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SBI Bank PO Guide Free E Book
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
4SBI Bank PO Recruitment Notifications
ADVERTISEMENT NO. CRPD/PO/ 2011-12/01
ADVERTISEMENT NO. CRPD/PO/AB/2011-12/02
English Comprehension
General Awareness
Numerical Ability
Reasoning
Computer
Marketing
4Suggested Reading
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IMPORTANT DATES:
u
u
u
Applications are invited from eligible Indian Citizens for appointment as Probationary Officers (POs) in
State Bank of India. Candidates selected are liable to be posted any here in India.
NUMBER OF VACANCIES :
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ii) Test of General Awareness, Marketing & Computers
iii)Test of Data Analysis & Interpretation
iv) Test of Reasoning (High Level)
The duration of Descriptive type test will be 1 hour, Max. marks-50 and the test will
be of Test of English Language (Comprehension, short precis, letter writing & essay)
Descriptive test paper of only those candidates will be evaluated who are adequately high in percentile
ranking in each of all the four objective tests and have scored overall aggregate 40% and above in case of
General category and aggregate 35% and above in case SC/ST/OBC/PWD category. The qualifying
marks for descriptive test will also be overall aggregate 40% for General category and overall aggregate
35% for SC/ ST/OBC/PWD. The merit list of written examination will be based on the aggregate of the
marks obtained by the candidates in Objective and Descriptive tests.
Phase-II :
uGroup Discussion & Interview :
uMax Marks - 50. [GD - 20 Interview - 30]
The aggregate marks of objective test and descriptive test will be arranged in descending
order and the candidates who have qualified in both the written examinations will be
called for group discussion and interview depending upon the vacancies in each
category, subject to maximum of 3 times of the vacancies.
Final Selection:
The marks of group discussion and interview will be put together and the candidates who secure minimum
40% marks (minimum 35% in case of SC/ST/OBC/PWD) in group discussion and interview will be
considered for final selection. The candidate will have to pass both in Phase I & II separately. Phase I &
Phase II marks will be aggregated and arranged in descending order (category wise) for candidates who
have qualified in both the phases separately and depending on the vacancies, selection will be made from
the top merit ranked candidates in each category. Results of the candidates who have qualified for Phase
I and thereafter the list of candidates finally selected will be available on the Banks website in addition to
publication in Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar.
DATE OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION : 24/07/2011 (SUNDAY) : The Written Examination
will be held at following centres.
Click Below Link For Complete Details:
> http://www.bankpoclerk.com/community/files/SBI-PO-ADVERTISEMENT-NO-CRPD-PO-AB-2011-12-01.pdf
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IMPORTANT DATES:
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ii) Test of General Awareness, Marketing & Computers
iii) Test of Data Analysis & Interpretation
iv) Test of Reasoning (High Level)
The duration of descriptive type test will be 1 hour max. marks - 50 and the test will be of Test of English
Language (Comprehension, short precis, letter writing & essay) Descriptive test paper of only those
candidates will be evaluated who are adequately high in percentile ranking in each of all the four objective
tests and have scored overall aggregate 40% and above in case of General category and aggregate 35%
and above in case SC/ST/OBC/PWD category. The qualifying marks for descriptive test will also be
overall aggregate 40% for General category and overall aggregate 35% for SC/ST/OBC/ PWD category.
The merit list of written examination will be based on the aggregate of the marks obtained by the candidates
in objective and descriptive tests.
(b) Phase-II :
uGroup Discussion & Interview
uMax Marks - 50 (GD - 20, Interview - 30)
The aggregate marks of objective and descriptive test will be arranged in descending order and the candidate
who have qualified in both the written tests will be called for group discussion and interview depending
upon the vacancies in each category, subject to maximum of 3 times of the vacancies.
Final Selection:
The marks of group discussion & interview will be put together and the candidates who secure minimum
40% marks (minimum 35% in case of SC/ST/OBC/PWD) in group discussion and interview will be
considered for final selection. The candidates will have to qualify in Phase I and Phase II separately. Marks
obtained by the candidates in Written Test out of 250 marks (maximum) are nomalized to 75 and marks
obtained in GD/Interview out of 50 are normalized to 25, final merit list is arrived at after totalling the
normalized marks as above with an aggregate of 100. The selection will be made from the top merit
ranked candidates in each category. Phase I & Phase II marks after normalisation will be aggregated and
arranged in descending order (category wise) for candidates who have qualifed in both the phases separetely
& depending on the vacancies, selection will be made from the top merit ranked candidates in each
catagory. Results of the candidates who have qualified for Phase II and thereafter the list of candidates
finally selected will be available on the Bankss website in addition to
publication in Employment News / Rozgar Samachar.
