Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Blake Electronic Communication
Blake Electronic Communication
22. The hotter a component gets, the more noise it will generate. T
23. "Shot" noise creates a "noise current" in an electronic device such as a
transistor. T
26. With cascaded stages in a communication system, the noise from the first stage
is the least important. F
27. Due to the frequency, a radio signal requires a "real-time" analyzer to look at the
spectrum. F
2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic Ocean was:
a. Marconi
c. Maxwell
b. Bell
d. Hertz
3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:
a. Marconi
c. Maxwell
b. Bell
d. Hertz
4. Radians per second is equal to:
a. 2
f
c. the phase angle
b f 2
d. none of the above
5. A complete communication system must include:
a. a transmitter and receiver
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel
6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:
a. the carrier frequency
c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
b. the signal-to-noise ratio
d. the baseband frequency range
7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called:
a. sub-channeling
c. SINAD
b. signal switching
d. multiplexing
8. TDM stands for:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing
b. Two-level Digital Modulation
c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing
d. none of the above
c. static
d. all of the above
ANS:
c. copper wire
d. all of the above
c. copper wire
d. none of the above
c. constant power
d. none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is:
a. VT = sqrt(V1 x V1 + V2 x V2)
c. VT = sqrt(V1 x V2)
b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2
d. VT = V1 + V2
1863
2. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year _______.
ANS:
1901
3. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ______ band.
ANS:
base
4. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the _______.
ANS:
channel
5. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is _______.
ANS:
zero
6. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for _______.
ANS:
bandwidth
7. In _______, you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry
multiple signals.
ANS:
FDM
8. In _______, multiple signal streams take turns using the channel.
ANS:
TDM
5. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Find its noise figure.
ANS:
1.5
10. The more information per second you send, the ________ the bandwidth
required.
ANS:
greater, larger, wider
6. Suppose there is 30 V from one noise source that is combined with 40 V from
another noise source. Calculate the total noise voltage.
ANS:
50 V
7. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same 100-ohm
load, what is the signal-to-noise ratio in dB?
ANS:
20 dB
TRUE/FALSE
1. In general, components behave the same at 20 MHz as they do at 1 kHz. F
SHORT ANSWER
2. Stray capacitance is important in high-frequency amplifiers. T
1. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system.
ANS:
Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination
2. Name five types of internal noise.
ANS:
Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time
6. At some frequency, a capacitor will self-resonate with the inductance of its leads.
T
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
c. "multiply" the Q
d. have no effect on Q
c. base-to-emitter capacitance
d. base-to-collector capacitance
c. neutralize amplifiers
d. reduce the Miller effect
c. an RC time constant
d. a piezoelectric crystal
c. an RC time constant
d. a piezoelectric crystal
c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator
d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator
ANS:
short
SHORT ANSWER
1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit
for 10 MHz?
ANS:
5.4 H
2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of
100 kHz?
ANS:
100
7. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a 20MHz signal; V2 is a 5-MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the output
of the mixer?
ANS:
15 MHz and 25 MHz
8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a
reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. What should be
the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz?
ANS:
12
19. In AM, only one information signal can be sent on any given frequency. F
20. It is possible to transmit stereo audio signals using AM. T
21. SSBSC is derived from DSBSC. T
22. SSB AM requires twice the bandwidth of plain AM. F
23. SSB AM is much more efficient than plain AM. T
24. To see an envelope in SSB AM, at least two modulating audio tones are
required. T
25. AM has inherently worse fidelity than FM. F
TRUE/FALSE
1. It is easy to modulate and demodulate a carrier using AM. T
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. AM stands for:
a. Audio Modulation
b. Amplitude Modulation
c. Angle Modulation
d. Antenna Modulation
5. Overmodulation causes:
a. distortion
b. splatter
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index,
m, is:
a. m = Emin / Emax
c. m = (Emax Emin) / (Emax + Emin)
b. m = Emax / Emin
d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax Emin)
7. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is:
a. equal to the carrier power
c. half the carrier power
b. twice the carrier power
d. 1.414 x carrier power
8. If Va sin(at)) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), it will produce the
frequencies:
a. c + a and c a
c. c + a and 2c + 2a
b. (c + a)/2 and (c a)/2
d. none of the above
9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will
be:
a. 5 kHz
c. 1.005 MHz
b. 10 kHz
d. none of the above
10. The modulation index can be derived from:
a. the time-domain signal
b. the frequency-domain signal
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
11. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect:
a. the audio to get louder at the receiver
b. the received RF signal to increase
c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase
d. all of the above
12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be:
a. requires too much bandwidth
b. requires too much power
c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios
d. all of the above
13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:
a. is more efficient
b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit
c. requires less bandwidth
d. all of the above
16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it
radiate with no modulation?
a. 1000 watts
c. 250 watts
b. 500 watts
d. 0 watts
17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:
a. AM is susceptible to noise
b. commercial AM stations use low power
c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth
d. all of the above
18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is:
a. audio
b. video
c. digital data
19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1
and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is:
a. m1 + m2
c. sqrt(m1 x m2 + m2 x m1)
b. (m1 + m2) / 2
d. sqrt(m1 x m1 + m2 x m2)
20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must:
a. be set to USB mode
c. both a and b
b. reinsert the carrier
d. none of the above
COMPLETION
1. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ________.
ANS:
simple
2. A disadvantage of AM is its ________ use of power.
ANS:
inefficient
3. The ________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal.
ANS:
envelope
4. In AM, modulating with a single audio tone produces ________ sidebands.
ANS:
two
5. Compared to the USB, the information in the LSB is ________.
ANS:
the same
6. Compared to the USB, the power in the LSB is _________.
ANS:
the same
7. In AM, total sideband power is always ________ than the carrier power.
ANS:
less
c. sideband-carrier
d. none of the above
7. A carrier can be frequency modulated with audio at the same time it is phase
modulated with data. F
8. Mathematically, an FM signal has an infinite number of sidebands. T
11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then the USB will
extend up to _________.
ANS:
1010 kHz
12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put out
_________ watts with 100% modulation.
ANS:
150
SHORT ANSWER
13. In PM, the phase shift is proportional to the instantaneous amplitude of the
modulating signal. T
11. In FM, the modulation index depends on the frequency of the modulating
signal. T
15. Unlike AM, a single modulating tone can produce many sidebands. T
16. In FM, more sidebands means more power. F
3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the
tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5, then what is the total modulation index?
ANS:
0.707
4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is
100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index?
