1.

Other name of methylene blue

2. Too long exposure of blood to stain will result to
3. Cytoplasm color of eosinophil - red-orange
4. A good smear should be _2/3 to 3/4_ of a slide
5. __Romanowsky stain__ commonly used stain for blood
6. A good smear should have a _thick to thin_ transition
7. __light blue to purple__ cytoplasm color of platelets
8. Preferred blood for staining
9. __Methanol__ fixative for blood
10. __Wedge smear?___ is the known technique used in smearing
11. This is the phase where rouleaux occurs
a. Lag phase
b. Decantation phase
c. Final settling phase
d. NOTA
12. This is the phase wherein RBCs settle rapidly and constantly.
a. Lag phase
b. Log phase
c. Final settling
d. NOTA
13. An ESR result that exceeds 90mm/hr is diagnostic for ____.
a. Polymyalgia rheumatica
b. Severe inflammation
c. Bacterial infection
d. None. ESR is a nonspecific test for inflammation
14. 0.85% NaCl or 3.8% sodium chloride are diluents of the modified Westergren method.
Paul-Hellers oxalate is an anticoagulant used in the Wintrobe method.
a. 1st statement is true; 2nd statement is false
b. 1st statement is false; 2nd statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
15. ESR should be set up within ___ of blood collection if EDTA is used
a. 1 hr
b. 2 hrs
c. 3 hrs
d. 6 hrs
16. Heat released from the refrigeration motor will lead to a ___ ESR result
a. Falsely increased
b. Falsely decreased
c. No effect
17. Vibrations from opening the refrigerator or freezer doors will lead to a ___ ESR result
a. Falsely increased
b. Falsely decreased
c. No effect
18. All of the following may influence the ESR, except.
a. Blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube
b. Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
c. Plasma proteins
 d. Caliber of the tube
19. In Westergren method, the tube is read after 1 hr
The left side of the tube is read for ESR in wintrobe method
a. 1st statement is true; 2nd statement is false
b. 1st statement is false; 2nd statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
20. Excess EDTA will lead to falsely ___ ESR
a. Increased
b. Decreased
21. For every 3 degrees tilt of the tube, there will be ___ in the result
a. 30% increase
b. 3% increase
c. 30% decrease
d. 3% decrease
22. In modified Westergren method, the tube is read after 1 and 2 hrs
Sodium citrate is the anticoagulant used in this method
a. 1st statement is true; 2nd statement is false
b. 1st statement is false; 2nd statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
23. It is the slowest phase in ESR
a. Lag phase
b. Decantation phase
c. Final settling phase
d. NOTA
24. Lower temperatures from air rushing out on opening the refrigerator or freezer will lead to a ___
ESR result
a. Falsely increased
b. Falsely decreased
c. No effect
25. ESR should be set up within ___ of blood collection if citrate is used
a. 1 hr
b. 2 hrs
c. 3 hrs
d. 6 hrs
26. The average weight of the hemoglobin of the red blood cell
a. MCV
b. MCHC
c. MCH
d. ARC
27. Reference range of MCH
a. 80-100 fL
b. 6-80 fL
c. 27-32 pg
d. 32-27 pg
28. Reference range of MCV
a. 80-100 fL
b. 6-80 fL
 c. 27-32 pg
d. 32-27 pg
29. Reference range of MCHC
a. 80-100 fL
b. 32-27 %
c. 27-32 pg
d. 32-27 pg
30. The average volume of the red blood cell
a. MCV
b. MCHC
c. MCH
d. ARC
31. A patient has the following results:
RBC count = 3.20x10^12/L
HGB = 5.8 g/dL
HCT = 18.9% (0.19 L/L)
Calculate the red blood cell indices:
MCV: 58 fl
MCH: 18 pg
MCHC: 30.7%
32. Normal range of WBC count?
a. 4-11
b. 5-8
c. 1-4
d. 8-12
33. Absolute polycythemia and relative polycythemia can be interchanged
a. True
b. False
34. What is the normal range for RBC count?
a. 4.3-5.7
b. 7-11
c. 1.5-11
d. 3.5-6
35. Increase value of male hemoglobin can be attributed to the increase level of testosterone
a. True
b. False
36. What is the normal range of hemoglobin?
a. 14.0-17.0
b. 13.2-14.2
c. 14.0-18.0
d. 12.0-14.0
37. We can calculate our MCV using hemoglobin value
a. True
b. False
38. What is the normal range for MCV?
a. 80-100
b. 90-100
c. 70-90
d. 60-80
39. What is the normal value of basophil?
a. 0.5-1
b. 1-2
c. 0-4
d. 1-5
40. Blood is separated based on density
a. True
b. False
41. Inhabitant in high altitude area will have low hematocrit
a. True
b. False
42. Which of the following is part of the RBC indices?
a. All of the following
b. RBC count
c. Hct
d. Hgb
43. Inappropriate time and speed of centrifuge can cause falsely low result
a. True
b. False
44. Microscopy used in direct platelet identification ___Phase-Contrast Light Microscopy_,
45. Most common method used in direct method-phase microscopy _____
46. Indirect platelet count method are counted in relation to ____ in the blood smear
47. To determine the approximate number of platelets, a microscopist reads at __Oil-Immerision__
objective lens
48. Diluting fluid composition for Reese & Eckers:
Brilliant cresyl blue
Sodium citrate
Distilled water
49. Normal platelet count value: _150-400_ x10^9/L
50. Why do we need to “manually” count platelets?
51. A possibility of significant bleeding is seen when platelets reached 60x10^9/L
a. True
b. False
52. Using Reese & Eckers formula, 204 platelets were counted. Calculate
53. RBC pipette is used for indirect platelet count
a. True
b. False
54. Specimen used in direct platelet count method ____
55. Site at least 3 reasons why platelets are hard to count ____
56. Diluting fluid composition for Guy & leakes
Crystal violet
Sodium citrate
Distilled water
40% formalin
57. A patient has an Hct of 30%, a hemoglobin of 8 g/dL, and an RBC count of 4.0x10^12/L. What is
the morphological classification of this anemia?
a. Normocytic, normochromic
b. Macrocytic, hypochromic
 c. Microcytic, hypochromic
d. Normocytic, hyperchromic
58. All of the following are characteristics of megaloblastic anemia except
a. Pancytopenia
b. Elevated reticulocyte count
c. Hypersegmented neutrophils
d. Macrocytic erythrocyte indices
59. All of the following are characteristic findings in patient with iron deficiency anemia except
a. Microcytic, hypochromic red cell morphology
b. Decreased serum iron and ferritin level
c. Decreased total iron binding capacity (TIBC)
d. Increased RBC protoporphyrin
60. Select the amino acid substitution that is responsible for sickle cell anemia:
a. Lysine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of the α-chain
b. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of the β-chain
c. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of the α-chain
d. Glutamine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of the β-chain
61. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by all of the following except
a. Hemorrhage
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Hemoglobinuria
d. Reticulocytopenia
62. In which of the following conditions will autosplenectomy most likely occur?
a. Thalassemia major
b. Hgb C disease
c. Hgb SC disease
d. Sickle cell disease
63. Which morphological classification is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?
a. Normocytic, normochromic
b. Microcytic, normochromic
c. Macrocytic, hypochromic
d. Macrocytic, normochromic
64. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by:
