HISTOPATHOLOGY

ANN FATIMA G. QUINDAO, RMT, LPT, MPH

1. Which the four aspects of a disease process that form the
core pathology are the following, EXCEPT?

a. Cause
b. Mechanisms of disease development
c. Molecular and psychological changes
d. Functional consequences of the changes
1. Which the four aspects of a disease process that form the
core pathology are the following, EXCEPT?

a. Cause
b. Mechanisms of disease development
c. Molecular and psychological changes
d. Functional consequences of the changes
2. This inflammation is charactered of inflammations in the lining of the
body cavities, such as the meninges, pericardium and pleura where large
amounts of fibrin is formed and deposited in the extracellular spaces.

a. Serous inflammation
b. Fibrinous inflammation
c. Catarrhal inflammation
d. Suppurative inflammation
2. This inflammation is charactered of inflammations in the lining of the
body cavities, such as the meninges, pericardium and pleura where large
amounts of fibrin is formed and deposited in the extracellular spaces.

a. Serous inflammation
b. Fibrinous inflammation
c. Catarrhal inflammation
d. Suppurative inflammation
Serous inflammation - a form of inflammation where the predominant
feature is the production of a serum-like exudate.

Catarrhal inflammation - inflammatory process that occurs in mucous

membranes and is characterized by increased blood flow to the mucosal
vessels, edema of the interstitial tissue, enlargement of the secretory epithelial
cells, and profuse discharge of mucus and epithelial debris

Suppurative inflammation - involves the production of large amounts of pus

3. This is due to vasodilation which allows more blood to
flow to the site?

a. Dolor
b. Calor
c. Tumor
d. Rubor
3. This is due to vasodilation which allows more blood to
flow to the site?

a. Dolor - Pain
b. Calor - Heat
c. Tumor - Swelling
d. Rubor - Redness
4. It refers to an absence of opening or lumen of an organ?

a. Aplasia
b. Agenesia
c. Hyperplasia
d. Atresia
4. It refers to an absence of opening or lumen of an organ?

a. Aplasia
b. Agenesia
c. Hyperplasia
d. Atresia
a. Aplasia - body part does not develop
b. Agenesia - imperfect development
c. Hyperplasia - enlargement of an organ or tissue
d. Atresia
5. Hypoxic event seen in tissues from removal up to the time
prior to fixation.

a. Warm ischemia
b. Cold ischemia
c. Hypoxia
d. Necrosis
5. Hypoxic event seen in tissues from removal up to the time
prior to fixation.

a. Warm ischemia - DWIT

b. Cold ischemia - CIT
c. Hypoxia - reduced oxygen, due to ischemia
d. Necrosis - loss of blood flow to bone tissue
Recording
The time to fixation, the fixative used and the total fixation time (including fixation before
decalcification) should be recorded.
 Ischemic time (time until the submerging of tissue in fixative) should be minimized and recorded
in relevant cases.
 Fixation for less than the optimally specified time below should be recorded as inadequately
fixed.

Pre-laboratory
 Specimens should be transferred to a fixative within 1 hour of surgical excision. If this cannot be
achieved, keep the specimen at 4°C including during transfer to the laboratory.
 Deterioration will commence very quickly with the loss of blood supply after surgery. Results
have shown that the quality of RNA and DNA is reliable for specimens stored at 4 ºC overnight.
6. Paraffin blocks should be stored for how many years?

a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. Indefinitely
6. Paraffin blocks should be stored for how many years?

a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. Indefinitely
All records of patient testing, QC and instrument maintenance, etc. must be
retained for, at least, the following periods of time.
 Wet tissue --------------- 2 weeks after final report
 Paraffin Blocks--------- 10 years
 Slide ---------------------- 10 years (in readable condition)
 Reports (paper)------- 10 years (in addition to electronic Reports)
 Worksheet -------------- 2 years
 Maintenance Records---- 2 years
 QC Records ------------------ 2 years
 Accession Log --------------- 2 years
7. Barcoding is a method used in;

a. Specimen labelling
b. Specimen accessioning
c. Specimen orientation
d. Specimen grossing
7. Barcoding is a method used in;

a. Specimen labelling
b. Specimen accessioning
c. Specimen orientation
d. Specimen grossing