ANS:
0.6
21. In FM, the signal-to-noise ratio of a receiver's output can be better than that at
the receiver's input. T
TRUE/FALSE
23. Stereo FM signals produce a better signal-to-noise ratio at the receiver than
mono does. F
COMPLETION
c. Near Band FM
d. Narrowband FM
c. is monaural
d. all of the above
ANS:
angle
15. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier frequency
___________.
ANS:
disappears, goes to zero
10. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with
a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands
containing less than 1% of the total power?
ANS:
30 kHz
Chapter 5: Transmitters
TRUE/FALSE
1. All transmitters produce spurious signals. T
SHORT ANSWER
3. There is a simple correlation between supply power and output power for
transmitters. F
11. In full-carrier AM, modulation is typically done before the RF power amplifier. F
12. If the RF stages are all Class C, then AM must be done with low-level
modulation. F
13. Commercial broadcast AM stations typically use high-level modulation. T
14. Low-level AM modulation requires linear RF amplifiers. T
8.How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2.4,
5.5, etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator?
ANS:
Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using a
spectrum analyzer, adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude
vanishes. Record the audio frequency. Then do the calculation: = fm
mf where mf will have one of the known values. For example, if fm is
measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5.5, then is 11 kHz.
18. In a commercial broadcast AM transmitter, all the power in the sidebands came
from the audio amplifier. T
19. Typically, some kind of matching circuit is required between a transmitter's
output stage and the antenna. T
20. For testing purposes, the output of a transmitter should be disconnected from
the antenna and left with an open-circuit load. F
21. In a transceiver, the same audio circuits are used by both the transmitter and
the receiver. T
22. In solid-state transmitters, it is common to modulate both the driver and the
power RF stage. T
23. Mixing and amplitude modulation are essentially the same process. T
24. DSBSC is never done at low level. F
25. To generate SSB from DSBSC, a mechanical filter can be used. T
26. To generate SSB from DSBSC, a crystal filter can be used. T
27. It is possible that the LSB and the USB can become swapped during a mixing
process. T
28. The RF power amplifiers in a SSB transmitter are Class C for better efficiency. F
4. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power
coming out:
a. is a measure of efficiency
c. may require water cooling
b. heats the transmitter
d. all of the above
5. Baseband compression produces:
a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high
b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud
c. a smaller number of signals
d. none of the above
6. With high-level AM:
a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear
b. minimum modulation power is required
c. minimum RF power is required
d. all of the above
7. With high-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class
b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B
c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C
d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB
8. With low-level AM:
a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A
b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B
c. the RF amplifiers must be linear
d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power
COMPLETION
c. essentially mixers
d. none of the above
ANS:
carrier
2. In the USA, the __________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a
transmitter's frequency.
ANS:
FCC
3. In Canada, _________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a
transmitter's frequency.
ANS:
Industry Canada
c. a frequency multiplier
d. none of the above
20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use:
a. a mechanical filter
c. both a and b
b. a crystal filter
d. none of the above
21. A direct FM modulator:
a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator
b. integrates the modulating signal
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
14. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ________ network
for impedance matching.
ANS:
T
15. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ________ levels.
ANS:
harmonic
16. Severe impedance _________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage.
ANS:
mismatch
17. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ________ into one "box".
ANS:
receiver
18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the ________
as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators.
ANS:
driver
19. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-_________ modulation.
ANS:
duration
3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power
supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation, how much power does
the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation?
ANS:
50 watts
4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what is
the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation?
ANS:
400 volts
5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz.
The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB, what
should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter?
ANS:
10.005 MHz
6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of
10 MHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that
the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz?
ANS:
40 MHz
7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz
deviation. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz,
what will be the new carrier frequency?
ANS:
4 MHz
21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed, ________ is used to
operate at more than one frequency.
ANS:
mixing
SHORT ANSWER
34. If the BFO in a SSB receiver is 100 hertz low, what comes out of the speaker may
sound like Donald Duck, but it will be understandable. T
14. The mixer and the local oscillator can use the same transistor. T
39. Both PLLs and quadrature detectors can be used to demodulate FM. T
16. There can be only one mixer and one IF in a superhet receiver. F
17. In AM receivers, the antenna and the inductor of the tuner circuit can be the
same thing. T
MULTIPLE CHOICE
21. A receiver's response to weak signals is limited by the noise generated inside
the receiver. T
22. The AGC in a receiver can cause "blocking". T
23. Careful design can eliminate all spurious responses. F
c. indeterminate frequency
d. image frequency
32. In a SSB receiver, the BFO injects the carrier into the detector. T
33. In a SSB receiver, it is relatively easy for the injected carrier to match the
frequency and phase of the transmitter's carrier. F
9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
b. it increases sensitivity
c. it increases selectivity
d. it is cheaper
10. Basically, sensitivity measures:
a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received
b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received
c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier
d. none of the above
c. prior to detection
d. images cannot be rejected
c. quadrature detector
d. all of the above
c. Low-Noise Audio
d. Logarithmic Noise Amplification
COMPLETION
1. Almost all modern receivers use the _________ principle.
ANS:
superheterodyne
3. When two tuned circuits __________ each other, it means that when the
frequency of one is adjusted, the other changes with it.
ANS:
track
4. The ________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency.
ANS:
skin
2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year _______.
ANS: 1887
ANS:
higher
31. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is __________.
ANS:
fixed, constant
32. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the ________ amplifiers.
ANS:
IF
TRUE/FALSE
1. Analog signals cannot be sent using digital techniques. F
2. Digitizing a signal can reduce distortion. T
31. The significance of quantizing noise increases as the number of bits per sample
increases. F
32. The dynamic range of a digital transmission system depends on the number of
bits per sample. T
33. The bandwidth required by a digital transmission system depends on the
number of bits per sample. T
12. The digital data rate is limited by the bandwidth of the channel. T
13. The digital data rate is limited by the SNR of the channel. T
14. The digital data rate is limited by the number of levels transmitted. T
15. The Shannon-Hartley theorem describes how to obtain the Shannon limit for
transmission. F
39. With delta modulation, only one bit is transmitted per cycle. T
40. Delta modulation is particularly well suited to rapidly changing analog signals. F
16. Digital data can be sent through a channel no matter how low the SNR is, as
long as it is not zero. T
17. Analog signals must be sampled before they can be sent in digital form. T
43. A disadvantage of adaptive delta modulation is that it requires a higher bit rate
than PCM. F
19. The Nyquist Rate is equal to half the highest frequency component of the analog
signal. F
55. In DS-1, bits are sometimes "stolen" from the voice channel to be used for
signaling. T
c. PCM
56. "Lossy" compression involves transmitting all the data in the original signal, but
with fewer bits. F
d. PDM
d. PPS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The first digital code was the:
a. ASCII code
b. Baudot code
c. Morse code
d. none of the above
c. Ten-Digital Manchester
d. Ten Dual-Manchester
c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
d. SR = 2fmax
c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
d. SR = 2fmax
c. Code-Compression
d. none of the above
c. 4
d. 8
COMPLETION
1. Digitizing a signal often results in ________ transmission quality.
ANS:
improved, better
d. 8
d. 1.544 x 106
c. 56 kb/s
d. 8 kb/s
c. 56 kb/s
d. 8 kb/s
c. NRZ coding
d. pulse-width coding
d. 48
c. fiber-optic cable
d. microwave
11. ________ Law gives the relationship between time, information capacity, and
bandwidth.
