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Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

Quiz # 01 SPECIAL SEMESTER, 2007
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1. A dispute in which some of the contentions can be expressed as a cause of
action or as a defense to a cause of action is known as____.
Legal dispute
Adjunction
Mediation
Defense dispute
2. A collision involving motor vehicles that results in minor damage is called____?
Minor collision
Fender bender
Minor damage
Road accident
3. The process in which a third-party neutral, after reviewing evidence and

listening to arguments from both sides, issues a decision to settle the case is
called____?
Adjudication
Arbitration
Conciliation
Defense dispute
4. The process in which neutral third party renders binding decision in

interpersonal conflict is called____?
Adjudication
Arbitration
Conciliation
Defense dispute
5. In the American system of government, the formalized structure built to handle

disputes that people have been unable to resolve on their own is ________.
Dispute resolution
Judicial system
ADR
Defense dispute
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6. The disputant for whom an agent is acting is called _____.
Principal
Advocate
Disputant
Lawyer
7. The options given below are forms of resolving conflict except one:
Negotiation
Legal dispute
Conciliation
Arbitration
8. The discussion among two or more people with the goal of reaching an
agreement is called___.
Negotiation
Legal dispute
Conciliation
Arbitration
9. Positive interdependence may also be called_________.
Contrient
Promotive
Conciliation
Arbitration
10. Disagreement or argument about something important is known as___.
Contrient
Promotive
Conciliation
Dispute

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1. In dual concern model the style which represents a low level of concern for
both self and
other known as__________.
a) Avoiding
b) Dominating
c) Obliging
d) Compromising
2. Third party usually helps, clarifies and grounds each disputing party’s
alternatives to
agreement in___________.
a) Reality testing
b) Litigation
c) Negotiation
d) Dispute
3. A person holds_____ power when he influences others by coercing,
threatening, harming
and irritating.
a) Reward
b) Coercive
c) Normative
d) Expert
4. Research and investigation can be examples of sources of _________power.
a) Expert
b) Reward
c) Normative
d) Democratic
5. A dispute between two neighbors can be example of _________power.
a) Expert
b) Reward
c) Ecological
d) Social
6. Formal power is exercised in a ________manner.
a) Bottom-up
b) Top-down
c) Horizontal
d) Vertical
7. The influence which is deliberate or purposive in nature may be called_____.
a) Motivation

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b) Power
c) Integration
d) None of the given options
8. When one disputant is forced to litigation then __________style is not
possible.
a) Compromising
b) Integration
c) Authoritative
d) Avoiding
9. Dual concern model assumes that no disputant has ________orientation.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) Zero-Sum
10. In dual concern model the style which represents a moderate level of
concern for self and
other known as__________.
a) Avoiding
b) Dominating
c) Obliging
d) Compromising
1. Negotiation in which the disputants are the only participants is

called________.
a) Adjudication
b) Mediation
c) Simple negotiation
d) Facilitated negotiation
2. An interpersonal conflict in which no participant is aware of the divergence
of goals, needs, or
interests is known as__________.
a) Latent conflict
b) False conflict
c) Cause of action
3. A conflict situation in which the disputants believe that when one disputant
helps him/herself,
the other disputant is also helped is_______________.

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a) Constructive conflict
b) Competitive conflict
c) Destructive conflict
d) Cooperative conflict
4. A situation involving actual incompatibility of needs, interests or goals is
defined
as__________.
a) False conflict
b) True conflict
c) Veridical conflict
d) Both true and veridical conflict
5. Conflict causes predictable and destructive changes in the disputant’s
attitudes, perceptions and
interactions is called____________.
a) Perceived conflict
b) Real conflict
c) Escalating conflict
d) Data type conflict
6. Meeting one party’s goals is just like promoting other party’s goals known
as:
a) Promotive Interdependence
b) Contrient Interdependence
c) Positive Interdependence
7. The first step in conflict diagnosis is to describe the______________.
a) Conflict
b) Disputant
c) Motives
d) Position
8. In interpersonal conflict the reality understood by each participant is
highly__________.
a) Objective
b) Personal
c) Subjective
d) Biased
9. There is/are usually ___________ source /sources of any given conflict.
a) Single
b) Multiple