a. Decreased plasma iron, decreased % saturation, increased TIBC
b. Decreased plasma iron, decreased plasma ferritin, normal RBC porphyrin
c. Decreased plasma iron, decreased % saturation, decreased TIBC
d. Decreased plasma iron, increased % saturation, decreased TIBC
65. Which of the following is most true of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
a. It is a rare acquired stem cell disorder that results in hemolysis
b. It is a inherited as a sex-linked trate
c. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
d. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait
66. Which is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell trait?
a. Hgb S
b. Hgb F
c. Hgb A2
d. Hgb A
67. Explain how does our body synthesize vitamin B12
68. When platelets concentrate at the edges and feathered end of a blood smear, it is usually due to:
 a. Abnormal proteins
b. Inadequate mixing of blood and anticoagulant
c. Hemorrhage
d. Poorly made wedge smear
69. All of the following are factors that affect the quality of a blood smear, except?
a. Size of the drop of blood
b. Angle of the spreader
c. Speed
d. Colorfulness of the slide
70. Consequences of exposing blood to an artificial surface include the following except
a. Formation of thrombi and emboli
b. Consumption of procoagulant proteins and platelets
c. Alteration of the function of these proteins
d. Genetic switching of these proteins
71. Which of the following statements about reticulocytes are true?
a. Contains ribosomal RNA observable using a supravital stain
b. Stays in the marrow for 2-3 days prior to release into blood
c. Seen as polychromatophilic erythrocyte in Wright’s stain
d. Both a & b
72. Which of the following is not a function of the LIS?
a. It can help prevent medical errors
b. It can retrieve laboratory results that may have been lost by a doctor or patient
c. It can help the day-day operations run more smoothly
d. It can analyze samples for markers of various diseases
73. If a blood smear is dried too slowly, the red blood cells are often
a. Clumped
b. Crenated
c. Lysed
d. Destroyed
74. The intrinsic pathway of the coagulation system begins with the activation of?
a. Factor II
b. Factor I
c. Factor XII
d. Factor V
75. Treatment of your disseminated intravascular coagulopathy includes the following, except
a. Fresh frozen plasma
b. Platelet concentrate
c. Cryoprecipitate
d. Packed red cells
76. A platelet determination was performed on an automated instrument and a very low value was
obtained. The platelets appear adequate when estimated from the blood film. The best
explanation for this discrepancy is:
a. Many platelets are abnormally large
b. Blood sample is hemolyzed
c. White cell fragments are present in the blood
d. Red cell fragments are present in the blood
77. All the tests are used to distinguish your primary and secondary fibrinolysis disorders, except
a. d-dimer test
b. clot retraction test
 c. platelet counting
d. euglobulin clot lysis time
78. The following are the sources of errors in hematocrit measurement, except
a. Failure to seal the tube during collection
b. Failure to mix sample
c. Failure to read the capillary tube immediately after centrifugation
d. Inappropriate RPM
79. If a dried smear cannot be stained immediately, it should be preserved by immersing in:
a. Ethanol
b. Eosin
c. Methanol
d. Methylene blue
80. A properly stained blood smear should appear:
a. Pinkish blue
b. Purple
c. Blue
d. Red
81. Which of the following statements are true of LIS?
1. The LIS structures tasks and assists in the management of data produced by the lab
2. The LIS requires reconfiguration as instrument and testing changes
3. The LIS is the same throughout every laboratory
4. The LIS affects the pre-analytical and post analytical parts of the laboratory
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,2,4
c. 2,3,4
d. 1,3,4
82. Which of the following can cause falsely decrease hematocrit count?
a. Inappropriate blood and anticoagulant ratio
b. Failure to mix sample
c. Low RPM
d. Failure to read immediately after centrifugation
83. Platelets seen in this disorder is characterized by a gray or blue gray color
a. Blue platelet syndrome
b. Blue gray platelet syndrome
c. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
d. Gray platelet syndrome
84. How many erythrocytes are counted in the routine light microscope method of reticulocyte count?
a. 1000
b. 100
c. 500
d. 50
85. All of the following are Romanowsky stain, except
a. Leishman stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Hematoxylin stain
d. Wright's stain
86. The following diseases causes low reticulocyte count, except
a. Aplastic anemia
b. IDA
 c. Sickle cell disease
d. Pernicious anemia
87. Miss Nanny received a request and a CSF sample from a nurse intended for different section in
the laboratory. Which of the sections should go first?
a. Microbiology
b. Hematology
c. Clinical chemistry
d. AUBF
88. The anticoagulant required for routine coagulation testing is:
a. Sodium heparin
b. Sodium citrate
c. Acid citrate dextrose
d. Sodium fluoride
89. The following are the variables that influence the shift of hematocrit, except
a. Fluid volume
b. RBC count
c. RBC volume
d. Acute bleeding
90. The specimen of choice for preparation of blood films for manual differential account is whole
blood collected in
a. EDTA
b. Oxalate
c. Citrate
d. Heparin
91. Which of the following are part of the SOP in the RR?
a. Establish the traceability of samples or requests
b. Entertain verbal requests for emergency cases
c. Manipulate the laboratory register
d. All of the choices
92. Sometimes referred to as the “royal disease” as Queen Victoria was a carrier and the condition
eventually spread through Europe’s royal families
a. Owren’s disease
b. Hemophilia B
c. Hemophilia A
d. Vitamin K deficiency
93. Which of the following instruments can be used to evaluate platelet function?
a. Platelet aggregation
b. VerifyNow
c. PFA-100
d. All of the above
94. What anticoagulant is used in supporting the treatment of hemostatic disorders that acts as a
powerful chelator which also binds in your calcium that is needed for hemostasis?
