Classical Mechanics Problem 1: Central Potential

Solution
a) Integrals of motion for a central potential V (r):
Angular Momentum L = rv
t
= r
2

Energy per unit mass E =

1
2
_
r
2
+v
2
t
_
+V (r) =
1
2
r
2
+V
e
(r)
where v
t
is the tangential velocity and V
e
is dened as
V
e
(r) = V (r) +
L
2
2r
2
If the orbit is circular, the distance of the test body from the origin is invariant: r = 0,
which implies that the body is always at the equilibrium-distance:
dV
e
dr
= 0
dV
dr
=
L
2
r
3
=
v
2
t
r
= r

2
then

=
L
r
2
=
_
1
r
dV
dr
_
1/2
so for the period we get
T

=
2

= 2
_
1
r
dV
dr
_
1/2
b) Write the orbit as in the statement of the problem:
r(t) = r
0
+(t) with
dV
e
dr
(r
0
) = 0 and
2
r
2
0
.
The energy per unit mass is now E =
1
2

2
+ V
e
(r
0
+ ), and since is small we may
Taylor-expand the potential as
V
e
(r
0
+) = V
e
(r
0
) +
dV
e
dr
(r
0
)
. .
=0
+
1
2
d
2
V
e
dr
2
(r
0
)
2
+O(
3
)
so then
E V
e
(r
0
) =
1
2

2
+
1
2
d
2
V
e
dr
2
(r
0
)
2
+O(
3
) = const.
In the above equation we readily recognize the equation of the simple harmonic oscil-
lator with

r
=
_
d
2
V
e
dr
2
_
1/2
r=r
0
1
and its general solution is
(t) =
_
E V
e
(r
0
)

r
cos [
r
(t t
0
)]
where t
0
is an arbitrary constant.
Now return to writing
r
in terms of V (r) instead of V
e
(r).

2
r
=
d
2
V
e
dr
2
=
d
2
V
dr
2
+
3L
2
r
4
=
d
2
V
dr
2
+ 3
2

=
d
2
V
dr
2
+
3
r
dV
dr

r
=
_
d
2
V
dr
2
+
3
r
dV
dr
_
1/2
r=r
0
=
_
1
r
3
d
dr
_
r
3
dV
dr
__
1/2
r=r
0
And the radial period is
T
r
=
2

r
c) Stability is determined by the sign of
2
r
. For stability:
2
r
> 0, so
1
r
3
d
dr
_
r
3
dV
dr
_
> 0
for the Yukawa-potential
V (r) =
GM
r
e
kr
so the condition is
1
r
3
d
dr
_
r
3
dV
dr
_
=
GM
r
3
e
kr
_
1 +kr (kr)
2

> 0
_
1 +kr (kr)
2

> 0
_
1 +kr (kr)
2

=
_

5 1
2
+kr
__

5 + 1
2
kr
_
> 0
which is satised only if
kr <
_

5 + 1
2
_
Therefore circular orbits are unstable for
kr >
_

5 + 1
2
_

2
d) The outermost stable circular orbit is at
r
0
=
_

5 + 1
2k
_
its energy per unit mass is
E = V (r
0
) +
1
2
(r
0

)
2
= V (r
0
) +
1
2
_
r
dV
dr
_
r=r
0
1
2
GM
r
0
e
kr
0
(kr
0
1) =
GM
r
0
e
kr
0
_

5 1
4
_
> 0
If r
0
is decreased only slightly, E > 0 still and the orbit is absolutely stable
The eective potential for the Yukawa-potential has the form shown in Figure 1.
r
V
eff
Figure 1: Eective potential against distance from the origin
3
Classical Mechanics Problem 2: Planar Double Pendulum
Solution
l
l
q
1
q
2
a) L = T V
The moment of inertia for a uniform rod of length l and mass m is
I =
1
3
ml
2
about one of the ends
and
I
c
=
1
12
ml
2
about the rods center
The kinetic energy term we can decompose into three parts:
T = T
1
+T
2,rot
+T
2,trans
where T
1
is the kinetic energy of the rst rod, T
2,trans
is the translational energy of
the center of mass of the second rod and T
2,rot
is its rotational energy about its center
of mass. Then
T
1
=
1
6
ml
2

