Haematology : MCQ Question 1: Plasmin T Is a proteolytic enzyme T Is formed from plasminogen T Digests fibrin T Digests fibrinogen Question 2: In the

investigation of bleeding disorders F The bleeding time assesses the intrinsic coagulation pathway T The normal bleeding time is 3-10 minutes T Blood for coagulation studies is collected into citrate solution to prevent T The prothrombin time is prolonged in abnormalities of the extrinsic pathway Question 3: With respect to iron metabolism F The body contains about 40g of iron F Most of the iron in the body is contained in ferritin F Iron is transported in plasma as ferritin F Haemosiderin is the main form in which iron is stored in tissues Question 4: The following mechanisms are important in haemostasis

T Vascular spasm T Formation of platelet plug T Formation of blood clot T Organisation of blood clot Question 5: Blood coagulation F Through the extrinsic pathway is initiated by contact of blood with a negatively charged surface F Through the intrinsic pathway does not occur outside the body T Through the extrinsic pathway is initiated by tissue damage T Through the extrinsic pathway is initiated by the release of tissue thromboplastin Question 6: Erythrocytes F Are not produced in the fetal liver F Are produced by the liver during the first 5 years of life T Are produced by the bone marrow of almost every bone in the body during the first 5 years of life T Are produced by the bone marrow of the ribs, sternum and vertebrae in Adults Question 7: Blood coagulation T Through the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways results in the activation of Factor X F Results from the conversion of thrombin to

prothrombin T Results from the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin F Can occur in the absence of calcium Question 8: With respect to iron metabolism T Antacids reduce iron absorption T Heme iron is better absorbed than non-heme iron T Ferrous iron (2+) is better absorbed than ferric (+iron (3 F The majority of iron absorption occurs in the terminal ileum Question 9: With respect to Rhesus blood group F There are three different Rhesus factors F An individual with the C antigen can also have the c antigen T An individual with the D antigen cannot have the d antigen T The type D antigen is the most antigenic of all the Rhesus antigens Question 10: Erythrocyte T Production is stimulated by anaemia due to blood loss F Production is impaired at high altitude F Production is stimulated by hyperoxia T Production is stimulated by erythropoietin Question 11: With respect to Rhesus blood group

F Rhesus positive individuals have the d antigen F The C and E antigens do not cause transfusion reactions F 85% of Caucasians are Rhesus negative F After injection of the D antigen into Rhesus negative individuals, the peak concentration of anti-D antibodies is attained within 3-6 weeks Question 12: Erythrocytes T Are biconcave discs F Have an average diameter of 80 microns F Have a mean cell volume of 60 fl T Have an average life span of 120 days Question 13: The following are vitamin K dependent clotting factors T Prothrombin F Factor XII T Factor VII T Factor X Question 14: The following are vitamin K dependent clotting factors T Factor IX F Factor XI F Fibrinogen F Plasminogen Question 15: With respect to Rhesus blood group

F Transfusion of Rhesus incompatible blood into a non-sensitized individual causes an immediate transfusion reaction F The first pregnancy is never affected by Rhesus disease F The child of a Rhesus positive father and a Rhesus negative mother must be Rhesus positive T The child of a Rhesus negative mother and a Rhesus negative father cannot be Rhesus positive Neuromuscular physiology: MCQ Question 1: With respect to active transport F The sodium-potassium pump transfers three sodium ions from the extracellular to the intracellular space F The sodium-potassium pump transfers two potassium ions from the intracellular to the extracellular space F The sodium-potassium pump hydrolyses one molecule of ATP per sodium ion transported T The sodium-potassium pump is electrogenic Question 2: Skeletal muscles T Are multinucleated cells F Contain thick actin and thin myosin filaments T Have light (I) bands which contain actin filaments only F Have dark (A) bands which contain myosin filaments only

