Nodia Sample Mechanical

GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING by NODIA
VOLUME 1.
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Equilibrium of Forces
Structure
Friction
Virtual Work
Kinematics of Particle
Kinetics of Particles
Plane Kinematics of Rigid body
Plane Kinetics of Rigid body
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Stress and Strain

Axial Loading
Torsion
Shear Force and Bending Moment
Transformation of Stress and Strain
Design of Beams and Shafts
Deflection of Beams and Shafts
Column
Energy Methods
THEORY OF MACHINES
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Analysis of Plane Mechanism

Velocity and Acceleration
Dynamic Analysis of Slider - Crank and Cam
Gear Trains
Fly Wheel
Vibration
MACHINES DESIGN
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Static and Dynamic Loading

Joints
Shaft and Shaft Components
Spur Gears
Bearings
Clutch and Brakes
VOLUME 2
FLUID MECHANICS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Basic Concepts and Properties of Fluids

Pressure and Fluid Statics
Fluid Kinematics & Bernouli Equation
Flow Analysis Using Control Volumes
Flow Analysis Using Differential Method
Internal Flow
External Flow
Open Channel Flow
Turbo Machinery
HEAT TRANSFER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Basic Concepts & Modes of Heat-Transfer

Fundamentals of Conduction
Steady Heat Conduction
Transient Heat Conduction
Fundamentals of Convection
Free and Force Convection
Radiation Heat Transfer
Heat Exchangers
THERMODYNAMICS
1. Basic Concepts and Energy Analysis
2. Properties of Pure Substances
3. Energy Analysis of Closed System
4. Mass and Energy Analysis of Control Volume
5. Second Law of Thermodynamics
6. Entropy
7. Gas Power Cycles
8. Vapor and Combined Power Cycles
9. Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
VOLUME 3
Manufacturing Engineering
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
EngineeringmaterialsandHeattreatment
Metalcasting
Formingprocess
Sheetmetalworking
Joining
Machiningandmachinetooloperations
Nontraditionalmachichingprocess
MetrologyandInspection
ComputerIntegratedManufacturing
Industrial Engineering
1. ProductionPlanningandControl
2. InventoryControl
3. NetworkflowModels
Operations Research
1. Linearprogramming
2. Transportation
3. Assignment
4. SimpleQueringModel
5. PERTandCPM
VOLUME 4
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
1.
Linear Algebra
2.
Differential Calculus
3.
Integral Calculus
4.
Directional Derivatives
5.
Differential Equation
6.
Complex Variable
7.
Probability and Statistics
8.
Numerical Methods
VERBAL ANALYSIS
1.
Synonyms
2.
Antonyms
3.
Agreement
4.
Sentence Structure
5.
Spellings
6.
Sentence Completion
7.
Word Analogy
8.
Reading Comprehension
9.
Verbal Classification
10.
Critical Reasoning
11.
Verbal Deduction
QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS
1.
Number System
2.
Surds, Indices and Logarithm
3.
Sequences and Series
4.
Average, Mixture and Alligation
5.
Ratio, Proportion and Variation
6.
Percentage
7.
Interest
8.
Time, Speed & Distance
9.
Time, Work & Wages
10.
Data Interpretation
11.
Number Series
GATE TOPICWISE SOLVED PAPER(2013-2001)

1.
Engineering Mathematics
2.
Engineering Mechanics
3.
Strength of Materials
4.
Theory of Machines
5.
Machine Design
6.
Fluid Mechanics
7.
Heat Transfer
8.
Thermodynamics
9.
Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning
10.
Manufacturing Engineering
11.
Industrial Engineering
12.
General Aptitude
GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (4 volumes)

Sample Chapter
FM 6
INTERNAL FLOW
FM 6.1
Consider a fully developed laminar pipe flow. If the pipe diameter is reduced by
half while the flow rate and pipe length are held constant, the head loss will be
(A) Increase by a factor of 2
(B) Increase by a factor of 4
(C) Increase by a factor of 16
(D) Remains same.
FM 6.2
Consider a flow through a 15 m long horizontal pipe at the laminar transition

point. The fluid is oil with r = 890 kg/m3 and m = 0.07 kg/m -s . If the power
delivered to the flow is 1 hp, the flow rate will be
(A) 2420 cm3 /s
(B) 4840 cm3 /s
(C) 3630 cm3 /s
(D) 484 cm3 /s
FM 6.3
Glycerin at 40cC with r = 1252 kg/m3 and m = 0.27 kg/m -s is flowing through a
5 cm diameter horizontal smooth pipe with an average velocity of 3.5 m/s. What
will be the pressure drop per unit length of the pipe ?
(A) 121 kPa
(B) 1.21 kPa
(C) 12.1 kPa
(D) 0.121 kPa
Common Data For Q. 4 and 5
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Water at 15cC ( r = 999.1 kg/m3 ) is flowing steadily in a 45 m long and 4 cm

diameter horizontal pipe made of stainless steel at a rate of 8 # 10-3 m3/s . The
friction factor f = 0.01573 .
FM 6.4
FM 6.5
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What will be the head loss ?

(A) 36.6 m
(C) 366.0 m
(B) 3.66 m
(D) 0.366 m
The pumping power requirement to overcome pressure drop is

(A) 1.5 kW
(B) 4.5 kW
(C) 3 kW
(D) 6.0 kW

A light liquid ^r = 950 kg/m3h flows through a horizontal smooth tube of
diameter 5 cm at an average velocity of 10 m/s. The fluid pressure measured at
2 m intervals along the pipe is as given below:
FM 6.6
x (m)
p (kPa)
304
255
226
200
The wall shear stress in the fully developed section of the pipe is
(A) 163 Pa
(B) 325 Pa
(C) 650 Pa
(D) 81.5 Pa
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FM 212
Internal Flow
FM 6
FM 6.7
What will be the overall friction factor ?

(A) 0.000183
(B) 0.183
(C) 0.00183
(D) 0.0183
FM 6.8
The piston shown in figure below is pushed steadily by a force F , which causes
flow rate of vo = 0.15 cm3 /s through the needle. If fluid has r = 900 kg/m3 and
m = 0.002 kg/m -s , the force F will be
(A) 2.0 N
(C) 1.35 N
FM 6.9
(B) 3.6 N
(D) 4.0 N
A compressor that draws in air (r = 1.149 kg/m3, m = 1.802 # 10-5 kg/m - s) from
the outside, through an 12 m long, 20 cm diameter duct. The compressor takes in
air at a rate of 0.27 m3/s . If the friction factor is to be 0.0211, the useful power
used by the compressor to overcome the frictional losses in the duct is
(Disregarding any minor losses)
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(A) 14.5 W
(C) 51.4 W
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(B) 15.4 W
(D) 41.5 W
FM 6.10
In fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe, the velocity at 0.5R (midway
between the wall surface and the center-line) is
(B) 0.5u max
(A) 2u max
(C) 0.75u max
(D) Not changed
(where u max is the maximum velocity)
FM 6.11
The velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe of inner
radius R = 4 cm in m/s is given by
2
u (r) = 4 c1 - r 2 m
R
The maximum velocity in the pipe and the volume flow rate respectively, are
(A) 4 m/s, 0.01005 m3 /s
(B) 0.01005 m/s, 4 m3 /s
(C) 0.01005 m3/s, 4 m/s
(D) 4 m3/s, 0.01005 m/s
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 213
FM 6.12
Consider a flow between two smooth parallel horizontal plates of 3 cm apart. If

the fluid is SAE 10 oil and V = 2 m/s ^r = 870 kg/m3 and m = 0.104 kg/msh, the
head loss per meter is
(A) 0.430 m/m
(B) 0.487 m/m
(C) 0.325 m/m
(D) 0.163 m/m
FM 6.13
Consider laminar flow of a fluid through a rectangular concrete channel with the
smooth surfaces of friction factor (f = 58/ Re). If the average velocity of the fluid
is doubled, the change in the head loss of fluid in percentage is (Assume the flow
regime remains same)
(A) Decrease by 50%
(B) Increase by 50%
(C) Increase by 100%
(D) Decrease by 100%
FM 6.14
Water at 20c C flows from a tank by the pressurized air at a rate of 60 m3 /h as

shown in figure below. If coefficient of friction f = 0.0136 , what gage pressure p1
is needed to drive the pipe flow ?
(A) 2.38 MPa

(C) 0.238 MPa
FM 6.15
(B) 1.2 MPa

(D) 0.12 MPa
A single 6 cm diameter tube consists of seven 2 cm diameter smooth thin

tubes packed tightly as shown in figure below. Air at about 20c C and 1 atm (
r = 1.2 kg/m3 , m = 1.8 # 10-5 kg/m-s ), flows through this system at 150 m3 /h .
What will be the pressure drop per meter length of the pipe ? (Take f = 0.0250 )
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(A) 202.5 Pa
(C) 270 Pa
FM 6.16
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(B) 90 Pa
(D) 27.0 Pa
Oil with a density of 850 kg/m3 and kinematic viscosity of 6 # 10-4 m2/s flows in
a 5 mm diameter and 40 m long horizontal pipe, from a storage tank open to the
atmosphere. If the height of the liquid level above the center of the pipe is 3 m
and the flow is fully developed laminar, the flow rate of oil through the pipe is
(A) 1.88 # 10-6 m3/s
(B) 1.88 # 10-4 m3/s
(C) 1.88 # 10-7 m3/s
(D) 1.88 # 10-8 m3/s
FM 214
Internal Flow
FM 6
FM 6.17
A fluid flows through two horizontal pipes of equal length which are connected
together to form a pipe of length 2l . The flow is fully developed laminar and the
pressure drop for the first pipe is 1.44 times greater than for the second pipe. If
the diameter of the first pipe is D , the diameter D 3 of the second pipe is
(A) 1.64D
(B) 1.37D
(C) 1.095D
(D) 1.92D
FM 6.18
A capillary viscometer measures the time of Dt = 6 seconds required for a 8 cm3

of water at 20c C to flow through a D diameter glass tube as shown in figure
below. If L = 12 cm , l = 2 cm and flow is laminar with no entrance and exit
losses, the capillary diameter D will be (Take m = 0.001 kg/m -s )
(A) 1.5 mm
(C) 0.15 mm
FM 6.19
FM 6.20
(B) 15 mm
(D) 0.015 mm
Oil with r = 894 kg/m3 and m = 2.33 kg/m -s , flows at 0.5 m/s through 300 m
long and 40 cm diameter cast iron pipe. Neglect minor losses. The pumping
power required to overcome the pressure losses, is
(A) 0.45 kW
(B) 5.0 kW
(C) 45 kW
(D) 4.5 kW
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SAE 30 oil at 20c C ^m = 0.29 kg/m-s , r = 891 kg/m3h flows upward in a 3 cm

diameter pipe through a pump from A to B at a rate of 3 kg/s as shown in figure
below. At 100% efficiency, what pump power is required ?
(A) 4.8 kW
(C) 0.63 kW
FM 6.21
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(B) 4 kW
(D) 3.5 kW
Oil with r = 910 kg/m3 and m = 0.01 kg/m -s flows through a 1.2 m- diameter
pipe at a rate of 3 m3 /s . The pressure drop along the pipe and friction factor are
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 215
7.6 MPa and 0.0157 respectively. If the pump is 88% efficient, the power required
and the length of the pipe respectively, are
(A) 26 MW, 136.5 km
(B) 19.5 MW, 182 km
(C) 19.5 MW, 136.5 km
(D) 26 MW, 182 km
FM 6.22
The pump adds 25 kW to the water as shown in figure and causes a flow rate of
0.04 m3/s . For either case f = 0.016 and neglect minor losses. What will be the
flow rate expected when the pump is removed from the system ?
(A) 0.0289 m3/s

