Lathe: by S K Mondal

12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2001
Thespindlespeedrangeinageneralpurposelathe
isdividedintostepswhichapproximatelyfollow
(a) Arithmeticprogression
(b) Geometricprogression
(c) Harmonicprogression
(d) Logarithmicprogression
Lathe
BySKMondal
Ans.(b)
IES 1992
Example
Feedgearboxforascrewcuttinglatheisdesigned
onthebasisof
(a) Geometricprogression
(b) Arithmeticprogression
(c) Harmonicprogression
(d) None
How much machining time will be required to reduce

the diameter of a cast iron rod from 120 mm to 116 mm
over a length of 100 mm by turning using a carbide
insert. Cutting velocity is 100 m/min and feed rate = 0.2
mm/rev.
Ans.(a)
IES2010
IES 2003
In turning a solid round bar, if the travel

of the cutting tool in the direction of
feed motion is 1000 mm, rotational
p
of the workpiece
p
is 5500 rpm,
p , and
speed
rate of feed is 0.2 mm/revolution, then
the machining time will be
(a) 10 seconds
(b) 100 seconds
(c) 5 minutes
(d) 10 minutes
Ans. (d)
The time taken to face a workpiece of 72 mm

diameter, if the spindle speed is 80 r.p.m. and cross
feed is 0.3 mm/rev, is
(a) 1.5 minutes (b) 3.0 minutes
( ) 5.4 minutes
(c)
i t (d) 8.5
8 minutes
i t
Ans. (a)
Page 1 of 70
1
12/30/2011
Set-2
IAS 2002
IES 2004
A 150 mm long, 12 mm diameter 304 stainless steel

rod is being reduced in diameter to 115 mm by
turning on a lathe. The spindle rotates at N = 400
rpm and the tool is travelling at an axial speed of
200 mm/min. The time taken for cutting is given by
(a) 30 s
(b) 36 s
(c) 1 minute (d) 45 s
A medium carbon steel workpiece is turned on a

lathe at 50 m/min. cutting speed 0.8 mm/rev feed
and 1.5 mm depth of cut. What is the rate of metal
removal?
(a) 1000 mm3/min
(b) 60,000 mm3/min
(c) 20,000 mm3/min
(d) Can not be calculated with the given data
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
IES 2006
Example
For taper turning on centre lathes, the method of

swiveling the compound rest is preferred for:
(a) Long jobs with small taper angles
(b) Long jobs with steep taper angles
(c) Short jobs with small taper angles
(d) Short jobs with steep taper angles
Find the angle at which the compound rest should

be set up to turn taper on the workpiece having a
length of 200 mm, larger diameter 45 mm and the
smaller 30 mm.
Ans. (d)
IES 1992
IAS 2002
Tail stock set over method of taper turning is

preferred for
(a) Internal tapers
(b) Small tapers
(c) Long slender tapers
(d) Steep tapers
The amount of offset of tail stock for turning taper

on full length of a job 300 mm long which is to have
its two diameters at 50 mm and 38 mm ultimately is
(a) 6 mm
(b) 12 mm
( ) 25 mm
(c)
(d) 44 mm
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
Page 2 of 70
2
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1998
IES2010
A 400 mm long shaft has a 100 mm tapered step at

the middle with 4 included angle. The tailstock
offset required to produce this taper on a lathe
would be
(a) 400 sin 4
4 (b) 400 sin 22
(c) 100 sin 4 (d) 100 sin 2
Ans. (b)
The effect of centering error

when the tool is set above the
center line as shown in the figure
results effectively in
1. Increase in rake angle.
2. Reduction
R d i in
i rake
k angle.
l
3. Increase in clearance angle.
4. Reduction in clearance angle.
Which of these statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
GATE 2002
GATE 2008
A leadscrew with half nuts in a lathe, free to rotate

in both directions has
(a) Vthreads
(b) Whitworth threads
(c) Buttress threads
(d) ACME threads
The figure shows an incomplete schematic of a

conventional lathe to be used for cutting threads
with different pitches. The speed gear box Uv, is
shown and the feed gear box Us, is to be placed. P, Q.
R and S denote locations and have no other
significance. Changes in Uv, should NOT affect the
pitch of the thread being cut and changes in Us,
should NOT affect the cutting speed.
Ans. (d)
Contd..
Ans.(c)
GATE2008Contd.
GATE 2003
Qualityscrewthreadsareproducedby
(a) Threadmilling
(b) Threadchasing
(c) Threadcuttingwithsinglepointtool
(d) Threadcasting
ThecorrectconnectionsandthecorrectplacementofUsare
givenby
(a) QandEareconnected. Us,isplacedbetweenPandQ.
(b) SandEareconnected.Us isplacedbetweenRandS.
(c) QandEareconnected.Us,isplacedbetweenQandE.
(d) SandEareconnected.Us,isplacedbetweenSandE.
Ans.(b)
Page 3 of 70
3
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES2010
For producing both internal and external
screw threads, the method used is
(a) Thread chasing with multiplerib chasers
((b)) Thread milling
g and multiplethread
p
cutters
(c) Thread tapping with taps
(d) Die threading with selfopening die heads
Ans. (b)
IES2011
External threads can be produced by :
1. Rolling
2. Grinding
33. Milling
g
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
IES 2004
GATE1994
Match List I (Cutting tools) with List II (Features)

and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List I
List II
Ans.(c)
A.
A Turning
T i tool
t l
1.
Chisel
Chi l edge
d
B. Reamer
2.
Flutes
C. Milling cutter
3.
Axial relief
4.
Side relief
Codes: A
B
C
A
B
C
(a) 1
2
3
(b) 4
3
2
(c) 4
2
3
(d) 1
3
2
To get good surface finish on a turned job,

one should use a sharp tool with a ..feed
and speed of rotation of the job.
((a)) Minimum, minimum
(b) Minimum, maximum
(c) Maximum, maximum
(d) Maximum, minimum
Ans.(b)
IES 1996
IES 2009
Inturningofslenderrods,itisnecessarytokeep
thetransverseforceminimummainlyto
(a) Improvethesurfacefinish
(b) Increaseproductivity
(c) Improvecuttingefficiency
(d) Reducevibrationsandchatter.
Whatisthenumberofjawsinselfcentred chuck?
(a) Eight
(b) Six
(c) Four
(d) Three
Ans.(d)
Ans.(d)
Page 4 of 70
4
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1999
IES 2009
Which one of the following sets of forces are

encountered by a lathe parting tool while groove
cutting?
(a) Tangential, radial and axial
(b) Tangential
T
ti l and
d radial
di l
(c) Tangential and axial
(d) Radial and axial
Whichoneofthefollowingmethodsshouldbeused
forturninginternaltaperonly?
(a) Tailstockoffset
(b) Taperattachment
(c) Formtool
(d) Compoundrest
Ans.(d)
Ans. (a)
IES 1998
IES 1993
A single start thread of pitch 2 mm is to be produced

on a lathe having a lead screw with a double start
thread of pitch 4 mm. The ratio of speeds between
the spindle and lead screw for this operation is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2: 1
(c) 1: 4 (d) 4: 1
Ans. (d)
It is required to cut screw threads of 2 mm pitch on

a lathe. The lead screw has a pitch of 6 mm. If the
spindle speed is 60 rpm, then the speed of the lead
screw will be
(a) 10 rpm
(b) 20 rpm
(c) 120 rpm
(d) 180 rpm
Ans. (b)
IES 1992
IES 2006
Whichofthefollowingstatementisincorrectwith
referenceoflathecuttingtools?
(a) Theflankofthetoolisthesurfacebelowand
adjacenttothecuttingedges
(b) Thenoseisthecorner,orchamferjoiningtheside
Th
i th
h f j i i th id
cuttingandtheendcuttingedges
(c) Theheelisthatpartofthewhichisshapedto
producethecuttingedgesandface
(d) Thebaseisthatsurfaceoftheshankwhichagainst
thesupportandtakestangent
Ans.(c)
It is required to cut screw threads with double start

and 2 mm pitch on a lathe having lead screw pitch
of 6 mm. What is the speed ratio between lathe
spindle and lead screw?
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3: 1
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 3: 2
Ans. (d)
Page 5 of 70
5
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1997
IES 2009
Consider the following operations:

1. Under cutting
2.
Plain turning
3. Taper turning
4.
Thread cutting
The correct sequence of these operations in machining a
product is
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1
(b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4
(d) 3, 2, 1, 4
A capstan lathe is used to massproduce, in batches

of 200, a particular component. The direct material
cost is Rs 4 per piece, the direct labour cost is Rs 3
per piece and the overhead costs are 400% of the
labour costs. What is the production cost per piece?
(a) Rs 19 (b) Rs 23
(c) Rs 16 (d) Rs 15
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
IES 2007
IES 1995
Assertion (A): In a multispindle automatic lathe, the

turret tool holder is indexed to engage the cutting tools
one by one for successive machining operations.
Reason (R): Turret is a multiple tool holder so that for
successive machining
g operation,
p
, the tools need not be
changed.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
Consider the following characteristics:

1. Multiple operations can be performed
2. Operator's fatigue is greatly reduced.
3. Ideally suited for batch production
4 A breakdown
4.
break down in one machine does not affect the
flow of products.
5. Can accommodate modifications in design of
components, within certain limits.
The characteristics which can be attributed to special
purpose machines would include
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 5
Ans. (c)
IES 1996
IES 2003
Assertion (A): Special purpose machine tools and

automatic machine tools are quite useful for job
shops
Reason (R): Special purpose machine tools can do
special types of machining work automatically
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
Ans. (d)
Which one of the following mechanisms is

employed for indexing of turret in an automatic
lathe?
(a) Whitworth
(b) Rack and pinion
( ) Ratchet
(c)
R t h t and
d pawll
(d) Geneva
G
wheel
h l
Ans. (c)
Page 6 of 70
6
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2009
IES 2001
For the manufacture of screw fasteners on a mass

scale, which is the most suitable machine tool?
(a) Capstan lathe
(b) Singlespindle automatic lathe
(c) CNC turning centre (lathe)
(d) CNC machining centre
Ans. (b)
The indexing of the turret in a singlespindle

automatic lathe is done using
(a) Geneva mechanism
(b) Ratchet and Pawl mechanism
(c) Rack and pinion mechanism
(d) Whitworth mechanism
Ans. (b)
IES 1995
IES 1992
Assertion (A): In a Swiss type automatic lathe, the

turret is given longitudinal feed for each tool in a
specific order with suitable indexing.
Reason (R): A turret is a multiple tool holder to
facilitate machining with each tool by indexing
without the need to change the tools.
Ans. (d)
Maximum production of small and slender parts is

done by
(a) Watch maker's lathe
(b) Sliding head stock automatic lathe
(c) Multispindle automatic lathe
(d) Capstan lathe
Ans. (c)
IES 2007
IAS 2007
Screw threads are produced on solid rods by using

which of the following?
(a) Dies
(b) Punch
(c) Mandrel (d) Boring bar
Ans. (a)
Which one of the following is the characteristic for

capstan lathe?
(a) Rate of production is low
(b) Labour cost is high
(c) Used for handling jobs of varying shapes and sizes
(d) Capstan head is mounted on a slide
Ans. (d)
Page 7 of 70
7
12/30/2011
Set-2
IAS 2002
IAS 1996
Consider the following statements related to Turret

lathe:
1. Turret is mounted directly on the saddle.
2. Turret is mounted on an auxiliary slide.
3. Much heavier and larger jobs than Capstan lathe can
be produced.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (a)
Apart from hexagonal turret, the elements (s) in a

turret lathe include (s)
(a) Crossslide tool post
(b) Crossslide tool post and rear tool post
(c) Crossslide tool post and tail stock
(d) Teal tool post and tail stock
Ans. (a)
IAS 2004
IAS 2001
Swiss type screw machines have

(a) Turrets
(b) Radial slides
(c) Spindle carriers (d) Tool posts
Consider the following operations and time

required on a multi spindle automatic machine to
produce a particular job
1. Turning
1.2 minutes
2. Drilling
D illi
1.6
6 minutes
i t
3. Forming
0.2 minute
4. Parting
0.6 minute
The time required to make one piece (cycle time) will be
(a) 0.6 minutes
(b) 1.6 minutes
(c) 3.6 minutes
(d) 0.9 minute
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
IAS 1995
IAS 1994
Assertion (A): In a multispindle automat, the turret

is indexed to engage each of the cutting tool
mounted on it.
Reason(R): Turret is a multiple tool holder so that
the machining can be continued with each tool
without the need to change the tool.
Ans. (d)
A multispindle automat performs four operations

with times 50, 60, 65 and 75 seconds at each of its
work centers. The cycle time (time required to
manufacture one work piece) in seconds will be
(a) 50 + 60 + 65 + 75
(b) (50 + 60 + 65 + 75) /4
(c) 75/4
(d) 75
Ans. (d)
Page 8 of 70
8
12/30/2011
Set-2
IAS 1998
IAS 1998
Assertion (A): For thread cutting, the spindle speed

selected on a lathe, is very low.
Reason (R): The required feed rate is low in
threading operation.
(a)
and
( ) Both
B th A and
d R are individually
i di id ll true
t
d R is
i the
th
Ans. (c)
IES2011
Consider the following statements associated with

the lathe accessories:
1. Steady rest is used for supporting a long job in
between head stock and tail stock.
2. Mandrel
M d l is
i used
d for
f turning
t
i small
ll cylindrical
li d i l job.
j b
3. Collects are used for turning discshaped job.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 alone is correct
(d) 1 alone is correct
Ans. (d)
IAS 2000
In Norton type feed gearbox for cutting Whitworth

standard threads with a standard TPI Leadscrew, power
flows from:
(a) Spindle to Tumbler gear to Norton cone to Meander
drive to Leadscrew
(b) Spindle to Norton cone to Tumbler geat to Meander
drive to Leadscrew
(c) Spindle t o Tumbler gear to Meander drive to Norton
cone to Leadscrew
(d) Spindle to Norton cone to Meander drive to Tumbler
gear to Leadscrew
Ans. (a)
Consider the following features:

