CMAT GK Question Bank

SUP-6370/13
General Knowledge
Question Bank
CM A T
8.
1.
Consider the following statements

I. The part of the Himalayas lying between
Satluj and Kali rivers is known as Punjab
Himalayas.
II. The part of Himalayas lying between Tista
and Dihang rivers is known as Assam
Himalayas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
3.
4.
5.
The northern part of the western coastal plains

of India is also known as
(a) Northern Circar (b) Malabar coast
(c) Kannad Plain (d) Konkan

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
9.
Which of the following is not a tributary of the

Indus river?
(a) Shyok
(b) Zaskar
(c) Nubri
(d) Lohit
CM
2.

I. The bhabhar belt of the northern plains
lies south of the terai belt.
II. The streams and rivers re-emerge in the
terai belt of the northern plains.
AT
Geography
10.
Which is the largest drainage basin in the

world?
(a) Nile basin
(b) Amazon basin
(c) Congo basin
(d) Mississippi basin
The pattern formed when a river is joined by

its tributaries at approximately right angles
is known as
(a) trellis pattern
(b) dendritic pattern
(c) rectangular pattern
(d) radial pattern
Which of the following states does not share
its boundary with Nepal?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Jharkhand
6.
The northern plains of India are formed of

(a) alluvial soil
(b) red yellow soil
(c) black soil
(d) laterite soil
7.
Which of the following is the highest peak of

the Wastern Ghats?
(a) Doda Betta
(b) Mahendragiri
(c) Javadi Hills
(d) Shevroy Hills
Page 1

I. Plants take in carbon dioxide through the
roots.
II. Plants exhibit transpiration through
stomata
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
11.

I. The Central Highlands lie north of the
Narmada river.
II. The Deccan Trap is made up of
metamorphic rocks.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
12.

I. Khadar belt of the northern plains of India
is formed of older alluvium.
II. The Eastern Ghats are higher than the
Western Ghats.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which is the outermost Himalayan ranges

(towards India)?
(a) Shiwaliks
(b) Himadri
(c) Panjal
(d) Dhaula Dhar
14.

A : Plants absorb nitrogen through soil.
R : Plants cannot absorb nitrogen in the
gaseous form.
18.
The Moho discontinuity is the

(a) boundary between earths crust and
earths mantle.
(b) boundary between earths mantle and
earths core.
(c) lower layer of the earths mantle
(d) upper layer of the earths core.
19.

I. The outer core is solid while the inner core
is in liquid state.
II. Being composed mainly of non metals like
carbon, sulphur and hydrogen, the earths
core is also known as the non metallic
core.
AT
13.
15.
CM
Choose the correct option out of the following

(a) if A and B both are true and B is the right
reason for A
(b) if A and B both are true but B is not the
right reason for A
(c) A is true but not B
(d) B is true but not A

I. According to the Indus Water Treaty, India
can use 60% of the total water carried by
the Indus river system.
II. Before entering India, the Brahmaputra
takes a U turn.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
20.

I. Density of rocks increases as we do down
from the crust to the core of the earth.
II. The continental crust is less dense than
the oceanic crust.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
16.
Which of the following is a distributary of river

Ganga?
(a) Teesta
(b) Hooghly
(c) Damodar
(d) Saraswti
21.
The most abundant element of the earths

crust is
(a) Silicon
(b) Oxygen
(c) Aluminium
(d) Iron
17.
Which of the following is mass wasting?

(a) the various kinds of uphill movements
occurring on earth due to the plate
collisions.
(b) the various kinds of uphill movements
occurring on earth due to the gravitational
pull from moon
(c) the various kinds of downhill movements
occurring under the pull of gravity
(d) melting of icebergs due to global warming.
22.
Which of the following is not a metamorphic

rock?
(a) Gneiss
(b) Slate
(c) Granite
(d) Marble
23.

I. The continental crust of the earth is thinner
than the oceanic crust.
II. The asthenosphere is a layer found at the
top of the upper mantle.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 2
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
30.
Which of the following is the coldest place in

the northern hemisphere?
(a) Tomsk
(b) Verkhoyansk
(c) Irkutsk
(d) Nunavut

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
31.
Five nautical miles are equal to

(a) 8 km
(b) 9.26 km
(c) 12.6 km
(d) 16 km

I. Shale is a result of metamorphosis of
igneous rocks.
II. Himalayas are result of collision of
continental plates.
32.
The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not

extend beyond
(a) 200 km
(b) 280.6 km
(c) 320.6 km
(d) 370.4 km
33.
In terms of the installed capacity of wind

energy, which of the following states is at the
top in India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh
34.
In wind power generation

(a) Kinetic energy is converted into electrical
energy
(b) Potential energy is converted into
electrical energy
(c) Thermal energy is converted into kinetic
energy
(d) Potential energy is converted into thermal
energy
35.
Which of the following Indian states has the

highest bauxite reserve?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Odisha
36.
Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Net Sown Area is known as gross cropped
area
(b) Area sown more than once in an
agricultural year plus gross cropped area
is also known as Net Sown Area
(c) Area sown more than once in an
agricultural year plus net sown area is
known as Gross Cropped Area
(d) Net Sown Area is more than Gross
Cropped Area

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
26.

I. The San Andreas fault is a result of
collision between oceanic and continental
plates.
II. The inner core of the earth is made mostly
of copper and zinc.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
27.
28.
Which of the following is the deepest lake in

the world?
(a) Caspian sea
(b) Vostok lake
(c) Baikal lake
(d) Pinatubo lake
I. The Pamir Knot is the meeting place of
many Himalayan rivers.
II. The Pamir Knot is located to the south of
Mount Everest.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
29.
AT
25.

I. Metamorphic rocks are also called
primary or basic rocks
II. Igneous rocks are formed when magma
cools and solidifies.
CM
24.
Which of the following is the second highest

peak in the world?
(a) Kanchenjunga (b) K2
(c) Lhotse
(d) Nanga Parbat
Page 3
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Saurashtra has mostly:

(a) red soil
(b) alluvial soil
(c) black soil
(d) laterite soil
38.

I. The total surface area covered by plateaus
is more than the total surface area
covered by plains in India
II. After independence, National Forest
Policy was first set up in 1988.
44.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
45.

I. The Rose-ringed Parakeet is an endemic
bird in India
II. Indian wild ass is an endangered species.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
40.
The Buxa Tiger Reserve is located in

(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
41.
Dolomite is an ore of
(a) Magnesium
(b) Manganese
(c) Aluminium
(d) Iron
42.
43.

I. The Net Sown Area is just less than 50 %
of the total surface area in Punjab and
Haryana
II. In India, there is no appropriate technology
to harness stock resources.
CM

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
39.

I. Fossil fuels are non renewable but
recyclable resources.
II. All renewable resources are inexhaustible
resources.
AT
37.
Who wrote the book Small is Beautiful?

(a) Harlem Brundtland
(b) Ernst Friedrich Schumacher
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Amartya Sen
I. In India hydroelectric power contributes
more than half of the total electricity
produced
II. More than 50 % of worlds total freshwater
is stored as groundwater.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
46.
The headquarters of the International Union

for Conservation of Nature and Natural
Resources is in
(a) Switzerland
(b) Austria
(c) France
(d) United States of America
47.
Which of the following is now on the verge of

extinction?
(a) Madhuca Insignis
(b) Azadirachta Indica
(c) Prosopis Juliflora
(d) Acacia nilotica
48.

I. The State of Forest Report does not
differentiate between natural forests and
plantations.
II. Indian Rhino is an endangered species.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 4
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Mithun a cattle breed is found in

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Kerala
50.
The Chipko movement was practised to stop

(a) illegal acquisition of land
(b) deforestation
(c) hunting of tigers
(d) illegal indigo plantation.
52.
Which of the following former Prime Ministers

pronounced the dams as the temples of
modern India?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Morarji Desai
Which of the following is mined in the

Badampahar mines in Odisha?
(a) Hematite
(b) Bauxite
(c) Dolomite
(d) Azurite
57.
Mica is presently not mined in which of the

following states?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Punjab
58.
Anthracite is a kind of
(a) iron
(b) virus
(c) coal
(d) pesticide
59.
The Musi and the Bhima are tributaries of river

(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Brahmaputra
CM
51.
56.
AT
49.
Which of the following countries is the largest

producer of rice in the world?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) Brazil
53.
Who started the Bhoodan-Gramdan

movement in 1951?
(a) Vinoba Bhave
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel
54.
Rearing of silkworms is known as

(a) horticulture
(b) apiculture
(c) sericulture
(d) pisciculture
55.

I. Operation Flood was launched by the
Government of India in 1970 to control the
damage caused by floods in India
II. Rubber plant is an equatorial crop.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 5
60.
Which of the following is the deepest point in

the world?
(a) Puerto Rico Trench
b Mariana Trench
(c) Java Trench
(d) Eurasia Basin
61.
The Tropic of Cancer, the Equator and the

Tropic of Capricorn all pass through continent
X. What is X?
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Both Africa and Asia
(d) None
62.
North America is linked to South America by

a very narrow strip of land called
(a) the Isthmus of Mexico
(b) the Isthmus of Panama
(c) the Isthmus of Costa Rica
(d) the Isthmus of Honduras
63.
What is the ascending order of the following

in terms of area covered?
(a) Indian Ocean - Arctic Ocean - Atlantic
Ocean - Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean - Arctic Ocean - Indian
(c) Arctic Ocean - Indian Ocean - Atlantic
(d) Indian Ocean - Arctic Ocean - Pacific
Ocean - Atlantic Ocean
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Arctic Ocean is connected with the Pacific

Ocean by a narrow stretch of shallow water
which is known as
(a) Strait of Dover (b) Strait of Gibraltar
(c) Bab-el-Mandeb (d) Berring Strait
65.
Which is the longest mountain range in the

world?
(a) Andes
(b) Rocky Mountains
(c) Himalayas
(d) Great Diving Range
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
Which mountain range separates Europe from

Asia?
(a) Andes
(b) Alps
(c) Ural Mountains (d) Rocky Mountains
You are in Karnataka and moving in the

direction of the Pole Star. Highest probability
is that you will reach X first as you exit from
Karnataka What is X?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Arabian Sea
73.
Which planet is considered as Earths-Twin?

(a) Venus
(b) Mercurey
(c) Mars
(d) Saturn
74.
Which of the following rivers are west flowing?

(a) Mahanadi
(b) Godavari
(c) Narmada
(d) Krishna
CM
66.
72.
AT
64.
The Indian Standard Time is calculated from

a clock tower located in :
(a) Kolkata
(b) Bhopal
(c) Mirzapur
(d) New Delhi
Which of the following are found in tropical
rain forests of India?
(a) Ebony and Teak
(b) Ebony and Rosewood
(c) Mahogany and Sal
(d) Sal and Shisham
Sundari is a well-known species of trees found

in
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Tropical deciduous forests
(c) Tropical rain forests
(d) Himalayan mountains
Wild goats are found in
(a) Himalayan region
(b) Rann of Kachchh
(c) Great Indian Desert
(d) Sundarbans
What is the third most abundant gas in earths
atmosphere?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Argon
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Helium
Page 6
75.
The highest waterfall in the world is

(a) Iguazu Falls
(b) Niagara Falls
(c) Victoria Falls (d) Angel Falls
76.
Tropical grasslands in Brazil are known as

(a) Campos
(b) Llanos
(c) Pampas
(d) Prairie
77.
Taiga are found in which of the following

places?
(a) South Africa
(b) Russia
(c) Egypt
(d) Indonesia
78.
Ox-bow is a type of
(a) Tree
(b) Grass
(c) Lake
(d) None of the above
79.
The waters of the Gangotri glacier flow through

Gaumukh, giving rise to the river Bhagirathi.
Ganga is formed at the town of Devprayag
when Bhagirathi (which is its main source)
joins with river:
(a) Gomti
(b) Son
(c) Alaknanda
(d) Ghaghara
80.
Tawa Matsya Sangh is a cooperative of

fisherworkers in
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Orissa
(d) Kerala
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Manas Tiger Reserve is located in which

Indian state?
(a) Assam
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttaranchal
89.
The North-South Corridor highway crosses the

East-West Corridor highway in
(a) Bhopal
(b) Jhansi
(c) Jabalpur
(d) Gwalior
82.
Which is the only state in India which has

made roof top rainwater harvesting structure
compulsory for every single house in the
state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Orissa
90.
The Indian Railways is divided into how many

zones?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 16
91.
Which of the following is the premier iron ore

exporting port of India?
(a) Kandla port
(b) Marmagao port
(c) Kochchi port
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru port
Aus, Aman and Boro are crop varieties of

(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Rice
(d) Bajra
84.
Which of the following pairs is wrongly

matched?
(a) Paddy : Kharif (b) Wheat : Rabi
(c) Jute : Rabi
(d) Cotton : Kharif
85.
86.
87.
88.
CM
83.
92.
Which of the following is the largest producer

of jowar in India?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Punjab
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
Which is the longest national highway in
India?
(a) National Highway-7
(b) National Highway-8
(c) National Highway-12
(d) National Highway-15
National Highway-1 is also known as
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Marg
(b) Qutub Uddin Marg
(c) Sher Shah Suri Marg
(d) Maharana Pratap Marg
The East-West Corridor highway project is
from
(a) Silcher to Porbander
(b) Silcher to New Bhuj
(c) Itanagar to New Bhuj
(d) Itanagar to Porbander
Page 7
AT
81.

I. Oil India Limited is a wholly public sector
undertaking.
II. Cryolite is an iron ore.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
93.
Which of the following countries is the largest

exporter of jute in the world?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Thailand
94.
Which of the following countries has the

highest average population density in the
world (with population above 10 million)?
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Japan
(d) Pakistan
95.

I. Toothpastes contain fluoride which
reduces cavity.
II. Odisha is the largest producer of
manganese ores in India.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

I. Lignite is a low grade manganese ore.
II. About 300 kg of manganese is required
to manufacture one tonne of steel.
103.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
98.
99.
Which of the following is the oldest petroleum

producing state in India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Assam
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Rajasthan
Rawatbhata power station is a
(a) nuclear power station
(b) coal based thermal power station
(c) hydroelectric power station
(d) natural gas based thermal power station
Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
104.
Where in Rajasthan is the Bhairodev Dakav

Sonchuri located?
(a) Alwar
(b) Ajmer
(c) Udaipur
(d) Jodhpur
105.

I. Biogas has higher thermal efficiency than
kerosene.
II. Madhya Pradesh is the biggest producer
of copper in India
CM
97.

I. Rabi crops are grown with the offset of
monsoon in India
II. Barley is a rabi crop.
AT
96.

I. Sabarmati is a west flowing river.
II. Hemavati and Kabini are tributaries of river
Kaveri.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
106.
Bhangar is a type of
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Red soil
100.
Monazite sands rich in thorium are found in

(a) Kerala
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat
(d) Chhattisgarh
107.
The Panchmarhi Biosphere reserve is in

(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
101.
Which of the following is the highest jute

producing state in India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Karnataka
108.
102.

I. Recent years have seen a tendency for
the sugar mills to shift and concentrate in
the southern and western states,
especially in Maharashtra. This is
because the cane produced here has
higher sucrose content.
II. India is the largest producer of sugar in
the world
Which Indian state has the largest forest cover

in the country?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Punjab
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala
109.

I. Forest cover in India is less than the net
sown area of the country.
II. The forest area in India is just above the
scientific norm of one-third of the total area

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 8

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Red soils are red in colour due to the presence

(a) Copper
(b) Nickel
(c) Iron
(d) Manganese
111.

I. In India, the total protected forest area is
larger than the total reserved forest area
II. Out of the total wasteland area in India,
the forest degraded area is larger than the
water eroded area
112.
113.
114.
Which of the following is not one of the four

identified identified Coral Reef areas in India?
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Gulf of Khambat
(c) Gulf of Kutch
(d) Lakshadweep Islands
Which of the following soils are also known
as regur soils?
(a) Red soils
(b) Black soils
(c) Laterite soils
(d) Mountain soils
Which Indian state has the highest
percentage of forest cover?
(a) Kerala
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Mizoram
(d) Himachal Pradesh
115.
Van Mahotsav in India is celebrated in the

month of
(a) May
(b) June
(c) July
(d) August
116.
The Government of India launched Project

Elephant in the year
(a) 1973
(b) 1984
(c) 1992
(d) 2001
117.
Which of the countries is at the top of the

Human Development Index ranking?
(a) Germany
(b) United States of America
(c) Norway
(d) Australia
119.
Which of the following is the highest producer

of rubber in India?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Tripura
(d) Assam
120.
According to the Census of India 2011, the

Indian state with lowest sex ratio is
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Haryana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Bihar
CM

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
118.
AT
110.
The Central Vigilance Commission of India

was set up in
(a) 1951
(b) 1964
(c) 1975
(d) 1987
Page 9
121.
Pick the odd one out.

(a) Mediterranean sea
(b) Caspian sea
(c) Aral sea
(d) Dead sea
122.
Which of the following is the largest fresh

water lake in India?
(a) Loktak
(b) Dal
(c) Barapani
(d) Wular
123.
Which of the following is a man made lake?

(a) Loktak
(b) Gobind Sagar
(c) Chilika
(d) Pulicat
124.

I. Forest cover in India is less than the net
sown area of the country.
II. The forest area in India is just above the
scientific norm of one-third of the total area
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
125.
The Kirthar Mountains are located in

(a) Nepal
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Pakistan
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
133.
Which of the following rivers is also known as

Tsang Po?
(a) Indus
(b) Ganga
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Mahanadi
134.

I. River Son joins the Ganga before river
Chambal.
II. River Chambal originates from the
Satpuras.
Which of the following is the odd one out as

we talk about the Indian states in which these
rivers originate?
(a) Tapi
(b) Narmada
(c) Godavari
(d) Son
135.
Which of the following is the largest peninsular

river of India?
(a) Kaveri
(b) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(d) Narmada

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
136.
Which of the following rivers makes the

Sivasamudram falls?
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Tungabhadra
(d) Bhima
137.
Mahanadi originates in
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
138.
The Dhuadhar falls is located on river

(a) Krishna
(b) Narmada
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi
139.
Which of the following is not a tributary of

river Godavari?
(a) Purna
(b) Manjra
(c) Wardha
(d) Koyana
140.
Which of the following rivers is also known as

Dakshin Ganga?
(a) Godavari
(b) Kaveri
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi
CM
127.
Which of the following was an initiation taken

under the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment
Act, 1991?
(a) For the first time butterflies and moths
were added to the protected species list.
(b) For the first time plants were added to
the protected species list.
(c) For the first time birds were added to the
protected species list.
(d) none of the above
AT
126.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
Which of the following pairs of rivers join

together before flowing into the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Godavari and Mahanadi
(b) Krishna and Tungabhadra
(c) Krishna and Kaveri
(d) Tungabhadra and Kaveri
Which of the following rivers empties into the
Gulf of Khambhat?
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Kaveri
The south-easternmost tributary of river Indus
is
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelum
(d) Beas
Which of the following is the odd one out as
we talk about the direction of flow?
(a) Tapi
(b) Kaveri
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi
Which one of the following rivers emerges in
the Amarkantak hills?
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Narmada
(d) Godavari
Page 10
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

I. Materials in the environment which have
the potential to satisfy human needs but
human beings do not have the appropriate
technology to access them are known as
potential resources.
II. Resources which are found in a region,
but have not been utilised are known as
stock resources.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) none
146.
Which of the above statements is/are are not

correct?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
147.
143.
144.
145.
The first International Earth Summit was held

in
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Vienna
(c) Johannesburg
(d) Frankfurt
What type of soil is the Khadar Soil?

(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) Laterite Soil
(c) Black Soil
(d) Red and Yellow Soil
CM
142.
Consider the following statements regarding

India
I. About 27% of the area of the country is
the plateau region.
II. According to the National Forest Policy
(1952), forest cover should be 25% of the
total geographical area of the country.
AT
141.
Declaration signed by world leaders in 1992

at the United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED) to
achieve global sustainable development is
called
(a) Target 21
(b) Agenda 21
(c) Declaration 92
(d) Agenda 92
There is enough for everybodys need and
not for any bodys greed. Who said these
word regarding conservation of resources?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
The Chairperson of a UN commission which

introduced the concept of Sustainable
Development in 1987 was
(a) Javier Perez de Cuellar
(b) Mansour Khalid
(c) Margaret Thatcher
(d) Gro Harlem Brundtland
Page 11
148.
Which of the following soils is ideal for cotton

cultivation?
(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) Black Soil
(c) Laterite Soil
149.
Which of the following soils is result of intense

leaching due to heavy rain?
(a) Black Soil
(b) Laterite Soil
(c) Alluvial Soil
150.

I. Red and Yellow soils develop a reddish
colour due to diffusion of magnesium in
crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
II. Black soils are generally rich in phosphoric
content.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
151.
Red and yellow soil is found in which of the

following states?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
Which of the following birds falls under normal

species category in India?
(a) Pink-headed duck
(b) Indian cormorant
(c) Mountain quail
(d) Forest spotted owlet
Which of the following is used to make the
biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world?
(a) Himalayan Yew (b) Vidanga
(c) Poaceae
(d) Himalayan oak
Belgium does not share its borders with
(a) France
(b) Luxembourg
(c) Austria
(d) Germany
History
159.
Which of the following was not occupied by

the British or the French and just remained
as a buffer state?
(a) Thailand
(b) Malaysia
(c) Indonesia
(d) China
160. Consider the following statements:

I. Under the Treaty of Nanking in 1842,
China took over Hong Kong from the
British.
II. The Second Opium War was fought
between China and Japan.
AT
153.
Strip cropping is done to

(a) prevent soil erosion caused by water.
(b) prevent soil erosion caused by glaciers.
(c) prevent soil erosion caused by wind
(d) prevent coastal erosion.
CM
152.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
161.
Most of the Belgian population speaks

(a) Dutch and French
(b) Dutch and German
(c) French and Spanish
(d) Spanish and Portuguese
By the Treaty of Boque, X made the British

its most favoured nation. X is
(a) South Africa
(b) China
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Indonesia
162.
By 1885, Vietnam was completely under the

possession of
(a) the French
(b) the Dutch
(c) the British
(d) the Portuguese
The headquarters of the European Union is in

(a) Vienna
(b) Berlin
(c) Zurich
(d) Brussels
163.
X occupied Egypt from Ottoman Turkey in

1882. X is
(a) France
(b) Portugal
(c) Belgium
(d) Britain
164.
The Mughal Empire reached its greatest

extent under
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Jahangir
165.
Fatwa-i-Alamgiri was created during the reign

of
(a) Humayun
(b) Shah Jahan
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Akbar
166.
Who was the first Nizam of Hyderabad?

(a) Mujaffar Jung (b) Nasir Jung
(c) Salabat Jung (d) Chin Quilich Khan
Consider the following

I. Providing information to the government
about the crops grown in the area
concerned
II. Organising the collection of land revenue
III. Keeping and updating land records like
measurement, ownership, etc
Which of the above is responsibility of a
Patwari?
(a) I only
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) III only
Page 12
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Who took away the Peacock Throne from

India?
(a) Nadir Shah
(b) Ahmed Shah Abdali
(c) Mahmud of Ghazni
(d) Muhammad Ghori
174.
The Sardeshmukhi, in the Maratha regime,

was a
(a) tax levied on revenue
(b) designation equivalent to Peshwa
(c) designation lesser to Peshwa
(d) name given to the Chhatrapati
168.
Whom did Chhatrapati Shivaji considered his

guru?
(a) Chokhamela
(b) Ramdas
(c) Tukaram
(d) Eknath
175.
169.
The Treaty of Warna divided the Maratha

Kingdom between
(a) Sahuji and Sambhaji I
(b) Rajaram and Sambhaji I
(c) Rajaram and Sambhaji II
(d) Sahuji and Sambhaji II
Who was the first of the hereditary Peshwas

of the Maratha kingdom?
(a) Madhav-Rao I
(b) Balaji Bajirao
(c) Baji Rao I
(d) Balaji Vishwanath
176.

I. In the First Carnatic War, the British
defeated the Nawab of Arcot.
II. Anwar-ud-Din was the Nawab of Arcot in
the First Carnatic War.
171.
CM
170.
AT
167.
Who defeated the Nizam-ul-Mulk and

imposed the Treaty of Durai Sarai on him?
(a) Sahuji
(b) Sambhaji I
(c) Baji Rao I
(d) Shivaji
I. The Marathas restored Shah Alam II on
the throne of Delhi in1772.
II. Baji Rao I was also known as Nana Saheb

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
177.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
172.
173.
Whom did Shahuji, the Emperor of the

Maratha Kingdom, made the Peshwa in
1713?
(a) Madhavrao
(b) Bajirao I
(c) Balaji Vishwanath
(d) Narayanrao
Jiziya, during the Mughal Empire, was a tax
levied on
(a) mercantile companies like the East India
Company
(b) non-Muslim citizens
(c) money lenders
(d) all the citizens
Page 13

I. The French, under Joseph Francois
Dupleix, won the Third Carnatic War
against the British.
II. The Dutch joined the British against the
French in the Carnatic Wars.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
178.

I. Eyre Coote was the British General in the
Battle of Wandiwash.
II. The British defeated the French in the
Battle of Wandiwash in 1760.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
181.
182.
183.
184.
The Treaty of Sagauli was signed between

the British and the
(a) Marathas
(b) Nawab of Bengal
(c) Nawab of Awadh
(d) Gorkhas

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
185.
Who was the Governor-General of India during

the First Anglo-Sikh War?
(a) Lord Auckland
(b) Lord Hardinge
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Canning
186.
Who among the following Governor-Generals

of India introduced modern civil services based
on separation of power?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Ripon
187.

I. Maharaja Dalip Singh entered the
subsidiary alliance at Lahore in 1846.
II. The Second Anglo-Sikh War was the last
war fought by the British within the natural
frontiers of India for the extension of their
empire.
The English East India Company received the

diwani of Bengal through the
(a) Treaty of Bengal
(b) Treaty of Allahabad
(c) Treaty of Hyderabad
(d) Treaty of Buxar
AT
180.

I. Robert Clive was the commander of the
Company forces in the Battle of Buxar.
II. In 1760, the Company replaced Mir Jafar
with his son in law as the Nawab of
Bengal.
CM
179.
Which Governor-General of India sold

Allahabad and Kara to the Nawab of Awadh?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Minto
Who became the first Indian power to accept
the subsidiary alliance?
(a) Nawab of Awadh
(b) Marathas
(c) Nizam of Hyderabad
(d) Kingdom of Mysore
I. By the Treaty of Bassein, Peshwa Baji
Rao II accepted subsidiary alliance with
the British.
II. By the Treaty of Amritsar signed in1809,
river Ravi had been fixed as the boundary
between the British and Maharaja Ranjit
Singhs territories.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 14

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
188.
From whom did the British take away the

famous diamond Koh-i-noor to send it to
Queen Victoria?
(a) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(b) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(c) Nadir Shah
(d) Ahmed Shah Abdali
189.
The Holkars, one of the regional Maratha

dynasties, was founded by
(a) Ranoji
(b) Malhar Rao
(c) Damaji I
(d) Raghuji
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
By the Treaty of Deogaon, Orissa was

surrendered to the British by
(a) Raghuji Bhonsle I
(b) Raghuji Bhonsle II
(c) Daulat Rao Sindhia
(d) Jaswant Rao Holkar
196.
Swami Dayanand Saraswatis parental name

was
(a) Mula Sankara
(b) Mula Krishnacharya
(c) Om Sankara
(d) Narayan Sankara
191.
Who was the political agent sent by Lord

Hardinge to Punjab to make them break the
Treaty of Amritsar?
(a) Major Broadfoot
(b) Major Bardsley
(c) Major Lawrence
(d) Mojor Whistler
197.
Which Governor-General of India abolished

the sati system?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Bentinck
198.
192.
The Gaikwar dynasty was founded by

(a) Malhar Rao
(b) Raghuji Bhonsle I
(c) Raghuji Bhonsle II
(d) Damaji I
After the premature death of Raja Rammohun

Roy, the Brahmo Movement was given a new
life by
(a) Debendranath Tagore
(b) Shankar Seth
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Ramakrishna Gopal Bhandarkar
193.
Who introduced the dual government in

Bengal?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Lord Canning
199.
Who among the following was not a member

of the Brahmo Samaj?
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen
(b) Debendranath Tagore
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(d) Dwarkanath Tagore
200.
Henry Louis Vivian Derozio founded the

(a) Deccan Education Society
(b) Servants of India Society
(c) Young Bengal Movement
(d) Theosophical Movement
201.
Who was not a member of the Prarthana

Samaj?
(a) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(b) Atmaram Pandurang
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Jyotiba Phule
202.
The Deccan Education Society was formed

under the spiritual guidance of
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(c) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(d) Raja Rammohun Roy
194.
CM
AT
190.

I. The Governor-General of Bengal was made
the Governor-General of India through the
Regulating Act of 1773.
II. The Charter Act of 1833 declared that no
Indian shall hold any government position
under the company.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
195.
Which Act made the Governor-General of

Bengal general authority over other two
presidencies?
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Charter Act of 1813
(c) Charter Act of 1833
(d) Charter Act of 1853
Page 15
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
204.
His campaign for the upliftment of the weak

acquired the character of an anti-Brahmin
movement. He is
(a) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
(b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
205.
The famous Fergusson College of Pune was

founded under
(a) Deccan Education Society
(b) Theosophical Society of India
(c) British Indian Association
206.
210.
Whose daughters marriage led to the second

split in the Brahmo Samaj?
(a) Shivnanda Shastri
(b) Anand Mohan Bose
(c) Keshab Chandra Sen
211.
Louis Vivian Derozio was a

(a) teacher at Hindu College of Calcutta
(b) French General in India in the early
eighteenth century
(c) Gandhian who actively supported the
Indian freedom struggle
(d) British General in India during the rebellion
of 1857
AT
Who founded the Servants of India Society?

(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
(d) Louis Vivian Derozio
CM
203.
The Central Hindu College at Varanasi was

founded in 1898 by
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Louis Vivian Derozio
(c) Swami Vivekananda
(d) Keshab Chandra Sen
212.
The Theosophical Movement in India was

started by
(a) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(b) Raja Rammohun Roy
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Annie Besant
213.
The Theosophical Society of India was

founded at
(a) Calcutta
(b) Adyar
(c) Nasik
(d) Allahabad
214.
The Theosophical Society was first

established in
(a) USSR
(b) United States of America
(c) United Kingdom
(d) India
207.
The first Headquarters of the Arya Samaj were

at
(a) Calcutta
(b) Nasik
(c) Lahore
(d) Bomday
208.
The Shuddhi Movement was started by

(a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
(d) Baba Kharak Singh
215.
Who wrote the book Satyartha Prakash?

(a) Swami Vivekanada
(b) Ramakrishna Paramhamsa
(c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
209.
Who was the founder of the Muhammadan

Anglo-Oriental College?
(a) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(b) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
216.
The New York Herald, after hearing him in the

World Parliament at Chicago in 1893, reported
-We feel how foolish it is to send missionaries
to to this learned nation. He was
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Raja Rammohun Roy
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Page 16
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Swami Vivekanands original name was

(a) Surendra Nath Bhat
(b) Narendra Nath Bhat
(c) Surendra Nath Dutta
(d) Narendra Nath Dutta
223.
Who wrote the book Anandmath?

(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(c) Swami Vivekananda
(d) Bhartendu Harishchandra
218.
Tahzib-al-Akhlaq, a monthly periodical, was

started by
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
(c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(d) Pherozeshah Mehta
224.
In the 1860s, a popular Bengali play

highlighted the atrocities commited on
workers by Indigo planters. The play was
called
(a) Neeldhara
(b) Neelgagan
(c) Neel Darpan
(d) Neelkamal
219.
The General Service Enlistment Act of 1856

required
(a) the applicants of the Imperial Civil Services
to be of the age of 21 years at most.
(b) the applicants of the Imperial Civil Services
to be of the age of 18 years at most.
(c) every Indian soldier to serve wherever
required.
(d) every Indian soldier to use the Enfield rifles
smeared with animal fat.
225.
Which of the following was an organisation,

during the late 1860s, that proved to be a
strong force behind the Indian nationalist
movement?
(a) Hindu Sabha
(b) Hindu Mela
(c) Hindu Association
(d) Hindu Sangh
CM
AT
217.
220.