2
1
T
2,rot
=
1
24
ml
2

2
2
and
T
2,trans
=
1
2
m
_
x
2
c
+ y
2
c
_
where x
c
and y
c
are the coordinates of the second rods center of mass, so
x
c
= l sin
1
+
l
2
sin
2
y
c
= l cos
1

l
2
cos
2
from which
x
2
c
+ y
2
c
= l
2
_

2
1
+
1
4

2
2
+

2
(sin
1
sin
2
+ cos
1
cos
2
)
_
4
The potential energies are simply V
i
= mgy
c,i
, where y
c,i
are the vertical coordinates of
the rods centers of mass. Since both rods are uniform, y
c,i
are simply the coordinates
of the centers. Thus,
V
1
= mg
l
2
cos
1
; V
2
= mg
_
l cos
1
+
l
2
cos
2
_
The full Lagrangian is then
L = T
1
+T
2,rot
+T
2,trans
V
1
V
2
= ml
2
_
2
3

2
1
+
1
6

2
2
+

2
cos (
1

2
)
_
+mgl
_
3
2
cos
1
+
1
2
cos
2
_
b) Expand the Langrangian from part a) for small angles. The only function we have to
deal with is
cos = 1
1
2

2
+O(
4
)
Since we are going to look for normal modes with
j
=

j
exp(it), where the

j
1,
we immediately see that in the term

2
cos (
1

2
), the -dependence in the cosine
can be dropped, because even the rst -dependent term gives a fourth order correction.
Then the approximate Lagrangian is
L = ml
2
_
2
3

2
1
+
1
6

2
2
+

2
_
mgl
_
3
4

2
1
+
1
4

2
2
_
+ const.
The Euler-Lagrange equations are
d
dt
L

j
=
L

j
so in the specic case:
4
3

1
+
1
2

2
+
g
l
_
3
2

1
_
= 0
1
2

1
+
1
3

2
+
g
l
_
1
2

2
_
= 0
if we now look for normal modes, as mentioned, the above set of equations takes the
form
_
_
4
3

3
2
g
l
_
1
2

2
1
2

2
_
1
3

1
2
g
l
_
__

2
_
= 0
Non-trivial solutions exist if the determinant of the matrix on the left is zero. Denoting

2
= g/l, we can write this condition as
_
4
3

3
2
__
1
3

1
2
_

2
4
= 0,
5
that is
7
36

7
6
+
3
4
= 0
whose solutions are

= 3
6

7
,
so nally

=
__
3
6

7
_
g
l
_
1/2
c) To sketch the eigenmodes, nd eigenvectors of the matrix in part b).

2
=

g/l (low-frequency mode)

2
=
_
3

8
3
_

1
=
1
3
_
2

7 1
_

1
(2

7 1)/3 > 0 and real, therefore the two pendula are in phase;

2
=
+
g/l (high-frequency mode)

2
=
_
3

8
3
_

1
=
1
3
_
2

7 1
_

1
(2

7 1)/3 < 0 and real, therefore the two pendula are perfectly out of phase.
a b
Figure 2: The low- (a) and high-frequency (b) normal modes of the planar double pendulum.
6
Electromagnetism Problem 1
Solution
a) Normal modes are products of harmonic standing waves in the x, y and z directions.
For their frequencies, we have
= c
_
k
2
x
+k
2
y
+k
2
z
= c
_
_
n
x
a
_
2
+
_
n
y
b
_
2
+
_
n
z
b
_
2
_
1/2
; n
x
, n
y
, n
z
Z
+
Since a > b, the lowest frequency has n
x
= 1 and either n
y
= 1, n
z
= 0 or n
y
= 0, n
z
= 1
(note that n
y
= 0, n
z
= 0 does not satisfy the boundary condition E
,at wall
= 0). Since
we are told to pick the mode with

