PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Questions 1-20
1) If a stakeholder has any questions about project deliverables, as the PM, you should direct him to the:
a) WBS
b) Project plan
c) Preliminary Scope statement
d) None of the above
2) Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says that he cannot fulfil the
terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had signed in the contract. He is referring to the:
a) Force majeure clause
b) Fixed price clause
c) Contract obligation terms
d) None of the above
3) Your vendor has confirmed in writing that he will not be able to provide the products contracted to him,
in the time mentioned in the contract. You can terminate the contract and sue for damages. This is a type
of:
a) Minor breach
b) Anticipatory breach
c) Material breach
d) Fundamental breach

4) As a PM, you manage multiple projects. One of your projects is over budget while the other is under
budget. You decide to transfer money from the latter to the former and report both projects as within
budget. This is against the PMI code of ethics and is called:
a) Unethical management
b) Budget tampering
c) Fraudulent reporting
d) Cost leveling

5) Your brother can influence bids in the vendor company that has been contracted for your project. You
should:
a) Disclose the bid price that is most likely to make him win
b) Reject other vendors and award him the contract
c) Refrain from the decision-making process and make a full disclosure to stakeholders and wait for their
decision before you proceed
d) Pretend during meetings that you don't know your brother

6) A project you are managing is about to be completed. But there is a minor defect in the work produced
by the contractor. You should:
a) Neglect the defect if it is trivial
b) Ask the contractor to fix according to SOW
c) Submit a change request
d) None of the above

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

7) As a PM, you have identified some low priority risks. You should:
a) Neglect them as they will mostly not occur
b) Add them to a watch list and add to the risk register
c) Plan detailed response plans
d) None of the above

8) One of your team members' A's father was sick when you were in the planning stage of your project. A
had informed you that he might have to leave to visit his father if the situation arose. You had planned for
this and spoke to the functional manager of your group to provide a back-up resource, B to be used if
necessary.
Now, A has left to see his father and B is filling in for him. But B is taking more than expected time to get
up to speed and this impacts project cost and schedule.
This is an example of a:
a) Residual risk
b) Secondary risk
c) Contingency plan
d) None of the above

9) To motivate your team, you decided to reward a team member who performed well. This hurt cohesion
in the team. You should:
a) Reset award criteria
b) Modify reward strategy to be win-win for the team
c) Award only two people
d) Declare that there will be no rewards going forward

10) Your project uses a vendor who has completed 50% of the contracted work. You are unsure of how
much to pay the vendor. You should refer to the:
a) Request for proposal
b) Contract
c) Response to bid
d) Statement of work

11) When estimating time for activities, a PM should:

a) Use random guessing and estimate for all activities as there will be changes anyways
b) Involve people who will be doing the work to get estimates
c) Estimate for what the cost will allow and not include buffers
d) None of the above

12) When there are people from different countries and cultures in a team, the PM should:
a) Neglect the cultural differences
b) Deal with everyone with an iron hand
c) Recognize that there are cultural differences

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

d) Mentor each person

13) If your business sponsor has an important but minor change to the scope, and he requests that you
make the change without having to process a change request:
a) Accomodate the change
b) Refuse to make the change
c) Sneak the change in when no one is looking
d) Request the client that the change management process has to be followed

14) If a stakeholder directly asks a team member to make changes and the team member accomodates
it:
a) Admonish the team member during the team meeting so that other team members are also aware
b) Inform the stakeholder that he should not talk to your team member
c) Talk to the stakeholder and team member in private, and emphasise gently that the Integrated Change
Control process should be followed
d) Pretend to not know about the change and let it happen

15) When your client is ready to accept the product your project has produced, you should:
a) Refer to the quality plan to see if the product meets specifications
b) Refer to project management plan
c) Obtain client sign off and follow administrative closure process
d) Let go off the project resources and assign them to other projects

16) Appreciating a team member's good work in front of the team results in:
a) Jealousy among other team members and should be avoided
b) Encouragement for the team member and motivation for other team members
c) Shouldn't be done as it shows preference
d) None of the above

17) As the project manager of an important project, you learnt many helpful tools and tips. What should
you do?
a) Keep them to yourself
b) Archive your learning in the project folder and share with other PMs
c) Sign a non-disclosure agreement
d) None of the above