1. All spindles operate simultaneously,
2. One piece is completed each time the tools are
withdrawn and the spindles are indexed
3. The tool slide indexes or revolves with the spindle
carrier
Which of these features are characteristics of a multi
spindle automatic machine used for bar work?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)
Page 9 of 70
9
12/30/2011
Set-2
Drilling
IES 2004
BySKMondal
Consider the following statements:

The helical flute in a twist drill provides the necessary
1. Clearance angle for the cutting edge
2. Rake angle for the cutting edge
3. Space for the chip to come out during drilling
4. Guidance for the drill to enter into the workpiece
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (b)
IES 2003
GATE 1996
The purpose of helical grooves in a twist drill is to

1. Improve the stiffness
2. Save a tool material
3. Provide space for chip removal
4. Provide rake angle for the cutting edge
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
The rake angle in a drill

(a) Increases from centre to periphery
(b) decreases from centre to periphery
(c) Remains constant
(d) Is irrelevant to the drilling operation
Ans. (a)
IES 1997
IES 1992
The rake angle in a twist drill

(a) Varies from minimum near the dead centre to a
maximum value at the periphery
(b) Is maximum at the dead centre and zero at the
periphery
i h
(c) Is constant at every point of the cutting edge
(d) Is a function of the size of the chisel edge.
A drill for drilling deep holes in aluminum should

have
(a) High helix angle
(b) Taper shank
(c) Small point angle
(d) No lip
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Page 10 of 70
1
12/30/2011
Set-2
GATE 1997
IES 1992
Helix angle of fast helix drill is normally

(a) 35o
(b) 60o
(c) 90o
(d) 5o
Low helix angle drills are preferred for drilling

holes in
(a) Plastics
(b) Copper
(c) Cast steel
(d) Carbon steel
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
Example
GATE 2002
A hole with 40mm diameter and 50mm depth is to

be drilled in mild steel component. The cutting
speed can be taken as 65 m/min and the feed rate as
0.25 mm/rev. Calculate the machining time and the
material removal rate.
The time taken to drill a hole through a 25 mm thick

plate with the drill rotating at 300 r.p.m. and
moving at a feed rate of 0.25 mm/revolution is
(a) 10 sec
(b) 20 sec
( ) 60
(c)
6 sec
(d) 100 sec
Ans. (b)
GATE 2004
IES 2002
Through holes of 10 mm diameter are to be drilled

in a steel plate of 20 mm thickness. Drill spindle
speed is 300 rpm, feed 0.2 mm/ rev and drill point
angle is 120. Assuming drill over travel of 2 mm, the
time for producing a hole will be
(a) 4 seconds
(b) 25 seconds
(c) 100 seconds
(d) 110 seconds
Ans. (b)
The arm of a radial drilling machine is being raised

at a speed of 3.9 m/min by single start square
threads of 6 mm pitch and 30 mm diameter. The
speed of the screw
(a) Is 650 rpm
(b) Is 180 rpm
(c) Is 130 rpm
(d) Cannot be determined as the data is insufficient
Ans. (a)
Page 11 of 70
2
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1994
IES 2009
The ratio between two consecutive spindle speeds

for a sixspeed drilling machine using drills of
diameter 6.25 to 25 mm size and at a cutting velocity
of 18 m/min is
(a) 1.02
1 02 (b) 1.32
1 32
(c) 1.62 (d) 1.82
Ans. (b)
What is the drilling time for producing a hole in an

MS sheet of 25 mm thickness using an HSS drill of
20 mm diameter? The cutting speed and feed for
drill are 20 m/min and 0.25 mm/revolution
respectively, Neglect time taken for setting up,
approaching and travelling of tools.
(a) 0.314 min (b) 0.236 min
(c) 0.438 min (d) 0.443 min
Ans. (a)
IES 2002
IAS 1999
A 31.8 mm H.S.S. drill is used to drill a hole in a cast

iron block 100 mm thick at a cutting speed 20
m/min and feed 0.3 mm/rev. If the over travel of
drill is 4 mm and approach 9 mm, the time required
to drill the hole is
(a) 1 min 40 s (b) 1 min 44 s
(c) 1 min 49 s (d) 1 min 53 s
To drill a 10 mm diameter hole through a 20 mm

thick M.S. plate with a drill bit running at 300 rpm
and a feed of 0.25 mm per revolution, time taken
will be
(a) 8 s (b) 16 s
(c) 24 s (d) 32 s
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
IAS 1994
IES 1999
The time (in minutes) for drilling a hole is given by
t=
Depth of the hole + h

Feed RPM
where 'h' is the

(a) Length of the drill
(b) Drill diameter
(c) Flute length of the drill
(d) Cone height of the drill.
Ans. (d)
Match ListI (Drill bits) with ListII (Applications) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
ListI
ListII
A. Core drill
1.
To enlarge a hole to a certain depth so as to
accommodate the bolt head of a screw
ea e
2..
To
od
drill aand
d eenlarge
a ge aan aalready
eady eexisting
st g hole
o e in a
B.. Reamer
casting
C. Counter bore drill 3.
To drill a hole before making internal
thread
D. Tap drill
4.
To improve the surface finish and dimensional
accuracy of the already drilled hole
Code:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 1
3
2
4
(b)
2
3
1
4
(c) 2
4
1
3
(d)
3
2
4
1
Ans. (c)
Page 12 of 70
3
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1999
Reaming,Boring,Broaching
Which one of the following processes results in the

best accuracy of the hole made?
(a) Drilling
(b) Reaming
(c) Broaching (d) Boring
Ans. (b)
BySKMondal
IES 1999
IES 1998
Consider the following statements regarding

reaming process:
1. Reaming generally produces a hole larger than its
own diameter
2. Generally
G
ll rake
k angles
l are nott provided
id d on reamers.
3. Even numbers of teeth are preferred in reamer
design.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer

using the codes given below the lists:
ListI
ListII
A. Reaming
1. Smoothing and squaring surface
around the hole for proper seating
B. Counterboring 2.Sizing and finishing the hole
C. Countersinking 3. Enlarging the end of the hole
D. Spot facing
4. Making a conical enlargement at the
end of the hole
Ans. (d)
Code:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
2
4
1
(b) 2
3
1
4
(c) 3
2
1
4
(d) 2
3
4
1
IES 1994
In reaming process
(a) Metal removal rate is high
(b) High surface finish is obtained.
(c) High form accuracy is obtained
(d) High dimensional accuracy is obtained.
Ans. (d)
IES 1993
A hole of 30 mm diameter is to be produced by reaming.
The minimum diameter permissible is 30.00 mm while
the maximum diameter permissible is 30.05 mm. In this
regard, consider the following statements about the
reamer size:
1. The minimum diameter of the reamer can be less than 30 mm.
2. The minimum diameter of the reamer cannot be less than 30 mm.
3. The maximum diameter of the reamer can be more than 30.05 mm.
4.The maximum diameter of the reamer must be less than 30.05 mm.
Of these statements
(a)
1 and 4 are correct
(c)
2 and 3 are correct
(b)
(d)
Ans. (d)
1 and 3 are correct
2 and 4 are correct
Page 13 of 70
1
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1998
IAS 1999
A component requires a hole which must be within

the two limits of 25.03 and 25.04 mm diameter.
Which of the following statements about the
reamer size are correct?
1.
1 Reamer size cannot be below 25.03
25 03 mm.
mm
2. Reamer size cannot be above 25.04 mm.
3. Reamer size can be 25.04 mm.
4. Reamer size can be 25.03 mm.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
Ans. (b)
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
For reaming operation of blind hole, the type of

reamer required is
(a) Straight flute reamer
(b) Right hand spiral fluted reamer
(c) Left hand spiral fluted reamer
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
IAS 2003
IES 1992
Match List I (Operation) with List II (Application) and select

the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
ListI
ListII
Ans. (c)
(Operation)
(Application)
(A) Reaming 1. Used for enlarging the end of a hole to give it a
conical
i l shape
h
for
f a short
h distance
di
(B) Boring
2. Used for enlarging only a limited portion of the
hole
(C) Counter boring
3.
Used for finishing a hole
(D) Counter sinking
4.
Used for enlarging a hole
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
2
4
1
(b)
1
4
2
3
(c) 3
4
2
1
(d)
1
2
4
3
Shell reamers are mounted on

(a) Tool holders
(b) Amour plates
(c) Arbor
(d) Shanks
Ans. (c)
IES 1993
IES 1994
The main purpose of boring operation, as compared

to drilling is to:
(a) Drill a hole
(b) Finish the drilled hole
(c) Correct the hole
(d) Enlarge the existing hole
Enlarging an existing circular hole with a rotating

single point tool is called
(a) Boring
(b) Drilling
(c) Reaming (d) Internal turning.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
Page 14 of 70
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Set-2
IES 1992
IES 2000
Which of the machine tools can be used for boring

1. Lathe
2. Drilling machine
3. Vertical milling machine
4. Horizontal milling machine
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans. (a)
Which one of the following sets of tools or tools and

processes are normally employed for making large
diameter holes?
(a) Boring tool
(b) BTA tools
t l (Boring
(B i and
d trepanning
t
i association)
i ti ) and
d
gun drill
(c) Gun drill and boring tool
(d) Boring tools and trepanning
Ans. (d)
IES 1996
IES 1995
Which of the following statements are correct?

1. A boring machine is suitable for a job shop.
2. A jig boring machine is designed specially for doing
more accurate work when compared to a vertical
milling
illi machine.
hi
3. A vertical precision boring machine is suitable for
boring holes in cylinder blocks and liners.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)
The effects of setting a boring tool above centre

height leads to a/an.
(a) Increase in the effective rake angle and a decrease in
the effective clearance angle.
(b) Increase
I
i both
in
b th effective
ff ti rake
k angle
l and
d effective
ff ti
clearance angle.
(c) Decrease in the effective rake angle and an increase
in the effective clearance angle.
(d) Decrease in both effective rank angle and effective
clearance angle.
Ans. (c)
IES 2007
JWM2010
Considerthefollowingoperationsregardingboring
machines:
1.Counterboring
2.Countersinking
3.Trepanning
Whichoftheaboveoperationsis/arecorrect?
(a)1,2and3 (b)1and2only
(c)2and3only
(d)1only
Among the following machining processes, which

can be used for machining flat surfaces?
1. Shaping
2.
Milling
3.
Broaching
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Ans.(a)
Page 15 of 70
3
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1993
IES 1993,2001
Assertion (A): Soluble oils are employed with

broaching machine.
Reason (R): Soluble oils have excellent cooling
effect.
(a)
and
( ) Both
B th A and
i di id ll true
t
d R is
i the
th
Ans. (a)
Assertion (A): No separate feed motion is required

during broaching.
Reason (R): The broaching machines are generally
hydraulically operated.
(a)
and
( ) Both
B th A and
i di id ll true
t
d R is
i the
th
Ans. (b)
IES 2001
IAS 2004
The screw and nut in a broaching machine are

changed from square thread to ACME thread. The
power requirement of the machine at the same
r.p.m. will
(a) Remain same
(b) Decrease
(c) Increase
(d) Depend on the operator
Which one of the following is true for the last few

teeth of a broach which are meant for fine
finishing?
(a) They have equal diameter
(b) They
Th have
h
i
increasing
i diameter
di
t
(c) They have decreasing diameter
(d) They have alternately increasing and decreasing
diameter.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
IES 2005
IES 2002
Match List I (Tool) with List II (Element of Tool) and

select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
Ans. (c)
List I
List II
A Broach
1.
Tang
B. Reamer
2.
Pilot
C. Drill
3.
Front taper
D. Carbide insert face mill 4.
Bond
5.
Sweeper tooth
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
5
1
3
(b) 1
3
4
5
(c) 2
3
1
5
(d) 1
5
4
3
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I (Machine tool)
List II (Features)
A. Lathe
1.
Push or pull tool
B. Drilling machine
2.
Rachet and pawl
mechanism
C. Shaper
3.
Dividing head
D. Broaching machine
4.
Hollow tapered spindle
5.
Face plate
Ans. (d)
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
4
5
1
(b) 5
3
2
4
(c) 2
3
5
4
(d) 5
4
2
1
Page 16 of 70
4
12/30/2011
Set-2
Milling
Example
BySKMondal
AC50steelflatsurfaceofdimensions100mm 250
mmistobeproducedonahorizontalaxismilling
machine.AnHSSslabmillwitha100mmdiameter
and150mmwidthistobeusedforthepurpose.The
millingcutterhas8teeth.
Calculatethemachiningtimeassumingthatentire
stockcanberemovedinonedepthof2mm.
Given,
Feed,f=0.13mm/tooth,
Cuttingspeed,V=20m/min.
Ans.4.11min
GATE 1995
ListI
(Manufacturing Processes)
(A) Finish turning
1.
(B) Forming
2.
(C) Thread cutting
3.
(D) Down milling
4.
Codes:A B
C
D
(a) 2
3
4
1
(b)
(c) 1
2
3
4
(d)
Ans. (a)
GATE 1993
List II
(Condition)
Backlash eliminator
Zero rake
Nose radius
Low speed
A
B
C
D
3
4
1
2
4
1
2
3
A milling cutter having 8 teeth is rotating at 150

rpm. If the feed per tooth is 0.1, the table speed in
mm per minute is
(a) 120 (b) 187
( ) 125 (d) 70
(c)
Ans. (a)
IES 2003
IES 2009
In milling machine, the cutting tool is held in

position by
(a) Chuck
(b) Spindle
(c) Arbor
(d) Tool holder
The arbor of a milling machine is used to hold

which one of the following?
(a) Spindle
(b) Overarm
(c) Cutting tool
(d) Mandrel
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
Page 17 of 70
1
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Set-2
IES 1994
IES 1992
Consider the following operations:

1. Cutting key ways on shafts
2. Cutting external screw threads.
3. Cutting teeth of spur gears
4. Cutting external splines.
Those which can be performed with milling cutters
would include
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 .
Ans. (d)
A set of eight form relieved milling cutters for each

module is provided to enable cutting of gears of
different
(a) Materials
(b) Types
e.g. spur, helical,
T
h li l etc.
t
(c) Number of teeth
(d) Width of gears
Ans. (c)
IES 2007
GATE 1992
What is the process of removing metal by a milling

cutter which is rotated against the direction of
travel of the work piece, called?
(a) Down milling
(b) Up milling
(c)
( ) End
E d milling
illi
(d) Face
F
milling
illi
In horizontal milling process. (up/down)

milling provides better surface finish and..
(updown) milling provides longer tool life.
Ans. (b)
Ans. down, down
IES 1997
IES 1995

In Up milling process,
1. The cutter starts the cut from the machined surface and
proceeds upwards.
2. The cutter starts the cut from the top
p surface and
proceeds downwards.
3. The job is fed in a direction opposite to that of cutter
rotation.
4. The job is fed in the same direction as that of cutter
rotation.
Of these statements correct are:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (a)
Assertion (A): Up milling or climb milling is

commonly used for machining castings and
forgings.
Reason (R): Up milling can be done on universal
milling machines.
machines
Ans. (d)
Page 18 of 70
2
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2005
IES 1993
Which one of the following statements is correct?