(C) 0.289 m3/s
FM 6.23
(B) 2.89 m3/s

(D) 0.00289 m3/s
Consider the pitot-static pressure arrangement as shown in figure below. Air at

20c C is flowing through the pitot tube ^r = 1.2 kg/m3 , m = 1.8 # 10-5 kg/m -sh and
the manometer fluid is colored water at 20c C ^r = 998 kg/m3 , m = 0.001 kg/m -sh
. If the friction factor of the flow is f = 0.0175 and Vavg = 0.85VCL , the pipe volume
flow rate and the wall shear stress respectively, are
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(A) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.7 Pa

(C) 0.128 m3 /s , 1.233 Pa
FM 6.24
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(B) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.233 Pa

(D) 0.128 m3 /s , 1.7 Pa
Glycerin at 20cC ( r = 1260 kg/m3 , m = 1.50 N - s/m2 ) flows upward in a vertical

75 mm diameter pipe with a centerline velocity of 1.0 m/s. The head loss and
pressure drop in a 10 m length of the pipe respectively, are
(A) 8.2 m, 225 kPa
(B) 0.11 m, 125 kPa
(C) 6.75 m, 207 kPa
(D) 3.43 m, 166 kPa

Oil ( r = 876 kg/m3 and m = 0.24 kg/m -s ) is flowing through a 1.5 cm diameter
pipe that discharges into the atmosphere at 98 kPa. The absolute pressure 15 m
before the exit is measured to be 145 kPa.
FM 216
Internal Flow
FM 6
FM 6.25
If the pipe is horizontal, the flow rate of oil through pipe is

(A) 1.62 # 10-5 m3 /s
(B) 162 # 10-5 m3 /s
(C) 16.2 # 10-5 m3 /s
(D) 162 # 10-4 m3 /s
FM 6.26
The flow rate of oil through the pipe, if the pipe is inclined at 8c upward from
the horizontal, is
(A) 100 # 10-5 m3/s
(B) 1.00 # 10-5 m3/s
(C) 0.10 # 10-5 m3/s
(D) 10.0 # 10-5 m3/s
FM 6.27
Consider two types of drinking straws, one with a square cross-sectional shape
and the other type the typical round shape. The amount of material in each
straw and the length of the perimeter of the cross section of each shape are same
. Assume the drink is viscous enough to ensure laminar flow and neglect gravity.
What is the ratio of the flow rates _ vvoo i through the straws for a given pressure
drop ? (For square cross section f Re h = 56.9 and for round shape f Re h = 64 ).
(A) 0.183
(B) 0.55
(C) 5.5
(D) 1.83
round
square
FM 6.28
Water flows from tank A to tank B with the valve closed as shown in figure. If
the friction factor is 0.02 for all pipes and all minor losses are neglected, what
will be the flow rate into tank B when the valve is opened to allow water to flow
into tank C also ?
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(A) 0.180 m3/s

(C) 0.0180 m3 /s
FM 6.29
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(B) 0.00180 m3/s

(D) 1.80 m3/s
Water at 20c C flows through a multiple parallel-plate passages heat exchanger

as shown in figure below. The available pressure drop is 2 kPa and plate walls are
hydraulically smooth. If the desired total flow rate is 0.25 m3 /s , the appropriate
number of passages are ^ f = 0.028h
(A) N = 50 passages
(C) N = 72 passages
(B) N = 30 passages
(D) N = 42 passages
FM 6
FM 6.30
Internal Flow
Oil at 20cC (r = 888.1 kg/m3, m = 0.8374 kg/m -s) is flowing through a vertical
glass funnel as shown in figure. The funnel consists of 20 cm high cylindrical
reservoir and a 1 cm diameter, 20 cm high pipe. The funnel is always maintained
full by the addition of oil from the tank. Neglect entrance losses. What will be
the ratio of the actual flow rate through the funnel to the maximum flow rate for
the Frictionless case ?
(A) 43.91
(C) 2.32
FM 6.31
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(B) 0.0232
(D) 0.232
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Water at 20c C flows upward through an inclined 6 cm diameter pipe at 4 m/s is

shown in figure. A mercury manometer has a reading of h = 135 mm . The pipe
length between points (1) and (2) is 5 m and point (2) is 3 m higher than point
(1). What will be the friction factor of the flow ?
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(A) 0.114
(C) 0.025
FM 6.32
FM 217
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(B) 0.07
(D) 0.044
Viscous oil (S.G. = 0.85 , m = 0.10 Pa - s ) flows from tank A to tank B through the
six rectangular slots as shown in figure below. If minor losses are negligible and
the total flow rate is 30 mm3 /s , the pressure in tank A will be (Take f = 3250 )
FM 218
Internal Flow
(A) 1.54 kPa

(C) 2.31 kPa
FM 6
(B) 1.15 kPa

(D) 1.92 kPa
FM 6.33
A 2 mm diameter and 20 cm long straw delivers the water at 10c C with a rate
of 3 cm3 /s . If the flow is vertically up, what will be the axial pressure gradient
2p/2x ?(Take m = 1.307 # 10-3 kg/m -s , r = 1000 kg/m3 )
(A) 2 kPa/m
(B) 10 kPa/m
(C) 4 kPa/m
(D) 20 kPa/m
FM 6.34
A tank of water has a 1.5 cm diameter hole at the bottom, where water discharges
to the atmosphere. The water level is 3 m above the outlet. Disregarding the
effect of the kinetic energy correction factor. If the entrance of the hole is sharp
edged, the flow rate of water through the hole is (loss coefficient KL for sharpedged = 0.5 )
(A) 1.11 # 10-3 m3/s
(B) 111 # 10-3 m3/s
(C) 11.1 # 10-3 m3/s
(D) 0.111 # 10-3 m3/s
FM 6.35
Water at a rate of 0.04 m3/s , flows in a 0.12 m diameter pipe that contains a
sudden contraction to a 0.06 m diameter pipe. If the loss coefficient KL = 0.40 ,
the pressure drop across the contraction section is
(A) 99.75 kPa
(B) 33 kPa
(C) 166.25 kPa
(D) 133 kPa
FM 6.36
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The water pipe system shown in figure below consists of 1200 m long cast-iron
^ f = 0.0315h pipe of 5 cm diameter, two 45c and four 90 c flanged long-radius
elbows, a fully open flanged globe valve and a sharp exit into a reservoir. The
minor losses coefficient for the pipe system is as follows
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45c long-radius elbow :

K , 0.2
90c long-radius elbow :
K , 0.3
Open flanged globe valve :
K , 8.5
Sharp exit valve :
K , 1.0
If the elevation at point 1 is 400 m, what gage pressure is required at point 1 to
deliver 0.005 m3 /s of water at 20c C ( m = 0.001 kg/m-s ) into the reservoir ?
(A) 4.54 MPa
(B) 3.46 MPa
(C) 1.43 MPa
(D) 6.4 MPa
FM 6.37
Kerosine is to be withdrawn from a 15 cm high kerosine tank by drilling a well

rounded 3 cm diameter hole with negligible loss at the bottom surface and
attaching a horizontal 90c bend of negligible length. The kinetic energy correction
factor is 1.05. What will be the flow rate of water through the bend, respectively
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 219
if (a) the bend is a flanged smooth bend and (b) the bend is miter bend without
vanes ?
(A) 8.08 L/s, 4.78 L/s

(C) 6.03 L/s, 4.78 L/s
FM 6.38
A horizontal pipe has an sudden expansion from D1 = 6 cm to D2 = 12 cm . The

water is flowing at 10 m/s and p1 = 300 kPa in the small section and the flow
is turbulent. If the kinetic energy correction factor to be 1.06 at both inlet and
outlet, the downstream pressure is
(A) 300 kPa

(C) 377 kPa
FM 6.39
(B) 4.78 L/s, 6.03 L/s

(D) 8.08 L/s, 6.03 L/s
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(B) 278 kPa
(D) 322 kPa
A 4.5 m diameter tank is initially filled with water 2 m above the centre of
a sharp edged 15 cm diameter orifice. The tank water surface is open to the
atmosphere and the orifice drains to the atmosphere. Neglecting the effect of the
kinetic energy correction factor. The time required to empty the tank is (loss
coefficient for sharp edge KL = 0.5 )
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(A) 19.6 min

(C) 0.264 min
(B) 26.4 min

(D) 2.64 min
Common Data For Linked Answer Q. 40 and 41

Water at 20c C flows through a 10 cm diameter smooth pipe which contains an
orifice plate with 5 cm-diameter. The measured orifice pressure drop is 75 kPa.
Discharge coefficient Cd = 0.605 and non- recoverable head loss coefficient K = 1.8 .
FM 220
FM 6.40
FM 6.41
Internal Flow
What will be the flow rate in m3 /hr ?

(A) 54
(C) 60
FM 6
(B) 50
(D) 209
What will be the non recoverable head loss ?

(A) 33.4 kPa
(B) 6.9 kPa
(C) 52.4 kPa
(D) 26.4 kPa

Water at 20cC (r = 998 kg/m3, m = 1.002 # 10-3 kg/m - s) flows through a 50 cm
diameter pipe. The flow rate of water is measured with an orifice meter to be
0.25 m3/s . The diameter ratio b and discharge coefficient Cd are 0.60 and 0.61
respectively.
FM 6.42
The pressure difference indicated by orifice meter is

(A) 1.9 kPa
(B) 19.0 kPa
(C) 146 kPa
(D) 14.6 kPa
FM 6.43
What will be the head loss ?

