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Jet Engine
Jet Engine
Blade is an angle formed by a line perpendicular to the propeller shaft and line formed by the
(a) Relative wind
(b) Apparent wind
(c) Chord of the blade
(d) Blade face
2. Thrust produced by a rotating propeller is a result of
(a) Propeller slippage
(b) An area of low pressure behind the propeller
(c) An area of decreased pressure immediately in front of the pressure blades
(d) The angle of relative wind and rotational velocity wind and rotational velocity of the propeller
3. Propeller blade station number increase from
(a) Huh to tip
(b) Tip to hule
(c) Leading edge to aft edge
(d) Aft edge of leading edge
4. It should have high specific gravity
(a) Low pan point
5. Velocity index should be high. High freezing point at a cold atm the water contents in the fuel in
having tendency to form in a ice crystal
6. It should be filtered to jet engine
(a) It should have low carbon content after burning the fuel
7. In twin spool engine, with constant N2, compressor inlet temperature is decreasing then
(a) N2 changes
(b) Fuel flow increases
(c) N1 decreases
(d) The ratio N1 is maintained constant
N2
8. The thrust developed by high bypass ratio engine is
(a) Indicated by EGT
(b) Indicated by N2
(c) Proportional fan speed
(d) Not affected by ambient conditions
14. In a compressor space between surge line and working lines called
(a) Safety margin on surge margin
(b) Stable zone unstable zone
(c) Unstable zone
(d) Stagger zone
15. Hottest zone in turbine engine is
(a) Compressor outlet
(b) Turbine
(c) 1st stage NGV
(d) Exhaust nozzle
16. In a high by pass engine NGVs are eliminated
(a) To reduced noise
(b) To reduce weight
(c) To increase efficiency
(d) To satisfy 1 and 2 above
For maximum thrust
The thrust augmentation is achieved a the compressor inlet by injecting water at the compressor
inlet which increases mass airflow and their by thrust
Thrust augmentation is achieved a the diffuser section by injecting water at the diffuser section
and which als the diffuser section and decreases the temperature of the diffuser section which gives high
deme man airflow high affect to maximum
17. Brayton cycle is
(a) Constant temperature cycle
(b) Constant volume cycle
(c) Constant pressure and constant temperature cycle
18. NGVs of turbine are usually
(a) Hollow
(b) Solid
(c) Air cooled
(d) As per (1) & (2) above
19. Most common defects in combustion chamber is
(a) Crack and burning
(b) Scoring
(c) Pitting
(d) Blistering
(c) Combustion
(d) In let guidvave
21. During starting fire, fire extinguisher is discharge
(a) Engine is cleaned
(b) Engine replaced and sent to shape
22. Blending is done to
(a) Recountering the blade
23. For the maintenance purpose engine is divide in the two section, in hot section
(a) Turbine combustion exhaust nozzle
(b) Turbine, diffuser, exhaust nozzle
(c) HP compressor, combustion, exhaust nozzle
(d) HP compressor, combustion, turbine
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. a. Explain active clearance control in the modern turbo fan engine
b. Method of turbine blade cooling with fig
c. Field cleaning
2. a. Explain the breather system with diagram
b. Show thrust Vs air speed of turboprop turbofan and turbojet engine
3. a. In axial flow compressor why gas flow path is made convergent explain
b. What is the advantage of squalor blades?
c. What is bleed band how to check explain?
4. a. If mass flow rate is 60 lb/sec/engine and exhaust gas velocity is 1300 ft sec for a
turbojet engine ready for the take off find out gross thrust of each engine
b. Draw by graph effect air thrust for following variable
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Speed of a/c
RPM
Altitude
OAT
ANSWERS
11
21
31
41
12
22
32
42
13
23
33
14
24
34
15
25
35
16
26
36
17
27
37
A,D
18
28
38
19
29
39
10
20
30
40
JET ENGINE
JUNE 1998 SESSION
1. Internal energy of a gas depends upon its
(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Volume
(d) None of the above
2. When mechanical energy is converted into heat energy or vice versa an exact equivalent exists between
the two. This is stated in the
(a) First law of thermodynamics
(b) Second law of thermodynamics
(c) Third law of thermodynamics
(d) None of the above
3. During starting an engine stabilizes at idle r.p.m and JPT
(a) Check for whether oil pressure is correct
(b) Check for whether oil temperature is correct
(c) Check for whether generator output is correct
(d) All of the above correct
4. Mark the correct statement
(a) Fuel trimmer is provided so that the relationship between fuels flow an r.p.m. Can be varied
without using fuel lever
(b) Because the mass flow inside the engine change with atmospheric conditions
(c) Trimmer is adjusted to provide given JPT.