Question 3: With respect to the transfer of |solutes across cell membranes F Lipid soluble solutes require the presence of carrier proteins for transfer across the cell membrane F Hydrogen ions diffuse readily across the cell membrane T Protein channels in membranes are specific for the transport of specific solutes T Protein channels can be voltage-gated Question 4: Cardiac muscle T Is striated F Has myosin but not actin filaments F Has multinucleated cells F Cells are connected to other cardiac muscle cells at gap junctions Question 5: Cardiac muscle F Of the atria is continuous with that of the ventricles T Forms a syncytium FStimulation of a single atrial cardiac muscle would cause an action potential to travel through the entire atrial and ventricular muscle mass T Have intercalated discs Question 6: With respect to action potentials F Salutatory conduction occurs in unmyelinated fibres T There is an absolute and a relative refractory

period F Transmission occurs at the same speed in myelinated and unmyelinated neurons F The potential changes in size and shape as they spread across the membrane Question 7: With respect to action potentials F Transmission occurs at the same speed in small and large neurons F Depolarisation is caused by increased permeability to potassium ions F The membrane potential always becomes positive during depolarisation F Repolarisation is caused by increased permeability to sodium ions Question 8: Action potentials T Are rapid changes in membrane potential F Begin with a change of the positive resting potential to a negative potential F Are propagated in one direction only F Are not delayed at synapses Question 9: During excitation and contraction of skeletal muscle fibres T Excitation of the T-tubules results in the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum F Calcium binds to and activates tropomyosin T Calcium is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate muscle relaxation T Acetylcholine is released at the motor end plate

Question 10: With respect to action potentials T Depolarisation is caused by activation of voltage gated sodium channels T Would not occur until the membrane potential rises above a threshold T Once established travel over the entire membrane F Activation of potassium channels is responsible for the plateau in the action potential of cardiac muscle Question 11: With respect to smooth muscle F Smooth muscle contains actin but not myosin F The membrane potential is more negative than that of skeletal muscle F Smooth muscle action potential is mainly due to activation of voltage gated sodium channels F Extrinsic stimulation is always required for the generation of action potential Question 12: With respect to active transport T The sodium-potasium pump is important in regulating cell volume F The calcium pump transfers calcium from the extracellular to the intracellular space F Active transport is not saturable F Carrier proteins involved in secondary active transport hydrolyse ATP to ADP Question 13: With respect to smooth muscle T Action potential can be initiated by stretch F Calcium is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to bring about muscle

relaxation T Intracellular calcium binds to calmodulin to initiate muscle contraction F There are specialised neuro-muscular junctions Question 14: The following are important in setting the resting membrane potential of neurons T The activity of the Na / K pump T Potassium diffusion across the cell membrane T Sodium diffusion across the cell membrane T The presence of impermeant anions within the cell Question 15: Skeletal muscles F Have actin filaments which have crossbridges F Have myosin filaments which are attached to the Z-disc THave sarcomeres which are the portions of the muscle between Z discs T In the resting state, the actin filaments completely overlap the myosin Filaments Cardiovascular physiology MCQ S Question 1: With respect to action potential in the sino-atrial node F The resting membrane potential is more negative than for non-conducting cardiac muscle FDepolarisation is caused by activation of fast voltage gated sodium

channels F There is dependence on vagal nerve stimulation for the generation of action potentials T Repolarisation is caused by increased potassium permeability Question 2: During the cardiac cycle F The T wave occurs after the end of ventricular contraction T The a wave in the atrial pressure profile is caused by atrial contraction F The c wave in the atrial pressure profile is caused by opening of the atrio-ventricular valve T The v wave in the atrial pressure profile is caused by venous return into the Question 3: During the cardiac cycle F Atrial contraction occurs during systole T The P wave of the electrocardiogram represents atrial depolarisation F The QRS complex represents ventricular repolarisation F The T wave represents ventricular depolarisation Question 4: Vasodilatation is caused by F Increased pH T Increased osmolarity T Increased CO2 concentration F Increased oxygen tension Question 5: The following are associated with a decrease in cardiac output F Increased blood volume T Acute venous dilatation

T Venous obstruction F Blood pressure of 160/100 Question 6: During the cardiac cycle T The v wave in the atrial pressure profile is caused by venous return into the atrium T The notch in the aortic pressure profile is caused by closure of the aortic valve F The first heart sound is caused by opening of the atrio-ventricular valves T The second heart sound is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary Valves Question 7: With respect to the conducting system of the heart F The refractory period of the atrioventricular node is shorter than for normal cardiac muscle fibres F The sinoatrial node has an intrinsic rhythmic rate of 40-60 per minute T The atrioventricular node has an intrinsic rhythmic rate of 40-60 per minute T The Purkinje fibres have an intrinsic rhythmic rate of 15-40 per minute Question 8: With respect to autonomic control of the heart F Vagal stimulation has no effect on the rate of the rhythm of the sinoatrial node T Vagal stimulation decreases the excitability of the atrio-ventricular