DATE OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION : 07/08/2011 (SUNDAY) : The Written Examination will be held at following centres.
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Dear Aspirants,
We are providing topicwise Sample
Questions for you reference. This will
help you to understand the exam pattern.
Best of Luck!!
UPSCPORTAL Team
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Reasoning
General
Awareness
English Comprehension
1. What is the urgent heed of the world
today?
economic order.
(2) The establishment of a world government.
social order.
Numerical Ability
(1) L
(2) O
(4) X
(5) C
(3) P
order?
1. 25
2. 26
(1) One
(2) Two
4. 30
5 . 26
(3) Three
3. 2 7
1 . 96
2. 240
3. 144
4. 14 2
how
many
letters
will
remain
5 . cannot be determined
3. The digits of a two-digit number are in
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
1 . 63
2. 48
4. 69
5 . 66
3. 96
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
1. 13
2. 3
4. 1 1
5. 14
3. 1 6
numbers?
(1) PAIL
(2) RAIL
(4) S
(5) X
1. 8 : 7
2. 3 : 2
3. 7 : 8
4. 2 : 3
5 . None of these
1.(3)
2.(1)
Answers
1.(4)
Answers
3.(4)
4.(2)
(3) MADAM
5. (5)
Computer
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1. Assembly language is
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Numerical Ability
(1) L
(2) O
(4) X
(5) C
(3) P
wordBRAKES
remains
unchanged
order?
1. 25
2. 26
4. 30
5 . 26
3. 2 7
2. 55% of a number is more than onethird of that number by 52. What is twofifth of that number?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
1 . 96
2. 240
3. 144
4. 14 2
how
5 . cannot be determined
many
letters
will
remain
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
1 . 63
2. 48
4. 69
5 . 66
3. 96
2. 3
4. 1 1
5. 14
3. 1 6
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
numbers?
(1) PAIL
(2) RAIL
(4) S
(5) X
1. 8 : 7
2. 3 : 2
3. 7 : 8
4. 2 : 3
5 . None of these
1.(3)
2.(1)
Answers
1.(4)
Answers
3.(4)
4.(2)
(3) MADAM
5. (5)
Reasoning
Computer
1. Assembly language is
3. Machine language
2. In Assembly language
1 . Mnemonics are used to code operations
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2. Alphanumeric symbols are used for
3. Bank In Money
4. Bank Investment Model
addresses
3. Language lies between high-level language
and machine
5 . All of these
3. Effective Communication is
1 . Good Vocabulary
5 . None of these
4. All of these
stored
5 . None of these
1 . Primary
2. Secondary
3. Hard disk
5 . None of these
4. The following is true for Auxiliary
Storage
1 . Price
2. Policy
3. Product
4. People
5 . Process
5. Market Plan can be for-
1 . A brand
2. A product
3. Product line
4. All of these
5 . None of these
Answers
narrow
the
bandwidth
of
wider
the
bandwidth
of
Answers
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1)
Marketing
1. Bancassurance
is
relationship
2. Insurance Company
3. Employee
4. Customer
5 . All of these
2. BIM stands for
1 . Bank Insurance Model
2. Book In Managemen
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SBI P.O.
Solved Paper
Held on:
18-04-10
REASONING ABILITY
1. In a certain code language how many goals
scored is written as 5 3 9 7; many more
matches is written as 9 8 2 and he scored five
is written as 1 6 3. How is goals written in
that code language ?
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 5 or 7
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
2. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as
OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that
code?
(1) RMNBSFEJ
(2) BNMRSFEJ
(3) RMNBJEFS
(4) TOPDQDCH
(5) None of these
3. How many meaningful English words can be
made with the letters DLEI using each letter only
once in each word ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
4. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different
weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter
than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest ?
(1) B
(2) E
(3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
5. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is
substituted by the next higher digit and each even
digit is substituted by the previous lower digit
and the digits so obtained are rearranged in
ascending order, which of the following will be
the, third digit from the left end after the
rearrangement ?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
(5) None of these
6. Pratap corrrectly remembers that his mothers
birthday is before twenty third April but after
Nineteenth April, whert as his sister correctly
remembers that their mothers birthday is not on
or after twenty second April. On which day in
April is definitely their mothers birthday ?