I. The Santhal Rebellion (1855-56) was
against the Mughal Emperor Bahadur
Shah II.
II. The Kuka Movement of 1860 was a socioreligious movement which turned into a
political movement.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
221.
The second unit of the Arya Samaj was formed

at
(a) Lahore
(b) Amritsar
(c) Allahabad
(d) Calcutta
222.
Who among the following was a founding

member of the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan
Sabha?
(a) Badruddin Tyabji
(b) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Page 17
226.
Which of the following books contains the

national song of India?
(a) Anandmath
(b) Lipika
(c) Gitanjali
(d) Chokher Bali
227.
Who among the following is known as the

father of modern Hindi literature?
(a) Munshi Premchand
(b) Bhartendu Harishchandra
(c) Mahavir Prasad Dwivedi
(d) Sumitranandan Pant
228.
Who among the following was one of the

founders of the newspapers the Kesari and
Mahratta?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Pherozeshah Mehta
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
229.
The Indian League, in 1875, was established

in Bengal by
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Surendranath Banerji
(c) V.K. Chiplunkar
(d) Sisir Kumar Ghosh
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

founders of the Indian Association (1876)?
(a) Badruddin Tyabji
(b) Anand Mohan Bose
(c) W.(C) Bonnerji
(d) Sisir Kumar Ghosh
237.
Which of the following is also known as the

Gagging Act?
(a) Government of India Act
(b) General Service Enlistment Act
(c) Arms Act
(d) Vernacular Press Act
231.
Who among the following was the editor of

Amrit Bazar Patrika?
(a) Sisir Kumar Ghosh
(b) M.B. Namjoshi
(c) V.K. Chiplunkar
(d) Pherozeshah Mehta
238.
Who was the leader of the Gorkhas in the

Anglo-Nepalese War (1814-16)?
(a) Samar Singh (b) Amar Singh
(c) Digvijay Sigh
(d) Shyam Singh
239.
According to the Ain-i Akbari, every subadar

was supported by other officers such as
bakhshi, sadr, etc. Bakhshi and Sadr are
(a) a military paymaster and a minister in
charge of religious and charitable
patronage respectively.
(b) a minister in charge of religious and
charitable patronage and a military
paymaster respectively.
(c) a military paymaster and a military
commander respectively.
(d) a minister in charge of religious and
charitable patronage and a military
commander respectively.
Who among the following was not the founder

of the Bombay Presidency Association
(1885)?
(a) Pherozeshah Mehta
(b) Sisir Kumar Ghosh
(c) K.T. Telang
(d) Badruddin Tyabji
233.
Who founded the India House in 1905 in

London?
(a) Virendranath Chattopadhyaya
(b) V.D. Savarkar
(c) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(d) Lala Hardayal
234.
235.
236.
CM
232.
AT
230.
The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 in

(a) United States of America
(b) England
(c) Malaysia
(d) Japan
The Congress declared Purna Swaraj as its
goal in 1929 during its
(a) Calcutta session
(b) Madras session
(c) Lahore session
(d) Karachi session
Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the tricolour flag of
India in December 1929 on the banks of river
(a) Narmada
(b) Ganga
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
Page 18
240.
Which Mughal emperor emphasised on the

idea Sulh-i kul ?
(a) Babur
(b) Shah Jahan
(c) Humayun
(d) Akbar
241.
Which of the following temples is not in the

UNESCOs World Heritage Sites list?
(a) Gangaikondacholisvaram Temple
(b) Airavateshvaram Temple
(c) Kapaleeshwarar Temple
(d) Brihadeeshwara Temple
242.
The Mundas and Santhals were tribes from

(a) Orissa and Bengal
(b) Punjab and Rajasthan
(c) Punjab and western Himalayas
(d) Punjab and Kashmir
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Sultan Iltutmish constructed hauz-i Sultani

just outside just outside Dehli-i kuhna What
is hauz-i Sultani ?
(a) a large shrine
(b) a large sculpture
(c) a mosque
(d) a large reservoir
244.
Which of the following kings invaded Sri Lanka

and defeated Sena I?
(a) Shrimara Shrivallabha
(b)Vijayalaya
(c) Rajaraja I
(d) Rajendra I
Who was the Statute Destroyer who
attacked the famous Somanath temple?
(a) Muhammad Ghori
(b) Mahmud of Ghazni
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Lord Clive of the East India Company
246.
What is Chihil Sutun in Mughal architecture?

(a) Large balconies
(b) Ceremonial Halls or courts
(c) Four section gardens
(d) Recreation centres
247.
What was the importance of Qibla in audience

halls of the Mughal emperors?
(a) During a court session everybody faced a
specific direction called Qibla
(b) During a court session everybody had to
sit in a circular formation called Qibla
(c) During a court session everybody had to
share their views over the issues
discussed This type of discussion was
called Qibla
(d) During a court session no woman was
allowed to speak inside the court. This
rule was called Qibla
248.
Who was Kunjaramallan Rajaraja

Perunthachchan?
(a) Son of Chola king Rajaraja
(b) Grandson of Chola king Rajaraja
(c) Architect of the famous Airavatesvara
temple
(d) Architect of the famous Rajarajeshvara
temple
250.
Chola bronze statues were made using the

(a) lost clay technique
(b) lost wax technique
(c) lost wood technique
(d) lost metal technique
CM
245.
249.
AT
243.
In Shah Jahans newly constructed court in

the Red Fort at Delhi, behind his throne were
a series of pietra dura inlays that depicted
(a) The legendary Greek god Orpheus playing
the lute
(b) Aphrodite in front of a mirror
(c) Apollo and Daphne together
(d) Aphrodite,Cupid and Ares together
Page 19
251.
Bhillasvamin is the
(a) modern day Bhubaneshwar
(b) modern day Belur
(c) modern day Vidisha
(d) modern day Mahabalipuram
252.
X is located in the Krishna-Tungabhadra

basin. X fell into ruin in 1565 as the
Vijayanagara Empire was defeated What is
X?
(a) Bellary
(b) Hampi
(c) Davanagere
(d) Hubli
253.
In the seventeenth century, which city was

regarded as the gateway for trade with west
Asia?
(a) Karachi
(b) Surat
(c) Poona
(d) Bombay
254.
Bhils, Cheros and Berads are tribes of

(a) Bihar, Tamil Nadu and Western
Himalayas respectively
(b) Bihar, Gujarat and Western Himalayas
respectively
(c) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Bihar
respectively
(d) Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Maharashtra
respectively
255.
Which nomadic tribe helped Mughal emperors

to transport grain to city markets?
(a) Charan
(b) Gujjar
(c) Banjara
(d) Bhil
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
257.
Which tribe did the kingdom of Garha Katanga

belonged to?
(a) Gonds
(b) Cheros
(c) Khonds
(d) Ahoms
258.
Which of the following tribal kingdoms

depended upon forced labour for its
functioning?
(a) Gonds
(b) Cheros
(c) Ahoms
(d) Bhils
259.
Who were the Nayanars?

(a) Saints devoted to Brahma
(b) Saints devoted to Durga
(c) Saints devoted to Vishnu
(d) Saints devoted to Shiva
260.
Who were the Alvars?

(a) Saints devoted to Durga
(b) Saints devoted to Vishnu
(c) Saints devoted to Brahma
(d) Saints devoted to Shiva
261.
Virashaiva movement began in Karnataka in

the mid-twelfth century against
(a) the misrule of Hoysala Empire
(b) monotheism
(c) inequality and caste system
(d) the revenue system
262.
Mirabai became a disciple of

(a) Kabir
(b) Tulsidas
(c) Surdas
(d) Ravidas
263.
Which tribal kingdom created the historical

works known as buranjis?
(a) Ahoms
(b) Balochis
(c) Cheros
(d) Gonds
Page 20
264.

I. The British East India Company was the
only British trading company to come for
trade in India. This is because of the fact
that the company acquired exclusive
rights from the queen for trading with the
East.
II. The Portuguese came to India before the
British.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
265.
Fa Xian and Xuan Zang were

(a) Chinese invaders of the north-east
(b) Chinese Buddhist pilgrims
(c) Chinese followers of the Alvars
(d) Chinese followers of the Nayanars
AT
Which queen died fighting Mughal armies

defending Garha Katanga in 1565?
(a) Rani Durgawati
(b) Rani Ahilyabai
(c) Rudramamba
(d) Rani Avantibai
CM
256.
266.

I. Kadamba Mayurasharman was a
Brahmana who gave up his traditional
profession and took to arms, successfully
establishing the Kadamba kingdom in
Karnataka.
II. Chola king Rajendra I built a temple of
goddess Nishumbhasudini in the town of
Thanjavur.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
267.

I. Siraj-ud-daulah, the nawab of Bengal was
a puppet ruler who gifted trade
concessions to the East India Company.
II. Robert Clive led the companys armies at
Plassey in 1757.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
The East India Company was appointed as

the Diwan of the provinces of Bengal, by the
Mughal emperor, after the death of the then
nawab of Bengal
(a) Aliwardi Khan (b) Mir Jafar
(c) Mir Qasim
(d) Sirajuddaulah
274.
Which of the following Governor-Generals

initiated the policy of paramountcy?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Richard Wellesley
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Earl Cornwallis
269.

I. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third AngloMysore War.
II. Subsidiary alliance did not allow the East
India Company to have its independent
armed forces.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
275.
Which of the following was ruled by the

Wodeyar dynasty?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Awadh
(c) Mysore
(d) Bengal
276.

I. The Marathas helped Tipu Sultan in the
Third Anglo-Mysore war agaisnt the East
India Company.
II. Tipu Sultan was forced to sign a treaty
with the British by which two of his sons
were taken away as hostages.
271.
272.
CM
270.
Who was the Governor-General in 1801 when

the nawab of Awadh was forced to give over
half of his territory to the East India Company
in 1801?
(a) Warren Hastings
(c) Earl Cornwallis
(d) Robert Clive
The Treaty of Salbai was signed between the
East India Company and
(a) the Marathas
(b) the Nizam of Hyderabad
(c) the Kingdom of Mysore
(d) the nawab of Awadh

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
277.
Doctrine of Lapse was the brainchild of

(a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Hastings
(c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Robert Clive
278.

I. From 1772, each district was to have only
one court a civil court (diwani adalat).
II. Delhi was not a British presidency in the
late eighteenth century.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Which of the following nawabs captured Fort

William of Calcutta?
(a) Alivardi Khan
(b) Sirajuddaulah
(c) Mir Jafar
(d) Mir Qasim
279.
273.
AT
268.

I. Mir Qasim helped the East India Company
in the Battle of Buxar against the Nawab
of Awadh and the Mughal Emperor.
II. The East India Company defeated
Maharaja Ranjit Singh to capture Punjab.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 21

I. Rani Chennamma surrendered the state
of Kitoor to the East India Company and
ran away with his family.
II. Steamships were invented in the early
nineteenth century.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which Mughal emperor appointed the East

India Company as the Diwan of Bengal?
(a) Shah Alam
(b) Akbar Shah
(c) Bahadur Shah (d) Aurangzeb
281.
Initially the East India Company purchased

goods in India for
(a) the revenue generated by the Company
from peasants.
(b) Gold and Silver
(c) the British goods
(d) nothing. It used military power to capture
the resources
Who was the Governor-General of India when
the Permanent Settlement was introduced?
(a) Warren Hastings
(c) Earl Cornwallis
(d) Lord Dalhousie
283.
In British records, what is a Mahal?

(a) A palace
(b) An army fort
(c) A Mosque
(d) A revenue estate
284.

I. The Company expected the Zamindars to
invest in the improvement of land which
would have benefited the Zamindars as
well.
II. In the permanent settlement system
peasants had to pay the revenue directly
to the Company.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
287.
288.
Holt Mackenzie devised a new system which

was called as the
(a) Permanent Settlement.
(b) Mahalwari System.
(c) Ryotwari System.
(d) Doctrine of Lapse.
The nij system and ryoti system are for the

cultivation of
(a) Coffee
(b) Sugar
(c) Opium
(d) Indigo
Page 22

I. Woad is a temperate zone herb which
faced competition from indigo grown in
India during the eighteenth century.
II. The indigo plant grows primarily in the
temperate zones.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
289.
Siraj-ud-daulah, nawab of Bengal, was

betrayed by one of his commanders in his
defeatto the East India Companys army. Who
was that commander?
(a) Mir Jafar
(b) Mir Qasim
(c) Shujauddaulah (d) Ali Jah
290.
The Ryotwari System was devised by

(a) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Thomas Munro
(d) Holt Mackenzie
291.
The first English factory was set up on the

banks of the river
(a) Krishna
(b) Hugli
(c) Saraswati
(d) Kaveri

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
285.

I. The Indigo Commission set up after the
Blue Rebellion of 1859 produced a report
against the ryots.
II. The agents of the East India Company
who helped the Company to get
agreements signed from peasants,
weavers and artisans were known as
Gomasthas
CM
282.
286.
AT
280.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

I. Woad is a better dye plant than indigo
because woad gives a rich blue colour
while indigo gives pale and dull colour.
II. The French produced indigo in the French
colony of St Domingue in the Caribbean
islands.
296.
A very special tank, which archaeologists call

the Great Bath, was built in
(a) Mehrgarh
(b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Lothal
(d) Harappa
297.
Which of the following archaeological sites is

located on the river Ghod and is known for its
special burial system?
(a) Lothal
(b) Chirand
(c) Inamgaon
(d) Hungsi
298.
Ashwamedha was a ritual in which

(a) a horse was gifted to the successor of
the king
(b) a horse was sacrificed
(c) a horse was gifted to a brahmin
(d) a ritual made in the name of rain gods

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
I. The ryoti system was better than the nij
system for the indigo planters as it allowed
them to produce indigo on a larger scale
without any considerable increase in the
cost of production.
II. The ryots were benefited from the the ryoti
system of indigo plantaion.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
293.
AT
292.
294.
295.
The most primitive stone tools are from

(a) Neolithic age
(b) Palaeolithic age
(c) Mesolithic age
(d) Chalcolithic age
A : The subsidiary alliance proved very helpful
for the nawabs in protecting their territories.
R : The British promised military protection
to the nawabs under the terms of subsidiary
alliance.
(a) A and B both are true and B is the right
reason for A
(b) A and B both are true but B is not the
right reason for A
Page 23
299.
Bimbisara was a ruler of

(a) Avanti
(b) Gandhara
(c) Kuru
(d) Magadha
300.
A cartographer is a person who

(a) makes maps (b) makes carts
(c) makes chariots (d) makes temples
301.

A : The Nawab of Awadh was forced to give
over half of his territory to the Company in
1801
R : The Nawab of Awadh failed to fulfil the
terms of subsidiary alliance.
reason for A
right reason for A
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

A : The British fought a long war with
Afghanistan between 1838 and 1842 and
established indirect rule there.
R : If the rulers under subsidiary alliance failed
to make the payment for the forces, then part
of their territory was taken away by the British
as penalty.
305.
Who among the following was not a part of

the Rebellion of 1857?
(a) Begum Hazrat Mahal
(b) Rani Chennamma
(c) Birjis Qadr
(d) Nana Saheb
306.
Bahadur Shah Jafar was sentenced to life

imprisonment for supporting the rebellion of
1857. He died in a prison in
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Rangoon
(c) Lahore
(d) Bombay
307.

I. Tantia Tope was killed while protecting
Rani Laxmi Bai against the British.
II. Birjis Qadr was the son of Nawab Wajid
Ali Shah of Lucknow.
303.
CM

reason for A
right reason for A

A : After the death of Maharaja Ranjit Singh
in 1839, the East India Company took over
Punjab in 1849.
R : According to the Doctrine of Lapse, if an
Indian ruler died without a male heir his
kingdom would become part of Company
territory.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
308.
Mangal Pandey was hanged in 1857 for

attacking his officers in
(a) Benaras
(b) Barrackpore
(c) Calcutta
(d) Allahabad
309.

A : Eighty-five sepoys of the regiment at
Meerut in 1857 were dismissed from service
and sentenced to ten years in jail.
R : When the Company ordered the sepoys
to go to Burma for fighting by the sea route,
the sepoys refused to follow the order.

reason for A
right reason for A
304.
AT
302.

A : Cloth dyers in Europe preferred indigo over
woad as a dye.
R : Indigo was cheaper than woa(d)
reason for A
right reason for A
Page 24

reason for A
right reason for A
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
310.

A : In 1824 the Company ordered the sepoys
to go to Burma by the sea route but the
sepoys refused to follow the order.
R : The sepoys were mostly peasants and
had families living in the villages.
314.
Governor-General of India when Jhansi was

annexed by the British?
(a) Lord Dalhousie (b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Cornwallis (d) Richard Wellesley
315.

I. The East India Company was removed
from the power in 1858.
II. The Doctrine of Lapse was renounced by
the Act of 1858.
311.
In 1801, a subsidiary alliance was imposed

on X, and in 1856 it was taken over by the
British as they declared that X was being
misgoverned and to ensure proper
administration British rule was necessary.
What is X?
(a) Awadh
(b) Jhansi
(c) Mysore
(d) Punjab
312.
Sati was banned in British India in

(a) 1801
(b) 1809
(c) 1829
(d) 1858
313.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
316.
Which of the following was not the change

introduced by the British in 1858?
(a) It was assured to all the ruling chiefs of
the country that their territory would never
be annexed in future.
(b) It was decided to increase the recruitment
of soldiers from Awadh, Bihar, central India
and south India.
(c) Various policies were made to protect the
rights of zamindars and landlords.
(d) All of the above.
317.
Delhi became the capital of British India in

(a) 1901
(b) 1905
(c) 1911
(d) 1915
318.
Delhi Durbar was organised by

(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Lansdowne
(d) Lord Lytton
319.

I. Edward Lutyens and Herbert Baker were
the architects invited by the British to
design New Delhi in 1912.
II. The central dome of the Rashtrapati
Bhavan was copied from medieval Chola
art.
CM

reason for A
right reason for A
AT

A : By the end of the eighteenth century, the
demand for Indian indigo grew enormously.
R : Indian Indigo was better than the indigo
produced in the West Indies and America.
reason for A
right reason for A

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 25
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
321.
Who founded the Brahmo Sabha?

(a) Raja Rammohun Roy
(b) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(c) Swami Dayanand Sarawati
(d) Swami Vivekanand
327.

A : Ryoti cultivation was preferred over nij
cultivation by the British.
R : It was easier to expand the area under
indigo cultivation by adopting ryoti cultivation.
The first war between the 13 British North

American colonies and the British Government
started in 1775 at
(a) Lexington
(b) Philadelphia
(c) Washington
(d) Orlando
328.
Which of the following Governor-Generals of

the British India surrendered as a British
General in the American War of Independence
in 1781
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) William Bentinck
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Dalhousie
(c) a meeting between the British and the

French to decide the future of Canada.
(d) an act of dumping tea into Boston Harbor
CM

reason for A
right reason for A
AT
320.
322.
When was the law permitting widow

remarriage passed in the British India?
(a) 1829
(b) 1839
(c) 1856
(d) 1896
323.
The Paramhans Mandali was founded in 1840

in
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Madras
(d) Delhi
324.
Which Chola king took the title of

Maduraikondavan?
(a) Vijayalaya
(b) Rajaraja I
(c) Parantaka I
(d) Rajendra
325.
The British government headed by George

Grenville in 1765 enacted a tax Act in its
colonies in North America The Act was called
the
(a) Stamp Act
(b) Currency Act
(c) Revenue Act
(d) Trade Act
326.
The Boston Tea Party was

(a) a meeting between the British and the
French to decide the future of Canada.
(b) the declaration of Independence, by the
13 British North American colonies.
Page 26
329.
Men are born free but everywhere they are in

chains. Who said these words?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
(c) Friedrich Engels
(d) Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
330.
When did France become a republic?

(a) 1780
(b) 1784
(c) 1789
(d) 1792
331.
Who devised the system of crop rotation?

(a) Thomas Highs
(b) Jethro Tull
(c) Charles Townsend
(d) Lewis Paul
332.
Who invented the flying shuttle?

(a) John Kay
(b) Richard Arkwright
(c) James Hargreaves
(d) Daniel Bourn
333.
Who invented the spinning jenny?

(a) Samuel Crompton
(b) James Hargreaves
(c) Clement Clerke
(d) Abraham Darby
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
335.
Who invented the cotton gin?

(a) Henry Maudslay
(b) Eli Whitney
(c) John Kay
(d) Henry Cot
336.
Who built the first textile factory?

(a) Samuel Slater
(c) Lewis Paul
(d) Thomas Highs
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
The Third Estate, in France, declared itself

as the National Assembly in
(a) 1729
(b) 1789
(c) 1829
(d) 1879
342.

I. Age of Enlightenment is a term used to
describe the age of spiritualism in Europe
during the seventeenth century.
II. In France, the Third Estate was of the
nobles.
AT
The first power loom was designed by

(a) Richard Arkwright
(b) Thomas Highs
(c) Lewis Paul
(d) Edmund Cartwright

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
334.
Who among the following is known for his

improvements of the steam engine?
(a) James Watt
(b) John Kay
(c) Samuel Slater
(d) Lewis Paul
343.
Who invented the hot blast process in

metallurgy?
(a) Clement Clerke
(b) Benjamin Huntsman
(c) James Beaumont Neilson
(d) George Stephenson
344.

I. King Louis XVI fled France with his family
at the start of the French Revolution.
II. The first French National Assembly took
oath in a tennis court.
Who among the following made attempts to

substitute charcoal by coke to obtain iron
from its ore?
(a) George Stephenson
(b) William Murdoch
(c) Chance Brothers
(d) Abraham Darby
Who invented the puddling process of iron
purification?
(a) John Smeaton
(b) Henry Cort
(c) James Watt
(d) Thomas Newcomen
I. Luther Burbank invented the process of
pasteurisation.
II. Voltaire was a staunch critic of the church.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 27

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
345.
Who among the invented a process for

producing steel?
(a) Henry Bessemer
(b) John Metcalf
(c) Chance Brothers
(d) William Murdoch
346.
Who invented the steamboat?

(a) Joseph Bramah
(b) Joseph Whitworth
(c) John Macadam
(d) Robert Fulton
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Gugliemo Marconi invented the

(a) telephone
(b) machinery for wireless telegraphy
(c) electric bulb
(d) television
Who laid the first trans-Atlantic cable?
(a) Cyrus Field
(b) Gottlieb Daimler
(c) George Stephenson
(d) Joseph Locke
349.

I. The Diesel engine was invented after the
World War I.
II. The Open-hearth is generally used for
the production of fine quality printed
textiles.
Britain wrested Canada from France in 1763

after the
(a) Six Years War
(b) Seven Years War
(c) Eight Years War
(d) Nine Years War
354.
Whom did Guru Nanak appointed as his

successor before his death in 1539?
(a) Guru Amardas (b) Guru Angad
(c) Guru Arjan
(d) Guru Ramdas
CM
348.
353.
AT
347.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
350.
The Luddites in Britain, during the Industrial

Revolution, was a name given to the
(a) section of the church which opposed the
industrial revolution.
(b) masked workers taking part in violent
strikes.
(c) businessmen who invested and helped the
innovators of the revolution
(d) the countries mainly involved in the
Industrial Revolution.
351.
The First Opium War, as it is called, was

fought in 1840 between the British and
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Malaysia
(d) France
352.

I. The Portuguese took control of Malacca,
in the East Indies, in the 17th century from
the Dutch.
II. Hormuz, at the tip of the Persian Gulf,
was a strategic base of the Portuguese
in the 16th century.
Page 28
355.
Which of the following Mughal emperors

ordered the execution of Guru Arjan?
(a) Shah Jahan
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Humayun
(d) Jahangir
356.
Divya Prabandham is a compilation of

devotional songs in honour of Hindu god/
goddess
(a) Murugan
(b) Shiva
(c) Durga
(d) Vishnu
357.
Which Afghan ruler invaded India five times in

the mid-eighteenth century?
(a) Ahmed Shah Abdali
(b) Timur Shah Durrani
(c) Nadir Shah
(d) Shuja Shah Durrani
358.
The iron pillar at Mehrauli, Delhi is said to be

built under which of the following rulers?
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Akbar
(c) Chandragupta
(d) Vikramaditya
359.
The Silappadikaram, a famous Tamil epic, is

the story of Kovalan who was a
(a) a merchant
(b) a King
(c) a priest
(d) a peasant
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
361.
Harishena was the court poet of

(a) Chandragupta (b) Samudragupta
(c) Ashoka
(d) Bindusara
362.
Which of the following Chalukya rulers

stopped king Harshvardhan of Kanauj from
advancing to the Deccan?
(a) Vijayaditya
(b) Vikramaditya
(c) Pulakeshin II
(d) Vikramaditya II
363.
364.
Which of the following is not a work of

Kalidasa?
(a) Abhijnana Shakuntalam
(b) Malavikagnimitram
(c) Mahavircharitam
(d) Vikramorvashiyam
Buddhacharita, a biography of the Buddha was

composed by Ashvaghosha. He was a spiritual
counselor in the court of
(a) King Ashoka
(b) King Harshavardhana
(c) King Vikramadtya
(d) King Kanishka
365.
Who were known as the lords of the

dakshinapatha?
(a) Pandya rulers (b) Satavahana rulers
(c) Chera rulers
(d) Chola rulers
366.
Dhamma Mahamatta were

(a) important teachings of Buddha
(b) officials appointed by Ashoka to teach
dhamma
(c) buddhist philosophers of early medieval
India
(d) buddhist philosophers of Mughal period
in India
367.
368.
Who was Mehrunnisa?

(a) Wife of Emperor Shah Jahan
(b) Wife of Emperor Aurangzeb
(c) Wife of Emperor Jahangir
(d) Wife of Emperor Shah Alam
369.

I. After the defeat Shivaji was honourably
treated by the Mughals when he came to
accept Mughal authority.
II. The term mansabdar refers to an
individual who holds a position or rank.
III. By Aurangzebs reign, the number of
mansabdars decreased immensely.
AT
The manuscripts in early India were usually

written on
(a) palm leaves
(b) ashoka tree leaves
(c) cloths made of jute
(d) banyan leaves
CM
360.
Vinaya Pitaka is a rule book of

(a) Hinduism
(b) Sikhism
(c) Jain sangha
(d) Buddhist sangha
Page 29

(a) II only
(b) II and III
(c) III only
(d) I, II and III
370.
Mirza Hakim was half brother of the Mughal

Emperor
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Jahangir
371.
The Kandariya Mahadeva temple dedicated

to Shiva was constructed by King
(a) Dhangadeva
(b) Harshdev
(c) Vijaypal
(d) Yashovarman
372.
Which Sinhalese ruler tried to find and restore

the gold statue of the Buddha which was taken
away by the Pandyan king Shrimara
Shrivallabha?
(a) Udaya I
(b) Udaya II
(c) Sena I
(d) Sena II
373.
Chokhamela was a
(a) Marathi merchant
(b) Marwari merchant
(c) Marwari saint-poet
(d) Marathi saint-poet
374.
The Rashtrakutas were initially subordinate

to the
(a) Cheras
(b) Chalukyas
(c) Cholas
(d) Pandyas
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
376.

I. Mughal emperor Babur succeeded to the
throne of Ferghana in 1494 at the age of
15.
II. In 1526 Babur defeated the Sultan of Delhi,
Ibrahim Lodi, at Delhi.
III. Akbar was 13 years old when he became
emperor.

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) II and III
(d) III only
377.
378.
379.
380.
Who started the Asiatic Society of Bengal?

(a) William Carey
(b) Thomas Babington Macaulay
(c) William Jones
(d) William Adam
381.
The Hindu College in Benaras was established

in
(a) 1791
(b) 1820
(c) 1836
(d) 1898
382.
Who among the following was against the

promotion of vernaculars in Indian education?
(a) Henry Thomas Colebrooke
(b) Thomas Babington Macaulay
(c) Nathaniel Halhed
(d) William Jones
AT
The Begumpuri mosque was built in the reign

of which Delhi Sultan?
(a) Ghiyasuddin Tughluq
(b) Muhammad Tughluq
(c) Firuz Shah Tughluq
(d) Alauddin Khalji
CM
375.
383.
Who was the Mughal Emperor during the

rebellion of 1857?
(a) Akbar Shah
(b) Shah Alam
(c) Muhammad Shah
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Banabhatta was the court poet of which of

the following Indian monarchs?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Chandragupta
(c) Vikramaditya
(d) Harshvardhana
A : The Indian Railways had to turn to TISCO
in the 1910s.
R : World War I broke out in 1914.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
384.
In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East

India Company in London sent an educational
despatch to the Governor-General in India. It
was known as the
(a) Woods Despatch
(b) Macaulays Despatch
(c) Mills Despatch
(d) Colebrookes Despatch
385.
The English Education Act, following

Macaulays minute, was introduced in
(a) 1815
(b) 1825
(c) 1835
(d) 1845
386.
The Satnami movement in Central India was

founded by
(a) Haridas Thakur
(b) Ghasidas
(c) Shri Narayana Guru
(d) Dayanand Saraswati

reason for A
right reason for A
Page 30

I. The Woods Despatch emphasised on the
importance of oriental learning.
II. Shantiniketan was established by
Mahatma Gandhi in 1901.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
387.

I. Rammohun Roy was keen to spread the
knowledge of Western education In India.
II. Jyotiba Phule was an ardent supporter of
the anti-colonial nationalism.
389.
390.
391.
The Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by

(a) Raja Rammohun Roy
(b) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Who wrote the book Gulamgiri?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(d) Vinoba Bhave
394.

I. According to the Child Marriage Restraint
Act of 1929 no woman below the age of
16 could marry.
II. The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College
was founded in 1905.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
388.
Keshub Chunder Sen was one of the main

leaders of the
(a) Satnami Movement
(b) Prarthana Samaj
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Arya Samaj
AT

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
393.
Who started the temple entry movement in

1927?
(a) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Baba Amte
I. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker was an ardent
critic of the Bhagwad Gita and the
Ramayana.
II. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker was once a
member of the Indian National Congree.
395.
Who founded the Ramakrishna Mission?

(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Raja Rammohun Roy
(d) Baba Amte
396.
Thomas Daniell and William Daniell are known

for their paintings of
(a) the great warrior kings of India
(b) war scenes in India
(c) picturesque landscapes of India
(d) Indian traditions
397.

I. According to the Ilbert Bill, Indian judges
were not allowed to try the Europeans.
II. The Indian National Congress during its
first twenty years was extremist in its
objectives and methods.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
392.
The Self Respect Movement was started by

(a) Jyotiba Phule
(b) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Bhimrao Ambedkar
Page 31

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
398.
Who among the following was, for a time,

member of the British Parliament?
(a) Surendranath Banerji
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Pherozshah Mehta
(d) W.C. Bonnerji
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
401.
404.
Freedom is my birthright and I shall have it.

Who said these famous words?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Bepin Chandra Pal
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
405.
Who partitioned Bengal in 1905?

(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Lytton
406.
Who was the viceroy of India when the

Vernacular Press Act was enacted?
(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Canning (d) Lord Dufferin
Who was the first president of the Indian

National Congress?
(a) W.C. Bonnerji
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Badruddin Tyadji
(d) Surendranath Banerji
AT
400.

I. A.O. Hume tried to bring in a bill through
the British Parliament to ban the Indian
National Congress
II. Pherozeshah Mehta joined the Indian
National Congress during its extremist era.
CM
399.
Who was the viceroy of India when the Arms

Act was enacted which disallowed Indians
from possessing arms?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Lyyton
(c) Lord Lansdowne
(d) Lord Northbrook
402.
Who founded the Indian Association in 1876?

(a) W.C. Bonnerji
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Pherozshah Mehta
(d) Surendranath Banerji
403.

I. The Vernacular Press Act enabled the
local language newspapers to have their
say.
II. The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was started
after the formation of the Indian National
Congress.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
407.
The Swadesi Movement was an immediate

reaction to the
(a) Jallianwala Bagh massacre
(b) Defence of India Act
(c) Partition of Bengal
(d) Rowlatt Act
408.
Who was the viceroy of India when the All

India Muslim League was formed?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Lytton
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Lansdowne
409.

I. The Muslim League supported the
partition of Bengal.
II. The Non-cooperation Movement in deltaic
Andhra was known as the Vandematram
Movement.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
410.

I. According to partition of Bengal by
Curzon, Bihar, Orissa and Assam were
to on one side and Bengal on the other
side.
II. The partition of Bengal was done for
administrative convenience.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 32
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
412.
What is the importance of the Surat Split of

1907?
(a) The Indian National Congress was split in
two groups the moderates and the
extremists.
(b) The partition of Bengal was announced in
1907 in Surat.
(c) The government conceded the demand of
the Muslim League for separate
electorates.
(d) The Muslim League was formed under Aga
Khan.
413.
414.
417.
The Champaran Satyagraha was against

(a) the enormously high taxes imposed on
the poor people.
(b) indigo plantation in Champaran.
(c) the Rowlatt Act.
(d) the Defence of India Act.
418.
Consider the following statements:

I. The Rowlatt Act imposed judgement
without trial in India.
II. The Rowlatt Act was enacted in 1915.
AT
The demand of separate electorates, made

by the Muslim league, was conceded by the
government in
(a) 1905
(b) 1907
(c) 1909
(d) 1912

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
411.
The Lucknow pact of 1916 was signed

between
(a) the extremists and the moderates of the
Indian National Congress.
(b) the Indian National Congress and the
Muslim League.
(c) the Indian National Congress and the
government.
(d) the Muslim League and the government.
419.
The Khilafat issue was related to the

(a) Partition of Bengal
(b) Muslim League
(c) Turkish Sultan
(d) Nizam of Hyderabad
420.