In upmilling operation, the undeformed chip thickness,
a) Is zero at the start of the cut and increases to a
maximum value just before the tooth disengages the
workpiece.
k i
b) Increases to the maximum value at the centre of the
travel and decreases towards the end of tooth
engagement.
c) Has a maximum value just after the cut is started and
drops to zero at the end of the cut.
d) Remains unchanged.
Ans. (a)
Climb milling is chosen while machining because

(a) The chip thickness increases gradually
(b) It enables the cutter to dig in and depth of cut
(c) The specific power consumption is reduced
(d) Better surface finish can be obtained
Ans. (d)
IES2010
IES 2002
Assertion (A): Climb or down milling operation ensures

smoother operation of the machine tool and longer tool life
as compared to the conventional up milling operation.
Reason (R): In climb or down milling operation, the
rotational motion of the cutter as well as the feed motion of
the workpiece
work piece are in the same direction,
direction and the depth of
cut is maximum at the entry point as the cutter engages the
workpiece.
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
Ans. (b)
Assertion (A): Virtually all modern milling machines

are capable of doing downmilling.
Reason (R): In downmilling the cutter tends to push
the work along and lift it upward from the table. This
action tends to eliminate any effect in looseness in the
feed screw and nut of the milling machine table and
results in smooth cut.
explanation of A
Ans. (c)
IES 2004
IES 2006
The cutting speed of a milling cutter while cutting

brass is:
(a) 45 to 60 m/min
(b) 30 to 40 m/min
(c) 25 to 35 m/min
(d) 15 to 20 m/min
Ans. (a)
Gang milling is a
(a) Milling process for generating hexagonal surfaces
(b) Process of cutting gears
(c) Process in which two or more cutters are used
simultaneously
(d) Milling operation combined with turning
Ans. (c)
Page 19 of 70
3
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2009
IES 1995
For machining, which one of the following gang

milling operations is employed?
(a) Threads
(b) Bores
(c) Grooves
(d) Steps on prismatic parts
In a milling operation two side milling cutters are

mounted with a desired distance between them so
that both sides of a work piece can be milled
simultaneously. This set up is called.
(a) Gang milling
(b) Straddle milling
(c) String milling
(d) Side milling.
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
IES 2004
IES 2000
One brand of milling machine has the following two

index plates supplied along with the indexing head:
Plate 1: 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20 hole circles
Plate 2: 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33 hole circles
It is proposed to mill a spur gear of 28 teeth using simple
indexing method. Which one of the following combinations
of index plate and number of revolutions is correct?
(a) Plate 1: 1 revolution and 9 holes in 18 hole circles
(b) Plate 2: 1 revolution and 9 holes in 21 hole circles
(c) Plate 2: 1 revolution and 9 holes In 33 hole circles
(d) Plate 1: 1 revolution and 9 holes In 15 hole circles
Ans. (b)
One of the index plates of a milling machine

dividing head has the following hole circles: 15; 16;
17; 18; 19; 20
A gear wheel of 34 teeth has to be milled by simple
indexing method.
method To machine each tooth,
tooth the index
crank has to be rotated through
(a) 17 holes in the 20hole circle
(b) 18 holes in the 20hole circle
(c) 1 revolution and 3 holes in 17hole circle
(d) 1 revolution and 2 holes in 18hole circle
Ans. (c)
IES 1999
IES 2002
A straight teeth slab milling cutter of 100 mm

diameter and 10 teeth rotating at 200 r.p.m. is used
to remove a layer of 3 mm thickness from a steel bar.
If the table feed is 400 mm/minute, the feed per
tooth in this operation will be
(a) 0.2 mm
(b) 0.4 mm
(c) 0.5 mm
(d) 0.6 mm
A side and face cutter 125 mm diameter has 10 teeth.

It operates at a cutting speed of 14 m/min with a
table traverse 100 mm/min. The feed per tooth of
the cutter is
(a) 10 mm
(b) 2.86
2 86 mm
(c) 0.286 mm (d) 0.8 mm
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
Page 20 of 70
4
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2004
IAS 2001
Match List I (Milling problem) with List II (Probable

causes) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists:
List I
List II
Ans. (b)
A. Chatter
1.
Too high feed
B. Poor surface finish 2.
Lack of rigidity in machine
fixtures, bar or workpiece
C. Loss of accuracy 3.
High cutting load
D. Cutter burrs
4.
Radial relief too great
5.
Not enough lubricant
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
1
5
3
(b) 2
1
3
5
(c) 4
5
2
3
(d) 4
2
3
5
Which one of the following statements are correct in respect of

upmilling and downmilling?
1.
In upmilling the cutter rotates in a direction opposite to that of
workpiece travel whereas in downmilling the cutter rotates in a
direction similar to that of workpiece travel.
2.
In downmilling chip will be thin at the beginning and increase to a
p
maximum at the end of the cut and reverse will be the case for a chip
formed
f
d by
b upmilling.
ll
3.
Downmilling is desirable with milling cutters having a high radial
rake angle when compared to upmilling.
4.
Downmilling forces the workpiece against the milling table to
exert more pressure while upmilling tends to lift the workpiece from the
table.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b)
1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d)
1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
IAS 1998
IAS 2001
Which of the following statements are true of face

milling?
1. Face milling cutter is held on an arbor.
2. It has two rake angles axial rake and radial rake.
3.
3 The maximum chip thickness equals the feed per
tooth.
4. The chip thickness varies from a minimum at the
start of cut to a maximum at the end of cut.
Codes :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Which of the following mechanisms are suitable for

indexing the table of rotary transfer line?
1. Rack and pinion
2.
Ratchet and pawl
3. Lead screw
4.
Geneva mechanism
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
IAS 2000
IAS 1994
Consider the following mechanisms:

1. Geneva gearing
2. Rack and pinion
3. Ratchet and pawl
Which of these mechanisms are used to index the work
table on a transfer machine?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
A standard dividing head is equipped with the

following index plates
1. Plate with 12, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20 holes circles
2. Plate with 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33 holes circles
3. Plate with 37, 39, 41,43,47,49 holes circles
For obtaining 24 divisions on a work piece by simple
indexing
(a) Hole plate 2 alone can be used
(b) Hole plates 1 and 2 can be used
(c) Hole plates 1 and 3 can be used
Ans. (d)
(d) Any of the three hole plates can be used
Page 21 of 70
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Set-2
IAS 2003
IES1994
A milling cutter of 70 mm diameter with 12 teeth is

operating at a cutting speed of 22 m/min and a feed
of 0.05 mm/tooth. The feed per minute is
(a) 110 m/min (b)
35 mm/min
(c) 6 mm/min (d)
60 mm/min
Whichoneofthefollowingoperationsiscarriedout
attheminimumcuttingvelocityifthemachinesare
equallyrigidandthetoolworkmaterialsarethe
same?
(a) Turning
(b) Grinding
(c) Boring
(d) Milling
Ans (d)
Ans(d)
IES2011
MatchListIwithListIIandselectthecorrectanswerusing
thecodegivenbelowthelists:
Ans(b)
ListI
ListII
A.Lathe
1.Flute
B.Shaper
2.Universalindexing
C.Drillingmachine
3.Leadscrew
D.Millingmachine
Codes
A
(a) 2
(c) 2
B
4
1
C
1
4
4.Rockerarm
D
3
3
(b)
(d)
A
3
3
B
4
1
C
1
4
D
2
2
IES 2002
Match List I with List
answer:
List I (Machine tools)
A. Lathe
B. Milling machine
C. Shaper
D. Drilling machine
Codes:A B
C
D
(a) 4
2
3
1
(c) 4
3
2
1
II and select the correct

List II (Machine tool parts)
1.
Lead strew
2.
Rocker arm
3.
Universal indexing
4.
Flute
Ans (d)
A
B
C
D
(b) 1
3
2
4
(d) 1
2
3
4
Ch7:Milling
QNo
Option
Q.No
Option
10
11
12
Page 22 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 2005
Shaper,Planner,Slotter
BySKMondal
A 600 mm x 30 mm flat surface of a plate is to be

finish machined on a shaper. The plate has been
fixed with the 600 mm side along the tool travel
direction. If the tool overtravel at each end of the
plate is 20 mm, average cutting speed is 8 m/min,
feed rate is 0.3 mm/stroke and the ratio of return
time to cutting time of the tool is 1:2, the time
required for machining will be
(a) 8 minutes (b) 12 minutes
(c) 16 minutes (d) 20 minutes
Ans. (b)
IES 2004
IES 2001
Consider the following alignment tests on machine

tools
1. Straightness
2.
Flatness
3. Run out
4.
Parallelism
Which of the above alignment tests on machine tools are
common to both lathe and shaper?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
In a shaper machine, the mechanism for tool feed is

(a) Geneva mechanism
(b) Whitworth mechanism
(c) Ratchet and Pawl mechanism
(d) Ward Leonard system
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
IES2010
IES 1997
Assertion (A): Longitudinal cutting motion of the

tool and crosswise feed motion of the job generates
flat surfaces in planning process.
Reason (R): Jobs used in planning machines are
generally long and heavy compared to shaping.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the
Ans. (d)
Which of the following are the advantages of a

hydraulic shaper over a mechanically driven shaper?
1. More strokes per minute can be obtained at a given
cutting speed.
2. The
Th cutting
tti stroke
t k has
h a definite
d fi it stopping
t
i point.
i t
3. It is simpler in construction.
4. Cutting speed is constant throughout most of the
cutting stroke.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
Page 23 of 70
1
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1995
IES 1994
In a mechanical shaper, the length of stroke is

increased by
(a) Increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank
pin
(b) Decreasing
the
off bull
D
i
th centre
t distance
di t
b ll gear and
d
crank pin
(c) Increasing the length of the ram
(d) Decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever
Given that, average cutting speed = 9 m/min, the

return time to cutting time ratio is = 1 : 2, the feed
rate = 0.3 mm/stroke, the clearance at each end of
cut = 25 mm and that the plate is fixed with 700 mm
side along the direction of tool travel, the time
required for finishing one flat surface of a plate of
size 700 x 30 mm in a shaper, will be
(a) 10 min
(b) 12.5 min
Ans. (b)
(c) 15 min
(d) 20 min
Ans. (a)
IAS 1995
Size of a shaper is given by
(a) Stroke length
(c) Weight of the machine
Ans. (a)
(b)
(d)
IAS 1994
Motor power
Table size
Stroke of a shaping machine is 250 mm. It makes 30

double strokes per minute. Overall average speed of
operation is
(a) 3.75 m/min
(b) 5.0 m/min
( ) 7.5 m/min
(c)
/ i
(d) 15 m/min
/ i
Ans. (d)
Page 24 of 70
2
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1999
GearManufacturing
BySKMondal
Consider the following processes for the

manufacture of gears:
1. Casting
2. Powder metallurgy
3. Machining from bar stock
4. Closed die forging
The correct sequence in increasing order of bending
strength of gear teeth is
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4
Ans. (a)
IES 2006
IES 2005
Which of the following is/are used for cutting

internal gears?
1. Gear hobber
2.
Gear shaper
3. Rack cutter
4.
Jig borer
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 4
(d) Only 2
In helical milling, the ratio of the circumference of

the gear blank to the lead of the helix determines
the:
(a) Proper speed to use
(b) Proper
P
f d and
feed
d depth
d th off cutt required
i d
(c) Angle setting of the machine table
(d) Gear ratio for table screw and dividing head
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
IES2010
IES 1996
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists:
Ans. (d)
List I
List II
(Type of work)
(Manufacturing)
A. High rate production of worm Gears and 1. Gear shaving
worm wheel
B. Generating internal gears and Cluster gears 2. Gear milling
C. Finishing of gear tooth profiles
3. Gear hobbing
D. Repair and piece production of gears
4. Gear shaping
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a)
2
1
4
3
(b)
3
1
4
2
(c)
2
4
1
3
(d)
3
4
1
2
Gear cutting on a milling machine using an involute

profile cutter is a
(a) Gear forming process
(b) Gear generating process.
(c) Gear shaping process
(d) Highly accurate gear producing process.
Ans. (a)
Page 25 of 70
1
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2000
IES 2009
Which one of the following processes of gear

manufacture results in best accuracy of the involute
gear tooth profile?
(a) Milling
(b) Hobbing
H bbi
(c) Rotary gear shaper
(d) Rack type gear shaper
Ans. (b)
Assertion (A): Gears produced by employing form

cutting principle using gearmilling cutter on a milling
machine are not very accurate.
Reason (R): Production of the correct gear tooth profile
employing formcutting principle would require a
separate cutter for cutting different numbers of teeth
even for the same module and also errors are associated
with inaccurate operation of indexing mechanism.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
Ans. (a)
IES 1996
IES 2009
Consider the following processes of gear

manufacture:
1. Milling with form cutter
2. Rack type gear shaper (gear planer)
3. Rotary gear shaper (gear shaper)
4. Gear hobbing
The correct sequence of these processes in increasing
order of accuracy of involute profile of the gear
(a) 3, 2, 4, 1
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
Ans. (d)
By which one of the following machines the teeth of

an internal spur gear can be cut accurately?
(a) Milling machine
(b) Slotting machine
(c) Hobbing machine
(d) Gearshaping machine
Ans. (d)
IES 2004
IES 1992
Gear shaping is a process of manufacturing gears.

