September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY questions. Choices present were the

descriptive words in all caps in the
table below.
1. Familiarize all possible additives in
tubes. VERY unusual multiple choices 0 No hazard
for order of draw. As in, walang tama +1 SLIGHT hazard
 Choices were a mess. +2 MODERATE hazard
+3 SEVERE hazard
2. No conversion factors were asked.  +4 EXTREME hazard
Very little CC3 also. Mostly about QC
& laboratory apparatus.
11. Which of the following assesses the
liver’s synthetic and excretion
3. Please take note of and know the
function? *Please refer to Dean*
definitions of the following: (several
a. Prothrombin time
times asked; questions tricky and
b. Bilirubin
differently stated from the book)
c. Albumin??
a. Positive predictive value
b. Negative predictive value d. ??? forgot basta hindi AOTA 
c. Diagnostic sensitivity
d. Diagnostic specificity 12. Category of Creatine Kinase
= Transferase
4. Lamps for UV (morse type question)
Answer: Deuterium & Mercury arc 13. What is a complication of phlebotomy?
a. Cardiovascular
5. Inverted A/G ratio is seen in: b. Neurological
1. Multiple myeloma c. Dermatological
d. All of the above
2. Liver cirrhosis
3. Nephrotic syndrome
a. 1, 2 c. 1, 2, 3 14. Increased levels of haemoglobin and
b. 2, 3 d. 1, 3 bilirubin have what effect on ACP
measurement?
6. Major apolipoprotein in HDL = Apo A1 a. Increased
b. Decreased
7. Counter ion of sodium: Chloride c. No effect
d. Variable
8. Most important ion in maintaining
electroneutrality: 15. Which of the following are categories
a. Na+ c. HCO- of azotemia?
+
b. K d. Cl-
I. Pre-renal
9. Serial dilution problem solving: 3 mL II. Renal
of serum was added to 12 mL of saline. III. Post-renal
a. What is the dilution factor?
a. 4/15 c. 6/12 a. I, II
b. 3/15 d. 3/12 b. I, III
b. Ratio of SERUM to SALINE: c. I, II, III
a. 3/12 c. 5/15 d. II, III
b. 3/15 d. 2/15
c. Ratio of TOTAL VOLUME to SERUM: 16. Which of the following has an
a. 12/3 c. 10/3 increased anion gap?
b. 15/3 d. 12/5
1. Uremia
10. MEMORIZE THE HAZARDS SCALE. At least 2. Renal failure
three times asked. “What is the 3. Hypoalbuminemia (dec. AG )
meaning of +2 hazard?” + other related 4. Hypernatremia

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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
a. 1, 2, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 a. Na, K, Cl
b. 1, 2, 3 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. Ca, Mg
c. Ca, P
17. Which of the following are calculated d. –
using standard protein
electrophoresis? **Asked twice** 26. This analytical method measures large
a. Fibrinogen particles. (morse type; choices
b. Transferrin unrecalled)
c. C3 I. Turbidimetry
d. All if the above II. Nephelometry
III. Absorption spectroscopy
18. HBA1c is a _______ test for DM px.
a. Confirmatory 27. Which has the most value in assessing
b. Monitoring risk of atherosclerosis?
c. Screening a. LDL
d. – b. HDL
c. VLDL
19. Difficult to recall description about d. TAG
fibronectin.
28. How will you differentiate VLDL from
20. Which is part of quality assurance of HDL & LDL? (morse type question,
post-analytical procedures? choices unrecalled but each used only
a. Turnaround time two out of the four mentioned below)
b. Clinician satisfaction I. TAG
c. Critical value reporting II. Phospholipids
d. All of the above III. Cholesterol
IV. Protein
21. What SYSTEM is responsible for water
retention? 29. This enzyme’s clinical value is seen
a. Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone??? in its decrease. CHOLINESTERASE
b. Calcitonin
c. ADH (hormone, not a system ) 30. The following tissues produce
d. Cortisol hormones:
a. Anterior pituitary, posterior
22. Which of the following is used to pituitary, thyroid
extinguish type A fires? b. Anterior pituitary, posterior
1. Pressurized water pituitary, adrenal medulla
2. Dry chemical c. Anterior pituitary, posterior
3. Carbon dioxide pituitary, pancreas
4. Halon d. Thyroid and Parathyroid glands
a. 1, 2 c. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 31. Part of preanalytical quality
assurance: (asked multiple times )
23. In what Fredrickson classifications a. Test order accuracy
are there elevated levels of b. Test order accuracy, patient ID,
chylomicrons? I & V blood culture contamination
c. Test order accuracy, blood
24. Gauge used for pediatric phlebotomy? culture contamination
a. 21 G d. Test order accuracy, patient ID
b. 18 G
c. 22 G 32. What are the steps in the change
d. 23 G management system? (Choices used were
morse-type written in sentences
25. Which of the following electrolytes related to the DMAIC; difficult to
are involved in blood coagulation?
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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
recall) d. Median > Mode

