondent is a recidivist or has been
repeatedly charged and there are reasonable grounds
to believe that he is guilty of the charges; and
 (c) When the respondent is guilty of conduct
unbecoming of a police officer
(d) None of these
 102. The disciplinary action imposed by the PNP Chief
to erring PNP member shall be appealed to the NAB.
 A. Within 15 days
 B. Within 5 days
 C. Within 30 days
D. Within 10 days from receipt of the copy of the
decision
  
 103. The number of PLEB assigned for every five
hundred city or municipal police personnel and for
every municipality or legislative district in a city is:
 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
104. The composition of the members of the PLEB
are the following except:
A. Any member of the sangguniang panglunsod
/bayan chosen by his respective sanggunian
B. Any barangay captain of the city of municipality
concerned chosen by the Association of Barangay
Captains
C. Three other members who are removable only for
cause chosen by the Local Peace and Order
Council from among the respected members of the
community known for their probity and integrity
D. None of them
105. Doctors of medicine, members of the Bar, and
chaplains shall be appointed to the rank of :
a. inspector c. Senior inspector
b. chief inspector d. Superintendent
106. Disciplinary action imposed by the regional director
or by the PLEB involving demotion or dismissal from
the service may be appealed to the regional appellate
board within______from receipt of the copy of the
notice of decision:
a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 30 days d. 5 days

Disciplinary action imposed by the Chief of the PNP

involving demotion or dismissal may be appealed to the
National Appellate Board within ten (10) days from
receipt thereof:
That the Regional or National Appellate Board, as the
case may be, shall decide the appeal within sixty (60)
days from receipt of the notice of appeal:
107. For what criminal offense may members of the PNP be
placed under preventive suspension fro office until the
case is terminated?
a. light felony c. less grave
b. grave felony d. capital offense
Court may order preventive suspension for offense
punishable by less than 6 years and one day when
there is evidence of harrassment against the
complainant or witness/es.
108. Criminal offense charge against members of the PNP
shall be subject to continuous trial and shall be terminated
within _________days from arraignment of the accused.
a. 60 days c. 180 days
b. 90 days d. 120 days
109. The provincial governor shall choose the
provincial director from a list of _________eligible
recommended by the PNP regional director.
a. three b. four c. five d. six
City /municipal mayors = choose from among five (5)
110. The city and municipal mayors shall exercise
_____over PNP units in their respective
jurisdiction.
 A. Operational Supervision and Control
 B. Administrative Supervision and Control .
 C. Operational Supervision and Admin. Control .
 D. Administrative Control and Oper. Supervision
111. Authority delegated to City and Municipal Mayors
shall be given to the Commelec during the
________day period immediately preceding and
following any national, local and barangay elections.
a. 30 days b. 15 days c. 10 days d. 5 days
112. This term means to utilize the elements or units of the
PNP for purposes of protection of lives and properties,
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
insurance of public safety and other synonymous
functions:
A. Employ B. Deploy C. Assign D. Recruit
Deployment = Shall mean the orderly organized physical
movement of elements or units of the PNP within the province,
city or municipality for purposes of employment as herein
defined.
Staffing = the process of recruiting and selecting the types of
employees to contribute towards achieving the organizational
goals.
Procurement = the process of recruiting applicants in the police
organization.
Maintenance = the art of retaining personnel with good
performance in the police organization.
Development = a continuing program which gives the employee
the opportunity to enhance skills and find satisfaction.
Training = the process of upgrading the knowledge and skills of
an employee.
113. The President may, upon consultation with the
provincial governor and congressman concerned,
suspend the power of operational supervision and
control of any local executive over police units
assigned or stationed in his jurisdiction for any of the
following grounds:
 (a) Frequent unauthorized absences;
 (b) Abuse of authority;
 (c) Providing material support to criminal elements; or
 (d) Engaging in acts inimical to national security or
which negate the effectiveness of the peace and order
campaign.
 E. Any of these
114. The maximum tenure of PNP members holding
key positions from Chief, PNP down to Director
of Staff Service shall be:
a. 4 years c. 6 years
b. 9 years d. 5 years
Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in
Position
6 years = for Regional Directors
9 years = for Provincial/City Director
6 years = other position higher than provincial director.
115. (Attrition by Relief ) A PNP uniformed personnel who
has been relieved for just cause and has not been
given an assignment within _____ after such relief
shall be retired or separated .
a. 2 years c. 18 months
b. 10 years d. 20 years

10 years = attrition by non promotion.

18 months = attrition by demotion to position or rank.
Those subjected to attrition shall be:
Retired =Those who have served at least 20 years
Separated = Those who have serve less than 20 years
 Attrition by Other Means. – A PNP member or
officer with at least five (5) years of accumulated
active service shall be separated based on any of the
following factors:
 a) inefficiency based on poor performance during
the last two (2) successive annual rating periods;
 b) inefficiency based on poor performance for three
(3) cumulative annual rating periods;
 c) physical and/or mental incapacity to perform
police functions and duties; or
 d) failure to pass the required entrance examinations
twice and/or finish the required career courses
except for justifiable reasons.
116. Promotion by virtue of position shall be made
after:
a. 6months c. 2 years
b. 5 years d. 1 year

Any uniformed member of the PNP who has

exhibited acts of conspicuous courage and
gallantry at the risk of his/her life above and
beyond the call of duty, shall be promoted to
the next higher rank
 Retirement or Separation Under the Preceding
Sections. – Any personnel who is dismissed from
the PNP pursuant to Sections 25, 26, 27, 28 and
29 hereof shall be retired if he or she has
rendered at least twenty (20) years of service
and separated if he or she has rendered less than
twenty (20) years of service unless the personnel
is disqualified by law to receive such benefits
117. Monthly retirement pay shall be fifty percent
______of the base pay and longevity pay of the
retired grade in case of twenty (20) years of
active service, increasing by two and one-half
percent (2.5%) for every year of active service
rendered beyond twenty (20) years to a
maximum of ninety percent (90%) for thirty-
six (36) years of active service and over:
a. 50 % b. 80 % c. 90 % d. 5%
118. An officer or non-officer who is permanently
and totally disabled as a result of injuries suffered
or sickness contracted in the performance of his
duty shall be entitled to one year's salary and to
lifetime pension equivalent to _______ of his
last salary:
a. 80 % c. 50% c. 40% d. 90%
119. any PNP officer or non-commissioned officer may retire
and be paid separation benefits corresponding to a position
two (2) ranks higher than his or her present rank subject to
the following conditions:
 a) that at the time he or she applies for retirement, he or she has
already rendered at least ten (10) years of continuous
government service;
 b) the applicant is not scheduled for separation or retirement
from the service due to the attrition system or separation for
cause;
 c) he or she has no pending administrative or criminal case;
and
 d) he or she has at least three (3) more years in the service
before reaching the compulsory retirement age and at least a
year before his or her maximum tenure in position.
 E. All of these
120. The IAS shall also conduct, motu proprio, automatic
investigation of the following cases:
 a) incidents where a police personnel discharges a
firearm;
 b) incidents where death, serious physical injury, or any
violation of human rights occurred in the conduct of a
police operation;
 c) incidents where evidence was compromised, tampered
with, obliterated, or lost while in the custody of police
personnel;
 d) incidents where a suspect in the custody of the police
was seriously injured; and
 e) incidents where the established rules of engagement
have been violated.
 f) All of these
121. Complaint against members of the PNP IAS shall
be brought to the office of the:
A. Inspector GeneralC. DILG Secretary
B. PNP Chief D. Any of them
122. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed by a
police officer with the rank of Chief
 Superintendent and a designation as:
A. Deputy director general C. Lieutenant general
B. Deputy director D. Inspector general
  
123. PNP members who are already in the service
upon the effectivity of Republic Act No. 8551 shall
be given ______years to obtain the minimum
educational qualification preferably in law
enforcement related courses.
a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years
124. PNP members rendering more than _____ years
of service and who have exhibited exemplary
performance as determined by the Commission,
shall no longer be required to comply with the
aforementioned minimum educational requirement.
a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 15 years d. 20 years
125. In addition, the institution of a criminal
action or complaint against a police officer shall
:
a. be a bar for promotion
b. not be a bar for promotion
c. forever be a bar for promotion
d. not be a bar within 2 years from the
determination of probable cause. 
 POLICE PLANNING
1. The organized schedule or sequence of methodical
activities intended to attain a goal or objective
 refers to:
 A. Plan C. Planning
 B. Operational plan D. Operational planning
2. The process of determining the problems of the
organization and coming up with the proposed
solution generally refers to:
 A. Planning C. Operational planning
 B. Police planning D. Police operational planning
3. The following statements are true, except:
 A. Planning is the conceptual idea of doing something
to attain a goal or objective
 B. Planning is the use of rational design for
departmental undertakings
 C. Planning is the process of deciding in advance what
has to be done and how it is to be done
 D. None of them
 E. All of them
4. Creativity in planning includes the following, except:
 A. Imitation D. Idea linking
 B. Inductive reasoning E. None of them
 C. Deductive reasoning
5. The creativity in planning that moves from
specific to general is:
 A. Imitation D. Idea linking
 B. Inductive reasoning E. All of them
Deductive = from general to specific
6. The systematic and orderly determination of
facts and events as basis for policy formulation
and decision affecting law enforcement
management refers to:
A. Planning C. Operational planning
B. Police planning D. Police operational
planning
 7. It is the process of formulating coordinated
sequence of methodical activities in law
enforcement and allocation of resources to line
units in order to attain a mandated purpose
A. Planning C. Operational planning
B. Police planning D. Police operational
planning
 8. The use of rational design or pattern for all
departmental undertaking refers to:
A. Planning C. Operational planning
B. Police planning D. Police operational
planning
9. The set of procedures intended to meet varying
degree of emergency while at the same time,
providing continuing police coverage refers to:
A. Specific emergency plan C. Radical plan
B. General emergency plan D. Strategic plan
  
10. The type of plan designed to meet specific
unusual needs refers to:
A. Synoptic plan C. Strategic plan
B. Specific emergency planD. Radical plan
 11. This refers to the general statement of intention
typically with time horizon. It is an achievable end
state that can be measured and observed
 A. Objective C. Vision
 B. Goal D. Mission
  
 12. The specific commitment to achieve a
measurable result within a specific period of time
refers to:
 A. Goal C. Strategy
 B. Objective D. Tactic
  
 13. This refers to a sequence of activities to reach a point or
attain what is desired
 A. Strategy C. Procedure
 B. Tactic D. Mission
 14. The broad design, method or plan to attain a stated goal
or objective refers to:
 A. StrategyC. Procedure
 B. Tactic D. Policy
 15. The rule of action for the rank and file to show them
how they are expected to obtain the desired
 effect refers to:
 A. Policy C. Guideline
 B. Procedure D. Plan

 16. The different means by which goals and
objectives can be attained refers to:
 A. Strategies C. Plans
 B. Alternatives D. Procedure
  
 17. This is a statement of how the organization
will look like in the future. It is a picture of
what the PNP organization wants to be:
 A. Police vision C. Goal
 B. Police mission D. Objective

 18. The functions performed by the PNP, BFP and
BJMP generally refers to:
A. Public safety services
B. Law enforcement services
C. Pease and order maintenance services
D. Crime prevention services
E. All of them
 19. The end result of the functions performed by
the PNP, BFP and BJMP is generally termed as:
 A. Public safety D. Crime prevention
B. Law enforcement E. All of them
C. Peace and order
 20. The body of principles officially accepted as
the best way of performing the functions of the
PNP, BFP and BJMP is known as:
A. Public safety doctrine C. Public safety
principle
B. Public safety policy D. Any of them
  
