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MCQ in EST by Melvin C. Arceo of PERC DC
MCQ in EST by Melvin C. Arceo of PERC DC
QUESTIONS
IN
ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS AND
TECHNOLOGIES (EST)
d. FSK
21. Start and stop bits, respectively, are
a. Mark, space
b. Space, mark
c. Space, space
d. Mark, mark
22. It is the processing of analog signals using
digital methods and includes band limiting
and signals with filters, amplitude
equalization, and phase shifting
a. Digital communications
b. Digital Signal Processing
c. Data communications
d. Carrier recovery method
23. It is a network access method used primarily
with LANs configured in a ring topology
using either baseband or broadband
transmission formats
a. Ethernet
b. Token passing
c. Token ring
d. Token bus
24. A small telephone switching system that can
be used as a LAN is called
a. Ring
b. WAN
c. UART
d. PBX
25. The most common method used for
sampling voice signals in PCM systems
a. unnatural sampling
b. flat top sampling
c. natural sampling
d. free sampling
26. In PCM, it converts the PAM sampled to
parallel PCM codes
a. Analog-to-Digital converter
b. Digital-to-analog converter
c. Pre-emphasis circuit
d. Compander
27. The OSI layer that provides the control
functions necessary to establish, manage and
terminated the connections as required to
satisfy the user request.
a. Application layer
b. Network layer
c. Session layer
d. Physical layer
28. In PAM demultiplexing, the receiver clock
is derived from
a. standard radio station WWV
b. a highly accurate internal oscillator
c. the PAM signal itself
d. the 60 Hertz power line
29. It is also known as digital modulation
a. Digital transmission
b. Digital sampling
c. Digital radio
d. Data transmission
30. Time division multiplex
a. can be used with PCM only
b. combines five groups into
supergroup
c. stacks 24 channels in adjacent
frequency slots
d. interleaves pulses belonging to
different transmissions
31. It is a numerical indication of how
efficiently a PCM code is utilized
a. Coding efficiency
b. Companding
c. Pre-emphasis
d. Dynamic Range
32. Type of PCM which is designed to take
advantage
of
the
sample-to-sample
redundancies in the typical speech
waveform
a. Single bit PCM code
b. Pulse Code Modulation
c. Differential PCM
d. Delta modulation
33. The Basic Rate Interface (BRI) of ISDN has
a total bit rate of _____.
a. 192 kbps
b. 148 kbps
c. 64 kbps
d. 1.544 Mbps
34. A form of angle modulated, constant
amplitude digital modulation similar to
conventional phase modulation except its
d. D/A converter
42. Refers to the rate of change of a signal on a
transmission medium after encoding and
modulation have occurred
a. baud rate
b. phase shift
c. bit rate
d. frequency deviation
43. The magnitude difference between adjacent
steps in quantization is called __________.
a. Quantum
b. Step size
c. Resolution
d. Any of these
44. It is a set of rules implementing and
governing an orderly exchange of data
between layers of two devices, such as line
control units and front end processors.
a. Data Link Protocol
b. Network Protocol
c. Point to Point Protocol
d. File Transfer Protocol
45. A signaling system in which each letter of
the alphabet is represented by a different
symbol is not used because
a. it would be too difficult for an
operator to memorize
b. it is redundant
c. noise would introduce too many
errors
d. too many pulses per letter are
required
46. A modulation process that involves
conversion of a waveform from analog to
digital form by means of coding.
a. PDM
b. PCM
c. PLM
d. PAM
47. What is the bandwidth required to transmit
at a rate of 10 Mbps in the presence of a 28bd S/N ratio?
a. 1.075 MHz
b. 10 Mhz
c. 5 Mhz
d. 10.5 Mhz
of
digital
refers
to
the
95. Which
noise?
a.
b.
c.
d.
to
c. L600
d. L400
103. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by
frequency division multiplexing five
groups containing 12 channels each for a
combined bandwidth of 240 kHz.
a. Supergroup
b. Group
c. Mastergroup
d. Jumbogroup
104. The result whenever the sampling rate is
less than twice the highest audio frequency
a. peak limiting
b. overload distortion
c. alias
d. quantizing noise
105. The most critical and difficult part of
receiving a direct sequence spread
spectrum signal is
a. Frequency synthesis
b. Synchronism
c. PSN code generation
d. Carrier recovery
106. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by
frequency division multiplexing 10 super
groups together for a combined capacity
of 600 voice band message channels
a. Supergroup
b. Group
c. Mastergroup
d. Jumbogroup
107. It is the transmittal of digital signals
between to or more points in a
communication system.