(d) All of the above are correct
5. During start engine rotates but fails to light up one suspect
(a) Ignition system fault
(b) Fuel pressure control system fault
(c) Both a and b
(d) Battery capacity is low
6. During inspection of centrifugal compressor blades normally
(a) No crack is allowed in the leading edge trailing edge and blade tips
(b) Negligible crack is allowed as in (i) up to minimum extend possible and under constant
monitoring
(c) Nicks dents in the leading edge, trailing edge and blade tips not allowed
(d) None of the above
8. (a) At high power settings the noise generated from the compressor blade is
(b) Noise from the compressor is of lower frequency
(c) Low frequency sounds can be attenuated easily
(d) None of the above
predominant
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Disc growth
Disc rock
Has effect of reducing tip clearance as engine run time increases
All of the above
19. When change in pressure and volume of a gas take s place without change in temperature the process
(a) Is very slow
(b) Obeys boyles law
(c) Adiabatic change is quick
(d) All of the above
20. Oil pressure continuously fluctuates
(a) Indicates is faulty
(b) Pressure relief valve is sicking and contaminated
(c) Both a and b
(d) Oil check valve setting is improper
21. After flight is over engine does not shut down
(a) Loose connection of power lever linkage
(b) Fuel control shut off valve is faulty
(c) Power lever rigging is improper
(d) All of the above
22. After engine starts the engine hesitates for 5-6 seconds go for
(a) Surge bleed valve check
(b) Solenoid controller check
(c) Fuel pump functional check
(d) All of the above
23. During testing of engine, hooting/ humming sound is heard
(a) Operation of compressor bleed valve is improper
(b) Condition of the bleed valve diaphragm is bad
(c) Both a and b
24. For M.E.C and P.M.C
(a) M.E.C provides an electronic override of P.M.C to set corrected fan speed
(b) P.M.C provides an electronic override of M.E.C to set corrected fan speed
(c) P.M.C is located in the tail of the engine
(d) None of the above
25. Start valve can be operated
(a) Manually
(b) Electrically
(c) Opening /closing is indicated by pneumatic pressure
(d) All of the above
26. In engine starter system
(a) Compressed air pressure is converted to rotational mechanical energy
(b) Reduction mechanism of gear train converts low speed high torque of turbine wheel into high
specific low require through a pawl and ratchet mechanism
(c) Starter operation is not controlled by start valve
(d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1
11
21
12
22
13
23
14
24
15
25
16
26
17
18
10
20
(b) --------lb
(c) 5433 lb
(d) --------lb
4. CIT indicator in turbojet engine is
(a) Copper constraint
(b) Nickel platinum
(c) Chromel alumel
(d) All of the above
5. FACDEC means
(a) Full authorized digital electronic control
(b) Full authorized digital electronic control
6. Synchronous motor type fuel quantity gage measures
(a) Fuel volume flow
(b) Fuel mass flow
(c) Its same of vane type indicator
(d) As 02 & 03
7. In water injection system EGT is increased water injected at
(a) Inlet
(b) Diffuser
(c) Nozzle
(d) Simultaneous inlet & diffuser
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Change of shape
Cracks in the trailing & leading edge perpendicular to length
Length will grow
All of the above
15. In which engine air speed kinetic energy at inlet is not changed in the static energy
(a) Turbofan
(b) Turbojet
(c) Turbo shaft
(d) Turbo prop
16. Synchronous system in propeller is used in
(a) Single engine to equal the blade angle
(b) Multiengine to allow same speed of engines
(c) As 1 & reduce vibration
(d) All the above
17. During flight which fault is not monitored by performance monitoring
(a) EPR, EGT, PRM
(b) EPR, EGT max, CIT
(c) CIT, CDP, EGT max
(d) CIT, CDP. EGT, RPM
18. If oil is found in exhaust
(a) Replace engine
(b) Seal leakage at bearing shaft
(c) Carbon seal leakage in turbine shaft
(d) Scavenge pump failure
19. Mark the correct statement
(a) Pressure pump capacity is greater than scavenge pump capacity
(b) Scavenge pump capacity is greater than pressure pump
(c) Both pump capacity are same
(d) -------------------------------------20. Gas velocity is high at
(a) Inlet
(b) Compressor
(c) Turbine
(d) Diffuser
21. Mark correct statement
(a) Supervisory EEC develops command top actuate FCU
(b) Supervisory EEC directly controls FCU
(c) Supervisory EEC and sigma Hydro-mechanical fuel control unit
(d) All of above
(a) Convert AD to DC
(b) Convert DC to AC
(c)
(d)
30. Difference between hi voltage of 10-voltage ignition
(a) Hi voltages have high energy than 10 voltages
(b) Hi
(c)
(d)
31. During oil analysis mg is gived Hi then a practice gear of problem in gearbox
Answer: 25 - , 26 - , 27 b, 28 a, 29 b, 30 a, 31 - .