ANS:
Hartley's
c. ringing
d. all of the above
12. Ignoring noise, the _________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data
transmission for a given bandwidth.
ANS:
Shannon-Hartley
36. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is:
a. much better
c. about the same
b. somewhat better
d. not as good
14. The _________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given
bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio.
ANS:
Shannon
15. The ________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals
to digital format.
ANS:
Nyquist
16. ________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate.
ANS:
Foldover
17. ________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter
"assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent
digitally.
ANS:
Aliasing
18. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-__________ modulated
signal.
ANS:
amplitude
19. ________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme.
ANS:
Pulse-code
20. _________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into
digital format.
ANS:
Quantizing
21. ________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth.
ANS:
Companding
22. In North America, compression is done using the ________-law equation.
ANS:
, mu
23. In Europe, compression is done using the _____-law equation.
ANS:
A
24. A _______ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa.
ANS:
codec
25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to
________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits.
ANS:
12
26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ________.
ANS:
1, one
27. Delta modulation requires a _______ sampling rate than PCM for the same
quality of reproduction.
ANS:
higher
28. _______ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't
change.
ANS:
Granular
29. In delta modulation, ________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes
too fast.
ANS:
slope
ANS:
step
31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ________
the bit rate of PCM.
ANS:
half
32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ________
continuity.
ANS:
DC
33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ________.
ANS:
polarity
34. Long strings of _________ should be avoided in AMI.
ANS:
zeros
35. Manchester code has a level _________ in the center of each bit period.
ANS:
transition
36. Manchester coding provides _________ information regardless of the pattern of
ones and zeros.
ANS:
timing
37. There are _________ channels in a DS-1 frame.
ANS:
24
38. DS-1 uses a ________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver.
ANS:
framing
39. In DS-1, each channel is sampled ______ times per second.
ANS:
8000
40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of _______ bits per second.
ANS:
1.544 106
41. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a _________.
ANS:
superframe
42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling bits are "stolen" from every ________
frame.
ANS:
sixth
43. ________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses
fewer bits to do it.
ANS:
Lossless
SHORT ANSWER
1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000 bits over
a channel with a bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10.
ANS:
5 seconds
2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12,000
bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8.
ANS:
2000 hertz
3.What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a
signal-to-noise ratio of 15?
ANS:
16 kbps
12. Local loops can carry voice signals in only one direction at a time. F
13. Local loops carry DC current. T
5. What is the approximate dynamic range, in dB, of a linear PCM system that uses
12 bits per sample?
ANS:
74 dB
6. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and
running at 8000 samples per second?
ANS:
64 kbps
16. Typically, when a phone is on hook, a voltage of 48 volts appears across it. T
17. When a telephone is off hook, the DC voltage across it can drop substantially
from its on-hook value. T
18. The DC resistance of a telephone is about 2000 ohms. F
7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate be
for each channel in the frame?
ANS:
56 kbps
8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the output
voltage of a -law compressor if the input voltage is 0.388 volt?
ANS:
0.833 volt
TRUE/FALSE
24. A crosspoint switch allows any incoming line to be connected to any outgoing
line. T
1. A telephone from 1930 could not work on today's public switched telephone
network. F
25. The central office uses 24 volts AC at 20 hertz to cause a telephone to ring. F
26. The local-loop is full-duplex. T
2. The public switched telephone network is changing from an all analog to a mostly
digital system. T
29. The signal levels in analog telephone systems have increased substantially over
the past 100 years. F
30. The signal levels in modern analog telephone systems are still based on 19thcentury technology. T
39. TDM is being replaced by the newer FDM technology in telephone systems. F
40. DS-1 can be used to carry digital data that did not originate as a voice signal. T
41. When using DS-1 to carry data, it is common to use each channel to carry 64
kbps. F
42. Digital carriers up to T3 can use copper wires. F
43. A DS-1C signal carries twice as many channels as a DS-1 signal. T
44. A DS-1C signal uses twice the bit rate of a DS-1 signal. F
45. "Stuff" bits are used to compensate for differences in clock rates. T
46. Every "in-channel" signal is also an "in-band" signal. F
47. Common-channel signaling is being replaced by the more modern MF signaling.
F
48. Common-channel signaling reduces opportunities for stealing telephone service.
T
49. ADSL is faster than ISDN. T
50. B-ISDN is a slower version of standard ISDN. F
c. a central office
d. an interexchange office
8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
9. In telephony, POP stands for:
a. Post Office Protocol
b. Point Of Presence
c. Power-On Protocol
d. none of the above
c. coaxial cable
d. fiber-optic
MULTIPLE CHOICE
c. cancel echoes
d. check for errors
c. justification
d. frame alignment
COMPLETION
d. 0 dBr
d. 60
d. PCM
15. A _________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while
allowing full-duplex operation over a single pair of wires.
ANS:
hybrid
16. In a crosspoint switch, not all _________ can be in use at the same time.
ANS:
lines
32. In ISDN, the _________ channels are used for voice or data.
ANS:
B
17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively _________ signal voltage.
ANS:
large
3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.)
ANS:
697 Hz and 1209 Hz
5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
ANS:
90 dBrn
6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB
TLP. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0?
ANS:
65 dBrnc TLP
19. When receiving digital data, it is possible to detect errors, but not to correct
them. F
20. In digital data transmission, bad frames are usually retransmitted. T
21. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting burst errors. T
22. Hamming codes allow errors to be corrected without requiring retransmission. T
27. Both "private-key" and "public-key" encryption always require the addition of
extra bits to the data. T
6. How fast data can be transferred is independent of the character code used. F
c. Western Union
d. Emile Baudot
17. HDLC:
a. is an IBM product
b. is a bit-oriented protocol
8. LF stands for:
a. Line Feed
b. Link Feed
c. control characters
d. none of the above
c. Line Forward
d. Link Forward
c. is identical to SDLC
d. all of the above
c. FEC
d. ARQ
c. LRC
d. parity
13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of _________ bits in synchronous
transmission.