The specimens are accessioned by giving them a number that will identify
each specimen for each patient.
8. What is the most dangerous type of microtome

a. Rotary
b. Rocking
c. Ultrathin
d. Sliding
8. What is the most dangerous type of microtome

a. Rotary
b. Rocking
c. Ultrathin
d. Sliding
TYPE OF MICROTOME
 Rotary - often referred to as the “Minot” after its inventor. The
basic mechanism requires the rotation of a fine advance hand-
wheel by 360° degrees, moving the specimen vertically past the
cutting surface and returning it to the starting position.
 Base sledge - the specimen is held stationary and the knife slides
across the top of the specimen during sectioning. Used primarily
for large blocks, hard tissues, or whole mounts, it is especially
useful in neuropathology and ophthalmic pathology.
TYPE OF MICROTOME
 Rotary Rocking - Commonly used in cryostats, the
retracting action moves the tissue block away from the knife
on the upstroke, producing a flat face to the tissue block.
 Sliding - The knife or blade is stationary and the specimen
slides under it during sectioning. This microtome was
developed for use with celloidin-embedded tissue blocks.
 Ultrathin - Used exclusively for electron microscopy.
9. Necrotic pattern in pulmonary tuberculosis.

a. Coagulation necrosis
b. Liquefaction necrosis
c. Fat necrosis
d. Caseous necrosis
e. Gangrenous necrosis
9. Necrotic pattern in pulmonary tuberculosis.

a. Coagulation necrosis
b. Liquefaction necrosis
c. Fat necrosis
d. Caseous necrosis
e. Gangrenous necrosis
 Coagulation necrosis - a type of accidental cell death typically caused by ischemia or infarction. In coagulative
necrosis, the architectures of dead tissue are preserved for at least a couple of days.
Example: myocardial infarction
 Liquefaction necrosis - (or colliquative necrosis) is a type of necrosis which results in a transformation of the tissue into
a liquid viscous mass.
Example: cerebral infarction.
 Fat necrosis - a noncancerous lump in the breast that develops from dead or damaged breast tissue.
Example: tuberculosis lesions
 Caseous necrosis - unique form of cell death in which the tissue maintains a cheese-like appearance. It is also a
distinctive form of coagulative necrosis. The dead tissue appears as a soft and white proteinaceous dead cell mass.
Example: necrosis of fat by pancreatic enzymes
 Gangrenous necrosis - is death of body tissue due to a lack of blood flow or a serious bacterial infection. Gangrene
commonly affects the arms and legs, including the toes and fingers, but it can also occur in the muscles and in organs
inside the body, such as the gallbladder.
Example: necrosis of fat by pancreatic enzymes
 Fibrinoid necrosis - typically seen in vasculitis and glomerular autoimmune diseases
10. The following are chemical mediators of the
inflammatory process, EXCEPT:

a. Bradykinin
b. Prostaglandin
c. Sirtuins
d. Leukotrienes
10. The following are chemical mediators of the
inflammatory process, EXCEPT:

a. Bradykinin
b. Prostaglandin
c. Sirtuins
d. Leukotrienes
 Bradykinin – a potent endothelium-dependent vasodilator and mild
diuretic, which may cause a lowering of the blood pressure.
 Prostaglandin – a group of lipids made at sites of tissue damage or
infection that are involved in dealing with injury and illness. They
control processes such as inflammation, blood flow, the formation of
blood clots and the induction of labor.
 Leukotrienes – inflammatory chemicals the body releases after
coming in contact with an allergen or allergy trigger. Leukotrienes
cause tightening of airway muscles and the production of excess
mucus and fluid.
11. Otherwise termed as calor;