junctional fibres T Sympathetic stimulation increases the rate of the rhythm of the sinoatrial node F Sympathetic stimulation decreases the strength of myocardial contraction Question 9: The following are important mechanisms in the short-term maintenance of arterial pressure following haemorrhage T Peripheral vasoconstriction F Increased fluid retention by the kidneys T Increased heart rate F Increased venous return Question 10: The following are produced locally in tissues and regulate perfusion T Prostaglandins T Serotonin F Adrenaline F Noradrenaline Question 11: With respect to the conducting system of the heart T The sinoatrial node is the natural pacemaker T Impulses are conducted from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node by three internodal pathways F Impulses are conducted from the right atrium to the left atrium by the Purkinje fibres T There is a delay in the conduction of cardiac impulses at the atrioventricular node

Question 12: During the cardiac cycle F Pressure in the left ventricle must rise above 120mmHg to cause opening of the aortic valve F The period of rapid ejection occupies the first 70% of ventricular ejection time T The normal PR interval is about 0.16s F The QT interval is the duration of ventricular relaxation Question 13: Mean arterial pressure T Is the average arterial pressure over a cardiac cycle F Can be calculated from (systolic minus (diastolic pressure T Can be calculated from diastolic pressure + (1/3(pulse pressure F Can be calculated from the cardiac output X total peripheral resistance Question 14: The following are associated with a decrease in cardiac output F Pregnancy F Anaemia T Haemorrhage F Hyperthyroidism Question 15: During the cardiac cycle F Blood flows into the atria only during atrial diastole F Atrial contraction contributes 70% to ventricular filling F Blood flows from the atria into the ventricles during systole F Ventricular ejection occurs during the period

of isometric contraction Gastrointestinal physiology MCQ Question 1: Gastric secretion T Is inhibited by cholecystokinin T Is inhibited by gastric inhibitory peptide F Is stimulated by sympathetic stimulation F Is stimulated by nicotinic agonists Question 2: Gastric secretion T Occurring during the cephalic phase is mainly under vagal control F Occurring during the gastric phase is mainly caused by secretin stimulation T Occurring during the intestinal phase is caused by gastrin secreted by the duodenum T Is inhibited by secretin Question 3: During swallowing F Afferent impulses of the swallowing reflex travel in the facial nerve T Afferent impulses of the swallowing reflex travel in the trigerminal and glossopharyngeal nerves T Motor impulses from the swallowing centre travel in the trigerminal nerve T Motor impulses from the swallowing centre travel in the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves Question 4: With respect to the autonomic control of the gastrointestinal tract F Sympathetic post-ganglionic fibres originate in the Meissners plexus F Sympsthetic post-ganglionic fibres originate

in the myenteric plexus F Sympathetic pre-ganglionic fibres originate in the sympathetic chain F Sympathetic pre-ganglionic neurons secrete noradrenaline Question 5: Bile salts T Are synthesised from cholesterol F Contain bilirubin F Increase the surface tension in fat particles in the small intestine T Form micelles with lipids in the small intestine Question 6: Gastric secretion T Is stimulated by vagal stimulation F Is inhibited by gastrin T Is stimulated by histamine F Is stimulated when the pH within the stomach is < 2.0 Question 7: With respect to the regulation of pancreatic secretion F Secretin is secreted when the pH of duodenal contents is > 4.5 T Cholecystokinin is secreted by the mucosa of the small intestine F Cholecystokinin stimulates bicarbonate secretion by the pancreas F Gastrin inhibits pancreatic secretion Question 8: Bile salts T Play an important role in the absorption of vitamin A F Play an important role in the absorption of folate T Play an important role in the absorption of

vitamin K T Have an entero-hepatic circulation True False Question 9: The oxyntic cells of the stomach secrete F Pepsin T Intrinsic factor F Gastrin F Pepsinogen Question 10: Cholecystokinin F Is a glycoprotein F Is secreted mainly by the terminal ileum T Stimulates contraction of the gall bladder F Relaxes the sphincter of Oddi Question 11: With respect to the autonomic control of the gastrointestinal tract T Parasympathetic stimulation causes increased motility T Sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons secrete noradrenaline F Sympathetic stimulation increases gut motility T Sympathetic stimulation decreases secretory activity Question 12: Bile T Is secreted by hepatocytes T Is concentrated by the gall bladder T Is rich in cholesterol F Is essential for protein digestion and absorption Question 13: Gastric emptying F Is stimulated by secretin F Is stimulated by cholecystokinin