33. In cases of pseudohyponatremia, which 41. CYFRA-21 is associated with?

of the following is next measured? LUNG CANCER
a. Potassium
b. Chloride 42. A centrifuge in which a monolayer of
c. Osmolality cells on a slide is formed at the end
d. Anion gap of the rotation? (nonverbatim long
description used)
34. In FAS, hyperlipidemia exerts what a. Cytocentrifuge
effect on Na+ determination? b. Horizontal head centrifuge
a. Increased c. –
b. Decreased (?) d. -
c. No effect
d. Variable 43. What kind of isolation must be given
to burn patients?
35. The computation of VLDL using TAG is a. Reverse isolation (?)
valid only when the TAG levels are b. Enteric isolation
below? c. Respiratory isolation
a. 300 d. Strict isolation
b. 400
c. 500 44. What is the BMI of an obese person?
d. 600 a. 29 c. 25
b. >30 d. 20
36. Formula for osmolality?
a. Na + 2Glucose + BUN --------------------------------------------
b. Na + glucose + 2BUN
c. 2Na + glucose + urea MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY
d. Na x glucose x urea
1. *MAGIC* A sliced bacon was sealed in a
37. Hyponatremia is a sodium plastic bag. It has spoiled. What
concentration below? caused it? (NO BIOCHEM GIVEN )
a. 120 a. Staphylococcus spp
b. 130 b. Micrococcus spp
c. 135 c. Shigella spp
d. 140 d. Lactobacillus spp

38. Which of the following migrate in the 2. Note: Some difficult to recall long
a2-globulin region? case studies regarding Streptococcus
a. Ceruloplasmin spp. (plus some other bacteria) based
b. Haptoglobin on their spx, biochem & cultural
c. A2 macroglobulin characteristics.
d. All of the above
3. Tzanck smear = VZV & HZV
39. When renin is increased there is?
a. Hypertension 4. Double zone of hemolysis:
b. Sodium loss C. perfringens
c. Water loss, sodium increased
d. --- 5. How to collect fungal specimens?
a. Cleanse area with saline
40. Best describes the Gaussian curve? b. Cleanse with 70% alcohol
a. Median < Mean c. Do not cleanse at all
b. Mode > Mean d. –
c. Mean = Median = Mode