18) You just found out that the company that you were planning to use in your project is known for being
late in delivering their products that can lead to losses to the project. You decide to go with a different
company to ______ the risk.
a) Mitigate
b) Reject
c) Transfer
d) Avoid

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

19) You are the project manager of a project that involves sensitive information. You are inviting bids from
vendors for some tasks on this project. Since the winning vendor will have access to the sensitive
information, you should:
a) Decide to drop the vendor and instead do the tasks using an internal team
b) Swear the vendor to secrecy
c) Ask the vendor to sign a non-disclosure agreement
d) Threaten to take the vendor to court

20) A project is behind schedule. Two senior resources are added to help speeden work. The result is:
a) Project will be completed on time
b) Project cost will not increase
c) Project may not be completed on time due to increased number of communication channels
d) None of the above
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21) Project scope statement is the output of:
a) Scope planning
b) Scope definition
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
22) Requested changes to scope and recommended corrective action belong to which process:
a) Scope verification
b) Scope definition
c) Scope control
d) All of the above
23) Scope planning takes place:
a) After requirements are gathered
b) Early in the project
c) After scope is finalized
d) None of the above
24) Project charter is
a) An output of Scope planning
b) Input to scope planning
c) Created after preliminary project scope statement
d) All of the above
25) An example of organizational process asset is:
a) Company policy document
b) Organizational culture
c) Organization structure
d) Organization type

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

26) Qualitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:
a) Planning
b) Executing
c) Monitoring
d) Controlling
27) Quantitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:
a) Planning
b) Executing
c) Monitoring
d) Controlling
28) Risk register is an output of:
a) Risk identification
b) Qualitative risk analysis
c) Quantitative risk analysis
d) Risk response planning
29) Risk register update is a primary output of:
a) Quantitative risk analysis
b) Qualiitative risk analysis
c) Risk monitoring and control
d) All of the above
30) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs:
a) Risk register updates
b) Recommended corrective actions
c) Recommended preventive actions
d) All of the above
31) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs:
a) Risk register updates
b) Risk management plan
c) Risk register
d) All of the above
32) A risk is a bad event that will adversely impact the project. This statement is:
a) Always true
b) Always false
c) Sometimes true
d) None of the above
33) The triple constraints in project management are:
a) Scope, Time, cost
b) Time, scope, performance
c) Scope, Time, plan
d) Scope, Time, quality
34) Any changes to the project after the plan is prepared:

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

i) Have to be processed according to the Integrated Change Control process
ii) Have to be assessed for impact
iii) Can be done without impact analysis if the impact is zero or minimal
iv) Should not be done as they were not in the original plan
a) i, ii
b) i, ii, iii
c) i, ii, iv
d) None of the above

35) Schedule development produces the following output:

a) Project schedule
b) WBS
c) Activity time
d) Project plan
36) Critical path is:
a) The time it takes to finish the project completing only the critical activities
b) Difference between end time and start time of project
c) The longest time it takes to complete all project activities
d) The shortest time it takes to complete all project activities
37) When there are multiple critical paths in a project:
a) The risk is less as it is divided between the paths
b) The risk is more as the risk of delay is more
c) Risk depends on how the critical path is calculated
d) There is no risk as the paths cancel it out
38) Dummy activities are used in:
a) Activity on arrow diagram
b) Activity decomposition
c) Activity list
d) Activity duration estimates
39) Software Project A took 5 months to complete. Project B, very similar to Project A will probably take
about 5 months to complete. This expert judgement technique is:
a) Analogous estimating
b) Critical path
c) Expert estimation
d) Compression
40) Crashing:
a) Is a schedule compression technique
b) Increases cost
c) Is achieved by adding resources
d) All of the above
41) Fast tracking:

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

a) Is a schedule compression technique
b) Does sequential activities in parallel
c) Increases risk of rework
d) All of the above
42) Quality audit:
i) Is a tool in Perform quality assurance
ii) Checks the efficiency of the quality process
iii) Tries to improve product acceptance
iv) Reduce overall cost of quality
a) i, iii, iv
b) None of the above
c) All of the above
d) ii, iii
43) Ishikawa diagrams are also called:
a) Fishbone diagrams
b) Causal diagrams
c) Stick diagrams
d) Bone diagrams
44) Some managers believe that people do not work willingly and must be watched and managed
continuosly. They are of type:
a) Theory X
b) Theory Y
c) Theory XY
d) Theory V
45) When an individual's lower level needs are met, the next level's needs are his motivation. This forms
the basis of:
a) Theory Y
b) Maslow's hierarchy
c) Theory X
d) None of the above
46) Locating all team members in the same location is called:
a) War room
b) Collocation
c) Teleconferencing
d) Telecommuting
47) Noise is:
a) Any interference in sending or comprehending a message
b) False information
c) Introduced in electronic signals
d) None of the above
48) A project manager manages a team of 5. The number of communication channels is:

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

a) 15
b) 10
c) 5
d) None of the above
49) Email communication is:
a) Formal style, written
b) Informal style, written
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
50) A technique used to identify root causes of issues is:
a) Fish bone diagram
b) Quality check
c) Issue list
d) Defect review
51) A bar graph that shows resource assignments over time is:
a) Resource leveling
b) Resource histogram
c) Resource chart
d) Gantt chart
52) Resource leveling:
i) Is the allocation of resources to resolve overallocation issues
ii) Helps resolve resource conflicts
iii) Can impact cost of project
iv) Can only be done with project management software
a) i, ii, iii
b) i, iv
c) ii, iii, iv
d) iii, iv
53) An activity on the critical path has:
a) Non-zero float
b) Negative free float
c) Zero free float
d) None of the above
54) If CPI=1.3, SPI=.8, what's the status of the project?
a) Over budget and behind schedule
b) Under budget and behind schedule
c) Under budget and ahead of schedule
d) Over budget and ahead of schedule
55) Project Scope management plan is an output of:
a) Scope planning
b) Scope definition

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

56) Earned value=100, Planned value=110, the schedule performance index is:
a) 1.1
b) 0.91
c) -10
d) 10
57) Earned value=100, Actual cost=120, the cost performance index is:
a) 0.01
b) 20
c) 0.833
d) -20
58) The four stages in team development are:
a) Forming, storming, norming, performing
b) Forming, storming, norming, reforming
c) Forming, norming, reforming, performing
d) Planning, forming, storming, performing
59) Theory Y assumes employees:
a) Are self-motivated
b) Have to be micro-managed
c) Work only for money
d) Are not ambitious
60) Low-priority risks should be:
a) Added to a watch list and the risk register updated
b) Removed from the watch list
c) Removed from the risk register
d) Informed to the customer
Questions 61-80
61) A technique used in Expert Judgement to determine probability of risk is:
a) Interviews with experts
b) Risk ranking
c) Risk register updates
d) Risk response plan
62) Monte Carlo simulation is a technique used to perform:
a) Qualitative risk analysis
b) Quantitative risk analysis
c) Decision tree analysis
d) Risk response
63) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:
a) Risk register

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

b) Risk management plan
c) Cost management plan
d) All of the above
64) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:
a) Organizational process assets
b) Schedule management plan
c) Cost management plan
d) All of the above
65) Tools/techniques to perform quantitative risk analysis are:
a) Expert judgement
b) Decision tree analysis
c) Modeling
d) All of the above
66) 'Plan risk responses' process involves:
a) Planning to decrease threats to the project
b) Planning to benefit from possible opportunities
c) Both of the above
d) Only A
67) Examine the statement-"A detailed risk response plan should be prepared no matter how huge or
trivial the risk is, irrespective of whether the effort is cost-effective or not, as this is the process." This
statement is:
a) Always true
b) Always false
c) Sometimes true
d) Sometimes false
68) Positive risks are also called:
a) Good risks
b) Opportunities
c) Advantages
d) Project plusses
69) The four strategies used to deal with negative threats are:
a) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept
b) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, reject
c) Accept, transfer, mitigate, reject
d) Accept, analyze, avoid, mitigate
70) Scope verification and Scope control belong to:
a) Planning process group
b) Initiating proces group
c) Executing process group
d) Monitoring and Control process group