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c) Sole
d) Distinct
10. One can infer attitudes and make judgments about people and things
through _____________.
a) Perception
b) General attribution theory
c) Stimuli
d) Cognitive Structure
Solution of Quiz-01
1. One standing in the shoes of a disputant during an interpersonal conflict,
acting for the
disputant is called:
Agent
2. The extreme form of conflict is violence and violence generally hurts
__________.
Weaker parties
3. __________ tend to enjoy the use less aggressive tactics, show less
contentious
behavior and more cooperative strategies.
Positive mood
4. People confronted with conflict in our culture typically react by seeing the
situation as a
__________ where there can only be one winner.
Competition
5. Processes that combine the attributes of two or more of the major forms of
dispute
resolution are called:
Mixed processes
6. The American legal system is a(n) __________ process built on the notion that
justice
is achievable through competition.
Adversarial
7. A dispute in which some of the contentions can be expressed as a cause of
action or as
a defense to a cause of action is known as:
Legal dispute
8. Conflicts involving __________ matters are more difficult to resolve.

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Intangible
9. If we focus on __________ and ignore the __________ for a short span of time
then it
will be more beneficial for dispute resolution.
Outcome, process
10. Which of the following is the least intrusive of third-party processes?
Conciliation
1. All of the following are advantages of understanding the other disputant's

interests
EXCEPT:
a) It ensures user doesn’t miss an optimal resolution
b) It creates greater inflexibility in coming to settlement
c) It helps user visualize and recognize alternate ways to meet goals
d) It enables user to evaluate some interests could be met outside the conflict
2. It is the stances or demands taken by disputants or their agents / advocates
in an
interpersonal conflict, known as:
a) Position
b) Interests
c) Bargaining
d) Negotiation
3. As a mediator, you are analyzing the situation where an employee and his
manager
have a disagreement. You are focusing that how the concerns of other
employees will
be affected by the settlement. You are analyzing what type of interests?
a) Advocate’s interests
b) The disputant’s interests
c) Advocate of other disputant’s interests
d) Constituents & stake holder’s interests
4. Conflict can be taken as a challenge and could be transformed into a/an:
a) Threat
b) System
c) Opportunity
d) All of the given options
5. Abraham Mazlow believed that the most basic needs are:
a) Safety needs

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b) Security needs
c) Physiological needs
d) Psychological needs
6. Deutsch's theories can be illustrated by two round graphs showing how
cooperative and
competitive conflicts move through:
a) Cyclical process
b) Efficient process
c) Escalating process
d) Conciliatory process
7. Who said, “If you are a master, be some time blind; if a servant, sometimes
deaf”?
a) Robert Gaits
b) Robert Frost
c) Thomas Fuller
d) Thomas Millar
8. Which of the following is the feature of competitive patterns of perceiving a
conflict in
organizations?
a) Less destructive political behavior
b) It results in missed opportunities
c) Increased productivity
d) Fewer turnovers
9. Trust, based on a calculation, comparing the costs and benefits of creating
and
sustaining a relationship versus the costs and benefits of severing it is the
form of which
type of trust?
a) Calculus-based trust
b) Productive-based trust
c) Knowledge-based trust
d) Identification-based trust
10. __________ trust comes from any situation in which people become well and
so on.
a) Calculus-based
b) Knowledge-based
c) Experience-based
d) Identification-based

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11. Which of the following is NOT the motivation of seeking vengeance?
a) To prove self worth
b) To continue further disarray
c) Rigidity of values & fixity of mind
d) Disappointment of vengeful disputant
12. Which of the following is the best way to deal with Meta-disputes is to:
a) Boost them
b) Apply them
c) Ignore them
d) Prevent them
13. In an interpersonal conflict where the disputants do not wish to do the
work necessary
to resolve the conflict until they feel there is no other alternative, the
impediment to
resolution is:
a) Mistrust
b) Lack of ripeness
c) Excluded stakeholders
d) Over commitment & entrapment
14. During a labor dispute one side accuses the other of unfair practices, is
one of the
examples of:
a) Mistrust
b) Linkages
c) Meta-disputes
d) Unpleasant disputant
15. The success of this style is dependent upon a free flow of information.
a) Self-protectiveness
b) Mutual & unilateral
c) Cooperative versus competitive
d) Usefulness in inducing cooperation
16. All of the following are tactics used in integrating EXCEPT:
a) Bridging
b) Logrolling
c) Undercutting
d) Expanding the pie
17. In the event that the negotiation will not produce a good outcome, the
disputant should

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be aware of his/her:
a) TALN
b) ATNA
c) ALTA
d) ANTL
18. The power to impose negative, damaging or unpleasant consequences on
someone else,
known as:
a) Referent power
b) Coercive power
c) Normative power
d) All of the given options
19. Which of the following power is based on superior knowledge to the
others?
a) Normative power
b) Referent power
c) Coercive power
d) Expert power
20. The propensity to judge people based on __________ is general practice.
a) Power
b) Culture
c) Diversity
d) Stereotype
1. An interpersonal conflict in which both the promotive and contrient aspects of

interdependence are recognized is known as a
a. Mixed interdependence situation
b. Mixed-motive situation
c. Mixed independence situation
d. None of the given options
2. During negotiation, the decision as to whether or not settle rests in part on

a. Environmental factor
b. Economic factor
c. Emotional factors
d. Nature of the conflict
3. What is true about negotiation?

