MATH PRIORITIZE

PART 2
1. Factor the given expression: 6 – 3 – 8m + 4

A. (3 + 4m)(2 + m2)
B. (3 + 4m)(2 – m2)
C. (3 – 4m)(2 – m2)
D. (3 – 4m)(2 + m2)
2. Which of the following is a prime number?

A. 100
B. 101
C. 99
D. 105
3. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of
interest must be paid and the debt be repaid at a
specific place and time?

A. Borrowed capital
B. Investment
C. Salvage value
D. Interest
4. What is an annuity?

A. A series of equal payments at equal time periods

B. The cost of manufacturing a product
C. An investment that yields an equal amount of
interest
D. The overhead cost per unit of production
5. Estimated value at the end of the useful life?

A. salvage value
B. economic life
C. compounded annually
D. balance sheet
6. Consists of the actual counting or determination of
the actual quantity of the materials on hands as of a
given date?

A. physical inventory
B. technological assessment
C. material update
D. material count
7. A depreciation model where the value of an
asset decreases at a decreasing rate?

A. straight line
B. declining balance
C. sinking fund
D. sum of the years digit
8. What do you call an increase in the value of a
capital asset?

A. capital expenditure
B. capital stock
C. capital gain
D. profit
9. What is the value which a disinterested third party,
different from the buyer and seller, will determine in
order to establish price acceptable to both parties?

A. francise value
B. goodwill value
C. fair value
D. market value
10. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that can
be converted quickly into cash, such as accounts
receivables and merchandize are called?

A. land and buildings

B. current assets
C. total assets
D. fixed assets
11. What is the recorded current value of an
asset?

A. salvage value
B. present worth
C. book value
D. scrap value
12. What is the method of depreciation where a fixed sum of
money is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or
imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the
depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life?

A. sinking fund method

B. SYD method
C. straight line method
D. declining balance
13. What do you call a radical expressing an
irrational number?

A. surd
B. radix
C. complex number
D. index
14. How long is each side of a regular pentagon
with perimeter of 90 inches?

A. 12 inches
B. 20 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 24 inches
15. What is the angle which the line of sight to the
object makes with the horizontal is below the eye of
the observer?

A. angle of depression
B. Bearing
C. angle of elevation
D. acute angle
16. What do you call a statement of truth which is
admitted without proof?

A. Postulate
B. Axiom
C. Corollary
D. theorem
17. What is an expression of two terms?

A. Binomial
B. Duomial
C. Monomial
D. polynomial
18. Use the slope-intercept equation of a line y =
mx + b with slope of 2/3 and y –intercept of 2?

A. y = 3/2 x + 2
B. y = 2/3 x + 2
C. y =2x + 3/2
D. y = 3x/2 + 3/2
19. Solve for x: x – 1/x = 0.

A. x = 1, -1
B. x = -1
C. x = 1, 1⁄2
D. x = -1/2, -1
20. The general second degree equation has the
form: A + Bxy + C + Dx + Ey + F = 0. If –
4AC = 0, the equation describes?

A. a circle
B. a hyperbola
C. an ellipse
D. a parabola
21. Convert the expression into a polynomial:

A. 9 + 6ab + 4
B. 9 + 12ab + 4
C. + 3a(2b) +
D. 3 + 6ab + 4
22. Find the 30 th term of an AP 4, 7, 10, .........

A. 91 B
B. 88
C. 90
D. 75
23. Find the area bounded by the curve = 1 – x
and the line y = 1 + x.

A. 9/2
B. 5/2
C. 7/2
D. 3/2
24. An angle greater than the right angle but less
than a straight angle:

A. acute angle
B. obtuse angle
C. reflex angle
D. oblique angle
25. Integrate ( + 4)/( + 12t + 2) dt

A. (1/2) ln + C
B. B. (1/3) ln + C
C. (1/2) + C
D. (1/3) + C
26. Integrate (/2 – 2/) dx

A. /6 – 6/x + C
B. /6 – 2/x + C
C. /4 + 2/x + C
D. /6 + 2/x + C
27. The radius of the sphere increases at the rate
of 3 cm per second from zero initially. How fast is the
volume increasing after 2 seconds?

A. 432π /sec
B. 632 π /sec
C. 532 π /sec
D. 832 π /sec
28. There are seven arithmetic means between 3
and 35. Find the sum of all the terms?