TIME 2 HOURS
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
37. During starting starter & fuel flow are ok, but hung start cuase is
(a) CDP sensor loss
(b) CIT loss
(c) ----------(d) ----------------------38. Mark correct statement
(a) Engine running at high RPM & CDP lost then stabilize at idle
(b) Engine running at idle RPM & CDP lost then stabilize at high RPM
(c) CDP lost during starting it is a hung start
(d) All are correct
39. Minimum fuel flow is critical
(a) Acceleration
(b) Deceleration
(c) Idle
(d) Ground run
40. Which component is not installed in the engine?
(a) Fuel pump
(b) FCOC
(c) Filter
(d) Boost pump
41. Deareator is located in
(a) Scavenge sub system
(b) Pressure sub system
(c) Inlet of the pump
(d) Oil tank
42. After engine shut down oil found in the exhaust
(a) Seal failure
(b) Bearing seal failure
(c) Replace engine
(d) Air pressurization seal failure
43. Air tight seal is
(a) Carbon seal
(b) Ring seal
(c) Multi grove seal
(d) Threaded seal
(c) Course
(d) Negative
56. Propeller lock LP solenoid
(a) ------------------(b) ------------------(c) ------------------(d) -------------------
Igniter plugs have problem of corrosion of case, and after prolonged use it get eroded
The audible test for proper ignition check is not possible in synchronous ignition
Iridium inserts are placed in the tip to prolong its lift
All are correct
Answer: 1 c, 2 d, 3 d, 4 d, 5 b, 6 c, 7 a, 8 b, 9 d.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
P2 P2
Orifice area
Metering valve
Bypass valve
Answers: 10 d, 11 - , d, 12 a, 13 a, 14 a, 15 a, 16 - , 17 a, 18 d.
19. Two internal sections of an engine are subjected to different air per seel to be used
(a) Thread seal
(b) Ring seal
(c) Multi grooved seal
(d) Carbon seal
20. The afterburner engine liner is perforated
(a) Which is cooled by secondary air
(b) Leads to screech
(c) A and B are correct
(d) None of the above
21. In a hydro mechanical torque meter if the temperature of oil is increased causes
(a) High torque reading
(b) Low torque reading
(c) No change
(d) Any of the above
22. Most prevalent condition for icing is
(a) High rpm low airspeed
(b) High rpm high airspeed
(c) Low rpm low airspeed
(d) High rpm high velocity
23. MCS
(a) Electrical heaters are mostly preferred than pneumatic heating for anti-icing system
(b) Isopropyl alcohol or phosphate compounds are used for deicing system
(c) Anti icing heating is commanded through cyclic timers
(d) None of the above
24. Turbo shaft with free turbine, its speed is controlled by
(a) Ng governor
(b) Nf governor
(c) Idle governor
(d) Not controlled by governor
25. The oil system used by VTOL engine is
(a) Full flow
(b) Hot tank
(c) Total loss (expandable)
(d) Pressure relief valve
35. More than one weld is not carried out in deicing element because
(a) Increases circuit resistance of element
(b) Decreases circuit resistance of element
(c) It will damage the element
(d) All the above may happen
36. The function of selector valve is post exit thrust reverse is
(a) It gives command for reverse operation
(b) It selects the actuator valve to operate thrust reverse
(c) T operates the hydraulic valve to slow and deploy thrust reverse
(d) None of the above
Answers: 28 d, 29 d, 30 b, 31 a, 32 c, 33 a, 34 a, 35 - b 36 c.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Isolator valve
Selector valve
Shut off valve
Shuttle valve
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Constant pressure
Constant volume
Constant mass
None of the above
JET ENGINE
GENERAL
Supersonic
Rear stage stall at high speed
front stage stall at high speed
Thermistors
Surveillance
Semi-conductors Infra-red rays
Dielectric
Capacitance
46. If an engineer finds that the EGT reading is less than that of normal it may be dure
(a) Faulty electrical harness
(b) Wire length is shortened during maintenance
47. Jet engine noise
(a) Compressor noise is less than jet pipe noise
(b) Low frequency decays more rapidly than high frequency noise
(c) .
(d) All are correct
The gap at igniter plug is such wider than that of spark plug
As in a tip of igniter plugs not permitted to clean
The ignition of gas turbine eng., is not continuous as used in piston eng
All are correct
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
N2 dec
Thrust dec
N1 inc.,
As in a with free turbine
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Thermocouple
Resistance bulb
Auto sync system
Diaphragm repair of bellows
MUMBAI : 29
SEMESTER EXAMINATION
JET ENGINES THEORY AND CONSTRUCTION
Part I QUIZ TYPE
1. Which of the following is not an air-breathing engine?
(a) Rocket
(b) Piston
(c) Ramjet
(d) Turbofan engines
2. The general method of attaching compressor blades is
(a) By fixture arrangement and locking
(b) By dovetail arrangement and locking
(c) By welding to the disc
(d) Both B & C are correct
3. The basic types of turbine blades are
(a) Reaction and converging
(b) Tangential and converging
(c) Reaction and impulse
(d) Impulse and vector
4. The advantages with split spool compressor over single spool compressor is
(a) Better compression ratio and surge margin
(b) More turbine wheels can be used
(c) The velocity of air entering the combustion chamber is increased
(d) Number of bearings required is reduced
5. To produces a thrust of 9600 lbs a jet engine consumes 900 gallons of fuel per hour. Given that one
gallons of fuel weighs 8 lbs. What is the thrust specific fuel consumption of the engine?