(A) 2.207 m
(C) 0.7734 m
FM 6.44
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A 5 cm diameter smooth pipe contains an orifice plate of b = 0.6 and it is

monitored by a mercury manometer ^r = 13550 kg/m3h as shown in figure below.
What will be the h when the flow rate is 0.334 m3 / min ?(Take Cd = 0.613 )
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(A) 75.75 cm
(C) 57 cm
FM 6.45
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(B) 2.0421 m
(D) 0.940 m
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(B) 7.52 cm
(D) 1.72 cm
Air at 20cC (r = 1.204 kg/m3) flows at high speed through a venturi-meter

monitored by a water manometer as shown in figure below. If h = 40 cm , what
will be the maximum mass flow rate of air that venturi can measure ? (Take
discharge coefficient Cd = 0.98 )
FM 6
Internal Flow
(A) 2.73 kg/s

(C) 27.3 kg/s
FM 6.46
(B) 0.273 kg/s

(D) 0.0273 kg/s
Consider the flow of air at high speed through a venturi monitored by a mercury
manometer ^rHg = 13550 kg/m3h as shown in figure below. Discharge coefficient
Cd and Expansion factor Y for this flow are 0.985 and 0.76 respectively. The
upstream conditions are 150 kPa and 353 K. If h = 37 cm , the mass flow rate for
flow to be compressible is
(A) 0.40 kg/s

(C) 7.27 kg/s
FM 6.47
(B) 3.23 kg/s

(D) 0.90 kg/s
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(A) h2 = 1.7 m , h 3 = 1.58 m

(C) h2 = 1.58 m , h 3 = 1.7 m
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(B) h2 = 0.42 m , h 3 = 0.54 m

(D) h2 = 1.58 m , h 3 = 1.47 m
Consider the parallel-pipe system as shown in figure below. The SAE 10 oil at
20c C ^r = 870 kg/m3 and m = 0.104 kg/m -sh is flowing laminarly through the
pipe system with pressure drop p1 - p2 = 21 kPa . What will be the total flow rate
between 1 and 2 ?
(A) 0.0005 m3 /s
(C) 0.0027 m3 /s
FM 6.49
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Ethanol at 20c C ^r = 789 kg/m3 , m = 0.0012 kg/m -sh flows through a 5 cm

diameter smooth pipe at a rate of 7 m3 /hr . Three piezometer tubes are installed
as shown in figure below. If the pipe contains a thin plate orifice of diameter
d = 3 cm , the piezometer levels h2 and h 3 will be ^Take K = 1.5 and f = 0.023h
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FM 6.48
FM 221
(B) 0.0022 m3 /s
(D) 0.0032 m3 /s
Consider the parallel-pipe system of two identical length and material pipe as
shown in figure below. The diameter of pipe A is half of the diameter of pipe B
FM 222
Internal Flow
FM 6
. If the friction factor to be same in both case and disregarding minor losses, the
flow rates in pipes A and B would be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Remains same
Flow rate of A increased by a factor of 0.177.
Flow rate of B increased by a factor of 0.177.
Flow rate of A decreased by a factor of 0.177.

Three pipes of same material ^ f = 0.0275h are laid in parallel with these dimensions:
n
i
.
o
c
.
Pipe 1 :
L1 = 900 m
d1 = 10 cm
Pipe 2 :
L2 = 800 m
d2 = 12 cm
a
i
d
Pipe 3 :
L 3 = 600 m
d 3 = 8 cm
3
The total flow rate is 0.056 m /s of water at 20c C .
FM 6.50
o
n
w.
The flow rate in each pipe is

(A) vo1 = 0.0166 m3 /s , vo2 = 0.0277 m3 /s , vo3 = 0.0116 m3 /s
(B) vo1 = 0.0166 m3 /s , vo2 = 0.0116 m3 /s , vo3 = 0.0277 m3 /s
(C) vo1 = 0.0277 m3 /s , vo2 = 0.0166 m3 /s , vo3 = 0.0116 m3 /s
(D) vo1 = 0.0116 m3 /s , vo2 = 0.0166 m3 /s , vo3 = 0.0277 m3 /s
w
w
FM 6.51
The pressure drop across the system will be

(A) 56 kPa
(B) 55 kPa
(C) 550 kPa
(D) 137.5 kPa
FM 6.52
For the Series -Parallel system of pipes shown in figure below, each pipe is 8 cm
diameter cast iron ( f , 0.0022 ) and the pressure drop p1 - p2 = 750 kPa . If the
minor losses are neglected, what will be the resulting flow rate for water at 20c C
?
(A) 101 m3 /hr

(C) 62 m3 /hr
(B) 23 m3 /hr
(D) 39 m3 /hr
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 223
FM 6.53
Water at 80cC ( n = 3.65 # 10-7 m2 /s ) flows with an average velocity of 2 m/s

through a 120 mm diameter pipe. If the pipe wall roughness is small enough so
that it does not protrude through the laminar sublayer and the pipe is to be
considered as smooth ( f = 0.0125 ), what will be the largest roughness allowed to
classify this pipe as smooth ?
(A) 23.1 mm
(B) 0.0231 mm
(C) 0.00231 mm
(D) 0.231 mm
FM 6.54
The three water-filled tanks are connected by pipes as shown in figure. If minor
losses are neglected, the flow rate in m3 /s in each pipe is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
FM 6.55
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
vo1 = 0.0144 , vo2 = 0.0284 , vo3 = 0.0141

vo1 = 0.0141, vo2 = 0.0144 , vo3 = 0.0284
vo1 = 0.0284 , vo2 = 0.0141, vo3 = 0.0144
vo1 = 0.0284 , vo2 = 0.0144 , vo3 = 0.0141
w
w
o
n
w.
A highly viscous liquid flows under the action of gravity from a large container
through a small diameter pipe in laminar flow as shown in figure below.
Disregarding entrance effects and velocity heads, the variation of fluid depth in
the tank with time, is
(A) 32k ln b H l
h
(C) 128k ln b H l
h
(B) 64k ln b H l
h
(D) k ln b H l
h
2
where k = n LD4
gd
FM 6.56
A triangular passages (f = 52.9/ Re) of heat exchanger with L = 60 cm and an

isosceles triangle cross section of side length a = 2 cm and included angle b = 80c
is shown in figure below. If the oil ^r = 870 kg/m3, m = 0.104 kg/msh at 20c C
flows at 2 m/s, the pressure drop will be
FM 224
Internal Flow
(A) 11.5 kPa

(C) 2.3 kPa
FM 6.57
(B) 23 kPa
(D) 1.15 kPa
An oil (S.G. = 0.87 and n = 2.2 # 10-4 m2/s ) flows at a rate of 4 # 10-4 m3/s
through a vertical pipe as shown in figure. The manometer reading h will be
w
w
(A) - 18.5 m
(C) - 13.87 m
FM 6.58
o
n
w.
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
(B) 13.87 m
(D) 18.5 m
The water velocity at several locations along a cross section of 5 cm radius pipe
is
given in table below.
r, cm
V, m/s
6.4
6.1
5.2
4.4
2.0
0.0
What will be the flow rate of water ?

(A) 0.297 m3/s
(C) 2.97 m3/s
FM 6.59
FM 6
(B) 0.0297 m3/s

(D) 29.7 m3/s
Oil ( g = 8900 N/m3 , m = 0.10 N - s/m2 ) flows through a 23 mm diameter horizontal

tube as shown in figure. A differential U-tube manometer is used to measure the
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 225
pressure drop along the tube. What will be the range of h for laminar flow ?
(B) - 0.51 m # h # 0.51 m

(D) h $ 0.51 m
(A) h # 0.51 m
(C) 0 # h # 0.51 m
FM 6.60
The water at 20cC flows from the tank as shown figure below, through the 3 cm
long horizontal plastic pipe attached to the bottom of the tank. What time it
will take to empty the tank completely, assuming the entrance to the pipe is wellrounded with negligible loss ? (Take the friction factor of the pipe to be 0.022.)
(A) 8.66 hours

(C) 86.6 hours
o
n
w.
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
(B) 82 hours
(D) 8.2 hours
***********
w
w
FM 226
Internal Flow
FM 6
SOLUTIONS
FM 6.1
Option (C) is correct.

In a fully developed laminar pipe flow, head loss is given by
2
2
2
hL = f L V = 64 L V = 64 L V
D 2g
Re D 2g VD/n D 2g
o
o
= 64n L V = 64n2 L v 2
V= v 2
2
g
D D 2g
>
H
pD
pD
D
4
4
o
128
Lv
n
=
g pD 4
where
n = Kinematic viscosity
L = Pipe Length
D = Diameter of pipe
vo = Volume flow rate
If diameter of pipe is reduced by half, then D2 = D
2
o
o
So that
= 16hL
hL = 128nLv4 = 16 # 128nLv
4
D
g
D
p
gp b l
2
Hence Reducing the pipe diameter by half increase the head loss by a factor of
16.
2
FM 6.2
o
n
w.
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
Option (B) is correct.

For laminar flow at transition point
rVd
= 2300
Re =
m
890 # Vd = 2300
or
m
w
w
Power
1 hp
745.7
745.7
or
745.7
& Vd = 2300 # 0.07 = 0.181 m2 /s ...(i)

890
= 745.7 W = vo # Dp laminar
32mLV
= AV # Dp = a p # d 2 # V k # c
4
d2 m
2
= 8p # mLV 2 = 8p # 0.07 # 15 # b 0.181 l
d
& d 2 = 0.865
= 0.865
745.7
d2
d = 0.034 m
From eq. (i)
Hence
V = 0.181 = 0.181 = 5.32 m/s

0.034
d
vo = p # d 2 # V = p # ]0.034g2 # ]5.32g
4
4
= 0.00484 m3 /s = 4840 cm3 /s
FM 6.3

Reynolds number for this flow
FM 6
Internal Flow
Re =
FM 227
rVD
= 1252 # 3.5 # 0.05 = 811.5
m
0.27
Re = 811.5 < 2300

Hence the flow is laminar and friction factor for this Re is
f = 64 = 64 = 0.07887
Re 811.5
Then the pressure drop per unit length (L = 1 m)
1252 # (3.5) 2
rV 2
1
= 0.0788 # 1 #
Dp L = f L #
# 1000
2
0.05
2
D
= 12.1 kPa
FM 6.4
Option (A) is correct.