 21. The coverage of public safety functions are
the following, except:
A. Law enforcement D. Fire protection
B. Crime prevention E. None of them
C. Maintenance of peace and order
22. The authoritative statement of principles prescribing the proper
acquisition, use and employment of PNP human and material
resources to achieve planned objectives, which is largely based on
knowledge, gained through time-honored police experiences,
studies, analysis and tests refers to:
 A. PNP vision C. PNP doctrine
 B. PNP mission D. PNP Rules of Engagement
23. The basic principle in planning, organization and management of
the PNP in support of the overall pursuit of the PNP vision, mission
and strategic action plan of the attainment of the national objectives
pertains to:
 A. PNP doctrine C. PNP operational doctrine
 B. PNP Fundamental doctrine D. PNP functional doctrine
24. The principle and rules governing the planning,
organization, direction and employment of the PNP
forces in the accomplishment of basic security mission
in the maintenance of peace and order, crime prevention
and suppression, internal security and public safety
operation refers to:
A. PNP doctrine C. PNP operational doctrine
B. PNP fundamental doctrine D. PNP functional doctrine 
25. This provides the guidance for specialized activities of
the PNP in the broad field of interest such as personnel,
intelligence, operations, logistics and planning
A. PNP doctrine C. PNP operational doctrine
B. PNP fundamental doctrine D. PNP functional doctrine
26. The doctrine formulated jointly by two or more
bureaus in order to effect a certain operation
concerning public safety and peace and order refers
to
A. Complementary doctrine C. Ethical doctrine
B. Supplementary doctrine D. Functional doctrine
  
27. The doctrine that essentially involves the
participation of the other bureaus such as the BJMP,
BFP, PPSC, NBI and other law enforcement agencies
refers to:
A. Complementary doctrine C. Ethical doctrine
B. Supplementary doctrine D. Operational doctrine
28. This defines the fundamental principles
governing the rules of conduct, attitude and
behavior of the PNP members
A. Complementary doctrine C. Operational doctrine
B. Supplementary doctrine D. Ethical doctrine
  
 29. The statement which clearly specifies if what
business the PNP organization is in refers to:
A. Police vision C. Police objectives
B. Police mission D. All of them

 30. The statement: “The PNP shall enforce the law,
prevent and control crimes, maintain peace and order
and ensure public safety and internal security with the
active support of the community” is the:
 A. PNP mission C. PNP goal
 B. PNP vision D. PNP objective
  
 31. This refers to the concepts and ideas governing
the organization of the PNP in all levels and
foundation of relationship that exists between each
members from superior to subordinates
 A. Principles C. Visions
 B. Missions D. Goals
32. Unity of command, span of control, delegation of
authority and chain of command are generally
referred to as:
A. Hierarchy of principle C. Scalar principle
B. Hierarchy of authority D. Hierarchy of protocols
  
34. Strictly speaking, scalar principle could simply be
interpreted as:
A. Unity of command C. Delegation of authority
B. Span of control D. Chain of command

35. The following are the three broad goals of the
police organization, except:
A. To insure public safety
B. To protect lives and properties
C. To maintain peace and order
D. To arrest suspected criminals
36. The type of police function that includes patrol,
investigation, traffic and juvenile and vice control
pertains to:
A. Line function C. Administrative function
B. Auxiliary function D. Staff function
 37. This refers to the primary or operational
function of the police department that actually
performs the organizational objectives
 A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
 B. Staff functionD. Service function
  
 38. The guideline in planning which answers the
question what to do refers to:
 A. Mission C. Strategy
 B. Philosophy D. Reason
39. The following are true about quality planning, except:
A. It improves analysis of the problem
B. It provides better information for decision making
C. It helps to clarify goals, objectives and priorities
D. It results in more effective allocation of resources
E. None of them
40. The characteristics of an effective plan are the following,
except:
A. It must be sufficiently general
B. The benefits derived from the plan must offset the effort
in planning and implementing the plan
C. It should be flexible
D. None of them
E. All of them
41. The characteristics of a good police plan are the
following, except:
 A. Simple D. Objective
 B. FlexibleE. None of them
 C. Realistic
42. A good police operational plan is characterized by the
following, except:
A. It includes the advises of every organic personnel
involved in planning
B. It incorporates the ideas or opinions of the staff officer
C. It contains the conclusion of the crime analyst
D. It reflects the experience of the line officer
E. None of them
43. The following are reasons for strategic planning,
except:
A. Strategic focus D. Congruence
B. Strategic response to change E. None of them
C. Strategic framework
44. The type of plan according to coverage that
emanates from national headquarters and covers
national scope of implementation refers to:
A. Local plan C. Regional plan
B. National plan D. Strategic plan
  
 45. A plan for the accomplishment of the police vision is
timely regarded as:
 A. Strategic plan C. Regional plan
 B. Local plan D. National plan
  
 46. According to coverage, operational plan is an example
of:
 A. Local plan C. National plan
 B. Regional plan D. All of them
  
 47. Plan with a scope of less than one year is classified as:
 A. Strategic planC. Short range plan
B. Medium range plan D. Any of them
48. The approach in planning which involves taking
the system apart and using each part to analyze
the whole system refers to:
A. Analytical approach C. Synoptic approach
B. Synthetically approach D. Strategic approach
 49. The approach in planning which considers all
the organizational processes together to try to
understand how they relate to each other and the
environment in which the system functions is
known as:
A. Analytical approach C. Synoptic approach
B. Synthetically approach D. Strategic approach
50. This refers to the planning responsibility of the
senate, congress and other law making bodies
A. Broad external policy planning
B. Internal policy planning
C. Incremental planning
D. Legislative planning
51. The planning responsibility of the PNP chief and
other high ranking PNP officials is known as:
 A. Broad external policy planning
 B. Internal policy planning
 C. Incremental planning
 D. Radical planning
52. The problem oriented approach in planning is
also known as:
A. Synoptic planning C. Incremental planning
B. Radical Planning D. Transactive planning

53. This approach in planning is based on the idea

that problems are easier to solve when they are
taken one at a time and broken down into gradual
adjustment over time
A. Incremental planning C. Synoptic planning
B. Transactive planning D. Radical planning
54. This approach in planning is carried out through face-
to-face interaction with the people who are to be
affected by the plan. This includes field surveys and
interpersonal dialogues:
A. Incremental planning C. Transactive planning
B. Synoptic planning D. Advocacy planning
  
55. This approach in planning involves informing the
people in advance of the intentions of the planner in
order to weigh between the positive and the negative
aspects of the implementation of the plan
A. Incremental planning C. Transactive planning
B. Synoptic planning D. Advocacy planning
56. This approach in planning involves the collective
actions to achieve concrete results in the immediate
future and a critical large scale social processes to
determine the evolution of social problems
A. Radical planning C. Advocacy planning
B. Strategic planning D. Incremental planning
  
57. The general type of plan that is developed as a
result of crisis refers to:
A. Proactive plan C. Visionary plan
B. Reactive plan D. Strategic plan
58. The type of plan that is developed in
anticipation of a future problem refers to:
A. Broad external policy plan C. Radical plan
B. Proactive plan D. Problem oriented plan
59. This plan contains the essential statements that
identify the role of the police in the community
and the future conditions in which the department
can aspire
A. Reactive plan C. Missionary plan
B. Strategic plan D. Visionary plan
60. The plan which is intended to meet the long
range overall goals of the police organization
refers to
A. Visionary plan C. Strategic plan
B. Missionary plan D. Proactive plan
 
61. The type of plan designed to meet specific tasks
required to implement strategic plans refer to:
A. Strategic plan C. Operational plan
B. Proactive plan D. Visionary plan
62. This type of plan provides framework for responding to
organizational problems and different types of incidents such
as civil disturbances, hostage situation and crime in progress
A. Long range plan C. Functional plan
B. Standing plan D. Strategic plan
63. This type of plan involves the framework for the operation
of the major units in the organization such as patrol and
investigation. It also includes the design of the structure, how
different functions and units are to relate and coordinate
activities, and how resources are to be allocated
A. Functional plan
B. Standing plan
C. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
D. Short range plan
64. The type of plan that compares past and present
accomplishments to assess performance and to determine the
proper measures to be undertaken to improve performance
refers to:
A. Long range plan
B. Medium range plan
C. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
D. Strategic plan

65. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as

drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or neighborhood
clean-up campaign. It concludes when the objective is
accomplished or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan C. Time specific plan
B. Problem oriented plan D. Time bound operational plan
66. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on
routine and field operations and some special operations
A. Strategic plan
B. Operational plan
C. Policy or procedural plan
D. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
  
67. The procedure which is intended to be used in
situations of all kinds and outlined as guide in operations
relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and
investigation refers to:
A. Field procedure C. Tactical procedure
B. Headquarters procedure D. All of them
 68. The procedure which refers to the duties of a jailer,
dispatcher, matron and other personnel concerned which
may be reflected in the duty manual refers to:
A. Field procedure C. Tactical procedure
B. Headquarters procedure D. Special operation procedure
  
69. The procedure for the operation of specialized units
such as searching and preservation of physical evidences
at the crime scene by the members of the SOCO team is
known as:
A. Field procedure C. Tactical procedure
B. Headquarters procedure D. Special operation procedure
70. The plan for coping with specific situations at known
location such as a plan for dealing with an attack against
the PNP headquarters refers to:
A. Time specific plan C. Technical plan
B. Operational planD. Tactical plan
  
 71. This plan is designed for the activities of special
divisions like patrol, investigation, traffic, fire and
juvenile control, and is intended to accomplish the primary
police functions
A. Time specific plan
B. Special operation procedure
C. Operational plan
D. Policy or procedural plan
 72. The sub-type of operational plan which is
intended to meet current needs refers to:
A. Time specific plan
B. Regular operating program
C. Procedural plan
D. Field procedure
  
73. This type of plan is intended to motivate, promote
and maintain an active public concern and
cooperation in the field of traffic control, crime and
juvenile delinquency prevention
A. Management plan C. Extra-office plan
B. Policy or procedural plan D. Cooperative plan
74. The type of plan intended for the administration of
personnel and material, and in the procurement and
disbursement of money refers to:
A. Tactical plan C. Management plan
B. Technical plan D. Extra-office plan
  
 75. The appropriation for future money needs for
personnel, equipment and capital investment, also
known as management of fiscal matters is known as:
A. Budget planning/Budgeting
B. Accounting
 C. Purchasing procedure
 D. All of them
 76. The type of plan according to time which determines
quantity and quality of efforts and accomplishments refers to:
A. Long range plan
B. Medium range plan
C. Short range plan
D. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
  
 77. The characteristics of a good police operational plan are
the following, except:
A. It reflects the experience of the line officers
B. It incorporates the findings of the police statisticians
C. It contains the conclusions of the crime analysis
D. It is based primarily on theoretical concepts

78. The first step in planning is:
A. Clarifying the problem
B. Frame of reference
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Analyzing the facts 
79. The following are the factors affecting planning,
except:
A. Condition C. Resources available
B. Time D. None of them
80. Soliciting the acceptance of the personnel
concerned is a step in planning known as:
A. Frame of reference
B. Arranging for the execution of the plan
C. Selling the plan
D. Selecting the most appropriate alternative
 81. The part of police operational plan that
refers to the specific operational activity to be
performed refers to:
A. MissionC. Coordinating instruction
B. Task allocation D. Command
82. The highest security classification of a plan is:
 A. Secret C. Confidential
 B. Top secret D. Restricted
  
83. When the distribution of a plan is classified as “A”, it
is a need to know for:
 A. All units C. Very selected units
B. Selected unitsD. Few only
  
84. The PNP SOP against partisan armed groups and loose
firearms refers to:
A. OPLAN Jericho C. OPLAN paglalansag
 B. OPLAN banat D. OPLAN nena
85. The police function that involves patrol, investigation,
traffic and vice and juvenile control refers to:
A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
B. Staff functionD. Administrative function
  
86. The coverage of an annual plan is:
A. One year C. Five years
B. Two years D. Ten years

87. Which of the following is not a test for a good police

operational plan?
A. Feasibility C. Profitability
B. Suitability D. Adaptability
 88. Strategic analysis of plan involves the following
concerns, except:
A. Suitability D. Cost-effectiveness analysis
 B. Feasibility E. None of them
 C. Acceptability
  
 89. The evaluation of each course of action in
accordance with general policies, rules and laws refers
to the determination of a plan’s
 A. Suitability D. Cost effectiveness
 B. Feasibility E. Must-wants
 C. Acceptability
 .
90. The appraisal of the effects of a number of
factors weighted separately and together refers to
the determination of a plan’s
A. Suitability D. Cost effectiveness
B. Feasibility E. Must-wants
C. Acceptability
  
