CLINICAL CHEMISTRY (ELSEVIER) c.

Citrate plasma sample

d. Fluoride plasma sample

1. Which of the following is considered a lipid? 8. Exogenous triglycerides are transported in the
a. Chylomicrons b. LDL plasma in which of the following forms?
c. Cholesterol d. HDL a. VLDL b. Chylomicrons
c. LDL d. Cholesteryl esters
2. In the laboratory procedure for the 9. A patient presents to his physician for a lipid
quantification of HDL, the purpose of the dextran profile. The following results are received:
sulfate is to: HDL= 50 mg/dL
a. Precipitate all Apo A1 containing lipoproteins Total cholesterol=300 mg/dL
b. Covert cholesterol esters to cholesterol for Triglycerides=200 mg/dL
The calculated LDL cholesterol is:
detection
a. 200 b. 210
c. Precipitate all Apo B and Apo A containing
c. 290 d. 350
lipoproteins
d. Precipitate all Apo B containing proteins
10. According to the National Cholesterol
Education Program, which lipid or lipoprotein class
3. Which of the following lipoproteins is the
is more important for therapeutic decision making
smallest of all the lipoproteins and is composed of
a. Chylomicrons b. LDL
50% protein?
c. HDL d. Cholesterol
a. HDL b. Chylomicrons
c. LDL d. Triglycerides
11. Which of the following mechanisms accounts
for the elevated plasma level of b-lipoproteins
4. Which of the following would be most adversely
seen in hyperbetalipoproteinemia (Fredrickson’s
affected by a nonfasting sample?
type II lipoproteinemia)?
a. HDL b. LDL
a. Elevated insulin found in these patients
c. Cholesterol d. Triglycerides
b. Apo B-100 receptor defect
c. Apo C-II–activated lipase deficiency
5. Which of the following apoproteins is
d. LCAT deficiency
responsible for receptor binding for IDL and the
chylomicron remnant produced in fat transport?
12. Which enzyme is common to all enzymatic
a. Apo A1 b. Apo C
methods for triglyceride measurement?
c. Apo E d. Apo B
a. Glycerol phosphate oxidase
b. Glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase
6. Which of the following enzymes is found bound
c. Pyruvate kinase
to HDL and LDL in blood plasma and acts to
d. Glycerol kinase
convert free cholesterol into cholesteryl esters?
a. Cholesterol esterase
13. A patient sample is assayed for fasting
b. Cholesterol oxidase
triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036
c. Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because
d. Lipase
of its association with which of the following
conditions?
7. Which of the following blood samples would
a. Coronary heart disease
serve best to assay lipoproteins because this
b. Diabetes
anticoagulant acts to preserve lipoproteins?
c. Pancreatitis
a. EDTA plasma sample
d. Gout
b. Heparin plasma sample
14. Which of the following apoproteins is inversely 19. Which of the biochemical processes below is
related to risk for coronary heart disease and is a promoted by insulin?
surrogate marker for HDL? a. Glycogenolysis
a. Apo A-I b. Apo B b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Apo B100 d. APO E c. Esterification of cholesterol
d. Uptake of glucose by the cells
15. What is the most appropriate fasting procedure
when a lipid study of triglycerides, total 20. Laboratory results for a patient with type 2
cholesterol, HDL, and LDL tests are ordered? diabetes are as follows:
a. 8 hours, nothing but water allowed Analyte Result Glucose 128 mg/dL
b. 10 hours, water, smoking, coffee, tea (no sugar Total cholesterol 195 mg/dL HDL 45 mg/dL
or cream) allowed LDL 105 mg/dL BUN 38 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.1 mg/dL Microalbuminuria 54 mg/Ml
c. 12 hours, nothing but water allowed
AST 28 U/L ALT 38 U/L
d. 16 hours, water, smoking, coffee, tea (no sugar
Which of the following statements is correct
or cream) allowed
regarding this patient?
a. Patient is at increased risk for cardiovascular
16. John Smithers (21 years of age) is in to see his
disease
physician for a pre-college physical and checkup.
b. Patient is at increased risk for diabetic
John has always been extremely healthy. The
nephropathy
following laboratory results are received:
c. Patient is at increased risk for liver failure
AStandard=0.679 AControl=0.650
d. Patient is at risk for hypoglycemia
ASmithers=0.729 CStandard=200 mg/dL
Control range 190-195 mg/dL
John’s cholesterol concentration is approximately: 21. At what serum glucose concentration would
a. 186 mg/Dl b. 199 mg/dL glucose begin to appear in the urine?
c. 209 mg/dL d. 215 mg/dL a. 50 mg/dL b. 75 mg/dL
c. 100 mg/dL d. 170 mg/dL
17. Sucrose is considered a disaccharide that on
hydrolysis yields which of the following sugars? 22. Which of the following laboratory tests is the
a. Glucose best marker to detect patients with diabetes who
b. Galactose and glucose are at risk for developing diabetic nephropathy?
c. Maltose and glucose a. Creatinine b. BUN
d. Fructose and glucose c. Microalbuminuria test d. Glucose