(1) Twentieth
(2) Twenty-first
(3) Twentieth or twenty-first
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. Ashok started walking towards South. After
walking 50 meters he took a right turn and
walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and
walked 100 meters. He again took a right turn
and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far and
in which direction was he from the starting point?
(1) 50 meters South (2) 150 meters North
(3) 180 meters East (4) 50 meters North
(5) None of these
8. If means +; means ; means and
+means ; then 15 8 6 + 12 + 4 = ?
4
(1) 20
(2) 28
(3) 8
7
(4) 2 3
(5) None of these
9. Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is
towards North of town D. Town H is towards
South of town B. Towards which direction is
town H from town F ?
(1) East
(2) South-East
(3) North-East
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
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eight years out of which four years as ManagerCredit in a bank after completing her B. A. degree
with 60 percent marks. She was born on 12th
September 1978.
27. Rohan Maskare was born on 8th March 1974. He
has been working in a bank for the past twelve years
after completing his B.Com. degree with 70 percent
marks. He has secured 50 percent marks in both
the Group Discussion and the Interview.
28. Prakash Gokhale was born on 4th August 1977.
He has secured 65 percent marks in. post
graduation and 58 percent marks in graduation.
He has been working for the past ten years in
the Advances Department of a bank after
completing his post graduation. He has secured
45 percent marks in the Group Discussion and
50 percent marks in the Interview.
29. Sudha Mehrotra has been working in the
Advances department of a bank for the past
twelve years after completing her B.Com. degree
with 60 percent marks. She has secured 50
percent marks in the Group Discussion and 40
percent marks in the Interview. She was born on
15th February 1972.
30. Amit Narayan was born on 28th May 1974. He
has been working in the Advances department of a
bank for the past eleven years after completing his
B.Sc. degree with 65 percent marks. He has secured
55 percent marks in the Group discussion and 50
percent marks in the interview.
Direcion: In each question below is given a
statement followed by three courses of action
numbered (A), (B) and (C). A course of action is a
step or administrative decision to be taken for.
improvement, follow-up or further action in regard
to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the
information given in the statement, you have to
assume everything in the statement to be true, then
decide which of the suggested courses of action
logically follow(s) for pursuing.
31. Statement : A heavy unseasonal downpour
during tho last two days has paralysed the,
normal life in the state in which five persons were
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A O T
T
Z
A
Answer Figure
1
2
49. Problem Figure
A
O
Answer Figure
OO
K
K O
A
A
K
OO
K
A
Answer Figure
A
OO K
Z O Z O
D
O Z
4
Z
O
Z
O
OO
AK
Answer Figure
O
Z
Z
Z O
O
Z
O
Z
1
2
50. Problem Figure
Answer Figure
O K A O K
A
1
2
47. Problem Figure
A
KOO
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2
3
(2) 18666
1
3
(5) None of these
(3) 1.866
1
3
(4) 190666
2
3
1
6
(2)
1
3
(3)
2
15
2
(5) None of these
5
58. If three marbles are picked at random, what is
the probability that two are blue and one is
yellow?
(4)
(1)
3
91
(2)
1
5
(3)
18
455
7
(5) None of these
15
59. If four marbles are picked at random, what is
the probability that one is green, two are blue
and one is red ?
(4)
(1)
24
455
(2)
13
35
(3)
11
15
7
(5) None of these
91
60. If two marbles are picked at random, what is the
probability that either both are green or both are
yellow ?
(4)
(1)
5
91
(2)
1
35
(4)
4
105
(3)
1
3
4
15
(2)
69
91
(4)
22
91
(3)
11
15
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Marketing
18%
Production
35%
IT
15%
HR
12%
M
g
ti n
ke
ar 5%
1
Accts. 5%
Production
50%
HR 10%
IT 20%
ount
A cc
8%
HR
Production
33%
11
%
Marketing
22%
Profit Percent
Accounts
20%
5
0
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
IT 26%
Company L
Company M
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1
3
(2) 25
1
3
(3) 18
5
6
5
(5) None of these
6
69. Which of the following statements is TRUE with
respect to the above graph ?
(1) Company M made the highest profit in the
year 2009
(2) Company L made least profit in the year 2005
(3) The respective ratio between the profits
earned by Company L and M In the year 2006
was 6:5
(4) Company L made the highest profit in the
year 2008
(5) All are true
70. What is the percentage increase in percent rise
in profit of Company M in the year 2009 from
the previour year ?