A. 169
B. 167
C. 171
D. 173
29. The logarithms of the quotient and the product of
two numbers are 0.352182518 and 1.556302501,
respectively. Find the first number?

A. 11
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
30. Differentiate: 7 + 16x.

A. 14x – 16
B. 14x + 16
C. 7x + 16
D. none of these
31. What is the length of the latus rectum of the
curve: = -12y?

A. 12
B. 3
C. -3
D. -12
32. Find the slope of the line whose parametric
equations are x = 4t + 6 and y = t – 1.

A. -4
B. 4
C. 1⁄4
D. -1/4
33. In triangle ABC, AB = 8 m and BC = 20 m. One
possible dimension of CA is?

A. 13
B. 9
C. 11
D. 7
34. Determine the sum of the infinite geometric
series of 1 – 1/5 + 1/25.

A. 5/7
B. 4/7
C. 5/6
D. 4/5
35. Polygons are classified according to their:

A. diagonals
B. Angles
C. sides
D. vertices
36. An object moves along a straight line such
that, after t minutes, its distance from its
starting point is S = 20t + 5/(t + 1) meters. At
what speed, in m/min will it be moving at the
end of 4 minutes?

A. 39.8
B. 29.8
C. 49.8
D. 19.8
37. A cone was formed by rolling a thin sheet of metal in
the form of a sector of a circle 72 cm in diameter with a
central angle of 150 degrees. Find the volume of the cone
in cc?

A. 7733
B. 7744
C. 7722
D. 7711
38. If n is the number of sides of a polygon, then the
number of diagonals of a polygon is expressed as:

A. n!
B. (n/2)(n – 3)
C. (n – 1)!
D. (n/3)(n – 2)
39. Find the second derivative of y =

A.-6
B. -2
C. 6
D. 6
40. Where does the point of inflection occur in
the equation: – 3x.

A. first quadrant
B. Origin
C. third quadrant
D. y-axis
41. The value of e raise to the negative 5 power is
equal to:

A. 0.0067379
B. 0.0063779
C. 148.4130
D. 0.0076397
42. A quadrilateral with no side parallel:

A. Trapezoid
B. Rhombus
C. Rhomboid
D. trapezium
43. What is the slope of the curve: + – 6x +
10y + 5 = 0 at (1, 0)

A. 2/5
B. -2/5
C. 5/2
D. -5/2
44. What is the equivalent expression for sin 2x?

A. 1⁄2 sinx cosx

B. 2sinx/secx
C. -2sinx
D. -2sinx cosx
45. Given the function f(x) = x to the 3rd power -
12x + 1, find the value of the first derivative at
x = 1.

A. 9
B. 12
C. -9
D. 3
46. Find the partial derivative with respect to x of
the function: 150 y – 10xy + 3y + 5?

A. 300xy – 10y
B. 150 – 10x
C. 150y – 10y
D. 300xy – 10x + 3
47. As x increases uniformly at the rate of 0.001
ft/sec at what rate is the expression increasing when x
= 4 ft?

A. 0.01
B. 0.001
C. 0.10
D. 1.01
48. What is the value of each interior angle of a
regular pentagon?

A. 3π/5
B. π/3
C. π/5
D. 2π/5
49. How many cubic meters is 150 gallons of
liquid?

A. 0.58761
B. 0.57871
C. 0.56781
D. 0.56871
50. Determine the center of the curve 2 + 2–
8x + 4y – 40 = 0

A. (2, 1)
B. (2, -1)
C. (-2, -1)
D. (-2, 1)
51. Factor the expression 2 + 12x + 16 as
completely as possible.

A. 2(x – 2)(x – 4)
B. 2(x + 2)(x – 4)
C. 2(x – 2)(x + 4)
D. 2(x + 4)(x + 2)
52. Body or space bounded by surface every point
of which is equidistant from a point within.

A. circle
B. Ellipsoid
C. spheroid
D. sphere
53. The slope of the line is 1⁄2. The slope of the second
line is -2/3. Both lines intercept at the point (3, 1).
What is the acute angle between the line?

A. 60.3˚
B. 75.4˚
C. 67.2˚
D. 90.0˚
54. The position of an object as a function of time
is described by x = 4 + 2 – t + 3. What is the
acceleration of the object at t = 2?