A : Mahatma Gandhi called off the NonCooperation Movement when in February
1922.
R : A police station in Chauri Chaura was set
on fire in 1922.
Which event, during the World War I, inspired

the nationalists in India?
(a) American Civil War
(b) French Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution
(d) First Italo-Ethiopian war
415.
When did Mahatma Gandhi arrive in India?

(a) 1910
(b) 1912
(c) 1915
(d) 1919
416.
Who was the viceroy of India when the

Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place?
(a) Lord Chelmsford
(b) Sydney Rowlatt
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Irwin
Page 33

reason for A
right reason for A
421.
The Simon Commission came to India in

(a) 1924
(b) 1925
(c) 1926
(d) 1927
422.

founders of the Hindustan Socialist
Republican Association in 1928?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Chitta Ranjan Das
(d) Bhagat Singh
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
425.
When did the Indian National Congress

contest its first elections?
(a) 1930
(b) 1934
(c) 1937
(d) 1941
I. The Simon Commission had only two
Indian representatives.
II. Congress leaders were ready to support
the British in the World War II.
429.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
430.
Who announced August 16 1946 as the

Direct Action Day?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
431.
Who wrote the book Poverty and Un-British

rule in India?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Badruddin Tyabji
(c) W.C. Bonnerji
432.

I. Division on boycott was the main reason
for the Surat Split of 1907.
II. The All India Muslim League was formed
in Lahore in 1906.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
433.
Mahatma Gandhi asked the Indian people to

observe 6 April 1919 as a day of non-violent
opposition to the
(a) Government of India Act
(b) Rowlatt Act
(c) Defence of India Act
(d) Indian Press Act
434.
Who among the following renounced his

knighthood?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Surendranath Benerji
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
426.
Who said the words do or die at the start of

the Quit India Movement?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
427.
Who formed the Azad Hind Fauj to free India

from British control?
(a) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
428.

I. Lala Lajpat Rai was among the moderates
section of the Indian National Congress.
II. The first session of the Indian National
Congress was held in Pune.
AT
424.
Members of the Hindustan Socialist

Republican Association assassinated
Saunders, a police officer, to avenge the death
of
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
CM
423.
Who became the first Indian Governor-General

of free India?
(a) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
Page 34
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
436.
Potti Sriramulu, a Gandhian leader, went on

a hunger fast demanding the formation of
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
(c) It was thought to lead to the rebirth of

the sacrificer as a heir to his own empire
(d) None of the above.
442.
What do you understand by the term Vetti

regarding the Cholas?
(a) name of a warship under King Rajendra I
(b) a ritual performed by the Chola Kings
(c) a tax levied the Cholas
(d) a piece of land won by the Cholas
overthrowing some other ruler
443.
The tripartite struggle for control over Kanauj

was between
(a) Gurjara-Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas and
Palas
(b) Cholas, Rashtrakutas and Pandyas
(c) Chahamanas, Paramaras and Palas
(d) Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas
The bilingual state of Bombay was divided

into two states in
(a) 1955
(b) 1957
(c) 1960
(d) 1966
CM
437. Consider the following statements

I. The British annexed Nagpur through the
Doctrine of Lapse.
II. The British gained Orissa from the
Marathas after winning the second AngloMaratha War.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
AT
435.
438.
To break the salt law, Mahatma Gandhi

marched from Sabarmati to
(a) Surat
(b) Ahamedabad
(c) Baroda
(d) Dandi
439.
The Kushanas ruled over central Asia and

north-west India around 2000 years ago. What
were their two major power centres?
(a) Peshawar and Madurai
(b) Peshawar and Mathura
(c) Madurai and Bukhara
(d) Mathura and Kanauj
440.
Which Chola ruler raided and captured the

Southeast Asian empire Srivijaya and harbour
cities of Sumatra and Malay Peninsula?
(a) Vijayalaya
(b) Rajendra I
(c) Rajendra II
(d) Raja Raja I
441.
Why was the Hiranya-Garbha ritual

performed?
(a) It was thought to lead to the rebirth of
the sacrificer as a Kshatriya
(b) It was thought to lead to the rebirth of
the sacrificer as a Brahmana
Page 35
444.
Which of the following rulers entrusted a

scholar to write Kitab-al Hind, an account of
the Indian subcontinent?
(a) Akbar
(b) Babar
(c) Muhammad Ghori
(d) Mahmud of Ghazni
445.
X defeated Muhammad Ghori in 1191 AD, but

lost to him the very next year, in 1192 A.D.
Who were X?
(a) Cholas
(b) Pandyas
(c) Chahamanas (d) Pratiharas
446.
Who built the town of Thanjavur?

(a) Samudragupta
(b) Rajendra I
(c) Narasimhavarman I
(d) Vijayalaya
447.
According to Chola inscriptions, land donated

to Jaina institutions is called
(a) Vellanvagai
(b) Pallichchhandam
(c) Tirunamattukkani
(d) Shalabhoga
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Prashastis were written by learned

Brahmanas in administration. They were
(a) biographies of foreign invaders
(b) in praise of the ruler
(c) in praise of their own works and talents
(d) in praise of the empire and its natural
resources
Delhi first became the capital of a kingdom
under :
(a) Tomara Rajputs
(b) Chahamanas of Ajmer
(c) Qutbuddin Aybak
(d) Ghiyasuddin Balban
450.
Which of the following female rulers changed

her name and pretended to be a man?
(a) Raziyya
(b) Kumaradevi
(c) Didda
(d) Rudramadevi
451.
Military expeditions from the Delhi Sultanate

into southern India started during the reign of
(a) Qutbuddin Aybak
(b) Raziyya
(c) Jalaluddin Khalji
(d) Alauddin Khalji
452.
453.
Siri Fort was built under which Delhi Sultan?

(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
(c) Muhammad Tughluq
(d) Jalaluddin Khilji
455.
Which Delhi Sultan emptied and garrisoned

the old city Dehli-i Kuhna and sent its
residents to Daulatabad in the south?
(a) Jalaluddin Khilji
(b) Muhammad Tughluq
(c) Ghiyasuddin Balban
(d) Bahlul Lodi
456.
Who was the first Delhi Sultan to plan to

capture Mongol territory?
(a) Shamsuddin Iltutmish
(b) Ghiyasuddin Balban
(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughluq
(d) Muhammad Tughluq
457.
What are Delhiwal?

(a) Land tax in Delhi during the early medieval
India
(b) Tax on trading activities in Delhi during
the early medieval India
(c) Coins minted in Delhi during the early
medieval India
(d) Garrisoned towns in Delhi during the early
medieval India
458.
Who defeated Mughal emperor Humayun in

1540 AD and captured Delhi to establish his
own dynasty?
(a) Ibrahim Lodi
(b) Sher Shah Suri
(c) Vikramaditya (d) Firuz Shah Suri
459.
The authors of Persian tawarikh criticised the

Delhi Sultans
(a) for preserving an unjust social order based
on birthright.
(b) for treating their daughters as inferior to
their sons.
(c) for appointing their loyal slaves to high
administrative posts.
CM
449.
454.
AT
448.
What is the Bandagan system used by the

early Delhi Sultans in their administration?
(a) the Delhi Sultans appointed their wives
instead of appointing aristocrats or leaders
to high administrative posts
(b) the Delhi Sultans appointed their trust
worthy slaves instead of appointing
aristocrats or leaders to high
administrative posts
(c) the Delhi Sultans decided to appoint
themselves instead of appointing
aristocrats or leaders to high
(d) the Delhi Sultans removed all the high
Kharaj is a type of tax collected under the
Sultans of Delhi. It was a tax levied on
(a) cultivation
(b) cattle
(c) road
(d) houses
Page 36
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following is the right

chronological order of the dynasties that ruled
Delhi?
(a) Sayyid, Khalji, Tughluq, Lodi
(b) Khalji, Tughluq, Lodi, Sayyid
(c) Khalji, Tughluq, Sayyid, Lodi
(d) Tughluq, Khalji, Sayyid, Lodi
461.
The mother of Shah Jahan was a rajput

pricess, daughter of the ruler of
(a) Amber
(b) Marwar
(c) Mewar
(d) Bundelkhand
462.

Abul Fazl wrote a three volume history of
Akbars reign titled Ain-i Akbari
II. The third volume is known as Akbar Nama
III. The third volume dealt with Akbars
ancestors.
Abul Fazl was a courtier and a close friend of

(a) Akbar
(b) Humayun
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Babur
467.
Consider the following statements regarding

the Mughal empire in India.
I. Humayun was the emperor for a longer
period than his father Babur.
II. Babur was the emperor for more than 10
years.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
468.

I. From their fathers side, the Mughals were
the successors of Genghis Khan.
II. Timur was ruler of Mongol tribes.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
I.
466.
AT
460.

(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) III
463.
464.
465.
Zabt was a revenue system adopted during

the Mughal period in India. It was
(a) a system where tax was directly
proportional to the land owned, even if it
was not cultivated.
(b) based on a survey of crop yields, prices
and areas cultivated for a ten-year period.
(c) based on past year performance of the
cultivator.
(d) a system which brought soldiers in the
tax paying ambit.
Maratha ruler Shivaji was defeated and
insulted by
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Akbar
(c) Safavid Khan
(d) Jahangir
Aurangzebs son who rebelled, along with the
Marathas, against his father was
(a) Bahadur Shah
(b) Azam Shah
(c) Muhammad Akbar
Page 37
469.
Todar Mal was the revenue minister for

(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Akbar
470.

A : Humayuns second tenure as the Mughal
emperor lasted just for an year.
R : Humayun was defeated by Sher Shah Suri
at Chausa and Kanauj.
(a) if A and R both are true and R is the right
reason for A
(b) if A and R both are true but R is not the
right reason for A
(c) A is true but not R
(d) R is true but not A
471.

I. The Mughals did not believe in the rule of
primogeniture.
II. Aurangzeb introduced the revenue system
called zabt.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
In the custom of coparcenary inheritance, a

fathers property is inherited
(a) to the eldest son
(b) to the most able son
(c) to the eldest daughter
(d) among all his sons
478.
In 1803, the British gained control of Delhi

after defeating the
(a) Marathas
(b) Mughal emperor Akbar Shah
(c) Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah
(d) Sikhs of Punjab
473.

I. Ain-i Akbari was not written by Abul Fazl,
the author of the Akbar Nama.
II. Mehrunnisa was married to the Emperor
Humayun.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
479.
What is a cul-de-sac?
(a) a street along a circular path
(b) a fort with several gates
(c) a street with a dead end
(d) a fort with no windows
480.
Which of the following periods in Delhis

history is also known as a period of Delhi
renaissance?
(a) 1830-1857
(b) 1857-1875
(c) 1875-1890
(d) 1890-1911
475.
476.
477.
CM
474.
AT
472.
In year X, a famine killed about ten million

people in Y. What is X and Y?
(a) 1770 and Rajasthan
(b) 1770 and Bengal
(c) 1830 and Gujarat
(d) 1830 and Awadh
Which of the following events occurred first?

(a) Introduction of the Permanent Settlement
(b) East India Compant appointed as the
Diwan of Bengal
(c) Blue Rebellion by indigo farmers
(d) Introduction of the Mahalwari Settlement
Which of the following Governor-Generals of
India decided that after the then Mughal
Emperors death none of his descendants
would be recognised as kings?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Lord Curzon
481.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
482.
In the second half of the nineteenth century,

which of the following came to be known as
the workshop of the world?
(a) Russia
(b) Britain
(c) France
(d) Germany
483.

I. A Durbar was held in Delhi in 1911 by the
British to acknowledge Queen Victoria as
the empress of India.
II. The Delhi College, formed in 1792, is now
known as Lady Shri Ram College for
Women.
Who among the following was also know as

Periyar?
(a) Henry Derozio
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Shri Narayana Guru
(d) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
484.
Page 38

I. The Taiping rebellion, started in 1850 in
China, was against Christianity.
II. The Governor-General of India was given
the title of Viceroy after the capital of India
was shifted to Delhi.
The Portuguese first entered India through

(a) Surat
(b) Calicut
(c) Bombay
(d) Goa
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
The cotton textiles which the Portuguese took
back from Calicut to Europe came to be
known as
(a) Indico
(b) Fabrical
(c) Calcot
(d) Calico
487.
Patola weave is an ancient art from

(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Punjab
(d) Tamil Nadu
488.
The Calico Act of 1720, enacted by the British

government, was to ban
(a) ban the use of chintz in England.
(b) ban the import of cotton from India.
(c) ban the use of indigo for dying cloths.
(d) ban the import of Indian indigo to promote
woad for dying cloths.
489.
490.
Wootz is a type of
(a) cotton
(b) steel
(c) printed textile (d) dye
493.
The tank in Hauz Khas complex in Delhi was

constructed by
(a) Akbar
(b) Shah Jahan
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Iltutmish
494.
Who among the following was a famous

Sanskrit grammarian?
(a) Satyakama Jabala
(b) Gargi Vachaknavi
(c) Panini
(d) Lopamudra
CM
486.
492.
Who invented the steam engine?

(a) Nicolas Joseph Cugnot
(c) Gottlieb Daimler
(d) Karl Benz
I. With the start of the nineteenth century,
demand for Indian the Indian woven cloth
increased enormously in Europe, Africa
and America
II. The charkha was put on the flag of the
Indian National Congress in 1931.
495.
The Lichchhavis group was a part of which of

the following mahajanapadas?
(a) Malla
(b) Vajji
(c) Panchala
(d) Kashi
496.
What was the real name of Lord Mahavira?

(a) Satyakama
(b) Shankara
(c) Vardhamana
(d) Paramananda
497.
Who wrote the book The Spirit of the Laws?

(a) Aristotle
(b) Montesquieu
(c) Rousseau
(d) John Locke
498.
Who wrote the book Two Treatises of

Government?
(a) Rousseau
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) Pierre Joseph Proudhon
(d) John Locke
499.
Which of the following were the first to come

to Kerala?
(a) Portuguese traders
(b) Jewish and Arab traders
(c) Duth traders
(d) English traders
500.
Which of the following Apostles of Jesus

Christ is believed to bring Christianity to India?
(a) St. Andrew
(b) St. John
(c) St. Mathew
(d) St. Thomas

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
491.
The first cotton mill in India was set up in

(a) Madras
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Bombay
Page 39
AT
485. Consider the following statements

I. India became worlds largest producer of
cotton after the British conquered Bengal
in 1757.
II. Muslin was a name given by the
Europeans to finely woven textiles.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
501.
502.
The blue-black colour of boiled rice water, when

mixed with a few drops of dilute iodine
solution, is due to the presence of
(a) Proteins
(b) Starch
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Iron
Which vitamin is prepared by our body in the
presence of sunlight?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B-complex
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Poor vision can be due to the deficiency of
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Iodine
(d) Iron
504.
Which of the following is a product of

photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxyide
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Water
505.
Scurvy is a disease caused due to the

deficiency of
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Calcium
510.
Which of the following is parasitic?

(a) Angelica
(b) Cuscuta
(c) Verbena
(d) Thyme
511.
Oxalic acid is found in which of the following?

(a) Amla
(b) Tamarind
(c) Lemon
(d) Spinach
512.
Which acid does an ant injects into the skin,

when it bites?
(a) Ascorbic Acid (b) Tartaric Acid
(c) Formic Adic
(d) Hydrochloric Acid
CM
503.
509.
AT
Science
513.

I. Plants consume oxygen for respiration.
II. Plants need sunlight for respiration
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
506.
How does Rhizobium helps legumes?

(a) It helps in getting starch
(b) It helps in extracting energy from sunlight
(c) It helps in getting nitrogen
(d) It helps in absorbing water through the
roots
507.
Which of the following is a ruminant?

(a) Rat
(b) Monkey
(c) Eagle
(d) Cow
508.
Lohi, Rampur Bushair, Nali and Bakharwal

are breeds of
(a) Goat
(b) Sheep
(c) Fish
(d) Cow

I. A green pigment in plant leaves called
chlorophyll helps to capture the energy of
the sunlight.
II. Plants obtain nitrogen, to make proteins,
from air through leaves.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
514.

I. When the soil is too acidic, organic matter
is added to it to neutralise it.
II. A turmeric stain turns red when treated
with a base.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
515.

I. Respiration is an endothermic reaction.
II. Formation of water from hydrogen and
oxygen is a decomposition reaction.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 40
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following has the lowest melting

point?
(a) Thallium
(b) Sodium
(c) Caesium
(d) Germanium
517.
Which of the following has an allotrope which

is the hardest known natural substance?
(a) Carbon
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Tin
(d) Iron
525.

I. Algae are green in colour because of
chlorophyll present in them.
II. Every plant has chlorophyll in its leaves.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
526.

I. Pitcher plant is a homotroph.
II. Protein is one of the products of
photosynthesis in plants.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
AT
516.
Which is the most ductile metal?

(a) Copper
(b) Gold
(c) Aluminium
(d) Tin
519.
Which of the following metals is kept in

kerosine oil to prevent them from burning at
room temperature?
(a) Barium
(b) Indium
(c) Potassium
(d) Bismuth
CM
518.
520.
Which of the following metals is most

reactive?
(a) Zinc
(b) Calcium
(c) Iron
(d) Copper
521.
Which of the following metals is found in Free

State?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Calcium
(d) Copper
522.

I. 22 carat gold is an alloy.
II. 24 carat gold is very hard.
527.
Villi are finger like outgrowths in

(a) Oesophagus
(b) Pancreas
(c) Small intestine (d) Gall bladder
528.
What is deposited on iron during the process

of galvanisation ?
(a) Zinc
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Tin
529.
Lion-tailed macaque is naturally found in

which of the following states?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
530.
Which of the following destroys ozone?

(a) Carbon
(b) Chlorine
(c) Silicon
(d) Sulphur
531.
Which of the following gases reduces the

oxygen carrying capacity of the blood?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Nitric oxide
532.
What is marble cancer?

(a) cancer caused to human beings working
in marble mines
(b) soil degradation due to marble mining
(c) degradation of marble surface by CFCs
(d) degradation of marble surface by acid rain
533.
Which is the brightest visible star in the sky?

(a) Sirius
(b) Polaris
(c) Alpha Centauri (d) Alpha Orionis

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
523.
Amalgam is an alloy that contains

(a) Zinc
(b) Mercury
(c) Tin
(d) Copper
524.
Solder is an alloy of
(a) Tin and Copper
(b) Zinc and Lead
(c) Zinc and Copper
(d) Tin and Lead
Page 41
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following planets is often called

a morning star or an evening star?
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
535.
The property of catenation is predominant in

(a) carbon
(b) sulphur
(c) silicon
(d) nitrogen
Terylene is a form of
(a) Nylon
(b) Acrylic
(c) Rayon
(d) Polyester
537.

I. Melamine is an example of
thermoplastics.
II. Melamine catches fire very easily.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Red Data Book is a book which keeps a record

of
(a) earthquakes
(b) cyclones
(c) endangered species
(d) nuclear reactors
544.

I. The cells having nuclear material without
nuclear membrane are known as
eukaryotic cells.
II. Blue green algae are prokaryotic
organisms.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
536.
543.
AT
534.
538.
Which of the following is sonorous?

(a) Sulphur
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Gallium
(d) Silicon
539.
The green coating on a copper vessel when it

is exposed to moist air is a mixture of
(a) Copper oxide and copper carbonate
(b) Copper hydroxide and copper carbonate
(c) Copper hydroxide and copper nitrate
(d) Copper oxide and copper sulphate
545.
Which of the following does not exhibit

external fertilization?
(a) Frog
(b) Starfish
(c) Catfish
(d) Sea Urchin
546.

I. Crocodile is an oviparous animal.
II. Snakes exhibit binary fission reproduction.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
547.

I. The pair of sex chromosomes in a boy is
XY
II. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in the
nuclei of human body cells.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
540.
Which of the following is the least dense

planet in the solar system?
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Jupiter
541.
Which of the following elements is a

metalloid?
(a) Bismuth
(b) Silicon
(c) Tin
(d) Phosphorus
548.
Which gland controls the functioning of other

endocrine glands?
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Adrenal gland
(c) Pineal gland
(d) Pancreas
542.

I. Metal oxides are acidic in nature.
II. Naphthalene is an inorganic compound.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
549.
Goitre is a disease of the

(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Thyroid gland (d) Adrenal gland
550.
Metamorphosis in frogs is controlled by

(a) adrenalin
(b) thyroxin
(c) insulin
(d) melatonin
Page 42
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
553.
554.
555.
(c) Nucleus of an atom consists of proton and

neutrons.
(d) While revolving in discrete orbits the
electrons do not radiate energy.
558.
Calcium and X are isobars. What is X?

(a) Argon
(b) Chlorine
(c) Potassium
(d) Titanium
559.
Which of the following is a covalent

compound?
(b) HCl
(a) MgCl
2
(d) KCl
(c) CCl4
560.
Which gas, in its solid state, is known as dry

ice?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen
Buckminsterfullerene is an allotrope of
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Carbon
(c) Boron
(d) Iron
561.
Which of the following is an aldehyde?

(a) Propanol
(b) Propanone
(c) Propanal
(d) Propanol
Molecular mass of sulphurous acid is

(a) 82
(b) 98
(c) 96
(d) 84
562.
Methyl propane is an isomer of

(a) n-propane
(b) n-butane
(c) n-pentane
(d) n-hexane
563.
Which of the following has a sweet fruity

odour?
(a) Methyl acetate
(b) Methanol
(c) Methanoic acid
(d) Methyl chloride
564.

I. Micelles are a formation of soap
molecules, surrounding the oily dirt, in
which the ionic ends are in the interior of
the cluster and the hydrophobic tails are
on the surface of the cluster.
II. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of
long chain carboxylic acids.

I. When a solid melts, its temperature
increases during the melting.
II. On increasing the temperature of solids,
potential energy of the particles increases.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
AT
552.

I. An ostrich egg represents a single cell.
II. The nucleus of a plant cell contains its
chlorophyll.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
551.

I. According to Daltons atomic theory, an
atom consists of charged particles called
electrons and protons.
II. The mass of an atom is approximately
equal to the total mass of its protons and
electrons.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
556.
J. J. Thomson received the Nobel Prize in

physics for the discovery of
(a) protons
(b) neutrons
(c) electrons
(d) positrons
557.
According to Rutherfords -particle scattering

experiment results,
(a) Only certain special orbits known as
discrete orbits of electrons, are allowed
inside the atom.
(b) The size of the nucleus is very small as
compared to the size of the atom.
Page 43

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
565.

I. Alcohol is a cleaner fuel than petrol.
II. Carboxylic acids are strong acids.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
566.
Who discovered electromagnetism?

(a) Michael Faraday
(b) Hans Christian Oersted
(c) James Clerk Maxwell
(d) Andre-Marie Ampere
571.
The magnetic field intensity inside a current

carrying solenoid
(a) increases in the direction of the field.
(b) decreases in the direction of the field.
(c) is the same throughout the length.
(d) is maximum at the centre and decreases
as we move towards the ends.
CM

I. A straight current carrying wire produces
a magnetic field in a plane in which the
wire lies.
II. The magnetic field lines of a magnet are
closed curves.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
AT

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
572.
567.

I. The fingers wrap in the direction of the
magnetic field produced by a current
carrying wire when you hold the wire in
your right hand.
II. The desity of magnetic field lines outside
a magnet is highest near the poles.
568.
You are standing below a horizontal power

line. Current is flowing in the line in north to
south direction. What would be the direction
of the magnetic field just above you?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
569.

I. Magnetic field lines through a conventional
compass, placed in a magnetic field, are
opposite to the needle direction.
II. A few magnetic field lines of a magnet,
near the poles, cross each other.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
570.
573.

I. The right-hand thumb rule which gives the
direction of the magnetic field due to a
current carrying wire is also known as
Flemings right-hand rule.
II. If you break a bar magnet in the middle,
there will be no magnetic field left as the
two poles are separated.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
574. The direction of force acting on a current carrying

conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field
depends on
(a) the direction of the current only.
(b) the direction of the magnetic field only.
(c) the direction of the current and the
direction of the magnetic field.
(d) the geometry of the conductor.
The corkscrew rule is also known as

(a) Right-hand thumb rule
(b) Flemings right-hand rule
(c) Flemings left-hand rule
(d) Faradays right-hand rule
Page 44
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
578.

I. Stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle
finger of your right hand such that they
are mutually perpendicular. According to
Flemings right-hand rule, if the forefinger
points in the direction of the magnetic field
and the thumb shows the direction of the
motion of the conductor, then the middle
finger will show the direction of the current
induced.
II. Split-ring type commutator is used in AC
generators.
AT
Stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger

of your left hand such that they are mutually
perpendicular. According to Flemings lefthand rule
(a) if the middle finger points in the direction
of the magnetic field and the forefinger in
the direction of the current, then the thumb
will point in the direction of the force acting
on the conductor.
(b) if the forefinger points in the direction of
the current and the middle finger in the
direction of the magnetic field, then the
thumb will point in the direction of the force
acting on the conductor.
(c) if the thumb points in the direction of the
magnetic field and the middle finger in the
direction of the current, then the forefinger
will point in the direction of the force acting
on the conductor.
(d) if the forefinger points in the direction of
the magnetic field and the middle finger
in the direction of the current, then the
thumb will point in the direction of the force
acting on the conductor.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
575.
576.
577.
If a uniform magnetic field is switched on in a

direction perpendicular to the motion of an
electron moving with a constant speed, then
the electron will
(a) deflect towards the direction of the field
and finally move parallel to the field.
(b) start moving in a circle in a plane
perpendicular to the field.
(c) will accelerate in a straight line in the
direction of its motion
(d) will decelerate in a straight line in the
direction of its motion
Who discovered electromagnetic induction?
(a) James Clerk Maxwell
(b) Michael Faraday
(c) John Ambrose Fleming
(d) Andre Marie Ampere
Page 45
579.
A wire with a square cross section of side 2X,

resistivity 4X and length 8X has resistance
(a) 1
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 16
580.
Olfactory indicators show change in

(a) color
(b) smell
(c) physical state
(d) Both color and physical state
581.
Alkali metals react with carboxylic acids to

give out
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Water
582.
Baking powder is made by mixing sodium

bicarbonate with a
(a) mild acid
(b) mild base
(c) neutral salt
583.
In a neutralisation reaction, an acid and a

base react to give out salt and
(a) water
(b) hydrogen
(c) carbon dioxide (d) oxygen
584.
The pH value of pure water is

(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 14
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
585.

I. The process of dissolving a base in water
is an endothermic process.
II. Hydrogen ions cannot alone.
591.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
587.
Tooth enamel is made of

(a) Calcium phosphate
(b) Calcium silicate
(c) Calcium carbonate
(d) Calcium sulphate
588.
Tomato contains
(a) acetic acid
(b) lactic acid
(c) methanoic acid
(d) oxalic acid
589.
The three products formed when electricity is

passed through brine
(a) magnesium hydroxide, chlorine and
hydrogen
(b) sodium hydroxide, chlorine and hydrogen
(c) magnesium hydroxide, carbon dioxide
and water
(d) sodium hydroxide, carbon dioxide and
water
CM
The stinging hair of nettle leaves secret

(a) hydrochloric acid
(b) tartaric acid
(c) methanoic acid
(d) ethanoic acid

I. A solution with pH value 8 has more
hydronium ions than a solution with pH
value 12.
II. Our stomach produces hydrochloric acid.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 46
What is produced by the action of chlorine

on dry slaked lime?
(a) Bleaching powder
(b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda
(d) Calcium chloride
AT
592.
586.
590.

I. Salts of strong acids are always acidic.
II. Milk of magnesia is an antacid.
593.
Which of the following gases turn lime water

milky?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Oxygen
594.

I. Sodium bicarbonate with a mild edible acid
makes bread or cake soft and spongy.
II. Sodium chloride (common salt) is basic
in nature.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
595.

I. Gypsum has five water molecules as
water of crystallisation.
II. Washing soda has ten molecules of water
as water of crystallisation.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
596.
Which of the following is not a use of sodium

bicarbonate?
(a) It is an ingredient in antacids.
(b) It is used in soda acid fire extinguishers.
(c) It is used in making baking powder.
(d) It is used for bleaching clothes.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following does not have water of

crystallisation?
(a) Gypsum
(b) Plaster of Paris
(c) Washing soda (d) Baking soda
598.
Which of the following is acidic in nature?

(a) Toothpaste
(b) Blood
(c) Tomato
(d) Common salt
What is the colour of the solution when dilute
hydrochloric acid is added to copper oxide?
(a) blue-green
(b) white
(c) Brown-black
(d) red-yellow
600.
Which of the following is the best conductor

Of heat?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Silver
(c) Zinc
(d) Gold
601.
602.

I. Onion and vanilla are olfactory indicators.
II. Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide to
displace sodium metal and form zinc
hydroxide.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
I. Metal hydrogencarbonate + Acid Salt
+ Carbon dioxide + Water.
This reaction describes the action of
bleaching powder.
II. Anhydrous copper sulphate is blue in
colour.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
603.

I. Potassium does not react with cold water.
II. Potassium catches fire if kept in the open.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
605.
Which of the following metal oxides is odd

one out when we talk about their chemical
nature?
(a) Calcium oxide (b) Aluminium oxide
(c) Sodium oxide (d) Magnesium oxide
606.

I. Non-metallic oxides are basic in nature.
II. Copper is more malleable than silver.
CM
599.
604.
AT
597.
Which of the following is odd one out as we

talk about the melting points of metals?
(a) Palladium
(b) Platinum
(c) Caesium
(d) Nickel
Page 47

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
607.
The ascending order of reactivity of metals is

(a) Al < Zn < Fe < Mg
(b) Zn < Mg < Fe < Al
(c) Fe < Zn < Al < Mg
(d) Mg < Zn < Fe < Al
608.

talk about thermal conductivity of metals?
(a) Lead
(b) Tungsten
(c) Aluminium
(d) Gold
609.

I. Anodising is a process of depositing a
thick layer of zinc on metal surface to
prevent corrosion.
II. Magnesium reacts with cold water to form
magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen
.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
610.
Which of the following metallic properties is

shown by Iodine?
(a) Sonorous
(b) Lustrous
(c) Malleable
(d) Ductile
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following will be displaced by

the other three in its salt solution?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Iron
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc
612.

I. Reaction of sodium with oxygen is an
exothermic process.
II. Magnesium does not react with cold water
but reacts with hot water to give
magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen. This
is an exothermic process.
617.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
618.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
614.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
The metals used other than iron for making

stainless steel are
(a) Aluminium and Chromium
(b) Zinc and Silver
(c) Copper and Nickel
(d) Chromium and Nickel
619.
616.

talk about solubility of these metal oxides?
(a) Aluminium oxide
(b) Potassium oxide
(c) Calcium oxide
(d) Sodium oxide
Which of the following is not a property of
ionic compounds?
(a) High melting point
(b) Strong inter-ionic bonding
(c) Brittle
(d) High electrical conductivity in solid stat
Page 48

A : Pure iron is mixed with a small amount of
carbon.
R : Pure iron corrodes in moist air.

I. Hydrogen gas is evolved when a silver
reacts with nitric acid.
II. Calcium is less reactive than aluminium.

reason for A
right reason for A

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
615.

I. Sodium chloride does not exist as
molecules.
II. Ionic compounds are generally present in
liquid state.
CM
613.

I. Zinc oxide is amphoteric.
II. Copper (II) oxide is black in colour.
AT
611.
620.

A : Stainless steel has higher electrical
conductivity than iron.
R : Stainless steel is an alloy of iron.
reason for A
right reason for A
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
621.

I. Higher the humidity, higher is the rate of
evaporation.
II. Ammonium chloride undergoes
sublimation on heating
625.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
AT

reason for A
right reason for A

A : Temperature of a substance does not
change when it is melting.
R : Particles of a substance gain kinetic
energy while melting or evaporating.
CM
622.

A : When zinc granules are immersed in a
test tube filled with dilute sulphuric acid,
hydrogen is released.
R : Zinc is above hydrogen in the activity
series.
626.

reason for A
right reason for A
623.
Which of the following reactions is used in

photography?