(1) 25
(2) 15
(3) 50
(4) 75
(5) None of these
(4) 21
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Direction: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Profit (in rs. 000) made by six different shopkeepers over the months
Month
October November December January
February
March
Shopkeeper
2009
2009
2009
2010
2010
2010
P
5.25
6.04
5.84
6.10
5.95
6.02
Q
4.84
4.28
4.97
4.88
5.04
5.12
R
4.99
5.82
5.48
5.45
5.68
5.36
S
5.06
5.11
5.28
5.38
5.44
5.59
T
5.28
4.96
5.31
5.69
4.93
5.72
U
5.94
6.23
5.87
6.07
6.19
6.23
76. What is the respective ratio between the profit
earned by shopkeeper U in the months
February-2010 and March - 2010 together to that
earned by shopkeeper Q in the same months ?
(1) 637: 512
(2) 621 : 508
(3) 512: 637
(4) 508: 621
(5) None of these
77. What is the percent increase in profit of
shopkeeper S in the month of December - 2009
over the previous month ? (rounded off to two
digits after decimal)
(1) 3.15
(2) 2.67
(3) 2.18
(4) 3.33
(5) None of these
78. Which shopkeepers profit kept increasing
continuously over the given months ?
(1) R
(2) Q
(3) T
(4) U
(5) None of these
79. What is the difference in profit earned by
shopkeeper T in January - 2010 from the
previous month ?
(1) Rs. 640/(2) Rs. 420/(3) Rs. 380/(4) Rs. 760/(5) None of these
80. What was the average profit earned by
shopkeeper R in the months of October 2009
and November 2009 together ?
(1) 5405
(2) 5040
(3) 4825
(4) 4950
(5) None of these
Direction: Study the given graph carefully to answer
the questions that follow
Table
Company X
Bed
Company Y
Cupboard
Company Z
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(4) 1
1
days
32
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Direction: Study the given table carefully to answer the questions that follow
Number of people staying in five different localities and the percentage breakup of men, women and
children in them
LOCALITY TOTAL NO.
PERCENTAGE
OF PEOPLE
MEN
WOMEN
CHILDREN
F
5640
55
35
10
G
4850
34
44
22
H
5200
48
39
13
I
6020
65
25
10
J
4900
42
41
17
86. Total number of people staying in locality J forms
approximately what percent of the total number
of people staying in locality F ?
(1) 81
(2) 72
(3) 78
(4) 93
(5) 87
87. What is the total number of children staying in
localities H and I together ?
(1) 1287
(2) 1278
(3) 1827
(4) 1728
(5) None of these
88. The number of women staying in which locality
is the highest ?
(1) H
(2) J
(3) F
(4) G
(5) None of these
89. What is the total number of men and children
staying in locality I together
(1) 4115
(2) 4551
(3) 4515
(4) 4155
(5) None of these
90. What is the respective ratio of number of men
staying in locality F to the number of men staying
in locality H ?
(1) 517: 416
(2) 403: 522
(3) 416: 517
(4) 522: 403
(5) None of these
91. The compound interest earned by Suresh on a
certain amount at the end of two years at the rate
of 8 p.c.p.a was Rs. 1,414.4. What was the total
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GENERAL AWARENESS /
MARKETING / COMPUTERS
101. What is the full form of NBFC as used in the
Fir ancial Sector ?
(1) New Banking Finance Company
(2) National Banking & Finance Corporation
(3) New Business Finance & Credit
(4) Non Business Fund Company
(5) None of these
102.100% concession has been given for travelling
in the Indian Railways for patients of ...
(1) AIDS
(2) Cancer
(3) Swine Flu
(4) T. B.
(5) None of these
103.Many a times, we read about Special Drawing
Right (SDR) in newspapers. As per its definition,
SDR is a monetary unit of the reserve assets of
which of the following organizations / agencies?
(1) World Bank
(2) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(3) Asian Development Bank
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) None of these
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ENGLISH
LANGUAGE
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(C)
(1)
(3)
(5)
(2) Disadvantaged
(4) Fasting
(2) Imposed
(4) Avoided
(2) Bulldozed
(4) Instilled
(2) Undemanding
(4) Unsuitable
(2) Accelerated
(4) Plunged
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(1) resulted,
insist
(2) provoked,
fear
(3) incited,
determined
(4) activated,
accept
(5) angered,
believe
174. _______ has been taken against some wholesale
drug dealers for dealing in surgical items without
a valid license and maintaining a stock of _____
drugs.