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

71) In a fixed price contract, the risk:
a) lies more with the vendor
b) lies more with the buyer
c) is the same for vendor and buyer
d) Can't say
72) In a time-materials contract, the risk:
a) lies more with the vendor
b) lies more with the buyer
c) is the same for vendor and buyer
d) Can't say
73) Purchasing insurance is a form of ______ risk:
a) Avoiding
b) Transferring
c) Mitigating
d) Working around
74) The only output of the Identify Risks process is:
a) Risk analysis
b) Risk register
c) Risk monitor
d) Risk response plan
75) The four strategies used to deal with positive threats are:
a) Exploit, share, enhance, accept
b) Exploit, share, enhance, adjust
c) Exploit, simulate, enhance, accept
d) Exploit, share, prototype, accept
76) How to define, monitor and control risks in a project is documented in:
a) Expert judgement interview results
b) Risk register
c) Risk management plan
d) Workshops
77) Tools/techniques used in Plan Procurements process are:
a) Make or buy analysis
b) Expert judgement
c) Contract types
d) All of the above
78) Unclear scope definition in a project using Fixed price contract can lead to losses for:
a) the buyer
b) the vendor
c) both buyer and vendor
d) Neither as these are sunk costs
79) Request for proposal, Request for Information, Invitation for bid are broadly called:

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

a) Procurement documents
b) Vendor documents
c) Bidding documents
d) Contract documents
80) Create WBS belongs to:
a) Initiating
b) Executing
c) Closing
d) None of the above
Questions 81-100
81) Closing a Project involves:
a) Updating organization process assets
b) Closing contract
c) Creating documentation, archives, and lessons learned
d) All of the above

82) Administrative closure is an output of:

a) Project Administration process
b) Close Project process
c) Monitor project process
d) Risk management process

83) 'Gold plating' is

a) Beating customer expectations
b) Producing excellent deliverables
c) Setting higher than possible expectations that introduce risk to the project
d) All of the above

84) CPPC and fixed-price contracts are used in:

a) PO with standard item
b) PO with variable item
c) Request for proposal
d) Price-free contracts
85) WBS is created in:
a) Scope management process
b) Risk management process
c) Planning process
d) Monitor and control process

86) A tool/rechnique used in the Develop Human Resource plan process is:
a) Political factors
b) Organization chart

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

c) Personnel policies
d) Interpersonal factors
87) RBS stands for:
a) Resource breakdown structure
b) Risk breakdown structure
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
88) Which of the following is true?
a) RACI (Responsible-Accountable-Consult-Inform) is a type of RAM (Responsibility Assignment matrix)
b) RAM shows the resources' responsibilities on the project
c) RAM and RACI are matrix-based charts
d) All of the above
89) 'Scope' of project is:
a) Any work committed to orally with customer
b) Only work that has to be completed to successfully finish project
c) Any work that customer requires to be completed
d) Only work that can be completed within project duration

90) Tools for Plan Quality are:

a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Control charts
c) Benchmarking
d) All of the above
91) Crosby's cost of quality theory of 'zero defects' is based on:
a) Prevention
b) Correction
c) Conformance
d) Fitness for use
92) Juran's fitness for use theory of cost of quality can be summarized as:
a) Continuous improvement
b) Making a product that meets or exceeds customer expectations
c) Making a product that is easy to use
d) Making a product with zero defects
93) 'Budget at Completion' is also called:
a) Actual cost
b) Budgeted cost of work performed
c) Earned value
d) Planned value for the project
94) Which of the following are examples of cost reimbursable contracts:
a) Cost plus incentive fee
b) Cost plus fixed fee

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

c) Cost plus fee
d) All of the above
95) A critical activity is something that:
a) Is crucial for the project to be completed successfully
b) Needs to be signed of by the stakeholder
c) An activity on the critical path in the project schedule
d) An activity that cannot be substituted by a different activity
96) A dummy activity has:
a) Infinite duration
b) Zero duration
c) No importance
d) All of the above
97) Residual risk is a risk:
a) Found in reserve analysis
b) That remains after all risk responses have been implemented
c) That will be eliminated after applying the appropriate risk response
d) None of the above
98) Scope planning and Scope definition belong to:
a) Planning process group
b) Initiating proces group
c) Executing process group
d) Monitoring and Control process group

99) A room used for project planning, and where team members work on issue resolution is called:
a) Conference room
b) Resolution room
c) War room
d) Video conferencing room
100) 'Estimate to Completion' can be calculated as:
a) EAC-AC
b) BAC-EAC
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Questions 101-120
101) An average PM spends 50% of her time on:
a) Meetings
b) Issue resolution
c) Managing stakeholders
d) Risk analysis