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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
6. How to collect urine from a 17. Sodium acetate formalin-ether is used
catheterized patient? in what test to detect eggs of
a. Remove catheter parasites?
b. Collect directly from urine bag a. Direct fecal smear
c. Collect urine aseptically from b. Kato Katz
tubing c. FECT (?)
d. Remove bag and allow urine to d. –
flow into specimen cup
18. Which of the following tapeworms can
7. Note: Multiple long, difficult to be found in fish?
recall questions about TREMATODE OVA. a. --
Be familiar with their characteristics b. D. latum
& appearances (e.g. mature, c. T. saginata
operculated, etc) and what spx they d. H. nana
can be recovered.
19. Which is a tissue dwelling parasite?
8. Tissue roaming worm = E. granulosus a. E. granulosus
b. D. latum
9. Gram negative bacterium. Kanamycin, c. T. solium
Vancomycin, Colistin (R) = Bacteroides d. H. nana
fragilis (highly antibiotic resistant)
20. A vaginal aspirate from a pregnant
10. Identify the bacterium: woman shows a catalase-negative
> Indole (-), isolated from patient bacterium with beta haemolytic
with fever and coughing fits (?) pattern. What other tests can be done
> Non-sporeforming, Gram-negative rods for presumptive identification?
> Green colonies on BAP, musty odor a. Bacitracin, CAMP, PYR
a. E. tarda c. C. difficile b. Bacitracin, SXT, PYR
b. E. coli d. P. aeruginosa c. Coagulase PYR
d. Coagulase, SXT, PYR
11. Most common cause of aseptic
meningitis = ENTEROVIRUS 21. Which of the following are
incorrectly matched?
12. Which of the following contains a. –
alcohol? b. MSA – Neisseria
a. Quats c. Iodophor c. Corynebacterium – Loeffler’s
b. Phenol d. Halogens d. –

13. G+ anaerobe causing SBE*** 22. What differentiates Stenotrophomonas

from Burkholderia gladioli?
14. Which of the following differentiates a. Nitrate
VLDL from HDL & LDL? (MORSE TYPE) b. Urease
1. TAG 3. Protein c. Catalase
2. Phospholipids 4. Cholesterol d. Oxidase
a. 1, 2 c. 3, 4
b. 1, 3 d. 2, 4 23. Destruction of vegetative cells
including spores?
15. How to differentiate Candida albicans a. Sterilization
from the other fungal species? b. Sterilization (yes two
a. Blastoconidia c. Arthroconidia sterilizations in the choices)
b. Pseudohyphae d. – c. Disinfection
d. Boiling
16. Hair baiting test differentiates?
T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum

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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
24. The zones of inhibition of a reagent
organism S. aureus were consistently
too small. What could be the cause?
a. Amount of agar is insufficient
b. -
c. Improper dilution of reagent
organism
d. –
25. Which biosafety cabinet has 30%
exhausted and 70% recirculated and a
tubular vent to the outside? (similar
question asked many times )
a. Class Ia
b. Class IIa
c. Class IIb
d. Class Ib
26. Similar choices as above, which
cabinet has no air recirculated with a
vent to the outside?
(please read table p.41 in Bishop)
27. Fried egg colonies on Blood Agar
Plate? MYCOPLASMA HOMINIS (Choices
forgotten but it included M.
pneumoniae but take note it cannot
grow on blood agar plate)
28. All of the following grow on routine
media, except? **Choices included
typical bacteria; CHLAMYDIA
29. Which of the following reduce
nitrate?
a. All G- organisms
b. Salmonella
c. Coliforms
d. --
30. What is the only Gram-positive, non-
sporeforming rod that forms H2S on TSI?
a. –
b. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
c. –
d. Clostridium tetani
31. A stool tests positive for
Clostridium difficile. What is the
precaution to be followed?
a. Contact precautions
b. Put clean mats on exposed
working surfaces in the lab
c. Drink amoxicillin
God bless team March! Study hard, pray harder!
d. Wear face mask
32. Which are indicative of Gardnerella
vaginalis infections?
a. Clue cells
b. Yeast cells
c. Eosinophils
d. –
--------------------------------------------
A.U.B.F.
1. Note: not much questions about the
obsolete tests such as Rubner, etc.
Few computations regarding sperm
count/concentration. Case studies
regarding urinalysis. (What is the
inconsistency etc and how may it be
resolved?)
2. Urine phenol = BLUE-GREEN (Sir Errol)
(Only green in the choices)
3. Used to lyse RBCs for synovial fluid
count = hypotonic saline (NEVER ACETIC
ACID; causes clotting)
4. IMPORTANT: Refer to Hazard Scale in
chem previously. Asked multiple times
in AUBF also.
5. Which of the following is least
affected in urine left to stand?
a. Nitrite
b. Glucose
c. Ketones
d. Albumin
6. A urine specimen shows a slight
pinkish color upon refrigeration. What
can you do to resolve this?
a. Use ether
b. Use acetic acid
c. Use sulphuric acid
d. Warm the specimen
7. A urine specimen brought to the lab
exhibits an orange discoloration and
exhibits red fluorescence.
a. *Forgot the choices; familiarize
with fluorescent urine
substances
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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
8. Positive color of bilirubin reagent d. –
strip pad = Tan or pink to violet
17. Which of the following causes false
9. Positive color of APT test? negative nitrite?
a. Purple a. Increased WBC
b. Pink b. Presence of bacteria
c. Brown c. High specific gravity
d. Blue d. Nitrate converted to nitrogen
gas
10. End color of MPS test for
mucopolysaccharides? 18. Type of fire concerning wood,
a. Blue plastic, cloth
b. Purple a. Type A C. Type C
c. Pink b. Type B D. Type D
d. White
19. What causes false negative
11. What cells produce hydrochloric acid urobilinogen?
in the stomach? a. Ascorbic acid
a. G cells b. Oxidases
b. Parietal cells c. Sulfonamides
c. – d. Formaldehyde
d. –
20. A positive blood and ghost cells in
12. SG of isosthenuric urine? the urine indicate:
a. 1.025 a. Hemoglobinuria
b. 1.005 b. Myoglobinuria
c. 1.010 c. -
d. 1.030 d. –