ANS:
data
14. In the _________ protocol, each frame begins with at least two SYN characters.
ANS:
BISYNC
15. In HDLC, each frame starts with an 8-bit _________.
ANS:
flag
COMPLETION
1. Parallel transmission can be used only for _________ distances.
ANS:
short
2. The term "baud" was named after Emil _________.
ANS:
Baudot
3. Data codes are also called _________ codes.
ANS:
character
4. The _________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between
personal computers.
ANS:
ASCII
5. The two letters _________ designate the code character used to advance a
printer to the next page.
ANS:
FF
SHORT ANSWER
2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them
as hexadecimal (hex) numbers?
ANS:
20 hex (32 decimal)
3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers?
ANS:
30H to 39H
14. Token-passing networks must deal with "collisions" between two tokens. F
15. On a CSMA/CD network, several nodes can try to access the channel
simultaneously. T
16. A "collision" will take a CSMA network down. F
7. In a star network, if one node fails, the entire network goes down. F
34. In CSMA, a node must "listen" to the channel before trying to use it. T
c. Collision Detection
d. Collision Delay
d. circuit
47. If 10BaseT cabling is used in a multinode LAN, then a hub cannot be used. F
48. Compared to a hub, a switch reduces the chances for a collision. T
9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected
to:
a. a central ring
c. a node
b. a central bus
d. none of the above
10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:
a. packets
c. carriers
b. nodes
d. tokens
11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same
time, it is called:
a. a collision
c. excess traffic
b. contention
d. multiple access
55. Software that runs a client-server network must have true multitasking ability. T
12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is
called:
a. a collision
c. excess traffic
b. contention
d. multiple access
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. CSMA stands for:
a. Client-Server Multi-Access
b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access
14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of:
a. nodes
c. packets
b. users
d. collisions
15. The effect of too many collisions is:
a. the network goes down
b. the network slows down
22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above
32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in:
a. peer-to-peer networks
c. both a and b
b. client-server networks
d. none of the above
23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above
24. NIC stands for:
a. Network Interface Card
b. Network Interface Cable
25. 10BaseT cable typically uses:
a. a BNC connector
b. a T connector
c. an RJ45 connector
d. an RS11 connector
COMPLETION
1. A LAN is a _________ Area Network.
ANS:
Local
2. The Internet is a network of _________.
ANS:
networks
3. In a _________ network, all nodes are connected to a central computer.
ANS:
star
4. In a _________-switched network, users have a dedicated channel for the
duration of communications.
ANS:
circuit
11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be _________ before
using it.
ANS:
quiet, free, unused, available
The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip
at the factory. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers, so the
chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is
extremely small.
13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to _________ bits per second.
ANS:
100 mega
14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a _________ length to ensure that collisions are
detected.
ANS:
minimum
15. In CSMA/CD, the _________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are
detected.
ANS:
length
30. Most WANs are set up to work as extensions of the LANs they interconnect. T
33. Bridges must examine the address field of each packet they see. T
9. Packets may not arrive at the destination in the same order they were sent. T
10. Packets are often blocked by channels that are too full or are disconnected. F
37. TCP/IP contains additional levels beyond the seven described by ISO OSI. F
12. In digital communications, errors within frames are detected and corrected at
the data-link layer of a protocol stack. T
13. Protocols are the various pieces of hardware used to transmit and receive digital
data. F
40. A problem with IP is that packets can get stuck traveling the network in an
endless loop. F
45. The Internet is a large network of other networks running the TCP/IP protocols.
T
20. X.25 gives reliable service even over relatively poor cables. T
46. The current 32-bit address scheme used on the Internet is highly efficient. F
21. Frame relay uses more error detection and correction than does X.25. F
47. A domain-name server stores the address of every computer attached to the
Internet. F
22. Frame relay requires better quality cables than does X.25. T
48. An intranet is essentially a private Internet. T
23. Frame relay is faster than X.25. T
24. Variable-length frames allow faster data rates than do fixed-length frames. F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
c. Metropolitan-Area Network
d. Multiple Access Network
c. real-time delivery
d. all of the above
d. 8
8. Frame Relay:
a. is faster than X.25
b. does less error checking than X.25
c. allows for variable length packets
d. all of the above
c. browsers
d. none of the above
10. A bridge:
a. separates a network into "collision domains"
b. looks at the address of each packet
c. operate at the data-link level
d. all of the above
c. Interconnect Protocol
d. Interconnect Procedure
14. IP is a:
a. connection-oriented protocol
b. virtual circuit
15. UDP stands for:
a. User Datagram Protocol
b. User Data Protocol
c. connectionless protocol
d. non-robust protocol
c. User Data Packet
d. Universal Data Packet
26. A DNS:
a. has become obsolete on the Internet
b. translates words to numbers
c. stores all domain addresses
d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure
COMPLETION
1. A ________-Area Network would extend typically across a city.
ANS:
Metropolitan
2. A ________-Area Network could extend across a nation.
ANS:
Wide
3. A dedicated telephone line can be ________on a monthly basis.
ANS:
leased
4. The use of digital circuit-________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines.
ANS:
switched
5. Packet switching is done on a store-and-________network.
ANS:
forward
6. A ________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital
communications.
ANS:
protocol
7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ________ layer.
ANS:
physical
8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ________ layer.
ANS:
data-link
9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ________ layer.
ANS:
network
10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ________.
ANS:
CCITT
11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ________ layer.
ANS:
frame
12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ________ layer.
ANS:
packet
13. The physical route of a ________ circuit changes each time it is used.
ANS:
virtual
SHORT ANSWER
6. "Baud rate" is the same as bits per second. F
1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet.
ANS:
Network number, Subnet number, Host number
2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit?
ANS:
A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the
network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can
change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct
circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit.
3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable
size?
ANS:
The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths
is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More
processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets
per second through the network.
4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a
protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all?
ANS:
Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big
layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of
independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program.
5. What is a "hop"?
ANS:
Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node
in the network, it is considered to be one "hop".