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

102) The cost of a contractor is $25 per hour. Two contractors working for 10 hours will cost $500. This is
an example of:
a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating
c) Three-point estimating
d) Bottom-up estimating
103) Using PERT, calculate the time it takes for a task with the following information:
Pessimistic time=5 hours, Optimistic time=2 hours, Most likely time=5 hours. The answer is:
a) 4.5 hours
b) 3 hours
c) 5 hours
d) 1.5 hours
104) The cost management plan can establish:
a) Control thresholds
b) Organizational procedure links
c) Earned value rules
d) All of the above
105) The revenue earned from doing a project is $1000. The costs involved sum to $500. The benefit cost
ratio is:
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 500000
d) None of the above
106) If the Benefit cost ratio is > 1, then:
a) Costs are greater than benefits
b) Benefits are greater than costs
c) Cannot be determined
d) Depends on other factors
107) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Budgeted cost of work scheduled=$2000. The
schedule performance index is:
a) 0.5
b) 2
c) 1000
d) None of the above
108) Earned value=$2000. Planned value=$2500. The schedule performance index is:
a) 0.8
b) 1.25
c) 500
d) None of the above
109) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000.
The cost performance index is:
a) 0.5

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

b) 2
c) 1000
d) None of the above
110) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000. The cost variance
is:
a) -1000
b) 2
c) 1000
d) None of the above
111) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600,
the variance can occur again. The estimate at completion is:
a) $1000
b) $1400
c) $800
d) None of the above
112) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600,
the variance will not occur again. The estimate at completion is:
a) $1000
b) $1200
c) $800
d) None of the above
113) Phase-end reviews are called:
a) Phase exits
b) Stage gates
c) Kill points
d) All of the above
114) The following is true about risk of failing:
a) It is higher inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets lesser as the project continues
b) It remains the same thoughout the project
c) It is lesser inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets better as the project continues
d) None of the above
115) In a functional organization structure, the PM's authority is:
a) Little or none
b) Limited
c) Low
d) Moderate
116) In a strong matrix organization structure, the PM's authority is:
a) High to almost total
b) Limited
c) Low to moderate
d) Moderate to high

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

117) In a projectized organization structure, the PM's authority is:
a) High
b) Limited
c) High to almost total
d) Moderate to high
118) In a balanced matrix, the project budget is controlled by:
a) Functional manager
b) Project manager
c) Mixed
d) None of the above
119) Deming's cycle is used for continuous improvement of processes. The four-step management
method is:
a) Plan-Do-Check-Act
b) Plan-Act-Check-Do
c) Plan-Act-Do-Check
d) None of the above
120) 'Perform quality control' belongs to:
a) Monitoring process group
b) Executing process group
c) Controlling process group
d) Monitoring and controlling process group
Questions 121-140
121) Administer procurements belongs to:
a) Initiating process group
b) Executing process group
c) Controlling process group
d) Monitoring and controlling process group
122) Which of these is a reason to start a project:
a) Problem
b) Market
c) Opportunity
d) All of the above
123) Which of the following is true about project charter:
a) Authorizes a project
b) Gives project manager authority
c) It is issued by the sponsor with the authority to fund
d) All of the above
124) The project charter contains:
a) Business needs
b) Risks
c) Quality plan
d) None of the above

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

125) Scope baseline includes:

a) WBS
b) WBS dictionary
c) Project scope statement
d) All of the above
126) Which of the following is true about project closure:
a) Contract closure is for each contract
b) Contract closure includes product verification and administrative closure
c) Administrative closure happens to close the project or each phase
d) All of the above
127) Administrative closure:
a) Happens once to close the project or each project phase
b) Needed to confirm that all deliverables have been provided
c) Ensures that official acceptance document has been obtained
d) All of the above
128) Which of the below are project selection methods:
a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Payback period
c) Net present value
d) All of the above
129) WBS:
a) Prevents work from slipping through the cracks
b) Is the basis for estimates
c) Provides the team with an understanding of where their pieces fit in the project plan
d) All of the above
130) Principal sources of project failure:
a) Poorly identified customer needs
b) Poor planning
c) Poor control
d) All of the above
131) Most change requests are because of:
a) An omission in defining product/project scope
b) A value-adding change
c) An external event
d) All of the above
132) Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique:
a) Brainstorming
b) Risk identification
c) Stakeholder creative communication
d) Powerpoint presentations