Head loss
2
hL = f L # V
2g
D
o 2
o
16vo 2
= f L # 1 # ; 4v 2 E = f L #
V= v
2
4
2g
p D2
D
D
pD
2g # p # D
4
2
o
= f # 162Lv 5
2p gD
0.01573 # 16 # 45 # (8 # 10-3) 2
hL =
= 36.59 m , 36.6 m
2 # p2 # 9.81 # (0.04) 5
FM 6.5

Pressure drop is given by
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
o 2
r
rV 2
= f # L # # ; 4v 2 E
Dp = f # L #
2
2
D
D
pD
2
2
r
vo = f 16Lrvo
= f # L # # 16
#
2
D
2p2 D 5
p2 D 4
16 45 999.1 # (8 # 10-3) 2
Dp = 0.01573 # # #
2 # p2 # (0.04) 5 # 1000
= 358.3 kPa - 359 kPa
Hence the power requirements to overcome this pressure drop is
Ppump = voDp = 8 # 10-3 # 359
w
w
o
n
w.
= 2.87 kW , 3 kW
FM 6.6
FM 6.7

The Wall shear stress in the fully-developed region is defined as
Dp
p - p 6 26000 4tw
= 4
=
=
2
2
d
DL fully developed
or
tw = 26000 # d = 26000 # 0.05 = 162.5 Pa , 163 Pa
8
4#2
Option (D) is correct.
The overall head loss for Dz = 0
Dp 304000 - 200000
hf =
=
= 11.2 m
rg
950 # 9.81
The overall friction factor is defined as
2g
foverall = h f, overall # d # 2 = 11.2 # b 0.05 lb 2 # 92.81 l
6
L V
10
= 0.0183
FM 228
FM 6.8
Internal Flow
FM 6
Option (D) is correct

The velocity of exit from the needle is
o
0.15
= 306 cm/s
V1 = v =
p
A
2
0
.
025
g
4 #]
The energy equation gives
2
p
p2 V 22
...(i)
+
+ z 2 = 1 + V 1 + z1 + h f 1 + h f 2
rg 2g
rg 2g
32mLV
(laminar flow), equation (i)
With z1 = z2 , V2 - 0 , h f 2 , 0 and h f 1 =
rgD2
becomes
2
32 # m # L # V V 12
p 2 - p1
= h f 1 + V1 =
+
2g
rg
2g
rgD2
Dp
]3.06g2
= 32 # 0.002 # 0.015 # 3.06
+
rg
2 # 9.81
900 # 9.81 # ]0.00025g2
or
= 5.32 + 0.48 = 5.8 m

Then
FM 6.9
F = Dp # A piston = r # g # 5.8 # p ]0.01g2

4
= 9.81 # 900 # 5.8 # p ]0.01g2 , 4.0 N
4
n
i
.
o
c
.

The average velocity for this flow
o
o
V = v = v # 24 = 0.27 # 4 2 = 8.594 m/s
Ac
pD
p # (0.2)
The pressure drop in the duct
rV 2
Dp = Dp L = f L #
2
D
o
n
w.
a
i
d
Substitute f = 0.0211, r = 1.149 kg/m3, L = 12 m, V = 8.594 m/s and D = 0.2 m

1.149 # (8.594) 2
So
DpL = 0.0211 # 12 #
= 53.72 Pa
0.20
2
w
w
Then the required pumping power becomes

Ppump = voDp = 0.27 # 53.72 = 14.5 W
FM 6.10

The velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe is given by
2
u (r) = u max ;1 - r 2 E
R
(R/2) 2
1
At r = R/2
u (R/2) = u max ;1 E = u max :1 - 4 D
R2
= 3 u max = 0.75u max
4
FM 6.11

The general velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow is
2
u (r) = u max ;1 - r 2 E
R
2
We have
u (r) = u ;1 - r 2 E
R
By comparing these two, we get
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 229
u max = 4 m/s
Now the volume flow rate
vo = Vavg Ac = Vavg # pR2
Since
Vavg = u max = 4 = 2.00 m/s
2
2
Hence
vo = 2 # p # (0.04) 2 = 0.010048 m3 /s b 0.01005 m3 /s
FM 6.12

The half-distance between plates is called h, then Hydraulic diameter
4A
= 4h = 4 # 1.5 = 6 cm
Dh =
perimeter
rVDh
= 870 # 2.0 # 0.06 = 1004 (Laminar flow)
Re D =
m
0.104
For laminar flow between two parallel horizontal plates, the head loss and Pressure
drop per meter flow is given by
3mVL 3 # ]0.104g # 2.0 # 1
Dp =
=
]0.015g2
h2
h
= 2773.33 Pa/m - 2770 Pa/m

Dp
2770
=
= 0.325 m/m
hf =
rg
9.81 # 870
Hence
FM 6.13
n
i
.
o
c
.

The friction factor of given channel
rVDH
f = 58 where Re =
m
Re
Then Head loss
w
w
a
i
d
DH = Hydraulic diameter
2
2
hL = f L # V = 58 # L # V
2g
2g
DH
Re
DH
2
58 # m
L
V = 29 mLV
=
#
#
2g
rVDH
DH
rgDH2
o
n
w.
1
If the average velocity is doubled, then

V2 = 2V
29mL # 2V
29mLV
Hence
= 2=
= 2hL
hL =
2
rgD H
rgD H2 G
Therefore percentage change in Head loss is
2h - hL
Dh (%) = L
# 100 = 100% Increase
hL
2
FM 6.14

For water at 20c C , take r = 998 kg/m3 and m = 0.001 kg/m -s
4 # ^60/3600h
o
o
vo
V = v =
= 4v 2 =
= 8.49 m/s
p
A
p # ]0.05g2
d2 p # d
#
4
The energy equation between points (1) (the tank) and (2) (the open jet) :
2
V2
p1
+ 0 + 10 = 0 + pipe + 80 + h f
2g
2g
rg 2g
or
where
V2
p1
= pipe + 80 + h f - 10
2g
rg
...(i)
2
^60 + 80 + 30h
L V pipe
8.492
#
h f = f D # 2g = 0.0136 #
0.05
2 # 9.81
FM 230
Internal Flow
FM 6
, 170 m
then from equation (i),
p1
]8.49g2
=
+ 80 + 170 - 10
rg
2 # 9.81
]8.49g2
+ 80 + 170 - 10E
2 # 9.81
]8.49g2
= 998 # 9.81 # ;
+ 80 + 170 - 10E
2 # 9.81
p 1 = rg ;
or
= 2385659 , 2.38 MPa

FM 6.15

Assume all the flow goes through the seven 2 cm tubes. Thus each tube takes
one - seventh of the flow rate :
150/3600
o
, 18.95 m/s
V = v =
A7,tubes 7 # p # ]0.01g2
rVd 1.2 # 18.95 # 0.02
=
= 25300 (Turbulent flow)
Re =
m
1.8 # 10-5
r
Hence
Dp = f L # V 2 = 0.0250 # 1 # 1.2 # ]18.95g2
2
0.02
2
d
= 269.32 , 270 Pa
FM 6.16
n
i
.
o
c
.

The pressure at the bottom of the tank is
a
i
d
p1,gage = rgh = 850 # 9.81 # 3 = 25.02 kN/m2

1000
o
n
w.
The pressure loss across the pipe, disregarding minor losses is

Dp = p1 - p2 = p1 - patm = p1,gage = 25.02 kN/m2
Pressure loss for fully developed laminar flow
32mLV
128mLvo
=
Dp =
vo = V # p D 2
2
4
4
D
pD
128 # r # n # L # vo
=
pD 4
Dp pD 4
Then
vo =
128 # r # n # L
w
w
^25.02 # 103h # p # (0.005) 4

=
= 1.88 # 10-8 m3/s
-4
128 # 850 # ^6 # 10 h # 40
FM 6.17
Correct option is (C)
p D 4 Dp
vo =
128ml
For laminar flow
where vo1 = vo3 and Dp1 2 = 1.44Dp2

-
Thus
or
p D 4 Dp 1 2
pD 34 Dp2 3
vo1 =
D1 = D
= vo3 =
128ml
128ml
Dp 1/4
D 3 = D c 1 2 m = D (1.44) 1/4 = 1.095D
Dp 2 3
-
FM 6
FM 6.18
Internal Flow
FM 231

Assume no pressure drop and neglect velocity heads. The energy equation reduces
to
2
p
p1 V 12
+
+ z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + h f
rg 2g
rg 2g
0 + 0 + ^L + l h = 0 + 0 + 0 + h f
hf = L + l
or
128mLvo
v
o
4 and for uniform draining v =
D
t
prgD
128m # Lv
v
Dt = vo =
4 =
v
prgD 4 h f
h f # prgD
128mL
128mLv
Dt =
h f = (L + l)
prgD 4 (L + l)
2.85 # 10-11
128 # 0.001 # 0.12 # 8 # 10-6
6=
=
D4
p # 998 # 9.81 # D 4 # (0.12 + 0.02)
D 4 = 4.75 # 10-12
D - 0.00148 , 0.0015 m = 1.5 mm
For laminar flow h f =

or
or
or
FM 6.19

Reynolds number for this flow
n
i
.
o
c
.
rVD
Re =
= 894 # 0.5 # 0.4 = 76.7
m
2.33
a
i
d
Since Re = 76.7 < 2300 . Hence the flow is laminar.

The pressure loss for laminar flow is given by
rV 2
Dp = f L
D 2
Since
f = 64 = 64 = 0.834
Re 76.7
w
w
o
n
w.
Dp = 0.834 # 300 #
0.4
Then
894 # (0.5) 2
1
# 1000 = 69.9 kPa
2
Therefore pumping power required to overcome this pressure drop

2
Ppump = voDp = V # pD # Dp
4
=
FM 6.20
0.5 # p # (0.4) 2
# 69.9 = 4.39 , 4.5 kW
4

The pipe velocity
Check
o
3
V = m =
= 4.76 m/s
rA 891 # p # ]0.015g2
rVD
Re d =
= 891 # 4.76 # 0.03 = 439 (Laminar flow)
m
0.29
Apply the steady flow energy equation between A and B

2
p2
pA V A2
+
+ zA = B + V B + zB + h f - h p
rg 2g
r g 2g
500000 = 180000 + 15 + h - h
or
VA = VB = V and zA = 0
f
p
891 # 9.81
891 # 9.81
FM 232
Internal Flow
h f - hp =
FM 6
500000 - 180000 - 15
891 # 9.81 891 # 9.81
h f - h p = 21.61 m
or
32 # 0.29 # ]15g2 + ]20g2 # 4.76

32mLV
=
= 140.4 m
9.81 # 891 # ]0.03g2
rgd 2
Now
h p = h f - 21.6
= 140.4 - 21.16 = 119.2 m
The pump power is then given by
o p = mgh
o p = 3 # 9.81 # 119.2
P = rgvh
hf =
Where
= 3508 - 3500 Watts or 3.5 kW

