2008 Micro Study Guide

Microbiology
MCB 2010
Student Study Guide

Indian River Community College
Teresa G. Fischer

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Copyright 2008 by Teresa G. Fischer

All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced, in any form or by any means,
without permission in writing from the author.
Published by
Indian River Community College
3209 Virginia Avenue
Ft. Pierce, Florida 34981-5596

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Table of Contents

Introduction . . . . . . . . . 5

Lecture Notes for Textbook Chapter 1 . . . . 11








Lecture Notes for Textbook Chapter 13. . . . 67



Lecture Notes for Textbook Chapter 16, 17. . . . 88



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Appendix A . . . . . . . . . 123

Appendix B . . . . . . . . . 126

Appendix C . . . . . . . . . 129

INTRODUCTION

Welcome to MCB 2010 at Indian River Community College. This course
will introduce you to the fascinating field of microbiology. The Department of
Biology designed this course with the allied-health major in mind. You will be
exposed to information that is important to yourselves as health care workers and
to your patients. The course begins with the anatomy and physiology of microbial
cells, followed by a survey of the microbial world, the offensive weapons of
pathogens and the defensive mechanisms of their human hosts. You will also learn
about interesting topics that are current in the media and that directly affect the
lives of everyday citizens. These topics include AIDS and the immune system,
sexually transmitted diseases, emerging infectious diseases, and the increasing
problem of antibiotic-resistant microbes.
This Study Guide is designed to help you succeed in the course. It contains a
good deal of valuable information that will help you understand the lectures and
prepare for the tests. If you follow the suggestions contained in this Study Guide,
and if you are conscientious in your approach to your studies, you are sure to do
well in this course. You are not on your own, however. I am willing and eager to
help you with whatever difficulties you might experience. If you encounter any
problems that might prevent you from succeeding in the course, please contact me
immediately. You are invited to stop by and talk to me during my office hours, or
call and make an appointment at a time that is convenient for you. You also have
the option of leaving a telephone message on my voice mail or communicating
with me via e-mail (see your syllabus in Appendix A for details).
Your success in this class will depend to a large extent on how well you are
able to integrate the various elements of the course. For example, youll need to
understand how the lectures, textbook, and study guide work together to help you
identify the key concepts that will be covered on the tests. Take a few minutes to
read this Introduction carefully; the time you spend now will be very beneficial to
you as you begin to work on your course assignments. The following few pages
describe the six essential elements of the course: 1) the syllabus, 2) the lectures,
3) the textbook, 4) the examinations, 5) the study guide, and 6) the CD/website.
When you finish reading this Introduction, you should have a very good idea of
what to expect from each.

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1. Syllabus

It is vitally important that you read your course syllabus very carefully and
very thoroughly (the syllabus appears as Appendix A at the back of this Study
Guide). The syllabus describes the policies for the course, and it serves as an
official contract between you and the instructor. It describes the requirements that
students must fulfill in order to receive credit for the course, and it also describes
the guidelines that the instructor must follow in evaluating student performance.
Please pay particular attention to the course policies regarding grading of exams,
make-up tests, attendance, academic integrity, and grade calculations. If you have
any questions or concerns about the syllabus, please see your instructor
immediately.

2. Lectures

The instructors classroom lectures will form the conceptual heart of the
course. Virtually all of the basic concepts that you will be expected to learn will be
described and explained in class; for that reason, it is very important that you
make every effort to attend all class sessions. The notes that you take during
lectures will form the core of the materials that you will be studying for the tests.
The chapters in this Study Guide include outlines for the lectures that will help you
organize your notes (see item # 5).

3. Textbook

Baumans Microbiology, with Diseases by Body Systems, 2
nd
ed. is intended
to serve as an additional resource that will help you understand the concepts
presented in class. It will be very helpful to you if you will read the assigned
chapters from the textbook before coming to the lectures on that unit (the chapter
assignments can be found in your syllabus). After the lecture, read the chapter
again. Whenever you read a chapter for the first time, you might try prereading
the chapter using these guidelines on the following page:

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1. Read the chapter title. The title provides the overall theme of the
chapter.

2. Read the introduction before the first section. This gives you an idea
of what the material is about.

3. Read the heading for each section. This will tell you what is contained
in the section below the heading.

4. Read the Learning Objectives underneath the section heading. This
will emphasize the theme of the section.

5. Read the first sentence of each paragraph. The first sentence often
states the central thought of the paragraph. It may be necessary at times
to also read the second sentence to get the full context of the chapter.

6. Note any visual aids. Notice any material that is numbered, lettered, or
presented in list form. Graphs, charts, pictures, and tables, including their
captions, give valuable information in a form that may be more easily
understood than the text.

7. Note any typographical aids. Notice words in italic type or in boldface
type. Use of a typographical aid indicates that the term or sentence is
important. Later, you may want to make a list of these or put them on
flash cards.

8. Read the Chapter summary. The summary gives a condensed
view of the chapter and helps the reader identify the main points in the
chapter.

9. Quickly read any other end-of -chapter material. If there are study
questions, read through them quickly. They will indicate what is
important in the chapter.

After completing these easy steps, go back and read the chapter in its entirety.

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4. Examinations

All of the quizzes and examinations in this course will be objective,
multiple-choice tests that will emphasize the material presented in class. You will
be given daily quizzes over material that was covered in the previous class
meeting. Thus, attendance at all class sessions is vital. At the end of each unit,
you will take a unit exam. There are five units in the semester. The final exam,
#5, is comprehensive, and counts double. See the syllabus in Appendix A for more
information on testing and grade computations.

See Appendix B for tips on test taking.

5. Study Guide

The Study Guide is your step-by-step guide to success in the course. Each
section corresponds to the chapter in the textbook, and has three parts: Lecture
Outlines, Lecture Objectives, and Sample Questions.

Lecture Outlines

The Lecture Outlines will give you a framework to use for your note-taking
during classroom lectures. All of the important terms for all of the lectures from
each unit are listed in the Lecture Outlines, and there is some space for you to write
in additional notes. You may want to keep extra paper handy for more detailed
explanations during the lectures. Keep in mind that the Lecture Outlines are
merely a framework; it will be necessary at all times for you to take down
additional information that I will give you during the lecture sessions. The
Lecture Outlines will also allow you to check yourself to see if youve missed
anything important from the classroom presentations.

See Appendix B for tips on note-taking.

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Learning Objectives

At the end of each chapter outline, there will be a list of main points that
were covered in that chapter. These Learning Objectives will give you an
overview of the material you will be expected to know for that particular Unit Test.
Think of these objectives as a list of test questions there wont be any items on
the exams that can not be answered from these objectives.

See Appendix B for tips on studying.

Sample Questions

Each chapter in this Study Guide will include several multiple choice
questions similar to the ones that you will see on the Unit Tests. The Sample
Questions will allow you to familiarize yourself with the style of the test questions.
The Sample Questions will not be identical to the ones you will see on the exams,
but they will be similar. Test yourself by studying first, then answer the questions
as if they were the actual test. If you have difficulty answering a question, this is a
signal to you that you have not adequately understood the material the question
covers. Go back to your notes and the text to correct any deficiencies.

6. Website

This text comes with website access where you will find animations,
activities, and self-quizzes that can serve as valuable supplements to the material
covered in class. The animations are particularly useful for visualizing difficult
concepts. Be aware that free computer access is available at all IRCC libraries,
CPI centers, and computer labs, as well as public libraries. Please see your
instructor about an access code if you have purchased a used text.

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----------------One final note----------------
A high grade, a high class standing, a scholarship, recognition, satisfaction
of a natural curiosity, and a need to feel competent blend together in a complex
way to be your reward for completing a science course. If you are highly
motivated, then studying and learning will occur and rewards will be gained. If
you are poorly motivated or have a negative attitude the amount of studying and
learning will be scanty and rewards will not materialize. In fact, frustration will
replace satisfaction. Try to cultivate an I can attitude and an interest in learning.
Science courses are challenging, and it is gratifying to do well in them. This Study
Guide will help you.

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CHAPTER 1 - INTRODUCTION

I. What do microbiologists study?
A. prokaryotes
1. bacteria and archaea 2 domains

2. simplest in structure, not function
3. single-celled (unicellular) or colonial.
4. autotrophic or heterotrophic:

5. almost all have cell walls

B. algae
1. eukaryotic domain Eukarya
2. single or multicellular
3. plant-like autotrophs
4. cell walls

C. protozoans
1. eukaryotic
2. single celled
3. animal-like protists
4. no cell walls

D. fungi
1. eukaryotic
2. heterotrophic
3. yeasts (uni) and molds (multi)
4. cell walls

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E. helminths and arthropods (mainly as vectors)
1. eukaryotic
2. multicellular
3. heterotrophic
4. no cell walls

F. viruses
1. smallest of all microbes,
2. non-living?, Noncellular
3. seen with electron microscope only

II. Taxonomy (pg 113-116)
A. 3 domains

B. KPCOFGS
C. proper use of binomial nomenclature:

D. strains

III. Beneficial microbes:
A. recycling of nutrients
1. decomposition
2. nitrogen fixation (pg 169, 778)

B. photosynthesis

C. food
D. production of antibiotics
E. genetic engineering and research

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IV. Famous Microbiologists
A. Pasteur

B. Koch

C. Semmelweis and Lister

V. Other contributions and events:
1928 - discovery of ab/ics
1953 - Watson and Crick -
1959 - antibody structure
1976 - Legionnaires disease, Ebola
1978 - TSS, last case of smallpox
1981 - HIV
1982 - Lyme disease
1993 - Hantavirus in US
1999 West Nile Virus
2003 SARS
2004 avian influenza in humans

VI. Problems in microbiology
A. Emerging infectious diseases due to:

B. R of microbes to ab/ics

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OBJECTIVES FOR CHAPTER 1

1. For each type of microbe, tell whether it is prokaryotic or eukaryotic, unicellular or
multicellular, has a cell wall or not, and type of metabolism (auto or heterotrophic)
2. Define autotrophic and heterotrophic
3. Know which kingdom includes which types of microbes
4. Know which microbes produce antibiotics
5. Relate the ecological importance of nitrogen fixation and bacteria
6. Know the hierarchy of taxonomic groups
7. Use binomial nomenclature correctly
8. Know the causes for the increased incidence of emerging infectious diseases
9. Do Multiple Choice questions 1-3; Short Answer questions 1, 3-5, and Critical Thinking
question 4

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 1

1. Which of the following is/are multicellular?
a. helminths
b. molds
c. yeasts
d. protozoans
e. a and b only

2. Which of the following lacks cell walls?
a. bacteria d. yeasts
b. algae e. molds
c. protozoans

3. Which of the following is correctly written?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Escherichia coli
c. Escherichia Coli
d. escherichia coli
e. Escherichia Coli

4. The form of nitrogen that is the most abundant on Earth is
a. NH
4

b. N
2

c. NO
3

d. NO
2

e. NHCO
3

5. Fungi and bacteria produce antibiotics
a. true b. false

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CHAPTER 4 MICROSCOPY

I. Metric units of measurement in microbiology:
A. micrometer
B. nanometer to measure wavelengths of light, viruses

II. Principles of microscopy
A. resolution (or resolving power, RP)
1. ability to see close objects as separate
2. light has to pass between objects to see
them as separate
3. wavelengths of light - electromagnetic spectrum
fig. 4.1
a. shorter wavelengths = resolution and
energy level
4. resolving power (RP) = wavelength
2 NA
(NA = light-gathering ability of lens)
How does one improve RP? (How do
you make RP smaller?)
5. refraction - light bends when going thru
dif. mediums - use of immersion oil in
microscopy - how does it affect RP? fig. 4.5

III. Types of microscopy
A. light microscopy - fig. 4.4
1. brightfield- used most routinely

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2. darkfield - uses special condenser
wh/ causes light to be reflected from object
fig. 4.6
3. phase-contrast - special condenser accentuates
sl. dif. in refractive index of structures w/in the
microbe

4. fluorescent - UV light causes fluorescent dyes used
on microbes to fluoresce. Why does this improve
RP?
B. Electron microscopy
1. electrons used as energy source
2. magnet used to focus e-s in vacuum.
3. Why is RP so much better for these
scopes?
a. TEM
b. SEM
study table 4.2
IV. Specimen prep and staining
A. wet mounts
1. for viewing live organisms
2. use slide w/ cover slip
3. not stained, so lower condenser, close
diaphragm to contrast (what happens to
RP?)

B. smears
1. organism applied to slide in a liquid,
air dried and heat fixed

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2. stained for contrast

3. stains used in smears:
a. cationic (basic)
b. anionic (acidic)

C. staining techniques:
1. simple stain
2. differential stain distinguishes 2 different
kinds of microbes from each other
a. Gram stain - most common procedure relies
on dif. in cell walls of dif. bacteria - almost all
bacteria gram positive or gram negative
study fig. 4.17
b. acid-fast stain (AFB stain)
-carbolfuchsin - red
-acid-alcohol decolorizer
-methylene blue counterstain

waxy lipids in cell wall of Mycobacterium sp.
and Nocardia sp. make them acid-fast positive,
all other bacteria AF negative.

3. special stains - use special dyes, techniques, to
detect presence of endospores, flagella, capsules

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1. Know the units of measurement for light and for objects under the microscope
2. Know the formula for resolving power, how to manipulate this formula, and how this
formula relates to microscopy
3. Describe the different types of microscopes, and in what situations each might be used
4. Contrast electron microscopes with light microscopes
5. Contrast TEM with SEM
6. Know the steps of the gram stain, and what happens to cells at each step
7. Know the steps of the acid-fast stain, and the names of the bacteria that are acid-fast
positive
8. Contrast wet mounts with smears
9. Know the names of and any information given about microbes presented in this
chapter.
10. Do Multiple Choice questions 1-3, 6, 9, 10; Fill in the Blanks questions 2-5; Short Answer
questions 1, 4-6; and Critical Thinking questions 1-4.