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
627.
Who showed that the atomic number of an

element is a more fundamental property than
its atomic mass?
(a) Ernest Rutherford
(b) Henry Moseley
(c) Amedeo Avogadro
(d) John Newlands
628.
Which of the following elements is a

lanthanide?
(a) Cerium
(b) Actinium
(c) Polonium
(d) Francium
629.
Who among the following gave the Law of

Octaves?
(a) John Newlands
(b) Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner
(c) Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev
(d) Antoine-Laurent de Lavoisier
630.
In his periodic table, Mendeleev could not

assign a correct position to
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon
Sunlight
2Ag(s) + Cl2 (g)
(a) 2AgCl(s)
Heat
(b) 2Pb(NO3 )2 (s)
2PbO(s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
Heat
CaO(s) + CO2 (g )
(c) CaCO3 (s)
(d) Mg + O2
624.
MgO
Iron nail when immersed in copper sulphate

solution turns brownish. This is a
(a) decomposition reaction
(b) combination reaction
(c) displacement reaction
(d) double displacement reaction
Page 49

I. Calcium bicarbonate is soluble in water.
II. Limestone and chalk are different forms
of calcium bicarbonate.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
631.
Which of the following elements is an

actinide?
(a) Ytterbium
(b) Lutetium
(c) Erbium
(d) Curium
632.
634.
639.
In the modern periodic table, which of the

following elements does not belong to the
group to which the other three belong?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Gallium
(c) Thallium
(d) Cadmium
Which of the following elements has

maximum metallic character?
(a) Germanium
(b) Arsenic
(c) Gallium
(d) Selenium
640.
X exhibits catenation and is the basic

ingredient of organic compounds. Xs
electronic configuration is
(a) 2,4
(b) 2,6
(c) 2,8,3
(d) 2,8,4

I. Helium and Neon were the only noble
gases found place in Mendeleevs periodic
table as the others were not discovered
as that time.
II. Only 63 elements were known at the time
when Mendeleev prepared his periodic
table of elements.
AT
In nature, according to John Newlands, there

existed only
(a) 48 elements
(b) 56 elements
(c) 64 elements
(d) 72 elements
In the modern periodic table, which of the

following elements does not belong to the
period to which the other three belong?
(a) Cadmium
(b) Germanium
(c) Indium
(d) Antimony
CM
633.
638.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
635.
The element with the electronic configuration

2,8,3 belongs to
(a) Group 2
(b) Group 3
(c) Group 8
(d) Group 13
636.
As we move from left to right in a period in the

modern periodic table, the electropositive
character
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first decreases then increases
(d) first increases then decreases
637.
The periodic law which states that the

properties of elements are the periodic
function of their atomic masses was given
by
(a) Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner
(b) Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev
(c) Lothar Meyer
(d) Henry Cavendish
Page 50
641.
As we move down the group in the modern

periodic table, the electropositive character
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first decreases then increases
(d) first increases then decreases
642.
Which of the following adjacent elements in

the periodic table are unusually not placed in
the order of increasing atomic masses?
(a) Aluminium, Silicon
(b) Titanium, Vanadium
(c) Gallium, Germanium
(d) Cobalt, Nickel
643.
As we move down the group of the periodic

table, which of the following decreases?
(a) electronegativity
(b) valence electrons
(c) atomic size
(d) metallic character
644. Eka-Aluminium, an undiscovered element

predicted by Mendeleev, is
(a) Gallium
(b) Germanium
(c) Silicon
(d) Phosphorus
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

I. In moving from left to right along a period
in the periodic table of elements, the
atomic radius decreases.
II. The atomic radius of Chromium atom is
less than the atomic radium of Copper
atom.
651.
Which of the following is the correct

descending order in terms of atomic radii?
(a) Sodium > Potassium > Rubidium >
Caesium
(b) Sodium > Potassium > Caesium >
Rubidium
(c) Caesium > Potassium > Rubidium >
Sodium
(d) Caesium > Rubidium > Potassium >
Sodium
652.
As we move from left to right in a period in the

modern periodic table, capability of the
elements to form ionic compounds
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases then decreases
(d) first decreases then increases

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Which of the following is a Dobereiner Triad?
(a) Nitrogen, Potassium and Arsenic
(b) Calcium, Strontium and Barium
(c) Silicon, Germanium and Tin
(d) Copper, Silver and Gold
647.

I. Animal fats generally contain saturated
fatty acid.
II. Alkaline potassium permanganate is a
strong reducing agent.
CM
646.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
648.
AT
645.
Which of the following is the correct

descending order in terms of atomic radii?
(a) Oxygen < Nitrogen < Boron < Beryllium
(b) Nitrogen < Oxygen < Boron < Beryllium
(c) Beryllium < Boron < Oxygen < Nitrogen
(d) Beryllium < Boron < Nitrogen < Oxygen
649.
Which of the following has maximum metallic

character?
(a) Silicon
(b) Tin
(c) Lead
(d) Germanium
650.
Which of the following is least chemically

reactive?
(a) Argon
(b) Sulphur
(c) Silicon
(d) Phosphorus
Page 51
653.
Which of the following elements would gain

an electron easily?
(a) Calcium
(b) Chromium
(c) Cobalt
(d) Chlorine
654.
If the current through a resistor is decreased

by 50%, what happens to the power
dissipated through the resistor?
(a) decreases by 25%
(b) decreases by 75%
(c) decreases by 50%
(d) increases by 50%
655.
In the Ohms law, V=IR,

(a) R is constant for given metallic wire at a
given temperature
(b) R is constant for all the metallic wire at a
given temperature
(c) R is constant for given metallic wire at all
the temperature
(d) R is variable for given metallic wire at a
given temperature
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
658.
Which of the following is the unit of Magnetic

field strength (H field) ?
(a) Tesla
(b) Weber
(c) Oersted
(d) Gauss
661.
Which of the following material is almost

extensively used for the filament of the electric
bulb?
(a) Copper
(b) Tungsten
(c) Nichrome
(d) Aluminium
662.
Which of the following material has least

electrical resistivity at 20C ?
(a) Diamond
(b) Constantan
(c) Chromium
(d) Ebonite
663.
Three bulbs of equal resistance are connected

in parallel and connected with a battery. If
one of the bulb along with its branch is
removed keeping rest of the circuit same,
then:
(a) Current flowing through the battery
remains unchanged
(b) Current flowing through the battery
increases
(c) Current flowing through the battery
decreases
(d) No current will flow now
AT
657.
Which of the following is true regarding a fuse?

(a) A fuse has low melting point
(b) A fuse is connected in parallel with the
device
(c) A fuse wire is usually encased in a
cartridge of porcelain
(d) If a current of 6 A flows through the circuit,
then fuse of value 5.5 A or less should be
used
CM
656.
Which of the following is correct :

(a) According to ohms law, current through
resistor is directly proportional to its
resistance
(b) The voltmeter is always connected in
series across the points between which
the potential difference is to be measured
(c) Resistance of any wire depends on the
type of material, area of cross-section and
not its length
(d) The ammeter reading is increased when
a thicker wire of the same material and of
the same length is used in the circuit
659.
If an electric bulb and electric heater are to

be connected by a single circuit, which should
be preferred?
(a) Series Circuit
(b) Parallel Circuit
(c) Both the circuit is preferable
(d) Series circuit with high voltage battery
connected to it
660.
Joules law of heating does not imply that

heat produced in a resistor is directly
proportional to the
(a) current for a given resistance
(b) time for which the current flows through
the resistor
(c) resistance for a given current
(d) square of current for a given resistance
Page 52
664.
On applying ohms law to parallel combination

of resistors, which of the following is true?
(a) The reciprocal of the equivalent resistance
of a group of resistances joined in parallel
is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of
the individual resistances
(b) The reciprocal of the equivalent resistance
is equal to the sum of the individual
resistances
(c) The equivalent resistance of a group of
resistances joined in parallel is equal to
the sum of the reciprocals of the individual
resistances
(d) The reciprocal of the equivalent resistance
is equal to the product of the reciprocals
of the individual resistances
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
The SI unit of the universal gravitational

constant G is
(b) N m / kg
(a) N m2 / kg2
(c) N kg / m
(d) N kg2 / m2
666.
The acceleration due to gravity on the moon

is approximately
(b) 3.3 m/s2
(a) 4.9 m/s2
2
(c) 2.4 m/s
(d) 1.6 m/s2
Where does most of the refraction for the light

rays entering the eye occur?
(a) outer surface of the cornea
(b) Vitreous humour
(c) Iris
(d) Crystalline lens
674.
The image of a distant object, in a myopic

eye, is formed
(a) at a point in front of the retina
(b) at a point behind the retina
(c) at a point on the retina
(d) at a point no image is formed at all
In a human eye, light enters through the

(a) Cornea
(b) Pupil
(c) Iris
(d) Retina
668.
In a human eye, the size of the pupil is

controlled by
(a) Aqueous humour
(b) Vitreous humour
(c) Retina
(d) Iris
675.
In the spectrum of white light, the band

between the blue band and the yellow band
is
(a) red
(b) orange
(c) brown
(d) green
669.
The amount of light entering an eye is regulated

by the
(a) Retina
(b) Optic nerve
(c) Pupil
(d) Cornea
676.

I. In the spectrum of white light by a glass
prism, the violet band is closest to the
normal to the prism surface.
II. When a light ray travels from a medium
with high refractive index to a medium with
low refractive index, the refracted ray
bends towards the normal to the intersurface.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
670.
Which of the following, in an eye, has lightsensitive cells?

(a) Retina
(b) Iris
(c) Ciliary muscles (d) Cornea
671.

I. When ciliary muscles of the eye are
relaxed, focal length of the eye lens
increases.
II. When the light is very bright, the iris
contracts the pupil.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
677.
Who first explained the spectrum of light?

(a) Albert Einstein (b) Isaac Newton
(c) Galileo Galilei (d) Neils Bohr
678.
Which of the following phenomena is not

involved in forming a rainbow?
(a) Total Internal Reflection
(b) Dispersion of light
(c) Scattering of light
(d) Refraction of light
CM
667.
672.
673.
AT
665.
Near point of a healthy human eye is about

(a) 2 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 400 cm
Page 53
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
681.
682.
683.
684.
The twinkling of a star is due to

(a) refraction of light
(b) reflection of light
(c) scattering of light
(d) dispersion of light

I. A rainbow is always formed in a direction
opposite to that of the Sun.
II. Hot air has a refractive index more than
that of a cooler air.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
The Tyndall effect is due to the
(a) refraction of light.
(b) reflection of light.
(c) scattering of light.
(d) dispersion of light.
The relationship between the radius of
curvature R, and focal length f, of a spherical
mirror is
(a) R = f
(b) R = 2f
(c) R = 3f
(d) 2R = f
The image of a distant object, in a
hypermetropic eye, is formed
(a) at a point in front of the retina
(b) at a point behind the retina
(c) at a point on the retina
(d) at a point no image is formed at all
Page 54
685.
Image of an object placed at the centre of

curvature of a concave mirror is formed
(a) at infinity
(b) at the centre of curvature
(c) between the principal focus and the centre
of curvature
(d) at the principal focus
686.
The sky appears blue due to the

(a) scattering of light
(b) reflection of light
(c) refraction of light
(d) dispersion of light
687.
Image of an object placed far away from a

concave mirror is formed
(a) between the pole and the principal focus
of curvature
688.
The reddish appearance of the Sun at the

sunrise or the sunset is due to the
(a) scattering of light
(b) reflection of light light from the earth
(c) refraction of
(d) total internal reflection of light
689.
Image of an object placed at the principal focus

of a convex mirror is formed
(a) between the pole and the principal focus
of curvature
690.
For the object distance u, the image distance

v and the focal length f, the mirror formula is
(a) v + u = f
(b) 1/v + 1/u = 1/f
(c) vu = f2
(d) v u = f
AT
680.

A : The hypermetropic effect in an eye can
be corrected by using concave lenses.
R : A concave lens extends the point at which
light rays focus.
reason for A
right reason for A
CM
679.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
If i is the angle of incidence and r is the

angle of refraction, the according to the laws
of refraction
(a) sin i / cos r = constant
(b) cos i / sin r = constant
(c) sin i / sin r = constant
(d) cos i / cos r = constant
pH value of X is 14. X is
(a) weak acid
(b) strong acid
(c) weak base
(d) strong base
693.
When electricity is passed through an

aqueous solution of sodium chloride,
(a) Chlorine gas is formed at the anode
(b) Sodium Hydroxide is formed near anode
(c) Hydrogen is formed at the anode
(d) oxygen gas is formed at anode
694.

I. An acidic solution turns red litmus paper
blue.
II. When an acid reacts with a metal
carbonate, one of the products formed is
hydrogen gas.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
695.
696.
If the mass of a body is increased by 50%

and its velocity is increased by 100%, its
kinetic energy increases by
(a) 100%
(b) 300%
(c) 500%
(d) 750%
698.
A body of mass 10 kg is thrown upwards from

the ground with an initial speed 100 m/s. What
is the potential energy possessed by the body
after 2 seconds? (Assume g = 10m/s2)
(a) 8kJ
(b) 18kJ
(c) 28kJ
(d) 38kJ
699.
A body is thrown vertically upwards from the

ground with a velocity V. If air resistance is
neglected, then the velocity of the body when
it returns to the ground is
(a) equal to V
(b) less than V
(c) depends on mass of the body
CM
692.
697.
AT
691.
700.
A body is travelling in a straight line with a

constant acceleration. When it reaches point
P its velocity is 50 m/s and when it reaches
point Q it is travelling with velocity 70 m/s.
What was the approximate velocity of the body
when it was midway between P and Q?
(a) 54m/s
(b) 57m/s
(c) 61m/s
(d) 64m/s
I.
Acceleration due to gravity is greater at

the equator than at the poles.
II. When a body is immersed fully or partially
in a fluid, it experiences an upward force
that is equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by it.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
701.
In an inelastic collision
(a) momentum and kinetic energy are
conserved
(b) momentum is conserved but kinetic
energy is not conserved
(c) momentum is not conserved but kinetic
energy is conserved
(d) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is
conserved
If the distance between two bodies is

increased by 100% and mass of one of the
bodies is increased by 100%, then the
gravitational force between the two bodies will
(a) remain the same
(b) decrease by 50%
(c) decrease by 100%
(d) increase by 50%
702.
A body of mass m moving with a speed v

collides with another body of mass 2m moving
with speed 2v in opposite direction. After the
collision, both the bodies stick together. The
speed of the combined mass after the
collision is
(a) v
(b) 2v
(c) 3v
(d) 4v
Page 55
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following organisms causes

kala-azar?
(a) Staphylococci (b) Trypanosoma
(c) Leishmania
(d) Giardia intestinalis
710.
A jet plane is travelling at temperature 20C.

It will produce sonic boom at a speed of
(a) 370m/s
(b) 410m/s
(c) 520m/s
(d) all of the above
704.

I. Gustatory receptors are located in the
nose.
II. Information like taste or smell is acquired
at the end of the dendritic tip of a nerve
cell
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
711.
Out of the following media, at room

temperature, the speed of sound is highest
in
(a) Iron
(b) Air
(c) Aluminium
(d) Nickel
712.
The audible range of sound for human beings

is from
(a) 10 Hz to 10 kHz
(b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(c) 10 Hz to 100 Hz
(d) 20 Hz to 200 Hz
CM
705.
Olfactory receptors are located in our

(a) Ears
(b) Nose
(c) Tongue
(d) Eyes
706.
Starting from top level and ending with the

basic unit, the correct sequence is
(a) Order > Class > Family > Genus >
Species
(b) Class > Order > Family > Genus >
Species
(c) Family > Genus > Class > Order >
Species
(d) Genus > Species > Class > Order >
Family
707.
708.
709.
Who discovered the photoelectric effect?

(a) James Clerk Maxwell
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) Heinrich Rudolph Hertz
(d) Paul Villard
I. Sound waves are transverse waves.
II. Sound does not need a medium to travel.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
A sound wave has a frequency 5kHz and a
wavelength 50cm. Distance covered by the
wave in 4 seconds is
(a) 5km
(b) 10km
(c) 15km
(d) 20km
Page 56
AT
703.
713.
SONAR stands for

(a) Sound Navigation and Ranging
(b) Sound Navigation and Reading
(c) Sound in Ocean Navigation and Reading
(d) Submarine Ocean Navigation and Ranging
714.
The time interval between transmission and

reception of ultrasound signal sent by a
submarine is 5 seconds. Assuming the speed
of sound as 1500m/s, the object detected by
the sonar is at a distance of
(a) 3.75 km
(b) 7.5 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 15 km
715.

I. A bat uses infrasonic waves to track its
prey.
II. A three year old child can hear sounds of
frequencies more than 20kHz.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
716.
In the inner ear, the pressure variations are

turned into electrical signals by the
(a) pinna
(b) anvil
(c) stirrup
(d) cochlea
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following animals can produce

ultrasonic waves?
(a) Rhinoceros
(b) Dolphin
(c) Elephant
(d) Whales
718.

I. Earthquake produces infrasonic waves.
II. Rats can produce ultrasonic waves.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Which of the following regions is also known
as the region of megadiversity?
(a) Region between the tropic of Cancer and
the tropic of Capricorn
(b) Region between the tropic of Cancer and
the Arctic Circle
(c) Region between the Antarctic Circle and
the tropic of Capricorn
(d) Region between the Arctic Circle and the
North Pole.
Ferns belong to
(a) Thallophyta
(b) Angiosperms
(c) Bryophyta
(d) Pteridophyta
725.
Hydra belong to the

(a) Porifera
(b) Platyhelminthes
(c) Coelenterata
(d) Annelida
726.

I. Amoeba belongs to the kingdom Monera.
II. Paramecium belongs to the kingdom
Protista.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
719.
724.
AT
717.
720.
721.
722.
723.
The Origin of Species was written by

(a) William Paley
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Erasmus Darwin
(d) Charles Darwin
The five kingdom concept of classification of
organisms was given by
(a) Ernst Haeckel
(b) Carl Woese
(c) Robert Whittaker
(d) Charles Darwin
Which of the following are also called the
amphibians of the plant kingdom?
(a) Pteridophytes (b) Angiosperms
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Thallophytes
Which of the following are called
cryptogamae?
(a) Thallophytes
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Bryophytes
(d) all of the above
Page 57
727.
The worms causing elephantiasis belong to

(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Annelida
(c) Coelenterata
(d) Nematoda
728.
Who wrote the book Systema Naturae?

(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Ernst Haeckel
(d) Robert Whittaker
729.
Who introduced the system of scientific

nomenclature of organisms?
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Ernst Haeckel
(d) Carl Woese
730.

I. Vertebrates are not triploblastic.
II. Vertebrates are coelomic.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following is not a thallophyte?

(a) Syirogyra
(b) Ulothrix
(c) Marchantia
(d) Cladophora
732.
Plants that do not have well-differentiated body

design are called
(a) Thallophytes
(b) Bryophytes
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms
A concave lens forms an image 10 cm away
from the it of an object kept 30 cm away from
it. What is the power of the lens?
(a) 3D
(b) 3.33D
(c) 6.66D
(d) 9D
734.
Who discovered the electrolysis of water?

(a) William Nicholson
(b) Michael Faraday
(c) Jan Rudolf Deiman
(d) Alessandro Volta
735.
Ethanol when treated with hot concentrated

sulphuric acid gives
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethye
(d) Ethanoic acid
736.
A concave lens has a focal length of 15 cm

and an object is kept 30 cm away from it.
Magnification produced by the lens is
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.33
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.66
737.
Which of the following can be cut with knife?

(a) Alkali metals
(b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Transition metals
(d) Metalloids
738.
Diamond is an allotrope of
(a) Sulphur
(b) Carbon
(c) Phosphorus
(d) none
739.
Which of the following elements has the

lowest melting point?
(a) Gallium
(b) Sulphur
(c) Silicon
(d) Aluminium
Page 58
When copper is heated in air, it combines

with oxygen to form
(b) CuO3
(a) CuO2
(c) Cu2O
(d) CuO
741.
Aqua regia is a freshly prepared mixture of

(a) concentrated sodium hydroxide and
concentrated nitric acid
(b) concentrated hydrochloric acid and
concentrated nitric acid
(c) concentrated hydrochloric acid and
concentrated sulphuric acid
(d) concentrated potassium hydroxide and
concentrated sulphuric acid
CM
733.
740.
AT
731.
742.
Which of the following lies above hydrogen

but below Iron in the activity series of metals?
(a) Lead
(b) Zinc
(c) Copper
(d) Silver
743.
X can acquire a stable noble gas configuration

by gaining K number of electrons or by losing
K number of electrons. What is X? (K is a
constant)
(a) Carbon
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Aluminium
744.
Propanal is
(a) an alcohol
(c) an aldehyde
(b) an ester
(d) a ketone
745.
Which of the following has the smallest

atomic radius?
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Caesium
(d) Rubidium
746.
Which of the following elements has the

highest chemical reactivity?
(a) Argon
(b) Helium
(c) Neon
(d) Carbon
747.
Tuberculosis is a
(a) viral disease
(b) bacterial disease
(c) protozoan disease
(d) fungal disease
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
748.
Vinegar is
(a) formic acid
(c) tartaric acid
757.
Typhoid is caused by
(a) fungi
(b) virus
(c) bacteria
(d) protozoa
(b) acetic acid

(d) citric acid
Fermentation is conversion of
(a) sugar into acid
(b) acid into sugar
(c) alcohol into sugar
(d) sugar into alcohol
758.
Which of the following helps in nitrogen fixation

in soil?
(a) bacteria
(b) virus
(c) protozoa
(d) fungi
750.
Who discovered the vaccine for small-pox?

(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Alexander Fleming
(c) Edward Jenner
(d) Robert Koch
759.
Rust of wheat is caused by

(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) protozoa
(d) virus
760.

I. Bakelite is a thermoplastic.
II. Melamine is a thermosetting plasctic.
752.
Citrus canker is caused by

(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) virus
(d) protozoa
CM
751.

I. Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin.
II. Louis Pasteur discovered fermentation.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
761.

I. Female Aedes mosquito acts as carrier
of malaria parasite.
II. Measles is a viral disease.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
762.

I. Magnesium Oxide is basic in nature.
II. When sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water
sulphurous acid is formed.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
753.
Malaria is a disease caused by

(a) virus
(b) bacteria
(c) fungi
(d) protozoa
754.
Which of the following helps in the formation

of yoghurt from milk?
(a) Lactobacillus (b) Rhizobium
(c) Yersinia pestis (d) Streptococcus
755.
Who discovered the bacterium which causes

anthrax disease?
(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Edward Jenner
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Robert Koch
756.
When a copper vessel is exposed to moist

air for long, it acquires a
(a) green coloured coating
(b) yellow coloured coating
(c) red coloured coating
(d) brown coloured coating
Page 59
AT
749.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
763.
Why phosphorus is stored in water?

(a) to keep it cool
(b) to prevent contact with atmospheric
oxygen
(c) to prevent contact with atmospheric
nitrogen
(d) to prevent it from rusting
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
When copper turnings are put in iron sulphate

solution, the green solution turns
(a) colourless
(b) blue
(c) violet
(d) no change in colour
766.

I. Carbonisation is the process of burning
of coal.
II. Natural gas is not a fossil fuel.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
767.
Bitumen is commonly used in

(a) road surfacing
(b) ointments
(c) aviation fuel
(d) solvent for dry cleaning
768.
769.
770.
771.

I. Cytoplasm is present in animal cells but
not in plant cells.
II. Chromosomes are present in both plant
as well as animal cells.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
773.
The colour of chlorophyll is

(a) yellow
(b) white
(c) green
(d) blue
774.
Which of the following does not exhibit internal

fertilization?
(a) cows
(b) humans
(c) starfish
(d) hens
CM
765.
772.
AT
764. When an iron nail is put in copper sulphate

solution, the blue solution turns
(a) red
(b) colourless
(c) violet
(d) green
775.
Who discovered cells in the living organisms?

(a) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
(b) Matthias Schleiden
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Rudolf Virchow

I. Vacuoles in plant cells are generally
smaller as compared to the vacuaoles
present in human cells.
II. Instead of cell membrane, cell wall is
present in plant cells.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
776.
Pseudopodia means false

(a) feet
(b) blood
(c) bones
(d) hair
Ursa major is also known as the

(a) Great lion
(b) Great bear
(c) Great warrior
(d) Great king
777.

I. Chloroplast is not present in human cell.
II. The plasma membrane of a cell allows
the movement of substances or materials
both inward and outward.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none

I. Human cells, in addition to the plasma
membrane, also have a cell wall.
II. Plastids in the cytoplasm of the leaf cells
are always green.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
778.

I. A human cell is a prokaryotic cell.
II. Protoplasm is the total content of the cell.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
The thread like structures in the nucleus of a

cell are
(a) chromosomes (b) nucleuolus
(c) cytoplasm
(d) plastids
Page 60
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
781.
The animals which give birth to young ones

are called
(a) oviparous
(b) monoparous
(c) bioparous
(d) viviparous
I. The stage of the embryo in which all the
body parts can be identified is called
zygote.
II. In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is external
fertilisation.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
786.
Goitre is caused by lack of

(a) iodine
(b) fluorine
(c) chlorine
(d) iron
787.
Tadpoles cannot become adults if the water

in which they are growing does not contain
sufficient
(a) iodine
(b) fluorine
(c) chlorine
(d) iron
788.
Orion, a constellation, is also known as the

(a) hunter
(b) king
(c) saint
(d) farmer
789.
Goitre is a disease in humans visible

externally as a swelling on the
(a) front of the neck
(b) abdomen
(c) forehead
(d) lower back
790.
When forces of equal magnitude are applied

perpendicular on the centre of the faces
marked as 2 and 5 of a common playing die,
the magnitude of the resultant force is
(a) equal to the applied force
(b) less than the applied force
(c) more than the applied force
(d) zero
791.

I. When a ball is thrown up in the air, the
force due to gravity on it keeps on
changing during its motion.
II. Pressure exerted per unit area is called
force.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
792.

I. The vocal cords in men are smaller than
the vocal cords in women.
II. Sound can travel through vacuum.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
AT
780.

I. Chromosomes can be seen only when the
cell divides.
II. Chromosomes are the basic unit of
inheritance in living organisms.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
779.
782.

I. Hydra reproduces through binary fission.
II. Cow is an oviparous animal.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
783.
Those animals which lay eggs are called

(a) oviparous
(b) viviparous
(c) monoparous
(d) biparous
784.
Which of the following

metamorphosis?
(a) hen
(b) frog
(c) cow
(d) humans
785.

I. Sebaceous glands are sweat glands.
II. Insulin is produced by the pancreas.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 61
exhibit
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

I. Sound travels faster through water than
air.
II. Loudness of sound is proportional to the
amplitude of the vibration producing the
sound.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Lateral inversion is exhibited in
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) dispersion
(d) diffraction
795.

I. Chromium is not corrosion resistant.
II. Chromium has a shiny appearance.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Which of the following helps our body to use

calcium for bones and teeth?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
802.
Beriberi is caused due to the deficiency of

(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
803.
When X is added to an alkaline copper

sulphate solution and caustic soda micture,
the solution turns violet. X is
(a) Fat
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Protein
(d) Iron
CM
794.
801.
AT
793.
796.
Boiling point of water is

(a) 0 Kelvin
(b) 100 Kelvin
(c) 273 Kelvin
(d) 373 Kelvin
797.
Ratio of nitrogen and hydrogen by mass in

ammonia is
(a) 14:1
(b) 14:2
(c) 14:3
(d) 14:4
798.
Which of the following molecules exist as

tetra-atomic in nature?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Chlorine
(d) Helium
799.
A ruminant is an animal which

(a) lays eggs
(b) exhibits external reproduction
(c) swallows and stores the food
(d) lives in burrows
800.
Which of the following contains ascorbic acid?

(a) Lemon
(b) Spinach
(c) Tamarind
(d) Amla
Page 62
804.
Which of the following acids is found in

vinegar?
(a) Acetic Acid
(b) Tartaric Acid
(c) Ascorbic Acid (d) Citric Acid
805.
Rickets is caused due to the deficiency of

(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
806.
Which of the following acids is found in

spinach?
(a) Lactic Acid
(b) Oxalic Acid
(c) Citric Acid
(d) Acetic Acid
807.
Rust is formed of
(a) iron oxide
(b) calcium oxide
(c) sulphur dioxide (d) carbon monoxide
808.

I. Ozone is triatomic.
II. After absorbing ultraviolet radiations,
ozone breaks down to oxygen.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
809.
Anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of

(a) Iron
(b) Iodine
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Calcium
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following diseases is caused by

a virus?
(a) Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(c) Polio
(d) Cholera
811.

I. Cellular respiration cannot take place
without oxygen.
II. The products of respiration in yeast are
alcohol, carbon dioxide and enrgy.
817.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
818.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none

I. Human cells can respire anaerobically.
II. Muscle cramps are caused due to the
accumulation of lactic acid.
819.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
813.

I. Aerobic respiration of yeast is need in
making wine and beer.
II. Weasts are single-celled organisms.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
814.

I. Female Anopheles mosquito acts as
carrier of dengue virus.
II. Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease.
CM
812.

I. Soyabean is a kharif crop.
II. Groundnut is a rabi crop.
AT
810.
Penicillium is a
(a) virus
(c) bacteria
(b) protozoa
(d) fungi
815.
Aspergillosis is caused by
(a) virus
(b) bacteria
(c) fungus
(d) protozoa
816.

I. Kharif crops are grown in winter season.
II. Mustard is a kharif crop.

I. Alexander
Fleming
discovered
fermentation.
II. Alexander Fleming discovered the vaccine
for small pox.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
820.
Curd is made with the help of

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Yeast
(c) Lactobacillus (d) Chlamydomonas
821.

India has the largest number of medical
colleges in the world.
India is the largest producer of medicines in
the world.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) none

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Page 63
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Miscellaneous
822.

I. Buffer stock increases commodity prices
when supplies are short.
II. Decrease in Minimum Support Price
means increase in farmer income.
828.
Which of the following states has the highest

per capita income?
(a) Delhi
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala
(d) Goa
829.

I. Highest contributing sector to the GDP of
India is the secondary sector.
II. Primary sectors contribution to the GDP
of India is almost double the contribution
made by the tertiary sector.
Who wrote the book Two Treatises of

Government?
(a) Rousseau
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) Pierre Joseph Proudhon
(d) John Locke
824.
Which is the first ever known autobiography

of an Indian woman?
(a) City of two gateways
(b) Beyond the jungle
(c) Amar Jiban
(d) My reminiscences
825.

I. National Food for Work Programme was
launched in 1975.
II. Antyodaya is a kind of ration card issued
by the government.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
826.
827.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
CM
823.
AT

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
830.
According to the Constitution of India, who

among the villagers is a member of a Gram
Sabha?
(a) Anyone who is 35 years old or above and
elected by the Gram Panchayat to the
Gram Sabha
(b) Anyone who is 35 years old or above
(c) Anyone who is elected by the Gram
Panchayat to the Gram Sabha
(d) Anyone who has the right to vote
831.
Gram Sevak is a term used for

(a) Gram Panchayat President
(b) Gram Panchayat Secretary
(c) Ward Panch
(d) Gram Sabha member
832.
The FCI pays a pre-announced price to the

farmers for their crops. This price is called
(a) Minimum Control Price
(b) Minimum Stock Price
(c) Minimum Market Price
(d) Minimum Support price
833.
Who is responsible for providing caste

certificate to a person?
(a) Tehsildar
(b) District Collector
(c) Patwari
(d) Municipal chief auditor
Who is the first woman train driver for the

Northern Railways?
(a) Savitribai Phule (b) Toolika Rani
(c) Laxmi Lakra
(d) Shail Mishra
Kesar Saga is
(a) a Tibetan epic
(b) a Bangla epic
(c) Burmese national anthem
(d) a Tamil epic
Page 64
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Which of the following is the first state in India

to introduce the midday meal scheme?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Karnataka
835.
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution is about

(a) Right to religion
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to education
(d) Right to equality
837.
838.
839.
Amartya Sens entitlement approach is

related to
(a) Industrialisation
(b) Economic Depression
(c) Food Security
(d) Investment Banking
Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and set

up a large plant near Chennai in collaboration
with
(a) Hindutan Motors
(b) Tata Motors
(c) Mahindra and Mahindra
(d) Ashok Leyland
843.
COPRA 1986 is
(a) Consumer Protection Act
(b) Company Protection Act
(c) Corruption Prevention Act
844.

I. Secondary sector of economic activities
is also known as service sector.
II. Telecommunication is a secondary
sector.
CM
836.
842.
AT
834.

per capita income?
(a) Delhi
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala
(d) Goa

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none

infant mortality rate (IMR) in India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Haryana
845.
According to the 2011 Human Development

Report, which of the following has the highest
Human Development Index (HDI) ?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Bangladesh
Self Help Groups (SHG) are groups of

(a) Security personnel in rural areas
(b) Money lenders in rural areas
(c) Medics in rural areas
(d) craftsmen in rural areas
846.