18. Laboratory tests are performed for a
postmenopausal, 57-year-old woman as part of an
annual physical examination. The patient’s random
serum glucose is 220 mg/dL, and the glycated
hemoglobin (HbA1c) is 11%. Based on this
information, this patient would mostly likely be
classified as:
a. Normal
b. Impaired
c. Having type 1 diabetes
d. Having type 2 diabetes
23. A 68-year-old obese woman visits her doctor
reporting increased urination (especially at night),
increased thirst, and increased appetite. Her
glucose on examination was 210 mg/dL (fasting).
Which of the following statements best fits with
the given information above?
a. The patient most likely has type 1 diabetes
mellitus
b. The patient would show a positive glucose in her
urine
c. The patient would have a decreased glycated
hemoglobin
d. Additional testing of this patient should include
assessment of hypoglycemia
24. Which of the following hemoglobin A1c results c. Sulfuric acid d. Sodium hydroxide
represents an impaired state according to the
American Diabetes Association? 30. The kidney is responsible for acid-base balance
a. 4.5% b. 5.5% through the removal of H ions via four major
c. 6.0% d. 6.5% mechanisms. Which of the following describes one
of those mechanisms?
25. A plasma glucose result is 100 mg/dL. The a. Reabsorption of H ions in the proximal
corresponding glucose in whole blood would convoluted tubule
approximate: b. Reaction of H ions with Na in the descending
a. 58 mg/dL b. 87 mg/dL loop of Henle
c. 98 mg/dL d. 114 mg/dL c. Reaction of H ions with filtered bicarbonate ions
d. Reaction of H ions with ADH in the collecting
26. Which of the following methods is virtually ducts
specific for glucose and employs G6PD as a second
coupling step requiring magnesium? 31. Given the data below, the calculated creatinine
a. Hexokinase clearance corrected for body surface area
b. Glucose oxidase approximates__________.
c. Glucose dehydrogenase Analyte Result
d. Pyruvate kinase Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Urine creatinine 120 mg/dL
Urine volume 1.75 L/day
27. A 62-year-old patient presents to the physician
Surface area 1.80 m2
with report of increased thirst and increased
a. 16 mL/min b. 115 mL/min
urination, particularly at night. The physician
c. 126 mL/min d. 210 mL/min
requests a series of tests over the next few days.
The following data are received:
32. Which formula is most accurate in predicting
Analyte Result
plasma osmolality?
Random glucose 186 mg/dL Fasting glucose 114 mg/dL
2-Hour OGTT 153 mg/dL HbA1c 5.9% a. Na + 2(Cl) +BUN +Glucose
Which of the following conclusions may be made b. 2(Na) + 2 (Cl) +Glucose + BUN
regarding these data? c. 2(Na) +Glucose/18 +BUN/2.8
a. Data represents normal glucose status d. 2(BUN) +Glucose/18 + Cl/2.8
b. Data represents an impaired glucose status
c. Data represents the presence of an insulinoma 33. Which of the following statements regarding
d. Data represents the diagnosis of diabetes serum urea is true?
a. Levels are independent of diet
28. Which of the following renal conditions is b. High BUN levels can result from necrotic liver
associated with a recent group A b-hemolytic disease
streptococcus infection? c. BUN is elevated in prerenal as well as renal failure
a. Kidney obstruction d. BUN rises earlier and quicker than creatinine in
b. Acute renal failure renal damage
c. Uremic syndrome
d. Acute glomerulonephritis 34. Osmolality can be defined as a measure of the
concentration of a solution based on:
29. The red complex developed in the Jaffe method a. The number of particles present
to determine creatinine measurements is a result b. The number and size of particles present
of the complexing of creatinine with which of the c. The density of particles present
following? d. The isoelectric point of a particle
a. Alkaline picrate b. Diacetyl monoxide
35. An increased osmole gap is most commonly a. Gilbert’s disease
seen in which of the following? b. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
a. Type 2 diabetes c. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
b. Pancreatitis d. Intravascular hemolysis
c. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene
glycol 41. As a reduction product of bilirubin catabolism,
d. Liver failure this compound is partially reabsorbed from the
intestines through the portal circulation for
36. A patient with type 2 diabetes is in for a routine reexcretion by the liver. What is this compound?
examination with the physician. A series of a. Urobilinogen b. Azobilirubin
laboratory tests are performed, including c. Biliverdin d. Urobilin
calculation of an eGFR. The patient’s calculated
eGFR is 64 mL/min. This result is most indicative of: 42. In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated in the
a. A normal state presence of which of the following?
b. Abnormal glucose control a. b-Glucuronidase
c. Mild kidney damage b. Bilirubin oxidase
d. Kidney failure c. Uridine diphosphate (UDP)–glucuronyl
transferase
37. A healthy 28-year-old female sees her physician d. Peroxidase
for a routine examination and receives a “relatively”
clean bill of health except for the results below. 43. Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed
Total bilirubin 2.8 mg/dL by which of the following parameters?
Direct bilirubin 0.1 mg/dL a. Serum AST and ALT levels
Indirect bilirubin 2.7 mg/dL b. GGT and ALP
These results most likely indicate which of the
c. Bilirubin, GGT, and ALP
following?
d. Ammonia and urea
a. Normal bilirubin metabolism
b. Extrahepatic obstruction
44. Which of the following conditions is caused by
c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
deficient secretion of bilirubin into the bile
d. Gilbert’s disease
canaliculi?
a. Gilbert’s disease
38. Which of the following is measured using
b. Physiologic jaundice of the newborn
glutamate dehydrogenase and is a measure of
c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
advanced stages, poor prognosis, and coma in liver
d. Hemolytic jaundice
disease?
a. Total bilirubin b. Ammonia
45. Which of the following enzymes is responsible
c. Unconjugated bilirubin d. Urea
for the conjugation of bilirubin?
a. Biliverdin reductase
39. In which of the following disease states would
b. Peroxidase
you see an elevation in total bilirubin and
c. UDP–glucuronyl transferase
conjugated bilirubin only?
d. b-Glucuronidase
a. Biliary obstruction b. Hemolysis
c. Neonatal jaundice d. Hepatitis
46. Which of the following analytes is the best
indicator of hepatobiliary damage?
40. In which of the following conditions does no
a. AST b. ALT
activity of glucuronyl transferase result in increased
c. ALP d. Bilirubin
unconjugated bilirubin and kernicterus in neonates
and eventual death within 18 months?
47. Which of the following fractions of bilirubin in 52. Which of the following buffer systems is the
high concentrations is associated with kernicterus most important physiologic buffer system in the
in newborns? body?
a. Delta bilirubin a. Hemoglobin
b. Unconjugated bilirubin b. Protein
c. Conjugated bilirubin c. Phosphate
d. Unconjugated and delta bilirubin d. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid

48. The characteristic laboratory finding in 53. To maintain electrical neutrality in the red
alcoholic cirrhosis includes: blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell
a. Moderate elevations in AST and ALT, normal and enters the plasma through an exchange
GGT, and normal ALP mechanism with which of the following?
b. Slight elevations in AST and ALT, marked a. TCO2 b. Sodium
elevations in ALP, normal GGT c. Chloride d. Phosphate
c. Slight elevations in AST, ALT, and GGT and
marked elevations in 50 nucleotidase 54. Increased PCO2 in a patient most commonly
d. Slight elevations in AST and ALT (AST>ALT), results in which of the following primary acid-base
marked elevations in GGT, slight elevations in ALP abnormalities?
a. Respiratory acidosis
49. Which of the following liver conditions shows b. Metabolic acidosis
an increase in both conjugated bilirubin and ALP, c. Respiratory alkalosis
manifests with antimitochondrial antibodies, and d. Metabolic alkalosis
shows a characteristic lipoprotein X on
electrophoresis? 55. Which of the following changes will occur with
a. Hemochromatosis a blood gas sample exposed to room air?
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis a. pH increased
c. Alcoholic fatty liver b. pCOO2 increased
d. Hepatic tumors c. pO2 decreased
d. Ionized calcium increased
50. Which set of results is consistent with
uncompensated metabolic acidosis? 56. Which of the following is the correct collection
a. pH 7.25, HCO3 15 mmol/L, PCO2 37 mm Hg and handling for the analysis of blood gases?
b. pH 7.30, HCO3 16 mmol/L, PCO2 28 mm Hg a. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store on ice, assay
c. pH 7.45, HCO3 22 mmol/L, PCO2 40 mm Hg within 1 hour
d. pH 7.40, HCO3 25 mmol/L, PCO2 40 mm Hg b. Glass syringe, liquid heparin, store on ice, assay
within 15 minutes
51. A patient with emphysema who has fluid c. Glass syringe, no additive, store on ice, assay
accumulation in the alveolar sacs (causing within 15 minutes
decreased ventilation) is likely to be in which of the d. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store at room
following acid-base clinical states? temperature, assay within 15 minutes
a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis 57. What is the blood pH when the partial pressure
c. Metabolic acidosis of carbon dioxide (pCO2) is 45 mm Hg and the
d. Metabolic alkalosis bicarbonate is 28 mmol/L?
a. 7.00 b. 7.11
c. 7.33 d. 7.41
58. What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to Ionized Ca 4.8 mg/dL Mg 2.0 mEq/L
dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood? Phos 3.0 mg/dL TSH 7.2 mU/mL
a. 1:10 b. 10:1 FT4 1.0 ng/dL Cortisol 10 mg/dL
Which of the following conditions best fits with the
c. 20:1 d. 1:20
history and data?
a. Hyperthyroidism
59. Which of the following sets of blood gas data
b. Cushing’s syndrome
is considered normal?
a. pH 7.33, HCO3 18 mmol/L, pCO2 32 mm Hg c. Hyperaldosteronism
d. Hypothyroidism
b. pH 7.30, HCO3 16 mmol/L, pCO2 28 mm Hg
c. pH 7.45, HCO3 22 mmol/L, pCO2 40 mm Hg
64. A 42-year-old woman presents to her physician
d. pH 7.40, HCO3 25 mmol/L, pCO2 40 mm Hg
with truncal obesity, bruising, hypertension,
hyperglycemia, and increased facial hair. The
60. Which of the following values would be seen in
physician suspects an endocrine disturbance.
uncompensated metabolic acidosis?
Significant test results are as follows:
a. pH 7.38 b. pCO2 52 mm Hg
Analyte Result
c. HCO3 15 mmol/L d. pH 7.53
TSH 3.0 mU/mL
FT4 1.0 ng/dL
61. Which of the following blood gas disorders is Glucose 90 mg/dL
most commonly associated with an abnormal Serum cortisol (8 AM) 45 mg/dL
anion gap? Plasma ACTH (8 AM) 152 pg/mL
a. Metabolic acidosis Urine free cortisol Increased
b. Metabolic alkalosis Dexamethasone suppression tests
Overnight 300 nmol/L
c. Respiratory acidosis
High dose >50% suppression
d. Respiratory alkalosis
What is the most probable condition?
a. Pituitary tumor
62. Which of the following statements best
b. Addison’s disease
describes the predominant feedback system
c. Adrenal adenoma
associated with endocrinology?
d. Ectopic ACTH production
a. Decreased levels of circulating hormones directly
result in the production of hormone from the
65. Hypothyroidism is best characterized by which
target organ
of the following sets of test results?
b. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly
a. TSH 0.2 mU/mL, FT3 8.9 pg/mL, FT4 4.5 ng/dL
result in the production of releasing factor from the