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

133) WBS includes all project work. Which of the following is also true about WBS?
a) It doesn't include product work
b) It does not include PM work
c) Total of work at lowest levels need not always roll up to higher levels as some extra work may
be completed
d) None of the above
134) Critical chain method and critical path method are tools and techniques used in which process of the
Project TIme management area?
a) Estimate activity resources
b) Control schedule
c) Develop schedule
d) Estimate activity durations
135) Resource leveling is a tool/technique used in which process in Project Time Management overview?
a) Develop schedule
b) Control schedule
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
136) Project Time Management is a process needed to:
a) Ensure timely completion of project
b) Track time taken for each activity
c) Bill the client for each hour of work done
d) None of the above
137) The outputs of 'Activity Definition' and 'Create WBS' respectively are:
a) Activities and WBS
b) Components and Work pieces
c) Schedule activity and deliverable
d) None of the above
138) Arrow diagramming method does not use:
a) Float
b) Finish to start relationship
c) Lag
d) Activities
139) Which of the following is a discretionary dependency for schedule:
a) Preferential logic
b) Soft logic
c) Preferred logic
d) All of the above

140) Lead allows _____ of successor activity:

a) Acceleration
b) Deceleration
c) Tracking

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

d) Regression
141) Lag results in _____ of successor activity:
a) Acceleration
b) Delay
c) Tracking
d) Regression
142) Contingency reserve is for:
a) Known unknowns
b) Remaining risk after risk response planning
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
143) Management reserve is for:
a) Unknown unknowns
b) Covered by cost budget
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
144) Outputs of Monitor and control project work are:
a) Recommended corrective actions
b) Recommended preventive actions
c) Requested changes
d) All of the above

145) Crashing and Fast tracking are techniques used for:

a) Project management
b) Cost reduction
c) Schedule compression
d) Schedule estimation
146) Cost baseline is:
a) Used to monitor cost performance on the project
b) A time-phased budget
c) Used to measure cost performance on the project
d) All of the above
147) The difference between maximum funding and the end of cost baseline is:
a) Management reserve
b) Cost baseline
c) Cost overrun
d) None of the above
148) Identifying quality standards relevant to the porject and determing how to satisfy them is:
a) Quality planning
b) Quality assurance

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

c) Quality control
d) Quality management
149) Applying planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that proejct employs all processes needed
to meet requirement is:
a) Quality planning
b) Quality assurance
c) Quality control
d) Quality management
150) Monitoring specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards
and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance is:
a) Quality planning
b) Quality assurance
c) Quality control
d) Quality management
151) Choosing a part of a population of interest for inspection is:
a) Scatter diagram
b) Statistical sampling
c) Inspection
d) Defect repair
152) Inspections are also called:
a) Product reviews
b) Audits
c) Walkthroughs
d) All of the above
153) Staff Management Plan contains:
a) Staff acquisition
b) Release criteria
c) Training needs
d) All of the above
154) Tannenbaum and Schmidt continuum proposes:
a) Five stages of team development
b) Model-telling
c) Offering more freedom as the team matures
d) None of the above
155) Autocratic, consultative, Directing and Facilitating are examples of:
a) Leadership styles
b) Team building style
c) Planning style
d) None of the above
156) Which of the following can result in conflicts:
a) Schedule

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

b) Project priorities
c) Resources
d) All of the above
157) Power that a PM has on the basis of the special skills he possesses is:
a) Referent
b) Expert
c) Reward
d) Penalty
158) A conflict management technique that involves incorporating viewpoints from everyone is?
a) Smoothing
b) Collaborating
c) Recognizing
d) Withdrawal
159) Which is the best technique to resolve conflicts in a team:
a) Confrontation
b) Accomodation
c) Compromise
d) Smoothing
160) The motivational theory that focuses onteam, lifetime employment and collective decision making is:
a) Theory X
b) Theory Y
c) Theory Z
d) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
161) Expectancy theory is based on motivation in terms of expectations people have about:
a) Their ability to perform effectively on the job
b) The rewards they expect if they perform well
c) Satisfaction they will obtain from rewards
d) All of the above
162) In a communication model, the method used to convey the message is:
a) Email
b) Medium
c) Language
d) Decoding
163) Notes and memos are examples of communication type:
a) Formal written
b) Informal written
c) Formal verbal
d) Informal verbal
164) Some barriers to communication channels are:
a) Lack of clear communication channels
b) Physical distance