13. Which of the following describes a 21. Which of the following indicate that
urine specimen with an SG of 1.025? sputum is valid for laboratory
a. Isosthenuria testing?
b. Hyposthenuria a. >25 pus cells
c. Hypersthenuria b. >25 epithelial cells
d. – c. Frothy top layer
d. -
14. Type of microscope used to visualize
casts? 22. Expected appearance of RBCs in
a. Phase contrast microscope prolonged standing in HYPOTONIC urine?
b. Fluorescent microscope a. Crenated
c. Darkfield microscope b. Dysmorphic
d. Light microscope c. Swollen
d. –
15. In which condition will a urine with
high specific gravity be seen? 23. Turbidity with granulation but no
a. Diabetes insipidus flocculation? +2 (SSA method)
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. – 24. Which of the following are associated
d. – with hypotonic urine?
a. Glitter cells
16. Yeast cells in the urine are b. Crenated cells
associated with? c. Casts
a. Diabetes insipidus d. -
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Nephrotic syndrome
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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
25. A urine in which few particulates are 3. Ratio of anticoagulant to blood in
seen but do not obscure the text is? light blue tops 1:9
a. Clear c. Cloudy
b. Hazy d. Turbid 4. Platelet satellitosis is associated
with EDTA.
26. What is indicated if the CSF glucose
is <10 mg/dL, with 100% neutrophils?
a. – 5. Recommended INR for patients with
b. Bacterial meningitis pulmonary embolism?
c. Viral meningitis a. 1.5 c. 3.5
d. - b. 3.0 d. 4.0