T Is inhibited by gastric inhibitory peptide T Is inhibited by sympathetic stimulation Question 14: Saliva T Has a higher potassium cocentration than plasma F Has a higher chloride concentration than plasma T Secretion is stimulated by parasympathetic stimulation T Contains mucus Question 15: With respect to the autonomic control of the gastrointestinal tract F Parasympsthetic pre-ganglionic fibres originate in the Meissners plexus True False T Parasympathetic post-ganglionic fibres originate in the myenteric plexus T Parasympathetic post-ganglionic fibres secrete acetylcholine T Parasympathetic stimulation causes increased secretion Acid-base & renal function MCQ Test Question 1: Angiotensin II F Is a decapeptide T Is produced from angiotensin I in the lungs T Is a vasoconstrictor T Stimulates aldosterone secretion Question 2: The following are recognised causes of metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap T Diabetic ketoacidosis T Starvation

F Hyperparathyroidism F Diarrhoea Question 3: Metabolic acidosis T Caused by severe diarrhoea is associated with a normal anion gap T Caused by renal tubular acidosis is associated with a normal anion gap T Caused by lactic acidosis is associated with an increase in the anion gap F Caused by diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a decrease in the anion gap Question 4: The metabolism of the following amino acids results in the production of acids T Hystidine F Aspartate F Glutamate F Alanine Question 5: Respiratory alkalosis T Occurs in hyperventilation F Occurs in normal pregnancy T May occur in type I respiratory failure F May occur in type II respiratory failure Question 6: A 20 year old woman has the following arterial blood results: pH= 7.49, PCO2 = 47mmHg, [HCO3-] = 35mM, Oxygen saturation = 98% on air.Her plasma potassium concentration is 2.5mM F There is a respiratory alkalosis T There is a metabolic alkalosis F Her urine is likely to be alkaline

F Pulmonary embolism is a likely diagnosis Question 7: With respect to the renal regulation of acid-base balance F Ammonium ions are mainly produced in the loop of Henle T Glutamine metabolism by the kidneys results in bicarbonate production T Ammonia production by the kidneys is increased in acidosis T Secreted hydrogen ions are buffered by the phosphate buffer system in tubular fluid Question 8: Arterial blood gas analysis from a 20 year old woman shows: pH= 7.36; PCO2 = 32mmHg, [HCO3-] = 17mM, Oxygen saturation = 99% on air F Pulmonary embolism is a likely diagnosis F She is acidotic T Aspirin overdose is a possible diagnosis F The anion gap is likely to be decreased Question 9: With respect to the bicarbonate buffer system T Within extracellular fluid is made up of carbonic acid and sodium bicarbonate T Within intracellular fluid is made up of carbonic acid and potassium bicarbonate T The majority of carbonic acid exists as dissolved carbon dioxide F The pH is proportional to the log of the bicarbonate ion concentration Question 10: With respect to renal function

T Urea clearance is proportional to urinary flow rate F Urea clearance is proportional to plasma urea concentration F Urea clearance is inversely proportional to urinary urea concentration F Glomerular filtration rate can be determined using creatinine as a marker Question 11: The following are recognised causes of metabolic alkalosis T Vomiting F Starvation T Diuretic therapy F Hyperparathyroidism Question 12: With respect to acid base status F The pH is calculated from (log of hydrogen ion (concentration True False F The pH of arterial blood is 7.35 F The pH of venous blood is 7.4 T pH of interstitial fluid is 7.35 Question 13: Respiratory acidosis F Occurs in type I respiratory failure F If chronic, is associated with a fall in plasma bicarbonate concentration T Occurs in chronic bronchitis F Is associated with a high arterial PO2 Question 14: The following are recognised causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap F Salicylate poisoning F Starvation T Diarrhoea