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

c) Environmental factors
d) All of the above
165) The management style that cultivates team spirit, rewards good work, and encourages team to
realize their potential is:
a) Facilitating
b) Promotional
c) Conciliatory
d) Authoritarian
166) A management skill that establishes direction, aligns people, motivates and inspires team is:
a) Communicating
b) Leading
c) Influencing the organization
d) Problem solving
167) Tools used in risk identification are:
a) Delphi technique
b) Brainstorming
c) Interviewing
d) All of the above
168) Risk register as an output of risk identification contains:
a) Identified risks and responses
b) Risk categories
c) Root causes of risks
d) All of the above
169) Most of the project manager's time is spent on:
a) Project Planning
b) Communication
c) Risk management
d) Tracking
170) Most of a project's resources are spent on:
a) Direct and manage Project execution process
b) Project planning
c) Quality control
d) Risk management
171) Output of Direct and manage project execution process is:
a) Project plan
b) Preliminary scope statement
c) Preliminary cost estimate
d) Deliverables

172) At what stage of your current project should you use the techniques you learnt on your previous
projects as PM?

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

a) Executing phase
b) Planning phase
c) Throughout the project
d) Monitoring and controlling phase
173) Administrative closure:
a) Can be omitted sometimes
b) Should always be done
c) Is the same as contract closure
d) None of the above
174) If you are implementing the risk response plan, you are in:
a) Planning phase
b) Initiating phase
c) Implementation phase
d) Closing phase
175) Interpersonal skills and Management skills are tools to:
a) Manage stakeholder expectations
b) Report performance
c) Distribute information
d) Plan communications
176) The tool that assigns a numeric weight, rates sellers based on total weight is:
a) Weighting system
b) Independent estimates
c) Screening system
d) Expert judgement
177) Bidder conferences are a tool to:
a) Meet with prospective sellers and ensure there is a clear understanding of procurement needs
b) Screen contractors
c) Award contracts to the winning bidder
d) None of the above
178) You send a formal request to each vendor for a service. This is used as the basis upon which the
vendor prepares a bid for the requested service. The formal request you sent is called:
a) Contract
b) Purchase Order
c) Procurement Document Package
d) None of the above
179) Monitor and control project work is essential to
a) Ensure project is being executed to plan
b) Prepare project plan
c) Prepare scope statement
d) Prepare WBS

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

180) Correspondence, Payment Schedules and Requests, Seller performance evaluation documentation
are examples of:
a) Organizational Process Assets
b) Request for proposal
c) Project management plan
d) None of the above
181) Project charter
i) Includes preliminary project budget at summary level
ii) Is created during the Develop Project Charter process
iii) Includes a milestone-level schedule
iv) Includes high level project requirements

a) None of the above

b) All of the above
c) a, b
d) a, b, c

182) A contract can end by:

a) Successful performance
b) Mutual agreement
c) Breach of contract
d) All of the above
183) A procurement audit is:
a) An evaluation of vendor's performance on contract
b) Evaluation of procurement process
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
184) A type of 'Breach of Contract' is:
a) Material
b) Minor
c) Fundamental
d) All of the above
185) Project charter is created based on:
i) Business need
ii) Customer request
iii) Market force
iv) Project manager's requirements
a) All of the above
b) i, ii, iii
c) i, ii
d) ii only

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

186) With regard to Opportunity cost:
a) The smaller the cost, the better
b) The larger the cost, the better'
c) It depends on cost of materials
d) It depends on economic conditions
187) Preliminary project scope statement:
i) Is final and needs a change request to be changed
ii) Contains high-level cost estimates
iii) Sets an initial direction for the project
iv) Contains high-level scope estimates
a) All of the above
b) iii only
c) iv only
d) ii, iii, iv
188) The hygiene factors in Herzberg's motivation theory are:
a) Pay, Working conditions, Attitude of supervisor
b) Pay, Working conditions, Job satisfaction
c) Pay, Promotion, Job satisfaction
d) Pay, Promotion, Food
189) Variance analysis compares actual results to planned results. This can be done for:
a) Cost
b) Schedule
c) Quality
d) All of the above
190) Active listening is:
a) Being attentive when the speaker is talking
b) Asking questions when the speaker is not clear
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
191) The longest path through the network that shows the shortest duration in which the project can be
completed is:
a) Critical path
b) Project schedule
c) Least possible time
d) None of the above
192) Who is responsible for identifying and managing risk?
a) Project manager
b) Team members
c) Project sponsor
d) Functional manager