I. Cargill Inc is an Indian enterprise bought
over by Wallmart of USA
II. Labour cost in China is lower than India
840.
Which of the following is a tertiary economic

sector?
(a) Textile Industry (b) Banking
(c) Real Estate
(d) Sugar Mill
841.
Consider the following instance:

Transporters of the whole region are on strike.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) I and II
(d) none
Which of the following is correct regarding

the sector which is suffering due to another
sector?
(a) Tertiary sector due to Primary sector
(b) Tertiary sector due to Secondary sector
(c) Primary sector due to Secondary sector
(d) Secondary sector due to Tertiary sector
Page 65
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Answers and Explanations
Page 66
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
b
b
a
c
b
a
d
c
a
b
a
b
c
d
a
c
c
b
a
d
b
b
a
c
d
a
b
c
c
a
a
a
c
c
a
a
c
a
b
a
b
d
c
b
c
d
b
a
c
a
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
130
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148
149
150
c
a
b
a
c
a
d
a
a
c
b
b
b
c
c
c
b
c
a
b
a
d
b
a
d
b
d
b
a
b
a
c
c
c
b
b
a
b
d
a
d
a
b
c
d
b
a
b
b
d
151
152
153
154
155
156
157
158
159
160
161
162
163
164
165
166
167
168
169
170
171
172
173
174
175
176
177
178
179
180
181
182
183
184
185
186
187
188
189
190
191
192
193
194
195
196
197
198
199
200
c
c
b
a
c
a
d
c
a
d
b
a
d
b
c
d
a
b
d
c
a
c
b
a
d
b
d
c
b
b
a
c
a
d
b
c
c
b
b
b
a
d
c
d
a
a
d
a
c
c
201
202
203
204
205
206
207
208
209
210
211
212
213
214
215
216
217
218
219
220
221
222
223
224
225
226
227
228
229
230
231
232
233
234
235
236
237
238
239
240
241
242
243
244
245
246
247
248
249
250
d
b
a
c
a
a
d
a
d
c
a
d
a
b
c
a
d
b
c
b
a
d
b
c
b
a
b
a
d
b
a
b
c
a
c
c
d
b
a
d
c
a
d
a
b
b
a
a
d
b
251
252
253
254
255
256
257
258
259
260
261
262
263
264
265
266
267
268
269
270
271
272
273
274
275
276
277
278
279
280
281
282
283
284
285
286
287
288
289
290
291
292
293
294
295
296
297
298
299
300
c
b
b
d
c
a
a
c
d
b
c
d
a
c
b
a
c
b
d
b
a
b
d
a
c
b
c
b
b
a
b
c
d
a
d
b
b
a
a
c
b
b
a
b
d
b
c
b
d
a
301
302
303
304
305
306
307
308
309
310
311
312
313
314
315
316
317
318
319
320
321
322
323
324
325
326
327
328
329
330
331
332
333
334
335
336
337
338
339
340
341
342
343
344
345
346
347
348
349
350
CM A T
a
b
b
c
b
b
b
b
b
b
a
c
c
a
c
b
c
d
a
a
a
c
a
c
a
d
a
c
b
d
c
a
b
d
b
a
a
d
b
b
b
d
c
b
a
d
b
a
d
b
351
352
353
354
355
356
357
358
359
360
361
362
363
364
365
366
367
368
369
370
371
372
373
374
375
376
377
378
379
380
381
382
383
384
385
386
387
388
389
390
391
392
393
394
395
396
397
398
399
400
AT
a
d
b
a
d
a
b
b
d
b
a
d
a
a
b
b
c
a
d
c
b
c
d
b
b
d
c
d
b
b
b
d
c
a
d
c
c
d
b
b
a
b
d
d
b
a
a
c
c
b
CM
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
a
b
b
b
d
d
a
c
a
a
b
c
c
d
b
b
d
c
a
c
a
d
d
b
b
d
d
d
a
c
a
b
d
a
c
b
a
d
b
a
c
b
c
a
a
c
d
b
d
a
401
402
403
404
405
406
407
408
409
410
411
412
413
414
415
416
417
418
419
420
421
422
423
424
425
426
427
428
429
430
431
432
433
434
435
436
437
438
439
440
441
442
443
444
445
446
447
448
449
450
b
d
d
c
b
a
c
c
a
d
c
a
b
b
c
a
b
a
c
a
d
d
b
c
c
b
d
a
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General Knowledge
Question Bank
Page 67
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CM A T
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CM
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General Knowledge
Question Bank
Geography
16. b
The river Ganga bifurcates in West Bengal. The

subsidiary branch, the Bhagirathi, winds south to form
the Hooghly river.
The part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and

Kali rivers is known as Kumaon Himalayas.
17. c
2. d
Northern Circar is the northern part of eastern coastal

plains of Indi (a) The Malabar coast and the Kannad
Plain are the southern and central stretches of the
western coastal plains.
The gravity of the earth pulls all materials on its surface

downwards. These downward movements are called
mass movement or mass wasting.
18. a
With its hundreds of tributaries, the Amazon drains a

territory of more than 7 million sq km, roughly half of
which is in Brazil.
The Moho discontinuity, named after the geologist

Mohorovicic, is the boundary between earths crust
and earths mantle.
19. d
The outer core is a liquid region composed mostly of

iron, with smaller amounts of nickel and sulphur in
liquid form. The inner core is solid and is composed
mostly of iron and nickel.
As the core is made up of mainly metals, it is also
known as the metallic core.
3. b
4. a
A trellis drainage pattern develops where hard and

soft rocks exist parallel to each other.
CM
5. d
AT
1. a
6. a
The northern plains, lying at the foothills of the

Himalayas, were formed by the deposition of alluvium
over millions of years in this basin.
7. b
Mahendragiri, at 1501 metres, is the highest peak of

the Eastern Ghats. Doda betta and Anai Mudi are the
highest peaks of the Western Ghats.
8. b
The northern plains start with the bhabhar belt while

the terai belt lies south of the bhabhar. The streams
which disappear in the bhabhar re-emerge in the terai
belt.
9. d
Lohit is a tributary of river Brahmaputra.
10. b
Plants take in carbon dioxide through the stomata of

the leaves.
11. a
The Central Highlands lie north of the Narmada river

covering a major area of the Malwa plateau. The
Deccan Trap is of volcanic origin hence it is made up
of igneous rocks.
12. d
It is the bhangar belt which is made up of older alluvium.

The khadar are newer, younger deposits of the flood
plains.
13. a
14. a
Plants cannot absorb atmospheric nitrogen through

stomata of the leaves. The gaseous nitrogen is
converted to useful form by bacteria in the soil, which
can finally be absorbed by the roots along with water
and other minerals.
15. b
According to the Indus Water Treaty of 1960, India

can use only 20% of the total water carried by the
Indus river system.
The Brahmaputra takes a U turn on reaching the Mount
Namcha Barwa and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh
through a gorge.
Page 68
20. c
The continental crust is less dense than the oceanic

crust because the continental crust is made of a mix
of light and dense rocks while the oceanic crust is
composed mostly of dense igneous rocks.
21. b
Oxygen is the most abundant element of the earths

crust followed by silicon, aluminium and iron.
22. c
Granite is an igneous rock of visible crystalline

formation and texture. It is composed of feldspar and
quartz, with a small amount of mica.
23. d
the average thickness of the oceanic crust is about 5

km while the average thickness of the continental crust
is about 40 km.
The asthenosphere is a 100 km thick layer found at
the top of the lower mantle.
24. b
Igneous rocks are formed by the solidification of magma

while metamorphic rocks and sedimentary rocks are
composed of pre-existing rocks.
25. b
Shale is a sedimentary rock formed by the consolidation

of beds of clay or mu(d)
When two continental plates converge, neither plate
can be forced under the other. Instead, folds may be
created. The Himalayas have been formed in this way.
26. d
The San Andreas fault is a rift caused, not by collision

between plates, but by the movement of plates away
from each other.
The inner core of the earth is solid and made of iron,
nickel and sulphur.
27. c
Lake Baikal, the deepest lake in the world, is a salt

water lake located in Siberia. It is the deepest lake in
the world with a maximum depth of 1,637 m. It is
estimated to contain approximately one-fifth of all the
earths fresh surface water.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
The Pamir Knot is the meeting place of many mountains.

It is located in the extreme north of India.
29. b
K2, at 8,611 m, is the second tallest mountain in the

worl(d) Only Mount Everest is taller than K2.
30. b
Verkhoyansk is the coldest place in the northern

hemisphere with a mean January temperature of 45(C)
31. b
1 nautical mile = 1.852 km
32. d
According to the widely accepted Law of the Sea

(Maritime Law), each nation that borders the ocean
may claim an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), which
extends offshore for 200 nautical miles. Resources
within an EEZ belong to the nation that claims it.
In terms of installed capacity, Tamil Nadu is ranked
number 1 followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat
and Rajasthan.
Schumacher believed that natural resources should

be conserved and concluded that large industries and
large cities would lead to the depletion of natural
resources.
43. d
In India hydroelectric power contributes approximately

22 % of the total electricity produced
About 70 % of worlds total freshwater occurs as ice
sheets and glaciers in Antarctica, Greenland and the
mountainous regions of the world, while a little less
than 30 % is stored as groundwater in the worlds
aquifers.
44. d
Fossil fuels are non renewable and non recyclable

resources.
Inexhaustible resources are a subset of renewable
resources. There are resources which are renewable,
like wildlife, but not inexhaustible.
CM
33. c
42. b
AT
28. d
45. b
The Net Sown Area is over 80 % of the total surface

area in Punjab and Haryana.
46. a
The IUCN headquarters is at Gland, Switzerland.
47. a
Madhuca Insignis, a wild variety of mahua, is now on

the verge of extinction. Azadirachta Indica (neem
tree), Prosopis Juliflora (vilayati kikar) and Acacia
nilotica (babul) are extensively found in India.
48. c
The State of Forest Report includes plantations in

natural forests and therefore fails to to deliver accurate
information about actual loss of natural forests.
49. c
Gayal, also known as Mithun, is a massive

semidomesticated ox found in India.
Gayals are raised in eastern states like Assam and
Arunachal Pradesh for meat and milk
50. b
In the 1970s and 1980s, the Chipko movement in India

fought for preservation of the forests that provided
livelihood to the people.
51. b
Jawaharlal Nehru proudly proclaimed the dams as the

temples of modern India; the reason being that it would
integrate development of agriculture and the village
economy with rapid industrialisation and growth of
the urban economy.
52. b
China is the largest producer of rice in the world while

India stands at number two.
53. a
Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by Vinobha

Bhave is also known as the Blood-less Revolution.
Buxa Tiger Reserve lies in Alipurduar sub-division of

Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal.
54. c
Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is

known as sericulture.
Dolomite is CaMg(CO3)2 which is calcium magnesium

carbonate.
55. b
Operation Flood, also known as the White Revolution,

was a dairy development programme launched in India
in 1970.
34. a
In wind power generation, kinetic energy of the blades

is converted into electrical energy.
35. d
The bauxite reserve in Odisha is of the order of 1607

million tonnes which is more than half of the countrys
total reserve.
36. c
Net Sown Area represents the total area sown with

crops and orchards. Area sown more than once in
the same year is counted only once.
Gross Crop Area represents the total area sown once
and/or more than once in a particular year, i.e. the
area is counted as many times as there are sowings
in a year.
37. c
38. d
39. b
40. b
41. a
Mountains account for 30 % of the total surface area

of India while about 43 % of the area of the country is
plain area.
The first National Forest Policy after independence
was set up in 1952.
The Rose-ringed Parakeet population is widely
distributed all over India and in many parts of Central
Africa. It is given the least concern conservation status
by the International Union for Conservation of Nature
and Natural Resources.
The Indian wild ass, found in the Rann of Kutch and
Pakistan, is an endangered animal.
Page 69
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
57. d
58. c
In Odisha high grade hematite ore is found in

Badampahar mines in the Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar
districts.
Mica is mined in Ajmer and Beawar districts of
Rajasthan, Gaya in Bihar and Nellore district in Andhra
Pradesh.
70. d
71. b
Argon is the third most abundant gas comprising 0.93%

of the atmosphere.
72. b
Pole Star (North Start) is in north direction. Tamil Nadu

is south of Karnataka and Arabian Sea is left of
Karnataka. Maximum area of Karnataka lies below
Maharashtra (not Andhra Pradesh). So you will most
probably reach Maharashtra.
73. a
Venus is called Earths-Twin because its size and

shape are very much similar to that of the earth.
74. c
Narmada is one of the only three major rivers in India

that flow westewards and drain into the Arabian Sea,
Tapi and Mahi being the other two.
75. d
Angel falls in Venezuela (South America) is the highest

waterfall in the world.
76. a
Llanos are tropical grasslands in Venezuela. Pampas

and Prairie are temperate grasslands in Argentina and
North America respectively.
77. b
Taiga are coniferous trees found in very cold and

snow covered regions of the world.
78. c
Ox-bow is a type of lake cut off from a river due to

continuous deposition over the meanders.
Anthracite is highest quality hard coal. It has the highest

fixed-carbon content and the lowest amount of volatile
material of all types of coal.
59. a
61. a
62. b
The greatest depth in the world has been recorded at

Mariana Trench (11,022 metres) in the Pacific Ocean.
Puerto Rico Trench is the deepest point in Atlantic
ocean. Eurasia Basin and Java Trench are the deepest
points in Arctic Ocean and Indian Ocean respectively.
CM
60. b
Africa is the only continent through which all three of

the Tropic of Cancer, the Equator and the Tropic of
Capricorn pass through. Only the Tropic of Cancer
and the Equator pass through Asia. Arctic Circle also
passes through Asia.
An isthmus is a marrow strip of land that joins two
landmasses. The Isthmus of Panama (contains the
country of Panama and the Panama Canal) links the
two continents. Other three does no exist.
63. c
79. c
64. d
Strait of Dover connects the North Sea and the English

Channel. Strait of Gibraltar connects the Atlantic Ocean
and the Mediterranean sea, Bab-el-Mandeb connects
the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden.
80. a
65. a
The Andes in South America are the longest mountain

range in the world with an approximate length of 7200
km.
81. a
68. b
69. a
To have a standard time all over the country, we cannot

calculate time on the basis of the suns movement in
the sky. It is therefore necessary to adopt the local
time of some central meridian of the country as the
standard time. The IST is calculated from a clock tower
located in Mirzapur (Uttar Pradesh) which is located
on the Standard Meridian of India (82.5 E).
Mahogany, Ebony and Rosewood are important trees
of tropical rain forests (evergreen forests) while Teal,
Sal and Shisham are important tropical deciduous
forest (monsoon forests) trees.
Sundari is found in mangrove forests of the
Sundarbans. Sundarbans have been named after
Sundari.
Page 70
Tawa Matsya Sangh a cooperative of fisherworkers

in Madhya Pradesh. It is an organisation fighting for
the rights of the displaced forest dwellers of the
Satpura forest in Madhya Pradesh
82. a
Tamil Nadu is the first and the only state in India which
has made roof top rainwater harvesting structure
compulsory to all the houses across the state. There
are legal provisions to punish the defaulters.
83. c
Aus, Aman and Boro are three main crop varieties of

rice grown in states like West Bengal and Odisha.
84. c
Jute is a Kharif season crop.
85. a
Maharashtra is the largest producer of jowar in India

followed by the states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh
and Madhya Pradesh.
86. a
National Highway-7 is the longest and traverses 2,

369 km between Varanasi and Kanyakumari.
87. c
The historical Sher Shah Suri Marg between Delhi and

Amritsar is the National Highway-1 of India.
66. c
67. c
AT
56. a
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
88. a
as the Bhairodev Dakav Sonchuri, declaring their

own set of rules and regulations which do not allow
hunting, and are protecting the wildlife against any
outside encroachments.
89. b
90. a
Biogas has higher thermal efficiency in comparison

to kerosene, dung cake and charcoal.
Madhya Pradesh is the biggest producer of copper
in India. The Balaghat mines produce about 50% of
Indias copper.
106. a
Alluvial soils are of two types Khadar, the new

alluvium cover, and Bhangar, the old alluvium cover.
107. d
The Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve located at

Satpura Hill-ranges in Central India in the State of
Madhya Pradesh. It was designated as Biosphere
Reserve in 1999.
108. a
Fluoride in the teeth and saliva increases the ability of

teeth to replace minerals immediately when decayproducing acids attack the teeth.
The state of Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest

cover in the country at 77,700 square km followed
by Aruncachal Pradesh at 67, 410 square km.
109. a
Lignite is a low grade brown coal, which is soft with

high moisture content.
One tonne of steel requires nearly 10 kg of
manganese.
Forest area of India is about 23% of the total area

while the net sown area is about 46% of the total
area.
110. c
Red soil has high iron content and is fit for crops
like red gram, Bengal gram and green gram.
111. b
In India, the total protected forest area and the total

reserved forest area are about 55% and 30% of
the total forest area respectively.
Out of the total wasteland area in India, the forest
degraded area is more than 50% while the water
eroded area is around 30%.
92. d
Oil India Lt(d) (OIL) is jointly owned by public and

private sector.
Cryolite is an aluminium ore which is also used in the
electrolytic processing of bauxite.
93. c
India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods

and stands at second place as an exporter after
Bangladesh.
CM
Marmagao port (Goa) is the premier iron ore exporting

port of the country. This port accounts for about fifty
per cent of Indias iron ore export.
94. b
95. c
96. d
AT
105. c
91. b
97. b
Assam is the oldest oil producing state of Indi

a. Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran-Hugrijan are the
important oil fields in the state.
98. a
Rawatbhata nuclear power station, also known as

Rajasthan Atomic Power Plant, is a nuclear power
plant located in Rawatbhata, Rajasthan.
112. b
The black monazite sand of the coastal regions of

Kerala contains radioactive material thorium.
The four coral reef areas identified for conservation

and management in India are : Gulf of Mannar, Gulf
of Kutch, Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
113. b
The local name for the black soil in the deccan is

regur soil.
114. c
In terms of percentage of forest cover in relation to

total geographical area, Mizoram tops with 90.68%
followed by Lakshadweep Islands with 84.56%.
115. c
Van Mahotsav in India is celebrated in first week of

July.
116. c
Project Elephant, a centrally sponsored project, was

launched in 1992. Its objectives are to protect
elephants and their habitat, to address issues of
man-animal conflict and welfare of domesticated
elephants.
117. b
The Central Vigilance Commission of India was set

up in 1964 to look into the complaints of corruption
against the public servants.
99. c
100. a
101. c
102. a
There are about 70 jute mills in India. Most of these

are located in West Bengal, mainly along the banks
of the Hugli river.
The cane produced in these states has higher
sucrose content. The cooler climate also ensures a
longer crushing season. Moreover, the cooperatives
are more successful in these states. India is the
second largest producer of sugar in the world, Brazil
being at number one.
103. b
Rabi crops are Rabi crops are sown in winter from

October to December and harvested in summer from
April to June.
104. a
The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district

of Rajasthan have declared 1,200 hectares of forest
Page 71
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
133. c
Brahmaputra is called Tsang Po in Tibet and Jamuna

in Bangladesh.
119. a
Kerala produces about nine-tenths of the total

rubber production in India.
134. c
Godavari originates in Maharashtra while the other

three originate in Madhya Pradesh.
120. b
According to the Census of India 2011, Haryana

has lowest sex ratio (861). Kerala has the highest
sex ratio (1058)
135. b
Godavari rises in Maharashtra near Nasik in the

Western Ghats. It flows 1,500 km generally southeast to its delta on the Bay of Bengal, into which
seven mouths of the river empty.
121. a
Except the Mediterranean sea, the other three are

lakes.
136. b
The river Kaveri makes the second biggest waterfall

in India, known as Sivasamudram.
122. d
The Wular lake in Jammu and Kashmir is the largest

fresh water lake in India. This lake is the result of
the tectonic activity.
137. a
The Mahanadi rises in the highlands of Chhattisgarh

and flows through Odisha to reach the Bay of
Bengal.
123. b
The Bhakra Nangal Project in Himachal Pradesh led

to the formation of Guru Gobind Sagar.
138. b
Dhuadhar falls is located on Narmada river in

Jabalpur district of Madhyapradesh.
124. a
Forest area of India is about 23% of the total area

while the net sown area is about 46% of the total
area.
139. d
Koyana is a tributary of river Krishna.
140. a
Godavari has got this name because of its length

and the large area it covers.
141. d
Materials in the environment which have the

potential to satisfy human needs but human beings
do not have the appropriate technology to access
them are known as stock resources.
Resources which are found in a region, but have
not been utilised are known as potential resources.
142. a
Between June 3 and June 14 representatives from

more than 170 nations converged on Rio de Janeiro,
Brazil, for the Earth Summit.
143. b
The 1992 Earth Summits major theme was

sustainable economic development, meaning
development that does not use up or destroy so
many of the worlds natural resources that it cannot
be sustained over time. The meeting produced an
overall plan, called Agenda 21, in which large
developing countries promised to develop their
industries with an eye toward protecting the
environment.
144. c
Mahatma Gandhi placed the greedy and selfish

individuals and exploitative nature of modern
technology as the root cause for resource depletion
at the global level. He was against mass production
and wanted to replace it with the production by the
masses.
145. d
The 1987 Brundtland Commission, chaired by the

then Prime Minister of Norway Gro Harlem
Brundtland, on Environment and Development
defined sustainable development as development
that meets the needs of the present, without
compromising the ability of future generations to
125. d
Some of the areas where women and men first

began to grow crops such as wheat and barley
about 8000 years ago are located here.
126. b
127. d
Chambal Joins Yamuna in Etawah district of UP.

Yamuna Joins Ganga at Allahabad. Son River joins
River Gange near Patna, Bihar.
Chambal rises in the Vindhya Range, a mountain
system in central India, and flows in a generally
northeastern direction for 1,000 km to join the
Yamuna River.
128. b
River Tungabhadra joins river Kaveri in Andhra

Pradesh.
129. a
Narmada flows between the Vindhya and Satpura

ranges in a generally southwestern direction for
1,300 km, emptying into the Gulf of Khambhat, an
arm of the Arabian Sea.
The Sutlej is the south-easternmost of the five rivers
of the Punjab which are also the tributaries of river
Indus. It rises in Tibet, flows southwest through
Himchal Pradesh State, India, and then passes
through the great arid plains of Punjab Province,
Pakistan, joining the Indus after a course of 1,450
km.
130. b
AT
According to the Human Development Report 2011,

Norway is at the top of the Human Development
Index ranking while India is at 134.
CM
118. c
131. a
Tapi flows in west direction while the other three

flow east.
132. c
The Narmada rises in the Amarkantak hills in Madhya

Pradesh. The Amarkantak region is the meeting point
of the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
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General Knowledge
Question Bank
meet their own needs. Javier Perez de Cuellar was

the United Nations Secretary General who appointed
the commission.
146. b
Forest area in the country should be 33% of the

total geographical area, according to the National
Forest Policy of 1952.
161. b
After the Treaty of Nanking, the Chinese signed the

Treaty of Boque which made the British its most
favoured state. The British also got the right of
extra-territoriality through this treaty.
162. a
Vietnam signed a treaty with the French in 1862

which gave control of southern Vietnam to the
French. By 1885, the French completely took over
Vietnam. Soon Cambodia and Laos were also added
to the French Colonial Empire.
Khadar is new alluvial soil. It is more fertile than the

old alluvial soil called Bangar.
148. b
Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also

known as black cotton soil.
163. d
Britain occupied Egypt from Turkey to guarantee its

repayment of the huge foreign debt.
149. b
Leaching is a process in which water carries

materials in solution down from one soil level to
another. The laterite soil develops in areas with
high temperature and heavy rainfall.
164. b
150. d
The reddish colour of the red and yellow soils is

due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and
metamorphic rocks.
Black soils are generally poor in phosphoric content.
Under Aurangzeb the Mughal Empire reached its

greatest extent. In all, it comprised 21 provinces,
covering a geographical spread from Afghanistan
to the north-west to the eastern extremity of Bengal
in the east and from Kashmir in north to the Carnatic
in the south.
CM
AT
147. a
151. c
152. c
In strip cropping, strips of grass are left to grow

between the crops. This breaks up the force of the
wind and prevents soil from eroding.
153. b
According to the International Union for

Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(IUCN), species whose population levels are
considered to be normal for their survival are called
normal species.
165. c
Aurangzeb imposed a set of Islamic laws called

Fatwa-i-Alamgiri in defence of Islam and Muslim
society.
166. d
Chin Quilich Khan, popularly known as Nizam-ulMulk, founded the state of Hyderabad in 1724 and
became the first Nizam of Hyderaba(d)
167. a
Nadir Shah of Iran invaded Delhi in 1738-1739 and

plundered the city. He also took away the Peacock
Throne and the Koh-i-noor diamond.
168. b
Bhakti Saints like Samarth Ramdas since the 15th

century had created in the minds of the Marathas
the abiding sense of mutual love and faith in one
God. These saints too had an influence which
emphasised on the principles of good work and
purity of heart.
154. a
The drug paclitaxel (Taxol), approved in 1992 for

treating ovarian and other cancers, is extracted
from the bark of the Himalayan yew.
155. c
Belgium shares its borders with France,

Luxembourg, Germany and Netherlands
169. d
According to the treaty, the Maratha Kingdom was

divided into two halves. The southern half of the
kingdom went to Sambhaji II while the Northern Half
went to Sahuji.
The headquarters of the European Union is in the

capital of Belgium, Brussels.
170. c
The Treaty made the Nizam surrender the whole of

Malwa. By this treaty, Baji Rao I also obtained from
Nizam the territory lying between rivers Narmada
and Chambal other than 50 lakh rupees as war
compensation.
171. a
The Maratha power revived in norther India after

almost a decade under Madhav Rao I. Following the
death of Najib-ud-Daula the Marathas restored the
exiled Mughal emperor Shah Alam II on the throne of
Delhi in 1772.
Balaji Baji Rao was known as Nana Saheb, not Baji
Rao.
156. a
157. d
158. c
History
159. a
Thailand is the only Southeast Asian country never

to have been occupied by any European or other
foreign power, except in war.
160. d
Under the Treaty of Nanking in 1842, China ceded

Hong Kong to the British.
Both the British and the French fought the Second
Opium War against China.
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General Knowledge
Question Bank
During difficult times, diwan Balaji Vishwanath

stood steadfastly by Sahuji (son of Sambhaji). Hence
Sahuji elevated him to the post of Peshwa.
173. b
Jiziya is a poll tax that early Islamic rulers demanded

from their non-Muslim subjects. Aurangzeb imposed
this tax during his reign in India.
174. a
Sardeshmukhi was an additional 10% tax levied on

top of the Chauth, which was 25% tax on the
revenue produced.
During difficult times, diwan Balaji Vishwanath
stood steadfastly by Sahuji (son of Sambhaji). Hence
Sahuji elevated him to the post of Peshwa. From
then on, the office of the Peshwa became hereditary
and Balaji and his successors became the de facto
rulers of the Maratha kingdom.
184. d
The Treaty of Sagauli was signed between the

British and the Gorkhas. The Gorkha leader Amar
Singh was defeated in the First Anglo-Nepalese
War (1814-16) and signed the treaty in 1816.
185. b
The First Anglo-Sikh War took place in 1845-1846.

Lord Hardinge was the Governor-General of India
from 1844 to 1848.
186. c
Although Robert Clive gave birth to the Covenanted

Civil Services in India, it was Lord Cornwallis who
was regarded as the father of modern civil
services. It was Cornwallis who separated the
commercial and the revenue branches of the
administration while simultaneously excluding
Indians from all high offices.
CM
175. d
By the Treaty of Amritsar signed in 1809, river Sutlej

had been fixed as the boundary between the British
and Maharaja Ranjit Singhs territories.
AT
172. c
176. b
In the First Carnatic War, the French defeated the

Nawab of Arcot.
177. d
The Third Carnatic War was won by the British.