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a. Just avoiding anger can ensure the success of negotiation
b. Just avoiding negative emotions is enough for success of negotiation
c. Understanding the emotions of other party and acting upon their conditions make sure
negotiation to work out
d. Understanding all conditions and circumstances and controlling emotions (own and
other’s) is necessary for negotiation to do well
4. Litigation is the part of
a. Agency adjudication
b. Arbitration
c. Adjudication
d. Negotiation
5. The main reason why a change/innovation seems to be ineffective is:

a. Practice creates high degree of efficiency
b. Testing new ways will necessarily lack efficiency
c. The failures of innovations are taken as the inferiority of innovation over the existing
practice, rather than to the lack of efficiency.
d. All of the given options
6. If we focus on process and ignore the outcome for a short span of time then it will be more
beneficial for dispute resolution.
True
False
7. Conflict is Complex but yet not difficult to understand

True
False
8. The faulty perceptions that arise during conflicts are usually thought as obvious
True
False
9. The first step of resolution of conflict is identification of problem

True
False
10. Usually the sources of conflict are Multiple and many of them are obvious
True
False

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1. High levels of trust between disputants makes:
a. Negotiation more efficient
b. Disputants less responsive
c. Decrease disputant’s willingness to try to find additional ways to trust each other
d. A competitive conflict cycle more likely
2. Which type of trust is founded on control?

a. Calculus-based trust
b. Knowledge-based trust
c. Identification-based trust
d. Productive based trust
3. There is a contest among all employees of organization about valuable suggestions for improving
policies for employees. What type of conflict it may be?
a. Constructive
b. Destructive
c. Competitive but constructive
d. Cooperative but destructive
4. All of the following are advantages of understanding the other disputant's interests except:
a. It helps user visualize and recognize alternate ways to meet goals
b. It creates greater inflexibility in coming to settlement
c. It ensures user doesn’t miss an optimal resolution
d. It enables user to evaluate whether some interests could be met outside the conflict
5. Focusing only on resource aspects of a conflict leads to

a. Zero-sum thinking
b. A competitive approach to resolution
c. A cooperative approach to resolution
d. Zero-sum thinking and a competitive approach to resolution
6. Where the disputants aren't fighting about what's really bothering them,
the conflict is:
a. Misplaced
b. Misattributed
c. Misaligned
d. Displaced

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7. The meaning of language or behavior may be misunderstood, causing a
_____ conflict.
a. Preferences and nuisances
b. Data-type
c. Resource
d. Communication
8. In the final step, Step Seven, disputants put the option into practice,
which in turn creates a new:
a. Stimulus
b. Action
c. Option
d. None of the above is correct
9. The conflict gamer reacts to conflict by:

a. Avoiding it
b. Feeling traumatized by it
c. Not preparing for it
d. Postponing negotiation
10. The form of negotiation in which the negotiation is facilitated by a neutral

third party is:
a. Mediation
b. Agent or advocate-assisted negotiation
c. Nonbinding evaluation
d. Arbitration
11. Agent is a party to a conflict who is powerful enough to significantly alter

its course
True
False
12. Most transactions contain both compatible and incompatible goals and
are known as mixed-motive situations
True
False
13. Lawyers are the only people who could not benefit from understanding
conflict diagnosis
True

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False
14. Creative thinking has always a positive effect on negotiation

True
False
15. Mediation is a way of negotiation where there are agents involved of both parties
True
False
16. Misconceptions about conflicts cause increase our ability to respond to conflicts effectively
True
False
17. Issues perspective is the most important perspective of conflict to be observed.
True
False
18. Focusing on resources to diagnose a conflict may help in finding other sources of conflict
True
False
19. In a competitive conflict the disputants perceive as a win and loose situation
True
False
20. The attitude that allows for risk taking behavior is known as trust
True
False
1. An accurate estimate of BATNA:

a. Allows disputant in making irrational choices about when to continue
negotiating, when to accept an offer, and when to stop
b. Allows being unduly pressured into settlement
c. Prevents team to accept a deal better than the BATNA without hesitation;
prevents lost opportunities to make good deals
d. Allows team to make better choices about how to exert its relationship
power in the negotiation
2. Impressions formed about people that are based upon fitting the person into
various categories are a type of impression called:

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a. Data processing
b. Systemic processing
c. Category-based processing
d. Detail processing
3. The mental processes which are used unconsciously to reinforce stereotypes

include all of the following except:
a. Ignoring
b. Over interpretation
c. Explaining away
d. All of the above are correct
4. When we try to associate with the information previously assumed even if we get
information about a certain phenomenon, we tend to___________ in process of
stereotype.
a. Ignore
b. Explain away
c. Agree
d. Challenge
5. Extending a pre assumed perception and confirming it with small piece of

information is which type of mental process of stereotyping?
a. Selecting Weighting Processes
b. Stereotype over interpretation
c. Stereotype-consistent perception
d. Explaining away
6. _____________ processing is more accurate, but ________ processing is faster

and easier.
a. Systematic, category-based
b. Category-based, systematic
c. Dual, systematic
d. Group, Systematic
7. The mediator’s primary function is to promote effective negotiation in:
a. Facilitative mediation
b. Evaluative mediation
c. Nonbinding evaluations
d. Mediation
8. In mediation:

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a. There may not be a settlement since the disputants may not come to
agreement
b. If there is some settlement it is permanent
c. The settlement is usually verbal
d. Settlements reached in mediation are not enforceable contracts
9. An advantage of “evaluative” mediation is that it:
a. Helps each disputant to fine-tune his or her BATNA for accuracy and
to modify it if it is too optimistic
b. Is the best form of mediation in inducing the disputants to use principled
negotiation
c. Is the best form of mediation in improving the disputants’ relationship
d. All of mentioned options
10. In general, settlements reached in mediation, once formalized, are:
a. Unenforceable
b. Enforceable to the same extent as court orders
c. Enforceable to the same extent as contracts, and subject to the same
defenses
d. Enforceable, but void able by any disputant who wishes to opt out of the
agreement
11. “To facilitate Collaborating/Integrating negotiation between the disputants” is
the goal of which type of mediation?
a. Triage mediation
b. Bargaining-based mediation
c. Therapeutic mediation
d. Pure mediation
12. Which of the following types of mediation has narrow and evaluative focus?
a. Triage mediation
c. Pure mediation
d. Therapeutic mediation
13. In which sort of mediation are due process problems the most likely to occur?
a. Triage mediation
c. Pure mediation
d. Transformative mediation
14. Sara is a triage mediator, Warda is a pure mediator, Afifa is a transformative
mediator, and Faria is a bargaining-based mediator. Which of these mediators is
more likely to try to encourage her clients to get a fair agreement through
compromising?

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a. Sara
b. Warda
c. Afifa
d. Faria
15. Most informal arbitration is probably __________________ than most
facilitative mediation.
a. Quicker and less expensive
b. Quicker but more expensive
c. Slower but less expensive
d. Slower and more expensive
11. The purpose of pure mediation would be most accurately stated

as:
Getting a settlement as quickly as possible

Getting a fair compromise
Facilitating principled bargaining or similar collaborative negotiation so
that settlement can result
Healing the disputants emotionally
12. Potential mediation client Ms. B complained that she wanted to

reach settlement in mediation, but the mediator didn’t seem at all
concerned with helping the parties reach settlement, or even to
negotiate. Which of the following forms of mediation did this mediator
probably practice?
a. Triage mediation
c. Pure mediation
d. Transformative mediation
13. Most informal arbitration is probably __________________ than most

facilitative mediation.
a. Quicker and less expensive
b. Quicker but more expensive
c. Slower but less expensive
d. Slower and more expensive
14. Mediation:
a. Indirectly promotes cooperation
b. Can enhance or preserve relationships

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c. Can create mistrust
d. Some time unable to create more optimal solutions than processes that
do not directly promote cooperation
15. I want to save time and money.” Taking in to consideration the

advantages and disadvantages of different type of dispute resolution
methods, which of the following is best method to be adopted for the
statement given above?
a. Legislation
b. Mediation
c. Negotiation
d. Adjudication
16. Mediator (and clients) sets ground rules for conduct in which
stage of mediation?
a. The introductory stage
b. Issues clarification and communication
c. The productive stage
d. Agreement consummation
17. In issue clarification stage in the process of mediation,
_______________ mediation generally focuses on analyzing interests of
disputants and on avoiding positional bargaining.
a. Evaluative
b. Facilitative
c. Category based
d. Non-binding
18. In which type of mediation mediator takes the time to ensure that he or she has
no prior dealings with either disputant that might create a conflict of interest?
a. Facilitative
b. Evaluative
c. Both facilitative and evaluative
d. Neither facilitative nor evaluative
19. Which of the following introductory statements by a mediator is MOST

LIKELY to lead to improved cooperation between the mediating disputants?