(a) 0.075 lbs/hr/lb thrust
(b) 0.750 lbs/hr/lb thrust
(c) 1.330 lbs/hr/lb thrust
(d) None of the above
6. Compressor blades are not rigidly fixed but a slight movement is allowed in order to
(a) Provide flexibility for blade replacement
(b) Provide tolerance for blade expansion
(c) Reduce vibration stresses produced by high velocity air stream
(d) All the above
7. Turbine blades creep with increase is temperature and operating time. This means
(a) The blades elongates
(b) Blade wears out
(c) The blade losses its toughness
(d) All the above
8. Which of the following engine casing is the hottest during engine run
(a) H.P turbine casing
(b) L.P turbine casing
(c) Jet pipe
(d) Combustion chamber casing
9. What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal flow unit?
(a) Easier maintenance
(b) High frontal area
(c) Less expensive
(d) Greater pressure ratio
10. The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in aircraft turbine engines.
(a) Variable can annular and cascade vanes
(b) Annular variable and cascade vane
(c) Can multiple can and variable
(d) Multiple can, can annular, and annular.
12.The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to
(a) Impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases
(b) Swirl the exhaust gases
(c) Increases temperature there by increasing velocity
(d) Decreases temperature there by increasing pressure
13. Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single shaft?
(a) To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly
(b) To straightened the airflow before it entered the exhaust area
(c) To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine
(d) Decrease temperature there by increasing pressure
14. What is the purpose of directing bleed air to the bearing compartment?
(a) It increases oil pressure for better lubrication
(b) It provides a high volume of oil to the most critical bearings
(c) It heats the oil to the proper operating temperature
(d) It heats the oil to the bearing compartments.
15. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air density of a turbine engine?
(a) The turbine inlet temperature
(b) The altitude of the aircraft
(c) Compression ratio
(d) The turbine and compressor efficiency
16. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on
all but which of the following
(a) Turbine blades
(b) Compressor blades
(c) Casings
(d) Inlet guide vanes
17. Mark the correct statements
(a) Roller bearings take both axial and radial loads
(b) Ball bearings take both axial and radial loads
(c) Given the same diameter, the ball bearing takes greater load than the roller bearings
(d) None of the above statement is correct
18. In the twins spool compressor system the first stage turbine drives the
(a) N 1 compressor
(b) N 2 compressor
(c) N 1 & compressor
(d) The fan.
19. What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal compressor?
(a) Bucket and expander
(b) Impeller and diffuser
(c) Turbine and compressor
(d) Air intake and expeller
20. Newtons first law of motion states
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
28. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation?
(a) Compressor inlet air temperature
(b) Compressor outlet air temperature
(c) Burner can pressure
(d) Turbine inlet temperature
29. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbo jet engine experienced?
(a) At the outlet of the burner section
(b) At the entrance of the turbine section
(c) At the outlet of the tail pipe sections
30. What turbine engine sections provides for proper mixing of the fuel and air?
(a) Combustion section
(b) Turbine sections
(c) Diffuser sections
(d) Compressor sections
(c) The thrust delivered per found of air consumed is less at high delivered per pound of low altitude
(d) The thrust delivered for a given small increase in r.p.m. is independent of the speed range at which
rpm is increased
5. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is
(a) 590C
(b) 590 F
(c) 290 C
(d) 00 C
8. ATA system specification 80-00-00 represents the chapter
(a) Engine oil system
(b) Ignition system
(c) Engine starting system
(d) Engine instrument system
9. The area of the after turner jet pipe is forger than normal jet pipe in order to
(a) Reduce air velocity
(b) As in A for better combustion
(c) To prevent ckoking
(d) None of the above
10. The exhaust system components are
(a) Manufactured from nickel or titanium for high strength
(b) Made from nickel or titanium for high strength
(c) Made from high carbon steel for strength
(d) None of the above statements is correct
11. Mark the correct statement w.r.t the by pass engine
(a) The low by pass engine, the bypass ad core airflows are combined in a mixture unit before exiting
through the propelling nozzle
(b) In a high by pass engine. The by pass and core flows a reduction separately
(c) The lower the by pass the higher the propeller of
(d) All three statement are wrong
12. A variable area propeller nozzle:
(a) Generally on engine without reheat because performance gain is offset by increase in weight
(b) Gives better fuel economy during reheat application
(c) Uses lower nozzle area during take off for greater
(d) It used on high by pass engines for better fuel economy
13. What is the purpose of directing bleed air to the bearing compartment?
(a) It seals the oil in the bearing compartment
(b) It seats the oil to the proper operating temperature
(c) It provides a high volume of oil to the most critical bearings
(d) It increase the oil pr for better lubrication
14. It the water injection system operation the addition of methanol will
(a) Restore turbine inlet temperature
(b) Bringdown N2 rpm
(c) Lower freezing point of water
(d) Both a and c are correct
15. Mark the correct statement regarding thrust resources
(a) Mixed exhaust type engines need only one resources
(b) In high by pass turbo fans, recourse of secondary air is more effective than that of primary air
(c) Both primary and secondary how are reversed by using separate reverses
(d) All of the above statements are correct
23. The rearward thrust capacity of an engine with the thrust reverse system deployed is
(a) Less tharits forward capacity
(b) Equal to or less than its forward capacity depending on ambient conditions and system design