A. 52
B. 64
C. 56
D. 66
55. The velocity of a particle at time t is: v(t) = 12 +
7/t. What total distance is travelled between t = 0.2 and
t = 0.3?

A. 2.84
B. 3.85
C. 3.25
D. 2.48
56. The value of (4 to the 2nd power) square root
is equal to:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 16
D. 4
57. What is the simplified equivalent expression
of (θ)(θ) + 1/2 θ

A. 0
B. cos θ
C. θ
D. 1
58. An angle greater than a straight angle and less
than two straight angles are called?

A. right angle
B. reflex angle
C. obtuse angle
D. acute angle
59. A line segment joining two points on a circle is
Called?

A. arc
B. Sector
C. tangent
D. chord
60. All circles having the same center but with
unequal radii are called?

A. encircle
B. Concyclic
C. tangent circles
D. concentric circles
61. The csc of 960 deg is equal to?

A. 1
B. - √3/2
C. 1⁄2
D. -2 √3/3
62. A quadrilateral with two and only two sides of
which are parallel is called?

A. parallelogram
B. quadrilateral
C. Trapezoid
D. rhombus
63. Compute for the torsional deflection in degrees of a
100 mm diameter, 1.75 meter long shaft subjected to a
twist moment of 5.5 x N-mm. The torsional modulus of
elasticity is 85000 N/?

A. 0.22 deg
B. 0.33 deg
C. 0.55 deg
D. 0.66 deg
64. What diameter of bolt is required if the bolt is
subjected to a tensile load of 24,000 lb and a torque (for
tightening) of 7,000 in-lb and maximum normal stress is
not exceeded 30,000 psi?

A. 3⁄4 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1 1⁄2 inch
D. 2 inches
65. A body weighing 1,019.36 kg was put on top
of a 3205 N/cm helical spring. What is the
deformation of the spring in cm due to the
body on top?

A. 2.1 cm
B. 3.1 cm
C. 4.1 cm
D. 5.1 cm
66. A steel rod 25 mm in diameter and 1000 mm
long has an allowable elongation not to exceed 3 mm,
find the allowable load in KN?

A. 604.5 KN
B. 504.5 KN
C. 404.5 KN
D. 304.5 KN
67. Find the section modulus in cubic inch of a
shaft with diameter 2.25 inches?

A. 1.11
B. 2.22
C. 3.33
D. 4.44
68. What is the decrease in lateral dimensions due to an
axial tensile force of 40,000 lbs in a bar 2.5 inches on
each side and 5 feet long? The material is steel (E = 3.0 x
psi, μ = 0.3).

A. 5.133 x in/in
B. 4.133 x in/in
C. 3.133 x in/in
D. 2.133 x in/in
69. A wire of length 1.90 m has a percentage strain of
0.032% when loaded with tensile force. Determine the
extension of the wire in mm?

A. 0.108
B. 0.408
C. 0.608
D. 1.208
70. Determine the polar section modulus, Zp() of a shaft
delivering 15 HP at 300 rpm. The diameter of the shaft is
2.0 in and allowable shear stress of 4500 psi. Use a factor
of safety of 5.

A. 1.57
B. 1.75
C. 1.95
D. 2.47
71. Find the polar section modulus of a hollow
shaft with an outside diameter of 5 inches wand inside
diameter of 3 inches?

A. 51.36
B. 41.36
C. 31.36
D. 21.36
72. A 16 ft horizontal beam is subjected toa load of 500
lbs located at its center. The dimension of the beam is 3 x
5 inches respectively and its unit weight is 100 bl/ft. Find
the flexural stress in psi.

A. 2992 psi
B. 3255 psi
C. 4992 psi
D. 5982 psi
73. A horizontal platform with a diameter of 6 m
revolves about its center at 20 rpm. Find the tangential
speed, in m/s of a point at the edge of the platform.

A. 6.34
B. 6.46
C. 6.28
D. 6.12
74. The radius of the earth is 3960 mi. The gravitational
acceleration of the earth’s surface is 32.16 fps2. What is
the velocity of escape from the earth in mi/s?

A. 4.91
B. 7.83
C. 8.62
D. 9.36
75. A train running at 60 kph decelerated at 2m/ for 14
minutes. Find the distance travelled, in km within this
period.