a. Pain
b. Swelling
c. Heat
d. Loss of function
11. Otherwise termed as calor;

a. Pain
b. Swelling
c. Heat
d. Loss of function
12. The most common stimulus for muscle hypertrophy is;

a. Increased workload
b. Increased hormonal stimulation
c. Starvation
d. Disuse
12. The most common stimulus for muscle hypertrophy is;

a. Increased workload
b. Increased hormonal stimulation
c. Starvation
d. Disuse

Hypertrophy - an increase and growth of muscle cells. Hypertrophy refers to an

increase in muscular size achieved through exercise. When you work out, if you
want to tone or improve muscle definition, lifting weights is the most common way
to increase hypertrophy
13. Reduction in body temperature following death after
death.

a. Rigor mortis
b. Livor mortis
c. Algor mortis
d. Putrefaction
13. Reduction in body temperature following death after
death.

a. Rigor mortis
b. Livor mortis
c. Algor mortis
d. Putrefaction
 Putrefaction – the breakdown of tissue by bacterial action often with
formation of gas.
 Autolysis – is the lysis or dissolution of cells by enzymatic action probably
as a result of rupture of lysosomes.
 Saponification or adipocere formation - is a modification of the
putrefaction process, which involves hydrolysis and hydrogenation of fatty
tissues into a yellowish, greasy, rancid, wax-like substance called
adipocere.
 Mummification - is a modification of the putrefaction process
characterized by the desiccation or dehydration of the cadaveric tissues.
EARLY POST MORTEM CHANGES:
 Algor mortis - changes in the skin, eyes, post mortem
cooling
 Rigor mortis - post mortem rigidity (stiffening)
 Livor mortis also known as lividity - post mortem
staining
14. What is the most commonly used fixative?

a. Acetone
b. Alcohol
c. Formalin
d. Xylene
14. What is the most commonly used fixative?

a. Acetone
b. Alcohol
c. Formalin
d. Xylene
15. This is performed immediately after clearing;

a. Dehydration
b. Infiltration
c. Embedding
d. Decalcification
15. This is performed immediately after clearing;

a. Dehydration
b. Infiltration
c. Embedding
d. Decalcification
Clearing - to remove alcohol and other dehydrants from tissues prior to embedding (usually in
paraffin wax), and from finished slides prior to mounting.
1. Labeling
2. Fixation
3. Decalcification (optional)
4. Dehydration
5. Clearing
6. Impregnation (Infiltration)
7. Embedding
8. Trimming
9. Section-Cutting (Microtomy)
10. Staining
11. Mounting
16. Unlike other fixatives, this agent causes tissues to swell;

a. Potassium dichromate
b. Osmium tetroxide
c. Glacial acetic acid
d. Picric acid
16. Unlike other fixatives, this agent causes tissues to swell;

a. Potassium dichromate
b. Osmium tetroxide
c. Glacial acetic acid
d. Picric acid
 Potassium dichromate - is a very valuable fixing agent where lipids are
concerned.
 Osmium tetroxide - is a good fixative and excellent stain for lipids in
membranous structures and vesicles. The most prominent staining in
adherent human cells (HeLa) is seen on lipid droplets.
 Glacial acetic acid - It is incorporated in compound fixatives to help prevent
the loss of nucleic acids and, because it swells collagen, to counter the
shrinkage caused by other ingredients such as ethanol.
 Picric acid - is a coagulant fixative which changes the charges on the
ionizable side chains of proteins and disrupts electrostatic and hydrogen
bonds.
17. The paraffin-infiltrated subject is placed in a small mold
with melted paraffin and allowed to harden.

a. Infiltration
b. Sectioning
c. Embedding
d. Trimming
17. The paraffin-infiltrated subject is placed in a small mold
with melted paraffin and allowed to harden.