T Pancreatic fistulae Question 15: A 34 year old woman has the following arterial blood gas results: pH = 7.34, [HCO3-] = 17mM, PCO2 = 30mmHg F Pulmonary embolism is a likely diagnosis F She has a respiratory acidosis T She has a metabolic acidosis T There is a respiratory compensation to a metabolic acidosis Adaptation to pregnancy MCQ Question 1: The following changes occur in the cardiovascular system during pregnancy and lactation T 40% increase in cardiac output by 12 weeks gestation F Decreased cardiac output in the third trimester F Decreased cardiac output during labour F Increased cardiac output in association with breastfeeding Question 2: Pregnancy is associated with F Increased uric acid reabsorption from the renal tubules F Increased plasma uric acid concentration T Increased glucose filtration into glomerular fluid F Decreased urinary amino acid excretion Question 3: Normal pregnancy is associated with

T A rise in factor VIII concentration in haemophilia carriers T A rise in von Willebrand factor concentration in women with von Willebrand disease F Increased anti-thrombin III concentrations F Decreased protein C concentration Question 4: Normal pregnancy is associated with F Decreased fibrinogen concentration T Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate T Increased factor VIII concentrations F Decreased von Willebrand factor Question 5: During pregnancy T Minute ventilation is increased F Tidal volume is decreased F Respiratory rate is decreased T There is a fall in arterial PCO2 Question 6: The following changes occur in the fetal circulation at birth T Closure of the foramen ovale F Increased resistance in the pulmonary arteries F Decreased blood flow into the pulmonary arteries F Decreased pressure in the left atrium Question 7: Normal pregnancy is associated with T Decreased protein S concentration F Increased fibrinolysis T Increased plasminogen activator inhibitor concentration F A fall in the concentration of fibrin

degradation products Question 8: With respect to the renninangiotensin pathway in pregnancy T Plasma renin concentration is increased in pregnancy T Plasma renin activity is increased in pregnancy F Plasma angiotensinogen concentration falls during pregnancy F Rennin readily crosses the placenta Question 9: During pregnancy F Arterial PO2 is increased F Residual volume is increased F Physiological dead space is decreased F Vital capacity is increased Question 10: The following changes occur in the cardiovascular system during pregnancy T Increased heart rate by 20 weeks gestation F Decreased stroke volume F Increased pulmonary capillary pressure in the third trimester T Decreased peripheral vascular resistance Question 11: During pregnancy F Expiratory reserve is increased T The respiratory quotient is increased T The sub-costal angle is increased F Peak expiratory flow rate is decreased Question 12: During pregnancy T The forced expiratory volume in one second is unchanged F Arterial bicarbonate concentration is increased

F There is a respiratory alkalosis T There is a fall in arterial PCO2 Question 13: The following changes occur in the fetal circulation at birth T Closure of the umbilical arteries Closure of the umbilical vein Closure of the ductus venosus Closure of the ductus arteriosus Question 14: Normal pregnancy is associated with F A decrease in urinary erythropoietin excretion T An increase in mean cell volume of erythrocytes F An increase in platelet count F A decrease in leucocyte count Question 15: The following changes occur in the cardiovascular system during pregnancy T Increased myocardial contractility F Increase in the arterio-venous oxygen difference T Increased oxygen carrying capacity of blood T Decreased haemoglobin concentration Respiratory physiology MCQ Question 1: With respect to inspired, expired and alveolar air F Expired air contains 5% oxygen T Alveolar air contains 5% CO2 F Alveolar air contains 30% oxygen

T Alveolar air contains 75% nitrogen Question 2: The following factors affect the rate of gas diffusion through the respiratory membrane T Thickness of the respiratory membrane T Surface area of the membrane T Diffusion coefficient of the gas T Partial pressure difference between the two sides of the membrane Question 3: With respect to the binding of carbon monoxide to haemoglobin F The binding site of carbon monoxide to Hb is different from that of oxygen T Haemoglobin has a higher affinity for carbon monoxide than for oxygen F 97% of carbon monoxide transported by blood is in solution in the water of plasma T The carbon monoxide Hb dissociation curve lies to the left of the oxygen Hb dissociation curve Question 4: With respect to gas exchange across the alveolar membrane F The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is 104mmHg T The partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated alveolar blood is 40mmHg T The partial pressure of oxygenated blood leaving the alveoli is 104mmHg F The partial pressure of oxygen in blood leaving the left ventricle is 104mmHg Question 5: Surfactant T Is a lipoprotein