FM 6.21

The flow rate gives the velocity and Reynolds number
o
3
V = v =
= 2.65 m
p
s
A
2
1.2
4 #] g
rVd
Re d =
= 910 # 2.65 # 1.2 = 289380 (turbulent flow)
m
0.01
r
Since
Dp = f L V 2
d2
or
7600000 = 0.0157 # L # b 910 l # ]2.65g2
1.2
2
L = 181800 m - 182 km
voDp 3 # 7600000
=
= 2.6 # 107 Watts = 26 MW
P =
h
0.88
Hence
FM 6.22
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
o
n
w.
Correct option is (A).
w
w
Applying the Bernoullis equation at section (1) and (2)

2
2
p1 V 12
p
+
+ z1 + h p = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + f l # V
g
g
2g
2g
2g
D
Where p1 = p2 = 0 , z1 = h , z2 = 0 and V1 = 0
vo
V2 = c A m = 0.04 = 31.8 m/s
2
p (0.04) 2
4
o
v
0.04
V = =
= 14.15 m/s
p
A
(0.06) 2
#
4
(31.8) 2
(14.15) 2
30
h + hp =
+ 0.016 # b
= 133.2 m
2 # 9.81
0.06 l # 2 # 9.81
Also
Hence
25 # 103
h p = Po =
= 63.7 m
gv (9.80 # 103) # 0.04
h = 133.2 - 63.7 = 69.5 m
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 233
2
2
Without the pump h p = 0 and z1 = V 2 + f l # V
2g
2g
D
...(i)
h = 69.5 m = z1
2
2
V2 = AV = b D l V or V2 = b 60 l V = 2.25V
40
D2
A2
Where
and
Thus from equation (i)
(2.25V ) 2 + 0.016 # b 30 l V 2
0.06
or V = 10.22 m/s
69.5 =
2 # 9.81
vo = AV = p (0.06) 2 # 10.22 = 0.0289 m3/s
4
So that
FM 6.23

The manometer reads
p 0 - p = ^rwater - rair h gh = ]998 - 1.2g 9.81 # ]0.040g = 391 Pa

Therefore, velocity at centre line
2D p
VCL =
= 2 # 391 = 25.5 m/s
r
1.2
Now average velocity
Vavg = 0.85VCL = 0.85 # 25.5 = 21.675 m/s
Thus the flow rate
vo = V # A = 21.675 # p # ]0.08g2 = 0.109 m3 /s
4
and wall shear stress
f
tw = # rVavg2
8
= 0.0175 # 1.2 # ]21.675g2 = 1.233 Pa
8
FM 6.24
o
n
w.
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
w
w
For laminar flow in a pipe

Vaverage = 1 Vmax = 1 # 1 = 0.5 m/s
2
2
FM 234
Internal Flow
Re =
Thus
FM 6
rVD 1260 # 0.5 # 0.075

=
= 31.5 < 2100
m
1.50
The flow is laminar.

(Dp - gl sin q) D 2
Where q = 90c
32ml
32mlV
+ gl
Dp =
D2
# 0.5 + 9.81 # 1260 # 10
= 32 # 1.50 # 10
(0.075) 2
- 1.66 # 105 Pa = 166 kPa
Also, applying Bernoullis equation at section (1) and (2),
2
p1 V 12
p
+
+ z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + h L
g
g
2g
2g
With p1 = p2 + Dp , V1 = V2 , z2 - z1 = l
5
Dp
hL =
- l = 1.66 # 10 - 10 = 3.43 m
g
9.81 # 1260
Flow rate can be determined from
Dp pD 4
vo =
128mL
V =
So that
FM 6.25
FM 6.27
g = rg
n
i
.
o
c
.
Dp = p1 - p2 = 145 - 98 = 47 kPa
47000 # p # (0.015) 4
Hence
vo =
= 1.62 # 10-5 m3/s
128 # 0.24 # 15
For uphill flow with an inclination of 8c,
(Dp - rgL sin q) pD 4
vouphill =
128mL
Since
FM 6.26
sin 90c = 1
w
w
o
n
w.
=
a
i
d
[47000 - (876 # 9.81 # 15 # sin 8c)] # p (0.015) 4

128 # 0.24 # 15
= 1.00 # 10-5 m3/s
Dp 1 = Dp 2
hL = hL
2
2
f1 l1 # V 1 = f2 l2 # V 2
2g
2g
Dh
Dh
So
where l1 = l2 , Dh = D and Dh =
1
Thus
D p = gh L
2
4A2
= 4a = a
perimeter 2
4a
f1 V 12
f V2
= 2 2
a
D
...(i)
Since the perimeters are equal

pD = 4a
Therefore a = p D
4
...(ii)
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 235
V1 Dh V1 D
=
n
n
VD
Re h = 2 h = V2 a = pV2 D
n
n
4n
Re h =
and
from equation (ii)
Thus, from equation (i)

56.9 V 2
64 V 2
2
1
b pV2 D l
bV1 D l
n
4n
or V1 = 1.441V2
=
pD
D
4
Also
vo1 = A1 V1 = p D2 # V1
4
and
2
vo2 = A2 V2 = a2 V2 = p D2 V2
16
So that
vo1 =
vo2
voround
FM 6.28
D2 V1
= 4 V1 = 4 # 1.441 = 1.83
2
D V2 p V2 p
= 1.83vosquare
p
4
p2
16
w
w
o
n
w.
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
From continuity equation
vo1 = vo2 + vo3

Since
D1 = D2 = D 3 , it follows that
V1 = V2 + V3
Also for fluid flowing from A to B ,
2
2
2
pA V A2
p
+
+ zA = B + V B + zB + f1 l1 # V 1 + f2 l2 # V 2
g
g
2g
2g
2g
2g
D1
D2
Where
Thus
or
pA = pB = 0 , VA = VB = 0 , zA = 15 m and zB = 0
2
2
zA = f1 l1 V 1 + f2 l2 V 2
D 1 2g
D 2 2g
0.02
15 =
[80V 12 + 40V 22]
0.1 # 2 # 9.81
or
18.4 = V 12 + 0.5V 22 ,
Similarly, for fluid flowing from A to C ,
2
2
2
p
pA V A2
+
+ zA = C + VC + zC + f1 l1 V 1 + f3 l 3 V 3
g
2g
g
2g
D1 2g
D 3 2g
where
pA = pC = 0 , VA = VC = 0 , zA = 15 m and zC = 0
2
2
Thus
zA = f1 l1 V 1 + f3 l 3 V 3
D 1 2g
D 3 2g
...(i)
...(ii)
...(iii)
...(iv)
FM 236
Internal Flow
FM 6
Comparing equation (ii) and (iv), we get

2
2
f2 l2 V 2 = f3 l 3 V 3
D 3 2g
D2 2g
Since f2 = f3 and D2 = D 3
l2 V 22
40V 22
V2
Solve equation (i), (iii) and
V1 = 1.369V3 + V3 = 2.369V3
18.4 = (2.369V3) 2 + 0.5 (1.369V3) 2
V3 = 1.676 m/s
from eq (iii)
V2 = 1.369 # 1.676 = 2.29 m/s

vo2 = A2 V2 = p # (0.1) 2 # 2.29 - 0.0180 m3/s
4
from eq (v)
Hence
FM 6.29
FM 6.30
= l 3 V 32
= 75V 32
...(v)
= 1.369V3
(v) for V1 , V2 and V3 . From equation (i) and (v)

If there are N passages, then b = 50 cm for all N and the passage thickness is
H = 0.5/N . The hydraulic diameter is Dh = 2H . The velocity in each passage is
related to the Pressure drop.
r
Dp = f # L # # V 2 where f = fsmooth = 0.028
2
Dh
or
2000 = 0.028 # 2.0 # 998 # V 2
2
2 # 0. 5
N
o
0.25
Where
V = v =
= 1 m/s
Ac ^0.5 # 0.5h
Thus
2000 = 0.028 # 2.0 N # 998 # ]1g2
2 # 0.5
2
N = 2000 # 2 # 0.5 # 2 = 71.57 , 72 passages
0.028 # 2.0 # 998
w
w
o
n
w.
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
The flow velocity for the frictionless case.

V2,max = 2gz1 =
Then maximum volume flow rate
2 # 9.81 # 0.40 = 2.801 m/s
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 237
p (0.01)
vo = V2, max # A2 = V2, max # pD 2 = 2.801 # #
4
4
2
= 2.20 # 10-4 m3/s

Now the actual flow rate can be determined by
(Dp - rgL sin q) pD 4
voactual =
128mL
Since the flow is vertically downwards, so q =- 90c and
Dp = pinlet - poutlet = (patm + rghcylinder ) - patm = rghcylinder
(because at inlet total pressure becomes patm and pressure due to oil in cylinder
rghcylinder and at exit atmospheric pressure patm is there)
(rghcylinder - rgL sin q) pD 4
Therefore
voactual =
128mL
=
rg (hcylinder + L) pD 4
128mL
888.1 # 9.81 # (0.20 + 0.20) # p # (0.01) 4

128 # 0.8374 # 0.20
sin (- 90c) =- 1
= 5.1 # 10-6 m3 /s
So, the ratio of actual flow rate through the funnel to the maximum flow rate is
voactual = 5.1 # 10-6 = 0.0232
vomax
2.20 # 10-4
FM 6.31

By moving through the manometer, we obtain the pressure change between
points (1) and (2).
or
o
n
w.
a
i
d
p1 + rw gh - rm gh - rw gDz = p2
p1 - p2 = rm gh - rw gh + rw gDz
= gh ^rm - rw h + rw gDz
w
w
= 9.81 # 0.135 ^13568 - 998h + 998 # 9.81 # 3

= 16647 + 29371 = 46018 - 46000 Pa
Dp
hf =
- Dz = 46000 - 3
rw g
998 # 9.81
Since
The friction factor
FM 6.32
n
i
.
o
c
.
= 4.7 - 3 = 1.7m
2g
f = hf # d # 2
L V
= 1.7 # 0.06 # 2 # 92 .81 = 0.0250
5
4

For each slot, flow rate becomes
vo = 1 # 30 # 10-9 = 5 # 10-9 m3 /s
6
o
5 # 10-9
So that
V = v =
= 1.67 # 10-3 m/s
A (3 # 1) # 10-6
Also
r = S.G. # r H O = 0.85 # 1000 = 850 kg/m3
4 (3 1)
4A
and
= # # = 1.5 mm
Dh =
perimeter
(6 + 2)
2
The energy equation gives
FM 238
Internal Flow
FM 6
2
2
pA V A2
p
+
+ zA = B + V B + zB + f l # V
g
g
2g
2g
2g
Dh
with zA = zB , pB = 0 , VA = VB = 0
pA = f b l lb 1 l rV 2
Dh 2
= 3250 # 0.6 # 1 # 850 # (1.67 # 10-3) 2
0.0015
2
- 1540 N/m2 = 1.54 kPa
FM 6.33