Which one of the following principles is employed by it?
(a) Form cutting with cutter
(b) Generating tooth form with a reciprocating cutter
(c) Generating tooth form by a rotating cutter
(d) Generating form with a reciprocating and revolving
cutter
In gear hobbing
(a) Only hob rotates
(b) Only gear blank rotates
(c) Both hob and gear blank rotate
(d) Neither hob nor gear blank rotates
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
Page 26 of 70
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Set-2
IES 2003
IES 2008
A spur gear of 40 teeth is machined in a gear

hobbing machine using a double start hob cutter.
The speed ratio between the hob and the blank is
(a) 1:20 (b) 1:40
(c)
( ) 40: 1 (d) 20: 1
Ans. (d)
Which machining processes are used for gear

manufacture?
1. Form milling
2.
Broaching
3. Roll forming
4.
Hobbing
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
IES 1999
IES 1997
A 60teeth gear when hobbed on a differential

hobber with a twostart hob, the index change gear
ratio is governed by which one of the following
kinematic balance equations?
(a) 1 revolution of gear blank = 1/60 of hob revolutions
(b) 1 revolution of gear blank = 2/60 of hob revolutions
(c) 1 revolution of hob = 2/60 of blank revolutions
(d) 1 revolution of hob = 1/60 of blank revolutions
Ans. (c)
Which of the following motions are needed for spur

gear cutting with a hob?
1. Rotary motion of hob
2. Linear axial reciprocator motion of hob
3. Rotary motion of gear blank
4. Radial advancement of hob.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
IES 2007
IES 1993
Which of the following methods are gear generating

processes?
1. Gear shaping
2. Gear hobbing
3. Gear milling
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by

(a) Milling
(b) Shaping with rack cutter
(c) Shaping with pinion cutter
(d) Hobbing
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
Page 27 of 70
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IAS 1998
IES 2006
Assertion (A): Internal gears are cut on a gear

shaper.
Reason (R): Hobbing is not suitable for cutting
internal gear.
(a)
and
( ) Both
B th A and
i di id ll true
t
d R is
i the
th
Ans. (b)
Which of the following cannot be cut by hobbing

process?
(a) Helical gears
(b) Bevel gears
(c) Worm gears
(d) Spur gears
Ans. (b)
IES 1996
IES 1995
For the manufacture of full depth spur gear by

hobbing process, the number of teeth to be cut = 30,
module = 3 mm and pressure angle = 20. The radial
depth of cut to be employed should be equal to
(a) 3.75
3 75 mm
(b) 4.50
4 50 mm
(c) 6.00 mm
(d) 6.75 mm
While cutting helical gears on a nondifferential

gear hobber, the feed change gear ratio is
(a) Independent of index change gear ratio
(b) dependent on speed change gear ratio
(c) Interrelated to index change gear ratio
(d) Independent of speed and index change gear ratio
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
IES 1992
Gear burnishing process for
(a) Removing residual stresses from teeth roots
(b) Surface finishing
(c) Undercut gears
(d) Cycloidal gears
IAS 2003
Which one of the following is not a feature of gear
hobbing process?
(a) High rate of production
(b) Generation of helical gears
(c) Very accurate tooth profile
(d) Generation of internal gears
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
Page 28 of 70
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Set-2
IAS 2001
IES 1994
Consider the following motions and setting in a

hobbing machine:
1. Hob rotation
2. Job rotation
3. Axial reciprocating hob rotation
4. Tilting of hob to its helix angle
Which of these motions and setting in a hobbing
machine are required to machine a spur gear?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Consider the following machine tools:

1. Hobbing machine
2. Gear shaping machine
3. Broaching machine.
The teeth of internal spur gears can be cut in
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Page 29 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 1995
Grinding&Finishing
Among the conventional machining processes,

maximum specific energy is consumed in
(a) Turning
(b) Drilling
(c) Planning (d) Grinding
Ans. (d)
BySKMondal
GATE 1998
GATE 1998
Ideal surface roughness, as measured by the

maximum height of unevenness, is best achieved
when, the material is removed by
(a) An end mill
(b) A grinding
i di wheel
h l
(c) A tool with zero nose radius
(d) A ball mill
In machining using abrasive material, increasing

abrasive grain size
(a) Increases the material removal rate
(b) Decreases the material removal rate
(c) First decreases and then increases the material
removal rate
(d) First increases and then decreases the material
removal rate
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
GATE 2000
GATE 2002
Abrasive material used in grinding wheel selected

for grinding ferrous alloys is
(a) Silicon carbide
(b) Diamond
(c) Aluminium oxide
(d) Boron carbide
Ans. (c)
The hardness of a grinding wheel is determined by

the
(a) Hardness of abrasive grains
(b) Ability of the bond to retain abrasives
(c) Hardness of the bond
(d) Ability of the grinding wheel to penetrate the work
piece
Ans. (b)
Page 30 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 2004
GATE 2006
Typical machining operations are to be performed on hard

tomachine materials by using the processes listed below.
Choose the best set of OperationProcess combinations
Operation
Process
P. Debarring (internal surface) 1.
Plasma Arc Machining
Q.
2.
Abrasive Flow Machining
Q Die sinking
2
R. Fine hole drilling in thin sheets 3. Electric Discharge
Machining
S. Tool sharpening
4.
Ultrasonic Machining
5.
Laser beam Machining
Ans. (d)
6.
Electrochemical Grinding
(a) P1 Q5 R3 S4
(b)
P1 Q4 R1 S2
(c) P5 Q1 R2 S6
(d)
P2 Q3 R5 S6
If each abrasive grain is viewed as a cutting tool,

then which of the following represents the cutting
parameters in common grinding operations?
(a) Large negative rake angle, low shear angle and high
cutting speed
(b) Large positive rake angle, low shear angle and high
cutting speed
(c) Large negative rake angle, high shear angle and low
cutting speed
(d) Zero rake angle, high shear angle and high cutting
speed
Ans. (a)
GATE 1997
List I
(A) Grinding
(B) Honing
1.
2.
(C) Superfinishing 3.
D) Burnishing
4.
5.
6.
IES 2005
List II
Surface for oil retention
Surface for max. load
capacity
Surface of limiting friction
Surface of matte finish
Surface for pressure sealing
Surface for interference fit.
Ans. (A) 3, (B) 1, (C)2, (D)5
Consider the following statements in respect of

grinding?
1. The pitch of the grit cutting edges is larger than the
pitch of the milling cutter.
2. The
Th cutting
tti
angles
l
off the
th grits
it have
h
a random
d
geometry.
3. The size of the chip cuts is very small for grinding.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
IES 2009
IES 1997
Which one of the following is NOT used as abrasive

material in grinding wheels?
(a) Aluminium oxide
(b) Silicon carbide
(c) Cubic boron nitride
(d) Manganese oxide
Which one of the following materials is used as the

bonding material for grinding wheels?
(a) Silicon carbide
(b) Sodium silicate
(c) Boron carbide
(d) Aluminum oxide
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
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Set-2
IES 1996
IES 2001
Grinding wheel is said to be loaded when the

(a) Metal particles get embedded in the wheel surface
blocking the interspaces between cutting grains.
(b) Bonding material comes on the surface and the
wheel
blunt.
h l becomes
b
bl t
(c) Work piece being ground comes to a stop in
cylindrical grinding.
(d) Grinding wheel stops because of very large depth of
cut
Ans. (a)
Specific cutting energy is more in grinding process

compared to turning because
(a) Grinding (cutting) speed is higher
(b) The wheel has multiple cutting edges (grains)
(c) Plaguing force is significant due to small chip size
(d) Grinding wheel undergoes continuous wear
Ans. (b)
IES 1996
IES 1994
Specific energy requirements in a grinding process

are more than those in turning for the same metal
removal rate because of the
(a) Specific pressures between wheel and work being
high.
high
(b) Size effect of the larger contact areas between wheel
and work.
(c) High cutting velocities
(d) High heat produced during grinding.
The ratio of thrust force to cutting force is nearly 2.5

in
(a) Turning
(b) Broaching
(c) Grinding (d) Plain milling
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
IES 1992
IES 2000
Assertion (A): Vitrified bond is preferred for thin

grinding wheels.
Reason (R): Vitrified bond is hard brittle.
correctt explanation
l
ti off A
Ans. (a)
Assertion (A): The ratio of cutting force to thrust force is

very high in grinding process as compared to other
machining processes.
Reason (R): Random orientation and effective negative
rake angles of abrasive grains increase the cutting force
and adversely affect the cutting action and promote
rubbing action.
explanation of A
Ans. (d)
Page 32 of 70
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Set-2
IES 1995
IES2010
Soft materials cannot be economically grind due to

(a) The high temperatures involved
(b) Frequent wheel clogging
(c) Rapid wheel wear
(d) Low work piece stiffness
In relation to the peripheral or surface

speeds of the grinding wheel and that of the
workpiece in cylindrical grinding of alloy
steel workpieces, the grinding wheel speed is
(a) Less than the speed of the workpiece
(b) Same as the speed of the workpiece
(c) Double the speed of the workpiece
(d) 65 to 75 times the speed of the workpiece.
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
IES 2009
IES 2002
Given that the peripheral speed of the grinding

wheel of 100 mm diameter for cylindrical grinding
of a steel work piece is 30 m/s, what will be the
estimated rotational speed of the grinding wheel in
revolution per minute (r.p.m.)?
(a) 11460
(b) 5730
(c) 2865
(d) 95
Ans. (b)
Which of the following materials are used in

grinding wheel?
1. Aluminium oxide
2. Cubic boron nitride
3. Silicon carbide
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)
IES 2001
IES 2000
The marking on a grinding wheel is '51 A 36 L 5 V 93'.

The code '36' represents the
(a) Structure
(b) Grade
(c) Grain size
(d) Manufacturer's number
Ans. (c)
The sequence of markings "S 14 K 14 S" on a grinding

wheel represents respectively
(a) Bond type, structure, grade, grain size and abrasive
type
(b) Abrasive
Ab i type,
t
grain
i size,
i
grade,
d structure
t t
and
d bond
b d
type
(c) Bond type, grade, structure, grain size and abrasive
type
(d) Abrasive type, structure, grade, grain size and bond
type
Ans. (b)
Page 33 of 70
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Set-2
IES 1995
IES 1993
In the grinding wheel of A 60 G 7 B 23, B stands for

(a) Resinoid bond
(b) Rubber bond
(c) Shellac bond
(d) Silicate bond
Tool life in the case of a grinding wheel is the time

(a) Between two successive regrinds of the wheel
(b) Taken for the wheel to be balanced
(c) Taken between two successive wheel dressings
(d) Taken for a wear of 1mm on its diameter
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
IES 2001
IES 1994
Assertion (A): Hard wheels are chosen for grinding

hard metals.
Reason (R): In hard wheels only the abrasive grains
are retained for long time.
(a)
( ) Both
B th A and
i di id ll true
t
and
d R is
i the
th
Ans. (d)
Consider the following statements regarding

grinding of high carbon steel:
1. Grinding at high speed results in the reduction of
chip thickness and cutting forces per grit.
2. Aluminium
Al i i
oxide
id wheels
h l are employed.
l d
3. The grinding wheel has to be of open structure.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 3 are correct
Ans. (b)
IES 1999
IES 1993
Consider the following reasons:

1. Grinding wheel is soft
2. RPM of grinding wheel is too low
3. Cut is very fine
4. An improper cutting fluid is used
A grinding wheel may become loaded due to reasons
stated at
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
In centre less grinding, the work piece centre will be

(a) Above the line joining the two wheel centres
(b) Below the line joining the two wheel centres
(c) On the line joining the two wheel centres
(d) At the intersection of the line joining the wheel
centres with the work plate plane.
Ans. (a)
Page 34 of 70
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Set-2
IES 2000
IES 1996
Consider the following advantages:

1. Rapid process
2. Work with keyways can be ground
3. No work holding device is required.
Which of these are the advantages of centre less
grinding?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (d)
A grinding wheel of 150 mm diameter is rotating at

3000 rpm. The grinding speed is
Ans. (a)
IES 1993
IES 2007
Consider the following parameters:

1. Grinding wheel diameter.
2. Regulating wheel diameter.
3. Speed of the grinding wheel.
4. Speed of the regulating wheel.
5. Angle between the axes of grinding and regulating
wheels.
Among these parameters, those which influence the
axial feed rate in centreless grinding would include
(a) 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans. (a)
Honing Process gives surface finish of what order?