91. The instance whereby the community favors the
implementation of the plan refers to its:
A. Suitability D. Cost-effectiveness
 B. Feasibility E. Must-wants
 C. Acceptability
92. The determination of the ration between the benefits and
the expenses in planning refers to:
A. Suitability studyD. Cost-effectiveness analysis
B. Feasibility studyE. Must wants analysis
C. Acceptability study
  
93. The method of selecting the preferred course of action
through subjective and objective analysis of the plan
pertains to:
A. Suitability study
B. Feasibility study
C. Acceptability study
D. Cost-effectiveness analysis
E. Must-wants analysis
94. A type plan according to time with a coverage of more or less
five years is:
 A. Long range planC. Short range plan
B. Medium range planD. National plan
  
95. The capability of a plan to cope up with a situation describes
its:
A. Feasibility C. Adaptability
 B. Suitability D. Solvability
  
96. A plan which is appropriate to a given situation or condition is
considered
A. Feasible C. Adaptable
B. Suitable D. Solvable
 .
97. The total number of crimes committed in a
certain place within a certain period of time, as
an essential basis in preparing a crime prevention
plan refers to:
A. Crime volume C. Crime density
B. Crime rate D. Crime demography
  
98. The generic term for the end result of the
performance of police, fire and jail functions is
known as:
A. Public safety C. Public safety services
 B. Vision D. Public safety doctrine
99. The PNP anti-criminality master plan refers to:
A. OPLAN Sandigan C. OPLAN Sangyaman
B. OPLAN Sandugo D. OPLAN Sang-banat
  
 100. The SOP prescribing the basic procedures
to be observed by all PNP units refers to:
A. SOP No. 1 C. SOP No. 3
B. SOP No. 2 D. SOP No. 4
  
 Police Personnel and Records Management
1. The act of preparing, organizing and directing the
efforts of the members of the police force for the
attainment of the police objectives refers to:
A. Management C. Police personnel management
B. Police management D. Personnel management 
2. This management theory entails that good salary and
incentives must be given to workers to ensure their
hard work, innovative action and good will. This
management theory was introduced by Frederick
Taylor:
A. Scientific management C. Theory X and Y
B. Bureaucratic model D. Administrative theor
3. Theories X and Y were introduced by:
A. Frederick Taylor C. Douglas McGregor
B. Henry Fayol D. Max Weber
 
4. The one regarded as the Father of Scientific
management was:
A. Frederick TaylorC. Douglas McGregor
B. Henry Fayol D. Max Weber
  
5. The process of recruiting applicants in the police
organization is known as:
A. Procurement C. Maintenance
B. Selection D. Development
6. The art of retaining personnel with good
performance in the police organization refers to:
A. Procurement C. Maintenance
B. Staffing D. Development 
 7. The process of recruiting and selecting the
types of employees to contribute towards
achieving the organizational goals refers to:
A. Procurement C. Maintenance
 B. Development D. Staffing
  

8. The continuing program which gives the
employee the opportunity to enhance skills and
find satisfaction refers to:
A. Training C. Development
B. Staffing D. Procurement
  
9. The process of upgrading the knowledge and skill
of an employee refers to:
A. Training C. Development
B. Organizing D. Procurement
 10. The management function of working out in
broad outline the things to be done and the
methods of doing them refers to:
 A. Planning C. Staffing
 B. Organizing D. Directing
  
11. The establishment of a formal structure of
authority through which works and division are
arranged, defined and coordinated pertains to:
A. Planning C. Organizing
 B. Staffing D. Coordinating
12. This is also known as fiscal planning:
A. Budgeting C. Allocating
B. Accounting D. All of them
  
13. This term means to utilize the elements or units of the PNP for
purposes of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws,
maintenance of peace and order, insurance of public safety and
other synonymous functions:
A. Employ B. Deploy C. Assign D. Recruit

14. Supply management and real property management is a

responsibility of the:
A. Directorate for logistics
B. Directorate for comptrollership
C. Directorate for planning
D. Directorate for research
 15. The PNP budget division is under the:
 A. Directorate for logistics
 B. Directorate for comptrollership
C. Directorate for planning
D. Directorate for research
  
 16. The city or municipal mayor has the authority
to choose the city or municipal chief of police from
the list of how many eligible candidates?
 A. 2 C. 4
 B. 3 D. 5
  
17. The power of city and municipal mayors to direct,
superintend, oversee and inspect PNP members in
their respective jurisdiction is termed as:
A. Administrative supervision and control
B. Operational supervision and control
C. Supervision and control
D. Police personnel management

 18. The orderly organized physical movement of PNP

elements in their respective place of assignment
refers to:
A. Employment C. Assignment
B. Deployment D. Coordination
19. The mobile strike force or augmentation unit in the
PNP during special operations such as civil disturbance
control or anti-insurgency operations is the:
A. Special Action Force C. Regional Mobile Group
B. SWAT D. All of them

20. The process by which a police officer who is

recruited into the service receives formal instruction on
the job and performs actual job functions with periodic
appraisal on his performance and progress refers to:
A. Basic recruit training C. Leadership training
B. Field training D. Development training
21. The appropriate in-service training for PO1, PO2 and
PO3 is:
A. Police basic course
B. Junior leadership course
C. Senior leadership course
D. Officer candidate course

22. The appropriate in-service training for SPO1 and

SPO2 is:
A. Police basic course
B. Junior leadership course
C. Senior leadership course
D. Officer candidate course
23. The appropriate in-service training for SPO3 and
SPO4 is:
A. Junior leadership course
B. Senior leadership course
 C. Officer candidate course
 D. Officer advance course

 24. The appropriate training for a SPO4 who wants to

be promoted to inspector is:
A. Junior leadership course
B. Senior leadership course
 C. Officer advance course
 D. Officer orientation course
25. MNSA or other allied master’s degree is a
requirement for appointment as:
A. Chief inspector
B. Superintendent
C. Senior superintendent
D. Chief superintendent to director general

26. The process of measuring the performance of

PNP members refers to:
A. Appraisal C. Assessment
B. Promotion D. Appointment
27. The purposes of performance evaluation are the
following, except:
A. It serves as a guide for promotion, salary increase or
disciplinary action
B. It increase efficiency
C. It assimilates supervision
D. It informs the police officer of the quality of his
improvement
E. None of them

28. The rating system in the PNP is based on the standards

set by the:
 A. DILG C. Congress
 B. NAPOLCOMD. PNP Chief
29. The process of increasing the rank and responsibility
of police members refers to:
 A. Placement C. Promotion
 B. Staffing D. Development
  
30. Promotion in the PNP shall be based on the following,
except:
A. Seniority C. Availability of vacant position
B. Merit D. Backer
  
31. The least consideration for promotion is:
A. Seniority C. Availability of vacant position
B. Merit D. Backer
32. All appointees under the PNP lateral entry
program unless otherwise severed by competent
authority shall serve the PNP for a minimum of
how many years following their appointment?
 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
  
33. The types of promotion in the PNP are the
following, except:
A. Regular promotion
B. Special promotion
 C. Promotion by virtue of position
 D. None of them
34. Promotion by virtue of position is granted after:
A. 6 months C. 2 years
B. 1 year D. 3 years
  
35. Attrition in the PNP shall be in the following
manner, except:
A. Attrition by attainment of maximum tenure
B. Attrition by relief
C. Attrition by demotion in position or rank
D. Attrition by non promotion
E. Attrition by inefficiency for 5 years of service
36. The power of designating a police officer on a duty
or function is vested on the following officer in their
respective levels, except:
A. The PNP Chief C. The Chief of Police
B. The Regional Director D. None of them
  
 37. The members of the PNP draw their salary from:
A. The national government
B. The local government unit in the place where they
are assigned
C. The pork barrel of the senators
D. Any of them
38. The salary grade of PNP member is equal to that of a:
A. College professor C. Members of the PDEA
B. Public school teacher D. All of them
  
39. Monthly retirement pay in the PNP shall be how many
percent of the base pay?
A. 50 B. 60 C. 70D. 80
  
40. Division of labor, authority, unity of command and
discipline are characteristics of:
A. Scientific management
B. Bureaucratic model
 C. Administrative principle
 D. Behavioral theory
41. This is otherwise known as traditional or classical
system of management which entails control by
superior and obedience by subordinates:
A. Scientific management
B. Bureaucratic model
C. Administrative principle
D. Behavioral theory
42. The word bureaucracy was coined by Max Weber
from the French word “bureau” which means office
of the Greek word “cracy” or “kratos” which means:
A. Management C. Power
B. Discipline D. Law
 43. The group of management theories which emphasize
the importance of interaction and cooperation among
employees in enhancing productivity refers to:
A. Scientific management
B. System theory
C. Administrative principle
D. Behavioral theory
  
 44. This refers to the ultimate purpose in which the
organization exist which is achievable in along span of
time:
A. Goal C. Plan
B. Objective D. Strategy
 45. This function is considered as the backbone of
the police organization. This includes patrol,
criminal investigation, traffic and juvenile
delinquency and vice control:
A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
B. Staff functionD. Administrative function
  
46. This police function includes planning, research,
legal advice, budgeting and educational services. It
is designed to support the operational activities of
the police organization:
A. Line function C. Auxiliary function
B. Staff function D. Administrative function
 47. The following are included under the line function,
except:
A. Patrol C. Criminal investigation
B. Planning D. Traffic management
  
48. The organizational structure of the PNP is:
A. Line C. Matrix
B. Line and staffD. Committee type
  
49. The assignment of a particular worker to a particular
task which fits most his ability known as:
A. StaffingC. Specialization
 B. Deployment D. Employment
50. This represents the formal relationship among
supervisors and subordinates in any given
organization. This can be visualized as a ladder, with
each rank representing a higher or lower level of
authority, and is depicted in a pyramidal structure.
A. Ranking C. Hierarchy of authority
B. Authority level principle D. Scalar principle
  
 51. The maximum number of subordinates at a given
position that a superior can effectively supervise refers
to his:
A. Authority C. Delegation of authority
B. Span of control D. Authority level principle
52. The conferring of an amount of power to command
and control the behavior of employees in lower
positions by a supervisor to his immediate subordinate
is known as:
A. Authority C. Assignment
B. Delegation of authority D. All of them
53. This is otherwise known as the “backbone” of any
organization structure. This entails that employees
should only have one superior or boss in order to
ascertain that all of them are following one command
and aimed at attaining the same objectives and not to be
confused if whom will they going to follow:
A. Chain of command C. Unity of command
B. Span of control D. Unity of objectives
54. In the PNP performance evaluation standard,
rating is distributed as:
A. 50% administrative and 50% operational
B. Larger operational
C. Larger administrative
D. Purely operational
55. This is done to increase efficiency and
assimilate supervision among PNP members:
A. Salary increase C. Disciplinary action
B. Promotion D. Performance evaluation
56. The following are the considerations for
promotion in the PNP, except:
A. Merit C. Availability of vacant position
B. Seniority D. None of them
57. The required time-in-grade for promotion from
PO1 to PO2 is:
A. 1 year C. 3 years
B. 2 years D. It depends
58. The PNP performance evaluation is conducted:
A. Once a year C. Quarterly
B. Twice a year D. Every 2 years
59. The PNP performance evaluation result from January to
June shall be submitted on the first week of July, then the
PNP performance evaluation result from July to
December shall be submitted on:
A. Last week of December of the same year
B. Third week of December of the same year
C. First week of January of the succeeding year
D. Same schedule as the first evaluation

60. In no instance shall a candidate be considered for

promotion unless be obtained a performance rating of
at least:
A. Outstanding C. Satisfactory
B. Very satisfactory D. Fair
61. A PNP member who obtained 92% in the
performance evaluation has an equivalent rating of:
A. Outstanding D. Fair
B. Very satisfactory E. Poor
C. Satisfactory
 
62. This is considered as the best method of filing
majority of records for its capability to save space:
A. Horizontal filing C. Box filing
B. Vertical filing D. Spindle filing
 63. The actual placement of documents and records
in a storage container refers to:
A. Filing C. Indexing
B. Classifying D. Coding