a. Digital transmittal
b. Digital communications
c. Digital radio
d. Data communications
108. It is logically equivalent to making
telephone call through the DDD network
except no direct end-to-end connection is
made
a. Normal call
b. Completed call
c. Logical call
d. Virtual call
used
data
c. FSK
d. PSK
122. Indicate the false statement. In order to
combat noise,
a. the channel bandwidth may be
increased
b. redundancy may be used
c. the transmitted power may be
increased
d. the signaling rate may be reduced
123. Which of the following is not commonly
used method of error detection?
a. Parity
b. BCC
c. CRC
d. redundancy
124. Quantizing noise occurs in
a. time-division multiplex
b. frequency-division multiplex
c. pulse-code modulation
d. pulse-width modulation
125. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one
must
a. increase the number of standard
amplitudes
b. send pulses whose sides are more
nearly vertical
c. use an RF amplifier at the receiver
d. increase the number of samples per
second
126. Companding is used
a. to overcome quantizing noise in
PCM
b. in PCM transmitters, to allow
amplitude limiting in the receiver
c. to protect small signals in PCM
form quantizing distortion
d. in PCM receivers, to overcome
impulse noise
127. Transmitting data as serial binary word is
called _______.
a. digital communications
b. quantizing
c. PAM
d. PCM
usually
codes
to
absolute
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS
IN
ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS AND
TECHNOLOGIES (EST)
Antennas
MELVIN C. ARCEO, ECE
PERC DC
ENCODED BY:
BADILLO, AIMIE E.
2006105942
ECE003/C11
a.
b.
c.
d.
30 dBW
40 dBW
50 dBW
20 dBW
c. reciprocity
d. polarization
53. The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is _____.
a. 8.67 ft
b. 17.3 ft
c. 18.2 ft
d. 34.67 ft
54. Refers to the orientation of the electric field
radiated from an antenna.
a. efficiency
b. beamwidth
c. polarization
d. accuracy
55. At frequencies below 2 MHz, what type of
antenna is usually used?
a. Marconi antenna
b. Hertzian antenna
c. Hertz antenna
d. Elementary doublet
56. The angular separation between two halfpower points in the major lobe of the
antennas plane radiation pattern.
a. bandwidth
b. polarization
c. efficiency
d. beamwidth
57. Hertz antenna are predominantly used with
frequencies above
a. 3 MHz
b. 4 MHz
c. 5MHz
d. 2MHz
58. Defined as the frequency range over which
antenna operation is satisfactory
a. beamwidth
b. channel
c. bandwidth
d. baseband
59. One of the following
omnidirectional antenna.
a. Half-wave dipole
b. Log-periodic
c. Discone
d. Marconi
is
not
an
c. parasitic array
d. parasitic element
88. One of the following is very useful as a
multi-band HF receiving antenna. This is
the:
a. conical horn
b. folded dipole
c. log-periodic
d. square loop
89. A parasitic element that is longer than the
driven element from which it receives
energy.
a. driven element
b. director
c. parasitic elements
d. reflector
90. One of the following consists of nonresonant antennas.
a. rhombic antenna
b. folded-dipole antenna
c. end-fire antenna
d. broadside antenna
91. A parasitic element that is shorter than its
associated driven element.
a. redirector
b. director
c. reflector
d. parasitic element
92. An ungrounded antenna near the ground.
a. acts as a single antenna near the
ground
b. is unlikely to need an earth mat
c. acts as an antenna array
d. must be horizontally polarized
b. log-periodic
c. yagi
d. collinear
95. It is a linear array antenna consisting of a
dipole and two or more parasitic elements:
one reflector and one director.
a. broadside antenna
b. end-fire antenna
c. yagi-uda antenna
d. phased array antenna
96. An antenna which is consists of a cone that
is truncated in a piece of circular waveguide.
a. pyramidal horn antenna
b. circular horn antenna
c. rectangular horn antenna
d. circular horn antenna
97. Which antenna has a unidirectional radiation
pattern and gain?
a. dipole
b. ground plane
c. yagi
d. collinear
98. An antenna formed by placing two dipoles
at right angles to each other, 90 degrees out
of phase.
a. discone antenna
b. turnstile antenna
c. bicone antenna
d. 5/8 wavelength antenna
99. The radiation pattern of collinear and a
broadside antenna is ________.
a. omnidirectional
b. bidirectional
c. unidirectional
d. clover-leaf shaped
100. What is the bandwidth ration of logperiodic antenna?
a. 10:1
b. 5:1
c. 20:1
d. 1:10
101. Which beam width represents the best
antenna directivity?