a. Infiltration
b. Sectioning
c. Embedding
d. Trimming
18. This tissue is the most considered for decalcification;

a. Heart
b. Brain
c. Bone
d. Intestine
18. This tissue is the most considered for decalcification;

a. Heart
b. Brain
c. Bone
d. Intestine
19. Clearing agents that turn milky as soon as tissues are
placed in it indicates;

a. Incomplete fixation
b. Incomplete dehydration
c. Incomplete clearing
d. Incomplete impregnation
19. Clearing agents that turn milky as soon as tissues are
placed in it indicates;

a. Incomplete fixation
b. Incomplete dehydration
c. Incomplete clearing
d. Incomplete impregnation
Why is clearing required during processing
 Clearing is required to remove alcohol from tissues and is replaced by fluid which is miscible with wax with which tissue must
be impregnated
 Clearing agent is necessary as the dehydrating agents are not miscible with paraffin
 Clearing agent is miscible with both dehydrating agent as well as paraffin wax

What are the features of good clearing agent

 Remove alcohol quickly
 Clear quickly without overhardening
 Should not dissolve out aniline dyes
 Should not evaporate to quickly in wax bath

How much volume of clearing agent is required

 More than 10 times the volume of the tissue

Which is the most commonly used cleaning agent

 Xylene
20. Which of the following types of impregnation is recommended
for large cavities/hollow spaces which tend to collapse;

a. Gelatin
b. Resin
c. Celloidin
d. Paraffin
20. Which of the following types of impregnation is recommended
for large cavities/hollow spaces which tend to collapse;

a. Gelatin
b. Resin
c. Celloidin
d. Paraffin
Impregnation is the process of complete removal of clearing reagents by substitution of paraffin or
any such similar media such as beeswax.
What are the features of good clearing agent

 Celloidin (colloidin) is a purified form of nitrocellulose soluble in many solvents, suitable for
specimens with large hollow cavities which tend to collapse, for hard and dense tissues such as
bones and teeth and for large tissue sections of the whole embryo.
 Gelatin impregnation is rarely used except when dehydration is to be avoided and when tissues are
to be subjected to histochemical and enzyme studies. It is used as an embedding medium for
delicate specimens and frozen tissue sections because it prevents fragmentation of tough and
friable tissues when frozen sections are cut.
 Paraffin is the simplest, most common and best embedding medium used for routine tissue
processing.
 Paraplast – This is a mixture of purified paraffin and plastic.
21. Paraffin oven must be maintained at a temperature
___________ the melting point of paraffin wax.

a. 2 – 5 Degrees Celsius below

b. 2 – 5 Degrees Fahrenheit below
c. 2 – 5 Degrees Celsius above
d. 2 – 5 Degrees Fahrenheit below
21. Paraffin oven must be maintained at a temperature
___________ the melting point of paraffin wax.

a. 2 – 5 Degrees Celsius below

b. 2 – 5 Degrees Fahrenheit below
c. 2 – 5 Degrees Celsius above
d. 2 – 5 Degrees Fahrenheit below
22. The dimmock mold is also known as the;

a. Paper boat
b. Tissue tek
c. Leuckhart’s
d. Embedding rings and base molds
22. The dimmock mold is also known as the;

a. Paper boat
b. Tissue tek
c. Leuckhart’s
d. Embedding rings and base molds
 Paper boat – are normally utilized for embedding celloidin blocks
but are equally useful for paraffin wax blocks.
 Tissue tek - Plastic Embedding Rings and Base mold – consist of a
special stainless steel base mold fitted with a plastic embedding ring
which later serves as the block holder during cutting.
 Leuckhart’s - consists of two L–shaped strips of heavy brass or metal
arranged in a flat metal plate and which can be moved to adjust the
size of the mold to the size of the specimen.
 Compound Embedding Unit is made up of series of interlocking
plates resting on a flat metal base, forming several compartments.
23. The microtome and its parts should be wiped with what
agents?