64. This refers to the time interval when a record was

created unit its final disposition.
A. Life span C. Birth-through-death period
B. Record cycle D. All of them
65. This contains the findings of a action taken by
the investigation officer based on inquiries made
and by obtaining the available facts of the case:
A. Complaint sheet C. Arrest and booking report
B. Investigation report D. Administrative record
66. This is considered as the heart of any police
record. It is used as basis for analysis of offenses
and the methods by which they are committed:
A. Identification record C. Case record
B. Administrative record D. Miscellaneous record
 67. A progress report shall be submitted within how
many days after the submission of the initial report?
A. 15 B. 10 C. 5 D. 3
 68. A copy of notice for wanted person shall be
given to the following, except:
A. The PNP director general
B. The PNP regional director
C. The National Bureau of Investigation
D. The secretary of national defense
69. The notice for wanted person shall be
accomplished in how many copies?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
70. The original copy of the notice for wanted
person shall be:
A. Given to the PNP director general
B. Given to the National Bureau of Investigation
C. Placed in the person’s wanted file of the police
station
D. Given to the PNP regional director

71. One copy of the notice for wanted person shall

be displayed at the:
A. Premises of the police station C.Rouge’s gallery
B. City hall D. Public places
 72. The process of screening out undesirable
candidates in the PNP and appointing the most
qualified refers to:
A. Staffing C. Appointment
B. Selection D. Recruitment
 73. The following are the compositions of the
screening committee for PNP regional applicants,
except:
A. The PNP regional director
B. The regional chief of the personnel division
C. NAPOLCOM representative
D. Member of the media
74. The examination conducted to exclude PNP applicants
who are emotionally and mentally unstable, psychotic
and suffering from mental disorders is:
A. Medical examination
B. Psychological examination
C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
D. Mental aptitude test
75. PO1 to SPO4 shall be appointed by the regional director
for regional personnel and by the PNP Chief for national
head quarters’ personnel and attested by the:
A. Commission of Appointment
B. Civil Service Commission
 C. National Police Commission
 D. Professional Regulation Commission
 76. Police inspector to superintendent shall be
attested by the CSC as recommended by their
immediate superior and appointed by the:
A. Commission on appointment C. PNP Chief
B. NAPOLCOM D. DILG Secretary

77. Senior Superintended to PNP Director General

shall be appointed by the President upon the
commendation of the PNP Chief and endorsement by
the Chairman of the CSC and the confirmation of
the:
A. President C. Commission on Appointment
B. Civil Service Commission D. NAPOLCOM
 78. The PNP Director General shall be appointed by
the President, subject to the confirmation of the
commission on appointment, from among the most
senior PNP officers down to the rank of:
A. Deputy Director General
B. Director
C. Chief Superintendent
D. Senior Superintendent
  
79. The award given to a PNP who distinguished himself
but dies before the granting of the award is:
 A. Police medal of valor C. Police service medal
B. Police medal of merit D. Posthumous award
80. The responsibility for making PNP operational plans is
vested on the:
A. Directorate for personnel and records management
B. Directorate for human resource and doctrine development
C. Directorate for research and development
D. Directorate for plans

81. The responsibility for training of PNP members is vested on

the:
A. Directorate for personnel and records management
B. Directorate for human resource and doctrine development
C. Directorate for research and development
D. Directorate for plans
82. The responsibility for PNP benefits and pension
administration is vested on the:
A. Directorate for personnel and records management
B. Directorate for human resource and doctrine
development
C. Directorate for logistics
D. Directorate for comptrollership 
83. The concise record containing vital information,
necessary for the arrest of a crime suspect is called:
A. Modus operandi file
B. Investigation report
C. Intelligence summary
D. Arrest shoot and booking report
84. The first step in police applicant selection is:
A. Preliminary interview
B. Physical examination
C. Medical examination
D. Physical agility test
85. The test conducted to determine if the PNP
applicant possesses the required strength, speed
and coordination necessary for police work is:
 A. Medical examination C. Physical agility test
B. Physical examination D. Both b and c
86. The prime purpose of conducting background
investigation for PNP applicant is:
A. To determine if he has the obligation to support a
child or family
B. To determine from his relatives his mental sanity
C. To determine his reputation from various sources
D. All of them
  
87. The following are agility tests for PNP applicants,
except:
A. Push upD. Squat jump
B. Pull up E. None of them
C. Sit up
88. The chairman of the Regional Screening
Committee for PNP applicants is the:
A. Regional Chief of the Personnel Division
B. PNP Regional Director
C. NAPOLCOM Regional Director
D. Representative from the peace and order
council 
89. Appointment under the PNP waiver program is:
A. TemporaryC. Permanent
B. Probationary D. Casual
  

90. The nature of appointment of a PNP applicant
who passed the regular screening procedures is:
A. Temporary C. Probationary
B. Permanent D. Casual 
91. Appointment upon finishing the required PNP
field training program is:
A. Temporary C. Probationary
B. Permanent D. Casual
92. The required time in grade for promotion from
PO1 to PO2 is:
A. 1 year C. 3 years
B. 2 years D. 4 years
93. Officer with the rank of Senior Superintendent
to Deputy Director General have a time in grade
of:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years
94. The required time in grade for promotion from
SPO4 to Inspector is:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years
95. Complaint against members of the PNP IAS
shall be brought to the office of the:
A. Inspector General C. DILG Secretary
B. PNP Chief D. Any of them
96. Who among the following applicants under the
waiver program is the priority for appointment?
A. A how is over aged
B. B who is under height
C. C who is more than 5kgs. Heavier than his
standard weight
D. D who just earned 72 collegiate units
97. The document containing the thing to be done
and the methods of doing them refers to:
A. Plan C. Tactic
B. Strategy D. Technique
98. The PNP Chief is the only person allowed to
give command to the entire police organization in
adherence to the principle of:
A. Chain of commandC. Span of control
B. Unity of command D. Delegation of authority
99. The examination conducted to exclude PNP
applicants with mental disorders is:
A. Psychological examination
B. Medical examination
C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
D. Oral interview
 100. This is conducted to determine the
motivation of PNP applicants:
A. Panel interview
B. Psychological examination
C. Neuro-psychiatric examination
D. Medical examination

PATROL OPERATION WITH POLICE
COMMUNICATION
 
1. The word patrol was derived from what French word,
which means “to walk through puddles” or “to walk
through mud in a military camp”?
A. Patrolle C. Patroller
B. Patrouiller D. Patrouilier
2. The ancient system of apprehending criminals whereby a
complainant goes to the middle of the community and
shout to call all male residents to assemble and arrest the
suspect refers to:
A. Frankpledge C. Tun policing
B. Hue and cry D. Tythingmen
3. The Statute of Winchester introduced the
system known as:
A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew
B. Watch and ward D. Justice of the peace

4. The term introduced by the French that became

the forerunner of the word “peace officer” was:
A. Sergent de ville C. Sergent de arm
B. Officer de la Paix D. Police
5. Which of the following is not true about patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police
department that can be eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the police
department  
6. The police function in which patrol belong is:
A. Line function C. Administrative function
B. Staff functionD. Auxiliary function

7. The term that is used to describe the group of
men organized by Henry Fielding and named by
his brother John Fielding that became the first
organized foot patrol refers to:
A. Praetorian guards C. Bow Street Runners
B. Scotland yard D. Royal Guards
8. The title given to Sir Robert Peel was:
A. Father of Criminal Investigation
B. Father of Modern Policing System C.
Father of Modern Criminology
D. Father of Patrol
9. The famous name of the acclaimed first formally
organized modern police force in the world was:
A. Interpol C. Scotland Yard
B. New York Police District D. Texas rangers

10. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was

initiated on:
A. March 10, 1917 C. August 7, 1901
B. July 31, 1901 D. September 7, 1901
11. The first automobile patrol in the Philippines
was initiated on:
A. May 17, 1954 C. August 7, 1901
B. May 7, 1954 D. May 14, 1957

12. The first chief of the mobile patrol bureau of

manila police department when mobile patrol was
initiated for the first time was:
A. Arsenio Lacson C. Basilio Cael
B. Isaias Alma JoseD. Rafael Crame
13. In police matters, this simply refers to the wise
use of one’s judgment, personal experiences and
common sense to decide a particular situation
A. Police discretion C. Police judgment
B. Police decision D. Common sense 
14. The only division of the police department that
cannot be eliminated, thus it is known as the
principal unit or the backbone of the police
organization refers to:
A. Investigation C. Patrol
B. Traffic D. Auxiliary
15. This refers to the suppression of the desire of
people to commit crime
A. Crime prevention C. Crime intervention
B. Crime suppression D. Crime deterrence

16. The elimination of the opportunity of people to

commit crime as a result of patrol refers to:
A. Crime prevention C. Crime intervention
B. Crime suppression D. Crime deterrence
 .
17. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Routine patrol and observation
B. Inspection services
C. Responding to emergency calls
 D. Arrest of suspected criminals
 E. Preparation of investigation reports 

18. The regular day to day patrol activity refers to:

A. Routine patrol C. Reactive patrol
B. Proactive patrol D. Called for services
 .
19. Arrest in flagrante delicto is an example of:
A. Crime prevention C. Crime intervention
B. Crime suppression D. Crime deterrence

20. The principle of patrol force organization which

states that patrol officers should be under the
command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Chain of command
C. Unity of command
D. Command responsibility
21. The maximum number of subordinates that a
superior officer on patrol could effectively supervise
is known as:
A. Span of control C. Unity of command
B. Chain of command D. Command responsibility
22. The principle which states that some members of the
police organization are assigned to perform patrol and
other field functions while the others are assigned to
support them refers to:
A. Principle of unity objectives
B. Unity of command
C. Line and staff principle
D. Specialization
23. The percentage of police officers assigned in patrol is:
A. 20% B. 25% C. 40% D. 50%
24. Based on Section 27 of RA No. 6975, the prescribed
manning level or police to population ration in the PNP
is:
A. 1:1000 B. 1:750 C. 1:500 D. 1:800
25. The theory in patrol which states that police officers
should conduct overt police operations in order to
discourage people from committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low profile theory
C. Low police visibility theory
D. Maximum deterrence theory
26. The theory in police patrol which states that police
officers should conduct clandestine police operation
in order to increase criminal apprehension refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low profile theory
C. High police visibility theory
D. Minimum deterrence theory
27. The patrol strategy which employs police officers in
their police uniform and marked police vehicles
refers to:
A. High visibility patrol C. Decoy patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. Blending patrol
 .
28. The patrol strategy which employs patrol
officers in their civilian attire and unmarked
police vehicles refers to:
A. High visibility patrol C. Decoy patrol
 B. Low visibility patrol D. Blending patrol

29. The patrol strategy which employs bait or

distracter to in order to catch criminals in known
as:
A. High visibility patrol C. Blending patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. Decoy patrol
 30. The structured patrol strategy in response to an
identified crime problem refers to:
A. Split force patrol C. Reactive patrol
B. Directed deterrent patrol D. Proactive patrol

31. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for

services
A. Reactive patrol C. Directed deterrent patrol
 B. Proactive patrol D. Blending patrol

32. The patrol strategy which is best on populous
areas such as markets, malls, and ports is:
A. Blending patrol C. Reactive patrol
B. Spit force patrol D. All of them 

33. The crime prevention strategy which addresses

the underlying causes of crime refers to:
A. Problem-oriented policing C. Team policing
B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol
34. The patrol strategy which brings the police and
the people together in a cooperative manner in
order to prevent crime refers to:
 A. Problem oriented policing C. Team policing
 B. Reactive patrol
D. Proactive patrol
 