E | y, the boundary conditions require

E(r, t) = E
0
y sin
x
a
sin
z
b
cos t
The magnetic induction we can get from Faradays Law:

B
t
= c
_

E
_
= xc
E
y
z
zc
E
y
x
=
_
xcE
0

b
sin
x
a
cos
z
b
zcE
0

a
cos
x
a
sin
z
b
_
cos t

B(r, t) =
cE
0

_
x
b
sin
x
a
cos
z
b

z
a
cos
x
a
sin
z
b
_
sint
where the frequency is (by the argument above)
= c
_
1
a
2
+
1
b
2
_
1/2
b) At a boundary of media, the discontinuity in the normal component of the electric eld
is 4 times the surface charge density , so
E
y
(x, 0, z) = 4
(x, 0, z) =
E
0
4
sin
x
a
sin
z
b
cos t
(x, b, z) = (x, 0, z)
and
(0, y, z) = (a, y, z) = (x, y, 0) = (x, y, b) 0
Similarly, at the boundary of media the discontinuity of the tangential component of
the magnetic eld is given by the surface current
n

B =
4
c

7
where n is a unit vector normal to the surface, so
(x, 0, z) =
c
2
E
0
4
_
z
b
sin
x
a
cos
z
b
+
x
a
cos
x
a
sin
z
b
_
sint
(x, b, z) = (x, 0, z)
(0, y, z) =
c
2
E
0
4
y
a
sin
z
b
sint
(a, y, z) = (0, y, z)
(x, y, 0) =
c
2
E
0
4
y
b
sin
x
a
sint
(x, y, b) = (x, y, 0)
c) Since there is no charge on the b b sides, the force there is purely magnetic and is
given by

F(t) =
1
2c
_
bb
_


B
_
d
2
x

F(x = 0, t) =
E
2
0
c
2

8
2
a
2
x
b
_
0
dy
b
_
0
dz sin
2
z
b
sin
2
t
= x
_
c
4
b
a
E
0
sint
_
2

F(x = a, t) =

F(x = 0, t)
The forces point outwards from the box on both sides (as is indicated by the sign in
the equation above).
d) Start with the sides where y = const. The magnetic component of the force can be
written as above

F
mag
(y = 0, t) =
E
2
0
c
2

8
2
y
a
_
0
dx
b
_
0
dz
_
1
a
2
cos
2
x
a
sin
2
z
b
+
1
b
2
sin
2
x
a
cos
2
z
b
_
sin
2
t
= y
1
2
_
c
2
E
0
sint
_
2
1
4
_
b
a
+
a
b
_
To simplify this result further, use from part a)

2
= (c)
2
_
1
a
2
+
1
b
2
_
1
= ab(c)
2
_
b
a
+
a
b
_
1
Then

F
mag
(y = 0, t) = y
_
E
0
4
sint
_
2
ab
2
3
8
The electric component of the force can be written as

F
el
(y = 0, t) =
_
1
2

E d
2
x = y
E
2
0
8
cos
2
t
a
_
0
dx
b
_
0
dz sin
2
x
a
sin
2
z
b
= y
1
2
_
E
0
4
cos t
_
2
ab

F
tot
(y = 0, t) =

F
el
(y = 0, t) +

F
mag
(y = 0, t)
= y
_
E
0
4
_
2
ab
2
3
_
cos
2
t sin
2
t
_
= y
_
E
0
4
_
2
ab
2
3
cos 2t
and

F
tot
(y = b, t) =

F
tot
(y = 0, t)
There net force on the top and bottom sides oscillates between the inward and out-
ward direction with half the period of the lowest frequency mode. In a time average,
therefore, this force cancels.
Next, calculate the force on the sides where z = const. Again, there is no charge,
therefore no electric component; the force is purely magnetic