27. What is the normal amount of amniotic INR CONDITIONS ASSOCIATED

fluid in the third trimester? 2.0-2.5 DVT, high risk surgery
a. 700 mL c. 900 mL 2.0-3.0 Hip surgery, femur fracture
b. 1000 mL d. 500 mL 2.0-3.0 DVT, PULMONARY EMBOLISM,
transient ischemic attack
28. What are the usual constituents of 2.5-3.5 Mechanical heart valves
2.0-4.5 Recurrent deep vein
renal stones?
thrombosis and pulmonary
a. Calcium phosphate embolism, myocardial
b. Uric acid infarction, arterial disease
c. Triple phosphate
d. Calcium oxalate 6. Reticulated platelets are:
1. --
-------------------------------------------- 2. Resting platelets
3. Stress platelets
HEMATOLOGY a. 1, 2 c. 3
b. 2, 3 d. 1, 2, 3
1. What is the most potent APC and
phagocyte? – Dendritic cells 7. 1-3o angle, cell size & cytoplasmic
complexity/granularity = forward LOW
ANGLE scatter
2. Area of hemocytometer counted for
WBC = 4 mm2 PLATELETS = 1 mm2 8. Thrombocytosis is seen in: (morse type
ALSO take note of the ff.: (essential) question forgot the last one)
1. Malignant diseases
WHITE BLOOD CELL DILUTION FACTORS 2. Chronic bleeding disorder
1:10 0.1-3.0 x 109/L 3. Use of anticancer medications
1:20 3.1-30 x 109/L 4. ----
1:100 >30 x 109/L
**Forgot the choices; familiarize with
1:200 >100 x 109/L
the causes of thrombocytosis, etc.
DIFFERENTIAL COUNTS IN LEUKOCYTOSIS
Count 200 cells >40 x 109/L
Count 300 or 400 cells >100 x 109/L 9. Automation is important. Familiarize
with the causes of false increase and
1. Storage of evacuated tubes (ET) @ LOW false decrease. Analyze carefully.
temperature = DECREASED PRESSURE Sample: “What will happen to the RBC
INSIDE THE TUBE = INCREASE in BLOOD count in the presence of
DRAW VOLUME upon usage isoagglutinins?”
a. Decrease c. Variable
2. Storage of ET @ HIGH temperature = b. Increase d. No effect
INCREASED TUBE PRESSURE = DECREASE in
BLOOD DRAW VOLUME 10. Sequence of DONNING PPE
Gown -> Mask -> Goggles/Face shield ->
Gloves

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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
11. RACE – Rescue Alarm Contain 21. Which of the following are formed
Extinguish (Asked multiple times same from the precipitation of the beta
as PASS. Very important) chains of the Hb A?
a. Howell-Jolly bodies
12. PASS – Pull Aim Squeeze Sweep b. Basophilic stippling
c. Heinz bodies
13. In which stage of the erythrocyte d. Cabot rings
development does it lose its nucleus?
(Reticulocyte) 22. Computation: Memorize the following
a. Fourth c. Third formulas. Questions unrecalled but the
b. Fifth d. Second ff were computed. VERY IMPORTANT!!
a. Corrected reticulocyte count
14. Upon maturation the eosinophil b. Manual WBC count
develops: c. Platelet estimate
a. Primary c. Secretory granules d. Red cell indices (MCV, etc)
b. Secondary d. ???
23. Shift to the left exerts what effect
15. Which part of the platelet is on haemoglobin’s oxygen affinity?
responsible for aggregation? a. No effect
a. Sol gel zone b. Decreased
b. Membranous system c. Increased
c. Organelle zone d. Variable
d. –forgot
29. Ratio of iron to pyrrole (?) rings in
16. What is the cell that resembles mast a molecule of heme?
cells? a. 1:4
a. Basophil? c. Macrophage b. 2:4
b. Monocyte d. Neocytes c. –
d. –
17. Major components of hemostasis?
I. Veins 30. Pitting and culling occurs in the
II. Platelets SPLEEN
III. Coagulation factors
a. I & II c. I, II, III 31. What is the second step in
b. I & III d. II & III phagocytosis?
a. Recognition & attachment
18. Round densely purple to dark blue b. Ingestion
staining bodies seen in mature c. Digestion
erythrocytes and also in immature d. Phagolysosome formation
erythrocytes can be seen in which of
the following conditions? (morse type, 32. Definitive diagnosis of vWD relies on
forgot the choices ) the following:
1. Post-splenectomy I. Personal and family history of
2. Hemolytic anemia mucocutaneous bleeding
3. Disorder in heme/haemoglobin II. Laboratory demonstration of
synthesis decreased vWF activity
4. Megaloblastic anemia III. Automated platelet function
tests
19. Factor deficient in Classic a. I & II (Ma’am Leah)
haemophilia? FACTOR VIII b. I, III
c. I, II, III
20. A.K.A. Giant Platelet Syndrome? d. II, III
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
33. MK-I is also known as?
a. BFU-Megakaryocyte
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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
b. MEGAKARYOBLAST ranges of days; difficult to recall )
c. Promegakaryocyte
d. Megakaryocyte 41. Prussian blue stains which
intracellular inclusions? – IRON
34. In mixing studies, a repeat activated
partial thromboplastin time that does 42. Platelets are best measured (or
not correct is associated with? smeared??) 1-3 hours after collection.
a. Hemophilia
b. Lupus anticoagulant
c. – -----------------------------------------
d. –
I.S.-B.B.
35. Which of the following are vitamin K
dependent factors? 1. What is the most common cause for
I. Factor II false negatives in treponemal tests in
II. Factor VII primary syphilis?
III. Factor IX a. Prozone c. –-
IV. Factor X b. Postzone d. –-