1. Which of the following improves resolving power?
a. increasing numerical aperture of lens
b. use of immersion oil
c. increasing wavelength of light
d. all of the above
e. a and b only

2. Which of the following is FALSE concerning electron microscopes?
a. a cross-sectional view is seen with TEM
b. a surface image is seen with SEM
c. electron microscopes have the best resolving power
d. electron microscopes use glass to focus electrons
e. electrons serve as the illuminator in electron microscopes

3. The unit of measurement used for objects under the microscope is the
a. millimeter
b. centimeter
c. micrometer
d. nanometer
e. none of the above

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4. Which of these is acid fast positive?
a. cyanobacteria
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Nocardia sp.
d. Escherichia coli
e. archaebacteria

5. Which of the bacteria in question #4 causes syphilis?

6. The dye used to increase the affinity of the crystal violet to the bacterial cell wall is
a. iodine
b. safranin
c. alcohol
d. carbolfuchsin
e. fixadent

7. Internal details of the cytoplasm of cells is best seen with which of these?
a. darkfield microscopy
b. SEM
c. phase contrast microscopy
d. brightfield microscopy
e. dissecting microscope

The following questions are from chapter 2:

8. Which of the following is FALSE concerning ATP?
a. it functions as an energy carrier
b. it is a nucleotide
c. it is made of repeating subunits of glucose
d. it contains phosphate connected by high energy bonds
e. all of the above are TRUE concerning ATP

9. Which of the following is NOT a carbohydrate?
a. cholesterol
b. glucose
c. cellulose
d. starch
e. glycogen

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10. Which of the following consists of a chain of amino acids?
a. DNA
b. proteins
c. phospholipid
d. polysaccharides
e. carbohydrates

11. A sterol is
a. a carbohydrate c. a protein
b. a nucleotide d. a lipid

12. The double layer of molecules that make up plasma membranes are
a. proteins
b. carbohydrates
c. phospholipids
d. nucleotides
e. polysaccharides

13. Interactions between R groups in an amino acid chain produce which level of protein
structure?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary

14. The structural units of DNA and RNA are
a. nucleotides
b. monosaccharides
c. amino acids
d. fatty acids
e. carboxyl groups

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CHAPTER 3
CELL STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION

KNOW tables 3.4 and 3.5

PROKARYOTES

I. Types
A. Domain Bacteria - bacteria
B. Domain Archaea archaebacteria

II. Size and shape
A. very small, limit of RP of cmpd scopes
B. three basic shapes (pg 316, fig. 11.1); presented in lab

III. Structure
A. overview: fig. 3.2
B. external accessories
1. glycocalyx polysaccharide/protein,
excreted by bact. and surrounds cell
a. capsule - thick, organized, protects
against phagocytosis and desiccation, allows
adherence - contributes to pathogenicity
b. slime layer - thinner, not as closely
associated w/ cell wall.
c. Biofilms see pg. 67, 174-175
-quorum sensing

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2. bacterial flagella - for motility
a. flagellin
b. none, one, two, or more - genetic
c. allows for chemotaxis, phototaxis
d. axial filament in spirochetes -
flagella wrapped around bact. under
a sheath - Treponema pallidum,
Borrelia sp.

3. pili (pilus)/fimbriae fig. 3.10
a. description:
b. several types, different functions
c. most for attachment; start biofilms
d. conjugation (F, sex) pilus for donation
of plasmids

C. Cell wall - resp. for cell shape, prevention of
osmotic lysis, attachment in some
1. peptidoglycan -
a. alternating sugars NAM and NAG,
cross linked w/ tetrapeptides. fig. 3.13
b. unique to, and found in most bacteria
c. thick layer in gram pos.; thin in gram neg.

2. outer membrane - gram neg only-
a. phospholipid bilayer
b. channel proteins called porins
c. LPS (lipopolysaccharide) = lipid A, an
endotoxin, + O polysacch.
study fig 3.14

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Bacteria divided into 2 major groups on basis of cell wall: Gram
positive and Gram negative
Gram pos - thick peptido., 90% of cell wall
Gram neg - thin peptido + the outer membrane.
Alcohol dissolves outer memb., thin peptido cant
retain CV-I, decolorized and counterstained with
safranin

D. Unusual bacterial cell walls:
1. acid-fast organisms
a. Mycobacterium and Nocardia sp.
b. less peptido., 60% waxy lipids, allows
retention of carbolfuchsin after acid-
alcohol decolorizer
c. slow growers - why?
2. Mycoplasma sp. - no cell wall
3. Chlamydia outer memb. only; no peptidoglycan
3. Archaebacteria - no peptidoglycan in cell wall

E. Plasma membrane structure
1. boundary of cell and environment
2. found inside cell wall
3. regulatory function
4. fluid mosaic model: fig. 3.15
5. most lack sterols unlike eukaryotes

F. Plasma membrane function - transport
1. passive - no energy required, goes w/ conc. gradient
a. diffusion
b. facilitated diffusion

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c. osmosis know fig. 3.19 and osmosis handout

2. active - requires energy (ATP)
a. moves ions, molecules against conc. gradient
G. Internal structures - in cytoplasm
1. nuclear region - nucleoid - no nuclear membrane as
in eukaryotes
a. DNA usu. in 1 lrg. circular chromosome
b. no histones associated
2. inclusions contain:
a. glycogen, lipids, starch, nitrogen,
phosphates, sulfur
b. gases - in cyanobacteria for buoyancy
3. ribosomes -
a. rRNA + proteins
b. lrg. and sm. subunits, 50S + 30S=70S
c. function:
4. plasmids pg. 199
a. small, circular pieces of DNA outside of main
chromosome
b. may carry several genes useful to bacteria
c. transferred during conjugation

5. endospores
a. resistant structure formed inside cytoplasm of
vegetative cells of Bacillus, Clostridium sp.
b. veg. cell lyses, endospore remains
c. R to:
d. R structure, NOT reproductive

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EUKARYOTIC CELLS

-which microbes are eukaryotes?
-recall dif. between pros and eus table 3.4, 3.5

I. External features
A. glycocalyces
1. mainly in eus w/out cell walls
2. protection, adhesion, cell-cell recognition
B. flagella - microtubules surrounded by cell memb.
C. cilia shorter, more numerous

II. Cell walls
A. eukaryotes w/ cell walls:
B. composed of:

III. Cell membranes
A. similar to prokaryotes
B. sterols for stability in various environments
C. movement of membranes
1. endocytosis - pl. memb. invaginates, forms vesicle
containing large molecule or cell (phagocytosis).
Fusion of lysosome for digestion
2. exocytosis secretion
3. locomotion in amoeboid cells

IV. Internal structure - organelles
A. ribosomes - 80S, larger than pros
1. structure -
2. function -

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B. cytoskeleton
1. structure
2. function

C. nucleus
1. nuc. membrane encloses linear chromosomes of
DNA + histones
2. pores in membrane
3. nucleolus

D. ER -
1. smooth - for lipid synthesis
2. rough - for production of secreted proteins

E. Golgi
1. structure -
2. function -

F. lysosomes - from Golgi
1. for intracellular digestion
2. phagocytes

G. peroxisomes contains enzymes to eliminate
accumulated free radicals, H
2
O
2

H. mitochondria-
1. structure -
2. function -

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I. chloroplasts
1. structure -
2. function -

V. Endosymbiosis
A. explains origin of mitochondria, chloroplasts
B. evidence:


1. Know table 3.4 and 3.5
2. Know in detail the structure of the gram positive and gram negative cell wall, and how
they relate to the gram stain
3. Describe microbes whose cell wall features are different than gram pos./gram neg.
4. Know the structure of the fluid mosaic model for the plasma membrane
5. Define plasmids, and the term for how they are transferred
6. Know the functions of fimbriae/pili and capsules
7. Understand the significance of biofilms
8. Describe endosymbiosis, and provide evidence that supports this theory
9. Describe endospores, and know which bacteria produce them
10. Describe prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella, and what they are used for
11. Know the structure and function of eukaryotic organelles
12. Predict how cells with and without cell walls are affected by isotonic, hypertonic and
hypotonic solutions
13. Describe the processes of endocytosis and exocytosis
14. Contrast passive transport with active transport
chapter
16. Do multiple choice questions 1, 3, 5, 7-12; all Matching questions; short answer questions 4,
7, 8, 11 and critical thinking questions 1-4, 9

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1. Which of the following best describes fimbriae?
a. functions in photosynthesis in cyanobacteria
b. protects against phagocytosis
c. aids in attachment
d. are similar to cilia in eukaryotes
e. a and b only

2. Which of the following is true concerning ribosomes?
a. present in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes
b. site of carbohydrate synthesis
c. stores energy in the form of ATP
d. prokaryote ribosomes are smaller than eukaryotic ribosomes
e. c and d only

3. Sweet and salty foods often do not require refrigeration to prevent spoilage because
they have
a. low pH d. toxic alkaline chemicals
b. naturally occurring antibiotics e. insufficient nutrients
c. hypertonic environments

4. Which of the following is responsible for eliminating toxic oxygen by-products from
cells?
a. mitochondria
b. Golgi complex
c. peroxisomes
d. chloroplasts
e. lysosomes

5. Lysosomes
a. are made in the Golgi
b. contain digestive enzymes
c. enable the mitochondria to make ATP
d. are vesicles from the rough endoplasmic reticulum
e. a and b only

6. The Archaebacteria
a. can withstand harsh environmental conditions
b. have cell walls made of peptidoglycan
c. have unusual cell walls made of polysaccharides and proteins
d. are acid-fast
e. a and c only

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7. Chloroplasts are found in
a. cyanobacteria
b. protozoans
c. algae
d. fungi
e. archaebacteria

8. LPS
a. is found in gram positive cell walls
b. contains a polysaccharide used to identify strains within a species
c. contains an endotoxin
d. is a protein used in serotyping
e. b and c only

9. Which of the following are transferred in conjugation?
a. pili
b. ribosomes
c. chromosomes
d. plasmids
e. capsules

10. Which of the following best describes why gram negative bacteria stain red?
a. the crystal violet dye wont attach to the peptidoglycan
b. the outer membrane is dissolved by the decolorizer
c. the iodine destroys the LPS layer
d. the porins prevent the entry of crystal violet into the outer membrane

11. Walking pneumonia is caused by
a. cyanobacteria
b. Bacillus sp.
c. Treponema sp.
d. Clostridium sp.
e. Mycoplasma sp.

12. Bacterial flagella
a. make the bacteria motile
b. are composed of the protein flagellin
c. are anchored to the cell by basal bodies
d. can be used as a means of identifying bacteria
e. all of the above

13. When a bacterium is placed in a hypotonic solution, plasmolysis occurs
a. true
b. false

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14. Which of the following is a function of the glycocalyx?
a. protects bacteria from phagocytosis
b. aids in attachment
c. protects bacteria when biofilms are formed
d. all of the above
e. a and b only

15. Which of the following produce endospores?
a. Mycobacterium sp.
b. Bacillus sp.
c. Treponema sp.
d. Escherichia sp.
e. Mycoplasma sp.

16. All of the following are chemical components of bacterial cell walls EXCEPT
a. cellulose
b. peptidoglycan
c. lipopolysaccharide
d. peptide chains
e. n-acetyl muramic acid (NAM)

17. Which of these produces proteins that will eventually be secreted from the cell?
a. mitochondria d. smooth ER
b. lysosomes e. nucleolus
c. rough ER

18. Which of the above are the site of ribosome assembly in eukaryotes?

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CHAPTER 5 METABOLISM

I. Metabolism:
A. catabolism -breakdown of lrg. molecules (proteins,
carbs, etc) to smaller ones, releasing energy. Energy
used for:

B. anabolism (biosynthesis) - synthesis of lrg.
molecules from smaller subunits.
Requires energy. fig. 5.1

II. Oxidation-reduction reactions and ATP
A. oxidation = loss of e
-
or H
B. reduction = gain of e
-
or H
C. common e- carriers: NAD
+
, FAD, cytochromes
D. ATP recall structure
1. phosphorylation of ADP
a. substrate-level
b. oxidative phosphorylation
c. photophosphorylation

III. Enzymes- catalyze all metabolic reactions
A. structure
1. most made of protein
2. some also have coenzymes and/or cofactors
3. active site where substrate fits, very specific,
subject to denaturation
B. activity
1.enzymes lower activation energy (E
A
) fig 5.4

32
2. E + S ES P + E fig. 5.6

C. influences on enzymes
1. temperature
2. pH
3. substrate concentration

D. enzyme inhibitors figs. 5.9, 5.10
1. competitive inhibitors - bind to
active site
2. noncompetitive - binds elsewhere on enzyme,
changes shape

Carbohydrate catabolism overview: fig. 5.12

IV. Glycolysis
A. Glucose (6C) is split, oxidized into 2 pyruvates
(3Cs each), w/ a net gain of 2 ATPs (sub. level phos.)
and 2 NADHs.
B. enzymes at every stage
C. glu is main sugar; other monosacchs converted to glu
before glycolysis.
biochemical tests (see pg. 117-118; fig. 4.24)

D. can be performed by microbes w/ or w/out
O
2
(aerobically or anaerobically)
1. O
2
present: NADHs e-s are transferred eventually
to O
2
in cellular respiration - aerobic microbes

33
2. O
2
absent or not utilized: fermentation proceeds.
This occurs w/ anaerobic organisms.
3. facultative anaerobes:

V. Aerobic metabolism - cellular respiration
C
6
H
12
O
6
+ O
2
CO
2
+ H
2
O + ATP

A. synthesis of acetyl CoA
1. 2 pyruvates2 acetyl CoA
2. 2 NADH, 2CO
2

B. Krebs cycle
1. All Cs in orig. glu finally converted to CO
2

2. All Hs and e
-
s go to reducing NAD
+
,
FAD
3. Some ATP made (GTP) by sub. level phos.
C. ETS - electron transport system
1. description:
2. e
-
s transported from NADH or FADH
2
to
series of cytochromes and finally to O
2
.
Hs go to O
2
also to form H
2
O.
3. LOTS of ATP made here - 17X more than in
glycolysis or Krebs by chemiosmosis fig. 5.20
4. on avg. 1 NADH = 3 ATP and 1 FADH2 = 2 ATP

Where does glycolysis, Krebs, and ETS occur
in prokaryotes?
ATP total:

In eukaryotes?
ATP total:

34
VI. Fermentation
A. anaerobic catabolism of sugars (usu glu)
B. no additional ATP made.
C. produces acids or alcohol, w/ or w/out
CO
2
, from pyruvate
D. takes e
-
s from NADH, (oxidation) so
NAD
+
can be used again in glycolysis
E. type of fermentation products can be used to ID bacteria
(biochemical rxns) fig. 5.22

VII. Catabolism of other compounds
A. fats - beta oxidation fig. 5.23
1. fatty acids broken down into 2 C
fragmentsacetyl CoAKrebs ETS
B. proteinsamino acidsdeamination
C skeleton to Krebs
fig 5.24
C. microbes as decomposers:
1. biodegradation, bioremediation

VIII. Photosynthesis (biosynthetic)
A. H
2
O + CO
2
carbs + O
2

B. Pros: see fig. 5.25
Eus:

35

1. Define metabolism, catabolism, and anabolism (biosynthesis)
2. Relate oxidation/reduction to catabolic reactions
3. Understand how enzymes work, and what can inhibit enzyme activity
4. Define coenzymes and cofactors
5. For the catabolic reactions of glycolysis, Krebs cycle, ETS, and fermentation, know
what molecules enter and what products exit these pathways, and where in prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells these reactions take place
6. Compare and contrast aerobic and anaerobic metabolic pathways
7. Know how FADH2 and NADH are converted to ATP in the ETS
8. Describe how molecules other than glucose are catabolized
9. Give the formula for photosynthesis, and give examples of photosynthetic microbes
10. Understand the importance of enzymes in biochemical tests
11. Know the names of and any information given about microbes presented in this chapter
12. Do multiple choice questions 1-11, 13-16; matching questions; fill in the blanks 2,4,5; short
answer questions 1, 2, 5,6, 8-13; and critical thinking question 2-6, 9, 10, 13


1. Which of the following is FALSE concerning anabolic reactions?
a. usually require energy
b. are a part of metabolism
c. are also called biosynthetic reactions
d. make complex molecules
e. glycolysis is an example of an anabolic reaction

2. Whether or not a bacterium can break down a particular nutrient depends on its
a. enzymes d. pili
b. cell wall e. flagella
c. ribosomes

3. The complete breakdown of carbohydrates to CO
2
, H
2
O, and energy involves all of the
following EXCEPT
a. glycolysis
b. fermentation
c. electron transport chain
d. Krebs cycle
e. reduction and then oxidation of NAD

4. Which of the following is FALSE concerning enzymes?
a. usually consumed in chemical reactions
b. organic catalysts
c. needed for cellular metabolism
d. are made up of amino acids e. have specific substrates

36
5. All of the following are characteristics of fermentation EXCEPT
a. end products include acids, gases, alcohols
b. generates large amounts of ATP compared to cellular respiration
c. occurs under anaerobic conditions
d. occurs after glycolysis
e. utilizes pyruvic acid (pyruvate)

6. The pathway that uses CO
2
and light to produce carbohydrates is
a. photosynthesis
b. anabolic
c. performed by algae

d. performed by cyanobacteria
e. all of the above

7. Which of the following is NOT produced during glycolysis?
a. pyruvate
b. ATP
c. CO
2

d. NADH
e. ADP

8. Which of the following is NOT an electron acceptor during cellular respiration?
a. cytochromes
b. NAD
+

c. FAD
+
d. CO
2

9. The two-carbon molecule that enters the Krebs cycle is
a. pyruvate
b. carbon dioxide
c. acetyl Co-A
d. oxaloacetate
e. NADH

10. The ATPs made during glycolysis are produced by
a. anaerobic phosphorylation
b. photophosphorylation
c. oxidative phosphorylation
d. substrate level phosphorylation
e. all of the above

37
CHAPTER 6 MICROBIAL GROWTH

I. Growth defined:
A. colonies solid media
B. growth in liquid media

II. Carbon and energy requirements
A. autotrophs - carbon source:
1. chemoautotrophs
a. energy source:
2. photoautotrophs
a. energy source:
B. heterotrophs - carbon source:
1. photoheterotrophs
a. energy source:
2. chemoheterotrophs
a. energy source:
fig 6.1
III. Oxygen requirements
A. obligate aerobes
B. obligate anaerobes - killed by toxic forms of O
2

singlet oxygen, superoxides, peroxides and hydroxyl
radicals; lack enzymes to get rid of these
C. facultative anaerobes

D. aerotolerant anaerobes

E. microaerophiles - Helicobacter pylori

38
IV. Nitrogen requirements
A. needed for anabolism of:
B. recall nitrogen fixation:

V. Other chemicals
A. phosphorus
B. sulfur
C. trace elements
1. mineral ions, serve as cofactors for
enzymes
a. Fe often limiting growth factor, for
cytochromes.
D. fastidious organisms - complex growth media

What nutrients bact. require depends on presence or absence of
enzymes nec. to make compounds. Genetically determined;
basis of biochemical tests

VI. Physical requirements
A. temperature
1. min., opt., max.
2. determined by bacterias enz.s ability to withstand
denaturation; lipid texture
3. enz activity as temp to a point figs. 6.4, 6.5
4. psychrophiles
5. mesophiles
6. thermophiles
7. Listeria monocytogenes

39
B. pH
1. most bact. prefer neutral pH - neutrophiles
2. acidophiles, acid tolerants
a. Lactobacillus sp.
b. Helicobacter pylori
3. alkalinophiles
a. Vibrio cholerae
C. water and osmotic pressure
1. plasmolysis and osmotic lysis

2. halophiles

VII . Culturing microbes pgs. 175-184 read for lab

VIII. Bacterial populations
A. definition of growth
B. binary fission
C. growth curve and phases:

1. lag phase - bact. prepare for division; make nec.
enzymes, ATP
2. log phase
a. exponential growth
b. determines generation time
c. dependent on:

d. bact. most sens. to ab/ics

40
3. stationary phase-
4. death phase-

VIII. Measuring growth
A. serial dilutions and viable plate counts - fig. 6.21

B. membrane filtration fig 6.22

C. direct microscopic count special counting chamber
used, cells counted with m/scope fig. 6.23

D. electronic counters

E. turbidity fig. 6.25


1. Describe the phases of the bacterial growth curve
2. Know during which phase the generation time is determined
3. Define colony
4. Be able to calculate a serial dilution
5. Briefly describe other ways that bacteria are counted, and give advantages and disadvantages
6. Define and describe: psychrophile, mesophile, thermophile, halophile, acidophile,
alkalinophile, aerobic, obligate anaerobic, facultative, microaerophilic, and aerotolerant
microbes
7. Understand how different osmotic pressures affect different microbes
8. Define and give examples of microbes according to their carbon and energy requirements
9. Know which chemicals are required for the production of which macromolecules
chapter
11. Do multiple choice questions 2-4, 7, 9, 10, 12, 13-15; fill in the blanks questions 2-7, 9; short
answer questions 1-3, 5-8, 11; and critical thinking questions 1-6.

41

1. Microbial growth is typically measured by increase in cell size
a. true
b. false

2. In terms of a bacteriums optimal growth requirements, which group would you expect to be
MOST likely involved in human infections?
a. acidophiles
b. psychrophiles
c. extreme halophiles
d. mesophiles
e. thermophiles

3. Which of the following is mismatched?
a. psychrophiles growth range from 0 20 C
b. halophiles prefer alkaline pHs
c. acidophiles prefer pHs below 7
d. thermophiles growth range above 45 C
e. mesophile growth range from 25 40 C

4. Most bacteria divide by a process called
a. mitosis
b. binary fission
c. sporulation
d. meiosis
e. conjugation

5. In what phase of a bacterial growth curve is there a time of acclimation, during which cells are
metabolically active, but there is no increase in cell numbers?
a. log phase
b. lag phase
c. stationary phase
d. decline phase
e. generation phase

6. The optimal growth temperature of a bacterium is MOST closely related to the optimal
temperature for
a. transcription of DNA
b. DNA replication
c. spore formation
d. functioning of enzymes
e. mRNA attachment to ribosomes

42
7. Refer to this diagram:

Assume a 1 ml aliquot is taken out of the third tube, and 50 colonies form on the plate.
How many bacteria were in the original sample?
a. 50 CFU/ml
b. 2500 CFU/ml
c. 50,000 CFU/ml
d. 500 CFU/ml
e. 5,000 CFU/ml

8. Which of the following is a halophile?
a. Vibrio sp.
b. Clostridium sp.
c. Lactobacillus sp.
d. Bacillus sp.
e. Treponema pallidum

9. Nitrogen is needed by bacteria to synthesize
a. carbohydrates d. nucleotides
b. phospholipids e. c and d only
c. ATP

43
10. Bacteria that can live in the presence of oxygen but do not use oxygen as a final electron
acceptor are called
a. obligate anaerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. microaerophiles
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. aerobes

11. Cyanobacteria are
a. photoheterotrophic
b. chemoheterotrophic
c. photoautotrophic
d. chemoautotrophic
e. a and b only

44
CHAPTER 9
CONTROLLING MICROBIAL GROWTH

Students responsible for: Table 9.1 definitions

I. Action of antimicrobial agents
A. disruption of plasma membranes
B. protein denaturation
C. disruption of nucleic acids

II. Selecting antimicrobial agents:
A. treatment site
1. number of microbes potentially present
2. inanimate vs. living tissue
3. internal vs. external tissues

B. type of microbe present

C. environmental conditions
1. organic material present
2. heat, low pH

D. concentration

E. exposure time

45
III. Antimicrobial physical agents
A. heat
1. moist heat
a. autoclave
b. pasteurization
c. UHT treatments

2. dry heat
a. ovens - penetrates more slowly than moist heat
ex. 160C for 2 hrs
b. incineration

B. low temperatures
1. refrigeration
2. freezing
a. -10 C home freezing
b. -78 C for preserving microbes

C. drying
1. low moisture and osm. pressure
2. lyophilization

D. filtration fig. 9.10
1. for heat labile solutions - membrane filters
2. HEPA filters, masks

E. radiation
1. recall electromagnetic spectrum

46
2. ionizing radiation e
-
beams and gamma rays
for heat sens. materials, foods

3. UV light -
Summary, table 9.4

IV. Antimicrobial chemical agents
A. phenols and derivatives (phenolics)
1. not impaired by organic compounds
2. chlorinated phenols
a. triclosan and antibacterial products
b. hexachlorophene

B. alcohols
1. activity
2. concentration
3. tinctures

C. halogens
1. iodine
2. chlorine

D. oxidizing agents
1. H
2
O
2

2. ozone
3. peracetic acid

E. surfactants
1. activity
2. soaps and detergents

47
3. quaternary ammonium compounds
Pseudomonas sp.

F. heavy metals
1. silver nitrate
2. mercury
3. selenium
4. copper

G. alkylating agents-chemical sterilizers
1. formaldehyde
2. glutaraldehyde
3. ethylene oxide gas
summary table 9.5

48

1. Define the terms in table 9.1
2. Understand how temperature, organic matter, concentration, and the type of microbe can alter
the effectiveness of antimicrobial chemicals
3. Know the general mechanisms of how antimicrobial agents kill microbes
4. Know the relative effectiveness and general uses of the given chemical antimicrobials
5. Contrast dry heat, moist heat, and pasteurization
6. Understand how low temperatures inhibit the growth of microbes, and their use as a
means of preserving microbes, as well as lyophilization
7. Relate low moisture with high osmotic pressure, and know what happens to bacteria in
a hypertonic environment
8. Compare and contrast UV light with ionizing radiation
9. Know the general uses of the given physical agents for controlling microbial growth
10. Know which antimicrobial agents can be used to sterilize heat sensitive articles
chapter
12. Do multiple choice questions 2, 3, 8-13, 15, 16, 18; short answer questions 1, 3-6, 8-15; and
critical thinking questions 2, 4-6


1. Ionizing radiation damages cells because it induces the formation of thymine dimers
a. true b. false

2. Which of the following does NOT kill endospores?
a. autoclave d. pasteurization
b. incineration e. all of the above kill endospores
c. hot air sterilization

3. Which of these chemicals is the least effective antimicrobial agent?
a. chlorine
b. phenolics
c. quaternary ammonium compounds
d. iodine
e. aldehydes

4. Which of the following is best to sterilize heat labile solutions?
a. dry heat
b. autoclave
c. membrane filtration
d. pasteurization

49
5. Which of the following is often used for sterilizing plastic petri plates?
a. ionizing radiation d. autoclave
b. ethylene oxide gas e. a and b only
c. glutaraldehyde

6. Which of the following is not a heavy metal?
a. silver nitrate
b. mercurochrome
c. merthiolate
d. copper
e. chlorine

7. Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a
a. depletion of nutrients
b. hypotonic environment
c. hyperacidic environment
d. hypertonic environment
e. a and b only

8. Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective?
a. 100% d. 40%
b. 70% e. 30%
c. 50%

9. Sanitation refers to
a. the destruction of all forms of microbial life on an object
b. a chemical that kills all microbes but not enveloped viruses
c. the removal of microbes from the skin
d. reducing pathogens to safe public health levels
e. the sterilization of cooking utensils

10. Which of the following would you use to cleanse skin and mucous membranes?
a. an antiseptic
b. a disinfectant
c. a sterilizing agent
d. all of the above
e. a and b only

11. Quaternary ammonium compounds
a. are bactericidal against all microbes and endospores
b. are very effective against pseudomonads
c. are rarely used due to their toxicity
d. are composed of toxic oxygen products

50
CHAPTER 7 MICROBIAL GENETICS

I. Overview:
A. Define chromosome, gene, transcription,
translation, replication

II. Recall structure of nucleic acids
A. polymers of nucleotides
B. DNA
1. alpha helix, double stranded
2. sugars and phosphates make backbone, bases
H-bonded together. fig. 7.1
3. base pairs (bp):
C. RNA structure
1. mostly single stranded
2. uracil instead of thymine
3. types and functions
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
4. all types transcribed from DNA

III. Prokaryotic vs. eukaryotic genomes
A. bacteria
1. one circular chromosome (most) in nucleoid
2. no histones
3. plasmids

51
4. types of plasmids
a. F plasmids contain gene for F pilus
b. R plasmids
c. bacteriocin plasmids
d. virulence plasmids ex. Yersinia pestis

B. eukaryotes
1. linear chromosomes inside a nucleus
2. histones for packaging
3. plasmids rare; extranuclear DNA in mitochondria,
chloroplasts

IV. DNA replication
A. DNA strands separate at origin; each strand is template
for new strand
B. enzyme DNA polymerase brings in complementary
nucleotides
C. continuous and discontinuous synthesis of new strand
(leading and lagging strands) fig. 7.5
D. mutations and proofreading
E. when does DNA replication happen?
1. pro
2. eu

V. Protein synthesis (transcription and translation)
A. recall proteins:
B. order of a.a determined by:
C. one gene one protein
D. 3 bp specifies a particular a.a

52
E. 1
st
step - Transcription
1. happens like replication, but only one DNA strand
is template; only one gene transcribed at any given
time
2. enzyme RNA polymerase binds to promoter on
DNA and assembles comp. RNA nucleotides
3. uracil instead of thymine
4. Newly formed RNA strand (ss) called
mRNA.
a. structure of mRNA:

5. genetic code - fig. 7.11
6. eu pre-mRNA processed prior to moving to cyto.:
a. introns removed, exons spliced together to
form final mRNA fig. 7.10
b. why?

F. 2
nd
step - Translation
1. need tRNA, mRNA, ribosomes
2. tRNA structure: fig. 7.13
(note a.a binding site and anticodon)

3. recall ribosome structure:
a. large subunit has 3 tRNA binding sites
b. two subunits form a groove that enfolds
mRNA.

53
4. procedure:
a. ribosome attaches to transcribed mRNA, A and
P sites in ribosome allows two tRNAs w/ a.a.
attached to bind.
b. peptide bond forms between a.a.s
c. ribo. moves down a codon, 1
st
tRNA now in E
site expelled
d. another tRNA brings in a new a.a. to A site
e. etc.
f. stop codon, polypep. and ribo. released.
Study fig. 7.16, 7.17

VI. Mutations
A. change in sequence of nucleotides in DNA
B. raw material for evolution, and creation of
new bacterial strains w/in a species.
C. genotype, phenotype (see pg. 206)
D. types of mutations:
1. base pair substitution
a. results: silent, missense, nonsense

2. frame-shift: insertion or deletion of bp
a. results: missense, nonsense
fig. 7.22; table 7.5
E. spontaneous vs. induced mutations:
F. radiation
1. X-rays, gamma rays - free radicals (ionizing)
2. UV light - creation of thymine dimers
(non-ionizing)
3. repair

54
G. chemical mutagens
1. nucleotide analogs
2. nucleotide altering chemicals
a. nitrous acid, nitrosamines
b. aflatoxins
3. frameshift mutagens

Prokaryotic horizontal gene transfer

I. Genetic variation - importance of
A. source of variation in eus:
B. source of variation in pros:

II. Transformation
A. definition
B. Griffiths experiment: fig. 7.31
1. something from dead S strain bact. transformed the
live R strains into S strains
2. live R took up DNA coding for capsule from dead
S bacteria.
C. Mechanism
1. loose DNA floats to entry sites on closely related
bacteria
2. donor DNA spliced into recipients chromosome
3. all progeny will show new DNA bps in their
chromosome.

55
III. Transduction
A. definition - genes transferred from one bacterium to
another via infection by a bacteriophage.
B. description of bacteriophage:
1. DNA
2. capsid protein
C. life cycle - fig. 13.8; 13.11
D. types of transduction:
1. generalized transduction -

2. specialized transduction -

E. significance of transduction

IV. Conjugation
A. recall definition
B. various methods - all result in recipient cell having more
DNA than before, donor cell still retains all its genes.
Anywhere from 1 plasmid to a lrg. portion of a
chromosome transferred.

C. significance of conjugation
1. recall types of plasmids pg 199
2. unrelated species can conjugate
3. spread of resistance to ab/ics
3. spread of virulence factors

V. Transposons
A. definition
B. complex transposons and R factors

56

1. Know the structure of DNA in detail; relate DNA to genes and chromosomes
2. Contrast the chromosomes of eukaryotes and prokaryotes
3. Know the structure and functions of the different types of RNA
4. Briefly describe the process of DNA replication, when and where it takes place in prokaryotic
and eukaryotic cells, and the enzymes involved
5. Know the general process of transcription, and where it takes place in prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells
7. Know the general process of translation, and where it takes place in prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells
8. Define mutation, and its effects on the genotype and phenotype
9. Describe point mutations and frame-shift mutations, and their effects on the protein
10. Describe the effects of various chemical mutagens and the two types of radiation
11. Describe pre-mRNA processing in eukaryotes
12. Define and describe the general processes of transformation, transduction, and conjugation
13. Describe the life cycle of a bacteriophage
14. Describe Griffiths experiment
15. Define bacteriocin
16. Define and understand the significance of R plasmids and plasmids containing virulence
factors. Describe examples of bacteria with these plasmids
17. Understand how bacteriophages can make their bacterial host more pathogenic, and give
examples
18. Contrast specialized transduction with generalized transduction
19. Know what microbe produces aflatoxin, what food is involved, and what type of cancer it
causes
20. Describe, compare and contrast insertion sequences and complex transposons
21. Do Multiple choice questions 2, 3, 5, 6, 8, 11-17, 22; Fill in the blanks 2-4, 8, 11; Short
answer questions 3, 9-12; Critical thinking questions 2-4.

57

1. Which of the following is NOT true of a gene?
a. is a specific linear sequence of DNA
b. is the functional unit of a chromosome
c. contains an information code for a protein
d. usually codes for a single trait
e. made up of a sequence of amino acids

2. Which of the following is NOT directly involved in translation?
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA
d. ribosomes
e. amino acids

3. Which of the following best describes the action of nucleotide analogs on DNA?
a. removes amino groups from nitrogenous bases
b. acts as a false nucleotide
c. removes water from nitrogenous bases
d. adds a methyl group to a nitrogenous base
e. forms thymine-thymine dimers on the DNA molecule

4. How many chromosomes are found in most bacterial cells?
a. 1 d. 23
b. 2 e. 46
c. 0

5. Mutations in an organisms genotype will always affect its phenotype
a. true
b. false

6. During transcription, DNA serves as a template for the synthesis of mRNA
a. true
b. false

7. If a the coding strand on DNA reads A T T G T A G C C A, the complementary
DNA will be
a. A T T G T A G C C A
b. T A A C A T C G G T
c. A U U G U A G C C A
d. U A A C A U C G G U

58

8. How many spaces for tRNAs exist inside the ribosome?
a. 1 d. 4
b. 2 e. 5
c. 3

9. Protein synthesis ends when
a. there are no more tRNAs in the cytoplasm
b. RNA polymerase falls off the coding strand of DNA
c. a stop codon is reached in the ribosome
d. one ribosome is bumped off by another ribosome
e. a mutation occurs

10. Non-ionizing radiation is
a. UV light
b. gamma rays
c. x-rays
d. from nuclear fallout
e. a and b only

11. In pre-RNA processing, introns are removed, and exons are spliced together
a. true
b. false

12. A protein secreted by some bacteria that kills other bacterial strains is called a
a. plasmid
b. lethal factor
c. bacteriocin
d. resistance transfer factor
e. microbicide

13. The uptake and incorporation of DNA from the environment by bacteria is called
a. transduction
b. transcription
c. translation
d. transmogrification
e. transformation

14 What role do resistance plasmids and resistance genes play?
a. make bacteria resistant to bacteriophage
b. make bacteria resistant to certain antimicrobial drugs
c. make bacteria resistant to recombination
d. make bacteria resistant to certain bacteriocins
e. make bacteria resistant to heat

59

15. Bacteriophages can contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages
a. give new gene sequences to the host bacteria
b. produce toxins
c. carry plasmids
d. kill the bacteria causing release of bacteriocins
e. all of the above

16. Griffiths experiment proved that bacteria are capable of conjugation
a. true
b. false

17. Gene transfers are beneficial to bacteria because they increase genetic diversity
a. true
b. false

18. In _______________ transduction, only genes adjacent to the viral insertion site are
transferred to a new host cell
a. specialized
b. generalized
c. both a and b

19. Pathogenic strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae have
a. pili
b. capsules
c. endotoxins
d. lysogenic bacteriophages
e. c and d only

20. Insertion sequence transposons contain
a. inverted repeats
b. a gene for transposase
c. resistance plasmids
d. F factors
e. a and b only

60
CHAPTER 12 EUKARYOTIC MICROBES

I. Reproduction
A. recall prokaryotes
B. variation in eu reproduction
1. asexual budding, fragmentation, spores
schizogony (via mitosis)
2. sexual production of gametes, followed by fusion
to form a zygote (via meiosis), conjugation in
ciliates (fig. 12.7)
3. most do both
C. mitosis n n or 2n 2n
1. DNA replication prior to mitosis interphase
2. result is 2 identical daughter cells except:
3. schizogony
D. meiosis 2n n
1. DNA replication prior to meiosis interphase
2. importance of crossing over in pro I
3. result is 4 different haploid daughter cells
gametes.

II. Problems in taxonomy

III. Protozoans
A. Characteristics (most)
1. unicellular, heterotrophic, no cell walls
2. motility types

61
3. free-living in moist environment, some commensal
or parasitic
4. trophozoites and cysts

B. Disease-causing protozoa
1. apicomplexans
a. Plasmodium sp.
b. Toxoplasma sp.
2. dinoflagellates
a. production of marine toxins
b. red tide, ciguatera, Pfiesteria
3. amoebae
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Naegleria sp.
4. diplomonads and parabasalids
a. Giardia
b. Trichomonas vaginalis

IV. Algae
A. producers, bottom of food chain, cell walls
B. diatoms
C. green, red, and brown algae

V. Fungal-like protists -
A. water molds
1. characteristics
2. saprophytes; some parasites of fish, plants
B. slime molds - cellular and acellular
1. characteristics
2. saprophytes

62
VI. Fungi - mycology
A. characteristics
1. strict heterotrophs
2. absorption by extracellular enzymes
3. cell wall mainly chitin
4. most are saprobes
5. reproduce by sexual and asexual spores
B. structure
1. multicellular molds, unicellular yeasts; haploid
2. mycelium = mass of hyphae - septate or aseptate
3. dimorphic fungi

C. benefits
1. decomposition
2. mycorrhizae
3. food
4. drugs
5. research

D. diseases = mycoses

E. reproduction -
1. asexual
a. budding in yeasts
b. asexual spores many types, used to ID
2. sexual fig. 12.20
a. + and strains fuse = dikaryon
b. fusion of nuclei; 2n; meiosis to form haploid
spores
c. basis of taxonomic groups

63
F. fungal divisions (phyla)
1. Zygomycota - zygospores
a. aseptate hyphae (coenocytic)
b. opportunistic infections
c. rapid growers

2. Ascomycota - sac fungi - ascospores
a. cause most dermatophytoses (pg 580)
b. yeasts - Candida albicans
c. Penicillium sp.

3. Basidiomycota - basidiospores
a. mushrooms, rusts, smuts
b. Cryptococcus sp. and AIDS

4. deuteromycetes - fungi imperfecti
a. no sexual spore known
b. Pneumocystis jiroveci and AIDS

VII. Animals
A. multicellular heterotrophs w/out cell walls

B. helminths
1. flatworms flukes and tapeworms

2. nematodes - roundworms
ex. pinworms, hookworms, Ascaris,
Trichinella spiralis

64
C. arthropods vectors
1. biological or mechanical

2. arachnids
a. ticks
b. mites - scabies

3. insects
a. flies
b. mosquitoes
c. fleas

65

1. Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction, and relate these types of reproduction to
mitosis, meiosis, schizogony, and conjugation
2. Be able to recognize the different disease-causing protozoans
3. Know the general features of protozoans and their motility types
4. Know the general features of algae
5. Briefly describe the slime molds and water molds
6. Know the general features of fungi, and on what basis they are placed into phyla
7. Differentiate between sexual and asexual spores, septate and aseptate hyphae
8. Define mycorrhizae
9. List benefits provided by fungi
10. Describe the four major groups of fungi, and give examples of diseases caused by fungi in
these groups
11. Know the general features of animals
12. Differentiate between flatworms and roundworms
13. Know the importance of arthropods as vectors of disease differentiate between biological
and mechanical vectors
chapter
15. Do multiple choice questions 1-5, 9, 13; first 2 sets of matching questions; short answer
questions 2, 5-10; fill in the blanks questions 2, 4; and critical thinking questions 1, 3, 5-9


1. Which of these can produce cysts that are resistant to environmental conditions and host
defenses?
a. flukes
b. protozoans
c. tapeworms
d. fungi
e. slime molds

2. Fungi that do not produce sexual spores
a. are called deuteromycetes
b. are often called imperfect fungi
c. cannot produce asexual spores either
d. all of the above
e. a and b only

66
3. Pneumocystis was first classified as a protozoan in 1908. Recent rRNA analysis
indicates it is most likely a
a. protozoan
b. fungus
c. alga
d. virus
e. bacterium

4. A vector is
a. usually a helminth
b. an organism that transfers a parasite to a host
c. a prophage
d. a host that harbors the reproductive form of the parasite
e. a and b only

5. Fungi are placed into phyla depending on
a. the type of hyphae they produce
b. their ability to be dimorphic or not
c. what type of diseases they cause
d. the type of sexual spore they produce
e. a and b only

6. A mycosis is
a. a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a plants roots
b. a disease caused by a fungus
c. a cluster of hyphae
d. a person who is an expert on fungi
e. a fungus that does not produce spores

7. Slime molds
a. are parasites of plants
b. are in the kingdom Fungi
c. capable of living in extreme environments
d. are mostly saprophytic
e. a and b only

8. Lyme disease is caused by
a. Aspergillus sp.
b. Borrelia burgdorferi
c. Pneumocystis jirovecii
d. Candida albicans
e. Cryptococcus sp.

67
9. A type of pneumonia commonly seen in immunosuppressed patients is caused by
a. Aspergillus sp.
d. Candida albicans
e. Cryptococcus sp.

10. Aseptate hyphae are characteristic of the
a. Zygomycota
b. Ascomycota
c. Basidiomycota
d. deuteromycetes

11. The most frequently isolated human fungal pathogen is
a. Aspergillus sp.
d. Candida albicans
e. Cryptococcus sp.

12. Ciguatera food poisoning is caused by
a. a dinoflagellate
b. an alga
c. a protozoan
d. a fungus
e. a and b only

68
CHAPTER 13 VIRUSES

I. Characteristics
A. not cellular - infectious particles
B. size fig. 13.4
C. nucleic acid
1. ss or ds DNA or RNA = genome
2. chromosome circular, linear, or
fragmented
D. capsid
1. protein - determines shape:
a. helical, polyhedral, complex
2. how virus attaches naked virus
E. in addition, some viruses have an envelope
1. surrounds outside of capsid
2. composition
a. derived from previous host cells memb.
b. often modified w/ viral proteins (spikes)
3. attachment in enveloped viruses

F. enzymes not found in host cell
1. lysozyme in bacteriophages
2. reverse transcriptase in retroviruses

G. obligate intracellular parasites
1. replicate only inside living host cell
a. cell types infected
b. specificity
c. determined by

69
2. directs host cell to make viral components
a. viral n.a.
b. viral proteins

II. Viral replication in general
A. 5 steps
1. attachment
2. entry
3. synthesis
4. assembly
5. release

III. Bacteriophages - recall chap 7
A. lytic cycle: fig. 13.8
1. attachment via tail fibers to bact. cell wall receptors
2. entry DNA injected into weakened cell wall
3. synthesis
4. assembly opportunity for generalized transduction
5. release with lysozyme cell lyses

B. lysogeny temperate phages fig. 13.11
1. prophage inserts into host chromosome
2. replicated when host chrom. replicated during
binary fission
3. host stress causes excision of prophage which
enters lytic cycle
4. transduction - specialized

IV. Animal virus replication
A. attachment - capsid or envelope

70
B. entry fig. 13.12
1. naked - direct penetration
2. enveloped fusion or endocytosis, uncoating

C. synthesis - depends on:
1. DNA viruses
2. RNA viruses - depends on if ss, + or -, or
ds, or retrovirus.
D. assembly
E. release
1. enveloped - budding
2. naked exocytosis or lysis

V. Latent viruses
A. proviruses remain dormant in host cell; may be
reactivated
B. Herpesviruses
1. types

2. cells latent in :

C. retroviruses

VI. Oncogenic viruses
A. disrupt proto-oncogenes or repressor genes in host
B. examples
1. hepatitis B and C viruses
2. Epstein-Barr
3. HPV
4. herpesvirus 8

71
VII. Culturing viruses -
A. Purpose
1. research
2. vaccine production
3. diagnosis of viral disease
B. must grow w/in cells
C. bacteriophages
D. embryonated eggs
1. problems
2. advantages

E. cell cultures
1. types of cells used
a. diploid cell cultures
b. continuous cell cultures
2. CPEs cytopathic effects
a. cell shape changes, syncytia, lysis
b. transformations
c. inclusions

VIII. Other disease-causing particles
A. viroids

B. prions
1. description

2. spongiform encephalopathies

72

1. Describe the minimum requirements for a virus
2. Describe the viral envelope
3. Describe the lytic and lysogenic life cycles of bacteriophages
4. Know the steps of viral replication
5. Know what determines the steps of the synthesis step in animal viral replication
6. Distinguish between enveloped and naked viruses in terms of attachment, entry, and
release
7. List the viruses that are latent and oncogenic
8. Know why viruses are cultured, and define cytopathic effects
9. Define viroid and prion, and give examples of diseases caused by each
10. Define and describe retroviruses, including the enzyme involved
12. Do multiple choice questions 2-5, 8, 10; matching; short answer questions 1-5, 7, 8; and
critical thinking question 2

1. A viroid is
a. a complete, infectious virus particle
b. a naked, infectious piece of RNA
c. a capsid without a nucleic acid
d. a provirus
e. an infectious protein

2. Retroviruses
a. infect cells by entering the cytoplasm in reverse
b. contain the enzyme reverse transcriptase
c. make DNA copies from their RNA nucleic acid
d. all of the above
e. b and c only

3. The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called
a. transduction
b. budding
c. teratogenesis
d. lysogeny
e. penetration

4. Viral envelopes
a. are made of polysaccharide
b. are found between the capsid and nucleic acid
c. are derived from the host cells plasma membrane
d. are added to the nucleocapsid during adsorption
e. prevent attachment to host receptor sites

73
5. During bacteriophage assembly, occasionally a piece of bacterial DNA is inserted into a phage
capsid. If this new particle infects a new host cell, this can lead to
a. transcription
b. latency
c. transduction
d. transformation
e. all of the above

6. Prions
a. are infectious pieces of protein
b. are infectious pieces of RNA
c. are also called viroids
d. have capsids but not envelopes
e. is the name given to latent viruses

7. Temperate phages enter the lytic cycle
a. when the host cell is exposed to UV light
b. when the host cell is stressed
c. whenever the host cell divides
d. when reverse transcriptase is present
e. a and b only

8. Epstein-Barr virus
a. causes mononucleosis
b. is a latent virus
c. is a member of the Herpesvirus family
d. can be oncogenic
e. all of the above

9. HIV
a. is oncogenic
b. is a naked DNA virus
c. infects a wide variety of human cells
d. is a retrovirus
e. a and d only

10. Which of the following are found inside some bacteriophages?
a. ribosomes
b. lysozyme
c. reverse transcriptase
d. lysosomes
e. envelopes

74
CHAPTER 14
DISEASE AND EPIDEMIOLOGY

I. Host-microbe relationships symbiosis
A. mutualism
1. coliform bacteria
B. commensalism
1. skin flora
C. parasitism - pathogens

II. Normal flora
A. resident acquired and develop after birth
1. skin surface
Staphylococcus epidermidis, S. aureus (sm. amts)
Lactobacillus sp., Propionibacterium sp.
Candida sp.
2. Mouth and URS
Staph and Strept, anaerobes, (how?)
Lactobacillus sp.
Hemophilus influenzae,
Candida sp.
3. Colon anaerobic and facultative
Enterobacteriaceae family (most)
Enterococcus sp., Lactobacillus sp.
Bacteroides sp.
4. Urogenital tract
Staph and Strep, Lactobacillus sp.,
sm. amts. of Candida, Trichomonas
vaginalis (?)

75
B. transient flora
C. opportunists
1. if immunosuppressed
2. changes in normal flora; loss of microbial
antagonism
ex. Lactobacillus sp.
3. if introduced to body sites where not normally
found

III. Infection
A. portals of entry
1. skin
a. outer dead layers sloughed off
b. some m/o gain access via hair follicles, sweat
glands
2. parenteral route
3. mucous membranes
a. live cells, moist, warm
4. placenta
a. teratogenic m/o table 14.4
B. adherence - crucial to infection
1. protozoans, helminths

2. capsid and envelope molecules viruses
3. adhesins in bacteria
a. fimbriae
b. capsules
c. biofilms
d. cell wall components

76
IV. Nature of infectious diseases
A. infection vs. disease
B. asymptomatic infections

C. Kochs Postulates- determines etiology of disease
1. same microbe present in every case
2. microbe isolated from host and grown in pure
culture
3. microbe causes disease when inoculated in test
animal
4. microbe reisolated, and shown to be same microbe
as original
5. problems with Kochs
a. difficulty in culture
b. no other host except human
c. multiple causes, interactions

V. Virulence factors
A. adhesins
B. enzymes
1. hyaluronidase
2. coagulase
3. kinases

C. toxins table 14.8
1. exotoxins
a. gram + or gram
b. protein, toxoid vaccines
c. secreted into host tissues
d. specific action

77
-neurotoxins
-enterotoxins
-cytotoxins
-hemolysins

2. endotoxins -
a. lipid A part of LPS of gram - cell wall
b. released when cell lyses or phagocytized
c. all cause various symptoms of fever, lethargy,
malaise, shock

D. antiphagocytic factors
1. capsules
2. M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes
3. leukocidins

VI. Stages of infectious disease
A. incubation
1. between inf. and first signs/symptoms
2. dependent on:
a. type of microbe virulence, generation time
b. number of microbes
c. site of infection
d. host response
B. prodromal phase
C. illness
D. decline
E. convalescence
F. a person can be infectious at any stage

78
VII. Portals of exit
A. most via blood, other body fluids

VIII. Disease transmission sources of microbes
A. animal reservoirs - zoonoses
B. human reservoirs
1. period of infectivity
2. carriers
a. healthy
b. chronic
c. intermittent
C. non-living soil, water, food

IX. Modes of transmission of diseases
A. Contact transmission
1. direct
2. indirect via fomites
3. droplet < 1 m from res. to host

B. Vehicle transmission
1. waterborne
2. airborne > 1 m from res. to host
a. aerosols
3. food borne
4. body fluids outside body

C. Vector transmission
1. mechanical
2. biological

79
X. Nosocomial infections
A. definition
B. incidence
C. sources of infection
1. exogenous
2. endogenous
D. microbes involved:
1. Enterobacteriaceae family
2. Staphylococcus aureus, MRSA
3. Enterococci, VRE
4. Pseudomonas sp.

E. susceptibility of host
F. common modes of transmission
1. direct
2. indirect via hospital equipment
a. catheters, phlebotomy
b. respiratory equipment
c. hemodialysis
3. airborne

G. prevention
1. hand washing most important
2. infection control programs
3. aseptic technique
4. patient isolation
5. use of protective barriers

80

1. Define the different types of symbiosis
2. Distinguish between infection and disease
3. List the normal flora given for the different areas of the body
4. Know for what purpose Kochs postulates are used, and describe the steps
5. Know the significance of attachment in the disease process, and list adhesins used by microbes
6. Describe the action of the bacterial enzymes hyaluronidase, coagulase, streptokinase, and
hemolysins
7. Distinguish in detail exotoxins from endotoxins
8. Describe the action of neurotoxins, enterotoxins, cytotoxins
9. List and describe antiphagocytic factors
11. Describe what affects the incubation period of disease
12. Understand when in the disease process a person can be infectious
13. Describe the different reservoirs of infectious microbes
14. Define zoonosis
15. Describe the different portals of entry, and describe microbes that use these portals
16. Describe portals of exit
17. Describe the different modes of disease transmission, and give examples of diseases
transmitted by these different modes
18. List common mechanical and biological vectors
19. Define fomite
20. Define nosocomial infections
21. Differentiate between endogenous and exogenous sources
22. Name microbes that are frequently implicated in nosocomial infections
23. Know the three factors that interact to cause nosocomial infections- fig. 14.20
24. Know how nosocomial infections can be prevented
chapter
26. Define these vocabulary words:
symptom, sign, syndrome
communicable disease
contagious disease
noncommunicable disease
acute, subacute, chronic, latent
sporadic, endemic, epidemic, pandemic
primary, secondary infection
asymptomatic (subclinical) infection
iatrogenic infections
15. Do multiple choice questions 1, 3-6, 8-11, 13, 15; fill in the blanks questions 1-10; short
answer questions 1-10; and critical thinking questions 1, 2, 6

81


1. A zoonosis is a disease naturally occurring in animals, but the infectious agent can be
transmitted to humans
a. true b. false

2. All infectious diseases are communicable
a. true b. false

3. Kochs postulates are used daily in clinical microbiology labs to determine which antibiotics
are the most useful for a patients infection
a. true b. false

4. A patient in the convalescent stage of a disease is no longer infectious
a. true b. false

5. Lactobacillus sp. is normal flora of the
a. skin
b. gastrointestinal tract
c. urogenital tract
d. mouth
e. all of the above

6. Which of the following is NOT an adhesion factor?
a. pili
b. cell wall components
c. capsule
d. biofilm
e. all of the above are adhesins

7. Which of the following is FALSE concerning endotoxins?
a. can be secreted by gram negative or gram positive bacteria
b. produces symptoms of fever, myalgia, and shock
c. is the lipid A portion of LPS
d. released when the cell lyses
e. all of the above are TRUE, none are false

8. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. leukocidins destroy white blood cells
b. hemolysins lyse red blood cells
c. coagulase destroys blood clots
d. hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells
e. kinase destroys blood clots

82

9. Which of the following is usually the primary factor in the pathogenicity of a bacterium?
a. direct damage to host tissue
b. toxin and enzyme production
c. overgrowth which blocks blood vessels
d. hypersensitive reactions
e. c and d only

10. Which of the following is FALSE concerning exotoxins?
a. most lethal toxins known
b. protein in composition
c. produce the same general symptoms for all exotoxin types
d. vaccines can be made against them
e. all of the above are FALSE

11. Sexually transmitted diseases are most often transmitted by
a. indirect contact transmission
b. common vehicle transmission
c. vector transmission
d. the oral-fecal route of transmission

12. A disease that is continuously present in a certain population would be classified as
a. sporadic
b. endemic
c. pandemic
d. epidemic
e. endogenous

13. Which of the following is FALSE about nosocomial infections?
a. can be transmitted from hands of medical personnel
b. can be transmitted by a visitor
c. are acquired while a patient is getting care in a health-care facility
d. can be caused by opportunistic organisms in patients own flora
e. rarely occur in todays modern hospitals

14. Fomites are
a. arthropod vectors
b. inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens
c. dried mucus harboring pathogens
d. arthropod vectors that parasitize rodent reservoirs of disease
e. transmitted congenitally

83

15. Which of these is NOT an important cause of nosocomial infections?
a. Treponema sp.
b. Escherichia coli
c. Enterococcus
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Pseudomonas sp.

16. A site where microbes can survive, multiply, and serve as a continual source of
infection is called a(n)
a. portal of entry
b. epidemic
c. endemic
d. reservoir
e. vector

17. Tuberculosis is spread by
a. droplet transmission
b. airborne transmission
c. vector transmission
d. contaminated water
e. a and b only

18. Most portals of exit involve
a. body fluids
b. contaminated water
c. contaminated food
d. zoonoses
e. fomites

19. Microbes can gain access to the body easier through mucous membranes than through skin
because:
a. skin cells are more tightly packed than mucous membrane cells
b. antibodies against microbes are produced by sebaceous glands in skin
c. there are fewer phagocytes in mucous membranes than in skin
d. mucous membranes are warmer than skin
e. none of the above the access to microbes is the same for both skin and mucous
membranes

84
CHAPTER 15 NONSPECIFIC DEFENSE

Nonspecific vs. specific host defenses

I. Skin
A. mechanical barrier of epidermis
B. dentritic cells (Langerhans cells)
C. chemical barrier
1. sweat salt and lysozyme
2. sebum
3. defensins - dermicidins

II. Mucous membranes
A. mechanical defense
1. tightly packed cells, but thinner than skin
2. goblet cells produce mucus
3. blinking, hairs
4. flushing action of tears, urine, saliva
B. chemical defense
1. lysozyme
2. HCl
C. normal flora

III. Defense components of blood
A. composed of cells in a liquid
1. plasma contains defensive proteins
a. clotting proteins
b. complement proteins
c. antibodies (immunoglobulins)

85
d. iron-binding proteins vs. siderophores

2. formed elements
a. produced by stem cells in bone marrow
b. platelets, erythrocytes, leukocytes

IV. Leukocytes
A. granulocytes
1. neutrophils
2. eosinophils
3. basophils, mast cells

B. agranulocytes
1. lymphocytes T and B cells (specific)
2. NK lymphocytes
a. activity:
3. monocytesmacrophages
a. wandering and fixed
b. reticuloendothelial system (mononuclear
phagocytic system) fig. 15.7

V. Phagocytosis
A. diapedesis/chemotaxis -from chemicals released by
microbes, damaged tissue, and cytokines

B. adherence and ingestion- formation of phagosome
1. microbes avoid by:
2. host fights back by:
3. opsonins:

86
C. digestion and killing
1. phagolysosome formation
2. release of toxic antimicrobial products
3. microbes avoid by:

D. elimination - exocytosis

VI. Complement system
A. set of >20 proteins in plasma, activated
sequentially
B. actions
1. enhanced phagocytosis (opsonization) (C3b,C4b)
2. enhanced inflammation, chemotaxis (C3a,C4a,C5a)
3. lysis of microbes (MACs, C5-C9)

C. classic pathway fig. 15.10
1. activated by:

D. properdin pathway (alternate)
1. activated by:

E. lectin pathway
1. activated by:

VII. Interferon
A. 3 types
B. and interferon produced by viral-infected cells
C. interferon binds to receptors on uninfected
cells, which make antiviral proteins
D. viruses cannot replicate inside these cells

87
E. IFN-: produced by activated T cells, NK cells;
stimulates macrophages and neutrophils

VIII. Other antimicrobial chemicals
A. defensins
1. short peptides produced by epithelial cells, WBCs
2. action:
B. lactoferrin
1. iron-binding glycoprotein found in body fluids
2. action:

IX. Inflammation
A. causes:
B. acute inflammatory process
1. damaged cells release histamine, prostaglandins,
leukotrienes; mast cells, basophils, platelets release
histamine in response to C3a, C5a
2. vasodilation results:
a. phagocyte migration margination and
diapedesis
b. delivery of blood borne antimicrobial
products, clotting proteins, O
2

c. edema
3. repair
4. chronic inflammation
a. production of toxic anti-m/o products
b. granulomas

88
X. Fever
A. stimulants of fever - pyrogens

B. hypothalamus

C. effects of fever
1. immune response
2. interferon production
3. inhibits microbial growth by:
a. plasma iron
b. temperature
4. illness = rest


1. Describe the mechanical defenses of the skin and mucous membranes
2. Describe the chemical defenses of the skin and mucous membranes
3. Know the general functions of the white blood cells. Categorize them as to phagocytes
or not; granulocytes or agranulocytes
4. Know the general process of phagocytosis, and how microbes avoid these processes
5. Know the causes and effects of vasodilation
6. Know the advantages and disadvantages of inflammation
7. Describe the fever response, and know how the fever response is protective
8. List the pyrogens that stimulate the hypothalamus
9. Know how interferon protects against viral infection
10. Know what activates the complement cascade, and the effects of complement activation
12. Do all multiple choice questions; all matching questions; modified True/False questions
1-14; short answer questions 1-5; and critical thinking questions 1-4, 6

89

1. Which of the following is true about interferon?
a. it is produced by viral-infected cells
b. it interferes with the replication of the viral genome
c. it causes cell lysis
d. it causes inflammation
e. all of the above are true

2. The classical pathway of complement is initiated by
a. polysaccharides and LPS
b. two antibody molecules attached to an antigen
c. toxins
d. fatty acids
e. c and d only

3. Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?
a. inflammation
b. increased migration of phagocytes
c. enhanced phagocytosis of microbes
d. increased cytolytic activity
e. enhanced fever response

4. Which of the following is NOT part of the inflammatory process?
a. dilation of blood vessels
b. release of histamines and prostaglandins
c. diapedisis
d. antibody production
e. chemotaxis of leukocytes

5. Lysozyme is an enzyme found in
a. tears
b. saliva
c. stomach acid
d. all of the above
e. a and b only

6. Which of the following is phagocytic?
a. NK cells
b. neutrophils
c. basophils
d. lymphocytes
e. all of the above

90
7. Which of the following can survive inside the phagolysosome?
a. Legionella pneumophila
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Escherichia coli
d. Salmonella typhi
e. a and b only

8. Which of the following avoid phagocytosis by producing capsules?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Candida albicans
e. Vibrio fischeri

9. Pyrogens include endotoxins and certain bacterial cell wall components
a. true b. false

10. Lymphocytes are agranulocytes
a. true b. false

11. The cause of stomach ulcers is
a. Helicobacter pylori
b. Campylobacter duodenale
c. Escherichia coli
d. adenoviruses
e. Yersinia pesti

91
CHAPTER 16 SPECIFIC (ADAPTIVE)
IMMUNITY

I. Definition:

II. Antigens (ag)
A. large proteins usu, ag determinants (epitopes)

B. structurally complex
C. haptens

D. anything not self = foreign ags
1. exogenous
2. endogenous

E. self ags on own cell surfaces = autoantigens
1. MHC Type I
2. MHC Type II read p. 483; fig. 16.11

III. Lymphatic system and immune cells fig. 16.2
A. functions:
B. lymph vessels and lymph
C. lymph organs
1. bone marrow
2. spleen
3. thymus
4. lymph nodes fig. 16.3
5. lymph nodules MALT

92
IV. B-cells and antibodies (Abs)
A. B-cells mature in bone marrow, travel to most lymphoid
organs
B. sample of Abs produced found on pl. memb. (BCR)

C. produce specific Abs when activated (now called plasma
cells)
D. antibodies (immunoglobulins)
1. protein produced in response to ag and
can bind to that ag
2. know structure (fig. 16.6)
3. 5 classes table 16.1
a. IgG

b. IgM

c. IgA
d. IgE
e. IgD

E. Action of Ab
1. agglutination
2. opsonization
3. complement fixation
4. neutralization of toxins, adhesins

V. T-cells
A. mature in thymus
B. T-cell receptors on surface recognize ag + MHC I or
ag + MHC II

93
C. migrate to other lymphoid organs
D. T cytotoxic cells recognize and kill infected cells
(MHC I + ag)

E. T helpers (MHC II + ag)
1. T
H
1 activates T
C

2. T
H
2 activates B cells
VI. Cytokines
A. recall definition
B. various types p. 481-482

VII. Humoral immunity fig. 16.18
A. involves Abs against ags in blood/body fluids before
ags enter cells (extracellular/exogenous ags)
B. antigen presentation
1. APC engulfs ag, presents epitopes on surface with
MHC II. Secretes Il-1 fig. 16.13b
C. T
H
differentiate into T
H
2 cells, secrete Il-4
D. T
H
2 activates B-cells displaying ag + MHC II; B cells
proliferate into plasma cells, produce 1 type of specific
Ab
E. memory B cells also produced
F. memory responses:
1. primary
2. secondary fig. 16.19

VIII. Cell-Mediated Immunity
A. involves T-cytotoxic cells against
intracellular/endogenous ags,
also eu parasites, cancer cells, and foreign tissues

94
B. APC engulfs ag, presents epitopes on surface with
MHC II. Secretes Il-12
C. T
H
cells become T
H
1, secrete Il-2 and -interferon
D. activates T
C
, proliferate; memory cells produced
E. T
C
bind to infected host cells w/ ag + MHC class I,
secrete perforin and granzyme; induce apoptosis
(see fig. 16.13a for endogenous ag processing by an
infected cell)

IX. Types of acquired immunity
A. active - own cells produce own Abs due to:
1. natural - exposure to ag in nature
2. artificial - exp. to ag in form of vaccine
3. usually long-lived due to:
B. passive - receive Abs made by another
1. natural
2. artificial - gamma globulin, hyperimmune serum
3. short lived Abs cleared from body in weeks or
months

X. Vaccines pg 498 - 502
A. benefits:
B. longevity of protection
1. type of vaccine
a. attenuated
b. inactivated
c. toxoid
2. mode of delivery
C. immunization schedule fig. 17.3
D. hazards and myths

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96

1. Differentiate between specific and nonspecific host defenses
2. Differentiate between active and passive immunity
3. Define gamma globulin and hyperimmune serum
4. Describe a typical antigen
5. Know on which self cells MHC I and MHC II antigens are found
6. Know in detail the structure of an antibody molecule
7. Describe the different classes of antibodies
8. Know the functions of the different organs of the lymphatic system
9. Describe B and T cell lymphocytes, and know where each one matures
10. Describe the cells, molecules, and functions of humoral immunity
11. Know what the memory response is, and what accounts for it
12. Know how antibody protects against microbes
13. Describe the cells, molecules, and functions of cell-mediated immunity
14. Describe how humoral and cell-mediated immunity interact to mount an overall defense
15. List the recommended vaccines for children in the U.S.
16. Understand the benefits, hazards, and myths about vaccination
17. For chapter 16, do multiple choice questions 1-5, 7-10; all modified True/False and
matching; short answer question 2; and critical thinking questions 2, 4, 5.
18. For chapter 17, do multiple choice questions 1, 2, and 14 and all matching questions


1. An antibody is specific for one type of antigen due to:
a. its valence
b. the heavy chains
c. the constant portion of the heavy and light chains
d. the variable portions of the heavy and light chains
e. the light chains

2. Which of the following immunoglobulins are found in secretions?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

3. Using the choices in question 2, which type of immunoglobulin is produced in the largest
concentration on second exposure to an antigen?