b. TSH 8.5 mU/mL, FT3 1.0 pg/mL, FT4 0.5 ng/dL
hypothalamus
c. TSH 0.1 mU/mL, FT3 1.1 pg/mL, FT4 0.8 ng/dL
c. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly
d. TSH 3.9 mU/mL, FT3 3.0 pg/mL, FT4 1.0 ng/dL
result in the production of inhibiting factor from
the hypothalamus
66. The release of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
d. Normal levels of circulating hormones directly
would result in which of the following actions from
result in the production of hormone from the
the HPT axis?
target organ
a. Decreased release of thyroid-stimulating
hormone from the pituitary gland
63. The following laboratory results are from a 54-
b. Increased release of thyroid-stimulating
year-old woman complaining of weight gain,
hormone from the thyroid gland
intolerance to heat, fatigue, and not being able to
c. Increased release of thyroid hormones from the
stay awake.
thyroid glands
Analyte Result:
Na 140 mmol/L K 4.0 mmol/L d. Increased release of thyroid hormones from the
Glucose 75 mg/dL Aldosterone 8 ng/dL pituitary gland
67. A serum thyroid panel reveals an increase in calculated by using which measured laboratory
total T4, normal TSH, and a normal fT4. What is the data?
most likely cause of these results? a. TSH and T3 resin uptake
a. Increased thyroxine-binding protein b. T4 and T3 resin uptake
b. Secondary hyperthyroidism c. TSH and T4
c. Subclinical hypothyroidism d. T3 and T3 resin uptake
d. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
73. The most commonly used challenge test to
68. Thyroid hormones are derived from which of assist in evaluating a potential growth hormone
the following? deficiency is the:
a. Histidine b. Cholesterol a. Insulin challenge test
c. Tyrosine d. Phenylalanine b. Dexamethasone suppression test
c. Oral glucose tolerance test
69. In patients with developing subclinical d. Captopril suppression test
hyperthyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______,
and fT4 will likely be ______. 74. Symptoms of primary adrenal insufficiency
a. Decreased, increased b. Increased, decreased (Addison’s disease) include which of the following?
c. Decreased, normal d. Increased, normal a. Hypercortisolism b. Hypokalemia
c. Hypertension d. Acidosis
70. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the
hospital. She has truncal obesity, buffalo 75. A TRH stimulation test is performed, and a flat
humpback, moon face, purple striae, hypertension, response is received from this test procedure. This
hyperglycemia, increased facial hair and most likely indicates:
amenorrhea. The physician orders endocrine a. Secondary hypothyroidism
testing. The results are as follows: b. Tertiary hypothyroidism
Analyte Result c. Primary hypothyroidism
Urine free cortisol Increased d. Secondary hyperthyroidism
Serum cortisol (8 AM) Increased
Plasma ACTH Decreased
76. The first step in the synthesis of thyroid
Dexamethasone
suppression test Overnight: No suppression hormones is:
High dose: No suppression a. Iodide trapping
What is the most probable condition? b. Binding of thyroglobulin
a. Addison’s disease c. Oxidation of iodine
b. Cushing’s disease d. Oxidation of TG molecule
c. Conn’s syndrome
d. Cushing’s syndrome 77. Which of the following conditions is a result of
catecholamine excess, includes two classifications
71. Trophic hormones are produced by the ______, (MEN 1 and MEN 2), and may result in death from
and releasing factors are produced by the ______. severe cardiovascular complications?
a. Hypothalamus; pituitary a. Cushing’s syndrome b. Conn’s syndrome
b. Pituitary; hypothalamus c. Addison’s disease d. Pheochromocytoma
c. Specific endocrine glands; hypothalamus
d. Pituitary; target gland 78. The main estrogen produced by the ovaries
and used to evaluate ovarian function is:
72. When free thyroxine cannot be measured a. Estriol b. Estradiol
directly, the free thyroxine index (FT4I) may be c. Epiestriol d. Estrogen
79. The Michaelis-Menten theory states which of c. Highest levels are seen in Duchenne’s muscular
the following? dystrophy
a. E + S + I →ES +EI + ESI→E+P d. The enzyme is highly specific for heart injury
b. E + S → ES→E+P
c. E + S + I→ES +EI→E+P 85. Which of the following conditions can
d. E → ES→E+P “physiologically” elevate serum alkaline
phosphatase?
80. Which of the following enzymes is the best a. Hyperparathyroidism
indicator of pancreatic function? b. Diabetes
a. AST b. ALT c. Third-trimester pregnancy
c. GGT d. Lipase d. Nephrotic syndrome

81. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the 86. Kinetic enzymatic assays are best performed
conversion of p-nitrophenyl phosphate to a during which phase of an enzymatic reaction?
colored pnitrophenol product? a. Linear phase
a. AST b. ALT b. Lag phase
c. ALP d. GGT c. Plateau phase
d. Any phase as long as temperature and pH are
82. One international unit of enzyme activity is the constant
amount of enzyme that under specified reaction
conditions of substrate concentration, pH, and 87. A nurse calls the laboratory technologist on
temperature, causes usage of substrate at the rate duty asking about blood collection for the analysis
of: of enzymes (AST, ALP, ALT, GGT, CK). Which of the
a. 1 millimole/min b. 1 micromole/min following tubes would you suggest the
c. 1 nanomole/min d. 1 picomole/min technologist collect?
a. Red top b. EDTA
83. A physician calls to request a CK test on a c. Oxalate d. Fluoride
sample already in the laboratory for coagulation
studies. The sample is 1 hour old and has been 88. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the
stored at 4c. The plasma shows very slight conversion of starch to glucose and maltose?
hemolysis. What is the best course of action and a. Lipase b. Amylase
the reason for it? c. ALT d. GGT
a. Perform the CK assay because no interferent is
present 89. Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently
b. Reject the sample because it is slightly associated with which of the following?
hemolyzed a. Hypocalcemia
c. Reject the sample because it has been stored too b. Hypercalciuria
long c. Hypophosphatemia
d. Reject the sample because the citrate will d. Metabolic alkalosis
interfere
90. What percentage of serum calcium is in the
84. Which of the following statements regarding ionized form?
CK is true? a. 30% b. 50%
a. Levels are unaffected by strenuous exercise c. 60% d. 80%
b. Levels are unaffected by repeated intramuscular
injections 91. Which of the following best describes the
action of parathyroid hormone?
a. PTH increases calcium and phosphorus d. AST, ALT, GGT, and ALP
reabsorption in the kidney
b. PTH decreases calcium and phosphorus release 98. Psuedohyperkalemia is most commonly a result
from bone of which of the following?
c. PTH decreases calcium and increases a. Metabolic acidosis
phosphorus reabsorption in the liver b. Hemolysis
d. PTH increases calcium reabsorption and c. Hyperaldosteronism
decreases phosphorus reabsorption in the kidney d. Hyperparathyroidism