This finally decided the fate of the two European
powers in India.
The Dutch were not involved at all in the Carnatic
Wars.
178. c
The Battle of Wandiwash put an end to the colonial

ambitions of the French in India.
179. b
187. c
Maharaja Dalip Singh entered the subsidiary alliance

at Lahore in 1846 through the Treaty of Lahore.
After the Second Anglo-Sikh War, the British
annexed territories in India through a law called the
Doctrine of Lapse.
188. b
The British took away the famous diamond Koh-inoor from Maharaja Dalip Singh after defeating him
in the Second Anglo-Sikh War.
Hector Munro was the commander of the Company

forces in the Battle of Buxar. Clive was away in
England during the war.
The Company replaced Mir Jafar with his son in law
as the Nawab of Bengal.
In 1760, the Company replaced Mir Jafar with his
son in law Mir Qasim as the Nawab of Bengal.
189. b
The Holkars dynasty was founded by Malhar Rao

with his headquarters at Indore.
190. b
Raghunath Rao II was defeated at Argaon and

agreed to sign a treaty. By this treaty signed at
Deogaon Raghuji Bhonsle II surrendered Orissa to
the British.
180. b
Robert Clive signed the Treaty of Allahabad on 12

August 1765 with the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
By this treaty, the Emperor was taken under the
Companys protection and was assigned Allahabad
and Kara. Further, the Company also granted the
Emperor an annual pension of rupees 26 lakh in
return for a farman, which granted the Company
the diwani of Bengal.
191. a
Major Broadfoot, who was sent to Punjab by Lord

Hardinge as the political agent of the British, did
everything to divide the Sikh nobles and induce the
Sikh army to cross river Sutlej. By the Treaty of
Amritsar signed in 1809, the river had been fixed as
the boundary between the British and Maharaj Ranjit
Singh territories. Thus, barely the Sikh army had
crossed the river then Lord Hardinge declared war.
181. a
Warren Hastings stopped the annual grant of

Emperor Shah Alam II. He also took away Allahabad
and Kara from the Emperor and sold these territories
back to the Nawab of Awadh.
192. d
The Gaikwar dynasty was founded by Damaji I in

Gujarat with his headquarters at Baroda.
193. c
After getting the diwani of Bengal, Robert Clive

introduced the dual government in Bengal. The right
of revenue collection was with the British while the
administration of the empire was handled by the
nawab.
194. d
The Governor-General of Bengal was made the

Governor-General of India through the Charter Act
of 1833.
182. c
The Nizam of Hyderabad was the first Indian power

to accept the subsidiary alliance with pleasure.
183. a
By the Treaty of Bassein, Peshwa Baji Rao II entered

into subsidiary alliance with the British. In fact, he
had been forced to seek British protection after
Jaswant Rao Holkar captured Pune.
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General Knowledge
Question Bank
207. d
In 1875, Dayanand Saraswati formally established

the Arya Samaj unit at Bombay.
The Regulating Act of 1773 gave the GovernorGeneral of Bengal general authority over other two
presidencies, Bombay and Madras.
208. a
Swami Dayanand Saraswati started the Suddhi

Movement to convert the non-Hindus into Hinduism.
209. d
In 1875, Sayyid Ahmad Khan established the Aligarh

School, which was upgraded to the Muhammadan
Anglo-Oriental College in 1877.
210. c
Keshab Chandra Sens minor daughter was married

with the minor son of the Maharaja of Cooch Behar.
This was against the ideologies of the Brahmo Samaj
which led to another split in the organisation.
211. a
Louis Vivian Derozio taught English literature and

History in the Hindu College of Calcutta. The Young
Bengal Movement revolved around him. His attraction
as a teacher lay in motivating the students to live by
truth and shun all kinds of vices.
196. a
198. a
In 1829, Lord William Bentinck abolished the system

of sati and made it punishable by law.
After the premature death of Raja Rammohun Roy,
the Brahmo Movement was carried forward by
Dwarkanath Tagorefor some time. But it was his
son Debendranath Tagore who infused new life
into the organisation and introduced the regular
system of worship in the Brahmo temples.
CM
197. d
199. c
Mahadev Govind Ranade was the founder of the

Prarthana Samaj.
200. c
Louis Vivian Derozio taught English literature and

History in the Hindu College of Calcutta. The Young
Bengal Movement revolved around him. His attraction
as a teacher lay in motivating the students to live by
truth and shun all kinds of vices.
201. d
202. b
AT
195. a
The Charter Act of 1833 allowed Indians to hold

government positions under the company.
Jyotiba Phule was not a member of the Prarthana

Samaj. He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj.
The Deccan Education Society was formed in 1884
under the spiritual guidance of Swami Dayananda
Saraswati. It has a small school, which in course of
time grew into the famous Fergusson College of
Pune.
203. a
Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a member of the Prarthana

Samaj, founded the Servants of India Society in
1905.
204. c
Jyotiba Phule was an active social reformer who

took up sincerely the cause of women and
downtrodden people in Maharashtra. But his
campaign for the upliftment of the economically
weaker sections of the society and the removal of
untouchability acquired the character of an antiBramhan movement. He believed that the plight of
the weaker sections is due to the Brahmins and
there vedic traditions.
212. d
The Theosophical Movement in India was started

by Annie Besant. The movement was inspired by
the philosophy of western enlightenment.
213. a
The Theosophical Society of India was founded at

Adyar near Madras (present day Chennai) in 1886
by Annie Besant.
214. b
The Theosophical Society was first established in

United States of America by Madam H.P. Blavatsky
and H.S. Olcott.
215. c
Swami Dayanand Saraswati translated vedas and

wrote three books - Satyartha Prakash, VedaBhasya Bhoomika and Veda Bhasya.
216. a
After Ramakrishna Paramahamsas death in 1886,

Vivekananda spent a period wandering in India
before coming to international attention at the World
Parliament of Religions at Chicago in 1893. There he
presented Ramakrishnas teachings as both the true
Hinduism and a world religion.
217. d
218. b
Tahzib-al-Akhlaq (Reform of Morals)was a monthly

periodical started by Sayyid Ahmad Khan to arouse
the muslim masses to a sense of self confidence
and exertion.
205. a
The Deccan Education Society was formed in 1884

under the spiritual guidance of Swami Dayananda
Saraswati. It has a small school, which in course of
time grew into the famous Fergusson College of
Pune.
219. c
The General Service Enlistment Act of 1856 required

every Indian soldier to serve wherever required.
The upper caste Hindu recruits particularly felt
disturbed by the prospect of travelling overseas,
which was a social taboo.
206. a
The Central Hindu College at Varanasi was founded

in 1898 by Annie Besant under the Theosophical
Society of India.
220. b
The Santhal Rebellion of 1855-56 was against the

British Colonial Authority and their oppressive
policies.
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General Knowledge
Question Bank
In 1875, Swami Dayananda Saraswati formally

established the first Arya Samaj unit in Bombay.
Three years later its second unit was formed at
Lahore and its headquarters were shifted there.
222. d
The Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha was founded

by a group of educated Parsis for the regeneration
of the social conditions of the Parsis and the
restoration of the Zoroastrian religion to its pristine
purity. Dadabhai Naoroji was one of its founders.
223. b
Anandmath was written by Bankim Chandra

Chatterji in 1882. It portrayed the tyranny of the
colonial masters.
224. c
Neel Darpan is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu

Mitra. This play highlighted the plight of indigo
farmers.
225. b
A group of Bengali leaders organised the Hindu

Mela for some years from 1867 onwards. Its aim
was to spread nationalist ideas and promote
indigenous arts and crafts.
226. a
227. b
228. a
Bombay Presidency Association was founded in

1885 by three popular leaders of the time
Pherozeshah Mehta, K.T. Telang and Badruddin
Tyabji.
Sisir Kumar Ghosh was the founder of the Indian
League (1875) and editor of the famous newspaper
Amrit Bazar Patrika.
233. c
In 1905, Shyamji Krishna Verma set up the India

House in London. It became the hub of revolutionary
activities outside India. The activities of India House
became more radical after V.(D) Savarkar joined it
in 1907. Other active members of this group were
Virendranath Chattopadhyaya, Lala Hardayal, Bhai
Paramananda, Madame Bhikaiji Cama and Madanlal
Dhingra.
234. a
The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 in the US

(A) Lala Hardayal was it main leader. As soon as
the World War I broke out, many of the Ghadrites
returned to India and for several months during 1915
carried on revolutionary activities in central Punjab.
This attempted uprising was quickly crushed by the
British.
CM
221. a
232. b
AT
The Kuka Movement began in the western part of

Punjab with a View to cleanse the Sikh religion of
its various abuses and superstitions. The movement
worked for the abolition of caste and restrictions
put upon inter-caste marriages, etc. However this
movement turned into a political movement after the
British conquest of Punjab. The ouster of the British
from Punjab and restoration of the Sikh sovereignty
thereafter became the chief programme of the Kukas.
Anandamath contains the national song of India

Vande Mataram. Anandmath was written by
Bankim Chandra Chatterji in 1882. It portrayed the
tyranny of the colonial masters towards their Indian
subjects.
Bhartendu Harishchandra is known as the father
of modern Hindi literature. His great contributions in
founding a new tradition of Hindi prose were
recognized even in his short lifetime
The Kesari and Mahratta were started in 1881 by a
small group of Pune intellectuals which included Bal
Gangadhar Tilak, V.K. Chiplunkar, G.G. Agarkar and
M.(B) Namjoshi.
229. d
230. b
The Indian Association was founded in 1876 by

Anand Mohan Bose and Surendranath Banerji in
Bengal.
231. a
Amrit Bazar Patrika, one of the oldest newspapers

in India, was a started by Sisir Kumar Ghosh and
his brother. It was written in Bengali.
Page 76
235. c
Jawaharlal Nehru was the youngest elected

president of the Congress in December 1929, when
it passed its Purna Swaraj (Complete Self-Rule)
resolution in Lahore.
236. c
Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the tricolour flag of India

in December 1929 on the banks of river Ravi in
Lahore. It was also resolved to observe 26 January
1930 as the countrys Independence Day.
237. d
The Vernacular Press Act, which imposed

censorship on the press and seditious writings in
Indian languages, was also known as the Gagging
Act.
238. b
The Anglo-Nepalese War (1814-16) ended with the

Treaty of Sagauli signed in March 1816. By this
Treaty, Gorkhas surrendered Garhwal and Kumaon
to the British.
239. a
Bakhshi is a military paymaster and Sadr is a minister

in charge of religious and charitable patronage. A
military commander was known as faujdar.
240. d
Akbar emphasised on the idea Sulh-i kul which

means universal peace. This idea of tolerance did
not discriminate between people of different
religions, instead it focused on honesty, justice, and
peace.
241. c
Gangaikondacholisvaram Temple, Airavateshvaram

Temple and Brihadeeshwara Temple are three of
the four sites in Tamil Nadu which are in the list of
UNESCOs World Heritage Sites, Monuments at
Mahabalipuram being the fourth one.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
243. d
Sultan Iltutmish won universal respect for

constructing a large reservoir just outside Dehli-i
kuhna. It was called the hauz-i Sultani or the Kings
Reservoir.
244. a
In the early ninth century the Pandyan king Shrimara

Shrivallabha invaded Sri Lanka and defeated king
Sena I.
245. b
Mahmud of Ghazni was famous for his looting of

temples of defeated kings. He was called the Statute
Destroyer after he attacked the famous Somnath
temple and destroyed the famous Somanath statue
in it.
247. a
248. a
The ceremonial halls or courts of public and private

audience (diwan-i khas) were also described as
Chihil Sutun or forty-pillared halls, placed within a
large courtyard.
Qibla is the direction faced by Muslims at prayer.

Shah Jahans audience halls were specially
constructed to resemble a mosque. The pedestal
on which his throne was placed was frequently
described as the Qibla, since everybody faced that
direction when court was in session.
It was believed that Orpheuss music could calm

ferocious beasts until they resided together
peacefully. The construction of Shah Jahans
audience hall aimed to communicate that the kings
justice would treat the high and the low as equals
where all could live together in harmony.
249. d
Kunjaramallan Rajaraja Perunthachchan was the

architect of the Rajarajeshvara temple in Thanjavur.
He carved his name on the temple wall.
250. b
In the lost wax technique, an image was made of

wax and then covered with clay, which was final
allowed to dry. The wax inside was taken out by
heating, through a tiny hole. Molten metal was then
poured into the clay mould through the hole. Once
the metal solidified the clay was carefully remove(d)
The image was then cleaned and polished.
251. c
Bhillasvamin (Bhilsa or Vidisha) is a temple town in

Madhya Pradesh.
252. b
Hampi is located in the Krishna-Tungabhadra basin,

which formed the nucleus of the Vijayanagara
Empire, founded in 1336. Hampi fell into ruin following
the defeat of Vijayanagara in 1565 by the Deccani
Sultans.
253. b
Bhilsweree prominent in Rajasthan, Gujarat and

Madhya Pradesh. Chero chiefdoms had emerged
by the twelfth century in many areas of presentday Bihar and Jharkhand. The Maharashtra
highlands and Karnataka were home to Kolis,
Berads and numerous other tribes.
255. c
The Banjaras carried grain on their bullocks from

different areas and sold it in towns for Mughal
emperors. They transported food grain for the
Mughal army during military campaigns. With a large
army there could be 100,000 bullocks carrying grain
256. a
In 1565, the Mughal forces under Asaf Khan attacked

Garha Katanga. A strong resistance was put up by
Rani Durgawati (widow of Dalpat). She was
defeated and preferred to die rather than surrender.
Her son Birnarain too died fighting soon after.
CM
246. b
254. d
AT
242. a
Surat was the gateway for trade with West Asia

via the Gulf of Ormuz.
Page 77
257. a
The Gond Kingdom of Garha Katanga was a rich

state in modern day Madhya Pradesh.
258. c
The Ahom state depended upon forced labour.

Those forced to work for the state were called
paiks .
259. d
Nayanars were the Tamil saint-poets of the 7th and

8th centuries who composed devotional songs in
honour of Shiva. They preached ardent love of
Shiva.
260. b
Alvars were the South Indian saints-poets in the

7th to 10th century who composed ecstatic songs
and poems in honour of Vishnu.
261. c
The Virashaivas proponded monotheism and

equality of all human beings. They rejected the caste
system and ill treatment of women.
262. d
Mirabai was married into the royal family of Mewar.

Mirabai became a disciple of Ravidas, a saint from a
caste considered untouchable.
263. a
Ahom society was very sophisticated. Poets and

scholars were given land grants. Historical works,
known as buranjis, were written first in the Ahom
language and then in Assamese.
264. c
Portuguese explorer Vasco da Gama discovered

the route to India through the Cape of Good Hope in
1498.
265. b
Fa Xian and Xuan Zang were Chinese Buddhist

pilgrims who came to the subcontinent to visit places
associated with the life of the Buddha as well as
famous monasteries.
266. a
Vijayalaya built the temple of goddess

Nishumbhasudini in the town of Thanjavur.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Sirajuddaulah was a strong ruler who refused to

be a puppet of the company. He refused to give
trade concessions and fought against the company
and died at the Battle of Plassey.
268. b
Although at first, the company was only interested

in trade benefits and was unwilling to take over the
responsibility of administration. But the company
failed to work with the inefficient puppet nawabs.
After the death of Mir Jafar in 1765, the East India
Company was appointed as the Diwan of the
provinces of Bengal, after Robert Clive decided that
the company should get into the administration.
Tipu Sultan was killed in the Battle of Seringapatam.
This was the fourth Anglo-Mysore War.
Subsidiary alliance did not allow the Indian rulers to
have their independent armed forces. They were
to be protected by the Company, but had to pay for
the subsidiary forces that the Company was
supposed to maintain for the purpose of this
protection. If the Indian rulers failed to make the
payment, then part of their territory was taken away
as penalty.
270. b
When Richard Wellesley was Governor-General

(1798-1805), Nawab Shujauddaulah of Awadh was
forced to hand over half of his territory to the
Company in 1801, as he failed to fulfil the terms of
the subsidiary alliance.
271. a
The Treaty of Salbai was signed between the East

India Company and the Marathas. This was the treaty
under which the Marathas agreed to support the
East India Company against Mysore.
272. b
The fort fell to Siraj-ud-daulah, the then nawab of

Bengal, in 1756.
273. d
274. a
Lord Dalhousie, the Governor-General from 1848

to 1856, devised this policy.
Doctrine of Lapse : If an Indian ruler died without a
male heir his kingdom would become part of
Company territory.
278. b
From 1772, each district was to have two courts

a civil court (diwani adalat) and a criminal court
(faujdari adalat).
In the late eighteenth century, there were three
British presidencies Bombay, Bengal and Madras.
Delhi was still not under the control of the Company.
279. b
When the British tried to annex the small state of

Kitoor, Rani Chennamma took to arms and led an
anti-British resistance movement. She was arrested
in by the Company officials and died in prison in
1829.
CM
269. d
277. c
AT
267. c
Mir Qasim, the then nawab of Bengal, along with

the Nawab of Awadh and the Mughal Emperor stood
against the East India Company in the Battle of Buxar.
He was defeated in the battle and driven out of
Bengal, and Mir Jafar was reinstalled as the nawab
of Bengal.
The East India Company could not capture Punjab till
it was under Maharaja Ranjit Singh, but captured it
after his death.
By the policy of paramountcy, the Company claimed
that its authority was paramount or supreme, hence
its power was greater than that of Indian states.
275. c
Wodeyar was the royal family of the princely state

of Mysore.
276. b
The forces of thr Marathas and the Nizam of

Hyderabad joined the company forces against Tipu
Sultan in the Third Anglo-Mysore War.
Page 78
280. a
In 1765 Mughal emperor Shah Alam appointed the

Company as the Diwan of the provinces of Bengal.
The Diwani allowed the Company to use the vast
revenue resources of Bengal.
281. b
Initially the Company had purchased goods in India

by importing gold and silver from Britain. In 1765
Mughal emperor Shah Alam appointed the Company
as the Diwan of the provinces of Bengal. The Diwani
allowed the Company to use the vast revenue
resources of Bengal for further trading.
282. c
Earl Cornwallis, appointed in 1786, was the

governor-General of India when the Permanent
Settlement was introduced. After the introduction
of the Permanent Settlement in 1793, Cornwallis
returned to England the same year.
283. d
In British revenue records Mahal is a revenue estate

which may be a village or a group of villages.
284. a
As the revenue was fixed permanently, the Company

expected that the Zamindars would invest in the
improvement of land to maximise their own profits.
But this did not happen.
285. d
In the nij system, the land under cultivation is totally

under control the of planter. In the ryoti system the
ryots cultivate indigo on 25% of their land for indigo
planters
286. b
The Indigo Commission set up after the Blue

Rebellion of 1859 produced a report that said that
It declared that indigo production was not profitable
for ryots . The Commission asked the ryots to fulfil
their existing contracts but also told them that they
could refuse to produce indigo in future.
287. b
In the North Western Provinces of the Bengal

Presidency, an Englishman called Holt Mackenzie
devised the new system called the Mahalwari
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
288. a
The indigo plant grows primarily in the tropical zones.
289. a
One of the main reasons for Sirajuddaulahs defeat

was that the forces led by Mir Jafar, one of
Sirajuddaulahs commanders, never fought the
battle.
290. c
Under this system, the settlement was to be made

directly with the cultivators (ryots) who had tilled
the land for generations.
300. a
301. a
The Nawab of Awadh was forced to give over half

of his territory to the Company in 1801 because he
failed to pay for the subsidiary forces.
302. b
In the late 1830s the East India Company became

worried about Russia. It imagined that Russia might
expand across Asia and enter India from the northwest. The British fought a long war with Afghanistan
between 1838 and 1842 and established indirect
rule there.
303. b
The company could not take over Punjab before

1839. But after the death of Maharaja Ranjit Singh,
it fought long wars and finally annexed Punjab in
1849.
AT
System. Under his directions, estimations on land

revenue were made and revised periodically, not
permanently fixed.
The first English factory was set up on the banks of

river Hugli in Calcutta in 1651.
292. b
Indigo is a better dye plant than woad. Indigo

produced a rich blue colour, whereas the dye from
woad was pale and dull.
304. c
Cloth dyers in Europe preferred indigo over woad

as a dye because indigo produced a rich blue colour,
whereas the dye from woad was pale and dull.
293. a
The price the ryots got for the indigo they produced
was very low. Also, the planters usually insisted
that indigo be cultivated on the best soils in which
peasants preferred to cultivate rice. Indigo,
moreover, had deep roots and it exhausted the soil
rapidly. After an indigo harvest the land could not be
sown with rice.
305. b
Rani Chennamma of Kitoor took to arms and led an

anti-British resistance movement. She was arrested
in 1824 and died in prison in 1829. The other three
were active member of the rebellion.
306. b
He and his wife Begum Zeenat Mahal were sent to

prison in Rangoon in October 1858 after his sons
were shot dead in front of him. Bahadur Shah Zafar
died in the Rangoon jail in November 1862.
307. b
After the death of Rani Laxmi Bai, Tatia Tope

escaped to the jungles and continued to fight a
guerrilla war with the support of many tribal leaders.
He was captured, tried and killed in April 1859. Birjis
Qadr was the son of deposed Nawab Wajid Ali
Shah of Lucknow. Qadr was proclaimed the new
Nawab of Lucknow during the 1857 rebellion.
308. b
Mangal Pandey was a soldier in the Bengal regiment

of the East India Company. He was hanged to death
on 29 March 1857 for attacking his officers in
Barrackpore.
309. b
Eighty-five sepoys of the regiment at Meerut in 1857

were dismissed from service and sentenced to ten
years in jail as they refused to do the army drill
using the new cartridges, which were suspected
of being coated with the fat of cows and pigs.
310. b
In those days many people in the India believed that

they would lose their religion and caste if they
crossed the sea.
311. a
The British said they were obliged by duty to take

over Awadh in order to free the people from the
misgovernment of the Nawab
294. b
295. d
CM
291. b
The Palaeolithic period extends from 2 million years

ago to about 12,000 years ago. This long stretch of
time is divided into the Lower, Middle and Upper
Palaeolithic. This long span of time covers 99% of
human history.
According to the terms of subsidiary alliance, Indian
rulers were not allowed to have their independent
armed forces. They were to be protected by the
Company, but had to pay huge for the forces. If the
Indian rulers failed to make the payment, then part
of their territory was taken away as penalty.
296. b
297. c
298. b
299. d
At Inamgaon, adults were generally buried in the

ground, laid out straight, with the head towards the
north. Sometimes burials were within the houses.
Vessels that probably contained food and water
were placed with the dead.
Ashwamedha : A horse was let loose to wander
freely and it was guarded by the rajas men. If the
horse wandered into the kingdoms of other rajas
and they stopped it, they had to fight. If they allowed
the horse to pass, it meant that they accepted that
the raja who wanted to perform the ashwamedha
was stronger than them.
Bimbisara of Haryanka dynasty was a ruler of the
Magadha empire.
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General Knowledge
Question Bank
Raja Rammohun Roy made great efforts to prove to

the British that the practice of widow burning had
no sanction in ancient texts.
313. c
With the onset of industrialisation Britains

requirement for indigo grew enormously. But its
existing supplies from the West Indies and America
collapsed for a variety of reasons. Between 1783
and 1789 the production of indigo in the world fell
by half. Cloth dyers in Britain now desperately
looked for new sources of indigo supply. India was
the obvious answer for this.
314. a
The British parliament in 1858 transferred the

powers of the Company to the British Crown in
order to ensure more responsible management and
governance.
All ruling chiefs of the country were assured that
their territory would never be annexed in future.
They were allowed to pass on their kingdoms to
their heirs, including adopted sons, hence
renounced the Doctrine of Lapse.
The Paramhans Mandali was founded in 1840, in

Bombay, to work for the abolition of caste system.
324.c
Parantaka I conquered the land of Pandyas and

took the title of Maduraikondavan which means the
conqueror of Madurai.
325. a
The Stamp Act required the colonists to buy and

place stamps on all legal documents, licenses,
commercial contracts, newspapers, pamphlets, and
playing cards. This, along with other tax policies of
the British government, were strongly opposed by
the colonists.
326. d
Boston Tea Party, incident on December 16, 1773,

when a group of citizens in Boston dumped tea into
Boston Harbour. It was one of several events that
led to the outbreak of the American Revolution in
1775.
CM
315. c
Jhansi was annexed in 1854. Lord Dalhousie was

the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856.
323. a
AT
312. c
316. b
the British decided to recruit the gurkhas, sikhs and

pathans as soldiers instead of recruiting soldiers
from Awadh, Bihar, central India and south India.
317. c
The capital of British India was transferred from

Calcutta to Delhi in 1911.
318. d
Lord Lytton organised Delhi Durbar to acknowledge

Queen Victoria as the Empress of India.
319. a
The central dome of the Rashtrapati Bhavan was

copied from the Buddhist stupa at Sanchi.
320. a
Raja Rammohun Roy founded a reform association

known as the Brahmo Sabha (later known as the
Brahmo Samaj) in Calcutta.
321. a
322. c
Within the system of nij cultivation, the planter

produced indigo only in lands that he directly
controlled. Planters needed large areas to cultivate
indigo. Under the ryoti system, the planters forced
the ryots to sign a contract. The contract committed
the ryot to cultivating indigo on at least 25 per cent
of the area under his holding. The planter provided
the seed and the drill, while the cultivators prepared
the soil, sowed the seed and looked after the crop.
Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar, used the ancient texts
to suggest that widows could remarry. His
suggestion was adopted by British officials, and a
law was passed in 1856 permitting widow
remarriage.
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327. a
It began on April 19, 1775. General Thomas Gage,

the royal governor of colonial Massachusetts,
ordered British troops to march on the small towns
of Lexington and Concord, not far from Boston. The
soldiers were told to capture resistance leaders
and destroy arms and supplies. A battle began when
the British troops exchanged fire in Lexington.
328. c
On October 19, 1781, Lord Cornwallis surrendered

to American General George Washington in
Yorktown, Virginia. The surrender signalled the end
of actual fighting in the American Revolution,
although the Treaty of Paris, which officially ended
the war, was not signed until 1783.
329. b
Jean Jacques Rousseau (1712-1778), French

philosopher, social and political theorist, musician,
botanist, and one of the most eloquent writers of
the Age of Enlightenment. He spread the ideas of
democracy among the french.
330. d
The National Covention, which met on 21 September

1792, translated the demand to form a republic in
reality. France was now a republic.
331. c
Viscount Charles Townsend (1674-1738) devised

the system of crop rotation. It helped in keeping the
soil rich by not letting the land idle on any season.
The flying shuttle, invented by John Kay in 1733,
increased the speed of the weaving operation.
332. a
333. b
The spinning jenny, which Hargreaves is credited

with inventing in 1764, made possible the automatic
production of cotton thread.
334. d
The invention of power loom, and its introduction

into the manufacturing industry, was opposed by
many cloth workers who were, not unnaturally,
afraid of losing their jobs to a machine.
Mechanization, however, became one of the more
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
significant factors that enabled the Industrial

Revolution to take place.
346. d
Robert Fulton (1765-1815), an American inventor

and engineer, designed the first efficient steamboat,
thus inaugurating a new era of power-driven
navigation.
347. b
Guglielmo Marconi (1874-1937), an Italian electrical

engineer and Nobel laureate, invented the first
practical radio-signaling system.
Eli Whitney invented the cotton gin to separate cotton

fibres from the seeds.
336. a
The first textile factory was built in Rhode Island in

the United States by Samuel Slater.
337. a
James improved the steam engine in 1769 making

the machine more economical and valuable not only
for the textile mills but also for industries.
348. a
Cyrus Field, an American merchant and financier,

succeeded in laying the first trans-Atlantic cable in
1866.
338. d
In the early 18th century the demand for coal

escalated when English iron founders John
Wilkinson and Abraham Darby used coal, in the form
of coke, instead of charcoal to manufacture iron.
349. d
The Diesel engine was invented which before the

World War I in 1892.
The Open-hearth is used for the production of steel
from pig iron on large scale.
350. b
Poor working conditions for workers encouraged

people to rise against the system. The workers
started to protest by organising strikes. The gangs
of masked workers, who took part in such violent
strikes, came to be called Luddites after their
legendary leader Ned Ludd.
351. a
The First Opium War was fought between the British

and China over the issue of opium trade which was
not being allowed by the Chinese Emperor.
352. b
The Dutch took control of Malacca in the 17th century

from the Portuguese.
Hormuz, Goa and Malacca were some of the
strategic bases of the Portuguese in Asia in the 16th
century.
353. b
The Seven Years War was worldwide series of

conflicts fought from 1756 to 1763 for the control of
Germany and for supremacy in colonial North
America and India. In North America, the warfare
ended with the Treaty of Paris in 1763, and the
peace terms reflected British military successes.
Britain gained control over half the North American
continent, including French Canada, all French
territorial claims east of the Mississippi River, and
Spanish Florida.
354. b
Before his death, Guru Nanak appointed Bhai Lehna

(one of his followers) as his successor. He was
renamed as Guru Angad, expressing that he was a
part of Guru Nanak himself.
355. d
Jahangir looked upon the Sikh community as a

potential threat to his empire. So he ordered the
execution of Guru Arjan in 1606.
356. d
Divya Prabandham is a compilation of devotional

songs, written by the Alvars, in honour of Hindu
god Vishnu.
340. b
341. b
CM
339. b
Louis Pasteur invented the process of

pasteurisation.
Voltaire exposed the evils of absolutism and
corruption in the church. The flavor of Voltaires
activities could be summarized in the phrase he
often used: crasons linfme (let us crush the
infamous one). With this phrase, he referred to
any form of religion that persecutes nonadherents
or that constitutes fanaticism.
The representatives of the Third Estate demanded
the three Estates to meet as a single chamber with
member having a vote. The first two Estates
opposed this demand forcing the Third Estate to
declare itself as the National Assembly on 17 Junu
1789.
342. d
Age of Enlightenment is a term used to describe

the trends in thought and letters in Europe and the
American colonies during the 18th century prior to
the French Revolution. It describes a new age
enlightened by reason, science, and a respect for
humanity.
The Third Estate was of the commons.
343. c
The hot blast process refers to the preheating of air

blown into blast furnace in metallurgical processes.
344. b
345. a
AT
335. b
King Louis XVI tried to flee from France with his

family at the start of the French Revolution, but this
attempt failed.
The first French National Assembly took oath in a
tennis court because the king closed the hall of the
assembly to prevent the Third Estate from carrying
out its revolutionary proceedings.
Henry Bessemer invented the Bessemer process
to obtain steel directly from cast iron for making
rails and ship plates.
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General Knowledge
Question Bank
Nadir Shah, the ruler of Iran, looted Delhi in 1739.

This was followed by a series of plundering attacks
by Afghan ruler Ahmed Shah Abdali. He invaded
North India five times between 1748 and 1761. Timur
Shah Durrani was the successor of Ahmed Shah
Abdali and Shuja Shah Durrani was the successor
of Timur Shah Durrani.
369. a
Aurangzeb insulted Shivaji when he came to accept

Mughal authority after his defeat.
Mansabdar is one who holds a mansab, meaning a
position or rank.
There was a huge increase in the number of
mansabdars by Aurangzebs reign. This was a big
problem for Aurangzeb.
358. c
There is an inscription on the pillar mentioning a

ruler named Chandra, who probably belonged to
the Gupta dynasty.
370. c
Mirza Hakim was stepbrother of Akbar and Governor

of Kabul.
371. a
359. a
It is the story of a merchant named Kovalan. He fell

in love with a courtesan named Madhavi, neglecting
his wife Kannagi. Later, he and Kannagi left for
Madurai, where he was wrongly accused of theft
and sentenced to death. Kannagi, full of grief and
anger at this injustice, destroyed the entire city of
Madurai.
The Kandariya Mahadeva temple at Khajurao in

Madhya Pradesh was constructed in 999 by King
Dhangadeva of the Chandela dynasty. The temple
is dedicated to Shiva.
372. d
Shrimara Shrivallabha defeated Sena I and plundered

Sri Lanka. Sena II tried to avenge this defeat of his
predecessor and launched an attack on Madurai
where he tried to find and restore the gold statue of
the Buddha which was taken away by Shrimara
Shrivallabha.
361. b
362. c
CM
360. a
The manuscripts in early India were usually written

on palm leaf, or on the specially prepared bark of a
tree known as the birch, which grows in the
Himalayas.
373. d
A poem composed by Harshena (in Sanskrit) is

inscribed on the Ashokan pillar at Allahaba(d) The
poem is full of praise for Samudragupta.
Chokhamela, who belonged to the untouchable

Mahar caste, was a Marathi saint-poet. He was a
devotee of Vitthalaa. form of Vishnu).
374. b
Rashtrakutas in the Deccan were subordinate to

the Basdami Chalukyas of Karnataka till the mideighth century.
Harshvardhan was successful in the east and

conquered both Magadha and Bengal after
conquering Kanauj. But he failed to advanced
towards the Deccan when he was stopped by the
Chalukya king Pulakeshin II.
363. c
Mahavircharitam was written by Bhavabhuti, an

8th century scholar of India noted for his plays and
poetry, written in Sanskrit.
364. d
Ashvaghosha was an Indian philosopher-poet who

lived in Kanishkas court of Peshawar. He was the
part of a war indemnity won by Kanishka.
365. b
Satavahana rulers were known as lords of the

dakshinapatha, literally the route leading to the south.
Satakarni was the most important Satavahana ruler.
366. b
Ashoka appointed officials, known as the dhamma

mahamatta who went from place to place teaching
people about dhamma.
367. d
The rules made for the Buddhist sangha were

written down in a book called the Vinaya Pitaka.
The book contained about who could join the sangha
and who couldnt.
368. c
AT
357. a
Emperor Jahangir married Mehrunnisa in 1611.