(c) Equal to its forward capacity
(d) More than its forward thrust capacity since engine bleeds are kept closed
24. What is the function of an engine fire detection system?
(a) To discharge the powerplane fire extinguishing agent at the origin of the fire
(b) To activate a warning device in the event of a power plant fire
(c) To identify the location of a power plant ifre
(d) To idienfy the extinguisher son that spot
25. Mark the correct statement as applicable to magnetic plugs
(a) They are removed at periodic intervals for condition monitoring
(b) They are connected to a cock pit warming system to give an in flight indication
(c) All the above statements are correct
26. Squeeze rpm type bearings are used on some engine to
(a) Reduce vibration level of engine
(b) Modify the radial motion of rotating assembly
(c) Reduce possibility of damage by fatigue
(d) Contribute to all the above
30. In a jet engine otherwise behaving normally there are reports of flameout during descent the problem is
(a) Metering orifice in FCU clogged
(b) Minimum flow valve malfunciton
(c) Fan exit guide vane icing
(d) Malfunction of acceleration and deceleration valve
31. On a jet engine the EGT reading is high as noticed by he AME during comparison check in transit. The
cause could be
(a) Party compressor blades
(b) One of the thermocouple probes is open circuit
(c) Turbine blade rub at periphery
(d) Both A & C are correct
32. In and engine with hydromechanical system F.C.U pilot reports engine acceleration without throttle
movement the possible cause is
(a) Loss of spad sense
(b) Loss of CDP sense
(c) C.I.T sensor failure
(d) Any one of the above
33. Compressor air leakage in a turbo fan engine is noted by
(a) Rise in r.p.m
(b) Rise in vibration
(c) Rise in EGT
(d) All the above
34. Engine hot start is indicated by
(a) EPR increase
(b) EPR increase
(c) Fuel flow increase
(d) Faster rise in EGT in proportion to N2 rotor rpm increase
35. If the crack pressure adjustment of the pressuring valve is on the lower ride that required than
(a) Secondary fuel will flow carlier
(b) Start EGT will be higher
(c) Stall margin will be reduced
(d) All above is correct
36. What is the possible cause when a turbojet engine indicates no change in power setting parameters lent
oil temperature is high
(a) Gear box real leakage
(b) Engine main bearing distress
(c) High oil sump pressure
Best TSFC
Best thrust to weight ratio
maximum air consumption
least noise
38. Why is the necessary to control acceleration and deceleration rates of turbine engines
(a) To prevent blow out due to rich
(b) To enable to heat and cool the engine at controlled rates
(c) To prevent friction between turbine wheels and the case due to expansion and contraction
(d) To operate engine at optimum fuel consumption
39. When the pilot selects water injection during take of which of the following observation is true?
(a) The engine r.p.m rises
(b) The engine r.p.m. Rises and J.P.T gas slightly above acceptable limit
(c) J.P.T increases
(d) Fuel consumption becomes less that normal due to water addition
40. Turbine blades air more susceptible to operation damage than compressor blades because of
(a) Higher centrifugal loading
(b) Exposure to high temperature
(c) High pressure and high velocity gas flow
(d) All the above
41. What is the first engine instrument indicating successful start of a turbine engine?
(a) L.P.S spool rotation
(b) Rise in exhaust gas temperature
(c) Rise in oil pressure
(d) Rise in engine fuel flow
42. Hot section inspection for many modern turbine engines are required
(a) Only at engine overhaul
(b) Only when an over temperature or speed is reported
(c) On a time or cycle basis
(d) During every C of A renewal
SEMESTER IV
1. A severs condition of chafing or fretting in which a transfer of meal from one part to another occurs. If
called
(a) Gouging
(b) Burning
(c) Erosion
(d) Galling
2. Compressor stall is caused by
(a) A low angle of attack airflow through the first states of compression
(b) A high angle of attack airflow through the first stages of compression
(c) A high velocity airflow in the engine inlet
(d) Rapid engine deceleration
3. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible indicator of
(a) Foreign object damage
(b) Faulty igniter plugs
(c) Dirty compressor blades
(d) Malfunctioning fuel nozzles
7. Why does a turbine engine require a cool off period before shutting it down?
(a) To allow the surfaces contacted by the lubricating oil to return to normal operating temp
(b) To burn off excess fuel ahead of the fuel control
(c) To allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around I
(d) To avoid seizure of the engine bearings
8. Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in a/c turbine engines
(a) Variable, can-annular, and cascade vane
(b) Annular, variable and cascade vane
(c) Can multiple can, and variable
(d) Multiple can, annular, and can annular
9. Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single craft?
(a) To facilities balancing of the turbine assembly
(b) To straighten the airflow before it enters the exhaust area
(c) To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine
(d) To extract more power from the exhaust gases than a single wheel can absorb
10. The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the
(a) Number of compressor stages
(b) Rotor diameter
(c) Diffuser area
(d) Air inlet velocity
11. What is the function of a fire detection system?
(a) To discharge the power plant fire extinguishing system at the origin of the fire
(b) To warn of the presence of fire in the rear section of the power plant
(c) To activate a warning devices in the event of a power plant fire
(d) To identify the location of a power plant fire
12. How does carbon dioxide extinguish and engine fire?
(a) A continuous loop fire detector is what type of detector
(b) By lowering the temp to a point where combustion will not take places
(c) The gas spray liquefies in the heat and smoothers the fire
(d) The high-pressure spray lowers the temperature and blows out the fires.