92. Which of the following is most likely to produce 99. The following results were seen on a blood
an elevated plasma potassium result? sample:
a. Hypoparathyroidism Analyte Result
b. Cushing’s syndrome Na+=140 mEq/L K+=15.0 mEq/L
c. Diarrhea Cl =105 mEq/L HCO3=22 mmol/L
The technologist should do which of the following?
d. Hemolysis
a. Report the results
b. Repeat and check the chloride result
93. Which of the following hormones involved in
c. Repeat and check the Na+ result
calcium regulation acts by decreasing both calcium
d. Check the sample for hemolysis
and phosphorous?
a. PTH b. Calcitonin
100. The major intracellular cation is which of the
c. Vitamin D d. Cortisol
following?
a. Potassium b. Sodium
94. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief
c. Chloride d. Bicarbonate
plasma cation whose main function is maintaining
osmotic pressure?
a. Chloride b. Potassium
c. Sodium d. Bicarbonate

95. Which of the following conditions is associated

with hypernatremia?
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Hypoaldosteronism
c. Diarrhea
d. Acidemia

96. Which of the following conditions will elevate

ionized calcium?
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hyperlipidemia
c. Acidosis d. Alkalosis

97. The anion gap is useful (among other things) as

an inexpensive measure of quality control for
which of the following analytes?
SELF-ASSESSMENT
a. Blood gas analyses
Score on Practice Questions: ______________________
b. Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total carbon
dioxide
c. Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium