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MANAGEMENT
Mock CAT Test 2
SECTIONI
Verbal Ability
This set contains 25 questions
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 3: The passage given
below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer to each question.
To be, or not to be: that is the question:
Whether tis nobler in the mind to suffer
The slings and arrows of outrageous fortune
Or to take arms against a sea of troubles,
And by opposing end them?To die,to sleep,
No more; and by a sleep to say we end
The heartache, and the thousand natural shocks
That flesh is heir to,tis a consummation
Devoutly to be wishd. To die,to sleep;
To sleep: perchance to dream:ay, theres the rub;
For in that sleep of death what dreams may come,
When we have shuffled off this mortal coil,
Must give us pause: theres the respect
That makes calamity of so long life;
For who would bear the whips and scorns of time,
The oppressors wrong, the proud mans contumely,
The pangs of despisd love, the laws delay,
The insolence of office, and the spurns
That patient merit of the unworthy takes,
When he himself might his quietus make
With a bare bodkin? who would these fardels bear,
To grunt and sweat under a weary life,
But that the dread of something after death,
The undiscoverd country, from whose bourn
No traveller returns,puzzles the will,
And makes us rather bear those ills we have
Than fly to others that we know not of?
Thus conscience does make cowards of us all;
And thus the native hue of resolution

Is sicklied oer with the pale cast of thought;
And enterprises of great pith and moment,
With this regard, their currents turn awry,
And lose the name of action.
1. The passage above represents a dilemma face by the
author. Which of the following best represents that dilemma?
1. The dilemma over existencethe author questions
whether it is worthwhile to exist
2. The author is thinking about suicide and concludes
that suicide is a way out
3. The dilemma between facing the struggles of life or to
end life by suicide
4. The author ponders over a philosophical question of
being and not being
5. The author tries to unravel the mystery of existence
and its meaning
2. All of the following are mentioned as burdens of life,
EXCEPT:
A. Pride
B. Love
C. Envy
D. Patience
1. A and B
2. A, B and C
3. B, C and D
4. B and C
5. A, B and D
3. Which of the following prevents us from action,
according to the passage given above?
A. Our conscience
B. Thinking excessively
C. Fear of something after death
D. Thinking about our loved ones
1. A and B
2. A, B and C
3. A, B and D
4. A, B, C and D
5. B and C
DIRECTIONS for questions 4 to 6: In each question,
there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a
paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s)
that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then,
choose the most appropriate option.
4. A. Recently, I had a very amusing experience with a
fresh MBA who had applied for a job with us.
B. She had done a project on the corporate
governance.
C. To test her knowledge I started off with a basic
question: What is corporate governance?
D. She did not take much time to get off the starting blocks: It is about managing a company well
so that shareholders wealth is maximised.
1. A & C
2. C
3. B & D
4. D
5. B & C
5. A. Then I asked her to define the corporate finance.
B. After a bit of meandering, she repeats the first
answer.
C. I then asked her to explain the difference
between the corporate finance and the corporate
governance.
D. She gave herself up.
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Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
Instructions: This test is made very similar to the actual

CAT which is conducted by the Indian Institutes of Management. It should be used to assess yourself and to cover up your
weaknesses.
The test has 75 questions. It is to be done in one sitting in
2 hours. Mark the answers on the answer sheet. No breaks
are to be taken.
A student must show capability in all the sections. A
minimum score of 10 in each section must be aimed at. Hence
it is not advisable to leave out any section.
After finishing, check the answers. Give yourself 4 marks
for every correct answer and 1 for every wrong answer. A
net score should be arrived at after deducting the negative
marks.
Check out the solutions provided for further improvement.
The test is made by Mastermind, Chandigarh. Website:
www.mbaprep.in
MANAGEMENT
1. A
2. B
3. C and D
4. B, C and D
5. None of these
6. A. In the above incident, the student had heard the
term shareholders wealth maximisation being
repeated by different teachers in different classes.
B. She must also have seen the term being mentioned
repeatedly in the newspapers, magazines and
books.
C. So she must have thought, it is a safe answer to
give for most questions in the areas of finance.
D. Young people mouth the same meaningless phrases without knowing what they mean or whether
they are making sense.
1. A and C 2. B and D 3. C
4. D 5. None of these
Let us analyze more fundamentally the normality for
which this gospel of work is a foundation. The real basis of
normality is in reality joy and happiness. But what is happiness, and what is joy? Certainly not the eat, drink, and be
merry concept. Is happiness merely the fulfilment of the ageold dream of complete freedom to follow ones bent? We do
know that basically the real joy which makes the individual
look forward to life from day to day has to do with struggle
but not the kind of struggle which thousands of people face
each morning when they waken, a day just as yesterday and
just as tomorrow will be, a day of failure, with no work to do,
no new tasks in sight, no jobs here, no chance of success. Nor
is it the struggle which the individual finds as he wakens in the
morning with the same query that he had yesterday morning
and will have tomorrow morning: What shall I do to fill the
hours of this day?
The struggle referred to is the constant facing of challenges accompanied by a reasonable chance of success. We
crave struggles where the outcome is in doubt, where there is
no sure success or certain failure. There may be success today
and failure tomorrow, but it is in this situation that we delight
to exercise our talents. Even in the failure we save ourselves
from a superiority complex and in success from an inferiority
complex. It is in this struggle pattern that man has always been
spurred to action.
In primitive times it was a game where the stake was life
or death, and from the racial standpoint the stake is still life or
death. As Elie Faure has said, Life is a dance over fire and
water. It always was. It is in balanced struggle that we get
normality. It is on this basis that we lay the foundation of the
philosophy
Grow old along with me!
The best is yet to be,
The last of life, for which the first was made.
This type of joy in struggle for achievement is a far, far
cry from the pink-lemonade, merry-go-round, Coney Island,
jazz-party, movie, and radio mania which seems to have infested this pleasure-seeking but not pleasure-finding generation.
Undoubtedly it is from this viewpoint of work and struggle that we find Ida M. Tarbell saying: The most satisfying
interest in life, books and friends and beauty aside, is work
plain, hard, steady work.
Work which carries the connotation of workmanship
work with at least a low minimum of security but still work
represents the pattern of normality. This level of security fol-
lowing modern civilisations repeated guaranteeNo man shall

starveshould be sufficient to maintain respectability. Guaranteed security beyond this is very likely to rob the great mass
of men of the mainspring of action. Such a guarantee would
take away the thrill of struggle and would be synonymous with
a situation where one was guaranteed success in the outcome
of a game. Yet struggle without the minimum guarantee is likely to paralyse individuals with fear, in which case their normal
functioning is impossible.
7. What is the meaning of the following lines in the context of the passage: Grow old along with me!/The best is yet
to be,/The last of life, for which the first was made.
1. That the best things in life are still to come till the last
of life
2. That one must be optimistic as the best things in life
happen in old age
3. That the challenges in life only increase with age and
man must keep working
4. That life goes on and great things happen, for which life
has been made in the first place
5. That it is a philosophy on which life is based.
8. This passage is taken from an essay titled Man must
work. What should have come before the excerpt that is given
above?
1. A description of what happens if man does not work
2. An explanation of what constitutes work
3. A description of the gospel of work
4. A description of the foundation of work as a requirement
5. An explanation of work as a philosophy
9. Which of the following best sums up the point made
by the author with regard to guaranteed security?
1. Security must be guaranteed, only then can work to his
best
2. Man always look for security and that is a basic reason
why he works in the first place
3. Mans need for security must be balanced by his need
for work
4. Man can work at his best once his minimum needs are
looked after
5. We take security as granted and then do our best to
achieve our goals
DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 12: Each question is a
logical sequence of statements with a missing link, the location
of which is shown parenthetically. From the five choices available, choose the one which best fits the sentence logically.
10. For most people, typing is not the ideal way to interface with computers. If we could speak to our machines, even
the most confirmed Luddite would use them more enthusiastically. (....) why?
1. It is almost certain that new technologies that permit
us to communicate with computers will be available
within a decade.
2. However, computers still remain mans best friend
3. There will be more people buying more computers and
using them.
4. However, some resistance to using computers will
always remain.
5. Nonetheless, computers remain more or less deaf and
mute.
11. (....) Were the charge fair, it would be reassuring, since ancient Hinduism was tolerant in its own way. But

MANAGEMENT
the BJP has no desire to go back to ancient Hinduism. Many of
its leaders belong to the Arya Samaj sect that eschews idol
worship and castigates traditional Hinduism.
1. The BJPs leaders are embroiled in corruption cases.
2. The BJP has been accused of religious fundamentalism.
3. Unlike other large political parties, which blow with the
prevailing wind, the BJP has been known to take a hard
and unyielding stand on religious matters.
4. The BJP has been charged with stirring up religious controversies for political advantage.
5. The BJP has been charged with alleviating the Hindus
only.
12. Travelling by train and bus in the West and in India
can give one fascinating glimpses of cultural differences. In the
West, it is impolite to ask the stranger who happens to be sitting next to you personal questions. So you make inane conversation about the weather. (....) It shows that you are being
as cold as the Bering Strait.
1. In India, on the other hand, family is important.
2. You cannot speak about anything else.
3. In India, it is in fact impolite not to ask personal questions.
4. In fact, you must talk about being as cold as the Bering
Strait.
5. In fact you end up writing a weather report.
In him France gave the world one of the major figures of
the intellectual life of our times, announced Jacques Chirac,
the French President, on the day after Jacques Derridas death.
Mr Derrida himself disagreed with pretty much everything anyone said about him; but he may have let that encomium pass.
The inventor of deconstructionan ill-defined habit of dismantling texts by revealing their assumptions and contradictionswas indeed, and unfortunately, one of the most cited
modern scholars in the humanities.
He was also the most controversial. In 1992 a proposal to
award him an honorary doctorate at Cambridge University
caused such howls that the university was forced to put the
matter to a ballotthe first time this had happened in 30
years. Amid charges that Mr Derridas work was absurd, vapid
and pernicious, the degree was awarded in the end, by 336
votes to 204.
The academy is often fractious, but this was different. It
is not that Mr Derridas views, or his arguments for them, were
unusually contentious. He not only contradicted himself, over
and over again, but vehemently resisted any attempt to clarify
his ideas. A critique of what I do, he said, is indeed impossible.
There has always been a market for obscurantism.
Socrates railed against the followers of Heraclitus of Ephesus
for much the same reasons that Mr Derridas critics berate his
unfortunate disciples: If you ask one of them a question, they
draw out enigmatic little expressions from their quiver, so to
speak, and shoot one off; and if you try to get hold of an
account of what that one meant, youre transfixed by another
novel set of metaphors. Youll never get anywhere with any of
them.
Subjected to his weak puns (logical phallusies was a
famous example), bombastic rhetoric and illogical ramblings,
an open-minded reader might suspect Mr Derrida of charla-
tanism. That would be going too far, however. He was a sincere

and learned man, if a confused one, who offered some academics and students just what they were looking for.
Mr Derridas father was a salesman of Sephardic Jewish
extraction. Born in a suburb of Algiers, Jacques was expelled
from his school at the age of 12 because of the Vichy governments racial laws. With some difficulty, in 1952 he succeeded
in entering the elite Ecole Normale Suprieure in Paris and
attended the lectures of Michel Foucault. He began to lecture at
the Ecole Normale in 1964. Two years later, at a conference at
Johns Hopkins University in Baltimore, he laid the foundations
of his reputation in America with a bold new way to approach
literary texts and lay bare their ideological presuppositions.
Three books followed in 1967, including Of Grammatology
and Writing and Difference. A radical star was born.
Mr Derridas style of deconstruction flowered especially
in American departments of comparative literature, where it
became interwoven with Marxism, feminism and anti-colonialism. Although by the early 1980s French academics had largely tired of trying to make sense of him, Americas teachers of
literature increasingly embraced Mr Derrida. Armed with an
impenetrable new vocabulary, and without having to master
any rigorous thought, they could masquerade as social, political and philosophical critics. Mr Derrida always denied any
responsibility for the undisciplined nihilism of his imitators,
who gave the strong impression that deconstructionism had
somehow succeeded in undermining, or even in refuting, the
notion of objective truth. But his work could not easily be
interpreted in any other way.
A crisis came in 1987. The New York Times revealed that
Paul de Man, a friend of Mr Derridas and one of Americas
leading deconstructionists, had written anti-Semitic articles for
a pro-Nazi Belgian newspaper in 1940-42. Coincidentally, also
in 1987, evidence began to emerge of the hidden Nazi past of
the German philosopher Martin Heidegger, who had been a
major influence on Mr Derrida. Mr Derridas response was disastrous. He used deconstructionist techniques to defend the
two men, laying down a fog of convoluted rhetoric in a doomed
attempt to exonerate them. This fed straight into the hands of
his critics, who had always argued that the playful evasiveness
of deconstruction masked its moral and intellectual bankruptcy. The New York Review of Books quipped that deconstruction
means never having to say youre sorry.
Mr Derrida also pursued far worthier causes. He fought
for the rights of Algerian immigrants in France, opposed
apartheid and campaigned for Czech dissidents. As his influence waned, his fame grew. Abandoning his earlier reticence,
he submitted to interviews and photographs. The books continued to flow (80 volumes in all) as his concerns moved away
from literary and philosophical texts to ethical and political
subjects, but they were no easier to follow. In his final years he
became increasingly concerned with religion, and some theologians started to show interest in his work. God help them.
13. What does the author imply in the last line God help
them?
1. Understanding Derridas work requires the help of God.
2. As they are theologians, Gods help would help them
achieve their goals.
3. Making sense of Derrida was difficult, Gods help might
help in unraveling his thoughts.
4. As Derrida deconstructed everything, theologians
would need the help of God in understanding him.
5. The author is being sarcastic about the efforts of

MANAGEMENT
theologians
14. What would be a definition of deconstructionism, as
per the passage?
A. a bold new way to approach literary texts and lay bare
their ideological presuppositions.
B. it was interwoven with Marxism, feminism and anticolonialism.
C. breaking up ideas and texts by looking at their assumptions and contradictions.
1. A, B and C
2. A and B
3. Only C
4. Only A
5. B and C
15. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Derrida was not reviled in the American press for supporting the Nazis.
B. Not much is known about Derridas past and hence it is
difficult to say what he did during the World War days.
C. The books that Derrida wrote were not taken seriously
by intellectuals of his time.
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. B and C
4. A, B and C
5. None of these
DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 18: Fill up the blanks,
numbered [16], [17] and [18], in the passage below with the
most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.
Caught in a/ an [16] of poverty, disease and
ignorance, many Indian villagers are leading a life not fit for a
human. Not only does it lead them to a precarious existence,
but also many times it makes them barter their very life for
something as small as a one-acre piece of land. This has been
the biggest slap on the face of the so-called land reforms,
which nobody had any intention of carrying out. To
[17] the intent of the reforms, the big landlords
ensured that whatever land was willy-nilly given to the poor
landless labourers, was so [18] in terms of quality
that probably the landless were better off without it.
16. 1. network
2. vortex
3. channel
4. atmosphere
5. trap
17. 1. fructify
2. promote
3.cap
4. nullify
5. cancel
18. 1. fertile
2. shoddy
3. small
4. good
5. poor
The problem of the distribution of power is a more difficult one than the problem of the distribution of wealth. The
machinery of representative government has concentrated on
ultimate power as the only important matter, and has ignored
immediate executive power. Almost nothing has been done to
democratise administration. Government officials, by virtue of
their income, security, and social position are likely to be on
the side of the rich, who have been their daily associates ever
since the time of school and college. And whether or not they
are on the side of the rich, they are not likely, for the reasons
we have been considering, to be genuinely in favour of
progress. What applies to government officials applies also to
members of Parliament, with the sole difference that they have
had to recommend themselves to a constituency.
This, however, only adds hypocrisy to the other qualities
of a ruling caste. Whoever has stood in the lobby of the House
of Commons watching members emerge with wandering eyes
and hypocritical smiles, until the constituent is espied, his arm
taken, my dear fellow whispered in his ear, and his steps guided toward the inner precinct, whoever, observing this, has
realized that these are the arts by which men become and
remain legislators, can hardly fail to feel that democracy as it
exists is not an absolutely perfect instrument of government.
It is a painful fact that the ordinary voter is quite blind to insincerity. The man who does not care about any definite political
measures can generally be won by corruption or flattery, open
or concealed; the man who is set on securing reforms will generally prefer an ambitious windbag, as soon as he has become
a power by the enthusiasm he has aroused, will sell his influence to the governing clique, sometimes openly, sometimes by
the more subtle method of intentionally failing at a crisis. This
is part of the normal working of democracy as embodied in
representative institutions. Yet a cure must be found if democracy is not to remain a farce.
One of the sources of evil in modern large democracies is
the fact that most of the electorate has no direct or vital interest in most of the questions that arise. Should Welsh children
be allowed the use of the Welsh language in school? Should
gypsies be compelled to abandon their nomadic life at the bidding of the education authorities? Should miners have an
eight-hour day? Should Christian scientists be compelled to
call in doctors in case of serious illness? These are matters of
passionate interest to certain sections of the community, but
of very little interest to the great majority. If they are decided
according to the wishes of the numerical majority, the intense
desires of minority will be overborne by the very slight and
uniformed whims of the different remainder. If the minority
are geographically concentrated, they have a good chance of
getting their way, by the wholly beneficent process which its
enemies describe as long rolling. But if they are scattered and
politically feeble, like the gypsies and the Christian Scientists,
they stand a very poor chance against the prejudices of the
majority. Even when they are geographically concentrated, like
the Irish, they may fail to obtain their wishes, because they
arouse some hostility or some instinct of domination in the
majority. Such a state of affairs is the negation of all democratic principles.
The tyranny of the majority is a very real danger. It is a
mistake to suppose that the majority is necessarily right. On
every new question the majority is always wrong at first. In
matters where the state must act as a whole, such as tariffs, for
example, decision by majorities is probably the best method
that can be devised. But there are a great many questions in
which there is no need of a uniform decision. Wherever divergent action by different groups is possible without anarchy, it
ought to be permitted. In such cases it will be found by those
who consider past history that, whenever any new fundamental issue arises, the majority are in the wrong, because they are
guided by prejudice and habit. Progress comes through the
gradual effect of a minority in converting opinion and altering
custom. At one time not so very long ago it was considered
monstrous wickedness to maintain that old women ought to be
burnt as witches. If those who held this opinion have been
forcibly suppressed, we should still be steeped in medical superstition. For such reasons, it is of the utmost importance that the
majority should refrain from imposing its will as regards matters
in which uniformity is not absolutely necessary.
19. What does the author imply by the phrase the tyranny of the majority?
1. The majority decision making is faulty and prejudicial
and works against some groups

MANAGEMENT
2. In a democracy, the will of the majority must prevail,
even if it is tyrannical sometimes
3. Decision by majorities is the best method that can be
devised for decision making in a democracy
4. Majority decisions are required wherever divergent
action by different groups is possible without anarchy
5. The majority is tyrannical by nature and the system
supports them.
20. Why do you think the author assumes that the
bureaucrats are likely to support the rich?
1. Because the rich class are the ones who contribute the
most to their salaries.
2. Because their wealth and social position are closer to
that of the rich.
3. Because they all look up to the rich class as the people
to follow.
4. Because they get most of their bribes from the rich.
5. Because they depend on the rich for the perks of social
life
21. Who among the following would a reformist voter
most probably support?
1. An ambitious politician
2. An ambitious man who is also honest
3. An ambitious politician with a gift of oratory
4. A learned politician
5. A non-controversial politician who can carry the
majority with him
24. A. George Bernard Shaw reckoned that the English

spell it so abominably that no man can teach himself what it sounds like.
B. It is easy to find words like their/there/theyre
with the same sounds but different spellings.
C. Many people argue that English spelling is simply
awful.
D. Six out of 10 15-year-olds cant write 10 lines without making at least one spelling mistake and
adults struggle with words such as accommodate
and broccoli all their lives.
E. Some words have unique spellings all of their own,
such as colonel and yacht.
1. AEDCB
2. CABED
3. AEDBC
4. CADEB
5. CBAED
25. A. The affectless uniformity of the web.
B. Look at the world we have left to the hapless
adolescents of the early 21st century.
C. Danger lurking: perverts round every corner,
terrorists in the shadows.
D. But the bargain has been broken, the debt called in.
E. A world where the sea kills fish, rain dissolves trees
and sex means death.
F. A world of food fads and neuroses, of exploitation
through mass media.
1. BDEFCE
2. FACEBD
3. DBFACE
4. BAFCED
DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 25: In each question,

there are 4-6 sentences. The sentences labelled A, B, C, and so
on, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a
coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose
the most appropriate option.
22. A. What is more remarkable, Mr Buffett put ego aside
and gave the money to an outfit bearing someone
elses name.
B. His example to plutocrats everywhere amounts to
an altruistic call to action, part of an attempt with
Mr Gates to make philanthropy as much about the
doing as about the donating.
C. Mr Buffetts splendid liberality is noteworthy for
more than its magnitude.
D. With the Nebraskan billions to add to $30 billion
of their own, Bill and Melinda Gates will be in
charge of a foundation the size of a multinational
company such as Disney, Dell or Honda.
1. ABCD
2. ADCB
3. DACB
4. DCAB
5. BADC
23. A. And so wed all love to understand, harness, and
enhance that kind of thinking.
B. But how the minds of truly original problem
solvers such as John Nash work remains pretty
much a mystery.
C. How nations can promote creativity is the subject
of many studies, including one by Edward
Prescott, who won a Nobel Prize in economics.
D. Such inventions strike us as magical, perhaps the
reason one synonym for creativity is wizardry.
E. While most of us can imagine writing a book and
maybe painting a picture, very few of us can imagine proving Fermats Last Theorem.
1. ACBED
2. EDBCA
3. EBDAC
4. CEDBA
5. DECBA
SECTIONII
Quantitative Ability
This section contains 25 questions
26. We are given that
f(x, y) = xy if x < y
= x2 + y2 if x = y
x
=
if x > y
y
and f(x) = x + 3
Which of the following is true?
1. f(2, 4), 7(5, 8), f(10, 2) is not a perfect square
2. f([f(2, 2), f(4, 5)] = f[f(4, 5), 7(2, 2)]
3. f[f(1, 2), f(2, 1)] = f[f(2, 3)]
4. Both (1) and (2)
5. None of these
27. In the figure, SU || QT and ST || QR. U is the midpoint
to PT. And if A[SUTQ] = m A[STRQ] the value of m:
P
U
S
1. 1
2. 3
3. 1.5
4. 2
5. 2.5
28. When dates are written using eight digits, e.g. 06 02
2003 for 6th Feb 2003, 20th February 2002 is a pallindromic
date since 20 02 2002 has the same digits in the same order when
read in reverse. The previous pallindromic date and the next few
all occur in the months of February. What will be the next month
other than February to have a pallindromic date in it?
1. March
2. April
3. December
4. October
5. September

MANAGEMENT
29. Two people, A and B, play the following game with a
deck of 32 cards. With A starting, and thereafter the players
alternating, each player takes either 1 card or a prime number
of cards. Eventually all of the cards are chosen, and the person
who has none to pick up is the loser. If A starts and picks up
23 cards in his first move, then how many does B need to pick
up in order to win?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5
5. None of these
30. Please refer to the figure below:
A
ABC is an quilateral triangle, with side = 5 cm. The circle

with centre O, is the incircle of the ABC and there is another
circle drawn with radius r and touching two sides of the
triangle and the encircle itself. What is the value of r.
1.
4.
5 3
6
5
2.
5 3
2
3.
6
6 3
5. None of these
6 3
31. A man had three daughters who celebrated their

birthday on the same day, but were born in 1977, 1978 and
1979 respectively. On one such birthday, if the product of their
ages was divided by their respective ages in turn, the sum of
quotients would have been 74. Find the age of the eldest
daughter.
1. 6
2. 8
3. 7
4. 9
5. None of these
32. If the roots of ax + bx + c = 0 are in the ratio of
m : n, then
1. mna = (m + n)c
2. mnb = (m + n) ac
3. mnb = (m + n)ac
4. mn = (m + n) ab
5. None of these
33. Find the value of k so that the following equations
are consistent:
2x + 3y + 4 = 0
3x + 4y + 6 = 0
4x + 5y k = 0
1. 2
2. 7
3. 8
4. 10.5
5. 11
(1 + x)
34. If f(x) =
, what is the value of f(f(2x))?
(1 x)
1
3. x
4. 1
5. 0
2x
35. A varies inversely as the square of B such that
A
B
n
5
n+1
4
What is the value of n?
8
3
2
7
5
1. 1
2. 1
3. 1
4. 1
5. 1
15
7
5
9
7
1. x
2.
36. If in ABC, AB = 2,AC = 2, and BC =1 + 3,

find B.
1. 60
2. 45
3. 30
4. 90
5. None of these
37. One root of the equation ax + bx + c = 0 is the square
of the other. Which of the following holds?
1. b2 = (a 2 c 3 + a 3 c 2)
2. b = (a 3c
1
3
+a 3c )3
3. b 3 = (a 2 c 2)
4. b = a(b +c)
5. None of these
38. In the figure below, a

circular swimming pool (the
unshaded area) is surrounded by
a circular walkway (the shaded
area). Both the circular swimO
ming pool and the entire circular
region consisting of the swimming pool and the walkway have
the centre O. If the radius of the swimming pool is 10 meters
and the width of the walkway is 5 meters, how much greater
than the surface area of the swimming pool is the area of the
walkway?
1. 100
2. 50
3. 25
4. 125
5. None of these
39. A and B swim a 1500 m race in a 25 m swimming pool.
A swims 50 metres in the time B takes to swim 40 m. If both
swim at a constant rate, how many times do they meet, before
A completes the race?
1. 58
2. 60
3. 59
4. 62
5. 63
40. If the angles of a quadrilateral form an arithmetic progression, and the third angle measures three times the first,
find the smallest angle.
1. 90 deg 2. 72 deg 3. 54 deg 4. 36 deg 5. 44 deg
41. The number 311311311311311311311 is:
1. divisible both by 3 and 11
2. divisible by 3 but not by 11
3. divisible by 11 but not by 3
4. divisible by 3, 7 and 11
5. neither divisible by 3, 7 or by 11
42. A rectangular block 10 cm by 15 cm by 20 cm is cut
into exact number of equal cubes. The least possible number
of cubes will be:
1. 12
2. 16
3. 18
4. 24
5. 25
43. Four circular coins of equal radius are placed with
their centres coinciding with the four vertices of a square. Each
coin touches two other coins. If the inside area enclosed by the
four coins is given to be 42 cm2, then the radius of the coins is
equal to:
1. 5 cm
2. 7 cm
3. 10 cm
4. 14 cm
5. None of these
44. An equilateral triangle, a square and a circle have
equal perimeters. If T denotes the area of the triangle; S, the
area of the square and C, the area of the circle, then:
1. T < S < C
2. S < T < C
3. C < S < T
4. T < C < S
5. S < C < T
45. 378 oranges and 462 mangoes are to be distributed
among some girls so that each girl may get as many mangoes
and as many oranges as another girl. The largest possible number of girls and the least possible number of fruits of each kind
which a girl gets are:
1. 42, 9, 11
2. 42, 12, 9
3. 24, 12, 13
4. 14, 15, 16
5. 24, 9, 11
46. Let x1, x2 be the roots of the equation x2 3x + p = 0
and let x3, x4 be the roots of the equation x2 12x + q = 0. If the
numbers x1, x2, x3, x4 (in order) from an increasing GP, then:
1. p = 2, q = 32
2. p = 4, q = 32
3. p = 2, q = 16
4. p = 4, q = 16
5. p = 3, q = 18
47. G(x) = x2 + 4, h(x) = x2, F(x) = (x 1)2 = 25. Then the

MANAGEMENT
value of
G(x)
is:
h(x)
1. 1
1
9
4. 1
2. 1
1
4
1
9
3. 1
1
5
5. Either (1) or (4)
DIRECTIONS for questions 48 to 50: Read the detail and

answer the following questions.
A new system is devised wherein a number is presented
using integers 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4 only. In this system,
x 5
(i = 1, 2, ..x) will be presented as ax ax 1 ai where
ai always belongs to {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} for all i = 1, 2, .., x. Thus,

the number 231 in this system would mean 2 52 + 3 51 + 1
50 = 66 in the decimal system. Similarly, 17 of the decimal
system would be written as 32 in the new system. Unless
otherwise stated, for these problems, all numbers are assumed
to be in the new system.
48. 140 42 = ?
1. 103
2. 98
3. 43
4. 53
5. None of these
49. 43 in the decimal system = ? (in the new system)
1. 40 + 43
2. 20 + 23
3. 40 + 23
4. 75
5. None of these
50. If 12 y = 120, then y = ?
1. 10
2. 15
3. 5
4. 20
5. None of these
SECTIONIII
Data Interpretation/Reasoning
This section contains 25 questions
DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 54: Refer to the data
below.
The performance of a few of the foreign banks in India is
given in the table below.
Deposits
(crore)
Average
working
funds
(crore)
4.000
5.200
300
Citibank
4.250
3.750
225
Bank of America
2.000
2.250
2.250
ABN Amro
7.750
8.000
Deutsche Bank
7.000
8.500
IndusInd Bank
1.500
Stan Commercial
Bank
100
ANZ Grindlays
Operation
g profits
(crore)
Interest
spread
(%)
5
Profitibility
(%)
Business
per branch
(crore)
Employee
productivity (lakh)
2.080
240
Bank
4
625
375
11
500
275
450
640
150
500
850
250
2.000
100
250
156
120
10
240
50
Average working funds = (Deposits + Advances) 2

Interest spread = [(Interest received Interest paid)]
[Average working funds] 100
Profitability = (Net profit Average working funds) 100
Net profits = Operating profits - Provisioning
Business per branch = [Deposits + Advances] [Number of
branches]
Employee productivity = Operating profits Number of
employees
51. Which bank had the highest volume of advances?
1. ANZ Grindlays Bank 2. Deutsche Bank
3. Bank of America
4. Citibank
5. ABN Amro
52. Which bank had the maximum provisions for the
year?
1. Stan Commercial Bank
2. IndusInd Bank
3. ABN-Amro
4. Deutsche Bank
5. Bank of America
53. The interest spread for Bank of America was higher
than that of ANZ Grindlays Bank by
1. 12.5 crore
2. 14.5 crore
3. 10 crore
4. 10 crore
5. None of these
54. The number of employees are the highest for which
bank?
1. Citibank
2. ANZ Grindlays Bank
3. ABN-Amro
4. Bank of America
5. Stan Commercial Bank
DIRECTIONS for questions 55 to 58: Read the following
information and answer the questions that follow.
Twelve cricket teams participated in a national level
cricket tournament. These teams were distributed equally into
two pools A and B. In the first round, each team played a match
against all the other teams in its pool. Then three teams with
highest average points from each pool qualified for the second
round where all the teams played against each other once.
Again, three teams with highest average points qualified for
the final. In the final round, all the teams played a match
against each other and the one with the highest average points
was declared to be the winner of the tournament. A winner of
any match gets two points, the loser loses one point and in
case of a draw both the teams get one point each. Average
points of a team are defined as the total points earned by the
team so far divided by the number of matches played by the
team so far.
The following table gives the total points earned and the
average points for each team at the end of the tournament.
Teams
Total
Average
points
A1 A2
14
0
1.17 0
A3
5
0.5
A4
0
0
A5
8
0.8
A6 B1 B2 B3
3
-3 13
3
0.6 -0.6 1.08 0.6
B4 B5 B6
6
2
7
0.6 0.4 0.58
Also,
I. The winner of the tournament won both its matches in
the finals.
II. In second round, the total points earned by all the
teams are 50.
55. Which two teams do not play against each other in the
finals?
1. A1, B2
2. A1, B6
3. A5, B2
4. B2, B6
5. None of these
56. Find the total number of matches won by A2 and A4
in the first round.
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
5. 4
57. How many points did the second runner up earn in
the finals?
1. 2
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3 5. Cannot be determined
58. After round 2, the highest average points of any team
are:
1. 1
2. 1.2
3. 1.3 4. 1.4 5. Cannot be determined
DIRECTIONS for questions 59 to 62: Read the sixteen
statements given below and answer the questions that follow.
S 1: There is a group of seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F
and G.
S 2: There are four males, three females, two married
couples and three unmarried persons in the group.
S 3: These seven persons are seated in a row on the
bench.
S 4: Their professions are: engineer, teacher, doctor,

MANAGEMENT
Psychologist, entrepreneur, architect and student.
B, the psychologist, is not married and is the most
intelligent.
S 6: The engineer is married to the teacher, who is the
least intelligent of the group.
S 7: D is an architect. He is sitting in the centre.
S 8: The student is sitting on the rightmost corner of
the bench.
S 9: The doctor is married to C. C is the second most
intelligent of the group followed by her husband.
S 10: The least intelligent of the group is sitting on the
immediate left of C. The most intelligent is sitting
on the immediate left of F.
S 11: There are as many more intelligent persons than
the engineer as there are less intelligent.
S 12: Student who is a male and unmarried has two
females sitting next to him.
S 13: The psychologist is a female and unmarried.
S 14: C, an entrepreneur, sitting immediately left of her
husband.
S 15: The student is more intelligent than the architect.
They have two people in between them.
S 16: E is married and is sitting at the left most position
of the row.
59. Who is sitting on the immediate right of D?
1. B
2. E
3. C
4. D
5. None of F, E, C.
60. What is the profession of A?

1. Engineer
2. Doctor
3. Teacher
4. Data insufficient 5. None of the above
61. What is the profession of F?
1. Doctor
2. Engineer
3. Teacher
4. Data insufficient 5. None of the above
62. Which two are sitting together?
1. D and E
2. E and A
3. Teacher and Entrepreneur
4. Engineer and doctor
5. None of the above
S 5:
Part V
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
I
J
K
L
M
N
O
P
Q
R
S
T
R1
30
2
1
0
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
0
0
0
0
5
5
0
0
0
R2
13
7
0
0
19
0
0
0
0
0
0
6
0
0
0
0
0
1
4
0
R3
2
10
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
R4
22
16
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
R5
11
2
0
0
2
0
0
0
0
1
0
0
0
0
4
0
0
1
0
0
Questions 63 to 66:
There are three coalitions, namely Apple, Banana and
Guava, in the national politics of a Socialist Democratic country on this Earth. Apple, which has won 255 seats in the current election, comprises of A, C, D, E, and J. Banana, which has
won 232 seats in the current election, comprises of B, F, G, H,
I, K, L, M, N, and O. Rest of the parties belong to Guava coalition. The total number of seats contested in the election was
509.
Rules of Government Formation:
I. If a coalition gets more then half of the total
seats
then
it
can
form
the
national
government.
II. If no one gets the required majority then the
nation will go for another general election.
R6
8
18
12
0
0
0
0
0
0
3
0
1
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
0
R7
18
38
0
0
0
0
0
12
0
0
9
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
R8
1
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
R9
8
8
0
0
0
0
0
0
11
0
0
0
0
1
1
0
0
0
0
0
R10
6
24
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
8
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
R11
19
10
4
35
0
19
16
0
0
2
0
1
0
5
0
0
0
1
0
4
R12
7
3
26
1
0
0
0
0
0
3
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
Here, R 1 implies Region 1, R 2 implies Region 2 and so on.

63. Party E comes out of Apple coalition and joins Banana
coalition; party J pulls itself out of Apple coalition joins Guava
coalition; party F and G comes out of Banana coalition and joins
Apple coalition; and party A in Region 6 splits into two groups
of equal representatives, one group remains with the Apple
coalition and another joins Guava coalition. In this scenario
which coalition will have the required numbers to form the
national government?
1. Apple
2. Banana
3. Guava
4. Both (1) and (2)
5. Nation will have to go in for another general election
64. Five seats fell vacant in Region 12 after the untimely

death of the sitting members of the current Parliament. Two of
these seats were formerly won by party C, two by party A, and
one by party B. After fresh elections in these five seats, party C
retained one of the seat and the other seat went to party A;
party A retained one seat and the other went to party B; and
party B retained its only seat which went for re-elections. The
percentage of seats of party C in region 12 is:
1. 72.5%
2. 65%
3. 62.5%
4. 60%
5. 58

MANAGEMENT
65. It has been seen that the number of seats won by
party A in region 1 is directly proportional to the number of
voters who voted in the elections. In the last elections all 10
million listed voters voted in region 1. In the current election
there is a ten per cent increase in the list of eligible voters, out
of which eighty per cent voted in addition to the 10 million
voters who voted last time Assuming that in the other regions
party A has won same number of seats as in the last elections,
what will be the approximate number of seats won by party A
in the current elections?
1. 147 2. 146 3. 145 4. 137 5. Cannot be determined.
66. Last election in Region 10, out of ten million voters
thirty per cent were very old voters. In the current elections
fifty per cent of them died and were removed from the list of
eligible voters. At the same time two million new citizens got
voting rights. If the number of seats won by party B in region
10 is directly proportional to the number of votes in that
region then approximately how many seats party B will win?
1. 25 2. 24 3. 23 4. 21 5. Cannot be determined
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered.

67. Find integer c, if the equation x2 2x + c = 0 has
rational roots.
I. Only one of the roots is a natural number.
II. The product of the roots is zero.
68. What is the total number of coins in a bag containing
only 25 paise and 1 rupee coins?
I. Total number of coins equals twice the number
of 1 rupee coins.
II. If the number of 25 paise coins doubles, the bag
will have Rs 150 and if the number rupee coins
halve the bag will have Rs 75.
69. Four balls red, blue, green and yellow are to be placed
in four boxes of different colours: red, blue, yellow and green.
If each box is to contain exactly one ball and the colour of the
box and the occupying ball cannot be same, then what is the
colour of the box containing the blue ball?
I. The yellow ball is in the blue box.
II. The yellow box has the red ball.
70. O is the centre of the circle and the length of tangent
AB is 8 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
DIRECTIONS for Qs 67 to 69:

Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using A alone
but not by B.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using B alone
but not by A.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either
statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered only by using
both statements together.
C
D
A
O
I. CD = 12 cm
II. AD = 10 cm
DIRECTIONS for questions 71 to 75: Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.
Number of questions solved correctly by four candidates in 30 tests.
Test
No
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
QA
4
6
12
16
6
8
18
22
20
18
16
10
1
2
4
10
12
19
25
3
10
7
6
1
0
20
25
18
17
9
AMIT
DI
10
9
1
13
7
23
9
17
19
8
19
4
6
7
8
18
10
7
12
5
0
9
1
3
4
14
4
1
2
5
VA
12
11
3
9
20
0
7
4
18
7
7
3
0
5
2
8
23
19
4
21
9
23
2
20
8
13
15
2
4
8
RC
7
10
5
14
6
18
6
2
6
7
0
5
13
8
9
7
10
6
6
7
4
3
3
0
6
7
18
3
7
11
BIRJOO
DS
3
4
7
0
1
2
10
3
10
0
10
14
1
8
14
11
3
2
0
8
19
7
5
12
8
9
10
3
3
6
QA
19
20
11
9
0
10
3
11
18
7
4
18
11
9
13
2
15
1
23
3
5
13
10
8
9
12
2
1
0
23
DI
7
8
9
9
13
8
4
7
9
3
12
6
13
2
8
1
2
7
11
7
15
4
9
6
15
7
3
4
11
21
VA
6
9
3
9
11
7
6
6
19
8
11
3
18
3
4
3
1
2
4
5
7
8
7
13
4
11
9
6
9
18
RC
11
14
4
8
11
15
14
3
8
6
5
9
7
4
0
3
15
3
12
9
8
9
15
8
5
8
20
8
8
1
SONIA
DS
8
2
7
19
11
16
5
0
4
4
7
7
5
14
3
8
0
4
2
19
11
1
6
5
7
10
5
10
8
10
QA
11
8
7
13
7
16
19
11
13
19
4
3
3
9
7
15
10
19
21
9
3
22
8
18
13
25
19
13
18
19
DI
2
3
9
11
9
12
8
18
19
9
7
11
4
10
8
17
11
21
9
6
1
2
10
26
14
24
11
21
20
6
VA
4
6
3
9
4
3
7
14
24
4
2
6
8
8
13
7
4
21
23
7
4
30
16
1
2
15
19
20
18
7
SOFIA
RC
1
0
18
7
18
4
13
15
26
3
10
1
6
7
6
16
1
3
3
8
8
1
6
7
8
9
11
11
2
8
DS
9
7
12
8
9
5
14
11
3
2
9
5
5
11
18
5
20
1
4
0
18
4
3
13
17
19
3
4
5
9
QA
17
13
9
14
12
12
3
18
13
14
12
13
18
19
23
11
12
9
8
15
16
4
18
9
18
17
16
13
6
5
DI
4
3
2
7
11
3
2
8
8
6
13
10
3
11
7
18
13
11
12
9
13
14
15
16
11
10
9
13
4
3
VA
5
6
8
12
2
6
17
0
7
5
12
4
9
19
3
10
7
15
13
8
8
5
11
12
19
11
18
7
2
1
Note: Each test had five different areas QA, DI, VA, RC and DS.

RC
7
8
8
11
1
12
19
9
6
8
11
8
8
18
18
17
9
16
11
7
7
8
5
4
3
13
11
8
3
4
DS
4
9
11
2
11
5
4
1
7
9
4
5
3
9
4
5
10
11
9
6
9
7
6
7
8
15
12
9
5
6
MANAGEMENT
71. Which candidate solved the maximum number of
questions correctly in all the five areas combined for any test?
1. Sonia
2. Sofia
3. Birjoo
4. Amit
5. None of these
72. Among all the 30 tests, in which test was the sum of
the number of questions solved correctly by all the four
candidates the maximum?
1. Test No. 22
2. Test No. 8
3. Test No. 9
4. Test No. 26
5. Test No. 11
73. For any candidate the difference between the maximum number of questions solved in an area in any of the 30
tests and the minimum number of questions solved in the
same area in any of the other tests is called the deviation of
that candidate in that area. The deviation of Sonia is the

highest in which area?
1. DS
2. DI
3. QA
4. RC
5. VA
74. Find the number of tests in which at least one question of every area has been solved correctly by every candidate.
1. 14
2. 13
3. 11
4. 15
5. None of these
75. How many questions from DI were solved correctly by
Birjoo in all the 30 tests put together?
1. 855
2. 257
3. 558
4. 816
5. 241
(Answers are published in Print Edition of October 2008 issue of THE COMPETITION MASTER)
You can buy your copy from your local news agent or directly from us by sending Rs 50 by
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