(a) 10 m (CLA)
(b) 1.0 m (CLA)
(c) 0.1 m (CLA)
(d) 0.01 m (CLA)
Ans. (c)
IES 1992
CLA value for Honing process is
(a) 6
(b) 0.05 3.0
(c) 0.05 1.0 (d) 0.025 0.1
Ans. (c)
IES 2001
Match ListI (Cutting Tools) with ListII (Applications)
and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List I
List II
A. Trepanning tool 1.
For surface finishing by
h i
honing
B. Side milling cutter 2.
For machining gears
C. Hob cutter
3.
For cutting keyways in shafts
D. Abrasive sticks
4.
For drilling large diameter
holes
Ans. (b)
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 1
3
2
4
(b) 4
3
2
1
(c) 1
2
3
4
(d) 4
2
3
1
Page 35 of 70
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Set-2
IES 1992
IES 1992
A surface finish of 0.025 0.1 micrometer CLA values

is to be produced. Which machining process would
you recommend?
(a) Grinding (b) Rough turning
(c)
(d) Honing
( ) Lapping
L
i
H i
Buffing wheels are mode of

(a) Softer metals
(b) Cotton fabric
(c) Carbon
(d) Graphite
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
IAS 2004
IAS 2000
The size effect refers to the increase in specific

cutting energy at low values of undeformed chip
thickness. It is due to which one of the following?
(a) Existence of ploughing force
(b) Work
W k hardening
h d i
(c) High strain rate
(d) Presence of high friction at chiptool interface.
Ans. (a)
Consider the following statements in respect of a

grinding wheel of specification, 51A 36L7R23,
using the standard alphanumeric codification:
1. Abrasive used in the wheel is aluminum oxide
2. The
Th grain
i size
i off abrasive
b i is
i medium
di
3. The wheel grade is medium hard
4. It has an open structure
5. It has resinoid as bonding agent
Which (If these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 4 and 5
Ans. (a)
IAS 1999
IAS 2001
Assertion (A): The grade of a grinding wheel is a

measure of hardness of the abrasive used for the
wheel.
Reason (R): Grading is necessary for making right
selection of the wheel for a particular work.
work
Ans. (d)

The setup for internal centreless grinding consists of a
regulating wheel, a pressure roll and a support roll, between
which the tubular workpiece is supported with the grinding
wheel within the tube, wherein
1.The grinding wheel, workpiece and regulating wheel centers
must lie on one line
2.The directions of rotation of workpiece and grinding wheel are
same
3.The directions of rotation of pressure roll, support roll and
regulating wheel are same
4.The directions of rotation of grinding wheel and regulating
wheel are same
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b)
1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d)
3 and 4
Ans. (a)
Page 36 of 70
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Set-2
IAS 1997
IAS 2007
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Drill press :
Trepanning
2. Centreless grinding:
Through feeding
3. Capstan lathe:
Ram type turret
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer

using the code given below the Lists:
List I
List II
(Machine Tool/ Cutting Tool)
(Part/ Characteristics)
g lathe1.
g taper
p
A. Screw cutting
Self locking
B. Drill
2.
Chasing dial
C. End mill
3.
Wiper insert
D. Grinding wheel
4.
Self releasing taper
5.
Balance weights
Ans. (b)
Code:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
5
3
1
(b) 2
1
4
5
(c) 4
1
3
5
(d) 2
5
4
1
IAS 1999
IAS 2001
Which one of the following processing sequences

will give the best accuracy as well as surface finish?
(a) Drilling, reaming and grinding
(b) Drilling, boring and grinding
(c) Drilling, reaming and lapping
(d) Drilling, reaming and electroplating
Which one of the following grinding wheels (with

Grade, Grit and Bond) is suitable for cutter
grinding?
(a) K 60 vitrified
(b) K 320 vitrified
( ) T 60
(c)
6 resinoid
i id
(d) T 320 resinoid
i id
Ans.(a)
Ans. (c)
Page 37 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 2006
NTMM
BySKMondal
Arrange the processes in the increasing order of

their maximum material removal rate.
Electrochemical Machining (ECM)
Ultrasonic Machining (USM)
Electron Beam Machining (EBM)
Laser Beam Machining (LBM) and
Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)
(a) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM
(b) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(c) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(d) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM
Ans. (d)
IES 2007
IES 2009
Consider the following statements in relation to the

unconventional machining processes:
1. Different forms of energy directly applied to the
piece to have shape transformation or material removal
from work surface.
surface
2. Relative motion between the work and the tool is
essential.
3. Cutting tool is not in physical contact with work
piece.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
Which one of the following statements is correct in

respect of unconventional machining processes?
(a) The cutting tool is in direct contact with the job
(b) The tool material needs to be harder than the job
material
t i l
(c) The tool is never in contact with the job
(d) There has to be a relative motion between the tool
and the job
Ans. (c)
IAS 2002
Match List I (Processes) with List II (Tolerances
obtained) and select the correct answer using the codes
List I
List II
(Processes)
(Tolerances obtained)
A. Plasma Arc machining 1.
75 microns
B. Laser Beam machining 2.
25 microns
C. Abrasive Jet machining 3.
50 microns
D. Ultrasonic machining
4.
125 microns Ans. (c)
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
1
3
2
(b) 3
2
4
1
(c) 4
2
3
1
(d) 3
1
4
2
PSU
ECMcannotbeundertakenfor
(a)steel
(b)Nickelbasedsuperalloy
(c)Al2O3
(d)Titaniumalloy
y Ans.(c)
Page 38 of 70
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Set-2
Example
PSU
Commercial ECM is carried out at a combination
of
(a) low voltage high current
(b) low current low voltage
(c) high current high voltage
(d) low current low voltage
UsingECMremove5cm3/minfromanironworkpiece,
whatcurrentisrequired?
Atomicweightofiron56,density7.8g/cm3 valency,2
Ans. (a)
Example
Example(GATE2009)
Calculate the material removal rate and the

electrode feed rate in the electrochemical
machining of an iron surface that is 25 mm 25 mm
in crosssection using NaCl in water as electrolyte.
The gap between the tool and the workpiece is 0.25
mm. The supply voltage is 12 V DC. The specific
resistance of the electrolyte is 3 c m
For iron, Valency, Z = 2
Atomic weight, A = 55.85
Density, = 7860 kg / m3
Electrochemicalmachiningisperformedtoremove
materialfromanironsurfaceof20mmx20mmunder
thefollowingconditions:
Interelectrodegap
=
0.2mm
S
SupplyVoltage(DC)
l V lt (DC) =
12V
V
Specificresistanceofelectrolyte
=2cm
AtomicweightofIron =
55.85
Valency ofIron =
2
Faraday'sconstant
=
96540Coulombs
Thematerialremovalrate(ing/s)is
Example
Example
Composition of a Nickel superalloy is as follows:

Ni = 70.0%, Cr = 20.0%, Fe = 5.0% and rest Titanium
Calculate rate of dissolution if the area of the tool is 1500
mm2 and a current of 1000 A is being passed through the
cell.
cell Assume dissolution to take place at lowest valancy
of the elements.
The electrochemical machining of an iron surface that is

25 mm 25 mm in crosssection using NaCl in water as
electrolyte. The gap between the tool and the workpiece
is 0.25 mm. The supply voltage is 12 V DC. The specific
resistance of the electrolyte is 3 cm.
Estimate the electrolyte flow rate. Specific heat of the
electrolyte is given as 0.997 cal/gC. The ambient
temperature is 35C and the electrolyte boiling
temperature, is 95C.
Density, = 7860 kg/m3
Page 39 of 70
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Set-2
Example
IES 2000
In ECM operation of pure iron an equilibrium gap of 2

mm is to be kept. Determine supply voltage, if the total
overvoltage is 2.5 V. The resistivity of the electrolyte is 50
mm and the set feed rate is 0.25 mm/min.

In electrochemical grinding,
1. A rubber bonded alumina grinding wheel acts as the
cathode and the workplace as the anode.
2.
2 A copper bonded alumina grinding wheel acts as the
cathode and the work piece as the anode.
3. Metal removal takes place due to the pressure
applied by the grinding wheel.
4. Metal removal takes place due to electrolysis.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
GATE 2008
GATE 2001
A researcher conducts electrochemical machining

(ECM) on a binary alloy (density 6000 kg/m3) of iron
(atomic weight 56, valency 2) and metal P (atomic
weight 24, valency 4). Faraday's constant = 96500
In ECM, the material removal is due to

(a) Corrosion
(b) Erosion
(c) Fusion
(d) Ion displacement
coulomb/mole. Volumetric material removal rate of

the alloy is 50 mm3/s at a current of 2000 A. The
Ans. (d)
percentage of the metal P in the alloy is closest to

(a) 40
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 79 Ans. (b)
GATE 1997
GATE 1992
Selection electrolyte for ECM is as follows:

(a) Nonpassivating electrolyte for stock removal and
passivating electrolyte for finish control
(b) Passivating electrolyte for stock removal and non
passivating
i ti electrolyte
l t l t for
f finish
fi i h control
t l
(c) Selection of electrolyte is dependent on current
density
(d) Electrolyte selection is based on tool work
electrodes
Ans. (d)
The two main criteria for selecting the electrolyte in

Electrochemical Machining (ECM) is that the
electrolyte should
(a) Be chemically stable
(b) Not
N t allow
ll dissolution
di l ti off cathode
th d material
t i l
(c) Not allow dissolution of anode material
(d) Have high electrical conductivity
Ans. (a, d)
Page 40 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 1997
IES 2002
Inter electrode gap in ECG is controlled by

(a) Controlling the pressure of electrolyte flow
(b) Controlling the applied static load
(c) Controlling the size of diamond particle in the wheel
(d) Controlling the texture of the work piece
Ans. (c)
Assertion (A): In ECM, the shape of the cavity is the

mirror image of the tool, but unlike EDM, the tool
wear in ECM is less.
Reason (R): The tool in ECM is a cathode.
(a)
and
( ) Both
B th A and
i di id ll true
t
d R is
i the
th
Ans. (d)
IES 1997
IES2011Conventional
Which one of the following processes does not

cause tool wear?
(a) Ultrasonic machining
(b) Electrochemical machining
(c) Electric discharge machining
(d) Anode mechanical machining
Discuss the effects of insufficient dielectric and

electrolyte circulation in the interelectrode gap on the
Electric Discharge machining and Electro Chemical
Machining process respectively.
[5 Marks]
Ans. (b)
GATE 1994
IES2009Conventional
What is the principle of metal removal in EDM
process?
ii. Describe the process with the help of sketch.
iii. List advantages and limitations of the system.
i.
[15marks]
Electric discharge machining is more efficient

process than Electrochemical machining for
producing large noncircular holes.
The above statement is
( ) True
(a)
T
(b) False
(c) Cant say
(d) Insufficient data
Ans. (a)
Page 41 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 2004
GATE 2003
The mechanism of material removal in EDM

process is
(a) Melting and Evaporation
(b) Melting and Corrosion
(c) Erosion and Cavitation
(d) Cavitation and Evaporation
As tool and work are not in contact in EDM process

(a) No relative motion occurs between them
(b) No wear of tool occurs
(c) No power is consumed during metal cutting
(d) No force between tool and work occurs
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
GATE 1999
GATE 2007
In ElectroDischarge Machining (EDM), the tool is

made of
(a) Copper
(b) High Speed Steel
(c) Cast Iron
(d) Plain Carbon Steel
Ans. (a)
In electro discharge machining (EDM), if the

thermal conductivity of tool is high and the specific
heat of work piece is low, then the tool wear rate
and material removal rate are expected to be
respectively
(a) High and high
(b) Low and low
(c) High and low
(d) Low and high
Ans. (d)
GATE 2005
A zigzag cavity in a block of
high strength alloy is to be
finish machined. This can be
carried out by using
(a) Electricdischargemachining
(b) Electrochemicalmachining
(c) Laserbeammachining
(d) Abrasiveflowmachining
IES 2005
Which of the following is/are used as low wearing
tool material(s) in electric discharge machining?
(a) Copper and brass
(b) Aluminium and graphite
(c) Silver tungsten and copper tungsten
(d) Cast iron
Ans. (c)
Ans.(a)
Page 42 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 2000
GATE 1994
Deep hole drilling of small diameter, say 0.2 mm is

done with EDM by selecting the tool material as
(a) Copper wire
(b) Tungsten wire
(c) Brass wire
(d) Tungsten carbide
Ans. (b)
Ultrasonic machining is about the best process for

making holes in glass which are comparable in size
with the thickness of the sheet.
(a)
( ) True
T
(b) False
(c) Cant say
(d) Insufficient data
Ans. (a)
GATE 1993
IES2011
In ultrasonic machining process, the material

removal rate will be higher for materials with
(a) Higher toughness
(b) Higher ductility
(c) Lower toughness
(d) Higher fracture strain
USM has good machining performance for :

(a) Al
(b) Steel
((c)) Super
p alloys
y
(d) Refractory material
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
GATE 1992
IES 2009
In Ultrasonic Machining (USM) the material

removal rate would
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Increase and then decrease
(d) decrease and then increase
with increasing mean grain diameter of the abrasive
material.
By which one of the following processes the

metering holes in injector nozzles of diesel engines
can be suitably made?
(a) Ultrasonic machining
(b) Abrasive
Ab i jet
j t machining
hi i
(c) Electron beam machining
(d) Chemical machining
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
Page 43 of 70
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Set-2
IES 2006
IAS 1996
During ultrasonic machining, the metal removal is

achieved by
(a) High frequency eddy currents
(b) high frequency sound waves
(c) Hammering action of abrasive particles
(d) Rubbing action between tool and workpiece
Ans. (c)
During ultrasonic machining, the metal removal is

affected by the
(a) Hammering action of abrasive particles
(b) Rubbing action between tool and workpiece
(c) High frequency sound waves
(d) High frequency eddy currents
Ans. (c)
GATE2011
GATE 1992
Match the following components with the appropriate
machining processes:
Component
Process
(A) Square hole in a high strength alloy
(1)
Milling
((B)) Square
q
hole in a ceramic component
p
((2))
Drilling
g
(C) Blind holes in a die
(3)
ECM
(D) Turbine blade profile on high strength alloy(4) Jig boring
Ans. (b)
(5)
EDM
(6)
USM
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
3
(b)
5
6
1
3
(c) 4
2
1
3
(d)
3
1
2
4
Match the following non traditional machining

processes with the corresponding material removal
mechanism:
Machiningprocess
Mechanismofmaterialremoval
P.Chemicalmachining
1.Erosion
Q.Electro
Q
Electro chemical
machining
2 Corrosivereaction
2.Corrosivereaction
R.Electro discharge
machining
3.Iondisplacement
S.Ultrasonicmachining
4.Fusionandvaporization
(a)P 2,Q 3,R 4,S 1(b)P 2,Q 4,R 3,S 1