For water at 10c C : r = 1000 kg/m3 m = 1.307 # 10-3 kg/ms
o
o
rVD
rD
vo = 4vorD
=
V = v = 4v 2
m
m # A m # pD 2
A pD
6
4rvo
Re =
= 4 # 1000 # 3 # 10
= 1462 (Laminar flow)
mpD 1.307 # 10-3 # p # 0.002
128mLvo 128 # 1.307 # 10-3 # 0.2 # 3 # 10-6
Thus
hf =
=
p # 1000 # 9.81 # ]0.002g 4
prgD 4
, 0.204 m
The axial pressure gradient if the flow is vertically up
rg ^h f + Dz h
1000 # 9.81 # ^0.204 + 0.2h
Dp
=
Dz = L
=
0.2
L
L
Re =
n
i
.
o
c
.
= 19816 Pa/m , 20 kPa/m

FM 6.34
w
w
o
n
w.
a
i
d
The energy equation for a control volume between two points

2
2
p1
p
+ a1 V 1 + z1 + h pump = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hturbine + hL
rg
2g
rg
2g
Since p1 = p2 = patm, z2 = 0, V1 = 0 and h pump = hturbine = 0
2
2
2
2
z1 = a2 V 2 + hL = a2 V 2 + KL V2 hL = KL # V
2g
2g
2g
2g
2gz1
V2 =
a2 + KL
Since a2 = 1, then volume flow rate becomes
2
2gz1
vo = V2 Ac = pD hole #
4
1 + KL
Substituting the numerical values, we get
p (0.015) 2
2 # 9.81 # 3 = 1.11 10-3 m3/s
vo = #
#
#
1 + 0.5
4
FM 6
FM 6.35
Internal Flow
FM 239
Applying the bernoullis equation at section (1) and (2),

2
2
p1 V 12
p
...(i)
+
+ z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + K L V 2
g
g
2g
2g
2g
o
0.04
Where
V1 = v =
= 3.54 m/s
p
A1
(0.12) 2
#
4
o
v
0.04
V2 =
=
= 14.1 m/s and z1 = z2
p
A2
(0.06) 2
#
4
Hence equation (i) becomes,
p1 - p2 = 1 r [KL V 22 + V 22 - V 12 ]
2
= 1 # 999 # [0.40 (14.1)2 + (14.1)2 - (3.54)2 ]
2
FM 6.36
n
i
.
o
c
.
p1 - p2 = 499.5 # 265.80 - 133 kPa
or
a
i
d

For water, take r = 998 kg/m3 and m = 0.001 kg/m -s . With the flow rate known,
we can compute
o
V = v = 0.005 = 2.55 m/s
A
p
d n]0.05g2
4
The energy equation is written from point 1 to the reservoir surface
2
2
p1 V 12
p
+
+ z1 = 2 + V 2 + z2 + h f + 6Kvalve + Kelbow, 45c + Kelbow, 90c + Kexit@V
rg 2g
rg rg
2g
w
w
o
n
w.
2
p1 V 12
+
+ z1 = 0 + 0 + z2 + h f + 6Kvalve + Kelbow, 45c + Kelbow, 90c + Kexit@V
2g
rg 2g
or
2
2
p1
= z 2 - z1 - V 1 + c f # L # V m
rg
2g
2g
D
2
+6Kvalve + Kelbow, 45c + Kelbow, 90c + Kexit@V
2g
= 500 - 400 -
]2.55g2 + 0.0315 1200

]2.55g2
# 0.05 # 2 9.81 m
2 # 9.81 c
#
+68.5 + 2 # ]0.2g + 4 # ]0.3g + 1@ #
]2.55g2
2 # 9.81
p1
= 500 - 400 - 0.331 + 250.56 + 3.68 = 353.9 , 354
rg
p1 = rg # 354 = 998 # 9.81 # 354
= 3465794 Pa , 3.46 MPa
FM 6.37
FM 240
Internal Flow
FM 6
The energy equation for a control volume between two points

2
2
p1
p
+ a1 V 1 + z1 = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hL
rg
2g
rg
2g
Here V1 = 0, z2 = 0 and p1 = p2 = patm
2
2
2
z1 = a2 V 2 + hL = a2 V 2 + KL V 2
2g
2g
2g
2gz1
V2 =
a2 + KL
So
Then the flow rate becomes.
n
i
.
o
c
.
2
vo = A pipe # V2 = pD
4
(a) For Flanged smooth bend (KL = 0.3)

p (0.03) 2
vo = #
#
4
o
n
w.
a
i
d
hL = KL V
2g
2gz1
a2 + KL
2 # 9.81 # 5
1.05 + 0.3
= 0.00603 m3/s = 6.03 L/s

(b) For Miter bend without vanes (KL = 1.1)
p (0.03) 2
2 # 9.81 # 5
vo = #
#
1.05 + 1.1
4
FM 6.38
w
w
= 0.00478 m3/s = 4.78 L/s
From continuity equation for incompressible flow.

A1 V1 = A2 V2
2
pD 2 /4
V2 = A1 # V1 = = 12 G # V1 = ;D 12 E # V1
A2
pD 2 /4
D2
(0.06) 2
# 10 = 2.5 m/s
(0.12) 2
The loss coefficient for sudden expansion
=
2 2
2
(0.06) 2 2
A
D
small
1
KL = ;1 = ;1 - 2 E = =1 G = 0.5625
Al arg e E
D2
(0.12) 2
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 241
2
(10) 2
= 2.87 m
hL = KL # V 1 = 0.5625 #
2g
2 # 9.81
and Head loss
The energy equation for the expansion section

2
2
p
p1
+ a1 V 1 + z1 = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hL
rg
rg
2g
2g
Since z1 = z2 , then
2
2
p1
+ a1 V 1 = P2 + a2 V 2 + hL
rg
rg
2g
2g
2
2
p2 = p1 + r : a1 V 1 - a2 V 2 - ghLD
2
1.06 # (10) 2 - 1.06 # (2.5) 2

= 300 + 1000 # ;
2
- 9.81 # 2.87@ # 1
1000
= 321.53 kPa , 322 kPa
FM 6.39
o
n
w.
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
The average discharge velocity through the orifice at any given time at any
2gz
time, in general
V2 =
1 + KL
We denote the diameter of the orifice by Do and the diameter of tank by D .
The amount of water flows through the orifice during a time interval dt is
2
2gz
o = pD o
...(i)
dvo = vdt
dt
4
1 + KL
w
w
and the decrease in the volume of water in the tank

2
dv = Area (- dz) = - pD dz
4
...(ii)
From mass conservation, equation (i) must be equal to equation (ii)

2
2gz
pD o2
(- ve sign shows decrease in volume)
dt =- pD dz
4
4
1 + KL
2
dt =- D 2 1 + KL (z) -1/2 dz
2g
Do
Then the draining time is
2
t
0
dt =- D 2 1 + KL
(z) -1/2 dz
2g
Do
t=0
z=2
2
2
0
t f =- D 2 1 + KL 62 # z1/2@2 =- D 2 # 1 + KL # (- 2 2 )
2g
2g
Do
Do
2
2
= D 2 # 1 + KL # 2 2 = 2D2 # 1 + KL
2g
g
Do
Do
FM 242
Internal Flow
= 2#
FM 6.40
(4.5) 2
#
(0.1) 2
FM 6
1 + 0.5 = 1584 sec = 26.4 min

9.81
Option (A) is correct

Since flow rate
vo = Cd At #
2Dp
r _1 - b4 i
= 0.605 # p # ]0.05g2 #
4
where b = d = 5 = 0.5
D 10
2 # 75000
998 61 - ]0.5g 4@
= 0.0150 m3 /s - 54 m3 /h
FM 6.41

o
Vt = v = 0.0150 = 7.64 m/s
p
At
0.05g2
4 #]
Since head loss due to pressure difference is known as non recoverable head loss.
So
r
Dploss = K # # V t2 = 1.8 # 998 # ]7.64g2
2
2
The velocity
= 52427 - 52400 Pa = 52.4 kPa

FM 6.42
n
i
.
o
c
.

For a pressure drop of Dp across the orifice plate, the flow rate is expressed as
2Dp
...(i)
vo = Ao Cd
r (1 - b 4)
Since
b = d = 0.6 = d
50
D
o
n
w.
d = 30 cm
Then
w
w
a
i
d
2
p (0.3) 2
= 0.07069 m2
Ao = p # d = #
4
4
Therefore from equation (i)
FM 6.43
2Dp
(998) # 61 - ]0.6g4@
Dp = 14600 kg - m/s2 = 14.6 kPa
0.25 = (0.07069) # (0.61) #

The head loss between two measurement section is estimated by energy equation.
Dp V 22 - V 12
p - p2 V 22 - V 12
...(i)
z1 = z 2
hL = 1
=
rw g
rw g
2g
2g
Since for constant volume flow rate,
2
2
V1 # pD = V2 pd
4
4
2
V2 = b D l # V1
d
o
V1 = v = 0.25 # 4 2 = 1.27 m/s
Ac
p # (0.5)
Substituting in equation (i)
2
D 2
D 4
2
2
;b d l # V1E - V 1
;b d l - 1E V 1
Dp
Dp
hL =
=
rw g
rw g
2g
2g
FM 6
Internal Flow
hL =
14600 998 # 9.81
FM 243
50 4
2
;b 30 l - 1E # 1.27
2 # 9.81
= 1.49 - 0.5521 = 0.9379 , 0.940 m

FM 6.44

Since
b = 0.6 = d = d or d = 0.6 # 5 = 3 cm
5
D
Now
vo = 0.334 = Cd # A #
60
= Cd # p d 2 #
4
0.334 = 0.613 p 0.03 2

g #
# 4]
60
0.334 = 0.00044 16.84 h
#
60
or
2 ^13550 - 998h # 9.81 # h

998 61 - ]0.6g 4@
0.00557 = 0.0074 h
2
h = b 0.00557 l = 0.57 m = 57 cm
0.0074
or
FM 6.45
2D p
r _1 - b 4 i
2 ^rHg - rwater h gh
rwater _1 - b 4 i
where Dp = ^rHg - rw h # gh
n
i
.
o
c
.