F(z = 0, t) =
E
2
0
c
2

8
2
b
2
z
b
_
0
dy
a
_
0
dxsin
2
x
a
sin
2
t
= z
a
b
_
c
4
E
0
sint
_
2

F(z = b, t) =

F(z = 0, t)
The magnetic force is pushing the a b walls outwards, too (sign!).
e) From the Maxwell stress tensor, the force per unit surface area is

f =
1
4

E(

E n)
E
2
8
n +
1
4

B(

B n)
B
2
8
n
On the x = const. walls n = x,

E = 0 and

B x = 0, so

f(x = 0, a, t) =
B
2
8
x =
E
2
0
c
2

8
2
a
2
xsin
2
z
b
sin
2
t
which is exactly the integrand from part c).
9
On the y = const. walls n = y,

E(

E y) = E
2
y and

B y = 0, so we get

f(y = 0, b, t) =
1
8
(E
2
B
2
) y
=
_
E
2
0
8
cos
2
t sin
2
x
a
sin
2
z
b

E
2
0
c
2

8
2
_
1
a
2
cos
2
x
a
sin
2
z
b
+
1
b
2
sin
2
x
a
cos
2
z
b
_
sin
2
t
_
y
the sum of the rst two integrands from part d).
On the z = const. walls n = z, (

E z) = 0 and

B z = 0, so we get

f(z = 0, b, t) =
B
2
8
z =
E
2
0
c
2

8
2
b
2
z sin
2
x
a
sin
2
t
the last integrand from part d).
F
(z)
k
(y)
k
(z)
k
(x)
x
b
b
a
z
y
s
s
k
(y)
k
(z)
k
(x)
F
(x)
F
(x)
F
(z)
Figure 3: Average total forces, surface charges and surface currents on the cavity.
10
Electromagnetism Problem 2: Waves in a Dilute Gas
Solution
(see Feynman Lectures on Physics, vol. II, chapter 32)
a) The EM wave is travelling in the x direction; it has a transverse electric eld, so assume
E y = 0. Then the electron in the atom behaves classically as a damped, driven
harmonic oscillator
m
e
_
y + y +
2
0
y
_
= qE
0
e
it
with the solution
y(t) =
1

2
0
+i
qE(t)
m
e
.
For the dipole moment per unit volume:
P = n
a
(q)y =
1

2
0

2
i
n
a
q
2
E
m
e
Therefore the volume polarizability is, according to the denition given,
() =
P

0
E
=
1

2
0

2
i
n
a
q
2

0
m
e
(A quantum mechanical derivation would give this same expression multiplied by the
oscillator strength f for the transition.)
b) With no free charges or currents, Maxwells equations read
D = 0; E =
B
t
B = 0; H =
D
t
and B =
0
H, D =
0
E+P =
0
(1 +)E for a single frequency . This gives us the
following wave-equation

2
D
t
2

1

0
(1 +)

2
D = 0.
Now let D be that of a plane wave: D e
i(kxt)
. Then
k
2
=
0

0
(1 +)
2
= (1 +)

2
c
2
n() =
_
1 +()
One can also get this result by using the microscopic E, B and P elds:
E =
1

0
P; c
2
B =

t
_
P

0
+E
_
11

2
E
t
2
c
2

2
E =
1

0
P
t
also

2
P
t
2
+
P
t
+
2
0
P =
n
a
q
2
m
e
E.
Together these give us k
2
= (1 + )
2
/c
2
for a plane wave, as before. (Note that we
are neglecting dipole-dipole interactions in the dilute gas.)
c) We start by noting that according to Fourier-analysis
E(x, t) =
1
2

dk e
i(kx(k)t)

E(k)