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a. “The purpose of this mediation is for you to decide whether plaintiff’s or
defendant’s version of the issue will prevail.”
b. “In mediation, I listen to both sides of the case and then we choose who wins.”
c. “Mediation is a way for the two of you to seek creative solutions to your
conflict that address your unique situation and leave neither of you feeling
victimized.”
d. “Now I’d like each of you to state your positions.”
20. One DISADVANTAGE of caucusing in mediation is that:

a. The mediator is prevented from using evaluative tactics
b. Caucusing does not promote integrating/collaborating
c. Caucusing prevents the mediator from learning about issues the disputants feel
uncomfortable discussing in front of one another
d. Caucusing promotes principled negotiation
21. Confidentiality in mediation is:

a. Entirely determined by statute
b. Determined by statute, court rule, or contract, depending on the
jurisdiction and the type of mediation
c. Ordered by the mediator in appropriate cases
d. A myth; mediation is not confidential
22. Concerns over whether a mediator should be able to testify in subsequent

litigation raise issues of:
a. Effectiveness
b. Confidentiality
c. Participation
d. Enforceability
23. Many scholars recognize advantages of arbitration over litigation. These

advantages include:
a. Expertise of a specialized tribunal
b. Fewer saving in time and expense
c. Less compliance with arbitration awards
d. Arbitrator’s decision serves as precedent in all similar cases throughout the country
24. Which of the following is not advantage of arbitration?

a. Low Cost relative to Litigation

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b. Intermediary involved
c. Legally Binding Nature
d. International Enforceability
25. __________ is potentially cheaper and faster than______________.
a. Non-binding evaluation, litigation

b. Litigation, Non-binding evaluation
c. Litigation, ADR
d. ADR, Litigation

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Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

2. A collision involving motor vehicles that results in minor damage is called____?

3. The process in which a third-party neutral, after reviewing evidence and

4. The process in which neutral third party renders binding decision in

5. In the American system of government, the formalized structure built to handle

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

9. Positive interdependence may also be called_________.

10. Disagreement or argument about something important is known as___.

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

1. Negotiation in which the disputants are the only participants is

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

1. All of the following are advantages of understanding the other disputant's

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

1. An interpersonal conflict in which both the promotive and contrient aspects of

2. During negotiation, the decision as to whether or not settle rests in part on

3. What is true about negotiation?

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

5. The main reason why a change/innovation seems to be ineffective is:

7. Conflict is Complex but yet not difficult to understand

9. The first step of resolution of conflict is identification of problem

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

2. Which type of trust is founded on control?

5. Focusing only on resource aspects of a conflict leads to

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

9. The conflict gamer reacts to conflict by:

10. The form of negotiation in which the negotiation is facilitated by a neutral

11. Agent is a party to a conflict who is powerful enough to significantly alter

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

14. Creative thinking has always a positive effect on negotiation

1. An accurate estimate of BATNA:

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

3. The mental processes which are used unconsciously to reinforce stereotypes

5. Extending a pre assumed perception and confirming it with small piece of

6. _____________ processing is more accurate, but ________ processing is faster

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

11. The purpose of pure mediation would be most accurately stated

Getting a settlement as quickly as possible

12. Potential mediation client Ms. B complained that she wanted to

13. Most informal arbitration is probably __________________ than most

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

15. I want to save time and money.” Taking in to consideration the

19. Which of the following introductory statements by a mediator is MOST

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

20. One DISADVANTAGE of caucusing in mediation is that:

21. Confidentiality in mediation is:

22. Concerns over whether a mediator should be able to testify in subsequent

23. Many scholars recognize advantages of arbitration over litigation. These

24. Which of the following is not advantage of arbitration?

Conflict Management (HRM- 624)

25. __________ is potentially cheaper and faster than______________.

a. Non-binding evaluation, litigation

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