a. Heparin
b. EDTA
c. Oxalate
d. Citrate
95. Which of the following is considered a patient demographic?
a. Patient sex
b. Referring physician
 c. Age or birthdate
d. All of the choices
96. On a smear made directly from a finger stick, no platelets were found in the counting area. The
first thing to do is:
a. Examine the slide for clumping
b. Obtain another smear
c. Perform a total platelet count
d. Request another finger stick
97. Platelet satellitosis is usually due to:
a. Abnormal platelets
b. Inadequate mixing of blood and anticoagulant
c. Hemorrhage poorly made wedge smear
98. A manual white blood cell counter uses a Unopette dilution and a Neuvauer hemocytometer gave
an average cell count of 50 cells. What is the patient’s cell count?
a. 5,000/uL
b. 10,00/uL
c. 5,500/uL
d. 11,00/uL
99. What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on a Wright's stained smear?
a. Red cells would be stained too pink
b. Quite cell cytoplasm would be stained too blue
c. Red cells would be stained too blue
d. Red cells would lyse on the slide
100. What test would monitor heparin therapy?
a. INR
b. APTT
c. PT
d. None of these
101. A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBCs are seen on the peripheral
smear because:
a. The WBC count would be falsely lower
b. The RBC count is too low
c. Nucleated RBCs are counted as leukocytes
d. Nucleated RBCs are confused with giant platelets
102. Which if the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot
be detected on a Wright-stained blood smear?
a. Basophilic stippling
b. Heinz bodies
c. Howell-jolly bodies
d. Siderotic granules
103. Using a Coulter counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with
a. Spherocytosis
b. Anisocytosis
c. Leukocytosis
d. Presence of N-RBCs
104. Plasma cells evolve from which cells?
a. Lymphocyte
b. Monocyte
c. Myelocyte
 d. Megakaryocyte
105. Given the following values, which set of red blood cell indices suggests spherocytosis?
a. MCV 76 μm3 MCH 19.9 pg MCHC 28.5%
b. MCV 90 μm3 MCH 30.5 pg MCHC 32.5%
c. MCV 80 μm3 MCH 36.5 pg MCHC 38.0%
d. MCV 81 μm3 MCH 29.0 pg MCHC 34.8%
106. Romanowsky stain is composed of:
a. Eosin X and methylene blue
b. Eosin Y and azure B
c. Hematoxylin and eosin Y
d. NOTA
107. A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBCs are seen on the peripheral
smear because:
a. The WBC count would be falsely lower
b. The RBC count is too low
c. Nucleated RBCs are counted as leukocytes
d. Nucleated RBCs are confused with giant platelets
108. Platelets are difficult to count because:
a. They are big and colorless
b. They are evenly distributed in the blood
c. They easily disintegrate
d. They are easily distinguished from debris
109. Giant platelets are similar in size when compared to:
a. Monocyte
b. Red blood cells
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophils
110. The lupus anticoagulant is directed against:
a. Factor VIII
b. Factor IX
c. Factor X
d. Phospholipid
111.A falsely elevated Hct is obtained. Which of the following calculated values will not be affected?
a. MCV
b. MCH
c. MCHC
d. Red cell distribution width (RDW)
112. What staining method is used most frequently to stain and manually count reticulocytes?
a. Immunofluorescence
b. Supravital staining
c. Romanowsky staining
d. Cytochemical staining
113. Variation in red cell size observed on the peripheral smear is described as:
a. Anisocytosis
b. Hypochromia
c. Poikilocytosis
d. Pleocytosis
114. Insufficient centrifugation will result in:
a. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value
 b. A false decrease in Hct value
c. No effect on Hct value
d. All of these options, depending on the patient
115. Why is Wright stain not recommended for reticulocyte count?
a. It is not a supravital stain, thus the reticulum could not be stained
b. It does not give a blue color to the reticulocytes
c. It is very expensive
d. It produces artifacts
116. Which of the following is not true about reticulocytes?
a. It is the last stage capable of synthesizing hemoglobin
b. It is the last stage in the bone marrow before release in the blood
c. It is also known as the orthochromatophilic rubriblast
d. NOTA
117. . What is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient with
aplastic anemia?
a. Segmented neutrophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Monocyte
d. Eosinophil
118. Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculated using the following formula:
a. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 10
b. (Hct ÷ RBC) × 10
c. (Hct ÷ Hgb) × 100
d. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 10
119. A 1:200 dilution of a patient’s sample was made and 336 red cells were counted in an area of
0.2 mm2. What is the RBC count?