A. 12.2
B. 13.8
C. 13.2
D. 12.8
76. An 18 in long rod floats vertically in water. It
has a 5 cross section and a specific gravity
of 0.80. What length L is floating?

A. 14.4 in
B. 6.2 in
C. 14.9 in
D. 3.6 in
77. A car travelling on a horizontal unbanked circular
track of radius rand the track is 0.30. Determine the cars
velocity while travelling at a radius of 34 m, without
skidding.

A. 15 m/s
B. 14 m/s
C. 12 m/s
D. 10 m/s
78. A body weighing 180 lb starts from rest and slides
down a plane at an angle of 30o with the horizontal for
which the coefficient of friction f = 0.3. How far will it
move when t = 4 sec?

A. 68.11 ft
B. 11.88 ft
C. 45.88 ft
D. 61.88 ft
79. A force of 400 lbf acts on a block at an angle of
30o with the horizontal. The block is pushed 5 ft
horizontally. What is the work done by this force?

A. 2439 J
B. 2259 J
C. 2689 J
D. 2349 J
80. Trailer travels at 85 mi/hr around a banked highway
curve with a radius of 1000 ft. What banking angle is
necessary such that friction f = 0.3 to resist the centrifugal
force?

A. 6˚
B. 10˚
C. 9˚
D. 12˚
81. Given the component velocities, what is the
resultant acceleration when t = 4?
= – t, = 6 –

A. 240
B. 270
C. 259
D. 310
82. An elevator weighing 5000 lb attainsan upward
velocity of 20 fps in 4 sec with uniform acceleration.
What is the tension in the supporting cable when elevator
resistance is 20 lb per ton.

A. 5826.4 lb
B. 5676.8 lb
C. 5776.4 lb
D. 5576.2 lb
83. A 10 kg block was dropped 3 meters high. What is
the velocity of the block upon reaching the ground?

A. 7.67 m/s
B. 7.76 m/s
C. 6.77 m/s
D. 6.67 m/s
84. 150 g of water are mixed with 100 g of alcohol
(ρ = 790 kg/). What is the specific volume of the
mixture assuming the fluids mix completely?

A. 1.1 c/g
B. 1.2 c/g
C. 0.95 c/g
D. 1.3 c/g
85. Absolute viscosity is essentially independent
of pressure and is primarily dependent on?

A. Temperature
B. Specific gravity
C. Density
D. Velocity
86. An instrument for measuring specific gravity
of fluids.

A. Hygrometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Flowmeter
D. Psychrometer
87. The sum of the pressure head, elevation head
and the velocity head remains constant, this is
known as?

A. Boyle’s law
B. Bernoulli’s Theorem
C. Torrecelli’s law
D. Archimedes Principle
88. A liquid whose temperature is lower than the
saturation temperature corresponding to the
existing pressure:

A. compressed liquid
B. subcooled liquid
C. saturated liquid
D. pure liquid
89. A company specializes in the shipment of pressurized
gaseous materials. An order is received for 500 liters of a
particular gas at (32˚F and 1 atm). What minimum volume of
tank is necessary to transport the gas at 90˚F and a maximum
pressure of 10 atm?

A. 141 liters
B. 60 liters
C. 152 liters
D. 56 liters
90. Air is compressed in a diesel engine from an initial
pressure of 13 psia and a temperature of 120˚F to one-
twelve of its initial volume. Calculate the final
temperature assuming the compression to be adiabatic.

A. 1010˚F
B. 980˚F
C. 987˚F
D. 1560˚F
91. A closed vessel contains air at a pressure of 200 KN/
gauge and a temperature of 32˚C. The air is heated to
60˚C with the atmospheric pressure of 750 mm Hg. What
is the final gauge pressure?

A. 337.54
B. 127.54
C. 227.54
D. 427.54
92. A shot is fired at an angle of 45˚ with the
horizontal and velocity of 300 fps. Calculate
to the nearest, the range of the projectile.

A. 350 ft
B. 1200 m
C. 400 mi
D. 932 yards
93. Steam with an enthalpy of 900 kcal/kg enters a nozzle at a
velocity of 50 m/s. Find the velocity of the steam at the exit of
the nozzle if its enthalpy is reduced to 600 kcal/kg, assuming
the nozzle is horizontal and disregarding heat losses.