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

193) Pareto principle is also known as:
a) 80-20 rule
b) Law of vital few
c) principle of factor sparsity
d) All of the above

194) Pareto efficiency states that:

a) 80% of effects come from 20% of causes
b) 20% of effects come from 80% of causes
c) 80% of causes come from 20% of effects
d) 20% of causes come from 20% of effects

195) Regarding control limits, which of the following is true:

a) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on one side of the mean but
within control limits, the process is out of control
b) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on either side of the mean
but within control limits, the process is out of control
c) If all but seven points lie within the control limits, and seven consecutive points are on one side of the
mean but within control limits, the process is in control
d) None of the above

196) Projects can end due to:

a) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Extinction
b) Deletion, Starvation, Integration, Extinction
c) Addition, Starvation, Disassociation, Extinction
d) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Promotion

197) The tools used in Develop Project Plan are:

i) Project Management methodology
ii) Project Management Information System
iii) Expert Judgement
iv) Project Plan

a) All of the above

b) None of the above
c) i, ii, iii
d) ii, iii, iv

198) Risk mitigation is:

a) Preventing the risk from occuring
b) Sharing the risk with another person/organization
c) Making someone else responsible for the risk
d) Reducing the impact or probability of occurrence of the risk

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

199) Using which of the below can you predict future performance of team:
a) Trend analysis
b) EMV
c) Control limits
d) Risk analysis

200) Salary of full-time employees and cost of hardware bought specially for your project count as:
a) Direct costs
b) Indirect costs
c) Project costs
d) None of the above
201) A Request for Proposal:
a) May invite suppliers to submit a proposal for a product
b) Indicates what product/service is required
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

202) Top-down estimating is another name for:

a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating
c) Three-point estimating
d) PERT estimating

203) Payback period is the time it takes to get back money invested in a project. Hence:
a) The longer the payback period, the better it is for the project
b) The shorter the payback period, the better it is for the project
c) Not enough information to decide
d) Depends on the present value of money invested
204) Change control board is:
a) Board of directors
b) Group of stakeholders, team leads, executives who decide on which changes to accept/reject
c) Team of project managers
d) None of the above
205) Variance/trend analysis is done during:
a) Risk monitoring and control
b) Risk response
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk mitigation plan

PMP QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1a
2a
3b
4b
5c
6b
7b
8b
9b
10b
11b
12c
13d
14c
15c
16b
17b
18d
19c
20d
21b
22c
23b
24b
25a
26a
27a
28a
29d
30d
31a
32c
33a
34a
35a
36c
37b
38a
39a
40d

81d
41d
82b
42a
83c
43a at completion=$1000,
206) Budget
84a
Estimate44a
to Completion is:
85a
a) 1000 45b
86b
46b
b) 500
87c
c) 2000 47a
d) None 48a
of the above 88d
89b
49b
90d
50a
91a
51b
92b
52a
93d
53c
94d
54b
95c
55a
96b
56b
97b
57c
98a
58a
99c
59a
100a
60a
101a
61a
102b
62b
103a
63d
104d
64d
105a
65d
106b
66c
107a
67b
108a
68b
109a
69a
110a
70d
111b
71a
112b
72b
113d
73b
114a
74b
115a
75a
116d
76c
117c
77d
118c
78c
119a
79a
120d
80d
121d
122d

123d
124a
125d
Earned
value=500,
126d
127d
128d
129d
130d
131d
132a
133d
134c
135c
136a
137c
138c
139d
140a
141b
142c
143c
144d
145c
146d
147a
148a
149b
150c
151b
152d
153d
154c
155a
156d
157b
158b
159a
160c
161d
162b
163b

164d
165b
166bperformance
Cost
167d
168d
169b
170a
171d
172c
173b
174c
175a
176a
177a
178c
179a
180a
181b
182d
183c
184d
185b
186a
187d
188a
189d
190c
191a
192a
193d
194a
195a
196a
197c
198d
199a
200a
201c
202a
203b
204b
205a
206a

index=0.5.