4. Cytokines are proteins secreted by T cytotoxic cells which kill infected host cells
a. true
b. false

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5. Which of the following is true concerning T-cytotoxic cells?
a. they possess receptors that recognize class I MHC antigens
b. they mature in the thymus
c. they have antibody molecules on their cell membranes
d. all of the above
e. a and b only

6. How do T-cytotoxic cells kill other cells?
a. by specific antibody production
b. by phagocytosis
c. by opsonization
d. by inducing apoptosis
e. all of the above

7. Which of the following is FALSE about B-cells?
a. divides into plasma cells to secrete antibody
b. divides into memory cells
c. mature in the thymus
d. featured in humoral immunity
e. all of the above are TRUE, none are FALSE

8. Which of these is NOT an organ of the lymphatic system?
a. hypothalamus
b. lymph nodes
c. spleen
d. thymus
e. bone marrow

9. Which portion of the antibody molecule activates the first protein in the complement pathway?
a. variable regions of the light chains
b. variable regions of the heavy chains
c. the hinge region
d. constant regions of the light chains
e. constant regions of the heavy chains

10. T-helper cells secrete interleukin-2, which activates T-cytotoxic cells
a. true
b. false

11. Antibodies that cross the placenta is an example of natural active immunity
a. true
b. false

98

99
CHAPTER 10 ANTIMICROBIAL DRUGS

Define:
chemotherapeutic agent
antimicrobial drug
antibiotic
synthetic, semisynthetic
selective toxicity

I. Modes of antimicrobial action
A. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
1. penicillins - structure fig. 10.3c
a. beta lactam ring- some bact. have enzyme
beta lactamase, are thus R to pen.
b. semisynthetic pens have compounds added
which protect b-lactam ring
2. cephalosporins also with -lactam ring
3. vancomycin
a. against MRSAs, enterococci, C. difficile
b. gram + only, anaerobes
c. for vancomycin R bacteria:
synercid, zyvox (linezolid)
4. bacitracin topically only
5. isoniazid and ethambutol for AFBs

B. Inhibition of protein synthesis fig 10.4
1. act on pro ribosome
2. aminoglycosides - amikacin, gentamicin,
tobramycin, streptomycin

100
3. tetracyclines
4. macrolides

C. disruption of cell membrane
1. selective toxicity:
2. polymyxin
3. amphotericin B, nystatin, imidazoles
(antifungal)

D. antimetabolites
1. competitive inhibitors of microbial enzymes
false substrates
2. PABAfolic acidnuc. acids
sulfonamides mimic PABAno product
3. TMP-SXT

E. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
1. affect replication or transcription
2. nucleotide analogs
selective toxicity:
3. quinolones
4. rifampin for AFB

II. Clinical considerations
A. spectrum of action
1. narrow vs. broad spectrum
2. metronidazole

B. efficacy - antimicrobial sensitivity determinations
1. Kirby-Bauer - in lab

101
2. MIC
a. automated

3. MBC

C. routes of administration
1. orally, IM, IV

2. distribution to target tissues

D. side effects
1. toxicity
a. aminoglycosides
b. vancomycin
c. amphotericin B
d. chloramphenicol - aplastic anemia

2. allergy ab/ics as haptens

3. disruption of normal flora
a. superinfections, wipe-out of normal
flora allows overgrowth of potentially
harmful microbes
- Candida sp.
- Clostridium difficile

III. Antibiotic resistance
A. nongenetic m/o avoid contact with drug
1. live intracellularly - macrophages
2. protection by biofilms

102
B. genetic
1. chromosomal mutations
2. R plasmids - conjugation
3. transformation, transduction

C. disadvantages of resistance (to microbes)

D. mechanisms of resistance - what do R genes code for?
1. alteration of receptors in ribosomes
2. alteration of plasma memb. permeability
a. porins
b. membrane pumps

3. development of enzymes that destroy ab/ics before
bact. is killed
4. for antimetabolites, development of enz. that wont
bind false substrate, or alt. of metabolic pathway to
bypass reaction inhibited by ab/ic

E. limiting drug resistance
1. take all medication
2. limit ab/ics in environment
3. restrict use of ab/ics

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1. Define antibiotic and synthetic agents; broad and narrow spectrum
2. Understand the goal of selective toxicity in developing antimicrobial drugs
3. Know which antimicrobials have what effect on microbial cells, and what type of microbe
each antimicrobial agent acts against.
4. Know which antibiotics are the most and the least toxic
5. Define beta lactamase, and understand its significance in bacteria that have this enzyme
6. Understand why resistant bacteria are at a disadvantage in normal environments
7. Define superinfection and give examples
8. Describe the causes, symptoms, and treatment for pseudomembranous colitis
9. Know how allergies to antibiotics can develop
10. Briefly describe the genetic mechanisms for resistance possessed by bacteria, and contrast
these with non-genetic resistance mechanisms.
11. Define antimicrobial sensitivity tests, and describe how MICs and MBCs are determined
13. Do multiple choice questions 1, 3, 4, 6-8, 10; short answer questions 2-8; and critical
thinking questions 1-3, 6, 7, 9


1. Which of the following is true concerning beta-lactamase?
a. it is a lipid important in gram negative cell walls
b. it is an enzyme that breaks down aminoglycosides
c. it is possessed by penicillin resistant strains of bacteria
d. it is an enzyme used by bacteria to lyse red blood cells
e. a and b only

2. An antibiotic differs from a synthetic drug because an antibiotic
a. is taken into the body to destroy pathogens
b. is not used for chemotherapy
c. is produced by bacteria and fungi
d. is used to combat any kind of disease
e. all of the above

3. Which of the following is used to treat fungal infections?
a. amphotericin B d. penicillin
b. bacitracin e. gentamicin
c. cephalosporin

4. Sensitivity tests are used to determine the toxicity of antibiotics and synthetics
a. true b. false

104
5. Which of the following antibiotics is mismatched?
a. aminoglycosides ------ protein synthesis
b. penicillin----------cell wall synthesis
c. sulfonamides----------antimetabolites
d. antiviral drugs (AZT)-------nucleic acid analogs
e. none of the above are mismatched

6. Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects?
a. amphotericin B d. chloramphenicol
b. penicillin e. gentamicin
c. vancomycin

7. The following data were obtained from a sensitivity test:
Conc. of antibiotic X Growth in tube Growth in subculture
2 ug + +
10 ug - +
15 ug - -
25 ug - -

The minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) of antibiotic X is:
a. 2 ug
b. 10 ug
c. 15 ug
d. 25 ug
e. 15 and 25 ug

8. Which of the following can cause a bacterium to be resistant to a particular antibiotic?
a. motility
b. presence of R plasmids
c. presence of pili
d. overuse of disinfectants
e. all of the above

9. Clostridium difficile
a. causes pseudomembranous colitis
b. causes infection after heavy antibiotic use
c. is treated with vancomycin or Flagyl
d. is an anaerobe
e. all of the above

10. Which of the following is useful for preventing Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
a. nucleic acid analogs d. vancomycin
b. TMP-SXT e. metronidazole
c. chloramphenicol

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CHAPTER 22
DISEASES OF THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

I. Anatomy overview and defense mechanisms
A. upper resp. tract pharynx and above
B. lower resp. tract larynx and below
C. normal flora:
D. defense mechanisms:

II. Main routes of transmission
A. droplet
B. airborne

III. Upper resp. tract infections -
A. bacterial infections
1. pharyngitis - strep throat (<10%)
a. Streptococcus pyogenes (GAS)
b. other hemolytic strep
c. treatment to avoid complications

2. diphtheria
a. phage-infected exotoxin- producing
Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
b. pseudomembrane formation
c. DTaP vaccine, toxoid

3. sinusitis, otitis media
a. spread from pharynx
b. S. pneumoniae, Hemophilus influenzae

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B. Viral infections of URS
1. colds - rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, adenoviruses
metapneumoviruses
2. pharyngitis

IV. Lower respiratory tract infections
A. Bacteria
1. pneumonia -
a. S. pneumoniae -
vaccine
b. Mycoplasma (walking) pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
-frequently nosocomial
d. S. aureus, H. influenzae; Pseudomonas and
cystic fibrosis

2. Legionnaires disease
a. Legionella pneumophila
-fastidious, intracellular
b. water as reservoir

3. tuberculosis Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. incidence:
b. disease progression
c. tubercle formation:

d. MDR-TB
e. prevention measures

107
4. pertussis - Bordetella pertussis
DTaP vaccine

B. Viral diseases of lower RS
1. influenza - Influenza viruses A and B
a. virus:

b. influenza A - antigenic variation
antigenic shift
antigenic drift
reservoir -

c. influenza B
reservoir
d. disease progression
e. vaccine/treatment

2. RSV
a. viral pneumonia in infants; croup
b. older children and adults:

3. Hantavirus
a. reservoir

C. Fungal resp. diseases - usu opportunistic
1. Coccidioidomycosis (valley fever)
a. Coccidioides sp., systemic mycosis
b. endemic SW US, Mexico, Argentina

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2. Blastomycosis
a. Blastomyces sp
b. reservoir
c. endemic in SE US

3. Histoplasmosis - Histoplasma sp.
a. endemic to Miss, Ohio valleys
b. systemic mycosis, 80% exposed
c. reservoir

4. Pneumocystis pneumonia
a. Pneumocystis jirovecii
b. HIV
c.TMP/SXT prophylaxis


1. Describe the anatomy, normal flora, and defense mechanisms of the upper and lower
respiratory tract
2. For all respiratory diseases, know the name and the type of microbe (bacteria,
fungus, etc) involved, the reservoir, the mode of transmission, and the symptoms, when given
3. Know which diseases are preventable by vaccines
4. Know preventative measures for controlling the spread of tuberculosis
5. Define antigenic drift in relation to influenza viruses
6. Know why influenza A viruses undergo antigenic shift
7. Know the risk group for acquiring pneumocystis pneumonia, and the treatment for prevention
8. Do multiple choice questions 1-5, 7, 8, 10; fill in the blanks 1-4; True/False 1-3; short answer
questions 1-6, 8; and critical thinking questions 1-7.

109

1. All of the following pertain to the causative agent of tuberculosis EXCEPT
a. can cause inapparent, latent, infections
b. once phagocytized, can survive inside the macrophages
c. can survive for months on sputum contaminated material
d. transmitted only by droplet transmission from an infected host
e. very dangerous multiple drug resistant strains have emerged

2. The frequency of influenza epidemics is associated with
a. influenza type A shifting with type B
b. lack of available immunization
c. numerous human carriers
d. frequency of mutations in viral genes for envelope proteins
e. the ability of influenza viruses to be transmitted by public water supplies

3. The majority of patients with sore throats have a viral infection of the pharynx
a. true b. false

4. Hot water heaters and contaminated water aerosols are the reservoir for
a. Mycoplasma sp.
b. Legionella pneumophila
c. Influenza B
d. Histoplasma sp.
e. Hantavirus

5. Contact with rodent nests is a risk factor for infections caused by (use the choices in #4)

6. Contact with bird or bat droppings is associated with infections caused by (use the choices in
#4)

7. Vaccines are available for all of the following EXCEPT
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. influenza
b. pertussis e. Legionnaires disease
c. diphtheria

8. A gram negative bacillus that causes a severe, frequently nosocomial pneumonia is
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
e. Staphylococcus aureus

110
9. Pneumonia associated with AIDS patients is caused by
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
e. Staphylococcus aureus

10. Which of these does not cause upper respiratory viral infections?
a. adenovirus
b. coronavirus
c. metapneumovirus
d. rhinovirus
e. norovirus

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CHAPTER 23
DISEASES OF THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

I. Anatomy overview

II. Defenses mechanisms

III. Bacterial diseases of GI tract
A. dental caries - Streptococcus mutans
1. sucrose, lactic acid, and biofilm formation

B. periodontal disease -
1. gingivitis
ANUG
2. periodontitis

C. peptic ulcers and gastritis
1. Helicobacter pylori
2. urease enzyme for diagnosis
3. treatment

D. Bacterial enteritis/dysentery
- symptoms
- treatment
- specimen transfer

1. Cholera - Vibrio cholerae
a. reservoir
b. transmission

112
c. strains responsible
d. symptoms due to enterotoxin
e. treatment

2. pathogenic Escherichia coli
a. strains involved

b. prevention

3. salmonellosis - Salmonella sp.
a. strains
b. reservoir
c. transmission

4. Campylobacter sp.
a. reservoir same as for Salmonella sp.
b. most common cause of bacterial diarrhea
5. shigellosis - Shigella sp.
a. reservoir
b. transmission
c. highly infectious

6. typhoid fever - S. typhi

7. pseudomembranous colitis-

E. food poisoning - intoxication
1. Staphylococcus aureus
a. short incubation
b. enterotoxins

113
2. Clostridium perfringens enterotoxin
a. anaerobic conditions
b. symptoms 10-24 hrs
3. Bacillus cereus - rice and dairy
products, symptoms <12 hrs

IV. Viral diseases of GI tract
A. cold sores HSV
1. latency and reactivation

B. mumps
1. inf. of parotid glands, other organs
2. MMR vaccine

C. viral enteritis
1. rotavirus - infants

2. norovirus (Norwalk virus)

D. hepatitis table 23.2
1. symptoms
2. HAV - infectious hepatitis
a. transmission
b. chronic infections/carrier state:
c. treatment/prevention

3. HBV
a. transmission
b. chronic inf/carrier state

114
4. HCV
a. transmission
b. chronic infection rate

5. HDV - superinfection w/ HBV
6. HEV

V. Protozoal diseases of GI tract
A. R cysts infective

B. giardiasis - Giardia sp.
1. transmission -
2. cyststrophozoites
3. attaches to sm. int. wall via adhesive disk

C. Cryptosporidium sp.
1. reservoir
2. transmission

D. amoebic dysentery -
1. Entamoeba histolytica cysts
2. transmission
3. invasion of int. wall, can become systemic

115
VI. GI infestations caused by helminths
A. Tapeworm infections - Taenia solium, T. saginata,
Diphyllobothrium latum
1. recall life cycle
2. accidental hosts - cysticercosis, hydatid
disease

B. Trichinosis - Trichinella spiralis
1. transmission
2. symptoms

C. Hookworm - Necator americanus
1. transmission
2. symptoms

D. Ascariasis - Ascaris sp.
1. transmission

E. Pinworm infections - Enterobius
vermicularis
1. transmission

116

1. For all digestive tract diseases, know the name and the type of microbe (bacteria,
fungus, etc) involved, the reservoir, the mode of transmission, and the symptoms, when given
2. Know the defense mechanisms of the gastrointestinal tract
3. Distinguish between digestive intoxications and infections
4. Know the significance of the chronic carrier state and hepatitis infections
5. Do multiple choice questions 1-4, 6-14; True/False questions 1-9; fill in the blanks 2-8, 10; all
matching; short answer 1-3, 5-10; and critical thinking questions 1-7.