(c)P 3,Q 2,R 4,S 1(d)P 2,Q 3,R 1,S 4
Ans.(a)
GATE 2007
GATE 1998
Matchthemostsuitablemanufacturingprocessesforthe
followingparts.
Parts
ManufacturingProcesses
P. Computerchip
1.
ElectrochemicalMachining
Q. Metalformingdiesandmoulds
g
2.
UltrasonicMachining
R. Turbineblade
3.
Electrodischarge
Machining Ans.(a)
S. Glass
4.
PhotochemicalMachining
Codes:P
Q
R
S
P
Q
R
S
(a) 4
3
1
2
(b) 4
3
2
1
(c) 3
1
4
2
(d) 1
2
4
3
List I
(A) ECM
(B) EDM
(C) USM
(D) LBM
Codes:A
(a) 4
(c) 4
B
1
2
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
C
2
1
List II
Plastic shear
Erosion/Brittle fracture
Corrosive reaction
Melting and vaporization
Ion displacement
Ans. (b)
Plastic shear and ion displacement
D
A
B
C
D
3
(b) 5
4
2
4
3
(d) 3
1
2
4
Page 44 of 70
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Set-2
IES 2008
IES 1998

using the code given below the lists:
ListI
ListII Ans. (a)
(Unconventional machining process) (Basic process)
A.
1.
Thermal
A Electro polishing
1
B. Electrochemical machining
2.
Mechanical
C. Abrasive jet machining
3.
Electrochemical
D. Electrical discharge machining 4.
Chemical
Code:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
3
2
1
(b) 2
1
4
3
(c) 4
1
2
3
(d) 2
3
4
1
Match ListI (Machining process) with ListII

(Associated medium) and select the correct answer
ListI
ListII Ans. (b)
A.
1.
Kerosene
A Ultrasonic
Ult
i machining
hi i
K
B. EDM
2.
Abrasive slurry
C. ECM
3.
Vacuum
D. EBM
4.
Salt solution
Code:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
3
4
1
(b) 2
1
4
3
(c) 4
1
2
3
(d) 4
3
2
1
IES 2005
IES 2003
Match List I (Machining Process) with List II

(Application) and select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List I
List II
A. EDM 1.
Holes & cavities in hard & brittle materials
B.
B LBM 2.
2
Micro
Microdrilling
drilling & micro
microwelding
welding of
materials
C. USM 3.
Shaping of hard metals or reshaping of
cemented carbide tools
D. ECM 4.
Shaping of cemented carbide dies and
punches
Ans. (c)
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
3
(b) 3
2
1
4
(c) 4
2
1
3
(d) 3
1
2
4
Match List I (Materials) with List II (Machining) and

select the correct answer using the codes given below
the Lists:
Ans. (d)
List I
List II
(Materials)
(Machining)
A. Machining of conducting materials
1.
ECM
B. Ruby rod
2.
EDM
C. Electrolyte
3.
USM
D. Abrasive slurry
4.
LBM
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
2
1
3
(b) 4
2
3
1
(c) 2
4
3
1
(d) 2
4
1
3
IES 2003
IAS 2002
Assertion (A): Water jet machining uses high

pressure and high velocity water stream which acts
like a saw and cuts a narrow groove in the material.
Reason (R): The force required for cutting is
generated from sudden change in the momentum
of the water stream.
Ans. (a)
Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly

matched?
(Unconventional
(Application)
machining method)
(a) Electric discharge : Machining of electrically
conductive materials
(b) Laser beam
: Micromachining
(c) Plasma arc
: Faster cutting of hard materials
(d) Electron beam : Faster metal removal rate
Ans. (d)
Page 45 of 70
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Set-2
IAS 1999
IES 2004
Match List I (Unconventional machining process) with

List II (Typical application) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
List II
Ans. (d)
A.
A Electro discharge machining 1.
1 Drilling micro holes in
very hard metals
B. Electro chemical machining 2. Drilling holes in glass
C. Ultrasonic machining
3.
Die sinking
D. Laser beam machining 4.
Machining contours
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
2
3
1
(b) 3
4
1
2
(c) 4
3
2
1
(d) 3
4
2
1
Match List I (Machining processes) with List II

(Operating media) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists:
List I
List II
A. Abrasive jet machining
1.
Dielectric
B. Electron beam machining
2.
Electrolyte
C. Electrochemical machining
3.
Abrasive slurry
D. Electrodischarge machining 4.
Vacuum
5.
Air
Ans. (a)
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 5
4
2
1
(b) 4
5
2
1
(c) 4
2
3
5
(d) 2
5
3
4
IES 1999
GATE 2004

using the codes given below the Lists:
ListI
ListII
A. Die sinking
1. Abrasive jet machining
B. Debarring
g
2. Laser beam machining
g
C. Fine hole drilling (thin materials) 3. EDM
D. Cutting/sharpening hard materials
4. Ultrasonic machining
Ans. (c)
5. Electrochemical grinding
Code:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
5
4
1
(b) 2
4
1
3
(c) 3
1
2
5
(d) 4
5
1
3
Typical machining operations are to be performed on hard

tomachine materials by using the processes listed below.
Choose the best set of OperationProcess combinations
Operation
Process
P. Debarring (internal surface) 1.
Plasma Arc Machining
Q Die sinking
Q.
2
2.
Abrasive Flow Machining
R. Fine hole drilling in thin sheets 3. Electric Discharge
Machining
S. Tool sharpening
4.
Ultrasonic Machining
5.
Laser beam Machining
6.
Electrochemical Grinding
(a) P1 Q5 R3 S4
(b)
P1 Q4 R1 S2
(c) P5 Q1 R2 S6
(d)
P2 Q3 R5 S6
Ans. (d)
Ch10:NonConventionalMachiningOperation
Q.No
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Option
D
B
B
D
D
B
A
Q.No
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
Option
D
A
B
D
A
A
B
Page 46 of 70
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Set-2
NC,CNC&Robotics
BySKMondal
IAS 1996
Assertion (A): The temperature control of an
electric iron is an example of servomechanism.
Reason (R): It is an automatic control system.
correctt explanation
l
ti off A
Ans. (d)
GATE 1994
IES 1999
CNC machines are more accurate than conventional

machines because they have a high resolution
encoder and digital readouts for positioning.
True
T
or false?
f l ?
Ans. True
Consider the following statements

numerically controlled machine tools:
1. They reduce nonproductive time
2. They reduce fixturing
3. They reduce maintenance cost
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
IES 1995
regarding
IES 2009
Consider
the
following
characteristics
of
production jobs:
1. Processing of parts frequently in small lots
2. Need to accommodate design changes of products.
3. Low rate of metal removal
4. Need for holding close tolerances
The characteristics which favour the choice of
numerically controlled machines would include
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
In which of the following machining manual part

programming is done?
(a) CNC machining
(b) NC machining
(c) DNC machining
(d) FMS machining
Ans. (b)
Page 47 of 70
1
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Set-2
GATE 1993
IES 2007
With reference to NC machine, which of the

following statement is wrong?
(a) Both closedloop and openloop control systems are
used
(b) Paper
tapes,
floppy
tapes
and
P
t
fl
t
d cassettes
tt are used
d for
f
data storage
(c) Digitizers may be used as interactive input devices
(d) Post processor is an item of hardware
What are the main components of an NC machine?

1. Part program
2. Machine Control Unit
3. Servo motor
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
IES 2009
JWM2010
Consider the following components regarding numerical
control system :
1. Programme of instructions
2. Machine control unit
3. Processing
P
i equipment
i
Which of these are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
What is the purpose of satellite computers in

Distributed Numerical Control machines?
(a) To act as standby systems
(b) To share the processing of largesize NC programs
(c) To serve a group of NC machines
(d) To network with another DNC setup
Ans. (c)
IES 1999
JWM2010
Consider the following components:

1. A dedicated computer
2. Bulk memory
3. Telecommunication lines
Which of these components are required for a DNC
system?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
ConsiderthefollowingadvantagesofDNCsystems:
1.Timesharing
2.Greatercomputationalcapability
3.Remotecomputerlocation
Ans. (c)
And.(d)
Whichoftheaboveis/arecorrect?
(a)1and2only
(b)2and3only
(c)2only
(d)1,2and3
Page 48 of 70
2
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Set-2
IES 2002S1
Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer:
List I
List II
(NC machine tool systems)
(Features)
A.
It has an integrated automatic tool
A NC system 1.
1
changing unit and a component
indexing device
B. CNC system 2.
A number of machine tools are
controlled by a computer. No tape
reader, the part program is
transmitted directly to the
machine tool from the
computer memory
IES 2002Contd..FromS1
C.
DNC system
3.
D. Machining centre 4.
Codes:A
(a) 4
(c) 4
GATE 2007
B
2
3
C
3
2
D
1
1
The controller consists of

softwired computer and
hard wired logic Graphic
display of tool path is
also possible
The instructions on tape is
prepared in binary
decimal form and operated by
a series of coded
instructions
Ans. (c)
A
B
C
D
(b) 1
3
2
4
(d) 1
2
3
4
IES 1994
WhichtypeofmotorisNOTusedinaxisorspindle
drivesofCNCmachinetools?
(a) Inductionmotor
(b) DCservomotor
(c) Steppermotor
(d) Linearservomotor
Ans.(a)
Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided

by
(a) Synchronous motors
(b) Induction motors
(c) Stepper motors
(d) Servomotors.
Ans. (d)
IES 2002
Example
In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and

control
(a) Table position
(b) Table velocity
(c) Spindle speed
(d) Coolant flow
Ans. (b)
y A DC servomotor is coupled directly to a leadscrew
which drives the table of an NC machine tool. A

digital encoder, which emits 500 pulses per
revolution, is mounted on the other end of the
leadscrew If the leadscrew pitch is 5 mm and the
leadscrew.
motor rotates at 600 rpm, calculate
(a) The linear velocity of the table
(b) The BLU of the NC system
(c) The frequency of pulses transmitted by the encoder.
Page 49 of 70
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Set-2
IES2011Conventional
StatementforLinkedAnswersquestions:S1
y The table of a CNC machine is driven by a Lead screw which
is rotated by a DC servomotor. A digital encoder which emits

1000 pulses per second is mounted on the lead screw as a
pitch is 6 mm and motor
feedback device. If the lead screw p
rotates at 500 rpm, find
1.
Basic length Units of the system
2.
Linear velocity of the table.
3.
Frequency of pulses generated by the feedback device.
In the feed drive of a PointtoPoint open loop CNC

drive, a stepper motor rotating at 200 steps/rev drives a
table through a gear box and lead screwnut mechanism
(pitch = 4 mm, number of starts = 1).
Output rotational speed
The gear ratio = Input rotational speed is given by U = 14
The stepper motor (driven by voltage pulses from a pulse
generator) executes 1 step/pulse of the pulse generator.
The frequency of the pulse train from the pulse
generator is f = 10,000 pulses per minute.
[5 Marks]
GATE 2008Q1 (StatementinS1)
GATE 2008Q2 (StatementinS1)
The Basic Length Unit (BLU), i.e., the table

movement corresponding to 1 pulse of the pulse
generator, is
(a) 0.5 microns
(b) 5 microns
(c)
( ) 50 microns
i
(d) 500 microns
i
A customer insists on a modification to change the BLU

of the CNC drive to 10 microns without changing the
table speed. The modification can be accomplished by
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
GATE 1997
GATE 1992
In a point to point control NC machine, the slides

are positioned by an integrally mounted stepper
motor drive. If the specification of the motor is
1o/pulse, and the pitch of the lead screw is 3.6 mm,
what is the expected positioning accuracy?
( a ) 1 m
(b) 10 m
(c ) 50 m
(d ) 100 m
In a pointtopoint type of NC system

(a) Control of position and velocity of the tool is
essential
(b) Control of only position of the tool is sufficient
(c) Control of only velocity of the tool is sufficient
(d) Neither position nor velocity need be controlled
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
Page 50 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 2006
GATE2005
NC contouring is an example of
(a) Continuous path positioning
(b) Pointtopoint positioning
(c) Absolute positioning
(d) Incremental positioning
WhichamongtheNCoperationsgivenbeloware
continuouspathoperations?
ArcWelding(AW)
Milling(M)
Drilling(D)
PunchingisSheetMetal(P)
L
LaserCuttingofSheetMetal(LC)SpotWelding(SW)
C i fSh M l(LC)S W ldi (SW)
(a) AW,LCandM
(c) D,LC,PandSW
Ans. (a)
(b)AW,D,LCandM
(d)D,LC,andSW
Ans.(a)
IES 2000
IES 1996
Assertion (A): The axis of an NC drilling machine

spindle is denoted as zaxis.
Reason (R): In NC machine tool, the axis
perpendicular to both x and yaxis is designated as
zaxis
z axis
Ans. (a)
Assertion (A): Numerically controlled machines

having more than three axes do not exist.
Reason (R): There are only three Cartesian
coordinates namely xyz.
( ) Both
(a)
B th A and
i di id ll true
t
and
d R is
i the
th
Ans. (d)
IES 2003S1
While part programming
in CNC machines, the
input
of
dimensional
information for the tool
path can be given in the
absolute
coordinate
system or in incremental
coordinate system. The
above figure shows the
route to be followed by the
tool from O to C, i.e., O A
B C.
IES 2003Contd..FromS1
If incremental coordinates system is used, the co
ordinates of each point A, B and C are
(a) A: X 5.0, Y 10.0
(b) A: X 5.0, Y 10.0
B: X 20.0, Y5.0
B: X 25, Y 15.0
C: X 10.0, Y 10.0
C: X 35, Y 5.0
(c) A: X 10.0, Y 5.0
(d) A: X 10.0, Y 5.0
B: X 15.0, Y 25.0
B: X 5.0, Y 20.0
C: X 15.0, Y 35.0
C: X 10.0, Y 10.0
Ans. (a)
Page 51 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 2004
GATE 2010
During the execution of a CNC part program block

N020 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will
be
(a) Circular Interpolation clockwise
(b) Circular Interpolation counter clockwise
(c) Linear Interpolation
(d) Rapid feed
Ans. (a)
In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40,

G02 and G91 refer to
(a) Circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction
and incremental dimension
(b) Circular
Ci l interpolation
i t
l ti in
i counterclockwise
t l k i direction
di ti
and absolute dimension
(c) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and
incremental dimension
(d) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and
absolute dimension
IES 2009
GATE 2001
Interpolation in the controller refers to control of

which one of the following in a CNC machine?
(a) Loading/unloading of jobs on machine
(b) Loading/unloading of tools from the tool changer
(c) Axes of machine for contouring
(d) Coolant and miscellaneous functions on machine
Ans. (c)
In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be

moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2) along a
circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the
operation, the tool is at (5, 4). The correct G and M
code for this motion is
(a) N010 G03 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
(b) N010 G02 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
(c) N010 G01 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
(d) N010 G00 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Ans. (b)
GATE 2005
GATE 2000
The tool of an NC machine has to move along a

circular arc from (5, 5) to (10,10) while performing an
operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which
one of the following NC tool path commands
performs the above mentioned operation?
(a) N010G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
(b) N010G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
(c) N010G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
(d) N010G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Ans. (d)
In finish machining of an island on a casting with