TRUE/FALSE
27. V.42 is a data-compression scheme. F
1. Little data communication is carried over voice-grade telephone lines. F
28. A computer is a DTE. T
2. The word "keying" is still used to denote digital modulation schemes. T
29. A MODEM is a DCE. T
3. ASK is rarely used for data communications. T
30. EIA-232D is the same as RS-232C. T
4. Information capacity is proportional to bandwidth. T
31. RS-232 describes a parallel port protocol. F
5. Information capacity is independent of noise. F
d. QAM
d. a Q-bit
12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
a. amplitude and frequency
c. frequency and phase angle
b. amplitude and phase angle
d. I-bits and Q-bits
13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK
c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK
b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK
d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK
c. Full-Signal Keying
d. none of the above
c. Phase-Signal Keying
d. Phase-Shift Keying
c. IEEE
d. ANSI
c. the ITU
c. Analog DSL
d. All DSL
c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax
d. Hybrid Fiber Control
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
d. the ISO
COMPLETION
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
d. ANSI-232C
2. The response to RTS is _________.
ANS:
CTS
c. a DCE
d. a DTE
3. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift _________.
ANS:
Keying
d. a DTE
4. DSR stands for _________ Set Ready.
ANS:
Data
d. 7
5. QAM stands for _________ Amplitude Modulation.
ANS:
Quadrature
d. 7
c. RTS and CT
c. RTS and CT
10. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a _________ diagram.
ANS:
constellation
11. ITU stands for International _________ Union.
ANS:
Telecommunications
12. In QAM modems, _________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on
a noisy line.
ANS:
Trellis
SHORT ANSWER
14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about _________
bps.
ANS:
54k
15. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is _________ bps.
ANS:
20k
1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per
second with 16 possible states per symbol.
ANS:
4000
2. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8
phase angles and 2 amplitude levels?
ANS:
16
16. In RS-232, the _________line is asserted when the analog carrier from another
modem is being received.
ANS:
CD, DCD, RLSD
3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a
data rate of 36 Mbps. If half the modems are active at any given time, what bit rate
can a customer expect?
ANS:
720 kbps
17. Between hardware flow control and software flow control, _________ flow
control is preferred.
ANS:
hardware
4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Approximately how many bins
are there?
ANS:
230
18. A voltage higher than _________ volts should be considered a high on an RS232 receiver.
ANS:
3
5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second, how many possible states
must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps?
ANS:
8
19. A _________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports.
ANS:
null
Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques
20. ADSL stands for _________ DSL.
ANS:
Asymmetrical
TRUE/FALSE
21. A typical CATV system is organized as a _________ network.
ANS:
tree
22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a _________ is used to put several
channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone.
ANS:
CMTS
23. _________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems
to a CMTS.
ANS:
Ranging
24. _________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line
with dial-up service.
ANS:
ADSL
25. The _________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end.
ANS:
lite
26. _________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands
called tones or bins for ADSL.
ANS:
DMT
11. A "space switch" is used to change the time slot of the samples on a bus. F
b. 24 channels
c. 32 channels
d. 64 channels
d. 1.544 Mbps
d. framing bit
c. direct-sequence method
d. all of the above
c. direct-sequence method
d. all of the above
c. spreading gain
d. improved signal-to-noise ratio
19. CDMA:
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum
c. cannot be used on an RF channel
d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously
20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of:
a. orthogonal PN sequences
c. true-random PN sequences
b. non-orthogonal PN sequences
d. none of the above
15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called _________
switching.
ANS:
time
16. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called
_________ fading.
ANS:
Rayleigh
17. A PN sequence is a _________-random noise sequence.
ANS:
pseudo
COMPLETION
1. Multiplexing allows many signals to _________ a channel.
ANS:
share
2. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA, TDMA, and _________.
ANS:
CDMA
3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the bandwidth _________ of the time.
ANS:
all
4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the bandwidth _________ of the time.
ANS:
part
21. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called
_________.
ANS:
chips
5. Using CDMA on a radio channel, all signals can transmit _________ of the time.
ANS:
all
22. A chipping-rate of at least _________ times the bit rate of the data is common.
ANS:
ten
24. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system, when no two transmitters use the same
frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be _________.
ANS:
orthogonal
1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and
bandwidth for digital transmission?
ANS:
The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to send a given amount of
information. So the more bandwidth available, the higher the possible bit
rate.
2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100
kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz?
ANS:
9
3. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal?
ANS:
Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same
part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. Because a spreadspectrum signal is, by definition, spread out over a very wide bandwidth,
jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal.
12. For coaxial cables, there are only a few standard values in common use. T
13. RF signals travel slower on a transmission line than they would through free
space. T
14. Energy can "reflect" from a load at the end of a cable and travel back to the
source. T
15. A "mismatched" line will cause reflections. T
16. The typical load on a cable, such as an antenna, has the same value at any
frequency. F
17. A mismatched line between a transmitter and an antenna could actually
damage the transmitter. T
18. A matched transmission line will exhibit "standing" waves. F
19. The optimum value for SWR is one. T
20. "Ghost" images on a cable TV indicate an impedance mismatch. T
21 If a cable is shorter than 1/16 of the signal's wavelength, it does not really
behave as a transmission line. T
22. Shorted stubs radiate more energy than open stubs do. F
TRUE/FALSE
23. It is often better to measure SWR at the load rather than the source. T
1. A transmission line is a metallic cable. T
2. Coaxial cables are referred to as "unbalanced". T
3. "Balanced" means that both conductors are the same size. F
24. The only limit to the power that a transmission line can carry is the heat from
I2R losses. F
25. A length of transmission line can be used to match impedances at very high
frequencies. T
26. A circular graph called a "Jones" chart is commonly used to analyze transmission
lines. F
7. Basically, a transmission line looks like an inductor in series with a small resistor.
F
c. Time-Domain Response
d. Transmission Delay Ratio
c. an open-wire-line cable
d. all of the above
14. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its
characteristic impedance:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all
15. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an opencircuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all
16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:
a. standing waves
c. higher voltage peaks on cable
b. loss of power to load
d. all of the above
17. VSWR stands for:
a. variable SWR
b. vacuum SWR
c. voltage SWR
d. none of the above
9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ________.
ANS:
length
SHORT ANSWER
10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ________ impedance.
ANS:
surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ________
line.
ANS:
matched
12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the
________ polarity.
ANS:
opposite
13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a
________ wave.
ANS:
standing
1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance
per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance.
ANS:
Z0 = 200 ohms
2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is
.04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance.
ANS:
386 ohms
3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant r = 2.6 , what
is the velocity factor for the cable?
ANS:
0.62
4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel
3000 kilometers along the cable?
ANS:
12.5 ms
5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90
phase shift at 100 MHz?
ANS:
0.6 meters
6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts,
what is the maximum voltage along the cable?