The pressure drop across the venturi-meter is
a
i
d
Dp = p1 - p2 = rw gh - rair gh
r
= (rw - rair ) gh = rair b w - 1l gh
rair
o
n
.
w
w
Then flow rate
w
where
and
Thus
2 (p1 - p2)
= Ao Cd
rair (1 - b 4)
r
2gh b w - 1l
rair
= Ao Cd
(1 - b 4)
2
p # (0.06) 2
d
p
=
= 0.002827 m2
Ao =
4
4
b = d = 6 = 0.40
D 15
vo = Ao Cd
vo = 0.002827 # 0.98 #
rw
- 1l # rair
rair
rair (1 - b 4)
2gh b
2 # 9.81 # 0.4 b 1000 - 1l

1.204
61 - ]0.40g4@
= 0.2265 m3/s
Then the maximum mass flow rate that venturi-meter can measure is
o = rvo = 1.204 # 0.2265 = 0.273 kg/s
m
FM 6.46

The upstream density is
p1
= 150000 = 1.48 kg/m3
RT1 287 # 353
and
b =d =4=2
6 3
D
The pressure difference measured by the mercury manometer
r1 =
FM 244
Internal Flow
FM 6
p1 - p2 = ^rHg - rair h gh = ]13550 - 1.48g 9.81 # 0.37

Dp = 49200 Pa
Now the compressive venturi formula thus predicts :
2r1 ^p1 - p2h
o = Cd YAt #
m
1 - b4
2 # 1.48 ]49200g
= 0.985 # 0.76 # 9 p # 0.042C #
4
4
1 -b2l
3
= 0.40 kg/s
FM 6.47

The flow velocity
7
o
v
3600
V = =
= 0.00195 # 24 = 0.99 m/s
p D2
A
p # ]0.05g
4
o
Vt = v = 0.00195 # 24 , 2.75 m/s
At
p # ]0.03g
Also
For b = d = 3 = 0.6 and K = 1.5 , the head loss across the office is
5
D
n
i
.
o
c
.
2
]2.75g2
Dh = h2 - h1 = K # V t = 1.5 # ;
= 0.58 m
2g
2 # 9.81E
Hence
h2 = 0.58 + h1 = 0.58 + 1 = 1.58 m
Then the piezometer change between (2) and (3) is due to friction loss
2
]0.99g2 = 0.115 m
h 3 - h2 = h f = f # L # V = 0.023 # 5 #
2g
0.05
2 # 9.81
D
h 3 = 0.115 + h2 = 1.58 + 0.115 = 1.695 , 1.7 m
or
FM 6.48
o
n
w.
a
i
d
w
w
From the pressure drop relation, the flow rates are

128mLa voa
Dpa =
= 21 # 1000
pd a4
21 # 103 # p # ]0.08g 4
or
voa =
= 0.0027 m3 /s
128 # 0.104 # 76
128mLb vob
and
Dpb =
= 21000
pd b4
21000 # p # ]0.05g 4
or
vob =
= 0.0005 m3 /s
128 # 0.104 # 61
For parallel pipe system
vo = voa + vob
= 0.0027 + 0.0005 = 0.0032 m3 /s
FM 6.49

For parallel system of pipe, head loss for each pipe must be same.
When the minor losses are disregarded, head loss is
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 245
2
o 2
hL = f L cV m = f # L # 1 # v 2
2g
D
D 2g
> pD H
4
o2
o2 # 16
L
L
v
= 8f # 2# v5
= f# # 2 4
D
p gD
p D # 2g
2
p hL # g
2.5
vo =
#D
8fL
Thus
When the pipe length, friction factor and head loss is constant, the flow rate
becomes proportional to the D 2.5 in parallel connection.
k = constant of proportionality
vo = kD 2.5
Let diameter of pipe B = DB and diameter of pipe A = DA .
Therefore
voB = k (DB) 2.5
voA = k (DA) 2.5 = k (0.5DB) 2.5
DA = DB (given)
2
voA = 0.177 # k (DB) 2.5 = 0.177 # voB
Hence the flow rate of pipe A is decreased by a factor of 0.177.
FM 6.50

For parallel pipe system the head losses are the same for each pipe
8fL vo2 8fL vo2 8fL vo2
h f = 2 1 51 = 2 2 52 = 2 3 53
p gd 1
p gd 2
p gd 1
3
vo1 + vo2 + vo3 = 0.056 m /s
w
w
o
n
w.
a
i
d
Now from equation (i),

vo1 + 1.673 vo1 + 0.7014 vo1 = 0.056
or
3.374vo1 = ]0.056g
vo1 = 0.056 or vo1 = 0.0166 m3 /s
3.374
vo2 =1.673 = 1.673 vo1 # 0.0186 = 0.0277 m3 /s
vo3 = 0.7014 vo1 = 0.7014 # 0.0166 = 0.0116 m3 /s
and
FM 6.51

Since
...(i)
o2
o2
h f = 8 # 20.0275 # 900 #5 v 1 = 8 #2 0.0275 # 800 #5v 2
p # 9.81 # ]0.1g
p # 9.81 # ]0.12g
2
o
= 8 #2 0.0275 # 600 #5v 3
p # 9.81 # ]0.08g
h f = 204501 vo12 = 73053 vo22 = 416059 vo32
vo22 = 204501 vo12 = 2.8vo12 or vo2 = 1.673 vo1
73053
vo22 = 204501 vo12 = 0.492 vo12 or vo3 = 0.7014 vo1
416059
or
or
n
i
.
o
c
.
8 # f1 # L1 # vo12 8 # 0.0275 # 900 # ]0.0166g2

=
p2 # 9.81 # ]0.1g5
p 2 # g # d 15
= 56.35 m
hf =
Then pressure drop

Dp = rgh f = 998 # 9.81 # 56.35
= 551687.9 , 550 kPa
FM 246
FM 6.52
Internal Flow
FM 6

The head loss is the same through pipes AC and BC (parallel system)
Dp
= h fA + h fC = h fB + h fC
rg
2
2
2
2
= c f L # V A m + c f L # V B m = c f L # V B m + c f L # VC m
2g A
2g C
2g B
2g C
d
d
d
d
VC2
250 V A2 + 0.022
150
750000 = 0.022
#
#
#
#
b
b
l
0.08
2
0.08
2 l
998
...(i)
VC2
V B2 + 0.022
100
150
750000 = 0.022
#
#
#
#
b
b
l
0.08
2
0.08
2 l
998
From equation (i) and (ii),
and
...(ii)
751.50 = 34.375V A2 + 20.625VC2

751.50 = 13.75V B2 + 20.625VC2
From equation (iii) and (iv),
...(iii)
...(iv)
2
751.50 - 20.625 # ]5.35g2
V A2 = 751.50 - 20.625 # VC =
34.375
34.375
VA = 2.16 m/s
751.50 - 20.625 # ]5.35g2
V B2 =
13.75
and
VB = 3.42 m/s
Now for parallel pipe A and B ,
voAB = voA + voB
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
voAB = VA AA + VB AB = ^VA + VB h A
= ^2.16 + 3.42h # p # ]0.08g2
4
w
w
o
n
w.
DA = DB
= 0.0280 m3 /s
And for Pipe in series

voAB = voC = 0.0280 m3 /s
Hence the total volume flow rate
vo = voAB = voC = 0.0280 m3 /s
- 101 m3 /hr
FM 6.53
Correct option is (B)

Let h = roughness . Thus h = ds
Where
ds = 5V*
u
tw 1/2
DDp 1/2
And
u* = c r m = d
n
r # 4l
Hence
1/2
...(i)
where tw =
u* = c
fV 2 m
8
u* = ;
0.0125 # (2) 2 1/2

E = 0.0791 m/s
8
DDp
4l
since Dp = f l # 1 rV 2
2
D
5 (3.65 # 10-7)
and from eq (i),
ds =
= 2.31 # 10-5 m = 0.0231 mm
0.0791
If the roughness element is smaller than 0.0231 mm it lies within the laminar
sublayer.
FM 6
FM 6.54
Internal Flow
FM 247
Correct option is (D)
Assume that fluid flows from A to B and A to C .

vo1 = vo2 + vo3
p
or
(0.1) 2 V1 = p # (0.08) 2 V2 + p # (0.08) 2 V3
4#
4
4
V1 = 0.64V2 + 0.64V3 = 0.64 (V2 + V3)
For fluid flowing from A to B with pA = pB = 0 and VA = VB = 0
2
2
zA = zB + f1 l1 # V 1 + f2 l2 # V 2
2g
2g
D1
D2
...(i)
n
i
.
o
c
.
2
2
60 - 20 = 0.015 # 200 # V 1
+ 0.020 # 200 # V 2
0.1
2 # 9.81
0.08
2 # 9.81
or
...(ii)
40 = 1.529V 12 + 2.55V 22
Similarly, for fluid flowing from A to C with pA = pC = 0 and VA = VC = 0
2
2
zA = zC + f1 l1 V 1 + f3 l 3 V 3
D1 2g
D 3 2g
o
n
w.
a
i
d
2
2
60 - 0 = 0.015 # 200 # V 1 + 0.020 # 400 # V 3
0. 1
0.08
2 (9.81)
2 (9.81)
w
w
or
60 = 1.529V 12 + 5.10V 32
...(iii)
Solve equation (i), (ii) and (iii) for V1, V2 and V3 . From equation (i) and (iii)
60 = 1.529 # (0.64) 2 (V2 + V3) 2 + 5.10V 32
60 0.626 (V2 + V3) 2 + 5.10V32
95.8 = (V2 + V3) 2 + 8.14V 32
Subtract equation (ii) from equation (iii)
60 - 40 = 5.10V 32 - 2.55V 22 or V2 =
Thus, from equation (iv) and (v)
...(iv)
2V 32 - 7.84
...(v)
0 = 8.14V 32 + ( 2V 32 - 7.84 + V3) 2 - 95.8

This can be simplified to
...(vi)
2V3 2V 32 - 7.84 = 103.6 - 11.14V 32
Squaring both the sides and rearrange to get
V 34 - 19.63V 32 + 92.5 = 0 which can be solved by the quadratic formula
to give
V 32 =
Thus
19.63 ! (- 19.63) 2 - 4 # 92.5

= 11.77 or 7.86
2
V3 = 3.43 m/s or V3 = 2.80 m/s
FM 248
Internal Flow
FM 6
Note : The value V3 = 3.43 m/s is not a solution of the original equations,
equation (i), (ii) and (iii). With this value the right hand side of equation (vi) is
negative (i.e 103.6 - 11.14V 32 = 103.6 - 11.14 (3.43) 2 =- 24.5 ). As seen from the
left hand side of equation (vi), this cannot be. This extra root was introduced
by squaring equation (vi).
vo3 = A 3 V3 = p # (0.08) 2 # 2.80 = 0.0141 m3/s
4
Thus
Also, from equation (iii)
60 = 1.529V 12 + 5.10 # (2.80) 2 or V1 = 3.62 m/s

vo1 = A1 V1 = p # (0.10) 2 # 3.62 = 0.0284 m3/s
4
or
and from equation (i), we get