CNC milling machine, an end mill with 10 mm
diameter is employed. The corner points of the
island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30), (50, 30), and
(50, 0). By applying cutter radius right
compensation, the trajectory of the cutter will be
(a) (5, 0), (5, 35), (55, 35), (55, 5), (5, 5)
(b) (0, 5), (55, 5), (55, 35), (5, 35), (5, 5)
(c) (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)
(d) (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Ans. (b)
Page 52 of 70
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Set-2
GATE 2009
IES 1993
A 'block' of information in N.C. machine program
means
(a) One row on tape
(b) A word comprising several rows on tape
(c) One complete instruction
(d) One complete program for a job
Ans. (c)
y Ans. (c)
IES 1996
IES 1995
In manual programming and tape preparation for a

NC drilling machine, the spindle speed was coded
as S 684 (using the magicthree code). The spindle
speed in rpm will be
(a) 684
(b) 68.4
(c) 840
(d) 6840
Ans. (a)
IES 1998

List I
List II
(A function connected
(Associated parameter)
with NC m/c tool)
A Interpolation
A.
1 Tape preparation
1.
B. Parity check
2. Canned cycle
C. Preparatory function
3. Drilling
D. Point to point control
4. Contouring
5. Turning
Code:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
3
(b) 4
1
2
5
(c) 5
1
3
2
(d) 1
4
3
2
Ans. (a)
IES2008
Which of the following are the rules of

programming NC machine tools in APT language?
1. Only capital letters are used
2. A period is placed at the end of each statement
3. Insertion of space does not affect the APT word
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 alone
Ans. (d)
Name the four types of statements in a complete APT

part program. Prepare part program for geometry
description of the contour shown in the figure below:
Y
[15Marks]
40
30
20
L2
L3
135
80
20
C1
L4
L1
C2
L5
P2
20
20
P1
Page 53 of 70
7
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES2007
Prepare part using APT language for milling the contour

shown in Fig. in a single pass. D
[20Marks]
110
IES2006
Prepare part program to machine the contour shown in

the figure using APT on CNC milling machine.
[15Marks]
R30
R30
Q
R20
110
120
100 mm
80
E
R40
40
+ 40
100
P
Material : M S.
50
60
200 mm
8 mm
Material: MS
Thickness: 8.0 mm
IES 1997
IES2011Conventional
State the method of defining line segment of
cutter motion using APT program format.
[5 Marks]
Which of the following are valid statements for

point to point motion of the tool in APT language?
1. GO/TO/............
2. GO DLTA/............
3. GO/TO, .
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
IES 1995
In APT language, the cutter motion in incremental
coordinate mode is addressed as
(a) GO/TO/.....
(b) GO/TO.....
(c) GO DLTA/....
(d) GO FWD/...
IES2011
Trajectoryofarobotmean:
(a)Pathtracedbytheendeffectors
(b)KinematicsofRobot
( )
(c)Robotjoints
j
(d)Robotprogramming
Ans.(a)
Ans. (c)
Page 54 of 70
8
12/30/2011
Set-2
IES2010
IES 2006

Good dynamic performance is usually difficult to achieve
in robots which contain a rotary base because
1. Position, speed and acceleration of the other joints cause
variations in the reflected torque and moment of inertia.
2. The moment of inertia reflected at the base depends upon the
weight of the object being carried.
3. The moment of inertia reflected at the base also depends upon
the distance between the base axis and the manipulated object.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
Which one of the following is the third basic

component of robots besides power supply and
control (memory) console?
(a) Software
(b) Coaxial cable
(c)
( ) Mechanical
M h i l unit
it arm (d) Microcomputer
Mi
t
Ans. (c)
IES 2000
IES 2006
Consider the following characteristics of a robot:

1. The tip of the robot arm moves from one point to
another with its inbetween path not being defined.
2. It can be used for drilling holes at difference points in a
workpiece.
workpiece
3. It can be used for V butt joint welding between two
points.
4. The memory capacity required for its control unit is low.
Which of these are the characteristics associated with a point
to point robot?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Which item best describes a CAM technology?

(a) Geometric modeling (b) Documentation
(c) Drafting
(d) Numerical control
Ans. (d)
IES 1996
IES 2006
Whichofthefollowingpairsarecorrectlymatched?
1. CNCmachinePostprocessor
2. Machiningcentre.Toolmagazine
3. DNC.FMS
(a) 1,2and3 (b) 1and2
(c) 1and3
(d)2and3
Flexible manufacturing allows for:

(a) Tool design and production
(b) Automated design
(c) Quick and inexpensive product change
(d) Quality control
Ans. (c)
Ans.(a)
Page 55 of 70
9
Set-2
12/30/2011
IES 2004
Consider the following characteristics:
1. Single machine tool
2. Manual materials handling system
3. Computer control
4. Random sequencing of parts to machines
Which of the above characteristics are associated with
flexible manufacturing system?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
Page 56 of 70
10
9/30/2011
Set-2
GATE 2001
Limit,Tolerance&Fits
Limit Tolerance&Fits
Allowance in limits and fits refers to

(a) Maximum clearance between shaft and hole
(b) Minimum clearance between shaft and hole
(c) Difference between maximum and minimum size of
hole
(d) Difference between maximum and minimum size of
shaft
Ans. (b)
BySKMondal
GATE 1998
GATE 2010
In the specification of dimensions and fits,

(a) Allowance is equal to bilateral tolerance
(b) Allowance is equal to unilateral tolerance
(c) Allowance is independent of tolerance
(d) Allowance is equal to the difference between
maximum and minimum dimension specified by the
tolerance.
Ans. (c)
0.009
A shaft has a dimension,350.025

The respective values of fundamental deviation and
tolerance are
(a) 0.025, 0.008

(c) 0.009, 0.008
(b) 0.025,0.016
(d) 0.009,0.016
Ans.(d)
GATE 1992
GATE 2004
TwoshaftsAandBhavetheirdiametersspecifiedas
100 0.1mmand0.1 0.0001mmrespectively.
Whichofthefollowingstatementsis/aretrue?
(a) ToleranceinthedimensionisgreaterinshaftA
(b) Therelativeerrorinthedimensionisgreaterinshaft
A
(c) ToleranceinthedimensionisgreaterinshaftB
(d) Therelativeerrorinthedimensionissameforshaft
AandshaftB
Ans.(a)
In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size

+0.020
25.000
mm mate with holes of size 25.0000.000 mm.
The maximum possible clearance in the assembly
will be
( ) 10 microns
(a)
i
(b) 20 microns
(c) 30 microns
(d) 60 microns
Ans. (c)
+0.040
0.0100
Page 57 of 70
1
9/30/2011
Set-2
GATE 2007
IES 2005
0 .0 5 0
A hole is specified as 4 0
mm. The mating
shaft has a clearance fit with minimum clearance of
0.01 mm. The tolerance on the shaft is 0.04 mm. The
maximum clearance in mm between the hole and
the shaft is
(a) 0.04
(b) 0.05
(c) 0.10
(d) 0.11
Ans. (c)
0 .0 0 0
The tolerance specified by the designer for the

diameter of a shaft is 20.00 0.025 mm. The shafts
produced by three different machines A, B and C
have mean diameters of 1999 mm, 2000 mm and
20.01 mm respectively, with same standard
deviation.
What
rejection
for
d i ti
Wh t will
ill be
b the
th percentage
t
j ti
f
the shafts produced by machines A, B and C?
(a) Same for the machines A, Band C since the standard
deviation is same for the three machines
(b) Least for machine A
(c) Least for machine B
(d) Least for machine C
Ans. (c)
GATE 2005
IES2011
In order to have interference fit, it is essential that

the lower limit of the shaft should be
(a) Greater than the upper limit of the hole
(b) Lesser than the upper limit of the hole
(c) Greater than the lower limit of the hole
(d) Lesser than the lower limit of the hole
Ans. (a)
Interference fit joints are provided for:

(a) Assembling bush bearing in housing
(b) Mounting heavy duty gears on shafts
((c)) Mounting
gp
pulleyy on shafts
(d) Assembly of flywheels on shafts
Ans. (a)
IES 2007
GATE2011
A hole is of dimension 9
+0.015
+0
mm. The
+0.010
p
g shaft is of dimension
corresponding
The resulting assembly has
(a) loose running fit
(b) close running fit
(c) transition fit
(d) interference fit
Ans. (c)
9 +0.001
mm.
Ans.(a)
Page 58 of 70
2
9/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2006
IES 2009
Which of the following is an interference fit?

(a) Push fit
(b) Running fit
(c) Sliding fit
(d) Shrink fit
Ans. (d)
Consider the following joints:

1. Railway carriage wheel and axle
2. IC engine cylinder and liner
Which of the above joints is/are the result(s) of
interference fit?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
Ans. (d)
IES 2008
IES 2004

1. The amount of interference needed to create a tight
joint varies with diameter of the shaft.
2. An interference fit creates no stress state in the
shaft.
h ft
3. The stress state in the hub is similar to a thick
walled cylinder with internal pressure.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
Consider the following fits:

1. I.C. engine cylinder and piston
2. Ball bearing outer race and housing
3. Ball bearing inner race and shaft
Which of the above fits are based on the interference
system?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
IES 2003
IES 2005
Match ListI (Phenomenon) with ListII (Significant

Parameters/Phenomenon) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
ListI
ListII
(Phenomenon)
(Significant
/
)
Parameters/Phenomenon)
A. Interference fit
1.
Viscosity index
B. Cyclic loading
2.
Interference
C. Gear meshing
3.
Notch sensitivity
D. Lubricating of bearings 4.
Induced
compressive
stress
[ Ans. (b)]
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
4
1
2
(b) 4
3
2
1
(c) 3
4
2
1
(d) 4
3
1
2
Assertion (A): Hole basis system is generally

preferred to shaft basis system in tolerance design
for getting the required fits.
Reason (R): Hole has to be given a larger tolerance
band than the mating shaft.
shaft
(d) A is false but R is true [Ans. (c)]
Page 59 of 70
3
9/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2008
IES2006Conventional
Find the limit sizes, tolerances and allowances for a
100 mm diameter shaft and hole pair designated by
F8h10. Also specify the type of fit that the above pair
belongs to. Given: 100 mm diameter lies in the
diameter step range of 80
120 mm. The fundamental
80120
deviation for shaft designation f is 5.5 D0.41
The values of standard tolerances for grades of IT 8
and IT 10 are 25i and 64i respectively.
Also, indicate the limits and tolerance on a diagram.
[15Marks]

A nomenclature 50 H8/p8 denotes that
1. Hole diameter is 50 mm.
2. It is a shaft base system.
3. 8 indicates fundamental deviation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
[Ans. (None)]
IES 2002
GATE 2009
In the tolerance specification 25 D 6, the letter D

represents
(a) Grade of tolerance
(b) Upper deviation
(c) Lower deviation
(d) Type of fit
[Ans. (c)]
What are the upper and lower limits of the shaft

represented by 60 f8?
Use the following data:
Diameter 60 lies in the diameter step of 5080 mm.
Fundamental tolerance unit,
i, in m= 0.45 D1/3 + 0.001D, where D is the
representative size in mm;
[Ans. (a)]
Tolerance value for lT8 = 25i.
Fundamental deviation for 'f shaft = 5.5D0.41
(a) Lower limit = 59.924 mm, Upper Limit = 59.970 mm
(b) Lower limit = 59.954 mm, Upper Limit = 60.000 mm
(c) Lower limit = 59.970 mm, Upper Limit = 60.016 mm
(d) Lower limit = 60.000 mm, Upper Limit = 60.046 mm
GATE 2000
GATE 1996
A fit is specified as 25H8/e8. The tolerance value for

a nominal diameter of 25 mm in IT8 is 33 microns
and fundamental deviation for the shaft is 40
microns. The maximum clearance of the fit in
microns is
(a) 7
(b) 7
(c) 73
(d) 106
[Ans. (d)]
The fit on a holeshaft system is specified as H7

s6.The type of fit is
(a) Clearance fit
(b) Running fit (sliding fit)
(c) Push fit (transition fit)
(d) Force fit (interference fit)
[Ans. (d)]
Page 60 of 70
4
9/30/2011
Set-2
GATE 2003
GATE 2003
The dimensional limits on a shaft of 25h7 are

(a) 25.000, 25.021 mm
(b) 25.000, 24.979 mm
(c) 25.000, 25.007 mm
(d) 25.000, 24.993 mm
[Ans. (b)]
[Ans.(b)]
GATE 1997
IES 2000
Three blocks B1 , B2 and B3 are

to be inserted in a channel of
width S maintaining a
minimum gap of width T =
0.125 mm, as shown in Figure.
For P = 18.
18 75 0.08;
0 08;
Q = 25.00 0.12;
R = 28.125 0.1 and
S = 72.35 + X, (where all
dimensions are in mm), the
tolerance X is
(a) +0.38
[Ans.(d)]
(b) 0.38
Which one of the following tolerances set on inner

diameter and outer diameter respectively of headed
jig bush for press fit is correct?
(a) G7 h 6
(b) F7 n6
( ) H 7h
(c)
h6
(d) F7j6
F j6
[Ans. (b)]
(c)+0.05
(d)0.05
GATE 2004
GATE 1995
GO and NOGO plug gages are to be designed for a