a. I, II 2. Storage temp. of whole blood – 1-6oC

b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, III, IV 3. What anticoagulant was introduced in
d. II, III, IV 1943? – Acid Citrate Dextrose (Loutit)

36. Which of the following stains is 4. *Note: Asked INDIRECTLY in a case

associated with ALL & erythroleukemia? study. Lifespan of CPDA-1 whole blood
a. MPO c. PAS w/o additive = 35 days (please read
b. SBB d. - problems carefully)

37. Which of the following are cytokines? 5. Life span of PRBC with AS-1?
I. Chemokines a. 21 days c. 42 days
II. Interleukins b. 35 days d. 1 year
III. Heparan sulfate
IV. Colony stimulating factor 6. A cold reacting antibody that causes
a. I, II, III haemolytic anemia?
b. II, III, IV a. Anti-P? c. --
c. I, II, IV b. Anti-I d. --
d. II, IV
7. True of FFP stored refrigerated: (?)
38. What are the expected PT, PTT, TCT a. Viable for 1 year if frozen within
respectively in Factor X deficiency? 1 week
a. Prolonged, prolonged, prolonged b. Viable for 5 years if frozen within
b. Prolonged, prolonged, normal 1 week
c. Normal, normal, prolonged c. Expiration date same as PRBC?
d. Normal, prolonged, prolonged d. Viable for 10 years if frozen in 1
week
39. What are the expected PT, PTT, TCT
respectively in Factor IX deficiency? 8. Number of single donor platelets in 1
a. Prolonged, normal, prolonged plateletpheresis unit? = 6-8 units SDP
b. Normal, prolonged, normal
c. Normal, normal, prolonged 9. What antigen is only 1-2% predominant
d. Normal, prolonged, prolonged in N. Americans, but found in nearly
all Mennonites?
40. How long is the lifespan of the a. Bu a c. Sc 2
neutrophil? (choices were given in
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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
b. -- d. Sc 13 a. PTP c. Anaphylactic reaction
b. FHTR d. Allergic reaction
10. Which cold reacting antibody is
associated with haemolytic anemia? 16. Edward Jenner used what to induce
a. Anti-P c. Anti-jka cross-immunity against smallpox?
b. Anti-I d. – COWPOX

11. Three tubes of 9 mL of saline were
prepared. 1 mL of a stock solution of 1 M
solution was added to tube 1. It was mixed
well and then 1 mL was added to tube 2 and
the same was done for tube 3.
 What is the dilution factor in tube 1?
1:10
 What is the dilution factor in tube 2?
1:100
 What is the concentration in tube 3?
0.001 M
 Note: Know how to compute the
following and analyze the questions
well. TIP: draw the tubes and write
what is present in each tube
underneath.
17. Lifespan of a unit of FFP that has
been thawed? 24 hours
18. Most specific ab for SLE?
 Anti-dsDNA
19. Disease brought by Christopher
Columbus back to the Old World?
SYPHILIS (Old -> new: Smallpox)
20. What are febrile antibodies?
a. Require AHG to be visualized
b. Agglutinins produced in febrile
states
c. -
d. -