35. The University of Wisconsin-Madison professor
who introduced problem oriented policing was:
A. Sir Robert peel C. Rudyard Kippling
B. Herman Goldstein D. Henry Fielding
36. Team policing began in:
A. Stockholm Sweden C. Aberdeen Scotland
B. Sicily Italy D. Paris France
37. The most expensive patrol method when it
comes to human resources is:
A. Foot patrol C. Marine patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Aircraft patrol
38. The patrol method which gives the greatest
opportunity to develop sources of information is:
A. Foot patrol C. Marine patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Aircraft patrol
39. The patrol method that is characterized by speed
and mobility and considered as least expensive as
it utilizes lesser number of men and covers a
wider area in a short period of time, while
offering protection to patrol officers, refers to:
A. Foot patrol C. Motorcycle patrol
B. Automobile patrol D. Marine patrol
40. The patrol method used in high crime areas,
business and shopping centers, and places where
there are multiple family dwellings is:
A. Foot patrol C. Canine patrol
B. Automobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol
41. The patrol method used to monitor the general
situation viewing from above is:
A. Horse patrol C. Helicopter patrol
B. Canine patrol D. Automobile patrol
42. The factors to be considered in determining the
number of patrol officers to be deployed in an
area are the following, except:
A. Size of the area
B. Topography
C. Crime rate
D. Possible problems to be encountered
E. Neither of them
43. The patrol method that is most practically
applicable to a dwelling-studded area is:
A. Foot patrol D. Marine patrol
B. Automobile patrol E. All of them
C. Aircraft patrol

44. The patrol method that has the combined

characteristics of mobility and stealth refers to:
A. Foot patrol C. Motorcycle patrol
B. Bicycle patrol D. Automobile patrol
45. One of the oldest method of patrol next to
walking is:
A. Foot patrol C. Horse patrol
B. Helicopter patrol D. Bicycle patrol 
46. The patrol method that is most applicable in
wooded areas and grassy fields is:
A. Foot patrol C. Horse patrol
B. Canine patrol D. Bicycle patrol
47. They were the first civilization who utilized
dogs in patrolling
A. Greeks C. Egyptians
B. Romans D. Chinese
48. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many
times more sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
A. One thousand times C. One hundred times
B. Ten thousand times D. Ten million times
49. The highest scoring dog for police work is:
A. German Shepherd C. Chihuahua
B. Bloodhound D. Askal
50. The method of patrol that is utilized in anti-
smuggling activities along river banks and water
ports is:
A. Aircraft patrol C. Horse patrol
B. Marine patrol D. All of them
51. The other term for dog patrol is:
A. Canine patrol C. K-9 patrol
B. Mounted patrol D. Both A and
52. The fixed point or location to which a patrol
officer is assigned for duty refers to:
A. Post C. Route
B. Beat D. Sector
53. The area assigned for patrol purposes whether
on foot or motorized refers to:
 A. Post C. Route
B. Beat D. Sector
54. An area containing two or more beats, routes or
posts refers to:
A. District C. Sector
B. Intersection D. Section
55. A section or territorial division of a large city,
each comprised of designated districts refers to:
A. Area C. Sector
B. Route D. Beat
56. The length of street that is designated for patrol
purposes refers to:
A. Post C. Route
B. Beat D. Sector
 57. The geographical subdivision of a large city or
province designated for patrol purposes, usually
with its own police station refers to:
A. Area C. District
B. Sector D. Territory 
58. The patrol force that was originally founded by
Stephen F. Austin in response to colonization and
revolution is now referred to as the:
A. Shire reeve C. Scotland yard
B. Texas rangers D. Conquistadores

59. This term refers to the patrol experimental
program using helicopter that was conducted in
Lakewood California
A. Dark knight C. Sky knight
B. Sky night D. Sky blue
60. The following are the advantages of foot patrol,
except:
A. It develops greater contact with the public
B. It promotes easier detection of crime
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It involves larger number of personnel
61. Going right while patrolling upon reaching
every intersection until reaching the point of
origin is following what pattern?
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag
B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross

62. While patrolling, starting at one corner of the

patrol area and working your way diagonally
across it to the opposite corner is following a:
A. Zigzag pattern C. Clockwise pattern
B. Circular pattern D. Cloverleaf pattern
63. The advisable cruising speed in automobile
patrol ranges from:
A. 20-25 mph C. 26-30 mph
B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph

64. A highway intersection designed to route traffic

without interference, by means of system of
curving ramps form one level to another in the
form of a four leaf clover refers to:
A. Sector D. Rotunda
B. Cloverleaf intersection E. Flyover
C. Cloverform intersection
65. Doubled firepower and physical protection is an
advantage of:
A. Foot patrol
B. Two-man automobile patrol
C. Helicopter patrol
D. Motorcycle patrol
66. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime
incident faster but undetected, then the best patrol
method that he should employ is:
A. Foot patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Motorcycle patrol D. Bicycle patrol

67. “The police are the public and the public are the
police” is a policing concept introduced by:
A. Sir Robert peel C. Henry Fielding
B. Benjamin Mendelsohn D. Jonathan Wild

68. The patrol method that requires the greatest

number of patrol officers is:
A. Foot patrol C. Aircraft patrol
B. Automobile patrol D. Marine patrol
69. Greater opportunity to develop sources of
information is an advantage of:
A. Foot patrol C. Canine patrol
B. Automobile patrol D. Aircraft patrol 
70. Horse patrol is also known as:
A. Canine patrol C. K-9 patrol
B. Mounted patrol D. All of them
71. Which of the following types of patrol can cover
a widest view of an area
A. Foot patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Horse patrol D. K-9 patrol
72. The patrol method which is applicable in
patrolling long stenches of highway or areas that
are inaccessible through other patrol methods is:
A. Marine patrol C. Horse patrol
 B. Aircraft patrol D. Foot patrol

73. Among the following is the patrol method with

the least stealth
A. Helicopter patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Bicycle patrol D. Horse patrol
74. Among the following is the patrol method with
the greatest stealth
A. Helicopter patrol C. Automobile patrol
B. Bicycle patrol D. Motorcycle patrol

75. This acronym stands for the system of attaching

a miniature camera to a search dog
A. WOLVES C. DOGS
B. CATS D. CANINES
76. The following are the breeds of dog best suited
for police work, except:
A. German shepherds D. Askals
B. Doberman pinschers E. Bouviers
C. Alaskan malamutes
  
77. The large dog with drooping ears and sagging
jowls and keenest smell among all dogs, formerly
used for tracking purposes is known as:
A. German shepherd C. Bloodhounds
B. Doberman pinscher D. Alaskan malamute
 78. The landmark experiment on preventive
patrol, being the first study that demonstrated the
effects of different policing styles was conducted
in 1972 in:
A. New York city C. London
B. Los Angeles D. Kansas city

79. The phase of problem oriented policing that is

focused on the problem’s cause, scope and effect
refers to:
A. Scanning C. Response
B. Analysis D. Assessment
80. The application of crime analysis to determine
and address the underlying causes of crime is a
good example of:
A. Preventive patrol D. Proactive patrol
B. Team policing E. Community oriented
policing
C. Problem oriented policing
  
 81. Using uniformed police officers and marked
police vehicles characterizes
A. High visibility patrol C. Decoy patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. Reactive patrol
82. The employment of barangay tanods is an
example of:
A. Team policing C. Decoy patrol
B. Problem oriented policing D. Reactive patrol
  
83. Which of the following does not belong with the
others?
A. Omnipresence D. Conspicuous
B. High visibility E. Clandestine
C. High profile
 .
84. The percentage of police officers assigned to
perform patrol and other field functions is:
A. 50 B. 85 C. 40D. 60
  
85. The minimum manning level of the PNP under
extreme condition is:
A. 1:500 B. 1:800 C. 1:750 D. 1:1000
  
86. Fatigue is an example of what patrol hazard?
A. Psychological hazard C. Mental hazard
B. Physical hazard D. All of them
 .
87. The computer that allows officers on patrol cars
to access files from headquarters and other law
enforcement agencies or dispatchers in highly
industrialized countries like US is known as:
A. Vehicle mounted TV C. WOLVES
B. HELP D. Mobile Data Terminal
  
88. Which of the following term is attributed to the
ancient Egyptians who discovered the usefulness
of dogs in patrol?
A. Ephori C. Centurion
B. Vigiles D. Medjay
89. The first chief of the Mobile Patrol Bureau of
the Manila Police Department was:
A. Arsenio Lacson C. Rafael Crame
B. Isaias Alma JoseD. George Curry
  
90. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of
a person that enables another to victimize him:
A. Instrumentality C. Opportunity
B. Motive D. Carelessness
91. The total system used to accomplish the police
visibility program of the PNP is:
A. Team policing
B. Problem oriented policing
C. Integrated patrol system
D. Preventive patrol system
  
92. Real time current situation is shown in the:
A. Modus operandi file C. Spot map
B. Intelligence summary D. Rouge gallery
93. The police officers in Police Community Precincts
render 24 hours duty with a prescribed division of:
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
B. 3 shifts D. Every other day schedule
94. The ideal daily on duty hours for a patrol officer is:
A. 8 C. 12
B. 6 D. 24
95. The Community Oriented Policing System in the
Philippines is primarily patterned from the police
system of what country?
A. England C. France
B. USA D. Japan
96. The patrol pattern which offers the easiest way to
observe the movement of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise C. Crisscross
B. Counter clockwise D. Straight
97. The reversal patrol pattern which is usually done
at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing
happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol
officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern C. Zigzag pattern
B. Counter clockwise pattern D. Crisscross pattern
98. The following terms are synonymous with each
other, except:
A. Decoy C. Distracter
B. Bait D. Warner
99. The first organized foot patrol for policing
purposes was formed in:
A. New York City C. Rome
B. London D. Greece
100. In police communication, 10-0 means
A. Caution C. Change location
B. Positive D. Unable to copy
 1.
Police Intelligence
 1. The end product resulting from the collection, evaluation,
analysis, integration and interpretation of all available
information regarding the activities of criminals and other law
violators refers to:
 A. IntelligenceC. Military intelligence
 B. Police intelligence D. Information
2. The intelligence information that is long range in nature with
little practical immediate operational value refers to:
 A. Strategic intelligenceC. National intelligence
 B. Line intelligence D. Military intelligence
3. The total product of intelligence developed by all government
agencies that covers broad aspects of insular policy and
security is known as:
A. National intelligence C. Line intelligence
B. Military intelligence D. Strategic intelligence
 4. The type of intelligence which is purposely intended to
protect information, including its sources against espionage
and other hazards refers to:
A. Line intelligence C. Combat intelligence
B. Counter intelligence D. Order of battle intelligence
 5. In Biblical beginnings, who was the Great leader of the
Israelites who utilized intelligence by sending
 spies to the land of Canaan?
 A. Moses C. Delilah
 B. David D. Rehab
 6. The parcel of the Holy Bible that contains the biblical
indication of the beginning of Israeli intelligence is:
 A. Number 13:17 C. Number 3:17
 B. Number 17:13 D. Number 17:3
 7. The Chinese Philosopher and author of the book “The
Art of War”, who made emphasis on the importance of
knowing one’s self and enemy in order to obtain victory
in battle and regarded as the “Father of Military
Strategy” was:
 A. Confucius C. Lao Tzu
 B. Mao Tse Tung D. Sun Tzu
  
 8. The first director of the Federal Bureau of
Investigation who took charge of the responsibility of
counter intelligence during world war II was:
A. Joseph Petrosino C. Sir Robert Peel
B. John Edgar Hoover D. George Washington
 9. The National Intelligence Agency of the United States of
America is the:
A. Interpol D. American Intelligence Association
B. Federal Bureau of Investigation E. Committee of State Security
C. Central Intelligence Agency
 10. The international criminal police organization is based in:
A. England C. France
B. United States D. Russia
11. The national intelligence agency of Russia which serves as the
counterpart of the CIA is the:
A. G2
B. Komitet Gosudarstvennoy Bezopasnosti
C. Mossad
D. Soujelopoliisi
 12. The modern name of the police force established by Sir Robert Peel
that became the foundation of British intelligence is:
A. Interpol C. Mounties
B. Scotland Yard D. Bow Street Runner 
13. The National Intelligence Agency of Israel, which is considered as one
of the most powerful in history refers to:
A. Mossad
B. Komitet Gosudarstvennoy Bezopasnosti
C. Badan Intelijen Negara
D. Ethniki Ypiresia Pliroforion
14. The Army General and first emperor of France, dubbed as little corporal
for the fact that he was just a small man, who emphasized the importance
of spy and achieved enormous victories in battle, earning him the title
“the ablest conqueror of man in the annals of history” was:
A. Frederick the Great C. Napoleon Bonaparte
B. Jean Jacques Rosseau D. Edmund Dantes
 15. The one who introduced a tremendous breakthrough in
military intelligence by utilizing espionage and dividing his
spies into four classes namely: common spies, double spies,
spies of consequence and forced spies, earning his the title
“father of organized military espionage” was:
A. Frederick Taylor C. Alexander the Great
B. Frederick the Great D. Julius Ceasar
16. The great Roman leader who organized a staff of legion
named as “speculators” that served as an information-
collecting agency, and the first intelligence body to appear in
military organization was:
 A. Frederick the Great C. Julius Ceasar
 B. Alexander the Great D. Hannibal
  