(1) Note,
overwhelming
(2) Step,
impressive
(3) Execution,
outdated
(4) Action,
expired
(5) Lawsuit,
invalid
175. Even as the _____ else where in the world are
struggling to come out of recession, Indian
consumers are splurging on consumer goods and
to _____ this growth, companies are investing
heavily in various sectors.
(1) economies,
meet
(2) countries,
inhibit
(3) governments,
measure
(4) nations,
inflict
(5) companies,
counter
Direction:Rearrange the following sentences (A),
(B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to make a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the questions which
follow
(A) While these disadvantages of bio fuels are
serious, they are the only alternate energy source
of the future and the sooner we find solutions to
these problems the faster we will be able to solve
the problems wo are now facing with gasoline.
(B) This fuel can also help to stimulate jobs locally
since they are also much safer to handle thaw
gasoline and can thus have the potential to
turnaround a global economy.
(C) These include dependence on fossil fuels for the
machinery required to produce biofuel which
ends up polluting as much as the burning of fossil
fuels on roads and exorbitant cost of biofuels
which makes it very difficult for the common
man to switch to this option.
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193. (1)
(3)
(5)
194. (1)
(3)
(5)
195. (1)
(3)
(5)
aid .
promotes
cater
acute
restricting
increased
both
combining
a ;o
(2) jeopardise
(4) endure
(2) utilising
(4) inspiring
(2) besides
(4) participating
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(B)
(D)
(2)
(4)
nascent
insecure
BD
AD
(B)
(D)
(2)
(4)
eccentric
abnormal
BD
AD
(B)
(D)
(2)
(4)
incomparable
plethora
AB
BD
(B)
(D)
(2)
(4)
inaccurately
unchangeably
AB
BD
(B)
(D)
(2)
(4)
generate
irrelevant
BC
CD
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An s we rs
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
71.
81.
91.
101.
111.
121.
131.
141.
151.
161.
171.
181.
191.
(3)
(5)
(5)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(5)
(4)
(5)
(2)
(5)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(5)
(1)
(3)
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
72.
82.
92.
102.
112.
122.
132.
142.
152.
162.
172.
182.
192.
(1)
(5)
(5)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(5)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(5)
(3)
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
73.
83.
93.
103.
113.
123.
133.
143.
153.
163.
173.
183.
193.
(2)
(1)
(5)
(2)
(3)
(5)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(5)
(5)
(3)
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(1)
(2)
(2)
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4. (4)
14. (3)
24. (1)
34. (1)
44. (1)
54. (2)
64. (4)
74. (1)
84. (2)
94. (1)
104. (4)
114. (3)
124. (2)
134. (3)
144. (4)
154. (2)
164. (2)
174. (4)
184. (2)
194. (5)
5. (2)
15. (1)
25. (5)
35. (4)
45. (5)
55. (4)
65. (2)
75. (3)
85. (5)
95. (5)
105. (2)
115. (3)
125. (2)
135. (1)
145. (1)
155. (2)
165. (3)
175. (1)
185. (2)
195. (1)
6. (2)
16. (3)
26. (1)
36. (2)
46. (4)
56. (2)
66. (2)
76. (2)
86. (5)
96. (5)
106. (4)
116. (1)
126. (5)
136. (1)
146. (3)
156. (3)
166. (2)
176. (3)
186. (2)
196. (3)
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
77.
87.
97.
107.
117.
127.
137.
147.
157.
167.
177.
187.
197.
(4)
(2)
(5)
(4)
(2)
(5)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(4)
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8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
68.
78.
88.
98.
108.
118.
128.
138.
148.
158.
168.
178.
188.
198.
(2)
(5)
(2)
(5)
(3)
(3)
(5)
(5)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(5)
(3)
(3)
(5)
(1)
(5)
(5)
(1)
(5)
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
69.
79.
89.
99.
109.
119.
129.
139.
149.
159.
169.
179.
189.
199.
(4)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(5)
(4)
(1)
(5)
(1)
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
70.
80.
90.
100.
110.
120.
130.
140.
150.
160.
170.
180.
190.
200.
(2)
(4)
(5)
(2)
(5)
(5)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(5)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(5)
(5)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(5)
(5)
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