F Is secreted by type I pneumocytes FIncreases the surface tension of the alveolar fluid T May be deficient in premature babies Question 6: Carbon dioxide is transported in blood in the following forms T In solution in the water of plasma T As bicarbonate ion F Combined to haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin T Bound to plasma proteins Question 7: During the release of carbon dioxide in the lungs T The binding of oxygen to haemoglobin displaces carbon dioxide from blood T The binding of oxygen to haemoglobin causes the release of hydrogen ions T Hydrogen ions combine with bicarbonate to form carbonic acid T Carbonic acid dissociated into carbon dioxide and water Question 8: With respect to gas exchange across the alveolar membrane F The oxygen saturation in venous blood is 40% T On average, the haemoglobin in 100ml of blood can combine with 20ml of oxygen F Acidosis causes the oxygen Hb dissociation curve to shift to the left T Increased CO2 concentration causes the oxygen Hb dissociation curve to shift to the right

Question 9: Minute respiratory volume F Is about 60l/min T Increases in pregnancy T Is tidal volume X respiratory rate T Is the total volume of new air moved into the respiratory tract each minute Question 10: With respect to gas exchange across the alveolar membrane F Oxygen diffusion across the alveolar membrane is more rapid than carbon dioxide diffusion F The intracellular partial pressure of CO2 is 100mmHg T The partial pressure of CO2 in tissue fluid is 45mmHg F The partial pressure of CO2 in venous blood leaving tissues is 40mmHg Question 11: Carbonic anhydrase F Is present in plasma T Is present in erythrocytes F Catalyses the reaction between carbon dioxide and haemoglobin F Catalyses the decomposition of carbonic acid into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions Question 12: The following are recognised causes of bronchoconstriction T Histamine T Prostaglandins F Vasopressin F Noradrenaline Question 13: With respect to gas exchange |across the alveolar membrane

F Pyrexia causes the oxygen Hb dissociation curve to shift to the left T An increase in the concentration of 2,3diphosphoglycerate causes the oxygen Hb dissociation curve to shift to the right True False .b Hadidy's answer: No answer Correct answer: true F FFFFF The oxygen Hb dissociation curve of fetal Hb lies to the right of that of adult Hb FFFF Exercise shifts the oxygen Hb dissociation curve to the left Question 14: Peripheral chemoreceptors F Are located in the carotid sinus T Are located in the aortic body T Are more sensitive to changes in PO2 than the central chemoreceptors T Have a rich blood supply Question 15: Vital capacity F Is increased in the third trimester of pregnancy T Is dependent on the compliance of the lungs and chest wall T Is dependent on the strength of the respiratory muscle F Is higher in obese individuals compared to tall thin individuals May all have good luck <Dont forget me <dr_hadidy@hotmail.com

May all have good luclk dont forget me Dr

Important EMQ for part 1

(1) a) ant division of ant. remi of S2-4 b) ant division of post.rami of S2-4 b)genitofemoral nerve c) post division of ant. remi of S2-4 d) post division of post. remi of S2-4 e) sensory supply of perineal nerve f) inferior rectal nerve g) ischial tuberosity h)ischial spine A lady is about to deliver and you are about to ..give her a pudendal block ?Q1- what is the root value of pudendal nerve ?Q2- what nerve supplies lower part of vagina Q3- why do u give local skin infiltration before ?episiotomy Q4- or what is the nerve supply of peranal ?. area

If we take the day of fertilization as Day0 ..(2) then

Day2 Day4 Day 8 Day 10 Day12 Day 14 Day 18 Day20 Day 22 Day 24 Day 26 Day 42 Day 70 ?Q1- Which represents 4 cell stage ?Q2- conceptus implants completely ?Q3- fetal heart pulse seen on ultrasound ?Q4- vertebra form completely

(3) A Cytoplasmic transcription factor receptor B G protein coupled receptor on cell membrane C G protein coupled receptor on Golgi complex D Mega subunit ligand gated ion channel E Multisubunit antibody receptor on cell membrane F Multisubunit ligand gated ion channel on cell membrane G Nuclear protein kinase receptor H Nuclear transcription factor receptor