17. The great spy of Napoleon Bonaparte who was also dubbed as
“Napoleon’s eye”, who had a very great contribution on Napoleon’s
victory in battle was:
 A. Karl SchulmeisterC. Alfred Redl
 B. Wilhelm Stieber D. None of them 
18. He was the leader of the Mongol Conquerors who conquered the rest
of China and invaded Cathay. He utilized spies and prisoners as sources
of information and made use of effective propaganda machine by
spreading rumors of Mongol terror
 A. Khon Ton C. Alexander the Great
 B. AkbarD. Genghis Khan
19. He systematized political policy in France. He maintained continuous
surveillance, postal censorship and military intelligence organization
during his reign
 A. Francis Walsingham C. Richlieu
 B. Queen Elizabeth D. Louis XIV
23. The following are the intelligence criteria, except:
A. Universality of application D. It must be mutually
exclusive
B. It must be broad E. None of them
C. It must be important or essential 
24. This is a principle in intelligence which is based on the
idea that only the well guided succeeds. It entails that
there must be a unity between knowledge and action and
that action or decision is planned by knowledge and
guided by it at every step
A. Principle of objectivity C. Principle of continuity
B. Principle of interdependence D. Principle of usefulness
 25. The intelligence principle which states that intelligence is
artificially subdivided into component elements to insure complete
coverage, eliminate duplication and reduce the overall task to
manageable sizes refers to:
A. Principle of interdependence C. Principle of selection
B. Principle of communication D. Principle of security 
26. The principle of intelligence which denotes picking of the most
promising information from a multitude of leads to make intelligence
useful, essential and pertinent to the purpose at hand refers to:
 A. Principle of security C. Principle of selection
 B. Principle of timeliness D. Principle usefulness
 27. The major consideration in intelligence which deals with foreign
policies, alliances and techniques of conducting foreign relations
refers to:
A. Diplomatic intelligence C. Political intelligence
B. Geographical intelligence D. Economic intelligence
 28. The major consideration in intelligence which deals with
nationality structures, classes and caste, historical factors, census,
personal aspects, characteristics and mentality of people forces and
social legislation refers to:
A. Geographical intelligence C. National intelligence
B. Lien intelligence D. Counter intelligence 
29. The intelligence which is of an immediate nature and necessary for
more effective planning and operation refers to:
 A. Strategic intelligence C. National intelligence
 B. Line intelligence D. Counter intelligence 
30. This refers to an investigative process in which disguises and pretext,
cover and deception are used to gain confidence of suspects for the
purpose of determining the nature and extent of criminal activities that
may be taking place
 A. Counter intelligence C. Undercover work
 B. Surveillance D. Casing
31. The functional classification of police intelligence which
specifically refers to the knowledge essential in the
maintenance of peace and order refers to:
A. Criminal intelligence C. Public safety intelligence
B. Internal security intelligence D. All of them 
32. The form of intelligence that deals with the demographic
and psychological aspects of groups of people refers to:
A. Biographical intelligence C. Geographical intelligence
B. Sociological intelligence D. Armed forces intelligence 
33. The form of intelligence which deals with individual
personalities who have actual possession of power refers to:
A. Sociological intelligence C. Personnel intelligence
B. Biographical intelligence D. Geographical intelligence
 34. The type of intelligence which deals with the gathering of
information regarding people, weather, enemy and terrain,
which is essential in counter insurgency operations refers to:
 A. Strategic intelligence C. Counter intelligence
 B. Line intelligence D. Armed forces intelligence
 35. The phases of intelligence cycle are the following, except:
A. Planning of the collection effort
B. Collection of information
C. Processing of information
D. Dissemination of information
E. None of them  
 36. The determination of the intelligence value of information
refers to:
A. Collection C. Evaluation
B. Recording D. Interpretation
37. If the intelligence information is evaluated as A1, this means that:
A. It is completely reliable and confirmed by other sources
B. It is completely reliable and probably true
C. It is usually reliable and confirmed by other sources.
D. It is usually reliable and probably true. 
38. Evaluation of information is intended to determine the following,
except:
A. Pertinence of the information C. Credibility of the information
B. Reliability of the information D. Price of the information
  
39. An information that is completely reliable and confirmed by other
sources is evaluated as:
 A. A1 C. B1
 B. A2D. B2
 40. The act of establishing the meaning and significance of the information
generally refers to:
A. Analysis C. Deduction
B. Integration D. Interpretation 
41. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from conspicuous sources
and 1% of information is obtained from clandestine sources. Clandestine
means.
 A. Observable C. Overt
 B. Visible D. Covert
42. The term appropriate for someone who gives information in exchange for a
reward is:
 A. Informer C. Special informer
 B. Informant D. Occupational informer
43. One who provides information voluntarily without asking for any
consideration in return is generally regarded as:
 A. InformerC. Special informer
 B. Informant D. Special informant

44. The system of gathering information that relies on information that are
voluntarily given:
A. English system C. American system
B. French system D. German system 
45. The system of gathering information that relies heavily on buying
information refers to:
A. American system C. French system
B. English system D. German system 
46. One who provides information without intention of providing subsequent
information is regarded as:
A. Incidental informant D. Ordinary run of the mill informant
 B. Special informant E. Anonymous informant
 C. Automatic Informant 
47. A type of informant who gives information willfully refers to:
 A. Voluntary informant C. Special informant
 B. Confidential informant D. Anonymous informant
  
 48. An informant who by nature of his work is required to give
information to the police refers to:
A. Ordinary informant C. Special informant
B. Automatic informant D. Recruited informant 
 49. The means by which an organization or individual conceals the true
nature of his act from the observer refers to:
 A. CoverC. Cover support
 B. Cover story D. Cover up
 50. A biographical fictional data that portrays the assumed personality of
the agent to cover up the operation refers to:
 A. Cover C. Cover support
 B. Cover story D. Organizational cover
 51. The classification of agent who acts for the enemy to respond refers
to:
 A. Double agent C. Penetration agent
 B. Expandable agent D. Agent provocation
 52. This refers to an agent who leaks false information to the enemy
 A. Expandable agent C. Penetration agent
 B. Double agent D. Agent of influence
 53. This is a clandestine operation of following persons and keeping
persons, places and things under observation to determine identities
and activities of the subjects
 A. Surveillance C. Shadowing
 B. Casing D. Elicitation
 54. The person who conducts surveillance is called:
 A. Surveyor C. Subject
 B. Surveillant D. Rabbit
 55. The observation of places or areas from a fixed point refers to:
 A. Casing C. Stakeout or plant
 B. Tailing D. Shadowing
56. The observation of a person’s movement is specifically termed as:
A. Tailing or shadowingC. Stakeout
B. Casing D. Elicitation 
57. The assignment of agent to other agencies to obtain information of
police intelligence value is known as:
 A. Casing C. Stake out
 B. Liaison program D. Elicitation
58. A place, building or enclosed area where police undercover men
meet for debriefing or reporting purposes refers to:
 A. Safe house C. Convoy
 B. Drop D. Made
 59. The accomplice or associate of the subject used to elude
surveillance refers to:
 A. Convoy C. Contact
 B. Escort D. Made
 60. This refers to any person who the subject deals with while he is under
observation and identifies the observer
 A. Convoy C. Made
 B. Contact D. Subject
 61. The person under surveillance is the:
 A. Subject C. Convoy
 B. Suspect D. Contact
 62. The instance whereby the subject under surveillance becomes aware that
he is under observation
 and identifies the observer is termed as:
 A. Made C. Failed
 B. Lost D. Flunked
 63. The instance whereby the surveillant does not know the whereabouts of
his subject or the subject
 has eluded the surveillance is known as:
 A. MadeC. Failed
 B. Lost D. Flunked
 64. The type of surveillance according to intensity whereby the
subject is unaware that he is under observation is:
 A. Discreet C. Loose
 B. Close D. Distant
 65. The surveillance through the use of electronic gadgets is
classified as:
 A. Technical C. Automatic
 B. Mechanical D. High-tech
 66. The most effective method of casing is:
 A. Personal reconnaissance C. Research
 B. Map reconnaissance D. Prior information
 67. The use of senses to obtain information refers to:
 A. ObservationC. Elicitation
 B. Description D. Perception
68. The actual and factual reporting of one’s observation refers to:
 A. Description C. Perception
 B. Elicitation D. Declaration
 69. The process of obtaining information through direct
communication, whereby the subjects is
 unaware of the specific purpose of the conversation is:
 A. Elicitation C. Approach
 B. Probe D. Dialogue
 70. Any convenient, secure and unsuspecting place where an
agent handler meets his action agent
 for debriefing or reporting purposes refers to:
 A. Safe house D. Contact
 B. Drop E. Made
 C. Convoy
71. According to psychologists, how many percent of our knowledge is
gathered through sight?
 A. 85% C. 40%
 B. 50% D. 30%
 72. The reconnaissance of a building, place or area to determine its
suitability for intelligence use or
 its vulnerability in operation refers to:
 A. Observation and description C. Surveillance
 B. Casing D. Stake out
 73. The approach in elicitation in which the subject its treated as an
authority and requested to state
 his view points and opinion is known as:
A. Teacher-pupil approach D. Good Samaritan approach
B. Kindred soul approach E. Teaser bait approach
 C. Mutt and Jeff approach
  
 74. The approach in elicitation whereby the subject is placed in a
pedestal having some specialized quality and flattering him by
showing enough concern for his welfare is:
A. Teacher pupil approach C. Good Samaritan approach
B. Kindred soul approach D. Partial disagreement approach
 75. This is an approach whereby a sincere offer of help is made to
the subject
A. Teacher pupil approach C. Good Samaritan approach
B. Kindred soul approach D. Partial disagreement approach
  
 76. This is provocative approach in elicitation whereby the elicitor
pretends that he knows the answer
 to everything and that he can be approached in any field
 A. Teaser-bait approach C. Joe Blow approach
 B. Manhattan from Missuori approach D. National pride approach
 77. This is a type of probe which is used to elicit additional
information in an area in which the response in unclear
 A. Competition probe C. His pressure probe
 B. Clarity probe D. Hypothetical probe
 78. The means of using descriptive terms in relation to the personal
features of an individual through
 word description or spoken picture refers to:
 A. Rouge gallery C. Portrait Parle’
 B. Mug file D. Anthropometry
  
 79. The investigative process to determine the honesty, loyalty,
integrity and reputation of a person is
 called:
 A. Background investigation C. Elicitation
 B. Personnel investigation D. Agency check
 80. The systematic asking of questions to elicit information
in a minimum period of time which involves vigorous and
aggressive questioning of the subject or suspect refers to:
 A. Interrogation C. Elicitation
 B. Interview D. Probe
 81. The person who conducts the interrogation is called:
 A. Interrogator C. Subject
 B. Interrogee D. Suspect
  