A. 1685 m/s
B. 1568 m/s
C. 1658 m/s
D. 1586 m/s
94. A perfect venture with throat diameter of 2 in is
placed horizontally in a pipe with a 6 in pipe diameter.
What is the difference in static pressure if water flows
100 lb per second.

A. 247.2 kpa
B. 242.7 kpa
C. 274.3 kpa
D. 224.7 kpa
95. What is the water pressure if manometer is
0.8 m Hg? Mercury is 13.6 times heavier than
water.

A. 106.73 kpa
B. 110.55 kpa
C. 107.99 kpa
D. 120.22 kpa
96. Water is flowing in a pipe with radius of 25.4
cm and a velocity of 10 m/s. The viscosity of
water is 1.131 pa-s. What is the Reynold’s
Number?

A. 4492
B. 4429
C. 2449
D. 2944
97. What is the density of a stone in kg/ that
weighs 90 N in air and 50 N in water?

A. 2259
B. 2502
C. 2205
D. 2270
98. For a system to be in equilibrium, the sum of
the external forces acting on the system must be?

A. equal to unity
B. Indeterminate
C. a maximum
D. zero
99. An air tight closed box of weight P is suspended from a
swing balance. A bird of weight W is placed on the floor of the
box, and balance reads W + P. If the bird flies around the box
at a constant elevation without accelerating, what is the
balance reading?

A. P
B. P + 2W
C. P+W
D. P–W
100. The vector which represents the sum of a
group of force vectors is called?

A. magnitude
B. sum
C. Resultant
D. component
101. Which of the following is not a vector
quantity?

A. velocity
B. Acceleration
C. speed
D. displacement
102. A hoist with a 100 hp engine is capable lifting a
10,000 lb load to a height of 20 feet in 10 seconds.
What is the efficiency of this machine?

A. 34.6%
B. 36.4%
C. 46.3%
D. 43.6%
103. An object is placed 3 feet from the center of
horizontally rotating platform. The coefficient of friction
is 0.30. The object will begin to slide off when the
platform speed is nearest to?

A. 12 rpm
B. 22 rpm
C. 17 rpm
D. 33 rpm
104. Two barges, one weighing 10 tons, the other weighing 20
tons are connected by a cable in quiet water. Initially the barges
are at rest 100 feet apart. The cable is reeled in until the barges
are 50 ft apart. If the friction is negligible, calculate the
distance moved by the 10 ton barge.

A. 33.33 ft
B. 20 ft
C. 50 ft
D. 16.66 f
105. A projectile weighing 100 lbs strikes the concrete wall of
a fort with an impact velocity of 1200 ft/sec. The projectile
comes to rest in 0.01 second, having penetrated the 8-foot thick
wall to a distance of 6 ft. What is the average force exerted on
the wall by the projectile?

A. 3.73 x lbs
B. 3.33 x lbs
C. 2.37 x lbs
D. 3.37 lbs
106. A projectile launched at 2000 ft/sec from A at an angle
of 30 deg with the horizontal, impacts at the same elevation at
B. Assume no in-flight propulsion and no aerodynamic drag.
Horizontal distance in miles between A and B is nearest to?

A. 7.9
B. 15.9
C. 10.2
D. 20.3
107. Kinematic viscosity may be expressed as?

A. /sec
B. slugs/sec
C. /ft
D. /cm
108. An open chamber rests on the ocean floor in 160
ft of seawater (SG = 1.03). What air pressure in psig
must be maintained inside to exclude water?

A. 45.6
B. 71.4
C. 60.9
D. 93.2
109. What head in feet of air, at ambient conditions of
14.7 psia and 68˚F, is equivalent to 2 psia?

A. 146
B. 288
C. 395
D. 3830
110. An open topped cylindrical water tank has a
horizontal circular base 10 ft in diameter. When filled to a
height of 8 feet, the force in lbs exerted on its base is
nearest to?

A. 3,900
B. 10,000
C. 7,800
D. 39,200
111. A gas bubble rising from the ocean floor is 1 inch in
diameter at a depth of 50 feet. Given that sp gravity of sea
water is 1.03, the buoyant force in lbs being exerted on
the bubble at this instant is nearest to?