13. A continuous loop fire detector is what type of detector?
(a) Spot detector
(b) Overheat detector
(c) Rate of temp rise detector
(d) Radiational sensing detection
14. What is the operating principle of the spot detector sensor in a fire detection system?
(a) Resistant core material that prevents current flow at normal temp
(b) Fuse material that melts at high temp
(c) A conventional thermocouple that produces current flow
(d) A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heated to a high temp.
15. Which of the following is the safest fire-extinguishing agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity and
corrosion hazards?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. Which of the following is not used to detect fires in reciprocating engine necellers?
(a) Smode detectors
(b) Overheat detectors
(c) Rate of temp rise detectors
(d) Flame detectors
17.What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop fire detector system sensor?
(a) Fuse material which melts at high temp
(b) Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temp
(c) A conventional thermocouple which produces a current flow
(d) A bimetallic thermo switch which closes when heated to a high temp
18. Why does the fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired in parallel between two separate
circuits?
(a) A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction
(b) This installation is equal to two systems a prime system and a reserve system
(c) The duel terminal thermo switch is used so that one terminal is wired to a bell the other to a light
(d) A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.
19. Which of the following fire detector system measures temp rise compared to a reference temp?
(a) Fenwal continuous loop
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Thermal switch
(d) Lindberg continuous element
20. A fuel or oil fire is defined as a
(a) Class B fire
(b) Class D fire
(c) Class A fire
(d) Class C fire
21.When starting a turbojet engine
(a) A hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limit
(b) An excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot start
(c) The engine should start between 60 to 80 seconds after the fuel shut off lever is opened
(d) Release the starter switch as soon as indication of light off occurs
22. In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system the first stage turbine drives the
(a) N1 and N2 compressors
(b) N4 compressor
(c) N2 compressor
(d) N1 compressor
23. Cracks may occur in hot section components of a turbine engine if they are marked during inspection
with
(a) A lead pencil
(b) Chalk
(c) Cushion of power lever assure that will not only be able to obtain take off power but also
additional power lever movement during emergency
(d) Cushion of power lever is given to have smooth and free operation and to get maximum power.
45. The active clearance control portion of an eec system aid turbine engine efficiency by
(a) Adjusting start vane position according to operating condition and power requirement
(b) Ensuring compressor and turbine blade to the engine laseing clearance are kept a minimum by
controlling case temperature
(c) Automatically adjusting engine spaced to maintained a desire EPR
46. Fuel flow indicator needle is inter by
(a) A mechanical gear train
(b) Direct coupling to motor shaft
(c) Magnetic linkage
(d) A friction clutch on motor shaft
47. Combustion efficiency of jet engine is primary function
(a) Chemical composition of fuel
(b) Combustion chember designs
(c) Viscosity of fuel
(d) Flame speed
48. Oil pressure gauge oscilate constantly
(a) Leaking oil per line
(b) Dirty filter
(c) Indication needle loose
(d) Reducer in oil line to indicator partially clogged
49. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has greatest filtering action action
(a) Micron
(b) Wine mesh
(c) Wafer seneen
(d) Stack charcoal
50. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of turbine engine perfomance check of alternate
fuel is used?
(a) Fuel sp gravity adjustment
(b) Maximum RPM adjustment
(c) EPR KG gauge calibration
(d)
51. MIL F- 4624A. ATF JP 4 Fuel commonly used on gas turbine engine because
(a) High calorific value of fuel
(b) Specific gravity and vapour pressure low
(c) Good lubrication properties
(d) All above
52. Which type of fuel control is used on most turbine engine?
(a) Mechanical
(b) Hydro mechanical
(c) Electronic
(d) Electromechanical
53. What are the main input parameters in fuel controller unit monitors fuel flow
(a) Compressor inlet pressure compressor RPM and turbine inlet pressure
(b) Compressor inlet pressure compressor RPM compressor pressure ratio
(c) Compressor inlet temperature burner pressure, tail pipe temperature
(d) Compressor inlet pressure, burner pressure and compressor RPM
54. Which type of engine driven fuel pump are mostly used on turbine engine
(a) Vane tyupe
(b) Double gear element (Series)
56. What are the positions of pressurizing and dump valve when engine is shut down?
(a) Pressurization valve and dump valve open
(b) Pressurization valve closed and dump open
(c) Pressurization valve open and dump closed
(d) Pressurization valve closed and dump closed
57.Where flows divider is located
(a) In simplase fuel nozzle
(b) In the fuel manifold
(c) Near pressurizing and dump valve
(d) In duplex fuel nozzle
58. What are the causes of hung start?
(a) HP fuel shut off valve defective
(b) Defective compressor inlet pressure sensor
(c) Burner pressure line leaking or cracked
(d) Above all
(e)
59. What are the causes of start exhaust gas temperature high?
(a) Fuel pump boost stage failure
(b) Compressor pressure ratio prob defective
(c) Start fuel flow high
(d) Variable stator vane stuck open
60. Under which of following conditions will be trimming of turbine engine will be most accurate?
(a) Low moisture and tail wind
(b) Aircraft should be parked in cross wind and high humidity
(c) All fuel tank must be full and rear cargo ballasted
(d) Aircraft parked engine facing wind and after engine warmed go stabilize temperature
61. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of the turbine blades of turbojet
engine?