ANS:
200 volts
10. Radio waves, like all other waves, must travel through some sort of medium. F
11. An isotropic radiator radiates in one direction only. F
12. A "point source" would be an isotropic radiator. T
13. The wavefront of a point source radiator would be a sphere. T
14. Beyond some distance from the source, we can approximate a wavefront by
assuming it is flat. T
15. The polarization of a plane wave is the direction of its magnetic field. F
TRUE/FALSE
26. Ground waves can follow the curvature of the earth to travel over the horizon. T
1. James Clerk Maxwell predicted radio waves in 1865 based on a set of equations
he derived. T
2. Marconi demonstrated the existence of radio-waves in 1887. F
27. Ground waves are not reliable because they are affected by bad weather. F
28. Because of refraction in ionized layers of air, sky waves appear to "bounce" off
the sky and come back down to earth far from the source. T
34. Communication by "bouncing" radio signals off the ionization trails of meteors is
routinely done by some organizations. T
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by:
a. Armstrong
b. Hertz
c. Maxwell
d. Marconi
d. Marconi
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
c. True Electromagnetic
d. none of the above
c. a ground-wave antenna
d. none of the above
c. at microwave frequencies
d. when using horizontally polarized waves
21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called:
a. fading
c. frequency diversity
b. diffraction
d. spatial diversity
22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of:
a. fading
c. multipath distortion
b. diffraction
d. cancellation due to reflection
23. A "repeater" is used to:
a. send a message multiple times over a channel
b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time
c. extend the range of a radio communications system
d. cancel the effects of fading
COMPLETION
16. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ________ as the wave-front moves
through space.
ANS:
decrease
18. ________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary
between two different dielectrics.
ANS:
Refraction
19. The process of ________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner".
ANS:
diffraction
20. ________waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion.
ANS:
Space
21.________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's
surface.
ANS:
Ground
22. ________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to
refraction.
ANS:
Sky
23. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ________ waves
interfering with direct waves.
ANS:
reflected
24. The ________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received.
ANS:
skip
TRUE/FALSE
1. Antennas are considered to be active devices. F
29. The use of ________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology.
ANS:
microprocessor
SHORT ANSWER
1. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. 3 1010 F/m and the same permeability
as free space. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric?
ANS:
45 ohms
2. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt, what is the power density
10,000 meters from the source?
ANS:
796 pW/ m2
3. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power
density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 W/ m2?
ANS:
113 watts
4. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/ m2 of power density to function, how far away
from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work?
ANS:
8.9 km
5. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km
apart. What, approximately, is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the
towers are the same?
ANS:
37 meters
17. The input impedance of a center-fed dipole increases as the separation between
the cable connections is increased. T
18. The polarization of a dipole antenna is always horizontal. F
c. a Yagi antenna
d. none of the above
10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused
by:
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground
b. buildings and other structures on the ground
c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is:
a. 0 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 10 dB
d. infinite
13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by:
a. gamma rays
c. helical rotation
b. Faraday Rotation
d. the distance traveled
b. driven
c. parasitic
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is
called a:
a. Marconi
c. Log-Periodic Dipole
b. Yagi
d. stacked array
20. LPDA stands for:
a. Low-Power Dipole Array
b. Low-Power Directed Array
21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is:
a. collimated
b. phased
c. dispersed
d. none of the above
22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the:
a. center
b. edges
c. focus
d. horn
23. Antennas are often tested in:
a. an echo chamber
b. an anechoic chamber
c. a vacuum chamber
d. an RF reflective chamber
point, isotropic
5. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt?
ANS:
10 watts
21. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ________ plane.
ANS:
ground
6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100
watts. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna?
ANS:
100 volts
TRUE/FALSE
28. A ________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.
ANS:
collimated
29. A microwave ________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide.
ANS:
horn
30. An ________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas.
ANS:
anechoic
SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.
ANS:
475 millimeters
2. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts?
ANS:
95 watts
3. If an antenna has 10.14 dB of gain compared to a point source, how much gain
does it have compared to a half-wave dipole?
ANS:
8 dB
4. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100
watts. What is the RMS current in the antenna?
ANS:
1 ampere
15. The cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide depends on the longer
dimension of its cross section. T
16. Group velocity is how fast a signal travels through a waveguide. T
17. Group velocity is significantly less than the speed of light. T
18. Phase velocity is another term for group velocity. F
22. Phase velocity in a waveguide is always greater than the speed of light. T
51. Radar can discriminate between two targets that are in the same "line-of-sight".
T
MULTIPLE CHOICE
d. 100 GHz
d. TM10
d. TM11
c. antenna
d. none of the above
COMPLETION
1. ________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a
waveguide.
ANS:
Dispersion
c. gallium astenite
d. none of the above
d. YIG
3. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ________ mode.
ANS:
dominant
4. In TE10 mode, the ________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross
section.
ANS:
electric
c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
d. none of the above
c. mechanical pressure
d. an "exciter" signal
5. In TE20 mode, the electric field has ________ peaks in the waveguide cross
section.
ANS:
two
6. In a circular waveguide, ________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry.
ANS:
TM01
d. YIG
d. YIG
4. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its
cutoff frequency.
ANS:
346 106 meters per second
5. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff
frequency.
ANS:
173 millimeters
6. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per
second.
ANS:
15 km
7. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-sec
duration pulses.
ANS:
300 meters
TRUE/FALSE
19. The radar cross section of a target is typically ________ than its actual size.
ANS:
smaller
20. The frequency of the returned signal will be ________ than the transmitted
signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna.
ANS:
higher
SHORT ANSWER
10. In digital microwave systems, additional links have no negative affects. F
1. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer
dimension of its cross section is 5 cm.
ANS:
3 GHz
2. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its
cutoff frequency.
ANS:
260 106 meters per second
3. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH = 60 mm.
ANS:
14.8
15. For analog microwave systems, the carrier-to-noise ratio must exceed a certain
minimum. T
16. For microwave links, it is more convenient to use noise temperature than noise
figure. T
17. For digital microwave links, energy per bit is a key parameter. T
18. An Eb / N0 ratio of about 3 dB is sufficient for most digital microwave links. F
19. Above 10 GHz, fading due to rain is not a problem. F
20. One cause of fading in a microwave system is "ducting". T
21. Compensation for fading due to multipath reception is usually done using
"diversity". T
22. Diversity can be achieved by mounting two antennas on a tower, one above the
other. T
23. Diversity can be achieved by using two microwave frequencies. T
24. Repeaters typically receive a signal and retransmit it on the same frequency. F
25. Analog microwave repeaters can be either "baseband" or "IF" repeaters. T
c. excessive noise
d. jitter
c. ducting
d. all of the above
13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using:
a. diversity
b. power
c. high-gain antennas
d. all of the above
c. QAM
c. above 10 GHz
d. below 10 GHz
c. regenerative type
d. all of the above
d. jump
d. all of the above
d. 99.99%
c. Line-Of-Sight
d. Line-Of-Signal
c. multidirectional
d. none of the above
COMPLETION
SHORT ANSWER
1. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it be,
approximately, for a microwave beam?