a. 7 degrees
b. 12 degrees
c. 19 degrees
d. 28 degrees
102. It is the ratio of the highest to the lowest
frequency over which an antenna will
satisfactorily operate.
a. channel ratio
b. bandwidth ratio
c. reflection ratio
d. dynamic range
103. An antenna has a power gain off 15. The
power applied to the antenna is 32 W. The
effective radiated power is ________.
a. 15 W
b. 32 W
c. 120 W
d. 480 W
104. It is simply a single-turn coil of wire that
is significantly shorter than one
wavelength and carries RF current.
a. turnstile antenna
b. loop antenna
c. rhombic antenna
d. long-wire antenna
105. A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per
100 ft. The attenuation of 275 ft
a. 2.4 dB
b. 3.3 dB
c. 4.8 dB
d. 6.6 dB
106. It is group of antenna arrays that when
connected together, function as a simple
antenna whose beamwidth and direction
can be changed electronically without
having to physically move any of the
individual antennas or antenna elements
within the array.
a. end-fire array
b. broadside antenna
c. phased array antenna
d. log-periodic antenna
107. Conductors in multi-element antennas that
do not receive energy directly from the
transmission line are known as ______.
a. parasitic element
b. driven element
c. the boom
d. receptor
108. It is a broadband VHF or UHF antenna
that is suited for applications for which
radiating circular rather than horizontal or
vertical polarized electromagnetic waves
are required.
a. discone antenna
b. bicone antenna
c. log-periodic antenna
d. helical antenna
109. Mode of propagation of helical antenna
where electromagnetic radiation is in the
direction at right angles to the axis of the
helix.
a. normal mode
b. axial mode
c. helix mode
d. helical mode
110. Mode of propagation of helical antenna
where the radiation of the antenna in the
axial direction and produces a broadband
relatively directional pattern.
a. helical mode
b. normal mode
c. axial mode
d. helix mode
111. In a Yagi antenna, maximum direction of
radiation is toward the
a. director
b. driven element
c. reflector
d. sky
112. It is defined as the ratio of the antennas
maximum gain in the forward direction to
its maximum gain in its backward
direction
a. side-to-back ratio
b. front-to-side ratio
c. back-to-side ratio
d. front-to-back ratio
113. The horizontal radiation pattern of a
vertical dipole is a ____________.
a. figure of eight
b. circle
c. narrow beam
d. clover leaf
b. 2.25 degrees
c. 1.5 degrees
d. 1.75 degrees
120. Type of feed mechanism where the
primary radiating source is located just
behind a small opening at the vertex of the
paraboloid rather than at the focus.
a. cassegrain feed
b. center feed
c. horn feed
d. antenna feed
121. Discone radiation pattern is
a. omnidirectional
b. unidirectional
c. figure-of-eight
d. bidirectional
122. Which is properly terminated antenna?
a. dipole
b. marconi
c. hertz
d. rhombic
123. An example of a marconi antenna is
_______.
a. quarter wave vertical tower
b. collinear
c. yagi
d. rhombic
124. At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what
values of current and voltage exist
compared to the remainder of the antenna?
a. minimum voltage and maximum
current
b. minimum voltage and minimum
current
c. equal voltage and current
d. maximum voltage and minimum
current
125. Radiation resistance is the ratio of ______.
a. radiated power to the antenna center
current
b. radiated power to the square of the
antenna center current
c. voltage to any point of the antenna
d. square of voltage to the square of
current at any point in the antenna
a.
b.
c.
d.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS
IN
ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS AND
TECHNOLOGIES (EST)
Broadcast Engineering
MELVIN C. ARCEO, ECE
PERC DC
ENCODED BY:
BADILLO, AIMIE E.
2006105942
ECE003/C11
c. CATV
d. SATV
8. A class A FM station is limited in antenna
height of ______ feet above average terrain.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 4000
d. 5000
9. What circuit in the TV receiver is used to
develop the high voltage needed to operate
the picture tube?
a. Low-voltage power supply
b. Horizontal output
c. Vertical sweep
d. Sync separator
10. The modulated picture carrier wave includes
the composite video signal as the
a. Average carrier level
b. Symmetric envelope of amplitude
variations
c. Lower sideband without the upper
sideband
d. Upper envelope without the lower
envelope
11. With which emission type is the captureeffect more pronounced?
a. CW
b. FM
c. SSB
d. AM
12. The hue of color sync phase is
a. red
b. cyan
c. blue
d. yellow green
13. How much is the equivalent internal
resistance of the electron beam with a 1.2mA beam current at 25 kV?