(a) Stretch
(b) Elongation
(c) Distortion
(d) Creep
62. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a turbofan engine?
(a) Engine over speed
(b) Engine over temperature
(c) Large rapid throttle
(d) FOD
70. Which of the following conditions is usually not acceptable to any extent in turbine blades?
(a) Cracks
(b) Nicks
(c) Pits
(d) Dents
71. Which of the following I the ultimate limiting factor of turbojet engine operation?
(a) Compressor inlet air temperature
(b) Compressor outlet air temperature
(c) Turbine inlet temperature
(d) Burner can pressure
72. The oil used in reciprocating engine has a relatively high viscosity due to
(a) The reduced ability of thin oils to maintain adequate film strength at altitude (reduced atmosphere
pressure)
(b) The relatively high rotational speeds
(c) Its lower oxidation rate at elevated temperature
(d) Large clearances and high operating temperature
73. The type of lubricating oil that is used in a turbine aircraft engine is
(a) Synthetic
(b) Petroleum
(c) 50-50 blend of petroleum and synthetic
(d) 30-70 blend of petroleum and synthetic
74. The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its
(a) Resistance of flow
83. Metallic particles are found on the oil screen during an engine inspection
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
84. Excessive valve clearance will cause the duration of valve opening to
(a) Increase for both intake and exhaust valves
(b) Decreases for both intake and exhaust valves
(c) Decreases for intake valves and increases for exhaust valves
(d) Increases for intake valves and decreases for exhaust valves
85. Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the engine to
(a) Deliver maximum horsepower at a specific altitude
(b) Meet exacting requirement of efficiency and low weight per horsepower ratio
(c) Run smoothly and give the desired performance at all speeds
(d) Expand and contract with changes in temperature and pressure
86. What is an advantages of using metallic fillex exhaust valves in aircraft reciprocating engine?
(a) Increased resistance to corrosive gases
(b) Increased strength and resistance to fatigue
(c) Reduced valve operating temperature
(d) Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve temperature
87. Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine
(a) Increases valve overlap
(b) Has no effect on valve overlap
(c) Increases valve service life
(d) Decreases valve overlap
88. The pumping capacity of the scavenger pump in a dry-sump aircraft engines lubrication system?
(a) Is greater than the capacity of the oil supply pump
(b) Is less than the capacity of the oil supply pump
(c) Is usually equal to the capacity of the oil supply pump in order
(d) Varies according to the oil supply tank capacity and not according to the oil supply pump
capacitys
89. The economizer system of a float type carburetor performs which of the following functions?
(a) It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds below cruising
(b) It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds
(c) It supplies sand regulates the additional fuel required for all speed above cruising
(d) It regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds and all altitude.
39. The hardware used in gas turbine engine, which bolt is cd. Plated.
(a) Both A and B
(b) A
(c) B only
(d) All A B and C
40. Mark the correct statement
(a) Government spill valve acts as a safety relief valve
(b) Engine speed governor acts as a relief system
41. In the fuel control unit of hydro mechanical system if the engine all elevators without throttle
movement, it is due to
(a) Less of speed sense
(b) CIT sooner failure
(c) CIS dense
(d) All are correct
42. The gearbox gasing is made of
(a) Aluminum
(b) Magnesium
(c) Steel
(d) Nickel
43. Compressor air leakage in a turbine of an engine is noted by
(a) Rise in RPM
(b) Rise in vibration
(c) Rise in EGT
(d) All the above
Spin casting
Send casting
Spin casting
Send casting
Sinning
Forging
Forging
Forging
ECM
ECM
ECM
EBM
turbine
ECM
EBM
EBM
EBM
47. During operation of the engine equipped with water injection system the watering of the coolent to the
system is
(a) Due to atmosphere pressure
(b) Due to altitude change
(c) Selected by the pilot
(d) None of the above
48. Mark the correct statement
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
cooler
Heater
heater
pressure gauge
pressure gauge
temperature gauge
temperature gauge
56. The pitch movement of the propeller blade is controlled by a hydraulic servo piston the increase of oil
pressure in the servo makes the propeller blade to
(a) Low pitch rotation
(b) High pitch rotation
(c) Run at low RPM
(d) High pitch with high RPM
57. The firing end of the low voltage igniter should be
(a) Cleared using dry cloth
(b) Cleaned using fibre bristle brush
(c) Any one the above could be used
(d) Never cleaned
(b) Deep groove thrust bearing support axial and radial loads
(c) Load carrings capacity of roller bearings is better than the ball bearing
(d) All the above
59.The free turbine turboprop engine has different control levers is the cockpit the power lever directly
controls the
(a) Gas generator speed (Ng)
(b) Power turbine speed (Nf)
(c) Propeller governor
(d) All the above
60. The compleate control of a modern APU is performed by microprocessor based electronic control box.
(ECB) the input of the box is from
(a) APU analog input
(b) As in (a) and APU discrete input
(c) Aircraft discrate input
(d) Analog and discrete from APU along with the signal from aircraft.