ANS:
16 km
10. Microwave systems generally use less than _________ watts of power.
ANS:
ten
11. _________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the lineof-sight distance.
ANS:
Repeaters
12. Analog microwave systems use both IF and _________ repeaters.
ANS:
baseband
37. The accelerating voltage applied to the CRT in a TV receiver is several thousand
volts. T
43. Most of the supply voltages in a TV receiver come from the horizontal output
transformer. T
44. A typical color CRT contains three electron guns. T
45. A typical monochrome CRT contains a "shadow mask". F
21. Closed-caption signals can be sent during the vertical blanking time. T
22. Horizontal and vertical resolution in a TV system are determined in the same
way. F
46. In a color CRT, "purity" means each electron beam hits the correct color
phosphor. T
47. "Aquadag" is a color phosphor. F
23. The resolution seen by a viewer depends to a certain extent on the TV receiver.
T
50. Like a PSTN central office, the typical CATV system is configured as a star
network. F
26. Because of the way people perceive color, any color can be made with red,
green, and blue. T
27. NTSC color television is not compatible with NTSC monochrome television. F
28. In an NTSC color TV system, luminance is derived from the RGB signals. T
53. An HDTV signal cannot fit into the bandwidth of a standard broadcast TV
channel. F
29. Horizontal resolution for color in NTSC is much less than it is for luminance. T
54. Digital encoding and compression play a significant role in HDTV. T
30. NTSC uses a suppressed-carrier system to add color information to the video
signal. T
55. The FCC has set the phase-out of analog TV broadcasting for the year 2006. T
31. NTSC uses a type of amplitude modulation for the video signal. T
d. IEEE
c. Red-Green Bandwidth
d. Red-Green-Blue
d. 1250
d. 60
d. 60
b. contrast
d. 625 : 525
c. chroma
d. raster
c. IRE units
d. NTSC units
20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver
is:
a. SSB
c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM
d. FM
24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
a. about the same
c. much lower
b. much higher
d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration
16. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is:
a. much greater
c. much less
b. about the same
d. resolution does not apply to color
COMPLETION
1. ________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a
TV.
ANS:
Aquadag
20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ________ kV.
ANS:
20 to 30
21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ________ to generate the picture.
ANS:
phosphor
4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam ________ from right
to left.
ANS:
retraces
23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ________ filter.
ANS:
comb
24. The color ________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a
monochrome signal.
ANS:
killer
26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ________ end.
ANS:
head
9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ________.
ANS:
porch
27. A ________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases.
ANS:
vectorscope
10. Odd and even fields are identified by the ________of the vertical sync pulse.
ANS:
position
11. Each horizontal scan line takes ________ microseconds, not including blanking.
ANS:
62.5
29. The ________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.
ANS:
phase
30. The ________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the
correct color phosphor dots.
ANS:
purity
31. The ________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the
correct triad of phosphor dots.
ANS:
convergence
TRUE/FALSE
25. Conventional analog satellite transponders cannot be used with digital data
signals. F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
11. In the Northern Hemisphere, an antenna must face south to reach a satellite. T
12. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the Southern
Hemisphere. F
13. You cannot communicate with a geosynchronous satellite from the South Pole.
T
14. Typically, ground antennas must be movable to "track" a geosynchronous
satellite. F
15. The azimuth and elevation needed for an antenna to "see" a certain satellite
depend on the location of the antenna on the ground. T
16. The power in the uplink signal to a typical communications satellite is in the
range of 50 to 240 watts. F
17. The power in the downlink signal from a typical communications satellite is in
the range of 10 to 250 watts per transponder. T
18. The EIRP of a satellite depends on the gain of its antenna. T
19. The EIRP of a satellite is the same anywhere reception is possible. F
20. It takes over half a second for a signal to go from point A to point B and back
again via geostationary satellite. T
21. The useful life of a communications satellite is over when it runs out of fuel. T
22. The maximum useful life of a communications satellite is about three years. F
23. Using the C band for satellites may conflict with terrestrial microwave
communications. T
24. Ku-band antennas can be smaller than C-band antennas. T
2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
a. apogee and perigee
c. uplink and downlink
b. perigee and apogee
d. downlink and uplink
3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its:
a. earth station
c. footprint
b. downlink
d. plate
4. The velocity required to stay in orbit:
a. is constant
b. is zero (freefall)
c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth
d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth
5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called:
a. azimuth and elevation
c. declination and elevation
b. azimuth and declination
d. apogee and perigee
6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:
a. 5 to 25 watts
c. 500 to 2500 watts
b. 50 to 250 watts
d. depends on its orbit
7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
a. 101 watts
b. 102 watts
c. 103 watts
d. 104 watts
8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of:
a. transponders
b. batteries
c. solar cells
9. "Station-keeping" refers to:
a. antenna maintenance
b. power-level adjustments
c. orbital adjustments
d. none of the above
c. direct-broadcast system
d. direct-broadcast satellite
c. low-noise amplitude
d. low-noise array
4. The _________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station.
ANS:
downlink
5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called _________satellites.
ANS:
orbital
d. EIRP drop
6. A geosynchronous orbit is about _________ km above the earth.
ANS:
35,780
3. The _________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite.
ANS:
uplink
d. repeater
13. An antenna's _________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis.
ANS:
declination
COMPLETION
17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its _________.
ANS:
diameter
14. In AMPS, some control functions are done over the voice channels. T
15. Paging signals are sent over voice channels in AMPS. F
SHORT ANSWER
16. For efficient handoff, an optimum cell-site radius is a bit less than 0.5 km. F
1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise
temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of
the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T.
ANS:
25 dB
17. With AMPS, a cell phone can receive a voice channel and a control channel
simultaneously. F
2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature.
ANS:
139 K.
20. The MIN represents the 10-digit phone-number of the cell phone. T
3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite
38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a
gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz.
Calculate the C/N at the receiver.