12. What are neocytes? 21. Expected pH of platelet units at the

a. Small RBCs from hypertonic sol’n end of the storage period? 6.2
b. Young RBCs prepared from the top
part of the red cell layer? 22. Template for PCR?
c. --- a. RNA c. dsDNA
d. --- b. ssDNA d. --

13. You spotted a clot in a whole blood 23. Annie has been living in Palawan and
bag unit stored in the refrigerator. has come to Manila for work. She wants
a. Leave a note saying it needs to to donate blood. For how long is she
be filtered before transfusion. deferred?
b. Issue the blood even with the c. 1 year
clot because it will be filtered d. 3 years
anyway. e. 6 months
c. Endorse to the clinician f. 1 month
requesting that it needs to be
filtered prior to use. 24. How long before a blood donor may
d. Remove it from the pool of blood donate blood again? *refer to sir Jude
bags in the refrigerator. e. 2 weeks
f. 4 weeks
14. Urticaria after transfusion (+ other g. 8 weeks? (AABB)
symptoms; long paragraph description) h. 12 weeks (pH)
– Allergic HTR
25. What is the ratio of T cytotoxic to T
15. A patient undergoing blood transfusion helper cells in a healthy person?
experienced pain at the transfusion c. 2:1
entry and rapidly deteriorating blood d. 1:2
pressure. What happened? (Note: e. 2:3
Memorize acronyms. Some choices are in f. 1:1
acronyms)

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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
26. Which of the following is a pentamer? 35. For how long must you centrifuge a gel
a. IgG c. IgM card?
b. IgA d. IgD a. 5 minutes c. 10 minutes
b. 1 hour d. 30 seconds
27. Which of the following antibodies
crosses the placenta? 36. HLA-B8 is associated with:
a. IgG c. IgG & IgM a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. IgG & IgA d. IgG & IgD b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Celiac disease & myasthenia gravis
28. First marker of hepatitis B infection? d. Rheumatoid arthritis
 HBsAg
--------------------------------------------
29. Which of the following describes IgA?
a. Patrols the mucosal surfaces HISTOPATHOLOGY-MTLBE
b. Found on B cells
c. Pentameric 1. *Note: very long description is given;
d. - Keywords: Used to cut tissue into
micron sections/ribbons = microtome
30. How many phenotypes may be
demonstrated with the use of Anti-A, 2. Note: Code of ethics and PAMET
Anti-B, A cells, B cells, and O cells? presidents were not asked. Few
(Note: A recall question says it is 4 but the questions about the RA 5527 and nearly
recall did not include O cells) none for the related laws. Zero to few
a. 4 questions about medtech history also.
b. 5 Mostly case/situational type
c. 6 questions. HP-MTLBE also had questions
d. 3 from chemistry and microbiology.

31. A gamma counter makes use of? 3. For how long is a drug test valid?
a. Labelled enzymes a. 3 months
b. Isotopes b. 6 months
c. Dyes c. 1 year
d. - d. 2 years

32. How to avoid false positives in the 4. The following are qualifications of a
Cryptococcal serologic testing? board of MT except?
a. 37 degrees for 3 minutes a. Filipino citizen
b. 56 degrees for 15 minutes b. Pathologist/RMT
c. Boiling for 5 minutes (St. Luke’s boils c. 5 years of practice
CSF specimen for CALAS; please find book source)
d. Not a member of any school or
d. -
faculty for 2 years
33. Which of the following antibodies is
5. 100% of all blood in a bloodbank
associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae
should be:
infections?
a. Voluntarily donated
a. Anti-P c. Anti-I
b. Purchased
b. Anti-A d. Anti-i
c. –
d. -
34. Common method of choice for detecting
VZV infection?
6. Which of the following does not
a. ELISA
require to be labelled with the
b. Western blot
biohazard symbol?
c. PCR
a. Plasma c. Saliva
d. –
b. Urine d. Pleural fluid