61. In commercial turbofan power management control (PMC) provides an electronic override of the MEC
to correct fan speed which is a function of
(a) Power lever angle
(b) Fan inlet pressure
(c) Fan inlet temperature
(d) All the above
62. Modern jet engine uses a accelerometer to pick up engine vibration the indicator must have
(a) Charge amplifier
(b) Voltage to current converter
(c) Current limiter
(d) Voltage limiter
63. A free turbine turbo shaft is running at higher RPM there is loss of oil pressure the probable cause is
(a) The relief valve struck in closed position
(b) The relief valve struck in open position
(c) Filter clogged
(d) Oil spray jet clogged
64. When Pt2 is blocked due to ice formation then the EPR gauge will
(a) Over read
(b) Under read
(c) Read zero
65. Which one of the following scale is high pressure system
(a) Lip
(b) Cup
(c) Carbon rubbing
(d) All the above
66. When oil filter particle dissolves fully in Aquous solution of ammonium nitrate, the particle is
(a) Tin
(b) Cadmium
(c) Aluminium
(d) Silver
67. The figure given below is or APU fitted in modern boeling aircraft the air inlet in the figure in
(a) C
(b) A and B
(c) D
(d) None of the above
68. During preflight inspection the crewmember find that the amber deck of the fire warning light appears
out this indicates
(a) The extinguishing agent in bottle is over pressurized
(b) The extinguishing agent in discharged due to over temp.
LP speed governor
Fuel pump
Spray nozzle
Dash feed throttle.
(c) C
(d) D
D
C
A
B
B
A
1. A modern aircraft fitted with two turbofan engines is O.K during engine ground run performance. The
aircraft was released for flight with instructions to the pilot. During take-off run, there was a jerk with rise
in EGT, severe EPR fluctuation and vibration. The pilot aborted the take-off.
(a) What is the cause and the events took place in a sequance?
(b) What are the critical areas to be checked for the cause and the remedial action.
2.
(a) What will happen if the P & D valve is struck in open condition during starting?
(b) What are the functions of straightening vanes of exhaust cone?
(c) How the micro organism form in the fuel how they affect the fuel system and its
How they are detected?
(d) What are the areas to be checked for high oil consumption?
(e) What is the trim balancing?
components?
11. The blades of the compressor are twisted. This make blade
(a) More pressure on the blade tip than the root
(b) More pressure on the blade root than the tip
(c) More pressure at the middle portion of the blade
(d) None of the above
12. For the water particle inspection of the fuel the water indicator paste is applied at the bottom of the
sample bottle if the water is present in the fuel
(a) The past will come to from the bottom
(b) The bottom of the bottle will be discoloured
(c) The complete sample will be discoloured
(d) None of the above
13. A turbofan engine produce. A thrust of 9100 lbs, the fuel consumption is 700 Gallon/hr. The SPC will
be
(a) 0.07 lb/lb/hr
(b) 0.5 lb/lb/hr
(c) 0.6 lb/lb/hr.
(d) 0.7 lb/lb/hr.
14. The diagram is of a single hydraulic actuator for satic vanes the is will be
(a) 200 PSI
(b) 20 PSI
(c) 10 PSI
(d) 200 PSI
15. Compressor blades are not fitted rigidly on the nut there is a slight movement this is done to
(a) Provide case of replacement of blade
(b) To provide relief for the expansion of the blade due to heat
(c) To reduce vibrational stress on the blade
(d) All the above
14. The baffles plates are incorporated in the oil tank the of this plate is
(a) To avoid local turbulence and recirculation of used of
(b) To settle down the foreign particles in the bottom
(c) They give cooling capacity
(d) All the above are correct
15. For soap analysis the sample must be collected
(a) Within an hour of the engine shutdown
(b) After enough cooling of the engine
(c) After half an hour of the engine showdown
(d) Any time
16. For a given EPR if the OAT decreases the N2 RPM of turbofan engine will
(a) Increase
(b) Decreases
(c) Remain same
(d) Increases N2 with decrease of EGT
17. If engine fitted with hydro mechanical FCU when speed sense N2 fails during IDLE condition the
engine.
(a) Flame out
(b) Can not accelerate above IDLE RPM
(c) Accelerate to high power bottj
(d) None of the above
18. Match the following
(a) Threaded
(b) Un threaded
(c) Greased blank
(d) Grease proof paper
19. Match the following
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Injector wheel
Secondary burner
Double cone
A square low injector
Aerodynamic
force produces
pending movement
Torque load.
(a) Simplex
(b) Centrifugal
(c) Duplex
(d) Pre vaporization form.
Torque load
Bending load.
Increases
increases
increases
Increases
constant
Reduced
Angle of incidence
Pressure acro
&Subsequent stage
Vane
Reduces
increases
easy inspection
annular
For lower no
emmision
Can annular
Double annul
28. In fig. The area of the compressor casing the gradually decreasing if it is constant
(a) Velocity decreased
(b) Velocity in even
29. Match the following
(a) EGT
(b) Acceleration
(c) Oil pr. Transducer
(d) Fuel flow transducer
C
high by pass
turbo jet
36. In the filter system if both the filters are clogged the pressure at A will be
(a) 10 PSI
(b) 60 PSI
(c) 30 PSI
(d) 20 PSI
37. In given diagram A is
(a) Flame holder
(b) Flame stabilizer
D
turbo jet
high by pass