I Protein kinase receptor on cell membrane (J Receptor protein complex (intracytoplasmic K Transcription factor receptor on cell membrane Select the receptor which binds the molecules referred to in the itemS below. Each option may .be used once, more than once or not at all . insulin -1 . progesterone -2 . ostradiol -3 . prostaglandin -4 (4) PCR Fish test Chromosomal linkage analysis Telomer analysis Sum hereditary crosslinkage chromosomal option Screen for some known gene mutation Sweat test Saliva test A family with one kid presumed to have cystic fibrosis however cftr gene mutation was not detected. Family members willing to give samples if needed.mother wants definite diagnosis as she is 11wks and wants to know diagnosis for her baby.parents are cousins with .1st degree relatives having cystic fibrosis

Invasive diagnostics can be applied to reach -1 ?final results by you have Guthrie spot of their son how will u -2 ?diagnose him for cystic fibrosis families in UK with cystic fibrosis how will u -3 ?find f508

(5) A- Endoplasmic reticulum B- Golgi apparatus C- Lysosomes D- Microtubules E- Mitochondria F- Nucleolus G- Plasma membrane H- Ribosomes Select the most appropriate organelle that matches the following descriptions Contains enzymes capable of digesting cells -1 and cellular material . Reads' the mRNA and builds protein' -2 Modification of lipids and proteins with -3 storage of material prior to export out of the .cell screening test for following (6) syphilis treponemal antibody test -1

syphilis hemaglutination test -2 syphilis immobilization test -3 HB-electrophorisis -4 mcv -5 mchc -6 MCh -7 serum iron -8 paul-bennel test -9 A- alpha thalessemia B- folic acid deficiency C- iron deficiency anemia D- primary syphilis in early untreated period ?on taking a large protein meal (7) A- Decrease decrease B- Increase increase C- Increase decrease D- Deacrease increase E- Nochange no change F- Nochange increase G- Nochange decrease Insulin & Glucagon excretion what will ?... happened ) . a- 3-hydroxyisovaleric acid . b- 17-alpha hydroxyprogesterone . c- 17-delta hydroxyprogesterone . d- acetic acid . e- cortisol

The following level of certain metabolities in amniotic fluid changes significantly of the fetus has an inborn error of the metabolism .select the single metabolite from list of the options above whose level in amniotic fluid is altered by .inheretiance disease in item below congentiat adrenal hyperplasia

(9) A- Adrenaline B- Calcitonin C Cholecystokinin D- Cortisol E- Glucagon F- Insulin G- Progesterone H- Somatostatin IT- estosterone Select the appropriate hormone from the list for the following structures that produce it. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or .not at all . Adrenal Cortex -1 . Adrenal Medulla -2 . Pancreatic alpha cell -3 Pancreatic D Cells -4
.

Akeratinising stratified squamous epithelium Bnon-keratinising stratified squamous epithelium

Cpseudostratified columnar epithelium Dsimple columnar epithelium Esimple cuboidal epithelium Ftransitional epithelium Which of the epithelial types described above are :present in the anatomical regions below . . . . . . . . . . . . . ectocervix -1 endocervical canal -2 cervical ectropion -3 transformation zone of cervix -4 vagina -5 uterus -6 Bladder -7 Trachea -8 Labia Majora -9 Bowel -10 Fallopian tube-11 Vulva -12 anal canal -13

A- Autosomal co-dominant B- Autosomal dominant C- Autosomal recessive D- Polygenic E- Single gene defect F- X linked dominant G- X linked recessive Select the most likely mode of inheritance for the ] :following patients conditions A 27 -year old female developed gestational -1 diabetes mellitus. Her uncle and grandmother also had diabetes mellitus2- A mothr is concerned regarding her baby who has developed fractures which appear to occur with minimal trauma. He has .blue sclera An 18-year old female underwent caries tooth -3

extraction and developed profuse bleeding. On history she revealed menorrhagia. Her mother and .her grandfather had the same disease

. . . . . . . . .

A- WARFARIN B- HEPARIN C- AMPICILLIN D- METHYLDOPA E- PENCILLIN F- CARBIMAZEPINE G- METRONIDAZOLE H- NON OF THE ABOVE I- ALL OF THE ABOVE

For each of the following choose the single most . appropirate statement from the above list of options . Drug contraindicated in breast feeding -1 . Drug does not cross the placenta -2