Mehrunnisa was given the title Nur Jahan (light of
the world).
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375. b
376. d
Babur was just 12 when he succeeded to the throne

of Ferghana in 1494.
Babur defeated Sultan Ibrahim Lodi in the first Battle
of Panipat.
377. d
The British government officially abolished the

Mughal Empire in 1857 and exiled Bahadur Shah
Zafar to Burma. His sons were shot dead.
378. d
Harshcharita is a biography of Harshvardhana, who

ruled nearly 1400 years ago, written by his court
poet Banabhatta.
379. a
In 1914 the First World War broke out. Steel produced

in Britain now had to meet the demands of war in
Europe. So imports of British steel into India declined
dramatically and the Indian Railways turned to
TISCO for supply of rails.
380. c
In January 1784 Jones founded the Bengal Asiatic

Society. He initiated its research journal, Asiatic
Researches, in 1788.
381. a
The Hindu College was established in Benaras in

1791 to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit
texts that would be useful for the administration of
the country.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Thomas Babington Macaulay saw India as an

uncivilised country that needed to be civilised. No
branch of Eastern knowledge, according to him
could be compared to what England had produced.
383. d
The Woods Despatch emphasised on the practical

benefits of a system of European learning, as
opposed to Oriental knowledge.
384. a
Issued by Charles Wood, the President of the Board

of Control of the Company, it has come to be known
as Woods Despatch.
385. c
The English Education Act was introduced to make

English the medium of instruction for higher education
and to stop the promotion of Oriental institutions.
387. a
The Satnami movement in Central India, founded by

a leader named Ghasidas who came from a low
caste, worked among the leather workers and
organised a movement to improve their social status
Keshub Chunder Sen was one of the main leaders

of the Brahmo Samaj. He joined the sect in 1857 and
emphasised social reform. He broke away from the
movement to form the Bharatvarshiya Brahmo
Samaj. Chunder Sens group promoted education
for women, remarriage by widows and the abolition
of child marriage.
394. a
According to the Child Marriage Restraint Act of

1929 no man below the age of 18 and woman below
the age of 16 could marry.
The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College was
founded in 1875 by Sayyid Ahmed Khan.
395. a
Returning to India from the United States in 1897

with many of his followers, Vivekananda
established first the Ramakrishna Mission in Calcutta.
The Ramakrishna Mission stressed the ideal of
salvation through social service and selfless action.
CM
386. b
393. c
396. c
They came to India in 1785 and stayed for seven

years, journeying from Calcutta to northern and
southern India. They produced some of the most
evocative picturesque landscapes of Britains newly
conquered territories in India.
397. d
Gulamgiri was written by Jyotiba Phule in 1873. He

dedicated the book to all those Americans who had
fought to free slaves in the American Civil War.
According to the Ilbert Bill, Indian judges were

allowed to try the Europeans. This offended the
white community and they all stood against the bill.
The Indian National Congress during its first twenty
years was moderate in its objectives and methods,
which was rightly so as the organisation was in its
infant phase at that time.
398. b
Ambedkar started a temple entry movement in which

his Mahar caste followers participated. Ambedkar
led three such movements for temple entry between
1927 and 1935.
Naoroji, a businessman in a mercantile firm of Cama

and Company and publicist settled in London, and
for a time member of the British Parliament, guided
the younger nationalists.
399. d
A.O. Hume, a retired British official, played a part in

bringing Indians from the various regions together
to form the Indian National Congress.
Pherozeshah Mehta was one of the founding
members of the Indian National Congress. This was
the time of the moderates in the Indian National
Congress.
400. a
Womesh Chandra Banerjee (1844 1906) was one

of the founding members of the Indian National
Congress from Calcutta and its first president.
401. b
The Arms act of 1878 was one of the policies of

Lytton which proved fatal for his reign and sowed
the seeds of freedom struggle in India.
402. d
Surendranath Banerji founded the Indian Association

in 1876 with the help of Anand Mohan Bose. It was
one of the first avowed nationalist organisation
founded in British India.
Rammohun Roy wanted Indian people to give up old

practices and adopt a new way of life. He was
keen to spread western education in the country
and bring about greater freedom and equality for
women.
Jyotiba Phule was very critical of the upper-caste
leaders who preached the anti-colonial nationalism.
388. d
389. b
390. a
391. c
392. b
AT
382. b
Naicker was an outspoken critic the Bhagavad Gita

and the Ramayana. He said that these texts had
been used to establish the authority of Brahmans
over lower castes and the domination of men over
women.
He became a member of the Congress, only to leave
it in disgust when he found that at a feast organised
by nationalists, seating arrangements were such
that the lower castes were made to sit at a distance
from the upper castes.
Convinced that untouchables had to fight for their
dignity, Naicker founded the Self Respect Movement.
He argued that untouchables were the true
upholders of an original Tamil and Dravidian culture
which had been subjugated by Brahmans.
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General Knowledge
Question Bank
405. b
Bal Gangadhar Tilak was among the leaders who

raised questions about the political style of the
Congress in its initial phase. He believed that people
must rely on their own strength, not on the good
intentions of the government. He wanted that the
people must fight for swaraj.
Curzon partitioned Bengal to curtail the influence of
Bengali politicians and to split the Bengali people on
the basis of religion.
406. a
The Vernacular Press Act was one of Lyttons

reactionary policies which played a part in sowing
the seeds of freedom struggle in India.
407. c
The partition of Bengal infuriated people all over

India. All sections of the Congress opposed it. The
struggle that unfolded came to be known as the
Swadeshi movement, strongest in Bengal but with
echoes in the other parts of India as well.
408. c
409. a
410. d
411. c
412. a
The Congress split at its Surat Session in 1907. The

Moderates were opposed to the use of boycott.
They felt that it involved the use of force. After the
split the Congress came to be dominated by the
Moderates with Bal Gangadhar Tilaks followers
functioning from outside.
413. b
The Congress and the Muslim League signed the

historic Lucknow Pact and decided to work together
for representative government in the country.
414. b
The Russian Revoltion in 1917 inspired many Indian

nationalists. News about peasants and workers
struggles and ideas of socialism circulated widely
which encouraged the nationalists in India.
415. c
Mahatma Gandhi, aged 46, arrived in India in 1915

from South Africa.
AT
404. c
The newspapers printed in vernaculars used to be

very critical of the government. The Vernacular
Press Act allowed the government to confiscate
the assets of newspapers including their printing
presses if the newspapers published anything that
was found objectionable.
The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was started in 1870
while the Indian National Congress was founded in
1885.
CM
403. d
In October 1906 a delegation of about 35 Muslim

leaders called upon Lord Minto, the viceroy, to ask
for separate electorates for Muslims and a weighted
proportion of legislative representation that would
reflect their historic role as rulers and their record
of cooperating with the British. This delegation,
joined by others, formed the All-India Muslim League
in December 1906.
The League supported the partition of Bengal and it
demanded for separate electorates for Muslims.
The Swadeshi Movement in deltaic Andhra was
known as the Vandematram Movement.
According to partition of Bengal by Curzon, Bihar,
Orissa , Assam and West Bengal were to be on one
side and East Bengal, the muslim dominated part of
Bengal, on the other side.
The British said that partition of Bengal was being
done for administrative convenience but the main
reason behind the way the partition was done was
to curtail the nationalist movement and divide the
people on communal basis.
The demand for separate electorates for Muslims
was conceded by the government in 1909. Some
seats in the councils were now reserved for
Muslims who would be elected by Muslim voters.
Page 84
416. a
417. b
The poor farmers of Champaran were forced to

grow indigo and other cash crops instead of food
crops. The Champaran Satyagraha was against
this cruel treatment of the farmers by the British.
418. a
The Rowlatt Act was enacted in 1919. The act

curbed fundamental rights such as the freedom of
expression and strengthened police powers. It
empowered the police to act without any trial.
419. c
In 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the

Turkish Sultan or Khalifa. People in India were furious
about this as they had been about the Jallianwala
massacre. This started the Khilafat Movement.
420. a
Mahatma Gandhi was against violent movements.

He abruptly called off the Non-Cooperation
Movement when in February 1922 a crowd of
peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura.
Twenty-two policemen were killed on that day.
421. d
In 1927 the British government in England decided

to send a commission headed by Lord Simon to
decide Indias political future.
422. d
Revolutionary nationalists such as Bhagat Singh

and his comrades wanted to fight colonial rule and
the rich exploiting classes through a revolution of
workers and peasants. For this purpose they
founded the Hindustan Socialist Republican
Association (HSRA) in 1928 at Ferozeshah Kotla in
Delhi.
423. b
Members of the HSRA assassinated Saunders, a

police officer who had led a lathi-charge that caused
the death of Lala Lajpat Rai.
424. c
The Government of India Act of 1935 prescribed

provincial autonomy and the government announced
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
426. b
The Simon Commission had no Indian

representatives in it.
Congress leaders were ready to support the British
in the World War II. But in return they wanted that
India be granted independence after the war. The
British refused to concede the demand. The
Congress ministries resigned in protest.
Mahatma Gandhi led a mass civil disobedience
movement in 1942, demanding an end to British rule
in India. The British must quit India immediately, he
told them. To the people he said, do or die in your
effort to fight the British but you must fight nonviolently.
427. d
In January 1941, Bose went to Singapore, via

Germany, and raised the Azad Hind Fauj or the
Indian National Army, to free India from British
control.
428. a
C. Rajagopalachari, popularly known as Rajaji,

served as member of the Interim Government of
1946 and as free Indias first Indian GovernorGeneral.
429. d
Lala Lajpat Rai was one of the extremists. He

criticised the moderates section and believed that
people must rely on their own strength, not on the
good intentions of the government; people must
fight for swaraj.
The first session of the Indian National Congress
was held in Bombay in December 1885.
430. c
431. a
On learning about the Jallianwala Bagh massacre,

Rabindranath Tagore expressed the pain and anger
of the country by renouncing his knighthood which
he got from the British crown in 1915.
435. d
In October 1952, a veteran Gandhian named Potti

Sriramulu went on a hunger fast demanding the
formation of Andhra state to protect the interests of
Telugu speakers. Potti Sriramulu died fasting on 15
December 1952 which resulted in huge protests.
The central government was forced to listen to the
demand. Thus, on 1 October 1953, the new state of
Andhra Pradesh came into being.
436. c
In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided

into separate states for Marathi and Gujarati
speakers.
437. c
The British annexed Nagpur in 1853 through the

Doctrine of Lapse.
The Second Anglo-Maratha War (1803-05) resulted
in the British gaining Orissa and the territories north
of the Yamuna river including Agra and Delhi.
438. d
Gandhiji and his followers marched for over 240

miles from Sabarmati to the coastal town of Dandi
where they broke the government law by gathering
natural salt found on the seashore, and boiling sea
water to produce salt.
CM
425. c
434. a
AT
elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937. The

Congress formed governments in 7 out of 11
provinces.
Jinnah proclaimed August 16 1946 as the Direct

Action Day for the purpose of winning a separate
Muslim state. Savage Hindu-Muslim riots broke out
in Calcutta the next day and quickly spread
throughout India. Thousands of people lost their
lives in the riots.
Naorojis book Poverty and Un-British rule in India
offered a scathing criticism of the negetive impact
of British rule on the economy.
432. a
The moderates were opposed to the use of boycott.

They felt that it involved the use of force.
The All India Muslim League was formed in Dacca
(present day Dhaka) in 1906.
433. b
The Rowlatt Act curbed fundamental rights of the

people such as the freedom of expression and
strengthened police powers. Mahatma Gandhi
asked the Indian people to observe 6 April 1919 as
a day of non-violent opposition to this Act, as a day
of humiliation and prayer
Page 85
439. b
440. b
441. a
Hiranya-Garbha literally meaning Golden-Womb

was a ritual performed for a Kshatriya rebirth, even
if he (the sacrificer) was not one by birth.
442. c
Vetti is a tax levied by the Cholas which was taken

not in cash but in form of forced labour.
443. a
Because there were three parties in this longdrawn conflict, historians often describe it as the
tripartite struggle.
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni from Afghanistan
extended control over parts of Central Asia, Iran
and the north-western part of the subcontinent. He
was interested in finding out more about the people
he conquered. So he entrusted a scholar named alBiruni to write an account of the subcontinent.
444. d
445. c
Prithviraj III of Chahamanas defeated Muhammad

Ghori in 1191 ADat the town of Tarain. But he lost to
Ghori the very next year at the Second Battle of
Tarain.
446. d
It was the Chola king Vijayalaya from Uraiyur who

built the town of Thanjavur.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
447. b
Vellanvagai is land of non-Brahmana peasant

proprietors, Tirunamattukkani is land gifted to temples
and Shalabhoga is land for the maintenance of a
school, according to Chola inscriptions.
460. c
Khalji (1290 - 1320), Tughluq (1320 - 1414), Sayyid

(1414 - 1451), Lodi (1451 1526)
461. b
Pricess Manmati of Marwar was married to Shah

Jahans mother.
462. d
Abul Fazl wrote a three volume history of Akbars

reign titled Akbar Nama. The third volume is the
Ain-i Akbari. The third volume deals with Akbars
administration, household, army, the revenues and
geography of his empire. It also explains about the
traditions and culture of the people living in India.
Many rulers described their achievements in

Prashastis written by Brahmanas in administration
Prashastis contain details that may be biased
towards the emperor and may not be true.
449. a
Delhi first became the capital of a kingdom under

the Tomara Rajputs, who were defeated in 1165 AD
by the Chauhans (Chahamanas) of Ajmer lead by
Prithviraj Chauhan. Qutbuddin Aybak was the first
Turkish ruler of Delhi while Ghiyasuddin Balban rules
during the later half of the thirteenth century.
463. b
Rudramadevi (1262-1289) of the Kakatiya dynasty

of Warangal changed her name on her inscriptions
and pretended to be a man.
Todar Mal (Akbars revenue minister) carried out

this survey during 1570-1580. On the basis of this
survey, tax was fixed on each crop in cash. Each
province was divided into revenue circles with its
own schedule of revenue rates for individual crops.
464. a
Aurangzeb insulted Shivaji after defreating him. He

escaped from Agra, declared himself an independent
king and resumed his campaigns against the
Mughals.
465. c
Prince Akbar rebelled against Aurangzeb and

received support from the Marathas and Deccan
Sultanate. He finally fled to Safavid Iran.
466. a
Kharaj is a tax levied under the Delhi Sultans on

cultivation of agricultural land amounting to about
50 percent of the peasants produce.
Abul Fazl wrote a three volume history of Akbars

reign titled, Akbar Nama .
467. a
Baburs reign : 1526-1530

Humayuns reign: 1530-1540 and 1555-1556
454. a
Alauddin Khilji constructed Siri Fort to defend the

city from Mongols.
468. d
455. b
Muhammad bin Tughluq, instead of building a new

garrison town, garrisoned his soldiers in the oldest
of four cities of Delhi after moving its residents to
Daulatabad.
From their fathers side, the Mughals were the

successors of Timur.
Timur was ruler of Iran, Iraq and modern day Turkey.
469. d
Todar Mal, born in Uttar Pradesh in a Khatri family,

and rose to become the Finance Minister in Akbars
Darbar of the Mughal Empire.
456. d
Muhammad bin Tughluq raised a large standing army

to plan an attack on Transoxiana.
470. b
457. c
In Delhi, Coins were named Delhiwal during the reign

of Tomaras and Chahamanas (Chauhans) during
the early medieval India. These coins had a wide
circulation.
Sher Khan defeated Humayun at Chausa (1539)

and Kanauj (1540), forcing him to flee to Iran.
Humayun recaptured Delhi in 1555 but died in an
accident the following year.
471. a
The Mughals did not believe in the rule of

primogeniture, where the eldest son inherited his
fathers estate.
Akbars revenue minister, Todar Mal introduced the
revenue system known as zabt.
472. d
The custom of coparcenary inheritance means a

division of the inheritance amongst all the sons.
473. d
The Ain-i Akbari is the third volume of the Akbar

Nama, written by Abul Fazl.
Mehrunnisa, married the Emperor Jahangir in 1611
and received the title Nur Jahan.
CM
450. d
451. d
452. b
453. a
The Delhi Sultans appointed their trust worthy slaves

instead of appointing aristocrats or leaders to high
administrative posts. They believed that worthy and
experienced slaves would make reliable governors
and administrators.
458. b
459. c
AT
448. b
The authors of Persian tawarikh advised rulers on

the need to preserve an ideal social order based
on birthright and gender distinctions. But the Delhi
Sultans believed that worthy and experienced
slaves would make reliable governors and
administrators. So they appointed their loyal and
experienced slaved to high administrative posts.
Page 86
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
In 1770 a terrible famine killed ten million people in

Bengal. About one-third of the population was wiped
out.
486. d
Calico, one of the oldest textiles known, originated

as a fine weave in Calicut (now Kozhikode), India,
for which it was named.
475. b
1793 - Introduction of the Permanent Settlement

1765 - East India Compant appointed as the Diwan
of Bengal.
1859 - Blue Rebellion by indigo farmers
1822 - Introduction of the Mahalwari Settlement
487. a
Patola was woven in Surat, Ahmedabad and Patan.

Although existent patolas of Gujarat do not predate
the late 18th century, their history certainly goes
back to the 12th century, if not earlier.
476. b
In 1856, Governor-General Canning decided that

Bahadur Shah Zafar would be the last Mughal king
and after his death none of his descendants would
be recognised as kings they would just be called
princes.
488. a
Worried by the popularity of Indian textiles, wool

and silk makers in England began protesting against
the import of Indian cotton textiles. In 1720, the British
government enacted a legislation banning the use
of printed cotton textiles chintz in England. This
act was known as the Calico Act.
489. b
Richard Arkwright invented the steam engine in

1786.
477. d
The British gained control of Delhi from the Marathas
after defeating them in the second Anglo-Maratha
war in 1803.
CM
478. a
479. c
A cul-de-sac is a street with a dead en(d) Open

squares, winding lanes, quiet cul-de-sacs and
water channels were the pride of Delhis residents
during the Mughals.
480. a
The period from 1830 to 1857 is sometimes referred

to as a period of Delhi renaissance. Delhi College,
formed in 1792, during the 1840s and 1850s was
the epicentre of Delhi Renaissance.
481. d
The rebels of Taiping wanted to establish a kingdom

where a form of Christianity was practised, where
no one held any private property, where there was
no difference between social classes and between
men and women.
The Governor-General of India was given the title
of Viceroy in 1858 while the capital of India was
shifted to Delhi from Calcutta in 1911.
482. b
For its sprawling iron and steel industry in the second

half of the nineteenth century, Britain came to be
known as the workshop of the world
483. b
King George V was crowned in England in 1911.

The Durbar held in Delhi in 1911 by the British was
to celebrate the coronation of King George V.
The Delhi College, formed in 1792, is now under the
Delhi University and is named as Zakir Hussain Delhi
College.
484. b
485. b
AT
474. b
When the Portuguese first came to India in search

of spices they landed in Calicut on the south-west
coast of India.
India, around 1750, was already by far the worlds
largest producer of cotton.
Muslin was a name given by the Europeans to all
finely woven textiles from India carried by Arab
merchants in Mosul in present-day Iraq.
Page 87
490. b
By the beginning of the nineteenth century, Englishmade cotton textiles successfully ousted Indian
textiles from their markets in Africa, America and
Europe. With this thousands of weavers in India
were thrown out of employment.
491. d
The first cotton mill in India was set up as a spinning

mill in Bombay in 1854.
492. b
Wootz steel when made into swords produced a

very sharp edge with a flowing water pattern. This
pattern came from very small carbon crystals
embedded in the iron. Tipu Sultans legendary
swords were made of wootz.
493. d
In the 14th Century, Iltutmish constructed the tank in

Hauz Khas, Delhi for supplying water to Siri Fort
area.
494. c
Panini, born around 6th century BC, prepared a

grammar for Sanskrit in which he arranged the
vowels and the consonants in a special order, and
then used these to create formulae like those found
in Algebra. He used these to write down the rules
of the language in short formulae
495. b
Vajji, or Vrijji, was the confederacy of the Licchavis

and neighbouring peoples in Bihar, India, that existed
from the 6th century BC to the 4th century BC. Its
capital was at Vaishali.
496. c
Vardhamana Mahavira was the 24 and most recent

tirthankara (ford-maker) of Jainism.
497. b
In the Spirit of the Laws, Montesquieu proposed a

division of power within the government between
the legislative, the executive and the judiciary.
498. d
Lockes views, in his Two Treatises of Government

(1690), attacked the theory of divine right of kings
and the nature of the state as conceived by English
philosopher and political theorist Thomas Hobbes.
th
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
A number of spices like pepper and cloves are

grown on the hills of Kerala. The spices made this
region an attractive place for foreign traders, Jewish
and Arab being the first.
512. c
Formic acid is widely used in the chemical industries

and in dyeing and tanning. In nature, formic acid
occurs in the poisons of stinging ants and other
insects and in stinging nettles.
500. d
St. Thomas is said to have come to Kerala nearly

2000 years ago and is credited with bringing
Christianity to India.
513. a
The green pigment in plant leaves called chlorophyll

helps plant leaves to capture the energy of the
sunlight for photosynthesis.
Soil has bacteria that convert gaseous nitrogen into
a usable form and release it into the soil. These are
absorbed by the plants along with water.
514. b
Organic matter releases acids. If the soil is too acidic,

it can be neutralised by adding bases like quick lime
(calcium oxide).
Turmeric is a good naturally occurring indicator
which turns red when treated with a base.
515. d
Respiration is an exothermic process, a process in

which heat is released along with other products.
Formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen is a
combination reaction. Two molecules of hydrogen
combine with one molecule of oxygen to for two
molecules of water.
Science
AT
499. b
Rice is rich in starch which is a carbohydrate. When

a few drops of dilute iodine solution is put in a
substance rich in starch, its turns blue-black in
colour.
502. d
Vitamin D can be made by our body itself. Our skin

uses sunlight to produce vitamin (D)
503. a
Vitamin A keeps our skin and eyes healthy.
504. a
Plants use water and carbon dioxyide to prepare

food through the process of photosynthesis with
oxygen as a by product.
505. a
Just like animals, plants too consume oxygen for

respiration. Plants need sunlight for the process of
photosynthesis, not respiration.
516. c
Caesium has a very low melting point (28.39 C)

than the other three. Caesium will melt if you keep it
on your palm.
506. c
Rhizobium is a soil bacterium that forms nodules on

the roots of legumes. It takes up nitrogen from the
atmosphere and coverts it into a soluble form which
is consumed by the plant.
517. a
Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, is the hardest

known natural substance.
518. b
Ductility is the property of a metal or any other

material that allows a it to be drawn into wires. Gold
is the most ductile metal.
519. c
Alkali metals such as potassium and sodium are so

highly reactive that they catch fire if kept in the
open. Hence, to protect them from catching fire,
they are kept immersed in kerosene oil.
507. d
508. b
CM
501. b
Ruminent animals quickly swallow the food and

store it in a part of the stomach called rumen. The
food gets partially digested here and is called cud.
Later the cud returns to the mouth in small lumps
and the animal chews it.
Lohi, Rampur Bushair, Nali and Bakharwal are
different breeds of sheep.
Lohi - Rajasthan and Punjab,
Rampur Bushair - Uttar Pradesh and Himachal
Pradesh,
Nali - Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana
Bakharwal Jammu and Kashmir
509. b
Scurvy is a disease of human beings caused by a

prolonged deficiency of vitamin C in the diet.
510. b
Cuscuta (Amarbel) does not have chlorophyll. It

takes its food from a host plant and deprives it of
valuable nutrients.
511. d
Amla contains ascorbic acid, Tamarind contains

tartaric acid and Lemon contains citric acid.
Page 88
520. b
521. d
Copper has a very low reactivity so it is found in the

free state. Other three are highly reactive metals
therefore they are never found in the free state.
522. a
24 carat gold is very soft and hence not suitable for

making ornaments. It is alloyed with either copper
or silver to make it hard. In India, 22 carat gold is
used for making ornaments. It means 22 parts of
pure gold is alloyed with 2 parts of either copper or
silver.
523. b
Mercury combines with all the common metals

except iron and platinum to form alloys that are
called amalgams.
524. d
Solder is an alloy of lead and tin (Pb and Sn). It is

used for welding electrical wires together due to its
low melting point.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Not every plant has chlorophyll in its leaves. Some

plants get their chlorophyll from other host plants.
They are parasitic in nature.
526. d
Pitcher plant is an insectivorous plant. This is why it

is a heterotroph (one who depends on the food
produced by others). Starch is produced by
photosynthesis, not protein.
527. c
The inner walls of the small intestine have

thousands of finger-like outgrowths called villi.
The villi increase the absorption surface area for
digestion providing efficient absorption of nutrients.
Galvanisation is a process of depositing a layer of
zinc on iron or steel to prevent rusting.
529. c
The lion-tailed macaque (also called Beard ape)

lives in the rain forests of Western Ghats. It is
thought to be the rarest old world monkey and is in
serious danger of extinction.
530. b
531. b
532. d
Terylene is made from a polyester derived from

terephthalic acid and ethylene. It can be drawn into
very fine fibres that can be woven like any other
yarn.
537. d
Melamine is an example of thermosetting plastics. It

resists fire and can tolerate heat better than other
plastics. It is used for making floor tiles, kitchenware
and fabrics which resist fire.
538. c
Metals are said to be sonorous because they make

ringing sound when struck hard. Gallium, a metal, is
sonorous while the other three are not.
539. b
The green coating on copper surface is a mixture

of copper hydroxide and copper carbonate.
2Cu + H2O + CO2 + O2 Cu(OH)2 + CuCO3
540. c
Saturn is the least dense of the solar systems

planets. Its density is less than that of water. The
very low density of Saturn is attributed to the fact
that the planet consists mainly of the lightweight
gas hydrogen.
541. b
Metalloids are elements which possess characters

of both metals and non metals. Silicon is a metalloid.
Bismuth and tin are metals while phosphorus is a
non metal.
542. d
Metal oxides are basic in nature.

Naphthalene is an organic compound with formula
C10H8.
543. c
A Red Data Book contains lists of endangered

species.
544. d
Cells having well organised nucleus with a nuclear

membrane are called eukaryotic. On the other hand,
cells having nuclear material without nuclear
membrane are prokaryotic. Bacteria and blue green
algae are eukaryotic organisms.
CM
528. a
536. d
AT
525. a
CFCs damage the ozone layer when they escape

from sources such as refrigerators, air conditioners
and aerosol sprays. The CFCs drift up to the
stratosphere, an upper layer of the atmosphere
where strong ultraviolet radiation from the Sun
breaks them down. As they break down, they
release chlorine, which depletes the protective
ozone layer.
When inhaled carbon monoxide combines with
hemoglobin in the blood, preventing absorption of
oxygen and resulting in asphyxiation.
Pollutants like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
react with atmospheric water vapour to form
sulphuric acid and nitric acid. The acids drop down
with rain, making the rain acidic. This is called acid
rain. Acid rain corrodes the marble of the monuments
like Taj Mahal.
533. a
Sirius, also known as Dog Star, is the brightest star

in the sky. It is situated in the constellation Canis
Major.
545. c
Frog, starfish and sea urchin exhibit external

fertilization. Catfish lays its eggs on the nest made
by both male and female.
534. b
Venus is the brightest object in the sky after the

Sun and the Moon. It is often called the morning star
when it appears in the east at sunrise, and the
evening star when it is in the west at sunset.
546. a
535. a
The ability of an element to form bonds with other

atoms of the same element, giving rise to large
molecules, is known as catenation. Carbon
predominantly exhibits catenation, while sulphur,
silicon and nitrogen also exhibit this property to some
extent.
An oviparous animal lays eggs instead of giving

birth to young ones. So crocodile is an oviparous
animal.
Binary fission reproduction is a type of asexual
reproduction in which an animal reproduces by
dividing into two individuals. Amoeba which is a
single celled organism exhibits binary fission
reproduction.
547. c
The pair of sex chromosomes in a boy is XY and in

a girl is XX.
Page 89
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
548. a
Pituitary gland is the master endocrine gland in

vertebrate animals. The hormones secreted by the
pituitary stimulate and control the functioning of
almost all the other endocrine glands in the body.
549. c
Goitre is an enlargement of the thyroid gland which

happens when the thyroid gland stops producing
the hormone thyroxine.
560. b
Buckminsterfullerene (C-60) is an allotrope of carbon

which has carbon atoms arranged in the shape of
a football.
561. c
552. d
553. b
An egg along with its shell is regarded as a single

cell.
Plastids, scattered in the cytoplasm, contain
chlorophyll.
methyl propane : c- c -c
|
c
AT
551. a
Thyroxine production requires the presence of

iodine in water. If the water in which the tadpoles
are growing does not contain sufficient iodine, the
tadpoles cannot become adults.
Compounds with identical molecular formula but

different structures are called structural isomers.
n-butane :
c-c-c-c
563. a
Esters are sweet smelling agents. These are used

in making perfumes and as flavouring agents.
564. b
Micelles is a formation of soap molecules,

surrounding the oily dirt, in which the hydrophobic
tails are in the interior of the cluster and the ionic
ends are on the surface of the cluster.
CM
550. b
562. b
When a solid melts, the temperature of the system

remains same as the melting point till the melting is
complete. The additional heat gained is used up in
overcoming the forces of attraction between the
particles.
On increasing the temperature of solids, kinetic
energy of the particles increases.
When brought down to atmospheric pressure, solid
carbon dioxide gets converted directly to gaseous
state without coming into liquid state. This is why it
is also called dry ice.
554. a
Molecular mass of H2SO3 = sum of individual atomic

masses
= 2 1 + 1 32 + 3 16
= 82
555. d
According to Daltons atomic theory, an atom is

indivisible and indestructible (which is not true).
The mass of an atom is approximately equal to the
total mass of its protons and neutrons. Mass of
electrons is negligible in comparison to neutrons
and protons.
565. a
Alcohol gives rise to only carbon dioxide and water

on burning in sufficient air, while petrol on burning
gives out various other products which are harmful
for the environment.
Carboxylic acids do not ionize completely in their
aqueous solutions.
566. b
In 1820 Oersted accidentally discovered that a

compass needle got deflected when an electric
current passed through a metallic wire placed
nearby. Through this observation Oersted showed
that electricity and magnetism were related
phenomena.
567. b
A straight current carrying wire produces a magnetic

field in a plane to which the wire is perpendicular.
568. a
According to the right-hand thumb rule, if you hold

the power line in such a way that the thumb is
pointing towards the flow of current, then the fingers
wrap around the wire in direction of the magnetic
field.
569. d
Magnetic field lines through a conventional compass,

placed in a magnetic field, are in the direction in
which the needle points.
Magnetic field lines never cross each other.
570. a
Maxwells corkscrew rule, also know as the righthand thumb rule, gives the direction directions of
the magnetic field due to a current carrying
conductor.
571. b
Statement (I) is not always correct. It depends on

how you hold the wire. If you are holding the wire in
your right hand in such a way that the thumb points
towards the direction of the current then statement
(I) is correct. Otherwise its not.
556. c
557. b
a and d postulates about an atom given by Neil

Bohr.
Neutrons were not discovered during the time of
Rutherfords -particle scattering experiment.
558. a
Isobars have different atomic numbers but same

mass number. Atomic number of calcium is 20 and
that of argon is 18 but both of them have mass
number 40.
559. c
Carbon shares its four outermost electrons with

each of the four chlorine atoms. Other three
compounds have ionic bonding.
Page 90
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of

parallel straight lines. Thus the magnetic field in a
current carrying solenoid is the same at all points
inside the solenoid. That is, the field is uniform inside
the solenoid.
573. d
Flemings right hand rule gives the direction of

induced current in a conductor moving in a magnetic
field. Its not the right-hand thumb rule which gives
the direction of the magnetic field due to a current
carrying conductor.
574. c
589. b
Aqueous soulution of sodium chloride is also called

brine.
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
This process is also known as chlor-alkali process.
590. b
A solution with pH value 8 is more acidic than a

solution with pH value 12. Therefore the first solution
has more concentration of hydronium ions than the
second solution.
Our stomach produces hydrochloric acid which
helps in digestion.
591. b
Acidity of salts of strong acids depend on both the

acidity of the acid as well as the base out of which
the salt is made of. Salts of strong acids with strong
bases are neutral and with weak bases are acidic.
592. a
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2
575. d
When a constant force is applied to an object (moving
with a constant speed) perpendicular to its motion,
then the object starts moving in a circular path.
CaOCl2 (Bleaching powder) + H2O
CM
576. b
AT
572. c
577. b
578. a
Source : Class 10 Page 236 (Chapter 13)

Split-ring type commutator is used in DC generators.
579. b
Cross sectional area = 2X * 2X = 4X2

Resistance = (resistivity*length)/area = (4X * 8X)/
4X2 = 8
580. b
Olfactory indicators are substances whose odour

changes in acidic or basic media.
593. b
When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water,

a white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed.
594. a
Baking powder is a mixture of sodium bicarbonate

and a mild edible acid like tartaric acid. When baking
powder is heated or mixed in water, carbon dioxide
is produced as one of the products. Carbon dioxide
produced here causes bread or cake to rise making
them soft and spongy.
Sodium chloride (common salt) is a neutral salt.
595. b
Gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) has two water molecules

as water of crystallisation.
Washing soda is Na2CO3.10H2O
581. a
582. a
Baking powder (NaHCO3 + H+) is a mixture of baking

soda and a mild edible acid like tartaric acid.
596. d
Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) is baking soda which

is not used for bleaching.
583. a
Neutralisation :
Acid + Base > Salt + Water
597. d
584. b
pH value of an acidic solution is less than 7 while

that of a basic solution is more than 7. pH value of a
neutral solution is 7.
Gypsum is CaSO4.2H2O
Plaster of Paris is CaSO4.1/2H2O
Washing soda is Na2CO3.10H2O
Baking soda is NaHCO3
598. c
Tomato contains tartaric aci(d)
599. a
The blue-green colour of the solution is due to the

formation of copper (II) chloride in the reaction
600. b
Silver and Copper are the best conductors of heat.
601. a
Onion and vanilla are olfactory indicators which

mean that their odour changes in acidic or basic
media. Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide to
displace hydrogen gas and form sodium zincate.
602. d
The reaction given here describes baking action of

baking powder.
Crystals of hydrated copper sulphate are blue in
colour while anhydrous copper sulphate is white
coloured.
585. b
The process of dissolving a base in water is highly

exothermic which means it gives out large amount
of energy.
Hydrogen ions cannot alone, but they exist after
combining with water molecules as hydronium ions.
H+ + H2O > H3O+
586. c
Ants and the stinging hair of nettle leaves secret

formic acid (methanoic acid) which causes pain.
587. a
Tooth enamel, the clear outer layer of the tooth above

the gum line, is the hardest substance in the human
body. Tooth enamel is made of calcium phosphate.
588. d
Page 91
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Caesium has very low melting point and melts if you

keep it on your palm. Palladium, platinum and nickel
have very high melting points.
604. b
Sodium and potassium are so reactive that they

react vigorously even with cold water.
Sodium and potassium catches fire if kept in the
open. So they are kept immersed in kerosene oil.
606. d
Aluminium oxide is amphoteric in nature which

means that it shows both acidic as well as basic
character. Calcium oxide, Sodium oxide and
Magnesium oxide, like other metal oxides, are basic
in nature.
Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
Ability of metals to be beaten into thin sheets
malleability. Gold and silver are the most malleable
metals
607. c
608. a
609. d
Zinc oxide can act as acidic as well as basic oxide.