a. Formalin
b. Xylol
c. Alcohol
d. Acetone
23. The microtome and its parts should be wiped with what
agents?

a. Formalin
b. Xylol
c. Alcohol
d. Acetone
24. The process by which tissues are arranged in precise
position in the mold, in the microtome and on slide is called;

a. Embedding
b. Blocking
c. Orientation
d. Arrangement
24. The process by which tissues are arranged in precise
position in the mold, in the microtome and on slide is called;

a. Embedding
b. Blocking
c. Orientation
d. Arrangement
25. Staining of living cells by injecting the dye into any part
of the animal body;

a. Metachromatic
b. Intravital
c. Regressive staining
d. Supravital
25. Staining of living cells by injecting the dye into any part
of the animal body;

a. Metachromatic
b. Intravital
c. Regressive staining
d. Supravital
 Metachromatic - important in the detection of mast cells and is strongly
recommended as a routine stain for this purpose. One of the most frequently
metachromatic stains is toluidine blue which stains the mast cell granules
purple-to-red
 Intravital - a procedure where living cells take up certain dyes, which
selectively stain some elements in the cells, like mitochondria, lipid vesicles,
lysosomes etc.
 Supravital - a method of staining used in microscopy to examine living cells
that have been removed from an organism.
 Regressive staining - means that the tissue is deliberately over stained and
then de-stained (differentiated) until the proper endpoint is reached.
26. Dyes that stain tissue with the shade similar to the dye
itself;

a. Metachromatic stains
b. Metallic impregnation
c. Orthochromatic staining
d. Counterstain
26. Dyes that stain tissue with the shade similar to the dye
itself;

a. Metachromatic stains
b. Metallic impregnation
c. Orthochromatic staining
d. Counterstain
 Metachromatic stains
 Metallic impregnation - allow the mapping of brain regions by
visualization of neuronal connections, neurofibrils and neuronal
bodies.
 Orthochromatic staining - refers to a dye or stain which does not
change color on binding to a target as opposed to metachromatic
stains which change color.
 Counterstain - a stain with color contrasting to the principal stain,
making the stained structure easily visible using a microscope
27. Biconcave knives are best to cut ______ tissues using
_________ microtome;

a. Celloidin embedded; sliding

b. Paraffin embedded; rocking
c. Plastic embedded; ultrathin
d. Paraffin embedded; rotary
27. Biconcave knives are best to cut ______ tissues using
_________ microtome;

a. Celloidin embedded; sliding

b. Paraffin embedded; rocking
c. Plastic embedded; ultrathin
d. Paraffin embedded; rotary
28. In routine H & E, the nuclei are stained;

a. Blue-black
b. Pale pink
c. Purple
d. Orange red
28. In routine H & E, the nuclei are stained;

a. Blue-black
b. Pale pink
c. Purple
d. Orange red
In routine H & E stained;

 cell nuclei are stained BLUE

 cytoplasm and extracellular matrix are stained
PINK
29. It is the most reliable method of determining extent of
decalcification;

a. Physical method
b. Radiological method
c. Chemical method
d. Mechanical
29. It is the most reliable method of determining extent of
decalcification;

a. Physical method
b. Radiological method
c. Chemical method
d. Mechanical
30. During H & E staining, Eosin routine used as what;

a. Mordant
b. Counterstain
c. Supravital stain
d. Intravital stain
30. During H & E staining, Eosin routine used as what;

a. Mordant
b. Counterstain
c. Supravital stain
d. Intravital stain
MT LAWS
ANN FATIMA G. QUINDAO, RMT, LPT, MPH
1. The Philippine Medical Technology Act of 1969 is also
known as ____;

a. RA 2257
b. RA 5257
c. RA 2752
d. RA 5527
1. The Philippine Medical Technology Act of 1969 is also
known as ____;