0.05
hole 200.01 mm. Gage tolerances can be taken as 10%
of the hole tolerance. Following ISO system of gage
design, sizes of GO and NOGO gage will be
respectively
(a) 20.010 mm and 20.050 mm
(b) 20.014 mm and 20.046 mm
(c) 20.006 mm and 20.054 mm
(d) 20.014 mm and 20.054 mm [Ans. (b)]
Checking the diameter of a hole using GONOGO

gauges is an, example of inspection by
..(variables/attributes)
( ) Variables
(a)
V i bl
(b) Attributes
(c) Cant say
(d) Insufficient data [Ans. (b)]
Page 61 of 70
5
9/30/2011
Set-2
GATE 2006
A ring gauge is used to measure
(a) Outside diameter but not roundness
(b) Roundness but not outside diameter
(c) Both outside diameter and roundness
(d) Only external threads
[Ans. (c)]
Page 62 of 70
6
9/30/2011
Set-2
GATE 2008
MeasurementofLines&Surfaces
S1
A displacement sensor (a dial indicator) measures the

lateral displacement of a mandrel mounted on the taper
hole inside a drill spindle. The mandrel axis is an
extension of the drill spindle taper hole axis and the
protruding portion of the mandrel surface is perfectly
cylindrical. Measurements are taken with the sensor
placed at two positions P and Q as shown in the figure.
The readings are recorded as Rx = maximum deflection
minus minimum deflection, corresponding to sensor
position at X, over one rotation.
BySKMondal
GATE 2008contdfromS1
If Rp= RQ>0, which one of the
following would be consistent with the
observation?
(A) The drill spindle rotational axis is
coincident with the drill spindle taper
hole axis
(B) The drill spindle rotational axis
intersects the drill spindle taper hole
axis at point P
(C) The drill spindle rotational axis is
parallel to the drill spindle taper hole
axis
(D) The drill spindle rotational axis
intersects the drill spindle taper hole
axis at point Q
[Ans. (c)]
IES 2006
The M and Esystem in metrology are related to
measurement of:
(a) Screw threads
(b) Flatness
(c) Angularity
(d) Surface finish
[Ans. (d)]
IES 2007
IES 2008
What is the dominant direction of the tool marks or

scratches in a surface texture having a directional
quality, called?
(a) Primary texture (b) Secondary texture
(c)
( ) Lay
L
(d) Flaw
Fl
[Ans. (c)]
What term is used to designate the direction of the

predominant surface pattern produced by
machining operation?
(a) Roughness
(b) Lay
( ) Waviness
(c)
W i
(d) Cut
C t off
ff
[Ans. (b)]
Page 63 of 70
1
9/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2008
IES2010
using the code given below the lists:
List I
List II
(Symbols for direction of lay)
(Surface texture)
[Ans.(b)]
[Ans.(b)]
(a)
(c)
A
4
4
B
2
1
C
1
2
D
3
3
(b)
(d)
A
3
3
B
2
1
C
1
2
D
4
4
GATE 1997
GATE 2003
List I
List II
(A) Surface profilometer
1.
Calibration
(B) Light Section Microscope 2. Form tester
(C) Microkater
3.
Film thickness
measurement
(D) Interferometer 4.
Centre line average
5.
Comparator
[Ans. (b)]
6.
Surface lay measurement
Codes:A B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
3
(b) 4
3
5
1
(c) 4
2
1
3
(d) 3
1
2
4
Two slip gauges of 10 mm width measuring 1.000 mm

and 1.002 mm are kept side by side in contact with each
other lengthwise. An optical flat is kept resting on the
slip gauges as shown in the figure. Monochromatic light
of wavelength 0.0058928 mm is used in the inspection.
The total number of straight fringes that can be observed
on both slip gauges is
(a)2
(c)8
(b)6
(d)13
[Ans.(d)]
Page 64 of 70
2
9/30/2011
Set-2
GATE 1998
MiscellaneousofMetrology
Auto collimator is used to check

(a) Roughness
(b) Flatness
(c) Angle
(d) Automobile balance.
[Ans. (c)]
BySKMondal
IES 1998
GATE 1992
Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
ListI
ListII
(Measuring Device)
(Parameter Measured)
A. Diffraction grating
1.
Small angular deviations on long
flat surfaces
B.
B
Optical flat
2.
2
Online measurement of moving
parts
C. Auto collimators
3.
Measurement of gear pitch
D. Laser scan micrometer 4.
Surface texture using interferometer
5.
Measurement of very small
displacements
Code: A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 5
4
2
1
(b)
3
5
1
2
(c) 3
5
4
1
(d)
5
4
1
2
Match the instruments with the physical quantities they

measure:
Instrument
Measurement
(A) Pilottube
(1)
R.P.M. of a shaft
(B) McLeod Gauge
g
(2)
Displacement
p
(C) Planimeter
(3)
Flow velocity
(D) LVDT
(4) Vacuum
(5)
Surface finish
(6) Area
[Ans. (b)]
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
3
(b) 3
4
6
2
(c) 4
2
1
3
(d) 3
1
2
4
[Ans.(d)]
GATE 2004
GATE 1995
Match the following

Feature to be inspected
Instrument
P Pitch and Angle errors of screw thread 1. Auto Collimator
Q Flatness error of a surface plate 2. Optical Interferometer
R Alignment
Ali
error off a machine
hi slide
lid way 3. Dividing
Di idi Head
H d
and Dial Gauge
S Profile of a cam
4. Spirit Level
5. Sine bar
[Ans. (b)]
6. Tool maker's Microscope
(a) P6 Q2 R4 S6
(b) P5 Q2 R1 S6
(c) P6 Q4 R1 S3
(d) P1 Q4 R4 S2
List I
(Measuring instruments)
(A) Talysurf
1.
(B) Telescopic gauge
2.
(C) Transfer callipers
3.
(D) Autocollimator
4.
Codes:A B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
3
(b)
(c) 4
2
1
3
(d)
[Ans. (b)]
List II
(Application)
Tslots
Flatness
Internal diameter
Roughness
A
B
C
D
4
3
1
2
3
1
2
4
Page 65 of 70
1
9/30/2011
Set-2
GATE 2010
IAS 2001
A taper hole is inspected using a CMM, with a probe

of 2 mm diameter. At a height, Z = 10 mm from the
bottom, 5 points are touched and a diameter of
circle (not compensated for probe size) is obtained
as 20 mm. Similarly, a 40 mm diameter is obtained
at a height Z = 40 mm. the smaller diameter (in mm)
of hole at Z = 0 is
(a) 13.334
(b) 15.334
(c) 15.442
(d) 15.542
For transporting materials over long distances with

greater speed, which one of the following devices is
most suitable?
(a) Motor vehicle
(b) Industrial
I d t i l vehicle
hi l
(c) Belt conveyor
(d) Roller conveyor
[Ans. (b)]
[Ans.(a)]
IAS 1995
IAS 1994
For moving materials is varying paths, the material

handling equipments that is not suitable is
(a) Crane
(b) Conveyor
(c) Truck
(d) Hand trolley
[Ans. (b)]
Consider the following situations

1. Loads are uniform
2. Materials move relatively continuously
3. Movement rate is variable
4. Routes do not vary
For material transportation, conveyors are used when
the prevailing conditions include
(a) 1, 3, and 4 (b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
[Ans. (c)]
IES 2001
IAS 1998
During manufacture of cement, the handling of

limestone is done by
(a) Belt conveyor
(b) Bucket conveyor
(c) Overhead crane
(d) Forklift crane
[Ans. (b)]
Match ListI (Material handling equipments) with List

II (Application in a foundry) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
ListII
A. Belt conveyor
1.
To move the compacted mould
boxes
B. Monorail conveyor 2.
To move the prepared
moulding sand
C. Apron conveyor
3.
To move the rough casting to
the fettling station
D. Roller conveyor
4.
To transfer he molten metal
ladle
[Ans. (d)]
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 1
2
3
4
(b) 2
1
3
4
(c) 2
4
1
3
(d) 2
4
3
1
Page 66 of 70
2
9/30/2011
Set-2
IAS 1997
IES 1994
Elevators are used for moving materials

(a) Along fixed and horizontal paths
(b) In a vertical direction along a fixed path
(c) Along a horizontal path to any distance
(d) In both the planes
Killed steels
(a) Have minimum impurity level
(b) Have almost zero percentage of phosphorus and
sulphur
(c) Are produced by LD process
(d) Are free from oxygen
[Ans. (d)]
[Ans. (b)]
IES 1992
IES 1999
Dye penetration method is generally used to locate

(a) Core defects
(b) Surface defects
(c) Superficial defects
(d) Temporary defects
Transfer machines can be defined as

(a) Material processing machines
(b) Material handling machines
(c) Material processing and material handling machines
(d) Component feeders for automatic assembly
[Ans. (b)]
[Ans. (c)]
Ch13:Metrology
IES 2000
AscrewthreadspecifiedbyM20x2.5CasperBIS
threadsystemmeans
(a) Metricthreadof20mmnominaldiameterand2.5
mmpitchhavingcoarsetolerance
(b) Metricthreadof20mmrootdiameterand2.5mm
M t i th d f
tdi
t d
pitchhavingcoarsetolerance
(c) Metricthreadoffineclasshaving20mmroot
diameterand2.5mmpitch
(d) Metricthreadof20mmshankdiameterand2.5mm
threaddepthwithcoarsetolerance
[Ans.(c)]
Q.No
Option
Q.No
Option
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
Page 67 of 70
3
9/30/2011
Set-2
GATE 1999
JigsandFixtures
Choosethecorrectstatement:
(a) Afixtureisusedtoguidethetoolaswellastolocate
andclamptheworkpiece
(b) AJigisusedtoguidethetoolaswellastolocateand
clamptheworkpiece
l
th
k i
(c) JigsarcusedonCNCmachinestolocateandclamp
theworkpieceandalsotoguidethetool
(d) Noarrangementtoguidethetoolisprovidedinajig.
[Ans.(b)]
BySKMondal
IES 2007
GATE 2005
According to the principle of location in jigs and

fixtures, how many degrees of freedom are to be
eliminated to have a body fixed in space?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
[Ans. (d)]
When 321 principle is used to support and locate a

three dimensional workpiece during machining,
the number of degrees of freedom that are
restricted is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
[Ans. (c)]
GATE 2001
321 method of location in a jig or fixture would
collectively restrict the workpiece in n degrees of
freedom, where the value of n is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 12
[Ans. (c)]
IES2011
Inthe321principleoffixture3referstonumberof
:
(a)Setupspossible
(b)Clampsrequired
(c)Positionsonprimaryface
(d)Locatingpositions
[Ans.(d)]
Page 68 of 70
1
9/30/2011
Set-2
IES 1998,1999
IES 2009
Diamond pin location is used in a fixture because

(a) It does not wear out
(b) It takes care of any variation in centre distance
between two holes
(c) It is easy to clamp the part on diamond pins
(d) It is easy to manufacture
[Ans. (b)]
A lever having two precisely drilled holes, one

smaller than the other, has to be located in a fixture
using hardened and ground plugs for further
machining in relation to the holes. Select the
correct method of locating the lever from the given
alternatives.
lt
ti
(a) Using two hardened and ground plugs, the smaller
one having flats machined on each side
(b) Using two hardened and ground plugs
(c) Using one hardened and ground plug and one V
block
(d) Using two Vblocks
[Ans. (a)]
IES 1995
IES 2005
If the diameter of the hole is subject to considerable

variation, then for locating in jigs and fixtures, the
pressure type of locator used is
(a) Conical locator
(b) Cylindrical locator
(c) Diamond pin locator
(d) Vee locator
[Ans. (a)]
Match List I (An Element of Jigs and Fixtures) with List

II (Associating System) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List I
List II
A Bush
1.
Milling fixture
B. Setting block
2.
Turning fixture
C. Diamond pin
3.
Radial location
D. Vblock
4.
Cylindrical location
5.
Drill jigs
[Ans. (c)]
Codes:A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 5
4
3
1
(b) 3
1
2
4
(c) 5
1
3
4
(d) 3
4
2
1
IES 2000
IES 1995
Match List I (Components used in jigs and fixtures) with List II

(Their functions) and select the correct answer using the codes
List I
List II
A. Jack pin
1.
To guide the drill bit during machining
B. Vlocator
2.
For easyy removal of the work p
piece from the
jig or fixture after the machining operation
is over
C. Bushes
3.
To locate the circular or
semicircular objects in a jig or fixture
D. Ejectors
4.
To locate work piece whose dimensions are
Code: A
(a) 3
(c) 3
B
4
4
C
1
2
subject to variations
D
A
2
(b)
4
1
(d)
4
[Ans. (b)]
B
3
3
C
1
2
D
2
1
Match List I with List Ii and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List I (Task)
List II (Recommendation)
A. Three components in a straight
1.
Clamp with a
floating pad.
line should worked in one loading
B.
Unloading of clamp element from jig is essential

2.
Quick action nut
C. Clamping of rough surfaces
3.
Cam clamp
D. Need for heavy clamping force
4.
Equalising clamp
5.
Strap clamp
Code: A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(a) 5
2
3
4
(b)
4
2
1
5
(c) 1
4
2
3
(d)
4
1
5
3
[Ans. (d)]
Page 69 of 70
2
9/30/2011
Set-2
IES 2005
IES 1996
Which one of the following is the most significant

property to be considered in the selection of
material for the manufacture of locating pins and
drill jig buses used in jigs and fixtures?
(a) Wearresistance
(b) Elasticity
(c) Shearstrength
(d) Tensilestrength
[Ans.(a)]
Assertion (A): A workpiece with rough unmachined

surface can be located in a jig or fixture on three
supporting points.
Reason (R): Indexing is made accurate by
supporting on three points.
points
[Ans. (c)]
IES 1996
IES 1993

The cutter setting block in a milling fixture
1. Sets the cutting tool with respect of two of its surfaces.
2. Limits the total travel required by the cutter during
machining.
3. Takes location from the location scheme of the
component.
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
[Ans. (d)]
The floating position of the holding fixture in a

rotary transfer device is used to
(a) Improve the accuracy of location
(b) Reduce the tendency to over index
(c) Reduce the cycle time
(d) Improve upon the acceleration and deceleration
characteristics
[Ans. (d)]
JigsandFixtures
Q. No
Option
Q. No
Option
Page 70 of 70
3

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12/30/2011

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