1. Which of the following is FALSE concerning Escherichia coli?
a. all strains are pathogenic
b. toxin-producing E. coli (O157:H7) are often found in ground beef
c. the presence of pili allow invasion of the intestinal epithelium
d. E. coli is a common cause of urinary tract infections
e. all of the above are TRUE, none are false

2. Which hepatitis virus is transmitted by contaminated food, or by oral-fecal transmission?
a. HAV c. HCV
b. HBV d. HDV

3. All of the following pertain to pinworm infections EXCEPT
a. transmitted by cysts in contaminated water
b. diagnosis is by detecting eggs on adhesive tape pressed to the perianal area
c. the causative organism is a roundworm
d. all family members living with the patient are usually treated
e. causes mild to no symptoms

4. Which of the following does NOT pertain to the causative agents of salmonellosis?
a. they are members of the Enterobacteriaceae family of bacteria
b. endotoxins induce fever in patients
c. many different strains of Salmonella sp. are involved
d. include Salmonella typhi
e. these microbes are normal flora of snakes and turtles

5. Stomach ulcers and gastritis are caused by
a. Salmonella sp.
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Helicobacter pylori
e. Yersinia gastroenteritidis

117
6. The symptoms of cholera are caused by
a. the enterotoxin produced by Vibrio cholerae
b. the hemolysins produced by V. cholerae
c. invasion of the intestinal epithelial cells
d. ingestion of pre-formed toxins from raw shellfish consumption
e. reactivation of a latent virus

7. Which of the following is critical to infant patient survival during enteric infections?
a. multivitamins
b. anti-inflammatory drugs
c. antitoxin immunization
d. fluid and electrolyte replacement
e. lots and lots of diapers

8. The microbe responsible for half of non-bacterial outbreaks of gastroenteritis is
a. Hepatitis A
b. enteric adenoviruses
c. Ascaris sp.
d. Salmonella typhi
e. norovirus

9. The fish tapeworm is
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia solium
c. Necator americanus
d. Enterobius vermicularis
e. Taenia saginata

10. Which of these is highly resistant to environmental conditions?
a. scoleces
b. proglottids
c. cysts
d. trophozoites
e. all of the above

118

119
CHAPTER 24
DISEASES OF THE UROGENITAL SYSTEM

I. Anatomy overview

II. Host defense mechanisms

III. Nonsexually transmitted diseases
A. UT diseases
1. UTIs - urethritis, cystitis, pyelonephritis
a. causes:
b. males/females
c. diagnosis

2. Leptospirosis
a. Leptospira interrogans spirochete
b. zoonosis animal urine (direct contact, or in
water, soil)
c. systemic; urine as portal of exit

3. glomerulonephritis - poststreptococcal

B. non-STDs of reproductive tract
1. predisposing conditions

2. staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS)
a. exotoxin producing strain

120
3. Gardnerella vaginalis and anaerobes
a. clue cells
b. treatment

4. Candida sp.
a. treatment

5. Trichomonas vaginalis STD?
a. males asymptomatic carriers
b. treatment

IV. Sexually Transmitted Diseases
A. Bacteria
1. gonorrhea
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. endotoxin, IgA protease
c. symptoms in males:
in females: most asymptomatic, risk of PID
d. other sites of infection
e. diagnosis
f. treatment
g. drug-resistant GC
2. syphilis
a. Treponema pallidum
b. disease:
primary stage
secondary stage
tertiary stage

c. diagnosis

121
4. chlamydial infections
a. Chlamydia trachomatis, mainly
b. symptoms in males:
c. symptoms in females:
PID, sterility
d. conjunctivitis - self inoculum, newborn
(trachoma)

5. chancroid
a. Hemophilus ducreyi
b. soft chancre, may spread to lymph nodes

B. Viral STDs
1. Herpes simplex virus I and II
a. symptoms -
b. latency and recurrences
c. viral shedding
d. risk to neonate
e. other herpes infections

2. condylomas (genital warts)
a. HPV
b. most common STD?
c. oncogenic
d. treatment

3. AIDS pgs 538 - 546
a. HIV: fig. 18.15

b. cells infected

122
c. recall steps of viral replication: fig. 18.18

d. initial infection, seroconversion;
10 yr avg from inf. to AIDS
e. opportunistic infections see table 18.6
f. transmission: exposure to inf. body
fluids; blood, semen
g. routes of transmission:
h. risk w/ lesions from other STDs

i. HAART
j. future course of AIDS


1. Know the defense mechanisms of the urogenital tract
2. Know the major cause of UTIs, and how UTIs are diagnosed
3. Describe the epidemiology of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, leptospirosis, and TSS
4. Know the names, descriptions, and treatments for the 3 major microbes involved in
nonsexually transmitted vaginitis
5. For all sexually transmitted diseases, know the name and the type of microbe (bacteria,
fungus, etc) involved, the mode of transmission, and the symptoms
6. Know which diseases are treatable with antibiotics
7. Know which STD is the most common reportable disease in the U.S.
8. Know the significance of asymptomatic infections
9. Understand how HAART works in preventing AIDS
10. Do multiple choice questions 1, 2, 5, 7, 8, 9; all matching; all fill in the blanks; true/false
questions 1-10; short answer questions 1-11, 13; and critical thinking questions 1, 5, 6

123

1. Which of the following would NOT pertain to a female infected with Chlamydia?
a. no treatment is given since this organism is a virus
b. at risk for PID, sterility or ectopic pregnancy
c. can be asymptomatic but infectious
d. can transmit the infection to her child during childbirth
e. can develop conjunctivitis by accidentally touching her eyes with her genital secretions

2. A microbiologist detects clue cells from a vaginal swab of a patient. These cells are
diagnostic of an infection associated with
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Chlamydia sp.

3. A patient has a STD characterized by sporadically recurring, painful, fluid-filled blisters.
What disease does the patient have?
a. genital warts
b. genital herpes
c. NGU
d. chancroid
e. syphilis

4. Chancroid is
a. sexually transmitted
b. a common disease in the U.S.
c. caused by a virus
d. caused by a spirochete
e. associated with hard, painless chancre-like lesions

5. The most common reportable infectious disease in the U.S. is
a. syphilis
b. genital herpes
c. Chlamydia infection
d. chancroid
e. candidiasis

6. Which of the following does NOT cause vaginitis?
a. Gardnerella sp.
b. Lactobacillus sp.
c. Candida sp.
d. Trichomonas sp.
e. ALL of the above cause vaginitis

124
7. The reservoir for Leptospira sp. is
a. infected humans
b. fomites
c. animal urine
d. soil and water
e. c and d only

8. The symptom of secondary syphilis is
a. neurological problems
b. giant lesions affecting many internal organs
c. a hard-based, painless chancre
d. a rash covering all parts of the body
e. all of the above

9. The human papilloma virus causes
a. syphilis
b. genital warts
c. gonorrhea
d. chancroid
e. AIDS

10. The most common cause of urinary tract infections is/are
a. members of the Enterobacteriaceae family
b. Candida albicans
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Gardnerella vaginalis
e. Trichomonas vaginalis

125
APPENDIX A

MCB 2010 Microbiology Syllabus

Week Topic Text
1

introduction, microscopy, organic cmpds 1, 4, 2
2

prokaryotic cell structure 3
3

eukaryotic cell structure, metabolism 3, 5
4

TEST I (chapters 1-5) bacterial growth 6
5

control of microbial growth 9
6

microbial genetics 7
7

TEST II (chapters 6, 9, 7) eukaryotic microbes 12
8 viruses 13

9 epidemiology and host/microbe interactions 14

10 TEST III (chapters 12-14) non-specific host defense 15

11 Immunity (specific defense) and vaccines 16, 17

12 antimicrobial drugs 10

13 Test IV (chapters 15-17, 10) diseases of respiratory system 22

14 diseases of digestive system 23

15 STDs 24

COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM (all chapters)

Professor: Teresa G. Fischer
E Mail: tfischer@ircc.cc.fl.us
Office: N207, ext. 7497
Office hours posted on door, or by appointment
__________________________________________________________________________

126

TESTING
Daily quizzes will be given over the material covered in the previous class meeting. At the end
of each unit, a unit exam will be given.
There are 5 units in the semester. Each unit grade is calculated as follows:
25% - average score of daily quizzes
75% - unit exam score

You will end up with 4 unit grades and a comprehensive final unit The lowest of the unit grades
will be dropped. If the final unit is the lowest, half of that unit will be dropped. Exact dates of
exams will be announced in lecture. NO makeup quizzes or exams will be given. If a student
misses a unit exam for any reason, that exam, and the unit, will be dropped. The first 2 lowest
quizzes will also be dropped at the end of the semester.

Grades are assigned on the following basis:
FINAL AVG GRADE
90-100 A
80-89 B
70-79 C
60-69 D
below 60 F

W - Withdraw by deadline indicated in the semester course offering schedule. Withdrawals
will not be given by the instructor past this deadline.

MAKE UP POLICY: No make-up exams will be given. Students will be allowed to drop one
unit during the semester. This should cover that unavoidable absence from one test period due
to illness, emergency, or other. Students should bank this opportunity thereby allowing them
to DROP one unit (or half of the final) if they have not missed a test.

CHEATING - Academic dishonesty will NOT be tolerated. Academic dishonesty includes
cheating on assignments, quizzes, tests and exams; unauthorized use of study materials;
plagiarism; collusion. Anyone caught cheating will receive an immediate F for the course (NO
withdraws allowed for cheaters). Anyone witnessing this inexcusable behavior, who does not
report it, is also considered to be guilty of improper conduct. Incidents of dishonesty will be
reported to the Dean of Students.

Course objectives:
1. to acquire a basic understanding of microbial
anatomy and physiology
2. to understand the infectious disease process,
and the defense mechanisms of the host
3. to understand how 1 and 2 apply to clinical situations
4. to understand basic microbiological techniques

127
CLASSROOM BEHAVIOR
Arrive to class on time. If you are late, do not disturb the students or the
professor when you enter.
Do not leave class early. If you absolutely must leave early, notify me
before class begins.
All cellular phones and beepers (unless on silent vibration) must be turned
off before class begins.
Any visitors attending lecture must be approved by me prior to class.
No activities except for those directly relating to the class will be tolerated.
Anyone who disturbs fellow classmates or the professor will be asked to
leave immediately. Re-admittance to class will be permitted only after a
conference with the professor.
It is your responsibility to ask questions in class, especially when there is a concept presented with
which you are having difficulty.

General Information
When you miss class it is your responsibility to find out what was missed. You must come to my
office to get test grades, handouts, etc. you missed due to an absence. I will not waste the other
students time providing you with this material during class. You must keep abreast of what is going on
in the class so that you do not miss a test.
Students will supply their own scantron answer sheets for the multiple choice exams. You must
use a pencil to mark your answers so tests can be graded by machine. You are responsible for ensuring
that all erasures are complete - I will not re-grade any scan-tron after it has been given to the student.
I am available ten hours during the week for tutoring if you need additional help. I will be happy
to help you if you are having problems with the material. I have several CD-ROM tutorial disks which
may be checked out for review. These may be used on your home computer, or you may take them to
the CPI lab to use on a computer there.

128
APPENDIX B
Tips on
Note-Taking, Studying, and Test-Taking

Suggestions for Note-taking

Read the text before each lecture. As a minimum, you should at least
look over the main headings in the chapter, read the first sentences,
and look over the figures.

Develop a personal shorthand system. Symbols such as = (equals),
w/o (without), - (increase), (decrease) can save you time. If you
find yourself writing the same word (human, for example) over and
over again in your notes, abbreviate it to h.

Dont take down every word your professor says, but be sure your
notes contain the main points, supporting information, and
important terms.

Watch for signals from your professor indicating important material
(This is an extremely important point.....)

If possible, sit near the front of the class to avoid distractions.

Compare your notes with those of your classmates to be sure you
understood everything and did not miss anything important.

Use a tape recorder if you have trouble catching all the points.

If you are unclear about anything, ask during class. Chances are
other students are confused as well. If you are too shy, go up after
lecture and ask, or visit your professor during her office hours.

129
Suggestions for Studying

Study in a quiet, private, well-lighted space.

Sit at a desk or table rather than lying on a couch or bed.

Establish a specific time each day to study and stick to your schedule.

Let your friends and family know when you study and ask them to
respect that time.

Review your lecture notes soon after the lectures to make sure
youve understood and recorded all the important points.

If there is anything in the textbook or lecture that you dont
understand, ask your instructor.

Study every day to avoid cramming for tests

You may find it useful to write flash cards to review terms and concepts.

As a general guideline, you should spend at least two to four hours
studying outside class for every hour spent in class.

130
Suggestions for Test-Taking

Arrive on time and well-rested for the test.

Read the question carefully to be sure you understand exactly what
its asking.

If you dont understand a test question, ask your instructor for
clarification.

Read all of the answer choices before making your selection; dont
stop at the one you first think is correct.

Dont read too much into a question - take it for exactly what it
says - there are no trick questions in this course.

Be sure to mark your answers on your scantron carefully, and be
sure to erase any incorrect answers completely.

Dont let the pace of other students influence your test-taking;
use all the time given to you if you need it.

When a test is returned, you may feel satisfied with the results. If you are
not satisfied, you must realize you have to do something to increase your
level of satisfaction or to increase your grade. In other words, if you want
to increase your grades on future tests, you must change your academic
behavior. To do this you should:

-Identify what you have done wrong on tests
-Determine why you made the mistake
-Plan to change your study activities to prevent yourself from
making the same kinds of mistakes on future tests.

131
APPENDIX C
Answers to sample questions

Chapter 1
1. e 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. a
Chapter 4
1. e 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. d
12. c 13. c 14. a
Chapter 3
1. c 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. e 6. e 7. c 8. e 9. d 10. b 11. e
12. e 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. e
Chapter 5
1. e 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. e 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. d
Chapter 6
1. b 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. e 10. d 11. c
Chapter 9
1. b 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. e 6. e 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. e
Chapter 7
1. e 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. a
12. c 13. e 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. e
Chapter 12
1. b 2. e 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. d
12. e
Chapter 13
1. b 2. e 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. e 8. e 9. d 10. b
Chapter 14
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. e 6. e 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. e
12. b 13. e 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. e 18. a 19. a
Chapter 15
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. e 6. b 7. e 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. a
Chapter 16
1. d 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. e 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. e 10. a 11. b
Chapter 10
1. c 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. e 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. e 10. b
Chapter 22
1. d 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. e 6. d 7. e 8. d 9. c 10. e
Chapter 23
1. a 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. e 9. a 10. c
Chapter 24
1. a 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. e 8. d 9. b 10. a

132

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