E(k) =

dxe
ikx
E(x, 0) =
1

2
2

dxe
i(kk
c
)xx
2
/(2
2
)
= e
i(kk
c
)
2

2
/2
Now Taylor-expand (k) about k = k
c
:
(k) = (k
c
) +
_
d
dk
_
k
c
(k k
c
) +O(k k
c
)
2

k
c
v
ph
+v
g
(k k
c
) +O(k k
c
)
2

where, by denition, v
ph
and v
g
are the phase- and group-velocities, respectively. Now
let K = k k
c
. Then
E(x, t) =
1
2

dK e
ik
c
(xv
ph
t)+iK(xv
g
t)K
2

2
/2
E(x, t) = e
ik
c
(xv
ph
t)
e
(xv
g
t)
2
/(2
2
)

2
2
= e
ik
c
(xv
ph
t)
N(x v
g
t, )
d) From part c)
v
g
=
d
dk
=
_
dk
d
_
1
=
c
n
_
1 +
d log n
d log
_
1
.
For the dilute gas, n =

1 + 1 + /2, which we will write as n = n

r
+ in
i
(for
is complex)
n
r
1 +
n
a
q
2
2
0
m
e

2
0

2
(
2
0

2
)
2
+
2

2
n
i

n
a
q
2
2
0
m
e

(
2
0

2
)
2
+
2

2
12
Here the real part n
r
of the index of refraction determines the dispersion, and the
imaginary part n
i
determines the absorption/gain coecient. At =
0
:
n
r
= 1 and
d log n
r
d log
=
n
a
q
2
2
0
m
e

2
v
g
=
_
1
n
a
q
2
2
0
m
e

2
_
1
c
_
1 +
n
a
q
2
2
0
m
e

2
_
c
Note that v
g
> c at =
0
. This is called anomalous dispersion. It does not vio-
late causality because signals (information) cannot travel faster than the minimum of
(v
ph
, v
g
), and now v
ph
= c (since n
r
= 1). Also, the waves are damped by the electronic
resonance maximally at =
0
.
13
Quantum Mechanics Problem 1
Solution
1. The ground state will have no nodes, so we can pick the even part of the general solution
of the free Schrodinger equation inside the well. Outside the well, square-integrability
demands the solutions to vanish at innity. The wave-function for the ground state is
then
[x[ < w [x[ > w
(x) = cos kx (x) = Ae
|x|
Both the wave-function and its derivative has to be continuous at the boundaries of
the well:
: cos kw = Ae
w
d
dx
: k sinkw = Ae
w
k tankw =
Directly from Schrodingers equation:
[x[ < w [x[ > w
E =

2
k
2
2m
E =

2

2
2m
+V
0

2
k
2
2m
=

2
2m
+V
0
From which we get the transcendental equation:
k tankw =
_
2mV
0

2
k
2
_
1/2
Let k

denote the positive root of the equation above, and introduce the following
notation:
k
c
=

2mV
0

and k
max
=

2w
.
Clearly, the LHS of the equation diverges at k
max
; and the RHS describes a circle with
radius k
c
, as shown in Fig. 4.
For the energy we have
E =

2
k
2
2m
14

k
c
k
max
k
k
*
k
*
k
*

tan

w
k
c
k tankw
k
c
2
k
2

1/ 2
( )
Figure 4: Graphical representation of the solution of the transcendental equation
2. Write the result of part 1 in the non-dimensional form:
kwtankw =
_
2mw
2
V
0

2
(kw)
2
_
1/2
According to the condition given in the statement of the problem, the radius of the
circle on the RHS (that in Fig. 4) goes to innity, therefore
k k
max
and
E

2
k
2
max
2m
=

2

2
8mw
2
3. The potential barrier on the low-potential side of the well, denoted a in the gure, will
be nite (for any E), so the particle will eventually escape by the tunnel-eect.
4. E = 0, because the perturbation is odd (and therefore its integral with the square of
the ground-state wave-function vanishes).
5.
F =
1

a
_
w
dx
_
2m(V (x) B)
V (x) = V
0
ecx
B = V
0
eca a =
V
0
B
ec
15
x
V x ( )
V
0
w w 0
a
F =