 82. This is known as the heart of interrogation
 A. Interview C. Planning
 B. QuestioningD. Recording
 83. The interrogation technique which involves the use of two
interrogators playing opposite roles refers to:
A. Mutt and Jeff technique D. Opposite personality technique
B. Threat and rescue technique E. All of them
C. Sweet and sour technique
 84. This interrogation technique is employed by asking rapid
successive questions to the interrogee and putting him in a
defensive position
A. Opposite personality technique C. Silent technique
B. Egotist techniqueD. Question barrage technique
 85. This refers to a restricted area which contains a document or
information of security interest to top secret importance and which
requires the highest degree of protection
 A. Exclusion area C. Control area
 B. Limited area D. Clear zone
 86. This refers to any information or materials given a
classification according to the degree of security needed
 A. Classified matters C. Confidential matters
 B. Vital documents D. Anonymous matters
  
 87. The form of administrative determination that an individual
is eligible for access to classified matters refers to:
 A. Security clearance C. Need to know
 B. Access certificate D. Password system
 88. The grant of access to classified matters only to properly
cleared persons in the performance of
 their official duties refers to:
 A. Compartmentation C. Authority to access
 B. Need to know D. Pass system

 89. The process of categorizing a document or information
according to the degree of security needed is called:
 A. Classification C. Upgrading
 B. Compartmentation D. Certificaiton
  
 90. The process of assigning higher category of document or
information according to the degree of
 security needed refers to:
 A. Upgrading C. De-classification
 B. Classification D. Compartmentation
  
 91. These are information and materials, the unauthorized
disclosure of which would cause exceptionally
 grave damage to the nation
 A. Top secret C. Confidential
 B. Secret D. Restricted
 92. These are information and materials, the unauthorized disclosure of
which would endanger national security, cause injury to the interest or
prestige of the national or any governmental activity or would be of great
advantage to a foreign nation
 A. Top secret C. Confidential
 B. Secret D. Restricted
  
 93. These are information and materials, the unauthorized disclosure of
which, while not endangering national security would be prejudicial to
the interest or prestige of the nation or any governmental activity
 A. Top secret C. Confidential
 B. Secret D. Restricted
  
 94. These are information and material which requires special protection
other than those classified as top secret, secret or confidential
 A. Restricted C. Vital
 B. Important D. Material
 95. The original authority to classify top secret and secret matters
rests upon
 A. The head of the department C. The President
 B. The chief of the station D. The congress
  
 96. The authority to classify confidential matters rests upon
 A. The head of the department C. Any officer of the department
 B. The chief of the station D. The congress
  
 97. The authority of a person to have access to classified matters,
having been properly cleared and
 in the performance of his official duty which requires possession
thereof refers to:
 A. Compartmentation C. Compromise
 B. Security clearance D. Need to know
 98. The security component that involves the protection of
information from interception refers to:
 A. Communication security C. Cryptographic security
 B. Transmission security D. Personnel security
  
 99. This is an investigation of an individual made upon the basis of
written information supplied by him
 in response to official inquiry and by reference to appropriate
national agencies
A. Personnel security investigation C. Local Agency check
B. B. National Agency check D. Background investigation
  
 100. The primary intelligence agency of the Philippines with the
motto: “knowledge is security” refers to:
 A. NICA C. ISAFP
 B. CIA D. G2
Industrial Security
Management

Dr. Ariel C. Manlusoc

Review Director
What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green
color?
A. sodium vapor lamp (emits yellow light)
B. incandescent lamp
C. mercury vapor lamp
D. quartz lamp (emits a very bright white light)
2. Licenses of private security guards are processed and issued by
the________.
A. Philippine National Bank
B. National Police Commission
C. Philippine National Police
D. Securities and Exchange Commission
3. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on a vertical
perimeter fence is commonly called as:
A. tower guard (house like structure above perimeter)
B. guard control (provided in the main perimeter entrance)
C. top guard (with 3 to 4 strands of barbed wire)
D. perimeter barrier (1st line of defense, a medium of structure
design to indicates the physical limits of an installation or area
to restrict or impedes access thereto.
 4. License to operate a private security agency shall
have a validity period of_____.
A. 1 yr C. 2 yrs
B. 3 yrs D. 4 yrs
5. What is an act governing the organization and
management of private security agency, company
guard force and government security forces?
A. RA 7438 C. RA 4587
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487
  
 6. A type of protective alarm system located outside the
installation and the alarm signal is relayed to
remote panel.
A. local alarm system (sensor activities circuit which in
turn activities a horn or siren or even flashing light
located in the immediate vicinity).
B. dial alarm system (set to detail a predetermined
number/numbers when the alarm is activated)
C. central alarm system
D. proprietary alarm system (works similar with the
central alarm except that it is operated and located in
the facility).
Auxiliary system = an installation-owned system which is a
direct extension of the local enforcement agency and/or fire
department by special arrangements.
 7. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder
while the guard remains in the comparative darkness? (the
lighting is toward the approach of an entrance to an
installation)
A. controlled lighting (the lighting focused to the pile of
items, rather then the background. The wealth of lighted
strip can be controlled and adjusted to suit the security
needs.)
B. emergency lighting (A stand-by lighting which can be
utilized in case of electrical failure, either due to local or
commercial power failure)
C. fresnel light
D. glare- projection
Types of Protective lighting
1. Stationary (either glare projection or controlled
lighting).
2. Standby lighting = this is similar to continuous
lighting but it turn on manually or by special device or
other automatic means.
3. Movable lighting = this consist of stationary or
portable, manually operated search light. It is usually
supplementary to other types of security lighting and
can be made continuous or as needed.
4. Emergency lighting = this may duplicate existing
system only that it operates when there is failure of
electricity either due to local equipment or commercial
power failure.
Types of Light Lamp
 1. Incandescent = common light bulb in which light is
produced by resistance of a filament (tungsten) to electric
current.
 2. Gaseous Discharge lamps = economical commercial
lights which took about 2 to 5 minutes before to light
which can be of certain disadvantage in industrial security.
› Mercury vapor lamp
› Sodium vapor lamp
3. Quarts lamp = emits a very bright white light and snap
on almost like the incandescent lamp. It used a high
wattage and best use for perimeter and troublesome area.
 Types of lighting equipment
1. Flood lamp = projects light in a concentrated beam. Best
used in boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise
known as reflectorized or spotlight.
2. Search light = highly focused incandescent lamps used
in pinpointing potential trouble spot or people or item.
3. Fresnel light = Wide beam unit, primarily to extend the
illumination in long horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter. It projects a narrow,
horizontal beam which is approximately 180 degrees in
the horizontal and 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane.
4. Street lights = produced diffused light rather than
direction beam. They are widely used in parking areas.
 8. An industrial complex must established its first line of physical
defense. It must have__________.
A. the building itself C. communication barriers
B. perimeter barriers D. window barriers
 9. What is the system of natural or man- made barriers placed between
the potential intruder and the object, person and matter being protected?
A. communication security C. document security
B. physical security D. personal security
Three Aspects of Security
. Physical Security
. Document Security = Protection of documents, classified papers or
vital records from lost, unauthorized access, damage, compromise
or theft through proper storage and procedures.
. Personnel Security = the sum total of procedures followed to
determine the work suitable of particular applicant or the retention
or transfer of particular employee.
 Other types of Security
1. Industrial Security = a form of physical security
involving industrial plants and business enterprises. It
covers security or safeguards of personnel, procedure,
properties and operation.
2. Bank Security = is the protection of cash and assets in a
storage or transit.
3. Hotel Security = is a protection resulting from application
of various measures to safeguard hotel guest, their
personal effects, hotel properties and other amenities.
4. V.I.P. Security = involves the protection of top-ranking
officials of the government, visiting persons of illustrious
standing and foreign or diplomatic dignitaries.
5. Operational Security = involves the protection of
processes, formulas, patents, and industrial and
manufacturing activities from espionage, infiltration, loss,
damage, compromise or photo copying.
6. Communication Security =involves measures to ensure
protection of information from unauthorized person
through communication which includes: transmission,
cryptographic, and physical security.
7. Air Cargo Security
8. School Security
9. Supermarket Security
10. Personnel Security.
 10. What type of bank alarm is usually place in the teller’s
top cash drawer and connected to the alarm system, the
alarm is usually activated by removing the currency in the
device?
A. foot rail C. bill traps
B. foot button D. double squeeze
Protection Alarm in Banks
1. Foot Rail = placed on floor in such way that tellers can
activate it using the front of his/her foot to engage the
activation bar.
2. Bill trap
3. Knee or Thigh button = installed inside the deck or teller
station so they can be activated by knee or thigh pressure.
4. Foot button =like the foot rail permits activation in
11. What is the final line of physical defense?
A. protective barrier C. protective cabinets
B. windows and doors D. protective locks

PHYSICAL SECURITY
1. (Protective) barrier = any structure or physical device
capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal access or
intrusion to an installation.
a. Perimeter Barrier = the first line of defense which
defines the physical limits of the installation. (Wire
Fences, Building walls and Bodies of water)
b. Perimeter barrier openings = Gates and Doors,
sidewalk elevator and Utilities Openings.
12. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business
enterprises where personnel, processes, properties and operations
are safeguarded?
A. personal security C. document security
B. industrial securityD. bank security
13. What is the barrier established to protect the surrounding of an
installation?
A. human C. energy
B. animal D. structure
TYPES of Physical Barrier:
1. Natural (Geographic features)
2. Structural ( Fence, walls, grilles, doors, road blocks etc.)
3. Human (Security guards and employees)
4. Animal (Dogs and Geese)
5. Energy ( Electronic device/hardware)
14. A fence constructed in such a way to provide visual access
on the exterior perimeter area.
A. full view fence C. solid fence
B. masonry walls D. half way
Wire Fence (solid or full-view) can either be barbed wire (semi-
permanent), Chain links (permanent structure) and concertina
(least permanent).
Barb wire = twisted double strand, 12 gauge wire, with 4 point
barb spaced an equal distant part, at least 7 feet high
excluding the top guard, firmly attached to a post not more
than 6 feet apart and distance between strands will not exceed
6 inches and at least one wire will be interface vertical and
midway between the posts.
 Concertina =commercially manufactured wire coil of
high-strength-steel barbed wire clipped together at
intervals to form a cylinder. Opened concertina wire is
5 feet long and 3 feet in high.
 Chain Links = 7 foot material excluding the top guard, 9
gauge or heavier and mesh opening are not be larger than
2inches per aide.
 Bard Tape = composed of barb wire, bard tape dispenser
and concertina. It is faabricated from a steel strip with
minimum breaking system of 500 pounds, over-all width
of ¾ inch and 7/16 inch barb spaced ½ inch intervals
along each side.
17. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is
determined through a process called ______________.
A. security training C. security education
B. security promotion D. security investigation
 Security Education = a program given to employees of an
installation pertaining to measures and safeguards to be taken
to protect the interest of the installation.
 Security Investigation = an inquiry on the character,
reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an
individual in order to determine a person’s suitability for
appointment or access to classified matter.
 Security training = design to teach specific method of
performing task or responding to a given situation.
15. Which of the following should NOT be issued to private
security guards under normal condition?
A. cal .45 pistol C. all of these
B. cal .38 revolver D. 9mm pistol
16. Which of the following words below is NOT related to the
others?
A. reinstate C. fortify
B. augment D. reinforce

High power gun used in military and those with caliber more
than .38 caliber, except magnum .22 and .357.
18. The minimum age requirement for security manager or
operator of a security agency is:
A. 40 yrs old C. 25 yrs old
B. 30 yrs old D. 35 yrs old
19. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to
the national economy security
 A. relative vulnerability C. relative necessity
 B. relative criticality D. relative security