a. RA 2257
b. RA 5257
c. RA 2752
d. RA 5527
2. Not part of the 4 “med-tech only” taska @ RA 5527 section 2;

a. Blood banking
b. Histopath & cytotech
c. Collection and preservation of specimen
d. Parasitologic, mycologic and microbiologic procedures
and techniquesPhilippi Medical Technology Act of 1969
2. Not part of the 4 “med-tech only” taska @ RA 5527 section 2;

a. Blood banking
b. Histopath & cytotech
c. Collection and preservation of specimen
d. Parasitologic, mycologic and microbiologic procedures
and techniquesPhilippi Medical Technology Act of 1969
3. What is the main different between a medical technologist
and a medical laboratory technician, according to RA
5527?
3. What is the main different between a medical technologist
and a medical laboratory technician, according to RA 5527?

Medical Technologist: works under supervision of a DOCTOR

(Pathologist)
Med. Lab Technician: assist Medical Technologist and Doctor
(Pathologist)
4. According to RA 5527, what is the difference between the
Medical Technology Board & the Council of Medical
Technology Education?
4. What is the main different between a medical technologist
and a medical laboratory technician, according to RA
5527?

MTB: medtech practice

CMTE: medtech education
5. [RA 5527] Who appoints the members of the Medical
Technology Board?
5. [RA 5527] Who appoints the members of the Medical
Technology Board?

President of the Philippines

6. “An Act Regulating and Modernizing the Practice of
MedTech….. Repealing RA 5527…” is also known as;

a. SB 4273
b. SB 7342
c. SB 2473
d. SB 7324
6. “An Act Regulating and Modernizing the Practice of
MedTech….. Repealing RA 5527…” is also known as;

a. SB 4273
b. SB 7342
c. SB 2473
d. SB 7324
7. Who filed SB 2473?

a. Senator Grace Poe

b. Senator Miriam Defensor-Santiago
c. Senator Teofisto Guingona III
d. Senator Bongbong MarcosMedical Technology Act of
1969
7. Who filed SB 2473?

a. Senator Grace Poe

b. Senator Miriam Defensor-Santiago
c. Senator Teofisto Guingona III
d. Senator Bongbong MarcosMedical Technology Act of
1969
8. [Medical Laboratory Technician] False for SB 2473

a. MLTs under RA 5527 do not keep their status as MLT

b. An RMT occupying position of MLT must be reclassified as RMT
c. Upon effectivity of this law, there will be no more MLT
registration.
Medical Technology Act of 1969
8. [Medical Laboratory Technician] False for SB 2473

a. MLTs under RA 5527 do not keep their status as MLT

b. An RMT occupying position of MLT must be reclassified as RMT
c. Upon effectivity of this law, there will be no more MLT
registration.
Medical Technology Act of 1969
9. True for SB 2473 only

a. only a pathologist could be chairperson of Professional Regulatory

Board of Medical Technology
b. only a medical technologist could be chairperson of Professional
Regulatory Board of Medical Technology
c. Either a Pathologist or a RMT could be chairperson of Professional
Regulatory Board of Medical Technologyechnology Act of 1969
9. True for SB 2473 only

a. only a pathologist could be chairperson of Professional Regulatory

Board of Medical Technology
b. only a medical technologist could be chairperson of Professional
Regulatory Board of Medical Technology
c. either a Pathologist or a RMT could be chairperson of Professional
Regulatory Board of Medical Technologyechnology Act of 1969
Effectivity date of RA 5527

June 21, 1969

# of Sections of RA 5527

32
Three laws that amend RA 5527

RA 6138 (RA 6132), PD 498, PD 1534

Sections amended by RA 6138

16, 21, 22
Approval date of RA 6138

August 31, 1970

Sections amended by PD 498

2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 11, 13, 16, 17, 21, 29

Approval date of PD 498

June 28, 1974

Sections amended by PD 1534

3, 8, 13
Approval date of PD 1534

June 11, 1978

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