a. 1.68 × 1012/L
b. 3.36 × 1012/L
c. 4.47 × 1012/L
d. 6.66 × 1012/L
120. A correction factor is needed when different brands of microscopes are used in the same
laboratory. Platelet clumps lead to false increase results of platelets.
a. 1st statement is true; 2nd statement is false
b. 1st statement is false; 2nd statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
121. The Coulter principle for counting of cells is based upon the fact that:
a. Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do
b. Conductivity varies proportionally to the number of cells
c. Cells conduct electricity better than saline does
d. Isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity
122. Reference method for manual platelet count:
a. Tokantin method
b. Brecker-Cronkite method
c. Unopette method
d. Multipette method
123. What test is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy?
a. INR
b. APTT
 c. TT
d. BT
124. Which of the following is not a factor that affects bleeding time?
a. Number of platelets
b. Number of platelet plug formation
c. Integrity of platelet plug formation
d. Presence of vWF
125. What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S?
a. V and X
b. Va and VIIIa
c. VIII and IX
d. VIII and X
126. A reticulocyte stained by Wright’s stain is called:
a. Orthochromatic erythrocyte
b. Polychromatophilic erythrocyte
c. Reticulocyte
d. NOTA
127. A diluting pipette is used mainly for platelet counting?
a. WBC pipette
b. RBC pipette
c. Platelet pipette
d. Any of the above
128. Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
a. Acidosis
b. Alkalosis
c. hemoglobin S or C
d. Multiple blood transfusions
129. Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin?
a. Platelet morphology
b. Platelet count
c. Bleeding time
d. Prothrombin time
130. Platelets are direct fragments of the:
a. Nucleus of the megakaryocyte
b. Cytoplasm of the megakaryoblast
c. Nucleus of the megakaryoblast
d. Cytoplasm of the megakaryocyte
131. Calculate the mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) using the following values:
Hgb: 15 g/dL (150 g/L)
Hct: 47 mL/dL (0.47)
RBC: 4.50 × 106/μL (4.50 × 1012/L)
a. 9.5%
b. 10.4%
c. 31.9%
d. 33.3%
132. A decreased OFT would be associated with which of the following conditions?
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
 d. Acquired hemolytic anemia
133. What is the anticoagulant of choice for the osmotic fragility test?
a. Heparin
b. Double oxalate
c. EDTA
d. Potassium oxalate
134. Hemoglobin migration pattern on the cellulose acetate from point of application to anode is:
a. C < F < A2< A < S
b. C < S < A and A2 < F
c. C and A2 < S < F < A
d. C < A < F < S < A2
135. Which of the following is not a characteristic of platelet?
a. A discoid shape as an inactive cell
b. The presence of a nucleus
c. Cytoplasm a light blue with red-purple granules
d. Size of 2 to 4 um
136. In which stage of erythroblastic maturation does hemoglobin formation begin?
a. Reticulocyte
b. Pronormoblast?
c. Basophilic normoblast
d. Polychromatophilic normoblast
137. Gauge of the needle indication the largest bore is:
a. 16 gauge
b. 19 gauge
c. 21 gauge
d. 23 gauge
138. A 7-mL EDTA tube is received in the laboratory containing only 2 mL of blood. If the
laboratory is using manual technique, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?
a. WBC count
b. Hemoglobin
c. Hematocrit
d. None of these
139. A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase time are indicative of:
a. Afibrinogenemia
b. Hypofibrinogenemia
c. Aspirin therapy
d. Heparin therapy
140. Which of the following is true regarding a reticulocyte?
a. It has nucleus
b. It has mitochondria
c. It does not contain ribosomes
d. It does not contain mitochondria and nucleus
141. A manual white blood cell (WBC) count was performed. A total of 36 cells were counted in all
9-mm2 squares of a Neubauer-ruled hemacytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used. What is the WBC
count?