 Relative vulnerability = susceptability of the plant or

establishment to damage, loss or distruption of operation due
to various hazards.
20. Protection of classified documents/matters concerning
their preparation, classification, reproduction, handling,
transmission, disposal and destruction.
A. document security C. physical security
B. operational security D.organizational security
21. New employees should be briefed on security rules and
regulations of the organization and the importance of
observing them. This process is called________.
A. Security promotion C. Security reminders
B. Security orientation D. Security investigation
 22. How is one classified if he steals primarily
because of irresistible urge due to unexpected
opportunity and little chance of detection?
 A. systematic pilferer C. ordinary pilferer
 B. casual pilferer D. unusual pilferer
23. Before a security expert can recommend, what type of
security will be need by an industrial establishment, there is a
need for him to undertake a:
A. Security training C. Security check
B. Security survey D. Security education 
24. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing
entry to compound or installation or parts thereof is called:
 A. duress code C. pass system
 B. access list D. ID system 
25. Security education program to be effective must have the
support and sanction of the:
 A. security agency C. top management
 B. board of trustees D. management of the firm
 26. A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and
deficiency in all aspects of security, with the corresponding
recommendation is:
 A. security inspection C. security education
 B. security seminar D. security survey
 27. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security
and its relevance to their work is:
 A. security inspection C. security education
 B. security seminar D. security survey 
 28. It refers to an act or condition which results in a situation
which is a breach of the protection of system and the
subsequent losses or compromise of defense information,
company secrets or damage to personnel, property or facilities
is:
 A. defense facility C. anti-pilferer
 29. What is the basic load of ammunition of security guard?
A. 25 C. 30
B. 50 D. 15 
 30. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of
license for private security personnel?
A. PNP SUSIA C. PNP FED
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD
 31. What is the last phase of security education program?
A. initial interview C. refresher conference
B. debriefing D. security promotion
Initial Interview, Training conference, Refresher conference,
Security Reminders, Security promotion, Special interview
and Debriefing.
 32. What type of pass system allows any person to gain
access to specific areas provided they possess valid
authorization which they keep in possession until
terminated?
A. Pass exchange system C. single pass
B. multiple pass D. none of these

 33. What type of controlled area requires highest degree

of security?
 A. limited C. restricted
 B. any of these D. exclusive
 34. What is the minimum number of security guards required
on the company guard force in order to secure a regular
license to operate?
A. one hundred C. three hundred
B. thirty D. two hundred 
 35. What is the most common type of human hazard?
A. sabotage C. pilferage
B. shoplifting D. espionage
 
 36. These are hazards caused by natural phenomena,
EXCEPT:
A. lightning C. earthquake
B. conflagration D. vandalism
 37. What type of investigation involves all aspect and details
about the circumstances of a person?
A. partial background investigation
B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation
D. national agency check
 38. What is the process of conducting physical examination to
determine compliance with establishment security policies
and procedures as a result of security survey?
A. security education C. security survey
 39. A type of protective alarm system located outside the
installation and the alarm signal is relayed to remote panel.
A. local alarm system C. central alarm system
B. dial alarm system D. proprietary alarm system
 40. What is the FIRST phase of security education program?
A. initial interview C. refresher conference
B. debriefing D. security promotion
  41. What is the security force maintained and operated by any
private company/ corporation for its own security
requirements?
 A. GSU C. CSF
 B. PSA D. none of these
 42. An authenticated list of personnel given to security
allowing entry to compound or installation or parts thereof is
called:
 A. duress code C. pass system
 B. access list D. ID system
 43. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security
and its relevance to their work is:
 A. security inspection C. security education
 B. security seminar D. security survey
44. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green
color?
A. sodium vapor lampC. mercury vapor lamp
B. incandescent lamp D. quartz lamp
45. Security consultant must have atleast_______.
 A. initial capital investment
 B. experiences in operation and management of security
business
 C. graduate of investigation course offered by PNP or NBI
 D. license to operate an agency
46. When are security guards deputized by the PNP Chief or
local mayor to have police authority within their assigned
area of responsibility?
 A. when there is an employees strike
 B. when the company is in retrenchment
 C. during times of emergency
 D. when there is a crime committed inside the establishment
 47. What type of controlled area requires highest degree of
security?
A. limited C. restricted
B. any of these D. exclusive 
 48. Private security agency has to be registered with the
_________.
A. Securities & Exchange Commission C. PADPAO
B. National Police Commission D. Social Security System
 49. A private security agency maybe allowed to procure high
powered firearms if they operates in areas where there is an
upsurge of lawlessness and criminality. How many percent of
high powered firearm is allowed to be possessed by a private
security agency?
A. ten percent C. one hundred percent
B. thirty percent D. fifty percent
50. He exercises the power to revoke, for cause, licenses
issued to security guards.
A. Secretary, DILG C. Chief, PNP
B. Chairman, NAPOLCOM D. Usec. for Peace & Order
51. What is the required capital investment for organization
of private security agency?
A. Php 500,000.00 C. Php 1,000,000.00
B. Php 100,000.00 D. Php 50,000.00
52. What light operates during power interruption?
A. stationary C. emergency
B. movable D. none of these
 53. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green
color?
A. sodium vapor lamp C. mercury vapor lamp
 B. incandescent lamp D. quartz lamp
 54. In this system of alarm detection, the circuits are led to the
nearest police or fire station.
A. local alarm C. proprietary alarm
B. auxiliary alarm D. central alarm
 55. What is a portable and detachable lock having a pivoted
hasp which passes through a staple ring and is then made
secured?
 A. lock C. padlock
 B. ward lock D. pin tumbler
 56. What is called as devices and contrivance installed inside
and outside a facility to compliment and provide additional
security measures and operates to advertise entry into
sensitive and protected area?
 A. protective lock C. protective cabinet
 B. protective barrier D. protective lock 
 57. Type of alarm system which is usually activated by the
interruption of the light beam is known as:
A. metallic foil C. electric eye device
B. audio alarm D. microwave alarm 
 58. In bank security, time delay lock system is usually utilized
in____.
 A. steel cabinet C. Safe
 B. vault D. File room
 59. What is the final line of physical defense?
A. Protective barrier C. Protective cabinets
B. Windows and doors D. Protective locks
 60. What lock requires manipulation of parts according to a
predetermined combination code of numbers?
A. Card- operated lock C. Combination lock
B. Electromagnetic lock D. None of these 
 61. Lighting equipment primary used to extend the
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter barrier.
A. Fresnel light C. Glare projection
B. Street light D. Controlled lighting
 62. In installing protective lighting, what are the areas which
needs illumination?
A. Parking area C. Sensitive area
B. Vehicular gate D. All of these
 63. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. All of these
 64. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas
where insects predominate?
A. Mercury vapor lamp C. Sodium vapor lamp
B. Quartz lamp D. Any of these
  
 65. Lighting equipment primary used to extend the
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter barrier.
A. Fresnel light C. Glare projection
B. Street light D. Controlled lighting
 66. In installing protective lighting, what are the areas which
needs illumination?
A. Parking area C. Sensitive area
B. Vehicular gate D. All of these 
 67. A type of protective alarm system located outside the
installation and the alarm signal is relayed to remote panel.
A. Local alarm system C. Central alarm system
B. Dial alarm system D. Proprietary alarm system
 68. These lighting equipment produce diffused light rather
than directional beam and widely used in parking areas.
A. Fresnel light C. Floodlight
B. Search light D. Street light 
 69. What type of lamp emits bright white light?
A. Sodium vapor lamp C. Mercury vapor lamp
B. Incandescent lamp D. Quartz lamp
  
 70. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between
the potential intruder and the object/ matter to be protected.
As a criminologist, this is simply a denial of_____________.
A. Criminal instinct
B. Opportunity to commit an offense
C. Opportunity and access to the object of protection
D. Access to the object of protection 
 71. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder
while the guard remains in the comparative darkness?
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
B. Emergency lighting D. Glare- projection
 72. What type of bank alarm is usually place in the teller’s top
cash drawer and connected to the alarm system, the alarm is
usually activated by removing the currency in the device?
A. Foot rail C. Bill traps
B. Foot button D. Double squeeze 
 73. A fence constructed in such a way to provide visual access
on the exterior perimeter area.
A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
B. Masonry walls D. Half way
 74. The first line of physical defense of an industrial complex
viewing it from the outside is__________.
A. The building itself C. Perimeter barrier
B. All of these D. Door, locks, windows
 75. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use
of electronic hardware, human guards and even animals. In
England, an owner to protect his compound used this and they
are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain. This
man is using_____.
 A. Tamed tigersC. Bulldog
 B. Goat D. Geese 
 76. What is an act governing the organization and management
of private security agency, company guard force and
government security forces?
 A. RA 7438 C. RA 4587
 C. RA 5478 D. RA 5487
 77. It is a man- made structure or physical device which is
capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal access to an
installation.
 78. What is known as the exterior and interior parallel area near
the perimeter barrier of an industrial complex to afford better
observation and patrol movement?
 A. Patrol lane zoneC. Clear zone
 B. Protective zone D. Restricted area 
 79. What is the system of natural or man- made barriers placed
between the potential intruder and the object, person and matter
being protected?
A. Communication security C. Document security
B. Physical security D. Personal security 
 80. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and
business enterprises where personnel, processes, properties and
operations are safeguarded?
A. Personal security C. Document security
B. Industrial security D. Bank security
 81. Protective lighting, perimeter barriers and ________
system are known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Relieving C. Reporting
 B. Accounting D. Guarding 
 82. What is the standard height requirement for a barbed wire
fence excluding the top guard?
A. Seven feet C. Four feet
B. Six feet D. Five feet
 83. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or concertina.
Chain link are for ______.
A. Solid structure C. Permanent structure
B. Least permanent D. Semi- permanent
 84. What is the process of conducting physical examination to
determine compliance with establishment security policies
and procedures as a result of security survey?
 A. Security inspection C. Security education
 B. Personnel security D. Security preparation
 85. A special key capable of opening series of locks is known
as ________.
A. Change key C. Peterman
B. Master key D. Key control
 86. How is one classified if he steals with preconceived plans
and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for
economic gain?
 A. Systematic pilferer C. Ordinary pilferer
 B. Casual pilferer D. Unusual pilferer
 87. Security survey is a critical on site examination and
analysis of an industrial facility, business, public or private
institution done to ascertain the current security status and
identify deficiencies. What is the first sequence of action in
conducting security survey?
 A. Determine the level of protection needed
 B. Make appropriate recommendations
 C. Ascertain the current security status
 D. Examine and analyze the site and the organization
 88. What is the last phase of security education program?
A. Initial interviewC. Refresher conference
B. Debriefing D. Security promotion
9. It is the importance of the firm or installation in relation to
national security.
Relative necessity C. Relative vulnerability
Relative security D. Relative criticality
0. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on a vertical
perimeter fence is commonly called as:
A. Tower guard C. Top guard
B. Guard control D. Barrier
1. Security guards must be taught _________ because they are
the first contact of the public during on/ off hours.
A. Marksmanship C. Management
B. Security D. Public relation
 92. What type identification system involves badge or
pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas issued
to an employees who keeps it in his possession until his
authorization is charge or until he terminates?
A. Pass exchange system C. Single pass system
 B. Gate pass system D. Multiple pass system 
 93. These are hazards which arise from natural
phenomena such as earthquake, eruption of volcano and
floods.
 A. Man made hazardC. Human hazard
 B. Situational hazard D. Natural hazard 
 94. It includes all the security measures designed to prevent
unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the
government, from gaining access to classified matter or to any
security facility, and to prevent appointment or retention as
employees of such individuals.
 A. Personnel security C. Document security
 B. Industrial security D. VIP security
 95. What is called as more comprehensive investigation than
the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough and complete
investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of
a person’s life is conducted?
A. Personnel security investigation
B. Background investigation
C. Criminal investigation
D. Private investigation
 96. Under physical security, what should be placed between
the prospective intruder and target installation?
A. Hazard C. Net
 B. Risk D. Barrier
 97. The minimum age requirement for security manager or
operator of a security agency is:
A. 40 yrs old C. 25 yrs old
B. 30 yrs old D. 35 yrs old 
 98. Security consultant must have at least how many years of
experience in operation and management of security business?
A. 5 C. 10
B. 15 D. 20
 99. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue-
green color?
A. Sodium vapor lamp C. Mercury vapor lamp
B. Incandescent lamp D. Quartz lamp 

100. Security consultant must have atleast_______.

A. Initial capital investment
B. Experiences in operation and management of
security business
C. Graduate of investigation course offered by PNP or
NBI
D. License to operate an agency
 97. The primary institution for the training and
education of all personnel of the PNP, BFP and BJMP
is the:
 A. Philippine National Police Academy
 B. National Police College
 C. Philippine Military Academy
D. Philippine Public Safety College
E. Philippine Law Enforcement College