a. 48 nano ohms
b. 30 ohms
c. 20.8 mega ohms
d. 15.6 kilo ohms
14. The difference between the picture and
sound carrier frequencies for channel 3 is
______ MHz.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.58
64.5
4.5
6.75
b. broadcast
c. transmit
d. media
22. The number of frames per second in the
Philippine TV system is
a. 60
b. 262
c. 4.5
d. 30
23. It means multiple outlines of edges to the
right in the picture.
a. ghosting
b. ringing
c. fading
d. snowing
24. In the Sawtooth waveform for linear
scanning,
a. the linear rise is for flyback
b. the complete cycle includes trace
and retrace
c. the sharp reversal in amplitude
produces trace
d. the beam moves faster during trace
and retrace
25. The purpose of pre-emphasis and deemphasis in FM broadcasting is to:
a. increase
the
high
frequency
amplitude
b. improve the audio harmonic
c. decrease
the
low
frequency
amplitude
d. improve the S/N ratio
26. The part of the visible spectrum where
camera pickup tubes have the greatest output
is
a. red
b. blue
c. yellow-green
d. infrared
27. The type of modulation of the sound carrier
signal is ______.
a. Pulse motion
b. Phase modulation
c. Amplitude modulation
d. Frequency modulation
c. Beam current
d. Shading
36. What is a frequency discriminator?
a. An FM generator
b. A circuit for detecting FM
c. A circuit for filtering two closely
adjacent signals
d. An automatic bandwidth circuit
37. A system used in television field operation
to make on-the-spot video tape recordings
using portable TV cameras and VTRs.
a. SNG
b. ENG
c. HAFC
d. MATV
38. Class B FM station shall have an authorized
transmitter power not exceeding ______
kW.
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10000
39. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV signal
is
a. 3.58 MHz
b. 4.5 MHz
c. 6 MHz
d. 10.7 MHz
40. Referred to the oscillator signal leak
through from a property neutralized
amplifier such as a master oscillator power
amplifier.
a. carrier
b. stray signal
c. back wave
d. loss wave
41. Interlacing is used in television to
a. produce the illusion of motion
b. ensure that all lines on the screen are
scanned, not merely the alternate
ones
c. simply the vertical sync pulse train
d. avoid flicker
42. Coaxial cable for distribution system has an
impedance of
a.
b.
c.
d.
50 ohms
75 ohms
150 ohms
300 ohms
b. degaussing
c. internal blanking adjustment
d. background control
56. Which of the following camera tubes uses
lead oxide for the photoconductive target
plate?
a. vidicon
b. plumbicon
c. saticon
d. image orthicon
57. The number of fields is ______ per frame.
a. 2
b. 60
c. 525
d. 262.5
58. An RF carrier wave that is frequency
modulated by the baseband audio signal in
TV broadcasting.
a. Audio signal
b. Video signal
c. Intercarrier signal
d. Color signal
59. A class B FM station is limited in antenna
height of ____ feet.
a. 1000
b. 500
c. 250
d. 100
60. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of
a TV receiver is generated in the
a. mains transformer
b. vertical output stage
c. horizontal output stage
d. horizontal deflection oscillator
61. A tap for the subscriber drop line has a
a. high insertion loss
b. high tap loss
c. low tap loss
d. 300-ohm impedance
62. Which system can be used for both
recording and playback?
a. CED
b. VHD
c. laser disk
d. VHS
b. monoscope
c. oscilloscope
d. iconoscope
71. The number of lines scanned per frame in
the raster on the picture tube screen is
a. 525
b. 262
c. 20
d. 10
72. One of the following is a high powered RF
ac basic transmitter that has two or more
stages, the oscillator stage which determines
the frequency of operation and RF amplifier
stage or stages that develop the high power
output. The purpose of which is to develop a
good frequency stability.
a. MOPA
b. Hartley
c. Alexanderson
d. Goldsmith
73. Camera signal output without sync is called
______.
a. black burst
b. generator lock video
c. composite video
d. non-composite video
74. The tint of the color is its _____.
a. brightness
b. contrast
c. chroma
d. hue
75. Which frequency band is the standard AM
radio broadcast?
a. HF
b. UHF
c. MF
d. VHF
76. The I and Q composite color signals are
multiplexed onto the picture carrier by
modulating a 3.58 MHz subcarrier using
a. FM
b. PM
c. DSB AM
d. Vestigial sideband AM
90. It is the light flux intercepted by a one-footsquare surface that is one-foot from a onecandlepower source.
a. candela
b. footcandle
c. lux
d. lumens