ANS:
38 dB
35. Calls can be "dropped" when a cell phone moves into another cell. T
12. With AMPS, each individual cell uses all available voice channels. F
38. Digital cellular systems actually use less bandwidth than analog systems. T
39. Digital cellular systems in North America use the same frequencies, power
levels, and channels as AMPS. T
40. Privacy using the digital cellular system is much better than using AMPS. T
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. AMPS stand for:
a. American Mobile Phone System
b. Analog Mobile Phone Service
d. CDMA
21. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is
called the:
a. BSC
b. MTSO
c. RF interface
d. air interface
c. number of user
24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
a. increase the number of cells
c. increase the ERP
b. decrease the number of cells
d. decrease the ERP
16. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a
_________ call.
ANS:
dropped
COMPLETION
17. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell _________.
ANS:
splitting
18. A _________site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole.
ANS:
microcell
2. _________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America.
ANS:
AMPS
19. Very small cells called _________ are used for reliable indoor reception.
ANS:
picocells
20. Compared with AMPS, digital cellular phones require _________ bandwidth.
ANS:
4. A _________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to
another.
ANS:
handoff
5. If a cell-site radius drops below _________ km, handoffs will occur too
frequently.
ANS:
0.5
SHORT ANSWER
1. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell
phone systems.
ANS:
less
2. If a 28.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone, how many words of text
would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter
and 5 letters per word?
ANS:
57.6
3. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. The probability that a given cell
phone is being used is 15%. What is the traffic in erlangs?
ANS:
30
4. What is "trunking gain"?
ANS:
1. There are three competing, and incompatible, PCS systems in North America. T
14. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of _________.
ANS:
traffic
2. The current PCS systems are "true" personal communications systems in their
performance. F
3. Current PCS systems are referred to as "third-generation", with AMPS and digital
cell phones being the first and second generations. F
30. The Walsh code is used for error detection in CDMA systems. F
c. third-generation
d. digital-generation
c. distributed
d. higher-power
16. In GSM PCS, control frames are mixed in with frames carrying voice. T
17. GSM uses extensive frequency hopping for spread-spectrum. F
18. Frequency hopping lessens the impact of multipath fading. T
b. Europe
c. Bell Labs
d. Qualcomm
d. all of the above
c. North America
19. The SIM used in a GSM phone helps prevent unauthorized use. T
20. GSM security is not as good as it is in IS-136. F
c. bearer channels
d. talking channels
b. TDMA
c. spread-spectrum
11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be:
a. less than in a TDMA phone
c. greater than in a TDMA phone
b. no better than in an AMPS phone
d. no better than a TDMA phone
12. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in:
a. no PCS system
c. TDMA only
b. GSM only
d. both GSM and TDMA
13. GSM uses:
a. frequency hopping
b. direct-sequence modulation
c. CDMA
d. all of the above
c. Subscriber ID Module
d. Subscriber ID Method
10. Unlike other systems, in CDMA __________ frequencies are used in all cells.
ANS:
all
c. CDMA
d. all of the above
18. In CDMA:
a. all frequencies are used in all cells
b. each cell uses half the available frequencies
c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone
19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are:
a. common
b. unique
c. rotating
13. RF channel S/N ratios __________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems.
ANS:
less
14. CDMA uses a __________-rate vocoder.
ANS:
variable
15. A phone user typically talks less than __________% of the time during a
conversation.
ANS:
50
d. orthogonal
5. Why was PCS assigned to 1.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS?
ANS:
The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded.
6. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in
a TDMA phone?
ANS:
A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. A GSM
phone is active during one out of every eight.
7. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK?
ANS:
With standard QPSK, the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero.
With offset QPSK, it never goes to zero. Linearity requirements are less
strict for offset QPSK transmitters.
8. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA, and what causes it?
ANS:
A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is
near. This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not
well controlled by the base.
16. The typical range of a wireless LAN in an office environment is about 10 meters.
F
17. The range of a Bluetooth system in an office environment is about 0.01 meters
to 10 meters. T
18. Any Bluetooth device should be able to communicate with any other Bluetooth
device. T
19. Bluetooth has a channel bit rate of 100 Mbps. F
20. Bluetooth devices communicate automatically once they are in range of each
other. T
21. Bluetooth uses spread-spectrum modulation. T
22. Bluetooth uses frequency hopping. T
23. Bluetooth is designed for audio as well as data. T
25. A wireless LAN based on light waves would need direct line of sight for
connections. F
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Pagers use:
a. the VHF band only
b. the UHF band only
c. both the VHF and UHF bands
d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band
3. CAPCODE is:
a. an encryption scheme used for pagers
b. an addressing scheme used for pagers
c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers
d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers
4. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is:
a. 802.10
b. 802.11
c. 802.12
d. 802.13
COMPLETION
1. Each pager has a unique address called a _________.
ANS:
capcode
d. infrared band
9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of:
a. CSMA/CA
b. CSMA/CD
c. CDMA
d. all of the above
6. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of _________ for wireless LANs.
ANS:
1 watt
b.frequency hopping
c. QPSK
c. ISM band
d. infrared band
c. 2 to 8 nodes
d. 2 to 16 nodes
d. scatternet
Chapter 24: Fiber Optics
TRUE/FALSE
1. An optical fiber is a waveguide for light. T
c. 1 foot
d. 10 feet
1. Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be:
a. the same
c. less
b. greater
d. doesn't have an index of refraction
c. generate EMI
d. all of the above
10. The core has a higher index of refraction than does the cladding. T
11. Single-mode fiber causes less dispersion than does multimode fiber. T
6. Scattering causes:
a. loss
b. dispersion
c. intersymbol interference
d. all of the above
19. Plastic fiber-optic cables have a loss of several hundred dB per km. T
20. The losses due to splicing can be greater than the losses due to the cable itself.
T
21. The purpose of the cladding is to add strength to the fiber-optic cable. F
22. The terms "splice" and "connector" are equivalent for fiber. F
d. zero loss
d. a phonon
c. a photon
14. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a _________ cable.
ANS:
tight-buffer
15. A _________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the
source.
ANS:
pigtail
16. Good connections are more critical with _________-mode fiber.
ANS:
single
17. A _________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable.
ANS:
laser
18. The quantum of light is called the _________.
ANS:
photon
19. A _________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable.
ANS:
PIN
20. For safety, you should never _________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you
know it is not connected to a light source.
ANS:
look
TRUE/FALSE
9. In multimode fiber, _________ index has less dispersion than step index.
ANS:
graded
10. For laser diodes, the term _________ is used instead of bandwidth.
ANS:
linewidth
9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles
b. 100 miles
c. 100 km
d. 10 km
c. type of pulse
d. type of optical network
d. not possible
c. obsolete
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?
ANS:
1 MHz
2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver,
and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.
ANS:
86.6 nanoseconds