3.62 = 0.64V2 + 0.64 # 2.80 or V2 = 2.86 m/s
or
vo2 = A2 V2 = p # (0.08) 2 # 2.86 = 0.0144 m3/s
4
FM 6.55

We take point (1) at the free surface of tank and point (2) at the exit of the pipe.
Then, the energy equation between these two points.
2
2
p
p1
+ a1 V 1 + z1 = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hL
rg
rg
2g
2g
Since p1 = p2 = patm, V1 , 0, z2 = 0, and V2 = 0 (Velocity head negligible)
Above equation becomes
z1 = hL and h = hL
where h is the liquid height in the tank at any time t .
2
Now
hL = f L # V
2g
d
w
w
o
n
w.
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
For fully developed laminar flow

f = 64 = 64
Re Vd/n
2
Thus
hL = 64 # L # V = 64n2L # V
2g
2g
d
d
Vd
n
The average velocity
o
o
o
V = v = v 2 = 4v 2
Ac
pd
pd
4
o
o
4vo
hL = 64n2L # 1 # 4v 2 = 64n2L #
= 128nLv
2
4
2
g
pd
pd # 2g
d
d
g pd
o
...(i)
hL = h = 128nLv
g pd 4
From mass conservation, above equation must be equal to change of liquid height
in the tank.
2
vo =- pD dh
4 dt
Now equation (i) becomes
pD 2 dh =- 32nLD 2 dh
h =- 128nL
4 #
4 # dt
gd 4 dt
g pd
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 249
2
dh
dt =- 32nLD
# h
4
gd
Integrating from t = 0 when h = H to t = t when h = h
2
t = 32nLD
ln b H l
4
h
gd
FM 6.56
The bottom side of the triangle is

= 2 # 2 sin 40c, 2.57 cm
A = 1 # 2.57 # ]2 cos 40cg = 1.97 cm2
2
and
Perimeter = 2 + 2 + 2.57 = 6.57 cm

Then Hydraulic diameter
4A
= 4 # 1.97 = 1.20 cm
Dh =
perimeter
6.57
rVDh
Re D =
= 870 # 2 # 0.0120 , 201 (Laminar flow)
m
0.104
Then
f = 52.9 = 52.9 = 0.263
201
Re
r
Hence
Dp = f # L # # V 2
2
Dh
= ]0.263g # b 0.6 l # b 870 l # ]2g2
0.012
2
h
FM 6.57
w
w
o
n
w.
a
i
d
n
i
.
o
c
.
- 23000 Pa = 23 kPa
Correct option is (A)
-4
o
V = v = 4 # 10
= 1.27 m/s
p
A
(0.02) 2
#
4
FM 250
Internal Flow
FM 6
rVD VD 1.27 # 0.02

=
=
= 115 < 2100
m
n
2.2 # 10-4
The flow is laminar and flow rate is given by ( q = 90c)
p (Dp - gl ) D 4
128mlvo
or Dp = p1 - p2 =
+ gl
vo =
128ml
pD 4
Thus
g = S.G. # gH O = 0.87 # 9.81 = 8.53 kN/m3
Re =
So that
m
=n
r
...(i)
m = nr = n (S.G.rH O) = 2.2 # 10-4 # 0.87 # 999 = 0.191N-s/m2

Equation (i) gives
-4
Dp = 128 # 0.191 # 4 # 44 # 10 + 8.53 # 103 # 4
p # (0.020)
...(ii)
= 1.119 # 105 N/m2 = 111.9 kN/m2
From manometer equation,
and
p2 = p1 - gh1 + gm h - gh2
gm = S.G. m gH O = 1.3 # 9.81 = 12.74 kN/m3
h2 = h + l - h1 or h2 + h1 = h + l
p1 - p2 = Dp = g (h2 + h1) - gm h =- (gm - g) h + gl
...(iii)
Combine equation (ii) and (iii), we get
Where
and
Thus
n
i
.
o
c
.
111.9 =- (12.74 - 8.53) h + 8.53 # 4

or
h =- 18.5 m
Note: Since h < 0 , the manometer is displaced in the direction opposite that
shown in the original figure.
FM 6.58
o
n
w.
a
i
d

The divided cross section of the pipe into 1 cm thick annual regions is shown in
table.
The flow rate is to be determined by using midpoint velocity values for each
section. Therefore
w
w
vo =
#V
Ac
avg
2
- r in2 ]
dAc = SVavg p [r out
= p # b 6.4 + 6.1 l # 6(0.01) 2 - 0@ + p b 6.1 + 5.2 l # 6]0.02g2 - ]0.01g2@

2
2
+ p # b 5.2 + 4.4 l # 6]0.03g2 - ]0.02g2@ + p b 4.4 + 2.0 l # 6]0.04g2 - ]0.03g2@
2
2
+ p # b 2.0 + 0 l # 6]0.05g2 - ]0.040g2@
2
3
vo = 0.0297 m /s
FM 6.59
Correct option is (C)
For laminar flow Re # 2100 or
rVD
# 2100
m
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 251
Thus the minimum h is h = 0 (no flow) and the maximum h is for Re = 2100 .
8900
b 9.81 l # V # 0.023
2100 =
0.1
g
r=
g
or
V = 10.06 m/s
For the flowing fluid, Bernoullis equation gives
2
2
p
p1 V 12
+
+ z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + f l V
g
g
2g
2g
D 2g
and V1 = V2 = V
z1 = z 2
2
p1 - p 2 = f # l V # g
D 2g
(i)
Thus
And for laminar flow

f = 64 or f = 64 = 0.0305
2100
Re
From equation (i),
(10.06) 2
Dp = p1 - p2 = 0.0305 # 0.5 #
8900
0.023
2 # 9.81 #
n
i
.
o
c
.
= 30439 N/m2
From manometer equation, we get
p1 + goil (H + h) - S.G. gH Oh - goil H = p2
Dp = p1 - p2 = (S.G. gH O - g) h
30439
or
h =
= 0.510 m
(7 # 9800 - 8900)
Hence
0 # h # 0.510 m
a
i
d
2
FM 6.60
o
n
w.
w
w
We take point (1) at free surface of the tank and point (2) at the reference level at
exit. By applying energy equation for a control volume between these two points
2
2
p1
p
+ a1 V 1 + z1 + h pump = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hturbine + hL
rg
2g
rg
2g
Since p1 = p2 = patm , z2 = 0, hturbine = 0 , and V1 , 0
2
2
z1 = a2 V 2 + hL
hL = f L # V 2
2g
2g
D
So
2
2
z1 = a2 V 2 + f L # V 2
2g
2g
D
2gz1
V2 =
=
a2 + ^ fL/D h
2gz
1 + ^ fL/D h
a2 = 1
FM 252
Internal Flow
FM 6
where z is the water height relative to the center of the orifice at that time.
Now, the flow rate of water through the pipe during a time interval dt is
2
2gz
o = Ac # V2 dt = pD o #
dvo = vdt
dt
4
1 + ^ fL/Do h
where Do is the diameter of orifice.
From conservation of mass
Flow rate of water through the pipe = decrease in the volume of water tank
2
2gz
dt = Ac, tank (- dz) =- pD # dz
4
1 + ^ fL/Do h
2
1 + ^ fL/Do h
dz
dt =- D 2
2gz
Do
pD o2
4 #
2
1 + ^ fL/Do h -1/2
=- D 2 #
z dz
2g
Do
By integrating above equation from t = 0 when z = z1 to t = t f when z = 0
(completely drained tank)
2
t
0
dt =- D 2 # 1 + ^ fL/Do h
z-1/2 dz
D
t=0
z=z
o
2g
2
1/2 0
D
z
+
1
fL
/
D
^
h
o
t f =- 2 #
1
Do
2g
2 z
2
2z1 $1 + ^ fL/Do h.
= D2 #
Do
g
Substituting the numerical values, we get
]10g2
2 # 2 b1 + 0.022 # 25 l
tf =
2 #
0.03
(0.03)
9.81
= 311965 seconds , 86.6 hours
n
i
.
o
c
.
1
w
w
o
n
w.
a
i
d
***********

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GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING by NODIA

Stress and Strain

Analysis of Plane Mechanism

Static and Dynamic Loading

Basic Concepts and Properties of Fluids

Basic Concepts & Modes of Heat-Transfer

Probability and Statistics

Surds, Indices and Logarithm

Sequences and Series

Average, Mixture and Alligation

Ratio, Proportion and Variation

Time, Speed & Distance

Time, Work & Wages

GATE TOPICWISE SOLVED PAPER(2013-2001)

Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning

GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (4 volumes)

Consider a flow through a 15 m long horizontal pipe at the laminar transition

Common Data For Q. 4 and 5

Water at 15cC ( r = 999.1 kg/m3 ) is flowing steadily in a 45 m long and 4 cm

What will be the head loss ?

The pumping power requirement to overcome pressure drop is

Common Data For Q. 6 and 7

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What will be the overall friction factor ?

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Consider a flow between two smooth parallel horizontal plates of 3 cm apart. If

Water at 20c C flows from a tank by the pressurized air at a rate of 60 m3 /h as

(A) 2.38 MPa

(B) 1.2 MPa

A single 6 cm diameter tube consists of seven 2 cm diameter smooth thin

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A capillary viscometer measures the time of Dt = 6 seconds required for a 8 cm3

SAE 30 oil at 20c C ^m = 0.29 kg/m-s , r = 891 kg/m3h flows upward in a 3 cm

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(A) 0.0289 m3/s

(B) 2.89 m3/s

Consider the pitot-static pressure arrangement as shown in figure below. Air at

(A) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.7 Pa

(B) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.233 Pa

Glycerin at 20cC ( r = 1260 kg/m3 , m = 1.50 N - s/m2 ) flows upward in a vertical

Common Data For Q. 25 and 26

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If the pipe is horizontal, the flow rate of oil through pipe is

(A) 0.180 m3/s

(B) 0.00180 m3/s

Water at 20c C flows through a multiple parallel-plate passages heat exchanger

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Water at 20c C flows upward through an inclined 6 cm diameter pipe at 4 m/s is

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(A) 1.54 kPa

(B) 1.15 kPa

45c long-radius elbow :

Kerosine is to be withdrawn from a 15 cm high kerosine tank by drilling a well

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(A) 8.08 L/s, 4.78 L/s