2m

a
_
w
dx
_
(V
0
B) ecx
=

2m

2
3
_

1
ec
_
(V
0
B ecx)
3/2

a
w
=

2m

2
3
1
ec
(V
0
B ecw)
3/2
6. Write the energy of the particle as
B =
1
2
mv
2
.
Then
v
2
=
2B
m
.
The time it takes for the particle to bounce back and forth once is
T =
4w
v
,
so it hits the right wall with frequency
=
v
4w

Probability to escape
unit time
=
v
4w
e
2F
Lifetime
4w
v
e
2F
16
Quantum Mechanics Problem 2
Solution
1. Drop the t-label for simplicity. Then we have
H = B
_
cos sine
it
sine
it
cos
_
,
and for the eigenvectors solve
_
cos sine
it
sine
it
cos
_ _
x
y
_
=
_
x
y
_
with the normalization condition [x[
2
+[y[
2
= 1. From the vector-equation
y = e
it
sin
cos 1
x
and with the normalization, we end up with
[+) =
_
cos (/2)
sin(/2)e
it
_
[) =
_
sin(/2)
cos (/2)e
it
_
2. Decompose the state-vector as
[) = c
+
[+) +c

[)
and write Schrodingers equation in terms of these vectors:
i
d
dt
[) = H[)
i
_
c
+
[+) +c
+
d
dt
[+) + c

[) +c

d
dt
[)
_
= B[c
+
[+) c

[)]
or in the ([+), [)) basis
i
d
dt
_
c
+
c

_
=
_
B i+[
d
dt
[+) i+[
d
dt
[)
i[
d
dt
[+) B i[
d
dt
[)
__
c
+
c

_
which, with the given concrete form of the vectors, is
i
d
dt
_
c
+
c

_
=
_
B + sin
2
(/2) cos (/2) sin(/2)
sin(/2) cos (/2) B + cos
2
(/2)
__
c
+
c

_
.
Now use the identities
sin
2
(/2) =
1
2
(1 cos )
cos
2
(/2) =
1
2
(1 + cos )
sin(/2) cos (/2) =
1
2
sin
17
to get
i
d
dt
_
c
+
c

_
=
1
2
_
2B cos sin
sin 2B + cos
__
c
+
c

_
.
Note that in the last equation we dropped the part of the Hamiltonian that was pro-
portional to the identity, since that gives only a time dependent phase that is identical
for the coecients c

, c
+
. This we can rewrite in the form:
i
d
dt
_
c
+
c

_
=
_
D
z
D
x
D
x
D
z
__
c
+
c

_
.
with the solution
_
c
+
c

_
= exp
_
i

_
D
z
D
x
D
x
D
z
___
1
0
_
= cos
_
[

D[t

_
i

D sin
_
[

D[t

_
.
And so
c
+
= cos
_
[

D[t

_
i
D
z
[

D[
sin
_
[

D[t

_
[c
+
[
2
= cos
2
_
[

D[t

_
i
D
2
z
D
2
sin
2
_
[

D[t

_
3. For B , D
z
D, so
[c
+
[
2
1
(Adiabatic theorem)
18
Statistical Mechanics and Thermodynamics Problem 1
Thermodynamics of a Non-Interacting Bose Gas
Solution
a)
n
p
=
1
e
(E
p
)
1
E
p
=
p
2
2m
At and below T
BEC
= 0. At exactly T
BEC
, there are no atoms in the condensate and
N =
V
2
3
_
d
3
p
e
p
2
/(2m)
1
= (2)
3
V
_
2m

_
3/2
4

_
0
x
2
dx
e
x
2
1
. .
=I
1
n =
1
2
2
_
2mkT

2
_
3/2
I
1
kT
BEC
=
_
2
2
n
I
1
_
2/3

2
2m
(2 points)
b) The above integral with = 0 also applies below T
BEC
, but it then gives the number
of non-condensed atoms. So on an isotherm below V
critical
N
non-condensed
is constant
T is constant
p is constant
(think of the kinetic origin of pressure)
V
p
Classical Gas 1/ p V
Phase Transition Line
p
BEC
V
5/3
Bose Gas
(2 points)
19
c)
U =
V
2
3
_
p
2
2m
d
3
p
e
p
2
/(2m)
1
= (2)
3
V
_
2m