This dual behaviour is known as amphoterism.
When copper is heated, it is coated with a black
coloured layer over its surface. This black layer is
copper(II) oxide
618. a
Sodium chloride does not exist as molecules but

aggregates of oppositely charged ions.
Ionic compounds are solids and are somewhat hard
because of the strong force of attraction between
the positive and negative ions.
619. c
Pure iron is very soft and stretches easily when

hot. Therefore it is mixed with a small amount of
carbon to make it hard and strong.
620. a
The electrical conductivity of an alloy is less than

that of pure metals.
CM
605. a
617. c
AT
603. c
Lead has exceptionally low thermal conductivity as

compared to other metals.
Anodising is a process of depositing a thick oxide

layer on metal surface to prevent further corrosion.
Magnesium does not react with cold water. It reacts
with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and
hydrogen.
610. b
Iodine is a non metal but it is lustrous.
611. c
Less reactive metal will be displaced by more

reactive metal in its salt solution.
612. c

A process in which energy is released is called an
exothermic process. Both of the above reactions
are exothermic.
621. b
If the amount of water in air is already high, the rate

of evaporation decreases.
622. a
Temperature of a substance does not change when

it is melting because the heat gained is used up by
the particles in gaining kinetic energy.
623. a
White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight. This is

due to the decomposition of silver chloride into silver
and chlorine by light. This reaction is used in black
and white photography.
624. c
Iron, which is more reactive than copper, displaces

copper from copper sulphate to form iron sulphate.
625. a
This is a simple displacement reaction where zinc,

which is more reactive than hydrogen, displaces
hydrogen from the solution.
626. a
Limestone and chalk are different forms of calcium

carbonate.
627. b
By means of X-ray diffraction, Moseley established,

in 1913, a relationship between the frequencies of
X-ray emission lines and what he concluded must
be the atoms nuclear charge, thereby confirming
that the nuclear charge indicated an elements
position in the periodic table.
628. a
Actinium is an actinide element while Polonium and

Francium belong to group 1 and 16 respectively.
629. a
In 1864 British chemist John A. R. Newlands listed

the elements in the order of increasing atomic
weights and noted that a given set of properties
recurs at every eighth place. He named this periodic
repetition the law of octaves, by analogy with the
musical scales.
613. d
614. a
Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts

with nitric acid. It is because nitric acid is a strong
oxidising agent. It oxidises the hydrogen produced
to water and itself gets reduced to nitrogen oxides.
Magnesium and manganese are exceptions which
react with very dilute nitric acid to give hydrogen.
Calcium is above aluminium in the activity series of
metals.
615. a
Aluminium oxide is insoluble in water like most metal

oxides. Other three are soluble in water.
616. d
Ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct

electricity because movement of ions in the solid is
not possible due to their rigid structure.
Page 92
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
631. d
The other three are lanthanides.
632. b
It was assumed by Newlands that only 56 elements

existed in nature and no more elements would be
discovered in the future. But, later on, several new
elements were discovered, whose properties did
not fit into his Law of Octaves
633. d
Cadmium belongs to group 12 while the other three

belong to group 13.
634. b
Noble gases were not discovered at the time

Mendeleev prepared his periodic table. These gases
were discovered very late because they are very
inert and present in extremely low concentrations
in our atmosphere.
643. a
As we move down a group, electronegativity

decreases because the shells increase down the
group and thus there is an increased distance
between the valence electrons and nucleus. This
decreases the ability to accept electrons to attain
stable configuration.
644. a
In Mendeleevs Periodic Table, gaps were left for

the elements to be discovered later. The gap now
occupied by Gallium was named Eka-Aluminium
by Mendeleev.
645. a
The atomic radius decreases in moving from left to

right along a period. This is due to an increase in
nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons
closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the
atom.
646. b
Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner observed that certain

elements with closely similar properties occur in
triads, or groups of three, such as chlorine, bromine,
and iodine. Dbereiner could identify only three triads
from the elements known at that time. These were
Lithium-Sodium-Potassium, Calcium-StrontiumBarium and Chlorine-Bromine-Iodine.
647. d
Animal fats generally contain saturated fatty acids

which are said to be harmful for health. Oils
containing unsaturated fatty acids should be chosen
for cooking.
Alkaline potassium permanganate is an oxidising
agents.
648. d
In moving from left to right along a period in the

periodic table of elements, the atomic radius
decreases.
AT
The position of hydrogen was not correctly defined

by Mendeleev in his periodic table. It was placed
along with alkali metals although its properties
resembled both the alkali metals and the halogens.
CM
630. c
635. d
Aluminium has the electronic configuration of 2,8,3

and belongs to group 13.
636. a
As the effective nuclear charge acting on the

valence shell electrons increases across a period,
the tendency to lose electrons will decrease.
637. b
Dmitry Mendeleyev was best known for his

development of the periodic law of the properties
of the chemical elements. This law states that
elements show a periodicity (regular pattern) of
properties when they are arranged according to
atomic weight.
638. b
Germanium belongs to period 4 while the other three

belong to group 5 of the periodic table.
649. c
As we move down the group in the periodic table,

metallic character increases.
639. c

the tendency to lose electrons will decrease. Hence
the metallic character decreases from left to right in
a period.
650. a
Argon is a noble gas which has a stable electronic

configuration. This is why Argon is called inert gas.
651. d
You will see that the atomic size increases down

the group. This is because new shells are being
added as we go down the group. This increases
the distance between the outermost electrons and
the nucleus so that the atomic size increases in
spite of the increase in nuclear charge.
652. d
Elements form ionic compounds when they are

capable of gaining or losing electrons to form ions.
the tendency to lose electrons will decrease. Thus
across a group electropositivity decreases while
electronegativity increases. A large electronegativity
(or electropositivity) difference leads to an ionic
bond.
640. a
X is carbon which exhibits catenation at very high

level and is the basic element needed for forming
organic compounds. Its electronic configuration is
2,4.
641. b
As the valence shell electrons move away from the

nucleus as we move down the group, the tendency
to lose electrons will increase. Hence the
electropositivity will increase.
642. d
The sequence is inverted here so that elements

with similar properties could be grouped together.
Page 93
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
The cornea is a tough, five-layered membrane

through which light is admitted to the interior of the
eye.
668. d
The iris consists of two sheets of smooth muscle

with contrary actions: dilation (expansion) and
contraction (constriction). These muscles control
the size of the pupil and thus determine how much
light reaches the sensory tissue of the retina.
R (resistance) of the wire changes with the change

in material as its resistivity gets changed and also
resistance vary with temperature.
669. c

Fuse protects the circuit and appliance by stopping
the flow of any unduly high electric current. It is
placed in series with the device. If current larger
than specified value flows through the circuit,
temperature of fuse wire increases. This melts the
fuse wire and breaks the circuit.
The iris consists of two sheets of smooth muscle

with contrary actions: dilation (expansion) and
contraction (constriction). These muscles control
the size of the pupil and thus determine how much
light reaches the sensory tissue of the retina.
670. a
The retina is a complex layer, composed largely of

nerve cells. The light-sensitive receptor cells lie on
the outer surface of the retina in front of a pigmented
tissue layer. These cells take the form of rods or
cones packed closely together like matches in a
box.
654. b
Power = I2R where I is current and R is resistance.

When current is decreased by 50%,
Power = (I/2)2R = I2R/4 = 75% less of I2R
655. a
656. c
657. c
CM
As we move across a period from left to right,

electronegative character increases. Chlorine has
7 electrons in its outermost shell, hence needs just
one electron to complete its octet.
Unit of magnetic field strength is named after Hans

Christian Oersted who played a major role in
understanding electromagnetism.
658. d
Ammeter reading increases when resistance

decreases. Resistance is inversely proportional to
the cross-section area of the wire.
659. b
It is practically not possible to connect electric bulb

and electric heater in series because they require
current of widely different values to operate properly.
660. a
According to the Joules Law of Heating,

H = i2Rt
where H = heat produced, i = current, R = resistance,
t = time
661. b
Tungsten has the highest melting temperature of all

metals.
662. c
Diamond and Ebonite are insulators so they have

high electrical resistivity. Alloys (Constantan) also
have high electrical resistivity. Chromium is a metal
so it is a good conductor of electricity.
663. c
As one of the parallel branches is removed,

resistance of the circuit increases therefore, current
will decrease in the circuit according to ohms law.
664. a
1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
665. a
Gravitational Force F = G (Mass1 x Mass 2) /

distance2
666. d
AT
667. a
653. d
The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is onesixth of the acceleration due to gravity on the earth
(9.8 m/s2)
Page 94
671. c
The eye lens curvature can be modified to some

extent by the ciliary muscles. The change in the
curvature of the eye lens can thus change its focal
length. When the muscles are relaxed, the lens
becomes thin. Thus, its focal length increases. This
enables us to see distant objects clearly.
The pupil of an eye acts like a variable aperture
whose size can be varied with the help of the iris.
When the light is very bright, the iris contracts the
pupil to allow less light to enter the eye.
672. b
The minimum distance, at which objects can be

seen most distinctly without strain, is called the
near point of the eye.
673. a
Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the

eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea. The
crystalline lens merely provides the finer adjustment
of focal length required to focus objects at different
distances on the retina.
674. a
In a myopic eye, the distance between the lens and

the retina is too long. As a result, light rays from
distant objects focus before they strike the retina.
Near objects appear clearly because light rays from
them focus correctly on the retina.
675. d
The band pattern for the spectrum of white light is

VIBGYOR i.e. Violet Indigo Blue Green Yellow Orange
Red.
676. d
In the spectrum of white light by a glass prism, the

violet band is farhest while the red band is closest
to the normal to the prism surface.
When a light ray travels from a medium with high
refractive index to a medium with low refractive
index, the refracted ray bends away from the normal
to the inter-surface.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
The first correct explanation of the phenomenon

was advanced in 1666 by the English mathematician
and physicist Sir Isaac Newton.
678. c
The water droplets act like small prisms. They

refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then
reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when
it comes out of the raindrop. Due to the dispersion
of light and internal reflection, different colours reach
the observers eye.
A concave lens although extends the point at which
light rays focus, this is not exactly required measure
to correct hypermetropic effect. Hypermetropia is
far-sightedness where image is formed beyond the
retina. It an can be corrected by using covex lenses.
These converging lenses provide the additional
focussing power required for forming the image on
the retina.
680. a
The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric

refraction of starlight. Since the atmosphere bends
starlight towards the normal, the apparent position
of the star is slightly different from its actual position.
This apparent position of the star is not stationary,
but keeps on changing slightly due to turbulence in
the atmosphere. Since the stars are very distant,
they approximate point-sized sources of light. As
the path of rays of light coming from the star goes
on varying slightly, the stars appear twinkling to us.
687. d
Image of an object placed far away from a concave

mirror is formed at the principal focus. The image is
real and inverted and its size is highly diminished.
688. a
Light from the Sun near the horizon passes through

thicker layers of air and larger distance in the earths
atmosphere before reaching our eyes. Hence, at
the sunrise or the sunset, most of the blue light and
shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the
particles and the light that reaches our eyes is of
longer wavelengths. This gives rise to the reddish
appearance of the Sun.
CM
679. d
light of longer wavelengths at the red en(d) Hence,

blue light, which is at the short wavelength end of
the visible spectrum, will be scattered much more
strongly than will the long wavelength red light.
This results in the blue colour of the sunlit sky,
AT
677. b
681. a
Due to the total internal reflection, a rainbow is

always formed in a direction opposite to that of the
Sun.
The hotter air is lighter (less dense) than the cooler
air above it, and has a refractive index slightly less
than that of the cooler air.
682. c
Tyndall effect, also called Tyndall phenomenon,

scattering of a beam of light by a medium containing
small suspended particlese.g., smoke or dust in a
room, which makes visible a light beam entering a
window.
689. a
Image of an object placed at the principal focus of a

convex mirror is formed between the pole and the
principal focus, behind the mirror. The image is
diminished, virtual and erect.
690. b
691. c
According to the laws of refraction

sin i / sin r = n2 / n1 = n21 = refractive index of medium
2 with respect to medium 1, where the ray travels
from medium 1 to medium 2.
692. d
Values less than 7 on the pH scale represent an

acidic solution. As the pH value increases from 7 to
14, it represents an increase in OH ion concentration
in the solution, that is, increase in the strength of
base.
693. a
The process is called the chlor-alkali process

because of the products formed. Chlorine gas is
given off at the anode, and hydrogen gas at the
cathode. Sodium hydroxide solution is formed near
the cathode.
694. d
An acidic solution turns blue litmus paper red. When

an acid reacts with a metal carbonate or metal
hydrogencarbonate, it gives the corresponding salt,
carbon dioxide gas and water.
695. b
The earth is not a perfect sphere. As the radius of

the earth increases from the poles to the equator,
the value of g becomes greater at the poles than at
the equator.
Statement II is known as the Archimedes Principle.
The upwasrd force we are talking about is the
buoyant force.
696. b
Gravitational Force F = G ( Mass1 x Mass2) / distance2
697. c
Kinetic Energy = mass * velocity2 / 2.
683. b
684. b
The light is not bent sufficiently in a hypermetropic

eye. Therefore it focuses at a point behind the retina.
A person with hypermetropia sees well for distance
but near vision is difficult and causes strain.
685. b
Image of an object placed at the centre of curvature

of a concave mirror is formed at the centre of
curvature. The size of image is same as the size of
the object. The image is real and inverted.
686. a
The molecules of air and other fine particles in the

atmosphere have size smaller than the wavelength
of visible light. These are more effective in scattering
light of shorter wavelengths at the blue end than
Page 95
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Initial speed = u = 100 m/s,

Distance travelled in 2s = h = ut + at 2
= 100*2 - 10*4 = 180 m
Potential energy = mgh = 10*10*180 = 18kJ
699. d
Yes the speed would be same as the speed with

which the body was thrown upwards but velocity
is not just speed but speed and direction. The velocity
of the body when it returns to the ground is equal
and opposite to V i.e. -V
701. b
702. a
Let the midway point be R and PQ = 2x. Applying

equations of motion between point P and R
v2 = u2 + 2as, v2 = 502 + 2ax
Applying equations of motion between point R and
Q, 702 = v2 + 2ax
Adding both the equations, 2400 = 4ax or ax = 600
Substituting the value of ax in previous equations,
v2 = 502 + 1200
Momentum is conserved in inelastic collisions, but
the kinetic energy after the collision changes since
some of it is converted to other forms of energy.
Initial momentum = Final momentum
2m*2v mv = (2m + m)Vfinal
Vfinal = v
Speed of sound in air at 20C 344 m/s. When a

sound producing source moves with a speed higher
than that of sound, it produces a very sharp and
loud sound called the sonic boom. The shock
waves produced by a supersonic aircraft have
enough energy to shatter glass and even damage
buildings.
711. c
The speed of sound in metals is very high in

comparison to the speed of sound in air.
Speed of sound at 25C in Aluminium
= 6420m/s, in Nickel = 6040m/s, in Iron
= 5950m/s.
712. b
Sounds of frequencies below 20 Hz are called

infrasonic sound and sounds of frequencies higher
than 20 kHz are called ultrasonic sound.
713. a
Sonar, acronym for SOund Navigation And Ranging,

is a detection system based on the reflection of
underwater sound waves.
714. a
2d = t * v = 5 * 1500 = 7500
d = 3750 m = 3.75 km
715. b
A bat uses ultrasonic waves to track its prey.

Children under the age of five and some animals,
such as dogs can hear up to 25 kHz. As people
grow older their ears become less sensitive to higher
frequencies.
716. d
Cochlea is a spiral structure in the inner ear that

looks like a snail shell and contains tiny hair cells
whose movement is interpreted by the brain as
soun(d)
717. b
Except Dolphins, the other three produce ultrasonic

waves.
718. c
Earthquake produces infrasonic waves which can

be detected by some animals.
719. a
The warm and humid tropical regions of the earth,

between the tropic of Cancer and the tropic of
Capricorn, are rich in diversity of plant and animal
life which is why this region is called the region of
megadiversity.
CM
700. c
710. d
AT
698. b
703. c
Leishmania, a protozoan organism, causes kalaazar. The organisms are oval-shaped, and each
has one long whip-like structure.
704. b
Gustatory receptors are located in the tongue.

Gustatory receptors detect taste of food.
Information like taste or smell is acquired at the end
of the dendritic tip of a nerve cell. This information
sets off a chemical reaction that creates an electrical
impulse. This impulse travels from the dendrite to
the cell body, and then along the axon to its end.
705. b
Olfactory receptors detect smell and are located in

our nose.
706. b
By separating organisms on the basis of a hierarchy

of characteristics into smaller and smaller groups,
we arrive at the basic unit of classification, which
is a species.
707. c
Heinrich Rudolph Hertz discovered the photoelectric

effect which was later explained by Albert Einstein.
720. d
Charles Darwin first described this idea of evolution

in 1859 in his book, The Origin of Species.
708. d
Sound waves are longitudinal waves.

Sound needs a medium to travel. Sound cannot
travel through vacuum.
721. c
In 1959 American biologist R. H. Whittaker described

a classification system of five primary kingdoms:
plants, animals, fungi, protista, and bacteria.
709. b
Speed = wavelength * frequency = 5000 * 0.5

= 2500 m/s
Distance travelled in 4 seconds = 2500 * 4
= 10 km.
722. c
Bryophytes are called the amphibians of the plant

kingdom since they require both aquatic and
terrestrial conditions to complete their life cycle.
Page 96
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
The reproductive organs of plants in all these three

groups are very inconspicuous, and they are
therefore called cryptogamae, or those with hidden
reproductive organs.
724. d
In the Pteridophyta, the plant body is differentiated

into roots, stem and leaves and has specialised
tissue for the conduction of water and other
substances from one part of the plant body to
another.
Cnidarians, also known as coelenterates, diverse
group of aquatic, invertebrate animals armed with
microscopic stinging structures. Cnidarians make
up the phylum Cnidaria, which encompasses more
than 9,000 species, including corals, hydras,
jellyfish, Portuguese man-of-war, and sea
anemones.
726. b
Both Amoeba and Paramecium both are protozoa

and belong to the group Protista.
727. d
Roundworms make up the phylum Nematoda.

Significant forms of roundworm include the various
genera known as hookworm; the filaria, which
cause elephantiasis; the trichina worm, the cause
of trichinosis; and the whipworm, which infests
the human intestine.
728. a
729. b
730. b
731. c
In 1800, a British chemist, William Nicholson (1753

1815), had shown that if electrodes were immersed
in water, and a current was passed, bubbles of
oxygen and hydrogen were produced. Oxygen
bubbles formed on the electrode connected to the
positive terminal of the battery and hydrogen bubbles
formed on the other electrode.
735. b
CH3CH2OH hot con(c) H2SO4 > CH2 = CH2

+ H2O
736. b
By the lens formula, 1/v -1/u = 1/f

1/v 1/-30 = 1/-15
v = 10 cm, Magnification (m) = v/u
= 10/30 = 0.33
737. a
Alkali metals are so soft that they can be cut with a

knife. They have low densities and low melting
points.
CM
725. c
734. a
AT
723. d
Carolus Linnaeus was a Swedish naturalist who

developed binomial nomenclature to classify and
organize plants and animals. He published 14 papers
and also brought out the famous book Systema
Naturae from which all fundamental taxonomical
researches have taken off. His system of
classification was a simple scheme for arranging
plants so as to be able to identify them again.
The system of scientific naming or nomenclature
we use today was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus
in the eighteenth century.
Triploblastic is used to describe a multicellular animal
that has three primary germ layers ectoderm
endoderm mesoderm during embryonic development.
Coelom is the cavity between the body wall and the
gut of many animals, formed when the embryonic
mesoderm is divided into two layers.
Marchantia is a bryophyte.
732. a
Thallophytes are characterized by the simple nature

of their structure, an undifferentiated thallus that
has no root, stem, or leaves.
733. c
By the lens formula, 1/v -1/u = 1/f

1/-10 1/-30 = 1/-15
f = -15 cm, Power = 1/f = 1/-0.15 = -6.66D
Page 97
738. b
Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, is the hardest

natural substance known and has a very high
melting and boiling point.
739. a
Gallium has a very low melting point. It will melt if

you keep it on your palm
740. d
When copper is heated in air, it combines with

oxygen to form copper(II) oxide, a black oxide.
741. b
Aqua regia, (Latin for royal water) is a freshly

prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid
and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1. It can
dissolve gold, even though neither of these acids
can do so alone.
742. a
Activity series of metals : K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn

> Fe > Pb > H > Cu > Hg > Ag > Au
743. a
Carbon has an electronic configuration of 2,4. So if

it loses 4 electrons from the outermost shell or gains
4 electrons, it will acquire a stable noble gas
configuration.
744. c
Aldehyde : R-CH=O
Propanal : CH3-CH2-CH=O
745. a
The atomic size increases down the group.
746. d
Out of the four, all except carbon are inert gases.
747. b
Tuberculosis disease is caused by Mycobacterium

tuberculosis, a rod-shaped bacterium.
748. b
Acetic Acid : CH3COOH
749. d
Fermentation results in the breakdown of complex

organic substances into simpler ones through the
action of catalysis. For example, by the action of
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
diastase, zymase, and invertase, starch is broken

down (hydrolyzed) into complex sugars, then simple
sugars, and finally alcohol.
765. d
Copper cannot displace iron from its solution.
766. d
The slow process of conversion of dead vegetation

into coal is called carbonisation.
Natural gas was formed from the dead remains of
living organisms (fossils).
Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine for smallpox in 1798.
751. a
Citrus canker, a plant disease, is caused by variants

of the bacterium Xanthomonas citri.
767. a
These days, bitumen, a petroleum product, is used

in place of coal-tar for metalling the roads.
752. c
Sir Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1929.

Louis Pasteur discovered fermentation in 1857.
768. c
753. d
Malaria is a disease caused by infection with singlecelled parasites of the genus Plasmodium.
Anopheles mosquitoes transmit these parasites
from one person to another in their bites.
The first observations of cells were made in 1665

by English scientist Robert Hooke, who used a crude
microscope of his own invention to examine a variety
of objects, including a thin piece of cork. Noting the
rows of tiny boxes that made up the dead woods
tissue, Hooke coined the term cell.
769. a
754. a
The bacterium Lactobacillus promotes the formation

of curd. It multiplies in milk and converts it into curd.
Pseudopodia are the projections of varying lengths

protruding out of an amoebas body.
755. d
Robert Kch (1876) discovered the bacterium

(Bacillus anthracis) which causes anthrax disease.
756. a
When a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for

long, it acquires a dull green coating. The green
material is a mixture of copper hydroxide (Cu(OH)2)
and copper carbonate (CuCO3).
CM
757. c
Typhoid Fever is acute infectious disease caused

by the typhoid bacillus Salmonella typhi.
758. a
In agriculture bacteria are used to increase soil

fertility by fixing nitrogen.
759. b
Rust of wheat is a disease of wheat caused by

various fungi and marked by blackish, brownish, or
yellowish streaks on the leaves and stems.
760. b
Bakelite is a thermosetting plasti(c)
761. b
Female Aedes mosquito acts as carrier of dengue

virus.
Measles, also called rubeola, is an acute, highly
contagious, fever-producing disease caused by a
filterable virus.
762. c
AT
750. c
Magnesium Oxide turns red litmus blue. In general,

metallic oxides are basic in nature.
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) + Water (H2O) Sulphurous
acid (H2SO3)
763. b
Phosphorus is a very reactive non-metal. It catches

fire if exposed to air. To prevent the contact of
phosphorus with atmospheric oxygen, it is stored
in water.
764. d
Iron displaces copper from its solution to form green

coloured iron sulphate solution (FeSO4).
Page 98
770. c
Green coloured plastids present in plant cells are

called chloroplast.
The plasma membrane is porous and allows the
movement of substances or materials both inward
and outward.
771. a
Nucleus contains thread-like structures called

chromosomes. These carry genes and help in
inheritance or transfer of characters from the
parents to the offspring.
772. b
Cytoplasm is present in both animal as well as plant

cells.
773. c
Chlorophyll, in the chloroplasts of leaves, is essential

for photosynthesis.
774. c
In external fertilization the fusion of a male and a

female gamete takes place outside the body of the
female.
775. d
Vacuoles in plant cells are generally large as

compared to the vacuoles present in human cells.
Plant cells have both cell membrane and cell wall.
776. b
Ursa major is also known as the Big Dipper, the

Great Bear or the Saptarshi.
777. d
Cell wall is present in plant cells, not human cells.

Plant cells need protection against variations in
temperature, high wind speed, atmospheric
moisture, etc. They are exposed to these variations
because they cannot move.
Plastids are scattered in the cytoplasm of the leaf
cells. They are of different colours not just green.
778. b
A human cell has a well defined nucleus inside it, so

it is a eukaryotic cell.
The entire content of a living cell is known as
protoplasm. It includes the cytoplasm and the
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
779. a
Genes, carried by chromosomes, are a unit of

inheritance in living organisms.
780. d
The animals which give birth to young ones are

called viviparous such as humans.
781. b
The stage of the embryo in which all the body parts

can be identified is called a foetus. In some women
oviducts are blocked. These women are unable to
bear babies because sperms cannot reach the egg
for fertilization. In such cases, doctors collect
freshly released egg and sperms and keep them
together for a few hours for IVF or in vitro
fertilization (fertilization outside the body).
783. a
794. a
In an image formed by a mirror the left of the object

appears on the right and the right appears on the
left. This is known as lateral inversion.
795. b
Chromium has a shiny appearance and it does not

corrode.
796. d
100C = 373 Kelvin
797. c
Chemical formula of ammonia is NH3. Atomic mass

of nitrogen is 14 and that of hydrogen is 1.
Nitrogen: diatomic, Chlorine : diatomic, Helium :
monoatomic.
Those animals which lay eggs are called oviparous

such as hen.
799. c
Ruminent animals quickly swallow the food and

store it in a part of the stomach called rumen. The
food gets partially digested here and is called cud.
Later the cud returns to the mouth in small lumps
and the animal chews it.
800. d
Lemon contains citric acid, Spinach contains oxalic

acid and tamarind contains tartaric acid
801. d
Vitamin D is necessary for keeping the bones and

teeth strong and healthy. It performs this function
by helping the intestines absorb calcium and by
regulating levels of the minerals calcium and
phosphorus in the blood.
802. b
Beriberi is a degenerative disease of the nerves

caused by a deficiency of the vitamin thiamine
(Vitamin B1) and marked by pain, inability to move,
and swelling.
803. c
The above is a test for the presence of proteins in

a food item.
804. a
Goiter is a disease of the thyroid gland characterized

by an enlargement of the gland, visible externally
as a swelling on the front of the neck.
Vinegar is a sour-tasting liquid that is used to flavor

and preserve foods. It is a dilute acetic acid made
by fermenting beer, wine, or cider.
805. d
On a common playing die, the markings on the

opposite face add-up to 7. This means that 2 and 5
are opposite faces. Equal and opposite forces
cancel each other out.
Rickets is a disease, especially of children, caused

by a deficiency in vitamin D that makes the bones
become soft and prone to bending and structural
change.
806. b
Oxalic acid is found in several green leafy

vegetables. Spinach, beet greens and Swiss chard
are all rich in oxalic acid.
785. b
Sebaceous gland is a tiny oil-producing gland that

is commonly found in human skin.
Insulin hormone is produced in the islets of
Langerhans of the pancreas, that regulates the
metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and starches in
the body.
786. a
If people do not have enough iodine in their diet,

they get goitre caused by lack of thyroxine.
787. a
In a frog, metamorphosis is controlled by thyroxine,

the hormone produced by thyroid. Thyroxine
production requires the presence of iodine in water.
788. a
Orion is a well-known constellation that can be seen

during winter in the late evenings. Orion is also
called the Hunter. The three middle stars represent
the belt of the hunter. The four bright stars appear
to be arranged in the form of a quadrilateral.
791. c
Loudness of sound is proportional to the square of

the amplitude of the vibration producing the sound.
798. b
The transformation of the larva into an adult through

drastic changes is called metamorphosis.
790. d
793. b
Hydra reproduce through budding.

Those animals which lay eggs are called oviparous
animals.
784. b
789. a

The vocal cords in men are about 20mm long. In
women these are about 5mm shorter.
Sound needs a medium to travel through.
CM
782. d
792. d
AT
nucleus. Protoplasm is called the living substance

of the cell.
Gravitational force on an object depends on the

distance of the object from the centre of the earth.
Force exerted per unit area is called pressure.
Page 99
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

Rust is a reddish brown coating of iron oxide on the
surface of iron or steel that forms when the metal is
exposed to air and moisture.
822. d
Buffer stock is a stock of a basic commodity

accumulated by a government when supplies are
plentiful and prices low, and held for use when
supplies are short to stabilize the price. Minimum
Support Price is that price at which government is
ready to purchase the crop from the farmers directly.
823. d
Lockes views, in his Two Treatises of Government

(1690), attacked the theory of divine right of kings
and the nature of the state as conceived by English
philosopher and political theorist Thomas Hobbes.
Malaria is caused by protozoa, Typhoid and Cholera

are caused by bacteria.
824. c

Food can also be broken down, without using
oxygen. This is called anaerobic respiration.
Amar Jiban, autobiography of Rashsundari Devi

(1800 1890), is the first ever known autobiography
of an Indian woman. It is wriiten in Bangla.
825. b
National Food for Work Programme was launched

in 2004. Antyodaya ration cards are issue by the
government for the poorest of the poor.
826. c
Laxmi Lakra, from a poor tribal family in Jharkhand,

became the first women train driver with Northern
Railway in 2006. Savitribai Phule is the first woman
teacher of India Toolika Rani is the first woman from
UP to climb Mount Everest. Shail Mishra is the first
Indian woman to drive metro train.
827. a
Kesar Saga is a Tibetan epic performed and sung

by both Muslims and Buddhists.
828. d
According to the Economic Survey of India, Goa

has the highest per capita income which is over Rs.
130000 per capita.
829. d
Highest contributing sector to the GDP of India is the

tertiary sector (service sector).
830. d
According to the Constitution of India, anyone who

is 18 years old or above and who has the right to
vote is a member of the Gram Sabha.
Ozone is O3. After absorbing ultraviolet radiations,

ozone breaks down to oxygen.
809. a
Anaemia is a blood condition in which there are too

few red blood cells or the red blood cells are
deficient in haemoglobin, a red, iron-rich protein that
carries oxygen in the blood to the bodys tissues.
811. b
812. c
813. b
CM
808. c
810. c
Miscellaneous
AT
807. a
Our muscle cells can also respire anaerobically, but

only for a short time, when there is a temporary
deficiency of oxygen.
The cramps occur when muscle cells respire
anaerobically. The partial breakdown of glucose
produces lactic acid. The accumulation of lactic acid
causes muscle cramps.
Yeasts are single-celled organisms. They respire

anaerobically and during this process yield alcohol.
They are, therefore, used to make wine and beer.
814. d
Penicillium is a bluish green fungus that grows on

stale or ripening food
815. c
Aspergillosis is an infection of the skin, nasal

sinuses, and lungs or other internal organs caused
by molds of the genus Aspergillus.
816. d
Kharif crops are grown in the rainy season.

Mustard is a rabi crop.
817. a
Groundnut is a kharif crop.
818. b
Female Anopheles mosquito acts as carrier of

malaria parasite.
819. d
Louis Pasteur discovered fermentation in 1857.

Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine for smallpox in 1798.
820. c
The bacterium Lactobacillus promotes the formation

of curd. It multiplies in milk and converts it into curd.
821. a
India has the largest number of medical colleges in

the world and is the fourth largest producer of
medicines in the world.
Page 100
831. b
832. d
The MSP is declared by the government every year

before the sowing season to provide incentives to
the farmers for raising the production of these
crops.
833. a
Tehesildars make sure that the farmers can easily

obtain a copy of their record, students can obtain
their caste certificates etc. The Tehsildars office is
where land disputes are also heard.
834. b
Midday meal scheme (programme introduced in all

government elementary schools to provide children
with cooked meal) was first introduced in Tamil Nadu.
The Supreme Court of India, in 2001, ordered all
state governments to begin this programme in their
schools.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank
Articles 14-17 protect an individuals fundamental

right to equality.
Article 14 - Equality before law
Article 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on grounds
of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 16 - Equality of opportunity in public
employment
Article 17 - Abolition of Untouchability
Article 18 - Abolition of titles
841. d
842. c
843. a
A major step taken in

The Indian government enacted the Consumer
Protection Act in 1986, popularly known as COPRA,
to correct business conduct which may be unfair
and against the interests of consumers.
844. d
Secondary sector of economic activities is known

as industrial sector while tertiary sector is known
as service sector.
Telecommunication is a service sector (tertiary
sector).
836. c
837. d
According to the Economic Survey of India, Goa

has the highest per capita income which is over Rs.
130000 per capita.
According to the Census of India 2011, Madhya
Pradesh has the highest IMR in India which is 67.
839. a
HDI ranking of Sri Lanka - 97

HDI ranking of India - 134
HDI ranking of China - 101
HDI ranking of Bangladesh - 146
840. b
Page 101
CM
838. b
Both primary as well as secondary are suffering

due tertiary sector here. Availability of raw materials
for the factories is dependent on transportation.
Primary sectors selling raw materials is also
dependent on transportation.
AT
835. d
845. b
846. b
Cargill Inc. is an American enterprise which has

acquired smaller companies like Parakh Foods in
India. Cargill is now the largest producer of edible
oil in India.
China provides the advantage of being a cheap
manufacturing location. One of the important reasons
for this is very low labour cost in China.
CM A T
General Knowledge
Question Bank

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SUP-6370/13

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