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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
7. Which of the following bacteria do not 20. Contamination can occur in the
produce toxins? (This was really in HP ) following EXCEPT:
a. C. tetani c. E. coli a. Mounting
b. N. gonorrhoeae d. Salmonella spp. b. Grossing
c. Embedding
**Acc. to Dean’s book, all four are d. Staining
toxin-producing. 
21. Step of tissue processing that takes
8. Stain to demonstrate H. pylori in the most time?
gastric biopsy? a. Grossing
a. Gram stain c. -- b. Embedding
b. H&E d. – c. Mounting
d. Sectioning
9. Has a cooled chamber with a microtome
inside: CRYOSTAT 22. All of the following items are
brought to the lab following surgical
10. Temperature of the cryostat? -20oC removal except:
a. Fingernails
11. Periodic acid Schiff – GLYCOGEN b. Breast implants
c. Orthopedic metals
12. Harris hematoxylin d. Removed body parts
> MORDANT: Potassium alum (sulfate)
> RIPENING AGENT: Mercuric oxide 23. In situ dissection of organs?
 NOTE: Know the difference & Rokitansky
definitions of mordant and ripening
agent. The definitions were asked 24. Disadvantage of automated Pap
indirectly. (e.g. What is added to staining?
intensify the staining of Harris a. Reproducibility/Standardization
haematoxylin? Recommended handout for b. Shortened TAT
these items: Sir Ding’s hp) c. Less labor
d. Costly equipment
13. Microtome invented by Trefall?
Rocking/Cambridge microtome 25. Removal of nicks? HONING

14. Used to attach tissue ribbons onto 26. Pipet with a bulb at the center?
slides? (Note: This was also asked in histopath. )
a. Mounting medium c. Fixative a. Ostwald-folin (note:bulb at tip)
b. Adhesives d. Clearing agent b. Volumetric
c. Serologic
15. Adhesive made from egg whites? d. Mohr
Mayer’s glycerol albumin
27. The sink in the grossing section is
16. AFP – Hepatocellular CA leaking. What can the medical
technologist on duty NOT DO?
17. CA 19-9 – Pancreatic CA a. Call a plumber immediately.
b. Call the maintenance department.
18. Van Gieson’s stain: Acid fuchsin & c. Put a cotton mop underneath the
picric acid sink.
d. Report immediately to the
19. Also: difficult to recall question department manager.
that indicated components of
particular stains such as Mallory’s 28. What to do when the paraffin sections
trichrome, etc. cut by the microtome are curved?
(Choices were possible causes of it)

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 September 2018 Medical Technology Licensure Exam Recall Questions
29. Stain used in the procedure for
detecting cervical cancer?
a. Wright stain
b. Gram stain
c. Papanicolaou stain
d. -

30. Form of necrosis that forms a cheesy

material associated with tuberculosis?
a. Coagulative
b. Liquefactive
c. Caseous
d. -

31. The lack of blood supply in the

tissues causes?
a. Necrosis
b. Hypertrophy
c. –
d. –

32. Randy is the teenage son of your

friend. Randy had undergone voluntary
HIV testing following months of high
risk behaviour, and he tested
positive. What is the right thing to
do if you were the medical
technologist?
a. Tell his father
b. Maintain patient confidentiality
c. -
d. -

33. All of the following contain elastic

cartilage, except?
a. Outer ear
b. Epiglottis
c. Intervertebral disks
d. None of the above

34. A 65 year old medical technologist at

a medical center at the foot of a
mountain hasn’t earned her CPD units.
Her license expires in a month. What
can she do?
a. Apply for an exemption
b. Apply for CPD units
c. Search for CPD units available
d. -

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God bless team March! Study hard, pray harder!