_
5/2
4
2m

_
0
x
4
dx
e
x
2
1
. .
=I
2
= N
c
I
2
I
1
_
2m

_
1
2m
= N
c
I
2
I
1
kT T
5/2
c
v
=
5
2
I
2
I
1
N
c
k =
V
2
2
_
2mkT

2
_
3/2
k
_
5
2
I
2
_
T
3/2
(2 points)
d) From the reversibility of the Carnot-cycle:
dS
1
= dS
2
for 1 cycle
S
1
= S
2
for the entire process
dU = TdS pdV
..
=0
T
S
T

V
=
U
T

V
= c
v
= aT
3/2
. .
from c)

dS
dT
=
c
v
T
Therefore the entropy transfer in the entire process is
S
i
=
T
0
_
T
i
c
v
T
dT = a
T
0
_
T
i
T
1/2
dT =
2
3
a
_
T
3/2
0
T
3/2
i
_
S
1
+ S
2
= 0 T
3/2
0
=
1
2
_
T
3/2
1
+T
3/2
2
_
Heat transferred to F
1
: Q
1
=
T
0
_
T
1
TdS =
2
5
a
_
T
5/2
0
T
5/2
1
_
.
Heat transferred from F
2
: Q
2
=
T
2
_
T
0
TdS =
2
5
a
_
T
5/2
2
T
5/2
0
_
.
Therefore the total work done by the Carnot-machine is
W = Q
2
Q
1
=
2
5
a
_
T
5/2
1
+T
5/2
2
2T
5/2
0
_
(4 points)
20
Statistical Mechanics and Thermodynamics Problem 2
Phase Transition in a Superconductor
Solution
a)
c
H

Q
T

H
= T
S
T

H
dS =
S
T

M
dT +
S
M

T
dM
S
T

H
=
S
T

M
+
S
M

T
M
T

H
. .
=0
where the last term is zero because M is independent of T. Then
c
H
= T
S
T

M
=
Q
T

M
c
M
(2 points)
b) The transition takes place at constant T and H. The thermodynamic function whose
variables are T and H is the Gibbs-potential:
dG = SdT MdH
G
super
= G
normal
at every point on H
C
(T), so dG
S
= dG
N
which we then write as
S
S
dT M
S
dH = S
N
dT M
N
..
=0
dH
dH
dT

trans.
line
=
dH
C
dT
=
S
N
S
S
M
S
=
4
V H
C
(T)
(S
N
S
S
)
(3 points)
c) By the third law S 0 as T 0. But the gure shows H
C
(T = 0) is nite. Therefore
dH
C
dT
0 as T 0.
The transition is second order where S
N
S
S
= 0, that is, the latent heat equals zero.
S
N
S
S
=
V
4
H
C
(T)
dH
C
dT
21
At T = 0 the transition is second order because both entropies go to zero.
At T = T
C
(H = 0) the transition is second order since H
C
(T) = 0 and dH
C
/dT
is nite.
At all other temperatures the transition is rst order since both H
C
(T) and
dH
C
/dT are nite.
(2 points)
d) Use H and T as variables
dS(H, T) =
S
H

T
dH +
S
T

H
dT
S
H

T
=
c
H
T
S
T

H
=

Maxwell
relation

M
T

H
= 0
S =
_
c
H
T
dT =
a
3
T
3
V T < T
C
=
b
3
T
3
V +TV T > T
C
S
N
S
S
=
_
b a
3
_
T
3
V +TV T = T
C
(H = 0)
=
_
b a
3
_
T
2
C
T
C
(H = 0) =
_
3
b a
_
1/2
(3 points)
22