A. 0.014
B. 0.076
C. 0.020
D. 0.14
112. In fluid flow, if the fluid traveled parallel to the
adjacent layers and the paths of individual
particles do not cross, the flow is said to be:

A. laminar
B. Critical
C. turbulent
D. dynamic
113. Normal boiling point of liquid oxygen is 90˚K.
What is this temperature in deg R?

A. -330
B. 162
C. -183
D. 168
114. 55,000 gallons of water passes through a heat exchanger
and absorbs 28,000,000 BTU. The exit temperature is 110
deg F. The entrance water temperature in deg F. The entrance
water temperature in deg F is nearest to?

A. 49
B. 68
C. 56
D. 73
115. The mass flow rate of Freon 12 through a heat
exchanger is 10 lbs/min. Enthalpy of Freon entry is 102
Btu/lb and Freon exit is 26 Btu/lb. Water coolant is allowed
to rise 10˚F. The water flow rate in liters per minute is?

A. 76
B. 83
C. 34.5
D. 54.3
116. The maximum thermal efficiency that can be
obtained in an ideal reversible heat engine operating
between 1540 deg F and 340 deg F is closet to:

A. 100%
B. 78%
C. 60%
D. 40%
117. Second law limitations on the maximum unit
burning 1,000,000 Btu/hr of fuel with high and low
temperature extremes of 1540 deg F and 40 deg F is?

A. 98
B. 1140
C. 295
D. 3830
118. Work or energy can be a function of all of the
following except?

A. force and distance

B. power and time
C. torque and angular rotation
D. force and time
119. A high velocity flow of gas at 800 ft/sec
possesess kinetic energy nearest to which of
the following?

A. 1.03 Btu/lb
B. 9.95 Btu/lb
C. 4.10 Btu/lb
D. 12.8 Btu/lb
120. Power may be expressed in units of?

A. ft-lbs
B. HP-hrs
C. Btu/hr
D. kw-hr
121. A Carnot engine operating between 70˚F and 2000
deg F is modified solely by raising the higher temperature
by 150 deg F and raising the low temperature by 100 deg
F. Which of the statements is true?

A. thermodynamic efficiency decreased

B. thermodynamic efficiency increased
C. less heat rejected in the system
D. less heat added in the system
122. A company pays 3.5% interest quarterly.
What is the effective annual interest rate?

A. 10.75%
B. 14.75%
C. 17.45%
D. 24.75%
123. A savings certificate that costs P5000 now will
pay P8000 in five years. What is the interest rate?

A. 9.85%
B. 11.85%
C. 18.55%
D. 25.55%
124. If P20,000 is invested now, and P40,000 four
years from now (all at 5%), what will be the total
amount in ten years?

A. P110,505.37
B. P130,505.37
C. P230,505.37
D. P330,505.37
125. What is the capitalized cost of a project that will cost
P20,000,000 now and will require P3,000,000 in
maintenance annually? The effective annual interest rate
is 15%.

A. P30,000,000
B. P40,000,000
C. P50,000,000
D. P60,000,000
126. What is the present worth of 60,000 due in 5
years if money is worth 15% and is
compounded semi-annually?

A. P19,111.63
B. P29,111.63
C. P39,111.63
D. P49,111.63
127. A sum of money is deposited now in a savings
account. The effective annual interest rate is 12% and
interest is compounded monthly. How much money must
be deposited to yield P1,500.00 at the end of 10 months?

A. P1351.99
B. P1551.99
C. P2351.99
D. P3351.99
128. Find the compound amount if P7500 is
invested at 12% compounded quarterly for 7
years and 6 months.

A. P18,204.47
B. P28,204.47
C. P38,204.47
D. P48,204.47
129. How much money must be invested today in
order to withdraw P12,000 per year for 12
years if the interest rate is 12%?

A. P44,332.49
B. P54,332.49
C. P74,332.49
D. P94,332.49
130. How long will it take a sum of money to
double at 10% annual percentage rate?

A. 5.27 years
B. 7.27 years
C. 9.27 years
D. 12.27 years
131. In a small factory with a capacity of 500,000 units
per year with a 75% efficiency, the annual income is
P500,000 and a fixed cost of P180,000 and variable cost
of P0.52 per unit. What is the break-even point?

A. 222,223 units
B. 242,223 units
C. 252,223 units
D. 222,222 units
 GOD BLESS
STUDY HARD