a. 0.4 × 109/L
b. 2.5 × 109/L
c. 4.0 × 109/L
d. 8.0 × 109/L
142. RBC indices obtained on an anemic patient are as follows: MCV 88 fL; MCH 30 pg; MCHC
34%. The RBCs on the peripheral smear would appear:
a. Microcytic, hypochromic
b. Microcytic, normochromic
c. Normocytic, normochromic
d. Normocytic, hypochromic
143. What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?
a. 5%–10%
b. 10%–20%
c. 20%–44%
d. 50%–70%
144. The normal M:E ratio for an adult is:
a. 1:1.5
b. 3:1
c. 5:1
d. 9:1
145. Which of the following is considered normal hemoglobin?
a. Carboxyhemoglobin
b. Methemoglobin
c. Sulfhemoglobin
d. Deoxyhemoglobin

146. Platelets have a tendency to clump with each other. Platelets have a tendency to attach to
foreign surface
a. 1st statement is true; 2nd statement is false
b. 1st statement is false; 2nd statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

147. Venus blood collected with EDTA is preferable because

a. Capillary puncture samples can cause false decrease platelet count
b. Capillary puncture samples can cause false increase platelet count
c. There’s no difference. Legit realtalk
d. Capillary puncture samples can invalidate platelet count

148. A miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of:

a. Platelets
b. Reticulocytes
c. Sickle cells
d. N-RBCs
Miller disk may also be used to count polychromatophilic erythrocytes

149. What term describes the change in the shape of erythrocytes seen on a Wright’s stained
peripheral blood smear?
a. Poikilocytosis
b. Anisocytosis
c. Hypochromia
d. Polychromasia
150. What feature would not be expected in pseudo-Pelger-huet cells?
 a. Hyperclumped chromatin
b. Decreased granulation
c. Normal peroxidase activity
d. Normal neutrophils
151. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia cells are most likely to express which of the following cell
surface markers?
a. CD3, CD7, CD29, CD20
b. CD19, CD20, CD4, CD5
c. CD19, CD20, CD21, CD5
d. CD13, CD33, CD107
152. In the flow cytometric analysis, low angle or forwards scatter of a laser light beam provides
information that pertains to a cell’s:
a. Volume
b. Viability
c. Granularity
d. Lineage
153. In the flow cytometric right angle (90 degrees) or side scatter of a laser light beam provides
information that pertains to a cell’s:
a. Volume
b. Viability
c. Granularity
d. Lineage
154. The (8,14) chromosomal translocation brings which if the following 2genes in close proximity
a. Core binding factor alpha and the retinoic acid receptor
b. The Abelson tyrosine kinase and breakout cluster region
c. C-myc and the immunoglobulin heavy chains
d. Core binding factor beta and the myosin heavy chain
155. Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a child with arylsulfatase B
deficiency (mucopolysaccharidosis type VI or Maroteaux Lamy syndrome?
a. Giant platelets, thrombocytopenia and Dohle-body like inclusions in leukocytes
b. Increased urinary excretion of glycosaminoglycans (chondroitin sulfate)
c. Increased sensitivity of RBC and WBC to complement-mediated lysis
d. Accumulation of glucocerebrosides and other lipids in splenic macrophages
156. VWF antigen can be found in which of the following:
a. Myeloblast
b. Monoblast
c. Lymphoblast
d. megakaryoblast
157. Which of the following characteristics of cellular as megakaryoblasts mature into
megakaryocyte within the bone marrow?
a. Progressive decrease in overall cell size
b. Increasing basophilia of cytoplasm
c. Nuclear division without cytoplasmic division
d. Fusion of the nuclear lobes
158. Which of the following cells contain hemosiderin?
a. Megakaryocyte
b. Osteoclast
c. Histiocyte
 d. Mast cell
159. Normal platelets have a circulating lifespan of approximately:
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days
160. Aspirin affects platelet function by interfering with platelets metabolism of:
a. Prostaglandins
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Nucleic acid
161. The combination of increased capillary fragility and prolonged bleeding time suggests a
deficiency in
a. Thromboplastin
b. Prothrombin
c. Platelets
d. Fibrinogen
162. Thrombocytopenia is a characteristic of
a. Classic von willebrand disease
b. Hemophilia A
c. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
d. May-hegglin anomaly
163. Alpha granules are found on the platelet in:
a. Peripheral zone
b. Sol gel zone
c. Organelle zone
d. Membranes
164. Which of the following is a true statement about acute idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
(ITP)?
a. It is found primarily in adults
b. Spontaneous remission usually occurs within several weeks
c. Women are more commonly affected
d. Peripheral destruction of platelets is decreased
165. Which of the following is a characteristic of Bernard soulier syndrome?
a. Giant platelets
b. Normal bleeding time
c. abnormal aggregation with ADP
d. increased platelet count
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.