Page 1

1. Precision engine bearing inserts are manufactured with a small portion of

the bearing ends extending beyond the bearing housing or caps. The
installation process of the these bearings requires sufficient_________
A. Overlap
B. Crush
C. Lap or lead
D. Protrusion

Ans. B

2. The piston rod scraper box incorporated in a two-stroke/cycle crosshead

diesel serves to
A. Eliminate the necessity for an oil scarpering
B. Prevent side thrust and cylinder scoring
C. Prevent sludge and dirty oil from entering the crankcase
D. Scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls
Ans. C
3. The method of piston cooling in which oil is delivered through the
connecting rod to a compartment within the piston, then distributed by the
motion of the pistons, and allowed to drain the crankcase via one or more
holes or pipes, is termed______________
A. Quaker
B. Shaker
C. Circulation
D. spray

Ans. b

4. In a large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the parts listed is
under tension when the engine is running?
A. Bed plate
B. Column
C. Entablature
D.tie rod
5. The main advantage of unit injectors(combines fuel pump and injector) over
other fuel injection system is___________
A. The lack of high pressure fuel lines
B. Their relatively low injection pressures
C. Reduced wear of spray orifices
D. The lessened chance of fuel leaks into engine sump
Ans: A

6. Passages are drilled in the crank shafts of diesel engines to provide lubricating
oil to the _____
A. Main bearings
B. Connecting rod bearings
C. Piston pin bushings
D. None of the above is right
Ans. C

7. When may the crankcase ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes of two or more
engines be connected?
A. Propulsion engines under 1000 shaft horsepower may share a common
crankcase vent provided the oil drains remain separate
B. In most cases it is desirable and cost effective for propulsion engines to share a
common crankcase ventilation and monitoring system
C. No interconnection may be made between the crank case ventilation pipes or oil
drain pipes

8. The main function of tie rods in the construction of large low speed diesel
engines is to _____
A. Stiffen the bedplate in way of the main bearings to increase the engine's
longitudinal strength
B. Accept most of the tensile loading that results from the fring forces developed
durin operation
C. Mount the engine frame securely to the hull to prevent shaft coupling
misalignment
D. Connect the crosshead solidly to the piston rod
Ans. B

9. On most modern diesel engines, the main and connecting rod bearings receive
their lubricating oil by____________
A. Banjo feed
B. Splash feed
C. Gravity feed
D.Pressure feed
Ans. D

10. Fuel injection pumps using the port and helix metering principle requires the
use of a______
A. Crosshatched design
B. Lapped plunger and barrel
C. Variable stroke
D. Variable cam lift
Ans. B

11. Lubricating oil is supplied to the crankpin bearings in a marine diesel engine
by__________
A. Internal crankshaft passages
B. Immersion in oil
C. Spclearance lubrication
D. Injection lubrication
Ans. A

12. Gudgeonpin bearings are difficult to lubricate because of their oscillating

motion and__________

A. Their free- floating design

B. Their relatively small size
The reciprocating motion of the piston
D. Their position in the lubrication system
Ans. D

13. The crank shaft drive is designed to maintain proper cam shaft speed relation to
crank shaft speed. In maintaining this relationship, the cam shaft drive causes the
cam shaft to rotate at_______
A. One half crank shaft speed in a two stroke cycle diesel engine
B. Crank shaft speed in a two stroke cycle diesel engine
C. Two times crank shaft speed in a four stroke cycle diesel engine
D. One fourth times crank shaft in a four stroke cycle diesel engine
Ans. B

14. Engines having a bore exceeding 250mm, but not exceeding 300 mm are to
have atleast____
A. Three compression rings per piston and the minimum of two oil scraper rings
B. One intake and one exhaust vaulte per cylinder provided no other means of
scavenging is used
C. One explosion relies valve in way of each alternate crank throw with a
minimum of two valves
D. One crank shaft except in cases where an opposed piston design is required
Ans. C

15. The opening of an exhaust valve on a modern, large, low speed, main
propulsion diesel engine, may be actuated by____________
A. Direct action of cam shaft
B. Compressed air pressure
C. Hydraulic push rods
D. Direct action of the main piston moving down
Ans. C

16. Sicker circulation ames spray are the three general methods used
in____________
A. Pre-injection fuel oil treatment
B. Tube oil filtration
C. Tube oil purification
D. Piston cooking
Ans. D

17. The speed of the cam shaft in a two stroke diesel engine running at 950 RPM,
is_________
A. 475 RPM
B. 950 RPM
C. 1900 RPM
D. 2400 RPM
Ans. B

18. Explosion relief valves on diesel engines crank cases should relieve the
pressure at not more than
A. 0.1 bar
B. 0.2 bar
C. 1.0 bar
D. 2.0 bar
Ans. B
Page 2

19. A two stroke diesel engine exhaust temperature will be lower than a four stroke
diesel engine of the same displacement because the I scavenging air is cooling the
exhaust gases II exhaust cycle time is longer____________
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I and II
Ans. A

20. The sealing surfaces of a diesel engine piston ring are considered to be the
faces in contact with the cylinder wall, in addition to the ring groove
A. Bottom
B. Back
C. Top
D. Side
Ans. A

21. where is fuel delivery check valve located in a jerk pump fuel injection system?

A. In a cylinder head

B. on the suction side of the delivery pump

C. in the injection pump housing discharge

D. on the inlet side of spray valves

Ans.C

22. How many crankcase relief valves are required for a 325 mm bore, eight
cylinder in line-engine?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D.8
Ans.D

23. Which of the air intake systems listed will result in the lowest specific fuel
consumption?

A. Natural aspiration

B.Turbocharged

CRootsblower

D.Pistonblower

Ans.B

24.In which of the following areas of a crosshead engine is a permanently

connected fire extinguishing system required?

A.Exhaust manifolds in excess of eight inches in diameter

B.Crankcases having a gross volume in excess of 21 cubic feet

C.Turbocharger inlet piping in excess of twelve inches in diameter

D.Scavenging spaces in open connection to the cylinder

Ans.D

25.Camshafts are usually driven by timing gears or ……………………

A.push rods

B.Chain drivers

C.rocker arms

D.flywheels

Ans.B

26. The cam slope angle determines the……………………..

A.Opening and closing points of the valve

B.Opening and closing rate of the valve

C.height of valve opening

D. the amount of the time the valve remains open

Ans.B

27.The arrangement and the shape of the cams on a diesel engine camshaft directly
control which of the listed groups of operating conditions?

A.speed,torque,horse power production

B.firing order valve timing and valve lifting

C.fuel consumption eifficiecy and cylinder pressure

D. scavenge pressure compression ratio and exhaust pressure

Ans B

28 carbon deposit building up in and around the injection nozzle tip are least likely
to occur when using which of the listed type of fuel injection nozzle

A hole

B multy hole

C pintle

D multi pintle

Ans C

29 a port and helix fuel injection pump having upper and lower plunjer helix is
design to ?

A vary fuel delivery and return pressure

B vary and beginning and ending of injection

C operate with residual fuels only

D provide maximum fuel delivery rate

Ans B

30 which of the following statements describe a fuel injection pump marked

limited for port closing?

A injection has a constant beginning and variable ending

B the pump stroke determines the amount of fuel injector

C fuel is metered by the pumps delivery rate

D timing reference marks should be changed

Ans A

31 some fuel injection sytems utilize port and helix metered which of the
following statement describes a system timed or port closing?

A. Injection has a variable beginning and a constant ending

B. Injections metered by an external delivery rate
C. Injection has a constant beginning and variable ending
D. Injection will not occur until the helix closes the delivery valve

Ans.C

32. An individual injection pump is designed for variable beginning and

constant ending of injection .For diesel engines operating at constant speed the
start of injection will ?

A advance as the load increases

B retard as the load increases

C remain unchanged regardless of load

D always occur at top dead center

Ans A

33 a crank shaft whose center of gravity coincide with its center line is said to
be ?
A dynamically balanced

B statically balanced

C counter balanced

D resonan balanced

Ans B

34 the amount of fuel injector in a particular time or degree of crankshaft

rotation is termed

A metering

B timing

C rate of injection

D rate of distribution

35.the small end of the connecting rod is attached to the piston with a
…………..

A. crankpin

B.sliding wedge

C. gudgeon pin

D.torque bushing

Ans.C

36.at dead center the center line of the connecting rod usually coincides with
the ?

A.angularity of the piston motion

B.inertia moment from the position

C.centerline of the cylinder

D.centerline of the king pin

 Ans.C

37.Connecting rods in a diesel engine are used to connect the

A.engine to the bed

B.rocker arm to the camshaft

C.crankshaft to the gear train

D. piston to the crankshaft

Ans D

38.Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system using

individual

A changes the position of the fuel inlet ports

B changes the length of the pump stoke

C varies the quantity of fuel delivered

D varies the compression of the delivery valves spring

Ans c

Page 3

39 The purpose of a heat dam used in some digital engine cast iron piston is
to---------------------

A.concentrate all heat in the piston crown

B.increase the disance of travell for heat from the crown to the top ring
groov

C.ensure that all heat in the pestion crown is conducted to the ring

D.provide a short direct path of heat to the crown to the top ring

Ans:B
40 Diesel engine are classified as reciprocating internal combustion engines
because they

A.use energy from the burned outside their cylinder

b.burn fuel into combustion chamber that move back and for

c.burn fuel in a chamber where its energy moves a piston back and forth

d.use a continuous combbustion process import rotary motion to the piston

41. a disel engine with a full speed of 1000 rpm drive a propelller at 300 rpm .
what is the speed reduction ratio

a.0.3to1

b.3.33to1

c.33 to 1

d.300 to 1

42 which of the listed design features is most common to a two /stroke cycle
low speed main propulsion diesel engines?

A.cross head construction

B.cross scavenging air flow

C.trunk type pistions

D.single reduction gearing

Ans:a

43 why is the ring belt narrower in a diameter than the skirt of pistion
designed for a diesel engine?

A.to allow a greater expansion due to higher operating temperature

B.to seal the cylinder aginest leakage of combustion gases

 C.to provide an additional surface for oil cooling

D.to provide additional strength for the crown and lower structure

Ans;a

44 Which statement about diesel engine combustion is true?

A. Combustion does not begin until the piston starts down on the power
stroke
B. Maximum combustion pressure is reached before TDC
C. Turbulence in the cylinder causes a delay in ignition
D. Maximum cylinder firing pressure is not developed until the piston passes
TDC

Ans:D

45 The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the skirt in order
to……………………

A. Faciliate the installation of piston rings

B. Allow for the expansion of the piston during expansion
C. Prevent crankcase vapors from entering the combustion chamber
D. Reduce wearing of the upper cylinder liner

Ans:B

46 Why are some diesel engine cylinder lines plated on the wearing surface with
porous chromium?

A. The chromium wil not wear out the piston rings

B. Chromium eliminates the need for oil scraper rings
C. The chromium strengthens the liners in the way of the scavenging air ports
D. Pores in the plating and in maintaining the lube oil film
 Ans:D

47 The injection pumps on a diesel engine are controlled by a linkage system

attached jerk pump is to ___________

A. Camshaft
B. Crankshaft
C. Governer
D. Flywheel

Ans C

48 What type of fitting is to be used on diesel engine fuel injection line piping?

A. Mild steel
B. Hardened steel
C. Extra heavy
D. Double extra heavy

Ans:C

49 The ability of a fuel particle to travel into the combustion chamber before
burning is called-------------

A. Peneteration
B. Permanence
C. Turebulence
D. Atomization

Ans.A

50 Thoretical perfect combustion in a diesel engine yields by products of-----

--------

A. Aldehydes and carbon di oxide

B. Wate vapour and carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen and carbon monoxide
D. Water vapour and carbon di oxide
Ans. D

51. The function of the window cast into the housuing of an individual jerk
pump is to…………………….

A. allow the pum to be limited to the engine

B. check the sludge on the pump barrel

C.check that the fuel return passages are clear

D.set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters

Ans:A

52. The piston gudgeon pin used in some diesel engine pistons is prevented
from contacting the cylinder wall by a……………….

A.piston relief groove

B.piston pin cup

C.snap ring

D.bronze bushing

Ans:C

53. Turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is of major importance in

providing………………..

A.proper fuel metrein g

B.Complete fuel/air mixing

C.minimal fuel penetration

D.proper fuel timing

Ans:B
54. The load is always placed on the lower half of the main bearings in
a/an……………….

A.two stroke/cycle engine

B.four stroke /cycle engine

C.reverse cycle engine

D.double acting engine

Ans:A

55.Cavitation eroision in the cooling water system of a diesel engine usually

occurs at the pump impeller and on the water side of the

A.fuel nozzle holders

B.complete fuel/air mixing

C.engine cylinder liners

D.engine exhaustmanifold

56.The main charecteristic of diesel engine which distinguishes from other

internal combustion engines is the

A.method of supplying air

B.cooling system

C.method of igniting fuel

D.valve operating mechanism

Ans:C

57.Which term describes piston pins having bearing surfaces in both the
pistons bosses and connecting rod eye?

A. stationary
B. Full floating

C. semi-floating

D. Free floating

Ans. B

58. Compared to other fuel injection systems,unit injectors operate with

virtually no…………..

A. injection lag

B. Ignition delay

C. moving parts

D. control

Ans.A

Page 4

59. Piston cooling fins are loca ed…………..

A. on top of the piston crown

B. underneath the piston crown

C. at the base of the piston skirt

D. inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket

Ans.B

60. A properly honed diesel engine cylider liner will……………

A. prevent piston ring wear

B. shorten the ring break-in period

C. prevent cylinder liner glazing

D. appear slick and glazed

Ans.B

61.Beside the use of piston cooling fins to assist in cooling,they also provide
extra strength for the piston…………….

A. skin

B. crown

C. gudgeon pin

D. oil rings

Ans.B

62.The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure required for efficient Injection
depends primarily on the………….

A. degree of cylinder air turbulence

B. maximum pressure in the engine cylinders during injection

C. quantity of fuel to be injected

D. duration of ignition delay period

Ans. B

63.A thrust bearing is used with a propulsion diesel engine to …………………

A. control axial movement of crankshaft

B. transmit engine thrust to the propeller shaft

C. absorb vibrations in the propeller shafting

D. prevent proppeller thrust from being transmitted to the hull

Ans.A

64.The two strokes of a two-stroke /cycle diesel engine are

A. power and intake

B. intake and exhaust

C. exhaust and compression

D. compression and power

Ans.D

65.Which of the following statements pertains to propulsion engine with bores

exceeding 200mm?

A. There shall be a means to display the cooling water outlet temperature of

each cylinder

B. All engines connected to the controllable pitch propellers shall be of the

direct reversible type

C. The engines will be fitted with a means to display the exhaust gas
temoerature of each cylinder

D. All of the above are correct

Ans.C

66.where engine bores 230mm,a bursting disc or flame arrestor is fitted

…………………

A. at the supply inlet to the starting air manifold for non-reversing engines

B. on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbocharger

C. on all devices subject to the by-products of combustion or lubrication
system vapours

D. in way of the control valve of each cylinder for direct reversing engines
having a main starting manifold

Ans.A

67. What is the function of main thrust bearing?

A. Prevents lateral movement of the slow speed gear

B. Transmits propeller thrust to the hull

C. Keeps spring bearing in-line

D. Prevents main reduction gear axial movement

Ans.B

68.The main function of piston compression is to……………..

A. prevent excessive cylinder wear

B. Reduce friction losses in the engine

C. seal the space between the piston and the liner

D. limit upward flow of lube oil into the combustion space

Ans.C

69.The function of diesel engine compresssion rings is to …………………..

A. prevent piston side thrust

B. prevents engine friction losses

C. transmit heat from piston to the cylinder liner

D. remove oil from the cylinder combustion space

Ans.C

70.Diesel engine piston ring caps can be straight or angle cut,in comparison
,the angle cut ring…………

A. allow piston ring expansion

B. controls the piston ring tension

C. increases ring wearing quality

D. decreases combustion gas leakage

Ans.D

71.Modern marine diesel engines equipped with the mecahanical fuel

injection operate on a combustion phase within the cycle which is ……………..

A. entirely constant pressure

B. entirely constant temperature

C. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure

D. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure

Ans.C

72.Which of the listed designs is effectively used to provide the turbulence

necessary for proper combustion ina diesl engine cylinder ?

A. masked exhaust valves

B. special piston rings

C. turbocharger

D. pre combustion chamber

Ans.D
73.The purpose of counterboring the top of the cylinder liner,extending down
to the top point of the travel of the to compression ring ,is to………………

A. increase cylinder turbulence

B. prevent wear of the liner from occuring

C. prevent wear of the liner from forming a ridge at the upper level of ring
travel

D. decrease compression ratio for easier starting

Ans.C

74.The most rapid period of fuel combustion ina diesel engine cylinder should
begin just before the piston reaches the top dead center and ………………

A. when fuel injection has been completed

B. when fuel vaporization has been completed

C. should effeciently continue through the after burning period in all properly
designed engines

D. should be completed shortly after passing top dead center

Ans.D

75.Exhaust gas pyrometers are useful for………………

A. detecting faulty combustion in individual cylinders

B. adjusting fuel racks to maintain equal loading between cylinder

C. adjusting the load limit setting of the governer at idle conditions

D. calculating engine horse power

Ans.A

76.Oil control rings function to …………………

 A. allow proper lubrication of cylinders and comnpression rings

B. reduce the amount of lube of oil burnt in the combustion chamber

C. scrape excess lube oil form the liner on the downstroke

D. all the above

Ans.D

77 in th construction of a diesel engine what is the purpose of end plates?

A To provide accessibility to th cylinder liner

B. To add rigidity to the block and a surface for attaching other parts

C. To add stability to the engine block

D. To make a surface for the base

Ans B

78 The main purpose of the piston oil scrapper rings is to ?

A seal the space between the piston and the liner

B. Reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber

C. Transmit heat from the piston ring to the cylinder line

D. Damp out fluctuations of the piston side thrust

Ans B

Page 5

79 What is commonly used to create turbulence in diesel engine combustion

system?
A. shape of the piston crowns.

B. Increasing the compression ratio.

C. Increasing the effective plunger stroke.

D. Increasing the turbocharger gear ratio.

Ans A

80 How many power stroke per crank shaft revolution are there in an eight
cylinder two stroke diesel engine?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Ans D

81 To shut down a diesel engine after it exceed the set maximum speed .which
type of device listed should be used?

A. speed limiting governor.

B. over speed governor.

C. Overspeed trip

D. Overspeed relay

Ans C

82 Turbulence is created in the cylinder in the cylinders of a diesel engine to?

A. obtain injection lag

B. help mix fuel and air

C. increase combustion pressure

D. utilize higher injection pressure

Ans B

83. T o function properly ,oil control rings used on a diesel engine piston must
distribute sufficient oil to all parts of the cylinder wall and must also-----------?

A. prevent any lubricant for reaching the compression rings

B. prevent excessive lubrication for reaching the compression space

C. provide a metal to metal contact to seal the cylinder against blow pass

D. assure a positive means of scrapping carbon accumulation for the cylinder

Ans B

84 An important characteristic of an explosion release valve for a diesel engine

is the ability to?

A. close quickly in order to prevent an inrush of air

B. open quickly against crank case pressure to prevent a possible implosion

C. open slowly to permit a gradial reduction of crank case pressure?

D. close slowly to permit proper seating of the valve disc and neoprene sealing
surface

Ans A

85 In some modern larger diesel engines which of the following’s used as the
support for the main bearings?

A. Bedplate

B.Bblock

C.Base
D. Sump.

Ans A

86. Turbulance in the cylinder of a two stroke /cycle main propulsion disel
engine is mainly created by?

A. directional intake valve ports

B. masked intake valves

C. precombustion chambers

D. intake port design

Ans D

87 In an internal combustion engine which of the devices listed will force the
compression nrings to seal the compression gases in the space above the piston?

A.use of bemetallic piston rings

B ring grip pre tensioning

C. Thermal increases in ring –end clearance

D.Gas pressure acting against the back of the ring

Ans D

88 The theoretical minimum compression ratio necessary to ensure

compression ignition in a direct injection diesel engine a?

A. 0 334027778
B. 0 418055556
C. 0 500694444
D. 0 584027778

Ans D

89 The size of the exhaust valve opening is __________

A. most critical in a 4 stroke /cycle diesel engine

B. most critical in a 2 stroke /cycle diesel engine

C. most critical in a 4 stroke /cycle diesel engine if it is turbo charger

D. of equal importance in 2 stroke /cycle engine as in a 4 stroke /cycle engine:

Ans D

90. provisions is to made for ventilation of an enclosed diesel engine crank case
engine crankcaseby means of a small?

A.aperture note exceeding 25mmdiameter

B.Fan to develop a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of water

C. vent line attached to the upper most area of the crank case near the center of
the engine

D. breather or by means of a slight suction not exceeding 5 mm of water

Ans D

91. Which of the advantages listed does the electrical pyrometer have over the
mechanical pyrometer?

A.when heated it will move proportional to the amount the metal has lengthened
expanded.

B. it can be utilized in exhaust manifold and heat exchangers.

C. the ponter associated with the pyrometer scale can be made to also measure
engine RPM

D. it can indicate temperature at a distant point from the source of heat

Ans D

92. in alarge slow speed propulsion diesel engine the force applied to the cross
head is?
A. against the crosshead is during power stroke and away from the crosshead
during the compression stroke.

B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from the
crosshead during the power stroke.

C. against the crosshead during the power and compression stroke

D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression strokes

Ans C

93 A diesel engine is driving an alternator required to run at 18:00RPM the

overspeed governor is normally required to be set within a range of?

A. 1980 top 2070RPM

B.2100 to 2200RPM

C. 2200 to 2300RPM

D.2300 to 2400RPM

Ans A

94. a crankshaft whose center of gravity coinicide with its center line is said to
be _______1 staticaly balanced 2dynamically

A.1 only

B.2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D.neither 1 and 2

Ans A

Page 6
95. A six cylinder/cycle single acting diesel engine has a 580mm bore and a
1700 mm stroke .what indicated power per cylinder will be developed if the
average mean effective pressure is 15.3 kg/cm2 at a speed of 120 RPM

A. 1,348KW

B. 2.696KW

C. 4.044KW

D.8,088KW

Ans A

96 using a diesel engine indicator p-v diagram the cylinder mean effective
pressure is calculated to be 21.3 kg/cm2 what is the scale of the spring used on
the indicator if the diagram area is 18.46cm2 with a lenth of 13cm?

A.0.9

B.1

C.1.25

D.1.5

Ans D

97 A diesel engine valves springs a function to ?

A. hold the valves open

B.keep the valves off their seats until the exhaust stoke is completed

C. close the valves

D.open inlet valves when the air injection cycles begin

Ans C

98 a built up exhaust valve is one in which

A.the stem and heads are made of different material

B.the self centering action comes from motion of the valves stem in the guide

C. a replaceable valve

99 a six cylinder ,2 stroke,cycle diesel engine is 38%efficient and has a cylinder

const of 0.998 while operating with a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at a
speed of 100RPM. What is the metric brake horse power developed?

A.5,559KW

B.6.698KW

C. 7,455KW

D.8,982KW

Ans C

100 A seven cylinder ,2_stroke/cycle,single acting disel engine has a 750mm

bore and a 2000mm stroke. What indicated power will be devolep if the average
mean effective pressure is 14.8kg/cm2 and a speed of 96 RPM?

A 1,959KW

B 3,906KW

C 7,182KW

D 14,363KW

Ans.D

101 between the periods of injection of the fuel and ignition of the fuel a diesel
engine crank shaft rotates through the

A.detenation period
B. firing period

C.delay period

D. advance period

Ans c

102 The cylinder liner forming the cylinder wall and the inside of the water
jacket is called a___

A dry liner

B wet liner

C jacket liner

D corrugated liner

Ans B

103 the purpose of an interface angle in a diesel engine in engine exhaust valve
is to ___1 work in conjuction with valve rotators to rotate the valve 2 seat the
valve quickly

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D.neither 1 and 2

Ans B

104 the purpose of an interference angle in a disel engineexhaust valve is

to___.

1 seat the valve quickly 2 break up seat deposition

A. 1 only
B. 2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D.neither 1 and 2

Ans C

105 one function of a diesel engine lubricating oil is to

A.induce carbon formation on cylinder valves

B. improve the fuel penetration in the combustion space

C. form a friction reducing the film between mating surfaces

D. lubricate the fuel injectors

Ans C

106 open combustion champers are designed to ___

A eliminate carbon build up

B improve piston cooling

C prevent air charge turbulence

D provide proper fuel or air mixing

Ans D

107 in a disel engine ,exhaust valve open before the intake ports are uncovered
to 1 reduce pumping losses reduce back pressure?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D.neither 1 and 2
Ans c

108 critical speeds occurring with in the operating speed range of a main
propulsion disel engine may be changed,or have the air damaging effectsreduced
by a or an___

A engine support vibration isolater

B detuner or viscous fluid damper

C lightened crankshaft flywheel

D spherically seated crankshaft bearing

Ans B

109 the amount of fuel injected into a diesel engine cylinder by a unit injector is
continued by a unit injector is controlled by

A.the firing pressure in the cylinder

B.a metering helix inside the pump

C.varying the physical length of the plunger stroke

D.varying the clearance between the injectorcam and the injector rocker arm

Ans B

110 which bearing half will receive the greatest load in a two stroke or cycle
diesel engine ?

A all bearing halves share an equal load

B upper half of the main bearing

C lower half of the piston pin bearing in the connecting rod.

D lower half of the connecting rod bearing at the crankshaft end of the rod.

Ans C
111 a diesel engine operating at a load when compared to the operating at
heavy load has a fuel /air ratio that is/

A.higher

B.less

C.equal.

D.directly proportional

Ans A

112 a safety cover differs from other diesel engine access doors in the is fitted
with a___

A spring_loaded pressure plate

B hand wheel

C nut –operated clamp

D large gas ket

Ans A

113 in an opposed piston engine which of the following events would happen if
the lower crank lead were reduced from 12 to 0?

A.the exhaust ports would open before the scavenging ports

B.the scavenging ports would open before the exhaust ports

D
114 which of the following relationships should occur between the temperature
devoleped in a combustion space,and the compression ratio of the engine?

A higher compression ratios create higher temperature

B higher temperatures create higher compression ratios

C. Lower temperatures create higher compression ratios

D. Higher compression ratios create lower temperatures

Ans: A

115. The valve stern expansion associated with engine warm-up is allowed for by
the__________

A. Valve springs

B. hydraulic governor

C. tappet clearance adjusters

D. cooling system

Ans: C

116. Which of the bearing types listed is commonly used for main bearings in
small internal combustion engines?

A. precision

B. poured-type consisting of Babbitt

 C. poured-type with shims

D. replacable precision-type

And: D

117. A dry-type spark arrestor removes sparks from a diesel engine exhaust
by_________

A. increasing the liner velocity of the exhaust gases

B. changing directions of exhaust gas flow

C. decreasing the temperature of the exhaust gases

D. accelerating the exhaust gas through a reduced size office

Ans: B

118. The most common instrument used to measure diesel engine exhaust
pressure is the_________

A. pyrometer

B. bourdon gauge

C. pneumercator

D. manometer

Ans: D

119. When two cams of the same diameter, one with tangential flanks and the
other with convex flanks are compared, the cam with tangential flanks will
cause__________

A. greater valve lift

B. more abrupt valve action

C. less valve seat wear

 D. less valve great wear

Ans: B

120. Which of the following types of engine have a combustion chamber located
between a cylinder head and the crown of a piston?

A. Horizontal opposed

B. Opposed

C. single acting

D. none of the above

Ans: C

121. The average pressure exerted on a piston during each power stroke is
termed________

A. indicated horse power

B. mean effective pressure

C. exhaust back pressure

D. compression pressure

Ans: B

122. The greatest turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is created by the

__________

A. shape of the combustion chamber

B. fuel injection spray pattern

C. cylinder swept volume

D. degree of penetration of the fuel oil droplets

Ans: A
123. Wet type exhaust silencers. used with some diesel engines, have which of
the following design in common?

A. The silencer is equipped with a water seat

B. The exhaust gases are not mixed with cooling water

C. The internal baffles break up the exhaust gas pulsation

D. The exhaust noise is completely eliminated

Ans: C

124. The exhaust system for a diesel engine is usually designed to remove exhaust
gas and to________

A. power the root-type exhauster

B. remove the emission of the exhaust smoke pollutants

C. power a reciprocating super charger

D. muffle exhaust noise

Ans: D

125. In a diesel engine after the ignition occurs, but before the piston reaches the
piston reaches TDC, there is little change in the cylinder________

A. volume

B. pressure

C. temperature

D. energy

Ans: A

126.Most practical diesel engines today operate on a cycle which is a combination

of diesel and otto cycle. in this process compression ignition___________
 A. begins on a constant volume basis

B. begins on a constant pressure basis

C. Ends on a constant volume basis

D. begins and ends on a constant volume basis

Ans: A

127. Main propulsion diesel engines have a bore exceeding 300 mm are to have at
least _________

A. two independant means of starting a engine

B. two engine driven lube oil pumps capable of parallel operation

C. one valve at the position of each main crank throw

D. five air starting valves to permit the admission of starting air at any crank
angle

Ans: C

128. In an opposed piston engine, the term “crank lead” refers to __________

A. one crankshaft turning faster than the other

B. the two crank shafts turning in different direction

C. the piston in one cylinder reaching inner dead center several crank shaft
degrees before the other piston

D. the piston in one cylinder reaching dead center when the other reaches
outer dead center

Ans: D

129. A controllable pitch propeller on a diesel driven vessel eliminates the need
for______
 A. Friction clutches

B. disconnect clutches

C. reversing gears

D. reduction gears

Ans: C

130. which of the events listed does not occur during the instant the piston just
reaches the top dead center?

A. intake

B. Ignition

C. power

D. combustion

Ans: A

131. Mist detectors used on large low speed main propulsion diesel engines
monitor and check for the presence of__________

A. fuel oil vapour at the sludge tank vent

B. unburned fuel vapours in the scavenge air receiver

C. lube oil vapours in the crank case

D. lube oil vapours in the engine room

Ans: C

132. A main propulsion diesel engine crankshaft bearing lacking sufficient “crush”,
will___________

A. pound under load

B. be lubricated more easily than with sufficient crush

 C. tend to rotate with the journal

D. have its back forced against the seal under the load

Ans: C

133. A unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine to_________-

A. meter the fuel

B. produce the proper fuel oil pressure

C. atomise the fuel

D. all of the above

Ans: D

134. The intake valves in a diesel engine is reseated by___________

A. cam followers

B. push rods

C. combustion gases

D. valve springs

Ans: D

135. The closing of the exhaust valves used on a modern, large, low speed, main
propulsion diesel engine may be directly provided by_________

A. large conical springs

B. compressed air pressure

C. hydraulic pressure

D. exhaust gas pressure

Ans: B

136. A characteristic of a bearing material which permits small dirt particles to

become embedded in its surface is_________

A. desirable as it will prevent damage to the journal surface

B. desirable as it will assist in keeping the lube oil filters clean

C. undesirable since the embedded particles will score the jounal

D. undesirable since the particles will interfere with lube oil flow

Ans: A

137. A diesel engine crank case ventilation system___________

A. prevents spark generation

B. removes combustible gases

C. determines the level of the combustible gases

D. provide inert gas generation in crankcase

Ans: B

138. Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by________

A. fuel oil pressure

B. a cam operated follower

C. a spring loaded pressure plate

D. timing gears keyed to the crankshaft

Ans: A

139. The bearings used to support the crankshaft are generally called_________

A. line shaft bearings

 B. connecting rod bearings

C. main bearings

D. support bearings

Ans: C

140. Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by___________

A. engine speed

B. varying the fuel pump piston stroke

C. varying the injector needle valve clearance

D. a bypass valve

Ans: D

141. Intenal combustion engine crankcase vent outlets must be equipped

with__________

A. hinged rain guards

B. corrosion resistant flame screens

C. dipsticks for measuring oil levels

D. crankcase ventilation fans

Ans: B

142. What is to be installed on an internal combustion engine if its cylinder bore

exceeds 200mm?

A. Crankcase vapour monitors

B. Engine exhaust silencers

C. Constant pressure type turbocharger

 D. Explosion relief valves

Ans: D

143. Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed main propulsion diesel engines in a
mitted to each cylinder during__________

A. the power stroke

B. the compression stroke

C. low load operation only

D. periods of standby

Ans: B

144. What is the purpose of the “window” installed in the housing of an individual
jerk pump?

A. to allow the pump to be timed to the engine

B. to check the sludge on the pump barrel

C. to check that the fuel oil return passages are clear

D. to set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimetres

Ans: A

145. Which of the following listed construction details of internal combustion

engines is required?

A. A warning notice to caution against the opening of a hot crankcase for a

specified period of time after shut down

B. the use of the end block construction for engines developing over 1000
brain horse power

C. Removable cylinder liners must be used for engines developing over

1000 horsepower
 D. All Engines shall be provided with an exhust gas pressure monitoring
system

Ans: A

146.Which statement regarding the arrangement and location of explosion of

explosion relief valves used on an internal combustion engines is
true__________?

A. they may be omitted on all engines having a cylinder bore of nine inches
or less

B. they may be omitted provided to engine utilizes a crankcase monitoring

system

C. the type of engine and operating cyle must be considered by the

designer

D. minimizing the danger from emission of flame is a key consideration

And: D

147. The term “proper metering”as applied to a diesel fuel injection system can
be best defined as___________

A. delivering the same quantity of the fuel to each cylinder for each power
stroke according to engine load

B. maintaining the metering adjustment for a reasonable period under all

load conditions

C. timing fuel injection to obtain maximum power and good fuel economy

D. distributing the fuel to all parts of the combustion chamber for proper
combustion

Ans: A

148. One function of the fuel pump delivery check valve is to _________________
 A. prevent carbon deposits from forming on the injector nozzle

B. help the injector needle reseat without dribbling at the nozzle holes

C. provide a prolonged pressure drop in the high pressure steel piping to

the injector

D. ensure a fuel leakoff between the plunger and barrel which provides
lubrication for relative movement

Ans: B

149. The rate of fuel injection in a diesel engine cylinder depends primarily
on___________

A. the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle

B. timing of the pump

C. supply pressure to the pump

D. shape of the combustion chamber

Ans: A

150. Fuel injection systems meter fuel, atomize fuel, and__________

A. Create turbulence in the combustion chamber

B. aid in completing cylinder scavenging

C. inject fuel at the proper time

D. minimizing fuel penetration in to the cylinder

Ans: C

151. The valve cam slope angle determines the___________

A. engine torque characteristics

B. acceleration rate of valve opening and closing

 C. engine fuel efficiency

D. diameter of intake and exhaustvalves

Ans: B

152. Engine displacement is equal to the cylinder ________________

A. area times the stroke

B. area times the stroke, times the number of cylinders

C. volume times the stroke

D. volume times the stroke, times the number of cylinders

Ans: B

153.Cylinder diameter greater than 230 mm require additional safety devices

when the scavenging spaces are openly connected to the cylinder which of the
following devices will be used to protect such spaces?

A. . tri knock fittings

B. . explosion relief valves
C. . quick release expansion joints
D. . stacked plate type inlet check valves

Ans ; b

154. A loop or cross scavenged engine utilizes the motion of its piston and a turbo
charger to provide scavenging air which of listed mechanical designs prevents the
air under the pistons from being pumped back through the scavenge ports during
the piston
 A. . masked intake ports
B. . length of the piston skirts
C. .positive pressure for the blower
D. . lower liner seals

155.fuel injectors used in heavy fuel oil systems are usually provided with cooling
to reduce

A. . cold corrosion of the nozzles

B. . fuel viscosity for atomization
C. .carbon accumulation on the nozzles
D. . fuel detonation in the cylinders

156. the possibility of damage from operating a diesel engine at critical speeds is
reduced by the use of

A. . an isochronous governor
B. . elastic engine mounts
C. . a vibration damper
D. . a cast iron bed plate with good flexible quality

157. increasing the load on an engine using a double helix type injection pump
varies the effective stroke of pump to start

A. earlier and end later

B. later and end earlier

C. and end later

D. and end earlier

158. The linear motion of a diesel engine piston is convert etc to the rotary
motion required to drive gear, propeller shafts and generator by the

A. . flywheel
B. . crank shaft
C. . journal bearing
D. . cam shaft

ans; b

159.The duration of the fuel injection developed by an individual port and helix
fuel injection pump is determined by the

A. Total pump stroke

B. Pump plunger diameter
C. plunger helix angle
D. Effective pump stroke

160. the plunger in a jerk pump is rotated until the release port is uncovered if the
port remains uncovered all of the time which of the listed operation occur

A. .no fuel will be delivered

B. . the maximum effective stroke will be attained
C. . the fuel delivered to the cylinder will be exxessive
D. . the injection nozzle will over heat and carbonize
ans; a

161. when the low range of the spiral begins to uncover the realese port in a jerk
pump the
A. . pumping continuous until the plunger travels its full stroke
B. . effective pumping stroke of the plunger ends
C. . pressure drops slowly unrtill the full stroke is obtained
D. . plunger rotates ti the zero delivery position until the next stroke
ans;b
162. The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection pump is
controlled by
A. wearing the pump discharge pressure
B. wearing the pump return pressure
C. rotation of the pump plunger
D. rotation of the pump barrel
ans;c

163.which of the following will occur when the lower edge of the spiral of the
plunger of a jerk pump uncovers the spill port
A. . the plunger immediately reverse the direction
B. . the pressure drops and fuel delivery stops
C. . the plunger rotates the no fuel position
D. . the barell rotates to the zero effective stroke position
ans ; b
164. in a diesel engine , pistons are attached to a crankshaft by
A. .push rods
B. . clearance adjuster
C. .connecting rods
D. . piston guides
ans ; c

165.which of the component listed is not found in a single acting engine

A. . exhaust valves
B. . savenging ports
C. . combustion chamber
D. . double crank shafts
ans b
166. In diesel engine designed with a cross head the motion of the piston rod can
be described as
A. . reciprocating at the piston ring rotary at the crank pin
B. . reciprocating at the crank pin rotary at the piston pin
C. . straight reciprocation
 D. . straight rotation

167. Cast iron pistons used in large propulsion diesel engines or constructed with
A. . no tapper what so ever
B. . the skirt being tapered and smaller than a crown
C. . the skirt being tapered and larger than the crown
D. . the crown being tapered and smaller than a skirt
ans ; d

168. Which of the following manufacturing methods is recommended for diesel

engine fuel injection line piping
A. . cold rolled
B. . electric resistance welded
C. seam less drawn
D. straight seam
ans; c
169. successful combustion inside the cylinders of a diesel engine is depended up
on
A. . fine atomization
B. . high temperature
C. . good mixing of fuel and air
D. .all of the above
ans; d
170.which of the combustion parameters listed is used in a diesel engine but not
related to the injection systems
A. atomization
B. metering
C. effective stroke
D. penetration
171.fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine is
A dependent on air turbufence
B reduced by finer atomization
C increased by finer atomization
 D non existent in the precombustion chamber system
Ans b
172. proper atomization of fuel in diesel engine combustion chambers will
A effect the injection pressure
B improve combustion
C reduce combustion pressure
D decrease power output
Ans b

173. what is required for crosshead type engines that have a scavenging space in
open connection to the cylinder?

A. . The air flow from the scavenging space must always be protected by plate
type check values and under no circumstance may other device be used
B. . A suitable gasket for the interface of both manifolds is necessary to
prevent recirculation of scavenging gases. While additionally minimizing
exhaust gas leakage
C. . The scavenging space is to be permanently connected to an approver file
extinguishing system entirely separate from the fire extinguishing system of
the engine room
D. . The required equipment for a crosshead type engine is totally dependent
upon manufactures ability to placate market demand

Ans: c

174 .Which of the following statement is an accurate description of fuel injection

piping used on diesel engines with a cylinder bore of 250 mm and above

A. .The piping shall be so arranged to allow for uncomplicated removal of the

fuel injection equipment and other associated components located on the
cylinder head.
B. .All high pressure piping shall be of the double lined type, with the outer
leak off line suitable channeled to a dedicated tank
 C. .All stored tanks connected to the leak off piping of fuel injection system
shall be provided with high level alarms and sufficient means for emptying
D. .The piping is to be effectively shielding and secured to prevent fuel or fuel
mist from reaching a source of ignition on the engine or its surroundings

Ans: d

175.In a diesel mechanical-type fuel pump; the delivery check value is opened by

A. push rod action

B. cam action
C. hydraulic action
D. spring action

Ans.c

176 What is the term given to the process of breaking up fuel oil into very fine
particles for better combustion?

A Setting

B Straining

C Spraying
D Atomizing

Ans.d

177 Differential needle values used in fuel injectors are directly closed by

A. Cam action
B. Spring force
C. Fuel oil pressure
D. Firing pressure

Ans .B
178 Diesel engine fuel oil leakage should be drained and additional
precautions provide to

A. .Return this oil to the proper storage tanker

B. . prevent contamination of lubricating oil by fuel oil
C. . as certain and accurate measurement of this leakage
D. . drain cooling water system components

ans; b

179. Injection lack can be caused by

A. . improper tiling of intake values

B. . setting of the pump plunger
C. . compressibility of the fuel
D. . position of the needle value

ans ; c

180. When is fuel is injected in to a cylinder of diesel engines

A. . before air in the cylinder is compressed

B. . after air in the cylinder is compressed
C. . after combustion gas in the cylinder have expanded
D. . as air is taken in to the cylinder

ans; b

181. A diesel engine with a combustion chamber located between the crowns
of two pistons is known as a\an

A. . double acting engine

B. . opposed piston engine
C. .single acting engine
D. . horizontal acting engine
 ans ;b

182. The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition process
in a diesel engine is influenced on chiefly by the

A. . percent of co2
B. . range of inflammability
C. . theoretical fuel air ratio
D. . length of the ignition delay period

ans d

183 An exhaust pipe from a internal combustion engine may not need to be
insulated

a. Installed on fishing vessels

a. It is of the water jacketed type
i. It is used as an emergency generator
ii. Special provision is made by the chief engineer
Ans b

184. the driving force of the propeller is transmitted to the

A. . bevel gear teeth

B. . helically cut gear teeth
C. . sleeve bearings
D. . thrust bearing

ans d

185 In diesel engines the four basic intake compression and exhaust are
performed once in

A. Two crank shaft Revolution in a two stroke cycle engine

B. Two power stroke in a two stroke cycle engine
C. One power stroke in a two stroke cycle engine
D. Two piston stroke in a two stroke cycle engine
Ans d
186. fuel supply by each unit injector on a two stroke cycle engine acting diesel
engine is directed in each cylinder at a very high pressure through the

A. . high pressure fuel lines

B. . spill deflector

C. .check valve

D. spray tip of the injector

ans d

187 the main reason for using bimetallic piston rings is to

A. Increase in engine thermal efficiency

B. Reduce specific fuel consumption
C. Reduce the probability of ring fracture
D. Allows for ring expansion

Ans c

188. the time between injection and ignition of the fuel is known as

A. . turbulence lag
B. . after burning ratio
C. . pre ignition valve
D. . ignition delay

ans d

189. the device used to limit engine torque at various engine speed is called as

A. . speed limiting governor

B. . variable speed governor
C. . constant speed governor
D. . load limiting governor

ans d
190.which characteristic of the otto cycle occur in the actual diesel cycle but not
in the theoretical diesel cycle

A. . no pressure increase
B. . rapid pressure decrease during combustion
C. . rapid volume increase during combustion
D. . no volume increase during combustion

ans . d

191. What causes diesel fuel to be ignited in the cylinder of an operating diesel
engine

A. swirl plug

B. Heat of compression

C. Carburetor

D. glow plug

192. the efficiency burning of the fuel in a diesel engine is dependent up on the

A. temperature of compression

B. atomization of the fuel

C. penetration of the fuel

D. all of the above

Ans: D

193. The purpose of compressing the air within the cylinder of a diesel engine is
to

A. produce the heat for ignition

B. decrease injection lag

C. increase ignition delay

 D. aid in exhausting burnt gases

Ans: A

194. The blower type crankcase ventilation system

A. removes combustible gases from the crankcase

B. prevents the formation of combustible gases in the crankcase

C. cools lubricating oil

D. improves cold weather starting

Ans: A

195. The most important factor in engine performance is the actual power output
at the end of the

Crankshaft available for doing work. This is known as

A. indicated horsepower

B. brake horsepower

C. net horsepower

D. friction horsepower

196. A diesel engine which is rated for normal operation at a crankshaft speed of
800 RPM, is commonly

Classed as a

A. slow-speed diesel

B. medium- speed diesel

C. high- speed diesel

D. constant- speed diesel

197. The bore of a diesel engine cylinder describes the

A. swept volume of the cylinder

B. inside diameter of the cylinder

C. piston displacement in the cylinder

D. length of the piston stroke

Ans: B

198. Crankcase explosion relief valves should be of the

A. return seating type

B. spring centered type

C. spring opened type

D. duplex double acting type

Ans: A

199. Diesel engine exhaust valve springs are under compression when they are

A. wide open only

B. partially open only

C. closed only

D. in any position

Ans: D

200. Which of the factors listed has the greatest effect on the mechanical
efficiency of a diesel engine?

A. Temperature of the intake air

B. Friction within the engine

 C. Mechanical condition of the supercharger

D. Mechanical condition of the turbocharger

Ans: B

201. Which of the following statements describes the operating characteristics of

a precombustion

chamber?

A. When fuel oil is injected into the precombution chamber, it does not need
to be as finely

Atomized as the fuel oil in diesel engines having direct injection

B. When operating correctly, combustion should not occur in the

precombustion chamber

C. Engines which are designed with precombustion chamber are more likely
to suffer blocked

Nozzle holes, due to fuel oil impurities, than engines designed with direct
injection

D. Engines with precombustion chambers, which do not have an increased

compression ratio,

Are not as difficult to start when cold, as engines with direct injection

Ans: A

202. Which of the following statements is correct concerning available astern

power for diesel main

propulsion systems?

A. The astern power of the main propelling machinery is to provide for

continuous operation astern
 At 60% of the ahead rpm at rated speed

B. Astern power is to be provided in a sufficient amount to secure proper

control of the ship in all

Normal circumstances

C. For main propulsion systems without reversing gears, controllable pitch

propellers or electric

propulsion drive, running astern is not to lead to overload conditions

D. Astern power available will be equal to ahead power when controllable

pitch propellers are

utilized, thus discounting the need for increased operating parameters

Ans: B

203. A multi-orifice fuel injection nozzle is usually used with which of the listed
types of combustion

Chamber?

A. Open combustion chamber

B. Precombustion chamber

C. Turbulence chamber

D. Energy cell

Ans: A

204. Combustion gases formed in the cylinder of a diesel engine are prevented
from blowing past

The piston by

A. cylinder valves
 B. compression rings

C. piston skirts

D. oil rings

Ans: B

205. The flywheel reduces speed fluctuations by

A. maintaining a constant rack setting

B. Precombustion chamber

C. Turbulence chamber

D. Energy cell

Ans: A

206. Opposed piston diesel engines are classified as

A. two-stroke/cycle single acting

B. two-stroke/cycle double acting

C. four-stroke/cycle single acting

D. four-stroke/cycle double acting

Ans: B

207. In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel generator engine, the power

impulse in an individual

cylinder occurs

A. once every crankshaft revolution

B. once every two crankshaft revolutions

C. once every piston stroke

 D. twice every camshaft speed

Ans: B

208. In an operating diesel engine, the sealing of the cylinder is the result of the
compression rings being

forced against the cylinder walls by

A. oil pressure acting behind the ring

B. compression pressure acting beneath the ring

C. ring expansion from the heat of combustion

D. combustion gas pressure acting behind the ring

Ans: D

209. In a modern internal combustion diesel engine, the load carrying part of the
engine is referred to as

The

A. bedplate or base

B. Sump or oil pan

C. cylinder block

D. frame

Ans: A

210. In diesel engines, hydraulic valve lifters are used to

A. reduce valve gear pounding

B. increase valve operating clearance

C. obtain greater valve lift

 D. create longer valve duration

Ans: A

211. The purpose of piston ring end clearance is to

A. allow the combustion gases to press the ring down on the land

B. allow the combustion gases to get behind the ring and press it against the
cylinder liner

C. prevent bucking and breaking of the ring

D. aid in protecting the oil film

Ans: C

212. What is the purpose of a hydraulic tappet clearance adjuster?

A. Insures proper pressure in a hydraulic system

B. Allows for constant contact between the valve stem and the rocker arm
regardless of whether

The engine is cold or warm

C. Eliminates need to remove valve springs

D. Provides far easier removal of the valve cage

Ans: B

213. What is the swept volume per cylinder per revolution of a six cylinder, two-
stroke/cycle diesel

engine with a 580 mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke operating at 100RPM?

A. 0.45 cubic meters (450 L)

B. 0.90 cubic meters (900 L)

 C. 2.7 cubic meters (2700 L)

D. 5.4 cubic meters (5400 L)

Ans: B

214. In a unit injector the amount of fuel that will be forced through the spray
nozzle on each stroke of

The plunger depends on

A. the pump supply pressure

B. the slope of the fuel cam

C. how the plunger is rotated

D. the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack

Ans: C

215. The intake and exhaust valves used in a diesel engine are returned to their
seats by

A. push rod pressure

B. spring force

C. combustion pressure

D. exhaust pressure

Ans: B

216. Valve cages are used on some large diesel engines to

A. reduce wear on the valve stem

B. permit the use of alloy valve seat materials

C. reduce heat transfer from the valve seat

 D. facilitate valve removal for servicing

Ans: D

217. In a diesel engine, an integral liner is one in which the cooling water

1 flows through the cylinder liner jackets. 2 touches the outer slide of the
liner

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

Ans: A

218. A diesel engine indicator diagram has an area of 22 cm2 and a length of 12.5

cm. If the scale of the

Indicator spring is 1 mm=1kg/cm2 , what is the cylinder mean effective

pressure?

A. 17.6 kg/cm2

B. 27.5 kg/cm2

C. 34.5 kg/cm2

D. 36.0 kg/cm2

Ans: A
219. Which of the listed bearing types is an example of a solid bearing?

A. Piston gudgeon pin bushing

B. Turbine bearing

C. Spring bearing

D. Diesel engine main bearing

Ans: A

220. In which of the scavenging methods listed will the exhaust valve be located
in the cylinder head?

A. Return flow

B. Uniflow

C. Cross flow

D. Direct flow

Ans: B

221. A method of finishing diesel engine cylinder walls to aid in the proper ring
seating and lubrication is

Known as

A. ribbed honing

B. angled honing

C. cross hatch honing

D. doubled honing

Ans: C

222. The device most commonly used to measure exhaust gas temperature of
cylinders is a
 A. pyrometer

B. calorimeter

C. dynamometer

D. tachometer

Ans: A

223. The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition in a diesel
engine is influenced by

the length of the ignition delay period due to the

A. valve overlap

B. volumetric efficiency

C. turbulence of the air change

D. fuel efficiency

Ans: C

224. The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet cylinder liner must allow for
liner axial movement. This

Seal is most commonly a

A. neoprene O-ring

B. soft copper gasket

C. precision ground flange joint

D. flexible metallic seal ring

225. Which of the devices listed is installed on a diesel engine to isolate some of
the crankshaft

Vibrations caused by rotational and reciprocating forces?

 A. Planetary gear set

B. Torsional vibration damper

C. Friction clutch

D. Air bladder clutch

Ans: B

226. Differential type fuel oil nozzles in a diesel engine are closed directly by
. 1 spring

Pressure 2 fuel oil pressure

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

Ans: A

227. Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel injection
operate on a combustion

cycle which is

A. entirely constant pressure

B. entirely constant volume

C. combination of constant volume and constant pressure

D. combination of constant temperature and constant pressure

Ans: C

228. An efficient seal between the cylinder block and cylinder heads on many
diesel engines is obtained
 With

A. graphite packing

B. sealing compound

C. lubricating oil

D. gaskets

Ans: D

229. For a four-stroke/cycle medium-speed diesel engine, fuel injection

commences from 7 to 26

Crankshaft degrees before top dead center. After fuel injection commences,
how many degrees

Does the cranshaft rotate before the exhaust valve push rod moves up?

A. 21-31

B. 45-55

C. 66-76

D. 106-115

Ans: C

230. Oil for piston cooling is delivered through the connecting rod to a
compartment in the piston head,

the distributed as a result of piston motion, and finally drained to the

crankcase through one or

more holes or pipes. This procedure is known as the

A. splash method

B. spray method
 C. shaker method

D. throw off method

Ans: C

231. Poor timing of the fuel injection system is simillar to the effects of
poor…………..?

A. metering of the fuel flow

B.control the rate of fuel injection

C.atomization of the fuel

D.distribution of the fuel

Ans:B

232.The “breaking-up” of fuel as it enters a diesel engine cylinder is known

as…………..?

A.airification

B.vapourisation

C.atomization

D.gasification

Ans:C

233. The exhaust ports of a diesel engine using the crossflow scavenging method
are opened and closed by

the……………?

A.reciprocating motion of the exhaust valves

B.rotary motion of the camshaft

 C.reciprocating motion of the piston

D.developped differential

Ans:C

234.Which of the bearings listed below is most widely used for the main and
connecting rod bearings of a

Modern high speed diesel engine?

A.steel lined

B.poured babbit self alligning

C.split roller

D.Precison insert

Ans:D

235.Valve rotators commonly used on which of the listed diesel engine cylinder
head valves?

A.Air starting

B.Cylinder relief

C.Exhaust

D.Blowdown

Ans:C

236.Exhaust valve openings in a diesel engine cylinder head are made as large as
practical to …………?

A.Increase back pressure during the exhaust process

B.facilitate periodic replacement of the valves

C.reducing the pumping loss associated with the scavenging

 D.reduce tension on valve springs

Ans:C

237.Piston cooling fins are located…………..?

A.atop the pisto ring

B.beneath of the piston ring

C.at the base of the piston skirt

D.inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket

Ans:B

238.Diesel engine muffflers reduce noise by…………..?

A.packing muffler chambers

B.the use of long head pipes

C.the use of zinc electrodes

D.changing exhaust gas direction

Ans:D

239.In the cylinder head of a two stroke/cycle diesel engine,valves are used
for…………….?

A.air intake

B.a fuel outlet

C.cooling water inlets

D.exhausting combustion gas

Ans:D
240.Which of the listed charecteristics is common to both wet and dry type diesel
engine exhaust mufflers?

A.Both mufflers contain moving parts

B.They never requires any maintenance

C.They function as spark arresters

D.Both have a dust collecting chamber

Ans:C

241.The intake ports of atwo stroke/cycle diesel engineare opened andclosed by

the actions of the………..?

A.cam shaft

B.Piston movement

C.exhaust valves

D.vertical drive

Ans:B

242.Compared to four stroke /cycle engines,two stroke/cycle engines have the

disadvantages of………?

A.less oven torque

B.higher cylinder head temperatures

C.fewer power strokes per revolution

D.greater weight/size requirements

Ans:D

243.Which of the listed conditions will affect the mean effective pressure the
most in the cylinders of a
 diesel engine……..?

A.TBN of the lubricating oil

B.temperature of the lube oil

C.completeness in the mixing of the fuel and air

D.temperature of the cooling(sea)water

Ans:C

244.In comparing engines of equal horse power,higher exhaust gas temperatures

occur in a/an……….?

A.opposed piston engine

B.double-acting engine

C.two-stroke/cycle engine

D. four-stroke/cycle engine

Ans:D

245.The primary purpose of the open combustoin chamber used in diesel engine
is to…………….?

A.improve piston cooling

B.stratify the fuel charge

C.prevent carbon build up

D.provide the place for a combustion

Ans:D

246.Which of the bearings listed are most widely used for the main and
connecting rod bearings of a diesel

A.roller
 B.sleeve

C.Precision insert

D.mechanical lubricators

Ans:C

247.Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing?

A.piston pin bushing

B.Turbo-generator turbine bearing

C.Spring bearing

D.Thrust bearing

Ans:A

248.The upper section of a piston is callled the…………….?

A.land

B.sklit

C.crown

D.plate

Ans:C

249.In a diesel engine,the main bearings are used between the …………………?

A.connecting rod and the crank shaft

B.gudgeon pin and the connecting rod

C.camshaft and the engine block

D.crankshaft and the engine block

Ans:D
250.Which of the listed bearing installations is subjected to swinging
motion………..?

A.Crankshaft journal

B.Crankpin bearings

C.gudgeon pin bearings

D.aluminium piping with expansion loops

Ans:C

251.Which of the bearings listed is most widely used for main and connecting rod
bearings of modern

Diesel engines……..?

A.Steel-lined

B.Poured babbit self-alligning

C.Split roller

D.Precion insert

Ans:D

252.The proper location for journal bearing oil grooves is…………….?

A.in the region of the load bearing surfaces

B.as a side relief where the two shells meet

C.at the bottom of the bearing

D.halfway between bottom and where shells meet

Ans:B
253.Fuel is admitted to a diesel engine cylinder through the …………..?

A.intake valves

B.carburetor

C.exhaust ports

D.scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder deposits off the cylinder
valves

Ans:D

254.Directional intake ports in diesel engines are used to…?

A.reduce air charge turbulence

B.induce air swirl

C.deflect hot combustion gas away from the valves

D.lock all safety interlock switches closed

Ans:B

255.Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow speed main propulsion diesel
engine are designed to

Prevent…..?

A.excessive crankcase pressure

B.excessive lube oil temperature

C.contamination of the lube oil water

D.All of above are correct

Ans:C

256.How are hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters on diesel engine rocker arm
assemblies lubricated……?
 A.Cup-fed grease

B.Sealed self lubricators

C.metered hydraulic oil supply

D.losses to escapingexhaust gases

Ans:D

257.A large low speed main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water to directly
cool the………

A.cylinder heads

B.exhaust valves

C.scavenging air

D.injectors

Ans:C

258.The porpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel engine is to

warn of….

A.excessive mist density in the crankcase

B.excessively high crank case vaccum

C.excessively high bearing temperature

D.excessive carbon build up in the lube oil

Ans:A

259.one method of constructing large marine diesel engines and reducing

the total engine frame

weight is through….

A.casting interlocking components

 B.welding sections to form sections for assembly

C. integrel components

D.mainshaft flexible coupling

Ans:B

260.which of the fuel injection ststems listed uses aspring loaded differential
spray needle valve and an

individual pump for each cylinder?

A.common rail injection

B.air injection

C.jerk pump injection

D.distributor injection

Ans:C

261.concerning diesel propelled vessels,the astern power is to provide for

continuous operation astern

A.equal to that available for ahead operation

B.at 70 percent of the ahead rpm at rated speed

C.while underway and under all normal conditions

D.at 70 percent of the ahead rpm of average continuous sea speed

Ans:B

262.The crankcase of many diesel engines are kept under a slight vaccum by the

A.scavenging action of the piston

B.crankcase exhausr fan

 C.gland exhausting manometer

D.piston type vacum pumptaking action off a differential manometer

Ans:B

263.Which of the fuel systems listed combines the injectoin pump and the
injection nozzle in one housing?

A.common rail

B.unit injector

C.air injection

D.hydraulic governing

Ans:B

264.In a unit injector,an upper helix and lower helix are machined in the lower
part of the punger for

A.facillating plunger

B.positioning the control valve

C.urating metering of the lube oil

D. eliminating injection lag

Ans:C

265.Regarding a diesel engine crankcase,the general arrangement and the

installation should preclude the

possibility of

A.free entry of air to the crankcase

B.water entering the crankcase while engine washdowns the being

performed
 C.excessive oil leakage during period of increased blowby

D.all the above

Ans:A

266.In a diesel engine internal combustion causes the piston to be moved by

A.the pressure of the gases developed

B.the admission of the fuel and air in to the combustion space only

C.specially designed parts connected to a shaft

D.the concept of reciprocity

Ans:A

267.what function is provided by the crank case ventillation system onsome

diesel engines………..?

A.increase the sludge forming tendency of lube oil

B.prevents the accumulation of combustible gases

C. improves lube oil cooling

D.improves cold wheather starting

Ans:B

268.For diesel engine piston coling lubricating oil can be supplied to the pistons
by a/an….?

A.oil spray

B.oil bath

C.oil control rings

D.drilled passage through the camshaft

Ans:A

269.The purpose of the delivery checkvalve used in diesel fuel injection jerk
pump is to…….?

A.assist in a quick cutoff of fuel injection

B.allow oil backflow from the injector to the helix

C.reduce fuel oil pressure between injection strokes

D.meter the quantity of the oil delivered

Ans:A

270.In a two stroke /cycle diesel engine the camshafts rotates at ……….?

A.twice the crankshaftspeed

B.half the crankshaft speed

C.the same speed as crankshaft

D.a speed indipendent of the crankshaft

Ans:C

271.The primary function of a fuel delivery check valve aseembly to ………..?

A.deliver proper fuel quantity to the injection nozzle

B.provide rapid fuel injection cutoff

C.control fuel quantity entering the pump body

D.control fuel pressure delivered to the combustion chamber

Ans:B

272.For any piston ring to operate smoothly without scuffing the ring must be

A.of a material harder than the cylinder liner

 B.property lubricated

C.preventing from compressing

D. prevented from rotating during engine operation

Ans:B

273.

A.fed into cylinder

B.thrown off from main bearing

C.supplied from wick fed drip lubricator

D.flow from cenrrifugal or banjo oiler

Ans-A

274.

A.type of piston rings

B.pressure of fuel system

C.size of plunger spring

D.design of combustion chamber

Ans-D

275. The delivery valve installed in a port and helix fuel injection pump is
designed to ___________

A. maintain constant pressure in the discharge line

B. maintain a column of fuel in the line

C. accurately meter the quantity the fuel injection

D. close with hydraulic action.

Ans -B

276. The shape of a diesel engine cam determines the ____________

A. points of opening and closing of the valve

B. velocity of opening and closing of the valve

C. amount of the valve lift from its seat

D. all of the above.

Ans-D

277. Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of the
crankcase such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar drives when the
___________

A. gross volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6+D340 cubic meters

B. possibility of explosion exists due to formation of volatile gases

C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions.

D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter.

Ans- A

278. if all other conditions such as bore, stroke, speed and mean effective
pressures are equal, a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will develop approximately
___________

A. the same indicated horsepower as a four stroke/cycle engine

B. one half the indicated horsepower as a four stroke/cycle engine

C. twice the indicated horsepower as a four stroke/cycle engine

D. one power stroke for every two crankshaft revolutions

Ans-C
279. in order to reverse the rotation of a two-stroke/cycle loop scavenged,
direct reversing, propulsion diesel engine, the cam positions must be changed for
the ______________

A. starting air and fuel pump

B. piston cooling pumps

C. exhaust valves

D. all of the above

Ans-A

280. A viscous damper, as used on a marine diesel, is a sealed precision built

device which dampens the torsional vibrations in the ______________

A. camshaft

B. flywheel

C. crankshaft

D. thrust shaft

Ans-C

281. the rotary motion of a diesel engine crankshaft is obtained from the up and
down motion of the piston via the ____________

A.camshaft

B. reduction gears

C. rocker arm

D. connecting or piston rod

Ans-D
282. indirect cooling of fuel injector nozzle holders for diesl engines is
accomplished primarily by ___________

A. heat conduction into the injected fuel oil

B. heat conduction into the water jaclet wall

C. water circulation through passages in the holder

D. fuel oil circulation through passages in the holder

Ans-B

283. Diesel engine main and connecting rod precision bearings are made in
halves. Each half exceeds one half the bearing circumference by a small amount.
The small amount is termed as _____________

A. clearance

B. crush

C. pitch

D. thrust

Ans-B

284. The port-and-helix metering pumps, used in diesel fuel injection systems,
are usually designed to produce a constant beginning and a variable ending of fuel
injection. These pumps are usually ______

A. timed for port opening

B. timed for port closing

C. controlled by rack movement

D. controlled by plunger stroke

Ans-B
285. The end of a fuel injection in a port-and-helix metering pump can be
controlled by ___________

A. uncovering a fuel port in the pump barrel

B. covering a fuel port in the pump barrel

C. closing the fuel pump delivery valve

D. opening the fuel pump delivery valve

Ans-A

286. The main reason counterweights are added to crankshaft is to

___________

A. reduce piston side thrust

B. reduce crankshaft end thrust

C. provide uniform loading and wear of main bearings

D. increase the strength of crank webs

Ans-C

287. For a given size engine , the two stroke/cycle diesel engine will deliver more
power than a four stroke/cycle engine because ___________

A. it has longer power stroke

B. more air gets into the cylinder each stroke

C. it develops twice as many power strokes at the same speed

D. higher combustion pressure is developed

Ans-C

288. In a jerk pump, the amount of fuel that will be forced through the spray
nozzle on each upward stroke of the plunger depends on ______________
 A. the pump supply pressure

B. the slope of the fuel cam

C. how the plunger is rotated

D. the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack

Ans-C

289. Moder marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel operate on a

combustion cycle which is ____

A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure

B. a combination of constant temperature and constant poressure

C. entirely constant pressure

D. entirely constant volume

Ans-A

290. The amount of fuel delivered by the unit injector is controlled by the
__________

A. camshaft

B. main spring

C. rack position

D. nozzle orifice size

Ans-C

291. The diesel engine valve subjected to most severe conditions of service is
the _________

A. cylinder exhaust valve

B. air starting valve

 C. air inlet valve

D. cylinder relief valve

Ans-A

292. For a given fuel, a change in the compression ratio will effect the ignition
lag by which of the listed means?

A. an increase in compression ratio will increase the ignition lag

B. an increase in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag

C. a decrease in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag

D. a decrease in compression ratio will increase the ignition lag.

Ans-B

293. The lower section of the piston is called the ____________

A. land

B. skirt

C. crown

D. plate

Ans-C

294. What is the function of an engines stationary parts?

A. to add power to the engine

B. to keep engine firmly attached to its supporting base

C. to keep moving engine parts in their proper relative positions

D. to rotate the crankshaft

Ans-C
295. Fuel oil discharged to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the
________

A. turbocharger

B. injector nozzle tip

C. carburetor

D. fuel oil pump

Ans-B

296. Proper dispersion of fuel in a diesel engine cylinder is dependent upon the
____________

A. injection pressure

B. shape of combustion space

C. turbulence in combustion shape

D. all of the above

Ans-D

297. In a diesel engine, crosshatch on the liner surface aids in

i) rapid ring seating ii) the retention of lube oil

A. I only is correct

B. ii only is correct

C. both I and ii are correct

D. neither I or ii are correct

Ans- C

298. Why is it necessary to compress the air chargers in the cylinders of a diesel
engine?
 A. to ignite the fuel

B. to insure pumping losses are held to a minimum

C. to increase fuel consumption

D. to keep exhaust temperature low.

Ans-A

299. Which of the following statements concerning a closed type fuel injection
nozzle is true?

A. the hole type of a closed nozzle is self cleaning

B. multi-hole type nozzles are only suitable for use in engines with
precombustion chambers

C. most closed nozzles open inward under the pressure acting on the
differential area of the needle valve

D. the pintle type nozzles are most susceptibleto carbon deposits building
up in and around the orfice

Ans-C

300. Many diesel engine exhaust valves are being constructed with hollow stems
filled sodium in order to _________

A. increase overall valve strength due to the high gas pressure

B. provide added wear protection against todays corrosive quality of fuel

C. assist in dissipating heat due to extreme operating temperatures

D. reduce the overall weight of the valve thus helping eliminate valve spring
surge and hammering

Ans-C
301. Turbulence of the compressed air charge in a diesel engine increases
__________

A. ignition lag

B. piston side thrust

C. the efficiency of the engine

D. compression pressure

Ans-C

302. Thin bronze rings are inserted in the face of some chromium plated piston
rings to __________

A. promote piston ring seating in the cylinder

B. prevent rapid wear on the ring face

C. provide better lubrication of the piston ring

D. produce an even glaze on the cylinder

Ans-A

303. In the Otto cycle, the fuel/air mixture is ignited at what point and by what
means?

A. at TDC by heat generated by compression

B. just before TDC by heat generated by compression

C. just before TDC by spark ignition

D. at TDC by spark ignition

Ans-C

304. Critical speed in diesel engines occurs when engine torque pulsations
become___________
 A. opposed to the crankshaft rocking couple

B. resonant with the crankshaft natural frequency

C. critical fore and aft crankshaft vibrations

D. horizontal whipping motions of the crankshaft

Ans-B

305. A diesel engine piston ring face is in direct contact with the
______________

A. top of the ring groove

B. cylinder liner oil film

C. bottom of the ring groove

D. back of the ring groove

Ans-B

306. A secondary function of diesel engine piston ring is to_________

A. reduce friction losses in the engine

B. absorb the piston side thrust

C. prevent cylinder liner wear

D. prevent excess lubricant from reaching the combustion space

Ans-D

307. Fuel is ignited in a diesel engine cylinder by_________

A. a spark plug

B. injectors

C. the heat of compression

 D. increasing jacket water temperatures

Ans-C

308. Barrel face, tapper face, grooved and chrome plated are all types of diesel
engine ________

A. pistons

B. piston rings

C. piston skirts

D. cylinder liners

Ans-D

309. Injectors for use with heavy fuel oil must be cooled by either water or light
oil to________

A. prevent heat corrosion to internal components

B. increase fuel delivery rate and economy

C. prevent preignition

D. avoid carbonisation of the nozzle tips

Ans-D

310. Which of the equal power diesel engines listed, running at the same speed,
is least affected by exhaust back pressure?

A. a four stroke/cycle “V” type engine

B. a two stroke/cycle “V” type engine

C. an in-line two stroke/cycle engine

D. an opposed piston engine

Ans –A
311. In a diesel engine,the time taken to heat fuel particle,turn them in
vapour ,and bring about combustion called

A.Injection lag

B.ignition delay

C.compression ignition

D.turbulance lag

Ans -B

312. In a diesel engine ,the contact surfaces of the piston compression rings
are those in contact with the ________ 1:back of the ring
groove,2:bottom of the ring groove

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.both 1 and 2

D.neither 1 nor 2

Ans-B

313. Thermal energy produced by an internal combustion engine is transformed

into_____________

A.combustion energy

B.internal energy

C.external energy

D.mechanical energy

Ans-D
314. The reason some two-stroke/cycle ,diesel engine piston ring are pinned
to prevent rotation is_____________

A.cylinder lubricant is spread more evenly on cylinder wall

B.less blow-by as the pin seal the end gap

C.to keep ring ends from catching in the scavenging port

D.to prevent more even ring wear.

Ans-C

315. Oil control rings are designed with slotted holes to ____________

A. decrease ring contact area and cut down heat transfer

B. decrease contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall

C. increase contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall

D. permit excess oil to drain back to the slump____________

Ans D

316. Pre combustion chambers differ from turbulence chambers in that

precombustion chambers____________

A. allow fuel injection directly into the space above the piston
B. do not contain the fuel injector nozzle tip
C. contain the major portion of the total clearance value
D. contain a small portion of the total clearance volume

Ans D

317. The primary purpose of oil control rings on a diesel engine piston is to
______________
 A. provide a reservoir for cylinder lubrication

B. pump oil into the combustion space for cylinder cooling

C. prevent excessive lubricating oil consumption

D. allow hydraulic oil film formation on the cylinder

Ans C

318. The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers to the ratio between
the_________________

A. piston area to connecting rod length

B. cylinder volumes at top dead center and at bottom deae center

C. engine cylinder size to piston size

D. the number of compression strokes for a given horsepower

Ans B

319. In describing basic diesel engine operation, the term event refers
to_________________

A. the production of high pressure gases

B. the removal of expended combustion gases

C. the admission of air to the cylinder

D. All of the above

Ans. D

320. The ratio of the break horsepower to the indicated horsepower of a diesel
engine is its_____________

A. thermal efficiency
B. mechanical efficiency

C. break thermal efficiency

D. volumetric efficiency

321. Slots are provided in a diesel engine piston oil scrapper ring to
_________________

A. decrease piston side thrust pressure

B. allow for thermal expansion of the ring within the ring land

C. permit drainage of excess oil to the engine slump

D. make it more flexible for scrapping cylinder surfaces

322. The function of the piston compression rings used in a diesel engine is to
_____________

A. seal the space between the piston and liner

B. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder line

C. reduce the amount of combustion gas blow- by

D. all the above

Ans D

323. How are the pressure and temperature affected in a diesel engine cylinder
during compression?

A. pressure and temperature decrease

B. pressure and temperature increase

C. pressure decrease and temperature increase

D. pressure increase and temperature decrease

Ans B
324. Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injection, operate on a
combustion cycle which is_______________

A. a combustion of constant volume and constant pressure

B. a combustion of constant temperature and constant pressure

C. entirely constant pressure

D. entirely constant volume

Ans. A

325. if the compression ratio is increased on any diesel engine ____________

A. the expansion ratio will decrease

B. combustion will be slowed down

C. thermal efficiency will decrease

D. thermal efficiency will increase

Ans. D

326. Piston compression rings used in a diesel engine function to____________

A. transfer heat from the cylinder to the piston

B. scrape oil from the sides of the piston

C. seal the combustion space from the crankcase

D. prevent any piston contact with the cylinder liner

Ans C

327. At bottom dead center. The centerline of the connecting rod usually
coincides with the____________

A. angularity of the piston motion

B. inertia moment from the piston

C. centerline of the cylinder

D. centerline of the king pin

Ans C

328. A diesel engine exhaust valve spring is under compression

when____________

A. the valve is open

B. the piston is at top dead center

C. the valve is closed

D all the above.

And D

329. A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is _________________

A. opening the exhaust ports

B. placed on the top of the engine along its centerline

C. farthest from the cylinder head

D. nearest to the cylinder head

Ans D

330. The purpose of the flywheel is to____________________

A. provide energy to operate the engine between power impulses

B. neutralize the primary inertia force on the crankcase

C. reduce the shock of starting loads on the main bearings

D. prevent the engine from operating at critical speed

Ans A

331. A seven cylinder, two stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine with a cylinder
indicated horsepower calculated as 1350kW and brake horsepower measured at
7466kW has a mechanical efficiency of____________________

A. 0.18

B.0.55

C. 0.79

D.0.83

Ans C

332.What is the metric brake horsepower developed per cylinder by an 83%

efficient, six cylinder, two stroke/cycle diesel engine with acylinder constant of
0.998 and a mean effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at 100RPM?

A. 1497kW

B. 1242kW

C. 1116kW

D.926kW

Ans. B

333. In a diesel engine pistons are attached to the crankshaft

by____________________

A. push rods

B. piston rods

C. connecting rods

D. piston guides
Ans C

334. One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the
_______________

A. lower thermal expansion rates than wet liners

B. greater heat transwer rate than wet liners

C. greater wear resistance than wet liners

D. procedure to replace dry liners is simple than for wet liners

Ans D

335. Vibrations from diesel engines and engine driven equipment are isolated
from the hull structure by__________________________

A. torsional – vibration dampers

B. harmonic balancers

C. a detuner flywheel

D. flexible engine mountings.

Ans D

336. Which of the following statements concerning fuel atomization in a diesel

engine cylinder is correct?

A. The greater the atomization , the greater the penetration

B. the greater the atomization, the lesser the penetration

C. the degree of atomization has nothing to do with the degree of penetration

D. Atomization and penetration are one and the same.

Ans B
337. The most rapid period of fuel combustion occurring in a diesel cylinder
should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center
and____________________

A. when fuel injection has been completed

B. when fuel vaporizarion has been completed

C. should continue through the afterburning period

D. should be completed after the top dead center

Ans. D

338. When comparing different fuels for different engines, the ignition quality of
diesel fuel oils becomes a less critical consideration as______________

A. the amount of lube oil additives increase

B. piston speed increase

C. injection pressure decrease

D. engine speed decrease.

Ans. D

339. The power developed by a large slow- speed main propulsion diesel engine is
dependent upon the________________

A. quantity of air it takes in and retains in the cylinders during the given time
period

B. proportion of trapped air that is utilized in the combustion process

C. Thermodynamic efficiency of the engine cycles.

D . all the above

Ans. D
340. An indicator card or pressure – volume diagram, shows graphically
the______________

A. relationships between pressure and volume during one stroke of the engine

B. relationships between pressure and volume during one cycle of the engine

C. volume of the engine

D. compression ratio of the engine

Ans B

341. Cylinder linings constructed as an integral part of the block, are characterized
by which of the following disadvantages_____________________

A. they conduct heat poorly

B. they are expensive

C. they cannot be replaced

D. they require special tools for removal

Ans. C

342. One end of a diesel engine cylinder is sealed by the cylinder head and the
other end by the _________________

A. crankcase

B. piston

C. cylinder liner

D. crank cheek

Ans. B

343. Where is the change for an air starting system stored?

A. Air compressor
B. pressurized tank

C. Distributor assembly

D. cylinder check value

Ans. B

344. Maximum power of a diesel engine is attained_______________

A. when the engine RPM is pulled down by overload

B. at rated engine RPM

C. at 95% of rated engine RPM

D. at 95% of a properly adjusted governor RPM with the engine under full road

Ans B

345. Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams, which serve
to____________________

A. keep piston crown temperatures elevated for smoother combustion

B. reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression ring

C. help retain the heat of compression to prevent the ignition delay

D. help retain the heat of compression to prevent combustion knock

Ans B

346. During the fuel injection period, fuel pressure must exceed cylinder gas
pressure to
_________________

A. ensure penetration and distribution of the fuel to the combustion chamber

B. ensure the needle valve is flushed clean during each injection

C. prevent combustion gas blowback into the open needle valve

D. prevent reflected pressure waves when the needle valve closes.

Ans A

347. The difference in crank lead between the upper and lower cranks of an
opposed piston engine causes the lower crankshaft to________________

A. receive less power than the upper shaft

B. receive more power than the upper shaft

C. operate the fuel oil booster pump

D. operate faster than the upper shaft

Ans B

348. Telescopic pipes to thye piston of a large slow speed main propulsion diesel
engine are designed to prevent_____________________

A. excessive crankcase pressure

B. excessive lube oil temperature

C. contamination of the lube oil by water

D. contamination of the cooling water by the lube oil.

Ans C

349 The exhaust system for a turbocharged two stroke/cycle diesel engine
functions to___________

A. discharge exhaust gases and smoke

B. B. furnish energy to the turbocharger
C. Reduce engine room noise
D. All of the above

Ans D
350 which of the diesel engine exhaust mufflers listed is usually equipped with a
spark arrestor ?

A. A wet type exhaust muffler

B. A constant pressure muffler
C. A dry type exhaust muffler
D. A constant velocity muffler

Ans C

351. when monitoring diesel engine performance; the most useful instrument to
use is the ___________

A. dwel tachometer

B. exhaust gas pyrometer

C. fuel flow rate meter

D. exhaust gas analyzer

Ans: B

352. The exhaust system of a diesel engine is usually designed to remove

exhaust gas and to ________

A. provide exhaust back pressure

B. prevent exhaust gas emission

C. power a reciprocating supercharger

D. muffle exhaust gas noise

Ans. D

353. water jackets is placed around the exhaust manifold propulsion diesel
engine to______________
 A. reduce heat radiation to engine room

B. aid in preventing turbocharger overheating

C. condense and drain moisture from exhaust gases

D. dampen exhaust gas pulsations in the manifold

Ans. A

354. In a two stroke /cycle diesel engine, the exhaust gases are expelled from the
cylinder by the ____________

A. exhaust manifold

B. valve bridge

C. pressure of the fresh air charge

D. valve adjusting gear

Ans. C

355. Diesel engine mufflers or silencers reduce the engine exhaust noise by
_____________

A. Passing the exhaust through head pipes.

B. Diffusing exhaust vibrations through activated carbon baffles.
C. Increasing the exhaust velocity.
D. Reducing the exhaust gas velocity.

Ans. D
356. The exhaust gases in a super charged two stroke/cycle diesel engine are
expelled from the cylinder by______________

A. Pumping action of piston.

B. Pressure of the fuel charge.
C. Vacuum developed in the manifold.
D. Pressure of the fresh air charge.

Ans D

357. Exhaust gases in a two-stroke/diesel engine are discharged

through_________________

A. the air valves

B. exhaust ports or valves

C. direct to atmosphere.

Ans C

358. A disadvantage of two-stroke/diesel engine cycle is ______________

A. more power strokes per revolution

B. the use of scavenge air

C. more complicated valve gear.

D. higher working temperature of the piston and cylinder

Ans D
359. Many diesel engine have pistons with concave heads to ________________

A. decrease air turbulence and increase fuel mixing

B. increase air turbulence and improve fuel mixing

C. prevent fuel afterburning when injection ends

D. prolong fuel after burn when injection ends

Ans B

360. In a single acting diesel engine, the cylinder liner area that is most difficult to
lubricate is __________

A. major thrust side

B. minor thrust side

C. top circumference

D. bottom circumference

Ans C

361. Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of the
crankcase, such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar drives when
the________________

A. overall volume of spaces exceeds 0.6mm

B. possibility of explosions exists due to formation of volatile gases

C. Unit is operating in extreme overload conditions

D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic metres

Ans D
362. Which of the following design features will reduce the possibility of
overheating the top compression rings of a cast iron piece?

A. the top ring is located as close to the piston rim as possible

B. the inside surface area of the piston rounded

C. a nickel bearing insert is cast into top ring groove

D. a heat dam design is sometimes used in the piston head

Ans D

363. Which of the following statements concerning the factors affecting the
ignition delay is correct?

A. an increase in air intake temperature will increase ignition delay

B. an increase in coolant temperature will increase ignition delay

C. an increase in combustion chamber turbulence will increase ignition delay

D. an increase in compression ratio will increase ignition delay

Ans B

364. Which of the following statements is a description of the combustion cycle?

A. the mechanics of engine operation

B. the number of piston strokes involved

C. the heat engine process which produces the force to initiate the movements of
engine parts

D. the mechanical equivalent of heat

Ans C
365. In a large slow speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to the
piston is ________

A. against the crosshead during power stroke away from the crosshead during
compression stroke

B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from the
crosshead during the power stroke

C. against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes

D. away from the crosshead during the power and the compression strokes

Ans C

366. One disadvantage of the use of dry liner wall over a wet liner is ___________

A. it is fitted with neoprene O-rings

B. the honing process makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film

C. there is less likelihood of water leaking into the combustion space

D. it fits more loosely due to decrease in heat transfer through the composite
wall

Ans C

367. Which of the construction technique listed is used on new piston ring to
facilitate run in or seating?

A. special rings facings, such as thin bearing surface of anti friction metal

B. the oil control ring face is machined at an angle of 10 degrees

C. the ring diameter, when free is machined slightly smaller than the cylinder bore
to allow for expansion at high combustion

D. oil rings maintain continuous oil film

Ans A

368. In diesel engines the four basic events(intake, compression, power, exhaust)
are performed once in ___________

A. one complete crankshaft revolution in a two stroke cycle engine

B. two crankshafts revolutions in a two stroke engine

C. two power strokes in a two stroke cycle engine

D. two piston strokes in a four stroke cycle engine

Ans A

369. The intake air ducting to a diesel engine should not draw from an area from
the deck where flammable vapors released from tanks are present, because
_______________

A. flammable vapors will accelerate corrosion of the turbocharger

B. the engine may over speed and the normal governor or over speed trip will not
be able to secure the engine

C. the flammable vapors will result in excessively rich mixture which will increase
the brake horse power out

D. all of the above

Ans B
370. In a two stroke cycle, opposed piston, diesel engine, one crankshaft operates
several crank angles in advance to the other crankshaft to _______________

A. allow the exhaust port to open and close before inlet port closes

B. allow the scavenge ports to open and close simultaneously with the exhaust
ports

C. prevent the exhaust piston from reaching TDC and BDC before the intake
piston

D. prevent scavenge air pressure build up in cylinders

Ans A

371. The purpose of delivery check valve used in diesel fuel injection jerk is to
___________ /assist in quick cut-off of fuel injection, II. Prevent fuel oil back flow
from the injection pump

A. I only

B. II only

C. both I and II

D. neither I or II

Ans A

372. In a diesel engine, what is the advantage of precombustion chambers over

the open type combustion chambers? I. Precombustion chamber permits coarser
fuel atomization II. Precombustion chamber allows lower fuel injection pressure
A. I only

B. II only

C. both I and II

D. neither I or II

Ans C

373. A large slow speed main propulsion engine must be operated with one
cylinder secured. When the engine was stopped the affected cylinder ended in a
position preventing the engine from being restarted. Which of the following
actions should be taken?

A. turn the shaft with the turning gear while applying starting air.

B. Increase starting air pressure by small amounts until the air pressure is high
enough to crank the engine over.

C. Admit starting air in the direction opposite to the desired direction, then restart
in the desired direction.

D. open the indicator cocks on those cylinders on compression and apply

increased starting air pressure.

Ans C

374. The average air temperature of a two stroke cycle engine with turbine driven
supercharger is lower than a similar four stroke cycle diesel engine at equal loads
because ______________

A. two stroke cycle diesel engines have higher M.E.P than four stroke cycle diesel
engines

B. four stroke cycle diesel engine exhaust is cooled by scavenging air.

C. two stroke cycle diesel engines have lower MEP than four stroke cycle diesel
engines

D. the opening of the two stroke cycle diesel operation ports occurs much later
than in four stroke cycle diesel engines.

Ans C

375. oil control rings used in two stroke cycle diesel engines are located near the
bottom of the piston skirt in order to ________________

A. increase the liner area covered by the oil film

B. maintain an oil film on the lower liner where scuffing is prevalent

C. keeps excess oil way from intake and exhaust ports

D. helps cushion the piston side skirt by providing hydrodynamic oil wedge

Ans C

376. Which of the following functions represents the function of compression

rings installed at the top of the diesel engine piston?

A. transmit heat from piston to cylinder liner

B. Control the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber

C. Prevent damage to piston ring groove inserts by acting as a heat dam

D. Dissipate combustion chamber gas pressure by channelling it through the ring

gap

Ans A
377. In a diesel engine , the time period between fuel injection and ignition is
usually defined as _________________

A. injection duration

B. ignition timing

C. precombustion lag

D. ignition delay

Ans D

MOTOR OPERATION

378. A loose crosshead plunger assembly in a meeting or a proportioning pump

will cause_____________

A. rapid wear on the crosshead

B. damage to the stroke arrangement arm

C. rapid wear on the plunger packing

D. damages to the fuel compensator valve

Ans A

379. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is directly
related to the engine _____________

A. compression ratio

B. valve size
C. fuel pressure

D. cylinder clearance volume

Ans B

380. A naturally aspirated diesel engine at full throttle will have an intake
manifold pressure ___________

A. slightly less than atmospheric pressure

B. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times

C. that is widely fluctuating

D. constantly decreasing as engine load increases

Ans A

381. An increase in air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will result in a
____________

A. decrease in maximum cylinder pressure

B. increase in ignition lag

C. decrease in fuel combustion per kilowatt hour

D. decrease in exhaust manifold pressure

Ans C

382. On a large diesel engine installation, crankshaft axial alignment is maintained

by the ________

A. piston rod guides

B. engine thrust bearing

C. crosshead bearing

D. main shaft flexible coupling

Ans B

383. The crankcase of many diesel engines are kept under a slight vacuum to
___________

A. improve fuel economy

B. increase air charge viscosity

C. reduce the risk of explosion

D. all of the above

Ans C

384. Maintaining the lowest possible scavenging air temperature at all times is
not recommended due to the possibility of ____________

A. air charge density becoming too high

B. piston crown surfaces becoming too cold

C. formation of excessive quantities of condensate

D. compression pressure being greatly reduced

Ans C

385. On a turbocharged, medium speed diesel engine, which of the following

problems is an indication of restricted air intake passage?
A. engine is hard to start

B. engine misses

C. surges at governed RPM

D. coolant temperature is too low

Ans A

386. An indication of air intake being partially clogged is ______________

A. low firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures

B. low firing pressure and normal exhaust temperature

C.high firing pressure and low exhaust temperature

D.highr firing pressure and high exhaust temperature

Ans B

387. Load control on a diesel engine is accomplished by ________________

A. regulating speed of turbocharger

B. rotating the fuel injector plunger

C. regulating the speed of fuel oil transfer pump

D.changing engine timing

Ans B

c.high firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures

d.high firing pressure and high exhaust temperature

 Ans. B

388. Operating a diesel enginefor prolonged periods,with a closed fresh water

cooling system,at temperatures lower than normal design temperature can
cause________________

a.the formation of sulphuric acid

b.a decrease in lube oil viscocity

c.a decrease in cooling water pH

d.a thermostat failure

Ans.A

389. The air supplied to diesel engine is compressed to___________.I.provide

heat for ignition of fuel II.decrease injection delay

a.I only is correct

b.II only is correct

c.both I and II are correct

d.neither I nor II are correct

Ans.A

390. fuel droplets injected into a diesel engine must have adequate penetration
to_____________

a.prolong the ignition delay period

b.ensure the beginning of fuel injection

c.thoroughly utilize the charge air

d.allow controlled fuel combustion

Ans.C
391. Loss of lubricating oil pressure to the main propulsion diesel engine will
actuate a/an____________

A.overspeed trip

B.audible/visual alarm

C.the ships/boats general alarm

D.reverse oil storage tank

Ans.B

392. The amount of fuel injected into a cylinder by a unit injector is controlled
by__________

A.the firing pressure in the cylinder

B.a metering helix

C.varying the length of plunger stroke

D. varying the clearance between injector cam and the injector rocker arm

Ans.B

393. The dripping of fuel from an injector nozzle after injection terminates often
results in____________

A.early combustion

B.incomplete combustion and decreased fuel consumption

C.coking and blocking of fuel nozzles

D.decreased cylinder wall temperatures and increased exhaust

temperatures

Ans.C
394. The amount of fuel delivered for each cycle must be I n accordance with
engine load, and the same quantity of fuel must be delivered to each
cylinder for each power stroke at the load.Which of the following
statements describes this requirement?

A.Proper timing

B.Accurate metering

C.Suitable injection rate

D.Suitable atomization rate

Ans.B

395. The knock occuring when the cold diesel engine is started and continues
while running at low speed, but stops when engine reaches normal
operating speed and temperature,is______________

A.caused by retarded injection timing

B.caused by mechanical defect in one cylinder

C.caused by high fuel ignition pressures

D.normal for these conditions

Ans.D

396. The most crucial time for any bearing with regards to lubrication
is______________

A.during low loads

B.after proper oil viscocity is reached

C.during starting

D.after cleaning filters

Ans.C
397. Which of the listed diesel engine operating conditions should be checked
immediately after any diesel engine is started?

A.Exhaust temperature

B.Lube oil level

C.Lube oil pressure

D.Water level in expansion tank

Ans.C

398. If the coolant temperature is excessively low as it passes through internally

cooled fuel injectors,the injectors may be damaged by____________

A.water condensation in the fuel

B.corrosion of nozzle tip

C.carbon deposits on the leakoff inlet

D.over lubrication of needle valve

Ans.B

399. What occurs in the combustion space of a diesel engine cylinder shortly
after ignition and before the piston reaches TDC?

A.Rapid increase in temperature with constant pressure

B.Rapid increase in pressure with constant temperature

C.Rapid increase in pressure and temperature

D.Rapid increase in volume and decrease in pressure

Ans.C

400. The effective pump stroke of an individual port-and-helix fuel injection

pump is determined by the__________
 A.fuel delivery pressure

B.pump plunger diameter

C.plunger control rack position

D.total pump stroke

Ans.C

401. The amount of fuel delivered by helical plunger type fuel injection pump is
contolled by__________________

A.rotation of the pump plunger

B.rotation of the pump barrel

C.varying the pump supply pressure

D.varying the the pump return pressure

Ans.A

402. Which of the following conditions will develop if the flow of “raw” cooling
water to a diesel engine is obstructed?

A.Air will enter the cooling system

B.Carbon will plug the water cooled exhaust manifolds

C.The jacket water temperature will rise

D.The lube oil viscosity will increase

Ans.C

403. The effective stroke of a constant-stroke, individual, fuel injection pump is

varied by the_____________

A.control rack

B.delivery valve
 C.governor speed

D.plunger crossbar

Ans.A

404. Which of the listed conditions will occur if a diesel engine exhaust valve is
leaking?

A.Loss of compression for that cylinder

B.Misfiring or rough running

C.Damage to the valve

D.All of the above

Ans.D

405. High firing pressures and a low exhaust temperature in a diesel engine may
result from______________

A.decreased piston to cylinder head clearance

B.increased exhaust system back pressure

C.early fuel injection timing

D.low scavange air temperature

Ans.C

406. Exhaust pyrometer readings provide an indication of the_____________

A.effectiveness of water-cooled exhaust elbows

B.distribution of loads between engine cylinders

C.amount of fuel penetration into the engine cylinders

D.indicated horsepower of the engine cylinders

 Ans.B

407. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder has
the greatest effect on the __________

A.cylinder air turbulence

B.fuel spray angle

C.fuel injection rate

D.combustion in that cylinder

Ans.D

408. Diesel fuel oil having a low cetane rating can result in_______________

A.improved cold weather starting

B.smoother engine operation

C.combustion knock

D.reduce ignition lag

Ans.C

409. To successfully reduce an excessively high diesel engine exhaust gas

temperature, you should______________

A.reduce the engine driven fuel pump outlet pressure

B.retard the fuel injector timing to reduce power

C.increase the fuel rack setting

D.reduce the load on the engine

Ans.D

410. High exhaust temperature and black smoke exhausting from an auxiliary
diesel engine can be caused by___________
 A.engine overload

B.low combustion temperature

C.plugged fuel nozzle holes

D.excessive compression pressure

Ans.A

411. Combustion gas venting through expansion tank can be caused by

a__________

A.leaking air cooler

B.cracked cylinder head

C.leaking exhaust valve

D.worn piston ring

Ans.B

412. Which of the following problems can cause fluctuating pressures in the
closed cooling system of a main propulsion diesel engine?

A.Defective temperature controls in the system

B.Cavitation in the cooloing water pump

C.Opened vent in the cooling system

D.Restricted water passages in the engine

Ans.B

413. A fuel leak occurs in the high pressure fuel piping between the injection
pump and the fuel nozzle.this requires immediate repair because of the
______________

A.high cost of fuel

 B.serious fire hazard

C.possibility of pollution

D.poor combustion which will occur in the cylinder

Ans.B

414. Individual cylinder performance in a diesel engine is routinely determined

by the exhaust gases_____________

A.chemical analysis

B.pressure readings

C.pyrometer readings

D.infrared analysis

Ans.C

415. Excessive diesel engine cylinder exhaust back pressure will be caused
by___________

A.slight timing discrepancies

B.heavy fuel injection

C.an obstruction in the exhaust silence

D.a fouled intake manifold

Ans.C

416. The injection pressure of a hydraulic fuel injection nozzle can be increased
by_________________

A.increasing fuel oil booster pump pressure

B.increasing the injector nozzle orifice size

C.removing shims from under the nozzle spring

 D.incresig pressure on the pressure spring

Ans.D

417. Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused

by________________

A.excessive fuel penetration

B.prolonged injection lag

C.reduced ignition lag

D.prolonged ignition lag

Ans.D

418. Which of the following problems could develop due to the accumulation of
oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel engine?

A.Reduced lubrication

B.Poor fuel economy

C.Combustion knocking

D.Crankcase explosion

Ans.D

419. One problem resulting from a diesel engine fuel injector opening pressure
being lower than specified by engine manufacturer, is that
the_____________

A.start of injection will always be retarded

B.duration of injection is always be reduced

C.quantity of fuel injected is always be decreased

D.quantity of fuel injected tends to increased

 Ans.D

420. Which of the listed reasons is the most likely cause of sudden drop in
compression pressure in one diesel engine cylinder?

A.Missing filter segment of an intake filter

B.Malfunctioning valves

C.Leaking fuel injector nozzle

D.Excessively early fuel injection

Ans.B

421. A sudden drop in diesel engine cylinder compression pressure can be

caused by___________

A.a leaking fuel injector nozzle

B.a clogged air filter

C.excessively early fuel injection

D.malfunctioning valves

Ans.D

422. Failure to open the diesel engine test cocks after a long period of
shutdown, prior to starting may result in____________

A.an air bound fuel system

B.damage to cylinder heads and pistons

C.excessive fuel injection

D.excessive air valve lift

Ans.B
423. Which of the listed conditions is the most likely to cause a crankcase
explosion?

A.A high cooling water temperature

B.Fuel dilution of the lube oil

C.Excessive engine speeds

D.Improper lube oil viscosity

Ans.B

424. If the coolant temperature is too low as it passes through internally cooled
fuel injectors, the injector can be damaged by _____________

A.water condensation in the fuel

B.corrosion of nozzle tip

C. Carbon deposits of the nozzle tip

D. inadequate lubrication of the needle valve

Ans.B

425. A diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust temperatures at

all cylinders. To correct this condition you should FIRST______________

A. reduce the engine load

B. increase the cooling water flow

C. increase the lube oil pressure

D. adjust the fuel rack

Ans.A

426. The overspeed trip installed on most diesel engines will stop the engine by
shutting off the___________
 A. water supply

B. fuel oil supply

C. lube oil supply

D. exhaust damper

Ans.

427. White smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine may

indicate____________

A. a cracked liner

B. burning lube oil

C. an overloaded engine

D. insufficient combustion air

Ans.

428. Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine can be caused by
_______

A. Fuel dribbling from leaking fuel injectors.

B. Burning fuel with a high carbon content
C. Burning fuel with a high vanadium content
D. Burning fuel with lover sulphur content

ANS: A

429. A device which functions to be a diesel engine to a full stop protect it from
damage is known as a/an_______

A. Torque limiter
 B. Overspeed trip
C. Overspeed governor
D. Load limited governor

ANS: B

430. Which of the following condition can cause oil to accumulate in the cooling
system of a diesel engine.

A. Excessive valve train lubrication

B. Defective oil cooler coal
C. Excessive lube oil pressure
D. Overfilled lube oil system.

ANS: B

431. Lube oil accumulating in the cooling water system of a diesel oil will result
in________

A. Lube cooler failure

B. Poor heat transfer
C. Mechanical lubricator failure
D. Camshaft seizure

ANS: B

432. When the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is greater than specified
by engine manufacture, the________

A. Quantity of fuel injected is decreased

B. Quantity of fuel injected will always be increased
C. Start of injection is advanced
D. Duration of injection will always be greater

ANS: A

433. Black smoke exhaust from an operating diesel engine is an indication of

poor combustion which can be caused by______
 A. Water in the fuel
B. Insufficient fuel for combustion
C. Clogged air intake passage
D. Burning lubricating oil

ANS: C

434. The highest pressure in a diesel engine cylinder occurs normally________

A. At TDC
B. Before TDC
C. After TDC
D. During air starting

ANS: C

435. Diesel engine fuel oil diluted with fuel oil is indicated by

A. Decreased velocity
B. Decreased pour point
C. Increased clearance point
D. Increased viscosity

ANS: A

436. A broken pintle in a fuel injector usually causes__________

A. Corrosion of the spray nozzle

B. Clogging of the orifices
C. Distortion of the spray pattern
D. Erosion of the valve

ANS: C

437. Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to________

A. Check cylinder lubrication prior to starting engine

B. Connect exhaust gas analyzer to determine engine efficiency
 C. Pressure test cylinder heads to check for leaks
D. Remove moisture accumulation from cylinders prior to starting

ANS. D

438. A practical way of checking for excessive fuel injection in one cylinder of an
operating diesel engine is to_________

A. Feel the high pressure fuel line

B. Check the cylinder exhaust for white smoke
C. Frequently check the cylinder exhaust temperature
D. Isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector

ANS: C

439. A diesel engine emits blue exhaust smoke as a result of_______

A. Cool intake air

B. Excessive compression pressure
C. Excessive cylinder lubrication
D. A light load

ANS: C

440. Which of the following problem could cause misalignment between the
needle valve nozzle in a fuel injection nozzle?

A. A bent fuel needle

B. A defective nozzle tip seat
C. A distorted valve body
D. All of the above

ANS: D

441. A diesel engine is operating under a normal load with low firing pressure
and high exhaust temperatures. The most probable cause of this condition
is____________
 A. A missing air intake filter
B. A restricted exhaust manifold
C. The fuel rack being too far in
D. The fuel rack being too far out

ANS: B

442. In the common rail system, excessive pressure in header may be caused by

A. Improper adjustment of bypass valve

B. A dribble in fuel injection nozzle
C. Insufficient leak off through the injection nozzle packing
D. A malfunction injection nozzle

ANS: A

443. The highest load applied to the diesel engine crankshaft main bearings
are________

A. Axial loads
B. Firing loads
C. Inertia loads
D. Centripetal loads

ANS: B

444. If the diesel engine fuel injection timing is changed to delay the start of
injection until the piston are at top dead center, the engine will

A. Backfire through the air intake

B. Develop less power under load
C. Have high firing pressure
D. Lift its cylinder relief valve

ANS: B

445. Increasing the compression ratio of diesel engine maintaining the designed
rate of fuel flow will result in____________
 A. Increased horse power
B. Reduced efficiency
C. Increased heat loss
D. Lower cylinder pressure

ANS: A

446. If the jacket water temp rises rapidly above normal in a diesel engine , you
should FIRST______

A. Place stand by cooler in operation

B. Reduces engine load
C. Check thermostatic valve
D. Clean sea water strainer

ANS: B

447. During which of the listed piston strokes of a four-stroke/cycle diesel

engine, is the piston moving downwards?

A. Intake stroke
B. Compression stroke
C. Exhaust stroke
D. Pumping stroke

ANS: A

448. In an operating diesel engine, pre-ignition can be caused by________

A. Excessive late fuel injection

B. Oil in the air charge
C. Water in the fuel
D. Injection continuing after fuel charge is ignited

ANS: B

449. Significant retardation of a diesel engine fuel injection timing will result in
_______
 A. Smoother engine operation
B. Advanced fuel ignition
C. Increased fuel economy
D. Reduced engine power

ANS: D

450. When fuel injected late into a diesel engine cylinder________

A. The exhaust will be clear

B. Fuel consumption will be low
C. All the fuel will be burned at top dead center
D. Fuel consumption will be high

ANS: D

451. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure
with_______

A. High exhaust temperature

B. Low exhaust temperature
C. Fuel knock in each cylinder
D. Mechanical knock in each cylinder

452. If a single cylinder relief valve on a diesel engine lifts frequently while
engine is running , the cause may be an _________

A. Excessive late injection timing for each cylinder

B. Incorrectly adjusted intake valve timing
C. Incorrectly adjusted fuel injector
D. Incorrectly adjusted intake valve clearance

ANS: C

453. When one cylinder has a lower compression pressure and higher exhaust
gas temperature than any of the other engine cylinders, which of the
conditions listed will be indicated?
 A. Advanced ignition
B. Clogged air intake
C. Leaky exhaust valve
D. High exhaust pressure

ANS: C

454. A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a diesel engine to
have_________

A. Higher firing pressure

B. More power output
C. Lower fuel pressure
D. Less power output

ANS: D

455. If a few injector spray holes become plugged, the result could be ________

A. Excessive surging at governed

B. Combustion knock under
C. Leaky exhaust valve
D. High exhaust pressure

ANS: C

456. A diesel engine fails to start because of water in the fuel. In order to start
the engine ,you should_________

A. Turn engine with jacking gear

B. Drain filter and strainers and bleed off water at each injection pump
C. Use ether to start the engine with blowdown valves open
D. Blow through the cylinders and fuel lines with a drying agent

ANS: B

457. A diesel engine piston crown can crack from_________

 A. Excessive piston to liner clearance
B. Excessive dirt beneath the piston crown that reduces the heat
transfer
C. Faulty nozzle spray
D. All of the above

ANS: D

458. Permitting a diesel engine fuel oil day tank to run dry can cause__________

A. Overheated injection pumps

B. Water condensation in the cylinders
C. Fuel dilution of lube oil
D. Air in the fuel system

ANS: D

459. Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzle of a diesel engine will cause
the engine to___________

A. Burn excessive amount of lube oil

B. Over heat without smoking
C. Operate with reduce power or stop
D. Run away without load

ANS: C

460. Which of the following problem will occur if the needle valve in a fuel
injection nozzle sticks in the open position?

A. Fuel injection limiting will change

B. Nozzle operating will be unaffected
C. Fuel will leak into the drain line
D. Fuel will not be delivered

ANS: A

461. A dry-type exhaust muffler clogged with soot, will cause ________
 A. Low exhaust temperature
B. Loss of engine power
C. Burned intake valves
D. Engine racing

ANS: B

462. Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ______

A. Check cylinder lubrication

B. Connect the pressure indicator
C. Pressure test cylinder head
D. Connect the exhaust gas pyrometers

ANS: B

463. Air may be bled from fuel system by_________

A. Blowing down the air tanks

B. Loosening the compression nuts at the injectors
C. Changing fuel filters
D. Pumping down the day tanks

ANS: B

464. Which of the terms listed below represents the operational speed at which
excessive engine vibration is created?

A. Non-harmonic speed
B. Critical speed
C. Maximum speed
D. Design maximum speed

ANS: B

465. If the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks open,__________

A. Fuel will leak into the nozzle drain line

 B. No fuel will be delivered through the nozzle
C. The nozzle will overheat
D. Injection fag will be increased

ANS: C

466. Which of the condition listed would cause simultaneous high cylinder firing
pressure and low temperature?

A. Improper fuel rack positioning

B. Lengthy opening of the exhaust valve
C. Excessively early injection timing
D. Extended light load operation

ANS: C

467. Early fuel injection timing is indicated by the cylinder pressure being
_________

A. Above normal with a below normal exhaust temperature

B. Above normal with a normal exhaust temperature
C. Below normal with a normal exhaust temperature
D. Below normal with an above normal exhaust temperature

ANS: A

468. If fuel injection occurs too early, a diesel engine will lose power because
the_________

A. Fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder

B. Ignition will be delayed due to low compression pressure
C. Maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke
D. Fuel will ignite after top dead centre

ANS: B

469. Diesel engine air start valve timing is controlled by_________

 A. Engine operating speed
B. An air manifold
C. A hydraulic distributor
D. Individual cams and valve gear.

ANS: D

470. A diesel engine fails to start due to excessive water in the fuel before the
engine can be started the water should be removed from the …………

A. Fuel lines
B. Lube oil filter
C. Crank case pump
D. Rocker arm reservoir

Ans: A

471. If you suspect a diesel engine is misfiring due to air leakage into the fuel
system you should begin looking for the leak at the……….

A. Fuel line connections to the cylinder injection valves

B. Gasket surfaces of the fuel oil filters
C. Discharge fittings of the fuel injector pumps
D. Suction side of the fuel oil transfer pump

Ans: D

472. An increase in the load on a turbocharged diesel engine operation at

constant speed will result in an increase in……..

A. Exhaust temperature
B. air box pressure
C. Brake mean effective pressure
D. All of the above

Ans: D
473. When a diesel engine is operated at partial load as compared to full load a
decrease will occur in the average……

A. Air puantity aspirated

B. Fuel infection pressure
C. Combustion pressure on the power stroke
D. Compression pressure on the compression stroke

Ans: C

474. Air in the fuel can cause……..

A. High lube oil temperature

B. Blue smoke
C. The engine to stop
D. Piston seizure

Ans: C

475. Early injection timing is indicated by……..

A. High exhaust temperature and low firing pressure

B. High exhaust temperature and high firing pressure
C. Low exhaust temperature and low firing pressure
D. Low exhaust temperature and high firing ptessute

Ans:D

476. Which of the following operating procedures should be carried out

immediately after any diesel engine is started?

A. Take all exhaust temperature readings

B. Check the sump oil level
C. Verify proper lube oil pressure
D. Check the water level in expansion tank

Ans: C
477. The most common diesel engine fuel system problems are caused by…….

A. Incorrect adjustments
B. Dirty fuel
C. Broken fuel lines
D. Excessive vibration

Ans: B

478. If sludge accumulates on the underside of a diesel engine piston it will ……

A. Cause blow by
B. Chemically attack the piston skirt
C. Form an emulsion of lube oil and water
D. Raise the piston temperature

Ans: D

479. Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be a direct cause
of …..

A. Excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling

B. Sediment in the fuel supply
C. Distortion of the fuel spray pattern
D. Improper atomization of the fuel

Ans: B

480. Low cylinder compression pressure and a high exhaust temperature may
indicate…….

A. Early fuel injection timing

B. Leaking valves
C. A continuously open scavenge air port
D. Low cooling water temperature

481. Fuel off injected into the cylinder of a diesel engine just after the piston
passes top dead center will……..
 A. Increase engine power
B. Increase engine load
C. Decrease engine power
D. Improve fuel economy

Ans: C

482. The loss of the diesel engine cylinder air charge through leaky valves piston
rings worn or scored liners would be indicated by which of the following sets of
conditions?

A. Low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature

B. Low firing pressure and high exhaust temperature
C. Low compression pressure and low exhaust temperature
D. Low firing pressure and low exhaust temperature

Ans: A

483. During diesel engine warm up which type of tappet clearance adjuster
listed allows for the change in length of the exhaust valves?

A. Mechanical
B. Hydraulic
C. Pneumatic
D. Electrical

Ans: B

484. Worn cylinder head valve seats in a diesel engine will cause …….

A. Less cold tappet clearance

B. Mor cold tappet clearance
C. Excessive pressure in hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters
D. Broken valve springs

Ans: A
485. Which operating condition of a diesel engine is indicated by excessive firing
pressures?

A. Oversppeding
B. Overload
C. Low exhaust temperature
D. High crankcase pressure

Ans: B

486. If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a diesel
engine you should FIRST……….

A. Call the chief engineer

B. Reduce engine load
C. Check thermostatic valve
D. Clean sea water strainer

Ans: B

487. A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication of a/an

……….

A. Worn cylinder liner

B. Faulty cylinder relief valve
C. Excessive lube oil pressure
D. Excessive scavenge air pressure

Ans: A

488. Which of the following procedures should be carried out when a large low
speed diesel is operated with one cylinder secured?

A. Lubrication to the defective cylinder should be increased

B. Cooling water temperature to the engine should be increased
C. Only the turbocharger speed should be reduced
D. Engine speed should be reduced
Ans: D

489. The most practical way of detecting an overload in one cylinder of an

operating large, low speed, main propulsion diesel engine is to …………….

A. Check the cylinder exhausts for black smoke

B. Engage the starter motor with the flywheel
C. Isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector
D. Check the cylinder exhaust temperature frequently

Ans: D

490. A diesel engine could fail to start because of ……………….

A. Incorrect injection timing

B. Low exhaust back pressure
C. Floating exhaust valves
D. Excessive cranking speed

Ans: A

491. One cause of diesel engine piston ring blow by is…….

A. Reduced scavenging
B. High exhaust temperatures
C. Excessive lubrication
D. Floating piston pins

Ans: C
 PAGE-26

492. If you notice smoke coming from the crankcase exhaust fan outlet of an
operating diesel engine, you would suspect…..

A. A cracked cylinder liner

B. Clogged intake ports
C. Broken piston rings
D. A faulty head gasket

Ans: C

493. Which of the following conditions may need to be reduced when operating
a large, low speed, main propulsion, diesel engine at low loads?

A. Injection pressures
B. Control air supply pressure
C. Cooling water flow through after coolers
D. Lube oil temperature

Ans: C
494. Restricted diesel engine exhaust manifold operating under a normal load is
indicated by…………

A. Low firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures

B. Low firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures
C. High firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures
D. High firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures

Ans: B

495. Excessive exhaust temperatures in a two stroke cycle diesel engine can be
caused by an/a……………….

A. High injection pressure

B. High firing pressure
C. Overheated air starting line
D. Carbon buil up in the exhaust ports

Ans: D

496. What color exhaust will be exhibited when a slow speed two stroke cycle
main propulsion diesel engine, designed to operate on light and heavy fuel oil is
operated on insufficiently preheated heavy fuel oil?

A. White
B. Black
C. Blue
D. Clear

Ans: B

497. Immediately after starting a diesel engine, normal raw water and jacket
water pressures are indicated. However, the jacket water temperature continues
to rise. If there is nochange in the sea temperature, you should suspect………..

A. Overloading in all cylinders

B. A jammed three way thermostatic valve
C. Chromate pH too low
 D. A high level in the surge tank

Ans: B

498. Before starting a dieselengine that has an engine driven lube oil pump,, the
engineer should…….

A. Open th bypass line

B. Cut in the lube oil cooler
C. Pressurize the lube oil system
D. Top off the expansion tank

Ans: C

499. Collapsed hydraulic valve lifters in a diesel engine will result in ……..

A. Excessive rocker arm movement

B. Little or no valve clearance
C. Excessive valve clearance
D. Collapsed or stacked valve springs

Ans: C

500. Prolonged operation of a diesel engine with a closed cooling water system,
at lower than normal designed operating temperatures can…………

A. Increase power output

B. Decrease lube viscosity
C. Eliminate fuel knock
D. Cause sulphuric acd formation

Ans: D

501. A large low speed main propulsion diesel engine may become overloaded
by …………………… i)a heavily fouled hull ii) strong head winds and heavy seas

A. i only
B. ii only
 C. both i and ii
D. neither i nor ii

Ans:c

502. Immediately after any diesel engine is started the engineer should check
the ……

A. Cranckcase pressure
B. Lube oil pressure
C. Saltwater pressure
D. Exhaust temperature

Ans: B

503. In a diesel engine lube oil system, which of the following parts should be
lubricated first?

A. Camshaft bearings
B. Main bearings
C. Piston crowns
D. Cylinder walls

And: B

504. Poor combustion in a diesel engine can be caused by ………..

A. High compression pressure

B. Low intake air temperature
C. Low exhaust pressure
D. High scavenge air pressure

Ans: B

505. Diesel engine exhaust gas temperatures can be used to determine

individual cylinder……

A. Performance
 B. Horsepower output
C. Fuel consumption
D. Scavenge effect

Ans: A

506. Which of the following problems may occur if the opening pressure of a
fuel injection nozzle is greater than specified by the engine manufacturer?

A. The amount of fuel injected wills ne increased

B. The start of injection will be retarded
C. The nozzle will permit fuel to dribble
D. The spray pattern will be distorted

Ans: B

507. All of the diesel engine cylinder firing pressures is normal, yet all of the
exhaust temperatures are low. Which of the following situations is responsible for
this condition?

A. Excessively early injection timing

B. Combustion knock
C. Leaking piston rings
D. Light load

Ans: D

508. Insufficient piston cooling for a large low speed main propulsion diesel
engine burning heavy fuels can result in……..

A. Excessive crosshead temperatures

B. Dangerous thermal expansion of the piston skirt
C. High temperature corrosion and burning off piston crown metal
D. Change in fuel cetane number

Ans: C
509. Which of the following factors tends to increase scale formation on the salt
water side of a heat exchanger used in diesel engine cooling water system?

A. Baffle plates that have been bent during prior removal

B. Leaks in the cooler tube nest
C. Operating the engine while maintaining a high sea water outlet
temperature
D. A punctured sea water strainer supplying cooling water to the heat
exchanger

Ans: C

510 -High exhaust back pressure will result in an increase in………………………

A turbocharger efficiency

B Engine power output

C Carbon deposit on fuel injector

D Cylinder scavenging

ANS:C

511 -any increase in the exhaust back pressure of a four-stroke/cycle diesel

engine will……………………

A worn piston rings

B aid in silencing the exhaust noise

C increase the mean effective pressure

D contribute to effective cylinder scavenging

ANS:A

512 In a diesel engine,blow by………………….

A Increase exhaust back pressure

B causes excessive crankcase pressure

C can only be detected by a compression check

D decrease fueloil consumption

ANS:B

513 A crack in a cylinder liner can be caused by……………

A worn piston rings

B installation of undersized sealing rings

C operating the engine at low loads

D restricted cooling water passages

ANS:C

514 A cracked cylinder head on a diesel engine may be indicated by…………………

A excessive lube oil consumption

B water draning from the fuel leak off valves

C combustion gases venting at the expansion tank

D excessive fuel oil consumption

ANS:C

515 The direct of a crankcase explotion can be attributed to………………..

A extremely hot scavenge air

B excessive cooling water temperature

C an overheated bearing

D excessive lube oil in the crankcase

516 crankcase explosions in propulsion diesel engines result from………………..

A the spclearanceing of lubrication oil by crank shaft

B the dilution of crankcase oil with particles of combustion

C broken fuel lines spaying oil on the crankcase

D the ignition of unburned fuel and air in the crankcase

ANS:D

517 Combustion knock occuring in the diesel engine can be caused

by……………………………

A low coolant temperature

B insufficient fuel

C high ambient temperature

D carbon buildup on the injector tips

ANS:A
518 Persistant knocking of one cylinder of a diesel engine ceases when the fuel
supply to that cylinder is secured. The problem may be a result
of…………………………..

A low loaded of the cylinder

B faulty combustion in that cylinder

C sluggish piston ring action

D excessive piston cooling

519 Which of the conditions listed may occur in an operating diesel engine if air
pocket forms within the cylinder head circulating water passages?

Hydraulic stresses and distortion will develop

Hot sports will increased

Fuel oil viscosity will increase

An increase in trapped deposits of scale and dirt

ANS:B

520 If a diesel engines exhaust temperature is abnormally high,the cause could

be……………………….

A. Too high of load

 B. Injection timing is too early
C. Overloading of the engine
D. Too low of a compression

ANS:C

he

521 Heat damage to fuel injection nozzle can be prevented by

avoiding………………

A. Excessive fuel oil temperature

B. Long periods of engine overload
C. Metallic contact between nozzle and cylinder heads
D. Hard carbon deposits and varnish on the nozzles

ANS:B

522 A main propulsion diesel engine is shutdown by………………………

A. Shutting off the air supply

B. Overspeeding the engine
C. Securing the fuel supply
D. Securing the ignition system

ANS:D

523 Excessive diesel engine back pressure may be an indication of…………………

A. Carbon buildup in the exhaust manifold

B. Overcooling of the exhaust manifold
C. Eroded muffler baffle plates
D. High injection pressure

ANS:A
524 White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can result from………………

A. High exhaust temperature

B. High lube oil temperature
C. Low turbocharger speed
D. Low cooling water temperature

ANS:D

525 What is the best way of stopping an over speeding diesel engine

A. Disconnect the battery cables from the starting motor

B. Drain the hydraulic fluid from the governor sump
C. Block the flow of cooling air to the radiator
D. Secure the fuel supply and block the air intake

ANS:D

526 By comparing the exhaust gas output of each cylinder of a diesel

engine,one method of determining if the engine lode is balanced is by the use
of……………………..

A. Tachometer
B. Calorimeter
C. Pedometer
D. Pyrometer

ANS:D
527 One cylinder of a diesel engine is persistently knocking and does not cease
when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. Which of the following
problems may be the cause?

A. Low loading of the cylinder

B. Excessive cooling of the piston
C. Sluggish ring action on the piston
D. A mechanical defect in working

ANS:D

528. A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapour is noted in the exhaust,this
could indicate………………..

A. Excessive cylinder lubrication

B. A lugging engine
C. A leaking cylinder liner
D. Overloading of one cylinder

ANS:C

529. A smoking exhaust from an operating diesel engine could be caused

by………………………….

A. A low sulphur content in the fuel

B. A loose injector inlet the connection
C. Late fuel injection
D. High injection pressure
ANS: C

530. Oil accumulating in the exhaust piping piping or manifold of a diesel can be
caused by…………………

A. Collapsed hydraulic valve filters

B. Worn valve guides
C. Excessive crankcase vacuum
D. Excessive lube oil pressure

ANS:E

531. Diesel engine operating conditions are indicated by the color of the exhaust
smoke.Blue smoke can indicate……………………..

A. Low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature

B. An overloaded engine
C. Clogged drain holes in the oil control rings
D. Excessive lube oil pressure

ANS:E

532. If diesel engine is smoking excessievely under load , the cause oxide be

A. low exhaust back pressure

B. fuel injection in one of the cylinders

C. con pressure in one of the cylinders

D. plugged injector holes

533. Sticking of diesel engine piston compression rings may be caused by ?

A. High compression pressure

B. Excessive ring action
C. Excessive cylinder lubrication
D. Improper ring rotation
Ans:C

534. Which of the following conditions can cause excessive lube oil consumption
in a diesel engine ?

A. Low lube oil temperature

B. Dirty lube oil strainer
C. Low lube oil pressure
D. High lube oil temperature

Ans: D

535. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine can result in?

A. Fuel knock
B. Increased power
C. Low compression pressure
 D. High exhaust temperature
Ans: D

536. Which of the following condition is likely to develop if the thermo couple
element of a pyrometer becomes coated with excessive amounts of combustion
by-products?

A.Indicated exhaust pressure reading will increase

B.Pyrometer responses will be retarded

C.Indicated cylinder temperatures readings will increase

D.Indicated firing pressure readings will increase.

Ans : B

537. When the opening pressure of a diesel engine fuel injector is greater than
that specified by the engine manufacturer , which of the following problems can
be expected?

A.quantity of fuel injected tends to be decreased

B.quantity of fuel injected will always be increased
C. start of injection tends to be advanced
D. duration of injection will always be greater
Ans:A
538. Late fuel injection occurring at , or after TDC in a diesel engine is indicated
by excessive exhaust smoke and ________________

A.low exhaust temperature

B.low firing temperature

C.fuel knock in each cylinder

D.mechanical knock in each cylinder

Ans:B

539. In a diesel engine , late fuel injection is indicated by black or gray exhaust
smoke with ?

A.low firing pressure

B .low exhaust temperature
C. mechanical knocks in each cylinder
Ans:A

540. If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine,you should stop the

engine and

A.immediately open all crankcase relif ports

B.allow the engine to cool naturally

C.increace crankcase exhauster speed to draw cool air into engine

D.increace crankcase scavenge air to remove unburned gases

Ans :B

541. A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too late in the
cycle , because they ?
A. Fuel droplets will burn as they leave the fuel injector
B. Fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder
C. Maximum expansion of the burned fuel cannot take place in the cylinder
D. Compression pressure will be too low to cause fuel ignition
Ans:C

542. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur when unburned
fuel contaminates the crankcase of a diesel engine?

A.Lube oil is diluted and its viscosity is reduced

B.sulphuric acid is formed

C.Bearings become pitted and immediately fail

D.valve stems develop sludge deposits

Ans:A

543. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by black or grey exhaust
smoke with a___________

A.low firing pressure

B.low exhaust temperature
C.mechanical knocks in each cylinder
D.fuel knocks in each cylinder
 Ans C

544. The ignition quality of diesel fuel becomes less critical as

A.the amount of lube oil additives increace

B.piston speeds increace

C.injection pressures decreace

D.engine speed decreace

Ans:D

546. If fuel injection nozzle overheats , which of the problems listed can be
expected?

A.The fuel metering may vary

B.The fuel will explode

C.The cylinder head will crack

D.The engine will stop

Ans:A

547. An increase in the fuel injection pump discharge pressure can be caused by
a/an_______

A. leaking delivery valve

B. Increase in engine load
C. plugged injector spray hole
D. .increase plunger stroke
Ans :C
548. If fuel injection in a diesel engine earlier than the design start of
injection,ignition may be delayed because the ?

A.fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough

B.cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough

C.cylinder compression temperature may too high

D.scavenge and purge process is incomplete

Ans: B

549. Prior to starting the purpose of turning over a main propulsion diesel
engine with the cylinder test cocks open,is to-----------------------

A. Test the starting system

B. Remove condensation from the cylinders
C. Check the compression
D. Check for proper lube oil pressure

ANS:B

550. A fuel injection valve opening at a pressure lower than normal will result
in?

A.late fuel injection

B.early fuel injection

C.high exhaust temperature from that cylinder

D.decreased effective stroke from that injector

Ans :B
551. Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be directly
caused by---------------

A water in the fuel oil supply

B excess fuel nozzle holder cooling

C a distorted fuel spray pattern

D leakage past the plunger into the oil

ANS:A

544. The ignition quality of diesel fuel becomes less critical as

A.the amount of lube oil additives increace

B.piston speeds increace

C.injection pressures decreace

D.engine speed decreace

Ans:D

546. If fuel injection nozzle overheats , which of the problems listed can be
expected?

A.The fuel metering may vary

B.The fuel will explode

C.The cylinder head will crack

D.The engine will stop

Ans:A

548. If fuel injection in a diesel engine earlier than the design start of
injection,ignition may be delayed because the ?

A.fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough

B.cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough

C.cylinder compression temperature may too high

D.scavenge and purge process is incomplete

Ans: B

550. A fuel injection valve opening at a pressure lower than normal will result
in?

A.late fuel injection

B.early fuel injection

C.high exhausts temperature from that cylinder

D.decreased effective stroke from that injector

Ans: B

551. Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be directly
caused by………….

A. Water in the fuel oil supply

B. Excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling
C. A distorted fuel spray pattern
D. Leakage past the plunger into the oil

Ans : A
552. Water in the fuel can prevent the engine from starting, prevent it from
developing full power, or………………

A. Run at an irregular speed

B. Create high lube oil temperature
C. Cause the engine to over speed
D. Cause blue smoke in the exhaust

Ans : A

553. Air in the fuel lines of a diesel engine can cause………..

A. Ignition failure
B. Oxygen corrosion of the fuel lines
C. The pistons to seize
D. Blue smoke

Ans : A

554. Before starting a diesel engine you should always…………………

A. Check the pyrometer readings

B. Check the crank case oil level
C. Change the fuel oil strainers
D. Clean the air filters

Ans : B

555. Dirt in the fuel oil system of the diesel engine can cause………..

A. Damage to strainers
B. Over speeding of the engine
C. Excessive cooling of the engine
D. Injector damage

Ans :D
556. If cooling water flow through the after cooler is interrupted, the power
output of the turbo charged diesel engine will drop because the……………

A. Turbo charger will stall

B. Density of the air charge will decrease
C. Scavenge effect will decrease
D. Exhaust pressure will increase

Ans : B

557. Operating a propulsion diesel engine at less than 30% of the designed
normal load for prolonged periods will result in……………

A. Decreased fuel consumption per brake horsepower

B. More complete cylinder scavenging
C. Extended valve life
D. Carbon formation on combustion chamber surfaces

Ans: D

558. Diesel engine fuel oil contamination often results in……….

A. Governor malfunctions
B. Fuel injection system malfunctions
C. High cylinder lube oil temperatures low intake temperatures
D. Low intake temperature

Ans: B

559. Operating a diesel engine under light loads and low temperatures for an
extended period can result in ……………..

A. Formation of carbon on the intake and exhaust ports

B. High water jacket temperatures
C. Overheated pistons and cylinders
D. An increase in lube oil viscosity due to fuel dilution

Ans: A
560. Which of the conditions listed occurring in diesel engine would cause
carbon deposits to develop in piston ring belt?

A. Faulty combustion
B. Excessive ring temperatures
C. Over lubrication
D. All of the above

Ans: D

561. If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine which of the listed actions
should be taken……….

A. Open the crankcase immediately to check for damage

B. Apply fire fighting water through the crankcase bretier
C. Allow the engine to cool before opening the crankcase
D. Assume that there is no damage to the crankshaft

Ans : C

562. The burning of fuel oil having high sodium content will cause………….

A. Corrosion and governing of exhaust gas

B. Corrosion and gumming of the fuel injection pump
C. Salt deposits in exhaust manifold
D. Slag deposit in fuel injection manifold

Ans: A

563. Longer the ignition delay period resulting the improper use of low cetane
fuel, the………

A. Less fuel will enter the cylinder

B. higher the cylinder combustion temperature
C. More complete the fuel combustion
D. More rapid the rise in combustion pressure

Ans: D
564. If the relief valve on a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could due
to…………

A. Liquid in the cylinder

B. Low compression in the cylinder
C. High exhaust temperature
D. Poor fuel penetration

Ans : A

565. A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication

of……………..

A. Excessive lube oil pressure

B. Proper seating of new rings
C. A worn cylinder liner
D. A malfunctioning cylinder relief valve

Ans: C

566. An indication of an over loaded main propulsion diesel engine is………………

A. White smoke in the exhaust

B. High exhaust gas pyrometer readings
C. Sparks in the exhaust
D. Blue smoke in the exhaust

Ans: B

567. A dry type exhaust silencer clogged with soot , will cause ………………

A. Low exhaust temperature

B. Loss of engine power
C. Burned intake valves
D. Engine racing

Ans: B

568. A dark exhaust from a running diesel engine is ……………….

 A. Late ignition
B. Water in the fuel
C. High compression temperature
D. Stating valve stuck open

Ans: A

569. Partially obstructed exhaust ports on the diesel engine can cause…………..

A. Overheating of the engine

B. High exhaust temperature
C. Sluggish engine operation
D. All of the above

Ans :D

570. The color of the exhaust from a diesel engine should be ………………..

A. Clear
B. Hazy light brown
C. Hazy light blue
D. Hazy light blue hazy light grey

Ans :A

571. Engine operating conditions may be indicated by the color of the exhaust
smoke. Black smoke could indicate……………

A. An insufficient speed droop setting

B. An overloaded engine
C. Clogged drain holes in the control rings
D. Complete combustion

Ans :B

572. A restricted air intake to a diesel engine may result in the engine ………..

A. Falling to reach rated speed

B. Knocking under maximum load
 C. Hunting or surging under light load
D. Over speeding and running away

Ans : A

573. The color of the exhaust from a diesel propelled ship should be…………….

A. Clear
B. Hazy light brown
C. Hazy light blue
D. Hazy light grey

Ans: A

574. With regards to a diesel engine crankcase explosion, the most violent is
the……………… 1.primary explosion 2.secondary explosion

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans :B

575. You are operating a main propulsion diesel engine at a constant load when
the jacket water temperature begins to rise. This could be caused by……..

A. A piston about to seize

B. Dirty fuel oil filters
C. Fuel oil being too heavy
D. High water in the expansion tank

Ans :A

576. Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water
outlet from each cylinder. if the cooling water temperature from all cylinders
begins to rise above normal , you should suspect …………

A. Increased blow by all cylinders

 B. In complete combustion in all cylinders
C. Overloading in all cylinders
D. In sufficient fuel delivery to all cylinders

Ans: C

577. Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling water
outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature from an individual
cylinder begins to rise.you should suspect……………

A. Overloading of adjacent cylinders

B. Overloading of that cylinders
C. Increased low by in that cylinder
D. In complete combustion in that cylinder

Ans :B

578. A diesel engine using lube oil with too high a viscosity will exhibit ………..

A. Increased starting difficulty in cold water

B. Increased oil consumption
C. Thickening at higher operating temperature
D. Minimal friction losses

Ans :A

579. One of the operating a diesel engine at light load with excessive low cooling
water temperature is an

A. Decrease in ignition lag

B. Increase in fuel economy
C. Reduction in lube oil viscosity
D. Increase in cylinder misfiring

Ans :D

580. Which of the following conditions will tend to increase the ignition delay
period of combustion in a compression ignition temperature?
 A. Using the fuel oil with higher cetane number
B. Decreasing the air charge temperature
C. Reducing the injected fuel oil droplet size
D. Increasing the combustion ratio

Ans: B

581. In a diesel engine, excessive cylinder liner wear will cause ……. I increased
blow by II wear between the piston ring and groove

A. I only is correct
B. II only is correct
C. Both I and II are correct
D. Neither I and II are correct

Ans :C

582. A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine would most
greatly effect………….

A. Fuel turbulence
B. Fuel penetration
C. Fuel spray angle
D. Fuel injection rate

Ans : D

583. The longer the ignition delay period occurs in a diesel engine the…………

A. Less fuel enter the cylinder

B. Lower will be the cylinder compression temperature
C. More complete with fuel combustion
D. More rapid will be the rise in combustion pressure

Ans : D

584. Diesel engine exhaust temperature may be used indicate …………..

A. Breaking exhaust valves

 B. Overloaded cylinder
C. Clogged injector nozzle
D. All of the above

585. Maintaining the proper fuel oil temperature will result in………….

A. The elimination of valve wear

B. Improved atomization
C. A decrease in cylinder blow by
D. An increase in blow by

Ans :B

586. Combustion knock can occur in cylinders of a diesel engine under any
condition permitting……..

A. Shortenened ignition delay period

B. A lean fuel/an mixture
C. Excess fuel in the combustion chamber
D. Rapid vaporization of injected fuel droplets

Ans: C

589. Coolant can be lost from a diesel engine jacket cooling water system by
leakages from …………

A. Cylinder head cracks

B. Piping joints
C. Pump seas leaking
D. All of the above

590. when oil vapor, oxygen and hot present at the same line within a crankcase,
which of the following hazards could develop?

A. Explosion
B. Implosion
C. Misfire
D. Dieseling
Ans : A

591. A possible cause for an individual piston to knock when at TDC on a slow
speed two stroke cycle main propulsion diesel engine could due to………….

A. Early fuel injection

B. Excessive bearing play within the running gear
C. Overloading of the cylinder
D. All of the above

592. An automated diesel engine should normally shut down due to………………..

A. Low lube oil temperature

B. High ambient air temperature
C. Low lube oil pressure
D. High exhaust system back pressure

Ans : C

593. Routine monitoring of a diesel engine should include………………

A. Checking foe leaks

B. Checking temperature and pressures
C. Listening for abnormal noises
D. All of the above

Ans : D

594.One remedy for a high firing pressure, in addition to a high exhaust

temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engines, is to

A. increase scavenge air pressure

B. reduce fuel booster pump pressure

C. adjust the fuel rack

D. retard fuel injector timing

ANS: C

595. If a diesel engine is difficult to start and operates with the engine
temperatures lower than normal, you should suspect that the

A. compression pressures are below normal

B. lube oil is diluted with fuel oil

C. cranking speed is too low

D. exhaust system is partially restricted

ANS: A

596. A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause

A. High firing pressure

B. Corrosion the nozzle tip

C. Low fuel pressure

D. Loss of power

ANS: D

597. White smoke issuing from the exhaust of an auxiliary diesel engine could
mean

A. The engine is overloaded

B. The engine is cold

C. There is too much lube oil in the cylinders

D. The turbocharger is fouled

ANS: B
598. White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by

A. Low combustion temperature

B. A leaking fuel nozzle check valve

C. Late fuel injection

D. Plugged oil scraper ring holes

ANS: A

599. Bluish smoke in the exhaust of an operating diesel engine can be caused by

A. An overheated engine

B. A scored cylinder liner

C. Water leaking into a cylinder

D. Low combustion temperature

ANS: B

600. One of the factors limiting the amount of load which can beput on a modern
marine diesel engine is the

A. Governor sensitivity

B. Exhaust temperature

C. Fuel injection pressure

D. Speed of the cam shaft

ANS: B

601. White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by a

A. High combustion temperature

B. High compression pressure

C. Cracked cylinder liner

D. Fuel with a high vanadium content

ANS: C

602. If a diesel engine runs roughly, which of the systems listed is most likely to be
at fault

A. Fuel

B. Lubricating

C. Cooling

D. Ignition

ANS: A

603. One cause of diesel engine surging can be a result of

A. Injection pump plungers stuck or worm

B. Low compression

C. Solenoid stuck open

D. Fuel tank too full

ANS: A

604. Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out prior to
starting a

Crosshead type diesel engine after an overhaul

A. Pre lube cylinders with hand cranks

B. Open all air space drain cocks

C. Open all indicator valves

D. All of the above

ANS: D

605. Plugged spray holes in a diesel engine fuel injector will cause excessive
smoking at idling speed, in addition to

A. Damage to pistons or cylinder heads

B. Detonation throughout the load range

C. Pre ignition throughout the load range

D. Excessive smoking when the engine is under load

ANS: D

606. Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing pressure with

A. Low exhaust temperature

B. Low exhaust pressure

C. Mechanical knock in each cylinder

D. Black or gray exhaust smoke

ANS: D

607. Distortion of the spray pattern of a nozzle or injector may be indicated by

a/an

A. High firing pressure

B. Overload of that particular cylinder

C. Smoky exhaust

D. Cooling water temperature rise

ANS: C

608. An incorrect spray pattern produced by a diesel engine fuel injection nozzle
can be directly caused by

A. Overheating of the nozzle

B. Over cooling of the nozzle

C. Carbon blockage of the spray holes

D. Excessive lube oil temperatures

ANS: B

609. High cylinder firing pressure, accompanied by low exhaust temperature, can
result from

A. Improper fuel rack positioning

B. Lengthy exhaust valve duration

C. Extended operation at light load

D. Excessively early injection timing

ANS: D

610. A leaking diesel engine fuel injector will cause

A. Prolonged maintenance intervals

B. Improved atomization

C. Greater fuel economy

D. Incomplete combustion

ANS: D

611. Diesel engine piston seizure can be caused by

A. Poor cooling of cylinder walls

B. Improper cooling of the piston

C. Insufficient piston lubrication

D. All of the above

ANS: D

612. When fuel is injected too early in the injection cycle, it may cause the engine
to have

A. High fuel economy

B. Smoky exhaust

C. Early detonation and a loss of power

D. High exhaust temperatures

ANS: C

613. A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too early because the

A. Fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder

B. Ignition will be delayed due to low ignition temperature

C. Maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke

D. Fuel will ignite before top dead centre

ANS: B

614. When fuel is injected in a diesel engine cylinder too early,

A. Ignition may be delayed

B. Fuel economy is not affected

C. Exhaust gas temperature will be unchanged

D. The exhaust will be clear

ANS: A

615. Which of the following should always be checked prior to starting a diesel
engine

A. Air filters

B. Fuel oil strainers

C. Crank case oil level

D. Pyrometer readings

ANS: C

616. When high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures occur
simultaneously in a diesel engine, this may be a result of

A. Decreased piston-to-cylinder head clearance

B. Increased exhaust back pressure

C. Early timing of fuel injection

D. Low scavenge air temperature

ANS: C

617. If the pressures in a diesel engine are high, although the exhaust
temperatures are normal, the cause may be

A. Early injection timing

B. Worn orifices in the injection nozzles

C. Worn or scored cylinder liners

D. Using a fuel with too low of a cetane number

ANS: B
618. Which of the following statements represents the reason for rolling over a
diesel engine with the cylinder indicator cocks open prior to starting

A. To test the starting system

B. To remove air bubbles from the jacket water

C. To ensure that the lube oil system delivers pressure

D. To ensure foreign material(water, etc) is not present in the cylinders

ANS: D

619. In order to start a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine on high
viscosity fuel after an extended shutdown, the

A. Fuel must be preheated

B. Intake air should be preheated

C. none of the above

D. lube oil outlet temperature should be increased 20, above normal

ANS: A

620. After starting a diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions should
be checked FIRST

A. Air box pressure

B. Lube oil pressure

C. Exhaust temperatures

D. Raw water pressure

ANS: B

621. What harmful condition can result if a diesel engine is operated at very light
loads for long periods of time
A. Increased carbon buildup

B. Burning of intake valves

C. Excessive firing pressures

D. Increased fuel consumption

ANS: A

622. A diesel engine should not be operated at low loads for long periods of time
because

A. Heavy carbon deposits will buildup on the valves and in the exhaust

B. Fuel dilution is increased at low load

C. Exhaust valves may be damaged

D. All of the above

ANS: D

623. The possibility of a diesel engine crankcase explosion will be increased by

operating an engine

A. Equipped with crankcase exhaust blower which vents to fresh air

B. With a leaking crankcase inspection cover gasket

C. With a crankcase vacuum between 38mm and 50mm of water

D. Equipped with a turbocharger which utilizes a gear drive

ANS: B

624. The main propulsion diesel continues running after you try to shut down.
You should now attempt to

A. Stop the air supply

B. Engage the jacking gear

C. Secure the lube oil pump

D. Shut off the fuel at the day tank

ANS: A

625. Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by

A. Carbon deposits in the combustion space

B. Carbon deposits on the piston crown

C. Leaking cylinder liner seal rings

D. Carbon deposits on the piston

ANS: D

626. If the diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due to severe
overheating, the crankcase

A. Inspection covers should not be opened until the engine has cooled

B. Ventilation system should be continued in operation for one hour for cooling

C. Scavenge pump should be immediately secured to prevent loss of lube oil

D. Explosion covers should be opened slightly to provide extra ventilation

ANS: A

627. Which of the following conditions indicates the dilution of diesel engine lube
oil by fuel oil

A. Water discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier

B. Fuel oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier

C. Lube oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier

D. A change in the lube oil viscosity

ANS: D

628. Following an overhaul of a crosshead type diesel engine, is jacked over with
the turning gear as part of the pre-start procedure. Which of the listed pre-start
procedures should be carried out

A. Ensure proper cylinder lube oil flow

B. Open all air space drain cocks

C. Open all indicator valves

D. All of the above

ANS: D

629. A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is operating at rated load
and speed while the vessel is in calm seas. As the intensity of the seas increase,
the engine speed governor maintains the same RPM, although the load indicator
indicates an in

A. Increase the load limit setting

B. Decrease the load limit setting

C. Increase engine RPM

D. Ignore this situation as the engine can handle the load increase ANS:

ANS: B

630. A drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine can be

caused by

A. A leaking fuel injection nozzle

B. A clogged air filter

C. early fuel injection

D. Burned valves
ANS: D

631. Which of the conditions listed could cause the cylinder relief valves on a
large, low-speed, propulsion diesel engine to lift

A. Plugged injector nozzles

B. Excessive fuel injection

C. Very late injection timing

D. Incorrect crankshaft clearances

ANS: B

632. An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates

A. worn connecting rod bearings

B. worn engine cylinder liners

C.

D.

ANS:

633. An increase in diesel engine crankcase pressure generally indicates excessive

A. compression pressure

B. lube oil heater pressure

C.

D.

ANS:
 C. high cylinder firing pressure

D. stuck spring loaded manhole covers

Ans. B

634.if a diesel engine were running at 20% overload with a smoky exhaust, you
should _____________

A .stop the engine immediately to prevent damage

B .increase lube oil pressure

C .slow the engine allowing it to gradually cool

D . decrease the cooling water temperature to the water jacket

Ans. C

635.the starting air rotates the diesel engine at the proper speed ,but the engine fails
to start . you should check _____________

A . the over speed strip

B . for an obstructed air filter

C . for air bound fuel lines

D . all of the above

Ans . D

636 . if a diesel engine turned over at normal cranking speed but failed to start ,the
cause could be late fuel injection or______________

A . excessive fuel pressure

B . high lube oil viscosity

C . inadequate fuel injection

D . excessive starting air pressure

Ans . C
637 . An increase in power output of a turbocharged diesel engine operating at a
constant engine speed result in ______________

A. higher exhaust temperature

B. . increased turbocharger speed
C. higher air box pressure
D. all of the above are correct

Ans.D

638 . An accumulation of carbon on one of its thermocouple of an exhaust gas

pyrometer will_______________

A . . read low for that location due to the insulation effect of the deposit

B . read high for that location due to the hot spots formed by the deposits

C .fluctuate due to the conductance of carbon

D .respond quickly to temperature changes

Ans . A

639 . which of the listed set of conditions indicates early fuel injection timing?

A . lower than normal corapression pressure and high exhaust temperature

B . Higher than normal firing pressure and low exhaust temperature

C .high fuel consumption and high exhaust temperature

D .loss of engine power high exhaust temperature

Ans. B

640.Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine indicates________________

A .proper fuel injection

B . water in the fuel

C .incomplete combustion
D . burning of the lube oil

Ans . C

641 . Clogged or partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can cause
___________

A .over speeding of the engine

B . failure of the engine to shut down

C .no effect on engine performance

D . high exhaust temperatures

Ans. D

642 . Combustion knock will most likely occur as a result of using a fuel
with__________

A . low ignition quality

B . a high volatility

C . low ignition delay

D . a high cetane number

Ans. A

643 . Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine may be caused

by____________

A . excessive scavenging air pressure

B . high coolant temperature

C .insufficient fuel

D . a clogged air cleaner

Ans. D
644 . if a two stroke/cycle diesel engine is over speeding due to leakage of lube oil
into the cylinders, what should you do to stop the engine ?

A . move the fuel control mechanism to the no fuel position

B . block the fuel supply by closing the master fuel valve

C . shut off the fuel supply and block the flow of intake air

D . relieve all the pressure in the fuel system

Ans. C

645 . two stroke/cycle diesel engine operates erratically ,over speeds and fails to
restart when cranked at normal speed. Which of the following problems is the
most likely cause for the engine failing to restart?

A. improper governor operation due to excess oil pressure

B. damage to the governor due to excessive speed
C. failure to reset the over speed trip
D. failure to reposition the fuel rack

Ans. C

646 . when running a large ,low speed main propulsion diesel engine on heavy
fuel, which of the following precautions should be observed when switching back
over to diesel oil?

A. The diesel oil must never be allowed to mix with the heavy fuel
B. The temperature of the fuel from the pre heater should be gradually reduced
after switching over the three way valve
C. The heating steam to the pre heater should be secured as soon as the diesel
fuel passes through the three way valve.
D. The heating steam must be secured before the diesel oil passes through the
three way valve

Ans. B
647. if it becomes necessary to cut out an individual cylinder of a large ,low speed
,main propulsion diesel engine .the fuel to that cylinder should be secured and
its________________

A. fuel pump should be removed and all connection blanked off

B. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased slightly above that used at normal sea
speed

C. cylinder oil feed rate should be reduced

D. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased to the maximum flow capable of the
metering pump.

Ans . C

648. late fuel injection timing is indicated by ____________

A. lower than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature

B. lower than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature

c. higher than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature

D. higher than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature

Ans. B

MOTOR MAINTENANCE

649 . Bearing wear on a split sleev type bearing is measured with a

A. Ball anvil micrometer

B. Pair of outside calipers and a dial indicator
C. Pair of inside calipers
 D. Depth micrometer

Ans. A

650.wear occurring at the tips of the reduction gear teeth is usually the result of
_____________

A. surface fatigue

B. fretting corrosion

C. heavy overloading

D. gear misalignment

Ans . D

651.while inspecting the main bearing on a diesel engine you find impregnated dirt
and scratches in the bearing surface you would therefore ,suspect that _____

A. the bearing had been overheated

B. water was present in the oil

C. the lube oil was not being properly filtered

D. the maximum allowable bearing pressure had been exceeded

Ans. C

652. when a nozzle tester is being used to test a closed type fuel injection nozzle,a
clogged nozzle orifice will be indicated by a _______________

A. distorted spray pattern

B. chattering sound when the nozzle closes

C . squealing sound midway in the pump stroke

D . .popping sound when nozzle opens

Ans. A
653. the spray holes in diesel engine fuel valves should be cleaned using carbon
solvent and ______________-

A. diesel fuel

B. a special

C.a copper wire brush

D . a shaved wooden dowel

Ans. B

654.when disassembling or assembling an injection pump plunger and barrel you

should__________

A. keep the parts immersed in the diesel fuel

B. .always keep the plunger and barrel together

C. work over a linoleum type surface

D. all the above

Ans. D

655.visual inspection of a fuel injector valve, removed during overhaul ,shows heat
discoloration of the lower end of the valve this is indicative of _________

A. Valve leakage
B. Insufficient valve lift
C. Cnoking of nozzle holes
D. Return check valve leakage

Ans. A

656. visual inspection of the chrome plated piston compression rings at the linear
ports reveals vertical brown streak on the face of the rings .this condition
indicates____________

A. A broken ring
B. Normal condition
 C. Ring blow-by
D. A leaky fuel injector

Ans. C

657.uneven bolt lightening during the installation of a fuel injection pump can
result in__________

A. Binding of pump moving parts

B. Ignition delay
C. High torsional shock to fuel lines
D. Improper pump to engine timing

Ans.A

658.in a diesel engine a cylinder liner should be replaced if it is ____________I

scuffed II. Scored

A. I only is correct
B. II only is correct
C. Both I and II are correct
D. Neither I or II are correct

Ans. B

659. in the plunger or barrel of fuel injection jerk pump becomes

damaged,________

A. The entire pump must be damaged

B. the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced
C. either the barrel or plunger must be replaced
D. the plunger and barrel must be lapped and blued

Ans. A

660.which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring grooving
tool?

A. Steel brush
B. Fine emery cloth or steel wool
 C. A section of the removed compressing ring
D. A case hardened scraper

Ans. C

661.cracking of a diesel piston crown can result from __________

A. Excessive piston to linear clearance

B. All of the above
C. Faulty nozzle spray
D. The underside of the piston crown being excessively dirty lowering the rate
of heat transfer

Ans. D

662. it is easier to replace a dry cylinder liner than a wet one because __________

A. Of the thin wall thickness

B. Honing makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film
C. Water seals are not required
D. It fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the composite
wall

Ans. C

663. to facilitate early ring seating of newly installed piston rings while still
providing extended ring wear___________

A. Inlaid rings can be utilized in which the chrome centre of the ring face
slightly protrudes beyond the cast iron edges
B. The cylinder surface is honed to the smoothest surface attainable
C. A taper faced ring can be used
D. Rings with increased back clearance are provided

Ans. C

664. insufficient end clearance on newly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine will
cause the ring to___ _________

A. Jam in the least worn part of the cylinder when the rings expands
 B. Break in the most worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand
C. wear essentially on the side opposite the end gap
D. overheat and jam at the top centre on the combustion stroke

Ans. A

665. heavy fuel oils generally have an upper average ash content of 0.1%by
weight.which of the following condition would be expected if the ash content
increases above the amount?

A. Glazing of the cylinder liners

B. Increased valve wear
C. Excessive valve pumping
D. Increased fuel consumption

Ans.B

666.the face surface appearance of a shallow groove ,stainless steel chrome plated
compression ring should exhibit through its operating life a_________

A. Smooth shallow groove chrome surface

B. Smooth surface of stainless steel
C. Smooth surface displaying area of stainless steel and chrome
D. Surface of gradually deepening grooves

Ans. A

667. to determine the main bearing clearance of a propulsion diesel engine. You
should measure the main bearing shell using a ball anvil outside micrometer and
measure the crankshaft journal using a/an _____________

A. telescoping gauge

B. ring “snap” gauge

C. inside vernier caliper

D. outside micrometer

Ans d
668. visual inspection of chrome-plated piston compression rings reveals a black
ring face at the position of the cylinder liner ports. This condition indicates a ring
which______________

A. Has a crown face

B. Exceeds wear limits through normal wear
C. Has excessive blow by
D. Is in good condition

Ans c

669. The consistent burning of fuel oil with a high sulphur content in a diesel
engine will result in------a) clogged fuel injection pumps

b) increased cylinder liner wear

C) intake valve stem corrosion

D) vanish deposit on piston.

Ans b

670.burning fuel with a high sulphur content in diesel engine ------------

A)increased thermal efficiency

B)cause clogging of the fuel system

C)increase the ability of the engine to start in cold weather

D) produce corrosion in the cylinder and exhaust system at low

Ans d

671. Which of the following statement concering cylinder liner wear is true-------
----

A)linear wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder

B)excessive liner wear is causes wear between piston rings and groove.
C)excessive but uniform linear wear will not cause wear between piston rings and
groove.

D)linear wear is distributed equally between the upper and lower portions of the
cylinder

Ans b

672. Generally where should you find the greatest and wear on the cylinder ladder?

A)adjacent to the piston head when the tank is on tdc.

B)along the lower part of the inner wall opposite the oil control.

C)opposite the top ring shortly after piston travel has ended the compression
stroke.

D)opposite the oil control ring when the crank is on the bottom dead center.

Ans c

673. Worn main bearings will cause the compression ratio of an auxillary diesel
engine are an indication of

A) increase

B)decrease

C)remain the same

D)increase on compression,decrease on expansion

Ans b)

674.the insertion of of shims between the foot of a marine type connectingrod and
main bearing bolts,is to use

A)increased compression ratio

B )decreased compression ratio

C)increased bearing clearance

D)decreased bearing clearance

Ans a

675. Diesel engine crankshaft deflection readings are generally taken at four crank
position.good engineering practice requiresthe deflection gauge or the indicator to
be

A)placed as near the crankpin axis as possible

B)removed each time the crankshaft is repositioned

C)left in place for all four readings

D)reset to wero for all four readings

Ans c

676.an acceptable method of measuring for the correct rotational applied to the
connecting rod and main bearing bolts,is to use

A)torque wrench

B)monkey wrench

C)pipe wrench

D)slugging wrench

Ans a

677.small cracks in the crankshaft bearing surface of a diesel engine are an

indication of

A)corrosion fretting

B)insufficient lubrication

C)abnormal water

D)fatigue failure

Ans d
678. If water is found in the crankcase of a diesel engine,the cause is due to

A)a cracked cylinder head

B)a leaky cylinder head gasket

C)a cracket cylinder liner

D)

Ans d

679. Diesel engine piston ring blow by usually caused by excessive ring clearance
at the ring

A)back

B)side

C)gap

D)bottom

Ans c

680.diesel engine “blow-by” into the crankcase is caused by excess ring

A)back clearance

B)side clearance

C)gap clearance

D)taper clearance

Ans c

681.wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel engine due to
the

A)side trust

B)skirt making the greatest amount of contact

C)highest pressures being emmited

D)tremendous acceleration rate

Ans c)

682.which of the following operations will have a direct impact on rate of wear in
a cylinder liner

A)amount of scavenge air to the cylinder

B)quality of fuel injected

C)viscosity of the lube oil

D)compression ratio of the piston

Ans b

683.failure to remove the carbon ridge from the top of the cylinder when
replaceing the piston ring will result in

A)damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands

B)scored piston walls

C)damaged cylinder liners

D)deformed piston skirts

Ans a

684.scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine crank from

A)starting the cylinder while hot

B)knurling the piston skirt

C)operating the engine overheated

D)scuff resistant piston rings

Ans c
685.water accumulation in the cylinder of a secured engine is an indication that the

A)fresh water pump was not secured along with the engine

B)jacket water thermostat has failed

C)cylinder liner may be cracked

D)sea water pump is overspreading just prior to the engine shutdown

Ans c

686.the formation of carbon monoxide in diesel exhaust gases is reduced by

A)spraying water into the exhaust pipe

B)keeping the exhaust system free of carbon deposits

C)maintaining proper combustion and scavenge

D)avoiding light load operation

Ans c)

687)the amount of wear on a split precision main bearing can be accurately

determined by comparing the data from?previous reading to the present readings
taken with a

A)dial indicating outside caliper

B)telescoping gauge

C)ball anvil outside micrometer

D)screw thread outside micrometer

Ans c

688) on a diesel engine equipped with individual jerk type fuel pump adjustments
should be made to the tappets(push rods) of the

A) equalize effective delivery strokes

B) regulate combustion pressures

C)regulate exhaust temperatures

D)change from light to heavy fuel

Ans a

689) the amount of wear on the split fixed sleeve type, main diesel bearing can be
accurately determined with a

A) dial indicating outside caliper

B)spider gauge

C)ball anvil out side micrometer

D)screw thread outside micrometer

Ans c

690)friction, engine wear and oil consumption in diesel engine are directly related
to the

A)acidity of oil

B)pour point of the oil

C)clearance point of the oil

D)viscosity of the oil

Ans d

691) improper cooling of diesel engine cylinder liner due to the accumulation of
scale deposits ,may causes

A)low compression pressure

B)increase the piston wear

C)increase the cylinder lube oil consumption

D)poor contact between compression rings and liner

Ans b
692) the nuts of bearing , connecting rods bolts and all other moving parts are
secured by

A)hardened steel nut locks

B)cotter pins made of spring steels

C)split pins or other effective means

D)hydraulic nuts as commonly found in large low speed engines

Ans c

693) the easiest way to locate a defective diesel engine exhaust value by

A)taking compression reading

B)inspecting valves visually

C)comparing exhaust pyrometer readings

D)listening to engine

Ans c

694)engine coolant accumulating in diesel engine lu use a sutiable bricating oil can
result from a

A)low oil pressure

B)high coolant pressure

C)leaking fuel injector

D)cracked cylinder head or liner

Ans d

695) if it’s necessary to clean the spray holes in the diesel engine fuel injector, you
should use a suitable size piano wire and

A)gasoline

B)carbon solvent
C)degreasing component

D)strong detergent

Ans b

696) while over hauling a jerck type fuel pump is necessary to replace the pump
plunger.which of the part liseted below must also be replaced

A)delivery check valve

B)pump barrel

C)tubing to injector

D)cam follower

Ans b

697)an acceptable meaning of tightening connecting rod and mainbearing cap bolts
is to measure the -----------------i)torque applied to each nut and blot assembly
ii)stretch of each nut before and after tightening

A)i only

B)ii only

C)both i and ii

D)nethier i nor ii

Ans a

698) in diesel engine when refitting piston rings you should -----------i)check the
ring gap at the smallest diameter of the cylinder ii)remove the carbon from groove

A)i only

B)ii only

C)both i and ii

D)nethier i nor ii
Ans c

699)problems in fuel injector of diesel engine are uaually caused by

A)improper adjustment

B)contaminated fuel

C)kinked fuel lines

D)excessive engine vibration

700)dirt lodged on the nozzle valve seat of a fuel injection nozzile will cause

A)erosion and cratering of the nozzile orifices

B)fuel leakage into the nozzile drain line

C)fuel leakage before and after injection

D)insufficient fuel delivery through that nozzle

Ans c

701)when a diesel engine is operated with a piston ring having a cold gap
clearance less than that recommended by manufacturer the ring will

A)seized and buckle

B)seat in more slowly

C)slap in grooves

D)strick in groove

Ans a

702) due to excessive water in the fuel a diesel engine fails to start. Before the
engine can be started ,the water must be removed from the

A)fuel pumps

B)cylinders
C)fuel strainer

D)all the above

703) failure to remove the carbon ridge at the top of the cylinder when removing
piston may result in

A)damage the upper piston ring or ring lands

B)scored piston walles

C)damaged cylinder liners

D)deformed piston skits

Ans a

704) if the piston ring gap remains insufficient when installing new rings you
should

A)install over size rings

B)hone the cylinder liners to allow rings installation

C)compress the rings tighter with a compressed rod

D)files the ends of the rings

Ans d

705)when inspecting piston rings through the ports of a two stroke/cycle diesel
engine,black areas on the sealing surface are the results of

A)insufficient lubrications

B)improper piston cooling

C)blow by

D)over loaded

Ans c
706)an examination of piston compression rings of an efficiently operating diesel
engine should apper with a

A)shiny face and bottom,black back and top

B)shiny face , black top, back and bottom

C)shiny face ,bottom ,back &top

D)black face , bottom ,back and top

Ans a

707) excessive side clearance between a piston ring and groove will cause the ring
to

A)expand excessively under operating temperatutes

B)scff the cylinder liner excessively

C)hammer the piston land above the ring

D)hammer the piston land below the ring

Ans d

708) incertain cases a cylinder liner can be refinished rather than replaled. When
properly honed the

A)cylinder should be cleaned with kerosene

B)cylinder liner should have a glazed appearance

C)liner surface should have a crosshatch pattern

D)counter bore is slick and smooth

Ans c

709 One method of determining crankshaft misalignment is by

 A laying a straight edge across the crank webs at the crankpin and
measuring the distance to the crankpin and measuring the distance to the
crankpin two places.

B measuring the crank drop on either of each crank throw while the
crankshaft is slowly rotated through one revolution.

C rotating the crankshaft through one revolution ,pausing each 900of

rotation to measure bearing clearances ,top and bottom.

D taking micrometer readings between the crank webs opposite the

crankpin every 900 of crank angle rotation

Ans D

710 Which of the following statements correcting cylinder liner single acting
disel engine is correct?

A Uniformly excessive liner wear will not cause wear on the rings and
grooves.

B Liner wear is distributed equally between upper and lower point the
cylinder.

C Excessive liner wear between piston rings and

D Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of yhe cylinder.

Ans C

711 Ona large low-speed main propulsion diesel engine, lower main bearing
wear is usually measured by using a /an

A dial indicator

B outside caliper

C bridge gauge

D tram rod
 Ans : C

712. The rate of wear on a cylinder liner depends on the

A quality of air filtration

B effectiveness of lubrication

C type of fuel used

D all the above

Ans : D

713 Abnormal crankpin bearing and piston skirt surface wear indicate

A a restricted air intake

B a clogged connecting rod oil passage

C incorrect connecting rod alignment

D high cylinder firing temperatures

Ans : C

714 To determine the main bearing clearances in a dieselengine

Should use

A a depth micrometer

B an anvil faced micrometer

C plasti-gauage

D. a vernier caliper

Ans : C

715 The ring lands on a large ,low speed ,main propulsion diesel engine
piston may due to
 A. Insufficient cylinder liner wear
B. Contaminated lubricating oil
C. Incorrect connecting rod alignment
D. High cylinder firing temperature
Ans : C
716 Incomplete combustion in a running diesel engine can cause rings to
become stuck as a result of
A. Residual carbon deposits
B. Lube oil visicocity breakdown
C. Uneven Heat expansion of the rings
D. Uneven heat expansion of the piston

717 If the compression rings on a diesel engine piston become stuck in the
rings groove the causes may be due to
A. Excessive ring action
B. Excessive ring temperature
C. Improper the ring rotation
D. Excessive ring face wear
Ans : B
718 A conduction contributing to disel engine piston rings sticking ring
grooves is insufficient ring clearance at the ring
A. Gap
B. Side
C. Back
D. Radial
Ans : B
719 Low temperature in a disel engine could be caused b y
A. Worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings
B. High cooling water temperature
C. Worn or broken piston ring
D. Low fuel oils pressure
Ans : C
720 low compression pressure in a diesel engine is caused by
 A. Low water in the expansion tank.
B. Improperly seated valves.
C. Low fuel oil pressure
D. Worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings
Ans : B
721 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by
A. Improperly seating intake valves
B. Leaking cylinder liner seal rings
C. Late fuel injection timing
D. Carbon deposits on the piston
Ans : A
722 Which of the listed problems can be a caused of low compression
pressure in a diesel engine?
A. Clogged air filter
B. Leaky valve cage
C. Burned exhaust valves
D. All the above
Ans : D
723 Low compression in a diesel engine may be the result of
A. Insufficient fuel supply due to fuel pumps valves sticking or leaking
B. Excessive mechanical clearance between the piston crown and cylinder
head
C. Excessively worn fuel pump plunger
D. Excessive exhaust back pressure

Ans : B

724 When a nozzle tester is used to check the spray pattern of a

injection nozzle ,

A. The nozzle should operate within plus or minus 500 pounds of specified
opening pressure
B. The nozzle should not make any noise when pressure is applied.
C. The valve should pop ½ the actual set pressure
 D. The oil spray could cause blood poisoning if the spray penetrating skin of
the operator

Ans : D
725 When a piston is removed from a diesel engine for maintenance,
the piston should be examined for
A. scoring
B. cracks and burned spots
C. gummy deposits and sticking rings
D. all the above

Ans : D
726 To reduce load during jacking operations , which of the listed should be
opened ?

A. fuel line
B. Expansion tank
C. Cylinder test valves
D. Sea valves

Ans : C

727 After removing an old set of rings , which of the following

conditions is indicated if a bright spot is found on each end of a broken
piston ring?
A. Improper lubrication
B. execessive diametrical tension
C. in sufficient ring pressure
D. insufficient gap clearance

Ans : D
728 After an engine has been started using a Bendix drive unit ,the gear or
pinion disengages from the flywheel due to
A. the action of a spring
B. rotation of the starting cam
C. the higher rotating speed of the flywheel
Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter.
Ans : C

729 Bearing “crush”as applied to diesel engine main bearings will result in
A. positive sealing of the bearings in their housings
B. above normal operating temperatures
C. damage to the journals
D. damage to the bearings

Ans : A

730 Crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication of

A. worn main bearings journals

B. torsional stress deformation
C. Stack thrust bearings
D. Bearings shells shim dimensions

Ans : A

731 When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two stroke/cycle
diesel engine is being removed , you should take care to avoid carbon
A. Entering the cylinder
B. Particles becoming lodged under the intake valves
C. Entering the water jacket
D. Particles entering lube oil

Ans : B
732 The replacement piping for diesel engine high pressure fuel systems must
be the same length and diameter as the original piping to

A. Avoid unnecessary parts inventory

B. Keep torsional stress deformation
C. Use existing supports and braces
D. Lube oil system

Ans : D

733 A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal

A. Firing pressure
B. Exhaust temperature from a particular cylinder
C. Cooling water temperature
D. Compression pressure

Ans : B

734 In a diesel engine , a leaking exhaust valve can cause

A. Misfiring
B. Preigintion
C. Interrupted scavenging
D. Reduced scavenging

Ans : A

735 The most severe cavitation erosion occurring on the waterside of diesel
engine wet cylinder liners normally
occurs

A. Throughout the lower one-half of the liner

B. Throughout the upper one-half of the liner
C. At TDC opposite the thrust side of the liner
 D. Near the middle of the thrust side of the liner

Ans : D

736 Exhaust valve grooving and corrosion is caused by certain components of

residual fuel oil. These components are sodium ,sulphur ,and

A. Vanadium
B. Carbon
C. Copper
D. Ash

Ans :A

737 Which of the listed cylinder liner surface conditions indicates

proper lubrication ?

A. Dull black appearance

B. Bright appearance
C. Thin layer of lacquer
D. Thick oil flim

738 A well –lubricated bearing surface always appears

A. Well knurled
B. Slightly streaked
C. Lightly glazed
D. Highly polished

739. To minimize the formation of carbon deposits on fuel injection

nozzles,you should A. avoid using liquid-cooled nozzles
whenever possible

B. avoid low cooling water temperatures

 C. avoid prolonged overloading of the engine

D. make certain the gasket seal between the nozzle cylinder head is tight

Ans : C

740. The principal hazard to personnel when a diesel nozzle tester in use is

A. Electrical shock

B. Toxic fumes

C.Explosion

D.Blood poisoning

Ans : D

741. You are inspecting the lower main precision bearings on a diesel
engine.You observe that about half the thin Babbitt linings are of a milky
white colour. The condition is caused by

A. Large dirt particles in the oil supply

B. Insufficient lubricating oil and overheating
C. Normal water
D. Water contamination of the lube oil
Ans : D
742. You are testing a non-popping closed fuel injection nozzle using
nozzle tester.A pressure slightly less than design valve opening pressure
is applied. If no fuel appears at the spray tip,the
A. nozzle orifices are too small
B. nozzle orifices are eroded
C. needle valve is defective
D. needle valve is seating properly

Ans : D
743. Because of the close tolerances used in diesel engine fuel oil pumps ,a
worn plunge requires

A. Grinding the spare plunger to the barrel

B. Replacing the plunger and the barrel
C. Highly polishing both the plunger and barrel
D. Replacing plunger only

Ans : B

744. Which of the fuel nozzles listed requires the LEAST maintenance?

A. pintle

B.Single hole

C.Multi-hole

D.open

Ans : D

745. When inspecting pistons ,liners ,and rings of a large two-

stroke/cycle diesel engine through the cylinder ports ,a wet piston crown
would indicate a

A. Faulty piston lubricator

B. Leaky fuel injector
C. Broken compression ring
D. Faulty oil ring

Ans : B
746. Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring
grooving tool used to remove hard carbon deposits for piston rings
grooves in preparation for installing new rings?
A. Steel brush
B. Fine emery cloth or steel removed
C. A section of the removed compression ring
D.A case hardened scraper
747. If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes
damaged .
A. only the replacement of the entire pump would be acceptable
B. the injection pump and injection nozzle must replaced

748. Surface irregularties, such as erosion and pitting on injection pump

plungers , will

A. Increase iginition delay

B. Affect fuel oil meeting
C.

C. either the barrel or plunger must be replaced C. affect engine

performance at low speed only

D. the barrel or plunger must be replaced as a unit D. disappear due to fuel oil
abrasion

Ans: D Ans: B

749. The side clearance of the compression rings on diesel engine pistons is
necessary to ______

A . permit gas pressure behind and on top of the rings

B. prevent carbon accumulation behind the rings

C. allow for lube oil drainage behind the rings

D. prevent combustion gases burning the ring grooves

Ans: A

750. If lost motion is present in an individual fuel injection pump the following
problems will occur?

A. Fuel injection will be released

B. Fuel injection will remain unchanged

C. Fuel injection will occur earlier

D. Fuel injection will occur later

Ans: D

751. In a large, low speed main propulsion diesel engine, if the injectors have
formed carbon aroun the nozzle holes, which of the following would help avoid
further buildup?

A. Increase fuel injection pressure.

B. Increase fuel preheat temperature

C. Decrease load limit on the governor

D. Increase injector cooling water temperature

Ans: D

752. A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticker ring grooves is
insufficient ring clearance at the ring ______ I. gap II. side

A. I only

B. II only
C. both I and II

D. neither I nor II

Ans. B

753. In a diesel engine, when installing new piston rings it is important to check
______ I. ring gap clearance

A. I only

B. II only

C. both I and II

D. neither I nor II

Ans. C

754. the purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine external valve is to

_______ I. work in conjuction with valve rotate the valve II. Break up seats
deposits

A. I only

B. II only

C. both I and II

D. neither I nor II

Ans: B

755. When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two stroke/cycle diesel
engine is being removed, you should take care to avoid carbon particles _______

A. entering the lube oil

B. entering the cylinder

C. entering the water jacket

D. become lodged under the intake valves

Ans: B

756. You are installing new piston rings on a single acting diesel piston. To check
the ring gap clearance, the rings should be at the______

A. point of minimum cylinder wear

B. center of the cylinder

C. point of maximum cylinder wear

D. point of maximum ring wear

Ans: A

757. A defective injector nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause_____

A. engine power losses

B. smoking due to unburned fuel

C. high exhaust temperature readings

D. all of the above

Ans. D

758. Which of the following problems is the main source of fuel power injection
system malfunctions?

A. Air in the fuel system

B. Improper adjustments

C. coated fuel lines

D. Excessive vibration

Ans: B
759. When turning a new cylinder head stud on the lathe, the minimum effective
thread length of the stud is determined primarily by the ______

A. Stud length

B. stud diameter

C. head nut diameter

D. stud material

Ans. B

760. If you determine that entrained air in the fuel oil system is diesel engine to
stall, you should first check for_____

A. fuel leakage in the injector pump’s discharge lines

B. worn gaskets in the transfer pump discharge lines

C. partially clogged fuel oil discharge strainers

D. loose fittings in the booster fuel pump suction piping

Ans: D

761. In a large low-speed diesel engine excessive piston clearance can be restored
by_____

A. decreasing the thickness of the cylinder head gasket

B. inserting shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting rod foot

C. replacing the complete bearing set

D.rotating the crankpin bearing until the proper end clearance is obtained

Ans:B

762.Which of the following procedures should be carried out to proper use of a

crosshead engine with an inoperable aftercooler?
A. Bypass the aftercooler to operate at sea speed

B. Run a t reduced speed until the cooler can be repaired or renamed

C. switch to diesel fuel and run at reduced speed

D. Nothing needs to be done due to the low heating value of heat

Ans: B

763. A faulty injector in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine can be located
by_____

A. cutting out individual injectors and notice engine performance

B. checking lube oil temperature

C. checking cam position

D. using a timing light

Ans: A

764. Which of the following conditions would cause carbon deposit form in the
piston ring belt of a diesel engine?

A. Faulty combustion

B. Excessive ring temperature

C. Over lubrication

D. All of the above

Ans. D

765. A change in the quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel injector
would be caused by a/an______

A. increase in engine speed

B. increse in cylinder turbulence

C. leaking needle valve

D. reduction in cylinder turbulence

Ans: C

766. When installing rings on a diesel engine piston, you should ring _______

A. diametrical tension

B. gap clearance

C. radial thickness

D. face thickness

Ans: B

767. A change in the degree of fuel atomization by a diesel engine greatly affects
the ______

A. air turbulence

B. fuel penetration

C. fuel spray tip angle

D. fuel injection rate

Ans. B

768. Which of the following problems may occur if the clearance be a piston and
cylinder liner is insufficient?

A. Excessive wear

B. Scuffing of the liner

C. Piston seizure

D. All of the above

Ans. D

Page 40

769. Black areas on the sealing surfaces of piston ring indicate ______

A. Lube oil pumping

B. rotating rings

C. gas pressure behind the ring

D. passage of hot gases

Ans: D

770. A bright shiny appearance of the sealing surfaces on diesel engine

compression ring indicates_____

A. combustion gas blow-by

B. excessive lubrication

C. properly functioing rings

D. insufficient cylinder cooling

Ans: C

771. The best tool to use for removing the carbon ridge at the top of an engine
cylinder, prior to removing the piston, is to use______

A. an electric grinder

B. a metal scraper

C. a reamer

D. a three wing hone

Ans: B
772. Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring the clearences between
the main engine bearings and the crankshaft?

A. Plasti-gauge

B. Depth gauge

C. copper shims

D. Wooden gaging pegs

Ans: A

773. Which of the following conditions can result in the cracking of the piston
lands?

A. high lubricating oil temperature

B. Dirty lubricating oil

C. Minimal cylinder liner wire

D. Insufficient ring groove clearance

Ans: d

774. Which of the following problem may occur when using fuel oil with a high
sulphur content?

A. injection lag

B. Lube oil dilution

C. Preignition

D. Corrosion

Ans. D

775. If the back clearance of a piston ring is excessive_______

A. compression pressure in the cylinder will be higher

B. carbon will be accumulate behind the ring

C. combustion gases will penetrate beneath the ring land

D. piston side thrust will be increased

Ans. B

776. Which of the following conditions could contribute to the crackingof a diesel
engine cylinder head?

A. Leaking seal ring

B. Insufficient heat transfer from the exhaust valves

C. Blocked cooling water passages to the head

D. Excessive scavenging air provided to the engine

Ans. C

777. A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will

A. prevent piston ring wear

B. shorten the ring break in period

C. prevent cylinder line gazing

D. appear slick and glazed

Ans. B

778. A scored diesel engine cylinder liner will cause_____

A. high firing pressure

B. abnormally high cooling water temperature

C. rapid wearing of piston rings

D. combustion gases in the cooling water

Ans. C

779. Which of the following operating conditions can occur when shims are
removed from the joint between the foot of marine type diesel engine connecting
rod and the bearing box?

A. Decreased connecting rod bearing clearance

B. Increased connecting rod bearing clearance

C. Decreased compression ratio

D. Increased compression ratio

Ans. C

780. After a long of operation a wear ridge, caused by piston ring action will
develop near the top of the cylinder liner. This ridge must be removed when
piston rings are renewed in order to prevent_____

A. excessive wear during the seating period

B. excessiv elubricatiomof the top ring

C. improper spreading of lubrication on the cylinder wall

D. breaking of the top ring , ring land, or both

Ans. D

781. Crank lead can be adjusted to change which of the listed operating
conditions?

A. Longer combustion events

B. Exhaust events starting before scavenging events

C. exaust events lasting longer than scavenging events

D. Higher combustion temperatures

Ans. A

782. When a hydraulic valve lifter is on the base circle of the cam, “zero” tappet
clearance is maintained by the ______

A. valve spring

B. plunger spring

C. oil pressure

D. rocker arm

Ans. B

783. In a diesel engine , blow-by is generally the result worn_____

A. valve guides

B. oil control rings

C. valve seats

D. compression rings

Ans. D

784. Which of the listed conditions can cause lacquer to be deposited on a piston
skirt?

A. High sulphur content fuel

B. High lube oil temperatures

C. High vanadium content fuel

D. Excessive piston slap

Ans. B

785. Scuffed cylinder liner wering surfaces in a diesel engine can result from_____
A. chromium plating piston rings

B. knurling the piston skirts

C. extended maximum power operation

D. applying load to a cold diesel engine

Ans. D

786. If a diesel engine driving a generator turns over freely but fails to fire
properly, the cause could be_____

A. excessive compression pressure

B. air in the fuel lines

C. high fuel pressure

D. excessiv eload

Ans. B

787. When diesel engine compression pressure is checked, the indicator is

connected to the_____

A. cylinder exhaust ports

B. injection line

C. cylinder indicator cork

D. banjo oiler line

Ans. C

788. In a diesel engine exhaust system, the cooling of the exhaust gases below
their dew point, will result in _____

A. increased engine back pressure

B. sulphuric acid corrosion

C. surface pitting of the turbocharger compressor blades

D. moisture impingement on the turbocharger compressor blades

Ans. B

Page 41

789 which of the following statements is true regarding the installation of piston
rings on two-stroke/cycle, diesel engines as compared to four stroke/cycle, diesel
engines ?

A in a two stroke cycle engine, the rings run hotter, requiring the end gap to be
greater.

B some provision most be made in a two stroke /cycle engine to keep the rings
from binding in the ports.

C no gap is required to exist between the ends of the ring when cold in a two –
stroke/cycle engine ,but a small gap is required in a four stroke/cycle engine.

D the end gaps should be staggered on either side of a piston in a two stroke
cycle engine , while staggering is not necessary in a four – stroke/cycle engine.

ANS B

790 In a large , low –speed diesel engine the clearance between the crown and
cylinder head is found to be excessive , in order to for this ,,you should --------------
----------

A build up the piston crown by metal spraying

B build up the cylinder head by metal sprying

C insert shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting rod foot

D install a thinner head gasket

ANS c

791 Bouncing of the valve gear in a diesel engine can be caused by ---------------
---------

A prolonged high speed operation

B spring surge

C warn valve seats

D excessively tightened spring retainers

ANS B

MOTOR-STARTING AND REVERSING SYSTEM

792 WHERE engine bores exceed 230mm a bursting disc or flame arrester is
to be fitted---------------------------------

A At the supply inlet to the control air manifold for non-reversing engines

B On the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbochargers

C On all devices subject to the by-product of combustion or lubrication system

vapors .

D In way of the starting valve of each cylinder for direct reversing engines
having a main starting manifold.

ANS D

793 What may be used to protect starting air mains against explo.. arising
from improperly functioning staring valve ?

A The starting air main shall be protected by the use of a rupt

B No protection is necessary because all staring air valve are designed similar to
check valves
C An isolation non return valve is to be installed at the staring supply
connection to each engine.

D The materials used in the construction of the starting air main contain any
explosion.

ANS C

794. The total air capacity for non reversible main engine is to be sufficient
for_____

A. six consecutives starts

B. eight consecutives starts

C. ten consecutives starts

D. twelve consecutives stars

Ans-A

795. Starting a large propulsion diesel engine using diesel fuel during weather
condition can made easier by____

A. increase the quality of stating air

B. increasing the tube oil pressure

C. heating the engine fuel suply

D. heating the engine jacket water

Ans-D

796. A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed, but fails to fire. This can
occure from___

A. low tube oil tempreture

B. low starting air tempreture

C. air in the fuel injection system

D. water in the starting air system

Ans-C

797. Which of following method is used to prevent throtting of compressed air

through the diesel engine air starting valves
A. Holding the valves open for a long period

B. Increasing the starting air pressure used

C. opening the starting air valves quickly

D. Reducing the starting air valves size

Ans-C

798. In starting process of diesel engine, the main object is to attain the
compression the condition sufficient to _____

A. turn the flywheel

B. reduce friction

C. overcome inertia

D. ignite the fuel

Ans-D

799. Fluid type starting moter used for starting auxiliary diesel engine may
either be of the piston type or the___

A. gear type

B. vane type

C. impeller type

D. accumulator type
Ans-B

800. A six cylinder, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is fitted with a ratary

distributor type air starting system. The speed of the rotating distributer disc is
____

A. one-half engine speed

B. the same as engine speed

C. twice engine speed

D. four times engine speed

Ans-A

801. In addition to a main engine driven starting air compressor, and air
compressor driven by a separate power spurce, is installe____

A. provide air for engine scavenging

B. provide air for engine supercharging

C. supply a backup source of starting air

D. supply the independent source of reversing air

Ans-C

802. The reversing mechanism on a direct reversing large low speed main
propulsion diesel engine, operated by means of oil pressure can serve to_____

A. bring the respective cam under the fuel pump roller

B. rotate or displace the camshaft according to engine design

C. bring the respective cam under the air distributor pilot valves

D. all of the above

Ans-D
803. When the quick acting valve to admit starting air to an air start is activated,
the valve should be opened rapidly to____

A. prevent damage to the air line lubricator

B. ensure proper operation of the bendix pinion

C. prevent damage to valve seat

D. increase the air charge density to the moter

Ans-B

804. Which the listed diesel engine starting system is most susceptible to
difficulties in cold weather

A.Direct cylinder admission air start

B. Hydraulic

C. Electric

D.Air moter starting

Ans-C

805. Before any diesel engine hydraulic starting system is opened for servicing
or repair. you must____

A.placed all control levers in the"HOLD" position

B. ensure that the hydraulic fluids reservoir is fuel

C. block all hydraulic hoses using high pressure covers

D. bleed off all hydraulic pressure from the system

Ans-D

PAGE:-42
806.The minimum speed an engine must attain before ignition can occure
depends upon___

A. the type and size of the engine

B. the condition of engine

C. ambient tempreture

D. all of the above

Ans-D

807. A diesel engine fails to start even though it can be barred over out, but not
cranked over. The probable cause is__

A. a seized piston

B. an improperly fitted bearing

C. a closed or obstructed air starting line valve

D.insufficient compression

Ans-C

808. If an auxiliary diesel engine equipped with an electric starting system

cranks very slow after repeated attempts to start, the cause could be a/an____

A. low tube oil viscosity

B. low compression pressure

C. ring gear with broken teeth

D. overheated moter winding

Ans-B

809. During extremely cold weather, while starting an engine, it turns too slowly
and fails to start.This problem is most likely the result of______
A. high fuel oil viscosity

B. low fuel oil tempreture

C. high tube oil viscosity

D. energized glow plugs

Ans-C

810. Improper seating of an air starting check valve in an operating diesel

engine is indicated by __________

A. noise coming from the air starting valve

B. an overhead air supply pipe to the cylinder head

C. continuous operation of the starting air compressor

D. zero air pressure in air starting system

Ans-B

811. Vessel having main engines arranged for air starting are to be provided
with at least____

A. one automatic drain serving both containers

B. two air starting containers of approximetely equal size

C. one control air container and one starting air container

D. one addition means of standing the main engine

Ans-B

812.If control air system supplied from starting air receivers, the capacity of the
receiver should be sufficient ________
A. to provide the intermittent starting procedure
B. for continued operation of these systems after capacity for the required no.
of consecutive starts has been used

C.to provide a nonrevesible engine a minimum of twelve consecutives starts

D. to enable six consecutive starts of a reversible engine

Ans-B

813. Cold weather starting of a diesel engine is more difficult than warm
weather starting due to____

A. use of low viscosity oilin cold weather

B. higher compressor pressure reached due to small clearances existing in the

engine during cold weather

C. increased drag of piston and bearing due to increased oil viscosity

D. increased moisture content of inlet air in cold weather

Ans-C

814. Starting aids such as glow plugs, are installed on___

A. large, direct drive diesel engine

B. diesel engine designed to burned residual fuels

C. medium-speed, foru-strok/cycle diesel engines

D. small diesel engines utilizing electric starting equipment

Ans-D

815. A diesel engine may fail to start due to_____

A. low air charge temperature

B. high cranking speed

C. excessive fuel dilution of tube oil

D. high compression pressure

Ans-A

816. An eight cylinder, air started, two-stroke/cycle direct reversing, marine

diesel engine can be started from any crankshaft position only if it has______

A. at least three cylinders equipped with air start valves

B. a minimum of five cylinders equipped with air started valves

C. each upper cylinder head equipped with reversible ait valves

Ans-A

817. On diesel engine, using a distributor type air starting system that is not
running. Which iof the following methods may be used detect leaking air
starting valves-

A. open the cylinder test cocks and check for blowing air

B. Check the position of the air start valve cams

C. stop the air compressor and check pressure drop throughout the system

D. feel each air supply line to see which is warm from leaking air

Ans-A

818. If a diesel engine start firing, but is unable to come up to normal speed,
either without load or even under a small load, the cause may be_____

A. insufficient fuel supply

B. faulty governor

C. high exhaust back pressure

D. all of the above may cause this problem

Ans-D
819. After changing out the fuel filters the diesel engine fails to start. The most
probable cause for this condition is a/an-

A.low compression

B. air-bound fuel system

C. improper spark

D. change in viscosity

Ans-B

820. While underway,which of the following would be the FIRST step in

reversing a direct reversing large, loiw speed , propulsion, diesel engine-

A. Manually trip the overspeed device

B. Interrupt the fuel flow to the engine

C. Disengage the safety interlock

D. Slide the camshaft to the neutral position

Ans-B

821. A ship is propelled by a direct reversing large, slow-speed , diesel

engine.One step in reversing the direction of propeller rotation for this vessel is
by_______

A. properly inflating the air operated clutch

B. reversing the reduction gear

C. changing the gear ratio

D. reversing the servomoter

Ans-D
822. When starting a diesel engine at temperature below 20'c, the friction
resistance to turning will be________

A. reduced by increasing tube oil pressure

B. controlled by reducing the compression ratio

C. proportion to the tube oil viscosity

D. eliminated by heating the intake air

Ans-C

823. The starting air supply for a diesel engine is generally produced by a/an-

A. exhaust powered turbocharger

B. Roots-type blower air pump

C. centrifugal air compressor

D. multistage reciprocating air compressor

Ans-D

824. Air motors used for standing some auxilliary diesel engines are generally
the type known as a/an-

A. vane motor

B. plunger motor

C. gear motor

D. accumulator motors

Ans A
825. Intercooler installed on standing air compressor, reduce the possibility of
______

A. dust entering the high pressure stage

B. tube oil carbonization

C. discharge pulsation

D. interstage vapour lock

Ans B

Page 43

826. Starting air valves are held firmly on their seats by___________

A. camrollers on the camshaft

B. Spring force

C. air pressure on the top of the valve differential piston

D. air pressure on the bottom of the valve differential piston

Ans. B

827. Stating systems for large, low-speed, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel
engines are usually____________

A. hydraulic starting motor

B. electric starting motor

C. direct air admission

D. vane type air motors

Ans. C
828. Diesel engines air start system check valves are opened by
_____________________

A. an air start cam

B. cylinder compression pressure

C. starting air pressure

D. valve springs.

Ans. C

829. In a hydraulic starting system, oil to the starting motor flows from the
__________________

A. accumulator

B. reservoir

C. hand pump

D. electric pump

Ans. A

830. When an air started, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is being cranked, the
starting air is admitted to each cylinder during what would normally be
the_________________________

A. intake stroke

B. compression stroke

C. power stroke

D. exhaust stroke
Ans. C

831. If a four –stroke/diesel engine is started by injecting air into the cylinders the
pistons receiving the charge of starting air must be______________

A. On the power stroke

B. on the exhaust stroke

C. on the at the end of the power stroke

D. at the start of intake stoke

Ans:a

832. An auxiliary diesel engine may fail to start due to

A. low exhaust back pressure

B. high lube oil temperature

C. insufficient cranking speed

D. excessive fuel atomization

Ans:c

833. If a diesel engine rotates slowly when cranked, but does not fire, the

A. fuel control rack had admitted excessive fuel

B. engine speed does not match the fuel rack setting

C. engine has failed to reach its firing speed

D. starter pinion and ring gear contact is not corrected

Ans:c

834. Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for starting air
receives

A. frequent draining of accumulated moistures

B. frequent testing of relief valves

C. a close watch on temperature to prevent fiuctuations in pressure

D. frequent cleaning to remove oil and foreign matter

Ans;a

835. Which of the following problems occur if you continuously fail to drain off
condensate from a starting air

A. corrosion and eventual failure of the tank

B. gumming of the tank relief valves

C. immediate failure of components downstream of the compressed air system

D. boiling of the water oil moistures as pressure is redused

Ans;a

836. When attempting to start a main propulsion diesel engine, the engine turns at
the proper speed but will not start. You
should check the__________.

A. starting air pressure

B. scavenge air pressure

C. over speed trip

D. banjo oiler line

Ans : C

837 A four- stroke/cycle, 1000 horsepower diesel engine fails to start at normal
cranking speed with normal fuel pressure and ambient temperature. The reason for
the failure could be ________

A. glazed liners or pistons

B. high lube oil pressure

C. excessive compression ratio

D. worn valve seats and valves

Ans : D

838 which of the listed items should be secured before performing any
maintenance on a solenoid operated air start valve?

A. starting air pressure

B. scavenge air pressure

C. overspeed trip

D. banjo oiler fine

Ans : A

839 When starting air is admitted a diesel engine turns over very slowly without
firing . The cause may be_____________

A. an obstruction in an engine cylinder

B. water accumulation in some engine cylinders

C. excessive compression ratio

Ans : C

840 A pilot-operated main air starting valve begins leaking in one cylinder while
the engine is operating. This malfunction is indicated by__________--

A. Electric power

B. Lube oil standby pump

C. hydraulic switch

D. Motor drain

Ans : D
841)HYDRALIC STARTERS are installed on many lifeboat diesel engine instead
of comparable air start system because___________

A)hydraulic starters are the least expensive of all starting system

B) system does not require high pressure

C) hydraulic system turns diesel engines at higher rates of speed than air starter

D) the system can be manually recharged

Ans : D

842) if a diesel engine fails to start,one of the likely causes is

A low compression temperature

B low ambient air pressure

C high lube oil pump pressure

D high fuel oil booster pump pressure.

ANS A

843) A diesel engine may fail to start when being cranked,due to

A high cetane number

B insufficient compression

C low lube oil viscosity

D high lube oil pressure

ANS B

844) if a hydraulic starting motor turns,but the diesel engine does not,the most
likely cause is

A excessive viscosity in the hydraulic fluid

B a malfunctioning overrunning clutch

C loss of accumulator precharge

D air in the hydraulic system

ANS B

845) A bendix drive starting motor disengages the drive gear from the flywheel by

A spring force

B rotating of the starting cam

C the high rotating speed of the flywheel

D applying accumulator pressure

Ans;c

846. A diesel engine startinc, motor is operated under a no-load condition.

Counting to operate the motor unloaded will____________.

A. disengage the throw out bearing

B. over speed and cause serious damage

C. fail to develop normal speed

D. cause the pinion to fail

Ans:B

847. If the diesel engine stater-driver mechanism fails to disengage after the engine
starts, which of the following situation will occur?

A. The engine will stall

B. The starter motor will have reverse current

C. The engine fly wheel will be burred

D. The starter motor will over speed

Ans:D
848. During maneuvering operations for a direct reversing large, low-speed, main
propulsion diesel engine, which of the following actions is used to stop the shaft
from turning prior to reversing the engine rotation?

A. Fly wheel inertia

B. Admission of starting air

C. The way of the vessel

D. securing of ruel to the cylinders

Ans:B

849. The pilot valves in an air pilot starting system for a two-stroke/cycle direct-
reversing, main propulsion diesel engine are operated by either a ported distributor
disc or a/an ___________.A. regulersing, main propulsion diesel engine are
operated by either a ported distributor disc or a/an

A. regular valve

B. quick opening main air valve

C. pilot air start check valve

D. individual cam for each pilot valve

Ans:D

850. A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine requires less starting air than a four
stroke/cycle diesel engine, of equal displacement, because the two-stroke/cycle
diesel engine____________.

A. has little or inertia friction

B. has a lower effective compression ratio

C. operates with scavenge air under a positive pressure

D. operates without energy absorbing intake and exhaust strokes

Ans:D
851. Which of the listed types of starting systems is often used on large low-speed,
direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines?

A. Piston

B. Gear

C. Turbine

D. Centrifugal

Ans: C

852.The timing of diesel engine air starting valves is controlled by __________.

A. the air start valve timing gears and rods

B. a cylinder check valve

C. individual cams and valve gear

D. an air manifold poppet valve

Ans: C

853) WHICH OF THE types of motors listed is used in a hydraulic starter?

A) piston

B) gear

C) turbine

D) all of the above

Ans: A

854. An accumulator used in a hydraulic starting system is generally located

between the ____________.

A. pump and he composer

B. storage tank and the pump

C. starting motor and the reverse tank

D. pump and the starting motor

Ans: D

855. The device used to store a changed pressure for an hydraulic starting system is
called the ________.

A. reservoir

B. handpump

C. accelerator

D. accumulator

Ans:D

856. The pinion of an electric starting motor used with a diesel engine engages the
fly wheel ring gear by a/an-___________.

A. automatic follow-up

B. muff coupling and release

C. friction-type clutch

D. bendrix driver or similar mechanism

Ans:D

857.auxilliary diseal engine electric starting motors use_________

A. alternating current

B. 400 cycle per second motor-generators

C.low amp high voltage AC

D.direct current

Ans:D
858)IN a starting motor equipped with a bendix drive the pinion moves and meshes
with the flywheel ring gear due to________

A) the mechanical linkage

B) the threaded sleeves rotation
C) centrifugal force
D) electromotive force
ans:b

859)a largetwo-stroke/cycle direct reversing diesel engine is to be reversed prior to

the admission of starting air you must__________

A) line up the engine for restarting with light diesel oil

B) reposition the fuel injection cam

C) change the intake and exchaust valve cam positions

D) place the starting cam in the intermediate position

Ans:b

860) in a medium speed marine propulsion engine equipped with direct air starting
valves the cylinders without air starting valves the fire first because
the_______________

A) operation is under higher compression

B) fuel is admitted only to these cylinders during cranking

C) compression is released during starting by opening the exhaust valve

D) cylinders are not chilled by the expansion of the starting air

Ans:D

861) two air compressors are provided for the starting air system and should be
capable of___________

A) charging the starting air containers within one hour

B) providing the minimum quantity of starting air at all times

C) supplying all the air necessary to start both the main engine and an auxiliary at
the same time

D) topping of all receivers the required design pressures

ANS:A

862.if cranking a diesel engine is too slow while attempting to start,it will result
in__________

A. insufficient heat of compression

B. fouling of air intakes

C. improper injection timing

D. high exhaust temperatureto the

Ans A

863. in an operating diesel engine , which of the following conditiong is an

indication of a leaking air starting value?

A.noise coming from that air starting valve.

B. contineous operation of the starting air compressor.

C.zero air pressure in the air starting system.

D. overheated starting air pipe to the cylinder head.

Ans.D

864.Each receiver in the starting air system which can be isolated from a relief
valve__________

A.is to be provided with sutiable fusible plug to relieve the prsesure in case of fire

B.will incorporate the use of an automatic unloading device

C.will not be approved for classification purposes

D.and satisfy classification regulations shall be approved

Ans A

865. Air receivers installed in starting air system are to be________

A.cylinder in shape with service connections located at the top and bottom

B.opened and made available for inspection during biannual inspections

C.provided with automatic drain traps for the removal of moisture

D.so installed as to make the drain connections effective under extreme

conditions of trim

Ans D

866 a diesel engine may be hard to start if the __________

A.air intake is restricted

B.engine is cranked too fast

C.vibration dampener is faulty

D.exhaust back pressure is low

Ans A

PAGE-45

867 The total starting air capacity required for reversible main engine is to be
sufficient for a least__________

A.six consecutive starts

B.eight consecutive starts

C.ten consecutive starts

D.twelve consecutive starts

Ans D

868 What preventative maintenance should be done frequently to diesel engine

starting air receivers?

A,drain the accumulated mositure

B.test the relief valve

C.watch the temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure

D.clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter

Ans A

Lubricating systems

869 Heat exchanger are most commonly found in a small auxiliary diesel
engine___________

A.fuel oil system

B.govering system

C.air starting system

D.lube oil system

Ans D

870 one advantages of vaccum feed type cylinder lubrication over the liquid sight
glass type is ___________

A.there are fewer moving parts

B.adjustment is not required

C.better metering accuracy

D.a lower grade of oil may be used

Ans C
871 which of the following device controls the discharge flow rate of an attached,
positive displacement,rotary gear,diesel engine,lube oil pump?

A.a pressure regulating valve

B.a pressure relief valve

C.the engine speed

D.an orifice

Ans C

872 Mechancial lubrication for diesel engine cylinders are usually small
reciprocating pumps which are_____________

A.operated manually once each hour

B.operated until the engine starts

C.placed into operation only at maximum load

D.adjustable to meet lubrication requirements

Ans D

873 which are the following statement is true concerning an oil cooler?

A.the oil temperaturen is less than the cooling water temperature

B.the oil pressure is less than cooling water pressure

C.the oil pressure is greater than cooling water pressure

D.the oil flow control valve is always installed in the oil input line

Ans C

874 Lubrication for the main reduction gears used with diesel engine is usually
supplied by___________

A.oil from the main engine stumps

B. an independent lube oil system

C.the stern bearing head tank

D.the stern bearing sump tank

Ans B

875 which of the following device is normally provided to prevent oil starvation in
a diesel engine lubrication system utilizing the “fuel flow” principle?

A.duplex strainer

B.three way valve

C.pressure relief bypass line around the filter

D.mechancial strainer filter

Ans C

876 A large, low speed,crosshead,main propulsion diesel engine using residual

fuel oils must have a cylinder oil having a ___________

A.low TBN valve

B.high alkaline reverse

C.low folearance point

D.high pour point

Ans B

877 Many lube oil filters have pressure gauges installed on both the inlet and
outlet in order to indicate the pressure drop across the filter in normal operation,
the pressure drop will ___________

A.slowly increase

B.slowly decrease
C.remain the same

D.have no effect on filter operation

Ans A

878 The rate of the cylinder lubricating oil metered to each cylinder of a large,low
speed,main propulsion diesel engine is _____________

A.the same whether at sea,or during maneuvering

B.ajusted during each hour of opreation while constant RPM

C.higher at sea than while maneuvering

D.lower at sea than while maneuvering

Ans C

879 Lube oil cannot be efficient filtered if its __________________

A.visocity is too low

B.temperature is too low

C.pump discharge pressure is higher than the system pressure

D.pump capacity is greater than the system’s needs

Ans B

880 A drity lube oil strainer can result in ____________

A.crankcase dilution

B.low lube oil temperature

C.excessive oil consumption

D.low bearing oil pressure

Ans D
881 Lube oil filter remove contaiminations more effectiveif the oil being filtered is
________________

A.under high preesure

B. under low pressure

C.heated to reduce visocity

D.cooled to increase visocity

882 The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system duplex filter
should be checked to ____________

A.determine the need for filter changing

B.measure any change in oil visocity

C.prevent damage to the filter

D.determine the need for batch filtration

883 Lube oil in the fresh water cooling system of a diesel engine may result from a
_____________
A.camshaft seizure

B.lube oil pump failure

C.lube oil cooler failure

D.lube oil sump overflow

Ans C

884 Most large,low-speed,main propulsion diesel engine use duplex lube oil
strainer to ________________

A.decrease the time required between cleanings

B.remove water contamination

C.ensure a positive flow of oil at all times

D.ensure that all oil has been treated twice

Ans C

885 which harmful consequence may be the result of lube oil sludge
accumulation?

A.clogged oil pump suction screens

B.increased oil operating temperature

C.sticking piston rings

D.all of the above

Ans D

886 The TNB valve pf diesel engine lube oil refers to its ability to __________

A.resist changes in visocity with changes in temperature

B.resists emulsification

C.neutralize acids

D.resists oxidation at high temperature

Ans C

887 A drity fuel oil filter is can be detected by_____________,fuel oil analysis
II.observing the pressure drop across the filter

A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans B
888 Sludge formation in a diesel engine lube oil system is caused by
____________

A.carbonization of oils from the combustion chambers

B.emulsions of lube oil and water

C.coagulation of unburnt fuel below the piston rings

D.All of the above

Ans D

889 Two important considerations for the proper lubrication of a diesel engine
include,the delivery of the oil insufficient amount and the _________________

A.cetane number

B.pour point

C.visocity temperature

D.quality of the oil

Ans D

890 The adverse effect of burning high sulphur fuel can be compansated for by
using a cylinderr oil having sufficient _____________

A.dispersant additives

B.floc point deperssive additives

C.alkalinity

D.igntion quality

Ans C

891 Lubricating system for diesel engine are usually designed to initially provide
lube oil to the engine ____________
A.camshsft bearings

B.main bearings

C.piston crowns

D.cylinder walls

Ans B

892 The lube oil cooler is located after the lube oil filter in order for __________
A.the filter to operate more efficiency

B.the lube oil cooler to be bypassed

C.positive lube oil pumps suction to be assured

D.galvanic action in the cooler to be minimized

Ans A

893 A spring-loaded relief valve is located on some lube oil filters in full flow
system to ______________

A.prevent overpressurization of the filter cartridge

B.prevent overpressization of the filter casing

C. bypass the filter should it become clogged

D.limit the lube oil outlet pressure

Ans C

894 Lube oil filters remove contaminationts from oil more efficiently if the oil
being filtered is _____________

A.heated to reduced visocity

B.cooled to increase visocity

C.pumped rapildly through the filter

D.pumped through the filter under high pressure

Ans A

895 Lubricating oil used in a diesel engine serves to __________________

A.reduce the wear of bearing surfaces

B.cool the bearing surfaces

C.assist in sealing bearing surfaces

D.all the above

Ans D

896 A diesel engine should use which type of lubricating oil?

A.nondetergent oil

B.cutting oil

C.high grade vegetable oil

D.detergent oil

Ans D

897 In a diesel engine,the function of lubricating oil is to provide

_______________________

A.a film between the shaft and bearings

B.cooling of the piston and bearings

C.for removal of drity or metal particles resulting from wear

D.all of the above

Ans D
898 A diesel engine exposed to widely varying ambinet temperature should use a
lubricating oil with ____________

A.a high visocity index

B.a low visocity index

C.exterm pressure additives

D.no additives

Ans A

899 When the fuel enters the crankcase of a diesel engine,it ______________

A.dilutes he lube oil and reduce its visocity

B.forms sulphuric acid in the lube oil

C.causes pitting and failure of the bearings

D.causes sludge deposits on the valves stems

Ans A

900 The thickness of the oil film to be developed in a diesel engine main bearing
depends upon the ____________

A.bearing pressure

B.visocity of the oil

C.rpm of the shaft

D.all of the above

Ans D

901 Maximum lube system operating pressure for a diesel engine is normally
regulated by a/an ________________

A.orifice in the pump suction

B.special filter design

C.pressure drop through the filter

D.relief valve

Ans D

902 For a continous operation diesel engine, a duplex filter unit would be the best
arrangement because _____________________

A.changing filter elements would not interrupt engine operation

B.filtering occur twice in each pass of oil through the system

C.clogging will not occur

D.dropping in pressure is half of that through a single stage filter unit

Ans A

903 The highest indicated lube oil pressure in diesel engine should be expected
when the engine oil is______________

A.cold at idle

B.warm at idle

904 IN a diesel engine, maximum lube oil system pressue is normally controlled
by __________

A.the capacity of lube oil pump

B.the speed of the lube oil pump

905 With respect to the flow of lubricating oil through a diesel engine the
 Lube oil coolers are located after filters in order to

A. Allow filtration of less viscous oil

B. Decrease the pressure drop across the filter
C. Improves overall filtration
D. All the above
Ans D

906 Lubricating oil system for diesel engine journal because are usually

Lubricated by which of the following types of lubricating oil system

A. Splash
B. Gravity
C. Pressure
D. Bypass
Ans C

907 Which of the following characteristics of lube oil helps to reduce the

Amount of deposit in the piston ring belt during the combustion

Process in a diesel engine

A. Low viscosity index

B. Low carbon forming tendency
C. High film strength
D. High noncorrosive qualities
Ans. B

908 Which lubricating oil additive is used in a diesel engine to reduce the

Tendency for sludge and varnish to form the engine parts

A. Folearance point improves

B. Pour point improves
C. Inhibitiors
D. Foam suppressors
 Ans. C

909 Motor vessels usually have independent lube oil system for main engine

And main reduction gears because

A. Coolers are not needed for the gear systemte

B. Contaminants produced by the engine could harm the reduction gears
C. Non-additive oil are used in the main engine system
D. Different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and reduction
gear lube system
Ans. B

910 Where may a strainer be located in a diesel engine lubricating oil system?

A. Suction line
B. Discharge line
C. Supply line
D. In any combination of the above
Ans. D

LUBRICATION-MAINTENANCE

911 To routinely clean a metal-edge type lube oil strainer you should

A. Remove the disc element and immerse in gasoline

B. Remove the disc element and immerse in kerosene
C. Rotate the disc element and drain off the sediments
D. Rotate the knife-edge cleaner blades and drain off the sediments
Ans. C

912 When excessive fuel dilution is noted in the lube oil the oil should

A. Centrifuged
B. Filtered
C. Strained
D. Changed
 Ans. D

913 If a used lube oil analysis indicates excessive fuel dilution the lube oil should
be

A. Changed
B. Centrifuged
C. Filtered
D. Settled
Ans. A

914 A “detergent-type” lube oil used in a diesel engine , should be replaced with

A. Fuel oil dilution is 5%

B. It begins to turn black
C. The exhaust shows traces of the blue
D. All the above
Ans. A

915 Which of the contaminants listed would remain in the lube oil after filtering

A. Acid sludge
B. Fuel oil
C. Sediment
D. Water
Ans. B

916 Most large low speed main purpose diesel engine use duplex lube oil strainer
to

A. Decrease the time required between cleanings

B. Remove all large and small foreign objects
C. Ensure a positive flow of oil at all times
D. Ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice
Ans. C
917 Which of the following test points should be considered a determining
factor as to

Whether or not a diesel generator lube oil should be drained and renewed?

A. An extremely low neutralization

B. An extremely high precipitation number
C. The oil appears black in color
D. A minor increase in f clearance point
Ans. B

918 In a normally operating diesel engine the main source of lubricating oil
contaminated in the

Crankcase is a result of the

A. Metal particles loosened by wear

B. Air when no air cleaners are used
C. Condensation of water vapors
D. Breakdown of the lubricating oil itself
Ans. D

919 A magnetic strainer is used in the diesel engine reduction gear oil system to
remove small particles

A. Water
B. Babbit
C. Iron or steel
D. Acids
Ans. C

920 A dirty diesel engine oil filter element can best be detected by

A. Visual inspection of the elements

B. The pressure drop across the filter
C. High lube oil sump temperature
D. Decrease in oil viscosity from the filter
 Ans. B

921 What could cause the bypass valve in a full-flow lubrication system to open

A. Clogged filter elements

B. Bypass valve settings too high
C. Check value struck open
D. Fuel dilution of the lubricant
Ans. A

923 To properly clean the disks of a metal-edge type strainer in a diesel engine
lube oil system

You should

A. Remove the dluks and soak them in kerosene

B. Rotate the T-handle spindle one turn
C. Wire brush the disks to remove sludge
D. Blow compressed air through the disks
Ans.B

924 A “blotter test” is performed on the lube oil of a diesel engine to determine
the

A. Percent of fuel dilution of lube oil

B. Folerance point
C. Relative detergency remaining
D. TBN number
Ans .C

925 When fuel oil has seriously contaminated a diesel engine lubricating oil, you
should

A. Filter to remove the fuel oil

B. Use the settler to remove the fuel oil
C. Remove the fuel oil by the centrifuging
D. Drain and then renew the lube oil supply
 Ans.D

926 which of the following operation conditions will occur to the diesel engine
lube oil at

Extremely high temperature

A. After every trip

B. Every 4000 hours
C. According to manufacturing instructions
D. Every line they are shutdown
Ans. C

927 If the detergent type lubricating oil being used ina diesel engine is black the
oil

A. Must be centrifuged
B. Must be filtered
C. Must be changed
D. Is holding finley dispersed carbon in suspension
Ans. D

928 Which of the following operational conditions will occur to the diesel engine
lube

Oil at extreme high temperature

A. The oil oxidizes and forms carbon deposits

B. The viscosity increases
C. Engine oil consumptions decreases
D. Lubricating qualities of the oil are enhanced
Ans. A

929 Oil oxidation as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature is harmful

To a diesel engine because

A. Oil foaming will occur

 B. Large quantities of oil are consumed
C. Lube oil viscosity is always decreased
D. Corrosive by products are usually formed
Ans. D

930 Metal particles accumulated from the wearing of components in a diesel

engine can

Result from lube oil has been contaminated

A. Abrasive particles
B. Metallic oxides
C. Corrosive acids
D. Any or all of above
Ans. D

931 In the analysis of used lube oil indicates a high content of iron particles this
could indicate

A. Corrosive deterioration of a bearing

B. Inadequate air filtration
C. Excessive ring and liner wear
D. Excessive cooling of lubricating oil
Ans. C

932 If used lube oil analysis indicates an excessive chromate content this means

A. Air filtration is inadequate

B. Engine coolant is leaking into the lube oil
C. Fuel oil is leaking into the lube oil
D. The piston rings are excessively worn
Ans.B

933 one simple laboratory analysis of used lube oil that can be carried out aboard
ship is called the

A. Paraffin test
 B. Blotter test
C. Stability test
D. Spectrographic test
Ans. B

934 A decrease in the fclearance point of the diesel engine lube oil indicates the
lube oil is

A. Dilute with fuel oil

B. Dilute with water
C. Contaminated with carbon
D. Contaminated with sludge
Ans. A

935 Which of the listed conditions can be used to determine if the lube oil has
been diluted by fuel

A. Viscosity is lowered
B. Octane number is altered
C. Pump speed is decreased
D. Blowers speed is decreased
Ans. A

936 A sudden decrease in the diesel lube oil viscosity could be an indication of

A. Loss of additives from the lube oil

B. Carbon deposit in the lube oil
C. Excessive centrifuging
D. Excessive fuel dilution
Ans. D

937 which of the following faults would allow lube oil to enter the cooling system
of a diesel engine

A. Excessive value train lubrication

B. Leaking standby oil cooler core
C. Excessive lube oil in the system
 D. Excessive lube oil in the system
Ans. B

938 The color of the diesel engine detergent type lube oil is an operating diesel
engine is black, this indicates

A. Worn out oil

B. Fuel dilution
C. Water dilution
D. Normal oil condition
Ans. D

939 If the chemical analysis of the lube oil sample taken from a diesel engine
indicates an

Increased neutralization number the

A. Acidity ahs increased

B. Viscosity has decreased
C. Demulsibility has improved
D. Foaming is guaranteed to occur
Ans. A

940 Oil oxidation as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature is are
harmful to a diesel engine because

A. Oil foaming will always occur

B. Large quantities are consumed
C. Lube oil viscosity is always decreased
D. Corrosive by products are usually formed
Ans . D

941 Usually low oil pressure in the lube oil header of a diesel engine is the result
of a/an

A. Pressure regulating value being stuck in the slosed position

 B. Restricted lube oil passage in the engine
C. Air leak in the lube oil cooler
D. Air leak in the oil pump suction line
Ans. D

942 TO manually bypass a strainer or filter in a shunt type lube oil filtering system

A. First parallel in the drain lines

B. Turn the three-way valve
C. Open the bypass valve and then close the isolation valves
D. Closed the isolation valve and then open the bypass
Ans. B

943 In the flow type lube oil system, the bypass relief valve will lift due to

A. A clogged filter element

B. Excessive lube oil pump discharge pressure
C. Excessive lube oil flow
D. Excessive not lube oil
Ans

944 To determine the lube oil filter elements need changing

A. Open the filter and inspect the elements

B. Check the lube oil pump discharge pressure
C. Check the lube oil header pressure
D. Check the pressure and drop across the filter

945. A decrease in flash point of diesel engine lube oil indicates lube oil has
become__________

A. contaminated with sludge

B. contaminated with carbon

 C. diluted with fuel oil

D. diluted with water

Ans :c

946. Which of the listed conditions can cause a diesel engine to much lube oil?

A. dirty lube oil filter

B. too much piston ring wear

C. high lube oil viscosity

D. low lube oil temperature

Ans: B

947. Which of the following condition is indicated when the lubricating oil of a
diesel engine turns dark

After a few hours of use?

A. the oil should be purified

B. the lubricating quality of oil as dangerously deteriorated
C. the oil is functioning normally
D. normal engine operating temperature have been reached
Ans :c

948.when a leak as developed in the loop oil cooler of an open diesel engine
.which of operating condition can be excepted to occur?

a) lube oil contaminated with salt water

b) Lube oil level decrease

c) lube oil contaminated with freash water coolent

d) Ans :B

949.The oxidation by product forming in diesel engine lube oil van cause…………….
A. pitting

B.sludge

C.hard vanish

D.all of the above

Ans: D

950.Under normal conditions the main source of crankcase oil contamination is

attributed to……………………

A. metal particles loosened by wear

B. air when air cleaners are not used

C. condensation of water vapours

D. breakdown of the lubricating oil.

Ans: D

951. A condition that can increase the foaming tendency of lube oil is
___________

A. excessively high oil temperature

B. water or moisture contamination

C. fuel dilution

D. carbon suspension

Ans:B

952. One device used to determine the amount of fuel dilution of a engine lub oil
is an________

A. autogenous ignition indicator

B. viscosity-dilution chart
 C. precipitation number indicator

D. modified neutrality chart

Ans:B

953. Fuel oil contamination of an auxiliary diesel engine lube oil can result in
_____________

A. an increased fclearance point

B. higher lube oil pressures

C. an increased viscosity

D. lower lube oil pressures

Ans: D

954. Diesel engine lube oil can become contaminated as a result_________

A. a water produced during combustion

B. a sulphur in the fuel

C. unburned fuel oil

D. all of the above

Ans:D

955. Lubricating oil viscosity in an operating diesel engine can be reduced by

___________

A. increasing cooling water flow

B. increasing lube oil flow

C. dilution by fuel oil

D. adding SALE 70 oil

 Ans: C

956. The total base number value of diesel engine lube oil to its ability
to__________

A .resist changes in viscosity with changes in temperature

B .resist emulsification

C .neutralize acids

D .resist oxidation at high temperatures

957.to prevent vibration damage to the fuel supply line of a diesel engine you
may use__________

A .a short length of heavy duty clear plastic tubing

B .a length of approved flexible non metallic

C .welded flange connection for all joints

D .aluminium piping with expansion loops

958. the light and medium fuels utilized in internal combustion engine provides a
source of_____________

A .lubrication for pistons and rings

B .food for microbiological organism

C .gases most detrimental to the ozone layer of the atmosphere

D .all the above

Ans;B

959. Microbiological growths in marine fuel are a common occurrence that can be
__________

A. extremely detrimental to equipment and operating process

 B. prevented by maintaining proper storage temperatures

C. removed from emulsified fuel oil during the centrifuging processes

D. all of the above correct

Ans: A

960. A growth rate of microbiological organisms as found in some supplies

will__________

A. increasing in direct proportion to an increase in temperature

B. decrease in bleaches are added to the fuel on a regular basics

C. remain unchanged provided complete consumption of the fuel monthly

D. all of the above

Ans:A

961. Fuel as produced in a refinery are generally sterile ,however, contamination

can occur as are________

A. stored at the refinery

B. stored on the vessel

C. transported to the distribution sites

D. All of the above are corrected

Ans:D

962. In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is necessary

for_________

A. high temperatures to exist

B. low temperature to exist

C. small amounts of water to be present

D. large amounts of water should present

Ans:c

963.which of the following conditions is NOT of microbial contamination?

A. objectionable odors

B. increased air filter charges

C. occurrences of flow of water

D. increased corrosion of tank plating

Ans:B

964. Which of the substance listed is satisfactorily removed from the by

centrifugal oil purifier?

A. carbon particles

B. lube oil

C. gasoline

D. diesel fuel

Ans:A

965. A dirty fuel oil filter element can be detected by________

A. visual inspection of the element

B. the pressure drop across the filter

C. high fuel oil tank temperature

D. increase flow rate from the filter

Ans:B

966. fuel oil having a low cetane rating could result in___________
A. improved cold weather starting

B. excessive fuel oil combustion

C. reduced ignition lag

D. smoother engine operation

Ans:B

967. In diesel engineering practice,the term used to express the ignition qualify of
the particular fuel is_____________

A. cetane number

B. octane number

c. ignition index number

D. volatility point

Ans:A

968. With respect to diesel fuel,the ease with which a cold engine will start is
depend upon the______

A. ignition quality of the fuel

B. high heating value of the fuel

C. amount of carbon residue after combustion

D. internal flow resistance in the injectors

Ans:A

969. Which of the following statement is true concerning the cetane number
rating of diesel fuel?

A. cetane number is obtained by comparing the cetane a colourless liquid

hydrocarbon
B. the higher the cetane number shorter the ignition lag

C. the highest cetane number of fuel is 100

D. all the above

Ans:D

970. Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of microbiological
infection?

A. heavy fuels are subjected to better refining processes which events the
formation of these growths

B. most heavy fuels contain chemicals which prevent the growth of fungi and
other bacteria

C. microbiological infections does not does not affect marine fuel but rather the
personnel who are involved with the handling storage and purification of the fuel

D. the necessary nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more complex from
and not available for microbial degradation

Ans:D

971. Most types of microbiological growths in fuel are______________

A. bacteria

B. fungi

C. yeasts

D. all the above

Ans:D

972. Fuel oil strainers should be made of____________ I copper II brass

A. I only
B. II only

C. either I or II

D. neither I nor II

Ans:D

973. which of the following statements describes the unchecked growth of

microbiological organisms with in a fuel system?

A. the dying bacteria will cause a coating to be formed on the sides of the tank
there by decreasing corrosion

B. the fuel in the tank will loose its fluidity solidify and be the cause of an
expensive removal process

C. corrosion of various metal components will occur due to the formation of

hydrogen sulfide gas

D. all the above are correct

Ans:C

974. When fuel oil heaters are required for main engine operation___________

A. each heater shall have the capacity to supply the main engine at full power

B. at least two heaters of approximately equal size are to be installed

C. the system shall be designed to permit series or parallel operation

D. none of the above

Ans:A

975. An indication of microbial contamination is____

A. stripping of paint in tanks

B. reduced corrosion in fuel tanks

C. usually discovered during normally scheduled strainer cleaning

D. yellow slime or fibrous sludge

Ans:A

976. One cause of diesel fuel engine ignition delay is___________

A. mechanical flexibility in the pump mechanism

B. late fuel injection

C. early fuel injection

D. ignition quality of the fuel oil

Ans:D

977. The desirable properties of a marine fuel oil should include

A. high flash point and high viscosity

B. low flash point and high viscosity

C. low heating value and high sulphur content

D. high heating valve and low sulphur content

978. A substance found in residual fuels which tends to cause exhaust valve
corrosion and grooving is_________

A. carbon

B. vanadium

C. calcium

D. hydrogen

Ans:B
979. Which of the listed factors will indicate the most above the ability of the fuel
to ignite in a diesel engine?

A. viscosity

B. sulphur content

C. pour point

D. cetane number

Ans:D

980. To minimize corrosion,fuel oil strainer disks,spacers and scraper blades are
made of______

A. brass

B. copper

C. Iron

D. monel metal or stainless steel

Ans:D

981. A mixture of 45% cetane and 55% alpha-methyl-napthalene is found to have

same ignition delay as a sample of diesel oil the sample can described as having
a/an_______

A. cetane number of 55

B. cetane number of 45

C. octane number of 55

D. octane number 45

Ans:B
982. The sludge tank installed in diesel engine room is used to collect_______ I
sludge from the fuel oil setting tanks and centrifuge-II water data has been
collected in the settling tank

A. I only

B. II only

C. both I and II

D. neither I and II

Ans:C

983. Injection lag in a diesel engine may be caused by_________

A. a higher cetane number of fuel oil

B. diesel fuel having a high viscosity

C. mechanical rigidity in the tube pump mechanism

D. a decrease in the fuel pump delivery pressure

Ans:B

984. Diesel engine injection lag is caused by________

A. compressibility of the fuel

B. high fuel oil supply flow

C. scored plunger and barrel packing

D. excessive air turbulants

Ans:A

985) Automatically fired auxilary boilers use fuel oil stainer arrangements of
eitheer the simplex type or …………….
a) filter bag type

b) metal disc type

c) absorbent type

d) duplex type

ans(d)

986) piping from booster pumps to injection systems are to be

atleast……………

a) shedule 60

b)shedule 80

c) standard seamless steel

d) none of the above

ans©

987) The fuel oil stainers located in the fuel oil service system of an automatic
auxilary heating boiler are either the duplex type or the…………

a) filter bag type

b) perry filter type

c) simplex type

d)absorbent type

ans(c)

988) Which of the following represents the significance the fuel oil cetane
number………

a) the cetane number has no of affect on injection lag

b) the cetane number is an indication of the fuel’s viscosity

c) ignition tag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number

d) the cetane number is of little significance in the combution process

ans(c)

989) Proper filtering and straining of diesel fuels is important because the
……………

a) fuel of pump will overspeed if dift is not removed

b) fuel oil transfer pumps cannot tolerate small amounts of grit in the oil

c)fuel injections may be damaged by foreign particles in the fuel oil

d) dirty fuel will clog the intake air filter

ans(d)

990)Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane number of

diesel fuel?

a) the cetane number of affects the amount of injection tag

b)the cetane number of is of little significance in the combution process

c)ignition lag is redused with fuels having a high cetane number

d) the cetane number is an indication of the fuel’s viscosity

ans(d)

991)If a diesel engine runs of fuel, you can expect trouble from ………………

a) overheated injector pumps

b)water condensed in the cylinders

c)fuel dilution of the fuel

d)air in the consumption

ans(d)

992)The cetane number rates fuels for diesel engines aaccording to

its………………….

a)antiknock charecteristics

b)ignition qualities

c)rates vapourization

d)viscosity

ans(b)

993)The cetane rating of diesel fuel is an indication of the………………

a)ignition quality of the fuel

b)calorific value of the fuel

c)fclearance point of the fuel

d)rate of fuel consumption

ans(a)

994)The ignition quality of a fuel oil is an important operational consideration

because it ………..

a)indicates the amount of abrasive material in the fuel

b)affects the starting ability of a cold engine

c)determines the compression ratio of an operaating engine

d)affects the compression ratio of an operating engine

ans……………(b)

FUEL SYSTEMS MAINTENANCE

995) When cleaning a duplex strainer , it is important for …………….
 a) The pressure to be bled prior to opening the compartment cover
b) The lube oil to be allowed to cool before removing the basket
c) The cleaning fluid used to be more viscous the lube oil
d) A new cover gasket to installed when reassembling the unit
Ans(a)

996) Which chemical listed is utilized to prevent and correct most microbial
infections occuring within fuel storage systems ?

a) bleaches

b) banalities

c)biocides

d) benzene additives

ans………….(c)

997) The metal edge type filters used in diesel engine fuel oil and lube oil
systems are normally cleaned in plase by…………..

a) back flusing the system and draining the filter

b) opening the drain plug and blowing through the filter

c) manually operating a built-in –scraper and draining the filter

d) flusing with any approved solvent then draining the system

ans…………..(c)

998) proper house keeping to prevent the formation of microbiological growths

within a fuel system includes the prevention of water accumulation and the use
of……………………..

a) steam coils

b) fuel oil centrifuges

c) fuel oil dicharge filters

d) chemical additives called biocides

ans……………..(d)

999) Which of the following conditions is not an indication of micrbial

contamination of the fuel supply?

a) evidence of corrosion

b) pitting of metal surfaces

c) pressure of green slime

d) brithening of copper bering metals

ans……………(d)

1000) An increased pressure differential between the inlet and outlet of a

strainer usually indicates the strainer is ……………….

a) holed

b) fouled

c) clean

d) dry

ans……………..(b)

1001) Small amounts are necessary to trigger the growth of microbiological

organisms found in some fuels . some sources of water contamination of
…………………

a) tank surface leakage

b) humidity and condensation

c)improper tank washing procedures

d) all of the above

ans… (d)

1002)Which of thefollowing statements describes the results of excessive

microbiological growths within a fuel system?

a) all excessive amounts of growths will cause the main engines of the vessel to
stail due to supply the procer quantitives of the existing load

b) the deposits prodused by these growths from blokages and flow restrictions
ultimately leading to improper atomization of the fuel into the cylinders

c) eventually the growth of these organisms will deplete the supply of rood
available to them, which in turn will cause their demise

d) all the above

ans……….(d)

1003)the major cause of problems occuring with fuel injectin equipment

is…………….

a)incorrect replacement of barries and plugners of jerk pumps

b) overheating of the nozzles

c) cracked pump housings

d) dirt in the fuel

ans………………(d)

1004) the microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be
transported from one location to another by………………….

a) roaches and other insects

b) air, solid or liquids

c) oter non-hydrocarbon fuels

d) all the above

ans………………(b)

1005) Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will result
in……………

a) lower compression pressures

b) overheating without smoking

c) failure to fault

d) run away without load

ans……………….(c)

1006) the major cause of fuel pump and injection system problem is /…………………

a) improper adjusments

b) contaminated fuel

c) kinked fuel lines

d) excessive engine vibration

ans…….(b)

1007) fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned at regular
intervals in order to remove………………….

a) sludge

b) water

c) micro organism growth

d) all the above

ans………(d)
1008) fuel is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to ………………….

a) allow impuriries to settle out of the fuel

b) allow the air to escape the fuel

c) make fuel available for immediate use

d) all the above

ans …………..(d)

1009) clogged diesel engine fuel oil filters can cause………………….

a) loss of power

b) misfring

c) low fuel oil pressure

d)all the above

ans…………….(d)
1010)generating tubes in waste heat boilers are finned to……………………..

a) Reduse gas flow turbulense

b) Prevent exhaust gas corrosion
c) Increase the rate of combusion
d) Increase the rate of heat transfer

Ans………………(d)

1011)it is desirable for an auxilary boiler safety value to pop and reset quickly
to …………………..

a) give a warning that excessive boiler pressure has been reached

b) prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat

c) prevent valve pounding

d) provide sufficient blowdown

ans………….(b)

1012) a failure to any component of a flame safeguard control an

automatically fired auxilary boiler,with result in ……………..

a) the prevention of automatic restart

b) an immediate furnace explosion

c)un controlled firing

d) automatic restart

ans……………..(a)

1013) the amount of oil consumed by a returnflow type fuel atomization

system filled with both supply and return meters , can be determinated by
the……………..

a) supply meter reading only

b) return meter reading only

c) sum of the supply and return meter readings

ans…………….(d)

1014) the flame safeguard by control system of a large automatic auxilary

boiler will provide fuel shut off in the case of high…………………..

a) water

b)voltage

c) fuel pressure

d) steam pressure
1015) if the fire goes out in an automatically fired auxilary boiler and the
burner continues to supply fuel ,there is a potential danger of ………………….

a) over pressure and dry firing

b) a severe furnace explosion

c) spalling damage to the work

d) heat damage to atomizer

ans…………………….(b)

1016) prior to lighting off a cold automatically fired auxilary boiler , you should
………………….

a) check and regulate the water level

b) close the air cock once fires are lit

c) blowdown the gauge glass

d) crack the steam stop to assure protective steam flow

ans…………….(a)

1017) When an automatically fired boiler has a flame out , which of the
following actions should occur first?

a) the fuel valve should be de energized

b) the purge cycle should begin

c) an alarm should ring

d) the fueloil pump should stop

ans………….(a)
 1018) Which of the following actions takes place in the control circuit of an
automatically fired auxilary boiler when the desired steam pressure is
obtained?

a) a temperature sensing device opens the circuit breaker in the burner motor

b) the high limit control secures power to the entire oil firing system

c) the stack relay actuates the low limit control which breaks the ignition
circuit

d)the stack relay secures power to high voltage side of the ignition transformer

1019) which of the listed sequence of events occurs when an automatic

auxilary boiler is prepurged?

a)the damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to open position for a
given number

b) for a given number of of seconds and then moved to the low fire position

c)the damper is moved to the closed position for a given number of seconds
and then removed the low fire position

d) the damper in the uptakes is moved to the wide open position for a given
number of seconds and then moved to the low firing rate position

PAGE 55
1060 Exessive vibration of an automatically fixed auxillary boiler can be caused by
a) Air or water in the furnace
b) Combustion pulses
c) Fuel oil pump failure
d) Flame failure
1062 An exhaust gas by pass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order to
 a) Recycle exhaustgas to the turbocharger
b) Bypass a portion of the exhaust gas at peak loads for better efficiency
c) Bypass exhaust gas at high loads to prevent excessive back pressure
d) Minimize moisture condensation in the boiler gas passages at low loads
Ans:d

1063 A properly adjusted safely valve for an auxillary boiler will

a) Attain maximum lift when it pops below its set pressure
b) Open with a sharp clear pop at its set pressure
c) Close sharply when the pressure drops to its set pressure
d) Operate most effectively when it has zero blowdown
Ans:B

1064 Constant capacity pressure atomizing fuel burners designed to meet a wide
operation in streaming loads on a auxillary boiler are
a) Automatically supplied with warmer air on demand
b) Automatically supplied with more fuel on demand
c) Equipped with standard variable capacity atomizer
d) Cycled on and off in response to steam demand
Ans:c

1065 A gauge glass on a coil type auxillary boiler is connected to the

a) Heating coil inlet and outlet
b) Surge chamber
c) Accumulator
d) Water softener
Ans:C
1066 In comparison to straight flow mechanical atomizer return flow atomizer
provide relatively uniform atomization over a wide firing range due to
a) Back pressure regulation in more complete combustion at high firing rates
b) Oil supply pressure not having to be reduced at low loads to the point
where poor atomization occurs
 c) Return fllow atomizer being designed for best combustion at low firing
rates
d) Rotational motion imparted by the tangential slots being greater in the low
flow atomizer
Ans:B
1067 Which of the following statements concering fire tube boilers is correct
a) Combustion gases flow through the tubes
b) Flames impinge on the tube
c) Combustion occurs in the tube
d) Water flows through the tube
Ans:A
1068 Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of fire tube
auxillary boiler approaches the crown shee
a) The fusible plugs will meet
b) The furnace will explode
c) Excess steam will be generated
d) The furnace will overheat
Ans:A
1069 Fins are installed on the fire side of the water toes used in waste heat
boilers to
a) Decreases the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes
b) Reduce the accumulation of soot deposites on the tubes
c) Eliminate exhaust gas pulsation and noise
d) Increase the rate of heat transfer to the waterside
1070 The amount of fuel oil atomized by a return flow oil burner is directly
controlled by
a) Header supply valve
b) Burner root valve
c) Oil micrometer valve
d) Fuel oil back pressure
Ans:
1071 In the event of a flame failure in an auxillary water tube boiler you must
a) Relight the boiler immediately to prevent loss of steam pressure
b) Relight the fire off the brickworks
c) perge the furnace of any combustible gas before attemting to relight the the
fire
d)speedthe feed pump to prevent dry firing when the burner flame is
restablished
Ans:C

1072 An auxillary boiler is equipped with a return flow fuel atomization fuel
burners designed to meet a wide variation in steaming of an auxillary boiler are
a) Constant fuel supply pressure
b) Constant fuel return pressure
c) Variable fuel supply pressure
d) All of the above
Ans:A

1073 The constant capacity pressure atomizing fuel oil burners designed to meet
a wide variation in the steaming loads of auxillary boiler are
a) Automatic cycled on and off in response to demand
b) Automatically supplied when required
c) Equippeds with standard variable capacity atomizer
d) Equipped with fuel nozzles having variablr offices
Ans:A
1074 Exessive vibration from an auxillary boiler could be caused by
a) Combustion pulses
b) Insufficient air to the burner
c) Loose hold down bolts
d) All of the above
Ans:D

1075 Which of the foolowing statements concerning operation of coil type forced
circulation auxillary water tube boiler is correct
a) Water is continuously circulated through a pre heater before it enters the
fclearence chamber
b) Steam is generated in the heating coils and is force fedto an accumulator
c) Un evaporated boiler water collects in the bottom of the accumulator
d) Moisture is generated from generated steam in a radiant superheater
Ans:c

1076 Which thfollowing statements about coil type forced circulator auxillary
water tube is correct
 a) Steam is generayted in the fclearence chamber
b) Steam is recirculated to the heating coils
c) Response to steam demand is comparatively rapid
d) Un evaporated feed water drains to the bildge
Ans:C

1077 Exessive return of oil pressure from avariable velocity return flow fuel oil
burner system on a automatic uxllary bo0iler will a cause
a) Flame failure
b) Burner smoking
c) Ignition failure
d) Burner failure
Ans:B
 PAGE56
1078 An auxillary boiler equipped with a return fuel atomization system has a
a) Constant fuel combustion rate
b) Constant fuel return pressure
c) Create turbulence
d) Increase the heat transfer area
Ans:D

1079 The amount of oil transfer atomized by a return flow variable capacity
atomizer used with some automatically fired boilers is controlled by the
a) Amount of air admitted to the atomizer
b) Oil pressure in the oil return line
c) Quantity of oil delivered by the service pump
d) Proportioning device in the atomizer fuel valve
Ans:B
1080 Which of the following items is necessary for all waste heat boiler
installation regardless of design or manufaucture
a) Control of evaporation
b) A separate means to prevent feedwater contamination
c) Power circuilating pump
d) Exhaust gas bypass
Ans:A

1081 Throttling a burner register on a auxillary boiler could result in

a) Smoky boiler operation
b) Decresed fuel consumption
c) Improved fuel combustion
d) Fewer soot deposites
Ans:A

1082 When lightning off an auxillary boiler which of the problems listed could
cause the burners to sputter
a) Cold fuel oil
b) Low fuel oil pressure
c) Low atomizing steam pressure
d) Water in the fuel oil
Ans:D

1083 Diesel engine waste heat boiler construction is usually of the fire tube are
a) Cyclone furnace boiler type
b) Dry back boiler type
c) Water tubee type
 d) Critical circulation boiler type
Ans:C

1084 Which of the following statements describes how the fuel oil enters the
whirling chambers of the sprayer plates used in auxillary return boiler flow fuel
oil system
a) Through the outer barrel tube
b) Through the sprayer plate drilled passages
c) Through tangential slots in the sprayer plate
d) Through baffles in the orifice plate
Ans:C

1085 The variation in the fuel oil burned in the operation of an auxillary boiler
utilizing a return flow type atomization system is the function of the
a) Fuel oil recirculating valve
b) Fuel oil back pressure
c) Fuel supply pressure regulating valv
d) Automatic steam atomizer assembly
Ans:B

1086 Aprimary function of a waste heat boiler is to

a) Reduce engine exhaust noise
b) Reduce engine back pressure
c) Recover heat which otherwise would be lost
d) Increase turbocharger efficiency
Ans:A
1087 Auxillary boilers can be classified as
a) Water tube natural circulation boilers
b) Fire tube boilers
c) Water tube forced circulation boilers
d) All of the above
Ans: D

1088 A secondary function of a waste heat boiler is to

a) Reduce engine exhaust noise
b) Reduce engine back pressure
c) Increase engine cycle efficiency
d) Increase turbo charger efficiency
Ans:A

1089 In a coil type forced circulation auxillary boiler steam is formed in

a) Heating coils
b) Steam accumulator
c) Hotwell
d) Thermostat tube
Ans:B

1090 The purpose of the safety relief valves installed on an auxillary boiler is
located on the
a) Thermostat tube
b) Top most coil
 c) Water tank
d) Fclearence chamber
Ans:D

1091 In the forced circulation auxillary boiler steam is formed in the

a) Heating coils
b) Steam accumulator
c) Hot well
d) Thermostat tube
Ans:B

1092 The safety valve installed on a coil type auxillary boiler is located on the
a) Thermostat tube
b) Topmost coil
c) Water tank
d) Fclearence chamber
Ans:D

1093 Auxillary boilers are divided into several classification one of which is
a) Fire tube controlled circulation
b) Fire tube super critical circulation
c) Water tube natural circulation
d) Water tube express circulation
Ans:C
1094 Auxillary boilers are divided into severl classification one of which is
a) Water tube super critical circulation
b) Water tube forced circulation
c) Fire tube forced circulation
d) Fire tube express circulation
Ans:B

1095 The tube sheets installed in a fire tube auxillary tube are normally connected
by
a) Girner stays
b) Fire tubes and stay tubes
c) External boiler plating
d) Separate crown sheets
Ans:B

1096 In a coil type forced circulation auxillary water tube boiler

a) Steam demand response is comparatively rapid
b) Steam is re circulated through heating coils in the boiler
c) Unevaporated feedwater is discharged through skim tube
d) Steam demand response is low
Ans:B
1097 Which type of pump is typically used to supply fuel to a unit type auxillary
boiler
a) Centrifugal
b) Propeller

c) Reciprocating
d) Rotatary
Ans:D

1098 The principle purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the firebox of
an auxiliary boiler is to

A. Prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank

B. B direct the focus draft into the space between the inner ANS outer
castings, to maintain a pressure seal
C. protect the inner casting ANS reduce heat loss
D. Prevent slag accumulation on the corbels
ANS: c
1099 In a coil type auxiliary water tube circulation boiler
A. unevaporated feedwater collects in the bottom of the chamber
B. all generated stream is recirculated through heating coils in the boilers
C. Heated water fclcarancees to stream in the boiler heating coils
D. Response to stream demands is slower than in a fire-tube boiler
Auxiliary boiler-maintains
1100. Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically fired
auxillary boiler, you should always-------------
A. block all control system relays closed
B. allow the boiler to cool completely
C. close all manually operated fuel valves
D. Lock all safety interlock switches closed
ANS: c
1101. Which of the following producers decreases the total dissolved solids
concentrate in the water of an auxiliary boiler?
A. hydrazine treatment of condensate
B. Frequent compounding
C. Chemical cleaning
D. Bottom blowing
ANS: d
1102. How is the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the feedwater of an
auxiliary boiler maintain at acceptable limits--------
A. Feedwater is cycled through a dc heater
B. feedwater with phosphates
C. oxygen is librated in the three stages of feedwater preheating
D. Oxygen is librated by maintaining the higher practical feedwater
temperature
ANS: d
1103. A sprayer plate used in a return flow fuel oil atomize is correctly installed
if the oil
A. Passes through the whirling chamber before passing through the tangential
slots
B. Passes through the tangential slots before passing through the whirling
chamber
C. Leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with primary flow of
combustion air
D. Leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the swirling
atomizing steam
ANS: b
1104. A burner producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler would
be caused by a/an--------
A. Incorrect electrode setting
B. Defective solenoid valve
C. Grounded high tension lead
D. Incorrect primary air setting
ANS: d
1105. The water in an auxiliary boiler should be chemically tested daily for
alkalinity
ANS---------
A. soap hardness
B. Nitrogen content
C. Chloride content
D. Dissolved co2
1106. The water in an auxiliary boiler should be tested for chloride content to
determine-----
A. Total dissolved solids
B. Salt contamination
C. Water hardness
D. Chloride contamination
ANS: b
1107. For proper operation, auxiliary boiler feedwater must have which of the
following characteristics?
A. high oxygen concentration
B. Low ph
C. proper alkalinity
D. all the above
ANS: c
1108. The procedures recommended for auxiliary boilers having high salinity
include-----------
A. Treating with oxygen scavengers
B. Securing the boilers ANS giving it a bottom blow
C. Increase the ph
D. reducing the phosphate level
ANS: b
1109. The concentration of dissolved solids in the boiler water of an axuiliary
boiler could increase as a result of---------
A. Phosphate treatment
B. zero water hardness
C. dissolved oxygen deaeration
D. Frequently bottom blows
ANS: a
1110. If a tube ruptures in a water-tube auxiliary boiler due to low water you
should---------
A. secure the fires ANS maintain feedwater to boiler to keep up the water level
B. not secure the fires until water level falls out of sight in the gauge glass
C. Secure the fires ANS the feed inlet valve
 D. Secure the fires when the pressure drops to 50% of the maximum allowable
working pressure
1111. When checking for the presence of sulphite in the feedwater of an
Auxiliary boiler you are in essence checking----
A. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for controlling dissolved
oxygen
B. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for control of ph
C. the hardness of makeup feed water
D. To ensure the automatic or manual blow down rate ANS frequency is
adequate for control of total dissolved solids
1113. A safety valve on a auxiliary boiler simmers constantly ANS cannot be
stopped by several quick blow-offs using the hard relieving gear the problem
may be----------
A. loose dirt on the seat
B. exposed valve springs
C. A clogged rain line
D. A damage seat
ANS: d
1115. The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for-------
A. dissolved oxygen
B. chlorides
C. sludge
D. dissolved nitrogen
ANS: b
1116. Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by............
A: water in the fuel oil
B: excessive cycling
C: high fuel oil pressure
D: improper burner maintenance
ANS D
1117. Which of the following actions should be taken when an auxiliary boiler is
operation__________?
A. Clean all electrical connections
B. Lift the relief valves by Hans
C. Inspect ANS clean all solenoid valves
D. Inspect for oil ANS water leaks
ANS. D
1118 Failure of the burner flame in an automatic auxiliary boiler would probably
be a result of................
A. water in the fuel oil
B. Broken high tension leads
C. Incorrect electrode setting
D. Fuel pressure at the nozzle
ANS: A
1119 improper maintenance of an automatic auxiliary boiler oil burner could
result in_________
A. Fuel pump failure
B. Fan notes failure
C. Increased feed water consumption
D. Decreased angles efficiency
ANS. D
1120. The water in an operating auxiliary boiler should be tested for alkalinity ANS
chloride content each...........
A. Hour
b. Day
c. Week
d. Month

1121 in a fire tube auxiliary boiler, you should expect to find the thickest scale on
the water side of the__________
A. Crown sheet
B. Through stays
C. Hydrokinetic
D. Belly plug
ANS. A
1122 the most common cause of scale formation in an auxiliary boiler
is____________
A. Concentration of calcium sulphate in the boiler water
B. Fuel oil in the feed water
C. Improper treatment of the feed water with calcium sulphate
D. Excessive feed water alkalinity
ANS. A
1123. He the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler fails to deliver the feed water to
the boiler the cause may be__________
A. High steam pressure in the boiler
B. Abnormally high feed water temperature
C. Abnormally high boiler water temperature
D. Steam demeans exceeding feed pump capacity
ANS. B
1124. Why should the main stream stop value of an auxiliary boiler be dared off
its seat ANS them gently closed before lighting off?
A. To check the value packing
B. To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks
C. To check for a tight bonnet seal
D. To ensure that the value will not be seized
1125. Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch
when the auxiliary boiler is operation_____________?
A. Test boiler water alkalinity
B. Inspect ANS clean burner fuel oil solenoid valves
C. Lift the safety valves by Hans
D. Blow down the water gauge glass
ANS. D
1126 which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch
when the auxiliary boiler is in operation ____________
A. Clean all duplex oil strainers
B. observe general boiler performance
C. Lift the safety values by Hans
D. Inspect ANS clean burner oil solenoid valves
ANS. B
1127. An automatically fixed auxiliary boiler with carbon deposits formed on its
burner electrodes wil experience ______________
A. Flame failure
B. Ignition failure
C. panting of the furnace
D. Sputtering of the burner flame
ANS. B
1128. Flame failure in an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result
from a__________
A. Broken electrode insulator
B. Faulty steam pressure signal to the trial for ignition circuit
C. Broken 2000 volt supply lead
D. Clogged fuel nozzle
ANS. D
1129. Oxygen corrosion in auxiliary boilers is prevented by treating the boiler fee
tank with either sodium___________
A. Sulfite or hydrazine
B. Sulfite or hygroscopic Sulfite
C. Bromides or hydrazine
D. Bromide or hygroscopic Sulfite
ANS. A
1130. A firebox explosion in automatically fired auxiliary angles may be the result
of_______

A. excessive pushing before lighting off

B. insufficient trail for ignition period

C. a faulty transformer in the ignition circuit

 D. insufficient purging before lighting off

ANS: D
1131. Why should Hans whole gaskets not be allowed to leak on an auxiliary
boiler?

A. Water circulation in the boiler will be disrupted

B. The gaskets ANS its seating surface may become wise drawn

c. The gaskets material will become hardened

C. Scale ANS sediment will form on the gasket

ANS: B
1132. After lighting off a cold, automatically fired, auxiliary boiler, as steam begins
to form, you

should___________

A. Close the air cock

B. Give the angles a bottom blow

C. Test the safety valve

D. Completely open the steam stop

ANS: A
1133. During maintenance inspections of a fire tube auxiliary boiler, you should
check for_____
 A. Weakling of the tubes at the tube sheet

B. Burning of tube ends

C. Fireside corrosion

D. All the above

ANS: D
1134. He poor combustion occurs in an auxiliary boiler due to an air damper
linkage being out

Of adjustment you would adjust the links are ANS than___________

A. Reset the pressure limit controls

B. Test the high ANS low is solenoids

C. Check the photo bell window for carbon deposits

D. Check the burner ignition electrode gap

ANS: C
1135. Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in automatically fired
auxiliary angles

You should always____________

A. Allow the boiler to cool completely

B. Close all manually operated fuel values

 C. Lock all safety interlock switches closed

D. Block all control system relays closed

ANS: B
1136. The ph value of water in a diesel engine closed cooking water system
should be

Maintained between_____________

A.6.0 to 7.5

B.8.0 to 9.5

C.10.0 to 11.5
1137. A dirty atomies sprayers plate in the burner of a would be indicated by

A. Carbon on the register doors

B. A dazzling white atomies flame

C. Fluctuating pressure in the wind box

D. 12.0 to 13.5
ANS: B
1138. The boiler water alkalinity in a coil-type auxillary boiler should be
Maintained at the pH recommended by the boiler manufacturer to
______________
A. precipitate silica from solution
B. reduce corrosion in the heating coil
 C. prevent clogging and erosion in the coil
D. maintain zero water hardness
ANS:B
1139. A bupass line provided around a waste heat auxillary boiler in a diesel
engine exhaust system,may be used to avoid boiler ____________
A. corrosion at low engine loads
B. erosion at high engine loads
C. overload at high engine loads
D. scaling at an exhaust temperatures
ANS: A
1140. The amount of chloride content in the water of an auxillary boiler can be
reduced by_______________
A. adding hydrazine
B. blowing down the boiler
C. adding phenolphthalein
D. adding a sulphite chloride scavenger
ANS:B
1141.Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each watch
when the auxillary boiler is in operation?
A. clean the flame scanner photocell window
B. inspect and clean all solenoid valves
C. lift the safety valves by hand
D. Inspect for oil or water leaks
ANS:D
1142.in readying an auxillary water-tube boiler for a routine hydrostatic
test,which of the following procedures should be undertaken prior to filling the
boiler with fresh water?
A. The safety valve escape piping should be disconnected from the valve body
and a blank inserted
B. The boiler vent valves should be opened
 C. All handhole/manhole covers should be tightened up as much as possible
to preclude any leaks.
D. All the above.
ANS: B
1143.The correct procedure for giving an auxillary boiler a bottom blow,is to
begin___________
A. When the boiler has been secured long enough for most solids to settle
B. When the boiler has been cooled to ambient temperature
C. only after raising the water level to within ½ inch of the high water cutout
D. only after by passing the low pressure pressostat
ANS:A
1144.The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an auxillary boiler
can increase as a result of____________
A. Sea water contamination
B. frequent surface b lows
C. dissolved oxygen deaeration
D. frequent bottom blows
ANS:A
1145.When an auxillary boiler is secured and you expect to relight the unit within
six hours,you should____________
A. maintain a head off steam not less than 1kg/cm
B. completely fill the boiler with feedwater
C. flush the boiler and close the waterside airtight
D. maintain steam pressure 1kg/cm2 below normal boiler load
ANS:A
1146.before an auxillary boiler is shutdown for an extended period of time,the
water in the boiler should have a pH value of
A. 10
B. 7
C. 4
 D. 1
ANS:A
1147.Improper maintenance of the fuel oil burners in an automatically fired
auxillary,could result in___________
A. increased fuel consumption
B. increased feedwater consumption water
C. fuel pump failure
D. combustion control system failure
ANS:A
1148.Excessive alkalinity of the water in an auxillary boiler can cause___________
A. caustic embrittlement of the boiler metal
B. acidic corrosion of the boiler metal
C. hard scale deposits on the boiler tubes
D. etching of the heat exchange surfaces
ANS:A
1149.Flame failure in an automatically fired auxillary boiler can result from
a/an___________
A. incorrect electrode setting
B. incorrect nozzle position
C. clogged fuel nozzle
D. broken high tension lead
ANS:C
1150.The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an auxillary boiler
can increase as a result of___________
A. sea water contamination
B. frequent surface blows
C. dissolved oxygen deaeration
D. frequent bottom flows
ANS:A
1151.The daily inspection of an operating auxillary boiler should
include__________
A. lifting of all safety valves
B. an examination of the boiler firesides
C. checking for external fuel and water leaks
D. measuring steam quality
ANS:C
1152.Which of the following conditions could cause black smoke to be discharged
from the stack of an auxillary boiler equipped with turbine driven rotary cup
atomizers?
A. Insufficient steam supply to the fuel oil heater
B. Excessive opening of the dampers in the combustion air inlet
C. Improper turbine shaft speed in the atomizer assembly
D. high drum water level
ANS:C
1153.Waterside scale in a fire-tube boiler may cause_________________
A. Increased heat transfer
B. fireside erosion
C. high steam demand
D. overheated tubes
ANS:D
1154.A smoking burner with a pulsating flame in an auxiliary boiler,is an
indication that the__________
A. fuel oil supply temperature is normal
B. burner electrode is incorrectly positioned
C. fuel/air ratio is incorrect
D. ignition current is too low
ANS:C
1155.Which of the following conditions would cause “panel” in a steaming
auxiliary boiler?
 A. Insufficient combustion air
B. Low water level
C. Flame failure
D. Faulty flame scanner
ANS:A
1156.if oil is dripping from the burner of a coil-type auxiliary steam generator,the
cause may be___________
A. the oil valve not seating properly
B. a loose burner nozzle
C. carbon on the burner nozzle causing deflection of oil spray
D. an unevenly shaped burner flame
ANS:D
1157.Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired auxiliary
boiler,you should always________
A. block all control valves
B. allow the boiler to cool completely
C. lock all safety interlock switches closed
D. all the above
ANS:D
SCAVENGING,TURBOCHARGING AND AIRCOOLING
1158. Which of the two events listed occurs simultaneously in a two-stroke /cycle
diesel engine?
A. Exhaust and scavenging
B. Scavenging and compression
C. Ignition and expansion
D. Exhaust and compression
ANS:A
1159. Scavenging in turbocharged. Four – stroke /cycle diesel engine is
accomplished
A. during the valve over lap period
 B. with only the exhaust valve open
C. at a pressure below atmosphere
D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons
ANS: A
1160. All scavenging of a diesel engine cylinder
A. Blows out the exhaust gases
B. Supplies oxygen for combustion
C. Cools the valves and cylinders
D. All of the above
ANS: D
1161. a diesel engine is supercharged in order to
A. Lower the no-load RPMs
B. Provided more air for combining with the fuel
C. Increases the no –load RPMs
D. Provided more fuel for combining with the air
Ans : B
1162 .one characteristics’ of a pulse type turbo charging system is
A. High average exhaust manifold pressure
B. Greatly fluctuating inlet manifold pressure
C. Constant exhaust manifold pressure
D. Multiple exhaust pipes to the turbocharger
Ans : D
1163 .which of the listed types of superchargers will not have a volumetric
capacity proportional to engine speed
A. Exhaust gas turbocharger
B. Roots blower
C. Piston type blower
D. Vane type blower
Ans : A
1164. which of the following turbocharging systems channels the exhaust gases
of each individual cylinder directly into the turbine rotor blades………
A. Reaction
B. Pulse
C. Constant pressure
D. Variable pressure
ANS: B
1165 . A turbocharged , four stroke /cycle diesel engine has a larger valve overlap
than a naturally aspirated Four stroke /cycled diesel engine , in order to increase
the ………
A. Temperature of the exhaust gases
B. Energy supplied to the turbocharger
C. Air pressure to the intake manifold
D. Purge of exhausted gases from the cylinders
Ans : D
1166 .Which of the following statements is correct regarding a turbocharged four
stroke/ cycle
Diesel generator?
A. At zero load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust
manifold pressure
B. At full load the intake manifold pressure and the exhaust manifold pressure
are equal
C. At full load the intake manifold pressure is less than the exhaust manifold
pressure
D. A t full load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust
manifold pressure
Ans : D
1167. Why will a turbocharged diesel engine produce black smoke if excessive
additional load is applied too quickly?
A. Exhaust energy would draw excess air
 B. The inertia of the turbocharger rotor causes a time lag which delays the
turbocharger speed increase
C. Exhaust gas pumping losses are increased due to turbine windage
D. Exhaust gas back pressure falls slightly due to increased nozzle action
Ans : D
1168. A turbocharged diesel engine will have intake manifold pressure
………………………
A. Constantly decreasing as engine load increases
B. Constantly increasing as the amount of supercharging increases
C. Approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times
D. Approximately equal to atmospheric pressure at all times
Ans :B
1169. A roots type blower installed on a direct reversible engine…………………
A. Is engaged only when turning ahead
B. Is geared so that air flow through the blower is always in the same direction
C. Reverses rotation along with the engine
D. Exhaust to atmosphere when turning astern
Ans : C
1170. which of the diesel engine components listed increases the air density and
helps to improve engine operating efficiency?
A. Impeller
B. Compressor
C. Aftercooler
D. Exhaust diffuser
ANS: C
1171.which of the engine components listed increases air charge density and
helps to improve engine operating efficiency?
A.intake manifold
B.water-cooled exhaust system
C.after cooler
D.Exhaust diffuser
ANS:C
1172. what is the function of the aftercoolers installed in the diesel engine air
intake system?
A.Decrease the air density
B.increase the exhaust temperature
C.Decrease the lube oil temperature
D.increase the air density
ANS:D
1173 .which of the designs listed will keep the lobes from in making contact in a
roots-type blower
A.drive chain
B.blower timing gears
C.air trapped between blower lobes
D.oil filter between blower lobes
ANS:B
1174. in a turbocharger,inlet air velocity is increased in the____________
A.inlet nozzle ring
B.stationary diffuser passages
C.compressor outlet volute
D.rotating impeller vanes
ANS:D
1175 .in a roots-type rotary blower,the volume of air delivered is directly
proportional to____________
A.engine speed
B.engine load
C.brake horse power
D.brake specific fuel consumption
ANS:A
1176. a roots-type blower installed on some diesel engines serves to___________
A.heat the cylinder for hotter compression
B.push out exhaust gases and replace them with fresh air
C. force cool air across the radiator, lowering the jacket water temperature
D. maintain a positive charge of fresh air in the crankcase thus eliminating the
chance of a crankcase explosion
ANS: B
1177. in a turbocharged four stroke/cycle diesel engine the exhaust valve remains
open until after top dead center and the intake valve opens before top center
to___________
A.produce a scavenging effect in the combustion space
B.equalize cylinder and exhaust manifold pressures
C. alleviate the difference in valve size between the intake and exhaust
D. flush out condensate that collects after each compression stroke.
ANS:A
1178. The small clearances existing between each of the blower lobes and between
the lobes and casing of a roots-type blower, must be maintained to
A provide for normal timing
B. prevent blower oil leakage
C. provide adequate blower lubrication
D. prevent abnormal air leakage
ANS: B
1179. Which of the following conditions may contribute to the formation of
deposits on the blades of theturbocharger turbine?
A. poor combustion
B. high cylinder oil consumption
C. leaking exaust valves
D. all of the above
ANS: D
1180. Which of the following conditions can cause below below normal air
pressure in a intake manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine?
A. excessive piston blow-by to the manifold
B. insufficient cooling water flow
C. accumulated water in the air boxes
D. clogged air intake filters
ANS: D
1181. If the turbocharger of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine fails to operate
,which of the following statements best describes the probable effect?
A. intake manifold pressure will be high
B. intake manifold pressure will be unaffected
C. exhaust temperature will be high
D. exhaust temperature will be low
ANS: C
1182. A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and a after cooled diesel engine is
an indicator of a/an
A. turbocharger malfunction or failure
B. crankcase exhauster overload
C. overload on the intercooler
D. obstruction in the engine cylinders
ANS: A
1183. Leaking oil seals on a diesel engine turbocharger can cause
A. the engine to run after the fuel has been secured
B. the engine to over speed
C. a fire
D. all of the above
ANS: D
1184. Which of the following terms best describe the root-type blower used to
super charge a diesel engine?
A. rotary vane
B. positive displacement
C. axial flow
D. centrifugal
ANS: B
1185. Exhaust gases are generally removed from the cylinders of a two-
stroke/cycle diesel engine by
A. natural aspiration
B. masked intake valves
C. air cells
D. scavenging air
ANS: D
1186. The speed of the turbocharger for a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine driving a
generator at constant speed depends on the
A. engine speed
B. kilowatt load
C. fuel injection pressure
D. air intake manifold temperature
ANS: B
1187. The principal difference between loop scar verging and crossflow
scarvenging as used in single acting diesel, is the
A. direction of air flow within the cylinder
B. sequence of poropening
C. method of opening exhaust ports
D. volume of air admitted to the cylinder
ANS: A
1188. Scavenging in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine occurs during the
A. last part of the exhaust stroke, and the first part of the intake stroke
B. last part of the intake stroke only
C. early part of the injection stroke only
D. early part of the power stroke
ANS: A
1189.the term diesel engine scarvenging means
A. delivering more air into the cylinder than it would normally receive during an
ordinary charging process
B. forcing the products of combustion out of the cylinder with the fresh air charge
C. collecting the air charge at the air cleaner
D. combustion and expansion of air hot gas
ANS: B

1190. Cooling the intake air supplied to the diesel engine will
A. reduce mean effective pressure
B. decrease average compression pressure
C. decrease air charge density
D. increase power output
ANS: D
1191. Which of the following conditions is indicated by the presence of water in
scarvenging air receiver?
A. leaking cylinders head gaskets
B. leaking after cooler
C. excessively low scarvenge air temperature
D. auxillary blower failure
ANS:B
1192. Forcing the exhaust gases from cylinder of an operating diesel engine with
the aid of the blower is known as
A. scarvenging
B. forced draft
C. turbocharging
D. aspiration
ANS: A
1193. loop.,Uniflow , crossflow and return-flow, are terms used to describe various
types of
a .control air circuits
B. supercharging
C. turbochargers
D. scarvenging
ANS:D

1194. The exhaust system for a turbocharged diesel engine functions to

A. power the aftercoolers
B. power the turbocharger
C. reduce the cylinder scarvenge effect
D. cools the turbocharger
ANS: B
1195. Which of the following beneficial results can be expected from
supercharging a previously naturally aspirated engine?
A. increased turbulance
B. increased mechanical effiency
C. increased brake mean effective pressure
D. all of the above
ANS: D
1196. Which of the following conditions is realized by the turbocharging of a
previously naturally aspirated diesel engine?
A. ignition lag increases
B. lube oil system pressure increases
C. brake specific fuel consumption increases
D. mechanical effiency increases
ANS: D
1197. Which of the turbo charging systems listed operates with the least average
back pressure in the exhaust manifold?
A. constant volume
B. constant pressure
C. pulse pressure
D. radial flow
ANS:C

1198. The process of scavenginga two-stroke/cycle diesel engine serves to

A. improve fuel flow pressure
B. cools the exhaust valves
C. reduce the intake air charge density
D. increase the temperature is of exhaust gases
ANS:B
1199. Which of the turbocharging methods listed direct the exhaust gases to the
turbine at fairly uniform velocity and pressure?
A. constant pressure
B. pulse pressure
C. constant velocity
D. axial flow
ANS:A
1200. When used in conjunction with a turbocharger, the main function of an after
cooler is to
A. increase the density of the cylinder air charge
B. prevent turbocharger overheating
C. eliminating the need for a precooler
D. removes moisture from air compressed by the turbocharger
ANS:A
1201. Intake air flow from a diesel engine turbocharger is directly propotional to
engine
A. exhaust gas pressure
B. exhaust gas temperature
C. speed
D. load
ANS: D
1202. Some diesel engines are supercharged with a
A. slam charger
B. turbocharger
C. fuel atomizer
D. fuel injector
ANS: B
1203. The purpose of an after cooler is t
A. reduce the turbocharger operating temperature
B. increase the pressure of the inert air
C. increase the density of the inert air
D. reduce the blower operating temperature
ANS: C
1204. Most root –type blowers have two rotors which
A. are extremely quiet at high speed
B. rotate in the same direction
C. rotate in the opposite direction
D. decrease objectionable turbulence in the cylinders
ANS: C
1205. As engine RPM is increased from idle speed to full load speed, which of the
conditions listed will decrease?
A. compression ratio
B. fuel/air ratio
C. compression pressure
D. lube oil pressure
ANS: B
1206. In a diesel engine, a positive displacement type blower isusually
A. gear driven by the engine
B. driven by an exhaust gas turbine
C. driven by acamshaft
D. driven by a separate motor
ANS: A
1207. The high air velocity leaving the compressor of an exhaust gas turbocharger
is converted to pressure in the
A. inert nozzle ring
B. turbine wheel blading
C. diffuser passages
D. inert volutes
ANS: C
1208. Turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engines utilize valve overlap for
A. improving cylinder scarvenging
B. preheating the combustion chamber
C. reducing air charge density
D. preventing valve wear
ANS: A
1209. The compression of air in a positive displacement rotary supercharging
blower, occurs only
A. between the rotating blower lobes
B. between the casing and blower lobes
C. after the engine reaches operating speed
D. as air moves into the discharge passage
ANS: D

1210. If the turbocharger failed on an auxillary diesel engiene, which of the

following conditions would probably occur?
A. full power cannot be developed
B. the exhaust will contain black smoke
C. complete combustion will be impossible
D. all the above
ANS: D
1211. The power consumed during the scarvenging process of a diesel engine is
known as the
A. scarvenging loss
B. valve loss
C. back pressure loss
D. pumping loss
ANS: D
1212. A thin film of oil on the lobes of a roots-type blower indicates
A. proper lubrication
B. timing out of adjustment
C. excessive cylinder lubrication
D. leaking rotor bearing oil seals
ANS: D
1213. In a main propulsion turbocharged diesel engiene, the speed of the
turbocharged varies according to the
A. governor droop
B. speeder spring tension
C. fuel rack lag ion
D. load on the engiene
ANS: D
1214. During the valve overlap period, the exhaust pressure of a turbocharged,
four-stroke/cycle diesel engiene must be less than the intake manifold pressure to
ensure
A. effective cylinder scarvenging and cooling
B. constant pressure from the turbochargers
C. cooler operation of the exhaust system
d .effective constant pressure for turbocharger operation
ANS: A
1215. Large two-stroke/cycle, main propulsion diesel engiene cylinders can be
successively pressure charged during normal operation, by using the
A. exhaust gas temperature system
B. exhaust load system
C. constant or pulse pressure system
D. constant volume system
ANS:C
1216. In a multi cylinder constant pressure turbocharged diesel engiene the
combined exhaust temperature at the turbocharger inert reads higher than the
individual cylinder exhausts .this means the
A. combined exhaust pyrometer is defective
B .combined exhaust pyrometer is reading normally
C. turbine blades are coated with carbon

1217. When would the available energy of the exhaust gases of a two-stroke/cycle
diesel engine be insufficient to drive an exhaust gas turbocharger, resulting in the
incorrect amount of air for combustion?
A. during operation at low speed
B. during operation at rated speed, but low power output
C. during acceleration

63

1218. In a two stroke diesel engine,the process of scavenging begins as

the___________

a.piston nears and passes TDC

b.early part of the up stroke

c.piston passes BDC

d.early part of the downstroke

ans.b
1219. The process of supplying a diesel engine with air at a pressure greater than
atmospheric pressure is known as ___________

a.engine displacement

b.super aspirating

c.air injection

d.supercharging

ans.d

1220. The power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop if the cooling
water flow through after cooler is interrupted because the__________

a.turbocharger stalls

b.exhaust pressure increases

c.air charge density decrases

d.scavenge effect increases

ans.c

1221. A supercharged diesel engine when compared to a similar naturally

aspirated diesel engine will develop an increase in____________

a.ignition lag

b.engine horsepower

c.lube oil stem pressure

d.specific fuel consumption

ans.b

1222. If the speed of a turbocharged diesel engine is maintained constant the

turbocharger speed will_________
 a.decrease until the engine speed increases

b.increase as the load increases

c.decrease as the load increases

d.remains unchanged as the load decreases

ans.b

1223. Compared to a naturally aspirated diesel engine a supercharger diesel

engine has___________

a.A cylinder air charge of higher pressure

b.increase pumping losses

c.less valve overlap

d.educed blowby

ans.a

1224. Which pf the following devices would increase the power output of a
diesel engine without increasing the frictional load__________

a.positive displacement blower

b.roots type rotary blower

c.gear-driven centrifugal blower

d.turbine driven centrifugal blower

ans.d

1225. The air relative pressure in the inlet manifold of a turbocharged diesel
engine is usually

a.greater than the average exhaust manifold pressure

b.less than the average exhaust manifold pressure

 c.greater at the turbine wheel than the impeller

d.greater at reduced engine speed

ans.a

1226. Which of the roots blower listed below will suppl air to a two
stroke,medium speed ,diesel engine with the least amount of turbulence and
pulsation?

a.3 helical lobes

b.2 helical holes

c.3 cylinderical lobes

d.2 cylinderical lobes

ans.a

1227. The function of the aftercooler installed between the turbocharger and
intake manifold on some

Diesel engines is to__________

a.increase the density of the intake air

b.decrease turbocharger power usage

c.reduce exhaust gas temperature

d.compensate for turbocharger rpm fluctuations

ans.a

1228. Performance of a turbocharged engine can be improved by__________

a.decreasing the amount of overlap

b.pre heating the air intake

c.aftercooling the air intake

 d.preheating the light fuels

ans.c

1229. Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in _________

a.higher torque but lower brake horsepower

b.lower torque but higher brake horsepower

c.higher torque and higher brake horsepower

d.lower torque and lower brake horsepower

ans.c

1230. The air supplied to a cylinder by a turbocharger is often reduced in volume

by an________

a.air compressor

b.diffuser

c.aftercooler

d.venturi

ans.c

1231. The lobes of a root type blower are sometimes twisted into a spiral formed
around the axes of rotation to__________

a.decrease the air loses around the lobes

b.decrease maintainence

c.allow for higher blower operating speeds

d.produce a more constant air flow

ans.d
1232. Some diesel engines are equipped with a Roots type blower to
provide_________

a.more air to combine with the fuel

b.more amps per kilowatt hour

c.higher no-load rpm’s

d.higher voltage output

ans.a

1233. An aftercooler installed between turbochargers and the cylinder air

inlet_______

a.increases the density of the air

b.decreases the density of the air

c.increases the specific heat of the air

d.decreases the specific heat pf the air

ans.a

1234. When the load is increased on aturbocharged disel engine,the amount of

air supplied by the turbocharger will___________

a.lag behind the increased fuel supplied to the engine

b.enter the engine along with the increased fuel

c.enter the engine before the increased fuel supply

d.leave the turbocharger as a negative pulse

ans.a

1235. The large number of mechanical and pulsating vibrations developed in a

diesel engine may damage an attached________
 a.scavenged air pump because it is designed for a steady state

b.reciprocating scavenge pump because of its direct linkage to the

crankshaft

c.rotary blower because it operates over a small range of speeds and

delivers its air at a certain resonant frequency

d.gas driven turbocharger because it has a wide speed range and high
temperature materials that are subject to resonant frequency

ans.d

64

1236. When the timing gear backclearance for a Root type blower has become
excessive,the problem is properly repaired by__________

a.renewing the drive gear

b.renew the driven gear

c.renewing both drive and driven gears

d.shumming and pinning the gears with proper backclearance

ans.c

1237. If over a period of weeks the air box pressure of a turbocharged diesel
engine operating at full load appears to be dropping off the cause can
be_________

a.open air box drains

b.loss of cooling water to the diffuser

c.gradual loading of the air filters

d.improperly timed exhaust valves

ans.c
1238. Which of the following conditions would require the remoal of a
turbocharger for repair

_________

a.nicked blades

b.broken blades

c.Stretched blades

d.all of the above

ans.d

1239. If you observe smoke coming from the turbocharger of an auxillary diesel
engine you should________

a.check the air filter for obstruction

b.check for exhaust leak

c.check the exhaust temperature

d.secure the engine

ans.d

1240. Following the failure of one turbocharge on a large crossheadmain

propulsion diesel engine

Filled with multiple turbochargers,which of the following actions should be taken

prior to further operation engine?

a.Blank off the exhaust gas inletto the damaged turbocharger

b.secure cooloing and lubrication to the damaged turbocharger

c.lock the rotor of the damaged turbocharger

d.All of the above

ans.d

1241. Corrosion and grooving on the blading of an exhaust driven turbocharger

is caused by certain components of residual fuel oils.Thes e components
areV,Na,&__________

a.Cu

b.C

c.H

d.S

ans.d

1242. An operating turbocharged diesel engine that suddenly losses power is

due to a________

a.restricted turbocharger air intake

b.oil leak into the turbocharger

c.dribbling injector

d.low fuel viscosity

ans.a

1243. While maneuvering ,you discover heavy smoke coming from the
turbocharger casing,you should___________

a.check the air filter for dirt

b.check for an exhaust leak

c.check the cooling water temperature

d.notify the bridge that you are going to shut the engine down

ans.d
1244. Which of the following precautions should be taken when cleaning the air
filter on a diesel engine equipped with a turbocharger?

a.Reduce the engine speed to idle before removing the filter

b.Soak the dirty filter in kerosene only

c.Blow out the air inlet with compressed air

d.cover the air inlet after removing the filter

ans.d

1245. Which of the listed adjustments must be made to a naturally Aspirated

four stroke diesel engine if a turbocharger is to be installed?

a.Increase the compression ratio

b.Increase the ignition lag

c.Decrease the amount of exhaust and intake valve overlap

ans.b

1246. Which of the following problems could cause an above normal air
temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a turbocharged and aftercooled
diesel engine

a.faulty turbocharger turbine diffuser ring

b.faulty turbocharger compressor ring

c.insufficient cooling water flow

d.clogged air take filter

ans.c

1247. which condition indicates the air side fouling of an aftercooler on a

turbocharger diesel engine?
 a.An increased air temperature differential between the cooler inlet and
outlet

b.A decrease in the air pressure differential across the cooler

c.Excessive condensate forming on the air box

d.A decrease in the temperature differential between the cooler inlet and
outlet

ans.d

1248. A turbocharged diesel engine can overspeed due to_________

a.air in the hydraulic governor

b.high ambient air temperature

c.oil leaking into turbocharger compressor end

d.insufficient piston ring blow by

ans.c

1249. Which of the following conditions may be attributed to a fouled

turbocharger compressor inlet screen or filter?

a.Decreasing scavenge air pressure

b.Increasing exhaust temperatures before the turbine

c.Reduction in engine speed

d.all of the above

ans.d

Governor & Overspeed Control

1250. Diesel engines driving alternators operating in parallel must maintain a set
freq regardless of load changes.The governor characteristics used to accomplish
this is known as ________

a.actuation

b.sesitivity

c.compensation

d.promptness

ans.c

1251. Increasing the load on the engine equipped with a constant speed
mechanical governor ,will cause the speed to initiaaly____________

a.increase

b.decrease

c.fluctuate

d.remain constant

ans.b

1252. How is the diesel engine operating rpm affected when a zero droop setting
is selected on the governor?

a.the rpm will drop to low idle when load is applied

b.the rpm must be controlled by the load limit knob

c.the governor has no cintroll over the rpmin this mode

d.the rpm will remain the same with or without the load

ans.d
1253. If the main propulsion diesel enginegovernor works irregularlywith a
jerking motion,a possible cause can be________

a.a sticking fuel control linkage

b.a malfunctioning overload cam

c.an unlocked overspeed trip

d.floating valves

ans.a

1254 on a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous governor, if the

“speed drop” control is reduced to ”zero” setting, the engine……………………………..

A. Speed will drop drastically with any increase in load

B. Will stop due to zero fuel supply

C. Will stall upon application of load

D. Speed will remain fairly constant despite load changes

Ans: D

1255 the required amount in the change of speed necessary to Governor will
make a corrective movement is known as ……………………………..

A. speed droop

B. sensitivity

C. stability

D. promptness

Ans: B

1256 air bubbles in a hydraulic governor can cause…………………………..

A. sluggish response
B. speed droop variation

C. isochronous governing

D. sensitivity increases

Ans: A

1257 which of the listed governer operating characteristics is to be

isochronous?

A. zero speed droop

B. positive speed droop

C. negative speed droop

D. varying speed droop

Ans: A

1258 governor hunting is caused by ………………………..

A. governor under control

B. excessive speed droop

C. insufficient speed droop

D. governor over control

Ans: D

1259 a continuous fluctuation of the speed, due to over control Governor, is

known as …………………..

A. hunting

B. sensitivity

C. promptness
D. speed droop

Ans: A

1260 a direct acting, pneumatically controlled governor for a diesel engine

Operates in a range of 0.7 to 3.5 bar. The fuel rack position is at 20mm When the
governor air pressure is 2.1bar.if the governor air Pressure changes to 1.4bar, the
fuel rack is at

A.13millimeters

B.17millimeters

C.22millimeters

D.24millimeters

Ans: A

1261 after each speed change , the compression of the diesel governor
speeder spring is return to a constant value ,is of the amount of the amount of
movement of the fuel control mechanism engine load. Hence , this results
in…………………………

A. speed droop governing

B. isochronous governing

C. high sensitive governing

D. relay-type governing

Ans: B

1262 an over speed trip stops a diesel engine when the engine
……………………….

A. runs out of fuel

B. has low lubricating oil pressure

C. exceeds a set maximum speed

D. has high cooling water temperature

Ans: C

1263 in a simple hydraulic governor with speed droop, oil under is maintained
ready for use in the ………………………….

A. power piston

B. governor sump

C. spring-loaded piston accumulator

D. pressure pilot valve assembly

Ans: C

1264 internal combustion engines are to be fitted with governors to prevent

the engines from exceeding the rated speed by more than …………………...

A.10 percent

B.15 percent

C.20 percent

D.25 percent

Ans: B

1265 which of the listed governor characteristics will greatly affect load
sharing relationship between paralleled diesel generator

A. sensitivity

B. power

C. speed droop

D. compensation
Ans: C

1266 when the prime movers of two parallel generators are equipped with
mechanical-hydraulic governors ,and are operating within their designed range,
the unit with the least amount of speed droop will ……………………………..

A. pick up more of any increase in load

B. pick up less of any increase in load

C. share an equal amount of any increase in load

D. drop an equal amount of any decrease in load

Ans: A

1267 a change in engine speed is required before a governor is make a

corrective movement of fuel rack. this aspect of is commonly expressed as a
percent and is known as …………………………

A. governor sensitive

B. governor promptness

C. speed droop

D. isochronous governing

Ans: A

1268 the direct acting mechanically governor used with some small diesel
engines, controls fuel flow to the engine by ………………………….

A. governor flyweight action on a pilot valve which controls fuel injection

B. governor flyweight motion acting on fuel controls through suitable linkage

C. positioning a butterfly valve in the fuel delivery system

D. positioning a servomotor piston attached to the fuel controls

Ans: B

1269 sensitivity for a diesel engine governor is described as the

……………………….

A. percent of speed change necessary for corrective action be control

B. ability to maintain desired engine speed without speed fiow

C. governor’s speed of response to variations in engine load

D. ability to maintain constant speed regardless of engine load

Ans. A

1270 the ability of the governor to prevent fluctuations in engine speed is

termed ………………………

A. sensitivity

B. stability

C. promptness

D. speed droop

Ans: B

1271 an over correcting and unstable engine governor operation as

………………………

A. droop

B. dead banding

C. dash potting

D. hunting

Ans: D
1272 for most diesel propulsion and generator engines, the over speed trip
device will stop the engine by……………………..

A. moving the governor control to stop

B. shutting off the lubricating oil supply

C. tripping the governor emergency stop lever

D. shutting the fuel supply

Ans: D

1273 a directly connected or geared main propulsion diesel engine be fitted

with a / an …………………….

A. constant speed governor

B. variable speed governor

C. isochronous hunting governor

D. nutating disk governor

Ans: B

1274 an AC diesel generator incapable of being paralleler with the main bys
normally employs an isochromous governor in order to ………………………..

A. increase speed droop in proportion to load

B. maintain a frequency of 60 cycles per second

C. increase or decrease engine speed upon load demand

D. prevents attempts to parallel

Ans : B

1275 which of the speeder springs listed is more suitable for a governor
installed on an engine operating over a wide speed range?
A. spiral

B. conical

C. cylindrical

D. helical

Ans: B

1276 in a simple mechanical governor, the ………………….

A. centrifugal force rotates the ball-head

B. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by spring force

C. fiy weight centrifugal force is balanced by hydraulic pressure

D. speeder spring alone actuates the fuel control rod

Ans: B

1277 an over speed trip serves to ………………..

A. stop the engine by cutting off the cooling water supply

B. stops the engine by closing the air in take

C. slow the engine but not stop it

d. slow the engine to half of normal load

ans: B

1278 if the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor breakes
while operating at full load, the engine RPM will……………………..

A. increase until the over speed trip actuated

B. hunt until stabilized by the droop rod

C. decrease to a slight lower value

D. remain the same until manually changed

Ans: C

1279 a diesel engine is equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor. A

decrease in load will cause the engine speed to ………………………..

A. decreases only

B. increases only

C. decreases slightly then return to orginal speed

D. remains constant

Ans: D

1280 the hunting of the diesel engine may be caused by ………………………..

A. excessive speed droop

B. insufficient speed droop

C. excessive sensitive

D. low governor power

Ans: D

1281 if an engine operates at 900 RPM at no load, and at 870 RPM at full load,
the speed droop is ………………..........

A.0.031

B.0.034

C.0.037

D.0.04

Ans: B
1282 which of the following statements best describes the operational
characteristics of an isochronous governors?

A. they are suitable for use of main propulsion units

B. they strive to maintain a constant prime mover speed for all values of
steady load
C. they cause a propotional drop in prime mover speed as the load is
increased
D. they have poor sensitivity at low RPM

ans: B

1283 a diesel engine is fitted with a pneumatically actuated governor having

an operating range of 0.7to2.4 bar. If the air pressure to the governor is increased
to 2.8 bar, the fuel rack position is

A.10mm

B.14mm

C.15mm

D.20mm

Ans: D

1284 governor used on diesel engines to limit the load must be equipped with
…………………

A. a fixed maximum fuel stop

B. a variable maximum fuel stop
C. pivotless centrifugal fly balls
D. a proportional action compensation mechanism

ans: B

1285 the principle characteristics of an isochronous governor as it will

……………………….
 A. slow the machine down as load is increased
B. shut down the engine if it over speeds
C. display excessive speed droop
D. maintain a constant speed with variations of loads

ans: D

1286 which of the following devices is common to both mechanical and

hydraulic governors?

A. direct linkage between the ball- head and flux rack

B. a servo meter

C. a compensating device

D. flyweights

Ans: D

1287 which of the following device is a common basic element with nearly all
mechanical governors?

A. power piston

B. control rack

C. weights acted on by centrifugal force

D. isochronous droop spring

Ans: C

1288 on most diesel engines, the governor controls the output speed by
……………………

A. controlling the amount of fuel injected into the cylinders

B. varying the speed of the turbocharger

C. adjusting the compression stroke

D. changing the time of the fuel injection camshaft

Ans: A

1289 the governor controlling a diesel engine modulates crankshaft RPM by

adjusting the ……………….

A. intake air supply

B. turbocharger speed

C. fuel injection pumps

D. engine speed droop

Ans: C

1290which of the items listed causes a direct acting mechanical governor to

operate the engine fuel control linkage?

A. hydraulic oil pressure

B. servo meter action

C. fly weight centrifugal force

D. relay motion

Ans: C

1291 a spring- loaded centrifugal flyweight governor responds to reduce

engine load wit an immediate increase in ………………….

A. pilot valve oil pressure

B. speeder spring force

C. compensation needle valve clearance

D. centrifugal force on the fly weights

Ans : D
 (A) An incorrect diesel governor speed droop adjustment
(B) A faulty reverse power relay within the main circuit breaker assembly
(C) Unsyncronized isochronous load distribution adjustments
(D) A different speed setting on each unit
Ans A

1294 the overspeed trip device installed in some diesel engines is automatically
actuated by

(A) Spring force

(B) Hydraulic pressure
(C) Centrifugal force
(D) Mechanical linkage
Ans C

1295 the most common contaminate of governor hydraulic fluid is

(A) Moisture
(B) Dirt
(C) Acid
(D) Air
Ans B

1296 the purpose of the compensating adjustment used in a diesel engine

hydraulic governor is to

(A) Compensate for low oil level

(B) Increase governor promptness
(C) Prevent governor hunting
(D) Limit engine load
Ans C

1297 during a routine round of a diesel engine governor,you must observe a low
oil level in the governor slump,if there is no visible sign of external leakage,you
should suspect the cause to be a/an
 (A) Leakage through the governor drive shaft oil seal
(B) Leakage through the power piston oil seal
(C) Uncovered sight glass ventilation orifice
(D) Defect in the sight glass gasket

Ans A

1298 a large change in ambient temperature,or using an oil of a viscosity different

than the one recommended by the manufacturer in a mechanical hydraulic
governor,will result in the need to adjust the

(A) Pilot valve opening

(B) Compensating needle valve
(C) Compensating spring valve
(D) Accumulator spring tension
Ans B

1299 Where one or more diesel driven AC generators are operating in

parallel,reducing the value of speed droop to “zero” on one unit will allow that
unit to

(A) Gradually reduce speed as load is applied

(B) Change load without changing speed
(C) Automatically divide and balance the loads
(D) Effectively anticipate the amount of fuel required to bring the engine up to
the proper output to accept the increased load
Ans B

1300 which of the following adjustment is always required whenever the diesel
engine governor oil has been drained and removed

(A) Speed droop

(B) Compensation
(C) Idle speed setting
(D) Load limit control
1301 if the compensating needle valve of a hydraulic governor is opened more
than necasary the governor will

(A) Have a larger than normal dead band

(B) Produce excessive speed response to a load change
(C) Respond slowly to any change in engine load
(D) Stabilizize engine speed at the new governor setting
Ans B

1302 if the load on a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous hydraulic

governor is increased,after compensation is performed by the governor,the
engine speed will

(A) Remain the same

(B) Increase
(C) Decrease
(D) Fluctuate
Ans A

1303 trapped air was bled from the hydraulic system of a diesel engine governor
while it had been operating at idle speed.oil was added to restore the correct
level and the air vent plug tightened.the compensating needle valve should then
be gradually

(A) Opened until hunting is eliminated

(B) Closed until it is approximately 1/16 of a turn open
(C) Closed to cause the engine to hunt in order to purge trapped air from the
new oil
(D) Closed until engine hunting is eliminated
Ans D

1304 IF a hydraulic governor has been refilled with oil,the engine should be
operated until it reaches normal temperature then air should be purged and the

(A) Rack position should be adjusted

(B) Compensating needles should be opened fully
 (C) Compensating needle valve should be adjusted to stabilize operation
(D) Speed limit device should be adjusted
Ans C

1305 Friction developing between the moving parts of a governor,governor

linkage and control valve will cause the governor to

(A) React with insufficient speed droop

(B) Fail to react to small speed changes
(C) Have excessive sensitivity to small speed changes
(D) Remain in the neutral position
ANS B

1306 if the operating speed of a diesel engine increases without an apparent

change in the engine control settings,you may suspect a

(A) Clogged intake air intercooler

(B) Control air leak
(C) Leaking air starting value
(D) Malfunctioning governor
Ans C

1307 The major cause of trouble in a mechanical-hydraulic governor is

contamination of the hydraulic fluid by

(A) Dirt
(B) Fuel oil
(C) Governor cooling water
(D) Fuel oil tars
Ans A

1308 adjustments to the compensating needle valve in a hydraulic governor

should be made with the engine at

(A) Maximum power at a normal load

(B) Maximum power and load under normal conditions
(C) Half speed and normal temperature
 (D) Normal operating temperature without a load
Ans D

1309 on a diesel engine equipped with a hydraulic speed control

governor,hunting in many cases can be corrected by adjusting the

(A) Accumulator spring compression

(B) Balance piston
(C) Compensating needle valve
(D) Propotional piston
Ans C

1310 a diesel governor engine is hunting. After changing the oil the governor is
flushed and the compensation needle is adjusted but the hunting persists. You
should now

(A) Check air intake manifold pressure

(B) Calibrate the fuel pump rack settings
(C) Set the speed droop adjustment to zero
(D) Carefully check for binding in the governor linkage
Ans D

1311 compensating needle valve adjustment to a hydraulic governor should be

made with the engine

(A) Running at normal operating temperature

(B) Running at half speed at normal temperature
(C) Running at maximum power and load under normal conditions
(D) Developing maximum power at normal load
Ans A

1312 if a main propulsion diesel engine hunts excessively at idle speed,you

should

(A) Adjust the idle speed control

(B) Drain and flush the governor and replace the oil
(C) Adjust the compensating needle valve
(D) Adjust the load limit

1313 which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate bearings in a

small high speed diesel engine?

(A) Spclearance lubrication

(B) Pressure lubrication
(C) Sight feed lubrication
(D) Mechanicl lubricators
Ans B

1314 clearance volume scavenging in a turbo charged,four stoke/cycle diesel

engines are brought into position by

(A) During the valve overlap period

(B) With only the exhaust valve open
(C) At a pressure below atmospheric
(D) Without cooling the cylinders or pistons
Ans A

1315 Trunk type diesel engine pistons are effectively cooled when heat is

(A) Conducted through the engine block

(B) Conducted to water cooled cylinder walls
(C) Conducted through the piston crown
(D) Losses to escaping exhaust gases
Ans B

1316 how much will the jacket water temperature normally increase between
the inlet and outlet of medium or high speed diesel engines?

(A) Sliding the camshaft along its axis

(B) Rotating the cam 180 degree
(C) Rotating the cam followers 180 degree
(D) Moving the idler sprockets in the drive chain
Ans A
1317 which of the following conditions can cause above normal air temperatures
to develop in the intake manifold of a four stoke/cycle turbocharged,diesel engine

(A) Clogged air intake filters

(B) Piston blow by
(C) A defective aftercooler
(D) Faulty exhaust valves
Ans C

1318 how much will the jacket water temperature normally increase between the
inlet and outlet of medium or high speed diesel engines?

(A) 1 to 3 c
(B) 3 to 5 c
(C) 5 to 10 c
(D) 15 to 25 c
Ans C

1319 trunk type diesel engine pistons are effectively cooled when heat is

(A) Radiated through the engine block

(B) Transferred to water cooled cylinder walls
(C) Conducted through the piston crown
(D) Transferred to escaping exhaust gases
Ans B

1320 Ring groove inserts are occasionally used on aluminium alloy pistons to

(A) Reduce the ring groove wear rate

(B) Seal against crankcase vapors
(C) Lessen the wear on aluminium parts on the cylinder
(D) Allow for the greater expansion rate of aluminium
Ans A

1321 broken intake valve springs on one cylinder of a diesel engine can cause the
engine to
 (A) Over spend
(B) Fire improperly
(C) Lose oil pressure
(D) Over heat rapidly
Ans B

1322 Excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine can be caused by

(A) Late combustion

(B) Plugged oil wiper rings
(C) Low lube oil temperature
(D) Low lube oil pressure
Ans B

1323 when the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the engine
manufacturer,the diesel engine valves will

(A) Open earlier than normal

(B) Close earlier than normal
(C) Remain open for a shorter duration
(D) Fail to open when the valves are warm
Ans A

1324 during the power stroke of a four stroke cycle diesel engine,most of the side
thrust of a trunk type piston is absorbed by the

(A) Piston skirt

(B) Pinion
(C) Cross head
(D) Compression rings
Ans A

1325 Exessive lube oil consumption can result from worn or broken

(A) Piston rings

(B) Valve guides
(C) Valve seals
 (D) All of the above
Ans A

1326 Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine wilkl cause

(A) High lube oil viscosity

(B) Increased lube oil consumption
(C) Low lube oil temperatures
(D) High firing pressures
Ans B

1327 excessive lubricating oil consumption in a running diesel engine can be

caused by

(A) Clogged lube oil piping

(B) Excessive valve guide clearance
(C) High lube oil viscosity
(D) Low lube oil viscosity

1328 In a four stroke/cycle diesel engine, badly worn intake valve guide can cause
excessive

(A) Exhaust pressure

(B) Exhaust temperature
(C) Cooling water temperatures
(D) Lube oil consumption.

1329 The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is used to operate

the

A. fuel injectors
B. exhaust valves
C. intake valves
D. all of the above
 Ans: D

1330. A diesel engine valve spring is under compression when the valve is
________I. open II. Closed

A. only

B.II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

ANS: C

1331 The force exerted by a valve spring to close the diesel engine valves is
proportional to

A. spring compression
B. engine speed
C. the natural frequency of vibration
D. spring surge

Ans: A

1332. Exhaust pipes for separate diesel engines can be combined only
when________

A. space limitations prevent separately run pipes

B. Engines are small auxiliary units

C. they are arranged prevent gas backflow to each engine

D. A waste heat boiler is installed

ANS: C

1333 Spring surge in diesel engine valve springs can result in

A. increasing effective spring force

 B. bouncing of the valve gear
C. splitting of the valve keeper collars
D. failure of the valve to open

Ans: B

1334. The satisfactory operation of diesel engine exhaust valves usually depends
on

A. the proper back pressure

B. The cooling water temperature

C. Correct timing and proper seating

D. Accurate metering and the exhaust temperature

ANS: C

1335 The angular distance a flywheel rotates between the firing of the
cylinders of a V-16, four-

Stroke/cycle diesel engine is

A. 22.50
B. 33.75
C. 45.00
D. 90.00

Ans: C

1336. On a medium speed main propulsion diesel engine the crankpin or crank
journal bearings receive lubricating oil from

A. A spindle lubricator

B. An oil jet

C. internal spclearanceing
 D. drilled passage ways in the crank shaft

ANS: D

1337 In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines may be

fabricated from low-alloy steels because

A. the beveled edges of the intake valves provide for self-centering during
seating

B. intake valves utilize stellite-coated valve seat inserts which reduce wear

C. the volume of air passing through intake valves is less than the volume
of air passing through exhaust valves

d.intake valves are iess affected to the corrosive action of exhaust

valves

Ans:D

1338. Multiple concentric valve springs are often used with diesel engine valves to

A. Enable research and development of cam contour to be simplified

B. Operate the valve gear where a larger force is normally required but
space limitations restricted the use of the single spring

C. allow for easier valve replacement

D. Enable a total smaller valve spring force to keep the valve fit on its seat

ANS: B

1339. Before shutting off the fuel supply to stop a medium or high-speed diesel
engine, why is it necessary to alloy the engine to idle for a few minutes

A. to let the waste heat boiler reduce it’s rate of steam generation

B.to ensure the fuel nozzels are flushed clean

c. to clear the smoke stack

 D.to prevent internal damage from local overheating

Ans:D

1340. Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are usually
of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing to

A. Provide cooling water flow when the engine is running either ahead or
astern

B. provide the greatest pump efficiency

C. prevent pump cooling from marine growth

D. Prevent cavitations at the pump outlet

ANS: A

1341. In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at

A.twice the crankshaft speed

B.half the crankshaft speed

C.the same speed as the crankshaft

D.a speed independent of the crankshaft

Ans:B

1342. Fuel oil begins injection to the cylinder of a four stroke cycle diesel engine
during the

A. Intake stroke

B. Exhaust stroke

C. Power stroke

D. compression stroke

ANS: D
1343. A piston in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine makes four strokes during each

A. crankshaft revolution

B.mechanical cycle of operation

C.period of two combustion cycles

D.cycle of two events

1344. What is the speed of the crank shaft in a four stroke cycle engine when the
camshaft is turning at 750 Rpm?

A. 375 Rpm

B. 500 Rpm

C. 750 Rpm

D. 1500 Rpm

ANS: D

1345. Regarding jerk-type fuel pumps as used on some auxiliary diesel engines,
the delivery cutoff point is controlled with a

A. delivery valve spring

B.spill port for leakoff

C.check valve in the guide

D.helical groove on the plunger

1346. What is the crank angle between any two crank throws in the firing order of
a four stroke cycle in line 8 cylinder diesel engine

A. 45’

B. 60’

C. 90’
 D. 100’

ANS: C

1347 The firing order of an in-line,four-stroke/cycle,six cylinder,auxillary diesel

engine is 1-5-3-6-2-4.When the #1 cylinder is firing at top dead center,the #3
piston is________

A.on the intake stroke

B.on top dead centre

C.on the power stroke

D.at bottom dead centre

Ans:A

1348 Precombustion chambers air cells and energy cells in high speed small bore
diesel engines all serve to increase_________

A.firing pressure

B.ignition quality of fuel

C.fuel/air ratio during compression

D.turbulence

Ans:D

1349 Which of the following statements represents the advantage of a

precombustion chamber used in an auxillary diesel engine?

A.Timing of injection does not need to to be exact

B.tubulence is eliminated

C.lower mean effective pressure are developed

D.Excellent control of combustion can be attained

 Ans:A

1350 In a fuel floating gudgeonpin the pin is prevented from sliding against the
cylinder valves by__________

A.snap rings

B.seal welding

C.press fitting

D.a tongue and groove

Ans:A

1351 The exhaust valve opens before bottom dead centre in afour stroke engine
to_________.1 allow for blow down 2.reduce pumping losses

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.both 1 and 2

D.neither 1 nor 2

Ans:C

1352 A V-12 four stroke cycle 500 horsepower diesel engine is operating under a
normal load the firing pressure are low and exhaust temperature are high.Which
of the following problems is the more probable cause of this condition?

A.fuel pump rack setting is too far out

B.the air intake filter is missing

C.the exhaust back pressure is too high

D.the fuel pump rack setting is too far in

Ans:C
1353 In order to keep excess oil from the intake ports in two stroke cycle diesel
engines________

A.wide compression rings are used

B.oil rings are located above the piston

C.dense chromium plating is used

D.oil rings are located near the bottom of the piston skirt

Ans:D

1354 One advantage obtained from the use of aprecombustion chamber in

adiesel engine is________

A.increased engine thermal efficiency

B.higher peak cylinder pressure

C.higher developed BMEP

D.smooth combustion

Ans:D

1355 The use of push rods are necessary in adiesel engine when________
A.the camshaft is located some distance below the rocker arms

B.the rocker arms are pivoted near their centres

C.two or more valves must be opened and closed at the same time

D.hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters are used

Ans:A

1356 When attempting to restart a warm high speed engine which of the
following reactions can tou expect?

A.excessive fuel use

 B.higher than normal temperature for start up

C.longer starting periods

D.higher than normal lube oil pressure

Ans:B

1357 Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a single
acting four stroke cycle diesel engine than in a single acting two stroke engine
diesel engine because__________

A.bearing pressure in afour stroke cycle single acting four stroke diesel
engine is continually reversed

B.bearing pressure in atwo stroke cycle single acting diesel engine is

continually reversed

C.the maximum bearing pressure is higher un a single acting two stroke

cycle dieswwel engine

D.two stroke cycle diesel engines require more complicated lubrication

piping

Ans:A

1358 Cams used to activate mechanically operated air starting valve on four
stroke diesel engine should have which of the valve lift profiles listed?

A.Abrupt lift with ashort open period abrupt valve seating

B.gradual lift with ashort fully open period and accelerated valve closing

C.abrupt lift giving full valve opening for a long period with agradual valve
seating

D.gradual lift giving full valve opening for a long period with a gradual valve
seating

Ans:C
1359 In adiesel engine with the set to specifications the shape of the cam
determines the valve________

A.point of opening

B.speed of opening

C.lift from its site

D.all of the above

1360 Which type of gudgeon pin uses bearings in the piston bosses but fixed to
the small end of the connecting rod?

A.semifloating

B.full floating

C.solid

D.fixed

Ans:A

1361 A turbocharged four stroke cycle diesel engine has a larger valve overlap
than a naturally aspirated four stroke cycle diesel engine in order to increase the

A.temperature of the exhaust gases

B.energy supplied to the turbocharger

C.air pressure to the intake manifold

D.cooling effect of the exhaust valves

Ans:D

1362 to reduce the weight of the reciprocating parts pistons of high speed
engines are made considerably shorter.This results in__________

A. less piston slap and quiter running

 B.increased crankshaft bearing wear

C.slightly greater piston waer

D.decreased side pressure

1363 valves in the cylinder head of a diesel engine are opened by the direct
action of the_________

A.exhaust pressure

B.valve spring pressure

C.rocker arm movement

D.gudgeon pin movemen

Ans:C

1364 High speed,multicylinder,diesel engines commonly use counterweights

placed opposite to the crankpins to_______

A.prevent bearingloads

B.provide dynamic balance by equalizing centrifugal force

C.counteract inertia forces

D.provide a balance of rocking couples around the crankshaft

Ans:B

Page 71

1365. a four stroke cycle six cylinder in-line diesel engine has a firing order of
153624.when cylinder #6 is firing at top dead center,piston #4 is --------------

A. At top dead center

B. On the compression stroke
C. At bottom dead center
D. On the intake stroke
Ans.d

1366.in a diesel engine closed fresh water cooling system employing a radiator
proper water temperature can be obtained by

A. Adjusting the radiator louvers

B. Passing cooling water through a space heater
C. Piston cooling water through the lube oil cooler
D. Piping exhaust gases across the radiator front

Ans.a

1367.in an auxilary diesel engine by pass type lubricating oil system,the main lube
oil pump forces---------

A. All of the oil used by engine through a filter

B. Some of the oil used by the engine through a filter
C. Some of the oil usedby the engine through the centrifuge
D. Cylinder clearance volume

Ans.b

1368. If a four stroke/cycle diesel engine is running at 1550 RPM, the speed of the
camshaft will be__________

A. 525 RPM

B. 775 RPM

C. 1550 RPM

D. 1800 RPM

Ans. B
1369. An inline engine having a 225mm bore and more than eight cylinders
will________

A. incorporate the use of two explosion relief valves

B.have three explosion relief valves

C. have atleast eight explosion relief valves

D. not be required to have explosion relief valves

Ans.B

1370. An advantage of aluminium pistons, when compared to cast iron pistons

is____________

A. greater high temperature strength

B. better heat conductivity

C. greater weight per cubic cm

D. increased resistance to wear

Ans. B

1371. An electric heater built into some smaller diesel engines is used
to_________________

A. raise lube oil viscosity for easier starting in cold weather

B. increase air inlet temperature

C. increase compression ratio

D. increase jacket water temperature for easier starting in cold weather

Ans.D

1372. In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel engine,
the lube oil bypassing the filter______________
 A. returns directly to the suction side of the pump

B. returns directly to the sump

C. flows to the engine bearings

D. flows through a second-stage strainer, reheater , and returns to the sump

1373. The camshaft on a four stroke/cycle diesel engine provides a means to

operate the ____________

A. fuel injectors

B. exhaust valves

C.intake valves

D.all of the above

Ans.D

1374. In a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine , the power impulse in

an individual cylinder occurs______________

A. once every crankshaft revolution

B. once every two crankshaft revolution

C. once every piston sroke

D. twice every piston stroke

Ans.B

1375. If fuel injection to a four stroke /cycle diesel engine begins earlier than
designed, ignition may be delayed because the ______________

A. cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough

 B. cylinder compression temperature may be too high

C. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough

D. scavenge and purge process is incomplete

Ans.A

1376.Air motion is induced in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine cylinder to

improve air fuel mixing and is known as __________________-

A. su percharging

B. Scavenging

C. turbulence

D. swept volume charging

Ans.C

1377. One of the most methods in preventing a diesel engine piston pin from
contacting the cylinder wall is by the use of________________

A. non-floating pin

B. tape rod bosses

C.snap rings

D. offset drilling

Ans.C

1378. In the operating cycle of a four stroke/cycle diesel engine, blow down to
exhaust manifold pressure must occur before the piston begins the exhaust
stroke to avoid__________________

A. Pressure losses

B. exhaust pulsation
 C. excessive scavenging

D. Pumping losses

Ans.D

1379. Exhaust pipes of multiple engine installations are not to be inter connected
, but are to be interconnected, but are to be run separetely to the atmosphere
________________

A.unless arranged to prevent the return of gases to an idle engine

B. to apoint not lower than the highest load line

C. at a location segregated from other ventilation systems

D. and shall be protected by a rain guard or similar device

Ans A

1380.Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a single

acting , four stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a two stroke/cycle diesel engine
because_________________

A. the direction of pressure on the journals in four stroke engines is

continuously reversing , whereas in two stroke engines it is a constant

B. positive feed lubricators are installed on all bearings of four stroke engines ,
whereas as a spclearance feed system is used on two stroke engines.

C. four stroke engines usually utilise a heavier grade of fuel oil than two stroke
engines

D. two stroke engines usually consume less lube oil than four-stroke engines

Ans.A

1381. During the power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk type piston is a result of
the angle____________
 A. formed by the connecting rod and the cylinder centre line

B. formed by the piston in relation to the piston pin

C. at a location segregated from other ventilation systems

D. and shall be protected by a rain guard or similar device

Ans.A

1382.Auxiliary diesel engines can be automatically shut down as a result

of________________

A. low lube oil temperature

B. low lube oil pressure

C.High exhaust temperature

D.High cooling water pressure

Ans.B

Page 72

1383.An emergency diesel generator should automatically shut down in the event
of_______________

A.Dangerous overspeeding

B. a loss of lube oil pressure

C.the activation of the fixed Co2 system for the emergency generator space

D. All of the above

Ans.D

1384.Prior to starting most medium-speed propulsion diesel engines, which of the

procedures listed should be observed?

A.the expansion tank should be topped off

 B. the fuel filters should be changed

C. the thermostatic water regulating v type piston may alves should be

manually opened

D.the engine should be turned over slowly with the indicator cocks open.

Ans.D

1385. During warmup the expansion of valve stems due to engine heat,is allowed
for by the____________

A. Valve springs

B. hydraulic governor

c.tappet clearance

d.cooling system

Ans.c

1386.high lube oil temperature developing in a diesel engine can result

form_______________

A. High oil pressure

B. Excessive bearing end play
C. Plugged oil control rings
D. Engine overload

1387.in a medium speed diesel engine,a trunk type piston may be cooled
by_______ .i. oil circulation through passage in the piston crown ii.heat transfer
through piston rings and liner wall

A. I only
B. Ii only
C. Either I orii
D. Neither I nor ii
Ans.c

1388.the shape of a cam on a diesel engine determines the

valve’s_____________

A. Point of opening
B. Speed of opening
C. Lift from its seat
D. All of the above arecorrect

Ans.d

1389.one end of a cylinder for a medium or high speed diesel engine is sealed by
the piston and rings ,theother end is sealed by the__________________

A. Crankcase
B. Cylinder head
C. Valve cover
D. Engine frame

Ans.b

1390.the side pressure per unit area,resulting from the angularity of the motion
of the connecting rod,depends primarily on the____________

A. Weight of the piston

B. Length of the piston
C. Length of the cylinder liner
D. Speed of the engine

Ans.b

1391.in a four stroke /cycle diesel engine,after the completion of the power
stroke,the piston will move_______________

A. Up and draw in a fresh air charge

B. Down to burn off fuel
C. Down to compress the fuel air charge
 D. Up and force out the exhaust gas

Ans.d

1392.during the diesel engine power stroke,the side thrust of a trunk type piston
is a result of the angle__________

A. Formed by the connecting rod and cylinder center line

B. Of the bevel on the piston control rings
C. Formed by the crank arm and crank pin
D. Formed by the master and link connecting rod

Ans.a

1393.which of the listed design features is found in an exhaust valve and not in a
intake valve?

A. Alloy steel construction

B. Beveled edges on the valve head
C. Low alloy steel construction
D. Peppet type design
E.

1394.a connecting rod in a four –stroke cycle diesel engine is subject to

______________

A. Tension load twice each crank shaft revolution

B. Compression load during power and compression strokes
C. Inertia load once every four crankshaft revolutions
D. Bending loads at bottom and top dead center

Ans.b

1395.a disadvantage of four –stroke/cycle diesel engine is

A. Higher working temperature of piston and cylinder

B. In use of scavenge ports
C. Fewer power strokes per revolutions of the cranckshaft
 D. Part of the fuel is burned as the piston is moving away from top dead
center

Ans.c

1396.in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine the intake valve opens____________

A. Before TDC and close afterBDC

B. After TDC and close after BDC
C. Before TDC and close before BDC
D. After TDC and close before BDC

Ans.a

FOUR STROKE ENGINE-MAINTAINANCE

1397.Increasing the valve clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm ,will
result in the valve__________

A. Closing later
B. Opening sooner
C. Staying open for a shorter period of time
D. Staying open for a longer period of time

Ans.c

1398.if the oil control rings were installed upside down on a diesel engine
piston,which of the following conditions would result?

A. Excessive oil pumping would occur

B. The rings would lend to overheat
C. The rings groove would be blocked
D. Tendancy for ring breakage is increased

Ans.a
1399.which of the listed problems would be indicated by an accumulation of
water in one cylinder ,in addition to the crank case of an ideal diesel engine?

A. Excessive condensation in that cylinder

B. Water in the fuel system
C. Cracked cylinder liner
D. Leaking lube oil cooler

Ans.c

1400.if a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve compartment
of a diesel engine,the cause may be____________

A. A loose valve stem and guide

B. Excessive tappet clearances
C. A stuck valve
D. All of the above

Ans.d

1401.if there is a “clicking” sound in the valve compartment of a diesel engine

the cause may be____________

A. A worn gudgeon pin

B. Excessive tappet clearance
C. Worn connecting rod bearing
D. All of the above

Ans.b

1402.water accumulating in the crankcase of a diesel engine could

indicate______________

A. A cracked cylinder liner

B. Excessive water in the fuel
C. A leeking intercooler
D. Excessive moisture in the scavange air
 Ans.a

1403.a sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine

can be caused by

a.a leaking fuel injector nozzle

b.bourdon gauge

c.heexcessively early fuel injection

d.malfunctioning valves

ans ;d

1404.if the piston groove drain holes for the oil control rings become clogged
which of the following is likely to occur ?

a.the oil control rings will seat improperly and wear rapidly

b.the piston will overheat due to insufficient lubrication

c.excessive oil will remain on the cylinderwall

d.light brown smoke will emanate from the engine exhaust

ans;c

1405.if you increase the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm which of
the listed conditions will occur ?

a.valve will open later

b.valve will close later

c.amount of fuel injected will be increased

d,amount of fuel injected will be decreased

ans;a

1406.bearing clearances in small high speed diesel engines should be measured

using

a.gauge blocks

b.plasti gauge

c.feeler gauge

d.round solder wire

ans.b

1407.a loud clicking noise occurring from wirhin the valve compartment of an
operating diesel engine would indicate

a.wom valve seats

b.tight rocker arm springs

c.excessive tappet clearance

d.weak rocker arm springs

ans;c

1408.on small diesel engines a noticable decrease in the time interval between
the replacement of the tube filter cartridge indicates

a.piston ring blow by

b.dirty air filter

c.excessive oil pressure

d.excessive oil temperature

ans.a
1409.to check the setting of the overspeed trip on a diesel powered generator
you would use a

a.tachometer

b.torisionmeter

c.dynomometer

d.pony bral

ans.a

1410.immeadiately after starting a small highspeed diesel engine you should

check the

a.cooling water temperature

b.lube oil temperature

c.fuel pressure

d.lube oil pressure

ans.d

1411.increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine will

result in the exhaust valve opening

A.later and closing earlier

B.later and closig later

C.earlier and closing earlier

Ans.A

1412.Afault thermostatic bypass valve,in adiesel engine cooling

System,can result in
A.excessive time required for warming-up

B.excessive freshwater corrosion

C.scale formation on the saltwater side

D.saltwater mixing mixing with the fresh water

Ans.a

1413.when using a fuel with a higher than normal sulphur content in an auxilary
diesel engine you should

a.maintain higher than normal jacket water temperature

b.change the tube oil more frequently than normal

c.maintain a higher air box temperature than normal

d.maintain a higher air box pressure than normal

ans.b

1414.which of the following problems can cause excessive consumption of the

lubricating oil in a diesel engine?

A.dirty lube oil filters

b.excessive piston ring wear

c.excessively high lube oil viscosity

d.excessively low lube oil temperatures

ans;b

1415.if the intake or exhaust valve stem clearance is found to be excessive in

addition to too little movement of the rocker arms you should check for

a.collapsed hydraulic valve litres

b.loose valve spring locks

c.worn valve springs

d.broken valve springs

ans;a

1416.which of the following problems represents one possible cause of high lube
oil consumption in a four stroke diesel ingine?

a.wom intake valve

b.pitted precombustion chambers

c.loose valve tappets

d.high exhaust back pressure

ans.a

1417.the service life of a wom aluminium piston for an auxillary diesel for which
no spares are readily available can be extended by

a.turning down the piston skirt to concentric values

b.knurling the piston skirt surface

c.building up the piston skirt with a liquid epoxy material and then rematching

d.increasing the dimensional of the ring land grooves

ans ;b

1418.which of the changes in the valve timing listed should be carried out when a
naturally aspirated four stroke diesel engine is converted to super charged engine
?

a.retard the intake valve opening and advance the exhaust valve closing period

b.advance the intake and exhaust valve opening period

c.advance the intake valve opening and retard the exhaust valve closing periods
d.retard the intake and exhaust valve closing peroid

ans;c

1419.a loud clicking noise from the valve compartment of an operating diesel
engine would indicate

a.worn valve seats

b.worn main beatings.

c.excessive valve clearance

d.weak rocker arm springs

ans.c

1420.excessively worn or polished ends on a diesel engine valve spring indicate

a.burned exhaust valves

b.excessive spring compression

c.spring surge

d.worn valve seats

ans.c

1421.excessive valve clearance will cause a valve to open

a.earlly and close early

b.early and close late

c.late and close early

d.late and close late

ans.c
1422.in a diesel engine blow by is a result of combustion gases leaking into the
crankcase past the

a.gudgeon pin bushings

b.compression rings

c.cylinder liner seals

d.cylinder liner sealing ring

ans.b

1423.reducing the clearance between a valve stem and rockar arm will result in
the valve

a.having a shorter duration of opening

b.having a longer duration of opening

c.closing sooner

d.opening later

ans;b

1424.excessive vibration in an operating diesel generates may be causing by

a.electrical overload

b.surging at governed rmp

c.loose engine mounting bolts

d.coolant leaking into the cylinder

ans.c

1425.if you were inspecting the valve springs on an auxillary diesel engine.your
best indication of impending spring failure would be

a.a glazed surface on the spring

b.nicks in the protective coating

c.a build up of sludge deposits

d.cracks in the surface of the spring

ans ;d

1426.if the valve tappets in a diesel engine are set at greater clearances than
those specified by the engine manufactur those valves will

a.open late and close early

b.open late and close late

c.fail to open when the engine is cold

d.fail to open at normal operating temperature

ans.a

1427.the overspeeding of the diesel engine driving an electrical genarator could

cause

a.low voltage trip to trip

b.reverse power trip to trip

c.damage to windings

d.excessive exhaust temperature

ans.c

1428.excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause

A.high tube oil viscosity

b.abnormal lube oil consumption

c.low lube oil temperature

d.high firing pressures

ans.b

1429.wom diesel engine intake valve guides can result in

a.increased engine breathing efficiency

b.excessive tappet clearance

c.excessive lube oil consumption

d.lower than normal fuel consumption

ans.c

1430.in a diesel engine the spring force required for proper valve operation is
determined by

a.maximum firing pressure

b.minimum firing pressure

c.cam contour

d.length of the string

ans.c

1431.if an auxilary diesel engine coolant temperature is higher than normal but
the thermostat is determined not to be defective you would suspect a

a.cavitation erosion in the water jackets

b.excess corrosion in hibitor in the coolant

c.dirty jacket water cooler

d.defective turbocharger

ans.c
1432.in a trunk typr diesel engine piston the thickness of the head of crown is
determined by the 1strength requirment 2.heat dissipation requirment

a.1only

b.2only

c.both 1and 2

d.neither 1nor 2

1433.heat damage to fuel injection nozzles on small high speed diesel engines can
be prevented by

a.employing fuel oil as a cooling medium

b.preventing hard carbon deposit on nozzle tips

c.avoiding fuel oil temperature

d.ensuring good mettallic contact

ans.d

1434.tappet clearance refers to

a.clearance between valve spindle and guide

b.compression of the valve springs

c.clearance between valve seat inserts

d.clearance between top of valve stem

ans.d

1435.which of the following precautions must be taken if an electrical immersion

heater is used

a.the coolant temperature must be maintained at 180

b.thermostatic by pass valves must be oppenes before engine starts

c.pressure cap must be removed while the engine is secures

d.electrical power to the heater must be secured before cooling system is drained

ans.d

1436.if the tappet clearance on a diesil engine is set improperly which the
following statements represents

a.too little clearance will cause noicy operation and excessive wear

b.too much cle.arance will cause valve to open and close late

c.too little clearance may prevent the valves

d.too much clearance may prevent combusion loss of compression

ans.c

1437.bearing clearances in small high speed diesel engines should be measured

with

a.gauge blocks

b.plastigauge

c.feeler gauge

d.round solder wire

ans.b

1438.in an auxilary diesel engine the reason for knurling the pistonto

a.improve skirt lubrication

b.allow for expansion

c.transmit forces evently

d.improve the piston seal

ans.a

1439.when the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the manufactur
diesiel engine valves

a.open later than normal

c.close later than normal

d.fail to open when the valves are warm

ans.b

1440.if clearance between a piston and the cylinder wall is excessive piston slap
will occur the slap itself is caused by

a.alternation of side thrust

b.a break down of the lube oil film on wall

c.wom piston boss piston pin bearings

d.pressure in the combustion space

ans.a

1441.excessive tappet clearance in an auxilary diesel engine will cause the valves
to open

a.later and close sooner

b.sooner and close later

1442.poor quality fuel being used in a turbo charged medium speed engine could
result in

a.hard starting

b.excessive fuel consumption

1441 C. sooner and closer sooner

D.later and closer later.

Ans: a

1442 c.loss of power

d.all the above

ans:d

1443 cold clearances between the skirt of an aluminium piston ans the cylinder
liner is about______________

a.twice aslarge as with a casr iron piston

b.the same size as with a caste iron piston

c.half as large with the cast iron piston

d.the same as the crown of an aluminium piston

ans:a

1444 improperly fitted piston rings in the diesel engine can cause ____________

a.excessive lube oil consumption

b.lower than normail lube oil temperature

c.higer than normal exhaust back pressure.

d. excessive crankshaft endplay.

Ans:a

1445 a four stroke cycle turbocl arged,1000 horsepower disel engine has been
operating under load. The load suddenly increases.causing excessive back
exhaust smoke and a rapid rise in the tube oil temperature in response to
this condition,you should_____________
 a.reduce load

b.check your exhaust

c.adjust cooling water temperture.

d.increase the lube oil flow

ans:a

1446 a 16 cylinder main propulsion diesel engine operating at 90% of fuel load.
All cylinder exhaust cylinder indicated at 450 degree celsius except the no.7
cylinder which is indicated at 550 degree celsius all fuel racks are at 21-
22mm except no.7 which is at 16mm.

a.replace and retime no.7 fuel pump.

b.pull no.7 cylinder piston and examine the rings.

c.examine the governor linkage for binding.

d.check the intake manifold pressure for evidence of burnt intake vaves.

Ans:a

1447 irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by

a.high generator load

b.low fuel viscosity

c.high injection pressure

d.binding in the fuel control linkage.

Ans:d.

1448 Decreasing the exhaust valve clearance of a diesel engine will cause the
exhaust valve to open____

A. Earlier and have less lift.

 B. Earlier and remain open longer.
C. Later and greater lift
D. Later and have less duration

Ans:B

1449 a 16 cylinder diesel engine is opertaing at 75%load .all exhaust tempertaure

are between 400 and 450 degree except the #3 cylinder reading of 300
degree celsius.all fuel rack settings are between 21 and 22 millimetes with
the #3 rack at 17mm.What will you do?

A.reduce engine load

B.stop the engine and change out the #3 fuel nozzle

c.increase the #3 rack setting and watch the exhaust temperature

D.stop the engine and adjust the #3 cylinder pump timing.

Ans:C

AUTOMATION-INSTRUMENTATION

1450 why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed freshwater
cooling systems vary the flow of jacket water through the cooler instead of
through the engine?

A.changing the rate of flow in the jackets could caouse localized hot spots.

B.emergency hand control would not be possible if water flow through the
jackets were controlled.

C.excessive cooling would take place in the heat exchangers at high loads.

D.Excessive cavitation erosion would take place in the cooles.

1451 Which of the following statemets is true concerning pressure limit switches
and pressostats installed on auxillary boilers?

A.they are bimetallic elements sensing temperature differentials

corresponding to pressure changes.

B.they consists of a bellows assembly,linked with a snap action

switch.through a pressure adjusting mechanism.

C.they automatically relieve excessive steam pressure by acting

switch,through a pressure adjusting mechanism.

D.they automatically restart the burner sequence via the high water level
signal

Ans:B

1452 If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxillary boiler

fails to relight the burner after a normal shut down,you should check for
a/an______________

A.low steam pressure

B.high voltage on the ignition electrode

C.open air damper

D.faulty photocell detector

1453 a student flame failure in an operating auxillary boiler,equipped with an

automatic combustion control system and burning light fuel,coluld be
attributed to a_____________

A.dead or malfunctioning step up transformer

B.faulty ignition cable connector

C.loose connection on the photocell

D.rapid fuel viscosity increase

Ans:C

1454 in an automatically fired auxillary boiler,restarting from the normal

shutdown cycle in response to steam demand , is initiated by a/an
_____________

A.modulating oressostat, sensing both steam pressure and temperature

B.pyrostat measuring decreased steam pressure and temperature.

C.pressostat measuring only the steam pressure

D.electrode sensing water level

Ans:C

1455 In a diesel engine cooling system, the high temperature alarm contact
maker will be activated on excessively highwater discharge temperature
from the ____________

A.raw water pump discharge

B.expansion tank outlet

C.cooling water heat exchanger outlet

D.engine lacket water outlet

Ans:D

1456 ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler can be caused

by________

A.carbon deposits on the electrode

B.excessive fuel oil temperature

C.pressostat measuring only the steam pressure

D.brickwork failure
Ans:A

1457 the flame safegaurd controls of a large automatically fired auxillary boiler
may consists of a ___________

A.stack switch

B.pyrostat

C.photoelectric cell

D.thermistor

Ans:C

1458: Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler could be

caused by ________.

A. Carbon deposits on the flame scanner.

B. High fuel oil temperature.
C. Low fuel oil temperature.
D. High steam pressure.

Ans: A.

1459: ignition failure in an auxiliary boiler can be caused by _________

A. Carbon deposits on electrodes

B. A jammed open oil solenoid
C. Excess fuel pressure at the nozzle
D. An excessively long purge cycle

Ans: A
1460: which of the listed failures, occurring in an automated diesel generator
system, should cause an audible alarm at the engine room
control station?

A. Low cooling water outlet temperature

B. High lube oil pressure
C. Low lube oil temperature
D. Low starting air preasure

Ans: D

1461: an emergency diesel generator cooling system is equipped with an

automotive type thermostat bellows loses its charge, the thermostat bellows
loses loses its charge, the thermostat will ________

A. Open, and the coolant temperature will increase

B. Open, and the coolant temperature will decrease
C. Close, and the engine coolant temperature will increase
D. Close, and the coolant temperature will decrease

Ans: C

1462: when an auxiliary boiler is on the line the output of the flame scanner can
be checked by placing a microammeter in series with the photoelectric cell circuit.
The readings on high fire should be ________

A. Higher than those at low fire

B. Equal to those at low fire
C. Lower than those at low fire
D. Lower than those at low fire, but the generated voltage will be higher
Ans: A

1463 Diesel engine automated control systems may utilize sensing devices of
dual function with sensing range providing both alam and engine shut down
capability.which of the key points listed would only require an alarm sensor?

A.lube oil pressure and temperature

 B.jacket water pressure and temperature.

C.engine overspread

D.lube oil sump level

Ans:D

1464 the burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted with
variable pressure atomizing burners ,maintains steam pressure by _________

A.cycle on and off

B.changing fuel oil return pressure

C.changing the speed of a rotary cup

D.varying air pressure supplied to the nozzle

Ans:B

1465 if the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxillary boiler

fails to sustain burner ignition after a normal shutdown,you should check for
a/an________

A.faulty photocell detector

B.low steam pressure

C.high voltage on the ignition electrode

D.open air damper

Ans:A

1466 a three way thermostatic control valve regulates the diesel engine cooling
water temperature by passing a portion of the water_____________

A.around the engine

B.around the cooler

 C.to the expansion tank

D.overboard

1467 the primary function of a flame safeguard system as used on an

automatically fired auxiliary

Boiler ,is to the boiler is to prevent___________

A.accidental dry firing and overpressure

B.uncontrolled fires in the furnance

C.explosions in the boiler furnance

D.overheating of the pressure parts.

Ans:C

1468 all automatically fired low pressure heating boilrs must have an
automatic_________

A.fuel cutoff as a result of low water

B.pressure control regulators

C.feedwater control valve

D.superheat control system

1469 the fuel supply system to an automaticalluy auxillary boiler,will be

automatically shutdown if the boiler_________

A.salinity is abnormally high

B.steam demand is too high

C.water level is abnormally low

D.feedwater flow is low

1470 automatic burner shutdown is an auxillary boiler, as a result of a
component failure in the flame

Safeguard controls ,will

A.prevent the boiler from automatically relighting

B.eliminate the need for furnance purging

C.cause automatic restart after a purge period

D.cause an explosion in the boiler furnance

Ans:A

1471 In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system ,the amount of coolant
flowing through the heat exchanger is controlled by the _________

A.suction pressure regulator

B.themostatic bypass valve

C.seawater temperature

D.water level in the expansion tank

Ans:B

1472 under which of the following conditions must the combustion control
system for a small automatic auxillary boiler secure the burner?

A.High water level

B.low steam pressure

C.flame failure

D.high fuel oil temperature

Ans:C
1473 temperature control valves installed in the jacket cooling water system of a
diesel engine ,modulates the rate of water flow through
the______________

A.cooling water pump

` B.nozzle cooling passages

C.cylinder jackets

D.heat exchanger

Ans:D

1474 At the beginning of the prepurge period on an automatic auxillary boiler

equipped with a programmed control system, the until will not restart if
airflow is not sensed and_________

A.the damper is not sufficient opened

B.the damper is not fully closed

C.oil pressure is not sensed

D.water pressure is not sensed

Ans:A

1475 after a normal or safety shutdown,automatic combustion control systems

for an auxillary boiler are designed to prevent the immediate refiring of
a burner in order for the_________

A.furnance to be repurged

B.electric charge to builtup in the ignitor

C.fuel pump to restart

D.drum level to stabilize

Ans:A
1476 which of the following types of feedwater regulators is commonly used
with a water-tube natural circulation auxillary boiler?

1477 Automatic combustion control systems for auxiliary boilers are designed to
cycle burners on and off in response to be____________
1478.If the operating element of a thermostatic valve installed in a diesel engine
cooling system malfunctions ,it may result in_______

A.a low level in the engine expansion tank

B.excessively high coolant pressure

C.improper temperatures

D.malfunctioning of the jacket water heater

Ans:C

1479.Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are

designed to cycle burner on and off in response to________

A.fuel supply pressure

B.fuel return pressure

C.steam pressure

D.furnace air pressure

Ans:C

1480.Engine protection by means of an alarm or shutdown control can be

obtained with devices that are sensitive to_________

A.temperature

B.pressure

C.engine speed

D.all the above

1481.Control of the main propulsion diesel engines can be shifted from the
engine room to the wheelhouse from the_______________

A.wheelhouse control station

B.engine room control station

C.captain’s office

D.chief engineer’s office

1482.To test the operation of the flame failure switch of an operating

automatically fired auxiliary boiler,you should______________

A.de-energise the high voltage ignition system

B.moves the igniter away from the normal firing position

C.close the manual fuel valve with burner firing

D.shift the control to low fire

Ans:C

1483.Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel enginesfunction to

stop the engine by______

A.increasing the volume of intake air

B.shutting off the fuel supply

C.increasing the engine back pressure

D.overspeeding the engine

Ans:B

1484.The programmed control system of an automatic auxiliary boiler will

terminate the light off process during the prepurge period if air flowbis not
sensed and________

A.the damper is not sufficiently open

B.the damper is not fully closed

C.oil presure is not sensed

D.water pressure is not sensed

Ans:A

1485.On auxiliary boilers using individual flame scanners to monitor the main and
pilot flames,the main flame scanner should be sighted to_______

A.detect pilot flames that are incorrectly positioned

B.view the refractory directly opposite the main burner

C.avoid detecting the pilot flame

D.view the main flame in its outer periphery

Ans:C

1486.Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are

designed to cycle burners on in response to________

A.low fuel pressure

B.fuel return pressure

C.low steam pressure

D.furnace air pressure

Ans:C

1487.If the flame of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler tends to move away
from the burner tip whwn the firing rate is changed from low to high .you
should_______

A.decrease the fuel pressure

B.adjust damper linkage to slow the opening rate of the dampers

C.adjust damper linkage to length then the purge period

D.adjust the photocell to observe the new flame position

1488.Which of the following conditions will cause only one of the burner solenoid
valves to close on an automaticlly fired , two burner unit,auxiliary boiler?

A.loss of the forced draft fan

B.low boiler water level

C.high boiler water level

D.a faulty coil in one the solenoid valves

Ans:D

1489.While an auxiliary boiler is operated at design load,which of the following

actions will occur if the automatic cumbustion control system detects a steam
pressure drop?

A.more burners will be lighted off

B.the registers will open fully

C.the fuel oil valve and air damper will open wider

D.the steam flow will be automatically regulated

Ans:C

1490.The main propulsion diesel engine jacket water temperature rises above
normal,with the raw water sea suction and the expansion tank water level being
normal.Which of the following problems is most likely the cause?

A.faulty thermostatic bypass valve

B.eroded zinc pencils in the heat exchanger

C.steam formation in the expansion tank

D.excessive leakage from jacket water pump seals

Ans:A
1491.constant capacitypressure atomising fuel oil burners installed on
automatically firedauxiliary boilers,respond to variation in load demand
by__________

A.automatically increasing the fuel/air ratio

B.automatically cycling the burner on and off

C.responding to the boiler high and low water level limit switches

D.regulating the fuel oil service pump discharge pressure

Ans:B

1492.Burner ignition failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler would be

caused by__________

A.a burned out solenoid in the oil supply valve

B.high temperature excess air

C.incorrectly setting the hotwell dump valve

D. an incorrectly positioned burner snubber assembly

Ans:A

1493.An automatically fired auxiliary boiler is required by regulations to be shut

down as a result of

____________

A.low boiler pressure

B.low water level

C.wide flame cone angle

D.high fuel oil pressure

Ans:B
1494.If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler
fails to restart from the normal shutdown mode,you should check for_________

A.broken or grounded high tension leads

B.a faulty ignition cable connector

C.an incorrect electrode setting

D.all the above

Ans:D

1495.When the steam pressure drops below a set value on an automatically fired
auxiliary boiler,fitted with rotary cup atomzers the combustion control system
will________

A.increae the fuel oil control valve opening

B.increase the rotary cup speed

C.decrease the back pressure regulating valve opening

D.decrease the supply steam control valve opening

Ans:A

1496. The jacket water temperature in a diesel engine closed fresh water cooling
system is normally controlled by _______

A.regulating the level of corrosion inhibiter in the primary cooling system.

B.the level of freshwater expansion tank.

C.varying the engine load to meet temperature requirments.

D.the operation of thermostatic value

Ans:D
1497.On an automatically fired auxiliary boiler , the steam pressure limit switch is
wired in to the burner electric circuit to___________

A.energised flame scannercircuit when high boiler pressure is reached

B.sound and alarm whwn the burner is shut off

C.shut off the burner when cutoff pressure is reached

D.maintain smoke less fuel oil atomisation

Ans:C

1498.A failure of any component of a flame safeguard controll for an auxiliary

boiler will result in______

A.furnace explosion

B.automatic burner shut down

C.uncontrollable firing

D.automatic restart

Ans:B

1499.the fuel oil supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler,will automatically

shut down if the boiler_____

A.steam demand is high

B.salinity is high

C.safety value simmers

D.burner flame is extinguished

Ans:D

1500.Control of the fuel oil metering value in an autamatically fired auxiliary

boiler is accomplished by a______
A.pressure magnifying device in the steam coil outlet

B.signal from feedwater electrode

C.metering device in the air supplyline

D.steam pressure sensing device with linkage to the damper air vanas

Ans:D

1501.The pressostat is installed on a auxiliary boiler to sense steam pressure

changes,it______

A.controlls the flow feedwater to the boiler

B.monitors the boiler high water level

C.secures the fires when a fusible plug burns out

D.automatically regulates the quandity of oil and air flow to the burner

Ans:D

1502.Which of the automatic boiler controlls listed should be tested prior to

lighting off oa auxiliary boiler?

A.automatic bottom blow value

B.low water level cutoff switch

C.voltage output of the ignition transformer

D.insulation resistance readings in the ignition system high tension leads

Ans:B

1503.The photo electric cell installed in a automatically fired auxiliary boiler

burner management system________

A.opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure

B.must be bypassedat low firing rates

C.requires mechanical linkage to secure theburner fuel supply

D.detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heatfrom glowing refractory

Ans:A

1504.If the jacket water temperature in a auxiliary diesel engine cooling system is
lower than normal,the probable cause is _______

A.air binding of the engine cooling system

B.a cracked water cooled exaust manifold

C.blockage in heat exchanger

D.faulty operation of the thermostat

Ans:D

1505.The diesel engine control can be obtained by the bridge___________

A.at an time

B.only after the engine room control station is switched to “bribge control”

C.whenever the secondary station is switched to “bridge control”

D.with the approval of the chief engineer only

Ans:B

1506.The temperature at which an adustable bellows type thermostat valve is set

by____

A.changing the position of the actuating bulb

B.replacing the bellows with a heavier spring

C.varying air loading pressure to the bellows

D.change in spring compression to oppose bellows

Ans:D

POWER TRANSMISSION,GEARS AND CLUTCHES

1508.Where diesel engine speed and clutch controls are combined into one
operation by a single control lever,movement of the lever from the “stop”position
to the ahead position will FIRST_________

A.decrease the engine speed

B.increase the engine speed

C.engage the clutch

D.disengage astern clutch

Ans:C

1509.The control system for a controllable pitch propeller can be programmed

_________.1.to produce a maximum combined propeller and engine efficiency
between pitch and a given engine speed.2.for a continuous operation of the
engine at pre set conditions

A.1 only is correct

B.2 only is correct

C.both 1 and 2 are correct

D.neither 1 or 2 are correct

Ans:C

1510.A diesel engine is operating at 1800 RPM and driving a propeller at

600RPM.What is the speed reduction ratio

A.0.3021

B.3.00 to1
C.3.33 to 1

D.3.3 to 1

Ans:D

1511.The torque transmitted by an electromagnetic slip coupling is depenbent

upon excitation and the _______

A.engine speed

B.harmonic frequency

C.amount of slip

D.resonance

Ans:C

1512.Which of the couplings listed will prevent shock loads from being
transmitted to an engine?

A.grid

B.dog type

C.friction

D.hydraulic

Ans:D

1513.In most marine single reduction gear units ,the spur gear is driven by the
______

A.quillshaft

B.hellical gear

C.pinion gear

D.spur gear
Ans:C 1514. Hydraulic couplings will transmit torque equal to the input torque by
means of energy changes in a rotating vertex of liquid. For the vertices to
form , there must be

A. slip between the impeller and runner B. less than two percent slip between
the impeller and runner C. axial thurst generated by the runner pinion shaft

D. momentary torsional vibration transmitted by the driving impeller

1515. Helical reduction gears , as used with main propulsion drive trains, are
constructed so that several teeth are meshed at the same time to…………..

A. eliminate propeller shaft end thrust

B. translate heavy load into high speed output

C. provide smooth continuous power transmission

D. allow construction with fewer gear teeth

Ans. C

1516. which of the following characteristics is true relative to meshing spur gears?

A. the gear of large diameter will rotate at a smaller RPM.

B.both bears will operate in same direction

C. the teeth on the large gear are larger than the teeth in smaller gear

D. power can be transmitted in 90 angel

Ans. A

1517. gear-type flexible couplings are often used in diesel engine drive strains
because they……….

A. require no lubrication under normal operating conditions

B. compensate for grass misalignment in the drive train

C. are able to translate high torque ,even where slight misalignment exists

D. will rapidly disconnect the engine from the line shaft

Ans. C

1518. when used with reversing reduction gears, medium-speed diesels engine
should be bolted to their foundations with fitted bolts at the drive end and
clearance bolts in other locations by………

A. maintain alignment when ships hull is working in heavy seas

B. ensure engine vibrations correspond to the natural freguency of the hull

C. permit the engine to expand away from the driven equipment as the engine
heats up and expands

D. maintain engine thrust bearing clearances

Ans. C

1519. the best method fpr determining the amount of eccentricity or offset
misalignment between the disconnected propeller shaft coupling flange and
rotation gear output flange is by ……………

A. straight edge laid across the flange edges

B. thickness gauge between the separated flange faces

C. bridge gauge to check the position of each flange in relation to other

D. dial indicator mounted on one flange indicating any misalignment of the other
flange

Ans.D

1520. A flexible coupling is located between the…………..

A. engine and the pinion

B. lineshaft and tailshaft

C. pinion and the bull gera

D. thrust bearing and the worm gear

Ans. A

1521. reduction gears casings are vented in order to ……………

A. allow windage to exit for cooling the gears

B. avoid a build of pressure within the gear case

C. avoid lube oil foaming within the case

D. allow for proper lubrication of the friction clutch shoes

Ans. B

1522. which of the types of reduction gearing listed is the best suited for medium
speed main propulsion units?

A. hypoid

B. helical

C. cyclical

D. spur

Ans. B

1523. misaligment of the of the drive shaft and propeller shaft fianges can be
detected by using a dial indicator or

A. inside micrometer

B. feeler gauge and straight edge

C. adjustable trammel

D. sighting device
Ans. A

1524. which of the bearing types is listed is most commonly used in smaller
vessel main propulsion reduction gears as thrust bearings

A. ball bearings

B. poured bearings

C. sleeved bearings

D. tapered roller bearings

Ans. D

1525. when more than one propulsion diesel engine is connected to a single
propeller shaft through

Reduction gears ,the gears are usually ..

A. single reduction
B. double reduction
C. triple reduction
D. quadruple reduction

Ans.A

1526. which of the following statement is correct concerning a hydraulic

coupling?

A. rapid declutching is impossible

B. accurate alignment between the rotating members is extremely important

C. torque is controlled by the volume of in the coupling

D. torosional vibration from the engine are transmitted directly to the hull by the
coupling

Ans.C
1527. one advantage of hydraulic clutches over mechanical clutches in diesel
engine installation is

A. the power is transmitted at a very high efficiency of 60%

B. the torosional vibrations are transmitted directly to the reduction gears

C. each clutches has a separate oil gland for reverse operation

D. no mechanical connection exists between the driven systems

Ans. D

1528. The magnetic lock between the armature and field in an electromagnetic
coupling is established by…………..

A. controlled engine speed

B. energizing the field coils

C. brush contact with the armature

D. rotating the primary rotor

Ans. B

1529.in reducing engine speed to an efficient propeller speed by the use of

reduction gears,

A. speed and torque are reduced

B. speed is reduced and torque remains unchanged

C. speed is reduced and torque is increased

D. speed is sometimes unchanged while torque is increased

Ans. C

1530.when changing the direction of propeller shaft rotation in a diesel land

equipped with a pneumatic clucth , you must , pause at neutral to allow the……..
A. fuel lack to readjust

B. engine to slow down

C. propeller to stop

D. clutch to deflect

Ans.D

1531.Airflex clutches are used to transmit power from a diesel engine to the
propeller shaft .a restricted orifice is used in the control air system of this unit
to………

A.decay deflation of the clutch being disengaged

B.delay inflation of the clutch being engaged

C.reduce the deflation time of both clutches

D.reduce the inflation time of both clutches

ANS:B

1532.The power loss associated with slip in fluid coupling appears as…….

A.chattering in the driving member

B.heat in the hydraulic fluid

C.vibration in the driving member

D.leakage around the ring valve

ANS:B

1533.slippage of an air operated friction clutch can result from…….

A.an overloaded engine

B.prolonged slow speed operation

C.weak disc springs

D.newly installed friction blocks

ANS:A

1543.proper operation of the main engine reduction gear set recquires the
operator to monitor…..

A.the sump oil level

B.oil flow sight glasses

C.bearing temperatures

D.all the above

ANS:D

1544.when air is delivered under pressure to one of the glands of an air-

bladder clutch,the……..

A.inside diameter of the clutch gland increases

B.inside diameter of the clutch gland decreases

C.gland rotates out of contact with the drums

D.clutch begins to rotate with the engine

ANS:B

1545.to guarantee that a reduction gear bearing is receiving proper oil

supply,you should check the………

A.lube oil temperature at the cooler outlet

B.lube oil strainer magnets\

C.bearing lube oil temperature

D.lube oil pressure to the bearing

ANS:C

1546.when transmitted by a reduction gear ,diesel engine speed is reduced and

the torque available for work…..

A.remains the same

B.is reduced

C.is increased

D.is eliminated

ANS:C

1547.which of the couplings listed is normally not repairable,and is usually

replaced if completely damaged?

A.flexible disk-ring coupling

B.gear-type coupling

C.grid spring coupling

D.block and jam coupling

ANS:B

1548.when passing through mesh contact ,the teeth of a reduction gear first go
through a series of actions best described as……..

A.galling

B.squeezing

C.sliding

D.slipping

ANS:C
1549 .what type of reduction gear would most commonly be used with twin
medium-speed propulsion diesel engines driving a single shaft?

A.single reduction,planetary

B.single reduction, single input

C.single reduction ,double input

D.double reduction,double input,articulated

ANS:C

1550 .The air bladder clutch used with some reversing drive gears,consists
of……….

A.twin-disk clutch plates

B.jaw-type clutch plates

C.multi-plate friction plates with sliding collars

D.two independent clutches

ANS:D

1551 .in using reduction gears to obtain efficient propeller speeds,……….

A.they must be located at the after end of the engine

B.they can only be used with one engine at a time

C.they eliminate the need for controllable pitch propellers

D.they are connected to the engine with a flexible coupling

ANS:D

1552) some medium and high speed diesel engine require reduction gear units
to provide a useful propeller speed. In most reduction gears, the spur gear-------
a) must churn the oil in the sump.

b) is connected to the propeller unit.

c) is driven at the highest rpm.

d) compensates for alignment variations between the engine and the pinion gear.

Ans) b.

1553)although slip in pneumatic clutches is normally undesirable in modern

pneumatic clutch arrangements.some reduction gear units are provided with an
optional slip clutche which is used to an advantage in----------

a)reducing high speed torque vibrations

b)controlling the warm up of clutche friction surface.

c)obtaining menouvereing speed below engine idle speed.

d)limiting shock loads transmited to the engine in heavy weather.

Ans) c.

1554)the volume of the air supply line between the control valve and the clutch
varies with the --------

a)size of the clutch.

b)volume of the supply between the control valve and the clutch .

c)frequency of engagement.

d)all of the above

ans) d.

1555)on of the most comman causes of reduction gear failure is gear wear caused
by scoring as aresult of --------------

a)surface of the gears

b)an on inadequate lube oil film,

c)plastic of the gears.

d)fretting corrosion from water comtamination.

Ans) b.

1556)in an electromagnetic slip coupling ,the slip-------

a)reduces magnetic pull caused by non concentric electromagnets..

b)reduces resonance and accentuates the turning moment.

c)transmits electro magnet flux through the primary circuits.

d)generates the low frequency current which exites the secondary

electromagnet.

Ans) d.

1557)which of the following statements represents an advantage of an

electromagnet clutch.

a)it aids in maintaining the power factor.

b)slip is held to a minimum when reversing shaft rotation.

c)engine torsional vibrations to the divert shaft are eliminated.

d)large misalignment can be tolerated between the shaft and engine coupling.

Ans) c.

1558)one advantage of electromagnet couling is------

a)torsional vibrations are reduced.

b)torque increases with a decrese in excition current.

c)the couling rapidly responds to sudden changes of load.

d)excitation and induction power posses appear as change in torque instead of
rotational speed between the primary and the secondary elements.

Ans) a.

Cooling
systems

1559)diesel engine jacket water is used in the distillation process as the ------------
------

a)coolant for the distiilates

b)coolant for the brinw cooler

c)means of heating the feed water

d)primary means of procing a vaccum within the distiller

ans) c.

1560)in any diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the lowest pressure
axists as the------------

a)jacket water outlet

b)cooling water pump outlet

c)heat exchanger outlet

d)expansion tank atmospheric vent.

Ans) d.

1561)the expansion tank for a diesel engine closed cooling system is designed to
maintain a constant head on the system and-----------
a)reduce water temperature

b)reduce water turbulence

c)provide an air cushion

d)allow for an increase in water volume as the engine warms up

ans) d.

1562)a closed freshwater cooling system is commonly used with marine diesel
engine because the----

a)a need for water treatment is eliminated

b)cooling water temperature differential is greater

c)cooling water pumps are directly reversible

d)jacket water temperature I more easily controlled

ans) d.,

1563)which of the following statements describes the function of the expantion

tank in a diesel engine cooling system?

a)maintain a constant head on the system

b)reduce the likelihood of air or steam pockets formation

c)provides a low pressure point for the addition of makeup cooling water

d)all the above

ans) d.

1564)the outlet from a expansion tank of a closed fresh water cooling system
should piped to the ----------

a)cylinder head water outlet header

b)cylinder jacket inlet main

c)heat exchanger inlet connection

d)jacket water pump suction line

ans) d.

1565)high diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by the ---------
---

a)a worn water pump

b)not enough coolant

c)air in the cooling system

d)all of the above

ans) d.

1566)high diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by--------

a)air In the cooling system

b)an overhauled water pump

c)correct amount of coolant

d)no air Ii the cooling system

ans) a.

1567)higher than normal jacket water temperatures occurring in all cylinders of a

diesel engine can result from a -----------

a)oil suction line restriction

b)correct amount of coolant

c)cavitation erosion in the water jackets

d)clogged sea suction strainer

ans) d.

1568)the highest pressure in any closed diesel engine freshwater cooling system
is at he ----------
a)jacket water outlet

b)expansion tank inlet

c)heat exchanger inlet

d)cooling water pump outlet

ans) d.

1569)which of the following statement is correct concerning diesel engine cooling

water system?

a)each engines must have its own cooling water pump capable of providing
cooling for all ranges of operation
b)propulsion engine with a bore exceeding 200mm ar to be fitted with a means
to display the cooling water temperatures of each cylinder
c)suitable strainers are to be fitted between the circulating pumps and the heat
exchangers when sea water is used direct cooling

d)at least two independent sea suction are to be provided for supplying water to
the engine jackets or to the heat exchangers.

Ans) b.

1570)which of the following statements is correct for the design and installation if
the diesel engine colling water systems?

a)an alarm device with audible and visual signals is required for all the cooling
water systems

b)propulsion engines with bore 200mm are to be fitted with cooling water
thermometer at each cylinder

c)each totally enclosed cooling systems shal be provided with a suitable head tank

d)drain cocks are to be provided at the lowest point of all the cylinder water
jackets.\
ans) d.

1571)in a diesel engine jacket cooler water ,with sea water cooling the fresh
water ,the-------------

a)sea water temperature must never be warmed than 40F

b)jacket water pressure should be greater than sea water pressure

c)jacket water temperature must be less than 60F

d)jacket water pressure must be less than the sea water pressure

ans) b.

1572)jacket water heaters are used on diesel engine to -------------

a)help the engine start easily in cold weather

b)maintain the proper jacket water pH

c)maintain the proper expansion tank water level.

d)keep the engine room warm

ans) a.

1573)the device allowing for the change in volume of the cooling water I a
propulsion diesel engine closed cooling system is the ------

a)fresh water expansion tank

b)sea water expansion tank

c)thermo static expansion tank

d)jacket water cooler accumulater

ans) a.

1574)in a closed cooling water system for a turbocharged .four stroke cycle diesel
engine ,fluctuating waster pressure can be caused bu the ……
a)improper venting of the cooling system

b)carrying the expansion level water too high

c)a totally clogged impeller in the cooling water pump

d)an incorrectly sat coling system temperature control

ans) a.

1575)the expansion tank in a diesel engine closed cooling fresh water system is
located at----

A)the highest point in the system

b)the lowest point in the system

c)or near the floor plate level

d)or near the tank top level

ans) a.

1576)in a closed cooling system which of the problems can cause the water
pressure to fluctuate

a)an open in the cooling system

b)a fouled sea chest

c)a restricted water passage in the engine

d)air entrained in the cooling water

ans) d.

cooling system
maintenances

1577)the interior of some salt water heat exchangers are protected from
corrosion by the use of -------
a)aluminium plates

b)lead cathodes

c)copper baffle plates

d)sacrificial zincs

ans)d.

1578)corrosive on inhibitors and/or soluble oils are added to the diesel engine
cooing system to -------

a)maintain low pH in the cooling water

b)reduce the cooling water temperature

c)increase colling water hardness

d)form a protective film on metal surface

ans) d.

`1579)when checking zinc in a saltwater cooled heat exchanger,you should ---------

--

a)paint the zincs to stop corrosion.

b)insulate the zinc to alter the temperature

c)replace the zinc if they are 50% consumed

d)file the zinc to change the shape

ans)c

1780a diesel engine cooling water system with a pH factor of 3.0 indicates the
condition of ----------

a)slight acidity

b)slight alkalinity
c)axcessive alkalinity

d)axcessive acidity

ans) d.

1581)which of the listed effects would the film of alkaline chromate have on the
metal surface of the cooling system of a diesel engine?

a)increase the rate of heat transfer

b)retard the flow of cooling water

c)protect metallic surface from corrosion

d)tends to increase the corrosion

ans)c.

1582antifreeze solution containing ethylene glycol should not be mixed with

corrosion protection oils as the resultant mixture ------------

a)is dangerously flammable

b)promote scale build up

c)may cause frothing

d)has a higher chloride content

ans)c.

1583)if the coolant temperature of closed cooling water system for a diesel
engine gradually increases the trouble usually is

a)a broken shaft on the fresh water pump

b)an excessive accumulation of scale in the heat exchanger

c)an incorrect thermostatic element operating range

d)lube oil in the cooling water

ans)b.

1584)ethylene glycol when used as a coolant in a closed system for a diesel

engine,is more advantages than untreated raw water because it------

a) provides a constant pH below 7

b)provides better vapour phase cooling

c)has a higher freezing point and a lower boiling point

d)has a lower freezing point and higher boiling point

ans)d.

1585)in a diesel engine cooling water system ,a pH of 6.0 indicates a----

a)slightly acidic condition

b)slightly alkaline condition

c)over treatment of water

d)neutral condition of water

ans)a.

1586)failure to ensure proper vanting of the cooling system of a diesel engine can
result in-------

a)axcessive air charge density

b)priming in the expansion tank

c)failure of raw water pump shaft seals

d)local overheating and/or internal corrosion

ans)d.

PAGE 83
1587. If the jacket water temperature of an operating diesel engine suddenly
rises above the normal, the cause can be attributed to

a. An overfilled expansion tank.

b. Excess chrome treatment of the jacket water.

c. A clogged raw water section.

d. Cavitations’ erosion of the heat exchange tube.

Ans : C

1588. If the raw water supply pressure for a diesel engine cooling system below
the normal, you should check for a

a. Broken thermostat

b. Clogged sea strainer.

c. Blow heat gasket.

d. Cracked head.

Ans: B

MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS

1589. When reassembling the bowl of a disk- type centrifuge, the bowl or locking
ring is rotated

a. Clockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise

b. Clockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise

c. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise

d. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise.

Ans : C
1590. Which of the listed contaminated will be satisfactory removed from the
fuel oil by centrifuging?

a. Sludge

b. Diesel oil

c. Lube oil

d. Gasoline

Ans : A

1591. Which of the following condition is most likely to occur if oil containing
moisture is continuously fed to the purifier operating as a clarifier?

a. The purifier must be operating at the higher temperature.

b. The purifier must be operated at a higher speed.

c. The purifier will gradually change operation to separation.

d. The bowl will eventually fill with water.

Ans : D

1592. If fuel oil were discharged from the waste water outlet of a fuel oil disk
type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should

a. Remove the discharge ring

b. Reprime purifier

c. Slow the centrifuge to its proper speed.

d. Install an additional discharge ring.

Ans : B

1593. A centrifuge satisfactory remove which of the following contaminants from

fuel oil?
a. Gasoline.

b. Water.

c. Lubricating oil.

d. Sulphur compound.

Ans : B

1594. If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when operated as a separator
is not primed, the

a. Oil has a tendency to emulsify in the bowl.

b. Purifier will act as a clarifier at the discharge ring.

c. Oil will be lost through the water discharge ports.

d. Oil solids will be deposited only at the intermediate top disks.

Ans : C

1595. Which factor determines the ring dam size for a fuel oil, tubular bowl type,
centrifugal purifier?

a. The viscosity of the fuel.

b. The quantity of the water to be removed from the fuel.

c. The specific gravity of the fuel.

d. The quantity of the dirt to be removed from the fuel.

Ans : C

1596. The output pressure of a diesel engine lube oil is regulated by an

a. Relief valve.

b. Metering valve.
c. Variable speed pumps drive.

d. Crevice in the lube oil header.

Ans : A

1597. The lube oil is used in a diesel engine is

a. Volute pumps

b. Centrifugal pumps.

c. Diaphragm pumps.

d. Gear pumps.

Ans : D

1598. How does water enter the crankcase of a diesel engine?

a. Through the crankcase exhauster.

b. As water vapor contained in blow by.

c. Demulsifying lube oil passing through the main bearings.

d. Condensation from vapor formed in the expansion tan.

Ans : B

1599. Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel engine heat
exchangers to

a. Reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals.

b. Keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean.

c. Prevents rapid accumulation of marine growth.

d. Provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces.

Ans : A
1600. Cooling water pumps driven by direct-reversing diesel engines are usually

a. Curved impeller vane with tangential outlet.

b. Curved impeller vane with concentric outlet.

c. Straight impeller vane with concentric housing.

d. Straight impeller vane with tangential housing.

Ans : C

1601. Which of the following problem will cause above normal cooling water
temperature in a diesel engine using a closed freshwater cooling system?

a. An air leak in the header tank cover.

b. Benzotrialole found in the primary water.

c. Eroded baffle in the cooler.

d. Low level in the expansion tank.

Ans : C

1602. Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube cooler will be
indicated by a gradual increase in the lube oil

a. TBN number.

b. Viscosity

c. Temperature

d. Foaming.

Ans : C

1603. Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are usually of
the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric housing is

a. Facilitate bi-directional operations.

B. provide the greatest pump efficiency.

c. Prevent pump clogging from the marine growth.

d. Prevents cavitations at the pump outlets.

Ans : A

1604. In a bypass lubrication system for a diesel engine, the dirty oil line to the
centrifuge should be taken from the

a. Lube oil pump suction line.

b. Lube oil pump discharge line.

c. Bottom of the lube oil pump.

d. Outlet from the lube oil header.

Ans : C

1605. The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the

a. Vent line.

b. Overflow line.

c. feed line.

d. Sounding tube.

Ans : D

1606. Standby or emergency diesel generators day tanks should always be kept
full to reduce the possibility of

a. Sediment contamination.

b. Fuel filter clogging.

c. moisture formation.
d. inadequate transfer pump suction head.

Ans : C

1607. When centrifuging heavy fuel oil, an important factor to consider is the

--------- I. flow rate, II . Viscosity of the fuel oil

a. I only is correct.
b. B. II is only correct.
c. C. both I and II are correct.
d. Neither I nor II.
Ans : C

1608. Valves used in diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping are to be

a. so constructed as to permit packing under pressure.

b. solenoid released upon the failure of engine lubrications.

c. either of the gate or globe valve value.

d. forge constructed under the approval of the marine inspector.

Ans : A

1609. Heavy residual fuel oil are heated prior to centrifuging to

a. reduce fuel weight.

b. increase specific gravity.

c. seperate fuel from lube oil.

d. reduce fuel viscosity

Ans : D

1610. Lube oil pumps taken suctions from the sump of the most small marine
engines usually
a. of the diaphragm type.

b. of the centrifugal type.

c. of the positive displacement type.

d. independently driven by electric motors.

Ans : C

1611. Which of the listed types gasket material should be used on high pressure
fuel oil on diesel engines?

a. fiberglass.

b. sheet asbestos.

c. neoprene.

d. different type centrifuges are required for the main engines and gear lube
system

Ans : D

1612. A centrifuge is normally used to purify

a. cooling water.

b. fuel oil

c. sea water.

d. diesel intake air.

Ans : B

1613. If the cooling water temperature and the lube oil temperature in diesel
engines are too high, the causes can be

a. the dirty lube of strainer.

b. internal water leak.

c. an oil suction line restrictions.

Excessive wear of the cooling water pump.

Ans : D

1614. Which of the listed substance can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel
by centrifuging?

a. sludge.

b. gasoline

c. fuel oil

d. lube oil.

Ans : A

1615. When fuel oil is accidently mixed with lube oil which of the following
processes can be used to seperat them? I. filtering ,II. Setting

a. I only.

b. II only

c. either I or II

d. Neither I nor II.

Ans : D

1616. Whether using a centrifuge or simple filer, oil cleaning and filtration will be
be the most effective when the oil is at

a. high temperature and high viscosity

b. high temperature and low viscosity

c. low temperature and high viscosity

d. low temperature and low viscosity.

Ans : B

1617. A centrifugal fuel oil purifier should be shut down if

a. more sealing water is needed.

b. the cover clamp needs lightening.

c. the purifier has a bad vibration when started.

d. water is discharged from the overflow lines.

Ans : C

1618. The most effective method in removing water from diesel oil is by

a. centrifuging the fuel

b. using it in the engine.

c. heating the fuel tanks.

d. Straining the fuel.

Ans : A

1619. For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel should be

accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable.

a. throughput.

b. addictive percent.

c. cetane number.

d. TBN number.

Ans : A

1620. Valves and fittings are used with the diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping
may be threaded in sizes up to and including 60 mm O.D , n=but screw unions.
a. are to be used pressure lines in sizes 33mm O.D. and over.

b. over 33mm O.D. will be permitted on lieu of flanged connections

c. shall not be used in any instances where the fitting is subjected to excessive
vibratiuons.

d. are not to be used pressure lines in sizes 33mm O.D. and over.

Ans : D

1621 Which of the following conditions will indicate a need for a finishing cut to
be taken on the pump shaft?

A roughness

B deep ridges

C corrugations

D all of the above

Ans: a

1622 in machine shop practice a center gage is used for checking the angle of

A drill points

B screw threads

C screw thread pitch

D 60 thread cutting tools

Ans:d

1623 very small irregularities on the seat and disc of a globe valve may be
manually repair with the valve in place by the process known as ---------------------

A honing

B lapping in

C refacing

D spotting in

1624 if a drill press is used to completely bore through a metal plate feed
pressure on the drill should be eased as the bit break through the bottom of the
hole to prevent-----------------------

A drill bit breakage

B under sizing holes

C string the spindle

D dulling the drill

1625 Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged , you must be
certain the …………………..

A spindle clutch is disengaged

B carriage clamp screw is loosened

C Carriage stop clamp is tightened

D Thread dial indicator is zeroed

Ans :b

1626 which of the devices listed should be used to reshape a grinding wheel?
A .a round nose tool

B .an oil stone

C .a wheel dreesing tool

D .a sharp nose tool

1627 The tape produde by a lathe tape attachment is determained by setting the
___________

A .gude bar

B. automatic croos feeld

C .tail off center

D .compond rest angle

1628 A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the piece of material to be
threaded is slightly _____________.

A. peened

B. reamed

C. center drilled

D. chamfered

Ans.:D

1629 To properly remove packing from a valve stuffing box, you should use a
_________.

A. sharpened rod of silver solder

B. packing puller

C. chisel and hammer

D. screw driver
Ans.:B

1630 Tapping threads into a blind hole should be finished by using

a____________

A. short tap

B.taper tap

C.plugtap

D.bottoming tap

Ans:D

1631 Which of the following definitions accurately describes “tool feed” when
referring to lathe work?

A.The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work

B.The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece

C.The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in
one minute

D.the chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute

Ans:A

1632 The “pitch”of a screw is the_________________

A.Angle formed by the adjacent flanks of a thread

B.number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw

C.distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads

D.Angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the
thread

Ans:C
1633 The diameter of a hole drilled for tapping threads into a piece of stock
should be_______________

A. Larger than the tap diameter

B. Smaller than the tap diameter
C. The same size as the tap diameter
D. The same size as the bolt diameter
Ans:B

1634 A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with
a_______________
A.taper punch
B.drill drift
C.vice grip
D.leather mallet
Ans:B

1635 Machine bolts are identified by their_______________________

A.taper punch
B.drill drift
C.vice grip
D.leather mallet
Ans:B

1636 Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting___________

A.oil grooves in bearings
B.v-grooves and inside sharp angles
C.holes through metal plate
D.keyways having square corners
Ans:B
1637 When a lathye is used for thread cutting,the number of threads per
inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between
the_______________
A.drive motor and spindle
B.spindle and feed rod
C.leadscrew and head stock spindle
D.lead screw and feed rod
Ans:C

1638 To remove a hand held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has
gone all the way through a hole ,you should_________
A.turn the tap wrench clockwise,simultaneously raising the reamer
B.tap the reamer out with a softfaced hammer
C.turn the tap wrench counter clock wise,simultaneously raising the
reamer.
D.work the reamer side to side to dislodge it
Ans:A

1639 The proper file for a finishing cut on softmetal,such as brass,is

the__________
A.smooth cut file
1640 to properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw
frame,the_________
A.teeth should point toward the handle
B.warding file
C.mill file
D.Second cut file
Ans C

1641the name plug,bottom,and tapper refer to__________

a.pipe fitting
b.measuring instrument
c.machinist’s hand taps
d.drill press parts
Ans:c

1642round split dies are usually adjustable t________

a.allow threading on over sized stock
b.control the diameter of thread cut
c.to help start the die squarly on the round stock
d.allow threading up to sholder
Ans:B

1643for cutting thin tubing or sheet metal,the proper hacksaw blade should
have__________
a.the teeth pointing towards the handle
b.the blade and teeth are of all hard quality
c.14 teeth per inch
d.32 teeth per inch
Ans:D

1644A Metal file has become clogged with fillings and should be cleaned
with a file_________
a.craper
b.card
c.oilstone
d.dressing tool
Ans:B

1645tapes and dies used for threading pipes is___________

a.not hardened
b.not fluted
c.tapered
d.straight
Ans:C
1646copper tubing is best cut with the________
a.tubing cutter
b.handhacksaw
c.pipe cutter
d.flare cutter
Ans:A

1647If you are cutting external thread by hand and you start the die with an
angle then the thread will___________
a.be out of round on work
b .be cut crooked on the work
c.be rough weak an d easly broken
d.straighten out after the third revolution
Ans:B

1648the tool used to expand and bell the ends of small diameter
Copper tubing is__________
a.adjustable tube roler
b.adjustable belling tool
c.flaring tootl
d.tubing expander
Ans:C

1649before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is

to________
a. Use a taper remer
b. Drill to a large diameter of the taper
c. Drill to a small diameter of taper
d. Straighten out after the third revolution
Ans: B

1650 when coming to the end of a cut using hacksaw you should_________
a. stop applying the cutting fluid
b.reduce cutting speed and pressure
c.change to a fine cut blade
d.increese cutting speed and pressure
Ans:B

1651the complete tool used formanually cutting thread on the pipe is

called________
a.tool and die
b.stock and die
c.tap
d.chaser
Ans: B

1652which of the following punches can be used to free a tapered pin

frozen in the hole
a.drift punch
b.aligning punch
c.center punch
d.prick punch
Ans:A

1653 to properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange you

should___________
a.place the gasket over the frange and knock off the excessive material with
lead mallet
b.Remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips
c.make up the flanged joint to make an impression on the flang
surfaces to insure a patern for proper alignment
d.cut grooves into the flang with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact
ans.b

1654 the terms rough coarse bastard second cut,smooth and dead smooth
refers to __
a.shape of the file
b.coarseness of file teeth
c.size of the file
d.cuts of the file
ans.b

1655the term rough , coarse , bastard ,second cut ,smooth and death refer
to_______
a.shape of file
b.coarseness of the file teeth
c.size of the file
d.cuts of the file
Ans: B

1656 for great accuracy some micrometer have a verner making it

possibleto to read in increment of_______
a.one hundred of a millimeter
b.one thousandth of a millimeter.
c.one tenth of a millimeter
d. one thousand of meter
Ans: B

1657a flower reat be used with a lethe to machine

a.large diameter stock between the centre
b.threads on long slender shaft
c.work mounted on the lathe carrieage
d.round stock to a finished dimension
Ans:B

1658 Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchrd stop at the end of the
thimble to
.
A.click at each increment of measure
B.prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
C.stop the spindle from sliding out of barrel
D.eliminate ratchet movement
Ans:B

1659 To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe,you should engage

the
A.feed-change lever
B.split or half nut
C.back gear lever
D.thread-chasing dia
Ans:B

1660 The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached
when
A.The scale is read on the handle
B.the dial is read on the handle
C.an audible click is heard and handle releases
D.a dial lights on the handle
Ans:C
1661 what basic dimensions are used in describing machine bolts ?

A Diameter and length only

B Diameter and cross section only

C Diameter length and number of threads per inch

D Diameter head size and shoulder length

Ans: C

1662 A micrometer would be used to measure

A micro seconds

B round stock diameter

C electrical resistance

D low voltages

Ans: B

1663 To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe you must first

A disengage the the spindle clutch

B engage the feed change lever

C disenge the feed reverse lever

D stop the lathe rotation

1664 The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as

A anvil

B barrel

C frame
D thimble

Ans: D

1665 A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drill’s

A length

B diameter

C clearance angle

D web thickness

Ans : B

1666 when knurling a piece of work on a lattle,it is important to

A operate the lathe at the slowest spend

B use plenty of oil

C mount the knurling tool securely in the tool post

D all of the above

Ans : D

1667 if all of the metals listed below are two inches in diameter ,wich of those
listed can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?

A cast iron

B machine steel

C aluminum

D soft brass

Ans : C
1668 for proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe
center s you should use a

A faceplate

B steady rest

C draw-in collet chuck

D compound rest

Ans : B

1669 after cutting a piece of tubing to be flared you should

A remove inside burrs with a reamer

B rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file

C flare the tube before removing the burrs

D crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting

Ans : A

1670 shim stock thickness is measured by a/an

A shim gage

B feeler gage

C outside micrometer

D inside micrometer

Ans :C

1671 the best method of determining the number of threads per inch of a bolt or
screw would be through the use of a

A thread tool gage

B machinist’s scale

C screw pitch gage

D screw thread micrometer

Ans : C

1672 the temper is likely to be drawn out of a chisel edge when you

A hold it next to a wet grindig wheel

B soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods

C grind the cutting angle too small

D grind it for long periods of time with too much pressure

Ans : D

1673 to get an accurate inside measurement of the diameter of a ½ inch hole you
should use a/an

A depth micrometer

B inside micrometer

C small hole gauge

D inside spring caliper

Ans: C

1674 solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a

A fusing point much higher than that of the metal being joint

B melting point much higher than that of the metal being joint

C coating of borax flux to raise the melting point

D composition of lead and tin if the solder is the hard type

Ans :B

1675 the proper use of flat chisel is for cutting

A inside corners

B slots or keywayes

C half- round grooves

D flat stock

Ans : D

1676 soldering flux aids the soldering process by

A softening the metals

B fusing the metals

C removing oxides

D hardening the metals

Ans : C

1677 the best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the

A round nose chisel

B flat cold chisel

C diamond point chisel

D cape chisel

Ans: D

1678 In an oxygen acetylene welding out fit ,the torcn tip orifice size__________

(A) Depends on the hose length

(B) Determine the amount of acetylelne and oxygen fed to the flame
 (C) Can be varied by rotating the tip\
(D) Depends on the regulator flow rate

Answer: (B)

1679 When welding are burning with a oxygen acetylene ,the acetylene workin
preaasure must not exceed

(A) 0.1 bar

(B) 0.3 bar
(C) 1 bar
(D) 1.6 bar

Answer ©

1680 Acoolent is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent
the____________

(A) Heat of friction

(B) Blade from over heating
(C) Blade from bending
(D) Cut from clagging

Answer (D)

1681 a weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at right
angles to each other, and is called a __________

A. Seam weld
B. Plug weld
C. Lack weld
D. Fillet weld

Ans: d

1682 if you have to completelif you have to completel grind a new point on a
high speed drill,which of the following could happen if it is cooled in cold water
immediately after grinding?
A the edges will be dulled

B the 59”angle will be lost due to metal contraction

C cracks may appear in the metal

D the cutting surface will become annealed by the cold water

Ans : c

1683 which of the following procedures is used to bring a hole to finished size
with high accuracy?

A coring

B boring

C broaching

D reaming

Ans :d

1684 which of the devices listed can be used to measure any angle on a blueprint
or drawing?

A vernier

B protractor

C planimeter

D compass

Ans: b

1685 when welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode and getting
only shallow penetration you should

A use a lower current

B speed up your electrode travel

C use larger electrodes

D increase the amperage

Ans:d

1686 before drilling a hole in a piece of metal the location of the hole center
should be

A marked with chalk

B prick punched

C scribed d blued

Ans: b

1687 which of the factors listed governs the intensity of heat required for any
given welding job?

A the strength of the bond only

B the strength of the bond and the welding process being used

C the type of metal being joined only

D the type of metal being joined and the welding process being used

Ans: d

1688 which of the following statements is correct concerning welding sequences?

A first weld the joints that will tend to contract the most

B first weld attachments which will restrain points of maximum contraction

C make a weld across an unwelded plate joint in adjoining members

D each successive welded part should be restrained to lock in stresses and avid
cracking

Ans:A
1689 a taper tap iscorrectly used for

A starting threads in a hole

B producing tapered threads in a hole

C deepening the extent of existing threads in a hole

D finishing the threading operation in a blind hole

Ans:a

1690 a screw driver should never be used as a

A pry bar

B chisel

C punch

D all of the above

Ans: d

1691bail peen hammers are sized according to their

A overall length

B head weight c face diameter

D peen head size

Ans: b

1692 a tap marked “1/4-20” will cut a thread

A ¼ inch in diameter with a pitch of threads per inch

B ½ inch long having a total of 20 thresds

C a total of 20 threads with a pitch of ¼ inch

D 1/20 of an inch long and ¼ inch in diameter

Ans:a

1693 the Phillips screwdriver has a blunt end and flukes with an angle of

A 10

B 45

C 30

D 60

Ans :c

1694 when using a handheld hacksaw blade should have

A only when cutting thin wall tubing

B only when cutting carbon steel

C only when cutting conduit

D at all times

Ans:d

1695 the main difference between a common lathe dog and a sagety lathe dog is
that the latter

A is more easily centered

B has a headless set screw

C has a spring loaded catch

D allows for misaligned center holes

Ans:b

1696 for cutting cast iron or soft steel the proper hacksaw blade should have

A 14 teeth per inch

B 18 teeth per inch

C 24 teeth per inch

D 32 teeth per inch

Ans:a

1697 which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges?

A mill

B pillar

C half round

D knife

Ans:b

1698 screw drivers designed for electrical use should have

A longer than normal shanks

B larger than normal shanks

C shorter than normal shanks

D insulated handies

Ans: d

1699 the length of a file is always measured exclusive of the

A edge

B tang

C point

D heel

Ans:b
1700 which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of
small parts?

A ratchet

B jewelers

C cabinent-tip

D square-sanked

Ans:b

1701 when cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your hand while using a
hand held hacksaw the sheet metal should be placed between two

A blocks of steel

B blocks of wood

C pieces of sand paper

D pieces of cloth

Ans: b

1702 the type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the teeth are continuosly
staggered with one to the left and one to the right is known as

A alternate

B double alternate

C raker

D wave

Ans:a

1705 protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxyaceylene welding

should always include________
A. goggles

B. ear plugs

C. non sparking tools

D. steel toe safety shoes

Ans. A

1706 before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or

declared__________

A. safe for personnel

B. safe for hot work

C. not safe for personnel

D. not safe for hot work

Ans. B

1707 why is a covering applied to a welding electrode, rather than using a rare
electrode?

A. Protect the welder from electric shock

B. Prevent arc blow

C. Shield the arc during the welding process to prevent, oxidation

D. Stabilize the electron emission rate and produce uniform temperatures in the
heat affected zone.

Ans. C

1708 you should never watch the arc generated during electric arc welder with
the naked eyes because___________

A. serious flash burns will result

B. arc blow will burn your face

C. the fumes are highly toxic

D. slag and metal splatter will get in your eyes

Ans. A

1709 Some of the hazards of working with electric power tools may be avoided if
the operator insures that__________

A. they are properly grounded

B. eye shields and gloves are worn

C. loose clothing and jewellery are not worn

D. all of the above

Ans. D

1710 If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed
action must be done to begin its removal?

A.tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor

B. heat the bolt with an oxacetylene torch

C. drill a hole in the center of the broken stud

D. use a screw extractor only

Ans. C

1711 To ensure the stock is running true in a lathe ,you should use a

A. center gage

B. gage block

C. dial indicator
D. micrometer

Ans. C

1712 When using a whell dressing tool to true up a griding wheel,you should
always -----------------------

A. lubricate the dressing tool

B. operate the grinder in neutral

C. remove the tool rest from the grinder

D. wear goggles to protect your eyes

Ans. D

1713 A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding the

contact surfaces together of a value , is called ---------------------------

A. spootting-in

B. honing

C. lapping in

D. refacing

Ans. C

1714 While reaming the hole , the reamer should not be turned backwards if the
hole has not been fully reemed because____________

A. the cutting edges may be damaged

B. turning in the wrong side will cause chatter

C. the shank will loosen in the tap wrench

D. reverse rotation will make the hole size oversize

Ans. A
1715 An eroded globe valve dick can be repaired by____________

A. taking a light cut in the lathe

B. sandblasting with light weight grit

C. dressing the seat cover with crocus cloth

D. scrapping with a bastard file

Ans. A

1716 After a piece of pipe is cut, the opening in the end should be cleaned out
with a ___________

A. pipe reamer

B. pipe cleaner

C. taper tool

D. hole cleaner

Ans. A

1717 After a piece of pipe been cut, a good shop practice to ream out the burr left
in the pipe. This is done to_______________

A. make a taper for starting the threading die

B. make a taper required for pipe threads

C. remove tool marks which could interfere with flow

D. prevent the burr from restricting flow in the pipe

Ans. D

1718 An acetylene pressure regulator should never be adjusted to maintain

pressure exceeding 1bar (103.4kPa) because___________

A. the release valve will lift

B. the fusible plug will blow out

C. rapid depletion of acetylene is hazardous

D. this gas becomes extremely unstable under this condition

Ans. D

1719 When using a hand die to cut threads on brass stock, the threads can be dry
cut or be lubricated with____________

A. graphite and oil

B. white lead

C. lard oil

D. kerosene

Ans. C

1720 The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hackshaw blade is
known as the____________

A. set

B. rake

C. pitch

D. thread guage

Ans. C

1721 Some of the hazards associated with air-operated power tools may be
avoided if the operator would____________

A. inspect the hoses for cracks and other defects

B. remove jewellery and loose clothing

C. bleed air pressure from the lines before breaking the connection
D. all of the above

Ans. D

1722 All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to

prevent_____________

A. electric shock if the tool is shorted

B. burning out the motor from an overload

C. overloading the motor from a short

D. grounding the plastic case through a short

Ans. A

1723 A wrench that completely surrounds a nut , or bolt head is

an________________

A.

B. open end wrench

C. tappet wrench

D. box wrench

Ans. D

1724 Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a bolt head or nut?

A.

B.box and wrench

C. crescent wrench

D. spanner wrench

Ans. B
1725 A lathe dog fitted with a headless set screw, is known as a ______________

A. clamp lathe dog

B. standard lathe dog

C. safety lathe dog

D. common lathe dog

Ans. C

1726 A thread chaser is a tool that should only be used for______________

A. restering damaged threads

B. enlarging existing threads

C. cutting original threads

D. straightning tappered threads

Ans. A

1727 Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its
slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt?

A. open end wrench

B. box end wrench

C. crescent wrench

D. monkey wrench

Ans. B

1728 To drill a hole round stock perpendicular to the axis of the piece the stock
should be mounted in a ____________

A. collet
B. v-block

C. clamp

D. morse sleeve

Ans. B

1729 If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron , you should___________

A.tap the holes without cutting oil

B. flood the tap with mineral oil

C. chamfer the edges of the holes

D. start tapping with a plug tap

Ans. A

1730 A hacksaw blade is normally placed in the saw frame with the__________

A. maximum possible tension on the blade

B. teeth pointing away from the handle

C. blade tooth set adjusted for maximum cutting width

D. teeth angled toward the saw handle

Ans. B

1731 To accurately cut the proper size gasket for installation in a pipeline,

You should use__________

A.tin snips

B. a jack knife

C. a gasket cutter

D. a pair of nail clippers

Ans. C

1732 When listed by pitch, which of the hacksaw blades listed would be the most
suitable for cutting thin tubing?

A.14 teeth per inch

B.18 teeth per inch

C.24 teeth per inch

D.32 teeth per inch

Ans. D

1733 Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should always be stored

____________

A. Upright with the cylinder caps screwed on

B. Horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on
C. Upright with the cylinder caps off
D. Horizontal with the cylinder caps off

Ans. A

1734 Protective equipment while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should

Include the use of ___________

A. Goggles
B. Cotton gloves
C. Trousers with deep pockets
D. Wool jackets

Ans. A

1735 When using a portable droplight,you should always ensure that

the_______________
A. bulb is protected by a shield or guard

B. extension cord is always yellow and clearly marked “FOR DROP LIGHT USE
ONLY”

C. bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts

D. all the above

Ans. A

1736 Cracks may be prevented from developing at the corners of welded

plating inserts by______________

A. squaring the corners

B. rounding the corners

C. plug welding the corners

D. slot welding the corners

Ans. B

1737 Safety glasses should be worn when______________

A. using a hand portable grinder

B. scrapping paint with hand scrapper

C. using a hammer and chisel

D. all of the above

Ans. D

1378 Internal pipe threads are cut with________________

A. dies

B. reamers
C. taps

D. tap drills

Ans. C

1739 Which of the following practices is considered to be safe for the handling
and use of compressed gas cylinder?

A. using oxygen as a substitute for compressed air for pneumatic tools

B. routinely greasing or lubricating the valves on oxygen cylinder

C. the storage of the cylinder in a well ventilated compartment

D. cracking the valve on a hydrogen cylinder to clear dust and dirt

Ans. C

1740 When machining a long piece of work between centers, you

must_________________

A. make sure that the lathe dog is securely jammed in the slot of the face plate

B. correct for expansion of the work by readjusting the tail stock center

C. make sure that work is only supported by the headstock center

D. make sure that the tailstock is tight against the work

Ans. B

1741 If the point angle of a drill is less than 59, the _____________

A. hole will be drilled too large

B. hole will take longer to drill

C. drill will not center properly

D. drill will cut undersized

 Ans. B

1742 As the drill bit is being fed into a metal work piece, a squeaking sound
from the tip of the bit indicates________________

A. the bit is too large for the tip

B. the bit tip has not been properly ground

C. insufficient force has been applied on the drill bit

D. a continos chip is being taken by the drill bit

D. all the above

Ans D

D. all the above

Ans D

1745. What is the distinguishing difference between the

Phillips

and the reed and prince type screwdrivers?

A. The diameter of the shanks

B. The angle of the tip flukes
C. The overall length of the screwdriver
D. None of the above

Ans . B
1746. In order to minimize distortion in a weldment due
to

shrinkage you should

A. use intermittent welds rather than continuous weld

wherever possible

B. make fewer passes with larger elec rods as opposed

to a

great number of passes with small electodes

C. use restraining forces such as champ, jigs and

fixtures

D. all the above

Ans D

1747 . Safe welding practice requires

A. Checking the areas for items to catch fire

B. That a fire watch to be posted
C. Checking for explosive gases
D. All the above

Ans D

1748. A hacksaw blade will break if

A. the rate of cutting is too great

B. the blade becomes loose in the frame

C. too much pressure is applied to the blade

 D. all the above

Ans D

1749. Which statement describes the function of the

filler

material used in acetylene cylinder?

A. it reduces the danger of explosion

B. it chemically reacts with acetone to produce

acetylene

C. it neutralizes the gas to render it harmless

D. it is fire resistant and reduces fire hazards

Ans A

1750. Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per

minute

while using a hand held hacksaw will generally

A. Sharpen the blade

B. Cause the blade to cut faster
C. Dull the blade
D. Not change how the blade cuts

Ans C

1751. Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having

short

section of teeth bent in opposite directions?

 A. Alternate
B. Double alternate
C. Rake
D. Wave

Ans D

1752. Acetylene should never be used at pressure in

excess of 1

barg (15psig) because the

A. acetylene cylinder have a maximum allow pressure

of 15 psig
B. fusible plug will blow out
C. r elief valve will lift
D. slightest shock could cause an explosion

Ans D

1753. When gas welding or burning the acetylene working

pressure must be kept below 15psi to prevent a

possible

A. explosion
B. torch back fire
C. torch flameout
D. acetone fire

Ans A

1754. The term rough coarse , bastard, second cut

,smooth and
 dead smooth refer to the

A. distance between the parallel cuts of a file

B. size of the file
C. coarsness of file teeth
D. both A and C are correct

Ans D

1755. Which of the screwdrivers listed to protect small

Screwdrivers

A. magnetic screwdriver
B. torque limiting screwdriver
C. variable speed screwdriver with a Jacobs chuck
D. constant rpm screwdriver with a Jacobs chuck

Ans B

1756. When arc welding you can reduce the chance

dangerous

electric shock by

A. Using insulated electric holders

B. Wearing dry welding gloves
C. Avoiding wet damp areas while using arc welding
equipment
D. All the above

Ans D
1757. Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced
teeth

A. Second cut

B. Dead smooth cut

C. Bastard cut

D. Smooth cut

Ans C

1758. Which of the files listed is provided with only one

safe edge

A. Mill

B. Pillar

C. Half round

D. Bastard

Ans D

1759. For drilling or machining cast iron, which of the

cutting

lubricants necessary to use

A. Lard oil
B. Soluble oil
C. Kerosene
D. None of the above

Ans D
1760. Which of the following screwdrivers listed is faster
and

most convenient when tightening many screws

A. Square shank
B. Offset
C. Ratchet
D. Standard

Ans C

1761. When using a chisel you should

A. Wear gloves

B. Hold tool tightly

C. be certain it is a non sparking type

D. wear safety glasses

Ans D

1762. A file coated with oil slowed always

A. cause file to over heat

B. cause the file to slide across the work and

prevent fast

cleaning

C. cause dust and metal particle to collect in the

teeth

D. both B and C are correct

 Ans D

1763. The tools used to remove a ball bearing from the

shaft of a

motor is called a __________________________

A. slugging wrench

B. gear pulley

C. drift pin

D. come along

Ans: B

1764. Pushing the file endways under pressure under

work is

called

A. Stroke filing
B. Cross filing
C. Draw filing
D. Standard form filing

Ans B

1765. Rapid wear on exteme outer corner to the cutting

edge of

a drill bit is the result of the drill having

A. Too much cutting speed

B. Not enough cutting speed
 C. Too much clearance angle
D. Not enough margin width

Ans C

1766. All straight shanked twist drills must be mounted or

held in a

A. drill socket

B. tapered sleeve

C. drill chuck

D. Morse sleeve

Ans C

1767 When drilling holes in a metal which of the material

listed

does not have to be lubricated

A. Tool steel
B. Cast iron
C. Mild steel
D. Cast steel

Ans B

1768. The blades for power hacksaw should be installed

with the

teeth
 A. Pointing either towards or away from the motor end
of the machine
B. Pointing away from the motor end of the machine
C. Pointing towards the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth
blade or away from the motor 10 or 14 tooth blade
D. Pointing towards the motor end of the machine

Ans D

1769. When internal threading or piping where the work

permit the

tap to run entirely throughout can begin and end

taping of

the hole by using a

A. Taper tap
B. Plug tap
C. Bottoming tap
D. Fishing tap

Ans D

1770. Setting up a welding job, where the work is positive

pole and

the electrode in negative pole for the arc is known as

an

A. Straight polarity welding circuit

B. Inert arc welding circuit
C. Shielded arc welding circuit
 D. Reverse polarity welding circuit

Ans A

1771. Needle nosed pliers are best used for

A. strip insulation from electric wire or perform cable

B. perform work in tight places ordinary pillars cannot

C. cut recessed cotter pins

D. tighten electrical wire clamp

Ans B

1772. Which material can be drilled at an high speed

A. aluminium

B. medium cast iron

C. copper

D. high speed steel

Ans A

1773. A pipe or stillson wrench function when

A. the bite is taken midway up in the jaw teeth

B. the wrench jaws are at widest open ssetting

C. a maximum pull is exerted with one hand

D. an extension is placed on the wrench hand

Ans A
1774. A tool used for measure, or laying out angles is
called a

A. trammel

B. protractor

C. micrometer

D. calliper rule

Ans B

1775. Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a

A. chain pipe wrench

B. monkey wrench

C. basin wrench

D. strong back

Ans A

1776. When securing an oxy acetylene cutting outfit for an

extended period you should close the

A. Hand valves on the torch only

B. Cylinder valves only
C. Cylinder valves and close torch valves 4to 5 pounds of
pressure in the horses
D. Cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure
in horses and regulators is zero

Ans D
1777. Which of the chisel listed should be used for oil
grooves

A. diamond point

B. flat cold

C. round nose

D. square nose

Ans C

1778. To determine the diameter of the small hole which of

he

listed tool must be used

A. A center gauge
B. Whe gauge
C. Micrometer
D. None of the above

Ans C

1779. Which of the following procedure should be used with

a

chisel having a mushroom head

A. Remove the ragged edge by grinding

B. Do not strike the mushroom portion
C. Use only light hammer blows with the chisel
D. Knock of the ragged edge with a hammer
 Ans A

1780. To measure the diameter of a piece of round stack

you

should use a

A. Dial indicator
B. Wire gauge
C. Micrometer
D. Circular side rule

Ans B

1781. To set the dividers to a proper radius t\you should

use a

A. micrometer

B. scribing circle

C. steel rule

D. callipers

Ans C

1782. Which of the instrument listed below is used to

measure the

gauge of a piece of a sheet

A. Gauge calibrator
B. Wire gauge
C. Inside micrometer
 D. Circular mil

Ans B

1783. When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a

lathe

Should mount a drill chuck in the

A. A compound rest

B. cross feed

C. tail stock

D. head stock

Ans C

1784. A tail stock dead center has been given the name
because it

A. is dead center to the tail stock spindle

B. does not revolve

C. must be removed by claiming in the chuck

D. fits into the dead center of the work piece

Ans B

1785. The lathe steady rest in normally used for supporting

one end

of a

A. short heavy casting held in a three jaw chuck

1786. For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the
correct

Included angle of a drill point is

A. 29
B.
C. 1819. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS REPRESENTS
THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN A FOUR-JAW INDEPENDENT
CHUCK AND A THREE-JAW UNIVERSAL CHUCK?
D. A. THE JAWS ON THE THREE-JAW CHUCK CAN BE
INDIVIDUALLY ADJUSTED
E. B. THE JAWS ON THE FOUR-JAWS CHUCK CAN BE
INDIVIDUALLY ADJUSGTED
F. C. THE THREE-JAW CHUCK WILL HOLD SQUARE ROUND AND
IRREGULAR SHAPES IN EITHER A CONCENTRIC OR AN
ECCENTRIC POSITION
G. D. SINCE THE THREE-JAW UNIVERSAL CHUCK IS
AUTOMATICALLY SELF-CENTERING, IT IS ALWAYS MORE
ACCURATE THAN THE FOURJAW INDEPENDENT CHUCK
H. ANS:B
I. 1820. WHEN DRILLING HOLES LARGER THAN ½ INCH,
DRILLING A SMALLER HOLE FIRST IS A GOOD PRACTICE. THIS
IS CALLED A PILOT HOLE, AND THE PILOT DRILL SHOULD
HAVE A DIAMETER------------------------
J. A.SLIGHTLY LARGER THAN THE WEB THICKNESS OF THE
LARGER DRILL
K. B. EQUAL TO AT LEAST ½ THE DIAMETER OF THE LARGER
DRILL
L. C. SMALLER THAN THE DEAD CENTER OF CHISEL EDGE OF
THE LARGER DRILL
M. D. SMALL ENOUGH TO ENSURE THE MAXIMUM CUT BY THE
LARGER DRILL
N. ANS:A
O. 1821. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS IS TRUE
CONCERNING A RADIOGRAPH TAKEN ON A LARGE WELDED
PIPING REPAIR?
P. A. A DISCONTINUITY IN THE FORM OF A CRACK WOULD
APPE\AR AS A THIN LIGHT LINE AGAINST THE DARK
BACKGROUND OF THE FILM
Q. B. POROSILY, A DISCONTINUNITY CAUSED BY ENTRAPPED
GAS, WOULD OCCUR AS VARIOUS SIZED ROUND DARK SPOTS
R. C. AS LONG AS THE PLANE OF A CRACK IS NOT IN DIRECT
ALIGNMENT WITH THE DIRECTION OF RADIATION,
DETECTION IS CERTAIN
S. D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
T. ANS;B
U. 1822. WHICH OF THE PRECAUTIONS LISTED SHOULD TO BE
OBSERVED WHEN WORKING WITH OXY-ACETYLENE
WELDING EQUIPMENT?
V. A. BOTTLES SHOULD BE LABELED AIR AND GAS
W. B.KEEP CYLINDERS AWAY FROM EXPOSURE TO COLD
TEMPERATURES.
X. C. KEEP OXYGEN REGULATORS AND VALVES COATED WITH A
LIGHT FILM OF OIL
Y. D. KEEP GAS CYLINDERS SUPPORTED SO THAT THEYT CAN
NOT TIP OVER
Z. ANS:D
AA. 1823. WHEN USING A PORTANBLE DROPLIGHT, YOU
SHOULD ALWAYS INSURE THAT -----------------------------------
BB. A. THE BULB IS PROTECTED BY A SHIELD OR GUARD
CC. B. THE EXTENSION CORD IS YELLOW AND CLEARLY
MARKED
DD. C. THE BULB CAPACITY DOES NOT EXCEED 75WATTS
EE. D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
FF. ANS;A
GG. 1824. WHICH PRACTICES SHOULD BE FOLLOWED AT ALL
TIMES WHEN USING AN ELECTRIC GRINDING MACHINE?
HH. A. WEAR GOGGLES OR FACE SHIELD
 II. B. BE CERTAIN THAT THE FRAME IS PROPERLY GROUNDED
JJ. C. BE PROPERLY TRAINED IN THE USE OF THIS TOOL
KK. D. EACH OF THE ABOVE PRACTICES
LL. ANS;D
MM. 1825. THE PROPER TOOL USED FOR CUTING NEW
EXTERNAL THREADS IS CALLED A THREAD---------------------
NN. A. CHASER
OO. B. DIE
PP. C. BROACH
QQ. 1826. CAREFUL HANDLING OF COMPRESSED GAS BOTTLES
SHOULD INCLUDE ------------------------------
RR. A. STOWLING TO AVOID THEM FROM CRASHING INTO ONE
ANOTHER
SS. B. KEEPING THEM AWAY FROM FLAME HIGH HEAT AND
DIRECT SUNLIGHT
TT. C. KEEPING THE VALUE PROTECTION CAPS IN PLACE

D. tap

Ans: B

D. all of the above

Ans: D

1827 Hidden edges in objects are represented in blue prints by ……………………….

A. a thin solid line

B. a thick solid line
C. dashed lines having alternating long and short dashes
D. dashed lines having approximately equal length dashes

Ans: D

1828 The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or checked surface on

round stock in a lathe is called………………………..

A. checkering
 B. crosshatching
C. knurling
D. swaging

Ans: C

1829 The welding process using an electric arc developed between a flux covered
electrode and the metal being welded is known as ………………..

A. flux cored arc welding

B. resistance spot welding
C. shielded metal arc welding
D. submerged arc welding

Ans: C

1830 To properly use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil hole in a bushing you
would mount the crotch center in the ……………………

A. compound rest
B. head stock
C. tail stock
D. chuck

Ans: C

1831 which of the screw driver tips listed will fit screws with a four way or cross
type slot?

A. Standard screw driver

B. Philips screw driver
C. Reed And Prince screw driver
D. Both B and C are correct

Ans: D

1832 The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is
called a ……………
A. Swaging tool
B. Stretcher
C. Flaring tool
D. Spreader

Ans: C

1833 When the installation breaks down within a metal encased, portable,
electric tool …………..

A. Added safety features are built into the receptacle to allow continued use
of the tool
B. Care should be taken to insert the plug correctly when energizing the tool
C. You should stand on a grounded deck plate before energizing the tool
D. Line voltage may be placed on the tool casing make it dangerous to operate

Ans: D

1834 Edges on objects not visible in the view shown are represented in blueprints
by………………

A. Thick solid line

B. Dashed line having alternating long and short dashes
C. Dashed lines having approximately equal length dashes
D. Hidden edges are not represented because they are “hidden”

Ans: C

1835 Which of the following listed pressures is the maximum acetylene gas
pressure that can be safely used in gas welding ? ....................

A. 10 psi
B. 15 psi
C. 25 psi
D. 35 psi

Ans: B
1836 The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two adjoining teeth are
staggered to the right, then two to the left, and continue to alternate in this
manner is known as ………………….

A. Alternate
B. Double Alternate
C. Racker
D. Wave

Ans: B

1837 A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a ……………

A. Center drill
B. Finish drill
C. Broach
D. Reamer

Ans: D

1838 When using a hand held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for
cutting should be………….

A. 10 to 20 strokes per minute

B. 80 to 100 strokes per minute
C. 40 to 50 strokes per minute
D. 70 to 80 strokes per minute

Ans: C

1839 Double cut files are used for …………………..

A. Quick removal of metal

B. Finish work
C. Rough work
D. Both A and C

Ans: D
1840 Using a file without a handle may result in ……………

A. Your work becoming rounded

B. Injury to your hand
C. Overheating of the file
D. Pinning

Ans: B

1841 which of the files listed will have closely spaced teeth for finishing to a
smooth surface?

A. Smooth cut
B. Bastard cut
C. Second cut
D. Rough cut

Ans: A

1842 When mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, which of the blades listed
could cut smoothly through a metal file?

A. Wave set
B. Hardened
C. Rod
D. Flexible

Ans: C

1843 A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of……………………

A. Monel stock using heavy pressure

B. Brass stock using heavy pressure
C. Bronze stock using light pressure
D. Stainless steel stock using light pressure

Ans: C
1844 Which of the files listed is tapered on three sides and is used to file acute
internal angles?

A. Mill
B. Round
C. Square
D. Triangular

Ans: D

1845 Which of the files listed can be used for sharpening a tool?

A. A double cut file

B. A single cut file
C. Any bastard cut file
D. Only a double bastard cut file

Ans: B

1846 File lengths are determined by the …………………..

A. Overall length of the file

B. Distance between the face and the edge of the file
C. Distance between the point and the heel of the file
D. Length of the tang only

Ans: C

1847 Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?

A. Steel
B. Brass
C. Monel
D. Tungsten

Ans: B

1848 If the speed of a drill is too great the drill will………………….

 A. Cut faster
B. Cut slower
C. Rapidly dull
D. Not cut

Ans: C

1849 If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at different angles, the …………………

A. Drill will not cut

B. Hole will be oversized
C. Hole will be undersized
D. Drill will seize immediately

Ans: B

1850 Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to……………

A. Allow it to be used as a pry bar

B. Prevent the shank from bending
C. Permit striking with a hammer
D. Allow turning with a wrench

Ans: D

1851 When welding a flux is used to…………

A. Control penetration
B. Reduce metal fatigue and warpage
C. Reduce oxidation
D. Increase heat transfer

Ans: C

1852 A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on ……………..

A. Hexagonal objects
 B. Round objects
C. Square objects
D. Flat objects

Ans: B

1853 A plug tap is correctly used for…..

A. Starting threads in a hole

B. Reversing the threads in a hole
C. The second cut when threading a blind hole
D. Finishing the threads in a blind hole

Ans: C

1854 Prussian Blue is used to…………….

A. Check heat exchangers for leaks in the waterside

B. Check the fit of a seat and disc of a valve
C. Check for leaks in a R-12 system if a Halide torch is not available
D. Trace condensate flow in an impulse steam trap

Ans: B

1855 The center head of a combination square set is used to……………

A. Check degrees of angle

B. Find right angles
C. Locate the center on round stock
D. Check the angle of cutting tools

Ans: C

1856 A drill that wobbles while the drill press is in operation may,……………….

A. Be bent
B. Have a severely worn shank
C. Have been placed in the chuck off center
 D. All the above

Ans: D

1857. To ensure a good weld ,post heating is required whenever an arc weld
repair is made______________

A. With a straight polarity rod

B. With a reverse polarity rod

C. To a cast component (casting)

D. To a part of the ship’s main structure

Ans: C

1858. To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist’s steal rule , you
should measure___________

A. From the one inch graduation mark

B. From the zero end on the scale

C. On the narrow edge of the rule

D. On the unmarked edge of the rule

Ans: A

1859. A welding electrode is marked E-6010,this designation means that

_______________

A. The electrode may be used in the flat position only

B. The minimum tensile strength of the weld metal will be 70000psi

C. Either insulated or un-insulated electrode holders may be used

D. The electrode is to be used for shielded metal arc welding

Ans: D
1860. Before power to a lathe is turned on , it is a good shop practice to first
hand feed the carriage to ensure_____________________

A. The carriage is lubricated

B. The lathe is level

C. All locking devices have been released

D. The work piece is secured is in the lathe

Ans : C

1861. To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make
a bearing shim, you should use a __________

A. Feeler gage

B. Micrometer

C. Machinist’s rule

D. depth gage

Ans : B

1862. In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact tension
specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/ an _________

A. hook spanner

B. Dial wrench

C. Offset box end

D. Torque wrench

Ans : D

1863. When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is ___________

A. Read on a scale mounted on the handle of the wrench

B. Read on a dial mounted on the handle of the wrench

C. Indicated by an audible click

D. Indicated by a release or break of the handle

Ans : A

1864. Which of the following statements concerning braze welding is / are correct

A. Braze welding is an exceptionally good method of repairing malleable

(special heat treated) iron

B. A braze welded joint should be cooled immediately with cold water or forced
air draft to reduce the intensity of heat path

C. Repairs to working parts are container used in chemical processes especially

strong alkaline solutions are effectively accomplished with braze welding

D. All the above

Ans : A

1865. When welding with an oxy-acetylene outfit __________

A. Open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG

B. Open the Acetylene cylinder valve only ¼ - ½ turn and leave the wrench on
the wall system

C. A leaking hose must be repaired by binding tape

D. A flash back of flame into the hose is normal

Ans : B

1866. Solder is an alloy of _________

A. Tin and lead

B. Beryllium and antimony

C. Copper and lead

D. Silicon and selenium.

Ans: A

1867 Tinning a soldering irons will_________.

A. prevent the tip from overheating

B. protect the tip from scratches
C. add extra weight to the tip
D. prevent tip oxidation when heated

ANS: D

1868 Flux is used when soldering, in order to_______.

A. Decreases the melting point of the solder

B. Make the solder “flow”
C. Ensure proper tinning
D. Clean the area

ANS: D

1869 when stock is being turned in a lathe the outside diameter is reduced

By an amount equal to_______.

A. The depth of cut

B. One half the depth of cut
C. Twice the depth of cut
D. Twice the rate of feed

ANS: C

1870 a chisel with mushroom head should not be used because

________.

A. The chisel cannot be struck squarely

 B. Pieces may fly off the chisel and injure yours eyes
C. The hammer head may be chipped
D. It must be held firmly by the head to strike it

ANS: B

1871 soft solders have relatively low melting point and consist mainly of

______.

A. Silver base alloys

B. Lead base alloys
C. Copper base alloys
D. Nickel base alloys

ANS: B

1872 To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a

_______.

A. Machinists steel rule

B. Flexible steel rule
C. Hooks rule
D. Folding rule

ANS: B

1873 If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the workpiece

Tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should _______.

A. Increase the lathe spindle speed.

B. Increase the height of the tool cutting edge.
C. Stop the lathe and tighten the chuck.
D. Stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center.

ANS: B
1874 Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal

The harder the metal, the greater should be the drills _______.

A. Diameter.
B. Lip clearance.
C. Include point angle.
D. Cutting speed.

ANS: C.

1875 A dial indicator is used to measure _______.

A. Shaft eccentricity.
B. Positive readings only.
C. Scribed layout lines on vertical surface.
D. Torque of a shaft.

ANS: A.

1876 The drill size is marked on the _______.

A. Point.
B. Shank.
C. Margin.
D. Flute.

ANS: B.

1877 When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should

Measure across the drill _________.

A. Margins.
B. Flutes.
C. Shank.
D. Web.

ANS: A.
1878 A small hole gauge is used in conjunction with a/an ________.

A. Feeler gauge.
B. Micrometer.
C. Surface gauge.
D. Angle gauge.

ANS: B.

1879 A micrometer screw has a pitch of ___________.

A. 40 threads per cm.

B. 50 threads per metre.
C. 75 threads per mm.
D. 100 threads per mm.

ANS: A.

1880 pipe thread taps are ______.

A. Not hardened.
B. Not fluted.
C. Tapered.
D. Straight.

ANS: C.

1881 Which of the following files will produce the finest surface on a

Work piece being finished filed in a lathe?

A. A mill file.
B. A double cut file.
C. Any bastard cut file.
D. All warding files.

ANS: A.

1882 The 60⁰ tape angle machined on work supported by lathe centers is
 most easily machined by a ________.

A. Taper attachment.
B. Compound rest.
C. Tailstock set over method.
D. Head stock set over method.

ANS: B.

1883 Which the following types of files is generally used for finishing?

A. A double cut file.

B. A single cut file.
C. Any bastard cut file.
D. Only a double bastard cut file.

ANS: B.

1884 A tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge a slightly

Undersized hole, is called a ________.

A. Round out.
B. Round file.
C. Reamer.
D. Hole driller.

ANS: C.

1885 A mill file is used to _________.

A. Produce a very fine finish by draw filing.

B. Produce a coarse finish by push filing.
C. File lead.
D. File plastic.

ANS: A.

1886 Prussian blue is used for ___________.

 A. Grinding in valves.
B. Spotting in valves.
C. Lapping valves.
D. Refacing valves.

ANS: B.

1887 A file handle is fitted to the file’s ________.

A. Tang.
B. Point.
C. Taper.
D. Heel.

ANS: A.

1888 The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is the __________.

A. Flexible blade.
B. All –hard blade.
C. All – soft blade.
D. Hollow core blade.

ANS: B.

1889 When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper method of
stopping the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________.

A. moving the work table

B. using a depth stop

C. adjusting the spindle return spring

D. gaging chuck motion

Ans: D
1890 Two separator work pieces are to have a taper cut with the same taper per
inch using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece is completed,
the tall stock offset must be changed if there is a change in the
__________.

A. length of the work piece

B. diameter of the work piece

C. angle of the cutting tool

D. none of the above

Ans.: A

1891 With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels , hard-
facing ,and the welding of non ferrous alloys ,such as monel the best flame
to use is termed a/an __________.

A. oxidizing flame

B. neutral flame

C. nitriding fusion

D. carburizing flame

Ans.: D

1892 The designating E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding electrode.

Which of the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies the welding
position for which the electrode is recommended ?

A. E

B. 70

C. 2

D. A1
 Ans.: C

1893 In an oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and two
pressure gages. One pressure gage indicates cylinder pressure and the
other gage is used to indicate ____________.

A. tip pressure
B. upstream pressure
C. hose pressure
D. arc pressure

Ans. : C

1894 A Work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined
at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the
tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the head stock end, the tail
stock must be moved __________.

A. away from you to correct alignment

B. toward you to correct alignment

C. closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset

D. away from the head stock to decrease the misalignment

Ans.: A

1895 An offset screwdriver is best used for ________.

A. tightening Allen head screws only

B. tightening or loosening “offset type” machine screws

C. driving self-tapping screws only

D. screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver

Ans.: D
1896 Oiling a file as a rust preventative will cause ___________.

A. Overheating
B. Pinning
C. Fast cutting
D. Binding

Ans.:B

1897 A grinding wheel is trued with a _______.

A. Lathe tool
B. Dressing tool
C. Garnet stone
D. Round file

Ans. : B

1898 The edge of a file not having any teeth is known as a ________.

A. Smooth edge
B. Safe edge
C. Flat edge
D. Dead edge

Ans. : B

1899 One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to
_______.

A. Move the drive belt to a smaller diameter motor pulley

B. Move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley
C. Change the terminal connections of the drive motor
D. Change to a larger diameter spindle

Ans.: B

1900 Pressure-relief devices on gas welding cylinders are located in __________.

 A. The cylinder valve

B. The shoulder of the cylinder

C. The bottom of the cylinder

D. All of the above.

Ans. : D

1901 An aligning punch is used to _______.

A. Line of corresponding holes in adjacent parts

B. completely loosen a jammed bolt

C. mark centers and line in layout work

D. Make a starting mark for a drill

Ans: A

1902 Pipe threads are cut with a taper to ________.

A. Prevent over tightening the joint

B. Provide a leak proof fit
C. Permit easily joint disassembly
D. Produce a fine even thread

Ans : B

1903 Heavy pressure on the ends of a file cause the work surface to become
_______.

A. tapered

B. smooth

C. rough

D. rounded
 Ans.: D

REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING

1904 Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to ___________.

A. Frequently grounding out

B. Frequently starting and stopping
C. Running too fast
D. Running too slow

Ans.: B

1905 The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is known as the
________.

A. Latent heat of vaporization

B. sensible heat

C. refrigerating effect

D. Specific heat of vaporization

Ans.: C

1906 When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration system through the
suction line, the condition is called ___________.

A. flooding back

B. superheating

C. overflowing

D. recycling

Ans.: A
1907 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered safe and ideal for most
marine applications?

A. R-21
B. Ammonia
C. R-12
D. Sulfur dioxide

Ans.: C

1908. The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration
plant is the

A. Latent heat of expansion

B. Sensible heat of condensation

C. Heat of compression

D. All the above

Ans. C

1909. The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start
while undergoing repairs, is to

A. Secure and tag the electrical circuit

B. Place a crow bar in the flywheel of the unit

C. Inform all persons in the area not to start the unit

D. Make a log book entry

Ans. A

1910. In a refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of

vaporization in the

A. Compressor
B. Condenser

C. Receiver

D. Evaporation

Ans. D

1911. The personnel working with refrigeration system, and the subject to the
exposure of refrigerants should wear

A. Face shield

B. A respirator

C. Rubber gloves

D. An all purpose gas mask

Ans. A

1912. The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid while at its
freezing temperature is known as the latent heat of

A. Fusion

B. Vaporization

C. Condensation

D. Sublimation

Ans. A

1913. The only means of removing then latent heat of condensation from a
refrigeration cycle is by

A. Passing it through the expansion valve

B. Passing the gaseous refrigerant through the heat interchanger on the suction
side of the compressor
C. maintaining a high pressure on the system‘s receiver

D. condensing refrigerant in the system condense

Ans. B.

1914. The amount of moisture in a given sample of air , when compared with the
amount of moisture the air could hold if totally saturated at the existing
temperature of the sample ,is called

A. absolute humidity

B. specific humidity

C. effective humidity

D. relative humidity

Ans. D

1915. When it is necessary to open a refrigeration system for repairs and the
system will be open for more than a few minutes, the open ends of the systems
should be

A. dehydrated

B. purged

C. plugged

D. evacuated

Ans: D

1916. People familiar with ammonia refrigeration systems become accustomed to

its odor and may forgot that the vapors

A. in a low concentration can cause death

B. will dissolve in perspiration and caustic burns

C. will burns or explode

D. all of the above

Ans. D

1917. When subjected to high heat from a open flame, or an electric heating
element, which of the listed refrigerants will break down and produce phosgene
gas

A. CO2

B. methyl chloride

C. R-22

D. Sulphur-dioxide

Ans. C

1918. A refrigeration system contaminated with moisture can be affected by

A. acid formation

B. sludge formation

C. ice in the expansion valve

D. all the above

Ans. D

1919. Some chlorinated flourocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a toxic

irritating gas iif it is

A. stored at temperature below 60 degrees Fahrenheit

B. charged into a system having copper fittings

C. allowed to mix with compressor oil

D. exposed to an open flame or hot surface

Ans. D

1920. In a direct expansion type cargo refrigeration system, a box is normally

changed from chill to freeze by adjusting the

A. hand expansion valve

B. compressor suction valve

C. solenoid by pass

D. back pressure regulating

Ans. D

1921. If the suction line between the evaporator and compressor is frosting up,
the cause may be due to the thermal expansion valve

A. thermal bulb coming loose from the suction line

B. needle valve is stuck closed

C. thermal bulb is in a cold air stream

D. all the above

Ans. A

1922. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the cause may be due
to

A. a shortage of refrigerant

B. the compressor running continuously

C. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor

D. the compressor short cycling on the pressure cutout

Ans. C
1923. If a refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the trouble could be
caused by

A. excessive superheat

B. a minor amount of air in the system

C. normal oil circulation with the refrigerant

D. the expansion valve being stuck in the open position

Ans. D

1924. If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the cause may be due
to

A. a shortage of refrigerant

B. the compressor running continuously

C. liquid refrigerants returning to the compressor

D. the compressor short cycling on the high pressure cutout

Ans. C

1925. Crankcase sweating in a refrigeration system is caused by

A. A stuck solenoid valve

B. a shortage of refrigerant

C. too much oil in circulation

D. too much superheat

Ans. C

1926. Liquid line gas may cause erosion of the expansion valve‘s internal
components and could the valve to

A. over heat
 B .hunt

C. freeze shut

D. freeze open

Ans. B

1927. If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating, you should

A. Add refrigerant to the system

B. adjust the thermal expansion valve to the proper setting

C. adjust the float valve to the proper holding pressure

D. Open the hand expansion valve

Ans. B

1928 The compressor in the ship service refrigeration system is short

Cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. The probable reason for

This is the_____________

A. Discharge valves are leaking excessively

B. Discharge valves are leaking slightly
C. Condenser is getting insufficient cooling water flow
D. System is low on refrigerant

Ans : c

1929 if a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure cutout
switch,The probable cause for this might be the ____________

A. System was overcharged with refrigerant

B. High pressure switch was improperly adjusted
C. Expansion valve strainers were fouled
D. Suction valves were leaking vs lightly
 Ans : C

1930 the refrigeration system compressor is short cycling on high head

Pressure when the sea water cooling temperature is 22c, in this

Situation, you should ____________________

A. Check for sufficient water flow through the condenser

B. Purge noncondensable gases from the receiver
C. Reset the thermostatic expansion valve
D. Completely purge the high pressure side of the system

Ans : A

1931 when handling contaminated oil from a hermetically sealed refrigeration

compressor unit that has burned out its motor, you should ________

A. Store the oil in the clean refrigerant drum

B. Use rubber gloves
C. Circulate the oil through a filter drier
D. Remove the oil with a portable charging cylinder

1932 When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start , the FIRST thing

That should be checked for is a ___________

A. Loose expansion valve control bulb

B. Low differential setting on a H.P cutout
C. Blown fuse in the motor circuit
D. Faulty suction pressure regulator

Ans : C
 1933 The accumulation of air and other non condensable gases in a refrigeration
system

Will __________________

A. Cause a loss of the liquid seal

B. Create a vapour lock in the liquid receiver
C. Collect in the condenser
D. Cause foaming of the oil in the crankcase

Ans : c

1934 if a large difference exists between the compressor discharge

Pressure and the pressure corresponding to the existing condensing

Temperature in a refrigeneration system, you should ________

A. Increasing the floe of the cooling water through the condenser

B. Adjust the high pressure cutout to maintain the desired pressure
C. Open the hot gas bypass temporarily to reduc e capacity
D. Purge noncondensable gases to reduce the excess pressure

And :d

1935 when troubleshooting a refrigeration system for low head pressure, liquid

Refrigerant flooding back from the evaporator is determined to the cause. It

may

Be necessary to ______________

A. Change the expansion valve adjustment

B. Readjust the water regulating valve to increase the flow of water
C. Purge air from the condenser
D. Clean the water side of the condenser
 Ans : a

1936 air entering an air-cooled refrigeration system is indicated by

___________

A. Frosting of the liquid line

B. Higher than normal head pressure
C. A clear sight glass
D. Abnormally cold reefer boxes

Ans : D

1937 refrigerant is normally subcooled in a refrigeration or air conditioning

system

Condenser to ___________

A. Maintain adequate coil back pressure

B. Prohibit flashing in the liquid line
C. Reduce refrigerant volume in the system
D. Reduce compressor discharge line losding

Ans b

1938 subcooling is a method of reducing the temperature of the liquid

Refrigerant below its _______________

A. Freezing point
B. Floc point
C. Condensing temperature
D. Compression temperature

Ans : C
 1939 flash gas formed in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may
cause__________

A. The hot gas bypass connection at the three way valve

B. The portion of liquid refrigerant which does not flash
C. Expansion valve capacity to increase
D. Pressure difference across the expansion valve to increase

Ans: b

1940 the component of a refrigerating system in which the refrigerant

Vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as the ____________

A. Condenser
B. Vapor generator
C. Accumulator
D. Evaporator

Ans :D

1941 in the refrigeration system the heat normally producing the flash gas at the
Thermostatic expansion valve, is obtained from ________

A. The hot gas bypass connection at the three way valve

B. The portion of liquid refrigerant which does not flash
C. Exposure to the high ambient temperature within the coil
D. Exposure to the high ambient temperature of the cooled space
Ans :b

1942 which of the listed statements is correct concerning refrigeration

Systems?

A. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system.

B. 25 ton refrigeration system has the same cooling effect as melting 25 tons of ice in 24
hours
C. A thermostatic valve is used to control refrigerated space temperature
D. The liquid receiver functions to collect and remove noncondensable gases

Ans: b

1943 the term “oil foaming” in refrigeration practice, is used to describe the
_________

A. Release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant in the crankcase

B. Release of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase
C. Sudden evaporation of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid
D. Sudden evaporation of entrapped moisture from the crankcase lubricant

Ans :b

1944 the refrigerant leaves the evaporator of a refrigeration system as a low pressur

_____________________

A. Subcooled liquid
B. High temperature liquid
C. Oil saturated liquid
D. Superheated vapour

Ans :b

1945 which of the listed refrigeration system system components keeps the
refrigerant

Circulating through the systems ?

A. Expansion valve
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
 D. Compressor

Ans : d

1946 when refrigerant leaves the receiver, it flows next on to the

A. Evaporator coils
B. Liquid strainer
C. Compressor
D. Condenser

Ans: B

1947excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor at

startup can

cause

A. Compressor damage from improper lubrication

B. Refrigerant absorption by the lubricant
C. Increased viscosity in the lubricant
D. Carbon deposit on the compressor suction values

Ans: A

1948. If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, has

a solenoid value that is leaking during the “off”
cycle, this could cause____________

A. Low suction pressure

B. High superheat in the outlet coil

C. Noisy compressor operation upon starting

 D. Refrigerant slugs in the receiver

Ans: C

1948. If a refrigeration compressor is running continuously without lowering the

temperature in the refrigerated space, the trouble may be ___________

A. A shortage of compressor oil

B. Warm food in the refrigerator

C. Excessive condenser cooling water

D. A shortage of refrigerant

Ans: D

1950. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of
a substance 1* is known as _________

A. Latent heat

B. Sensible heat

C. Specific heat

D. Variable heat

Ans: C

1951. “Flooding back” is a condition where the liquid refrigerant____________

A. Vaporizes in the condenser

B. Reaches the compressor through the suction line

C. Flashes in the liquid line

D. Condenses in the receiver

Ans: B
1952. Leaking suction values in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by
___________

A. Higher than normal suction pressure

B. Lower than normal suction pressure

C. Lower than normal evaporation pressure

D. Noticeable increase in compressor noise

Ans: A

1953. Badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge values will

cause_________

A. overfeeding of the expansion value

B. damage to the condensor

C. constant running of the compressor

D. flooding of the receiver

Ans: C

1954. If the suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor as below the

normal, the cause can be___________

A. refrigeration overcharge

B. overfeeding of the expansion value

C. a restricted suction strainer

D. due to short cycling of the compressor

Ans: C
1955. If a refrigeration compressor has a higher than normal suction pressure,
the problem could be a result of ___________

A. a minor accumulation of air or noncondesable gases in the system

B. a constant loss of refrigerant value

C. leaking compressor suction values

D. a slightly higher than normal liquid level in the receiver

Ans: C

1956. Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive

amount of refrigerant circulating through the system?

A. sweating of the compressor crankcase

B. colder than normal solenoid value

C. frosting of the evaporator

D. weeping of the purge value

Ans: A

1957.If a refrigeration compressor was developing a higher than normal

discharge pressure, the problem could be a result of ___________

A. air or non condensable gases in the system

B. leaking discharge values

C. leaking suction values

D. liquid refrigerant flooding bank from the cooling oil

Ans: A

1958. When the refrigeration system compressor suction pressure

corresponds to an elevation in coil temperature, a low pressure cutout switch
is set to automatically start the compressor, the normal stopping point of the
compressor is set by adjusting the ___________

A. cut-in point of the low pressure cutout switch

B. low pressure cutout differential switch

C. cut-in point of the low pressure cutout switch

D. high pressure cutout differential switch

Ans: B

1959. If the water failure switch should fail to shut down the refrigeration
compressor the refrigerant pressure will build up in high pressure side of the
system to the point where the___

A. compressor discharge values would be damaged

B. condenser tubes would rupture

C. system relief valve would open

D. high pressure cutout switch would function

Ans: D

1960. The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a

result of _________

A. low pressure in the Condenser

B. the existing load on the evaporator producing a thermodynamic heat

exceeding the normal maximum of the compressor

C. low pressure in the condenser at low load

D. high pressure in the evaporator at high load

Ans: B
 1961. The dew point is reached when the wet temperature bulb is_________

A. equal to the dry bulb temperature

B. twice the dry bulb temperature

C. 38.8 c less than the dry bulb temperature

D. 10c above the dry bulb temperature

Ans: A

1962. If the super heat value of a thermostatic expansion value is set too low,
the

A. The suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may slug back to the
compressor

B. The suction line will be got due to a reduced amount of refrigerant turning
to the compressor

C. The temperature of the refrigerant within the condenser will remain the
same

D. The temperature of the refrigerant passing through the sub cooler will
decrease

Ans: A

1963. The function of a heat interchanger used in a refrigeration system is to

A. Lower the temperature of liquid refrigerant before entering the expansion

value

B. Reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant from flooding back to the

compressor

C. Minimize sweating of the suction line

D. All of the above

 Ans: D

1964. Rather than design an infinite variety of valve sizes for use as thermostatic
expansion values, some manufacturers use_______
A. An adjusting cap to meet the various size differences
B. A flexible diaphragm
C. Internal restrictions of different sizes
D. A feeler bulb with an adjustable pressure line
Ans. C

1965. If a liquid drying agent is used in a refrigeration system already equipped

with a solid drying agent, the liquid drying agent will___________________
A. Release the moisture already trapped in the solid drying agent
B. React violently with the solid drying agent
C. Cause toxic gases to form in the refrigerated space
D. Solidify the refrigerant oil in the compressor crank case
Ans. A

1966. What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion

valve____________
A. The thermal bulb may be recharged
B. The rate action may be increased
C. The proportional action may be varied
D. The inlet screen may be cleaned
Ans. D

1967. Overcharging an air-cooled refrigeration system will cause

the_________________
A. Relies valve to lift
B. Compressor to run continuously
C. System to automatically binge over to the hot gases deep in cycle
D. Compressor to short cycle
Ans. D

1968. Which statement about calibrating a newly installer thermostatic expansion

valve is correct?
A. The procedure requires a refrigeration wrench and y
C. This procedure is done at the factory with tools not available to a mariner
D. An accurate thermometer and suction pressure gauge as essential to this process
Ans. D
1969. The presence of gas in the liquid line is undesirable and can be eliminated
by________
A. Increasing the distance between the evaporator and condenser
B. Using a larger expansion valve
C. Sub cooling the liquid
D. Installing the evaporator at a higher level than the condenser
Ans. C

1970. Constant superheat is maintainer at the evaporator outlet of a refrigeration

only by a___________
A. Solenoid
B. Low pressure cutout switch
C. King valve
D. Thermal expansion valve
Ans. D

1971. As the electric current flow to a modulating suction valve increases

the__________
A. Compressive forces against the spring will increase
B. Suction pressure of the compressor will rise
C. Evaporator coil pressure will decrease
D. Amount of super heat formed will increase
Ans. A

1972. If the temperature of the ammonia has in the discharge rising and the
condenser of a refrigeration system remains above 130 C,
the______________________
A. Refrigeration effect increases
B. Unit will cease to condense
C. Vapor will cease to condense
D. Process of sublimation will begin
Ans. C

1973. Which piping material is recommended to be used in extra heavy duty sizes
in ammonia refrigeration system construction?
A. Steel
B. Monel
C. Bronze
D. Copper
Ans. A
1974. If your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia refrigerant you should
immediately_____________
A. Contact Physicians health care
B. Apply an antibacterial ointment
C. Flush the affected area with water
D. Remove all the necessary clothing
Ans. C

1975. Ammonia is lighter than air and he a leak should occur its concentration will
be
A. Lower near the top of an enclosed space
Dependent upon available free hydrogen ions
C. Of minimum importance during venting procedures
D. Lower near the deal of an enclosed space
Ans: D

1976 he your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia refrigerant you should
immediately
A. Contact Physicians health care
B. Apply an antibacterial ointment
C. Flush the affected area with water
D. Remove all necessary clothing
Ans: C

1977. A lower thermostatic temperature setting will provide a desired degree of

comfort in a room where_________
A. Low relative humidity is maintained
B. Triple banded squirrel cage fans are used
C. Air circulation is Maximum
D. High relative humidity is maintained
Ans. D

1978. The pressure in a high pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for
repair should be__________
A.1 to 2 bar g
B.4 to 7 bar g
C.11 to 12 bar g
D.0 bar g
Ans: D
1979. Which of the following refrigerants will normally require water cooled
compressor components?
A.r-134
B. ammonia
C.r-22
D. all of the above are correct
Ans: All the above are correct...

1980. The flame of a sulphur candle in the presence of an ammonia leak will turn
____________
A. Pink
B. White
C. Yellow
D. Blue
Ans: B

1981 under normal conditions ammonia refrigerants should be added at

the____________
A. High side of the system
B. Station service connection
C. Discharge service connection
D. Expansion value side port connection
Ans: A

1982. To service a 60 ton air conditioning package, the easiest way to determine
the type of refrigerant used is to ___________
A. Use your service gage set and refrigeration card
B. Look at the unit name plate
C. Ask the chief engineer
D. Look on the top of the TXV
Ans: B

1983. Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system should be in

which of the following conditions?
A. Sub-cooled liquid
B. Sub-cooled vapor
C. Superheated vapor
D. Liquid
Ans: C
1984 inhalation of high concentrations of cfcs may have which of the following
effects?

A. Drowsiness
B. Loss of concentration
C. Cardiac arrhythmia’s
D. All the above

Ans: D

1985 refrigerant leaving the metering device in a refrigeraton system is a

A. Sub-cooled liquid
B. Sub-cooled vapour
C. Saturated vapour / vapour mixture
D. Saturated liquid

Ans: C

1986 The four most commonly used refrigerants listed in order from the most
damaging to the least

damaging to the ozone layer are………….

A R-11,R-12,R-502 and R-22

B R-22,R-12,R-11 and R-502

C R-502,R12,R-22 and R-11

D R-11,R-12,R-22 and R-502

Ans-A

1987 Large quantities of halogenated floro-carbons when released from

refrigeration systems, will contribute to ozone depletion in the…………

A Bathosphere
B Ionosphere

C stratosphere

D Troposphere

Ans-C

1988 Which of the following is not part of the high side of the refrigeration
system?

A Condensor

B Reciever

C Accumulator

D Liquid line

Ans-C

1989 which of the listed chemicals which eventually reach the stratosphere and
react unfavourablywith ozone?

A Fluorine

B Chlorine

C Halogen

D carbon

Ans-B

1990 Which can be considered as a drop-in replacement refrigerant?

A R-500

B R-123

C R-134a

D none of the above

Ans-D

1991 Pressure in the control tubing of a thermostatic expansion valve depends

directly upon the………

A temperature in the box

B super heat in the tail coil

C compressor suction pressure

D heat transfered from the saturated liquid in the evaporator

Ans-B

1992 To protect a recovery or recycling machine when removing refrigeration

from a burned out system a filter drier should be installed in………..

A The system liquid line

B The machine inlet

C The system suction line

D The container inlet

Ans-B

1993 In preparing to remove the air from a refregiration condenser for a large
multibox water cooled system , all of the refregirant in the system should be
…………….

A at a super heated temperature

B pumped to the receiver

C pumped to the evaporator

D at a saturated temperature

Ans-B
1994 HCFC-22 has been recovered from a refrigeration system during
replacement of the condenser. The refrigerant can be ………..

A recycled into a system that had used HCFC-11

B reclaimed as a low pressure system refrigerant

C returned to the system

D must be destroyed as it can no longer be used

Ans-C

1995 the process of removing refregirent from a system and storing it without
testing or processing is known as ……………..

A reclaiming

B recouping

C recycling

D recovering

Ans-D

1996 Which of the following represents a low pressure refregirants as defined by

EPA regulation?

A R-12

B R-22

C R-502

D R-123

Ans-D

1997 When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system, the nitrogen tank
should always have a……..

A cut off valve

B blue top

C level indicator

D regulator

Ans-D

1998 In addition to the recovery of refregirant ‘recovery machines not

necessarily able to pull a vaccum can also evacuate a system of…………

A non-condensable gases

B oil

C moisture

D Acids

Ans-A

1999 As the amount of moisture in the air increases , the difference between the
dry bulb and the wet bulb temperature will………

A increases

B decreases

C remain unchanged

D be greatest at dew point

Ans-B

2000 Which of the refregirants listed is considered to be chlorine free?

A R-12

B R-221

C R-142

D R152a
Ans-D

2001 solenoid valves used in refregiration systems may be classified as

……………….

A normal open, de-energized

B normally closed , energized

C normally opened or normally closed

D normally energized or normally de-energized

Ans-C

2002 small applications with less than 1.5kgs of refregirants should be

…………….

A liquid charged

B vapour charged

C either vapour or liquid charged

D initially liquid charged and then topped with a vapour charge

Ans-B

2003 The expansion valve used in refregiration system regulates the…………….

A super heat of the gas leaving the compressor

B back pressure in the evaporator

C temperature in the refregirated space

D degree of superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator

Ans-D

2004 The carbon ring of a refregiration compressor crankshaft mechanical seal

is held in position against the stationary ring by using a/an

A spring
B elliptical retaining assembly

C Belleville spring

D Thrust washer

Ans-A

2005 The oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refregiration compressor
appears to be brownish in colour. This is indicative of……………

B Bearing wear or piston scoring

C Heat gasket breakdown

D copper plating caused by moisture in the system

Ans-D

2006. why should the refrigerant stored in a recovery cylinder be allowed to

equalize with room temperature ?

A. To prevent the rupture disk from blowing.

B. This a way to check the refrigerant level in the cylinder.

C. This is the only way to read refrigerant pressure accurately.

D. The recovery cylinder could explode if the temperature rose too quickly.

Ans-C

2007. which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the other for use
in a centrifugal refrigerantion compressor?

A. R-11

B. R-11

C. Ammonia

D. carbon di oxide.
2008. which of the listed statements describe the reason why oil foaming occurs
when starting a refrigerant compressor?

A. if the oil level is not initially high, the condition is the result of agitation created
by the movement of the mechanical component.

B. this condition is the result of th sudden low pressure created in the crankcase at
start up causing release of refrigerant accumulated with in the oil.

C. this will occur only the crankcase heaters are used.

D. This phenomenon is inherent only in hermetically sealed units and is always

provisional.

Ans-B

2009. Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any part of a
refrigeration system?

A make certain that a positive pressure exists in the system to prevent entrance of
moisture

B find the leaks in the system with a halide torch

C use the hot gases defrost line to remove frost on coils

D set the heigh pressure cut out on manual to prevent automatic starting

Ans-A

2010 in refrigeration system which type of contaminatior will reclamation process

be unable to separate?

A Mixed refrigerants

B Acid

C Moisture

D Air

Ans-A
2011 A quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for refrigerant leaks
is to test the ……………..

A Cooling water for proper pH

B receiver for water content

C air vents on the condenser heads with a halide torch

D condenser tubes hydraustically

Ans-C

2012 In vapour compression refrigeration system with a freeze, dairy,and thaw

box , a solenoid valves should be installed………………

A immediately before each expansion valve

B on the inlet side of the receiver

C in the liquid line bypassing the expansion valve

D in the vapour bypassing the oil separator

Ans-A

2013 A properly adjusted thermostatic expansion valve will have a constant valve
opening under a condition of constant…………..

A supply pressure

B suction pressure

C refrigerant super heat

D compressor speed

Ans-c

2014 Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or sweeting of a

liquid line is usually indicative of …………….

A high surrounding relative humidity

B a refrigerant line restriction

C water in the system

D proper cooling take place

Ans-B

2015 An economizer , or het interchanger, is installed in a refrigeration system to

……………

A reduce the possibility of sweating of the suction line

B reduce the temperature of the liquid refrigerant prior to entering the expansion
valve

C reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant flooding back to the compressor

D all the above

Ans-D

2016 Before charging the refrigeration unit , the refrigerant charging line should
be ……………………

A flushed with clean refrigerant oil

B purged with the refrigerant

C washed with an ammonia or alcohol solution

D grounded to the compressor

Ans-B

2017 the amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by…………..

A saturation pressure

B volume

C weight

D saturation temperature
Ans-C

2018 which of the process listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to
lower the humidity of air being calculated by air conditioning system?

A cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point

B heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it

C cooling the air to a point below dew point ,then reheating it

D heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point

Ans-C

2019 Water regulating valves are installed to vary the water flow through the water
cooled refrigeration condensors in response to…………….

A compressor speed

B compressor discharge temperature

C compressor discharge pressure

D condenser discharge

Ans-C

2020 in a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system the liquid refrigerant
passes through the condenser directly to the ………………….

A evaporator

B chiller

C economizer

D expansion valve

Ans-C

2021 Immediately before the actual charging process is started refrigerant oil
charging lines should be loosely connected and……………..
A flushed with clean refrigerant oil

B purged with refrigerant gas

C washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution

D grounded to the compressor

Ans-A
2022 the primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve in a typical
multibox shipboard refrigeration system is to …………….

A control the refrigerated space temperature

B regulate the compression suction pressure

C regulate the amount of refrigerant superheat leaving the evaporator

D control the refrigerant temperature entering the evaporator

Ans- C

2023 which of the fluids listed is normally used to condense the primary
refrigerant in a shipboard central air conditioning system……………

A air or nitrogen

B seawater or fresh water

C sodium nitrate brine

D calcium sulphate brine

Ans-B

2024. The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is measured by …………………..

A. pressure

B. volume

C. weight
D. temperature

Ans: C

2025. The device which normally stops the refrigeration compressor before the
relief valve starts to open is the ………………

A. low pressure cutout switch

B. back pressure cutout switch

C. high pressure cutout switch

D. relief valve bypass

Ans: C

2026. The lubricant oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration compressor is

heated to …………

A. reduce absorption of refrigerant by the oil

B. prevent refrigerant vaporization

C. Remove entrained water

D. Remove wax and gum

Ans: A

2027. Vapor seals used in the insulation on refrigerated spaces serve to ………….

A. prevent Freon vapor from saturating the insulation

B. hold water vapor on the cold side of the insulation

C. reduce the possibility of moisture laden warm air entering the insulation

D. reduce the possibility of moisture laden cold air from entering the insulation

Ans: C
2028. A typically shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates with
one compressor and condenser. What is the purpose of the sensing line
connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator coil outlet?

A. To open or close the solenoid valve when the box temperature increases or
decreases

B. To open the back-pressure regulating valve when evaporator coil pressure

increases

C. To direct evaporator outlet pressure to the lower part of the solenoid bellows

D. To transform the pressure (proportional to the coil superheat) to the thermal

expansion valve

Ans: D

2029. Which of the following methods is normally used to control the

temperature of air distributed from individual cooling coils in an air conditioning
system using a chilled water circulation system?

A. A room thermostat activates an electric heater at each individual chilled air

outlet when necessary.

B. Varying the number of passes the air makes across the coils.

C. Varying the temperature of the water through the coils.

D. Varying the quantity of the water through the coils.

Ans: D

2030. For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning system
using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions should remain
constant regardless of load changes?

A. chilled water system supply temperature.

B. chilled water system return temperature.

C. Compressor discharge temperature.

D. Compressor suction pressure.

Ans: A

2031. In order to achieve greater dehumidification, you would adjust the air
conditioning system by……………….1. Reducing the chief water flow through the
cooling coil 2. Increase the preheater temperature

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

Ans: D

2032. In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a king
solenoid valve should be installed and located……………..

A. Just after the receiver.

B. Before the condenser.

C. Between the condenser and receiver.

D. Before the back pressure regulating valve.

Ans: A

2033. A partially fouled liquid line strainer in the refrigeration system will cause
…………………. . 1. A loss of refrigeration effect 2. The strainer outlet piping to be
cooler than the inlet

A. 1 only.

B. 2 only.
C. Both 1 and 2.

D. Neither 1and 2.

Ans: C

2034. When the refrigeration compressor is in the ‘off’ cycle the thermal
expansion valve will………………….

A. always be wide open when the compressor restarts

B. continue to operate as if the system were in operation

C. remains open until the evaporator pressure equalizes, then close until the
compressor restarts

D. always be completely closed until the compressor restarts

Ans. B

2035. The discharge valves used in refrigeration compressors are leaking badly
and ………………………..

A. the reed should be reground

B. The reed should be replaced

C. should continue to operate at minimum efficiency

D. the high pressure cut out should be readjusted to operate efficiently

Ans. B

2036. The output capacity of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor may be

controlled manually by…………………………………………………….

A. controlling the compressor speed

B. throttling the compressor suction

C. reducing the condenser water flow

D. all of the above methods

Ans. D

2037. The purpose of water failure switch in a refrigeration system is to react to

the loss of cooling water by …………………………

A. stopping the compressor

B. by passing the refrigerant to the receiver

C. closing the high pressure cut out switch

D. opening the high pressure cutout switch

Ans. A

2038. Which of the listed components for the refrigeration system is required for
a two box system, but not for a one box system……………………………..

A. hand expansion valve

B. automatic expansion valve

C. high pressure cut out switch

D. liquid line solenoid valve

Ans. D

2039. The dehydrating agent normally used in refrigeration system

is……………………………….

A. slaked lime

B. sodium chloride

C. activated alumina

D. calcium chloride

Ans. C
2040. If the atmospheric pressure decreases while the air temperature remains
constant, the air will………………………..

A. gives up moisture as condensation

B. Have greater capacity to absorb moisture

C. Become supersaturated at high relative humidity

D. absorb less free atmospheric moisture

Ans. B

2041. Which of the fluids listed is suitable as secondary

refrigerant………………………..

A. methyl alcohol

B. brine

C. Carbon-di-oxide

D. cuprous chloride

Ans. B

2042. Which of the listed materials can be used as a refrigeration

system………………………………

A. silica gel

B. activated alumina

C. anhydrous calcium sulphate

D. All of the above

Ans. D

2043. Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be

accomplished by………………………………..
A. varying the speed of the compressor

B. varying the suction pressure

C. varying the condenser water flow rate

D. all of the above

Ans. D

2044. To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you should
introduce the refrigerant through the……………………….

A. discharge service valve as a vapour

B. control service valve as a liquid

C. charging valve as a liquid

D. condensor purge valve as a vapour

Ans. C

2045. When multiple refrigeration evaporators are served by the same

compressor and operate at different temperatures, the pressure in the coldest
evaporator is………………………

A. higher than the pressure in the warmest evaporator

B. the same as any evaporator in the system

C. lower than the pressure in the warmest evaporator

D. controlled by adjusting the thermal expansion valve

Ans. C

2046. When adding oil to the refrigeration system you must be certain
that……………………………

A. all air is removed from the pump and fittings

B. the suction strainer is not blocked

C. the discharge pressure is not too high

D. the condenser is secure

Ans. A

2047. The pressure in a low pressure refrigeration system about to be opened for
repair should be……………………………………….

A.10 to 12 psig

B.4 to 7 psig

C.0 to 1 psig

D.25 inches of hg vacuum

Ans. D

2048. The back pressure regulating valve used in a refrigeration system serves
to………………..

A. maintain a constant pressure in the suction line heat exchanger

B. limit the minimum pressure in the evaporator

C. limit the maximum pressure in the suction line heat exchanger

D. maintain a minimum discharge head on compressor

Ans. B

2049. After a refrigeration plant has been opened for repairs, it is advisable to
purge air from the system by……………………………..

A. slightly opening the purge valve on the condenser

B. cracking the valve bonnet assembly on the thermostatic expansion

C. turning over the compressor fly wheel with the suction line valve open
D. Loosening the purge connection attached to the receiver head

Ans. A

2050. A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of a water cooled

condenser is used to………………….

A. free tubes of accumulated scale.

B. Charge the system with refrigerant.

C. Remove non condensable gases

D. ensure positive air circulation

Ans: C

2051. The charging of a refrigerating system should be carried out by

adding…………………..

A. Refrigerant vapor to the receiver only.

B. liquid refrigerant to the low side only

C. liquid refrigerant to the high side only

D. liquid refrigerant to the high or low side

Ans: C

2052. When the temperature in a refrigerated space rises above its normal set
point, which of the listed actions should occur FIRST?

A. The thermal expansion valve will close

B. The compressor will start

C. The solenoid valve will open

D. The automatic defrost timer will activate

Ans: C
2053. Unless designed for such operation, two compressors should not be
operated in parallel in a refrigeration system because the……………. .

A. Operation of two compressors will overload the expansion valve

B. condenser pressure will be too high causing condenser failure

C. lubricating oil may be transferred from one compressor to the other

D. evaporator would fail due to low suction pressure

Ans: C

2054. The thermal bulbs for expansion valves used in air conditioning systems are
charged with…………….

A. fluids other than the system charge

B. the same refrigerants as the system

C. a mixed charge of fluids

D. mercuric sulphate

Ans: B

2055. A purge recovery is used in a centrifugal air conditioning or refrigeration

system to…………….

A. purge lube oil from the liquid refrigerant

B. Recover water purged from the system

C. separate foul gases from the receiver

D. purge non condensable gases without losing refrigerant

Ans: D

2056. In addition to pressure, most refrigerant compound gases are also

calibrated in……………
A. saturated gas temperature

B. superheated gas temperature

C. absolute temperature

D. absolute pressure

Ans: A

2057. Which of the listed conditions would cause the thermal expansion valve to
open?

A. Rise in the gas temperature within the cooling coils

B. compressor cutting out

C. compressor cutting in

D. A drop in the temperature of the cooling coils

Ans: A

2058. In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of

refrigerated space is accomplished by……………………

A. the king expansion valve

B. individual coil expansion valve

C. a solenoid valve in the liquid line

D. individual back pressure regulating valves on all but the coldest box

Ans: B

2059. The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration
system is to prevent drift and scale from entering the……………

A. solenoid and expansion valves

B. compressor and receiver

C. condenser liquid line

D. evaporator coil piping

Ans: A

2060 Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor

and a refrigeration compressor pulley may cause _________

A. Overheated bearings
B. Unnecessary motor loading
C. Noisy
D. All of the above

Ans: D

2061 Air conditioning duck-work begins at the large mixing chamber called
the_________

A. Exhaust chamber
B. Plenum chamber
C. Intake chamber
D. Vapor chamber

Ans: B

2062 If the people in an air conditioned room complain of begin too coll,the
trouble might be that the _________

A. Preheater has failed to cutout

B. Air velocity is too low
C. Relative humidity is high
D. Relative humidity is too low
Ans: D

2063 The dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb temperature is
the ___________
A. Twice the dry bulb temperature
B. 5 c above the dry bulb temperature
C. 3 c above the dry bulb temperature
D. Equal to the dry bulb temperature

Ans: D

2064 In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the max. amout of
moisture it can hold at a specific temperature, it is said to be____________

A. Superheated
B. Saturated
C. Condensed
D. Convected

Ans: B

2065 If air at 35 c dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity is

conditioned to 24 c dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity, it is an eg.
Of ___________

A. Cooling only
B. Cooling and humidifying
C. Cooling and dehumidifying
D. Adiabatic cooling

Ans: C
2066 When the relief valve opens it discharges high pressure refrigerant vapor
to the ____________

A. Liquid strainer
B. Refrigerant inlet of the condenser
C. Inlet side of the evaporator
D. Suction side of the compressor

Ans: D

2067 Diclorodifluoromethane in vaporized in the presence of an open flame,

will form ____________

A. Carbon dioxide gas

B. Phosgene gas
C. Triclorodifluoromethane
D. Sulphur dioxide

Ans: B

2068 A pressure drop in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may

cause___________

A. The solenoid valve to seize

B. The compressor to hunt
C. Flash gas to form in the liquid line
D. The expansion valve to freeze open

Ans: C

2069 Moisture is removed from air refrigeration system by ____________

A. Bleeding refrigeration from the condenser

B. Opening a drain petcock on the oil separator
 C. Condensing the water in the heat exchanger
D. Using a dehydrator cartridge

Ans: D

2070 In an operating refrigeration system low on refrigerant, a liquid line sight

glass will_________

A. Be clear
B. Be blue
C. Be light green
D. Show bubbles

Ans: D

2071 Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system by_________

A. Boil in the condenser

B. Be removed by the liquid line strainers
C. Cause sweating and frost on the evaporator coils
D. Freeze in the expansion valve

Ans : D

2072 Some refrigeration systems have chemical moisture indicators installed

in conjunction with the sight glass in the liquid line. If excess moisture is present
in the system, the indicator will___________

A. Activate the driers

B. Change color
C. Secure the compressor
D. Add a predetermined amount of liquid drier
Ans: B

2073 In a refrigeration, where multiple evaporators are operating at different

temperatures, and serviced by a single compressor and condensers, the control of
individual coil temperatures should be carried out by adjustment of
the__________

A. Thermostatic expansion valve

B. Back pressure regulating valve
C. King valve
D. Box temperature solenoid valve

Ans: B

2074 A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not a

refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. It is generally located in the
_________

A. High pressure liquid line

B. Low pressure liquid line
C. High pressure vapor line
D. Low pressure vapor line

Ans: A

2075 A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined and gas
bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. This means__________

A. The system is fully charged

B. There is air leaking in from the condenser
C. Ice crystals are forming in the refrigerant
D. The system contains less than a full charge of refrigerant
Ans: D

2076 Frost appearing on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct expansion

refrigeration system_________

A. Is best removed by means of an ice pick

B. Will increase the refrigeration effect
C. Can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils
D. Can be quickly removed by simply shutting down the coils

Ans: B

2077 In a water-cooled refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water

regulating valve is controlled by__________

A. Temperature of the cooling water

B. Refrigerant in the system
C. Temperature of the refrigerant in the system
D. Temperature of the refrigerant after compression

Ans: B

2078 When a refrigerated space reaches the desired temperature in a multi-

box refrigeration system, which of the listed actions will occur FIRST?

A. The solenoid valve will close

B. The expansion valve will open
C. The low pressure cutout switch will stop the compression
D. The high pressure cutout switch will stop the compression

Ans: A
2079 A totally white or yellow colored flame produced by a haide torch being
used to test for refrigerant leaks indicates________

A. No R-12 leakage
B. A partially clogged torch exploring tube
C. An effective torch reaction plate
D. A minute quantity of R-12 leakage

Ans: B

2080 All refrigerant recovered from small appliances must be_________

A. Sent to a designated reclaim facility for processing

B. Containing in a refillable recovery cylinder
C. Destroyed as unusable
D. Used to clean out burn-outs

Ans: B

2081 When air contains some moisture, but is not saturated, the dew point
temperature is_________

A. Between the wet and dry bulb temperature

B. Equal to the total heat of air
C. Higher than the wet bulb temperature
D. Lower then the dry-bulb temperature

Ans: D

2082 When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low pressure
cutout switch, you should_________

A. Stop the compressor

 B. Secure the condenser
C. Close the “king” valve
D. Stop the circulating pump

Ans: C

2083 The thermal bulb of an expansion valve that is attached to the

evaporator tail coil should be__________

A. Installed on the bottom of the suction line

B. Installed between the suction strainer and compressor
C. Insulated before setting the superheat adjusting srew
D. Insulated after installation

Ans: D

2084 Purging is the process used to________

A. Eliminate moisture from the refrigeration system

B. Separate refrigerant from oil
C. Remove noncondensable gases from the refrigeration system
D. Decreases the total amount of refrigerant in the system

Ans: C

2085 In a direct expansion evaporator , the coils are _________

A. Covered with insulation

B. Half covered with insulation
C. Surrounded by air
D. Surrounded by water

Ans: C
2086 Which of the device listed is used to limit frosting of evaporator coils on
multiple box installations served by one compressor?

A. Back pressure control valve

B. Automatic expansion valve
C. Capillary tube
D. Solenoid valve

Ans: A

2087 In addition to removing water from a refrigerant, most dehydration also

effectively remove entrapped_________

A. Acid
B. Air
C. Dichlorodifluoromethane
D. Desiccant

Ans: A

2088 When you find a small refrigerant leak with a handle torch, the color of
the torch flame will be_________

A. Orange
B. Blue
C. White
D. Green

Ans: D
2089 The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system opens with
pressure __________

A. Decreases in the evaporator

B. Decreases in the expansion of valve control bulb
C. Increases above the expansion valve diaphragm
D. Increases in the solenoid valve

Ans: C

2090 When a refrigerated compartment of a multi-box system served by one

compressor reaches the correct temperature control in that one compartment by
a/an__________

A. Expansion valve
B. Back pressure regulating valve
C. Solenoid valve
D. Low pressure cutout switch

Ans: C

2091 During the initial pull down of the box temperature in a refrigeration
system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at
the compressor suction?

A. Suction pressure hold back valve

B. High pressure cutout
C. Solenoid valve
D. Low pressure cutout

Ans: A
2092 The device used to limit the passage of moisture through arefrigeration
system is________

A. Humidifier
B. Aerator
C. Dehydrator
D. Trap

Ans: C

2093 In an atmosphere of 100% relatively humility, the wet bulb thermometer

would register a temperature_________

A. Above the dry bulb temperature

B. Below the dry bulb temperature
C. The same as the dry bulb temperature
D. Above the dry bulb temperature, but below the saturation temperature

Ans: C

2094 When a refrigeration system is been charged through the low side, the
_________

A. Refrigerant should be added as a vapor

B. Suction service valve must be back seated
C. Discharge service valve must be front seated
D. Refrigerant drum should be turned upside down

Ans: A

2095 Copper piping has been used in refrigeration systems

because_______________
 A. It is creep resistant at low temperatures
B. It offers less interval friction
C. Iron is corroded by R-12
D. Leaks are more easily detected in copper

Ans: B

2096 Loss of refrigerant during the purging process can be kept to a minimum
by___________

A. Operating the dehydrator continuously

B. Purging through the discharge service valve
C. Cracking the purge valve briefly
D. Closing the liquid line king valve

Ans: C

2097 In a refrigeration system, if the cooling water to the condenser fails

the__________

A. Box temperature solenoid valve will close

B. Expansion valve will close
C. Compressor will shutdown
D. King valve will open

Ans: C

2098 In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the greatest
temperature drop across the_______________

A. Evaporator
B. Capillary tube
 C. Compressor
D. Receiver

Ans: B

2099 which of the listed types of refrigeration compressors can be designed

with short large diameter suction lines?

A. Reciprocating
B. Rotary
C. Screw
D. Centrifugal

Ans: D

2100 Which of the methods listed is most frequently used to control evaporator
refrigerants flow rate in a shipboard refrigeration system?

A. Direct expansion with constant superheat

B. Indirect expansion with constant superheat

C. Low side float control

D. High side float control

Ans:A

2102 The primary purpose of a thermostatic controlled solenoid value used in a

multi-box refrigeration system is to____________

A. control the refrigerant flow to the evaporator

B. bypass refrigerant flow to the evaporator
C. maintain the proper refrigerant superheat
D. stop the compresser when the evaporator reaches the proper temperature
Ans:C

2104 In a refrigeration system,the thermal expansionvalue sensing bulb is

located___________

A. Near the evaporator coil outlet

B. Near the evaporator coil inlet
C. On the liquid line strainer
D. At the solenoid value outlet

Ans:A

2106 An operator pressure regulating valve (back, pressure, regulator)

A. prevent compresser overload

B. maintain a minimum evaporator pressure
C. control liquid refrigerant pressure
D. regulate refrigerant outlet superheat

Ans:B

2107 when the solenoid valves in a refrigeration of closed the compressor will
be stopped by the

A.low water cutout

B.low pressure cutout

C.high pressur cutout

D.sprin_loaded relife valve

Ans B

2108 If the air temperature increases while the atmospheric remains constant
the air will___________
A. have a greater capacity to absorb moisture
B. absorb less free atmospheric moisture
C. become supersaturated at high relative humidity
D. give up moisture as condensation

Ans:A

2110 In order to archive greater dehumidification with a air conditioning

system you should ___________.I reduce the cooling coil temperature it
increase the reheater temperature

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I and II

2112 The effective temperature of air is dependent upon__________ I relative

humidity II .air velocity

A. I only
B. II only
C. II only
D. Neither I and II

2114 Which recovery phase will reduce the loss of oil during the recovery of
refrigerants from small appliances such as a water cooler?

A. Vapour recovery
B. Liquid recovery
C. Initial recovery
D. Vapour –liquid recovery
Ans:C

2116 One benefit of proper air circulation in a refrigerated cargo space is

_______________

A. More temperature differential

B. Increase moisture content
C. Reduced slime and mold
D. Increased density of the air

Ans C

2118 Dehydrates are usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration systems
in order to

A. Remove oil from the refrigerant

B. Prevent itching of the expansion valve
C. Reduce compressor discharge line sweating
D. Prevent liquid slugging in suction line

AnsB

2101 The safest and quickest method of adding refrigent to a refrigent system
is to add the refrigent throuh the

A.discharge service vlave as a vapor

B. suction service valveas a liquid

C.charging valve as a liquid

D.condensor relief valve as a vapour

Ans C
 2103 The purpose of running a refrigeration compressor in short
intermittent spurts when starting a system after a
prolonged shutdown is to

A.allow the refrigent vapor cycling system

B.insure proper operation of the compressor

C.let the refrigeratin compartment cool gradually

D.determine actual compressor oil level

Ans B

2105 prior to making repairs on an evaprator located in a large multibox

refrigeratin system ,you should remove the refrigent by

A.pumping it from the system to be clean empty drum

B.draining the system through the purge valve connected

C.pumping all refrigent to the reciver

D.exhausting it to the atmosphere

Ans C

2109 Refigeration isolation valves are of double seated type in order to

___________

A. Allow for the operation as a suction or discharge valve

B. Permit repacking under pressure
C. Conserve space
D. Allow for removal or replacement without ahutting down

Ans:B
 2111 Subcooling of the refrigerant to reduce the percent off gas is
accomplished___________ I as the refrigerant passes through the expansion
valve II in most water cooled condensers

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I and II

Ans:B

2113 One of the primary steps in assisting someone who has been overcome by
ammonia vapours is to___________

A. Ioosen all clothing

B. Provide the victim with smelling salts
C. Rinse the affected area with water
D. Give the patient plenty of fresh air

Ans:D

2115 To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from a refrigeration system in a
enclosed area,you should____________

A. Apply liquid ammonia to the suspected leak

B. Apply a soap solution to a area of the suspected leak
C. A halide leak detector to all piping joints
D. Apply a hydroststic test with water

Ans:B

Ans B
 2117 The high pressure cutout switch will stop the refrigeration centrifugal
compression when there is

A.stoppage of condensor cooling water flow

B.fouled condensor tubes

C.excessive air in the system

D.all of the above

Ans D

2119 Aliquid line solenoid valve controls refrigent flow to the evaprator by

A.throtting the refrigent

B.fully opening or closing

C.sensing the superheat in the tall coil

D.sensing the temperature in liquid line

Ans B

2120 Low side passive charging of a refrigeration system may be speeded up by

A. Warming the service cylinder with a torch

B. Warming the service cylinder with a hot water
C. Inverting the eservice cylinder
D. Include the eservice cylinder

Ans:B

2122 The thermostst controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a

refrigerated box senses___________
A. Evaporator coil inlet temperature
B. Evaporator coil outlet temperature
 C. Compressor discharge temperature
D. The refrigerant box temperature

Ans:C

2124which material should be used for ammonia refrigeration system evaporator

cooling coil construction?

A. Copper tubing with copper fins

B. Copper tubing with aluminium fins
C. Aluminum tubing with copper fins
D. All the above may be used

Ans:C

2126 The temperature in a refrigerated space is controlled by adjusting the

thermostat connected to the__________

A. Suction line solenoid

B. Thermostatic expansion valve
C. Liquid line box solenoid
D. Low pressure cutout switch

Ans:B

2128

The water regulating valve installed in a refrigeration system is operated by

the ____________

a. Compressor discharge temperature

b. Compressor discharge preassure
c. C.solinoil
d. Sensing line from tail coil
Ans .b

2130

When used as refrigent , ammonia contaning moisture will act as corrosive

mixture to_______________

A, steel component

B,brass and broze metals

C,stain less steal components

D, all of the above are correct

2132

In an operating ,water cold , multi box refrigeration system, both low

discharge and high succession preassure are being simultaneously
experienced the porbable cause for this condition is a or an

A,over charge refrigerant the system

B, fouled shell and tube condence

C, improper super neat adjustment on the low side

D, discharge reliet valve leaking back to the suction side

2134 Refrigerant recovery equipment that is considered as being system

dependent_____________

A. Must have its own power source

B. Recovers refrigerant with the aid of components in the system
C. Are portable units
D. Can only recover liquid refrigerant

Ans:B
 2136 If u find the pressure of a R-12 refrigeration to bre worked on is 0 bar
g___________

A. only recover the vapour refrigerant

B. only recover the liquid refrigerant
C. require liquid and vapour refrigerant
D. do not recover the refrigerant

Ans:B

D.Sensing the temperature in the liquid line

2121, the invidiual box temperature of a multi box referensation syatem are
controlled by ……………………..

A. expansion valves
B. solenoid valves
C. back-pressure valves
D. regulation of the cooling water

ans.B

2123,

Charging liquid CFC-11 into a system under a heavy vaccum could

cause……………..

A. the purge unit to operate

B. system secondary refrigerant to freeze
C. air and moisture to enter the receiver
D. rupture disk to rupture

ANS. B

2125,
 When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, the most accurate
reading is obtain……………

A. immeadiately after purging

B. immeadiately after charging
C. after being secured for 3 hours with the sump heater secured
D. immeately after shutdown following the prolonged period of operation

ANS.d

2127,

Standard driers used in many container type refrigeration systems may

contains ………………

A. activated charcoal or silica gel

B. special chemicals to increase adsorbtion rates
C. activated alumina or silica gel
D. all the above may be used

ANS.c

2129,

The maximum level of moisture permitted an operating refrigeration system

is…………….

A. 5 parts per million

B. 8 parts per million
C. 10 parts per million
D. 15 parts per million

ANS.d

2131 The thermal expansion valve reacts directly to the __________

A. temperature in the space being cooled
B. liquid temperature pressure at the solenoid valve
C. pressure drop at the evaporator coils
D. refrigerant gas superheat at the coil outlet
Ans:D
2133 When hot gas defrosting a refrigeration system one way to overcome
the possibility of a large slug of liquid refrigerant entering the compressor
suction is to use the installed________________
A. subcooler
B. liquid extractors
C. re-evaporator
D. drain lines

Ans:A

2135 The suction pressure which control the refrigeration compressor

operation is actuated by_____________

A. pressure acting on the bellows

B. temperature acting on the bellows
C. temperature acting on a thermal element
D. pressure acting on a compressor valves

2137When taking readings at the suction service valve of an operating

refrigeration compressor_____________

A. the pressure or temperature reading is only required as the refrigerant

is saturated
B. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant is
probably sub cooled
 C. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant
D. is un important as accurate readings at this location cannot be obtained

Ans:C

2138 If a low pressure cutout switch will cause compressor in a refrigerant

system to short cycle if the ___________

A. Refrigeraton valve thermal bulb loses the charge

2139, If the electric coil to a refrigeration system modulation valve develops an

open the valve will …………..

A. Move to the open position due to the flow of refrigerant across valve orifice

B. move to the open position due to the spring pressure acting upon the
amature.

C. tend to move to a centered position ,there by maintaining box temperature.

D. remain in whatever position it was in prior to developing the open

ANS; B

2140. the liquid line ,thermostatically controlled, solenoid valve is operated in

response to the ……………….

A .superheat in the tail coil.

B .temperature of the box.

C. compressor suction pressure.

D. compressor discharge pressure

ANS; B.
2141. most refrigerants are originated primarily from which of the following base
molecules?

A. ammonia and carbon dioxide.

B. ammonia and ethane.

C. methane and sulfur dioxide.

D. ethane and methane.

2142. refrigerant recovery cylinders are color coded………………………..

A .gray top and yellow lower body

B. gray top and light blue lower body

C .light blue top and yellow lower body

D. yellow top and gray body

2143.one function of the thermal expansion valve is to…………………

A. act as a pilot from the solenoid valve

B. regulate the amount of refrigerant flow to the coil

C. regulate the water flow

D. turn the compressor off and on

2144. All refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances must
be…………………

A. sent to a designated reclaimation facility for processing.

B. contained in a refillable cylinder

C .destroyed although it can be reused

D .used to clean burn- outs

2145. which of the following refrigerants is an interim retrofit replacement for R-
11?

A.R-500

B.R-134a

C.R-12

D.R-123

2146. when a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a container refrigeration

system , the sensing bulb may not require insulation if the bulb is
installed………………….

A. outside of the cooled air stream

B. in the cooled air stream

C. on the tail end of the condenser outlet pipe.

D.at the mid horizontal level of the vertically run tail coil

2147. If passive recovery is used on a refrigeration unit a non operating

compressor, the recovery should be made through................

A. high side only

B. low side only

C. high and low side only

D. venting to atmosphere cannot be recovery.

2148. Which of the following instrument is used to measure the rate of air flow.

A. thermometer

B.Anemometer

C. Psychrometer
D.Areometer

2149. Which current to the refrigeration system modulating valve is increased

the………….

A. valve is moving to a more open position

B. temperature of the box is increasing

C. suction pressure of the compressor is increasing

D. amount of the air flow through the condenser is decreasing

2150. Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable replacement for

R-11?

A. R-22

B. R-123

C. R-134a

D. R-227

2151. Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable and limited

ozone producing alternative for R-11?

A. R-22

B. R-123

C. R-134a

D. R-227

2152. Moisture is removed from CFC-12 using a recycler by………………..

A. Bleeding noncendensables off

B. opening a drain petcock on the oil separator

C. condensing the water in the condenser

D. using a dehydrator cartridge

2153. Of the four refrigerants CFC-11,CFC-12 HFC-134a and HCFC-22, HCFC-22

operates at the ……………

A. lowest system pressure with the lowest boiling point

B. highest system pressure with the lowest boiling point

C. lowest system pressure with the highest boiling point

D. highest system pressure with the highest boiling point

2154. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeneration compressor,

extreme care must be taken to prevent…………

A. any lubricant from contacting the carbon syrface that would cause the expulse
of the saturated tellon film

B. dirt and foreign particles from coming in contact with thw highly polished
sealing surfaces

C. the telfon film from being damaged by the corrosive effects of excessive
handling

D. shaft scoring due to improper use of the installation tools provided with the
seal kits

2155.The watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration compressor has blown the
shaft seal. In the saturation he should………..

A. secure the compressor at the once and close the suction anddischarge valve

B. pump the system down and isolate the loak

C. close the suction valve secure the compressor and then place the shaft seal

D. tighten the shaft seal packing to reduce leakage sloe the compressor and
operate the espansion valves by hand and repairs can be made
2156. Routine maintaneance on a central control rool hermetically sealed air
conditioning unit should include…………..

A. changing the air filter

B. recharging the system

C. changing compressor lubricant

D. renewing container vacuum.

2157. HCFC-123 presents health threats to service technician which may include
its….

A. flammability as a liquid

B. freezing in the compressor

C. toxic threats

D. being caustic and strong offensive odor

2158. the most cost effective method of recovering refrigerant from chiller with
more than 2.5 kgs of refrigerant to meet EPA requirement is to use a …………………

A .liquid pump

B. vapor recovery machine

C .liquid followed by vapor recovery

D. vapor followed by liquid recovery

ANS; C

2159. in an air conditioning system , low head pressure associated with a

reciprocating compressor can be the result of …………….

A .broken valve springs

B. tight drive belts

C. high line voltage

D. air in the system

2160.an obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely cooled

evaporator and ……………

A .a higher than discharge pressure

B. frosting at the evaporator inlet

C. a decrease in the amount of frosting across the drier

D. frosting at the suction side of the compressor

2161. if a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too high a superheat

value………………..

A. all of the system liquid will follow to the evaporator coil.

B. an insufficient amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator

C. an excessive amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator

D. only the required amount of refrigerant will enter the evaporator regardless of
the required superheat value

ANS; B

2162. if a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too low a superheat

value………………..

A. the efficiency of the unit will be increased

B. too much liquid will be passed back to the evaporator

C. the box temperature will increase causing an expansion of the volume of air

D. the refrigeration effect will increase contributing to uncontrolled box

temperatures
ANS; B

2163.any air mixture whose dew point remains constant will also have an
unchanging………………….

A.dry bulb temperature

B. .wet bulb temperature

C. specific humidity

D. specific volume

2164. a Re heater in an air conditioning system functions to ……………….

A. control inlet air inlet temperature

B. control inlet air inlet volume

C. maintain relative humidity at15%

D. restore conditioned air temperature to a comfortable level

ANS; D

2165 a water regulating valve control the refrigeration condenser cooling water
flow in response to condenser…………………….

A . cooling water outlet temperature

B. liquid refrigerant outlet temperature

C. liquid refrigerant outlet pressure

D. refrigerant vapor inlet pressure

ANS;D

2166. in a refrigerant plant one purpose of the receiver is to ……………..

A. cool refrigerant gas

B. super heat the cool refrigerant

C. store the refrigerant

D. condense the refrigerant

ANS;C

2167. oil separators installed in refrigeration system serves to………………….

A. remove excess oil from the system

B. remove all entrained in high pressure liquid lines

C .return oil entrained in refrigerant vapor back to the compressor crankcase

D. all of the above

2168. properties of a good refrigeration oil include ………………….

A. low wax content

B. high pour point

C. high viscosity

D. all of the above

ANS:A

2169. the receiver used in refrigeration system ………………………..

A. stores liquid refrigerant

B. collects the non condensable gases

C. allows refrigerant sub cooling

D. prevents compressor surging

ANS; A

2170. the purpose of the low cutout switch is to ………………..

A. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor.

B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor.

C. start and stop t he compressor at preset operating pressures

D. operate minimum efficiency.

ANS; C

2171. the sensing line for the low pressure cutout switch to a refrigeration system
is located…………………..

A .in the chill box

B. before the receiver

C. on the suction side of the compressor

D. on the discharge side of the compressor

ANS: C

2172. The purpose of refrigeration system low pressure cut out switch is to…………

A. protect the compressor from liquid flood back

B. protect the compressor from low discharge pressure

C. start and stop the compressor upon system demand

D. start the compressor after a drop in the evaporator pressure

Ans: C

2173. the temperature of the refrigerant in the evaporator coil depends mostly
upon the………………

A. refrigerant pressure in the evaporator

B.cooling water temperature to the condenser

C. heat load in the refrigerator compartment

D. solenoid valve in the liquid line

Ans.A

2174. one cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system can
be………….

A. insufficient cooling water to the condenser

B. a low refrigerant charge in the system

C. the liquid valveis open too much

D. high evaporator superheat

Ans.A

2175. The oil separator used in a ship board refrigeration system is located
between the

A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser

B. condenser and the receiver

C. receiver and the king valve

D. receiver and the expansion valve

Ans.A

2176. An oil separator is a device used to remove oil from the ……………….

A. liquid refrigerant

B. receiver

C. gaseous refrigerant

D. expansion valve
Ans. C

2177. Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be caused by

………

A. insufficient condenser cooling water

B. excessive condenser cooling water

C. air in the refrigeration system

D. excessive refrigeration in the system

Ans .B

2178. If the head pressure of reciprocarinf refrigeration compressor is

excessive……….

A).the relief valve should open befor e the high pressure cutout

B)the relief valve should open and allow the excess refrigerant to flow to the
receiver

C)the high pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief valve opens

D)you should close in on the suction valve

Ans.c

2179. A low refrigeration compressor discharge pressure can be caused

by…………..

A. warm food in refrigerator

B.waste zinc plates in the condenser

C.leaky compressor discharge valves

D)faulty door gaskets on the refrigerator

2180)High suction pressure to a refrigeration system compressor is caused

by………………………

A)the expansion valve is insufficiently opened

B)the exPansion valve being open too wide

C)the king valve is insufficiently open

D)a dirty dehydrator

Ans)B

2181)If a refrigeration compressor had developed a high suction pressure, the

proble m could be a result of …………………..

A)a minor accumulation of air or noncondesable gases in the system

B)a leaking king valve

C)a clogged subcooler

D)liquid refrigerant flooding back from the coling coil

Ans)d

2182)when a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head pressure as a

result of a refrigerant overcharge you should………………………………

A)increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser

B)decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser

C)add more refrigerant to the system

D)remove some refrigerant from the system

Ans)d
2183)which of the following problems could cause the high pressure cutout
switch to shut down the compressor in a refrigeration system?

A)a shortage of liquid refrigerant

B)excessive frost on the evaporator

C)excessive condenser cooling water

D)insufficient condenser cooling water flow

Ans)d

2184)which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low refrigerant

pressure at the compressor suction?

A)insufficient flow of condenser cooling water

B)the system is low on refrigerant

C)the solenoid valve to the chill box is frozen in the open positon

D)the high pressure cutout switch is inoperative

Ans)b

2185)an excessive charge of refrigerant in an aircooled refrigeration system can

cause…………….

A)oil foaming in the compression

B)higher than normal suction and discharge pressures with a higher box
temperature

C)higher than normal Discharge pressure with a normal box temperature

D)the compressor to run continuously

Ans)c

2186)noise in a refrigeration compressor can be causedby

A)wom bearings and piston pins

B)slugging due to flooding back

C)to much oil in circulation

D)all of the above

Ans)d

2187)a warme, than normal compressor suction line might be caused by

A)insufficient lubrication

B)insufficient refrigerant

c)excess refrigerant

D)excessive opening of the expansion valve

Ans)b

2188)which of the conditions listed will cause a refrigeration compressor to run

constantly without simultaneously decreasing the temperature in the
refrigerated space?

A)shortage of refrigerant oil

B)slight shortage of refrigerant

C)excessive condenser cooling water flow

D)faulty expansion valve

Ans)b

2189)if a substantial difference is maintained between the refrigerant the

temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated compartment,
this may result in ……………………..

A)slugging in the condenser

B)the evaporator coil to frost

C)the compressor to short cycle

D)the thermal expansion valve to malfunction

Ans)b

2190)the low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to exist from

the ……………..

A)expansion valve to the compressor

B)receiver to the expansion coil

C)expansion valve to the evaporator

D)condenser to the expansion valve

Ans)a

2191)if the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking badly, the
compressor should……………

A)run continuously

B)not start

C)have high discharge pressure

D)short cycle on the high pressure switch

Ans)a

2192)if the evaporator coil of a single box air cooled refrigerator accumulates
frost, the compressor wil most likely………….

A)run continuously

B)short cycle on low pressure cutout

C)short cycle on high pressure cutout

D)fail to start

Ans)b

2193)in a compression refrigeration cycle, the temperature of refrigerant

experiences its greatest decrease in the…………………..

A)evaporator

B)compressor

C)expansion valve.

D)condenser

Ans)c

2194)a refrigerant with oil in solution has a…………….

A)higher boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure refrigerant

B)lower boiling temperature for a given pressure than doesa pure refrigerant

C)boiling pressure equal to thant of a pure refrigerant at a given pressure

D)boiling point will not be affected by entrained oil

Ans)a

2195)the temperature of a refrigerant gas is the highest…………..

A)at the compressor discharge

B)at the compressor suction

C)in the expansion valve

D)in the receiver

Ans)a

2196)refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the………..

A)compressor

B)condenser

C)expansion valve

D)evaporator

Ans)a

2197)if condensation collects and drips off an evaporator coil , the temperature of
the coils is……………

A)a maximum of 21*f

B0above 0*c but below the dew point

C)21*f but above the dew point

D)below 32*f and below the dew point

Ans)b

2198)thermostatic expansion valves can be adjusted for ……………….

A)suction pressure only

B)head pressure only

C)superheat only

D)suction pressure and box temperature

Ans)c

2199)refrigerant enter the condenser as a ………..

A)high pressure liquid

B)low pressure vapor

C)high pressure vapor

D)low pressure liquid

Ans)c

2200)which of the listed components is considered to separate the high pressure

side of a refrigeration cycle from the low pressure side of the cycle?

A)the condenser and the expansion valve

B)the king valve and the solenoid valve

C)the compressor and the expansion valve

D)the condenser and the solenoid valve

Ans)c

2201)the sudden reduction of pressure occurring within the crankcase of a

refrigeration compressor during starting causes the …………..

A)sudden evaporation of wax crystals in the lubricant

B)sudden evaporation of entrapped air in the lubricant

C)release of refrigerant from the oil.refrigerant mixture

D)release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant

Ans)c

2202)which of the following statements is correct concerning a typical shipboard

multi-coil refrigeration system?

A)the liquid receiver functions to collect and remove noncondensable gases

B)a thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated space

temperature

C)refrigerant temperature in an evaporator is directly releated to refrigerant

pressure
D)dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system

Ans)c

2208)foaming of the oil in a refrigeration compressor crankcase is caused

by………………..

A)refrigerant boiling out of solution from the lube oil

B)liquid refrigerant flooding the compressor and system

C)lube oil viscosity being reduced by refrigerant dilution

D)compressor suction pressure suddenly increasing

Ans)a

2204)a cracked diaphragm in a thermostatic expansion valve will cause the valve
to…….

A)return to a neutral position

B)flood the evaporator

C)open

D)close

Ans)d

2205)if a refrigeration compressor will not start, the reason may be…………

A)the pressure regulating valve is not closing

B)an excessive lack of a refrigerant in the system

C)badly leaking a discharge valves

D)worn piston rings

Ans>b
2206)sludge may be formed in the oil in the crankcase of a reciprocationg air
condition compressor as a result of………………..

A)refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil

B)refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity

C)oxidation of the lube oil from overheating

D)reducing the floc or cloud point of the oil

Ans)c

2207)the refrigeration compressor in a water cooled refrigeration system is shor

cycling on the high pressure cutout switch one reason for this could be
the…………..

A)system is low on refrigerant

B)high pressure cutout switch is improperly adjusted

C)discharge valves are leaking slightly

D)discharge valves are leaking slightly

D)discharge valves are leaking excessively

Ans)b

2208)air trapped in a refrigeration system using a water cooled condenser is

usually indicated by……………..

A)unusually high head pressure when compared to the existing temperature of

the liquid refrigerant

B)high than normal liquid level in the receiver

C)unusually lower than normal discharge peressure when compared to the

existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant

D)higher than normal liquid refrigerant temperature

Ans)a

2209)a refrigeration unit will tend to short cycle when operating ………..

A)under heavy loads

B)during hot gas defrost

C)under light loads

D)during starting conditions

Ans)c

2210)sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a

result of ………..

A)bubbling refrigerant

B)overheating and oxidation

C)lowered operating temperatures

D)reducing the cloud or fl0c point

Ans)b

2211)excessive circulation of the lubricating oil with the refrigerant in a

refrigeration system will cause………….

A)carbon deposits on the compressor suction valves

B)the evaporator temperature to increase

C)rapid corrosion of the thermal expansion valve

D)no operating problems

Ans)b

2212)if a refrigeration crankcase compressor were shor cycling on the low

pressure cutout switch, the cause might be that the…………….
A)system was overcharged with refrigerant

B)system was low on refrigerant

C)suction valves were leaking slightly

D)relief valve was leaking slightly

Ans)b

2213)if a liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system shows gas bubbles in
motion passing inside of the glass, there is

A)too much refrigerant in the system

B)oil entrained in the refrigerant

C)less than a full charge of refrigerant in thesystem

D)ice crystals forming in the refrigerant

Ans)c

2214)the temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to

condense is called……….

A)dew point temperature

B)condensation temperature

C)psychometric temperature

D)absolute humidity temperature

2215)which of the problems listed could be indicated if a refrigerant liquid line is

full of bubbles?

A)proper refrigerant charge

B)faulty expansion valve

C)insufficient refrigerant
D)solenoid valve stuck open

Ans)c

2216)which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled

refrigeration compressor to restart?

A.closing of solenoid valve

B. Closing of the expansion valve

C. An increase in the suction pressure

D. Decreacing the suction pressure

Ans: c

2217)salt water is typically provided to a refrigeration system to………………. A.

Closing of the solenoid valve

A.cool the expasion valve

B.Prevent refrigerant super heating

C. condense the refrigerant gas

d.prevent the motor heating

Ans :c

2218 :R-12 is generally considered to be safe,nontoxic,non flammable,and

nonexplosive refrigerant. It can, however, become highly toxic when

A.Superheated outside the system

B. In contact with an openflame

c.heated to the boiling point

D. All of the above

Ans: B

2219: In the presence of the open flame and hot surfaces,chlorinated

flourocarbon refrigerants decomposes and form

A.Petroleum cycle

B.Phosgene gas

C.water vapour

D.carbon monoxide

Ans:B

2220: ammonia when used as a refrigerantis valuable because of its high

efficiency, it is however

A.toxic

B.flammable

C.explosive

D.all of the above

Ans:D

2221: for safe storage,the maximum allowable temperature to which refrigerant

bottles should be exposed is ………………………..

A.37.8c

B.52c

C.66c

D .79c
Ans:B

2222 which of the following terms represents the form of heat removed from the
refrigent in the condenser of a refrigation systrm?

A.Latent heat of vapourisation.

B.heat of compression.

C.superheat.

D.all of the above

Ans:d

2223:when air at a given temperature,contains the maximum amount of moisture

for that temperature,the air is said to be

A.superheated

B.saturated.

C.condensing.

D.evoporating.

Ans:b

2224:which of the following factors will have the greatest effect on the heating
load within a conditioned space?

A.solar gain

B.infiltration and ventilation air

C.occupants inside the space

D.entertainment equipment within the space.

Ans:b
2225:The pressure range between the system cut in and cut out pressures in the
refrigeration unit is known as

A.opposing operational drag

B.pressure distribution.

C.differential.

D.system purge.

Ans:c

2226:when using a sling psychrometer to determine relative humidity ,the

indicated difference between the dry bulb and the wet bulbreading is the

A.relative humidity

B.dew point

C.wet bulb”depression”

D.partial saturation temperature

Ans:c

2227:cold storage compartments used for frozen os chilled foods,may be eqipped

with medium velocity air coolers to establish rapid convention and to

A.prevent shrinkage and drying of stored foods

B.deliver cooled air to all areas of the compartment

C.prevent air from being cooled below the dew point

D.eliminate all noxious odors in the compartment

Ans.B

2228.which of the following statements is correct concerned a halide torch leak

detector?
A.the probe should be moved rapidly over the area of a suspected leak

B.the torch is effective in locating large leaks only

C.the frame will turn green in the presence of r-12

D.a refrigerant gas mask must be worn while using the torch

Ans.c

2229:which of the locations listed would be considered as the most common

place to install a dryer in a refrigeration system?

A.between the compressor and the condenser

B.between the thermal expansion valve and the evaporator

C.in the suction line

D.in the liquid line

Ans:D

2230:Cylindrical drier installed in halocarbon refrigerant systems should be

arranged

A:so that the liquid enters at the top and leaves at the bottom when locatedin the
liquid line

B. so that the liquid enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when locatedin
the liquid line

C. so that the gas enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when locatedin the
liquid line

D.horizontally if the drying agent is calcium oxide

Ans:B

2231:if the flame of a halide leak detecting torch burns yellow which of the
problems listed is indicated?
A.a restricted exploring tube

B:a refrigeration leak

C:a faulty reactor plate

D:normal operation

Ans:A

2232:tubing connections for refrigeration systems may be made by

A:flaring

B:soldering

C:silver brazing

D:all ob the above

Ans:D

2233:in a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the greatest
temperature dpor across the

A:evaporator

B:receiver

C:compressor

D:condenser

Ans:d

2234:when air is at its dew point and there is no change in either the temperature
or preesre,the air

A:has a low absolute humidity

B:has a lowest relative humidity

C:cannot give up its moisture

D:will gain no additional moisture

Ans:D

2235:In a refrigiration system ,the amount of superheat absorbed by the

refrigerant is adjusted at the

A:compressor

B:condenser

C:evaporator coil

D:expansion value

Ans:D

2236:which of the following statements is true concernung the use of dehydrator

in refrigeration system?

A:dehydrators must be used continuously

B:dehydrators are usually installed in the liquid line

C:Dehydrators are used when pumping down the system

D:dehydrators are used when purging the system

Ans:B

2237:The thermal expantion value installed in the refrigeration sytem is

controlled by

A:the solenoid valve energizing coil

B:regulating the king valve

C:a thermal bulb on the evaporated coil

D:an electrically operated controller

Ans:C

2238:the thermostat controlling a refrigerated cargo box two way soleonoid valve
senses

A:evaporator coil inlet temperature

B:tha refrigerated box temperature

C:evaporator coil outlet temperature

D:degree of refrigerant superheat

Ans:B

2239:A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used to remove

A:noncondensable gases and vapours

B:oil from the refrigerant

C:refrigerant from the oil

D:moisture from the system

Ans:D

2240:A soleinoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed

A:with the axis of the solenoid horizonte sensing temperature of the box and
upstream of the thermal expansion valve

B:upright sensing temperature of the box and upstream of the thermal expansion
valve

C:upright sensing temperature of the box and downstream of the thermal

expansion valve

D:upright sensing superheat of the tail coil and upstream of the thermal
expansion valve
Ans:B

2241:The normal operation of the refrigeratin compressor should be to cycle on

A:in response to the low pressure cutout switch and off in response to the high
pressure cutout switch

B:in response to the high pressure cutout switch and off in rseponse to the low
pressure cutout switch

C:and off in response to the low pressure cutout switch

D:and off in response to the high pressure cutout switch

Ans:C

2242:If the compressor must be operated in parallel in order to maintain the box
temperature ,a care ful watch should be kept on the

A:discharge pressure gauges of both compressors

B:suction pressure gauges of both compressors

C:expansion valves of both evaporator coils

D:oil levels in both compressor crankcase

Ans:D

2243:when starting a reciprocating refrigerant compressor that has been

shutdown for a period of time , you should manually throttle the …………………

A.sea water valve

B.king valve

C.suction valve

D.expansion valve
Ans:C
2244:leaking discharge reed valves in a refrigeration compressor should
be…………………

A.reground

B.relapped

C.replaced

D.rewound

Ans.c

2245:what is the colour of the flame produced by a halide torch when there is no
refrigerant present?

A.orange

B.blue

C.red

D.green

Ans: B

2246:When a refrigiration compressor is in the “off cycle”the thermal expasion

valve………………..

A.is always wide open

B.is always completely closed

C.is open only until evaporator pressure is eqalised

D.operates as if the system were in operation

Ans:D
2247:some hot gas deforst system reheat the refrigerant just prior to its returning
to the compressor to……………

A.increase the circulation of liquid refrigerant

B.prevent chill shocking the compressos suction valves

C.improve the effience of the expansion valve

D.reduce the damaging effects of liquids slugging

Ans:D

2248:When adding oil to a refrigeration system pre cautions must be taken to

ensure that

A:to compressor suction pressure is not too high

B:all aims is purged from the pump and charging fitting

C:the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental starting

D:the condenser is completely shutdown first

Ans: B

2249:If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant ,the condition would

result in

A:continuous running of the compressor

B:high suction pressure

C:high discharge pressure

D:short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch

Ans:A

2250:If only the chill box solenoid valve remains open the refrigeration
compressor will eventually be stopped by
A:chill box thermostatic temperature switch

B:low water cutout switch

C:low pressure cutout switch

D:high pressure cutout switch

Ans:C

2251:When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged with a

fluid different from the charge used in the system ,it is said to be

A:blended charged

B:straight charged

C:mixed charged

D:cross charged

Ans:D

2252:which of the valves is listed is normally closed when charging the

refrigeration system through the high side?

A.dehydrator inlet valve

B.liquid line king valve

C.suction line valve

D.thermal expansion valve

Ans:B

2253:in a vapour pressure compression type refrigeration cycle the refrigerant

temperature decreases the most in the ………………….

A.evaporator

B.condenser
C.compressor

D.expansion valve

Ans:D

2254)in a refrigeration system,silica gel is used in the …………..

A)condenser

B)dehydrator

C)liquid strainer

D)hygrometer

ANS.B

2255)if the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low side for
repairs, this is an indication of……………………..

A)worn piston rings

B)faulty bearings

C)air being introduced to the system

D)foaming of the crankcase oil

ANS.D
2256.A device used to hold open the refrigeration suction compressor suction
valve that normally draws gas from suction manifold, but returns it to suction line
without compressing it is called a--------------

A.discharge line byepass

B.cylinder unloader

C.suction line bypass

D.relief valve

ANS.B

2257.When Two Refrigerated spaces in a refrige ation system are served by a

single compressor,yet

Are maintained at different temperature, a back pressure regulating valve serves

to provide------------

A.a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the colder box

B.a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box

C.a lower pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box

D.equal pressure in the evaporator coil of both box

ANS:B
2258. A common secondary refrigerant useed in air conditioning systems abroad
ship is----------------

A.R-123

B.water

C.nitrogen

D.carrene

ANS.B

2259.Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is gretest when

the---------------------

A.evaporator is warm and empty of refrigerant

B.evaporator is cold and empty of refrigerant

C.low side and high side pressure are equal

D.low side pressure and thermal element pressure equalize

ANS:A

2260.In refrigeration system,air is purged at the---------------

A.expansion valve

B.filter

C.evaporater

D.condenser

ANS:D

2261.Thermostatic expansion values are opened----------------------

A.by spring pressure and closed by refrigerant pressure

B.by refrigerant pressure and closed by spring pressure

C.and closed by spring pressure

D.and closed by refrigerant pressure

ANS:B

2262which of the listed substance is used as an absorbing agent in the

Shipboard dehydration of refrigeration systems?

A.Ethylene glycol

B.Sodium bromide

C.silica gel

D.Methyl glycol

ANS:C

2263.The purpose of heating the oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration

compressor is to-----------------

A.reduce the absorption of refrigerant by the lubricating oil

B.prevent acidic pitting

C.remove entrained water

D.remove wax and gum

ANS:A

2264.A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration systerm will cause----
----------i. an increase in the percent of flash gas ii. Desireable subcooling of the
liquid.

A.i only

B.iionly
C.both i and ii

D.neither i norii

ANS:D

2265.which of the design features listed for a refrigerationvalve are used to

reduce the possibility of loss of refrigerant from the system?

A.back seating

B.valve caps

c.packless diaphragms

D.all the above

ANS:D

2266. A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to respond to-----------------

A.refrigerated space temperature

B.compressor suction pressure

C.vapour discharge pressure in cooling coils

D.superheat in the tail coil

ANS:D

2267. . A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant--------------

A.refrigerant flow

B.box temperature

C.outlet superheat

D.coil pressure

ANS:C
2268. three of the refrigerants covered under the low pressure system regulations
are------------

A.CFC-11,CFC-113and CFC-114.

B..CFC-11,CFC-113andH CFC-123.

C.CFC-11,CFC-114andH CFC-123.

D.CFC-11,CFC-114and H CFC-502

ANS:B

2269.WHEN ADDING OIL TO A REFRIGERANT SYSTEM,PRECAUTIONS MUST BE

TAKEN TO ENSURE THAT..................

A.THE COMPRESSOR SUCTION PRESSURE IS NOT TOO HIGH

B.ALL AIR IS PURGED FROM THE PUMP AND CHARGING FITTINGS

C.THE PRESSURE CUTOUT SWITCH IS HELD OPEN TO PREVENT ACCIDENTAL

STARTING

D.THE CONDENSER IS COMPLETELY SHUTDOWN FIRST

ANS:B

2270.A REHEATER,AS USED IN AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM, IS DESIGNED TO

CONTROL THE……………..

A.CHILLED WATER TEMPERATURE

B.DEW POINT TEMPERATURE

C.PRIMARY AIR TEMPERATURE

D.DRY BULB TEMPERATURE

ANS:D
2271.A SECONDARY REFRIGERANT COMMONLY USED IN SHIPBOARD AIR
CONDITIONING SYSTEM IS…………..

A.METHYL CHLORIDE

B.WATER

C.CARBON DIOXIDE

D.TRICHLOROETHYLENE

ANS:B

2272.A ROOM NUMIDISTAT INITIATES THE LOWERING OF THE HUMIDITY OF

THECONDITIONED SUPPLY AIR TO SPACE,WHILE THE ACTUAL PROCESS IS
ACCOMPLISHED BY……………

A.RAISING THE COOLING COIL TEMPERATURE AND LOWERING THE REHEATER

TEMPERATURE

B.RAISING BOTH THE COOLING COIL TEMPERATURE AND THE REHEATER

TEMPERATURE

C.LOWERING BOTH THE COOLING COIL TEMPERATURE AND THE REHEATER

TEMPERATURE

D.LOWERING THE COOLING COIL TEMPERATURE AND RAISING THE REHEATER

TEMPERATURE

ANS:D

2273.NEWLY DEVELOPED REFRIGERANTS,USED TOREDUCESTRATOSPHERIC

OZONE DEPLETION,ARE SOMETIMES REFERED TO AS AZEOTROPIC.THIS MEANS
THAT THE RESULTING LIQUID…………………

A.WILL CONDENSE AT A TEMPERATURE LOWER THAN THE BOILING POINT OF THE

COMPONANT WITH THE LOWEST BOILING POINT
B.BOILS AT A TEMPERATURE EQUAL TO THE BOILING POINT OF THE COMPONENT
WITH THE LOWEST BOILING POINT

C.WILL CONDENSE AT A TEMPERATURE EQUAL TO THE HIGHEST CONDENSATION

POINT OF THE COMPONENT WITH A CONDENSATION POINT EQUAL TO ANY ONE
OF THE COMPONENTS

D.BOILS AT A TEMPERATURE INDEPENDENT OF ANY INDIVIDUAL COMPONENTS IN

THE MIXTURE

ANS:D

2274.IF A REFRIGERATION COMPRESSOR WERE SHORT CYCLING ON THE LOW

PRESSURE CUTOUT THE SWITCH, THE CAUSE MIGHT BE THAT THE…………..

A.SYSTEM WAS OVER CHANGED WITH REFRIGERANT

B.SYSTEM WAS LOW ON OIL

C.SUCTION VALVES WERE LEAKING SLIGHTLY

D.SYSTEM WAS LOW ON REFRIGERANT

ANS:D

2275.THE PROHIBITION AGAINST THE VENTING OF HALOGENATED FLORO-

CARBON REFRIGERANTS TO THE ATMOSPHERE REQUIRES THAT, AT A MINIMUM
THE REFRIGERANT MUST BE…………….

A.RECOVERED

B.RECLAIMED

C.RECYCLED

D.DESTROYED

ANS:A
2276.IF THE DISCHARGE VALVES ON A REFRIGERATION COMPRESSOR ARE
LEAKING SLIGHTLY,THE COMPRESSOR WILL…………………

A.RUN CONTINOUSLY

B.NOT START

C.SHORT CYCLE ON THE WATER LOW PRESSURE SWITCH

D.SHORT CYCLE ON THE HIGH PRESSURE SWITCH

ANS:A

2277.CONSIDERING EQUAL CAPACITIES,WHICH REFRIGERATION SYSTEM CAN

EMPLOYED THE SMALLEST COMPRESSOR?

A.AMMONIA

B.CARBON DIOXIDE

C.DICHLORODIFLUOROMETHANE

D.MONOCHLORODIFLUOROMETHANE

ANS:A

2278.WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM VOLUME TO WHICH REFILLABLE REFRIGERATION

CYLINDERS SHOULD BE FILLED?

A.60%FULL

B.70%FULL

C.80%FULL

D.90%FULL

ANS:C

2279. IN ADDITION TO MOISTURE,A REFRIGERANT DEHYDRATOR CHARGED WITH

SILICA GEL IS DESIGNED TO ABSORB…………………..
A.REFRIGERANTS

B.ACIDS

C.NONCONDENSABLE GASES

D.REFRIGERANT OIL

ANS:B

2280.WHICH REFRIGERANT LISTED HAS THE HIGHEST LATENT HEAT PER KG?

A.R-22

B.AMMONIA

C.R-134

D.SULFUR DI OXIDE

ANS:B

2281.THE CHEMICAL FORMULA FOR OZONE IS REPRESENTED AS…………………..

A.0

B.02

C.03

D.0Z

ANS:C

2282.AVERAGE CONDENSING PRESSURES OF AN AMMONIA

REFRIGERATIONSYSTEM RANGE BETWEEN……………

A.8 AND 11 BAR g

B.9 AND 11.5 BAR g

C.9.5 AND 12 BAR g

D.10 AND 13 BAR g

Ans:D

2283.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEVICES IS THE SAFEST TO USE WHEN

LOCATING AMMONIA LEAKS?

A.LITMUS PAPER

B.SULPHUR CANDLE

C.HALIDE TORCH

D.ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE RECOMMENDED

ANS:A

2284.PURE ANHYDROUS AMMONIA IS CONSIDERED NONCORROSIVE

TO…………………

A.IRON ONLY

B.STEEL ONLY

C.COPPER-BEARING METALS

D.NONE OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT

ANS:C

2285.FOR MOST REFRIGERATION SPLIT SYSTEMS THAT USE ONE SIGHT GLASS,A
GOOD LOCATION FOR THE SIGHT GLASS IS JUST……………………

A.BEFORE THE COMPRESSOR SUCTION LINE

B.AFTER THE COMPRESSOR DISCHARGE

C.UPSTREAM OF THE CONDENSER

D.UPSTREAM OF THE LIQUID METERING DEVICE

ANS:D
2286.OVERFILLING A REFRIGERANT CONTAINER IS EXTREMELY DANGEROUS
BECAUSE OF THE HIGH PRESSURE GENERATED.THE GENERATION OF PRESSURE IS
THE…………………..

A.VAPOR PRESSURE OF THE REFRIGERANT

B.DISCHARGE PRESSURE OF THE RECOVERY COMPRESSOR

D.DISCHARGE PRESSURE FROM THE RECOVERY CYLINDER

ANS:C

2287.A FLAPPER VALVE,ALSO KNOWN AS A BEAM VALVE,IS FREQUENTLY USED IN

REFRIGERATION COMPRESSOR DISCHARGE VALVES,AND IS DESIGNED
TO…………………..

A.FEED DISCHARGE PRESSURE TO THE SUCTION LINE

B.AID IN HOT GAS DEFROSTING

C.PASS LIQUID SLUGS

D.EQUALIZE SYSTEM PRESSURE FOR COMPRESSOR CYCLING

ANS:C

2288.WHAT IS THE EQUIVALENT TONNAGE OF A REFRIGERATION SYATEM RATED

AT 48,000 BTU PER HOUR?

A.2.5

B.3

C.4

D.5

ANS:C

2289.R-12 HAS BEEN SUITABLE REFRIGERANT FOR USE IN HIGH TEMPERATURE

APPLICATIONS WITH…………………………………………
A.RECIPROCATING COMPRESSORS

B.ROTATORY COMPRESSORS

C.CENTRIFUGAL COMPRESSORS

D.ALL OF THE ABOVE

ANS:D

2290.IF YOU KNOW THAT A REFRIGERTION SYSTEM IS LEAKING

REFRIGERANT,YOU WOULD FIRST………………..

A.RECOVER THE REFRIGERANT

B.CHARGE THE SYSTEM

C.LOOK FOR THE TRACES OF OIL

D.EVACUATE THE SYSTEM

ANS:C

2291.WHICH OF THE DEVICES LISTED WILL INDICATE THE PROPER OPERATION OF

A REFRIGERATION SYSTEM DRYER?

A.DRYER SENSING BULB

B.MCLEOD GAGE

C.PARTICULATE TEST

D.MOISTURE INDICATOR

ANS:D

2292.IN A MULTI-EVAPORATOR REFRIGERATION SYSTEM, A SOLENOID VALVE IS

INSTALLED IN THE LINE BEFORE………………..

A.THE RECEIVER

B.EACH EXPANSION VALVE

C.THE CONDENSER

D.THE OIL SEPARATOR

ANS:B

2293.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS REGARDING REFRIGERATION

SYSTEMS IS/ARE TRUE?

A.IN ANY REFRIGERATION SYSTEM,OIL AND REFRIGERANT ARE ALWAYS PRESENT

B.REFRIGERANT IS THE WORKING FLUID AND IS REQUIRED FOR COOLING

C.THE MAIN PURPOSE OF THE OIL IS TO LUBRICATE THE COMPRESSOR

D.ALL OF THE ABOVE

ANS:D

2294.IN A REFRIGERATION SYSTEM,THE CONDENSER COOLING WATER

REGULATING VALVE IS DIRECTLY CONTROLED BY THE…………………….

A.TEMPERATURE OF THE COOLING WATER

B.COMPRESSOR DISCHARGE PRESSURE

C.AMOUNT OF THE REFRIGERANT IN THE SYSTEM

D.TEMPERATURE OF THE REFRIGERANT AFTER EXPANSION

ANS:B

2295.IN A REFRIGERATION SYSTEM WITH A THERMOSTATIC EXPANSION

VALVE,THE COMPONENT INSTALLED AFTER THE MEETING DEVICE IS
THE………………….

A.EVAPORATOR

B.RECEIVER

C.COMPRESSOR
D.SOLENOID VALVE

ANS: A

2296. how doses a refiregiration solinoid valve differ from a modulating valve?

a. A solienoid valve can only be installed in liquid lines

b. A liquid line solinoid valve is either completely opened or closed where as

modulation valve is positioned according to the strength of the appalied

electrical siginal

c. solienoid valves are only used in low voltage refirigi ration control systems
while modulation

valves are used in high voltage applications.

d. both valves operation in exatly the same manner, only the manifacturer
teriminalogy is the

differentating factor.

Ans:B

2297.What differentiates”system-depender”and self contained recovery devices

in refirigi ration systems?

A. self contained recovery devices can only be used on large CGSandHCFC

units.

B. self –contained recovey devices usally contain a compressor system-

dependent recovery devices do not.
 C. the system compressor must be working to use system dependent devices,
the system compressor may or may not be operational when self contained
devices are used.

D. there is no difference between the devices.

Ans:B

2298. when air is at its dew point it is at its _

A.lowest absolute humidity

B. lowest releative humadity

C. higest absolute humidity

D. higest releastive humidity

Ans:D

2299. The refirigirents referred to as CFCS are_

A. fully haloginated.
B. partially haloginated
C.not haloginated at all
D. completelly filled with hydrogen atoms.

Ans:A

2300. if u find any extremely large refirigirant leak while using a halide torch your
flame will_

A. Change from blue to orange.

B. Flare up and remain lightend
C. Probably go out
D. Stay blue.

Ans: C
2301. CFC refirigi rants exposed to high temperature or direct flame will
decompose and may produce_

A. Methyl chloride
B. Ammonia
C. Hydro fluric acid
D. Completely filled with hydrogen atoms

Ans:C

2302. in a chilled water air conditining unit usci[procating compressor, the

refirigirating effect of the primary refrigerent canbe incresed by_

A. Incresing refrigerent pressur in the coil

B. Incresing chilled water flow through coller
C. Subcooling the refirigerent in the condensor
D. Super heating the refrigerent in the compressor
Ans:C

2303. The movement of the armature with in a modulating valve are used on
some refrigeration system Is opposed by the.

A. Pressur of the flash gas developed.

B. Vaccum formed as the refrigerent flows through the valve.
C. Weight of the armature.
D. Spring force

ans:D

2304.alkyl benzene iso 32 CST refrigernt oil is misible and suittable to use with

A. R22
B. R32
C. R134
D. R143

Ans:A
2305. the speed of a belt driven ventilation fan can be incresed with out changing
the motor speed by using

A. Small dia fan

B. Smallerdia drive pulley
C. Larger dia fan
D. Larger dia drive pulley

Ans:D

2306. a un tagged refrigerent cylinder it is light sky blue and the refregerent it
contains is

A. CFC 12
B. CFC11
C. HCFC2
D. HFC134a

Ans:D

2307. ina refrigeration system the bulb for the thermal expansion valve is always
located

A. In middle of the evaparater coils

B. Near the evaporator coil outlet
C. Near evaporator coil inlet
D. Beginning of the bottom row of evaporator coil

Ans:B

2308. refrigiration system using forced air circulation evaporator coil have
tendency to cause rapid de hydration of foods unless

A. A complete change of aire takes placer with in each 30 s interaval

B. Foods are packed in coragated storage boxes
C. Air is circulated with min temp cahange
D. A humidifier is installed inrefrigiration system
 Ans:C

2309. coil of refrigiration oil can indicate various operating conditions of

compressor refrigiration system I nwhich it is usedblack oil can be indication of

A. Copper plating cost by moistures

B. Bearing or piston scoring
C. Carbonisation resultiong in air in the system
D. Gas cut break down

Ans:C

2310. to add refrigerent to a low side of air conditing system used through their

A. Suction service valve as a vapor

B. Suction service valve as a liquid
C. Discharge service valve as a vapor
D. Charging valve as a liquid

Ans:A

2311.the color of the oil observed in the o perating refrigeration compressor

experiencing ber\aring wear or piston scoring would appear_

A. Grey or mettalic color

B. Black
C. Clear ,heavier particles would gravitate to the bottom of the sump
D. .As a light blue green

Ans:A

2312. replacing the thermo static valve sencing ulb it is neccesary to

A. Apply light film of oil to increase heat transfar

B. Apply light film of oiul to prevent oxoi\dation
 C. Apply heavy coating of greesa to function asa heat sink
D. All of the above

Ans:B

2313. expansion valve maintaenence should include

A. Cleaning of in line filters

B. Ensuring that the bulb goo contact in suction line
C. Checking that thermal bulb is correct location
D. all the above

ans:D

2314. which chemical symbol represent ammonia

A. AM3
B. AMM3
C. NM3
D. DNH3

Ans:D

2315. when the opening or closing compressor service and line valvs on
atypicalrefrigi ration system,you_

A. Should turn valves slowly to avoid thermasl satress due to low temp
B. Must first remove remove the seal cap
C. Should examine the gasket frequently to ensure tat is flat
D. Should never tighten the packing gland

Ans:B

2316. which of the refriregerence listed as a boiling point of 33c at atmospheric

pr.

A. Methyl chloride
B. So2
 C. Nh3
D. Brine

Ans:C

2317. if a refrigiration system is over charged with ref regerenton result will be

A. Low suction
B. High normal compressur head pressur
C. Increase system operating effeicency
D. Short cycling on low pressur

Ans:B

2318. if the super heat valve of thermo expansion valve is adjusted to high the

A. Box temp will continious ly rise

B. Rate at condensation occurs
C. Suction line of a compressor will abnormally warm
D. Rate of condensation occurs on the evaporator coil will increase

Ans:C

2319. a small obstruction at the thermo static expansion valve inlet will result in
which of the following conditions.

A. Suction pressur fluctiation

B. Hunting asa indicated by fluctuations of the dischargr pressur
C. Expansion valves are designed to pass small foreign particals to adverse
condirtion will occur
D. Ice is the sole cause of this and weill soopn melt due to super heat adverse
condition occur

Ans:A

2320. the relative humadity can be deter mined by usuing a sico metric chart and
a
 A. Hydro meter
B. Sling psychrometer
C. Anaroid baro meter
D. Compond baro meter

Ans:B

2321. if a refrigiu ration compressor in amulti box system runs continusly the
cause might be highpressur

A. High pressur switch stucdk in the closed position

B. Clooged mechanical scale trap
C. Shortage of ref rege rent
D. Defective thermal bulb

Ans:C

2322. respiratory heat is a term appalied primarily to which of the following

cargoes

A. Fresh vegatables
B. Meat
C. Frozen vegatabels
D. All of the above

Ans:A

2323. if the thermal bulb of an expansion valve is in correctly placed at the center
of the coil I instead of the end it will_

A. Increase the capacity of the coil

B. Increase super heat of the bulb
C. Deliver more refregerent to the coil
D. Decrease the capacity of the coil

Ans:D

2324. the ref rigeration system low pressur cut out switch is actuated by
 A. An electric system manager
B. A sensing ulb at the tail coil of the evaporator
C. Pressur changes in the suction line
D. Failure of the king solenoid wall

Ans:C

2325. a one ton air conditioning system has which of the listed operating
characteristics

A. It forcess 1,000kgs of refregerent through through the evaporator per day

B. It forces 1,000 kgs air per hour across the avaporator coils
C. It cooling power equals is that of melting point 1,oookg of ice per day
D. It contains 1,000kgs of refregerant

Ans:B

2326. An increasing heat pressur in an refregerent system without any

corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temp woulds probabely caused
by-

A. Restriction in refregerent piping

B. Air and non condensable gases in the condensor
C. Water in the refre gernt
D. Flooding book of liquid refrigerent from the evaporator

Ans:B

2327. a thermo static expansion valve is propally controling evaporator super

heat adjusting this valve to the lower suprendent will result ina\an_

A. Evaporaer pressue decerease

B. Evaporaor coil over feed
C. Evaporaer capacity increase
D. Expansion valve diapharm rupture

Ans:B
2328. an imporatnt consederation in selecting inan lubricationg oil for use in a
refrgeration compreeso\r is for the oil to

A. Have a high viscosity index

B. Mix readily with refregernt
C. Have high freezing point
D. Low pour point

Ans:D

2329. a pressur drops through the refregerent line may cause

A. A solinoid valve 2 ceese

B. Compressor to hunt
C. Formation of flasg gas in liquid line
D. Expansion valve to freeze open

Ans:c

2330. which of the problem listed wold cause the discharge temp of a oR 12
refrigeration comnpressor to increase

A. Thermal expansion valve frozen open

B. Suction gas heat exchangerby passed
C. Condensor closed or foulded
D. High pressur cut out switch inoperative

Ans:C

2331. which of the conditiopns listed is one indication of an excessive amountb of

refregernt in the system

A. Safety valve lifting

B. Prolenged duribg
C. Short cycling
D. Oil absorbed in the crank case
Ans:C2332. If the suction pressure for an operating refrigeration compressor is
below normal cause may be

A .an excess of liquid refrigerant

B. the expansion valve overfeeding

C .a fouled compressor suction strainer

D. the compressor short cycling

ANS ;C

2333.If one box in a multiple box direct expansion type refrigeration system was
experiencing an excessively low temperature this could be a result of

A. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor

B. excessive frost on the cooling coils

C. a leaking hand expansion valve

D. an oversized expansion valve

ANS:C

2334. In a refrigeration system equipped with a reciprocating compressor and a

water cooled condensing unit, leaking compressor discharge valves will result in

A. refrigerant flooding of the compressor

B. low suction pressure

D. low heat pressure

ANS:D

2335.If R-12 is maintained at approximately 8kg/cm2 when discharged by the

compressor, which of the listed values would represent its saturation
temperature?
 A. -18c

B. 6c

C.10c

D.37.8c

ANS:D

2336. If you change from a low pour point lubricant to a highpour point lubricant
in a refrigeration system

A. compressor lubrication will be improved

B. oil will not leave the crankcase

C. compressor valves will be damaged

D. oil may congeal in the evaporator

ANS:D

2337. To correct the condition of slugging and flooding back in a refrigeration

system, it may be necessary to

A. re-adjust the discharge pressure

B. clean the expansion valve screen

C. add refrigerant

D. adjust the expansion valve a

ANS: D

2338.If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition would

result in

A. continuous running of the compressor

 B. high suction pressure

C .short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch

ANS:A

2339. Frost appearing on one set of evaporator coils of a multi-box, direct

expansion type refrigeration system

A. increase the value of superheat to the fluid leaving the coils

B. will assist in increasing the refrigeration effect

C. can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils

D. can be quickly removed by simply shutting off fluid flow to the coils

ANS;C

2340. which of the condition listed represents the greatest effect of excess
frost accumulation on the evaporator coils?

A. keeps the refrigerated space coolers

B. Reduces the efficiency of the plarit

C. takes the load of the compressor

D. has no affect on the system

ANS; B

2341. in the refrigeration system a shortage of refrigerant is indicated by

A. the compression short cycling on high pressure cut but switch

B. high suction pressure

C. high head pressure

D. bubbles in the sight glass

ANS; D

2344.the refrigerant gas returning the compressor should be

A. superheated

B. saturated

C. dense

D. flooded

ANS;A

2345.in which of the listed refrigeration system components does superheating of

the refrigerant take place

A. expansion valve

B. evavorator

C. drier

D.receiver

ANS;B

2346.under normal conditions,the refrigerant enters the compressor in an

operating refrigeration system as a

A. liquid

B.dry saturated gas

C.wet saturated gas

D superheated vapor

ANS;D

2347.excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compression can

result in
 A. overheated compressor bearings

B. excess lube oil viscosity

C. carbon deposits on the compressor diston rings

D. wax crystal forming in the oricant

ANS;A

2348.in a refrigeration system foaming of the crankcase oil may cause the

A. expansions valve to overfeed

B. compressor to knock

C.water regulating valve to fall

D.crankcase drains to plug

ANS ;B

2349.which of the listed characteristics can be applied to R-12 vapor ?.

A.it is corrosive

B.it odorless

C.it is visible as a blue fog

D . it has a distinctive taste

ANS ;B

2350.sludge may form in the lubricating oil crankcase of a reciprocating air

conditioning compressor as a result of

A.wax precipitation in the lube oil

B.contamination by dust scale or moisture

C.refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil

 D.refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity

ANS ;B

2351.the presence of bubbles in a refrigeration system liquid line may

A. promote refrigerant deny cration

B. be absorbed in the receiver

C.cause low condensing pressure

D.carry moisture and lead to corrosion

ANS;D

2352.the compressor in an air cooled condensing refrigeration system is short

cycling on the high pressure cutout switch a probable reason for this is the

A.system overcharged with refrigerant

B.the system is low on refrigerant

C.discharge valves are leaking excessively

D.discharge valves are leaking slightly

ANS;A

2353.which of the listed statements is a characternstic of the liquid charged

power element used with thermostatic expansion valves

A.at the designed operating temperature the liquid refrigerant charged has
changed to a vapor

B.the liquid refrigerant tends to collect at the bellows or diaphragm and

reduces the valve sensitivity

C.the sensing bulb is empty of liquid refrigerant charged at the designed

operating temperature
 D.the sensing bulb is never emptied of liquid refrigerant under normal
operating condition

ANS ;D

2354.if a refrigeration compressor is short cycling on high pressure you should

A.purge the concernser if the water side is dirty

B.check for proper water flow through the condenser

C.increase the high pressure cutout setting

D.reduce the cooling water flow

ANS ;B

2355. a constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve will always
indicates

A.proper refrigerant control

B.a faulty refrigerant control valve

C.a lack of refrigerant

D.the flow of 100% liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator

ANS:C

2356. which of the problems listed could cause erosion of the expansion valve
disks and seats?

A. overcharging the system with refrigerant

B. Faulty compressor suction valve

C.failure of the high pressure cutout

D. Flash gas formed in the liquid line

ANS:D
2357.Refrigeraion system compressor crankcase sweating is an indication of

A. insufficient lube oil circulating through the system

B. excessive circulation of lube oil through the system

C. insufficient refrigent in the system

D. an overworked compressor

ANS:B

2358. A refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating of unusually cold.

this is an indication of

A. a shortage of refrigerant in the system

B. air in the system

C. an accumulation of liquid refrigerant in the crankcase

D. a shortage of oil in the crankcase

ANS: C

2359. sweating of the refrigeration system compressor crankcase is caused by

A .too much superheat

B .insufficient superheat

C .suction pressure too low

D.exessive refrigerant returning to the compressor

ANS:D

2360. the effect of high vapor superheat in refrigeration system is a

A.Increased capacity of the compressor

B.more efficient operation of the thermal expansion valve

 C.decreased of the compressor

D.loss of receiver caoacity

ANS:C

2361. on all vessels equipped with refrigeration units of over 0.566 cubic
meters(20 cubic foot) capacity

A. a gas mask suitable for protection against each refrigerant used ,or a self
contained breathing apparatus must be provided

B. it is the solo responsibility of the chief engineer to accertain at all

members of the engineering department are familiar with the use of gas of
breathing apparatus

C.spare charges shall be carried for atleast 50% of each size and variety of
gas masks and or self contained breathing apparatus

D.all of the above

ANS ;A

2362.frosting or sweating of the suction line of the reciprocating refrigeration

compressor indicates a condition which could result in severe damage due to

A.minor amounts of oil in the refrigerant

B.liquid slugging

C.insufficient refrigerant

D.a failed heat interchanger

ANS;B

2363.which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of an

R-12 refrigeration system for leaks an enclosed compartment ?
 A.to gain sensitivity the largest possible flame should be used with the
halide torch

B.the flame of a halide torch will turn blue in the presence of R-12

C.halide torches are usefull in locating very small R-12 leaks

D.rapid leak testing is possible with the halide torch since there is no time
lag between the time air enter the exploring tube until it hits the reactor plate

ANS ;C

2364.which of the following statement regarding low pressure reciprocating air

compressor valves is correct ?

A.a relatively large clearance space is required for the valves

B.mechanical operating valve gear is required to open and close the valves

C.only the suction valve requires a push rod and rocker arm mechanism
for valve operation

D.due to the physical construction of the valves a relatively small cylinder

clearance of required

ANS ;D

2365.the principal purpose of subcooling liquid refrigerant prior to its

entering the expansion valve is to

A.increase the refrigerating effect by decreasing the amount of flash gas

B.allow the refrigerant to enter the throttling device in a saturated

condition

C.increase the refrigerating effect by increasing the amount of flash gas

D.minimize the temperature drop of the liquid as it passes through the

solenoid valve to the outlet side
 ANS;A

2366)when you adjust a thermostatic expansion valve

A)refrigerant must beledoff the sensing line before adjustments are made B.all
refrigerant must be pumped before adjustment are made

C.time must be allowed for condition to stabilize in the evaporator before further
adjustment are made

D.all refrigerant routed through the dehydrator while change the super heats
setting

Ans)c

2367)each pressure vessel containing refrigerants which may be isolated sahall

be……………

A)subject to annual hydrostatic tests to be performed in the presence of a marine

inspector

B.protected by a relief valve set to relief at a pressure not exceeding 1.10%to the
maximum allowable working pressure of the vessel

C.store in a upright position in addition to being secured so as to prevent

accidental release of the refrigerant with in a confinement space

D. protected by a relief valve set to relief at a pressure not exceeding maximum

allowable working pressure of the vessel

Ans)d

2368. when removing the primary refrigent from a system using water as a
secondary refrigerant, its important to follow which procedure to safeguards the
equipment?
 insure that the water does not become contaminated with the oil in the direct
contact heat exchangers

A. insure that the water and the refrigrants separator id functioning properly
B. insure that the water is drained or continually circulating to avoid freeze up
C. leave some refrigerant in the system to prevent the water from
contamining the refrigerant if there is leak
ANS;C

2369; if the combination indicator and the sight glass indicates an accumulation of
moisture within the system which of the listed procedures would be the most
practical to follow?

A. secure the system ,dissemble and de ice the expansion valves

B. close the king valve, pump down the system , isolate the drier remove and
replace with the new drier

C. purge the entire system to the atmosphere replace the drier

D. none of the above

ANS;B

2370; THE RECIVER USED IN THE REFRIGRATION SYSTEM --------

A. stores the liquid refrigrants

B. collects non condensable gases

C. allows refrigrants to be sub cooled

D. prevents liquid refrigrants

ANS; A

2371;which refrigeration system will require the sue of an oil trap?

A. brine
B. ammonia
C. methyl chloride
 D. all the above
ANS;B

2372; which of the following refrigrants is considered to be the oldest in use?

A. methyl chloride
B. sulphurdi oxide
C. ammonia
D. carbon di oxide
ANS;A

2373;a refrigerant used in a mechanical refrigeration system should have?

A. HIGH BOILING POINT

B. HIGH FREEZING POINT
C. LOW SPECIFIC HEAT
D. LOW BOILING POINT
ANS;D

2374; all refrigrants systems must be protected with a ---------

A. PRESSURE RELIF DEVICE

B. REFRIGRANT RECIVER
C. HIGH PRESSURE CUTT OFF
D. CLOG OF OIL TRAP
ANS;A

2375 apurge cycle is required on all pressures because ------------

A. such chiller can operate at high pressure

B. EVACUATION OF ALL AIR FROM CHILLER IS NOT POSSIBLE

C. chillers are not used

D. no refrigrants are used

2376. moisture in the refrigent may --------------

A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and reduce the flow of the liquid refrigent
B. emulsifying the oil in the condenser

C. freeze in the king valve

D. clog the trap

ANS;A

2377; an ammonia leak will turn moistened pink litmus paper __________

A. orange

B. red

C. purple

D. blue

ANS;D

2378; to prevent motor overload during start-up of a hermetically sealed

centrifugal system , the compressor suction gas variable inlet guide vanes
remains---------

A. closed until the motor is connected

B. opened until the motor is connected
C. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and
current drawn is below loaded
D. opened until the motor is connected
ANS;C

2379; a slight glass is installed in the liquid line to indicate the condition of the
refrigent charge may also indicate------------

A. condition of expansion
B. moisture in the system
C. condition of the compressor suction valves
D. condenser temperature
ANS;B
2380; the primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve as used in most
plants to--------------------------

A. regulate refrigerant

B. not proper superheated

C. maintain a constant degree of superheated at the evaporation coil outlet

D. maintain constant evaporator

2381; the primary function of a pressure regulator installed in a system is to -------

----

A .limit the minimum evaporator pressure to ensure excessively low box

temperatures cold coil temperatures are not reached

B. maintain an constant temperature

C. maintain an evaporator

D. adjust an compressor suction pressure to load demandsANS; A

2382. a large evaporator coil has been determined to have a pressure drop of
0.3bar g can be compensated for by -------- 1. adjusting the thermostatic
expansion valve spring compression and raising the super heat valve 2. installing
an externally equal

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

Ans; B

2383. the compressor used in an air cooled air conditioning systemis short cycling.
A service check determines the suction pressure is above the normal cut in point
with an exceptionally high head pressure and high superheated at the evaporator.
This proabab

A.loosely fitted compressor drive belt

B.partially opened liquid service valve

C.reduction in condenser airflow (dirty condenser)

D.fully closed discharge service servic e valve

ANS;C

2384. in an refrigeration system , once the compound gage manifold lines

areattached to the service connections, you should as certain that the valves on
the gauges manifold are closed and then-------------

A. open the discharge valve service port closing the service valve

B.continue to backseat the discharge service valve by turning it clockwise

C. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valves
approximately 1\4 to 1\2 of a turn

D.open only the valves connected to the discharge service service fitting on the
outlet of the king valve

ANS;C

2385.the addition to the outermost scale on the lowside compound gauge fitted
to the portable service manifold. There are often one or more other scales on the
faces of the gauges ,these are--------------

A. pressure scales for different refrigents

B.pressure scales for variying ambient temperatures

C.temperature scales for variying ambient temperatures

D.temperature scales for different refrigents

ANS;D

2386. when repairing a refrigretion system, a swedge would be used to carryout

which of the following operations?

A. swedges are used during to remove any sweated edges formed on the tubing
while soldering

B. swdges are used during the breaking in of refrigation compressed and drive
motors

C. a swedge is no longer used with reparing systems due to progressive changes

in the tool industry

D. swedges can be used to expand an end of one tube to fit onto a tube of the
same external diameter

ANS;D

2387; which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper operation
of the thermostatic expansion valve?

A. clean off oxidation from the surfaces of the suction line and sensing bulb with
fine cloth

B. clean outlet pipe and secure bulb tangentially to the flow of refrigants

C. remove excess lengths of the sensing bulb capillary tube from the device to
increase the sensitivity

D. heat shrink insulating material around the device once the bulb has been
properly secured

ANS;B

2388. an economizer or heat exchanger in a refrigeration system , using a

reciprocating compressor functions to-----------

A. reduce the possibility of the liquid refrigrants slugging the compressor

B. raise the temperature of the liquid refrigerant

C. cool the suction vapour returning to the compressor

D. raise the refergant saturation temperature in the evaporation

ANS;A

2389.in an air conditioning system ,moisture is removed from the air by-------------

A. filters

B. seprators

C. ducted traps

D. dehumidifiers

2390. a large evaporator coil has been determined to have a pressure drop of
5psig and can be compensated for by----------------

A. increasing compressor volumetric efficiency

B. producing higher compression pressures

C. both a and b

D. neither a nor b

ANS;D

2391; A PARTICULAR SPACE IS AIR CONDITIONED BY A TON WATER COOLED

SYSTEM ,WHILE TROUBLESHOOTING THE SPACE IS FOUND TO BE TOO WARM
AND THE COMPRESSOR IS NOT OPENING.

A. a liquid line service valve is partially closed

B. the expansion valve feeler bulb is loosely clamped to the suction line

C. the suction pressure control contacts are stuck open

D. a suction line is linked or partially obstructed and blocking refrigerant
circulation

ANS;C

2392;double trunk piston are used in some refrigrants to reduce refrigrants boil
off by-----

A. increasing volumetric efficiency

B. producing higher compression pressures
C. Minimizing free contact between refrigrants and the oil in the crankcase
D. Eliminating the need for a shaft seal
E. ANS;C
2393;hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to-----------

A. relive excessive compressor head pressure

B. produce flash gas at the expansion valve
C. reduce flooding of the reciver at the loads
D. defrost the evaporator coils
ANS;D

2394. when multiple refrigrants boxes are maintaining individual temperatures

and supplied by a single refrigeration compressor the individual box temperatures
are controlled by the-----------

A. suction valves

B. solenoid valves

C. expansion valves

D. compressor speed

ANS;B

2395. the best time to check the oil level in the compressor in a typical
refrigeration system is when the compressor is stopped after a longperiod of
running ,this is because the-------------

A. oil has had time to mix properly withnthe refrigrants

B. refrigerant has had time to separate from the oil

C. oil trap has been able to return sufficient oil to the sump

D. oil heaters are secured thereby , ensuring that a false level is not read

ANS;B

2396 The presence of flash gas in the high pressure lines of arefrigeration
system is undesireable because ________ I erosion of the txv valve seat can
be increased .it refrigeration system capacity will be reduced.

A.1 only

B.11 only

C.both 1and 11

D. neither 1nor 11

Ans;c

2397 Insection of the water-sides of chillers and condenser for leaking tubes
should be conducted on

A regular basis .how frequently on a minimum basis should these insections be

conducted

A once a month

B once every six month

C once a year

D once every other year

Ans B
2398 a multiple evaporator coil unit is equipped with a suc tion-pressure
regulating valve . This valve must be by passed when pumping down the
system for repairs because reduction of suction pressure would cause the
valve to_______________

A rupture

B open

C close

D chatter

Ans;c

2399 toi prevent the unnecessary loading of an air-conditioning system while

maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative humidity in an air
conditioning system, you should

A admit only enough fresh outside air to provide proper ventilation

B reduce the air reheating system load

C lower the compressor head pressure

D operate the purge recovery until continuously

Ans A

2400 when purging a gage manifold,which of the fittings listed is normally

tightened fast ?

A. The hose fitting at the discharge valve is fighten ed last after purging
the low pressure line
B. The fitting at the discharge and suction valves of the compressor are
both closed simultaneously to pre vent objective cross flows
C. The hose fitting at the suction service valve is tightened last
afterpurging the center connection.
 d. the low pressure

Ans;c

2401 in a refrigeration system, which of the following statements

describes the actions occurring when a solenoid value used in conjunction
with an un loader head is energized?

A. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the value lifting
devices raising the suction value off its seat and causing one specific
cylinder to become un loaded
B. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the underside of the piston,
causing it to raise
And allowing the recircling ports to be opened

C. When the solenoid valve becomes energized the valve ports become closed
allowing discharge

Pressure to built up pressure above the piston shifting it and causing it to

unload

D .the solenoid valve allows the refrigerant to pass from the suction
chamber to the top of the

Unloaded piston causing the piston to lift and unload the cylinder

Ans:D

2402 which of the following statements describes the accepted method for
testing a thermostatic expansion valve

A .heat the bulb by using a halide torch are similar device and observe the valve
stem movement

b. remove the power head from the unit heat the bulb with a torch while using as
a scale to measure the distance the diaphragm as moved
C. chill the bulb in the ice water while observing the compressor for an increase
in suction pressure

D. place the sensing bulb in the in ice water and then warm by hand change at
observe flood through and temperature change at the suction line

Ans:D

2403 during test to discover why a refridgeration compressor is running

excessively it is determined that the refrigerator space temperature is nearly
normal the suction is slightly normal ,and the head pressure is low in this situation
you

A. leaking door gaskets

B. high cooling water temperature

C. air in the system

D. a shortage of refrigerant

Ans:A

2404 .a refrigeration system is equipped with reciprocating compressor and a

water cooled condensing

Unit if the system is over charged the resulting high head pressure will be caused
by

A. the expansion valve overfeeding the evapourator

B. the leaking compressor suction valve

C. an incorrectly adjusted high pressure cutout

D. refrigerant flooding the condenser

Ans:D
2405. A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking
discharge valves by stopping the compressor ,turning the discharge service valve
all the way in , and then turning the compressor overby hand. If the discharge
valves are leaking ,the comp

A. rising and falling with each stroke

B. increasing with each stroke

C. decreasing with each stroke

D. decreasing to a vacuum

Ans:A

2406. one refrigeration is equal to

A.45kcal/hr

B.500kcal/hr

C.3,024kcal/hr

D.750,000kcal/hr

Ans : C

2407 Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause

A . freezing the expansion valve closed

B. corrosion of system piping

C. improper temperature regulation

D. all of the above

Ans:D

2408The ratio of the weight of moisture contained in a given volume of air ,to the
weight of moisture
That the same sample would hold if saturated , is called the

A. Absolute humidity
B. relative humidity
C. Specific humidity
D. Total humidity

Ans: B

2409 how is water travelling along the shaft of a centrifugal pump prevented
from entering the shaft bearing?

A. Shaft seal
B. Water finger
C. Drain hole
D. Lantern ring

Ans: B

2410 which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be installed in main
drainage or evacuation

System?

A. Reciprocating pump
B. Centrifugal pump
C. High pitch rotary vane pump
D. Educator pump
Ans:C

2411 why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal pump shafts?

A. they make it easier to replace the pump shaft packing

B. They can be economically replaced as they wearout.

C. they can be removed when it is necessary to lighten the weight of the pump

D. They increase the strength of the pump

Ans:B

2412 A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 15 cms of water. This
corresponds to a pressure

Of

A.150 mm WG

B.200 mm WG

C.300 mm WG

D.500 mm WG

Ans:A

2413 An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by

A. Defective intake valves

B. Clogged suction strainers
C. Scarred cylinder walls
D. Clogged drain valves
Ans:B

2414 Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will result in
which of the following

Conditions to occur?

A. Loss of suction
B. Increased clearances
C. Decreased clearances
D. Decreased slippage
Ans:B

2415 . Propeller pumps are used primarily where there is a need to move a large
volume of liquid . However, their use is limited by a max total head of_______
A. 6 to 12 meters
B. 10 to 17 meters
C. 12 to 20 meters
D. 17 to 24 meters
Ans:c
2416. if a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed electric speed and
produces a discharge pressure less than designed , the cause is
probably_______
A. excessive pump speed
B.excessive suction speed
C. worn wearing rings
D. gross pump misalignment
Ans:C
2417. which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need for renewing
worn impellers and pump casings
A.close radial clearance beteen impeller hub and casing
B. low stational speed of impeller
C. removable end plate
D. replaceable impeller and casing wearing rings
Ans:D
2418.a centrifugal pump may failure to delover water when 1st started if
the _________
A.water seal pipe is plugged
B.pump is not primed
C.seal ring is improperly located
D.impeller is felled
ANS.B
2419.when piston rod packing presits in leaking on reciprocating steam
pump the cause may be_________
A.a loose tapet collar
B.clogged suction strainer
C.an open snitter valve
D.mis alignment of the cross head guide
ANS.D
2420.if u were operating a centrifugal water with warm wearing rings
the_________
A.pump would be very noisy
B.pump would vibrate excessively
C.pump would develop in sufficient flow
D.stuffing box would leak excessively.
ANS.C
2421. the pump packing gland has been tightend by small incriments by
small incriments until the gland has bottomed . which of the actions listed
should be carried out next if the leakage continues to be excessive?
A)replace all of the packing
B.replace with larger cross sectional turns of packing
C.replace the soft packing with packing turns that are covered with lead
wrap
D.continue to add more turns of packing
Ans.D
2422.a centrifugal pump vibrates excessively during operation upon
disassembling the pump it is found that the impeller is out of balance
without an available spare, you should………….
A.drill holes through the heavy side of the impeller until it balances
B.weld counterweights to the light side of the impeller
C.remove metal from the heavy side by machinging in a lathe
D.acid ah and scrape the heavy side unitl it balances
Ans.C
2423.if the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor is stopped
which of the following types of pumps will most likely to be dragged?
A,centrifugal
B.gear
C.propeller
D.turbine
Ans.B
 2424.inorder to properly remove air from the casing of a centrifugal pump
when starting the pump should have a…………………..
A.positive head
B.neagative suction head
C.mechanical seal
D.vent valve attached to the casing at the top of the volute
Ans.D
2425.air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal
pump is prevented by…………………
A.a compressed packing gland
B.a lantern rings between the packing rings
C.a liquid seal
D.the stuffing box gland
Ans.C
2426.the suction force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of…..
A.centrifugal lpumps
B.jet pumps
C.propeller pumps
D.reciprocating pumps
2427.assume identical impeller diameter width and speed which of the
following impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity?
A.a single stage straight vane impeller
B.a single stage curved vane impeller
C.a dual integral impeller unit oprating at 10% lower space
2428.most pump manufacturers recommend that the suction piping
dimension for centrifugal pumps be………
A.one size smaller than the pump suction nozzle
B.the same size as the pump suction nozzle
C.one size larger than the pump suction nozzle

D.A dual impeller with multiple stepped vanes

Ans. B
2429) A latten ring is

A. the bottom ring in a set of piston rings

B. the oil slinger on a spring bearing

C. used to distribute seal water through out the pump stuffing box

D. the lifting ring on each running light

Ans. C

2430) A pump is defined as “a device that

A. produces pressure

B. imparts energy to a fluid to move it from level “A” to level “B”

C. creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations

D. is to develop a pressure differential

Ans. B

2431) In Which of the following description would centrifugal pump impeller

cavitations most likely occur if the impeller diameter ,rotating speed and liquid
temperature are the same?

A. In the second stage of a two stage pump

B. A single stage impeller with straight vanes

C. A single stage impeller with curved vanes

D. A two stage pump with an operating speed 100RPM less than spectified

Ans. C

2432) Most pump manufacture recommended that the discharge piping for
centrifugal pumps be one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle to
 A. reduce the pump discharge pressure

B. reduce the frictional losses due to fluid flow

C. increase the pump discharge pressure

D. allow rapid venting of entrained air

Ans. B

2433) The purpose of the wearing rings used in a centrifugal pump is to

A. prevent an internal explosion in the pump when it is overheated

B. enable a visual inspection of the pump while it is running

C. insure a proper alignment of the pump coupling to the driver

D. accommodate for friction between the impeller and casing

Ans. D

2434)clearances between the impeller hub and causing of a centrifugal pump are
checked with the use of

A. wooden wedges

B. an accurate set of feeler gages

C. a machinist’s rule

D. a deptin micrometer

Ans. B

2435) The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a duplex
reciprocating pump is to

A. open the relief valve to prevent accidental starting

B. ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke

 C. center the steam piston in the cylinders

D. measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same

Ans. C

2436) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to

A. directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped

B. directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped

C. convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy

D. separate air from the liquid being pumped

Ans. B

2437) Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet
pump or an educator?

A. centrifugal force converted into potential energy

B. a reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a liquid

C. a rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle

D. a propeller drawing a fluid through a venture nozzle

Ans. C

2438) The total energy of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted
by

A. increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston

rod

B. variations in the throttle adjustment

C. twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction

D. changing the setting of the tappet collars on the operating rod

 Ans. D

2439) which of the following centrifugal pump components converts the liquid
kinetic energy of velocity to the potential energy of pressure?

A. impeller

B. electric motor

C. volute

D. eye

Ans. C

2440) If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum but is unable to sufficently pump
out the bilges, you would check formal of the following EXEPT

A. the circuit breaker

B. for leaks in the suction piping

C. relief valve is not properly seated

D. the suction strainer

Ans. A

2441) one of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump

with the discharge valve closed, is that the

A. motor overload will open

B. relief valve will open

C. pump will overheat

D. motor will overheat

Ans. C
2442)If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to
discharge any water , which of the following problems is the most probable
cause?

A. the wearing rings are excessively worn

B. the suction strainer is clogged

C. the discharge valve is clogged

D. the shalt is worn.

Ans. B

2443) Ina centrifugal pump, the seal piping directs liquid from the discharge side
of the pump to the

A. packing gland

B. wearing ring

C. stuffing

D. lantern ring

Ans. D

2444) In a reciprocating pump, the position of the pilot valve is controlled by the
position of the

A. main steam piston valve

B. piston in the steam cylinder

C. cushioning valve

D. governor valve spindle

Ans. B

2445) which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?

 A. they are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids

B. they are started with the discharge valve opened

C. the flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotating of an

impeller

D. they are always mounted in a horizontal position

Ans. C

2446) A centrifugal pump attempting to develop flow against a closed discharge

valve has a/an

A. capacity of 0%

B. efficiency of 100%

C. internal slippage of 0%

D. shut off horsepower rating of 100%

Ans. A

2447) The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a constant viscosity fluid will
decrease when the discharge pressure is increased due to

A. decrease suction pressure

B. increase suction pressure

C. reduced slippage

D. increased slippage

Ans. D

2448) If an centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head becomes air
bound your FIRST response should be to

A. vent the casing

 B. close the discharge

C. tightness the packing

D. reprime the pump

Ans. A

2449) If you have a simple acting reciprocating pump making 100 strokes/minute
with a 60 diameter cylinder a 7 stroke operating with a 90% volumetric efficiency
what is the capacity of this pump?

A. 105gpm

B. 39gpm

C. 77gpm

D. 107gpm

Ans. B

2450) Generally, centrifugal pumps operating without a positive suction head

must be primed before they will move liquid on their own. The priming is usually
accomplished with a

A. regenerative pump

B. rotating liquid piston pump

C. jet pump

D. turbine pump

2451) A recirulating or bleed offline is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to

A. establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage

B. equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc

C. prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head

 D. decrease the net positive suction head

Ans. C

2452) To thoroughly pump out the bilges using a horizontally mounted centrifugal
pump, the

A. pump must always be primed

B. volute must impart a radial and rotary motion of the water

C. suction side connection must guide the liquid to the lantern rings

D. stuffing box should not be allowed any water leakage

Ans. A

2453) A cracking noise coming from a centrifugal pump casing is an induction of

A. insufficient packing

B. an oversized lantern ring

C. excessive suction lift

D. reversed pumping rotation

Ans. C

2454) Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will

A. cause severe vibration when the pump is operating

B. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland

C. cause damage in the stuffing box

D. allow interstage leakage in the pump casing glands

Ans. B
2455) Excessive wear on the packing rings nearest the pump packing gland while
the rings nearest the impeller the remain in good condition is caused by

A. failure to insert and individually seat the rings on rings one ring at a time

B. insufficient tightening of the packing gland

C. failure to tighten the packing gland in a single adjustment

D. cutting the rings nearest the gland too short

Ans. A

2456) It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal pump impeller with the
vanes in the wrong direction . This would cause the pump

A. head capacity to improve

B. discharge to be reversed

C. efficiency to decrease

D. slippage to decrease

Ans. C

2457) Radial thrust developed in high pressure centrifugal pumps can be

eliminated by the use of

A. single volutes

B. a single diffusion nozzle

C. a diffusion ring

D. a modified thrust bearing

Ans. C

2458) The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal pump is

A. noise and vibration

 B. an increase in pressure

C. an increase in suction pressure

D. lifting of the relief valve

Ans. A

2459) If misalignment between a pump and its and its driving source exceeds that
specified by the pump manufacture the shaft

A. flexible coupling will absorb all such misalignment

B. total end float travel will be excessive

C. lateral float will be greatly increased

D. bearings will be overloaded and will fail

Ans. D

2460) If the shaft packing for a centrifugal pump requires replacement more
frequently than normal , a possible cause may be

A. worn bearings

B. worn mechanical seats

C. a pump suction

D. wrong direction of pump rotation

Ans. A

2461) when shifting suction from one fresh water tank to another if the fresh
water pump loss suction you should

A. loosen the mechanical seal

B. vent the pump casing

C. check the discharge strainers

 D. all the above

Ans. B

2462) which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in
a steam reciprocating pump?

A. reinforced rubber packing

B. wire impregnated high temperature packing

C. low pressure braided asbestos packing

D. high pressure graphite packing

Ans. D

2463)which of the following conditions will prevent a shipboard pump from

achieving its maximum suction lift?

A. leaks developed in the suction piping

B. friction losses as a result of improperly sized pipe

C. gases or vapors released in the liquid as a result of greater normal

pressure drops

D. all the above

Ans. D

2464) liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by

A. overlapping spaces between gear teeth

B. a roller bearing

C. a stuffing box

D. the use of shaft end caps

Ans. C
2465) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling
toxic of highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the
atmosphere?

A. Conventional stuffing box

B. External mechanical seal

C. double mechanical seal

D. Rubber bellows mechanical seal

2466) If you heard a “cracking” sound occurring within a centrifugal pump, the
most probable source of the noise would be the

A. shaft sleeves

B. discharge volutes

C. wearing rings

D. pump suction

Ans:C

2467)closed impellers differ from open impellers in that closed impellers……….

A)allow liquid to enter the eye from one direction only

B)have side walls which extend from the eye to the outer edge of the vane tips

C)have small impeller eyes

D)are not vented above the impeller eye

Ans)b

2468)the factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will include
which of the following conditions?
A)type of pump

B)condition of the shaft

C)length of time in use

D)all the above

Ans)d

2469)foot valves are primarily designed to …………..

A)give a pump motor or driver positive protection when operating in a shutoff

condition

B)provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft stuffing box

C)enable a pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the pump

D)afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and surging

Ans)c

2470)a centrifugal bilge pump requires priming……….

A)primarilt to lubricate the shaft seals

B)due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction
(eye)of the impeller

C)to initially upload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge
pressure

D)in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line

Ans)b

2471)to maintain design discharge pressure from a centrifugal lpump the design
clearance must be maintained between the…………

A)shaft and impeller

B)motor and pump shaft

C)casing and impeller wearing rings

D)lantern ring and impeller

Ans)c

2472)in a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system the compressor is

set up to cycle on and off by the…………..

A)pressurestaf

B)high pressure cutout

C)solenoid valve

D)low lpressure cutout switch

Ans)d

2473)the static suction lift of a pump is the difference in elevation between

the…………..

A)centerline of the pump and the level of the liquid in the suction well when the
source of liquid is below the pump

B)centerline of the pump and the suction liquid level when the source of liquid is
above the pump

C)centerline of the pump and the level of the discharge liquid

D)liquid level of the suction and discharge

Ans)a

2474)which of the following statements represents the advantage of rotary

pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps?

A)the high discharge pressure of the rotary pumps permits a larger volume of
fluid kper unit time than the reciprocating pump
B)rotary pumps are capable of pumping more fluid than reciprocating pumps of
the same weight

C)rotary pumps occupy only one half the space of reciprocating pumps

D)rotary pumps eliminate discharge slippage of the pumped liquid while this does
not hold true for a reciprocatingpump

Ans)b

2475)which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the
steam cylinder of a reciprocating pump?

A)valve operating differential

B)crosshead arm

C)pump rod

D)pilot valve and operating rod

Ans )d

2476)a distinguishing feature of an educator, when compared to other pumps is

the………………………..

A)discharge end being smaller than the suction end

B)small size of impeller

C)lack of moving parts

D)ease at which the wearing rings may be changed

Ans)c

2477)which of the devices listed is common to all types of pumps?

A)a power end and fluid end

B)a propeller and educator

C)a volute and impeller

D)a turbine and piston

Ans)a

2478)lantern rings are provided on centrifugal pumps to………..

A)allow illuminated inspection of shaft and packing

B)provide a passage for the stuffing to sealing liquid

C)adjust leakage at the shaft gland

D)allow for distortion of wearing rings

Ans)b

2479)if a centrifugal lpump vibrates and is noisy when operating the cause could
be………….

A)worn gland sealing shaft

B)worn wearing rings

C)a bent shaft

D)reversed pump coupling

Ans)c

2480)which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of the liquid
entering a pump?

A)allow illuminated inspection of shaft and packing

B)provide a passage for the stuffing be sealing liquid

C)adjust leakage at the shaft gland

D)allow for distortion of the wearing rings

Ans)b

2481)excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating

pump will cause the …………

A)pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders

B)pistons to stop in mid stroke

C)pump to operate sluggiably

D)cushioning valves to wear

Ans)c

2482)one of the main functions of wearing rings as used in a centrifugal pumps is

to………..

A)maintain radial alignment between the pump impeller and casing

B)absorb all impeller shaft end thrust

C)prevent water leakage to the atmosphere

D)prevent wear of the pump casing and or impeller

Ans)d

2483)the seal piping obtains liquid from the discharge side of the pump and
directs the liquid to the……..

A)packing gland

B)wearing ring

C)stuffing

D)lantern ring

Ans)d
2484)which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use
a propeller type pump?

A)fluid power transmission system

B)main circulating system

C)steering gear system

D)fuel oil service booster system

Ans)b

2485)when securing a steam reciprocating pump,which of the valves listed should

remain open?

A)steam supply valve

B)steam exhaust valve

C)steam cylinder drain valve

D)water cylinder drain valve

2486)on many modern tankers which of the following devices is used to reduce
cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge?

A)flinger rings

B)mechanical seals

C)shaft sleeves

D)clipper seals

Ans)b

2487)which of the following intervals must the cargo pump relief valves of tank
vessels be tested?

A)prior to each fuel discharge operation

B)atleast once each voyage

C)atleast once a year

D)at each bieonial inspection

2488)which of the following intervals do regulations require the remote cutout

for the fuel oil service pumps to be tested?

A)prior to each sailing

B)once each month

C)at each fire and boat drill

D)at each inspection for certification

Ans)d

2489)you suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship and
begin to slowly close the discharge valve.your suspicion is confirmed when
the……………

A)discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

B)discharge valve is 80%closed and the relief valve lifts

C)suction valve is closed off and the discharge pressure begins to decrease

D)suction is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift

Ans)a

2490)if a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed prime mover and

produces a flow rate less than the designed specifications the cause could be..

A)suction absolute pressure greatly exceeds corresponding vapor pressure of

liquid being pumped

B)excessive suction head

C)pump packing gland misalignment

D)worn wearing rings

Ans)d

2492)when repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing
the packing is cut square installed with the ends abutted and each succeeding ring
staggered with the butted ends………

A)45*apart

B)90*apart

C)120*apart

D)180*apart

Ans)b

2492)what would be the probable cause if a pump were unable to maintain

necessary discharge pressure to a system?failure of the coupling used on a close
coupled pump II)fracture of one packing gland bolt

A)I only

B)II only

C)both I and II

D)neither I nor II

Ans)d

2493)wht would be the result of throtting the suction valve to the point where
the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal pump
manufacture?I.the discharge head would be reduced.II)the pump would begin to
cavitate

A)I only
B)II only

C)both I and II

D)neither I nor II

Ans)b

2494)what would be the probable cause if a pump were unable to maintain

necessary discharge pressure to a system?I.failure of the internal parts of the
pumpII)failure of the system relief valve

A)I only

B)II only

C)both I and II

D)neither I norII

Ans)c

2495)mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubricaton of

the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces which of
the following pressures and lubricants are required?

A)water under rogative pressure

B)water under positive pressure

C)oil under positive pressure

D)oil under negative pressure

Ans)b

2496)reduced capacity accompanied by vibraton and noise at the suction of a

centrifugal pump resuts from cavitation in the fluid being pumped cavitation
describes the formation of ……………….

A)vapor pockets
B)water hammer action

C)fluid friction’

D)steam knock

Ans)a

2497)a liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump as the liquid passes

through the volute its velocity decreases and…………………..

A)its pressure increases

B)its pressure decreases

C)the potential energy decreases

D)the kinetic energy increases

Ans)a

2498)after renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, the packing
should be seated, then the packing gland nuts……………

A)left in that position

B)loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box

C)tightened to compress the packing

D)loosened and then retightended until they are only finger tight

Ans)d

2499)which of the following statements is true regarding a positive displacement

rotary pump?

A)theoretically there is no limit to shut off head pressure

B)thereoreitcally is self priming

C)the discharge side should be protected against excessive pressure build up via a
relief valve

D)all of the above

Ans)d

2500)a centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What

correction action is required?

A)replace the wearing rings

B)throttle in on the discharge valve

C)replace the wearing rings, shaft, and impeller

D)throttle in on the suction valve

Ans)a

2501)if a centrifugall pump develops insufficient discharge pressure as a result of

worn wearing rings, which of the folwoing correction actions is required?

A)replace the rings

B)throttle in n the discharge valve

C)alwys repqlace the wearing rings and the impeller as a set

D)throttle in on the suction valve

Ans)a

2502)if a centrifugal pump sealing line becomes restricted while operating under
a negative suction head(suction lift)the inner end of the stuffing box will b
e…………

A)under a vaccum and air will tend to leak in to the pump

B)sealed by the fluid being pumped and no leakeage will occur

C)under pressure and fluid will tend to leak in to the pump

d)sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring

Ans)a

2503)when adding packing to a seal involving motion you must be careful to

prevent………….

A)excessive friction in the joint

B)wear of the moving part

2504)heavy wear in a particular area of the inner circumference packing ring may
be caused by………

A)a high suction head

B)rotating rings

C.deterioration of the packing due to excessive tightening

D. all of the above

Ans: D

2505 What would be the result of throttling the suction valve to the point
where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal
pump manufacturer? I. The designed discharge head would be reduced. II. The
packing life would be greatly reduced.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Ans B

2506 The shaft sleeves have recently been replaced on a centrifugal salt water
service pump. The packing gland is now drawn tightly up against the casing.
Despite the use of standard procedures to tighten the packing gland, water
continuous to pour out along

A. The sleeves “O” ring seals were not installed

B. Suction head pressure has become excessive
C. The sealing water flow to the stuffing box is blocked
D. Only two suctions of the lantern ring were installed

Ans A

2507 A double suction centrifugal pump impeller has been installed in the
reverse direction, and will ___________

A. Have a greater head capacity

B. Operate with increased impeller efficiency
C. Discharge through the suction side of the pump casing
D. Require more power to turn the shaft

Ans D

2508 If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve
closed, the ________________

A. Motor controller overload would open

B. Pump would eventually overheat
C. Relief valve would continuously cycle open
D. Motor would overheat

Ans B

2509 If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred remains constant as the
discharge pressure increases, the rotary pump ______________

A. Capacity will increase

B. Capacity will decrease
C. Suction pressure will increase
D. Suction pressure will decrease
 Ans B

2510 If it were necessary for you to replace the bearings of the condensate
pump, the trouble could be the result of ___________

A. Misalignment
B. A plugged water seal line
C. Salt water contamination of the condensate
D. Worn out rings

Ans A

2511 Pitting the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually
caused by _______________

A. Cavitation
B. Electrolysis
C. Abrasion
D. Corrosion

Ans A

2512 Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a

centrifugal pump, is caused by _________

A. Under tightening the packing

B. Failure

2513 One of the many problems occurring with centrifugal pump shaft packing
is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland. If the rings nearest
the impeller remain in good condition during the same operating period, the wear
is most likely cause

A. Insufficient lubrication of the lantern ring

B. Packing rings rotating in the stuffing box
C. Over tightening the packing in one adjustment
D. Some rings being cut too short
 Ans C

2514 When new, a rotary pump is designed to have 0.00mm clearance between
the rotors and the pump casing in order to develop a 180 LPM flow rate at 21bar.
After one year of operation the clearance has increased to 0.02mm, with the
discharge pressure

A. Less than 180 LPM because of increased clearance

B. 180 LPM because the pressure is unchanged
C. Greater than 180 LPM because of reduced slippage
D. Greater than 180 LPM because of increased efficiency

Ans A

2515 If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the packing on the main
condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of _____________

A. Running at a low speed for a long time

B. Excessive condensation recirculation
C. Defective causing gasket
D. Worn bearings

Ans D

2516 When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps
and deck equipment should be _________

A. Cycled at least once a day

B. Cycled once every 4 weeks
C. Cycled once every week
D. Watched carefully while idle

Ans A

2517 A twin screw, rotary, positive displacement pump is provided with timing
gear, if it were possible to change the lead (pitch) of the screws, which of the
following statements would represent the true effect on the pump
characteristics?
 A. The longer the lead, the lower the flow rate
B. The shorter the lead, the higher the potential
C. The longer the lead, the lower the axial velocity
D. The shorter the lead, the higher the inlet pressure requirements

Ans B

2518 Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating

pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously
discharge through chamber during the up and down strokes?

A. Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder

B. Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the
water chest
C. One set of valves in the water chest and the other set in the liquid chamber
D. Two relief valves, one in each of the liquid cylinder

Ans B

2519 The discharge rate or the capacity of a centrifugal pump will vary directly
as the ______________

A. Change in the impeller diameter

B. Square of the impeller diameter
C. Cube of the impeller diameter
D. Impeller efficiency for large changes in its size

Ans A

2520 The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will vary directly with the
______________

A. Change in impeller diameter

B. Square of impeller diameter
C. Cube of impeller diameter
D. Impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller

Ans B
2521 Theoretically, a double suction impeller is in hydraulic axial balance, in
actually this balance is rarely achieved due to ______________

A. ..
B. .
C. Badly worn bearings
D. At loose stuffing box gland

Ans C

2522 Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids, must have a minimum flow
through them under all operating condition s. This flow serves to ____________

A. An unbalanced force extended from the direction of the impeller nearest

the driving motor
B. Unequal or non uniform flow to the suction eyes of the impeller housing
C. Excessive sealing water flow to the stuffing block
D. Flexible shaft design which causes rapid wear of the outboard shaft bearing

Ans B

2523 To operate a centrifugal free pump at reduced capacity, you should

________________

A. Readjust the relief valve

B. Throttle the suction line
C. Throttle the discharge valve
D. Open the priming line

Ans C

2524 Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing box of a centrifugal
pump ______________

A. To help lubricate the shaft packing

B. To limit the outflow of seawater from the stuffing box of a pump provided
with a high suction head
C. In place of sealing gages
 D. In place of mechanical seals

Ans A

2525 The centrifugal pump component responsible for converting the

mechanical energy of the liquid being pumped, to that of kinetic energy is the
__________

A. Electric motor
B. Volute
C. Impeller
D. Diffusion nozzle

Ans C

2526 The total static head of a system resisting the operation of a centrifugal
pump is the difference in elevation between the ____________

A. Discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level

B. Discharge liquid level and the pump centerline
C. Suction liquid level and the pump centerline
D. Suction submergence level and the pump discharge

Ans A

2527 When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the
following precautions should be observed?

A. Replace all of the packing rings

B. Block off the sealing water connection
C. Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft
D. For good lubrication apply a fine grade lapping compound between the
shaft and packing

Ans A

2528 To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of
reciprocating pump, you should ____________
 A. Use a packing hook
B. Open throttle valve and “blow” the old packing out
C. Do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing
D. Open the steam chest and pr the packing loose with a scraper

Ans A

2529 Most pump manufacturers recommended that the discharge piping for
centrifugal pumps be ___________

A. One size larger than the pump discharge nozzle

B. The same size as the pump of discharge nozzle
C. One size smaller than the pump discharge nozzle
D. Installed with a short radius elbow, at the pump

Ans

2530 An advantage if the helical gear pump over a simple pump is that the
helical gear pump is capable of __________

A. Maintaining a steadier speed

B. Delivering liquids over greater distances
C. Operating for longer periods of time
D. Producing a smoother discharge flow

Ans. D

2531 When installing a new rotary pump, the suction piping should
______________

A. Of the same diameter as the pump suction connection

B. At least one size larger than the pump suction connection
C. The next size smaller than the pump suction connection
D. sloped to the pump

Ans B
2532 The function of a centrifugal pump double volute casing is to
________________

A. Reduce radial thrust to the impeller

B. Double the liquid velocity through the pump when compared to a single
volute
C. Reduce hydraulic end thrust
D. Provide the effect of multi staging

Ans A

2533 Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers
be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plunges or sleeves?

A. Heat transfer is restricted

B. Scoring may result
C. Valve seat will be damaged
D. Bonnet corrosion may result

Ans B

2534 During the inspection conditions of a low pressure pump, the wearing ring
is determined to have a clearance of 0.3mm - 0.4mm, you should ____________

A. Replace the worn wearing ring

B. Install a new oversized casing ring
C. Machine the worn wearing ring and refit
D. Leave the existing wearing rings in place

Ans D

2535 Operating a rotary pump at speeds in excess of design requirements could

cause ________________

A. Decreased clearance between rotating parts

B. Decreased slippage to the suction side of that pump
C. Air bending in the discharge ports
D. Erosion and excessive wear
 Ans D

2536 Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating

pump from delivering its rated capacity?

A. Excessive suction lift

B. Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
C. A leaking sniffer valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
D. All of the above

Ans A

2537 Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion and
wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by _______________

A. Wearing rings
B. Renewable sleeves
C. A hardened sprayed metal coating
D. Internally flooded lantern rings

Ans B

2538 If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head vibrates, or

becomes nosy, the cause could be ______________

A. Excessive pump speed

B. Worn wearing rings
C. Air leakage into suction line
D. Insufficient venting

Ans D

2539 Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam

reciprocating pump?

A. Direct-acting
B. Diffuser
C. High pressure
 D. vertical

Ans: B

2540 The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the
______________

A. Total head
B. Discharge head
C. Net positive suction head
D. Suction head

Ans : B

2541. To absorb the wear resulting from impeller rotation and abrasives in
the liquid, a centrifugal pump is usually fitted with …………..
A. Tantern rings
B. Barings
C. Casting volutes
D. Wearing rings

Ans D

2542. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually over a long

period of time you should replace the ……………….
A. Packing glands
B. Mechanical seals
C. Tantern rings
D. Wearing rings

Ans D

2543. If the existing vapour pressure is subtracted from the indicated

pressure at the pump suction the remainder is the ………………..
A. Pump head
B. Total suction head
 C. Discharge head
D. Apparent net positive suction head

Ans D

2544. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitations in a centrifugal

pump?
A. Vapour pockets formed in the suction flow stream
B. Rough casting volute surfaces
C. Worn wearing rings
D. Heavy fluid in the flow stream

Ans A

2545. Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the
bearing housing by use of…………………..
A. Shaft sleeves
B. Lantern rings
C. Water fingers
D. Water seals

Ans C

2546. One of the main differences between the various types of screw
pumps is in the ………
A. Stuffing box diameter
B. Direction of rotation of the screws
C. Pitch of the screws
D. Type of the driving gears

Ans. C

2547. With respect to centrifugal pump impellers, which of the following

descriptions represent the correct centrifugal pump classification?
A. Single stage or multi stage
B. High pressure or low pressure
C. Open or close coupled
 D. Horizontal or vertical

Ans A

2548. A centrifugal pump designed to handle a liquid with a temperature of

120deg celcius or greater must be provided with………………..
A. A semi mechanical seal
B. Helical grooved wearing rings
C. Self adjusting packing
D. A liquid seal line

Ans D

2549. The function of seal cages or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal
pump stuffing box is to…………….
A. Cool the shaft
B. Lubricate the packing
C. Seal air from entering along the shaft
D. Distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box

Ans D

2550. What is a function of the wearing rings used in most centrifugal

pumps?
A. Absorb erosion or high velocity discharge stream
B. Seal pump shaft against entry of air
C. Isolate the discharge side from the suction side
D. Dampen the turbulent discharge flow

Ans C

2551. The brake horsepower of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as

the…………
A. Diameter of the impeller
B. Square of the diameter of the impeller
C. Cube of the diameter of the impeller
D. Impeller efficiency for large change in size of the impeller
 Ans C

2552. Primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to……………..

A. Develop a high velocity liquid
B. Convert velocity to pressure
C. Limit hydraulic and thrust
D. Initiate flow

Ans B

2553. If the flow of water from centrifugal pump is allowed to be stopped

by closing the discharge valve while the pump continues to run for an
indefinite period, the……………
A. Relief valve will open
B. Water pressure will lower continually to shut off head
C. Water pressure will tend to rise continuously
D. Liquid may over heat and vaporize

And D

2554. Static suction head of a horizontal centrifugal pump is the difference

in elevation between the……………..
A. Discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level
B. Discharge liquid level and the pump center line
C. Suction liquid level and the pump center line
D. Suction submergence level and the pump discharge

Ans C

2555. Which of the material listed is used as the dynamic seal materials on
mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water
service
A. Copper
B. Copper and carbon
C. Carbon
D. Bronze
 Ans C

2556. When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the

cushioning valves should be………………..
A. Wide opened
B. Half opened
C. ¾ opened
D. Almost completely closed

Ans D

2557. After the installation of new impeller wearing rings by pressing them
on to the pump impeller hub it is advisable to …………………….
A. Dynamically balance the shaft and impeller
B. Check the shaft and impeller assembly on centers to see if the ring
surfaces are true
C. Visually inspect the rings after about an hour of service
D. All of the above

Ans B

2558. When renewing the shaft packing on a centrifugal pump equipped

with an external liquid supply, you should
A. Always turn down the shaft in a lathe to ensure a snug fit
B. Ensure the lantern ring is aligned with the sealing supply opening
C. Check the stuffing box for irregularities with a dial indicator
D. Make sure the seal cage is always positioned at the base of the
stuffing box

Ans B

2559. Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo

pumps is correct?
A. A pump room is not necessary
B. The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft
C. Special priming provisions are necessary
 D. The prime mover is connected at the lower portion of the shaft

Ans A

2560. Which of the listed pumps is not a positive displacement pump?

A. Centrifugal
B. Reciprocating
C. Gear
D. Rotary

Ans A

2561. The diffusion ring installed in many high pressure centrifugal pumps,
such as feed pumps ……………
A. Eliminates axial thrust
B. Imparts kinetic energy to the water passing through the pump
C. Alleviates the need for a double suction impeller
D. Eliminates radial thrust to the impeller

Ans D

2562. The three basic parts of any educator are the nozzle, the suction
chamber and the……….
A. Injector
B. Compressor
C. Diffuser
D. Siphon

Ans C

2563. To prevent air pockets from forming in a centrifugal pump suction

line installed angled from normal, any gate valve should be installed
with the ………………
A. Bonnet above suction pipe centerline
B. Centerline above the suction pipe centerline
C. Stem pointing upward at right angles to the pipe
D. Stem horizontal or pointing downward below the pipe
 Ans D

2564. Devices which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to entrain another fluid
and thereby move it from one place to another are called________
A. Mixed flow pumps
B. Jet pumps
C. Volute pumps
D. Centrifugal pumps

Ans B

2565. If u heard a “cracking noise” in a centrifugal pump , the most

probable cause of the problem would be ___________
A. Insufficient speed
B. Cavitations
C. Excess discharge pressure
D. Excessive net positive suction head

Ans B

2566. Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will_______

A. Cause new packing to be torn and scored
B. Cause severe pump vibration at operating speed
C. Damage the packing gland stuffing box
D. Damage the pump causing interstage seals

Ans A

2567. Operating a rotary gear pump far below its rated speed when
handling low viscosity liquids ,will cause its volumetric efficiency
to_____
A. Increase steadily as the moving gears develop less vibration
B. Decrease to where the pump no longer develops flow
C. Remain unchanged due to its positive displacement characteristics
D. Fluctuate due to the amount of slip variation
 Ans B

2568. One of the many troubles occurring with centrifugal pump shaft
packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing gland,
while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition .this
wear may be caused by ____________
A. Air entrained in the fluid pumped
B. Packing rings rotating in the stuffing box
C. Some packing rings being cut too short
D. Improper adjustment of the gland nuts

Ans D

2569. The capacity of the rotary pump ,when operated at a constant speed
will decrease with an increase in the pump_________
A. discharge volume
B. suction pressure
C. steeped speed
D. rotor clearances

Ans D

2570. inspection of a low pressure gear pump for cavitations will usually be
indicated by a wear pattern____
A. along the inlet side of the housing
B. along the discharge side of the housing
C. at the extreme upper and lower peripheries of the housing
D. even throughout the entire periphery of the housing when matched
machined gear sets are used

Ans A

2571. The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased by the

installation of a larger diameter impeller .Another means of increasing
the pump capacity is to_________
A. Increase speed
 B. Increase the size of the cardent assembly
C. Reduce wearing ring clearances
D. Change the pump to a “close coupled” arrangement
Ans A
2572. Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were
using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid? \
A. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a
common line
B. Each pump operating at a different speed and discharging into a
common line
C. Both pumps operating at the same speed taking suction from a
common line
D. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a
common line
Ans B

2573. Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump
would be indicated by which of the following operational problems?
A. The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually
slackens off to an abnormally low flow
B. The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods
C. The motor overcurrent protective device continually shuts the
pump down
D. Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest
Ans A
2574. Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an increase
in its capacity. Another means of increasing the capacity of a
centrifugal pump is to increase the __________
A. Diameter of the discharge piping , with all other factors remaining
the same
B. Diameter of the suction piping , with all other factors remaining the
same
C. Width of the impeller only
 D. Diameter of the impeller
Ans. D
2575. One of the disadvantages of screw-type positive displacement rotary
pumps is that they have_____________
A. High internal velocities
B. Performance characteristics sensitivity viscosity change
C. Low tolerance for entrained air and gasses
D. Low range of flows and pressures
Ans B
2576. A centrifugal pump, normally operated under a positive suction head,
has its impeller replaced by one with a larger suction eye. What effect
will this change have on the pump?
A. The pump motor will electrically trip off the line
B. The pump will deliver more gallons per minute at the same RPM
C. The pump will deliver less gallons per minute at the same RPM
D. The capacity in gallons per minute will not be affected by the
impeller suction eye size
Ans B

2577. If a horizontal centrifugal pump becomes air bound ,the pump should be
vented at the_____________

A. suction line

B.discharge flange

C.top of volute

D.bottom of thecasting

Ans C

2578.A centrifugal pump operating against a closed discharge valve has a/an

A.capacity of 100%
B.efficiency of 0%

C.internal slippage of 0%

D. shut off horsepower rating of 100%

Ans B

2579. which of the listed statement is correct concerning the starting of

centrifugal pumps?

A.they should always be started with the discharge valve closed.

B. they should always be started with the discharge valve opened.

C.A primary pump is always required to food the impeiler suction.

D. they should always be started with the sealing line valves closed.

Ans A

2580. If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with the discharge
valve closed the_____________

A. motor overload would open

B.relief valve would open

C.pump would eventually overheat

D.motor would overheat

Ans C

2581. Reduced capacity ,accompained by vibration and noise at the suction of a

centrifugal pump is a result of _____________
A.cavitation

B.water hammer

C.fluid friction

D.steam knock

Ans A

2582. When operating with a negative suction head , which of the following types
of pumps will require priming?

A.recriprocating

B.centrifugal

C.rotary

D.gear

Ans B

2583. The function seal cages .or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump
stuffing boxes ,is to ________

A.cool the shaft

B.lubricate the packing

C.seal air from entering along the shaft

D.distributing the sealing liquid within the stuffing box

2584. A centrifugal pump must have a stuffing box liquid sending line and seal
cages installed if the pump____________

A. suction head is high , and is handling cool, debris, free liquid

B. Is handling a liquid with the temperature of less than 66c

C. suction lift exceeds 250mm hg vac

D. Discharge is less than 2kg/cm

Ans C

2585. If a centrifugal pump is being driven by a steam turbine and the discharge
valve is closed off,the pump will_____________

A.slow down

B.run cooler

C.speed up by 5% until the discharge valve is reopened

D.no longer continue to internally convert the resultant energy impaired to the
pump

Ans D

2586. The proper design of a centrifugal pump must be include a seal cage and
sealing line when the pump_____________

A. Takes suction from a low temperature pressurized tank

B. Takes suction from the hot well

C. Is handling a liquid at less than 66c

D. Has a high positive suction head

Ans D
2587. one of the three available salt water service pumps is in operation with a
sea water temperature of 10’c.The cooling temperature of all systems supplied by
this pump appear to be high.Therefore,you should _____________

A. one need to start a second pump and operate it in parallel

B.start a second pump and place it on line ,close the discharge valve on the
original pump and watch for a rise in the discharge pressure

C.after starting the second pump open the casting vent valve of the first
pump,then secure the first pump

D. after starting the second pump secure the first pump and do nothing else with
the salt water service system

Ans B

2588. Two individual centrifugal pump impellers of the same diameter, width,
and rotating speed are to be compared, one is cast with straight vanes, the other
with curved vanes, which of the following statements is correct?

A. The straight vane impeller develops a higher level of kinetic energy

B. The straight vane impeller has the potential for producing the greater discharge
pressure

C. The curved vane impeller is less likely to develop cavitation

D. The curved vane impeller will develop a greater increase in the liquid velocity

Ans D

2589. A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting discharge head by energ
y conversion .It is typical for the energy conversion to follow the order
of_____________
A. mechanical energy to kinetic energy to potential energy

B. mechanical energy to potential energy to kinetic energy

C. potential energy to mechanical energy to kinetic energy

D. kinetic energy to mechanical energy to potential energy

Ans A

2590. which of the following statement about pump operations is not a correct
statement?

A. in order for a fluid to be pumped, a fluid must be made to flow

B. a substance must be cold in order for it to be pumped

C. The kinetic energy imparted by the pump can be used to force a liquid through
a hydraulic system

D. A pump must receive its energy from an external source.

Ans D

2591. The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is

operating as designed ,is to___________

A.closely observe the pump discharge temperature

B. close off the discharge valve and watch for a rise in pressure

C.momentarily close off the suction valve and watch for a rise in pressure

D.use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records

Ans B
2592. Which pump installation would require an external source of sealing water?
___________

A. Main circular pump jacket water cooling

B. Salt water service pump

C. Auxiliary condensate pump

D.Bilge pump

Ans D

2593. If two centrifugal pumps ,driven by two independent electric

motors,operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid
through a common discharge line ,the higher speed pump may cause the slower
pump to ___________

A. stop

B. Turn backward

C. Overheat

D. overspeed the driving end

Ans C

2594. when replacing packing rings in the stuffing boxes of reciprocating pump
piston rods ,the ends of the rings should be cut __________

A. square

B.beveled

C.step -designed
D.diagonal

Ans A

2595. what should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft

sleeve during routine maintenance inspection ?

A. Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak oh for lubrication

B. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore

C. Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed

D. Connect the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve

Ans D

2596. A multistage centrifugal pump can be BEST Described as having__________

A. two or more impeliers housed together in one casing and mounted on a single
shaft

B. a single stepped impelier mounted in a progressively staged casing

C.a large radial clearance between the impelier and casing

D.

Ans

2597. A pump shaft that is bent are distorted should normally be __________

A. repaired by a suitable welding process

B. straightened by applying heat and torsion

C. Reconditioned by metalizing and machining

D. replaced with a satisfactory spare

Ans D

2598. An increase rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________

A.increased discharge pressure

B.decrease pump capacity

C.decreased pump cavitation

D.decrease reaction ring clearance

Ans B

2599. which of the units of measurements listed below are used to express
positive and negative suction heads when calculating head or hydraulic horse
power ?

A. Inches of mercury for positive head and feet of water for negative head

B. feet of water for positive heads and inches of mercury for negative head

C. Inches of mercury for both positive and negative heads

D. Fee of water for both positive and negative heads

Ans D

2600. positive displacement , helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil
because __________
A.stuffin g boxes eliminate the leakage problem usually associated with other
gear pumps

B.it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump

C.they are essentily self-priming and produce a high suction in

D.these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles

Ans C

2601. The static suction head of a pump Is the __________

A. Distance of the suction liquid level above the center line of the pump

B. Distance the suction liquid level is below the center line of the pump

C. force necessary to over come frictional losses in the pump and piping

D. amount in inches of mercury the total suction head is below atmospheric

pressure

Ans A

2602. how does viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur
gear pump?

A.the viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation

B.the pump can be used only for fluid of high viscosity

C.the pump can be used only for light oils

D.the pump cannot handle fluid more viscous than lubricating oil

Ans A
2603. To maintain the design discharge pressure of a centrifugal pump the
clearance between the __________

A. impeller and lantern ting is critical

B. impeller and casing wearing rings is critical

C. packing box and packing gland is critical

D. gland seal and packing gland is critical

Ans B

2604. A spur gear pump should be operator with the discharge valves
____________

A.slightly opened

B.throttled

C.fully opened

D.half way opened

Ans C

2605. As sometimes utilized with centrifugal pumps operating with a high suction
lift , foot valves are primarily designed to __________

A. give the pump motor , or driver ,positive protection when operating in a

shutoff condition

B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for a impeller shaft stuffing box

C. enable the pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the
pump
D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and surging

Ans C

2606. Positive displacement ,helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil
because _________

A.stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other
gear pumps

B.helical gear pumps are essensially self priming and produce high suction lift

C.closely maintained design clearances in the pump is not necessary

D.helical gear pump are designed with extreme tooth angles

Ans B

2607. Which of the following problems will occur when the suction valve is
throttled on a centrifugal pump not designed to operate in this manner ?

A. the pump will immediately overheat and seize

B. Pump efficiency is reduced and cavitation will be induced

C.the pump packing will fail causing irrepairable damage to the pump shaft

D. pump capacity is reduced and over all efficiency will be increased

Ans :B

2608. A centrifugal pump with a double volute casing operated at greater than
design capacity .will__________
A. be less susceptible to shaft deflection than a simillar pump with a single volute
casing operated under the same conditions

B.be more susception toshaft deflectionthan a similar pump with a single volut
casing operated under the same conditions

C. develop excessive radial trust and resultant shaft deflection

D. develop excessive radial trust and resultant impeller deflection

Ans :A

2609. which of the following statement represent the main different between a
stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal
pump?

a.packed stuffing box gland are subject to wear ,but mechanical seal are not

b. packed stuffing box gland must be cooled by the liquid being pumped but
mechanical seal do not require cooling

ans c

2610)in most horizontal centrifugalpump casting wearing things are prevented

from-----------

a)swelling the wearing rings into rings

b) a.packed stuffing box gland are subject to wear ,but mechanical seal are not

c)usin one down to the slide of the rings then fitting the pin into a hole of the
casting using grow

d)using a externalto the ring&using upper casting half to trap that when the
casting are clean blent

ans:d

2611. when the centrifugal pump is operated with a positive section head,the
inner end of the stuffing box is -----------
a. under a vacuum &air tends to leak into the pump through shaft and through
the stuffing box

b. under the preesure &fluid tends to lead from the pump along the shaft
&through the shuffing box

c. sealed by a vacuum &no leakage will occurs

d. sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring

ans b

2612. which of the following statement is correct with regards to the operation
of the centrifugal cargo pump?

a. oil is discharge from the centre of impeller through the outlet

b. gravity causes the oil to flow towards discharge

c. the self priming feature of the centrifugal pump enable it to draw its own
section as its starts

d. the discharge capacity varies directly with the speed of the impeller

ans.d

2613. pump efficiency may be lost as a result of ------------

a. air ehtering the pump through a pin hole leake in the discharge manifold

b. a leak in a gasket on a suction slide of the pump

c. the suction valve in the wide open position

d.the pump being installed too close to the suction tank

ansb
2614. centrifugal pump are designed with sealing lines----------

a. to prevent the fluid being pumped from pounding out of the stuffing box

b.in place of mechanical seal

c.in place of sting rings

d.to prent air from entering the pump casing acting shaft

ans:d

2615. which o f the following action should be taken if during a routline

maintenance inspection of a centrifugal pump,localized scoring on a pump shaft
sleeve is detected?

a. correct the cause of the scoring and repair the sleeve or replace with new one

b.reassemble the unit &provide more water leak off for proper lubrication

c. check for parallel alingnment of the sleeve radial faces to the sleeve bores

d. reassemble the unit &adjust the governer to obtain a slower speed

ans .a

2616. to prevent overheating &scoring of the shaft after repacting the stuffing
box which of the following procedure will carried out?

a.tighting the pacting is small increment while the pump is operated

b.tightening the gland in a flame and the backing if off slightly

d)operating the pump slowly and applying oilfreely to use shaft until the packing
it properly sealded
2617. why the discharge preesure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the
discharge pressure of the simple spur gear pump?

a. clearance between the gear teeth &casing is smaller

b. the geer teeth ar smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump?

c. once discharged phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been
completed

d. the herringbone gearpump as 4 spear gears instead of 2

Ans: c2618)why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pumpsteadier

than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?

a)cleareance between the gear teeth and casting is smaller

B)the gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spurgerar pump

c)one discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been
completed

D)the herringbone gear pump has four spur gear instead of two

Ans)c

2619. Lead wrapped flexible packing, rated for temperature of 232 c and shaft up
to 1000rpm will not be suitable for use with---------

a. monel metal shaft

b. steel shaft

c. bronze

ans:c

2620)which of the listed parts is used in a lobe type rotary pump to reduce the
wear of the lobe edges?
a)gibs

b)spur gears

c)casing gears

d)liner plates

ans)a

2621.the process of removing mouiture from air is know as -----------

a. humidification

b. de humidification

c.develop excessive radial thrust &resultant shaft deflected

d. develop excessive radial thrust &resultant impeller deflected

ans:a

2622)increasing the moisture content of conditioned air is known as

A)moisturizing

B)dehumidification

c)vaporizaaiton

d)evaporation

ans :b

2623)a first stage unloader installed in a low preesure air compressor is unable to
completely retract this will result in ------------

a)overheatin of discharge valve

b)loss of moisture in air charging the receiver

c)frequent lifting of the intercooler relief valve

d)an abnormally low intercooler pressure

Ans:d

2624)a viscous film of oil collecteb between the valve face &seat of low pressure
reciprocation air compressore will=====

a)prevent the valve from wire drawing

b)retard the opening &closing of the valve

c)have no effect on compressor operator

d)provide quieter valve operatio

ans:b

2625)The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to------------

a) drain water from the air receiver

b) drain water from the cylinder

c) delay the compression process until the motor is upto speed

d) check pump alignment

ans: c

2626)over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is preventer the ---------

----

a)aftercooler relief valve

b)intercooler relif valve

c)last stage unloaded

d)first stage unloaded

ans:b

2627) air blowing from the intake air filter of an operation air compressor
indicates-------------

a) broken inlet valve

b) broken discharge valve

c) pulsation in the air distribution system

d) over load of air distribution system

ans :a

2628)one method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start up is

accomplished by -----------

a)holding the LP discharge valve open

b)the use of a precharged accumulator

c)using a temporarily opening cylinder clearance pocket

d)temporaliy discharge to the air receiver

ans:c

2629)in a low pressure air compreesor the loss of volumentric efficiency normally
result from-----------

a)adiabatic compreesor in the innercooler

b)heating of air leaving the cylinder

c)inaccurate valve timing

d)constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume

ans:b

2630)to obtain maximum efficiency two stage air compressor are usually---------

a)horizontally mounted

b)never fitted with intake filters

c)fitted with intercooler

d)operated in an unloaded condition at all times

ans:c

2631)pump efficiency may be lost as a result of

A)air entering the pump through a pin hole leak in the discharge manifold

b)a leak in a gasket on the suction side of the pump

c)the suction valve in the wide open position

d)the pump being installed too close to the suction tank

ans:b

2632) which of the listed operated condition would have the greast effect on the
volumetic efficiency of an operation reciprocating air compressor?

a)the density of the air entering the compressor

b)the temperature of the air entering the compressor

c)the desighed rotating speed of the compressor

d)a leaking head gasket

ans:d

2633)which of the following problem would beThe probable cause for the fault
operation of a reciprocation air compressor suction valve?

a)carbon build up in the piston ring belt

b)fault operation of a cylinder unloader

c)compressor operating in an area of high relative humidity

d)lifting of intercooler relif valve

ans:b

2634) which of the following problem can result in below normal pressure in the
intercooler of an operating low pressure air compressor?

a)defective pressure pilot valve

b)defective receiver relif valve

c)leaking intake valve on the high pressure cylinder

d)leaking discharge valve on the low pressure cylinder

ans:d

2635)if an electric motor driver air compressor fails to start,it may be due to a---

a)leaking discharge valve

b)jammed sution valve

c)tripped overload relay

d)broken discharge unloader

ans:c

2636)excessive lube oil consumption in a reciprocation air compressor an

indication of------------

a)leakage in the aftercooler

b)leakage in the innercooler

c)broken piston rings

d)defects in the high pressure unloaded

ans:c

2637)if the driver belts on an air compressorfails to start ,it may be due to a -----

a)spraying oil on the belts

b)tightening the belts

c)loosening the belts

d)instslling wide belts

ans:b

2638)on small low pressure air compressor the cylinder are usually lubrication by
the----------

a)splash method

b)mechanical force feed lubrication

c)detached sump method

d)internal cooling passage in the cranks&connecting rods

ans:a
2639)the piston displacement rate of a reciprocating air compressor be modified
by changing the----

a)piston speed

b)compressor capacity

c)volumetric efficiency

d)total pressure

ans:a

2640) air compressor receiver should be blow down at least --------------

a)yearly

b)quarterly

c)monthly

d)daily

ans:d

2641)intake valve installed on most reciprocation low pressure air compressore

are actuated by the pressure differential between the air in the cylinder &the
pressure------

a)of the air on the extrenalside of the valve

b)of the push rod&rocker arm assembly

c)sensed by the receiver low pressure limit switch

2642) when the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor
&is used as an aftercooler the reservoir must be----------
a)fitted with a manhole

b)frequently drained of condensed water

c)fitted with a moisture trap at a inlet

sensed be the intercooler diaphragm valve

Ans. A
2643. A knocking sound emitted from an unloaded air compressor a
probably caused by
A. damaged intake valves
B.excessively tight mounting bolts
C. insufficient cylinder lubrication
D. a loose poison
Ans. D
2644. The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure air compressors are
cooled by
A. Water
B. oil
C. air
D. co2
Ans. C
2645. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an after cooler to
A. inject water vapor into the compressed air
B. prevent overheating of first compressed air
C. increase compressor efficiency and economy
D. reduce the compressed air charge density
Ans. C
2646. A squealing sound occurring from within an operating reciprocating air
compressor is an
A. compressor overload
B. motor overload
C. tight compressor bearings
D. badly leaking bearings
Ans. C
 2647. If the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor gradually drops off the
cause could be
A. leaking compressor valves
B. a clogged air filter
C. worn cylinder liners
D. all the above
Ans. D
2648. If there is a sudden drop in the capacity of a reciprocating air
compressor, you should check for
A. broken compressor valves
B. worn piston rings or cylinder liners
C. excessive compressor speed
D. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve
Ans. A
2649. Reciprocating air compressor bearing failure may result from
A. a misaligned crankshaft
B. over tightened drive belts
C. contaminated sump oil
D. all of the above
Ans. D
2650. Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause
A. a broken compressor valves
B. worn piston rings or cylinder liners
C. excessive compressor speed
D. defective pressure switch or pilot valve
Ans. A
2651. Which of the following frequent maintenance procedures is required of
compressed air receivers?
A. a close watch on the temperature.
B. constant cleaning to remove oil and dirt
C. constant testing of the relief valves
D. frequent draining of water
Ans. D
2652. The heat of compression is partially removed from compressed air by
A. intercoolers
B. aftercoolers
C. compressor water jackets
 D. all the above
Ans. D
2653. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler to ¡. Increase the
efficiency of the compressor
¡¡. Reduce the cylinder operating temperature
A. ¡ only
B. ¡¡only
C. Both ¡ and ¡¡
D. Neither ¡ nor ¡¡
Ans. A
2654. If a reciprocating air compressor has a knock occurring in a frequent with
its operating RPM
The cause is probably
A. Misalignment or worn main bearings
B. Insufficient cylinder lubrication
C. Defective or poorly fitted valves
D. All the above
Ans. A
2655. According to the regulations all pressure vessels other than unfired steam
boilers shall be
Protected by relieving devices that prevents the pressure from rising more
than above the maximum allowable working pressure
A. 5 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
Ans. B
2656. A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust and grease on the
surface of an intercooler
Would result in ¡ decrease in volumetric efficiency of the compressor ¡¡
higher volume of air to
Be discharged to the receiver
A. ¡only
B. ¡¡only
C. Both ¡ and ¡ ¡
D. Neither ¡ nor ¡ ¡
Ans. D
2657. One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal
pump is the absence of a
A. volute in the centrifugal type pump
B. volute in the propeller type pump
C. velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump
D. reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump
Ans. B
2658. If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor becomes fouled either
internally or externally
The
A. Total capacity will be reduced
B. Volumetric efficiency will be reduced
C. Discharge will decrease
D. Normal running time will be decreased
Ans. B
2659. Why should a person performing maintenance on an air compressor wire
and tag a system valves
Closed?
A. To prevent the unexpected
B. To protect the equipment
C. To protect the operator performing maintenance
D. Each of the above is correct
Ans. D
2660. If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are loose which of
the conditions below
Will occur ?
A. The driver belts will squeal
B. The unloaders will jam shut
C. The compressor will vibrate
D. The intercooler will leak
Ans. c
2661. Intercooling of a multistage air compressor provides the advantage of
reducing the work of
Compression on the succeeding stages and
A. Condensing part of the original water vapor content
B. Reducing the maximum piston loads
C. Increasing the volumetric efficiency
D. All the above
Ans. D
2662. When one belt of multiple V-belt compressor drive requires replacement all
the belts must be
Replaced because
A. The old belts will otherwise carry all the loads
B. New belts are shorter than old belts
C. The new belts have a tendency to slip
D. All the above
Ans. B
2663. The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors are held in place
by
A. discharge pressure in the safety returns line
B. large Teflon gaskets
C. heavy coil springs
D. tack welding on the sides
Ans. C
2664. A sequealing sound generated by an operating reciprocating air compressor
would indicates
A. loose drive belts
B. badly leaking valves
C. compressor interstage leakage
D. tight drive belts
Ans. A
2665. Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor driven low
pressure reciprocating air
Compressor to repeatedly trip the circuit breaker upon starting?
A. Defective pressure switch
B. Leaking suction unloader
C. Compressor starting against full load
D. Compressor starting without any load
Ans. C
2666. When air compressor are arranged for automatic operation the cylinders
can be unloaded
During starting and stopping by
A. bypassing the discharge to suction
B. fitting depressors which hold the suction valve plates on their seats
C. step unloading the cylinders in a multi-cylinder machine
D. all of the above
Ans. D
2667. If a ship service air compressor failed to unload, the
A. a compressor would dangerously over speed
B. air receiver pressure would be excessively low
C. circuit breaker may open on starting
D. compressor would pump lube oil
Ans. C
2668. Aftercoolers are used with air compressor to
A. reduce the temperature of compressed air
B. decrease the density of compressor air
C. dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air
D. ensure complete expansion of the compressed air
Ans.A
2669. Leaking valves in a low pressure reciprocating, air compressor can
resul, from
A. excessive compressor discharge pressure
B. operating the compressor at excessive speed
C. uneven piston stroke in the compressor
D. abrasion by dust and dirt
Ans. D
2670. If a ship service air compressor operating in intermittent service were
failing to unload,
the
A. compressor would stop abruptly when power was secured
B. compressor would run continuously
C. air receiver indicated pressure would be excessively low
D. compressor would require more than the normal amount of lubrication
Ans. A
2671. Excessive lube oil consumption air compressor can be caused by
A. using a slightly dirty air filter
B. using oil having an excess viscosity
C. intercooler or aftercooler leaks
D. carrying the level higher than normal
Ans. D
 2672. Which of the following problems could cause air to blow out through
the inlet air filter of
A running compressor?
A. Excessive compression in the cylinder
B. A broken intake valve
C. A dirty inlet filter valve
D. An improperly adjusted discharge valve
Ans.B
2673. After disassembly the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air
compressor inlet and
discharge valves is to use
A. ammonia
B. diesel oil
C. gasoline
D. naphtha
Ans. B
2674. If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion
control system and
Other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the
A. control air system
B. forced draft air system
C. supply air system
D. ships service system
Ans. A
2675. A dirty intercooler on the ship service air compressor will result in
A. decreased compression ratio
B. higher than normal power consumption
C. unloader malfunction
D. water in the lubricating oil
Ans. B
2676. Slipping drive belts on a ship service air compressor is a probable
symptom of
A. low tube oil viscosity
B. fouled intercoolers
C. a failed unloader
D. high air receiver pressure
Ans. C
2677. A dirty intercooler on an air compression will cause
A. damage to the unloader operating diaphragm
B. an increase in current flow to the motor
C. high pressure in the receiver and refrig-a-filter
D. an excessive consumption of crankcase oil
Ans. B
2678. Air line lubrications are used in compressed air systems to lubricate
A. the suction and discharge valves
B. tools and equipment served by compressed air
C. air line reducing valves
D. all of the above
Ans. B
2679. If an air compressor is used to supply compressed air to outlets
throughout the engine
Room and on deck of a vessel, the system is known as the
A. combustion control air system
B. supply air system
C. ship’s service air system
D. low pressure deck air system
Ans. C
2680. Which of the following statements represents the path of air flow
passing through a typical
two stages, low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor
A. intercooler, L.P. cylinder H.P. cylinder and air cleaner
B. L.P. cylinder air cylinder, intercooler and H.P. cylinder
C. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, H.P., cylinder and intercooler
D. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder
Ans. D
2681. When one belt of a multiple V-belt requires replacing it will be
necessary to
A. ensure the proper belt dressing is applied
B. ensure the seasoned belts are reinstalled in their proper sequence
C. season the new belt prior to installation
D. replaces the entire belt set
2682. A knocking sound from one cylinder of an operating compressor
indicates
A. a defective or broken high pressure unloader
 B. a loose valve plate
C. excessive overload
D. no compression

2683. which of the following statement describes the function of an air

compreeser intake filter ?

A.protects against pressure on the air inlet valve float

b.provides a positive preesure on the air inlet valves.

c.prevents lubricating oil contamination of the compreesed air supply.

d.protects aginst the damaging effects of airborne solid particles.

Ans:d

2685 . In addition to a preesure gage and a relief valve an air receiver should be
fitted with a?

a.sight glass and manhole

b.thermometer and sight glass

c.thermometer and manhole

d.drain connection

ans:d

2687 if you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 160
strokes/minute,with a 6” diameter cylinder,a 9” stroke and operating with 85%
volumetric efficiency,what is the capacity of this pump?

a.150 gram

b.225 gram
c.300 gram

d.75 gram

ans:c

2689 a compressor operating with an accumulation of dust and grease on the

surface of an intercooler would result in_______i,a high consumption of lube oil ii
higher than normal air pressure in the receiver

A.i only

b.ii only

c. both I and ii

d. neither I nor ii

ans:a

2691 a v-belt that is too high will cause excessive wear of both the belt and
the______

a. Shaft of the prime mover

b. Compresser slave pulley
c. Main bearing of the compressor
d. Prime mover drive pulley
Ans:a

2693 For any given volume of compresed air produced by a multiage air
compressor interage cooling will_____________

A I only

B IIonly

C both Iand II

D Neither IorII
2695 If the intercooler relief valve lifts whild an aircompresser is operating under
load you should check for -_________

a.defective pressure swicht or pilot valve

b.a leak in the intercooler piping

c.leakage through the low pressure unloadercontrol diaphragm

d.leaking high pressure discharge valves

ans:d

2697 leaking valves in an air compressure can be result of _____________

a.excessive discharge pressure

b.abrasion dust,anddr ift

c.excessive compresser speed

d.irregular compression strokes

ans:b

2699 the pressure developed in the high pressure cylinder of reciprocating air
compreser in order to assure an output near the end of it compression stroke is
___________

a.the same as the line discharge period

b.below the line discharge pressure

c.constant through the discharge period

d. above the line discharge pressure

ans:b

2684 an important point of consideration when reaplacing the dry type intake
filters on the air compresser is to______
a.use the same wetting oil on the element as is used in the compresser lubricating
system

b.install a smaller size filter to allow for an expansion of the element

c.install only filter consistisng of a treated paper element

d. select the proper size filter so that air flow is not restrict

ans: d

2686 a reciprocating air compresser is running roughly and vibrating excessively

indicating that the __________

A. compresser over loaded

B. motor is overloaded
C. foundation bolts are loose
D. belts are too tight

ans:c

2688 a compresser operating an accumulation of dust and grease on surface

of an inter cooler would result in _____________I the motor to run warmer
than usual ii.lower density air discharge to the receiver

a.i only

b.ii only

c.both I and ii

d.neither I nor ii

ans:a

2690 the unloading of an air compreesor may be provided

by__________i.holding the intake valve off its seat ii.temporarily relieving the
inercooler to the atmosphere

a.i only
b. ii only

c.both I and ii

d. neither nor ii

ans:c

2692 operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air intake filter can
result in an
__________

a.compressor should run continuously

b.immediate clooging of the intake

c.possible explosion in the compressor

d.deposit of carbon on the valves

ans:c

2694 if a ship service air compressor failed to unload the__________

a.compressor would run continuously

b.air receiver pressure would be excessively low

c.belts could slip when starting

d.compressor would pump lube oil

ans:b

2696 a leaking suction valve in the second stage of two stage,high pressure,air
compressure can cause excessively high_________

a.second stage discharge pressue

b.first stage discharge pressure

c.pressure in aftercooler
 d.compressor final discharge temperature

ans:b

2698 condensate must be drained periodically frpm the air compressor

receives to prevent_________

a.secondstage cylinder lockup

b.oil sump contamination

c.faulty operation of pneumatic valves

d.corrosion of air receiver baffles

ans:c

2900 the volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating air compressor,is the ratio of

the_______

a.adiabatic work of compression to the indicated horsepower

b.work of isothermal compression to the brake horsepower of the motor

c.air indicated horsepower from indicator cards to the brake horsepower input

d.actual amount of air discharge by the compressor to the therotical volume

swept by the movement of the compressor piston

ans:d

2701 the air charge leaving an intercoller or aftercooler of an air compressor

can be expected

to be ……………………………

a.superheated

b.supercooled

c.at or below due point

 d.all of the above

ans.c

2703 air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the compressor

to………………………………..

a.vary their speed according to temperature and load

b.start and come up to speed before air compression begins

c.charge speed according to overload demands

d.reduce compressed air charge density

ans b

2705 if one can drive belt on air compressor is found to be worn you
should…………………………

a.replace the belt only

b.replace all of the belts

c.dress the worn belt

d.adjust belt tension

ans b

2707 carbon deposits forming on the discharge values of an air compressor are
caused by oil deterioration under high pressure. The first step in reducing
these deposits would be to

a.reduce the discharge temperature

b.increase the compression ratio

c.use a high viscosity oil

d.increase the oil volatility

 ans.a

2709 unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor at start up can

be accompolished by …………………………….

a.holding the L.P discharge valve open

b.the use of precharged accumulator

d. temporarily discharging back to the compressor intake

ans.d

2711 on a medium pressure differential piston, reciprocating air compressor,

lubrication of the pistons/cylinders is usually accomplished ………………………………

a.by the splash method

b.with metering type cylinders

c.gravity fed lubricators

d.lube oil flow from the bearing lube oil system

ans.b

2713 which of the listed valves types is typically used as inlet and discharge valves
on modern low pressure air compressor ?

A. poppet
B. rotary
C. reed
D. sliding
ans:c

2715 according to regulations, a welded repair to a ships service air receiver

,other than an emergency repairs at sea, must be ……………………………….

a.inspected and tested by the chief engineer before it may be returned to service
b.completed and then tested at least twice prier to notifying the administrator to
ask for a surveyor

c.made with a backing strip to ensure full penetration

d.made only with the prior approval of the administrator

ans:D

2717. one function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to

A. dry the air discharge from the inter coller

B. minimize the system line pistons
C. receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories
D. remove all the traces from the air

2719. an unloader is installed in ona a n air compressor to

2702. the unloading system on airv compressor will

A. increase compressor discharge pressur on demand

B. increase compressor operating speed as necessary
C. allow the motor to run compressor opposed only by the friction
D. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting

ans:C

2704. regulations specify phrobit seats or disks in pressur vessel relief valves to
be made of

A. cast iron
B. bronze
C. brass
D. stain less stell

ans:A
2706. air compressurs are equipped with unloading systems for the purpose of

A. lekking un loader
B. tripped circuit breaker
C. control line leak
D. defective poo valve

ans:B

2708. air compreesurs are4 required with unloaing systems for the purpose of

A. removing all the but the frictional load during starting

B. reliving inter coolersn of high temp build ups
C. providing high starting torque in the drive motoer
D. seating valve plates during compressor shut down

ans:A

2710. excessively low air pressur occurring in the inter coller of a receprotation
air compressor is caused by

A. leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder

B. leaky discharge valls on the HP cylinder
C. in sufficient inter cooling
D. low am bient air pressur

ans:a

2712. broken valves strips in an operating low pressur , air compressor will cause

A. an imdeiate crank case explosion

B. oil contamination in the compressed air
C. a decereasec in the compressor capacity
D. no imdeate loss of the compressed air capacity

ans:c
2714. the function of the springs used with a channel or plate type valves for
receprotaion air compressor is to

A. open the valves during down ward slopes

B. provide positivt closing of the valves
C. reduce compressor discharge pulsatiuon
D. reduce air in take &exhaust pulsation

ans:B

2716. the major difference between the discharge and the suction valves installed
in most low pressur receprotation air compressors is that

A. one valves seats up ward while the other seats down ward
B. the reed valves used on the discharge or made substantly thicker and
heavier than the suction valves
C. the suction valve springs except a great tension that than the discharge
valve springs
D. the discharge valve spring except a greater tension than the suction vave
springs

ans:A

2718. cylinder inlet valve failure in the low pressure air compressor can be caused
by

A. carbon build up on the pistons from excessive lubrication

B. compressor over speeding due to in chanceail failure in the un loader
C. valve founding due to valve covers being excessively tight
D. striking valves due to carbon build up on the seats

ans:d

2720. an air compressor can be un loaded at startup by

A bypass remove the high pressure stage to the low pressure stage on 100% of
the air compressors

B prevent excessive interstage pressure buildup

C control compressor discharge pressure

D remove all but the frictional load during stating

Ans D

2721 Which of the following statements is true concerning the overall

efficiency of air compressors?

A High pressure compressors are more efficient than low pressure compressors

B Mechanical efficiency of the compressor unit

C Two stage compressors are generally more efficient than single stage
compressors

D The volumetric efficiency is decreased in multistage compressors

Ans C

2722 Which of the following statements is true concerning V-belt drives for
reciprocating air compressors?

A Belts generally stretch slightly during the first few months of use

B An excessively tight belt will overloaded the bearings

C A loose belt will slip on the motor pulley and wear rapidly

D All of the above

Ans D

2723 Condensate must be drained from the intercooler and aftercoolers of an

air compressors because
A the cooling effect of the condensate reduces the compressor efficiency

B a danger of explosion exists whenever water is present in a compressor

C water causes erratic of pneumatic componenents

D the volumetric capacity of the first stage is reduced if water remains

Ans c

2724 According to regulation if a pressure vessel such as ships service air tank
has defects which may impair its safety the tank shall be

A hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to the pressure of the tank

B hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to 1½ times the maximum allowable

working pressure of the tank

C pnenumatically tested at a pressure equal to the working pressure of the tank

D pnenumatically tested at a pressure equal to the 11/2 times of the design

pressure of the tank

Ans B

2725 Regulations require safety and relief valves for air provided with substantial
lifting device, capable of lifting the disk from its seat when the pressure in the
vessel is

A. 50% of that at which the value is set to blow

B. 75% of that at which the valve is set to blow
C. 110% of that at which the valve is set to blow
D. 125% of that at which the valve is set to blow

Ans:B

2726 Which of the following statement is correct when comparing the cylinder
diameters of a two stage reciprocating air compressor?

A. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure cylinder.
 B. The high pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure cylinder.
C. The high and low pressure cylinders will be of equal size.
D. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure cylinder
but the piston stroke will be greater.

Ans:B

PROPELLER, SHAFTING AND STERN TUBE BEARING

2727 Differential pistons used in some reciprocating air compressor serve to

provide

A. A means of disturbing side pressures over a wider area of each cylilnder

B. A means of unloading during start up
C. More than one stage of compression by each piston
D. A variable compression ratio enabling the output to be varied to suit any
load condition

Ans:C

2728 the function of an unloades on a two cylinder two stage medium pressure
air compressor is to

A. Remove all but the friction load on the compressor motor when starting
B. Prevent water accumulation in air lines
C. Reduce motor starting voltage
D. Vary compressor speed

Ans:A

2729 the clearance volume for a single stage compressor is defined as the space
created between the

A. Top of the piston and bottom side of head with the piston at BDC
B. Piston and head including the space around the piston to the top of the
upper ring and under the valves with the piston at TDC
 C. Bottom of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC regardless of
upper ring location and valve placement
D. Top of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC as compared to that
which exists between the top of the piston and bottom side os head at BDC

Ans:B

2730 One cause of leaky valves in a low pressure air compressor may be
attributed to

A. Running with an air filter element different from that required by the
original manufacturer’s specifications
B. Excessive operating hours without carrying out preventive maintanence
C. The compressor running too fast
D. Excessive discharge pressure

Ans:B

2731 Compared to poppet and the other mechanically operated valves which of
the following advantages is gained by using a thin plate low lift type valve in an
low pressure air compressor?

A. They improve compression efficiency

B. They operate with a minimum of noise
C. They are simple and easy to replace
D. all the above

Ans: D

2732 if all of the air charge has been lost from ship service air receiver the
compressor mechanical unloading system will

A. Fail to work and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the
compressor will be overloaded
B. Fail to work but the compressor having no load will start with little or no
difficulty
C. Still functionality normally at start-up
 D. Still function normally but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor

2733 Which combination of the main shaft segments listed below that are
located far from the main engine are connected by the inboard stern tube
coupling

A. Line shaft and stern tube shaft

B. Line shaft and thrust shaft

C. Thrust shaft and stern tube shaft

D. Stern tube shaft and tail shaft

Ans: A

2734 Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the spilt
inflatable seal installed aft of the primary seal assembly for the propeller
shaft?

A. To serve as a seal when adding packing to the stuffing box

B. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when the ship
is waterborne
C. To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not rotating
D. To provide a ready means for the entry of cooling water

Ans:B

2735 the exposed portion of the outboard propeller shaft is projected against
seawater corrosion by

A. A heavy lubricant
B. A covering of plastic, rubber, or shrunk on composition sleeve
C. A corrosion resistant paint
D. A layer of oxidation formed when the metal of the shaft is exposed to
seawater

Ans: B
2736 One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for drawing a
vessel’s tallshaft depends upon the design to reduce stress concentrations in
accordance with class standards which construction method meets this design
criteria?

A. Spooned keyway and slotted key

B. Stress relief grooves at the aft end of the propeller and forward end of the
liner
C. Keyway cut as to give a sharp rise from the buttom of the keyway to the
shaft surface
D. All the above

Ans: A

2737 An excessive amount of water is prevented from entering a vessel using a

water lubricated stern tube bearing by the use of the

A. Propeller hub
B. Lignum vitae
C. Shaft packing
D. Labyrinth seal

Ans: C

2738 if water were a semisolid the linear distance a propeller would advance in
one revolution is the

A. Blade thickness fraction

B. Mean width ratio
C. Pitch
D. Skew back factor

Ans: C

2739 the lignum vitae in a stem tube bearing is normally lubricated with

A. Grease
B. Oil
 C. Water
D. Tallow

Ans: C

2740 Which of the statement listed accurately applies to controllable pitch

propeller systems?

A. A pitch indicator is to be fitted on the navigation bridge for vessels 400

gross tons and above
B. Independent remote control of pitch is to be provided at or near the oil
distribution box. Tests of its operation are to be performed in the presence
of the surveyor
C. After installation in the vessel, the complete piping system is to be
subjected to a hydrostatic test equal to 1.25 times the design pressure
D. The arrangement of piping is to be such that a single failure in one part of
the piping or pump unit will not impair the integrity of the remaining parts
of the system

Ans: D

2741 Compared to a constant pitch propeller, a controllable pitch propeller

A. More efficiently uses available engine power

B. Operates at a lower efficiency att a fixed speed
C. Produces the same torque at lower engine power
D. Develops its rated power at a lower speed

Ans: A

2742 The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller known as a

fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits?

A. Reduces turbidness
 A. To serve as a seal when adding packing to the stuffing box
B. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when the ship
is waterbome
C. To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not rotating
D. To provise a ready meansfor the entry of cooling water

Ans: B

2743 Water leaking through the stern box is used to accomplish which of the
following actions?

A. Cooling
B. Lubrication
C. Flushing
D. All the above

Ans: D

2744 Some vessels are equipped with a water lubricaed tube when at sea,
operating under normal conditions, the water servicevalve from the ship’s
saltwater system to the bearing should be

A. Closed and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing

B. Closed and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing
C. Open and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing
D. Open and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing

Ans: B

2745 The device used to retain the packing that keeps water from entering the
ship through the opening where the propeller shaft passes through the hull, is
called a

A. Packing nut
B. Hawsepipe
C. Stuffing box
D. Seal cage
Ans: C

2746 Excessive propeller vibration may occur as a result of

A. Operating at low speed

B. High water pressure under the hull
C. Cavitation
D. Operating in deep river channels

Ans: C

2747 Which of the following statements is correct concerning requirement for

propellers?

A. A propellermay not be changed with one of a different pitch unless stress

evaluations are supplied and permission is granted by a marine surveyor.
B. When steel propellers are used zinc anodes are to be fitted on the
forwarded most section of the rudder assembly
C. The exposed steel is to be protected from the action of the water by filling
all spaces between the cap, hub and shaft with a suitable material
D. Ultrasonic examinations of the propeller may be performed in lieu of
required drydocking periods, provided certified copies are distributed to
the proper regulatory bodies.

Ans: C

2748 Whichof the components listed is used to connect several sections of line
shafting?

A. Inboard stern tube couplings

B. Bolts fitted through flange type couplings forged integral with the shaft
sections
C. Muff type outboard couplings
D. All of the above types

Ans: B

2749 unusuall hull or propeller shaft vibrations caused by

 A. Excessive engine speed
B. Slop in a hydrulic clutch
C. Slight over heating of the line shaft spring bearings
D. High engine speed in deep water

Ans; A

2750 When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating frequency
become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is known as the

A. Synchronous speed

Page 145

B.Helps with lubrication

C.protects the nut

D.all the above

Ans.c

B.sympathetic speed

c.critical speed

d.breakway speed

ans.c

2751 keyless propeller hubs secured to tailshafts by “pilgrim nuts” are

removed by ……………

A spring loaded jacks

B hydraulic pressure

C heating with torch

D hydraulic lever arms

Ans.b

2752 When the propeller blades are integral with the hub,the propeller is called
a…………………

A. Built up propeller
B. Solid propeller
C. Controllable propeller
D. Suction back propeller

Ans:B

2753 In order to prevent overheating of the packing in the steam tube stuffing
box……………….

A. the gland is properly adjusted to permit a slight leakage of sea water

B. stave-type rubber seals are used
C. cooling water is supplied from the fresh water cooling system
D. the gland nuts must be tightly taken up to prevent any water leakage

Ans: A

2754. Any unusual, or new vibration in the hull or propeller shafting can be a
indication of _________

A. clutch slippage
B. overheated bearings
C. high engine speed
D. propeller unbalance

ans:D

2755

Following the withdrawal of the tail shaft,whichnon-destructive test

could be used to locate cracks?1 liquid penetrant dye 2.magnatic flux
 A .1 only

B.2 only

C.Both 1 and 2

D: nether 1 or 2

Ans C

2756

By which of the following means is force efficiently lower to vary the pitch of the
blades on a modern controllable pitch propeller

A: hydraulic

B: mechanical

C: pneumatic

D: electrical

Ans: a

2757

A piece is missing from one blade of a four bladed propeller and could result In

A: accelerated stem bearing wear

b:excessive shaft vibration

c: unusual noises

d: all of the above

Ans D

2758 inspection of a vessel’s propeller durind dry docking should include

(A) noting the condition of the fair water

 (B) inspecting the locking device
(C) Logging inspection results in the official deck log
(D) All the above
Ans B

2759 when the tailshaft is drawn from a vessel in drydock,which of the following
inspections is required to be carried out?

(A) The propeller hub taper and shaft keyway should be inspected for cracks
and corrosion
(B) The stern bearing alignment with the stern frame should be checked
(C) The interior of the stern tube should be inspected for leaks
(D) The shaft liner should be removed and inspected for cracks
Ans A

2760 in a water cooled stern tube at slight leakage of water across the packing
gland is provided to

(A) Flush all the dirt and grit from the gland
(B) Flush all dirt and grit from the bearing slaves
(C) Keep the gland packing cool
(D) Keep the stern tube fair water cool
Ans C

2761 when a vessel is underway, a small amount of water is allowed to leak

through the water lubricated stern tube stuffing box in order to

(A) Flush out slit and mud which can accumulate from shallow water
(B) Prevent over heating of the package
(C) Ensure positive coolant flow through the strut bearing
(D) Prevent seizing of the rubber strips in the bearing bushing
Ans B

2762 the conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller,known as

fairway cone, provides which of the following benefits?

(A) Reduce turbulence

 (B) Help with lubrication
(C) Protect against electrolytic corrosion
(D) All the above
Ans A.

2763 propeller pitch speed minus ship speed divided by the propeller pitch is
termed

A. Apparent slip
B. True slip
C. Pitch
D. Propulsive efficiency

Ans: A

2764 which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ship’s hull via
the propulsion shaft?

A. stern tube packing or mechanical shaft seal

B. deflector ring and drain
C. spring bearings
D. oiler rings

Ans : A

2765 vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or left hand. A right
hand propeller t turn Clockwise when viewed from
A. the bow
B. the stern
C. the port side
D. the starboard
Ans : B
2766 Which of the following nondestructive testing methods can be used to
detect a suspended subsurface defect in a tailshaft liner?
 A. Dye penetrant
B. Magnetic particle
C. Ultrasonic
D. All of the above
Ans : C
2767 which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated stern
tube bearing installations?
A. it receives its oil supply from a branch line of the main lube oil system.
B. No shaft liner is needed in the area of the babbitied bearing surface.
C. the system pressure must be lowered when maneuvering in port to
prevent blowing the outer oil seal.
D. for precise regulation of the bearing temperature the system is
required to have its own oil cooler.
Ans B
2768 It is necessary to test the hydraulic system of a controllable pitch propeller.
According to regulation what should be done?
A. The vessel must be drydocked and the propeller removed when
performing this test
B. The system pressure should be prevented from exceeding the maximum
allowable Operating pressure set forth by the manufacturer.
C. The system should be tested at the pressure of 1½ times the maximum
allowable pressure.
D. All necessary repairs must be approved by the chief engineer of the
vessel.
Ans C
2769 which of the following actions pertaining to saltwater lubricated stem lube
stuffing boxes, is usually observed when the ship is expected to be in the port for
an extended period?
A. The stuffing box is continually flushed
B. The drain connection is left opened
 C. The stuffing box gland is lightened
D. The packing is adjusted for greater cooling or replaced
Ans : C
2770 After packing is added to the stern tube stuffing box, which of the following
procedures should be observed toinsure even lightening of the glad?
A. Listen for a smooth, regular sound
B. Measure the distance between the gland and the stuffing box with a
rule
C. Judge by feeling the gland for an increase in heta as it is being
D. Open the derain connection to allow seawater to flow in and make the
distance even
Ans : B
2771 A bronzed sleeve is secured to the propeller tailshaft by
A. Keying
B. Shrinking
C. Threading
D. Pressing
Ans : C
2772 which of the following statements represent an aperating characteristics of
neoprene or rubber stern tube bearings?
A. No stern tube packing is required
B. The bearing is lubricated by seawater
C. Propeller shaft vibration will not damage these bearings
D. Neoprene bearings are less abrasion resistant that bronze bearings
Ans : B
2773. When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating frequency
become synchronized at a particular speed, the speed is known as the,

A. Breakaway speed
B. Critical speed
 C. Synchronous speed
D. Sympathetic speed
Ans. B
2774. which of the following statements describes the advantage of the
mechanical shaft sealing system over the stuffing box and packing method of
shaft sealing for propulsion shafting?

A. It eliminates the repairing or the renewing the shaft sleeve

B. It is fully automatic in operation
C. It allows for the removal and reinstallation of all parts without without
dismantaling the shafts
D. Each of the statement above is correct
Ans. D
2775. stern tubes and strut bearings lined with hardwood and rubber
composition materials are lubricated with
A. salt water
B. graphite
C. light lubricating oil
D. heavy lubricating oil
Ans. A
2776. the stern tube flushing connection can be used to,
A. assist in flushing out all packing strips when renewing packing underway
B. provide a position flow of water through the steam tube for lubricating,
cooling, and flushing when required
C. flush out brackish water resulting from extended in port operation
D. serve as the only source of the supply of the water for the stern tube bearing
Ans. B
2777. a vessel has been equipped with oil lubricated stern bearing and is
undergoing a routine dry docking. Which of the following inspections should
be made when the tail shaft has been drawn,
A. the overall condition of the bearing surface should be examined
B. the shaft liner should be inspected for cracks and tested to insure a tight fit
C. the stern tube tested for cracks with dye penetrate
D. all the above
Ans. A
2778. one of the determining factor regulating the time interval for drawing a
vessel tails shaft depending upon the design to reduce stress concentration.
Which of the following factors, in part, would be considered to meet this design
criteria?
A. sprocketed keyway and slotted way
B. stress relief grooves at the forward end of the propeller and aft end of the
linear
C. key way is to be cut so as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of the key way
to the shaft surface
D. all of the above
Ans. B
2779. the purpose of the propeller fair water cone is to
A. lock the propeller nut in position
B. minimize water turbulence
C. eliminate axial thrust
D. eliminate cavitation
Ans. B
2780. the tail shaft usually supported by the
A. spring bearings
B. tail bearings
C. stern tube bearings
D. propeller bearings
Ans. C
2781. regulation require a single tail shaft with water lubricated tail shaft
bearings, stress relieved keyway, and fabricated from the material resisting to
corrosion by sea water, to be drawn and examined once in every
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 8 years
Ans. C

2782. on a vessel using a water lubricated tail shaft bearing, a single tail shaft
without a special keyway, and not constructed of materials resistant to corrosion
by sea water, the tail shaft must be drawn and examined twice within any
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years
Ans. B
2785 To anneal the copper gasket , you should heat the gasket ---------------------

a. And quench it in oil

b. Cherry red and quench it in water
c. And let it cool slowly in air
d. And carbonize it.
Ans : C

2786 copper is sometimes used for fluid power lines because it ---------------

a. Has good resistance to high temperature

b. Has high resistance to corrosion
c. Withstands heavy vibration under heavy system loads
d. Resists hardening under stress

Ans :B

2787 which of the following propeller material will not require stress relief
treatment after minor repairs, straightening of the tips or the thinning of the
blade edges?

a. Manganese bronze
b. Nickel manganese bronze
c. Manganese nickel aluminium bronze
d. Nickel aliminium bronze

Ans D

2788 in certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each pass to

a. Reduce internal stresses

b. Increase the temperature gradient in the weld area
c. Allow the use of smaller welding rods
d. Eliminate the need for post heating

Ans A
2789 The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of hydrogen sultide
is greatest for-----

a. Low strength steel

b. High strength steel
c. Rubber sealing element
d. Aluminium

Ans B

2790 which of the listed effect represent the purpose of heat treating steel --------
---

a. Develop ductility
b. Improve machine quantities
c. Relieve stresses
d. All of the above

Ans : D

2791 when using the circular magnetice particle method to non destructive test a
weldment the best result are obrtained when the --------------

a. Current is flowing at right angles to discontinuity

b. Magnetic field is parallel to the discontrinuity
c. Magnetic field is at right angle to the discontinuity
d. Defect is located outside parallel flux path of the prods

Ans C

2792 which of the listed methods used for testing the metal, measures the ability
of the metal to absorb the energy of a load rapidly applied to the member?

a. Brinell only
b. Charpy only
c. Charpy and brinell
d. Rock well and brinell
Ans : B

2793in radiographic inspections the standard test piece included in every

radiograph provides an effective check on the overall wuantity and bears a
numerical relation to the thickness of he part being tested. This piece is called a/
an-------------

a. Penetrometer
b. Intensimeter
c. Lead filter gauge
d. Exposure screen

Ans A

2794Which of he non destructive testing method can beaeasily used yet with
good accuracy to detect, locate, identify, and measure defects in welds and base
material regardless of material type and structure?

a. Radiography
b. Ultrasonics
c. Visible dye penetrant
d. Magnetic particle

Ans B

2795 the internal force of a material which tends to resist deformation when
subjected to external force is known as -----------

a. Stress
b. Strain
c. Sheer strength
d. Ultimate tensilr strength

Ans A

2796 Which of he non destructive testing method is suitable for detecting and
identifying a diameter subsurface void in six inch diameter stainless steel shaft?
 a. Magnetic particle
b. Radiography
c. Ultrasonic
d. Dye penetrant

Ans B

2797. copper sheet metal that is to be used as gasket is usually annealed by

heating it to cherry red colour and then

a. dousing it in cold water

b. cooling it slowly in air

c. quenching it slowly in oil.

d. drawing its temper quickly

ans B

2798. reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the

hardening temperature and then cooling is

a. low temperature hardening

b. case hardening

c. annealing

d. tempering

ans D

2799. when a metal is tempered

a. harder

b. softer

c. less brittle
d. more brittle

ans C

2800. Ferrous metal are containing

a. no iron

b. a large percentage of copper

c. a large percentage of iron

d. a large percentage of aluminium

ans C

STEAM, HEAT AND THERMO DYNAMICS

2801. THE energy associated with molecules is known as ---------

a. kinetic energy

b. potential energy

c. mechanical energy

d. thermal energy

ans D

2802 A bourdon tube – type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon loop to
prevent damage from

a. Extreme thermal stress

b. B. the admission of condensate
c. C. pressure shock
d. D. differential expansion rates.

Ans A
2803. Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design
practices of ship board steam heating systems?

a. provide constant steam service for equipment operating throught the year

b. provide either a common or individual reducing station for eachgroup of units

requiring the same operation pressure

c. run all piping so it ay drained by gravity

d. all the above

ans D

2804. if the fixed orifice in the evaporator steam supply line were to be removed,
the steam pressure reducing valve located upstream would

a. be unable to maintain stream flow unless the proper range spring were to be
installed

b. be suitable for maintaining the required steam flow under all load condition.

c. handle the operation satisfactorily as the control orifice develops an impedance

to the steam flow.

d. all the above

ans A

2805. Recarding the low pressure evoperator steam control orifice in the live
steam supply line, the steam at he outlet of the orifice if not properly condition
will be developed as ----

a. de super heated steam

b. super heated steam

c. saturated steam
d. poor quality steam

ans B

2806. a vapor under pressure stays in contact with , and at the same temperature
as the liquid from which it was generated. The vapor and the liquid in this
situation are therefore, said to be in a/an

a. equilibrium contact

b. latent contact

c. critical state

d. superheated state

ans A

2807. which of the following statements concerning the opertation of steam

pressure reducing valves is correct

a. reducing station relief valves must be lifted by hand at once a watch

b. the cut valves at the outlet of the reducing valves should be throttled when in
operation.

c. reducing valve should be warmed up and drained before as they are adjusted

d. reducing valve should be absolutely reliable and reuire no routeline

maintenance.

Ans C

2808. the basic function of a steam trap is to

a. regulate the flow of steam leaving a heater

b. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent

c. limits the flow of steam a heater until it has given up its latent heat of fusion
d. eliminate steam – pipe water hammer

ans B.

2809. mechanical energy in transition is referred as to

a. horsepower

b. work.

c. heat.

d. velocity

ans B

2810. which of the following forms of energy is usually associated with relatively
large bodies or objects?

a. chemical energy

b. mechanical energy

c. thermal energy

d. electrical energy

ans B

2811. the rate of heat transform from a hot region to cold region is affected most
by the

a. size of th hat sink

b. temperature difference between the regions

c. size of a heat source

d. total heat of the system

ans B
2812. the steam supplied to operate a steam driven reciprocating pump is usually
obtained from the

a. desuperheated steam line via a reducing station

b. auxillary exhaust line

c. main steam line via reducing station

d. contaminated steam generator

ans A

2813. the difference between the pressure at a point being measured and that o a
perfect vaccum is known as

a. internal pressure

b. gauge pressure

c. absolute pressure

d. external pressure

ans C

2814. medium temperature hot water systems have been used in place of small
auxillary boilers producing 7 bar steam with

a. 138oc water systems

140oc water systems

c. 160oc water systems

d. 171oc water systems

ans C

2815. steam supply piping to deck machinaery is insulated in order to

a. maintain good turbulent free steam flow through the pipe

b. prevent super heating of the steam.

c. reduce the heat loss from the systems.

d. contains small streaks

ans C

2816. by which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one body to
another

a. radiation

b. convection

c. conduction

d. all the above

ans D

2817. the definition of super heat refers to th e amount of heat necessary to raise
the temperature of fluid and appliesto I vapour

Ii liquids

a. I only
b. Ii only
c. Both I and ii
d. Neither I nor ii
Ans A

2818. some auxiliaries are notr designed to handle auxillary steam at boilers
pressure. Which of the devices listed is usually fitted in the branch line to deliver
steam at the correct pressure.

a. an office

b. a steam pressure reducing valves

c. a nozzle valve

d. a constant quantity regulating valve

ans B

2819. the action of water being circulated within a natural circulation boilers is an
example of what form of heat transfer?

a. radiation

b. conduction

c. forced convection

d. natural convection

ans D

2820. the movement of the steam piping as a result of changes in temperature is

a best compensated for the use of

a. union joint

b. expansion joint

c. flexitsllic gasket

d. rigid brackets

ans B

2821. the sum of sensible heat and the latent heat of any substance is known as

a. total heat

2823 a suitable location for the instillation of an impulse type steam trap
would be in the_________________
 a.horizontal run of drain line from the lowest point at the outlet of the
heat exchanger

b.steam supply line to a feedwater heater

c.drain line from a high point in the main steam line expansion loop

d.vacuum drag line from the atmosphere drain tank to the main
condenser

ans:a

2824 the operation of the thermostatic steam trap depends upon

the________________

a.action of a float within a chamber

b.difference in movement of two dissimilar bimetallic strips not

fastened together

c.fact that hot water under pressure ten is to flash into steam when
its vapour pressure is rapidly reduced

d.change in the amount of vapour produced within an enclosed

chamber

ans:d

2825 heat which brings about a change in the physical state of a substance
without a change in temperature is called___________

a.specific heat

b.sensible heat

c.latent heat

d.ambient heat

ans:c
2826 the heat required to change a substance from a liquid to a gas without
experiencing a temperature change is defined as the latent heat of __________

a.fusion

b.vapourisation

c.sublimation

d.condensation

ans:b

2827 how many BTU’s must be added to one pound of water at 32°F to raise
the temperature to 212°F?

a.16 BTU’s

b.144 BTU’s

c.180 BTU’s

d.970 BTU’s

ans:c

2828 thermostatic steam pressure reducing valves are used in the fuel oil
service system to control the_______________

a.double bottom fuel oil tank temperature

b.heater supply steam flow

c.pressure of the fuel supplied to the burners

d.attemperator steam flow in the heater discharge circuit

ans:b

2829 heat may be transferred by_________________

a.conduction
 b.convection

c.radiation

d.all of the above

ans:d

2830 power is defined as the______________

a.rate of doing work

b.amount of force needed to overcome friction

c.amount of work accomplished

d.distance through which the object is moved

ans:a

2831 insulation on deck steam piping must be installed securely as

__________________

a.loose insulation contributes to steam leaks

b.deck steam lines are subjected to vibration

c.steam driven machinery cannot run with loose insulation

d.loose insulation prevents normal pipe expansion

ans:b

2832 which of the following statements represents the definition of energy?

a.energy is work that has been accomplished

b.energy is the capacity for producing an effect

c.energy is work being done

d.energy is power
 ans:b

2833 which of the following terms of energy concerns the forces which binds
atoms together in a molecule?

a.thermal energy

b.mechanical energy

c.chemical energy

d.electrical energy

ans:c

2834 which of the following terms could be applied to the simple definition
“the energy of motion”?

a.electrical energy

b.thermal energy

c.potential energy

d.kinetic energy

ans:d

2835 which unit of measurement is used to measure mechanical potential

energy?

a.british thermal units

b.horsepower

c.kg-m

d.calories

ans:c

2836 thermal energy in transition is also referred to as ___________________

 a.heat

b.power

c.horsepower

d.foot-pound

ans:a

2837 steam traps should be installed at the lowest outlet point of the heat
exchanger in a horizontal run of pipe.which of the following installation
considerations should also be maintained?

a.they should be installed with their main axis horizontal

b.they should be installed unpainted and wrapped in an insulation blanket

c.a bypass around the trap is unnecessary if the steam input pressure
never exceeds 0.7 kg/cm2

d.they should remain uninsulated and unpainted

ans:d

2838 which of yhe following modes of heat transfer does NOT requires any
physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?

a.radiation

b.conduction

c.natural convection

d.all of the above

ans:a

2839 A bourdon tube pressure gage is protected from the effects of the steam
entering the pressure element by a/an__________________
 a.exposed , uninsulated coil in the line leading to the gage

b.impulse-type steam trap in the gage line

c.leather or neoprene diapharm in the gage line

d.spring loaded bellows in the gage line

ans:

2840 which of the following statements concerning energy is correct?

a.energy can be created or destroyed

b.energy may not be transformed

c.the total quantity of energy in the universe is always same

d.none of the above

ans:

2841 the boiliong point of water in an open container at sea level is 100°c if the
pressure on the open container is decreased, the boiling point will
_________________

a.increase

b.decrease

c.increase and then decrease

d. decrease and then increase

ans:b

2842 the difference between the pressure at a point being measured and that of
a perfect vacuum is known as______________________

a.internal pressure

b.guage pressure
 c.absolute pressure

d.external pressure

ans:c

2843 which of the following best describes the thermodynamic effect on the
pressure and the volume relationship with regards to saturated gases?

a.as pressure decreases,volume increases

b.as pressure increases,volume decreases

c.as pressure decreases,volume decreases

d.as pressure increases,volume increases

ans:a

2844 pigtails or siphons are used to protect bourdon tube-type gages from the
direct exposure to steam by _______________

a.changing the direction of the steam flow

b.rapidly reducing the stream velocity

c.creating a condensate seal

d.bleeding off a portion of the steam

ans:c

2845 how can you determine the data that the pressure vessels on your ship
will require a hydrostatic test or internal inspection?

a.check the boiler equipment list

b.check the pressure vessel block on the certificate of inspection

c.check the class certificates

d.check the pressure vessel addenda to the vessel’s SOLAS certificate

 ans:b

2846 a turbine exhaust pressure of 1.013 bar abs is equal to

___________________

a.00.000 bar g

b.00.5 bar g

c.01.470 bar g

d.2 bar g

ans:a

2847 a leaking steam trap located in the return lines from a heating system is
indicated by excessive____________

a.drain tank steaming

b.scale returning from the convertors

c.steam pressure In the convertors

d.water in the heating system

ans:a

2848 admitting steam to an improperly drained heating system could result in

________________

a.cutting valve seating surfaces

b.high velocity slugs of water in motion in the system

c.damage due to water hammer

d.all of the above

ans:d
2849 a pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating
general service pump could be caused by__________________

a.lower than normal supply steam temperature

b. lower than normal supply steam pressure

c.improper adjustment of steam cushion valves

d.loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber

ans:c

2850 a bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon loop to
prevent damage from the direct effects of _______________

a.pressure shock

b.uneven expansion

c.entering condensate

d.entering steam

ans:d

2851 latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be added to a substance
in order to change it from a ________________

a.solid to liquid

b.liquid to vapour

c.solid to vapour

d.all of the above

ans:d

2852 which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the
pilot slide valve?
 a.moving tappets

b.adjusting of the tappets collar

c.stay rods

d.movement of the main piston through the steam chamber

ans:d

2853 a major controlling factor in the location of the condensate return piping
from a heating system is/are______________

a.the requirement of a gravity return

b. the requirement for short lateral run

c. the requirement to minimize conflict with head room and other services

d.all of the above

ans:a

2854 the heat identified by only a change in temperature is known as

_____________________

a.sesible heat

b.latent heat

c.total heat

d.residual heat

ans:a

2855 water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by

_________________

a.filling the auxillary boiler with the cold water

b.steam admitte4d to a cold pipe

 c. filling the auxillary boiler with the hot water

d.draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve

ans:b

2856 the operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the

________________

a.thermal expansion of a fluid

b.position of a float

c.tendency of hot water to flash in to steam

d.flow characteristics of a liquid as it passes through an orifice

ans:a

2857 which of the listed types steam traps operates on the principle that hot
water flashes to steam when its vapour pressure is rapidly reduced?

a.ball float

b.thermostatic

c.bimettalic

d.impulse

ans:d

2858 which of the statements listed concerning heat transfer is correct?

a.heat is always transferred at constant rate

b.heat transfer rate increases as temperature difference increases

c.the rate of heat transfer is not affected by temperature difference

d.the high temperature region is known as a heat sink

 ans:b

B.The flow of liquid to the unfired pressure vessel must be increased.

C.the vapour must be removed from contact with the liquid from which it was
generated.

D.The operating pressure must be rated.

Ans:C

2861)The latent heat of water vapor in air is dependent upon the

A.dry bulb temperature

B.wet bulb temperature

C.dew point

D.dry point

Ans:c

2862)According to regulations,a boiler combustion control system may be tested-

A.a pressure not less than 1.25 times the maximum allowable working pressure

B. a pressure not less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure

C.the maximum allowable working pressure of the system

D.the normal operating pressure of the system provided full loading is

accomplished

Ans.c

2863)Which of the listed statements describes specific heat?

A.The amount of required to change the temperature of one pound of a

material,one degree C
B. The amount of required to change the temperature of one pound of ice, one
degree C

C. The amount of required to change the temperature of one pound of butter,

one degree C

D.all the above.

Ans:D

2864)if the system flow entering the evaporating system supply orifice has a
quality of 95%which of the following would be true?

A.the steam at the outlet would obtain higher degree desuper heat

B.the steam at outlet would be at higher superheat than when it is supplied 100%

C.the steam would obtain a lower absolute pressure than when it is supplied at
quality 100%

D.the entrained moisture will become a totally saturated vapour prior to any
superheat being acquired by steam

Ans.d

2865)Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design

practices for shipboard steam heating systems?

A.provide orifice type bypasses for traps and automatic valves

B.provide a dirtpocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater
return

C.provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and chec valve on
the return

D.wherever possible install vertical runs condensate piping

Ans:B
2866)if wet steam is supplied to the air ejectors of a low pressure evaporator,the
passage of the mixture through the nozzles will

A.improve overall vaccum

B.cause the potential level of the kinetic energy to be partially converted to

thermal energy

C. cause the existing level of the thermal energy to be totally converted to kinetic
energy

D. cause the level of the thermal energy to be converted to potential energy

Ans.B

2867)Wwhich of the listed forms of heat transfer.is illustrated by the flow of

combustion gases through a boiler

A.Natural convection only

B.forced convection only

C.both natural convection and forced convection

D.none

Ans:C

2868)when replacing a steam pressure reducing valve what information is

required for the selection?

A.maximum and minimum inlet pressure

B. reduced pressure or pressure range

C. maximum and minimum continuous flow rates(kgs/hr)

D.all the above

Ans .d
2869)Which of the following forms of energy is demonstrated through the
process of combustion

A.Chemical energy

B.mechanical energy

C.thermal energy

D.electrical energy

Ans:A

2870)What is the potential energy of an object weighing 10 kgs at a height of 10

metres

A.10 kg-mtr

B.20 kg-mtr

C.100 kg-mtr

D. 1000 kg-mtr

Ans:C

2871)the basic function of a steam trap includes which of the following processes

A.regulate the flow of condensate from a heater

B. regulate the flow of steam from a heater

C. regulate the flow of steam to a heater

D. regulate the flow of condensate to a heater

Ans:A

2872)Before starting a reciprocating steam driven pump that has been ideal for a
period of time you should

A.open the steam line root valve

B.drain the steam cylinder

C.close the steam cylinder drains

D.open the liquid cylinder drains

Ans:B

2873)Which of the listed method s of heat transfer takes place when two
substances of different temperatures are in physical contact with each other?

A.Radiation

B.Conduction

C.convection

D.each of the above

Ans.B

2874)which of the listed temperatures represents the saturation temperature for

water at a saturation pressure of 1bar abs(101.34kp)

A. 92 *c
B. 100 *C
C. 160 *c
D. 220 *c
Ans:b

2875)which of the following terms is used to indicated the flow of heat will resut
in temperature change?

A. Latent heat
B. Sensible heat
C. Convection
D. Radiation
Ans:b
2876)the eqation energy in=energy out is the simple way of stating the pricple of
the ………………………

A. Concervation of energy
B. Concervation of matter
C. Conservesion of matter to energy
D. Cocervation of enery to matter

Ans :b

2877 which of the following terms would best describe the temperature at which
a liquid boils at a given pressure

A. Degeree of saturation
B. Saturation temperature
C. Super heated temperature
D. Degeree of supper of heat
Ans:b

2878 if the air temrature in a mainifound to be 122f what would be the equivalent
reading on the centigrade scale

A. 35*
B. 40*
C. 45*
D. 50*
Ans:d

2879)a stopper is inserted in to the spout of a closed container in which water has
been heated to a temp of 100c if addition thermal energy is imparted what
changes will occur?

A. Both temp and pressure will rise

B. Pressure alone will rise
C. Temp alone will rise
D. Only a change of state will occur
 Ans: a

2880)if you determine the that a steam recpicating pump is operating with too
long of stroke causing the piston nut to strike the cylinder head you should

A. Completely open the steam cushioning valves

B. Install a smaller nut on the piston rod
C. Adjust the value gear to manufacture specified measurements
D. Install a shorter piston rod
Ans. C

2881. Steam tables can be used to obtain the _____

A. Values for properties of water vapours at various conditions

B. Specific fuel consumtion condition
C. Steam generating capacity of a vessel boilers
D. Machenical Efficient of main unit
Ans. A

2882. The sensible heat of air is depented opon the ____

A. Dry pulb temperature

B. Wet pulb temperature
C. Saturation temperature
D. Water vapuor super heat
E. ANs. A

2883. Energy existing in a system as a result of the relative velocities of two or

more objects is termed……………………………….

A. potential energy

B. pressure energy

C. kinetic energy
 D. relative energy

Ans: C

2884. The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of a substance 1*F
is called……………………

A. its specific heat

B. its latent heat

C. a british thermal unit

D. its adiabatic heat

Ans: A

2885. The aft, starboard bilge well can not be pumped out and backflushing has
not been successful. The next practical solution will be to carry out which of the
following actions?

A. List the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of
the voage

B. Place 75 ltrs of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well for one hour
to dissolve the stoppage.

C. Take all necessary steps to properly and safely pump out the affected bilge
well, then manuall muck it out

2886. During routine maintenance the bilge manifold valves are removed. Prior
to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve…………………

A. Disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary

B. Bonnet fiange gasets should be renewed if they were cut or torn
C. Stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened the glands
have bottomed out or the glands cannot be tightened
D. All the above
 Ans:d

2887. which of the following actions should be taken first if one bilge well of a
multible section bingesystem is unable to pumbed out

A. Open the bige pump for inspection

B. Remove each of the section manifold valves
C. Remove only the section manifold valve to the affected bilge well
D. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire systemis
affected
Ans:d

2888.accidental flooding of the engine room bilges by the bilge main is prevented
by

A. Stop check valves installed in the bilgeSection manifold

B. Using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump
C. Installing educators in all bilge rose boxes
D. Installing a swing check before each bilge valve
Ans:a

2889.an independent bilge suction is required for

A. Ballads tanks
B. Sludge tanks
C. Machinery space bilge
D. Gargo hold bilge
Ans:c
2890)the emergency bilge suction valve is typically used
A.to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extermely dirty
B.when the main condenser becomes fouled in order to provide additional
cooling water circulation
C.to connect the rose box to the independent bildge suction
D.if the bildge become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means
Ans:D
2891)Which of the following statements indicate compliance with regulations
conserning a vessels bile system

A.all bildge manifold suction shall be capable of being locally controlled from
above the floor plates
B.the system must be capable of operation nder all practicable conditions
whether the vessel is upright or listed
C.peak tanks chain lockers and deck over poak tanks mat be drained by
educators,ejectors
2892)What can happen to oil based mud when contaminated with salt water?
A.nothing as salt water is an ingredient of oil based mud
B.small amounts can cause thickening of oil based flowing
C.small amounts react with gel particles in the mud causing them to floculate
2893. regulations for bilge and ballast piping require that………….

A. all oil and water tanks be connected to the bilge system

B . the bilge pumping system be operable under all practicable conditions\

C . peak tanks and chain lockers have separate electric pumps

D .all of the above

Ans. B

2894. Regulations require the emergency bilge system to……………..

A. be independent of the main bilge system

B. be a part of the independent bilge system

C. have an independent priming pump

D. have a cross connection to ballast system

Ans.A

2895. Referring to regulations the emergency bilge system……………

A. has no independent primary pump

B. is independent of the main bilge system

C. have a cross connection to ballast system

D. is part of the independent bilge system

Ans. B

2896. A compound gage is typically installed on the…………………

 A. suction side of a bilge pump

B. exhaust manifold of an auxillary diesel

C. discharge line from air compressor

D. chemical feed tank of an evaporator

Ans. A

2897. If one of the bilge manifold valves is prevented from seating,the……………

A. bilge well connected to that valve plus the second bilge well being
pumped will be completely emptied

B. bilge system will lose vacuum presenting other bilges from being pumped
out

C. aftermost bilge wells connected to that valve will siphon their contents
to the forward bilge wells
D. all of the above

Ans. B

2898. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat,
the………….

A. bilge well connected to that valve plus the second bilge well being
pumped will be completely emptied

B. bilge system will lose vacuum presenting other bilges from being pumped
out

C. bilge well connected to that valve will siphonats contents to the forward
bilge wells

D. all of the above Ans. B

2899. The bilge system is unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge
well due to the bilge well suction being folded. With two feet of water over the
top of the bilge well, which of the following actions should be carried out?

A send the wiper into the bilge well with a scoop and pait

B. remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the
line

C. simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps

D. transfer half the content of the drum of degreaser into the bilge well and
pump out the bilge well with the system

Ans. B

2900. When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for dewatering the engine
room bilges, you would……………..I use a rotary, liquid piston type pump to obtain
a prime II partially open the sea suction valve then gradually switch over to the
require

A I only

B II only

C either I or II

D neither I nor II

Ans.C

2901.Bilge lines led through tanks , without using a pipe tunnel must be ---------

A of schedule 40 pipe

B fitted with return valves at the bilge manifolds

C coated with coal tar epoxy or similar corrosion resistant substance

D fitted with non return valves at the bilge suction Ans.D

2902. which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge slops for
overboard discharge

A 100 ppm oily water separator

B assembling the lube oil purifier as a separator and assigning it to the

bilge over board

C 15 ppm oily water separator

D a magnetic duplex strainer

Ans.C

2903.the bilge system has been performing well however the aft starboard engine
room bilge well suddenly fails to be pumped out.which of the fOllowing should be
done first to determine the cost

A open the bilge pump for inspection

B remove each of the manifold valves

C remove only the manifold valves to be affected bilge well

D attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire

system is affected

Ans.D

2904. you are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well

That is fouled with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well. What action
should be carried out?

A. send the wiper into the bilge well with a scoop and pait

B. remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the
line

C. simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps

 D it is only the necessary transfer half the condense of a drum of degreaser

Into the bilge well

Ans .B

2905. the aft starboard bilge well is clogged,and backflushing has not been
successful. The next practical solution would be to……………..

A change the trim of the ship to the portion order to pump out the bilges
for the remainder of the voyage

B place 75.7 ltrs(20 gallons) of fuel oil tank washin to the affected bilge
well to clear the blockage

C properly and safely empty the well with the portable pump then
manually muck it out

D all of the above

Ans .C

Sanitary and sewage system

2906. the process of grinding, shredding ,or reducing the size of sewage particles
known as ………………..

A detension

B maceration

C bulking

D chlorinating

Ans .B
2907. In sewage treatment the term maceration refers to the process
of……………….

A breaking up solid matter into fine particles

B precipitating nondecomposed waste in a collection tank

C chemically adjusting the sewage Ph to 7.0

D eliminating bacterium coil from the sewage

Ans A

2908. A p-type trap and drain is used……………………

A for all lavatory sink installations as no other drain type is usable

B whenever the “gray” drain system connection is located in the deck

C whenever the “gray” drain system connection is located in the bulkhead

D as a condensate drain for a superheaters

Ans. C

2909.the drains of the lavatory sinks are fitted with p-type or s-type traps is
……………..

A reduce water velocity and minimizes erosion

B create a strong siphon effect

C provide a cushion of the water to reduce the effects of water hammer

D provide a seal against sewer gas rising into the compartment

Ans.D

2910 A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of

sewage by………………..
 A holding all sewage onboard

B treating sewage in an approved system

C pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container

D all of the above

Ans. D

2911. a pneumatic pressure tank is installed ina sanitary system to ……………..

A reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump

B prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction

C provide a higher pressure in the system then the pump can deliver

D increase water flow through the system

Ans.A

2912 The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent
explosions by………………

A allowing the escape of flammable vapors

B dissipating the heat of a fire

C absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity

D preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank

Ans. B
2913.the process of grinding or shredding sewage into smaller particles known
as……………

A detention

B comminution

C bulking

D skimming

Ans.B

2914 A s-type trap and drain is used……………………..

A for all lavatory sink installations as no other drain type is usable

B whenever the “gray” drain system connection is located in the deck

C whenever the “gray” drain system connection is located in the bulkhead

D as a condensate drain for a superheaters

Ans. B

2915.traps in plumbing drains are designed to help prevent ………………..

A drain noises in the living quarters

B drains clogging at the toilets

C air pockets in the sewer lines

D escape of odours into the living quarters Ans.D

2916 Traps at plumbing drain connections prevent………………

A system clogging
 B escape of odors

C air pockets

D drain noises

Ans. B

HEAT EXCHANGERS

2917 Machinery operating features are designed to help conserve energy. which
of the following results will not contribute energy conservation?

A reduction of friction

B insulation of hot surfaces

C lubrication of moving parts

D elevation of cooler outlet temperatures

Ans. D

2918.the temperature differential occring between the inlet temperature of the

fluid to be cooled medium in a shell-and –tube heat exchanger is greatest in
which of the flow designs listed?

A crosis

B parallel

C counter

D circular

Ans.C
2919 The general purpose of heat exchanger is to…………….

A eliminate hot air from the condenser

B maintain steady pressure in a system

C heat or cool one fluid by means of another fluid

D reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates

Ans. C

2920.the presence of scale and dirt on the salt water side of a tube oil cooler is
usually indicated by …………………………

A clogged lube oil strainers

B seawater leaking into the lube oil system

C decreasing lube oil pressure

D gradually increasing lube oil pressure

Ans.D.

2921 when a heat exchanger is used as a cooler excessive cooling water flow
should be avoided to prevent……………

A erosive tube failure

B waterside deposit buildup

C tube sheet bowing

D water hammer damage

Ans. A
2922.zinc anodes are installed in a marine raw-water cooling system to…………

A inhibit oxidation

B control electrolysis

C prevent scaling

D eliminate corrosion

Ans .B

2923. In a heat exchanger excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to

prevent…………………..

A erosive tube failure

B waterside deposit buildup

C tube sheet bowing

D water hammer damage

Ans. A

2924. sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of the heat
exchangers to……………………

A keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean

B prevent rapid accumulation ofmarine growth

C provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces

D reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals

Ans.D

2925 The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to
 A. prevent leekage past the floating end tube sheet

B. dissipate heat

C. baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass

D. modify to a mixer type cooler

Ans: A

2926 When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a

flash type evaporator, liquid

appears well inside one of the tubes. In order to correct this, you
should

A. reroll the tube

B. seal weld the tube

C. plug the tube

D. all of the above would be considered satisfactory as a temporary repair

until permanent repairs

may be conducted

Ans: C

2927 Hot water heating system converters are selected for the heating load
required plus about 50%

excess capacity to allow for

A. start-up and scaling

B. unusual high demand on the system

C. increase capacity during times of peak demand

D. increase steam and water contact for better efficiency

 Ans: A

2928 Which copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat exchangers and
possesses a high resistance

to corrosion?
A. Red brass
B. Manganese bronze
C. Copper beryllium
D. Cupro-nickel

Ans: D

2929 Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result from

A. high temperature

B. waterside fouling

C. excessive cooling water facility

D. poor heat transfer

Ans: C

2930 The zinc plates are located in the

A. Saltwater side of the conductor
B. Refrigerant side of the condenser
C. Evaporator coils
D. Suction strainer

Ans: A

2931 Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system

A. Liquid strainer
B. Liquid receiver
C. Saltwater condenser
D. Evaporator

Ans: C
2932 In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler the amount of heat
transferred from the hydraulic

fluid to the cooling water depends upon

A. The temperature of the hydraulic fluid
B. The flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid
C. The temperature of the cooling water
D. All of the above

Ans: D

2933 when performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to

determine the source of

suspected air leaks you should use

A. Fresh water at or above the ambient temperature
B. Circulated cold fresh water , while maintaining normal unit operating pressures
C. Air and a soap solution to test all joints
D. Phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black light source

Ans: A

2934 The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing
through a shell-and-tube type

heat exchanger will

A. Remain constant along the tube’s length
B. Be greatest in a single pass counter flow heat exchanger
C. Remain constant throughout the heat exchanger
D. Vary from section throughout the heat exchanger

Ans: D

2935 Which of the following statement is correct concerning heat transfer?

A. Heat is given from a high temperature region known as heat sink
B. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the size of the heat sink involved
C. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the temperature difference between the heat
source and
 heat sink
D. Heat transfer by radiation will occur only by mass motion of a fluid substance

Ans: C

2936 An 8-inch, globe-type, stop-check valve has been installed in the lube-
oil cooler water outlet, with

the flow coming in from the top of the disk. This means that
A. The valve will remain completely open
B. The valve will prevent back flow
C. The valve will never permit water flow from the lube-oil cooler
D. The valve will allow the lube oil temperature to be 10F (5.5 C) cooler than if the
valve were
properly installed

Ans: C

2937 Which of the following condition must exist for heat too flow from one
object to another?
A. The two object must be in physical contact
B. The two object must be the same size
C. There must be an existing temperature differential
D. There must be an existing weight differential

Ans: C

2938 Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell-and-tube type cooler may be

provided for by the

A. Packing and latern rings

B. Floating end tube sheet
C. Shell foundation bolts
D. Directional transverse baffles

Ans: B
2939 In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most common cause of
decreased performance is

A. Loose tube bundle baffle plates

B. Failure of the baffle plate
C. Rupture of the tube bundle
D. Fouling on the seawater side

Ans: D

2940 Evaporators and condensers are two forms of

A. Heat exchangers
B. Liquid receivers
C. Storage receptacles
D. Flow inhibitors

Ans: A

2941 When checking zinc plates, or pencils in the refrigerating system

condenser, you should
A. Paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion
B. Renew the plates at each inspection
C. Replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50%
D. File the plates to change the negative value

Ans: C

2942 In the heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be maintained lower

than freshwater pressure

to
A. Eliminate scaling problems on the saltwater side
B. Reduce erosion of heat exchanger surfaces
C. Ease the load on the service pump
D. Prevent contamination should leaks develop

Ans: D
2943 Which of the statements is true concerning a radiator type heat
exchanger?
A. Raw water is the cooling medium
B. Water cooled exhaust elbows remove the heat
C. The surge tank must be located a minimum of 4 feet above the highest finned tube
D. Air flow provided by a fan is used as the cooling medium

Ans: D

2944 Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against erosion and abrasion by
the use of
A. Metallic packing on the inlet end
B. Fiber bushings in the ferrules
C. Zinc pencils on the waterside
D. Plastic tube end protectors

Ans: D

FUEL OIL PROPERTIES AND PURIFIERS

2945 The tendency of the flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated by its
A. Ignition temperature
B. Flash point
C. Flammable range
D. Convection index

Ans: B

2946 Which of the following statements describes the relationship between

flashpoint and ignition temperature?
A. Both are higher than normal tempetrature
B. The flashpoint is always higher
C. The ignition temperature is always higher
D. They are not necessarily

Ans: C
2947 The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of
a substance independent

Of any outside source of ignition is called……………

A. Explosive range
B. Flash point
C. Ignition temperature
D. Combustion temperature

Ans. Convection index

2948 In order to maximize the performance of an operating centrifuge, youcan

adjust the fuel oil…….. 1 viscosity 11 through put
A. 1 only
B. 11only
C. Both 1 an d11
D. Neither 1 nor 11

Ans. C

2949 The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the……………

A. Lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to momentarily
flash into flame when ignited
B. Lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to continue to
burn once ignited
C. Temperature the fuel oil must be heated to for proper atomization
D. Temperature at which the fuel oil will burn in a boiler furnace

Ans. A

2950 The flash point of a liquid is the…………..

A. The temperature at which it burns freely
B. Temperature at which paraffin wax crystallizes out of the solution
C. Lowest temperature at which it vaporizes enough to form an explosive air/vapor
mixture
D. Ability of a fuel to ignite upon injection into a diesel engine cylinder

Ans, C
2951 The lowest temperature at which fuel combustion becomes self-
sustaining in the presence of a source of ignition is defined as the…………….
A. Auto ignition point
B. Flash point
C. Burning temperature
D. Fire point

Ans. D

2952 The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will
ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is
the………
A. Auto ignition temperature
B. Vaporization temperature
C. Flash point
D. Fire point

Ans. D

2953 Which of the following statements describes the relationship between

viscosity and specific gravity ?
A. Liquids with different viscosities will always have the same specific gravity
B. Liquids with different viscosities will never have the same specific gravity
C. Viscosity and specific gravity are directly proportional
D. Viscosity and specific gravity are not related in that one does not define or limit the
other

Ans. D

2954 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer
because it_______
A. Is an indication of the amount of non combustible material present in the fuel
B. Indicates the quantity of energy released by during a unit amount of the fuel
C. Is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures
D. Reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system

Ans. A
2955 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer
because it ………..

A. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of

fuel

B. is useful for determining the atomization temperature

C. reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system

D. is an indication of the amount of noncombustible material present in the

oil

Ans: D

2956 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the “flash

point” of a liquid?
A. It is lower than the ignition temperature
B. It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite
C. It is the temperature at which a substance when ignited will continue to burn
D. It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the explosive
range

Ans: A

2957 The lowest temperature at which the fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor
to momentarily flash into

Flame when ignited is defined as the

A. Burning temperature
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

Ans: D

2958 the tendency of a liquid to vaporize is indicated by its

A. fire point
B. pour point
 C. flash point
D. boiling point

Ans: C

2959 the lowest temperature at which fuel oil give off sufficient vapor to burn
continuously when ignited is defined as the
A. burning temperature
B. auto ignition temperature

2960 the size of the discharge ring used for the efficient operation of a disk
purifier is dependent upon the
A. rated capacity of the purifier
B. viscosity of the oil being purified

C. maximum design speed of that purified

D. specific gravity of the oil being purified
2961. the percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil sample is determined
By
A. setting in a fuel tank
B. testing in a laboratory centrifuge
C. burning in a calorimeter
D. testing in a closed –cup
Ans: B
2962.The flash point of a liquid refers to the temperature
A. at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors
B. at which point will burn steadily
C. at which a liquid will explode
D. that a liquid must reach before it flow readily
Ans: A
2963. in order to maximize the performance of a centrifuge. you can adjust the 1. Number of disks in
the stack . frequency shooting the bowl
A.1 only
B. only
C. both 1 and
D. neither 1 or
Ans :D
2964. The temperature, in degrees celsius at which a liquid gives gives off a flammable vapor when
heated in an cup tester is called the
A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. vaporization temperature
D. ignition temperature
Ans: B
2965. the substance primarily responsible for heat loss in the combustion process is
A. sulphur
B. carbon
C. hydrogen
D. nitrogen
Ans: D
2966. the flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its
A. viscosity
B. pour point
C. volatility
D. lower explosive limit
Ans: C
2967.what is the harmful of sulfur in a fuel ?
A. it causes excessive smoking and soot at low firing points
B. it doesn’t readily burn when combined with oxygen
C. it clogs fuel oil strainers more often
D. it forms a corrosive acid when mixed water and vapor
Ans: D
2968. the volatility of any oil may be indicated by
A. the flash point
B. the fire point
C. the autogenous lunation point
D. all of the above
Ans : D
2969. in the duty of chief engineer to acquire the seal of sample fuel oil received whenever fuel oil
bunkers are taken. This sample must be prevented until
A. the voyage is completed
B. that particular supply of oil exhausted
C. it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personal for testing and the results entered in the oil
record CG-480
D. return to the first point where upon it must be sent ashore for chemical analysis and findings
submitted to the nearest officer in charge, marine inspection
Ans: B

Marine control systems and instrumentation

0
2970 . the controller set point of an automatic control system is 65 c the value closes when the out put
0 0
temperature reaches 70 c , and reopens when the temperature falls below 60 the type of positioning action in
this controller is known as
A. one position single point
B. two position single point
C. one-position single point
D. two- position single point
Ans: D
2971. in a pneumatic automation system a unit producing a single to govern the position of the controller of the
measured variable relative to the value of measured variable is said to have
A. reset action
B. proportional value
C. two position action
D. rate action
Ans: B
2972.If the loading air pressure for diaphragm controlled value drops below the designed operating
pressure , the value will
A. fail to stroke open
B. stroke slowly through its operating range
C. stroke rapidly closed
D. fail to stroke through its complete range
Ans : D
2973. Every automated machinery plant must have an ”engineer’s assistance” alarm . power for this
alarm should be taken from the
A. main bus
B. emergency bus
C. stand by generator
D. general alarm power supply
Ans:D
2974. the effect of“ reset” when added proportional controller is to
A. make the controller correction proportional to the rate at which the input change takes in place
B. accelerate the corrective action so as to minimize the possibility of hunting
C. make the corrective action of the controller proportional to the deviation of controlled variable from
the set point
D. repeat the proportional action until the controlled return to the set point
Ans: D
2975 which of the following statements express the function of proportional - plus –reset –action?
A. The action measures the rate of time of the final control element
B. The action gives control without set off under all load conditions
C. The action combines proportional –position action and rate action
D. The action is very unstable for any thing but constant load condition
Ans :B
2976. one disadvantage of proportional –position is that
A. Corrective action is only proportional to off set
B. Exact correction can be made only when there is no change in load
C. The controlled variable is stabilized
D .The corrective action is only proportional to deviation
Ans :D
2977. filters are installed ahead of air line lubrication for the primary purpose of removing
A. the heat is compression
b. air supply pressure pulses
C. moisture in the air supply
D. turbuience in the air supply
Ans: c
2978. the cylinder unloading mechanism used on low pressure air compressors is an example of which mode
control?
A. two positions
B. derivative
C. integral
D. single speed floating
2979. which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure reducing station?
A. moisture separator
B. vacuum breaker
C. lubricator
D. nonreturn yalue
Ans: A
2980. reset control is also referred to as
A. proportional speed floating control
B. derivate control
C. rate control
D. proportional control
Ans : A
2981. reset control is also referred to as
A. proportional speed floating control
B. derivate control
C. rate control
D. proportional control
Ans : A
2982. the quantity or condition which is measured and controlled is known as the
A. controlled variable
B. manipulated point
c. set point
D. control point
2983. a computing relay is used pneumatic control system to
A. extract square roots
B. square
C. divide
D. all the above
Ans: D
2984. The reset process control mode is also considered to be the same a 1. Proportional speed
floating control derivate control
A. 1 only
B. Only
C. Both and only
D. Neither 1 nor
Ans :A
2985. a mode control ,whereby the speed of motion of the final control element is linearly proportional to the
derivation of controlled variable from set point , is called

A. Rate control
B. Derivate control
C. Two position control
D. Integral control
Ans : D
2986. which of the following definition can be used to define the term offset as a characteristic of
controller action ?
A. the period of time in which the set point and the control point coincide
B. the periodic change between the set point and control point
C. the variable difference between the set point and control point
D. constant difference between the set point and the control point
Ans: D
2987. which of the following definitions best describes sensitivity as a characteristic of controller action
?
A. the ratio of the out put in response to a specified change to the out which caused it
B. The state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable
corresponding to the set point
C. The variation of the manipulated variable produced by the mode of control
D. The time difference between the input change and the output change of the controller
Ans: D
2988.Why is it necessary to spin the piston of a dead weight gage tester while carrying out the
calibrations of pressure gages?
A. Prevent formation of a vacuum
B. Eliminate the formation of air bubbles
C. Prevent the piston rod from sticking
D. To assist in emigrating the dead weight tester
Ans: C
2989. A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that
A. the form of the input and output energies must be same
B. the ratio of the out put to the input must always greater than the numerical value of “one ”
C. the form of the input and output energies must be different
D. the action must be either integral or derivative
Ans : A
2990. the control mode which the final control element is moved from one of fixed position to other is
known as
A. dead and action
B. neutral and action
C. range
D. on off action
Ans: D
2991. a control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the speed at which the control
variable is changing is known as
A. reset action
B. integral action
C . derivative action
D.Proportional action
Ans :C

the form of the input and output energies must bethe form of the input and
output energies must bethe form of the input and output energies must be
 A. Evaluate only the latest logged data as this is the best indication of plant status
B. Evaluate a series of reading to obtain operating trends.
C. Monitor off limit conditions only when announced by an audible and visual signal.
D. secure the machine under relatively steady state conditions.
Ans : B

A. Any two pressures measured with respect to a common reference

B. Atmospheric pressure and barometric pressure at a given point
C. Gage pressure and ambient atmospheric pressure
D. A perfect vacuum and the total pressure at a given point
Ans : D

2996. If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by half of the original amount, the _______________

A. pump discharge pressure will be reduced by a propotional amount.

B. speed of the actuator will be reduced.
C. Speed of the actuator will be increased.
D. The actuator will move erratically.
Ans : B

2997. The characteristic “offset” is inherent with which mode of control ?

(1) proportional control (2) reset control

A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. Both (1) and (2)
D. Neither (1) nor (2)
Ans : A

2998. The mandatory operating characteristic of a pure amplifieris the ________ . (1) form of the input and output energy must be the
Same , (2) ratio of the output change to input change must be a value greater than 1 (one).

A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. Both (1) and (2)
D. Neither (1) nor (2)
Ans : A

2999. To avoid corrosion and/or oxidation of the element, a thermometer bulb is often protected by a “well” or casing. In addition to
Protecting the element, the “well” will also _____________

A. Cause consistently higher than actual readings

B. Cause consistently lower than actual readings
C. Require a longer time for the element to reach thermal equilibrium with the system being measured
D. Increase the sensitivity of the element
Ans: C

3000. reset control is considered to be the same as _____________. (1) proportional speed floating control (2) integral control

A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. Both(1) and (2)
D. Neither (1) nor (2)
Ans:C

3001. A mechanical and /or hydraulic action preventing the over-correction of the supply, while producing transient speed drop is
called_____________
 A. stability
B. hunting
C. compensation
D. sensitivity
Ans:C

3002. What is the value of the controlled variable that the automatic controller operates to maintain

A. Set point
B. Control point
C. Deviation
D. Offset
Ans : B

3003. At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure gage most likely be located ?

A. Fuel oil service pump discharge flange

B. Fuel oil strainer
C. Fuel oil heater
D. Fuel oil flow meter
Ans : B

3004. Differential pressures can be measured with the use of a ___________

A. Diaphragm type gage

B. Pressure transducer
C. Manometer
D. All of the above
Ans : D

3005. In order to accurately measure very low pressure, which of the instruments listed should be used ?

A. Compound gage
B. Bourdon tube
C. Manometer
D. Deadweight gage
Ans : C

3006. A pneumercator is useful in measuring ____________

A. Relative humidity
B. Air pressure
C. Liquid levels in tanks
D. Liquid pneumercations
Ans : C

3007. The instrument used to indicate the level of a fluid in a tank is called a ____________

A. Fluid meter
B. Calorimeter
C. Viscosimeter
D. Pneumercaror
Ans : D

3008. Main engine room control console alarms are to be of the self monitoring type, meaning that an open circuit to a particular alarm
circuit will ___________

A. cause an alarm condition

B. secure power to the indicator

 C. secure power to the monitored device

D. automatically reclose within 10 seconds

Ans : A

3009. which of the following alarms and instrumentation is not required for a vessel incorporating a controllable pitch propeller in its main
propulsion system ?

A. pitch indicator

B. low oil temperature

C. high oil pressure

D. low oil pressure

Ans : B

3010. A compound bourdon tube type pressure gage is capable of measuring _____________

A. temperature and pressure

B. wet bulb and dry bulb temperature

C. humidity and temperature

D. pressure and vaccum

Ans : D

3011. The instrument always used in conjuction with a salinometer

A. pyrometer

B. thermometer

C. hygrometer

D. hydrometer

Ans : B

3012. The control mode that is generally not used by itself is ___________

A. reset control

B. integral control

C. derivative control

D. two position differential gap control

Ans : C

3013. a closed loop pneumatic control system always operates with __________

A. a fixed final control element position

B. simple on/off control

C. no controller feedback

D. feedback in the controller

 Ans : D

3014. while attempting to read a tank level indicator, the mercury column drops rapidly. This may indicates _________

A. a leak in the gage line

B. free surface effect in the tank

C. an improperly calibrated gage

D. excess air in the balance chamber

Ans : A

3015. A pressure gage pointer responding sluggishly to changes in pressure, should be repaired by _________.\

A. Tapping the gage housing lightly.

B. bending the needle to free the linkage.

C. cleaning the residue from gear teeth.

D. greasing the hair spring.

Ans : C.

3016 A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate reading if the __________.

A. Pnuemercator is recharged with the air supply open.

B. Pnuemercator balance chamber bleed of orifice is blocked by the oil being measured.
C. Pressure in the system is allowed to equalize.
D. Operating cock is placed in the “vent” position when the system is not in use
Ans : B

3017. In an automation system increasing or decreasing the loading pressure by a set amount is known as ___________

A. positioning
B. proportioning
C. biasing
D. controlling
Ans : C

3018. Moisture and impurities can be removed from pneumatic systems by using ____________
A. air intake heaters
B. desiccated suction strainers
C. multi-orificed suction valves
D. resistance- temperature type
Ans : C

3019. A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both above and below _______________
A. absolute pressure
B. latent pressure
C. flow pressure
D. atmospheric pressure
Ans : D

3020. The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the _____________

A. bimetallic type
B. diaphragm type
C. multi-orificed suction values
D. resistance-temperature type
 Ans:c

3021. Temperature measurement is an indication of the _________________________

A. level of heat intensity

B. total heat of a substance
C. flow pressure
D. atmospheric pressure
Ans:A

3022. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller, the proportional action___________ I opposes the reset action during
decreasing error transients II aids the reset action during increasing error transients
A. I only
B. IIonly
C. Both I andII
D. Neither I nor II
Ans:c
3023 Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for continuity with a multimeter, you should disconnect the pyrometer
because______________
A. The driving voltage of the meter, batteries can damage the circuit meter
B. The pyrometer total resistance can damage the ohmmeter
C. The eactance of the pyrometer will give a false meter reading
D. Meter current running through the pyrometer will permanently magnetize the pyrometers pointer
Ans:A

3024. A proportional band or range adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by _____________
I adjusting the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II adjusting the
pointer position.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans:A

3025. A set point adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished by _____________I adjusting the effective moment arm length
between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II adjusting the pointer position relative to the
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans:B

3026. In checking the level of a tank , three pneumercator readings have been taken. If each reading is higher than the last, this indicates that
__________

A. excessive charging air was supplied

B. insufficient charging air has been supplied
C. the relief value is sticking
D. the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak
Ans:D

3027. Devices such as a pressure gage that are subject to continous expansion and contraction are affected by hysteresis. This is a natural
process that _______________

A. allows a material to return to its exact original shape

B. permits a resilient material to return to its almost original shape
C. allows a resilient material to resist permanent deformation
D. is directly related to a material’s elastic in it
Ans:B

3028. In a automation system the effect of a control action sensed by a controller is known as ______________

A. command input
B. insufficient charging air has been supplied
C. the relief value is sticking
D. the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak
Ans:B
3029. A pneumercator is an instrument used to indicate______________
A. air pressure in the diesel engine starting circuit
 B. phosphates in boiler water
C. tank fluid level
D. micro ohms in condensate

3030. The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain is known a
______________

A. reset point
B. control point
C. deviation
D. off set
Ans:B

3031. The steady state difference between the control point and the value of the controlled variable corresponding with the set point is known
as _____________

A. dead band
B. control point
C. deviation
D. offset

Ans:D

3032. A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the length of
time the controlled variable has been away from the set point, is known as…..

a. integral action

b. proportional action

c. rate action

d. derivative action.

Ans a.

3033. While calibrating a bourdon tube pressure gage. All readings are found to
be 0.7 kgs higher throughout its entire range adjustments should be made by……

a. increasing the sector to pivot point length

b. resetting the pointer on its shaft

c. decreasing the sector to picot point length

d. increase the set screw length

ans. B

3034. “offset” is an inherent characteristic of which of the following types of

control modes?
a. two position

b. proportional

c. reset

d. rate

ans. B

3035. the meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship service
refrigeration system, is an example of …

a. two position control

b. single speed floating control

c. proportional control

d. reset control

ans. A

3036. A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control element s
linearly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled variable, is called…

a. reset control

b. integral control

c. two position control

d. derivative control

ans. D

3037. when a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a change in this
adjustment results in a change of the ….

a. desired value of the proportionally controlled variable

b. floating rate of the proportional-speed floating component

c. value representing the readjusted controlled variable

d. desired prepositioned value of the controlled medium

ans. B

3038. the two most common gases used in pneumatic systems are…

a. compressed air and nitrogen

b. helium and nitrogen

c. oxygen and hydrogen.

D. oxygen and acetylene

ans. A

3039. When ‘reset’ action is added to proportional action….

a. aids the reset action during decreasing error transients

b. aids the reset action during increasing error transients

c. opposes the reset action during increasing error transients

d. reset action are completely independent of one another in the controller

operation

ans. B

3040. Automatic control valves for steam service require periodic maintenance
inspections because they …

a. are subjected to high compressive stress

b. are subjected to a wide range of temperatures and pressures

c. continuously throttle steam resulting in wire drawing and erosion of the valve.

d.receive high pressure air from the pilot valve

ans.c

3041. When ‘reset’ action is added to proportional action….

a. the proportional action opposes the reset action during decreasing error
transients

b. the proportional action opposes the reset action during increasing error
transients

c. the proportional action assists the reset action during decreasing error
transients

d. the proportional action and the reset action are completely independent of one
another in the controller operation

ans. A

3042. When a controller with proportional position action is used to control a

process, a load change will cause the controlled variable to stabilize at some value
other than the set point value. The new point at which the controlled variable
stabilizes is ..

a. offset

b. deviation

c. control point

d. load point

ans. C

3043. Which of the following control actions, when combined with proportional-
position action, wil eliminate manual repositioning of the set point for each load
change to produce an automatic reset action?

a. Neutral band

B. floating action
c. reciprocal

d. rate action

ans. B

3044. A rotameter, when used to indicate the rate of fluid flow in distilling plants,
is essentially an area meter consisting of a…

a. movable float riding on a rod centered in a tapered tube

b. piston uncovering a port whose opening is directly proportional to fluid flow

c. movable orifice plate venture tube and high pressure tap

d. rotating vane transmitting nutating motion to a counter mechanism

ans. A

3045. double seated, pneumatically controlled, regulating valves exhibit good

balancing characteristics essential for low-sensitivity applications because…..

a. high pressure enters between the seats and creates equal, but opposing forces

b. they employ a specially fabricated diaphragm

c. the feedback control signals balance the opposing forces acting on the
diaphragm

d. the special diaphragm motor spring resists pressure changes

ans. A

3046. The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically controlled

steam pressure reducing valve is…

a. the range spring has become weakened

b. an incorrect loading pressure supplied to the power unit

c. a partially restricted loading air pressure line

d. a pinhole in the power diaphragm.

Ans. C

3047. A compound Bourdon tube gage is capable of measuring pressure and…

a. humidity

b. vacuum

c. temperature

d. density

ans. B

3048. If you turn the handwheel clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal pilot ,

reducing vavle, you will…

a. compress the adjusting spring against the diaphragm

b. release spring tension from the diaphragm

c. increase steam pressure to the reducing valve

d. decrease spring tension in the main valve

ans. A

3049. How may the response time for a thermometer using a protective will be
reduced?

a. fill the well with nitrogen

b. fill the well with water

c. drill small holes in the well

d. pack the space around the bulb with graphite.

Ans. D
3050. Why is it necessary to have the weight bearing piston of a deadweight gage
tested spinning when testing a gage for proper calibration?

a. Minimizes piston drag and reduces tester error

b. Prevents vibration errors in the gage tester.

C. Minimizes piston speed and reduces tester error.

D. Allows trapped air below the piston to escape

ans. A

3051. The portion of a mechanism that utilizes manual positioning, or automatic

indexing is known as a detent. An example of a detent used aboard ship can be
found in a/an…….

a. rheostat b. engine order telegraph c. valve handwheel d. fuel/air ratio control

knob ans. D

3052. Biasing in a pneumatic automated combustioncontrol system, refers to a

set amount of increase or decrease in the ….

a. control pressure

b. loading pressure

c. supply pressure

d. rate relay pressure

ans. B

3053. If you suspect that a gage is sticking and giving an inaccurate reading you
should….

a. blow out the gage lie with compressed air

b. lap the gage body with a wrench .

c .remove the gage bezel and slightly move the needle

d. replace the gage or have it calibrated

and. D

3054. The moisture sensitive element of a humidistat can be made of….

a. hair

b. copper

c. plastic

d. steel

ans. A

3055. A pneumercator tank gage utilizes…

a. a bourdon tube indicator

b. a balance chamber

c. an electronic sensing line

d. all the above

ans. B

3056. A pyrometer is capable of producing a voltage by…

a. chemical reactor

b. light striking a photo sensitive substance

c. heating a junction of two dissimilar metals

d. squeezing crystals of certain substances

ans. C

3057. A solenoid valve is operated by magnetic action through….

a. suction pressure at the compressor

b. an electrically energized coil

c. superheat at the evaporator outlet coil

d. a vacuum operated bellows

ans. B

3058. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller the proportional

action… I and the reset action are completely independent of one another II
opposes reset action during decreasing error transients

a. I only

b. II only

c. both I and II

d. neither I nor II

ans. B

3059. In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller the proportional

action…..I. aids the reset action during increasing error transients II and the reset
action are completely independent of one another..

a. I only

B. II only

c. Both I and II

d. neither I nor II

ans. A

3060. To ensure an accurate pneumercator reading you should……

a. purge the balance chamber to remove any liquid

b. read the bottom of the mercury meniscus

c. take the reading with operating cock in the vent position

d. make certain the tank has been bled of air

ans. A

3061. A pneumercator measures the liqueid level in a tank by sensing….I head

pressure II liquid density

a. I only

b. II only

c. both I and II

d. neither I nor II

ans. A

3062. When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a pneumercator, the intial
reading obtained can be quickly verified by…….

a. repeating the process and getting the same again

b. sounding the tank with a tape coated with a fuel indication paste

c. a guage reading of zero when the control handle is in the purge position

d. a guage reading equal to supply air pressure when the control handle is in the
purge position

ans. A

3063. The control mode where the position of the final control element has a liner
relationship with the position or value of the controlled variable, is known as……

a. two position control

b. proportion control

c. reset control
d. rate control

ans. B

3064. The range of values through which the input can be varied without initiating
an output response is known as…

a. deviation

b. offset

c. sensitivity

d. dead band ..

ans. d

3065. The ration of output response to a specified change in the input is known
as…

a. primary feedback

b. deviation

c. sensitivity

d. dead band

ans . c

3066. A proportional band or range adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage

is accomplished by…

a. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon tube and the
quadrant gear fulcrum b. adjusting the pointer position relative the shaft on
which it is mounted

c. changing out the pointer pinion

d. flattering the cross-section of bourdon tube

ans. A

3067. The set point adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is accomplished
by….

a. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon tube and the
quadrant gear fulcrum

b. adjusting the pointer position relative the shaft on which it is mounted

c. adjusting the pointer position by bending the free end of the pointer

d. flattening the cross section of bourdon tube

ans. B

3068. Which of the following control modes is generally not used by itself

A. two position action

B. propositional action

C. Integral action

D. derivation action

Ans. D

3070. Which of the following elements is common to all indicating instruments

A. an electrical input

B. a bourdon tube

C. reset button

D. a calibrated scale
Ans. D

3072.Which of the following propotional band values most closely approaches

“on- off” control?

A. 0.1

B.0.02

C.1

D.5

Ans.B

3074. Increasing the “reset rate” of a proportional plus reset controller

A. narrows the proportional band

B. widens the proportional band

C. repeat the proportional action more frequently

D. increase the stabililty

3069. A pure transducer utilizes

A. integral action

B.rate action

C. propotional action

D. derivative action

Ans. C

3071.the mode of control employed by an alarm circuit is a

A. 2 position control

B. single speed floating control

C. proportional speed floating

D. reset control

Ans. A

3073. The response line installed in a pneumatic action controller functions two

A. monitor the accuracy of the measuring element

B. provide a feedback signal for accurate final element positioning

C. regulate the air supply in the line to the nozzle

D. re adjust the total spring force in the air control relay

Ans. B

3075. The two position single point action controller has been adjusted to
minimize cycling and would only be suitable for

A. constant load conditions

D.increase the stability of the controller

Ans. C

3076. The amount of charge of a controlled variable , that is necessary to cause a

specific change in the position of final control element depends upon the

A. differential gap adjustment

B. range of value opening

C. proportional band adjustment of the controller

D. form of the controlled medium

Ans. C

3078. A penumercator is used to indicate fuel oil

A. pressure

B. level

C. temperatue

D. flow

Ans. B

3080. when the vessels steering wheel on the navigation bridge is turned
thedifference existing between the position of the wheel and that of the rudder is
known as

A. proportional band

B. the error signal

C. reset signal

D. feedback

Ans. B

3082.a compound gage is used to measure

B.intermitted load conditions

C.wide temperature fluctuation

D.rate action only

Ans A

3077.a controller with floating action has a controlled variable where the range of
values produces no motin of the final control element . this range of values is
called

A.nutral zone

B.
C.control point

D. offset

Ans A

3079.a pyrometer is generally used to measure

A.grains of moisture per cubic foot of air

B salinity concentration of condensate

C.stack temperature

D.level of fluid in a tank

Ans C

3081.the gage most commonly used aboard ship to measure high pressure is the

A.volitile liquid type

B.diaphragm actuated type

C.bourdon tube type

D.resistance temperature type

AnsC

A.temperature and pressure

B.humidity and temperature

C.pressure and vacuum

D.pressure and humidity

Ans C
3084.a primery element with flow measurement devices highly suitable for liquids
containing solids in suspension is a

A.concentric orifice

B.convergent nozzles

C.venturi tube

D.pilot tube

Ans C

3086.which of the listed characteristics is typical of a strip chart graphic recorder

A.time graduations fan out from the center

B.data charts are more easily stored than the circular charts

C.variable being measured is drawn on rectangular coordinates

Dstrip charts are more difficult to read than circular chart

Ans C

3088.on tank vessels using an automatic tank wells ,free moment of the tape is
normally checked by

A.removing the side plate

B.operating the hard clutch

C.comparing with a hand tape

A.adjust the tape weight

3083.any restriction in the instrument air piping of a pneumatic control system

will

A.delay transmission of the air signal

B.increase the transmitted air signal intensity

C.reduce the transmitted air signal value

D.accelerate transmission of air signal

Ans A

3085.restrictions occurring in the small oreifices of pneumatic control system

components can be caused by

A.moisture in the compressed air supply

B.exessive dryness in the compressed air supply

C.pressure surging in the compressed air receiver

D insufficient lubrication of the system component

Ans A

3087.when the pressure on a compound gage is released, trhe gage pointer is

returned to zero psig by action of

A.bourdor tube

B.spring return arm

C. compound diaphragm

D.compansating spring

Ans B

D.using litmus paste

3090.on tank vessels using an automatic tape well for gaging tanks,the hand
clutch is used to
A.adjust the tape weight

B.lower the thieving rod

C.rollup the tape

D.callibrate the tank

Ans C

3092.Most solenoid valves are actuated by

A.a spring

B.an electromagnet

C.the force of gravity

D .refrigerant pressure

Ans B

3094.the vessels steering gear is a classic example of a positioned type

automation system.the variable input is provided through the steering wheel and
the rudder position is fed back to the operating mechanism.the difference
between the input signal an

A.system differential

B.proportional band

C.error

D.command input

Ans C

3096.when a bourdon tube pressure gage is tested and found to be inaccurate ,

adjustment must be made to obtain the correct readings .
3089.with regards to fluid flow control,an advantage of pneumatic control
systems over electrical control systems is

A.practically no limit to the power available for a given system

B.no transmission losses

C.low energy input

D.continued control through temporary electrical power losses

Ans D

3091.which of the following statement is correct concerning the instrumentation

or alarms provided at the main control station for an automated main propulsion
plant?

A.nonvital alarms are separated from vital alarms

B.provisions are made through simulation or actual condition for testing all
audible and visual alarms and indicating lights

C.all alarm circuits should be in operation when the system is online

D.all the above

Ans D

3093.the type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the

A.bimetallic type

B.diaphragm type

C.bourdon tube type

D.resistance temperature type

Ans C
The distance between the pointer spindle and the link connection to the sector
gear will be changed when the

A.pointer doesnot travel the correct distance as test weight is added

B. proportional amount of pointer travel for each weight added is correct,but the
total reading is wrong

C.reading is correct only at the working pressure.

D.reading are correct only at the minimum and maximumends of scale

Ans A
3095.when the pressure applied to a bourdon tube type pressure gage is reduced
to atmospheric pressure,the tube will begin to “bend” towards the centre of
arc.small variations develop preventing the tube form returning to its exact
original shape due to the

A.hysterisis

B.compression

c.homiostatious deformation

D.gas eddys

Ans A

SHIP CONSTRACTIONS,REPAIRS AND

REGULATIONS

3097. THE GASKET AND BROKEN STUDS HAVE BEEN REPLACED ON A

TANK MANHOLE COVER.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING METHODS IS
SATISFACTORY FOR TESTING THE REPAIRING?

A. PRESSURIZE THE TANK WITH O.7KG/CM2 AIR,SOAP THE REPAIRED

AREA WATCH FOR VISIBLE SIDNS SIGNS OF LEAKAGE OR BUBBLES

B.FILL THE TANK WITH WATER VIA THE BALLEST PUMP UNTIL THE
IMAGE READING CORRESPOUNDS TO THE MAXIMUM DEPTH OF THE
TANK

C.HOSE TEST THE REQUIRED AREA WITH MINIMUM OF 7 KG/CM2

WATER PRESSURE

D.FILL THE TANK VIA THE BALLEST PUMP UNTIL THE WATER FLOWS
FROM THE VENT VENT LINE OPENING ON DECK.

ANS:C
3098. THE GARBOARD STROKE IS LOCATED ----------------------------

A.AT THE VERY BOTTEM CENTER

B.JUST UNDER THE SHEER LINE

C. AT EACH SIDE OF THE KEEL

D.AT THE TURN OF THE BILGE

ANS:C

3099.VERTICAL TRANSVERSE STRUCTURES ARE KNOWN AS --------------

----------------

A. PILLERS

B.FLOORS

C. CEILINGS

D.STANCHINS

ANS:B

3100. THE END PIONT FORMED BY ADJOINING PLATES IN A HULL

PLATING STROKE IS PROPERLY IDENTIFIED AS A------------------

A.BRACKET

B.SCRAPH

C. LAP

D. BUTT

ANS:D

3101. STRUCTURAL MEMBERS USED TO SUPPORT AND TRANSMIT

DOWNWARD

FORCE OF THE LOAD AND DISTRIBUTE THE FORCE OVER THE LARGE
AREA ARE CALLED-------------------------
A.PILLERS

B. STANCHIONS

C.COLUMNS

D.ALL TH EABOVE

ANS:D

3102. THE WELDED JOINT LOCATED BETWEEN TWO PLATES IN THE

SAME STARKE

OF A HULL PLATING IS CALLED AS----------------------

A. BRACKET
B. SCRAF
C. LAP
D. BUTT

ANS:D
3103.VERTICAL SUPPORT MEMBERS USED TO STRENGTHEN BULKHEADS ARE CALLED----
------------------
A.STIFFNERS
B.PANELS
C.STANCHIONS
D.BRACKETS
ANS:A

3104.THE DOUBLE BOTTOM IN A VESSEL IS A SPACE COMPRISED OF-----------------------

A. PLATINGFORMING THE ENGINE ROOM TANK TOP
B.DOUBLER PLATING INSTALLED OVER THE FLAT KEEL PLATE
C. A WATERTIGHT BOUNDARY FORMED BY THE INNER BOTTOM
D.COMPARTMENTS BETWEEN THE INNER AND OUTER BOTTOMS
ANS:D

3105. THE INNER BOTTOM OF THE SHIP IS THE --------------------

A. PLATING FORMING THE ENGINE ROOM TOP
B. DOUBLER PLATING INSTALLED OVER THE FLAT KEEL PLATE
C. A WATERTIGHT BOUNDARY FORMED BY THE INNER BOTTOM
D. COMPARTMENTS BETWEEN THE INNER AND OUTER BOTTOMS.
ANS:A

3106. A SHOT OF ANCHOR CHAIN HAS THE LENGTH OF ---------------

A.6 FATHOMS
B.12 FATHOMS
C.15 FATHOMS
D. 45 FATHOMS
ANS:C

3107. THE PART OF THE ANCHOR WINDLASS THAT ENGAGES THE ANCHOR CHAIN FOR
LIFTING IS CALLED --------------
A.WARPING HEAD
B.FAIRLEAD
C.WILDCAT
D.CAPSTAN
ANS:C

3108. WHICH OF TH EFOLLOWING PRECAUTIONS SHOULD WE USE IN DRY DOCK

A.LIQUID SHOULD NEVER BE TRANSFERRED BETWEEN TANKS WITHOUT CONSULTING
THE DOCK MASTER
B. IF SEA VALVES HAS BEEN DISASSEMLED,ALLALL BOONNETS HAS TO CHECKED FOR
LEAKAGE WHEN THE SHIP IS RELOADED
C.BEFORE REFLOATING ,ALL CHEST STRAINERS SHOULD BE VERIFIED AS HAVING BEEN
REPLACED
D.ALL THE ABOVE
ANS:D
3109. THE COLLISION BULKHEAD IS LOCATED IN -------------------------
A. ON THE BRIDGE DECK
B. BETWEEN THE PASSENGERS AND CARGO AREAS
C.AT THE STEM OF THE SHIP
D.AS TH EFIRST BULKHEAD AFT OF THE BOW IN THE SHIP
ANS:D

3110. REGULATIONS REQUIRE TANK SOUNDING TUBES TERMINATING ABOVE THE

WEATHER DECK OF THE CARGO VESSEL TO BE FITTED WITH A--------------------
A. GLOBE VALVE
B. STOP- CHECK VALVE
C.GATE VALVE
D. SCREW CAP OR PULG
ANS : D

3111. ACCORDING TO THE REGULATIONS ,HOW MANY MEANS OF ESCAPE MUST BE

PROVIDED IN SPACES WHERE THE CREW CREW MAY BE QUARTED OR EMPOLYED
A. TWO,BOTH OF WHICH MUST BE THROUGTH WATERTIGHT DOORS
B.TWO,BOTH OF WHICH ARE LOCATED AS CLOSE TOGETHER AS POSSIBLE TO
CENTRALIZE ESCAPE ROUTES
C.TWO,ATLEAST ONE OF WHICH SHALL BE INDEPENDENT OF WATERTIGHT DOORS
D.TWO,BOTH OF WHICH MUST BE VERTICAL LADDERS TERMINATING I N LOCKED
WATERTIGHT SCUTTIES
ANS:C
3112. THE PURPOSE IN CONSTRUCTING A PIPE TUNNEL ABOARD A VESEL IS TO--------------
------------
A.INSULATE PIPING FROM AMBIETENT TEMPERATURE
B.PROVIDE CONVENIENT GROUPING OF ALL PIPING LEADING FORE AND AFT FROM THE
MACHINARY SPACE FOR EASY ACCESS AND CONTROL
C.ENCLOSE ALL PIPES LEADING TO A SINGLE FORWARD COMPARTMENT IN THEIR OWN
ENCLOSURE
D.SEGRATE A PIPE FROM THE COMPARTMENT THROUGTH WHICH IT PASSES
ANS:D

3113. WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ENSURING THAT SOMEONE IS ASSIGNED TO CLOSE THE
WATERTIGHT DOORS IN AN EMERGENCY
A. CREW MEMBER
B.MASTER OF THE VESSEL
C.CHIEF ENGINNER
D.CHIEF MATE
ANS:B

3114. WHEN A NEW SECTION OF SHELL PLATING IS BEING INSTALLED THE PROPER WELD
SEQUENCE MUST BE FOLLOWED TO----------------------
A.MINIMIZE SHRINKAGE STRESSES AND HARMFUL DISTORTION
B. ENSURE THET ALL WELDMENTS DOWN AND
C.PROVIDE GRREATEST RESTRAD IN THE WELD
D.ENSURE THAT ALL HORIZONTAL WELDMENTS ARE COMPLETED FIRST
ANS:A

3115. WHEN REMOVING ONLY A PORTION OF AN ENTIRE HULL PLATE WITH AN INSERT
LATE, WHICH OF THE LISTED GUIDELINES SHOULD BE FOLLOWED?
A.HE INSERT PLATE SHOULD COVER ATLEAST ONE FOLL FRAME SPACE
B.HE LINES OF NEW WELDING SHOULD ,WHERE POSSIBLE ,HE IN EXISTING LIN ES OF
WELDING
C.HE CORNERS YHE INSERT PLATE SHOULD BE SQUARE
D.HE INSERT PLATE SHOULD BE ATLEAST 9/16 THICK
ANS:

3116. A VESSEL’S IMMEDIATE PROTECTION IN THE EVENT OF A BROKEN STERN TUBE IS

A/AN ______
A. AFT COLLISION BULKHEAD
B. STERN FRAME BULKHEAD
C.AFTER PEAK BULK HEAD
AFT MACHINERY SPACE WATERTIGHT BULKHAED
ANS : C

3117. WHEN THE SHIP’S BULKHEAD ARE REINFORCED AGAINST BENDING AND BULGING
THE BULK HEAD’S ARE PROVIDED WITH ______________
A.STANCHIONS
B.ORDERS
C. STIFFENERS
D. ABBITS
ANS:C

3118. IN MODERN SHIP CONSTRUCTION HIGH TENSILE STEEL (HTS) MAY BE PERMITTED
IN _______________
A.THE STEER STRAKE
B. THE KEEL STRAKE
C.THE MARGIN STRAKE
D.ALL OF THE ABOVE
ANS : D

3119. WHICH OF THE LISTED STATEMENT S CORRECTLY RFLECTS THE REQUIREMENTS

FOR STEEL USED IN LOW TEMPERATURE APPLICATIONS ABOAD SHIPS?
A. A STEEL ACCEPETABLE FOR SERIVCE AT 19.5℃ IS NOT ACCEPETABLE FOR SERVICE AT
10℃
B. THE WORDS ‘LOW TEMPERATURE’ ARE TO BE MARKED LEGIBILY AT EACH END OF
THE FINISHED PLATE
C.NO SPECIAL PROCEDURES ARE REQUIRED
D.ANY STEEL ACCEPECTABLE FOR A PARTICULAR MINIMUM SERVICE TEMPERATURE
IS ALSO ACCEPECTABLE FOR HIGHER SERVICE TEMPERATURE
ANS:D
3120:IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION BEAMS ARE TRANSVERSE GRIDERS WHICH PROVIDE
SUPPORT TO ------------------------
A. BULKHEADS
B. DUCKHOUSE STRUCTURES
C. DECKS
D. VERTICAL FRAMES
ANS:C
3121.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS CONCERNING THE REGULATIONS
REGRADING INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE EXHAUSTS , BOILER AND GALLERY
UPTAKES ,AND SIMILAR SOURECES OF IGNITION ?
A. THEY MUST BE CLEAR OF AND SUITABLY INSULATED FROM ANY WODDWORK OR
OTHER COMBUSTIBLE MATTER
B. all exhausts and uptakes shall run as close as possible to the vertical and shall exit the machinery
space at a point above the highest load line
C. THE GENERAL CONSTRUCTION OF THE VESSSEL SHALL BE SUCH AS TO MINIMIZE
SMOKE HAZARDS INSOFAR AS IS REASONABLE AND PRACTICABLE
D. THIS PROTECTION SHALL BE SUCH AS TO BE CAPABLE OF PREVENTING AN
EXCESSIVE TEMPERATURE RISE IN THE SPACE CONTAINING THE EMRGENCY SOURCE
OF ELECTRIC POWER
ANS:A
3122. ACCORDING TO REGULATION A “C” CLASS DIVISION, BULKHEAD OR DECK SHALL
BE CONSTRUCTED_________________________
A. WITH APROVED INCOMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS AND MADE INTACT FROM DECK TO
DECK AND TO SHELL OR OTHER BOUNDARIES
B. OF APPROVED INCOMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS, BUT NEED MEET NO REQUIREMENTS
RELATIVE TO THE PASSAGE OF FLAME
C. THAT IF SUBJECTED TO THE STANDARD FIRE LEST THEY WOULD BE CAPABLE OF
PREVENTING THE PASSAGE OF FLAME FODSR ONE HALF HOUR
D. THAT IF SUBJECTED TO THE STANDARDS FIRE TEST THEY WOULD BE CAPABLE OF
PREVENTING DTHE PASSAGE OF FLAME OR SMOKE FOR ONE HOUR
ANS:B
3123. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CLEARANCE READINGS SHOULD BE TAKEN AND
RECORDED IN DRY JOCK?\
A. THE CLEARANCES BETWEEN THE ROPELLER BLADE TIPS AND THE HULL
B. THE CLEARANCES BETWEEN THE PROPELLER HUB AND THE FAIR WATER CONE
C. THE RUDDER BEARING CLEARANCES
D. THE CLEARANCES BETWEEN THE STERN TUBE PACKING GLAND AND THE RETAINING
RING
ANS:C
3124. SUPPORT OF SIDE PLATING IS PROVIDED PRIMANILY BY TRANSVERSE
_______________
A. BEAMS
B. GIRDERS
C. FRAMES
D. BULKHEADS
ANS:C
3125. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, THE SHELL PLATING IS ARRNAGED IS ARRANGED IN
STRAKES AND ASSIGNED LETTER DESIGNATIONS. IF THE STRAKES WERE LETTERED “A”
THROUGH “K”THE “K” STRAKE WILL BE ___________________
A. AT THE TURN OF THE BRIDGE
B. THE KEEL STRAKE
C. THE DROP STRAKE
D. THE SHEER STRAKE
ANS:D
3126. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, THE STRAKES ARE GIVEN LETTER DESIGNATIONS
BEGINNING WITH THE LETTER “A” THE “A” STRAKE IS ADJACENT TO THE
____________________
A. DECK EDGE STRAKE
B. KEEL
C. TURN OF THE BILGE STRAKE
D. SHEER STRAKE
ANS:B
3127. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, THE SHELL PLATING IS ARRANGED IN STRAKES., WITH
FOUR OF THE STRAKES BEING SPECIFICALLY INDENTIFIED BY NAME. THE STRAKE
NEXT TO THE KEEL IS IDENTIFIED AS THE ____________________
A. KEL STRAKE
B. GARBOARD STRAKE
C. BRIDGE STRAKE
D. SHEER STRAKE
ANS:B
3128. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, WHICH OF THE LISTED STRENGTHENING MEMBERS ACGT
TO SUPPORT THE DECKS?
A. PILLARS
B. GIRDERS
C. BULKHEADS
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
ANS:D
3129. IN SHIP CONSTRUCTION, THE HULL FRAME MEMBERS EXTENDING ATHWARTSHIP
ARE CALLED____________________
A. DECK FRAMES
B. STRINGER FRAMESV
C. LONGITUDINAL FRAMES
D. TRANSVERSE FRAMES
ANS:D
3130
THE URPOSE OF SWASH BULKHEADS IS TO ______________________
A. MINIMIZE THE EFFECT OF A LISTING CONDITION
 B. RESTRISDCT FLOODING WITHIN A TANK
C. SEPARATE CARGOES IN A COMMON TANK
D. REDUCE LIQUID MOVEMENT WITHIN A TANK
ANS:D

3131 If high relative humidity is maintained In a cargo hold there is a significant

possibility that ________ I there will be an accumulation of static
electricity II. mold will grow and contaminate the cargo
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Ans: B

3132 The depth of fuel oil in a double bottom tank is measured through the
________
A. vent line
B. depth gage
C. manhole cover
D. sounding tube

Ans: D

3133 regulation require that any tank ship making a voyage of over a48 hour
duration must have certain tests conduceted more than 12 hour prior to leaving
port meeting this requriment includes thetesting of the___________

A.means comunication between the bridge and engineroom

B.tire pump relief value

C.water tight door to the shaft dally

D.emergency lightining system

Ans: A
3134 pillar cross sections of I ,”H”, or circular are used construction in location
where there are large expanses, void intermediate decks and bulk heads, such as
in cargo holes and engine rooms .A supporting pillar which becomes bent out of
ver
A. not be critical until the vertical angle approaches 15
B. loose practically all of its strength as a support
C. most likely expenses shear stress failure if not reinforced immediately
D. not poce any problem, provided there are no cracked welds connecting it to any adjoining
strength members

Ans: B

3135 in order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific
portion of the chain are colour coded and wrapped with wire. The second
short the chain is painted ________

A: white on the detachable link

B: red for two links on either side of the detachable link

C: white for two links on either side of the detachable link

D: red on the detachable link

Ans: C

3136 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out specific
portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The first shot of
chain is painted_________
A. white on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the detachable link
B. white on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of the detachable
link
C. red on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the detachable link
D. red on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of the detachable link

Ans:D

3137 The tester end is the _________

 A. tooped end of a mooring cable
B. end of the chain shackled to the anchor
C. fixed end of the mooring cable fastened to the mooring winch drum
D. end of the anchor chain fastened to the vessel

Ans:D

3138 A shot of anchor chain is equal to_______

A. one chain link
B. one -90 foot segment
C. 90 fathoms
D. one – 15 foot segment

Ans:B

3139 All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are
painted _______
A. yellow
B. white
C. red
D. orange

Ans:A

3140 Stanchions prevent the entire deck load from load being carried by the
_______
A. bulkheads
B. stringers
C. frames and beam brackets
D. deck longitudinals

Ans: C

3141 According to the regulations ,a “B” class bulkhead shall be constructed -

________
A. of steel or equivalent metal construction suitably stiffened and made intact from deck
to deck and to shall or other boundanes
 B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no requirements relativeto the
passage of flame
C. that if subjected to a standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the passage
of flame for one half hour
D. that if subjected to a standard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the
passage of preventing the passage of flame and smoke for one hour

Ans: C

3142 The material design, construction and workmanship of main and auxiliary
machinery shall _______(46 CFR)
A. determine the necessity of duplication and application of redundant systems
B. be examined and approved by the Port State Control Officer of the port in which the
vessel is being constructed
C. be atleast equivalent to the standards established by the American Bureau of Shipping or
other recognized classification society
D. prevent the possibility of operator injury due to inefficient construction practices and
appropriate material testing procedures

Ans: C

3143 According to regulation , an “A” class division, bulkhead or deck shall be

constructed________
A. with approved incombustible materials and made intact from deck to deck and to shell
or other boundaries
B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no requirements relative to the
passage of flame
C. that if subjected to the standaard fire test, they would be capable of preventing the
passage of flame for one half hour
D. that if subjected to the standard fite test, they would be capable of preventing the
passage of flame and smlke for one hour

Ans: D

3144 The bleeder plug , or docking plug located on a motor vessel double
bottom tank is used to_______
A. indicate when the tank is pressed up
B. provide a secondary means of tank sounding
C. Vent air from the tank when bunkering
 D. Empty the tank when in drydock

3145 in ship construction beam brackets are triangular plates joining the deck
beam to a…..
A. Bulkhead
B. Frame
C. Stanchion
D. Deck longitudinal

Ans.b

3146 the duties of the chief engineer upon taking charge of the department
includes
A. Preparing a list of engine department personel for the the markets signature
B. Taking acouple personal inventory of all engine room spare parts
C. Determining any vital engineroom equipment is inoperatvie
D. Obtaining a valid certification of inspection from the cosgaurd

Ans.c

3147 reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead are called

A. Side longitudanals
B. Intercostals
C. Stiffeners
D. Brackets

Ans.c

3148 if a life boat which allows a life boat to descend to the water at an
excessive speed you should____
A. Remove unneccesary weight from the boat
B. Adjust the centrifugal break machine
C. Adjust the david mounted limit swithches
D. Engage the motors friction clutch bands

Ans. B
3149 when a vessil is dryed docked for inspection which of the following valves
are required to b e opened during the this period
A. Ballast pump manifold valves
B. High and low section values on fuel oil setting tanks
C. Bottom blow skin value balls main and auxillary boilers
D. Cooking water controls on refrigration condensers

Ans. C

3150 sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo vessels are
permitted by the regulations to be located in which of the listed spaces?
A. Washroom
B. Laundrings
C. Slop sinks
D. Corridors

Ans.d

3151 on small passenger vessels , seperation of machinery on fuel tanks sapces

shall be …….
A. Provided between each of the space by water tight and vapour tight bulk heads
B. Seperated from accomadation spaces by water tight bulk heads
C. Not considered as essentials
D. seperation from accomadation spaces by non continuous bulk heads

ans. B

3152 regulations require remote controls for stopping machineries driving fuel oil
service pumps .these controls shall be ……….
A. Located at the control ptrol
B. Provided with the locked cover
C. Accseble to authorized personal only
D. Protected against accidental operation

Ans. D

3153 the location of the vessels frame station may be optained from which of the
listed drawings __________
 A. profile C.cross section

B. base line D.but tock

Ans.A

3154 where should you to find writing plates ?

A. In bow of the ship of the water line
B. On the bottom of a fuel are ballest tank under the sounding tube
C. Under the counyer above the propeller blade tips
D. On the coffer dam man hole

Ans.B

3155what colour is used to indicuate the last short anchor chain?

A. Red
B. White
C. Blue
D. Yellow

Ans.A

3156the principe purpose of an anchor windlas chain stopper is to____

A. Tigh of yhe warping head lines
B. Absorb the breake thrust of the anchor windlas
C. Hold the anchor chain while riding at anchor
D. lock the intermediate clutch shaft to the wildcal

ans.C

3157 according to regulation ,the cargo pump shaft on tankers pierce the
bulkheads……..
A. readily accessible gas tight glance shall be provided
B. compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discahrge cargo
C. pressure gague or manometer shall be installed on the bulkhead to ensure the gas tight
seal in maintain
D. the glance are to be kept under continuos section with power ventilation

ans. A
 3158. in merchant ship construction , the term scantilings refers to …………

A. a factor of safety involved with the hog and sag charecterestics of the
hull

B. hull guided strenght in terms of standard model

C. designed size of beams, stiffeners and shell platind

D. ICE strength classification of the hull

Ans. C

3159 the structural member of hull extending in a fore and aft direction are
called__________
A. frames
B. joiners
C. longitudinels
D. knees

ans.c

3160the minium member of crue member is prrmitted by law to opperate your

vessel can be determined by checking the _____________
A. manning certificate
B. class certificate
C. masters crew list
D. masters law group

ans.A

3161which of the fpllowing is ooperated from the main engine room console on
an automator vessel?
A. Fire pump and lubeboil pump
B. Lubeoil pump and distiling plant
C. Distilling plant and shaft alley door
D. Shaftalley door and fixed CO2 to relase

Ans.
 3162expantion times used in hot water heating system may be of the open or
closed type. What would be the normal temperature range of the water?
A. 80®c to 100®c
B. 104®c to 118®c
C. 127®c to 138®c
D. 160®c to 182®c

Ans.

3163 which of the following statement describes the function of an alarm

annunciator on an engine room alarm panel?
a) An alarm condition causes a light and siren to come on which remain on until the
machinary is secured
b) A flashing light comes on, followed by an audiable alarm. When an alarm acknowledged
button is depressed the audiable alarm is silenced and light stays on
c) An alarm condition gives an audiable and visual alar signal,bothof which are secured
when the alarm acknowledged button is depressed
d) An alarm condition causes a flashing light to come on, followed by an audiable alarm
acknowledge button is depressed, the warning light is extinguished

Ans B

3164 according to regulation a standard fire is one………………..

a) Of many initial operating tests performed on newly commisioned boilers
b) Which is used to determine the flash point of various marine fuels
c) Which develops a serious of temperature relationships in atest furnace
d) In which all emergency firefighting and releated safety equipment are tested

ans c

3165 with refrence to a vessel’s structural integrity the most significant

characterictic of a cryogenic liquid is its……………………
a) Capability of causing brittle fractures
b) Highly corrosive action on mild steel
c) Vapour cloud which reacts violently with saltwater
d) Toxically at atmospheric pressure

Ans a
3166 with regard to opening and closing of watertight appliances not fitted with a
remote operating control or alarm system which of the following is the master or
a person in charge of a modu required to enter in th logbook?
a) The time required to close the appliances
b) The reason for opening or closing each appliances
c) The name of the person performing the opening and closing and closing of such
appliances
d) The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not

Ans b

3167 the purpose of bilge keel is to………………….

a) Lower the center of gravity of ship
b) Reduces the amplitude of the roll
c) Reduce pitching
d) Reduce yawing

Ans b

3168 which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler plate?
a) Provides a surface for the surface for the application of force or the installation of
machinary
b) Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding tape
c) Absorbs machinary vibration
d) Prevents valve stern over travel

Ans b

3169 in order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out.specific portion of
the chain are color and wrapped with wire. The third shot of chain should
have……………..
a) Three turns of wire wrapped around the detachable link
b) Three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link oneach side of the
detechable link
c) Three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the link on each side of the deteachable
link
d) One turn of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link on each side of the deteachable
link
 Ans b

3170 aboard tankers the term category “A” machinary space as defined by
regulation means any spaceincluding trunks and tucts to space containing……………
a) Internal combustion machinary used for main propulsion
b) One or more oil fired boilers or fuel units
c) Internal combustion machinary used for purpose other than main propulsion where the
total collective power is at least 500 brakehorsepower
d) All the above

Ans d

3171 if high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,there is a significant

possibility that…………….I there will be an accumlation of static electricity II mold
will grow and contaminate the cargo
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II

Ans b

3172 if auxilary machinary vital to the main propulsion system is not provided
with independent duplicate systems , which of the systems listed would satisfy
regulations if servicedby two pumps?
a) Main condensate
b) Lube oil service
c) Fuel oil service
d) All the above

Ans d

3173 which of the following machinery remote control shutdowns is required to

be tested during each regular inspection for certification?
a) Forced draft fan
b) Induced draft fan
c) Fuel oil transfer pump
 d) Allthe above

Ans d

3174 all of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted…………
a) Yellow
b) White
c) Red
d) Orange

Ans c

3175 if a vessel is not provided with duplicate service systems, which of the
systems listed the regulations if the serviced by two pumps?
a) Main condensate
b) Fuel oil service
c) Lube oil service
d) All the above

Ans d

3176 the hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today are fabricated
from…………………
a) Wrought iron
b) High alloy steel
c) Mild steel
d) Corrosion resisting steel

Ans c

3177 when any vessel is drydocked,examination shall be made of the

propeller…………..
a) Fairwater cone and hull anodes by the chief engineer assigned to the vessel
b) Propeller coupling and flange fasteners by the authorized inspector of the repair facility
c) Keel and stabilizing fins by a registered marine engineer
d) Stern bushing , sea connection and fastenings if deemed necessary by the class surveyor

Ans d
3178 The penetration of watertight bulkhead and watertight deck by rigid
nonmetallic piping is prohibited except when

a.fairwater cone and hull anodes by the Chief Engineer assigned to vessel

b.propeller coupling and flange fasteners by the authorized inspector of the epair
facility

c. keel and stabilizing fins by a registereg marine engineer

d. stern bushing,sea connection and fastening if deemed result by the class surveyor

ans : a

3179 In ship construction,a large number of watertight bulkheads result in

a.increased capacity to set flooding boundaries

b.decreased capacity to set fioooding boundaries

c. reduced compartmentation

d.greater deck load capacity

ans : a

3180 regulation require fresh weter tank vent terminating with in the machinery
space to terminate well above the deep loat line unless the

a.vent are fitted with suteble mechanical closures

b.tenk have no boundaries in common with the hull

c.vent are fitted with ball float check vales or an equivalent automatic closure device

d.tank are fitted with suitable pressure vacuum relief value

ans : b

3181 regulation prohibit aircompressor from being lacate in

a.a space with in three meters of a cargo valve

b. a space in whih cargo hose is stowed

c.an enclosed space containing cargo piping

d.all of the above

ans: d

3182 who responsiblefor completing the station bill or muster list and posting it in a
visible area aboard the vessel

a. Chief engineer
b. Master
c. Psc inspector
d. None of the above
Ans:b

3183when a vessel is in drydock the vessel engineer should

a.examine the contion of the propeller

b.chip and paint all hull projection zines

c. install new docking plugs in all cofferdams

d. inspects the hull for hogging or segging

ans:a

3184 according to the regulation when reach rods to tank value pass through the
deck stuffing box at this joint must be

a. Grounded with bonding straps

b. Water tight
c. Gas tight
d. Made of neon or nonmetallic material
Ans : c

3185 when installing a new independent fuel tank for the emergency lighting unit
which of the following statements must be strictly adhered to in accordance with
regulation

a. the tank must be located on an open deck or in an adequately ventilated metal

compartment in which the ambient temperature never exceeds 150 c
b. iron or steel tanks shall be galvonised on the interior to prevent the formation
of rust if any condensation should occur
 c. the fuel tank should be adequately supported and branched to prevent
movement and insulated from the vessels common ground to insure against
static electricity
d. all of the above
ans: a

3186how often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank vessel to be tested

a. prior to each cargo discharge operation

b. at least once each voyage
c. at least once a year
d. at each biennial inspection
ans:c

3187 machinery driving fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service pumps must be fitted
with a remote means of stopping the machinery from

a. within the space concerned

b. outside the space concerned
c. the throttle station
d. within the fireroom
ans:b

3188 A cofferdam is a/an _________________

a. empty space between tank tops and bilges

b. cement baffle in a fresh water tank
c. tank for storing chemicals
d. empty space separating compartments to prevent the content of
one compartment from entering other compartment
Ans:d

3189 The outer strake of the inner bottom on each side of the ships is called the
_______________

a. rider plate

b.outer plate

c.margin plate

d. stealer plate

ans:c
3190 In the longitudinal framed ship , the longitudinal frames are held in place and
supported by athwartship members called ______________

a.stringers

b.web frames

c.pillers

d.brackets

ANS :b

3191 Which of the following systems according to regulations must have

An emergency stop, protected with a glass anclosure , and located outside of the
machinery space?

a. Main frame pump

b. Fuel oil service pump
c. Main circulating/bilge injection valve
d. All the above
Ans: b
A. Chill shocking is necessary to remove scale
B. Leakage at the second-stage condenser
C. Faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
D. Carryover in the first-stage

Ans:D
A. Increased heat levels throughout the entire unit
B. Decreased priming and lower salinity distillate
C. First effect scale formation to be loosened
D. Pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit

Ans:D

3194. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the operating principal
of a flash-type evaporator?
A. Seawater is heated to boiling temperature while under a vacuum
B. Seawater is passed over heated plates in a thin film
C. Heated seawater is injected into a vacuum chamber
D. Seawater is forced through a heated educator
 Ans:C

3195. Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within
a flash type evaporator?
A. Production of high salinity distillate
B. Seawater feed temperature below 75 C
C. A leak in the first stage demiste
D. A cracked distillate pump vent line

3196. One advantage of a triple-effect low pressure submerged tube distilling

plant over a double-effect unit is _________

Ans:D
A. Better water purity
B. Less scale formation
C. Less internal corrosion
D. Greater evaporator efficiency

3197. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring

the_______

Ans:D
A. Electrical inductance of water
B. Electrical conductivity of water
C. Specific gravity of water
D. Hydrogen ion concentration of water

Ans:B

3198. One distinct advantage of flash type evaporators as compared to most

other evaporators, is that in a flash evaporator________
A. High temperature distillate can be recirculated to induce additional flashing
B. Scale formation is not more severe problem
C. Cold shocking is more effective in removing scale
D. Water purity is greatly increased at high capacity

Ans:B
3199. Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell and tube
heat exchanger as the air ejector condenser.More recent models use a combined
air ejector condenser with the ________
A. Distillating condenser
B. Salt water feed heater
C. Distillate cooler
D. Flash chamber

Ans:B

3200. If the supplied steam pressure to the first effect of a submerged tube
distilling plant is allowed to fluctuate, the distiller___________
A. Solenoid dump valve will trip
B. Air ejector will operate erratically
C. Water levels will automatically lower
D. Brine density will increase

Ans:A

3201. Fluctuating pressures and temperatures in an evaporator will__________

A. Eliminate most of the scale formation in the first effect
B. Increase the heat level in all effects
C. Increase the probability of priming
D. Automatically cold shock the evaporator

Ans:C

3202. The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed water, in a flash
type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an__________
A. Pressure regulator within the supply orifice
B. Thermally actuated bypass valve
C. Attemporator in the steam supply piping
D. Sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve

Ans:C

3203. In a two stage flash evaporator heated feedwater is vaporized in the

________
A. Feed inlet box
 B. Distiller feedwater heater
C. First and second stage flash chambers
D. First and second stage vapor separators

Ans:C

3204. Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may result from_________

A. Poor distillate quality
B. Reduced evaporator capacity
C. Low brine concentration
D. Improper vacuum regulation

Ans:D

3205. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by ________

A. The flashing of the feed water
B. The condensation of the saltwater feed
C. Air ejectors,educators,or a separate vacuum pump
D. Condensation of the distillate

Ans:C

3206. While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging the output to the
distill tanks.If it becomes necessary to reduce the feed water temperature below
74 C, you should________
A. Continue the current evaporator operation
B. Dump the evaporator to the bilge
C. Secure the evaporator until the feedwater temperature can be raised to 74 C or more
D. Raise the tripping point at the salinity indicating panel for the three-way valve

Ans:A

3207. If a flash-type evaporator was designed to operate in seawater at 24 C, and

the current seawater temperature is 10 C, without readjusting any valve
associated with this evaporator________
A. The capacity will be doubled
B. The capacity will remain the same regardless of the seawater temperature
C. It will probably “trip off the line” as a result of an excessive and violent rate of flashing
D. It will produce the purest and lowest salinity concentration of distillate that can be
produced
 Ans:C

3208. Where auxiliary steam supply is not used in the process of maintaining
vacuum in a distilling unit, the vacuum is usually attained by ____________
A. Air operated air ejectors
B. Vacuum pumps
C. Increasing the rate of condensation in the distiller condensers
D. A separated suction connection to the brine overboard pump

Ans:B

3209. In the event of a power failure to the salinity panel on a flash-type

evaporator, the three-way solenoid valve will__________
A. Be frozen in its last position
B. Direct distillate to the fresh water tank
C. Dump distillate to the bilge
D. Dump distillate to the makeup feed tank

Ans:C

3210. The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed heater
on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels is_____________
A. Slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction
B. Slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing valve outlet
C. Slightly higher than the second stage vacuum
D. Slightly lower than the first stage vacuum

Ans:A

3211. Condensate formed within the firs-effect tube nest of a double-effect, low
pressure evaporator, is removed by a__________
A. Series of baffles
B. Crossover pipe
C. Condensate separator
D. Drain pump

Ans:D

3212. Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be
obtained directly from the__________
 A. Main steam line
B. Turbine extraction line
C. Turbo-generator steam supply line
D. Air ejector exhaust line

Ans:B

3213. The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is due in part
to the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the__________
A. Steam flow rate to the air ejectors
B. Float controlled level of the feed heater
C. Capacity of the distillate pump
D. Throughput of the brine overboard pump

Ans:D

3214. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied

to the first-effect of a low pressure distilling plant will cause______________

A. Increased heat levels throughout the entire unit
B. Decreased priming and lower distillate salinity
C. First effect scale formation to be lessened
D. Pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit

Ans:D

3215. A fixed orifice plate is generally installed in the live steam supply to an
evaporator. One of the functions of this orifice is to controlthe quantity of the
supplied steam. A second function is to_____
A. Reduce pressure fluctuations from occurring in the steam supply to the salt water feed
heater
B. Produce more useful superheated supply steam
C. Guarantee that the steam supply will remain desuperheated
D. Produce a low salt water feed heater shell absolute pressure

Ans:A

3216. When securing a centrifugal distillate pump, which of the listed steps
should be carried out first?
A. Stop the pump
B. Close the pressure gage valves
 C. Trip the three-way solenoid valve
D. Close the sealing line valves to the pump

Ans:C

3217. A vacuum is initially established in the first and second stages of a low
pressure evaporator by the use of____________
A. Vacuum drag from the auxiliary condensate system
B. Individual vacuum pumps
C. A single non-conducting air ejector
D. A two stage air ejector

Ans:D

3218. The vapor separators installed in some distilling plants consist rows of
vertical hooked vanes which remove entrained moisture from the vapor
by__________
A. Directing the vapor through a fine metallic mesh
B. Condensing water droplets on the metal vanes
C. Tapping water droplets in the metallic mesh
D. Abruptly changing the direction of vapor flow

Ans:D

3219. Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator,
the first-stage air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the
evaporator,and the second stage air ejector________
A. Takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator
B. Takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator as well
C. Takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge
D. Is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit

Ans:C

3220. When the steam leaving the control orifice of the live steam supply is not
conditioned, the evaporator___________
A. Capacity will be increased
B. Capacity will be decreased
C. Salt water feed heater absolute pressure will decrease significantly
D. Salt water feed heater absolute pressure will increase significantly
 Ans:B

3221. A flash type evaporator is designed to operate in 24 C seawater, if operated

in 10 C sea water_________
A. The absolute pressures will be slightly below the predicted design absolute pressures
B. Absolute pressure in the evaporator stages will be higher
C. The unit will operate at reduced capacity
D. Thermal efficiency will decrease,but brine density will increase

Ans:A

3222. Inorder to prevent salt water contamination of the distillate in a flash-type

evaporator, it is important to provide a positive seal around the_____________
A. Spray caps
B. Demisters
C. Saltwater heater vents
D. Steam supply orifice plate

Ans:D

3223. Which of the following statements describes the proper operation of a

three-way solenoid trip valve on a flash-type evaporator?
A. The valve must be manually reset
B. The valve will trip if the sea water feed temperature drops below 79 C
C. The valve is interlocked to trip only on de-energization of the solenoid
D. The valve will trip if the distillate is too warm

Ans:A

3224. Where would a salinity cell be installed in a double-effect distilling plant?

A. Distillate pump discharge
B. Tube nest drain pump discharge
C. Air ejector condensation drain
D. All of the above

Ans:D

3225. The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to___________

A. Prepare for a hydrostatic test
B. Stress relieve the tubes
 C. Break loose scale deposits formed on the tubes
D. Test for leaks in the tubes

Ans:C

3226. Which of the listed problems is occurring if a coil type high pressure
evaporator constantly

requires an increase in the coil steam pressure in order to maintain capacity?

A. The brine density is improper
B. Heat transfer surfaces are being layered with scale
C. Impure distillate is being produced
D. Shell vapor pressure is constantly decreasing

Ans:B

3227. In the last effect of a multi-effect submerged tubedistilling plant rapid

fluctuations of the absolute pressure tend to cause_____________
A. Scale formation with increased heat transfer
B. Priming with increased salinity of distillate
C. Slightly foaming at the distillate feed pump
D. Improved operating conditions at the brine pump

Ans:B

3228

In which of the following types of evaporators is the control of brine density least
important?
A. Solo shell evaporator
B. Flash evaporators
C. Submerged tube evaporators
D. Basket evaporators

Ans B

3229

A multistage flash evaporators will be unable to produce consistency pure

distillate if the?
 A. Distillate cooler is dirty
B. Tubes of the saltwater feed heater are flooded internally
C. Distillate meter stops
D. Vacuum is fluctuating

Ans D

3230

When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of the listed steps should
be carried out first?
A. Close the pressure gage isolation valves
B. Secure the casing vapor vent line
C. Secure the stuffing box sealing water line
D. Trip the three way dump valve

Ans D

3231

Rapid fluctuation of the last effect shell vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator
can cause
A. Erratic air eject operation
B. Air leaks in the tube nest
C. Rapid scaling in all effects
D. Priming in that effect

Ans D

3232

Improper waterside venting of the tube nest in a submerged tube evaporator can
cause a/an
A. Fluctuating vacuum in the evaporator
B. Loss of evaporator capacity
C. Increased in the first effect
D. Increased brine overboard flow rate

Ans B
3233

If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a
flash evaporator, you should suspect
A. A weak in the feedwater heater
B. Improper vacuum
C. A malfunctioning brine pump
D. A clogged desurperheater water strain

Ans C

3234

Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash type distilling plant
will be a result of
A. Maintaining the proper distilling plant heat balance
B. Carrying the brine level below normal
C. Leaks in the demister baffles
D. Venting of the salt water heater drain pump

Ans C

3235

In a flash evaporator, scales as a result of higher than normal temperature is most

likely to occur in the
A. Second stage feed heater
B. Saltwater feed heater
C. Distillate cooler
D. Second stage vapor separator

Ans B

3236

Irregular feeding or surging of the feed water supply to a flash evaporator may be
attributed to
A. Erratic water flow through the water educator
 B. A clogged vent line from the air educator condenser
C. Excessive pressure in the seawater feed heater
D. A dirty strainer in the saltwater feed pump suction line

Ans D

3237

If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become significantly
enlarged through erosion the
A. Distillate produced in the second stage would flow toward the first stage
B. Evaporator absolute pressure would eventually equalize in both stages to that of the first
stage
C. Evaporator absolute pressure could eventually equalize in both stages to that of the
second stage
D. Salt water feed heater absolute pressure would increase to that of the evaporator second
stage
Ans C

3238

In a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is converted into vapor by

suddenly
A. Increasing its temperature
B. Increasing its volume
C. Decreasing its density
D. Decreasing its pressure
Ans D

3239

Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of

an electrical salinity indicator?
A. Measure the hydrogen ion concentration
B. Measure the electrical resistance of the water
C. Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen
D. Measures the voltage of the chloride ion

Ans B
3240

In the double effect submerged tube evaporator, the brine density should be
prevented from falling below 1.5/32nds to minimize
A. Scale formation of the tube nest s
B. Loss in capacity and maintain plant efficiency
C. Corrosion in the evaporator
D. Carryover in the evaporator

Ans B

3241

Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing____________

A. Steam through heating coils
B. Steam through cooling coils
C. Heated water into a high pressure area
D. Heated water into a low pressure area

Ans D

3242

A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be caused

by__________
A. Wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle
B. Pinhole leaks in the evaporator tube nests
C. Rapid scaling on the evaporator tube nests
D. High water levels in the last effect

Ans A

3243

In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of scale
formation is greatly reduced by__________
A. Operating the unit at its rated capacity
B. Maintaining a relatively high feedwater temperature
 C. The fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a constant pressure
D. The fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in the unit

Ans D

3244

Which of the listed chemicals can be routinely used to maintain the hygienic
quality of potable water?
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Chlorine
C. Sulphuric acid
D. Zinc chromate

Ans B

3245

When any low pressure distilling plant is operated at less than the designed
vauum, the__________
A. Heat level drops
B. Capacity increases
C. Scale formation increases
D. Distillate purity increases

Ans C

3246

Portable water piping systems installed aboard ships must be ___________

A. Disinfected monthly with a chlorine compound
B. Independent of all other piping systems
C. Cadmium lined to prevent internal corrosion
D. Flushed each time portable water is taken onboard

Ans. B

3247
Short cycling of the portable water pump is avoided by the proper use of a
___________
A. Hydro-pneumatic tank completely filled with compressed air at system operating
pressure
B. Hydro-pneumatic tank filled with water
C. Charge of air, at 1.4 kg/cm2 (137.9 KPa) above system pressure with the hydro-
pneumatic tank one quarter full of water
D. Charge of air, at system pressure, when the hydropneumatic tank is half full of water

Ans. D

3248

A recirculating line is provided in the potable hot water system to ____________

A. maintain uniform inlet conditions for the constant speed supply pumps

B. Maintain flow rates which will eliminate fluid film formation in the piping

C. Return overflow from the pressure takes back to the potable water tanks

D. Maintain the desired temperature range throughout the system

Ans. D

3249

Which of the following components would be necessary for the proper operation
of a potable hot water system?
A. Circulating pump
B. Drift pockets
C. Sterilizer
D. Hydro-pneumatic expansion tank

Ans. A

3250
A solenoid operated distillate bypass valve is installed in the discharge lie
between a distilling plant and the potable water tanks to prevent___________
A. Excessively warm distillate from entering the potable tanks
B. Salty distillate from reaching the potable tanks
C. Overfilling and overflowing the potable tanks
D. Contaminated water from leaving the potable tanks

Ans. B

3251

Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable water

tank_________
A. Through a detachable hose connection
B. After passing through an activated charcoal filter
C. After chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption
D. through a solenoid operated three-way valve

Ans. D

3252

Brine density in a distilling plant is measured with a/an_____________

A. psychometer
B. salinometer
C. anemometer
D. sphygmomanometer

Ans. B

3253

Tube leaks in the distillate cooler of a two stage flash evaporator will result
in___________
A. loss of second stage vacuum
B. contamination of the distillate
C. lower feed inlet temperature
D. contamination of the second stage condenser
 Ans. B

3254

In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual
vent cocks to the___________
A. saltwater heater shell
B. second \-stage condenser
C. atmosphere
D. second-stage flash chamber

Ans. C

3255

Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when operated in cooler
seawater temperatures?
A. steam carryover between stages is reduced
B. Evaporator vacuum is increased
C. The amount of available flash steam is decreased
D. Feedwater flow from the feedwater heated is increased

Ans. B

3256

The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator are cooled
by_________
A. Distillate
B. Seawater
C. Brine
D. Air

Ans. B

3257

The steam coils I a high pressure evaporator used for saltwater service should be
descaled with_______
 A. A wire brush
B. A needle gun
C. A chipping hammer
D. Soap and water

Ans. A

3258

Scale accumulation on evaporator heating surfaces will cause_________

A. Immediate loss of vacuum
B. Increased distillate quality
C. Immediate tube failure
D. Induced evaporator capacity

Ans. D

3259

If the rated distillate production of a submerged tue type evaporator cannot be

maintained with the supplied maximum steam flow rate, the
evaporator__________
A. Chemical feed must be increased
B. Has a serious brine leak
C. Temperature switch is defective heating surfaces are scaled

Ans. D

3260

The first stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage
flash evaporator is___________
A. Equal to the second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure
B. Higher than the secondstage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure
C. Lower than the feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in the second stage
D. Higher than the second stage feedwater temperature but at a lower shell absolute
pressure

Ans. B
3261

In a two stage flash evaporator operating conditions in the second stage, as

compared to the first stage, are__________
A. Higher temperature and higher absolute pressure
B. Higher temperature and lower absolute pressure
C. Lower temperature and higher absolute pressure
D. Lower temperature and lower absolute pressure

Ans. D

3262

A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate circuit between any two

stages of a multiple stage distilling plant by the use of a/an___________
A. Steam trap
B. Butterfly valve
C. Loop seal
D. Adjustable controller

Ans. C

3263

The average salinity of normal seawater, when expressed as brine density is

equivalent to_____________
A. 1/32nd
B. 1.5/32nds
C. 2/32nds
D. 3/32nds

Ans. A

c. water flashing into vapor than boiling on the heat transfer surfaces .

d. opening the first-stage regulator to maintain a constant shell pressure.

Ans: c
3266. Salinity cells are strategically installed in flash type distilling units to
indicate the ……..I presence of leaks in the flash chambers. It quantity of the
distillate produced

A. 1 only

B.2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D.Neither 1 and 2

Ans:D

3267. Partially clogged or scored nozzles in a two stage air ejector unit of a flash
distlling plant could result in a …..

A. fluctualting vaccum in the flash heater shell

B. flooded seawater feed heater shell

C. high water level in the air ejector after condenser

D. manufacturing check valve in the air ejector discharge

Ans:A

3268. In a flash type evaporator, an electriacal salinity cell would be installed in

the

A. distillate outlet from the distillate cooler

B. distillate inlet to the distillate cooler

C. condestate drains from the distiller feedwater heater

Ans:D

3269. Small droplets of water enternaid in the flashed vapour produced in a flash
type evaporator, are removed by the
A. spray pipes

B. demisters

C. condensers

D.splash baffles

Ans: B

3270. The demisters installed in a flash type evaporator serve to

A. decrease the first effect distillate

B. filter the condensed flash vapour

C. deaerate the first and second effet distillate

D. remove small water droplets enternained in the flashed vapour

Ans. D

3271. In a double effect distilling plant, the brine particals remaining enternaied
with the vapour produced in the evaporator first effect, are separated by

A. a flash chamber

B. baffles and vanes

C. the vapour feed heater

D. a brine pump

Ans. B

3272. The inability to maintain proper vaccum in a submerged tube evaporator

can be caused by

A. fluctuating steam pressure to the air ejector nozzle

B. improper venting of the evaporator tube nests

C. air leaks in the evaporator tube nests

D. high water level in the evaporator shell

Ans. A

3273. One function of the vapour feed heater in a double effect distilling unit is
to

A. condense part of the vapor given off in the first effect

B. preheat distillate circulating to the second effect tube nest

C. cool the incoming first effect evaporator feed

D. condense all the distillate in the second effect tube nests

Ans. A

3274. The size of the loop seal orifice for a flash type evaporator is important for
maintain the control of

A. the vaccum differential developed between both stages

B. the absolute pressure developed between both stages

C. the absolute pressure developed in the salt water feed heater shell

D. maintain distillate flow between the first and second stage in order to avoid
dry seal opera tion of the loop

Ans.D

3275. The heated feedwater entering any flash chamber of a flash type
evaporator will

A. vaporize, with the unflashed water remaining at the temperature at which it

entered the flash chamber

B. vapourize with the unflashed water equalizing to the sapotion conditions

existing in the flash chamber
C. vaporize, with the remaining water at a temperature greater than it entered
the flash chamber

D. boil, allowing steam bubbles to rise through the brine at the bottom of the
flash chamber

Ans. B

3276. If the distillate temperature from a flash type evaporator falls below 71*C

A. the distillate may be directed to the storage tanks

B. the automatic three way solenoid dump valve should direct distillate to the
bilge

C. the demisters will become scaled

D. priming will occur in the first effect

Ans. A

3277. On a multistage flash type evaporator, the flash chamber is

A. combine as part of the salt water feed heater

B.the open area above the brine levels in the first and second stages

C.combined as the part of the distilate cooler

D.another term used to describe the vapour fed water

3278.which of the listed conditions will cause the feed water,that has not flashed
to vapour in the first stage of a flash evaporator to flow into second stage of a
flash evaporator to flow into second-stage?

A.gravity siphon effect

B.higher vaccum in the second-stage

C.difference in the brine density between first and second stages

D. lower pressure in first-stage

ANS:B

3279.when a flash evaporator is being operated in extremely cold water you may
need to throttle the seawater supply to

A.prevent cold shocking the evaporator

B.maintain the feed water temperature above the required minimum input
temperature

C.avoid flooding the evaporator shell

D.incerase the evapoaator distilling rate

ANS:B

3280. the final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling plant is carried
out by

A. low pressure steam admitted to the feedwater heater

B. heat exchange in the first stage feedbox

C. vaporization in the first stage chamber

D. heat exchange in each stage distiller condenser

Ans: A

3281. Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces

A. increases brine density

B. increases distillate salinity

C. reduces metal corrosion

D. reduces heat transfer

Ans: D
3282. The efficiency of a flash type evaporate can be increased by

A. lowering brine discharge density

B. decreasing the absolute pressure of each stage

C. increasing the saltwater feed heater temperature

D. increasing the pressure at the spray pipe

Ans: B

3283. In a two stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is
increased as it passes through the

A. first stage distilling condenser

B. second stagedistilling condenser

C. salt water feed heater

D. all the above.

Ans: D

3284. In the operation of a flash type evaporator equipped with air ejectors the
air and noncondensable gases are evacuated from the

A. first stage flash chamber

B. second stage flash chamber

C. first stage after condenser

D. second stage distilling condenser

Ans: D

3285. The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of the
distilling plant should be as possible to

A. prevent scale accumulation on heat exchange surfaces

B. maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature

C. ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency

D. prevent any salinity in the distillate produced

Ans: C

3286. Less scale formation occurs in a flash evaporator than in a submerged tube
evaporator because

A. the distillate produced has greater purity

B. no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces

C. evaporation occurs at a higher rate

D. the incoming feed is at a higher temperature

Ans. B

3287. In a flash type evaporator, the brine overboard pump is vented directly to
the

A. sailwater heater shell

B. first stage distilling condenser

C. second stage flash chamber

D. air ejector condenser

Ans. C

3288. The thickness deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in
the tubes of the

A. distillate cooler

B. first stage condenser

C. saltwater feed heater

D. flash chamber

Ans. C

3289. The advantages of flash type evaporators, as compared to submerged tube

type evaporators, include

A. less internal corrosion because of lower brine density

B. higher temperature evaporation for lower salinity of the distillate produced

C. less scale formation in a flash evaporator

D. less feedwater required for a flash evaporator

Ans. C

3290. In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is prevented
to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapour from the pump
suction?

A. Condensor circulating water pump

B. feed water heater drain pump

C. distillate pump

D. air ejector condenser drain pump

Ans. C

3291. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause water hammer in
the portable water system?

A. the hydre pneumatic tank being properly

B. the starting of the portable water pump

C. a low water level in the portable water storage tank

D. rapid closing of a spring closed basin fauce

Ans: D

3292 Why will a two stage flash type distilling plant tend to operate more
efficiently when operating in cold seawater?
A. The coldest seawater passing through the condenser tube bundles of the various stages
increases evaporator vaccum
B. The amount of heated feedwater discharged from the feedwater heater altercondeser is
increased
C. Fewer noncondensable gases are created by the flow of colder seawater
D. More seawater is allowed to pass through the first stage overflow weir
Ans. A
3293.Which of the following statements represents an advantage of a triple effect
submerged tube evaporator compared to a single effect submerged tube evaporator?
A. Greater purity of distillate
B. Lower consumption of steam per pound of the distillate produced
C. Less scale formation
D. less complex to maintain and operate
Ans. B

3293.Which of the following statements represents an advantage of a triple-effect

submerged tube evaporator compared to a single –effect submerged tube
evaporator?

A.greater purity

B.lower consumption of steam per pound of dis late produced

C.less scale fotmation

D.less complex to maintain and operate

Ans.B

3294.One advantage of a flash distilling plant when compared to a submerged

tube is

A.greater distillate purity through high temperature evaporation

B.cold shocking for scale removal is not required

C.less internal corrosion because of lower brine density

D.less feed water is required for equal plant capacity

3295.potable and non-potable water system aboard vessel

A.may be temporily interconnected with a removal spool

B.are permanently interconnected through a double stop value

C.may never be interconnected by any means

D.may be connected if they are used only for wash water

Ans.C

3296.Which of the following statement is correct relative to distillation plant

operation?

A.distillation is the process of boling seawater to produce vapor which is

condensed into fresh water

B.evaporation is the second part of the distillation process where brine is

removed

C.brine is the result of condensed sea water vapor

D.distillate is the product resulting from the evaporation of fresh water vapor

3297.Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through

A.gasketed joints

B.valve stems

C.gage glass packing

D.all the above

3298.When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of time you

should
A.fill the unit with salt water

B.fill the unit with deasealing compound

C.completely drain the unit

D.tightly seal the unit to exclude air

3299.The steam cols in the high pressure evaporator used for salt water service
should be descaled with

A.a needle gun

B.soap and water

C.a wire brush

D.a chipping hammer

3300.The rate of scale formation in a flash type distilling plant is greatly reduced
by

A.operating the unit at its rated capacity

B.maintaining a relatively high feed water temperature

3301.Feed water supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor in the
first-stage due to the flash chamber

A.pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to feed water
temoperture

B.temperture being higher than the evaporation temperature of the supplied

feedwater
3301 c. Heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path the entering
feedwater

d. orifices finely atomizing the heated feedwater entering the flash

chamber.

Ans:a

3302 An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator can be caused by

a. Excessive brine pump motor speed
b. An excessive brine blowdown rate
c. Failure of the brine pump
d. Excessive distillate pump speed
Ans:c
3303 A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many
vessels by using
a. Constant speed supply pumps
b. Variable speed supply pumps
c. An air cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank
d. A pressure regular in the pressure tank discharge piping

Ans:c

3304 If the distillating plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal ,
while the second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory , the probable fault
is due to
a. Loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages
b. Priming in the second stage
c. Failure of the brine pump
d. An air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage

Ans:d

3305 salinity cells are strategically installed in distillingunits to indicate

the______________1. Location of a saltwater leak.2. size of the tank
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
 d. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:a

3306 an automstic solenoid dump valve should be set to trip if the evaporator
produces distillate with salt content exceeding
A. 1ppm
B. 5ppm
C. 50ppm
D. 1000ppm
Ans:d

3307 In the operation of a two- stage flash-type distilling plant , which of the
pumps listed should be vented to the second stage shell in order to remove
vapors from the pump suction?
a. Condenser circulating water pump
b. Feedwater heater drain pump
c. Distillate pump
d. Air ejector condenser drain pump
Ans:c

3308 If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type
evaporator__________.1. vaporaization of the feed water would continue at
second stage designed saturation conditions .2. all of the distillate produced
would be certain to b
a. 1only
b. 2only
c. Both
d. Neither 1 nor2
Ans:a

3309 If a holre were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash type
evaporator _________.1.vaporization of the feed water would continue .2.
efficiency of the unit would only be moderately affected
a. 1only
b. 2only
c. Both
 d. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:a

3310 priming in asubmerged lube evaporator can be caused by high water level
and
a. Low brine density
b. Low steam pressure
c. High absolute pressure
d. Excessive brine density
Ans:d

3311 Carryover in aflash type distilling plant can be a result of

a. Faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
b. A pressure drop through the loopseal
c. High distillate conductivity
d. Low distillate conductivity
Ans:d

3312 evaporator priming can be caused by high water level , fluctuating steam
pressure , or

a. Fluctuating shell vacuum

b. Low brine density
c. Low feed temperature
d. A brine overflow weir set too low
Ans:a

3313 when a flash-type evaporator is to be secured for an extended period of

time , the entire unit should be drained ,cleaned, and
a. Completely filled with salt water
b. Filled with descaling compound
c. Tightly closed to exclude air
d. Vented to the atmosphere
Ans:d

3314 Which of the following statements is true concerning any evaporator?

 a. High conductivity of the distillate indicates distillate salinity is excessive
b. Increasing the absolute pressure of the shell will increase the distiller’s capacity
c. Mesh separators are used in evaporators to filters the distillate
d. Reducing the brine density will reduce the heat lost overboard
Ans:a

3315 A salinity indicator is used to determine the

a. Causes of salt contamination
b. Location of salt water contamination
c. Chemical makeup of feedwater
d. Level of alkalinity in condensate
Ans:b

3316 In the production of fresh water from seawater through a process of

heating and cooling ,the cooling phase of the production is usually
a. Evaporation
b. Distillation
c. Dehydration
d. Condensation
Ans:d

3317 A three-way solenoid operated dump valve installed on a flash-type

evaporator unit , will divert impure distillate to the bilge
a. Only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the first stage diatillate outlet
b. Only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the final stage distillate outlet
c. Regardless of the cell selector switch position
d. Only if the power to the salinity panel is interrupted.
Ans:c
3318. The process of boiling seawater in order to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine is
defined as……………….

A. dehydration

B. condensation

C. evaporation

D. dissolution

Ans. C

3319. The mesh type steam separators located in a two-stage flash distilling plant, function to………

A. vent noncondensable gases

B. recycle evaporator flash steam

C. reheat the flash steam

D. improve distillate purity

Ans. D

3320. In a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the mesh type vapor separators function to………………

A. improve distillate purity

B. vent noncondensable gases

C. recycle evaporator flash steam

D. direct flash steam into the cooler

Ans. A

3321. In a double-effect distilling plant, the evaporator feed remainingentrained in the first effect
vapor, is removed by………………

A. baffles and vanes

B. a flash chamber

C. the second effect separator

D. the vapor feed heater

Ans. A
 3336. In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater) first absorbs heat in
the _____

A. vapor feed heater

B. air ejector conductor

C. saltwater heater

D. distillate cooler

Ans. D

3337. In a two-stage flash-type evaporator, excess brine in the first stage

automatically passes_____

A. directly to the second stage feed heater

B. directly overboard through the brine cooler

C. into the second stage flash chamber

D. into the second stage vapor condenser

Ans. C

3338. The second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in a
multistage, flash type, distillating plant is_____

A. higher than the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure

B. lower than the first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure

C. the same as the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure

D. not related to the feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure

Ans. B
3339. Rapid fluctuations in the shell pressure in a submerged tube distilling unit
will cause_____

A. increased heat level in the entire unit

B. decreased priming and high salinity distillate

C. first effect scale formation to be reduced

D. priming in the last effect shell

Ans. D

3340. Short cycling of the portable water system’s pump is prevented by using
_____

A. constant speed supply pumps

B. variable speed supply pumps

C. variable delivery supply pumps

D. a hydropneumatic pressure tank

Ans. D

3341. When any low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the
designed vacuum, the_____

A. heat level rises

B. heat level drops

C. capacity increases

D. scale formation decreases

Ans. A
3342. A flash type distilling plant is more efficient than a high pressure evaporator
as_____ I.vaporization of the feed water occurs in a vacuum II. Boiling of feed
water occurs only once on the tube surfaces

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I or II

Ans. A

3343. The primary reason low pressure evaporators produce distillate more
efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high pressure evaporators is_____

A. evaporation is accomplished in vacuum

B. due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed

C. due to the latent heat of evaporation principle

D. evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate

Ans. A

3344. If the brine level of the double effect soloshell evaporator is the above the
sight glass, which action should be taken?

A. Do nothing as this is the normal operating level

B. The feed rate should be reduced and the brine discharge valve opened slightly

C. The brine overflow weir should be raised to allow greater outflow

D. The brine section should be drained down a minimum of 150mm below the sea
wateer heater bundle.

Ans. B
 PIPES AND VALVES

3345. The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommened when

recquiring_____

A. high pressure drops

B. close regulation of flow

C. no pressure drops

D. no back flow

Ans. B

3346. The designation “schedule 80 extra strong” refers to __________

A. weight of steel plate

B. tensile strength of holts

C. piping wall thickness

D.tubing bursting strength

Ans. C

3347. Piping cross-sections raging from 3 mm to 300 mm in diameter, are sized

by _______

A. wall strength

B. nominal inside diameter

C. outside diameter

D. threaded diameter

Ans. B

3348. On tankers using manually operated tank valves, the deck hand wheel
indicator registers the ________
A. exact lift position of the tank valve disk through 100% of its operation

B. oxygen content of the tank

C. approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened

D. level of oil in the tank

Ans. C

3349. Which of the following can be applied to the short lengths of pipes called
‘nipples’

A. Fully threaded, half threaded, long and short

B. Close, short, long and tank

C. Standard, extra strong, double sxtra-strong and schedule 80

D. cast, wrought, stainless and brass

Ans. B

3350 Fittings used to close the end of pipes are calle “pipe ______”
A. Caps
B. Ells
C. Tees
D. Closures

Ans. A

3351 Which of the valves listed will be cycled from fully open to fully closed when
the handle is turned to 90 degrees?
A. A rising stem gate valve
B. A globe stop valve
C. A check valve
D. A butterfly valve

Ans. D
3352 The valve best suited for throttling gas or liquid flow in apipeline is the
______
A. Gate valve
B. Globe valve
C. Check valve
D. Plug valve

Ans. B

3353 As routine maintenance, the bilge mainfold valves are periodically removed
and examined. Prior to resecurring the valve bonnets, the valve _______
A. Disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary
B. Bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn
C. Stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened
D. All of the above

Ans. D

3354 On tank vessels equipped with power operated cargo tank valves the type
of power operator commonly used is
A. Hydraulic
B. Electric
C. Steam
D. Diesel

Ans. A

3355 A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used _______

A. In either fully closed or fully opened positions
B. Only eith the steam facing down
C. Only for lube oil service
D. To throttle the flow of liquid

Ans. A
3356 Compared to globe and angle valves, gate valves
A. Are more suitable for throttling
B. Operate withh little or no pressure drop when opened
C. Are more easily removed
D. Cannot be used for service requiring frequent operation

Ans. B

3357 Which of the listed materials have been used to manufacturepiping

available in standard weight, extra strong and double extra strong wall thickness?
A. Plastic
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. All of the above

Ans. C

3358 Which of the problems listed happen if you attempted to force open a valve
frozen in position by using a wrench on the hand-wheel?
A. Bending of the bonnet assembly
B. Bending of the valve stem
C. Damage to the pressure seal
D. Distortion to the valve body

Ans. B

3359 if used for regulating a fluid flow through a piping system , which of the
valves listed could be damaged
A. Plug valve
B. Globe valve
C. Gate valve
D. Needle valve

Ans. C

3360 Which of the valves listed below are best suited for throttling service
A. Plug
 B. Globe
C. Gate
D. Butterfly

Ans. B

3361 When pipe is properly screwed into a tap hole, it will give the correct fit
when
A. the pipe cannot be turned
B. all the threads are covered
C. half of the threads are covered
D. all but 2 or 3 threads are covered

Ans. D

3362 Piping cross sections over 300 mm in diameter are sized by the
A. inside diameter
B. wall thickness
C. outside diameter
D. threaded diameter

Ans. C

3363 excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing is a result of

_______
A. opening a valve too quickly
B. jamming a valve in the closed position
C. low pressure fluid flow through the pipeline
D. a scored valve stem

Ans. D

3364 Which of the pipe materials listed below has the best resistance to internal
and external corrosion?
A. Cast iron pipe
B. Cast steel pipe
C. Spiral welded pipe
D. Centrifugally cast pipe
 Ans. A

3365 To connect two legths of pipepreviously set in place, you should use a pipe
_____
A. Nipple
B. B. union
C. Coupling
D. Tee

Ans. B

3366 When in completely opened position, which of the listed types of valve will
offer the least resistance to flow?
A. Gate valve
B. Globevalve
C. Double-seat poppet valve
D. Reed valve

Ans. A

3367 An arrow stamped on the valve bodyof a water regulating valve indicates
the ___________
A. Direction of plunger side
B. Closed position
C. Open position
D. Direction of the flow

Ans. D

3368 Fabric type packing such as flack or hemp is best suited for _________
A. Low temperature use
B. High temperature use
C. Use where allignment is critical
D. Packing valves with badly groomed stems

Ans. A
3369When assembling a run of liquid surface piping, which of the following
factors should be considered?
A. How the type of fittings used wil affect the flow
B. What type pf gasket material should be used
C. What radius should be used for each bend in the run
D. All the aabove

Ans. D

3370 Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline you should ________

A. Determine the size of the gasket
B. Hang a bucjket under the joint
C. Have a first aid kit on hand
D. Be sure no pressue exists in the line

Ans. D

3371 Smaal leaks in gaskets should be stopped immediately after installation

because ________
A. The leak will probably worsen in time
B. The gasket mwy not seal itself for several hours
C. The leak will result in severe flange distortion
D. Small leaks cause the pipeline to creek

Ans. A

3372 The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of _______
A. Monrl
B. Stellite
C. A resilient material
D. Admirality material
3375. The best gas cut material to use in cargo fuel oil lines is_________

A. sheet asbestos

B. Oil-resistant sheet packing

C. cork sheet packing

D. unvulcanized packing

ANS: B

3376. The threaded pipe fitting called “street elbows” have __________

A. Male threads only

B. Female Threads Only

C. Male and Female threads

D. interpreted threads on eac end

ANS: C

3377. Gate valves should not be used for throttling as

A. A pressure drop will be excessive

B. air bringing will develop

C. the installation of an equalizing line will be nessecary

D. wire drawing of the disc will result

ANS: D

3378. A pipe coupling is a fitting having ______

A. Outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end

B. Outside threads on both ends

C. A left hand twist

D. Inside threads on both sides

ANS: D

3379. Which of the fittings listed should be used for the installation of piping to permit removable of the pump for
servicing_______

A. coupling
 B. Union

C. Quick disconnect

D. Nipple

ANS: B

3380 .which of the gasket materials and/or type listed is used on

A. spiral wound composition asbestos

B. wire impregnated sheet asbestos

C. rubber

D. wire impregnated rubber

ANS: A

3381. Which of the following statements represent the proper relative direction of flow through a globe
valve

A. direction of flow of valve is unimportant

B. direction of flow of valve depends up on the type of seat design used in the valve

C. direction of flow is from below the seat

D. Direction of flow is from above the seat

3382. Which of the following statement is correct regarding grades of pipe?

A. stainless steel is manufactured in four general grades

B. the term “extra strong “ is normally associated with schedule 160 steel pipe

C. copper pipe is manufactured in two grades

D. brass pipes is manufactured in three grades

3383. One revolution at the hand wheel of reach rod operated valve will cause the valve stern to rotate
th
A. 1/4 of a turn
th
B. 1/2 of a turn
th
C. 3/4 of a turn

D. 1turn
 3384. Gate valve should not be for throttling as…….

A. The pressure drop will be excessive

B. Air binding will develop

C. The installation of an equalizing line will be necessary

D. wire drawing of the disc will result

ANS; D

3385.Which of the valves listed below permits flow in only one direction?

A. gate value

B. globe value

C. check value

D. plug cock

ANS; C

3386.Allowances may be made for the expansion in piping by the use of expansion joints or

A. unions

B. retractable flanges

C. union bulkhead fittings

D. bends or loops in the line

ANS; D

3387.on tankers will manually operated tank valves, the type of value most commonly used is the

A. butterfly valve

B. globe valve

C. gate valve

D. check valve

ANS; C

3388.valves used in the machinery space piping system, and constructed with threaded valve stems,
must be

A. right-hand opening (clockwise)

 B. left-hand closing (counterclockwise)

C. right-hand closing (clockwise)

D. direction of opening and closing is unimportant

ANS; C

3389.the movement of steam pipingas as result of changes in temperature,is compensated for by the
use of

A.expasion joints

B.flexitallic gaskets

C.rigid brackets

D.union rings

ANS;A

3390.which of the problemlisted could be happen,if you attemptedto force open a valve”frozen”in by
posistionby using a wrench on the handwheel

A.over compression of the package

B.bending of valve stem

C.rapid corrosion of the valve disc

D.cracking of gaskets upstream of the valve

ANS;B

3391. Which of the valves listed should be used either in fully opened or the fully closed position?

A. A gate valve

B. a globe valve

C. any check valve

D. any needle valve

3392. Before making up a flanged joint, you should_____

A. Be certain that the flangs line up squarely

B. cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel

C. heat the pipeline o expand the bolt holes

C. Have a second spare gasket on hand

 ANS: B

3393. Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they are connected because___________

A. excessive strain on the joints will result if they are misaligned

B. misalignment permits excessive expansion

C. the pipe will be completely blocked by even the slightest amount of misalignment

D. condersate accumulates rapidly when flanges are not properly aligned

Ans. A

3394. The valve which is most suited for regulating the flow through a pipeline is a_______

A. gate valve

B. globe valve

C. swing-check valve

D. plug-cock valve.

Ans. B

A. be completely opened with the hand wheel locked hard at the end of the
last opening

B. be opened to the end of the last opening turn then rotate the wheel in the
closing direction by approximately ¼ of a turn

C. be opened by ½ of the total number of turns available from full closed to full
open

D. be opened as much as needed , regardless of how little the gate has been
moved from its seat

Ans: B

STEERING

3413. the action necessary to transfer the steering control from the wheelhouse
to iocal control in order to use the steering gear room wheel is to__________
 A . align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position

B . set the six-way control valve in the wheel position

C. open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel

D . always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick wheel

Ans: A

3414 . as the designed rudder angle have been achieved,as a result of the original
command input ,the steering gear follow up mechanism is_________

A . in motor , providing a null point

B . not in motion ,thus provide a null input

C . in motion providing an input to place the main pump on maximum stoke

D . in motion providing an input to place the main pump at null stoke

Ans: D

3415. if one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails the vessel’s
steering can be initially and best maintained by using ___________

A . trick wheel

B . accumulator

C . standby pump

D . telemotor

Ans: C

3416 . when there is no movement of the ram on an electro hydraulic steering

gear ,the tilting box of running pump is_______________

A . set of maximum torqe

 B . on the purge and vent stoke

C . in the neutral position

D . rotating backwards

Ans: C

3417 . when the helm demands a 20 right rudder movement from an electro
hydraulic steering gear , which of the listed action will be the FIRST action to
happen when this rudder position is attained?

A . the six-way valve opens

B . the steering service pump motor is stopped

C . the follow-up gear takes the pump off stoke

D . the cylinder relief valve bypass oil to the suction side of pump

Ans: C

3418 In an electro-hydraulic steering system,rudder movement is maintained in

close synchronization with the steering wheel position by means of
the_____________

A .trickwheel

B .follow-up control

C .six-way valve

D .Rapson slide

Ans: B

3419 Which of these listed , when used onan electro-hydraulic steering

gear,keeps the movement of the rudder closely in step with the steering wheel?

A .The follow-up gear

 B .The rudder angle indicator

C .The synchronous electric transmitter

D .A rudder angle switch

Ans: A

3420 Your vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of more than 45 hours
duration .Regulations require that the steering gear be examined and tested no
earlier than____________

A.0600 hours

B.0900 hours

C.1200 hours

D.1500 hours

Ans: A

3421 The follow up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear_____________

A .relieves excessive fluid pressure

B .takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is obtained

C .allows for rudder movement faster than the movement of ships wheel

D .returns the rudder to amidships when the wheel is released

Ans : B

3422 which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single

acting hydrallic ram is correct?
A. Hydrallic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram directional
ports.

B. The single acting ram is both extened and retracted by means of hydrallic force.
 C. The single acting ram is not retracted by means of hydrallic force.

D. Hydrallic force applied to a single acting ram results in a pulling motion.

Ans : C

3423 Which of the following types of hydrallic pumps would be used in a steering
system?
A. Lobe

B. Screw

C. Radial piston

D. Volute.

Ans: C

3424 When air becomes trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system the _______
A. Rudder will respond sluggishly

B. Hydraulic rams will overspeed

C. Slight glass will show bubbles

D. Ram relief valves will lift

Ans: A
3425 Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system should be indicated by the _______

A. The pump overspeeding

B. An improper rudder response

C. Bubbles in the side glass

D. Ram relief valves lifting

 Ans: B

3426 while inspecting the steering system of the sea , you should check for
_________

A. Air bubbles in the sight glass

B. Any leaks in the system

C. Over travel in the rudder angle indicator

D. Lost motion in rams

Ans:B

3427 when the steering wheel is turned,oil is directed to the steering gear rams
to_________

A. Modulating the oil flow with the six way valve

B. Moving the automatic pressure differential valve

C. Moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the two way valve

D. Varying the eccentricity of a floating ring or angle of the tilting box

Ans: D

3428 The function of the hydraulic telemotor transistor used in the eletro
hydraulic steering system is to___________

A. Transistor the rudder angle to the bridge indicator

B. Prevention the control linking from striking the stops when hard over

C. Automatically purge all entrained air from the system

D. Sent hydraulic signals to the receiving unit

Ans: D

3429 A solenoid , direct acting , three-position , spring –centered , directional

control valves is used in hydraulic system to control a linear actuator . with the
actuator under load there is no movement however , when the load is removed
the actuator can be cycle

A. One or both of the centering springs has broken and the spools has
jammed in the valve body

B. One or both the solenoid coils has sustained an open

C. The pump coupling is damaged and the pump is un able to attain its rate
speed of rotation

D. The pump coupling has sheared and the motor is over speeding

Ans: C

3430 When the helm angle position is changed the series of corresponding
events of the steering gear which include ______ (i) legth of the time steering
gear pups remains on the stoke is proportional to the helm angle input (ii) system
pressure being higher

A. (i) only

B. (ii) only

C. Both (i) and (ii)

D. Neither (i) and (ii)

Ans: A

3431 On an electro hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed devices will keep
the rudder from over traveling the bridge signal?

A. Rudder angle indicator

B. Follow-up gear
 C. Electric transmitter

D. Rudder angle limit switch

Ans: B

3432 When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed
actions will be the first response in the steering room on a ship equipped with an
electro hydraulic steering gear?

A. The pump goes off.

B. The 6 way valve aligns itself with the running pump

C. Both port and starboard cables are energized

D. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion

Ans: D

3433 Air-trapped in the fluid of a steering system may be indicated by _______

A. The steering pumps overspeeding

B. A jammed open relief valve

C. A constantly occurring improper rudder response

D. Excessive ram pressure

Ans: C

3434 Most hydraulic steering gears are fitted with relief valves which ______

A. Function when the rudder is amidships

B. Relieve excess whip pressure from the hydraulic oil system

C. Protect the pipng assembly from external rudder shock

D. Relieve excessive telemotor pressure

 Ans: C

3435 In an electro-hydraulic system, rudder shock is limited by

A. A differential gear

B. Return springs

C. A hydraulic accumulator

D. Relief valves

Ans: D

3436 rudder motion is prevented from exceeding the movement of the steering
wheel by the

A. Return springs

B. Six-way valves

C. Follow up gear

D. Differential gear

Ans: C

3437 When the steering gear is in operation, you should ________

A. Check hydraulic oil levels every hour

B. Check the rams for over-heating

C. Check for excessive oil leakage rams

D. Drain water from telemotor cylinders each watch

Ans: C

3438 When the desired rudder angle is attained by a typical double ram electro-
hydraulic steering gear the _______
 A. Ram relief valves bypass oil to stop rudder system

B. Six-way valve shifts to the neutral flow position

C. Steering pump electric motor is de-energized by the transfer switch

D. Follow up gear takes the hydraulic pump off stroke

Ans: D

3439 If a severe leak develops in the electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the
listed conditionscould result?

A. Loss of vessel steering

B. Overheating of the gyro-compass

C. Jamming the six-way valve

D. Jamming of the follow-up device

Ans: A

3440 a power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type steering gear
would cause the rudder to _________

A. Swing 35deg right or left

B. Remain locked in its last position

C. Move to the middle ship position automatically

D. Jam against the rudder emergency stops

Ans:B

3441 regulation require that an indicating light ,located at the propulsion control
station , beilluminated if there is an overload that would cause overheating of
the_________

A. Forced draft bowler motion

 B. Fuel pump motion

C. Steering gear motion

D. Condensate pump motion

Ans: C

3442 a vertical shaft having a rudder attached to its lower end and having a yoke
quardrant or tiller fitted to its upper portion by which it may be turned is
the________

A. Rudder frame

B. Rudder post

C. Rudder stock

D. Stern post

Ans: C

3443 dual eletro-hydralic steering units usually operate________

A. With both pumps on the line at the same time

B. With one pump on the standby

C. With the follow up gear disconnected

D. Only when the rudder is moved amidship

Ans: B

3444 under normal operating condition the rudder us hydraulically locked

unless__________

A. the manual trick wheel is engaged for steering

B. the variable stroke pump is off stroke

C. the ruder order is given by control system

 D. an electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear

Ans: C

3445.when the helm angle position is changed,the series of corresponding events

of the steering gear will include ________i. rate of steering gear ram movement
will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. Degree of tiliting plate box
wi

a.I only

b.Iionly

ANS –B

3447. in an emergency ,the electro-hydralic streeling units can be directly

controlledby the________

a.trick wheel

b.rapson slide

ans-a

3448.in an eletro hydrlic streeling system damage due tonrudder shock is

prevented by_____________

a.buffer springs

b.relif values

ans-b

3449.regulation requrierthat pior to deparature on a three day voyage the

streeling gear whistile,and communications system between the bridge and
engine room must be tested pior to depature no erlier than_________

a.1 hours

b.4 hours
c.8 hours

d.12 hours

ans.d

3450.hydralic pumps most commanly used in steering are of the _________

a.lobe type

b.screw type

c.axile piston type

d.volute type

ans.c

3451.the purging of air from an eletro hydralic steering gear unit is necessary
when_________

a.the system has been filled with new oil

b.the rudder angle indicator does not match the helm position

3452.air trapped in the hydralic fluid of a streeling system would be indicated

by___________

a.an improper rudder respons

b.hammmering noises in the equipment or transmission

c.popping or sputtering noises

d.all the above

ans.d

3453.regulatin system hydralic strelling gear system to be equipped with a means

of steadying the rudder in an emergency ths may be accomplised
with___________
a.a sutible arrangement of stop vales in the main piping

b.a postive arrangement of block and tackles powered by winches

ans.a

3454.according to regulation which of the following state is correct reggarding the

steering requrierment for a vessel over 75 meters in length

a.hydralic structural rudder stops are mandatory

b.on hydralic type steering gears a suitable arrangement of check values

c.having two indepdentent pumps and connections

d .allow the above

ans .d

3455.regulation makes certain requrierments regarding overcurrent protection

steering gear feeder circuits____________

a.a circuit breaker with instantaneous trip

b.motor running over current pritection

ans.a

3456.eletric eletro hydralic streeling gear motars are requried by regulation to

be________

a.served by a sinle two conductors cable

b.served by two feeder circuits

ans.b

3457.of the equipent listed below which is not to tested more than 1__________

a.steering gear

b.emergency generator
c.all internal vesselpower control communication and alarms

d.all the above

ans.a

3459.which of the listed system related to an engineer alarm panel is requried to

be indicated by a continously illuminated light while in operation

a.dearating tank low level

b.port or starboard steering gear motor running

3460.relation of the steering wheel on the bridge intial oil pressure begains
applied to the steering gear arms______________

a.moving the automatic differential value

b.varying the angle of a tilling box or occentrictly of a floating ring

ans.b

3461.an ac synchronous tranismission type remote steeriling control system

consists of a _________

a.transister at the streeling slation and a reciver at steering engine

b.reversible motor at the steering station geard to the stearing pumps

ans.a

3462.the purpose of the six way vale used in an eletro hydralic steering system is
to__________

a.redirect hydralic fluid flow when changing over pump

b.parallel rudder motion to the steering wheels

ans.a
3463.according to regulation a power driven auxiliary streeing gear for a vessel
capable of a 12 knots service speed must be able to met the rudder movement
______

a.6 knots

b.7 knots

ans.b

3464.a power driven auxilary steering gear requried by regulations capable of

putting the rudder ovr 15 on one side to 15 the other side with the vessel running
ahead_------------

a.7 knots

b.10 knots

ans.b

3465.regulation requrr that eletric andeletro hydalic streeling gear motors shall
be __________

a.served by two eletric power feeder circuits

b.served by single two conductor cable

ans.a

3456.rudder position is shown on the bridge by the ___________

a.rudder angle indector

b.follow up gear

ans.a

3469.in an eletro hydralic streeing gear system when will the variable
displacement pump be placed on stroke________
a.when the six way value is opened

b.when the rudder ahe position of the whel released

ans.a

HYDRAULICS AND DECK MACHINERY

3470.in a radial piston pump, reversal and control of fluid flow are accomplished
by moving the _____________

a.floating ring

b.cylinder body

ans.a

3471.the usval number of single acting piston used in a variable strokes axial
piston pump is ____________

a.7or9

b.9or11

ans.a

3472.dryseal threads typically used for tubeing to pipe connectors and threaded
piping in hydralic system are ___________

a.radial plunger

b.floting ring

ans.b

3473.the size of flexible hose used in a hydralic system is indicated by _______

a.the inside diameter of the tube

b.the numerical designation found on the skin of the hose

ans.b
3474.to charge a blader type hydralic accumulator___________

a.remove all hydralic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the
accumulator preloaded pressure

b.remove all hydralic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the
system design pressure

ans.a

33475.before doing any work on a hydralic system equipped with accumulators

you should____________

a.bleed the accumulators and purge with oxygen

b.bleed off all stored energy from accumlators

3476. In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an o-ring?

A. V-ring

B .Cup seal

C. U-RING

D. quad ring

Ans. D

3477. As a rule of thumb when pressure is applied to hydraulic oil,the oil will…………………

A .not be compressed as liquid are not compressible

B. reduce in volume by 1% for every 7bar increment

C .increase in volume by 1% for every 70bar increment

D. reduce in volume by ½% for every 70bar increment

Ans.D

3478.The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system to……………….

A. Collect any dirt in the system

B.Collect fulid from any small leak

C.Preheat the fluid during cold weather

D.Store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure in the system

Ans.D

3479.Obstructed usction passage in the casing or pintle of a radial piston hydraulic pump will cause the……………….

A.pump back pressure to decrease

B.pump return and discharge pressures to equalize

C.pumped fluid volume to decrease

D.pump discharge flow to drop to zero

Ans:C

3480.In which of the listed hydraulic system components could an O-ring seal be satisfactory used in providing a
seal?

A.high pressure pump shaft casing

B.low pressure pump shaft casing

C.linear actuator without nylon insert

D.relief valve spool

Ans:D

3481.Before performing any maintenance on a hydraulic system storing energy in an accumulator,you

should………..

A.pressurize the system to test for leaks

B.bleed oil all pressure within the system

C.operate the machine unit it reaches normal temperature

D.disconnect the pump pressure control switch

Ans:B

3482.When installing a hydraulic hose,which of the following precautions should be taken?

A.the hose should not be twisted

B.the hose should be protected with a sleeve if it is subjected to rubbing

C.there should be some slack in the hose

D.all of the above

Ans:D

3483.to convert vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor,which of the following would have to be done?

A.double the casing the thickness

B.install an enlarged control ring around the rotor

C.provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots

D.provide one additional slot and vane

Ans:C

3484.A reservoir,as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship,is used to store hydraulic oil. Another function is
to………………..

A.act as a shock absorber

B.maintain the stored oil under pressure

C.act as a base or foundation for the powerunit

D.eliminate pressure serges in the system

Ans:C

3485.The amount of the cushioning effect developed within a hydraulic cylinder is determined by the…………….

A.position of the directional port in the cushion cavity

B.adjustment of the cushion cavity check valve

C.design shape of the cylinder ends

D.settind of the cushioning adjustment needle valve

Ans:B

3486.Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to……………

A.protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants

B.prevent solid particles from entering the pump

C.prevent solid particles from entering the filter

D.protect the directional control valves

Ans:B

3487.A hydraulic system directional control valve fitted with “detent” will………………………………
A.have a infinite number of valve positionsn

B.usually be shifted into three specific positions

C.be able to be varied through out the travel of the valve spool

D.have an offset,directional control only

Ans:B

3488.aAn O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when it has lost its interference fit due to…………….

A.compression set or wear

B.low fluid pressure

C.high fluid low

D.low fluid temperature

Ans:A

3489.Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when…………………….

A.adding small amounts of oil to the system

B.the system has been overheated

C.the system has been drained and then filled with new oil

D.the system has been idle for along period of time

Ans:C

3490.One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is to………………….

A.provide an area wher air can separate from the oil

B.provide an area to separate solid contaminants from the oil

C.acts as an oil and oil water separator

D.absorb shocks occurring in the system

Ans:D

3491.Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the……………

A.reservoir expansion chamber

B.hydraulic pumping flexibility

C.atmosphere as heat
D.fluid as an friction

Ans:C

3492.The movement of heat within a fluid ,caused by the application of thermal energy,is called………………..

A.radiation

B.conduction

C.convection

D.condo-radiation varying the position

Ans:C

3493.How can the change of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working oil hydraulic systems?

A.clean the fittings before they are disconnected

B.place drip pans under leaky filtings

C.seal any cracks in lines with permatex

D.coat all threads with graphite oil

Ans:A

3494.The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying the position of the…………………

A.sliding block

B.pintle

C.reaction ring

D.tilting box or swash plate

Ans:D

3495.If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation,the cause may be……………….

A.an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the reservoir

B.low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid

C.an oil laek across the pump shaft packing

D.due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor

Ans:A
3496.if the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise while in operation,this is a probable
indication of……………….

A.internal system fluid leakage

B.air passing through the pump

C.strained hydraulic fluid

D.excess internal slippage

Ans:B

3497.which of the listed conditions will occur if the discharge pressure of a rotary pump is increased from the
designed 3.50kg/cm2,while maintaining the same RPM?

A.the pump capacity will be decreased

B.the pump capacity will be increased

C.pump efficiency will be increased

D.internal liquid slippage will be reduced

Ans:A

3498.If the relief valve on the discharge side of a hydraulic pump lifts, the caused could be………………

A.a low load on the unit

B.a clogged pump suction strainer

C.a blockage in the line between the pump and hydraulic motor

D.the hydraulic motor turning too fast

Ans:C

3499.cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation and can be caused by a/an……………….

A.high fluid level in the reservoir

b.hydralic fluid low floc point

c.excessive discharge pressure from the pump

d.clogged suction strainer in the reservoir

3500.return lines in a non-pressured hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well below the fluid surface
level to…………..

a.prevent foaming
b.prevent moisture accumulation

c.prevent vacuum formation

d.accommodate thermal expansion

ans.a

3501.an internal bypass is provided on somehydraulic system suction strainers to help reduce the possibility
of…………..

a.aeration of the oil

b.contamination of the oil

c.pump cavitation

d.spongy actuator movements

ans:c

3502:overheading of a hydraulic system may be a result of……………………….

a.changing pump oischarge pressure in response to normal load variations

b.a high oil level

c.incorrect fluid viscosity

d.continued slow recirulation of the oil

ans:c

3503.a reservoir is used in a hydraulic system to…………………..

a.store fluid until required by the system

b.provide a place for air to separate out of the fluid

c.provide a place for contaminants to settle out

d.all of the above

ans:d

3504.an orifice-check valve placed in a hydraulic system is used to…………….

a.regulate the fluid flow in either direction

b.restrict movement of hydraulic fluid in one direction,but allow free movement in other direction

c.allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions

d.allow a restricted fluid flow in one direction only

a.condensation on inside walls

b.heat retention of working fluid

c.frequency of working fluid

d.all of the above

ans:d

3506.in a typical hydraulic system a baffle is installed in thereservoir to …………………….I ensure proper lubrication of
the hydraulic pump II.assit in the removal of solid contaminants entrained in the returning oil

a.I only

b.II only

c.both I and II

d.niether I and II

ans: c

3507. in a typical hydraulic system a baffle is installed in thereservoir to ……………………. I. provide a critical
reduction in free surface effect hydraulic pump II. Assit in retaining the hydraulic oil to provide heat removal

a. I only

b. II only

c.both I and II

d.neither I and II

ans: b

3508. as a general rule of thumb the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a capacity , when at normal
level, approximately equal to………………………

A. two to three times the normal flow rate through the system

b.the flow rate through the system

c. ten times the flow rate through the system

d.the pump gym

ans: A

3509. which of the following problems occurring in a hydraulic system can be caused by the use of an oil having a
viscosity lower than specified ?
A.seal deterioration

b.fast response and hunting

c.increased power consumption

d.oil film breakdown

ans:c

3510. which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system directional control valve?

A.counterbalance valve

B.offset two position valve

C.sequenceing valve

D. unloading valve

Ans.B

3511. Why a hydraulic linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?

a.to regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.

b.to sloe the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects

c. to allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting without lifting the
relief valve

d.all of the above

ans:b

3512.a hydraulic fluid flow circuit controlling linear actuator speed with the pump operating below maximum
operating pressure is known as the …………………………

a.metered-in circuit

b.metered-out circuit

c.bleed -in circuit

d.bleed -off circuit

ans:d

3513.a hydraulic fluid flow control circuit controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump
operating at system pressure, is known as a ………………….
a.metered-in circuit

b.metered-out circuit

c.bleed-off circuit

d. bleed-in circuit

ans: a

3514. the determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the ………………

a.external cover

b. synthetic rubber inner tube

3515.the by-products of oxidation ,as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil,are generally…………………..

a. removed by cellulose type filters

b.gums,varnishes,and acids

C. braided layer

D. teflon sleeve

Ans : C

3516. When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-
pressure system, the oil ___________

A. viscosity will increase

B. viscosity will decrease

C. volume will increase

D. floc point will increase

Ans: A

3517. If a radial piston hydrolic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume, the cause
can be_______

A. contaminated fluid

B.pitted thrust ring

C. worn pintle bearing

D. odstruted suction passage

Ans: D

3518. Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic

system system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the
flow was required?

A. counterbalance valve

B. unloading valve

C. compound, pressure-relief valve

D. sequence valve

Ans:B

3519. An axial position pump differs from a radial piston pump as the pistons are
positioned__________

A.radailly from the shaft

B. parallel to each other and to the shaft

C. parallel to each other but at a right angle to the shaft

D. at an angle other and to the shaft

Ans: B

3520. Which of the divices listed would be considered a hydraulic system

directional control valve?

A. three-position valve

B. sequence valve

C. unloading valve
D. counterbalance valve

Ans: A

3521. The speed of a radial piston hydraulic MOTOR is controlled by varying the
________

A. amount of cylinder block offset with respect to the rotor

B. fluid flow rate discharge to the motor

C. length of the motor piston stroke on the power cycle

D. pintle discharge rate to the suction side of the pump

Ans: B

3522. Which gears must be maintained in proper alignment to

prevent____________

A. overhead of the lube oil

B. over speeding of the motor\

C. wear on the breaking system

D. damage to the teeth

Ans: D

3523. A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during long periods of inactivity
should be carried out to___________

A. prevent chemical breakdown of hydraulic fluid

B. remove condensation from the fluid reservoir

C. pprevent the anchor from seizing the hawspipe

D. renew the internal coating of lubrication

Ans: D
3524. a mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of
holding___________

A. haif the breaking strength of the mooring line

B. the full breaking strength of the mooring line

C. the maximum expected tention of the mooring line

D. 50% over the working tension of the mooring line

Ans: B

3525. The torque rating of fluid poer motor is expressed in___________

A. RPMs under a given load condition

B. Newtons-metre at a given pressure

C. Newton-metre per piston stroke

D. Newton-metre per rate of input flow

Ans:B

3526. The delivery rate of a variable stroke axial piston hydraulic pump is
controlled by varying position of the ___________

A. slide block

B. tilting box

C. pintle

D. reation ring

Ans:B

3527. When changing to afire resistant hydraulic fluid in a system, it is important

to check the compatibility of the new fluid with the system’s ________________

A. seals
B. metals and plating

C. Paint

D. all the above

Ans:D

3528. Directinal control valve used in hydraulic pump is cotolled by varying the
position of the ___________

A. manually

B. mechanically’

C. electrically

D. all d above

3529. The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to
_________

A. reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction

B. minimize the amount of contaminated deposited from retrun line entering the
system

C. minimize the entrance air through the pump inlet line

D. all the above

Ans: D

3530. Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a hydraulic system

directional contor valve?

A. Two-position valve

B. Three-position valve

C. Detented-position valve
D. Counterbalance valve

Ans:D

3531. Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is

stored in the_________

A. accumulator

B. actuator

C. ram

D. reservoir

Ans:A

3532. in a typical hydrau/lic system, return lines to the reservoir are _______. I.
terminated at or just above the normal level II. Placed as far from the pump
suction as possible

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I and II

Ans:B

3533. Proper interal lubrication of a hydraulic anchor windlass left idle for
extended periods can be accomplished by______

A. performing a check run on the unit at regular intervals

B. testing the hydraulic fluid for proper pH

C. checking the reservoir for proper level

D. cleaning strainers at regular intervals

Ans: A

3534. Which of the following devices is not considered to be a pressure vessel?

A. Low pressure evaporator

B. Deaerting feed heater

C. Hydraulic fluid power cylinder

D. Fuel oil heater

Ans: C

3535. Which of the devices listed is considered to be a hydraulic system

directional control valve?

A. Unloading valve

B. Counterbalance valve

C. Detented position valve

D. Sequencing valve

Ans:C

3536. If an anchor has been idle for some time , you should________

A. repack all valve stems

B. lubricate it prior to uuse

C. replace the foundation bolts

D. balance the warping heads

Ans:B

3537. Which of the following is the most common type of valving element used in
hydraulic system directional control valves?
A. Nutating disk

B. Sliding spool

C. Elongation ball or cone

D. Restricted orifice poppet

Ans: A

3538. A device incorating a variable avariable orifice placed in series with a check
valve in ahydraulic system, is used to__________

A. allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions

B. allow fluid flow in one direction only

C. allow throttled fluid flow in one direction only

D. restrict hydraulic fluid flow in both direction

Ans:A

3539. Water allowed to accumulate in the hydraulic system oil will cause an
oxidation process producing by products which are normally__________

A. gums, acids, and varnishes

B. removed by cellulose type filters

C. neutralized by oil additives

D. not removed by absorbent filters

Ans: A

3540. Hydralic machinery failures are commonly caused by contamination of the

hydraulic fluid and ___________

A. fluid friction

B. fluid turbulence
C. component misalignment

D. pressure surges

Ans:C

3541. The purpose of a resistor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover

system is to _______

A. prevent oil backflow to the actuators

B. prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating

C. control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing

D. resist the oil supply to the hatch cover not in use

Ans: C

3541. The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover

system, is to_________.

A. prevent oil back flow to the acutators

B. prevent the hydraulic pump from over heating

C. control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing

D. restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use

Ans: C

3542. prolonged operation of a hydraulic pump in a cavitating condition can cause

_________.

A. The hydraulic fluid to become over heated

B. The fluid motor to become over loaded

C. The relief valve to hum

D. A wide variation in fluid pressure surges

Ans: A

3543. The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed
only by___________.

A. changing the angle of the tilting plate

B. changing the speed of the pump

C. moving the slide block and rotor

D. moving the shaft trunnion block

Ans: B

3544. When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the normal pipe size
of the piping always indicates the _________.

A. actual inside diameter

B. actual outside diameter

C. wall thickness

D. size for threaded connections

Ans: D

3545. Which of the following problems will occur if the internal drain at either
end of a hydraulic , two-way, speed-type directional control valve cylinder were to
become plugged?

A. The reservoir would become vapor bound

B. The valve would be placed in hydraulic lock

C. The spring loaded relief ports would open

D. The buffering chambers would be unable to function

Ans: B
3546. return lines to hydraulic system reservoirs should__________.

A. end the return line as far as practicable from the pump suction

B. end the return line as close to the pump suction as possible

C. provide a “P” or ”S” trap in the return line as close to the reservoir as possible
to trap sediment from entering the tank

D. connect the return lines directly to the cleanout and inspection plates to limit
the number of openings on the reservoir

Ans: A

3547. If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck crane, which
of the following problems will occur?

A. All the seals in the hydraulic lines will immediately blow out

B. The sheating on the hydraulic lines will fracture

C. cold hydraulic fluid

D. a clogged air vent filter on the oil reservoir

Ans: D

3548. The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by varying
the position of the ________

A. tilting box

B. slide box

C. pintle

D. reaction ring

Ans:A
3549. A gradution decrease in the discharge pressure of an operation hydraulic
pump can be caused by ____________

A. the four-way control valve failing to shaft

B. the bleeder valve sticking in the open position

C. cold hydraulic fluid

D. a clogged air vent on the reservoir

Ans:D

3550. If you are given the lob of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring which and are
not certain us to the type of fluid to use, you should _________

A. add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir

B. add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute

C. add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fliud

D. check the which manufacturer’s instruction book

Ans: D

3551.Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined filler/breather

cap. If the breathe elements becomes fouled, the _________.

A. reservoirs will becomes pressurized

B. reservoirs will be subjected to a partial vacuum

C. flow through the return lines will be stopped

D. actuator response time will be halved

Ans: B

3552. The oil in a cargo which gear box should be sampled periodically
to_________.
A. prevent the gear box from leaking

B. prevent the oil from becoming inflammable

C. make sure it has not become contamined

D. make sure the motor bearings are lubricated

Ans: C

3553. A filter used in a multi-operation hydraulic system would most likely be

located ____________.

A. at the pump suction

B. between the pump and the directional control valves

C. between the control valves and the actuators

D. in the actuator returnlines

Ans: B

3554. Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a hydraulic system

directional control valve?

A. sequencing valve

B. two-position valve

C. Three –position valve

D. spring-centered valve

3555. Flexible host under pressure in a hydraulic system will_________.

A. tend to twist about its long axis

B. Expand in length and in diameter

C. contract to length and expand in diameter

D. flex at right angles to the applied pressure

3556.The pressure of an operating hydraulic system,as indicated by a pressure

gauge,is a result of the fluid flow overcoming

A.internal resistance to flow

B.resistance of the internal components

C.the load applied to the system

D.all of the above

Ans:D

3357.Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to establish the
maximum operating pressure of a hydraulic system

A.pressure reducing valve

B.unloading valve

C.Counterbalance valve

Ans:D

3358.Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the
completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second would be
permitted

A.counterbalance valve

B.Unloading valve

C.sequence valve

D.pressure-reducing valve
Ans:C

3559.Which of the listed pressure control valves is used in a hydraulic system to

prevent the stray movements of a vertical load unit required

A.Pressure reducing valve

B.counterbalance valve

C.Unloading valve

D.sequence valve

Ans:B

3560.Which of the following statements describes the function of a reservoir used

in a hydraulic system

A.Dissipate heat

B.Trap foreign matter

C.Seperate air from the oil

D.All of the above

Ans:D

3561.Hydraulic system tubing should be anchored every three or four feet to

prevent

A.excessive pump cavitation

B.expansion and contraction of the tubing

C.tube fitting leaks from vibration and pressure surges

D.tube flexing at right angles to the applied fluid pressure

Ans:C
3562.When a linear actuator(cylinder) is being retracted without an applied
load,the pressure on the oil leaving the “cap end “ will be

A.zero

B.inversely proportional to the speed of retraction

C.inversely proportional to the flow rate at the rod end

D.increased as the speed of retraction increases

Ans:D

3563.If you install a new hydraulic hose in a hydraulic system, the hose must be
long enough to allow for contraction to prevent

A.failure of the hydraulic hose

B.excessive flow through the line

C.friction in other areas of the hydraulic system

D.overheating of the hydraulic fluid

Ans:A

3564.Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing

a hydraulic oil’s viscosity

A.pour point

B.cloud point

C.vaccum

D.pressue

Ans:D
3565.sluggish response or action of the hydraulic actuators may be a result of

A.insufficient load

B.excessively high oil viscosity

C.relief-valve pressure setting too high

D.reservoir level being maintained two inches above normal

Ans:B

3566.The rubber bladder or separator bag installed in a hydraulic accumulator

should only be filled with

A .pure water

B.pure oxygen

C.dry nitrogen

D.dry hydrogen

Ans:C

3567.Flanged joints in hydraulic system piping are commonly made leak proof by

A.seal welding the matting flange surfaces

B.installing suitable gaskets or O-rings

C.leather wipers installed with the flange seals

D.enclosing the flanged connection in a container

Ans:B

3568.The component which is used to thoroughly separate small,fine,dust like

particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is an

A.accumulator
B.filter
C.seperator

D.strainer

Ans:b

3569.The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring which must be set up

light enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when

A.excessive loads are placed on the winch

B.minimum pull is being exerted by the winch

C.automatic operation of the winch is desired

D.wire is retrieved at the maximum rate

Ans:A

3570.New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely

decreased by using

A.alcohol

B.a water based detergent

C.carbon tetrachloride

D.a special petroleum solvent

Ans:D

3571. The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the

A. inner tube

B. braided inner layer(s)

C. outer cover

D. outer armor
Ans:B

3572.For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic
system,the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside
diameter equals the outside diameter less

A. the wall thickness

B.1.5 times the wall thickness

C. 2 times the wall thickness

D. 2.5 times the wall thickness

Ans:C

3573.An axial piston,variable stroke pump is used in a vessels hydraulic steering

gear.under pressure oil continually outs from between the valve plate/cylinder
barrel and will

A. cause loss of hydraulic oil from the system

B.result in extreme damage to the pump

C.cause damage to the pump if not continually drained from the pump casing

D. result in the system high side pressure to substantially drop off

Ans:C

3574.When the tilting box of a variable stroke axial-piston pump is perpendicular

to the pump shaft which of the following conditions will exist

A. the pistons reciprocate

B. the “B” end cylinder barrel rotates

C. there is no fluid flow

D. power is transmitted hydraulically

Ans:C

3575. Which of the following problems may be encountered by using an oil

having a viscosity higher than that specified for an oil heating hydraulic system

A. external seal leakage

B. hunting due to fast response

C. hydraulic oil film breakdown

D. increased power consumption

Ans:D

3576. The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the
form of hydraulic fluid under pressure is the

A. ram

B. accumulator

C. piping

D. pump

Ans:B

3577. The hydraulic oil most likely to thin out when hot and thick when cool

Would have a viscosity index of

A.20

B. 40

C. 60

D. 80
Ans:A

3578. A bent axis , variable stroke, axial piston pump produces a greater capacity
than a comparable tilting box –type axial piston pump,because the

A. piston diameters are smaller

B. length of stroke is greater

C. RPM is doubled

D. discharge/return line diameter are arranged differently

Ans:B

3579. Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement
radial piston pump are determined by the relative pistons of the

A. pump shaft and central valve

B. pump shaft and horizontal ports

C. floating ring and pump shaft

D. floating ring and cylinder body

Ans:D

3580.A hydraulic accumulator,used in a hydraulic system is designed to

A. stroke fluid under pressure

B. act as the main fluid reservoir

C. provide the only means of overpressure relief

D. act as the singular source of fluid replenishment to a system

Ans:A

3581. what is the minimum permissible flashpoint of hydraulic fluid used a

system which operates at 17.6kg/cm2(250psl)
A. 93oC

B. 102oC

C. 149oC

D. 157oC

Ans:D

3582. A valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate the reversal of fluid

flow,is called a

A. relief valve

B. reservoir valve

C. directional control valve

D. regenative valve

Ans:C

3583. A valve installed in a hydraulic system to control the reversal of fluid flow is
called a
A. relief valve

B. . reservoir valve

C. directional control valve

D. power valve

3584. Compensated flow control,or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic
systems to

A. compensate for major leaks in the system

B. maintain the original fluid viscosity

C. allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system

D.assure constant fluid temperature

3585. Plug valves installed in hydraulic system are most suitable for use as

A. main supply line throttle valves

B. variable flow control valves

C. two position flow control valves

D. check and choke valves

Ans:C

3586. Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by misalignment

Of the system components and by

A.Hydraulic fluid contamination

B. excessive fluid friction

C. turbulent fluid flow

D. fluid pressure surges

Ans:A

3587. In the design of hydraulic piping equipment,consideration is given to

minimize turbulence in the hydraulic fluid,as this will cause

A. molecular fluid vibration

B. energy losses

C. wide pressure variations

D. mechanical damage to control valves

Ans:B
 3588.One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure closed
hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to

A. the reservoir

B. a servo control circuit

C. position a manually controlled valve

D. the main system accumulators under all operating conditions

Ans:B

3589. Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower than
the required operating pressure will result in

A. accelerated action of the system components

B. over heating of the system

C. overspending of the hydraulic pump

D. extended system life

Ans:B

3590. Leakage of hydraulic fluid from around the shaft of a hydraulic motor may
be caused by

A. permanent loss of pump suction

B. worn shaft seals

C. high level in the oil pump

D. low motor RPM

Ans:B

3591. Which problems can offer if the break band lining of a wildcat brake
becomes excessively worn
A. the driving engine will overspeed

B. the anchor will immediately drop

C. the clutch will over heat

D. the brake’s effectiveness will be reduced

Ans:D

3592. If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is overheating the cause may be

A. excessive drive motor speed

B. excessive pump discharge pressure

C. too low of a tilting box angle

D. in sufficient drive motor speed

Ans:B

3593.An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can

A. reduce or stop the output action of the actuator

B. allow all metal particles to enter the power unit

C. rupture the pump discharge piping

D. all of the above

3594. Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system

directional control valve

A. spring centered valve

C. unloading valve

C. three position valve

3595. Over heating of a hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor

Windlass can result from a/an
A. Overload on the pump motor
B. Low fluid level in the reservoir
C. Low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal

C. assists the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to opening
for major or minor repairs

D. prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in

the casing as a result of minor internal leakage

Ans: D
d. two-position valve
ans. B
3696. As the general rule of thumb,the reservoir used in a hydraulic system should have a
capacity ,when at the normal level, approximately equal to…………………
A. Two to three times the normal flow rate through the system.
B. The flow rate through the system.
C. Ten times the flow rate through the system.
D. The number of gallons a pump can circulate in one minute.
Ans. A

3697.Hydraaulic systems typically operated for intermittent service donot

require the use of oil coolers and would include all of the following
exept………….
A. Constant tension mooning which system .
B. Hatch cover system
C. Water tight door system.
D. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system.
Ans.A
3598.Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed………….
A. Only by the pump as its primary function.
B. By resistance to the fluid flow through the system.
 C. By the thermal input to the systems fluid.
D. Solely by the charge applied by the accumulators.
Ans.B

3599.In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil
cooler be necessary?
A. Constant tension mooring winch system.
B. Hatch cover system.
C. Water tight door system.
D. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system.
Ans.A

3600.If you install a hydraulic hose on a unit and fail to leave sufficient
room for expansion , which of the following problems will develop?
A. The hose may pull loose from its fitting .
B. The components connected to the hose will be damaged.
C. The hydraulic unit will fail to acquire any power.
D. The hydraulic fluid will overheat and breakdown.
Ans.A
3601.When new piping section have been fabricated for installation in a hydraulic
system,prior to installation the piping should be?
A. Cleaned using a water based detergent.
B. Descaled by using a pickling solution.
C. Hydrostaically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure.
D. All the above.
Ans.

3602.While at anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the?

A. Wind lass break only.
B. Chain stopper or riding pawl.
C. Riding spindle.
D. Anchor shackle.
Ans.B

3603.If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass Is over heating , the
cause may be?
A. Increased pump speed.
 B. Excessive pump discharge pressure.
C. Too low of a tilting box angle.
D. Low pump speed.
Ans .B

3604.If a hydraulic pump is over heated, the cause may be ?

A. Excessive internal slip page in the pump.
B. Low discharge pressure and fluid flow.
C. Excessive fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir.
D. Operation of the pump at 100% efficiency.
Ans.A

3605.When normal operatin pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil

usedin a high pressure system, the oil?
A. Viscosity will decrease.
B. Volume will increase.
C. Volume will decrease.
D. Pour point will be redused.
Ans.C

3606.Increased internal leakage in addition to poor hydraulic system

response,and inadequate lubrication, is the result of?
A. Pump bearing in poor conditon .
B. Excessively worn actuator-piston packing.
C. Broken directional control valve centering springs.
D. Low hydraulic oil viscosity.
Ans.D

3607.In high pressures, an O-ring has a tendancy to extrude into the

clearance space between the mating parts of a hydraulic actuator.Which of the
listed components is used to prevent extrusion?
A. Doube seal ring.
B. Lathe cut ring.
C. Backup ring
D. Static washer.
 Ans .C

3608.A solinoid direct acting three position spring centred directional

control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. When the
remote push button depressed to extent the actuator it fails to move even though
the pump is in op?
A. A spring at one spool end has broken and jammed preventing the spool from shifting.
B. The “extend” solinoid coil has developed an open.
C. The pump coupling is damaged and pump is unable to turn at its required speed.
D. Any one of the above will cause the actuator to not move.
Ans.D

3609.A solinoid direct acting , three position , spring centered ,directional

control valve is used in hydraulic system to control a linear actuator. Midway
through extension, the push button is relaesed ,but the actuator continues to
extend slowly,which of?
A. A centering spring has broken and jammed the spool movement preventing the spool
from recentering.
B. One of the two solinoids has sustained an open in its respective coil.
C. The pump coupling has been damaged preventing the pump from developing its required
operating speed.
D. The detect mechanism has failed ,preventing the valve from operating .
Ans .A

3610.Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will cause

the actuators to move with a jerky motion, This action is a result of?
A. The trapped air being compressed to a pressure above the maximum pump discharge
pressure , then re-expanding and lowering in pressure after the actuator moves.
B. The cyclic expansion and contraction of air due to the motion of the actuator.
C. Air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid.
 D. Air providing better lubrication of internal components ,found in hydraulic systems,than
hydraulic fluids.
Ans.B

3611.In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to
maintain adequate flow , the pump suction should?
A. Be provided with three to five ½ inch in the vertical suction line to prevent pump
starvation should the stainer become fouled.
B. Be arranged to develop a maximum vaccum of approximately 10^n of mercury .
C. Be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable vaccum.
D. Be take directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or strainers.
Ans.B

PAGE-194

3612.Which of the following precautions should be observed concerning the

introduction of a fire resistant fluid into the hydraulic sysems ?
A. Deterioration of paints ,seals, metals and electrical insulation may occur.
B. Fluid viscosity always increases as a normal result of its use .
C. Decreased wear rates of components is an advantage of its use.
D. Only chemically active filters may be used,
Ans.A

3613.Which of the following statements is/are true regarding hydraulic pumps in

general?
A. Variable volumes can be obtained with gear pumps only by variable of the pump drive
speed.
B. A radial piston pump houses sliding pistons in a stationary cylinder block through which
passes a rotating pintle or ported shaft.
C. The amount of fluid displased per revolution of an axial piston rotatory pump is
dependent on the angle formed between the cylinder block and the valve plate.
D. All the above.
Ans.A
3614.Which of the listed components of a hydraulic systems would enable the
pump to be temporarily shut down,and yet still provide an instantaneous sourse
of hydraulic force?
A. Modulator.
B. Pressure compen sator valve .
C. Accumulator .
D. Sump Actuator.
Ans.C

3615.Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro –hyraulic anchor windlass

may indicate pump cavitation caused by?
A. Overload of the pump motor.
B. Low oi level in the reservoir.
C. Low fluiod viscosity existing only around the shaft seal.
D. High oil level in the pump.
Ans.B

3616.When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or
off position ,the spring set break on the fluid motor drive shaft is ?
A. Engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure.
B. Released by spring action and hyraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating
.
C. Engaged by spring action and is insured to be locked in place by hydraulic pressure.
D. Opened hydraulically and held open by spring action when ever the electrical supply is
secured.
Ans.A

3617.Hydraulic hose assemblies are permitted by regulation to be installed

between two points of relative motion?
A. Provided proper releasing mechanisms are availableto enable quick disconnect
capabilities.
B. But shall not be subjected to torsional deflection under any conditions of operations.
C. Provided the entire length of the device is visible to the operator at a times.
 D. To prevent the formation of loading stresses.
Ans.B

3618.Some fluid filters used in hydraulic systems are designed to cope with
increasing pressure differentials by?
A. Diverting the flow automatically to the standby filter of the duplex unit.
B. Automatically bypassing the the fluid via an internal valve arrangement.
C. Automatically securing the system .
D. Diverting the pump discharge directly back to the suction.
Ans.B

3619.Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed up before being operated

because?
A. Warm-up allows the hydraulic system to become charged with oil.
B. Warm-up allows the relief valves to be properly tested.
C. Hydraulic trainers opeate only during the warm-up period.
D. Hydraulic fluid must be at the proper viscosity.
Ans.D

3620.Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems because the
lint?
A. Can cause rusting of internal parts.
B. Breaks down hydraulic fluid.
C. Can clog filters and promote component leakage.
D. Solidifies and causes cracked lines.
Ans.C

3621.With an increase in temperature , the volume hydraulic fluid ?

A. Contracts.
 B. Remains the same.
C. Remains constant if pressure decreases.
D. Increases.
Ans.D

3622.If you attempt to tighten a leaking hyraulic fitting with pressure on the
system you will ?
A. Be successful every time.
B. Find that the pressure will prevent the components from from being tightened.
C. Cause the system to vibrate.
D. Dislodge any scale in the tubing and it will damaga the system.
Ans.B

3623.A fluid power system is considered to be fail safe if a component failure will
result in ?
A. Continues operation of the system.
B. A safety interlock produsing a regulated shut down of the system.
C. The guaranteed and efficient operation of the system at all times.
D. A slow and controlled release of the loading so as not to endanger personnel.

Ans.D

3624.A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston abrubtly
slows towards the end of the stroke ,then continues to creep to the completion of
its stoke.which of the following represents the probable cause?
A. The cusion adjustment needle valve is open too far.
B. The cusion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiently.
C. The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose.
D. The rod wiper is jammed in the cusion spear.
Ans.B
3625.When it is necessary to start an axial piston hydraulic motor under
conditions where the hydraulic fluid is colder than the lowest temperature
recommended for proper operaton , you should operate the system at ?
A. Minimum speed until the normal operating pressure is reached.
B. Neutral stroke until all of the air has been vanted.
C. No load until the normal operating temperature is reached .
D. Maximum torque to attain rapid warm-up.
Ans.C

3626.A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable stoke pumps
to?
A. Vent off any accumulated air from the system.
B. Drain off any accumulated water from the pump casing prior to its being started.
C. Assist the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to operating for major
or minor repairs
D. Prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated in the casing as a
result of minor internal leakage

Ans:D

3627.A fluid power system shall be so designed ?

A. That power functioning of any unit shall not be affected by the back pressure in the
system.
B. To maintain a back pressure throughout the power cylinders operating range.
C. Such that the operation of any unit in the system will provide for sufficient back pressure
D. None of the above

Ans:A

3628. During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve ,used in a hydraulic
system ,the set point was reduced by 7bar . Which of the following statements
describes the result of the following statements describes the result of the set
point being lowered?

A. The pump discharge pressure will remain at the same pressure prior to the
relief valve being repaired

B. the solenoid controlled, three position , spring centered control valve response
will be quicker

C. the fluid viscosity will increase during operation

D. the movement of any system actuator will now be slower

Ans: D

3629. Which of the following statements represents a disadvantage associated

with a spool-type , the solenoid direct operating directional control valves ?

A. back pressure on the outlet line must be steady to drain the lower spool
chamber

B. the valve sealing surface is often damaged through excessive throttling action

C. the spool does not have hydro cushion capabilities to handle shock.

D. Close fitting spools occasionally stick due to the accumulation of hydraulic oil
residues

Ans.D

3630. Which of the following statements describes the actions of an axial piston
motor with a full deflection variable position tilting box?

A. control over speed, direction and stopping would be better than having the
pump equipped with the tilting box

B. maximum speed when rotated in the “ hauling in“ direction would be obtained
with the tilting box just prior to neutral stroke , while ‘pay out “ would be the
opposite
C. maximum torque ,when rotated in the “pay out “ direction would be obtained
with the tilting box just prior to the neutral stroke , while “hauling in” would be
the opposite

D. maximum speed in either direction of rotation would be achieved just beyond

of neutral stroke , making reversal of direction difficult

Ans.D

3631. Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid , or trapped in an actuators will cause
the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a result of…………….

A. the trapped air being compressed to9 a pressure above maximum pump
discharge pressure then re-expanding and lowering in pressure after the
actuator moves

B. the trapped air being compressed to operating system pressure as the actuator
moves allowing the air to re-expand , then repeating the process

C. air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid

D. air providing better lubrication of internal components , found in Hydraulic

Systems , than hydraulic fluids

Ans . B

3632. a flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch-cover system

and has developed a slight leak . To stop the leak you should …………………….

A. keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut

B. replace both the tubing sections and the fitting

C. stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut

D.shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing
when tightening
3633. If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation , and is equipped with an air
cooled heat exchanger , the fan should ……………..

A. be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in

operation

B. come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured

C. be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at loss than 87.8

degree celcius(190F)

D.never be needed , expect when when the ambient temperature exceeds 32.3
degree celcius(90F )

Ans. A

3634.A pre charged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system,can be

potentially dangerous if ………………………………………………..

A.the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure

B.the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil

C.the bladder contains the top of the poppet

D.it is pre charged with free nitrogen

Ans. A

3635.According to Regulations,nonmetallic flexible hoses used as supply and

return lines to hydraulic system component must have………………………………..

A.the working pressure of the system stamped on one of the end fitting

B. the working pressure of the system stamped on both the end fittings

C.an inner tube construced of steamless reinforced polyster braid

D.a dessigned bursting pressure of atleast four times the maximum working
pressure of the system
Ans.D

3636.The hydraulic system of a deck which has been drained,fushed and refilled
with hydraulic fluid.An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the
winch is started indicates ………………………….

A.the fluid level in the reservoir is too high

B.air trapped in the system

C.clogged suction line fluid filters

D.abrasive matter circulating in the oil

Ans.B

3637.when comparing a bent-axial position ,variable stroke hydraulic pump, to a

variable angle tilting box ,axial position pump where the numbers
,diameter,rotating speed of the pistons are the same.The significant differrence is
the…………………………………………..

A.maximum capacity

B.maximum pressure

C.minimum pressure

D.minimum capacity

Ans.A

3638.When fire safe or fire resistent fluid is to be used in a hydraulic system ,it is
important that…………………………………………

A.the resultant pressure due to the increase in fluid viscosity,is not excessive

B.the fluid does not dissipate too much heat

C.the fluid be compatible with all the seal materials used

D.separate lube oil supply be furnished for the hydraulic pump

Ans.C

3639.Overheating of an oil in a hydraulic be caused by………………………………

A.continuous ,unnecessaryand excessive pump discharge pressure

B.an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers

C.insufficient external pump slippage

D.fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load variations

Ans.A

Page-196

3640. In a fixed displacement axial piston hydraulic motor the speed is varied by
…………

A. regulating the ratio between torque and speed via the torque limiter at the
motor

B. directing the motor output flow through a bypass line

C. maintaining a constant flow and pressure input

D. controlling the input flow rate

Ans. D

3641. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system , what special attention
should be given to the hydraulic system?

A. the relief valves in the system should be readjusted

B. the filters and strainers should be checked frequently

C. all system pressure should be readjusted

D. the system should be drained and renewed with a fluid of different operating
characteristics

Ans. B,

3642. Ahydraulic fluid flow control circuit , used to control linear actuator speed
during retraction , with the pump operating at above maximum pressure , is
known as a……….

A. metered -in circuit

B. metered -out circuit

C. bleed -in circuit

D. bleed –off circuit

3643. In a typical hydraulic system , return lines to thereservoir are terminated

below the normal oil level toprevent …………..1.foaming of the oil 2.condensation
of warm oil vapours upon return

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 and 2

Ans. A

3644. According to Regulations an accumulator is a/an…………………….

A. device in which bilge water may be stured prior to being pumped ashore

B. unfired pressure vessel is which energy is stored under high pressure in the
form of a gas and hydraulic fluid

C. industry accepted term for the equipment which is used to collect oily bilge
liquids
D. test products in which the relieving capacity of the safety valves are verified

Ans. B

3645. Archiemedes’ principle states that the resultant pressure acting on a body
immersed in a fluid……………

A. acts vertically upwards through the centre of gravity of the displaced fluid and
us equal to the fluid displaced

B. will causes the body to have a reduction in mass equal in magnitude to the
effective mass of the structure located above the line of floation

C. is proportional in magnitude and direction , regardless of the direction

originally developed when the object was submerged

D. is applied equal and in all directions throughout the vessel in which it is

contained

Ans. A

3546. Air trapped in one end of a hydraulic actutator may be indicated

by………………….

A. erratic or jerky motion of the actuator

B. a pump discharge pressure that is consistant , but higher than normal

C. consistently faster response or movement of the actuator

D. over speeding of the pump

Ans . A

3647. The major source of chemical contaminants in hydraulic fiuid is…………….

A. microscopic steel shavings

B. abrasive waste

C. anti-oxidant compounds
D. oxidation by-products

3648. While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass , you observe that hydraulic
pressure does not develop not develop in spite of the proper operation of the
electric drive motor . Which of the following actions should you take FIRST to
restore pressure?

A. make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level

B. Inspect the disc break on the electric motor for proper operation

C. Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact

D. check for full voltage supply to the electric motor

Ans a

3649. In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific portions
of the chain are colour coded and wrapped with wire. A red painted detachable
line would be found between the………………..

A. Number 1and 2 shots of chain

B. Number 2 and 3 shots of chain
C. Number 3and 4 shots of chain
D. All the above

Ans A

LUBRICATION AND ANTIFRICTION BEARINGS

3650. The term “pour point” is defined as the lowest temperature at which the
lubricating oils will flow………

A. Rapidly

B. By gravity

C. through a standard orifice at a specified temperature

D. has a rate of 60 cc per second

Ans B

3651. Which of the following statements is used to describe the term “base” in
reference to the greases?

A. Texture of the grease under load

B. Temperature at which the greases softens or melts

C. Type of soap used in its production

D. Temperature below which the grease will be ineffective as a lubricant

Ans C

3652. A grease lubricated ball bearings or roller bearings will run cooler if the
grease………….

A. fills only 10% of all void spaces within the bearings

B. has a high grease penetration number(is hard)

C. is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil

D. is heated prior to packing the bearing

Ans . B

3653. In a compression type grease cup , the lubricant is forced into bearing

A. gravity

B. spring

C. force

D. A zerk fitting

Ans..B
3654. Which of the processes listed consumes the greatet amount of power while
producing the greatest amount of heat?

A.Overcoming sliding friction

B. Overcoming rolling friction

C. Overcoming fluid friction

D. Overcoming oil wedge friction

Ans. A

3655. The packing installed in the pump stuffing box is lubricated by………………….

A. gravity and feed oil cups

B. grease cups

C. hand during installation

D. leakage through the stuffing box

Ans. D

3656. An organic solid lubricant, such as graphite , is suitable as an oil additive

when used in………………………

3657. The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is
running hot is to…………………

A.machinery bearings subjected to high temperatures

B.antifriction bearings on general service pumps

c.bearings subjected to fluctuating loads

d.line shaft bearings

Ans.A
3658 Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine
lubricating systems because they……………………

A.utilize exotic and expensieve filtering media making them too costly for use.

B. are only effective at temperatures below 37.8 ‘c

C.can adsorb no more thanfive times their weight I water.

D.remove additives from the lube oil

Ans.D

3660. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil sump should

…………….

A.have no plating joints at 90’

B.retain the lube oils as long as possible before it recirculates through the system

C.provide drain/return lines that are no greater than 600 mm from the pump
suction

D. be provided with only a perfectly horizontal bottom.

Ans.B

3662. the ability of lubricating oils to resist viscositychanges during temperature

changes is indicated by the …………….

A.American petroleum institute number

B.Viscosity index number

C.Seconds Saybolt furol number

D.seconds saybolt Universal number

Ans.b
3664. the flash point of most lube oils used in a main lubricating system should be
approximately………………

A.27’c to 38’c

B.60’c to 71’c

C.121’c to 149’c

D.177’c to 232’c

Ans.D

3666. Which of the filter/ strainer units listed permits you to clean the element
while leaving the system on the line?

A.Simplex

B.Duplex

C.Canister

D.Bypass

Ans.B

3668

The function of lubricating oil is to………………..

A.reduce friction between two units.

B.provide uniform distribution of bearing wear

C.reduce the accumulatio of harmful detergents.

D.maintain a constant oil temprature output at each bearing

Ans.A

3670. The neutralization number of lube oil used in the machinery has exceeded
its permissible range,therefore it will be necessary to………………
A.centrifuge the oil

B. add makeup oil

C.renew the entire oil supply

D.operate the machinery at reduced power

Ans.c

3672. a grease gun is generally used to lubricate a……….

A.condensate pump ball bearing

B.main shaft bearing

C.main turbine bearing

D.diesel engine wrist pin bearing

Ans.A

3674 A graphite additive type grease is best suited for ………..

I.low temperature applications.II.High tempearature applications

A.I only

B.II only

C.Both I and II

D.neither I nor II

Ans.B

3676 dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a grease lubricant beause the..

A.bearings will leak oil easily

B.dirt will cause corrossion of bearing

C. Grease will become inflammable.

 A. Add grease through zerk fitting
B. Allow the winch to run at lower speeds
C. Replace the bearing with a new one
D. Apply a light oil to the bearing housing

Ans.C

3659 although lube oils are useed in main lubricating services systems should
have a relatively high flash point to avoid ignition,they can create smoke and fire
hazards when they,…………………

A.are exposed to vacuum

B.come in contact with extremely hot surfaces

C.are reduced in temperature tojust above the pour point

D.Become extremely agitated or aerated

Ans.B

3661. Design charateristics of lubricating oil sump tanks will include ……….

A.installation of baffles to prevent excessive sloshing of oil.

B. sufficient capacity to contain all lube oil in system except for th e contents of
gravity tank.

C.cooling coils made of welded seamlesssteel pipe.

D.the bottom of the sump should be integral with the shell plating.

Ans.a

3663. which of the additives listed is used to reduce the foaming tendency of lube
oil.?

a.emulsifiers
B.suppresents

C.Deppresents

D. Extreme pressure

Ans.B

3665. which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump
rod?

A.Engine oil

B. Oil mixed with Kerosene

C.Graphite and oil

D.Vegetable oil

Ans.C

3667. which of the additives listed will maintain the suspension of fineresidue
particles in lube oil?

A.Floo point

B.Suppresent

C.Dispersant

D.all of the above

Ans.c

3669. the function of lubricating oil is to…………….

A.maintain even distribution of bearing wear

B.maintain a constant oil temperature

C.maintain a pressurized flui d film between moving surfaces

D.remove entrained water

Ans.C

3671.. With regardsto the viscosity of lube oilin an operating system under normal
load, the highest viscosity should occur…………..

A.just prior to entering the lub oil cooler

B.at the lube oil cooler outlet

C.at the main lube oil pump discharge

D.at the narrowest pointof hydrodynamic wedge

Ans.D

3673. An example of antifriction bearing is a ………

A.rubber cutlass strut bearing.

B.line shaft or spring bearing

C.Kingsbury thrust bearing

D. Ball bearing

Ans.D

3675.The lubrication of high speed precision bearing depends upon a system that
produces……………..

A.adequent quantity at sufficient pressure

B.high detergent oil with pressure additives

C. constant viscosity lubrication

D.a minimum of 15 psi to all parts of system

Ans.A
3677. same questionas abovePage 198

D.dirt is very abrasive when mixed with grease

Ans.a

3678. The tendency for lubricating oil to thin out at high temperatures and
thicken at low temperatures will be characterized by a ………………………..

A.low viscosity index

B.High viscosity index

C.High neutralization number

D. Low demulsibility quality

Ans.A

3679. Which of the following conditions should be used to support the ….to
change the lube oil when there has been an increase in the neutralization
number?

A.A decrease in the viscosity of oil

B.An increase in the viscosity of oil

C.A change in the cloud point

D. A change in the floo point

Ans. B

3680. Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to…………………….

A.decrease sludge formation in lubricating oil

B.cause water to separate from oil

C.improve the lubricating oil viscosity

D.displace lubricating oil required in areas of friction

Ans.D

3681. which bearing will carry the load on two small pointsdiametrically opposite
to each other?

ANeedle

B.tapered roller

C.Roller

D.ball

Ans.D

3682…one characteristic of a lubricating oil adversely affecting the results of

centrifuging is……………

A.High TBN value

B.High oil floo point

C.low oil demulsibility

D.low oil neutralization number

Ans.c

3683. in most pump and pump motors overpacking the ball bearings full of grease
will result in ………

A.moisture emulsification of the bearing grease

B.insufficient circulation and overheating of grease

C. proper grease circulation to cool the bearing

D. sliding friction between balls and races

Ans.B

3684. Main propulsionengine lube oil oil sumps should be constructed..

A.so as to never be integral with the main engine foundation

B.with a sloped bottom

C.only of nonferrous noncorrosive metals

D. with drain/return lines ferminating just above or at the desiged normal level

Ans. B

3685…The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that

adsorbent filters is………..

A.will remove additives from the lube oil

B.soak up liquis contaminants directly into the filter media

C. do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system

D.attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of filter media.

Ans.B

3686.Antifriction bearings should not be excessively lubricated because ……

A.the bearings will require immediate flushing

B.dirt will accumulate inside the bearings

C.excess lubrication will result in slippage

D. the bearing will overheat

Ans. D

3687..if a ball bearing for a centrifugal pump is completely packed with grease….

A.the bearing may heat up

B.grease may flow out of seals

C. early failure might result

D.all the above

Ans. D

3688.Antifriction bearings may be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an

arbor press,or wheeler puller with a…

A.ring gage

B.split die

C.Split washer or backup ring

D. jack screw

Ans.c

3689.An additive used to improve the ability of lube oil to reduce friction is known
as an….

A.suppresant additive

B.dispersant additive

C.Extreme pressure additive

D.viscosity improver additive

Ans.c

3690.the graphite in a bearing lubricant compound of graphite grease,acts as

a………

A.low temperature sealer

B.moisture barrier

C.filter to smooth surface irregularities

D.coolant to carry away heat

Ans.C
3691.when removing roller bearings from a shaft,the force of the puller must be
applied to the bearing………..

A.outer race..

B.raceway

C.inner race

D.retainer plates

Ans.c

3692.demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as………..

A.the ability of oil to separate from water

B.the temperature at which oil flows rapidly

C.a measure of the water in the lube oil system

D.an emulsion of different grades of oil

Ans.a

3693.same question as above

3694. A lubricating oil with a high viscosity index number is most effectively used
………

A. in only very high temperature installations

B.as an additive to depress pour point

C.as an additive to slow oxidation

D.where a wide range of temperature variation exist

Ans.d

3695. which of the additives listed is used to lower the pour point of lubricating
oil?
A.emulsifiers

B.Suppresents

C.deppresents

D.Extreme pressure

Ans.c

3696.which of the following statements is correct about the viscosity of

lubricating oil?

A.Viscosity will increase as temperature increases

B.viscosity is am easure of fluid internal resistence to flow.

C.viscosity will decrease as temperature decreases

D.viscosity is not dependant of temperature

Ans.B

3697.Additive commonly found in turbine lubricating oil include…

A,antifoaming agents

B.oxidation inhibitors

C.extreme pressure additives

D.all the above.

Ans.D

3698. The amount of fluid friction or internal friction inherent in a mineral

lubricating oilis reflected as a measure of its …….

(no choices given)

3699.A lube oil filter can be used to remove most contaminants from the lube
oil.A contaminant which will remain in the lube oil after filtering is ….
B. Allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up

C. Prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft

D. Reduce torisional vibration in the crankshaft

Ans B

3738. a good quality lubricating oil used in any machinery should be

A. Acid free

B. Capable of emulsifying

C. A rapid oxidizer

D. Additive free

Ans. A

3739. which of the listed types of bearing is an example of a half bearing?

A. Piston pin bushing

B. Thrust bearing

C. Spring bearing

D. All the above

Ans c
3740. if a continues and steady flow of lube oils provided, which of the listed
pressures represent lowest supply pressure at which small high speed bearing can
be safely s the lubricated?

A. 0.1 kg/cm2

B. 0.3 kg/cm2

C. 0.6 kg/cm2

D. 1 kg/cm2

Ans.A

3741.if the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from the main propulsion
machinery indicates an neutralization number the

A. Acidity has increased

B. Viscosity has decreased

C. Demulisibility has improved

D. Foaming is guaranteed to occur

Ans A

3742. why do roller bearings have higher loading capacity than ball bearing?

A. They are installed with tighter clearance

B. They are subjected to less pitting and metal fatigue

C. Hey have a higher tolerance for high speed application

D. They have a greater contact area

Ans D

3743. which of the listed tcols should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing
from a shaft?
A. An arbor press

B. A steel drift pin and hammer

C. A acetylene torch and a hammer

D. A tapering “come-a-long”

Ans A

3744. The size of ball and roller bearing can be identified by the

A. Rolling member size

B. Inner race cone width

C. Manufacturer’s numerical code

D. Outer ring width

Ans C

3745. a filler commonly mixed with grease , such as graphite acts

A. as a mild abrasive

B. To smooth surface irregularities

C. To lower the friction coefficient

D. All the above

Ans D

3746. which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a
fine mesh lube oil strainer?
A. A 200 mesh will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 mesh wire
cloth

B. A 200 mesh screen has finer wires than 100 mesh wire cloth

C. A 100 mesh wire cloth will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 mesh
screen

D. A 200 mesh screen and a 100 mesh wire cloth prevent passage of small size
particles, but each allow a different number of particles to pass through

Ans A

3747. a grease drop point is

A. How far a standard metal cone will penetrate into the sample in 5seconds
when dropped

B. How uniform and thick the spread of an ounce of grease is when ten dropped
from a height of 5 feet

C. The temperature that a sample of grease begins to liquefy

D. The length of time a 50 gram sphere will be held in place from the underside of
a surface coated with 25 millimeters of the grease sample

Ans C

3748. after adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld grease gun, you
should

A. Run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while

B. Close the bearing housing and add a little extra grease to compensate for air
pockets in the bearing

C. Remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape
D. Save the used grease for analysis

Ans A

3749. When referring to grease, penetration number is

A How many seconds was required for a cone to penetrate the sample

B. The temperature at which a cone would bigin to penetrate athe sample

C. The temperature at which the grease would become sufficiently fluid to fill the
voids of a standard ball bearing

D. The depth to which a cone would penetrate a sample of grease in 5 seconds.

Ans D

3750. A journal rotating in its bearing relies on hydrodynamic principles for

lubrication. Under steady load condition , the journal rotating in the bearing will
assume a position

A. at bearing bottom center

B. concentric in the bearing

C. At bearing top center

D. eccentric in the bearing

Ans D

3751. Machinery with ball bearing designed to be filled with grease should have
the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should
remain out until the machinery has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to
ensure that

A. A path of expansion is provided for the grease

B. All air pockets are veined from the grease

C. Dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing

D. The grease is properly distributed within the bearing

Ans.A

3752. Solid containments are prevented from entering the main lube tube oil
system by way of the main engine sump through the use of

A. Fine mesh screening placed around the pump suction line en the sump.

B. Baffles installed without limber or lightening holes to trap the vehicles

C. a suction inlet located approximately 10 inches(254mm) above the sump

bottom

D. a 10 inches (254mm)dome installed just below the suction inlet and provided
within one inch of the dome.

Ans. C

3753. As the speed of an oil lubricating ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to
churning, generates heat and should be avoided

A. Adding more lubricant until the ball bearing is completely covered with a layer
of oil.

B. Reducing the quantity of lubricating until only a mist of oil is presented on the
ball bearing.

C.maintaining a continuous fluid filim of oil on the bearings

D.intiallings oil rings on the ball bearings

Ans.B

Page 202
3754. Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearing
installed in pumps?

a. The inner race should be free to be turn on the shaft

b. The outer race should be free to turn in its housing
c. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation
d. They are usually pressed on to their shafts
Ans.d

3755. A drop test is carried out on a sample of grease by

a. Allowing a suspended cone to drop into a sample of grease for five seconds and
determining the depth of penetration

b. Dropping a one ounce grease sample for one meter, and observing the
resulting spread pattern uniformly of thickness, consistency of thickness and
consistency of texture

c. Allowing a sample of grease to drop into a cup of ambient temperature and

determining the time necessary for occur

D. Determining the temperature at which a grease sample liquefies when heated

and drops from a cup through a bottom orifice.

Ans.D

3756. Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision

manufactured roller bearings?

a. They have a relatively high power loss due to friction

b. They are well adapted to variable speed operation

c. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention

Ans.c
3757. Which of the following statements is correct regarding on oil regarding with
a high viscosity index

a. A large change of viscosity occurs with a minor change in temperatures

b. No change in viscosity occurs with any change in temperatures

c. Very little change in viscosity occurs with a significant change in temperature

Ans. C

3758. Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for
use with today’s high detergent additive type oils

a. Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges

b. Cylindrical elements containing fullers combined with cellulose

c. Foamed poly urethane of the impingement type supported on perforated metal

rings

d. Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges

ans .a

3759. Which of the following problem will occur if a disk type centrifugal lube oil
purifier is not properly primed prior to admitting to follow the bowl?

a. Contamination of the lube oil by emulsification will result

b. The lube oil will not be subjected to the proper centrifugal force

c. The lube oil will over heat and flash

d. Oil will discharge from the heavy phase discharge port and be washed

ans .d

3760. In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigeration admitted to the

evaporator is directly related to
a. The compressor discharge pressure

b. Condenser cooling water temperature

c. The solenoid valve differential pressure

d. The super heat of the refrigerant in that \coil

ans.d

3761. In a flash distilling unit evaporator(sea water) absorbs in the

a. Vapour feed water

b. Air ejector condenser

c. Salt water heater

d. Distillate water

ans.d

3762. The value of controlled variable which under any fixed set of conditions the
automatic controller

Operates to maintain is known as

a. Set point

b. Control point

c.Deviation

d. Offset

ans.b

3763. A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being safe
for man and safe for life, this condition may change if

a. The ambidient temperature changes

b. A product leaks into the certified tank

c. Muck, sludge, or scale in the tank given off additional vapours

d.all the above

ans.d

3764.in the event of an exhaust fire most dry chemical and carbon dioxide gally
range fixed extinguishing systems areatomically activated through the action of a
stain less steel cable spring and a

a. Fusible link

b. Stack switch

c. Thermostal

d. Pyrostat

ans.a

3765. Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be suitable for use on an
oil fire, but dangerous on an electrical fire?

A. co2

b. Water fog

c. Halon

d. Dry chemical

Ans.b

3766. The horizontal and ft movement of a vessel is called

a. Yaw

b. Sway

c. Heave
d. Surde

ans.d

3767 which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be
substituted for an

Lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?

A. When it is approved by the master.
B. When working near or over the water
C. When stowed away from the ring buoys
D. A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket

Ans : D

3768 what safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is
posted or available

In bookle form on your ship?

A. Location of fire doors
B. Location of the remote means of stopping fans
C. Particulars of the fire detecting system
D. All the above.

Ans : D

3769 when involved in fighting a fire aboard a ship with an aluminum

superstructure. It is important to remember that aluminum
structures exposed to the high heat __________

A. generate poisonous fumes

B. Are more susceptible to collapse than steel structures

C. are susceptible to spontaneous ignition

 D. all the above.

Ans :B

3770 the fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator
of a diesel electric

Drive vessel is usually a _____________

A. Fixed foam extinguisher
B. Fixed co2 system
C. Steam smothering system
D. Carbon tetrachloride extinguishing system

Ans : B

3771 when administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing

cycle should be

Repeated about ______________

A. 12 to 15 times per minute
B. 18 to 20 times per minute
C. 20 to 25 times per minute
D. As fast as possible

Ans : A

3772 the most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank
vessels is __________

A. carbon dioxide

B. flue gas

C. water

D. steam smothering

Ans : C
3773 a disadvantage of using co2 for fire fighting is that
________________

A. the co2 does not cool the fire

B. the cylinders are regulated pressure vessels

C. they are not effective on class ”B” fires

D. they are not effective on class ”C” fires

Ans: A

3774 approved buoyant work vests may be carried aboard tank vessels
and shall be worn by

Crew members _____________

A. When working near or over the water under unfavorable working conditions
B. Under the supervision and control of designed ship’s officers
C. As substitutes for the approved life preservers during routine drills weather
permitting
when a vessel is moored pierside
D. All the above

Ans: B

3775 according to regulations, all merchant vessels are required to have

muster lists and are

To be posted _______________
A. On the navigating bridge
B. In the engine room
C. In the crew accommodation spaces
D. All of the above

Ans : D
3776 when required to work where there may be explosive gases ,you
should use tools which

Are ____________
A. Approved by the coast guard
B. High carbon steel
C. Fixed with a ferrous cover
D. Non sparking

Ans : D

3777 the vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as _____________

A. surge

B. sway

C. heave

D. pitch

Ans: C

3778 an acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the

pump room bilges is

To _______________
A. Transfer the oil to the sea chest
B. Pump the oil into slop tanks
C. Discharge the oil over the side on an outgoing tide
D. Pump the oil into a clean ballast tank

Ans : B

3779 when applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR,the

sternum should

Be depressed about _______________

 A. ½ inch or less
B. ½ to 1 inch
C. 1 to 1 ½ inches
D. 1 ½ to 2 inches

Ans : D

3780 personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should
NOT follow which of

The listed practices?

A. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering material
B. Examining material for sharp edges or protruding points before handling
C. Closing,tagging or securing valves that permit entrance of steam , water or air
into a
fitting or other equipment
D. Throwing materials from high places to the deck

Ans : D

3781 halon extinguishers used on a class “C” fire should be directed at the
_________

A. base of the equipment

B. top of the equipment

C. power source

D. source of the fire

Ans :D

3782 when taking tank soundings, coating the tape with chalk helps to
________

A. better identify the correct reading

B. show the depth of any water in an oil tank

C. make the tape roll easier

 D. reduce possibility of sparks

Ans:A

3783 when completing the ballasting operation of a containinated tank,

which of the

following problems must be guarded against?

A. Back flow of contaminated water
B. Loss of pump suction
C. Excessive tank pressure due to closed vents
D. Motor overload due to high discharge head

Ans:A

3784 to release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft ,you

must__________

A. pull the release lanyard

B. pull the hydraulic release

C. push the release button

D. pull on the ratchet handle

Ans:A

3785 pitching is angular motion of the vessel about which axis?

A. longitudinal

B. transverse

C. vertical

D. centerline

Ans :B
3786 a segregated ballast system is a sys tem where _________

A. all ballast is processed through the oily water separator

B. ballast is taken on and discharged through a separate main deck

riser

C. ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams

D. all ballast lines,tanks and pumps are independent of those used to oil

Ans:D

3787 what information must be entered on the muster list?

A. names of all crew members

B. use and application of special equipment

C. listing of approved emergency equipment

D. duties and station of each person during emergencies

Ans:D

3788 the most essential element in the administration ofCPR is

______________

A. to have the proper equipment for the process

B. the speed of treatment

C. the administration of oxygen

D. the treatment for traumatic shock

Ans:B

3789 you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to ____________

A. keep the liferaft from capsizing

B. navigate against the current

C. keep personnel from getting seasick

D. stay in the general location

Ans:D

3790 in addition to weighing the cartridge, what other routine

maintenance is required for a

Cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?

A. Weigh the powder in the canister
B. Discharge small amount to see that it works
C. Check the hose and nozzle for clogs
D. Check the external pressure gage

Ans:C

3791 angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as

___________

A. pitch

B. surge

C. sway

D. roll

Ans:D
3792 safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness.order may be
maintained by _______

A. storing all items in an assigned place

B. storing all items in a common storage container except those ready-

for-sea

C. tagging all items according to their age and then storing them
together

D. disposing of worn-out items

Ans:A

3793 when administering artificial respiration it is of the utmost

importance to___________

A. use the mouth-to-mouth method

B. clear airways

C. use rhythmic pressure method

D. know all approved methods

Ans:B

3794 when entering a compartment which is on fire ___________

A. you must wear rubber gloves

B. the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog

C. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door

D. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters

Ans:B
3795 there are two disadvantages to co2 when used as a total flooding
firefighting

Agent.one of these is the limited quantity avaivable and the other is

_________
A. The lack of cooling effect on heated materials
B. It cannot be used in a dead ship situation without electrical power available and
the
Co2 pump
C. It breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases
D. There is no effect on a class ”A” fire even in an enclosed space

Ans:A

3796 the maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is

indicated by the _____

A. load line mark

B. certificate of inspection

C. muster list

D. tonnage mark

Ans:A

3797 after abandoning a vessel,water consumed within the first 24 hours

________________

A. will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the
system

B. will help to prevent fatigue

C. it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases

D. helps to prevent seasickness

Ans:A
3798 a fire extinguishing product produced by first mixing a foam
concentrate with water

To produce a foam solution ,then mixing the foam with air is termed
_______________
A. Light water
B. Halon 81
C. Chemical foam
D. Mechanical foam

Ans :D

3799 angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is known as

__________________

A. yaw

B. surge

C. sway

D. roll

Ans:A

3800 if a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the

coupling bolts, you should _______________

A. notify the coast guard of a potential oil spill

B. reduce plumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate

C. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak

D. notify the terminal operator then shut down and repair the leak

Ans :D
3801 load line regulations are designed to insure that a vessel has
adequate structural

strength and sufficient __________________

A. Life saving equipment
B. Stability
C. Mooring tension
D. Riser tension

Ans :B

3802 the necessity for administering artificial respiration may be

recognized by the victim’s

________________
A. Vomiting
B. Blue color and lack of breathing
C. Irregular breathing
D. Unconscious condition

Ans : B

C. Mechanical foam

D. High velocity fog

Ans: C

3805 An oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons, contracted for January 1976,and not
equipped with an oily water separator ,all bilge slops may be retained
………………………
A. Onboard in the ships bilges
B. In the forward peak tank
C. In the pur fier reservoir
D. In a cofferdam

Ans: A
3806 Drinking salt water will……………….
A. Be safe if mixed with fresh water
B. Prevent seasickness
C. Promote urine excretion
D. Protect against heat cramps

Ans:C

3807 “GM ” cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination

because………………………
A. “M” is not fixed a t large angles
B. There is no “M” at large angles
C. “G” is not fixed at large angles
D. There is no “G” at large angles

Ans: A

3808 The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution occurring during tanker
operations is…………….
A. Due to collisions
B. Routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude oil washing
C. Loading and discharging
D. Due solely to groundings

Ans : C

3809 Each fire pump on a cargo ship must have a pressure gage
located……………………
A. At the pump discharge
B. At the manifold connection
C. At each fire station discharge
D. At the pump station

Ans: A

3810 If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate

procedure to follow is……………..
 A. Ignore it and continue mouth to mouth ventilation
B. Pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume mouth to mouth
ventilation
C. Switch to mouth to mouth ventilation
D. Turn the patient’s body to side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPR

Ans: D

3811 When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed
…………………………
A. Straight overhead
B. At the vessel whose attention you want to attract
C. Into the wind
D. At about 60 degrees above the horizon

Ans: D

3812 Oil pollution regulation (MARPOL) require any transfer , or discharge of oil,
or oily mixtures can be recorded in the ……………………..
A. Pollution control record
B. Bridge log
C. Oil record book
D. Masters log

Ans: C

3813 Which of the listed fire fighting agents and associated applications provide
the largest shielding effect for the fire fighter………..
A. Straight stream of water
B. Light water and foam mixture
C. Low velocity water fog
D. Carbon dioxide interface

Ans: C

3814 A vessel should normally behave as if all of its weight is acting downward
through the centre og gravity and all of its support is acting upward through the
………………
 A. Keel
B. Center of buoyancy
C. Tipping center
D. Amidship section

Ans:B

3815 One of the uses for low velocity fog is to ……….

A. Help produce mechanical foam
B. Break apart class “A” combustibles
C. Sweep burning liquids overboard
D. Act as a heat shield to protect the fire fighter

Ans: D

3816 The value of maximum righting arm is dependent upon the position of the
center of buoyancy and the ……………………
A. Longitudinal center of gravity
B. Transverse center of gravity
C. Downflooding angle
D. Vertical location of the center of gravity

Ans:D

3817 Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents?

A. Unsafe actions
B. Orderliness
C. Frequent inspections
D. Good work habits/practices

Ans:A

3818 Repair of vital machinery and services related to an emergency on a cargo

ship should be accomplished (in sequence) ……………………..
A. After control of fire , flooding, and structural repairs
B. Immediately before emergency is under control
C. After control of fire , but before control of flooding
D. After stability is restored
 Ans: A

3819 Fire extinguishers designated by the Roman numerals I and II are……………..

A. Portable units
B. Semi portable units
C. Fixed systems
D. Compact systems

Ans : A

3820 Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gases as a

percentage of the ………………
A. Flash point
B. Upper explosive limit
C. Lower explosive limit
D. Fire point

Ans:C

3821 A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding only……

A. With puncture wounds
B. When all other means have failed
C. When the victim is unconscious
D. To prevent bleeding from minor wounds

Ans:B

3823 Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a……..

A. Cooling agent
B. Smothering agent
C. Barrier against radiant heat
D. All the above

Ans: D

3823 Which of the fire fighting foams listed would require the mechanical mixing
of air and foam concentrate?
A. Protein foam
 B. Synthetic and alchohol foams
C. Aqueous film forming foam(AFFF)
D. All the above

Ans: D

3824 If a ship is supported on the crest of a wave amidships,the vessel is

subjected to ………..
A. Pitch poling
B. Hogging stresses
C. Sagging stresses
D. Yawing stresses

Ans:B

3825 To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing process,due
to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid,the contents of any tank to
be used as a source of crude oil for washing must first reduce a portion of the
tank content

A. One-half meter
B. One meter
C. One and one half meters
D. Two meters

Ans:B

3826 A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too….

A. Rich to burn
B. Lean to burn
C. Cool to burn
D. Dense to burn

Ans:B

3827 Which of the listed conditioned can be considered as the single greatest
cause of accidents?
A. Speed
B. Excessive knowledge or skill
C. Human error
D. Excitement

Ans:C

3828 AA continual change in the list or trim of any floating vessel indicates ….
A. Negative”GM”
B. Progressive flooding
C. Structural failure
D. An immediate need to counterflood

Ans:B

3829 Te fire hydrant outlet may be positioned from the horizontal to any position
pointing……
A. 45’ upward
B. Vertically upward
C. 90’ upward
D. Vertically downward

Ans:D

3830 To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be…..
A. Kept in normal containers
B. Discarded as soon as possible
C. Cleaned thoroughly for reuse
D. Kept in the paint locker

Ans:B

3831 Water log is an effective fire extinguishing agent because it……….

A. Has a great cooling ability
B. Will completely remove the toxic fumes from the air
C. Will completely remove combustible vapours from the air
D. Does not leave a harmful residue on electrical machinery

Ans:A
3832 With regards to the metacentric height ,whoch of the following statement is
true……?
A. it is used to indicate the quality of initial stability
B. it is located below the centre of buoyancy
C. it is measured vertically above the centre of buoyancy
D. its determination is the objective of inclining experiment

Ans:A

3833Regulations require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with……

A. a first aid kit
B. an instruction manual
C. a sea anchor
D. all of the above

Ans:D

3834 In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be
controlled by…..
A. applying direct pressure
B. submerging the wound in lukewarm water
C. cooling the wound with ice
D. applying a tourniquet

Ans:A

3835 Damage stability of a ship is the stability …….

A. Which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots
B. Before collision
C. After flooding
D. At survival draft

Ans:C

3836 Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fire by ….

A. Allowing better access in an emergency
B. Eliminating potential fuel sources
C. Eliminating trip hazards
D. Improving personal qualifications

Ans:B

3837 A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing agent is its
ability to….
A. Alternate expansion and contraction as water in liquid state becomes vapour
B. Absorb smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to vapour
C. Rapidly contracts as water is converted from liquid to vapor
D. Vaporize and rapidly expand as water absorbs heat

Ans:D

3838 Which of the listed initials is used to represent the indicator of initial
stability?
A. GM
B. KG
C. KM
D. GZ

Ans:A

3839 Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2 ,it is advisable to…..
A. Use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding area
B. Standby with water or other agents
C. Thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2
D. Jettison all burning materials

Ans:B

3840 Which of the following must be carried out In order to manually launch an
inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?
A. It will be easily launched by simply breaking the weak link
B. Decreases the hydrostatic release button
C. It is easily launched by cutting the container securing straps
D. It is only necessary to attach the weak link to the vessel

Ans:B
3841 Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one spanner wrench and at
least one ……………….
A. hose rack or reel
B. all-purpose nozzle
C. foam applicator
D. pc axe

Ans:A

3842 Force within a mobile offshore drilling unit have caused a difference
between the starboard and port drafts.This difference is……………..
A. list
B. heel
C. trim
D. flotation

Ans: A

A.1 inch

B.2 ½ inches

C.3 inches

D.3 ½ inches

Ans: B

A.have the patient lie down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops

B.stop the bleeding clean medicate and cover the wound

C.apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleedingstops

D.apply a hot towel to purge the wound,then medicate and cover it

Ans.B
3845. which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of cardiac
arrest as a result of electric shock?

A. weak pulse at wrist or neck

B.flushed face

C.respiration is weak or has stopped

D.all of the above symptoms

Ans :C

3846.heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from the partially open door of the
paint locker,the FIRST firefighting attack should be to

A.leave the door and vents open,but release the CO2 flooding system

B.open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire

C. enter and use a portable extinguisher

D.secure the door and vents, then manually release the co2

Ans :D

3847. #REF

A. #REF!

B. #REF!

C. #REF!

D. #REF!

Ans : #REF!

3848. if the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability
counterflooding into empty tanks may

A. increase the righting moment

 B.cause an increase in the right arm

C.bring the unit to an upright aquilibrium position

D.cause the unit to flop to a greater angle

Ans :D

3849. the important initial stability parameter “GM” is the

A. metacentric height

B. height of the metacenter above the keel

C. height of the centre of bouyancy above the keel

D. height of the centre of gravity above the keel

Ans :A

3850. on a cargo ship , a fire drill shall be conducted once every

A.week

B.month

C.crew change

D.other week

Ans :A

3851. during the fire drill on a ship , which of the following actions is required to
be carried out?

A.each fire pump is to be started

B.the lifeboat is to be lanched and operated

C.an inventory of rescue and fire equipment is to be taken

D.an inspection and inventory of fire hoses is to be made.

 Ans :A

3852. as a last resort ,a tourniment can be used to

A.hold a victim in a strecher

B.stop uncontrolled bleeding

C.hold a large bandage in place

D. restrain a delirious victim

Ans :B

3853. after using a co2 fire axtinguisher, it should be

A.put back in service if some co2 remains

B.hydrostatically tested

C.retagged

D. recharged

Ans :D

3854. you are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a victim of
electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a recommended procedure?

A.placing the victim on his or her back and exposing the chest

B.giving cardiac massage without artificial respiration

C.rocking so that a controlled amount of body weight goes through your

arms and hand to their breastbone

D.placing one hand across victim’s breastbone so that the heel of the hand
covers the lower part

Ans :B

3855. a slow and easy motion of a ship in a seaway is an indicator of

 A.small”GM”

B.low center of gravity

C.a shiff vessel

D.large “GZ”

Ans :A

3856.if a cargo ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause ,
you should first

A.determine the cause before taking countermeasures

B.assume the shift is due to off centre loading

C.counterflood on the side opposite the list or trim

D.assume the cause is environment forces

Ans :A

3857. the abbreviation “GM” is used to represent the

A.height of the metacenter

B.righting arm

C.righting moment

D.metacenter height

Ans :D

3858. automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for co2 system

protecting the

A.machinery spaces

B.cargo compartments
 C.living quarters

D.galley

Ans :A

3859.if a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb , you should

A. attempt to set the fracture

B. prevent futher movement of the bone

C.apply a tourniquet without delay

D.alternatively apply hot and cold compresses

Ans : B

3860. you can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the

A.certificate of inspection

B.muster list

C. vessel’s logbook

D.vessel’s documentation

Ans : B

3861. stability is determined principally by the relationship of the crntre of gravity

and the

A. aft perpendicular

B. center of buoyancy

C. keel

D. center of flotation

Ans : B
3862. in the event of a fire ,automatic activation of a fixed co2 extinguishing
system can result in which of the following areas?

A.machinery space

B.paint locker

C.cargo hold

D.all the above

Ans : D

3863. stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel

the center of buoyancy and the

A.metacenter

B.geometric center of the water plane area

C.center of gravity

D. center of flotation

Ans : C

3864.where form extinguished systems are provided on a ship ,each machinary

flat in the space must have a/an

A.coaming

B. alarm

C. drain

D. fire sensor

Ans : A

3865. the muster list shows each crew lifeboat station , their duties during
abandonment , basic instructions and
A.all emergency signals

B.instructions for lowering the survival capsule

C. the time each weekly drill will be held

D.work schedule

Ans : A

3866. you are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm
which of the listed actions should you take ?

A. apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint

B. apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line , splint and apply a
pressure dressing

C. force the ends of the bones back into line , treat the bleeding and sprint

D. apply a bulky , sterile , pressure dressing to control bleeding , then apply a

temporary sprint and place the victim in bed

Ans : D

3867. in any major personal injury , first aid is to include the treatment of the
injury and what additional treatment ?

A. application of CPR

B. removal of any foreign objects

C. administration of oxygen

D. treatment for traumatic shock

Ans : D

3868. the use of which fire extinguishing agent involves covering the burning
surface by deflecting the agent from a bulkhead to avoid undue agitation ?
A. foam

B. dry chemical

C. carbon dioxide

D. halon 1301

Ans : A

3869. which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock ?

A. keep the patient warm , but not hot

B. have the injured person lie down

C. massage the arms and legs to restore circulation

D. relieve the pain of the injury

Ans : C

3870. a “class B” fire is extinguished using foam by

A. cooling the surface

B. replacing the fuel

C. smothering the fire

D. all the above

Ans : C

3871. when entering the pump room of a tank vessel to rescue an unconscious
person , which items of the equipment listed are you required to be using ?

A. protective clothing and explosion-proof flashlight

B. flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment

C. combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask

D. self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines

Ans : D

3872. which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock?

A. administer CPR

B. administer fluids

C. open clothing to allow cooling of the body

D. keep the victim in a sitting position

Ans : B

3873. flooding of any snip’s compartment , resulting in a serious loss of reserve

buoyancy will always

A. increase the trim

B. change the free surface effect

C. decrease ship stability

D. cause a serious list

Ans : C

3874. a crew member has been overcome by toxic fumes in the pump room.
Which of the following actions should be taken before entering the pump room to
rescue the victim ?

A. put on an approved self-contained breathing apparatus

B. have someone stand by the entrance

C. wear a lifeline

D. all the above

Ans : D
3875. what is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above
the main deck ?

A. the stability is increased

B. the draft is increased

C. the stability is decreased

D. the reverse buoyancy is decreased

Ans : C

3876. which of the following is considered as the correct action for the rescue of
an unconscious person from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere ?

A. wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus

B. attack a lifeline to the rescuer

C. have someone stand by outside the compartment

D. all the above

Ans : D

3877. if the result of loading a ship is an increase in the height of the center of
gravity , there will always be an increase in the

A. metacentric height

B. righting arm

C. righting moment

D. vertical moments

Ans : D

3878. if a vessel losses its reserve buoyancy , it will be

A. float upright with the main deck awash

B. capsize and float on its side

C. remain unaffected if the hull remains intact

D. most likely sink

Ans : D

3879.since accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas can be dangerous to personnel ,

it is important to know that this gas is

A.lighter than air

B. heavier than air

C. a yellow gas that is easily recognized

D. midly toxic

3880. the purpose of the inclining experiment on a ship is to determine

A. lightweight and lightweight center of gravity location

B. the position of the center of buoyancy

C. the position of the metacenter

D. the maximum load line

3937. On a tank vessel, which of the following substances would be burning in class “B” fire ?

A. Oil
B. Wood
C. Rags
D. Electrical wiring
Answer: A

3939.Dry chemical extinguishing agents are effective when used

A. with any foam extinguishing agents

B. strictly in a cooling capacity
 C. with any other dry extinguishing agents
D. materials that contain their own oxygen
Answer: D

3941.Radiation can spread a fire by

A. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship’s metal

B. burning liquids flowing into another space
C. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
D. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
Answer: D

3943.Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire main in a manner which allow

A. all sections to be quickly connected

B. the nozzle end to be run out to the fire
C. all sections to be quickly drained
D. the nozzle and fittings to be easily and quickly inspected cable
Answer: B

3945.The “off-load” release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated

A. when there is no load on the cable

B. when there is a load on the cable
C. only the doors are closed
D. when the engine is started
Answer: A

3947.If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see

A. if the fuel valve is open

B. if the air supply system is open
C. if the water sparkler system is open
D. if the limit switch is one your dri
Answer: A

3949.Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will

A. reduce your drift rate

B. keep the survival craft from turning over
C. aid in recovering the survival craft
D. increase your visibility
Answer: A

3951.To properly maintain fire hoses, you should

 A. keep them rolled tightly in the rack with female coupling protected
B. keep exterior linings damp by periodic washdowns
C. thoroughly drain them after each use
D. keep them partly filled with fresh water
Answer: C

3953.A class “C” fire would most likely occur in the

A. engine room bilges

B. main switchboard
C. paint locker
D. rag bin
Answer: B

3955.When fighting a fire with a dry chemical extinguisher you should always

A. direct the stream of chemical towards the base of the fire

B. attack the fire from the leeward side
C. bounce the chemical onto the fire from adjacent structural members
D. spray the chemical across the top of the flames
Answer: A

3957.If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first

A. abandon the survival craft

3938.Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be ranged to sense

A. smoke
B. rate of temperature rise
C. ionized particles
D. all of the above
Answer: D

3940.Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to

A. capsize
B. run smoother
C. run faster
D. sink
Answer: A

3942.Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke

A. cold and moist skin, high body temperature

 B. cold and dry skin, low body temperature
C. hot and moist skin, high body temperature
D. hot and dry skin, high body temperature
Answer: D

3944.When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for

A. personnel air supply

B. additional floatation
C. priming the sprinkler system
D. filling the self-righting bags
Answer: A

3946.A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the

A. hose sections disconnected

B. foam nozzle attached
C. all-purpose nozzle attached
D. hose sections rolled separately
Answer: C

3948.Small oil spills on deck maybe prevented from entering the water by

A. keeping the drip pans empty

B. plugging all scuppers and drains
C. placing floating booms alongside the ship
D. closing ullage openings between soundings
Answer: B

3950. To effectively treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should

A. administer artificial respiration

B. put him in a tub of ice water
C. give him sips of cool saline solution
D. take his blood pressure
Answer: C

3952.During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station to

A. release the towline in an emergency

B. help the helmsman steer
C. look for food and water
D. check water level in the bilge
Answer: A
3954.When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the winch and check

A. that all personnel are seated in the craft

B. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum
C. which way the wind is blowing
D. the hydraulic fluid level before lifting
Answer: B

3956.Releasing oil from the sea anchor of a survival craft may

A. keep the propeller from being fouled

B. increase propeller speed
C. help calm spray given off from the waves in the vicinity of the craft
D. increase the holding power of the sea anchor
Answer: C

3958.The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with

A. oxygen

3920.It shall be insured that the fuel tank of each motar propelled life boat is emptied and the
fuel is changed atleast once every

A 3months

B 6months

C 12months

D 24months

Answer C
3921.If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended period it will be unsafe to enter the steam
and water drum immediately after it has been opened for as they are may be

A insufficient oxygen to support life

B heavy concentration of sewer gas

C excessive carbondioxide in the drum

D toxic gases from organic decomposition

Answer A

3922.When treating a chemical burn you should flood the burned area for atleast

A 5minutes

B 10minutes

C 15minutes

D 20minutes

Answer A

3923.In addition to the life jacket stowed in places that they are readily accessible life jacket
must be stowed at

A mess room

B each life boat

C each manned watchstation

D each fire station

Answer C

3924.Before entering any space that has been sealed oxygen level should be tested what level of
oxygen in space is equal to fresh air

A 0.18
B 0.198

C 0.208

D 0.218

Answer C

3925.In the material of the substance involved in the class B fire can be burning

A diesel oil

B magnesium

C dunnage

D electrical insulation

Answer A

3926.Which of the following precations should be taken in treating burns caused by contact with
dry lins

A water should be applied in a fine spary

B the burned area should be immersed in a water

C the entire burn area should be covered with ointment

D before washing the lime should be brushed away gently

Answer D

3927.The document certifying the correctness of the load line marks on aship is called

A certificate of inspection

B load line certificate

C certificate of documentation

D solas certificate
Ans b

3928.A load line assigned to the shipto insure adequate stability and

A mooring tension

B riser tension

C lifesaving equipmemt

D structural strength

Ans d

3929.Burning paint,turpentine or greases would be example of which of the following classesof

fire

A class a

B class b

C class c

Classd

Ans b

3930.The international oil pollution prevention certificate is valid for a period of

A.one year from the date of issue

B.two years from the date of issue

C.three years from the date of issue

D.fous years from the date of issue

Ans:D

3931.Where would you find a FCC authorization for transmitting on your rig’s EPIRB?

A. On the ship station license.

B. On the side of the EPIRB transmitter
C. I the radio log
D. On the certificate of inspection

Ans:A

3932.After having activated the emergency position indicating radio deacon you should
 A. Turn it off for five minutes
B. Turn it off and on at five minute interval
C. Turn it off during day light hours
D. Leave it on continuosly

Ans:D

3933.A class b fire would most likely occur in the ….

A. Main switch board

B. Engine room bilge
C. Breathing compartment
D. Electric fresh water transfer pump

Ans :b

3934.With no alternative but to jump from the ship the correct posture should include

A. Holding down the life jacket against the chest with one arm crossing the other covering
the mouth and nose with the hand and feet together
B. Knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs
C. Body straight and arms straightly at the sides for feet first entering into the water
D. Both hands holding the life jacket below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed

Ans :a

3935.Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the fire room bilges

A class a

B class b

C class c

Classd

Ans b

3936. In the typical automatic fire alarm system which of the listed actions will cause An
indication of the fire to be given in the annunciator cabinet?

A. A rising temperature will activate the thermostat

B. The fire alarm test push button is operated
C. A manual fire alarm box is activated
D. All the above
Ans :d

4027 when taking samples of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter you should
____
A. Only sample around the deck longitudinals as gases are lighter than air
B. Sample only near the ullages openings as all vapour accumulate there
C. Avoid sampling in the vicinity of deep webs to prevent false readings
D. Sample as much of the tank as possible especially at the bottom

Ans- D

4028 when whistle signals are used as commands for llaunchings the lifeboats
one short blast means __
A. Use flot-free method only
B. Lower all boats
C. Raise all boats
D. Drill is over secure all boats

Ans – B

4029 in cleaning up an oil spill the use of straw fibers would be an ex of which
type of oil removel?
A. Chemical agent removal
B. Mechanical removal
C. Absorbant removal
D. None of the above

Ans-C

4030 most important to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand

is to___
A. open the CO2 inflation valve
B. open the raft cointainer
C. ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel
D. inflate raft on vessel then lower it over the side
Ans-c

4031 what information can be obtained from a marine chemists certificate on

tank barge?
A. Number of free extinguishers required onboard
B. Quality of barge cargo
C. Tanks which are safe to enter when certificate was issued
D. Barge stability info

Ans-C

4032 symptoms of sugar diabetes include___

A. Increased appetite and thirst
B. Decreased appetite and thirst
C. Gain in weight
D. Elevated temperature

Ans-A

4033 hydrocarbon vapors are detected by use of ____

A. Flames safetly lamp
B. Combustible gas indicator
C. Gasometer
D. Oxygen indicator

Ans-B

4034 what statement about immersion suits is false ?

A. Suit should be worn only when abandoning ships
B. Suits is received from manufacturer in an outer a storage bag that should be used aboard
ship for storing suit
C. Front zipper should be lubricated accordingly to manufacturers specifications
D. Immersion suits provides protection against hypothermia even if ther is small leak

Ans-A

4035 ullage reading in the distantance given point at ____

A. Sounding tube to either side of track
 B. Top of tank down to bottom of tank
C. Top of liguid down to tank bottom
D. Top of sounding tube down to surface of liquid

Ans-D

4036 infiatable liferaft is hand launched by____

A. Pulling a cord
B. Cutting the wire restraining bands
C. Removing the rubber packing strips
D. Throwing the entire cointainer overboard

Ans-D

4037 If a person with diabetes has been injured symptoms of onset of a diabetic
coma would include___
A. Reduced appetite and thirst
B. Sneezing and coughing
C. Excessive thirst and fever
D. Slurred speech and loss of coordination

Ans-C

4038 most effective method in the use of co2 fire extinguisher is fir discharge to
be directed at ___
A. Middle of fire
B. Top and sides of a fire
C. Base or nearest edge of a fire
D. Highest flames of fire

Ans-C

4039 chemical material as listed on a material safety data sheet that can undergo
sudden and violent release of pressure and heat is called ___
A. Combustion
B. Explosive
C. Flammable
 D. toxic

Ans-B

4040 when firing a prototype distress signal it should be aimed ___

A. Into wind
B. Straight ahead
C. At vessel whose attention you want to attract
D. Approximately 60deg above the horizon

Ans-D

4041 oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are not required to
cointain ___
A. Name of the person designated as person in charge of transfer
B. Line diagram of the vessel oil transfer piping
C. Special procedures for topping off tanks

Ans-A

4042 which of the following operations should be carried out when launching an
inflatiable liferaft by hand

Ans make sure operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the
side

4043 materials listed on a material saftely data sheet that violently self reacts
under commonly occurring conditions is called ___
A. Pyrophic
B. Toxic
C. Explosives
D. Unstable

Ans-D

4044 Most beneficialassistance for a person having an epileptic convulsion is to

___

Ans Keep him from injuring himself

4045 what is purpose of explosimeter
A. To identify combustible gases
B. To detect combustible gases

Ans-B

4046 bayonel catch on an all purpose nozzle is used to latch in ____

A. Mechanical form nozzle
B. Mechanical foam pick up tube
C. High velocity fog tip

Ans-c

4047 what terms is listed on a material saftety sheet to describe a chemical that
can produce life threatening health hazard
A. Low toxicity
B. Recommended toxicity
C. Moderate toxicity
D. High toxicity

Ans-D

4048 your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side facility if oil begins from
one one tank vent which of the following actions should be taken

Ans signal the shore control point to shutdown

4050 which health hazard term is listed on a material safety data sheet is to
indicate that contact with substance will freeze body tissue on contact

Ans Cryogenic

4053 which of following symptoms would be indicated if a persons appendix

ruptured

Ans mussle tensserness in entire abdomen

4054 physical data term on a material safety data sheet describibng if a liquid is
lighter or heaver than water is ____
Ans specific gravity

4055 the all purpose is capable of producing a solid stream of water ____

Ans and high velocity water fog

4056 which of following conditions is NOT a function of covered lifr boat

pressuired air supply

Ans pressurissesthe water spray system

4057 if you wish to remove an inflatable from its cradle to free it is by

Ans pushing the plunger on the center of hydrostatic release

4058 ewhen you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on fuel you
should first

Ans Stop loading

4059 when a patient is suspected of having appendicitis the pain should be

relieved by

Ans keeping a ice bag over the location

4060 ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2% and an upper explosive limit
of 100%

By volume of air this means

Ans there is no possible ethyelene oxide concentration in air which is too rich to
burn

4061 according to regulations a person who discharge plastic or garbage mixed

with plastic is liable for_____
A. Civil penality
B. A fine
C. Imprisonment for 5 yrs
D. All the above
 Ans-D

4062 seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the
______
A. Stomach
B. Lower intestine
C. Inner ear
D. Bladder

Ans-C

4063 a chemical that causes a substantial proportion of exposed people or

animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure is
listed on material safely data sheet (MSDS) as a

A Skin contact hazard

B physical hazard

C sensitizer

D skin absorption hazard

Ans: c

4064 Progressive flooding on a ship may be indicated by

A ballast control alarms

B excessive drift

C excessive list or trim

D a continual worsening of list or trim

Ans : A

4065 using a sea anchor will

A reduce the drift rate of the liferaft

B keep the liferaft from turning over

C aid in recovering the liferaft

D increases your visibility

4066 while taking on fuel , notice oil on the water around the vessel which of the
following actions should be taken FIRST?

A stop fueling

B notify the dispatcher

C notify the terminal superintendent

D determine if your vessel is the source

Ans: A

4067 the primary corcern in aiding a back injury patient is

A relieving thepatient’s pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication

B avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling

C preventing convulsions and muscle spasms cause by the injury

D providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration

Ans:B

4068 the most practical method of extinguishing a class “A”fire ,involving burning
dunnage ,is to use

A chemical foam

B a hand portable co2 extinguishers

C purple k powder and light water

D water

Ans:D

4069 in order to produce a high velocity water fog using an all purpose nozzle,you
must

A pull the nozzle handle half way back

B push the nozzle handle completely forward

C insert an in-line fog applicator

D change to small nozzle tip after changing the position of the nozzle handle

Ans:A

4070 which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has fainted ?

A provide fresh air

B loosen clothing

C elevate head

D stimulate face with cold water

Ans:C

4071 if an incorrect entry were made in the oil record book ,youshould

A erase the entry and rewrite it

B notify the ship s officer-in-charge

C completely black it out and make the correct entry alongside

D draw a single line through the wrong entry and initial it

Ans:D
4072 generally,when lifting an inilatable liferaft back aboard ship,you would use
the

A towing bridle

B main weather cover

C external lifelines

D righting strap

Ans:A

4073 a crack, located in the shell plating of a ship,may be temporarily prevented

from increasing in length by

A drilling a hole at each end of the crack

B installing welded brackets across both ends

C v-groving and welding from both sides of the crack

D cutting a square notch at each end of the crack

Ans:A

4074 which of the following procedures canbe used for checking for spinal
vord damage to an unconscious patient?

A . Beginning at the back of the neck and proceeding to the buttocks press the
spine to find where it hurts

B prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check
for reactiom

C selectively raise each arm and leg and watch patients face to see if he registers
pain.

D roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check
reaction
ANS:B

4075 First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns especially in the eyes
includes

A flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical attention
ashore or by radio

B wiping the affected area with a clean dry cloth and resting quietly for several
hours

C drying the acid or alkali with a rag followed by applying a light cream

D all of the above may be acceptable treatments depending on the severity of the
burn

Ans: a

4076 where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?

A SOLAS regulations

B certificate of inspection

C muster list

D ship”s articles

Ans:c

4077 when off loading a garbage to another ship your records must identify that
ship by name and____________

A home port

B operator name of record

C official number

D master name
ANS:c

4078 the best means ofcombating an oilfire on the surface of the water
surrounding a vessel tied to the pier isto use……………
a. Water fog over the fire
b. Solid water steams directly into thefire
c. Dry chemical around the fire
d. Foam directed against the vessel side

Ans:d

4079 in the order to find out which life boat you are aasinged you should look
at the……..

A.fire control plan

b.Certificate of inspection

c.muster list

d.shiop articles

ans:c

4080 after the launching an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by………

a.opening the automatic drain plugs

b.draining the water pockets

c.using the electric bilge pump

d.using the bailers and cellulose sponage

ans:d

4081what is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system?

a.125% of forced draft rate

b.125% of shore side loading rate

c.125% of cargo pump capcity

d.125% of fan capacity

ans:c

4082an inert gas system is desing ed to reduce the possibility of tank explosion
by………………..

a.eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks

b.removing all hydrocarbon gases from thecargo tanks

c.blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam

d.reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for combustion

ans:d

4083. Firehose can be used for purpose other than firefighting service
when________.

A. used for portable water service

B. used for drills and testing

C. determined by the chief engineer

D. approved by Master

Ans: B

4084. The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle are____________.

A. forward off, center fog, back: solid stream

B. forward: solid stream, center, fog ,bag: off

C. forward: fog , center, solid stream, back: off

D. forward: off, center: solid stream, back:fog

Ans: A

4085. A vessel sailing through the specific special areas may discharge or
dispose of___________.

A. incinerated ash at anytime

B. fairly dense material that will sink, i.e. metal cans or glass bottles at anytime

C. victual waste when at least 12 nautical miles from shore

D. absolutely no garbage at anytime

Ans: C

4086. Where there are multiple accident victims ,which injuries should be the
FIRST to receive emergency treatment ?

A. Major multiple fractures

B. eye injuries

C. Back injuries with spinal cord damage

D. Airway and breathing difficulties

Ans: D

4087. Where there are multiple accident victims , which type of injury should
be the first to receive emergency treatment?

A. Serve shock

B. Eye injuries

C. Burns

D. Major multiple fracture

Ans: A
4088. The purpose of the four water pockets, located on the underside at each
corner of the raft ,is to ________.

A. stow rain water , these four spaces will not take up valuable space

B. act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated and in an
upright position

C. hold the fresh water required by regulation to be provided in the raft when
packed

D. none of the above

Ans: B

4089 in managing a situation involving multiple injuries ,the rescuer must be

able to

A.provide the necessary ineducation

B.rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obivious injurious

C accuratetly diagonise the ailment or injury

D prescribe treatment for the victim

Ans:B

4090 when an oil fire has been extinguished ,the surfaceof the oil should be
kept covered with foam to prevent

A air from contacting the oil vapours permitting reignition

B boiling of the heated oil

C spontaneous combustion below the oil surface

D toxic fumes from escaping to the surface

Ans:a
4091 after an injury ,which of the following can be determinate by examining
the condition of a victim’s pupils ?

A the degree of pain being suffered

B the degree of vision impairment

C wether or not the brain is functioning properly

D whether or not the victims blood pressure is normal

Ans:c

4092when fighting an oil or gasoline fire ,which of the listed fire extinguish
agents should NEVER be sprayed

A .high velocity fog

B .dry chemical

C .low velocity fog

D .steam smothering

Ans : b

4093 what is the primary purpuose of a spint applied in frist aid?

A .reduce pain

B .control bleeding

C .immobblize a frature

D .reset the bone

Ans :c

4094 bleeeinding from a vein may be ordinary control by ________

A .pinching the wond closed

B .applying direct pressure to the wond

C .heavy application of a disinfectant

D .pouring ice water directly into the wound

Ans .b

4095 on most make of inflamablie liferaft the batteries to operate the light on
the inside of the raft can be made to last longer by ___________

A .unscrewing the bulb during the daylight

B .operting the switch for the light

C .taking no action as there is no way of preserving power

D taking no action as they shut off automatically in daylight

Ans:b

4096 fires resulting from spontaneous combustion are usually caused by the
improper disposal of

A cigarette butts

B oily rags

C burner torches

D lighted mathes

Ans:b

4097 immediately after a class “B”fire has been extinguished by the use of
foam ,crewmen should

A carefully apply a low velocity fog over the foam blanket

B tade through the faom blanket to evently distribute the foam

 C be careful not to disturb the foam blanket

D sweep the foam blanket overboard and secure firefighting equipment

Ans c

4098 in all but the most severe ceases bleeding from a wound shoude be
controll by ______________

A .applying a tourniquet

B .cooling the wound

C .submering the wound in lukewarm water

D .applying direct pressure ot the wound

Ans .d
4099. A person suffered from laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure.
What would u do next ?

A. Apply a torniqiuet to prevent bleeding from restarting.

B. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
C. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic.
D. Administer fluid to assist the body in replacing the lost blood.
Ans: B

4100. according to regulations, a pressure-demand, open circuit, self contained breathing apparatus shall have a minimum minutes
of air supply.

A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
Ans: A

4101. spontaneous combustion can occur in

A. Paint thinner in an open can.

B. Fuel accumulated in the bilge.
C. Oily rags stored in an unvented compartment.
D. Gasoline stored in steel drums.
Ans: C

4102. the rescuer can best provide an air-tight seal during mouth-to- mouth resuscitation by pinching the victims nostrils and

A. Cupping a hand around patient’s mouth.

B. Keeping the head elevated.
C. applying his mouth tightly over the victim’s mouth.
D. Holding the jaw down firmly.
 Ans: B

4103. which of the following listed fire extinguishing agent would be incorrect for the direct use on a gasoline or oil fire ?

A. A solid stream of water.

B. Low velocity water fog.
C. High velocity water fog.
D. Mechanical fire fighting foam.
Ans: A

4104. which of the following below is classified as grade “E” combustible liquid ?

A. Benzene.
B. Bunker “C”.
C. Very light naphtha.
D. Most commercial gasoline.
Ans: B

4105. which statement is FALSE regarding halon as a fire extinguishing agent?

A. It is more effective than CO2.

B. It leaves no residue.
C. It is non corrosive.
D. It is always non toxic.
Ans: D

4106. which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 ?

A. The garbage t be discharged will sink.

B. Garbage accumulated onboard has exceeded storage space.
C. A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for floatation.
D. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage.
Ans: C

4107. the most likely place for a fire to start through the process of spontaneous combustion is in

A. An electric switchboard.
B. The pressure tanks.
C. The fuel oil tanks.
D. The oily rag bin.
Ans: D

4108. when welding or burning is aboard a vessel, you must be certain that the space

A. Is properly vented.
B. Contains no oil in the bilges.
C. Has no oil in the bilges.
D. All the above.
Ans: D

4109. you are fighting a class “B” fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed

A. At the seat of the fire, starting at the edge.

B. Over top of the fire.
C. At the main body of the fire.
D. To bank off a bulkhead onto the fire.
Ans: A

4110. if a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room bilges, in which of the following sequences should the fire extinguishing agents
or systems be used ?
 A. Fixed CO2, semi-portable CO2, then hand portable CO2.
B. Semi-portable CO2, fixed CO2, then hand portable CO2.
C. hand portable CO2, Semi-portable CO2, then last as a resort fixed CO2 system.
D. hand portable CO2, fixed CO2, then last as a resort semi-portable CO2 system.
Ans: C

4111. which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature ?

A. Foam.
B. CO2.
C. Water stream.
D. Water foam.
Ans: B

4112. you are about to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected smoldering fire. If you’re not wearing a self contained breathing
apparatus, you should test the compartment’s atmosphere to determine is/are

A. sufficient oxygen to to sustain human life.

B. An explosive mixture in the compartment.
C. A toxic atmosphere in the compartment.
D. All the above
Ans: D

4113. liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their

A. Shape.
B. Shallow draft.
C. Large sail area.
D. All the above.
Ans: D

4114. all the following are the part of fire triangle except

A. Fuel.
B. Oxygen.
C. Heat.
D. Electricity.
Ans: D

4115. a tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY

A. With puncture wounds.

B. When the victim is unconscious.
C. When all other means have failed.
D. To prevent bleeding from minor wounds
Ans: C

4116. the best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the use of a

A. Dry chemical extinguisher and solid stream water.

B. Foam extinguisher and low velocity water.
C. Foam extinguisher and solid velocity water.
D. Foam and soda acid extinguisher.
Ans: B

4117. the date of each fire and boat drill conducted on ship must be recorded

A. In the official log book.

B. In the operations manual.
C. On the certificate of inspection.
D. On the muster list.
 Ans: A

4118. to produce a low velocity water fog spray with all-purpose fire hose nozzle, you must

A. Push the nozzle handle completely forward.

B. Change the fire pump discharge pressure.
C. Pull the nozzle handle completely back.
D. Insert a low velocity fog applicator.
Ans: D

4119. which of the following practices should be avoided since it represents a fire hazard?

A. Smoking near the burner front.

B. Smoking near the machine shop.
C. Stowing oily rags in a paint locker.
D. Stowing acetylene bottles in a vertical position.
An: C

4120. when administering mouth to mouth resuction to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many rates per minute?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans: C

4121. when taking on fuel it is important to remember that petroleum vapours are

A. Not volatile unless the ambient air temperature exceeds 32oC

B. Lighter than air and dissipate rapidly.
C. Unlikely to ignite except in the presence of an open flame.
D. Heavier than air and may enter bilges and/or deckhouse.
Ans: D

4122. if you hear the sound of air escaping from the liferaft jus after it has inflated, you should

A. Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates.

B. Check the sea anchor line for a tear if the sea is rough.
C. Check the painter line attachment for the tear caused by initial opening.
D. Not panic as the relief valves allow excess pressure to escape.
Ans: D

4123. the only portable equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is

A. Battery fed.
B. Self contained.
C. Approved explosion proof.
D. All the above.
Ans: D

4124. the fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to vent
the combustible products from engine room ?

A. Immediately after the fire is extinguished.

B. One half-hour after the fire is extinguished.
C. After the metal surface have cooled down.
D. Before any personnel in fireman outfit reenters the engine room.
Ans: C

4125. which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after usin a portable CO2 extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floor
plates ?
 A. Possible surfocation from the CO2.
B. Forgetting to secure the engine room ventilaton system.
C. CO2 gas being drawn into nearby engine or air compressor intakes.
D. Rekindling of the fire.
Ans: D

4126. petroleum vapors are heavier than air and

A. Will normally dissipate rapidly.

B. Will always form explosive vapors below 0oC ambient.
C. May collect in ship’s bilge.
D. Are of no concern of the wind is blowing.
Ans: C

4127. which portable fire extinguisher is recharged in shore facility ?

A. Dry chemical(cartridge-operated)
B. water(cartridge-operated)
C. water(pump tank)
D. carbon dioxide.

4128. which extinguishing agent is best for use in electrical fire

A. Foam
B. Co2
C. Dry chemical
D. Water fog
Ans: B

4129. you have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which of the following procedures should be used during a prolonged period in a
liferart ?

A. Wet clothes during day to decrease perspiration.

B. Get plenty of rest.
C. Keep the entrance curtains open.
D. All the above.
Ans: D

4130. it is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is fire in order to

A. Cool the metal below.

B. Form a dense coating of smothering stream.
C. Prevent oxygen from reaching the flames.
D. Prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat.
Ans: D

4131. which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire ?

A. Dry chemical.
B. Foam.
C. Water.
D. Carbon dioxide.
Ans: C

4132. as its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil in the tanks will

A. Remain the same.

B. Increase.
C. Decrease.
D. None of the above.
 Ans: B

4133. if you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is

A. Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter.

B. Find some wood for fire.
C. Get the provisions out of raft.
D. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it.
Ans: A

4134. combustible material stored in a compartment adjacent to a compartment where there is a fire may be ignited. This ignition can
occur by

A. Heat convection through the adjacent bulkheads.

B. Combustion gases carried through the ventilation system.
C. Direct convection of the heat emitted by the adjacent fire.
D. Heat radiated from the deck or bulkhead by the adjacent fire.
Ans: D

4135. the spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel’s ventilation system, is an example of

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Windage

Ans.B

4136. if the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first

A. Abandon the survival craft.

B. Check for cracks in the hull
C. Shift all personnel to stern
D. Check the bilge drain plug

Ans. D

4137. Which of the listed type of fires would the fire extinguisher, shown
in the illustration, be suitable for extinguishing?

A. Mattress fire

B.Fire in an electronics console

C. Small oil fire on the engine room floor plates

D. Fire in an ullage opening

Ans. C
4138. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as
possible after entering a liferaft is to

A. assist in sleeping

B. reduce appetite by decreasing nauses

C. prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting

D. prevent impaired judgement due to motion-induced deliriousness.

Ans.C

4139. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak,
you should FIRST

A. secure the ventilation

B. find a soda acid extinguisher

C. shut off the fuel oil supply

D. secure he generator

Ans. C

4140. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor life boat you should

A. plot course for nearest land

B. go only with the direction of the sea.

C. stay in the immediate area

D. go in one direction until the fuel gets over

4141. The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat, oxygen and a chain
reaction. Which of the following statements best describes what must be
eliminated to extinguish a fire ?

A. Any one component can be eliminated to extinguish a fire

B. Any two components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire.

C. Any three components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire.

D. All four components must be eliminated o extinguish any fire.

Ans. A

4142.Which of the following statements holds true for both co2 and H-ion 1301
fixed extinguishing systems?

A. A cylinder is considered satisfactory if its weight is within 10% of the stamped

full weight of the charge.

B. If a protected space is ventilated mechanically, the ventilation system must be

automatically shutdown by the release of the agent

C. To avoid confusion during an emergency situation, there should be only one

action necessary(such as a single pull box) to activate the system.

D. all of the above.

Ans. B

4143. A sprinkler head activated by the melting of a fusible link is installed on a

ship. Which of the following statements is true regarding these devices?

A. sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces would have a higher melting point
fusible link than those installed in the galley.

B. sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces

Would have a higher melting point fusible link than those installed I the living
spaces.

C. sprinkler heads installed in the galley and living spaces would have the same
fusible link melting point.

D. None of the above , sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited aboard
vessels.
Ans. B

4144. If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a leaking fuel line, you
should FIRST

A. notify the engineer on watch

B. isolate and secure the piping

C. throw sand on the fire

D. extinguish the fire using a combination nozzle with applicator.

Ans. B

Ans. B

4145.A fire cannot exist if which of the listed elements is removed from the fire?

A. oxygen

B. Fuel

C. Heat

D. All the above

4146. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum
products?

A. Fire

B. Explosion

C. Asphyxiation

D. All of the above

4147. Breathing problem vapors is hazardous and may cause

A. temporary blindness
B. permanent deafness

C. severe internal bleeding

D. unconsciousness and death

4148. When making entries in the oil record book , all quantities should be

A. recorded as cubic meter with a conversion to barrels

B. verified by the chief engineer

C. recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor.

D. consistently recorded through the oil record book in one specified unit
(gallons, barrels, cubic meters)
Ans. D

4149.When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard ship, water fog can be
used to extinguish the fire and

A. contain the burning liquid

B. prevent any deformation of the tank top

C. cool the surrounding metal

D. eliminate flammable combustion gases

Ans. C

4150.Which of the listed tanks presents the greatest potential for an explosion?

A. A full tank of diesel oil

B. A partially filled tank of diesel oil

C. A full tank of lubricating oil

D. A partially filled tank of hydraulic oil

Ans. B
4151.On a vessel with lifeboats on both sides , the No.2 lifeboat would be located

A. forward of lifeboat No.4 on the starboard side

B. forward of lifeboat No.4 on the port side

C. aft of lifeboat No.1 on the starboard side

D. All the above

4152. Which of the following conditions is true concerning a inflammable liquid

with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?

A. The mixture is too lean to burn.

B. The mixture is too rich to burn.

C. The vapor is about to explode.

D. Conditions are perfect for combustion

Ans. B

4153. The No.2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found

A. forward port side

B. forward starboard side

C. aft of No.1 life boat port side

D.aft of No. 1lifeboat starboard side

4154. The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil tank is to

A. secure all openings to the tank.

B. discharge an intial of co2 with a hand portable extinguisher .

C. direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main

D. spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling

Ans. A

4155. While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts followed by
one long blast on the ship’s whistle supplemented by the same signal on the
general alarm bells. You should

A. start the fire pump to charge the fire alarm

B. standby the main console and await order from the engineer on watch

C. go to your fire station

D. go to your lifeboat station.

Ans. D

4156. Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those who
have boarded a life boat in an emergency situation?

A. Ration food and water supplies

B. Take anti-seasickness pills

C. determine position and closest point of land

D. Check pyrotechnic supplies

Ans. D

4157. Before attempting to put out a class ”C” fire involving an electric driven
centrifugal pump, you should FIRST

A. insulate your shoes

B. ground the fore hose

C. secure its power supply

D. start the fire pump

Ans.c
4158. Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are

A. heavier than air

B. toxic

C. highly explosive

D. all the above

Ans. D

4160. When fighting an electrical fire, you should first

A. stop ventilation to the area

B. stop the vessel

C. secure electrically to the circuit

D. apply co2 to the fire

Ans. C

4161. If the buoyant force on a ship’s hull is equal to or greater than the
displacement tonnage , the ship will

A. require ballest added to only the port side tanks

B. be down by the head

C. sink

D. float

Ans. D

4162. Diesel fuel is relatively safe to handle due to its low volatility , but the
fumes will self-ignite and continue to burn steadily if the fuel is heated to the

A. flash point
B. auto ignition point

C. volatility point

D. upper explosive limit

Ans. B

4163. When a vessel is inclined due to an external force, such as the action of seas
in which no cargo shifts , the tendency of the vessel to return to its original
position is caused by the shift in

A. center of buoyancy

B. center of gravity

C. center of floation

D. meta centric radius

Ans. A

4164. Class C fires may be combated using a

A. dry chemical extinguisher

B. carbon dioxide extinguisher

C. halon extinguisher

D. all of the above

Ans. D

4165.Which of the following represents the emergency signal for fire aboard
ship?

A. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle.

B. Continuous blast of the ship’s for a period of not less than 10 seconds
supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.
C. Three short blasts of the whistle supplemented by the same signal on the gene
alarm

D. More than six short blasts and one long blasts on the whistles supplemented by
the same signal on the general alarm.

Ans.B

4166.which of the listed fire extinguishers should be used on an electrical board

on ship?

A. dry chemical extinguisher

B. carbon dioxide extinguisher

C. halon extinguisher

D. all of the above.

Ans.C

4167. Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the safest to use when
combating a class c fire?

A. co2

B. foam

C. water fog

D. aid

Ans. A

4169. A continuous blasts of the whistle for a period of not less than10 seconds ,
supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less
than 10 seconds, would indicate a

A. fire

B. collision
C.man overboard

D. flooded compartment

Ans. A

4170. Before making any welded repairs to the internals to the internals of a
vessel’s fuel tank in a port, the tank must be examined by

A. the chief engineer

B. the master of the vessels

C. a certified marine chemist

D. the insurance under writer

Page 225

4171. The principle effect of liquid free surface is dependent upon the
volume of displacement of the vessel and the ………………………..

A) Height of liquid in the tank

B) amount of liquid in the tank

C) dimension of liquid surface

D) weight of liquid in the tank

ANS; D

4172. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is…………….

A) inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours

B) free for most flammable gas concentration

C) thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours

D) free for dangerous concentration of flammatle or toxic gasses

ANS:

4173. Vessel stability is greatly affected when water or fuel tank are partially
filled as a result of the…………………

A) free surface effect

B) free communication effect

C) increase of buoyancy

D) decrease in draft

ANS: A

4174. Which of the following precautions are necessary when using any
electrical equipment in a hazardous location such as a pumproom?

A) the pump room is to be gas free

B) the adjacent compartment are to be gas free

C) each compartment where flammable gas is expected to accumulate is to be

closed and secured

D) All the above

ANS: D

4175. TO PREVENT AN EXPLOSION when the pump room is not been certified
gas free and repairs are to be carried out the only type of portable electric
equipments allowed in the pumproom would be an approved………………………………

A) explosion proof self contained battery powered lamp

B) ½ hp electric hand drill

C) drop lamp and explosion cords

D) portable hand grinder

ANS: A

4176. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES should be used to a cartridge

operated dry chemical free extinguisher?

A) make certain that the pressure cartridge has not been punctured

C) Ensure the dry chemical is not become cacked

D) ALL the above

ANS: D

4177. proper maintenance of dry chemical fire extinguisher will

include………………….

a)adding water to the powdered

b) painting the co2 cartridge red

c) puncturing the co2 cartridge

d) shacking the extinguisher to loosen the caked up portion of the powder

ANS: D

4178. AVESSEL whose fuel tanks are half full is subjected to……………………..

a)free surface effect

b)serious lose of reserve buoyancy

c) sevore sagging

d)severe hogging

ANS: A
4179. WHEN reentering an engine room that has been flooded by co2 with the
investigation team should initially…………….

A) leave the access door partially open

b) enter from lowest level

c) enter from the highest level

d) attempt to operate machinery

ANS: C

4180. liquid petrolieum product will become electrically charged as a result of the
………………..

a) splashing or spraying of oil into a tank

b) movement of water droplets in an oil filled tank

c) oil moving through the pipe lines

d)all the above

ANS: D

4181.fuel tank should never be filled by liquid through an open hatch or manhole
because……………..

a) excessive fuel vapour will be released

b) static electricity could be generated generated by falling through vapour laden

air

c) spillange of fuel could be occur with an open hatch

d)water contamination of the fuel could occur

ANS: B
4182. When the petroleum product are handled static electrictycan be generated
by …………………

a)splashing or agitation of the fluids

b) excessive pressure of the fluids

c) low temperature fluids only

d)low viscosity fluids only

ANS: A

4183. the state of charge of a store pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher
can be readily determined by……………………………..

a) visual inspection of the pressure gage

b)weighting the cylinder

c) removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical

d) weighting the co2 cartridge

ANS A

4184. WHEN fueling it is important to ground the ship with regard to static
electricity therefore you must connect the…………………

a) fuel hosebefore the bonding cable

b) bonding cable only if sparks are seen

c) bonding cable before the fuel hose can been connected

d) bonding cable through the ground fault circuit breaker

ans:c

4185. to minimize the possibility of an explosion caused by the discharge of static

electricity the vessel should…………………
a) be electricity grounded to shore piping

b) have its electrical equipment insulated from its structure

c) have crew member use flashlight lamp rather than ac in vapour filled areas

d)have cr4ew members use flame safety lamps during entry to areas that may be
contain explosive fumes

ans: a

4186. the correct method for connecting a grounding cables or bonding cables is
to ………………..

a) open switch connected ground cables close switch and connect cargo hose

b) connected ground open switch and connect cargo hose

c) close switch connect cargohose open switch and connect ground cable

d) connect ground cable connect cargo cable hose, open switch and then close
switch

ans: a

4187. which of the following statement describes the advantage of using a halon
fire extinguisher versus a co2 fire extinguisher?

a) halon cools rather than smothers fine

b) halon is more effective than co2

c) halon can extinguisher combustible metals fire

d) halon is not toxic and safe to breatheunder all condition

ans:b

4188. you may improve a vessel stability by……………

a) keeping the fuel tanks topped off

b)increasing thefree surface tanks atleast half full

c) keeping the fuel tanks at least half full

d) keeping at least one tank empty for slopes

ans: a

4189. the inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the method for
dertermining the exact location of the…………………………………

a) ships displacement in the sea water

b)position of ship centre of gravity of buoyancy

c) position of the ship centre of buoyancy

d) position of the ship metacentre

ans: b

4190. which statement is true concering halon 1301 fire extinguishing

equipment?

a) the agent is highly toxic under all condition

b) the agent is less effective than co2

c) halon extinguishing the fire smothering

d) the agent is a colour less odorlessgas

ans: d

4191. if a vessel rolls to the stateboard side and there are no movable or moving
weight onboard the centre of gravity will………………..

a)move to port

b) move to state board

c) move directly down

d) stay in the same position

ans: d

4192. if weight added at the keel the ship centre of the gravity will…………………….

a) move down

b) move up

c) merge with the metacentre

d)pass through the centre of flotation

ans: a

4193. the stability of the vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and water
tanks are full because the…………………..

a) centre of the gravity is lowered

b) centre of buoyancy is lowered

c) reverse buoyancy is uncharged

d) hull freedom is increased

ans: a

4194. if you have to abandon ship the EPIRB can be used to………………….

a) hold the life boats head up into seas

b) generate orange smoke

c) seal leaks in rubber rafts

d) send radio homing signal to searching aircraft

ans: d
4195. what is the major advantage of the demand type self contained breathing
apparatus?

a) theeqipment is light weight and the wear can work without difficulty in
confined spaces

b) the average operating time is over an hour

c) the speed with it can be put into operation is round 5seconds

d)the regulator is designed to prove the user with quick adjustment to their
supply by knob located near the pressure hose connection

ans: c

4196. to operate a co2 fire extinguisher equipped with a squeeze grip handle you
are to remove the locking pin and………………………………….

a) raise the lower grip

b) invert the extinguisher

c) depress the upper grip

d) rotate the cutter disc valvewheel

ans: c

4197. annual servicing of a hand portable co2 fire extinguisher includes

…………………..

a) insoecting the pressure guage to ensure the needle is within operating range

b) weighting the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight
of the cylinder

c) hydrostatic testing of the cylinder

d)discharging ,cleaning inside and recharging

ans: b
4198. while donning the self contained breathing apparatus you discover that
the air cylinder pressure gage and the breathing differ from each other by 35bar
which of the listed action you consider as appropriate?

a)replace the defective gauges with a news pair from the sparts inventory

b) replace the air cylinder with afull spare cylinder

c) assume that the lower reading is correct

d) take the average of the two gauges as the correct pressure

ans: c

4199. which of the following statements describes the correct procedure for
closing a water tight door?

a) loosely set up one opposite side from the higes snugly set up two dogs on the
hinge side than evenly set up the remaining dogs

b) loosely sets up two dogs adjacent to the hinges snugly set up one dog on the
opposite side set up all the remaining dogs

c) snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from two hinges then evenly set
up all theremaining dogs

d) loosely set up one dogs on the hinge side snugly set up two dogs on the
opposite side from the hinges then evenly set up all the remaining dogs

ans: a

4200. which of the fire extinguishers listed is to be weighed annually and sent
ashore for reacharging if the weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the full
charge?

a) foam

b) soda acid

c) dry chemical
d) carbon di oxide

ans: d

4201. portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers must be recharged………………

a) when the remaing charge volume is less than 90% of the required volume

b) at each biennial

c) at each annual inspection

d) when the charge weight is 10% less than the required weight

ans: d

4202. With of the load line marks the reason for the placements of mark
“WNA”is…………………………

a) more severe weather is expected in the north atlantic in winter

b) more freeboard is required in north atlantic in winter

c) lessdraft is allowed in the north atlantic in winter

d)all the above

ans: d

4203 Water pressure on the hull of a ship is greater at the

A. bow

B. stem

C. keel

D. boot topping

Ans. C

4205 To prevent overpressurization when loading liquid petroleum

 Products,cargo tanks should be filled with a/an
A. Pressure –vacuum valve
B. Ullage opening
C. Overpressurization valve
D. Equalizing line

Ans: A

4206 Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be

Kept in good working order to prevent

A. Escape of explosive vapors
B. Oil spillage on deck
C. Entry of burning substances
D. Damage to tank boundaries

Ans: D

4207 which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on

Diesel fuel?
A. Secure all lighting to the main deck
B. Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes
C. Prohibit smoking in the area
D. Display a black triangle during daylight hours

Ans: C

4208 After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you

Close FIRST?
A. Tank manifold filling valve
B. Pump discharge valve
C. Deck filling valve
D. Sea suction valve

Ans: D

4209 During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to

 your vessel. If however,it is determined to be from some source

other than your vessel,you should

A. Secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined
B. Make an entry in the oil record book to that effect
C. Notify the port control
D. All of the above

Ans: C

4210 The “load on the top” system used on many crude oil carriers, is to

provide a method for

A. Calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks
B. Loading ballast by gravity
C. Maintaining clean ballast cargo tanks,and the loading of new cargo
into the slop tank
D. Calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank

Ans: C

4211 If you are loading a low temperature petroleum cargo you must

Insure that
A. There is room for expansion
B. The vents are sealed
C. Vapor baffles are installed
D. All of the above

Ans: A

4212 One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which

bunker fuel may be removed is by the

A. Type of fuel transfer
B. Size of the fuel storage tanks ashore
C. Distance to the fuel storage tanks ashore
D. Number of tanks to be filled
 Ans: D

4213 Fire main outlet valves,or hydrants shall be installed

A. In screened enclosures in all passageways
B. Where they are protected from weather
C. In a protected location to prevent cargo damage
D. Pointing downward or horizontal to prevent cargo damage

Ans: D

4214 your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine wheather

or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore , you should

A. Open the watertight door and take a quick look
B. Open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges
C. Tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level
D. Feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot

Ans: C

4215 If flammable liquids are being pumped with a centrifugal pump, you

Should
A. Stop the pump immediately if it becomes vapor bound
B. Throttle the discharge valve to assure positive pumping
C. Vent the pump casing continuously to expel vapors
D. Gag relief valves to prevent recirculating and heating of the liquid

Ans: A

4216 when preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump,

You should
A. Lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation
B. Draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump
C. Have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed
D. Check for gland leakage and any fire hazard
Ans: D
4217 Tankers carrying cryogenic cagoes , such as LNG ,are fitted with

gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit.If

the gas detector alarms sounds ,this means

A. The detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor
Concentration is 30 percent by volume
B. An explosion is about to take place
C. The detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the
atmosphere is explosive
D. A flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is
too lean to burn

Ans: D

4218 An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to

detect methane leaks in the

A. Barrier spaces
B. Cargo handling rooms
C. Boiler burner supply piping
D. All of the above

Ans: D

4219 which of the following statements describes how the main bank of

CO2 bottles is released into an engine room from most fixed CO2

fire extinguishing systems?

A. Manually releasing the bottles in groups of four
B. CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders
C. Steel wire trigger lines provided to all bottles in the main bank
D. Remote pull cables provided to each group of four bottles in the
main bank

Ans: B

4220 During fueling operations which of the listed precautions should be

 Taken when topping off fuel tanks?
A. Reduce the pumping rate by closing the deck filling valve
B. Close all overflow valves
C. Place 20 litre containers under all flange connections in the fuel line
D. Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently as the level
rises

Ans: D

4221 When a fuel tank is being topped off during bunkering operations

the tank valve should be closed

A. Slowly to prevent surge stresses
B. To prevent gas from escaping through the pressure –vacuum relief
valves
C. After the shore pumps are stopped
D. Rapidly to prevent overflow

Ans: C

4222 The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel tank when fuel oil

Is being received , is determined by the

A. Quantity of the fuel to be received
B. Flash point of the fuel as it is received
C. Fuel temperature as it is received
D. Viscosity of the fuel being received

Ans: C

4223 According to regulations, when loading , or discharging oil in bunk at

a dock , which of the following signals must be played?

A. A red flag (day), red light (night)
B. A yellow (day), red light (night)
C. A green flag(day), green light (night)
D. A signal is not required for discharging oil, only gasoline
 Ans: A

4224 According to pollution prevention regulations , tank vessels are

required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device

A. Shuts off the main propulsion plant
B. Shuts off the firefighting foam systems
C. Stops the flow of oil to shore facility or other vessel
D. Secures electrical power to all motors

Ans: C

4225 The emergency shutdown requirements of pollution prevention

regulations apply to
A. Condensate pumps
B. Air compressors
C. Induced draft fans
D. Cargo transfer systems

Ans: D

4226 where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge

into the water?

A. The vessel’s certificate of inspection
B. The vessel’s oil record book
C. The vessel’s oil transfer procedures
D. The vessel’s international oil pollution prevention certificate

Ans: C

4227 Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers should be sent ashore to

be recharged
A. When the remaining charge volume is less than 90% of the
required VOLUME
B. At each inspection for certification
C. At each annual inspection
 D. When the weight loss exceeds 10%of weight of charge

Ans: D

4228 Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm

to give an audible and visual warning when the oxygen content of the

inert gas exceeds

A. 4% by volume
B. 8% by volume
C. 12% by volume
D. 16% by volume

Ans: B

4229 What is the required combined capacity for all fans in an inert

gas system as related to the cargo pumps?

A. 0.5
B. 0.75
C. 1
D. 1.25

Ans: D

4230 Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery may NOT be
A. Drained into the vessel’s bilges
B. Reclaimed for other uses
C. Held in a slop tank
D. Purified and then reused

Ans: A

4231 The purpose of deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent

A. Flammable vapors from entering machinery space
B. Flue gas escaping to atmosphere
C. Inert gas escaping to atmosphere
D. Air entering inert gas system
 Ans: A

4232 The pollution prevention regulations state that ship’s oily bilge

Slops may be pumped in port only if the

A. Local port authority gives permission
B. Local port authority has completed the required pollution inspection
C. Discharge is led to a slop barge or shore side tank
D. Engineer on watch has signed the declaration of inspection

Ans: C

4233 Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank

soundings , you find that a fuel tank level has increased . you

therefore should suspect

A. Condensation in the fuel tank
B. A crack in the hull position of the fuel tank
C. A load of bad fuel
D. Contamination from the saltwater flushing system

Ans: B

4234 According to regulation, a single layer flame screen of corrosion

resistant wire is required to be of at least a mash of

A. 8x8
B. 10x10
C. 20x20
D. 30x30

Ans: D

4235 A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative

oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by

A. Holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city
Sewer system
 B. Circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and
Debris
C. Holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a shoreside
Reception facility
D. Pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping the oily water
residue overboard

Ans: C

4236 Which of the following statements represents the correct action to

take when three crew members discover a fire?

A. One man report the fire , and the other two men fight the fire
B. One man report the fire , one man fight the fire , and one man
evacuate and secure the area
C. One man report the fire , one man fight the fire , and one man act as a
Safetly observer
D. All three men fight the and report it immediately after it is

extinguished

Ans: B

4237 In an oil pumping operation where pumping connections are made

up of flanged hoses the weakest link is the

A. Flange
B. Hose
C.
D. Stud
E. Bolt hole

Ans: B

4238 While on watch in the engine room , you hear a continuous sounding

of the alarm. which of the following actions should you take?

A. Make an entry in the official logbook
B. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system
C. Start the fire pump and check discharge pressure
D. Secure auxiliary condenser overboard discharge

Ans: C
 Page 238

4239: According to Pollution Prevention Regulations, no person May connect or

engage in any other critical oil transfer operations unless_______

A. The designated person-in-charge is present.

B. That person holds a tankerman endorsements.
C. That person holds a license as master , mate or engineer.
D. That person holds a valid port security card.

Ans: A

4240: Which of the actions listed should be taken by the engineer on watch when
the general alarm is sounded continuously for 10 seconds?

A. Engine room ventilation should be started.

B. Main engines should be secured.
C. The fire pump should be started.
D. The fixed CO2 system should be activated.

Ans: C

4241: Pollution Prevention Regulations specify that the person-in-charge of

bunkering is responsible for the ________

A. Vessel draft
B. Quantity of fuel received.
C. Quality of fuel received.
D. Communications with terminal operator.

Ans: D

4242: According to Pollution Prevention Regulations, how much hose should you
use in transferring oil in bulk?

A. Twice the distance between ship and dock.

B. One and one half times the distance between ship and dock.
C. Not over 300 feet (91.4 m) of hose.
 D. Sufficient for maximum vessel movement without straining the hoses.

Ans: D.

4243: The term “oily mixture”, as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations
includes__________.

A. Sludge.
B. Oily ballast water.
C. Bilge slops.
D. All of the above.

Ans: D.

4244: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by

volume, required to be achieved by a ship’s inert gas system, prior to the
commencement of crude oiltank washing?

A. 0.06
B. 0.08
C. 0.1
D. 0.12

Ans: B.

4245: Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at
the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close automatically
upon_________

A. Cargo pump failure

B. Blower failure
C. Deck seal low water level
D. Low inert gas temperature

Ans: B.

4246: Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators ?

 A. The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of
any space with no delay.
B. Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the
indicator.
C. A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging
the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases.
D. All of the above.

Ans: B.

4247: An inert gas system incorporating a separately fired inert gas generator
shall be provided with visual and audible alarms to indicate failure of the power
supply to the generator, the automatic control system, and ____________

A. Cooling water flow.

B. Combustion air temp too low.
C. High sea water temp.
D. Insufficient fuel supply.

Ans: D.

4248: Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be discharged overboard

without being processed through an oily water separator?

A. Cargo tank ballast

B. Segregated ballast
C. Engine room bilges
D. Cargo pump room bilges

Ans: B.

4249: People should be protected from the rotating parts of the machinery by
_________

A. Vents
B. Bright lights
C. Reflective tape
 D. Guard

Ans: D.

4250: The word “discharge” as used in Pollution Prevention Regulations applies to

oil_______

A. Leaked into navigable waters

B. Poured into navigable waters
C. Pumped into navigable waters through a fixed piping system
D. All of the above.

Ans: D.

4251: Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading cold
oil?

A. Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, which

increases the chance of a spill.
B. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole.
C. The chance in its specific volume when headed may cause an overflow.
D. The fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to spill
before the valve can be opened.

Ans: C.

4252: The trim of a vessel is the ______

A. Valve of the mean draft

B. Degree of list
C. Amount of roll
D. Difference in fore and aft drafts.

Ans: D.

4253: Which of the following statements is true concerning a Halon 1301 fixed
extinguishing system?
 A. The quantity of Halon supplied would be less than the quantity of CO2 for
the same space protected.
B. CO2 gas is used to propel the halon to the space on fire.
C. The Halon must be agitated occasionally to ensure that it does not cake up
D. All if the above.

Ans: A.

4254: Regulations require that life jackets shall be ______

A. Provided for each person onboard

B. Provided for all personnel on watch
C. Readily accessible to persons in the engine room
D. All of the above.

Ans:D.

4255: The most critical time for preventing an accidental oil spill during bunkering
, is when the________

A. Tanks are being topped off.

B. Fuel begins to come aboard.
C. Hoses are being blown down.
D. Hoses are being disconnected.

Ans: A.

4256: Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?

A. Ship’s articles
B. Muster list
C. Certificate of inspection
D. Manning Certificate.

Ans: B.

4257:When administering only mouth-to-mouth resusoitation,you shoud

continue the victim’s ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?
 A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20

Ans: C.

4258:Which of the listed classes of fires should be extinguished with a water fog?

A. Class A and B
B. Class A and C
C. Class Band C
D. Class A,B,and C

Ans: A.

4259:The zipper of an immersion suit should be lubricated with _____________

A. Paraffin
B. Oil
C. Graphite
D. Vegetable oil

Ans: A

4260:The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to

___________

A. The accumulation of explosive gases

B. Faster cooling of the fire
C. The fire spreading by way of the ventilation system
D. Fixed foam systems to be ineffective

Ans:C

4261:Topping lifts and runners supporting flexible cargo hoses should be made
fast to the ____________
 A. Capstan
B. Gypsy head
C. Cleats
D. Manifold riser

Ans: C

4262:The purpose of the vessel inclining experiment is to ____________

A. Determine the location of the metacenter

B. Determine the lightweight center of gravity location
C. Verify the hydrostatic data
D. Verify data in the vessel’s operating manual

Ans:B

4263:Atificial respiration to an adult should be administered ____________

A. 4 to 3 times per minute

B. 12 to 15 times per minute
C. 20 to 30 times per minute
D. At least 30 times per minute

Ans: B

4264:Whivh of the firefighting agents listed is the least hazardous to personnel?

A. Co2
B. Steam
C. Water
D. Carbon tetrachloride

Ans: C

4265:The external flotation bladder or an immersion suit should be inflated

_________

A. Before you enter the water

 B. After you enter the water
C. After one hour in the water
D. After you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy

Ans: B

4266:The principlr personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is

________

A. Displacement of oxygen
B. Skin irritation
C. Inhaling topic vapours produced when exposed directly to a flame for
extended periods
D. Eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder

Ans: C

4267:”Air gap” is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and
the___________

A. Still water level

B. Wave crest
C. Wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections
D. Wave crest plus the charted water depth,plus tidal corrections and storm
surge

Ans : A

4268:which of the listed conditions could cause a dangerous reduction in oxygen

in a shipboard compartment?

A. Fire
B. Rustingor the drying of paint
C. Decomposing organic material
D. All of the above conditions

Ans: D
4269: Horizontal transverse motion of a vessal is known as __________

A. Pitch
B. Surge
C. Sway
D. Heave

Ans: C

4270: As aprecaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should
_________

A. Close the deck filling the valve to reduce the pumping rate
B. Close all tank vents to prevent overflow
C. Fill the tank to the bottom of the expantion trunk
D. Notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks near
full capacity

Ans: D

4271: the signal emergency stations is __________

A. A 30 second on-30 second off alternating signal

B. The continuous ringing of the general alarm signal
C. An intermittent ringing of the general alarm for not less than 10 seconds
D. Announced over PA system

Ans: C

4272: When administering chest compression during CPR ,at what part of the
victim’s body should the pressure be applied?

A. Lower half of the stemum

B. Tip of the stemum
C. Top half of the stemum
D. Left chest over the heart

Ans: A
4273: Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be effectively used on which of the
listed classes of fires?

A. Class “A” only

B. Class “B” only
C. Class “B” and “C” only
D. Class ”A” and “C” only

Ans :C

4274: When removing the cap from a sounding tube, the sound of air escaping
indicates

A. The tank is full

B. The tank may be partially flooded
C. The tank level has dropped
D. The tank is completly flooded

Ans: B

4275: when the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the
center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to __________

4276: If a liferaft should capsize, ____________

4315

No outlet on a fire hydrant may point the horizontal ,in order to_____
___
A.avoid kinking the hose

B.avoid personal injury during connection

C.make connecting easier

D. prevent spray on electical equipment

Ans :A

4316

Aqueous film formingfirefighting foam is also known as _________

A.chemical foam

B.high-expansion foam

C.mechanical foam

D.all the above

Ans:C

4317

When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent ,the fire is extinguished

principally by the ___________

A.isolation of the fuel

B.absorption of heat

C.displacement of gases of combustion

D.exguishment of incipient smoldering

Ans:B

4318
A person reports to you with a fishbook in their thumb .the accepted procedure
for removing it should be to____________

A.pull it with pillers

B.cut the fom around the hook

C.push the barb through ,cut it off ,and then remove the hook

D.have a surgeon remove it

Ans: C

4319

A vessel is subjected to “hogging” when it ___________

A.has its main deck under compressive stress

B.has its bottom plating under tensile stress

C.is supported on a wave whose crests are at the bow and stem

D.is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships

Ans: D

4320

Which of the actions listed and instituted on your part will have the greatest
lasting effect on the crew with respect to safety?

A.posting posters illustrating practices

B.showing video tapes of actual accidents

C.incorporating safety practices in daily routine

D. publishing comprehensive safety rules

Ans:C
4321

At which of the listed tank locations should you obtain oxygen content readings
prior

To tank washing ?

A.at the hatch coaming and tank bottom

B.At the hatch coaming and middle of the tank

C.at the middle and the bottom of the tank

D.at the center of the ullage and one meter below deck

Ans:D

4322

When a floating vessel inclines to an angle slightly greater than the angle of loll,it
will______________

A.capsize

B.incline further

C.flop to the other side

D.return to the angle of loll

Ans:D

4323

Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest capacity for heat
absorption?
A.water fog

B.dry chemical

c.chemical foam

D.Carbondi oxide

Ans:A

4324

Initial stability refers to the vessels stability___________

A.at small angles of inclination

B.when loadedd with minimum deck load

C.when at transit draft

D.when GZ is zero

Ans:A

4325

Over hauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include

A:to check for fire or lingering sources of heat

B:evacuation of the vessel

C:immediately sounding the “all clear”signal

D:operation of the emergency generator

Ans:A
4326

Which of the of following must be carried out in order to launch and inflate and
inflatable life craft?

A:pull on the hydrostatics release,pull on the sea painter

B:push on the hydrostatics release,pull on the sea painter

C:push on the hydrostatics release,push on the sea painter

D:pull on the hydrostatics release,push on the sea painter

Ans:B

4327

Which of the document listed will describe life saving equipment located aboard
your vessel?

A:station bill

B:certificate of inspection

C:forecastle card

D:clearence paper

Ans:B

4328

The maximum draft to which a cargo ship may be safely is called___________

A:mean draft

B:calucated draft

C:deep draft

D:load line draft

Ans:D

4329

A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants for each accessible space to
be reached with____________

A: a low velocity spray applicater

B:a water spray or solid stream

C:Atleast two spray pattern of water

D:atleast 1.75kg/cm2 delivered pressure

Ans:C

4330

The preffered method of controlling external bleeding is by

A:apllying direct pressure on the wound

B:elevating the wounded area

C:Applying pressure on a pressure point

D:applying a tourniquet above the wound

Ans:D

4331

With damaged floating vessels,the most important consideration is the

preservation of__________

A:bilge pumping capacity

B:reserve buoyancy

C:level attitude

D:in stability

Ans:B

4332

You have found a person laying prone and not breathing.an electric wire is
touching the vicitim.which of the actions listed is the FIRST thing you should do?

A:shut of the power or remove the wire from the person

B:immediately begin artificial respiration

C:immediately begin cardiac massage

D:leave the accident scene and summon medical assistance

Ans:A
4333

Water applied as a “fog”can be more effective than water appllied as a “solid

stream”because___________

A:given amount of water can absorb more heat when it is in the form of fog

B:it reduces the amount of water that must be pumped into the ship to fight a
given fire

C:it does not have to hit the seat of fire to be effective

D:all the above

Ans:D

4334

The stability term for the distance between the center of the gravity to the
metacenter,when small angle stability applice is known as _______________

A:metacentric height

B:metacentric radius

C:height of metacenter

D:righting arm

Ans:A

4335

On a cargo ship,firefighting eqipment must be inspected once

every____________

A:three months

B:six months

C:twelve months
D:eighteen months

ANS:C

4336

Bleeding from a veln can be characterized as___________________

A:dark red and slow

B:bright red and slow

C: bright red and spurting

D:bright red and spurting

ANS:A

4337

After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed co2 system,the next
immediate action is for the space to be ________________

A:opened and burned material removed

B:left closed with vents off untill all boundaries are cool

C:checked for the proper oxygen level

D:opened and doused with water to prevent reflash

ANS:B

4338
Control valves for a co2 fire existinguishing system may be located with in the
protected space when_________________

A:it is impractical to locate them outside

B:there is also a control valve outside

C:the co2 cylinders are also in the space

D:an automatic heat sensing trip is installed

ANS:c

4339

If the cause of severe list or trim is due to off center ballast,counterflooding into
empty tanks will______________

A:increase the righting moment

B:increase the righting arm

C:increase list or trim

D:decrease list or trim

ANS:D

4340

As a fire fighting medium co2 can be dangerous under certain condition as it can
cause____________

A:hallucinations

B:burns and blistering

C:undulation

D:carbon monoxide poisoning

ANS:B

4341

The important stability parameter “KG” is defined as ______________

A:metacentric height

B:height of the metacenter above the keel

C:height of the center of buoyancy above the keel

D:height of the center of gravity above the keel

ANS:D

4342

A quick and rapid motion of a floating vessel in a seaway is an indication of

__________________

A:large”GM”

B:high center of gravity

C:excessive free surfaces

D:small”GZ”

ANS:A
4343

A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries

should______________

A:be assisted in walking around

B:be examined then walked to a bunk

C:not be moved but made comfortable

D:not to all0wed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk

ANS:C

4344

The object of a plugging holes below the waterline on a ship should

to____________

A:eliminate all water entering through the hole

B:only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces

C:reduce the entry of water as much as possible

D:plug the largest holes first

ANS:C

4345

What is the function of the small gas accumulator cylinder attached to the
discharge piping of the engine room fixed co2 system ?
A:it absorbs the pressure shock to the piping resulting from the initial release of
co2

B:it delys the release of co2 in to engine room

C:it directly activates the warning siren in the engine room

D:it controls the rate of discharge of co2 in to engine room

ANS:B

4346

A co2 fire extinguisher is checked by __________________

A reading the gage pressure

B weighing the extinguisher

C discharging a small amount of co2

D checking for breaking inspection seals

ANS:B

4347

Your assigned emergency stations aboard by vessel can be found on the

ships______________________

A clearance papers

B permit to proceed

C certificate of inspection

D muster list

ANS:C

4348
You should operate a fixed system co2 system opening the control value to the
space protected and____________

A visually checking to see that co2 is discharging through the piping

B operating a separate control to release co2

C listening for the sound of the warning siren

D modulating the proper amount of co2 from individual bottles

ANS:B

4349

Operation of the release control on a fixed co2 fire extinguishing system ,must
automatically____________

A release co2 to the protected space

B secure all mechanical ventilation in the protected space

C sound the genera alaram signal for a fire

D sound the alaram in the ballast control room

ANS:B

4350

In order to release co2 to the machinery spaces ,you must physically open the
engine room________

A control value and actuate the alaram

B co2 releasing value and actuate the alaram

C controlvalue the open co2 releasing value

D control value and shut off the engine room ventilation

ANS:C
4351

How often must fix co2 fire extinguishing systems be inspected to confirm the
cylinders are with in 10% of the stamped full charge weight______

A Quarterly

B simiannually

C annually

D bInnually

Ans:c

4352

Portable halon fire extinguishing used may charged with_______

A halon 1301 only

B halon 22 only

C halon 1211 only

D Halon 1301 or 121

4355 The usaual method for effectively applying foam on a fire is by

A. spraying directly on the base of the wire

B. flowing the foam down the vertical surface
C. sweeping the fire before you with the foam
D. spraying directly on the surface of the fire

Ans: B

4356 At all angles of inclination the true measure of a vessels stability is

A. the tacentric height

 B. displacement
C. righting moment
D. inclining moment

Ans: C

4357 The weight of the liquid displaced by the vessel floating in sea water is

A. weight required to shrink the vessel

B. total weight of the vessel
C. displaced submerged volume
D. reserve buoyancy

Ans: B

4358 The inspection of the portable fire extinguisher must be

A. accomplished by an authorized servicing representative

B. recorded by the person in charge
C. completed every six months
D. all the above

Ans: B

4358 when the height of the metacentre is lesser than the height of the centre
of gravity a vessel

Has what type of stability?

A. Stable
B. Neutral
C. Unstable
D. Positive

Ans: C
4360 On a cargo ship equipped with a combination detection-carbon dioxide
system the presence of fire is indicated on the cabinet simultaneously in two
places #3hold upper between decks containing bagged coffee beans, and #4
tower hold containing fertilize

A. Open the three-way valves to each, space simultaneously

B. Open the applicable three-way valve for #3 hold and fight the fire in #4 hold
in water
C. Open the applicable three-way valve for #4 hold after discharge secure the
valve;then open the applicable valve or #3 hold
D. Activate the pilot CO2 cylinders, directing the discharge to #3 hold then to
#4 hold through the three-way valve

Ans: C

4361 Foam extinguishes a fire by

A. Chemically absorbing the oxygen

B. Smothering the burning material
C. Chemically absorbing the burning material
D. Releasing large amounts of carbon dioxide

Ans: B

4362 When the height of the metacetre is the same at the height of the center of
gravity, the upright equilibrium position

A. Stable
B. Neutral
C. Unstable
D. Negative

Ans: B

4363 Which of the following condiditions is a symptom of a person in shock?

A. Warm and dry

B. Warm and damp
 C. Cold and dry
D. Cold and damp

Ans: D

4364 Foam extinguishes a fire by

A. Destroying the burning materials

B. Chemical recation with the burning material
C. Absorbing the burning material
D. Smothering the burning material

Ans: D

4365 which of the following conditions is NOT a symptom of traumatic

A. Shook deep breathing

B. Pale and cold skin
C. Weak and rapid pulse
D. Restlessness and anxiety

Ans: A

4366 Extinguish an oil fire when using foam is a result of

A. Cooling
B. Dampening
C. Smothering
D. Vapour absorbtion

Ans: C

4367 which of the following procedures is always recommended in the rescue of

an unconscious person from a compartment containing safe atmosphere?

A. Have the resources wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus

B. Have the rescuers carry in a stokes basket for the victim
C. Have the rescues carry an emergency first aid kit for the victim
 D. Have the rescuers carry a combustible gas analyzer

Ans: A

4368 When treating a person for shock you should wrap the victims in warm
coverings to

A. Decrease body heat

B. Preserve present body heat
C. Avoid self inflicted wounds caused by spastic moments
D. Protects the persons from injury during transportation

Ans: B

4369 A person who observes an individual fall overt ard from the ship should

A. Immediately jump into the water to assist the individual

B. Call for help and keep the individual in sight
C. Run to radio room to send an emergency message
D. Go to the control room for the distressflares

Ans: B

4370 The reverse buoyancy of the vessel varies directly with changes in the

A. Vessel face
B. Freeboard
C. Rolling period
D. None of the above

Ans: B

4371 Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the

A. Uncontrolled “KG’’
B. Virtual height of the center of gravitv
C. Metacenter
D. Metacentric height
 Ans: B

4372 High concentrations of hydrogen sulphide gas are most dangerous to

personal because they can

A. Paralyse your breathing system

B. Paralyse your breathing system
C. Cause eye inflammation
D. Cause dizziness

Ans: B

4373 Which of the following is true concerning the actions of properly organized
rescue party for removing an unconscious victim from a tank containing toxic
vapours?

A. The victim should not be moved until the extent of his victims determined
B. The victim should be fitted with a canister type OBA as soon as possible
C. The rescue party should provide the victim with oxygen or fresh air
immediately
D. The tank vapours should be tested with an eexplosimeter before personal
enter

Ans: C

4374 After an accident the victim may go into shock and die which action should
be taken to prevent shock

Slightly elevate the head and feet

A. Keep the person awake

B. Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature
C. Give the person a stimulant to increase blow flow

Ans: C

4375 Any is upper limit switch used when raising an life boat
 A. To prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops
B. To assist in cranking in the lifeboat
C. To keep the tricing lines from releasing or getting tangled
D. To stop the lifeboat from being lowered

Ans: A

4376 The empty weight of a 100pound(45.4)kg cylinder in a fixed co2 system is

130 pounds (58.9kg) what is the minimum total acceptable weight of cylinder
before recharging is required

A. 200 lbs (90.7kg)

B. 210 lbs (95.2kg)
C. 220 lbs (99.8kg)
D. 230 lbs (104.3kg)

Ans: C

4377 T he maximum concentration of hydrogen sulfide to which workers may be

regularly exposed without adverse effects is

A. 10 ppm
B. 20 ppm
C. 40 ppm
D. 80 ppm

Ans: B

4378 When the engine room fixed co2 is activated Which of the following action
should be taken first in the automatic fuel oil and ventilation shutoff has failed to
operate?

A. Manually operate the remote shut down controls

B. Activate an additional co2 bottle to increase pressure on pressure switch
plunger
C. Send someone down to manually secure the fuel oil pumps
D. Discharge extra carbon dioxide into the engine room
 Ans: A

4379 Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam

A. Penetrates to the bottom of the fire

B. Is kept saturated with low velocity water fog
C. Mixes with the burning fuel oil
D. Completely covers the top of the burning liquid

Ans: D

4380 The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and a trim after a change
in load has occurred is known as

A. Trim
B. change of trim
C. final trim
D. change of draft

Ans: B

4381 When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should

A. play the foaming stream directly on the burning oil

B. play the foam stream of nearby vertical vessel structures
C. only use the foam on flowing liquids
D. play the foam stream on the caseof the fire with whirling motion

Ans: B

4382 A weather tight on a ocean going ship must not allow water to penetrate
into the unit

A. in 50 knot winds
B. in 70 knot winds
C. in 100 knot winds
D. in any sea condition
 Ans: D

4383 Which of the following ship machinery space operation is required to be

logged in the oil record book

A. ballasting or cleaning of fuel oil tanks

B. shifting suction of main fuel pump to reserve fuel oil tank
C. changing out sprayer plates to adjust for steam domand
D. daily inspection of engine room bilges

Ans: A

4384 In firefighting the term PROTECTING EXOOSURES means

A. protecting firefighters from the direct exposure to heat

B. keeping flames from burning at the tank vents
C. protecting exposed area of the superstructure from flames
D. taking measures to prevent the spread of fire from the involved
compartment to an adjacent compartment

Ans: D

4385 Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving

A. oil
B. burning insulation
C. hot bulkheads
D. electoral machinery

Ans: A

4386 For an upright vessel draft is the vertical difference between the keel and
the

A. waterline
B. freeboard deck
 C. plimsol mark
D. amidships section

Ans: A

4387 First, second &third degree burns are classified according to

A. area of the body burned

B. source of heat causing the burn
C. layers of skin affected
D. size of the burned area

Ans: C

4388 Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF), commonly known as light water, is
especially suitable for fighting

A. oil fires in the engine room bilges

B. class B fires in paint lockers
C. any class D fire
D. all the above

Ans: A

4389 the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires
after

4390 When treating a person for third degree burns,you should

4409. A vessel would most likely develop a list if you were _____________

A.burning fuel from a centerline tank

B.using water from two equally sized tanks on either sides of the centerline
simultaneously

C.using fuel from tanks on the port side only

D.using water from the fore peak tank

Ans. C

4410.it shall be insured that each life boat on a cargo ship is lowered to the
water,launched and operated atleast every _________ ?

A.month

B.two months

C.three months

D.six months

Ans. C
4411.How should halon fire extinguisher be used to extinguish an electrical fire?

A.apply by bouncing agents off nearby bulk heads

B.use a quick sweeping motion towards the base of the fire.

C.always direct discharge at the source of the fire

D.it shoudnt be used on an electrical fire.

Ans. C

4412.which of the following types of bearings is designed to limit end movement

and carry loads applied in the same direction as the shaft axis?

A.Rigidly mounted reduction gear bearing

B.segmental pivoted-shoe thrust bearing

C.self aligning radial bearing

D.spherically-seated radial bearing

Ans. B

4413.Chemical burns are caused by skin coming in contact with?

A.acids or alkalies

B.diesil oil

C.acids but not alkalies

D.Alkalies but not acids

Ans. A

4414.which of the following statements is true concerning the halon 1301fire

extinguishing agent?

A.the agent is highly toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders

B.the agent is loss effective than carbon di oxide

C.Halon extinguishes the fire by a chain breaking reaction

D.the agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue

Ans. C

4415.Which of the fire extinguishing agentslisted uses a chain breaking action to

put out a fire?

A.Halon 1211

B.Halon1301

C.Purple K

D.all the above

Ans. D

4416.The person on aship who is responsible for maintaining the engineering

spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the?

A.person-in-charge

B.chief engineer or engineer in charge

C.senior mechanic or mechanic in duty if no senior mechanic designated

D.senior electrician or electrician on duty if no senior electrician designated

Ans. B

4417.Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on the ship is the
responsibility of the __________ ?

A.Chief officer

B.Chief engineer

C.Officer in charge
D.Master

Ans. D

4418.Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a ship must be made
at intervals not exceeding ___________?

A.18 months

B.two years

C.three years

D.five years

Ans. D

4419.Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to electric shocks,the first
medical response is to check for _________ ?

A.indication of broken bones

B.breathing and heart beat

C.location of burns

D.bleeding injuries

Ans. B

4420.Halogenated fire extinguishing agents such as Halon 1301 extinguishes fires

by ________

A.cooling

B.producing excess co2

C.breaking the chain reaction

D.foaming action

Ans. C
4421.What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon if
you are in a life rsft conditions?

A.bring it inside the life raft and leave it on

B.bring it inside the life raft and turn it off until the storm passes

C.leave it outside the life raft and leave it on

D.leave it outside the life raft but turn it off

Ans. A

4422.when a rescuer discovers a burn victimin the vicinity of electical equipment

or wiring,his first step is to?

A.flush water over any burnt area over the patient

B.apply ointment on the burnt areas of the patient

C.shut down electrical power in the area

D.remove the patient fom the vicinity of live electrical equipment or wiring

Ans. C

4423.After being launched from a ship,a totally enclosed survival craft which has
been afloat over a long period of time,requires?

A.frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air

B.regular checks of bilge levels

C.use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise

D.frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water

Ans.B

4424.Basic emergency care for an electric burn is to

A.flood the burn with water for two minutes

B.brush away the charred skin and wrap the burnt areas

C.cover the burnt area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical
facility

D.apply ointment or spray to the burnt areas and wrap with a clean cloth

Ans. C

4425.the purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to

A.right it in case of capsize

B.increase area for radar detection

C.act as a sail in case of a power loss

4426.a person has an electrical burn,after checking his breathing and pulse

A.look for a second burn,which may have caused by the current existing body

B.locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five minutes

C.remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn

Page 23

A.one year

B.two years

C.four years

D.five years

Ans. D

A.submerge the area in cloud water

B.make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation

C.cover the burns with thick sterile dressing

D.break blisters and remove the dead tissue

Ans. C

4391.The hand break of a life boat which is ___________ ?

A.Manually disengaged when hoisting a boat

B.applied by dropping the counterweighted lever

C.controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism

D.automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive

4392.the centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a life boat handling which

is intended to _____________

A.automatically stop the boat if electric power fails

B.mechanically stop the boat if the hand brake fails

C.hold the load suspended during the lowering operations

D.automatically control the speed of lowering by gravity

4393.a device for preventing sparks or flames from entering a tank,yet permitting
the free passage of gasses is___________

A.gas absorption detector

B.pressure vacum relief valve

C.flame screen

D.sacrifical anode

Ans. C
4394.a ship board oil pollution emergrncy plan is required of___________

A.all vessels regardless of size and commercial application

B.any barge or other ship,which is constructed or operated in such a manner that

no oil in any form can be carried aboard

C.an oil tanker of 150 gross tons or above or other ship of 400 gross tons or above

D.an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above,or other ships of 150 gross tons and
above

Ans. C

4395.a fine mesh wire screen is fitted to tank vent pipes to prevent____________

A.passage of flames to the tank

B.entry of rodents into the tank

C.debris stopping up the vent pipe

D.embers from a fire entering the tank

Ans. A

4396.which of the toxic gasses listed is a product of incomplete combustion,and is

often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

A.carbon di oxide

B.hydrogen sulphide

C.carbon monoxide

D.nitric oxide

Ans. C

4397.each firemans outfit and spare equipments on a ship must be

stowed________
A.in a locked cabinet in a machinery space

B.in an unlocked cabinet in the machinery space

C.in a separate and accessible location

D.at a fire hydrant location

Ans. C

4398.why are flame screens an important safety device?

A.they provide a “dead air space” within a fuel tank

B.they accelerate the dispersal of fuel vapours

C.they prevent the passage of flames from or into closed spaces

D.they smoothen flames once a fire has been started

Ans. C

4399.if a crewman sudffers a second degree burn on the arm,you

should______________?

A.drain any blisters

B.apply antiseptic ointment

C.scrub the arm thorougly to prevent the infection

D.immerse the arm in cold water

Ans. D

4400.on a ship,a cadet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed
firefighting must be_________

A.posted with instructions on the operation of systems

B.ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches

C.painted with red and black diagonal stripes

D.equipped with a battrery powered source of emergency lighting

Ans. A

4401.on a ship the locker or space containing the self containing breathing
apparatus must be ___________

A.located in close proximity to the main controlling station

B.equipped with battery powered emergency lighting

C.marked “SELF- CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS”

D.all the above

Ans. C

4402.each hand portable fire extinguisher carried on a ship must be marked

with_________

A.the name of the unit on which it is located

B.the date that it was installed on the unit

C.the names of the individuals qualified to use it

D.an identification number different from other extinguishers on the unit

Ans. D

4403.in the oil record book,a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped
into operational sections.Each section is confined by a/an

A.section

B.abbreviation

C.letter

D.all the above

Ans. C

4404.A minor heat burn of an eye should be treated by_________

A.gently flooding with water

B.warming the eye with moist warm packs

C.laying the person flat on his back

D.mineral oil drops directly on the eye

Ans. A

4405.Severe airway burns will cause____________

A.nausea

B.reddening of cheeks

C.complete obstruction of respiratory passages

D.nosebleed

Ans. C

4406.which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous combustion?

A.coal

B.scrap rubber

C.leather

D.all the above

Ans. D

4407.which is the best way to ensure adequate oxygen is present for entry into a
seldomly used cargo tank?

A.test tank atmosphere with a combustible gas indicator

B.observe the amount of rust deposited on the tanks surface

C.ventilate the tank with fresh air and test with an oxygen indicator

D.open the manhole cover for approximately ten minuted

Ans. C

4408.the FIRST action in the treatment of a person suspected of having airway

burns is to____________

A.move him into a cool location

B.confirm and maintain an open airway

C.apply cool damp dressing to his neck

D.have him drink cool liquids

Ans. B

Page 242

4427. normally fire hose shold be stowed with the

a. female end connected with the hydrant

b.male end attached with the hydrant

c.female end connected to the nozzle

d.female end and nozzle arranged to be quickly run out of the fire

ans A

4428 . to prevent the spread of fire by convection

a.cool the bulkhead around the fire

b.remove combustables from the expolsure

c.close all openings to the area

 d.shut off all electrical powers

ans c

4429. if an oil spill occurs on deck, you should

a.cover the area with foam

b.cover the area with absorbant material

c.wash down immediately with afire hose

d.wash down immediately with an oil dispersing solvent

ans b

4430. which of the burning materials would be described a a class ‘B’fire

a.acetylene

b.lube oil

c.grease

d.all of the above

ans d

4431. dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire

a.coling the fuel belove ignition temperature

b.smothering and removing oxygen from the fuel

c.breaking up the molecular reaction

d.removing the fuel by absorbing the heated vapors

ans c

4432. at the speed of six knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should aist

a.8 hours
 b.12 hours

c.24 hours

d.48 hours

ans c

4433. with the air supply on, the air pressure in the survival craft wil be

a.changing in relationto speed of the craft

b.less than outside air pressure

c.greater than outside air pressure

d.equal to outside air pressure

ans c

4434. which of the listed conditions is a symtoms of sun stoke

a.temperature falls below normal,

b.temperature is high , pulse is strong and rapid

c.temperature is high , pulse is slow and ffeble,

d.temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid

ans b

4435. aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to

a.start the engine in cold weather

b.aid in helping personal breath

c.prime the sprinkler system

d.prime the air supply

ans a
4436. the back up system on an electric start survival craft is

a.hydraulic system

b.pneumatic system

c.spare battery

d.hand crank

ans d

4437. if the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should be

a.loaded more on port to forward

b.loaded equally on both sides with more forward

c.loaded equally on both sides with more on aft

d.allowed to sit anywhere

ans c

4438. when a resque vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person
in charge of the survival craft should

a.tie up to the rescue vessel

b.transfer only those personnel who are not seasick

c.wait for calmer weather berore transferring personnel

d.transfer all personnel immediately

ans c

4439. when an electrical fire has been extinguished with a dry chemical agent
there is aiways a possibility of the

a.machinary suffering thermal shock damage

 b.fire being rekindled by spontaneous combustion

c.electrical contacts or relays being rendered inoperative

d.chemical crystals suffocating the fire fighter

ans c

4440. the survival craft engine is fueled with

a.kerosine

b.unleaded gasoline

c.diesel oil

d.liquied gas

ans c

4441. during an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival
craft should

a.pass out food and water to personnel

b.open the doors and sprinkler system

c.activate the emergency release handle

d.open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding

ans d

4442. which of the following meathod should not be used toprevent aclass ‘A’
fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkhead from spriding to the
adjustment compartment ?

a.sweep all exterer surfaces with water fog until the fire is reportedly
extinguished
 b.sweep all exterer surfaces with a solid stream of water until the fire is
reportedly extinguished

c.sweep all exterer surfaces with a solid stream of water until the fire is no
longer produced secure the nozzl e ,and repeat as necessary

d.sweep all exterer surfaces with water fog until the steam is no longer
produced, secure the nozzle , and repeat as necessary

ans d

4443. while retrieving the survival craft , the engine should be stoped

a.when the craft clears the water

b.when the cable has been attached

c.on approach to the platform

d.at the embarkation

ans a

4444. when retrieving the survival craft , helmsman should instruct the cecrwman
to

a.check the fuel level

b.open the doors

c.take the lifejackets off

d.check that hooks are fully locked in place

ans d

4445 Small oil spills on deck can be kept from contaminating the

A. into the Vents

B. Closing the lids on the vents

c. plugging the scuppers

d. Keeping plugs in the sounding pipes

Ans c

4446 A class “c” Fire would occur in

A . bedding

b. pipe insulation

c. paint

d. a generator

4447 Acrew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You

a. should be the feet in warm water

b. Warm the feet with a heat lamp

c. warmthe feet at room temperature

d. rub the feet to restore circulatiuon

ans a

4448 the best way to effectively use a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in fire is
to

a. it flow down event on all burning surface

b. discharge a steam at the base of the fire starting at a near edge and use side to
side sweeping motions

c. play the stream of adjacent vertival surface until the area is blanketed

d. use concentrated amount in small locations and put the fire out in sections

ans b
4449 when transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessal

a. personal on craft should be board the rescue vessal

b. climb on top of the survival craft while waiting for their turn to transfer to the
rescue vessal
c. remain seated inside the survivalcraft and make the transfer one person at a
time
d. enter the water and swim over the rescue vessal
ans c

4450 except in rare cases it is impossible to extinguish aship board fire by

a. removing the heat

b. removing the oxygen

c. removing the fuel

d. interrupting the chain reaction

ans c

4451 the ventilation system about your vessal at fire dampers restraind by
fusiable line which of the following statement the fusable lin is true

a. automaticaly open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damer

b. fusable link must be replaced at every inspection for certification

c. fusable links are tested by applying a source of heat to them

d. fusible link must be replaced if a damper is closed

ans d

4452 if a fire house is left unattended under pressure with the nossile shut of the
fire house will

a. burst under pressure

b. last about violently

c. remains motionless

d. become elongated by 125%

ans c

4453 a health hazard listed on amaterial safety data sheet that can cause cancer
in exposed individual is called a

a. carcinogen

b. cryogenic

c. irritant

d. mutagen

ans a

4454 a fire occurring in the windings of an over loaded electrical motor is

concided a

a. class “A” fire

b class ”B” fire

c calss ” C ” fire

d. class ”d” fire

4455 which of the listed method is the most effective to fight a fire on the open
deck of a vessal if using a dry chemical fire

a. approch the fire from the windward side

b. direct the extinguisher discharge at the base of the fire

c. move the discharge stream back and fourth rapid sweeping motion

d. all of the above

ans d

4456 fire dampers prevent the fire spreading through the process of

a. convection

b. conduction

c. radiation

d. direct contact

ans a

4457 which of the following is least likely to cause the ignition of the fire of the
fuel vapours

a. static electricity

b. an open running electric motor

c. loose wiring

d. explosion proof lights

ans d

4458 if emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank
the tenk or adjacent compartments may need to be

a. gas freed

b. united

c. filled with water

d. all of the above as necessary

ans d

4459 a fire in a electrical generator is considerd to be

a. class ”A”

b. class ”B”

c. class ” C”

d. class ”D”

ans c

4460 the flammable limit of methane by volume is 5% to 15% if the combustable

gas indicator reading is 50% when sampling a compartment containing methanr a
flammable vapour concentration at the sample point is

a.0.5% by volume

b.2.5% by volume

c.7.5% by volume

d.50% by volume

ans b

4461which of the following statement is not true concerning life jacket

a. they come in two sizes child and adult

4462 besides heat fuel and oxygen which of the following is necessary for a fire
to exist

a. chain reaction

Page 242
4461

B. They are required to be of a highly visible color

C. The life jackect will always support an unconscious wearer in an upright

position

D. They must be able to support the wearer in an upright position

Ans. C

4462

B. Thermal action

C. Chemical Action

D. Pyrotechnical reaction

Ans. A

4463 In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should
heave on the ……………

A. life lines

B. righting strap

C. sea anchor

D. towing bridle

ANS: D.

4464 The symptoms of heat exhaustion are _______________.

A. Slow and strong pulse

B. Flushed and dry skin
C. Slow and deep breathing
D. Pale and clammy skin
 ANS: D.

4465 The vapour explosive range of gasoline by volume is 1.0% to 6.0% in

air. If a gasoline tank is sampled with an explosimeter. And the reading

obtained is 30% L.E.L the vapor concentration at the sample point is
…………………..

A. 0.3% by volume
B. 0.6% by volume
C. 1.3% by volume
D. 6.3% by volume

4466 Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect fire hose couplings?

A. locking wrench

B. Spanner wrench

C. Crescent wrench

D. Pipe Wrench

Ans. B

4467 The Class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the
fire is ……………………

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans. B

4468. Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for producing chemical foam,
should be stored.................
 A. in a freezer

B. in a cool dry place

C. at a temperature not less than 80oF

D. in open bins

Ans. B

4469 If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be
………………..

A. spread apart as far as possible

B. Held as tightly against your chest as possible

C. in a kneeling position

D. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles

Ans. D

4470 If a crew member faints, you should ………………….

A. lay him down with his head slightly raised

B. administer a liquid stimulant

C. Lay him down with his head lower than his feet

D. attempt to stand him upright to restore consciousness

Ans. C

4471 Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting and disconnecting fire
hose couplings?

A. Vise grips

B. Channel locks
 C. Spanner wrench

D. Pipe Wrench

4472 When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding a

lifeboat or lifeaft?

A. After 12 hours

B. After 24 hours

C. After 48 hours

D. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not
until 48 hours later

4473. With no alternative but to jump from the vessel the correct posture
should include……..

A. holding down the down jacket against the chest with one harm crossing

B. knees bend and held closed to the body with both arms around the legs

C. body straight and arms tight at the said for feet 1st entry into the water

D. both hand holding the life jacket below chin with knees bend with legs
crossed

4474. A liferaft which has inflated bottom up on the water ……..

A. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder holding the

righting strip and leaning back ward

B. should be righted by standing on the life line holding the righting straps and
leaning backward

C. will right itself when the canopy tube inflate

D. must be cleared of the buoyant will right itself

4475. Which of the following condition must be before a marine chemist will issue
a certificate for compartment to be safe for hot work

A. the residues in the compartment must not be capable of producing any toxic
gas

B. the concentration of combustible gases in the compartment atmosphere must

be less

C. the toxic gases in the compartment must be with in concentration

D. all of the above

4476. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an….

A. vigorous shacking

B. sequence of back blows

C. precaadial thump

D. ammonia inhalant

4477. if a inflatable life raft inflates upside down u can right it by

A. pushing p on one side

B. standing on the CO2 bottle straps and throwing

C. getting at least 3 or 4man to push on the side of CO2

D. doing nothing

4478. when collecting condition for drinking water

A. a sponge used to mop up and store salt

B. only condensation on the bottom of canopy

C. it should be strained through a oven

D. chlorine tablet should be used to make it drink

4479 when the concentrations of gas n the sample is above the 100%

Explosive reading on the meter shown in the illustrations , then _____.

A. The admosphere at the sample point consists of 100% flammable gas

B. The meter is defective
C. No further increase in vapor concentrationsatthe sample point is
possible
D. The flammable vapor concentrations at the sample point is above the
lower explosive limit

ANS: D

4480 if an inflatable liferaft is overturned , it may be righted by_______.

a. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water

b. Releasing the co2 cylinder
c. Pushing up from under one end
d. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the
underside of the raft

ANS: D

4481 if you must enter the water on which there is on oil fire , you should

________.

A. Protect your lifejacket by holding it above your head

B.ENTER the water on the windward side of vessel

C.keep both hands infront of your face to break the water surface when

Diving head first

D.wear very light clothing

Ans: B
 4482 According to the pollution prevention regulations (MARPOL) , which
of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment under
the oil filling connection section

A. The containment may be fixed or portable depending upon the vessel

B. The containment drains must have quick closing valves to be closed in
the leakage or failure of any part of transfer connection
C. All containment drains must lead to a common , fixed drain tank
D. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank
Ans: A

4483 sea water may be used for drinking __ __________

A.at a maximum rate of two ounces per day

B. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water

C. if gather durinr or immediately after a hard rain

D. under no circumstance

Ans: D

4484 Which of the hydrogen gases represents the greatest threat to

personnel safely in an engine room where the exhaust is leaking from a diesel
engine

A. Carbon di oxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon trioxide
D. Hydrogen sulfide

Ans: B

4485 combustible gas indicators measure the percentage of the

concentration of lower explosive limit of gases . If the hydrocarbon content
of sample exceeds the upper explosive limit___________.

A. The needle will rise slowly to and remain at maximum reading

B. The needle will move rapidly to and remain at maximum reading
C. The needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero
immediately

Ans:C

D. It will not be detected

4486 When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the

person charge of life boat should___________

A. Rosebox
B. Sea chest or pool piece
C. Sluice valve
D. Fire pumping stuffing box
Ans:B

4487 A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on a vessel

equipped with a combustion smoke detection carbon dioxide fixed fire
extinguishing system.After ensuring the space is un occupied and
properly sealded off, you should NEXT_________
A. Operate the control head mounted on the main pilot cylinders
B. Close all three ways valve levers that are in the detecting position
with the exception of the valve(S) to the involved space
 C. Open the three way valve whose number (on the handle)
corresponds with the line index chart number for the on fire
D. Lock the smoke detector indicator on the monitoring line , which
automatically activates the CO2 exitinguishing system

Ans: C

4488 When a rescue vessel approaches a life boat in heavy seas, the person
in life boat should ___________

A. Transfer all personnel immediately

B. Tie up to the rescue vessel
C. Wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
D. Transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
Ans: C

4489 If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free

A. Entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank
since petroleum vapours are heavier than air
B. A man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather as
vapours are less volatile
C. Breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you
would only be in the tank a short time
D. Fresh air breathing apparatus should always be used
Ans: D

4490 A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and various symptoms
indicate a concussion.Proper treatment should include__________

A. Turning the victim’s head to the side to his airway open

B. Positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body
C. Giving the victim water but no food
D. Placing a pillow only under the victim’s head
Ans: A
4461

B. They are required to be of a highly visible color

C. The life jackect will always support an unconscious wearer in an upright

position

D. They must be able to support the wearer in an upright position

Ans. C

4462

B. Thermal action

C. Chemical Action

D. Pyrotechnical reaction

Ans. A

4463 In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should
heave on the ……………

A. life lines

B. righting strap

C. sea anchor

D. towing bridle

ANS: D.

4464 The symptoms of heat exhaustion are _______________.

 E. Slow and strong pulse
F. Flushed and dry skin
G. Slow and deep breathing
H. Pale and clammy skin

ANS: D.

4465 The vapour explosive range of gasoline by volume is 1.0% to 6.0% in

air. If a gasoline tank is sampled with an explosimeter. And the reading

obtained is 30% L.E.L the vapor concentration at the sample point is
…………………..

E. 0.3% by volume
F. 0.6% by volume
G. 1.3% by volume
H. 6.3% by volume

4466 Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect fire hose couplings?

A. locking wrench

B. Spanner wrench

C. Crescent wrench

D. Pipe Wrench

Ans. B

4467 The Class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the
fire is ……………………

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D
 Ans. B

4468. Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for producing chemical foam,
should be stored.................

A. in a freezer

B. in a cool dry place

C. at a temperature not less than 80oF

D. in open bins

Ans. B

4469 If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be
………………..

A. spread apart as far as possible

B. Held as tightly against your chest as possible

C. in a kneeling position

D. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles

Ans. D

4470 If a crew member faints, you should ………………….

A. lay him down with his head slightly raised

B. administer a liquid stimulant

C. Lay him down with his head lower than his feet

D. attempt to stand him upright to restore consciousness

Ans. C

4471 Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting and disconnecting fire
hose couplings?
 A. Vise grips

B. Channel locks

C. Spanner wrench

D. Pipe Wrench

4472 When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding a

lifeboat or lifeaft?

A. After 12 hours

B. After 24 hours

C. After 48 hours

D. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not
until 48 hours later

4473. With no alternative but to jump from the vessel the correct posture
should include……..

A. holding down the down jacket against the chest with one harm crossing

B. knees bend and held closed to the body with both arms around the legs

C. body straight and arms tight at the said for feet 1st entry into the water

D. both hand holding the life jacket below chin with knees bend with legs
crossed

4474. A liferaft which has inflated bottom up on the water ……..

A. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder holding the

righting strip and leaning back ward

B. should be righted by standing on the life line holding the righting straps and
leaning backward

C. will right itself when the canopy tube inflate

D. must be cleared of the buoyant will right itself

4475. Which of the following condition must be before a marine chemist will issue
a certificate for compartment to be safe for hot work

A. the residues in the compartment must not be capable of producing any toxic
gas

B. the concentration of combustible gases in the compartment atmosphere must

be less

C. the toxic gases in the compartment must be with in concentration

D. all of the above

4476. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an….

A. vigorous shacking

B. sequence of back blows

C. precaadial thump

D. ammonia inhalant

4477. if a inflatable life raft inflates upside down u can right it by

A. pushing p on one side

B. standing on the CO2 bottle straps and throwing

C. getting at least 3 or 4man to push on the side of CO2

D. doing nothing

4478. when collecting condition for drinking water

A. a sponge used to mop up and store salt

B. only condensation on the bottom of canopy

C. it should be strained through a oven

D. chlorine tablet should be used to make it drink

4479 when the concentrations of gas n the sample is above the 100%

Explosive reading on the meter shown in the illustrations , then _____.

E. The admosphere at the sample point consists of 100% flammable gas

F. The meter is defective
G. No further increase in vapor concentrationsatthe sample point is
possible
H. The flammable vapor concentrations at the sample point is above the
lower explosive limit

ANS: D

4480 if an inflatable liferaft is overturned , it may be righted by_______.

e. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water

f. Releasing the co2 cylinder
g. Pushing up from under one end
h. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the
underside of the raft

ANS: D

4481 if you must enter the water on which there is on oil fire , you should

________.

B. Protect your lifejacket by holding it above your head

B.ENTER the water on the windward side of vessel

C.keep both hands infront of your face to break the water surface when

Diving head first

D.wear very light clothing

Ans: B
 4482 According to the pollution prevention regulations (MARPOL) , which
of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment under
the oil filling connection section

E. The containment may be fixed or portable depending upon the vessel

F. The containment drains must have quick closing valves to be closed in
the leakage or failure of any part of transfer connection
G. All containment drains must lead to a common , fixed drain tank
H. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank
Ans: A

4483 sea water may be used for drinking __ __________

A.at a maximum rate of two ounces per day

B. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water

C. if gather durinr or immediately after a hard rain

D. under no circumstance

Ans: D

4484 Which of the hydrogen gases represents the greatest threat to

personnel safely in an engine room where the exhaust is leaking from a diesel
engine
E. Carbon di oxide
F. Carbon monoxide
G. Carbon trioxide
H. Hydrogen sulfide

Ans: B

4485 combustible gas indicators measure the percentage of the

concentration of lower explosive limit of gases . If the hydrocarbon content
of sample exceeds the upper explosive limit___________.

E. The needle will rise slowly to and remain at maximum reading

F. The needle will move rapidly to and remain at maximum reading
G. The needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero
immediately

Ans:C

H. It will not be detected

4486 When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the

person charge of life boat should___________

E. Rosebox
F. Sea chest or pool piece
G. Sluice valve
H. Fire pumping stuffing box
Ans:B

4487 A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on a vessel

equipped with a combustion smoke detection carbon dioxide fixed fire
extinguishing system.After ensuring the space is un occupied and
properly sealded off, you should NEXT_________
E. Operate the control head mounted on the main pilot cylinders
 F. Close all three ways valve levers that are in the detecting position
with the exception of the valve(S) to the involved space
G. Open the three way valve whose number (on the handle)
corresponds with the line index chart number for the on fire
H. Lock the smoke detector indicator on the monitoring line , which
automatically activates the CO2 exitinguishing system

Ans: C

4488 When a rescue vessel approaches a life boat in heavy seas, the person
in life boat should ___________

E. Transfer all personnel immediately

F. Tie up to the rescue vessel
G. Wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
H. Transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
Ans: C

4489 If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free

E. Entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank
since petroleum vapours are heavier than air
F. A man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather as
vapours are less volatile
G. Breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you
would only be in the tank a short time
H. Fresh air breathing apparatus should always be used
Ans: D

4490 A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and various symptoms
indicate a concussion.Proper treatment should include__________

E. Turning the victim’s head to the side to his airway open

F. Positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body
G. Giving the victim water but no food
H. Placing a pillow only under the victim’s head
Ans: A
 4523. A liquid as listed below on Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), having a
flash point below 100.F (37.78C) is called a/an__________

a. viscous liquid

b. explosive liquid

c. combustible liquid

d. flammable liquid

ANS:D

4524. If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious . he should be given

_________

a.soda crackers and water

b. orange juice or a candy bar

c. an ounce of whiskhy

d. a glass of milk

ANS:B

4525.An instrument used to detect explosive gas air/mixture ,usually measures the
concentration in terms of the lower explosive limit and is known as a_________

a. toxic vapour meter

b. flame safely lamp

c.gas absorption meter

d.combustible gas indicator

ANS:D
4526.A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all purpose nozzle
attached ,should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to control when the
handle position is changed from ______

a. solid stream to fog

b. shut to solid stream

c. low velocity to high velocity fog

d. fog to shut

ANS:B

4527.Which of the following items is NOT required to be contained in the vessel’s

oil transfer procedures?

a. a line diagram of the vessel’s oil transfer piping

b. the number of persons on duty during oil transfer operations

c. any special procedures for topping off tanks

d. the location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel

ANS:D

4528.If a raft is said to be released manually ,where should the operating cord be
attached before throwing the raft overboard?

a. do not attach the cord to anything but throw it over board with the raft container

b. to some fixed object on the shipe

c. stand on it with your foot

d. to the special pad eye on the “raft davit launcher”

ANS:B

4529.Most lifeboats are equipped with _______

a. unbalanced rudders
b. balanced rudders

c. contraguide rudders

d. straight rudders

ANS: A

4530.The maximum lowering speed for a life boat on the gravity davits must not
be more than____

a. 21mtr per minute

b. 35mtr per minute

c. 78mtr per minute

4531 The “flammable limits” of an atmosphere are the _________

A. Two temperature between which an atmosphere will self-ignite

B. Upper and lower percentage of vapuor concentration in an atmosphere which
will burn if an ignition source is present
C. Upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn
D. Two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition
source is present

Ans. B

4532 A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray pattern
when the water pressure is not less than________

A. 25kg/cm2(241.3 kpa)
B. 42kg/cm2(413.6 kpa)
C. 52kg/cm2(517.0 kpa)
D. 7kg/cm2(689.4 kpa)

Ans. D

4533 For which of the listed classes of fire combination would carbon dioxide
be most suitable as the extinguishing agent?
 A. Class ”A” and class “B”
B. Class “B” and class “c”
C. Class “A” and class “C”
D. Class “C” and class “D”

Ans. B

4534 The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be

posted_______

A. In the pilothouse
B. In the officer’s lounge
C. In the upper pump room flat
D. Where they can be easily seen or readily available

Ans. D

4535 which of the items in the lifeboat equipments listed would be the most
suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?

A. A red parachute flare

B. A red handheld flare
C. A flashlight
D. A lantern

Ans. A

4536 A chemical material as listed on a material safety data sheet (MSDS), that
can spontaneously burst flame when exposed air at temperature below
130.F(55.5C) with no ignition source needed is called_______

A. Explosive
B. Pyrophoric
C. Unstable
D. Flammable

Ans. B
4537 If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not
periodically serviced and becomes inoperable , it will fail to ________

A. Set the water lights on immersion

B. Release the dyemarker from the liferaft
C. Free the liferaft from the vessel
D. Break the seal on the carbondioxide cylinder

Ans. C

4538 A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a class

A. A fire
B. B fire
C. C fire
D. D fire

Ans. A

4539 Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pains in the abdomen located

in the _______

A. Lower left side

B. Lower left side
C. Upper left side
D. Upper right side

Ans. B

4540 If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the material safety data
sheet (MSDS) identify?

A. Paints or coatings that are café to use with it

B. The name of each hazardous ingredient
C. Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gasses
D. None of th above

Ans. B
4541 The high velocity fog tip used with the all purpose firefighting nozzle
should always be_________

A. Slowed separately in a clip or rack at each fire station

B. Attached to the all purpose nozzle by a chain
C. Coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion
D. Painted red to be identified as emergency equipment

Ans. B

4542 Most enclosed lifeboats or covered survival capsules will automatically

right themselves if they capsize. This

Will occur when which of the following exists?

A. The lower ballast tanks are filled with water

B. The fuel tanks are not less than half full
C. The passengers are strapped to their seats
D. The sea anchor is deployed to windward

Ans. C

4543 The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and the air lies
between the upper and lower explosive limits. These explosive limits are specified
as a percentage of ______

A. Flammable vapor by volume in air

B. The lower limit of explosibility of the mixture
C. Oxygen present to support combustion
D. The temperature of the flash point

Ans. D

4544 A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft ___________

A. Must be wet before it release

B. Should be kept in a watertight cover except in emergency
C. Will inflate in the raft in its cradle if operated manually
 D. Must to be submerged to a cert in depth to release automatically

Ans. D

4545 The physical data term on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) ‘hat
indicates if the vapor formed by the material is lighter or heavier than air is called
_______

A. Vapor pressure
B. Vapor gravity
C. Vapor level
D. Vapor density

Ans. D

4546 In a closed container of liquid the force exerted by vapor on the walls of
the container above the liquid surface is called ________

A. Storage pressure
B. Vapor pressure
C. Over-pressure
D. Reactive pressure

Ans. B

4547 A chemical material as listed on the material data sheet (MSDS). That
reacts with water or moist air and produces a health or physical hazard is called
_______

A. Water-reactive
B. Toxic
C. Flammable
D. Combustive

Ans. A

4548 The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by high
velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to _________
 A. A difference in water pressure
B. The method of breaking up the water stream
C. The type of fire being fire fought
D. The capacity of the fire pump

Ans. B

4549 A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft__________

A. A the bow
B. A the stern
C. It the iniddle
D. A around

Ans. D

4550 The significant difference between the high velocity fog tip and the low
velocity fog applicator used with the all purpose nozzle is the______________

A. Difference in available water pressure

B. Number of personnel required to effectively use each of them
C. Degree to which the water stream is broken up
D. Ability to exclude free oxygen

Ans. C

4551 A health hazard term listed on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) that
at indicates allergic – like reaction in some people after repeated exposure
is_____________

A. S In contact hazard
B. S insitizer
C. P irophorichazard
D. C idizer

Ans. B
4552 The explosive range of methance is 5% to 15% by volume in air.this
means a vapor/air mixture of________

A. 3 percent methance by volume is too rich to burn

B. 20 percent methance by volume is too lern too burn
C. 10 percent methance by volume is too rich to burn
D. 5 percent methance by volume will given a reading of 100 percent L.E.L on a
combustible gas indicator

Ans. D

4553 A vessel which is subjected to “hogging” has its ___________

A. Main deck under compressive strees

B. Main deck plantig under strake strees
C. Bottom plate under compressive strees
D. Bottom and deck planting under compressive strees

Ans. B

4554 synptoms of seasickness include_________

A. Fever and thrist

B. Nausea and dizziness
C. Stomatch cramos and diarrhea
D. Reddening of skin and hives

Ans. B

4555 carbon diozide extinguishers must be recharged when the weight is

less than?

A. 0.8
B. 0.85
C. 0.9
D. 0.95

Ans. C
4556 what information can be obtained from a marine chemist’scertificate
issued to an offshore supply vessel?

A. The vessel’s stability information

B. The tanks which were safe to enter when the certificate was issued
C. The number of fire extinguishers required to be aboard
D. The quality of fuel in the vessel’s tanks

Ans. B

4557 Each personal flotation device light on a ship that has a non-
replaceable power source must be replaced_______________

A. Every six months after initial installation

B. Every 12 months after initial installation
C. Every 24 months after initial installation
D. On or before the expiration date of the power source

Ans. D

4558 an inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking

vessel.which of the following occurs automatically after the painter trips the
co2 bottles to inflate the raft?

A. The sea anchor is deployed

B. The floor inflates
C. If upside down the craft will right
D. The painter detaches from the raft.

Ans. A

4559 tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using

a___________

A. A multistage centrifugal pump

B. The load on top system
 4560 The combined fan discharge rate in an intert gas system is
related to the____________
A. Shoreside loading rate
B. Maximum cargo pump discharge rate

4595 if a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of

___________________

A. High fever
B. Head injure
C. Broken limbs
D. Irregular breathing
Ans : D

4596 which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to effectively
combat a class B fire_________

A. Dry chemical
B. Co2
C. Foam
D. All of the above
Ans: D

4597 to prepare a low velocity fog applicator for use,____________________

A. Replace the high velocity tip with the fog applicator and pull the handle the
middle position
B. Insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose nozzle and
pull the handle back half way
C. Replace the high velocity tip with the applicator and pull the handle back all
the way back
D. Insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose nozzle and
pull the handle back to the solid stream position
Ans : A

4598 which statement is true regarding halon as the fire extinguishing agent?

A. It is more effective than co2

B. It leaves no residue
C. It is noncorrosive
D. All of the above
Ans: D

4599 the vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and
____________________

A. Lighter than air

B. Heavier than air
C. Odorless
D. Non toxic
Ans: B
4600 generally which of the following gases is used to inflate life rafts?

A. Co2
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Compressed air
Ans: A

4601 if it becomes necessary to pump bilges while a vessel is in port. Which of

the following procedures should be followed?

A. Pump only if the discharge is led to the shore tank or barge

B. Pump only during the hours of darkness
C. Pump only on the outgoing tide
D. Pump only the as much as is necessary
Ans: A

4602 when fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as
low as possible to _______________________

A. Protect themselves from smoke

B. Obtain the best available air
C. Allow the heat and steam to pass overhead
D. All of the above
Ans: D

4603 if flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space. Which of the
following actions would be the most hazardous thing to carry out ?

A. Opening switches in the space to de-energize circuits

B. Closing switches in the space to operate vent fans
C. Leaving electrical circuits energized in the space
D. Securing all power to the space from a remote location
Ans: A
4604 a low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a
bayonet joint. The application is prevented from rotating in the joint
by______________

A. Water pressure
B. A locknut
C. A keeper screw
D. A spring-loaded catch
Ans: D

4605 diesel fuel vapors ____________

A. Cannot be ignited by a spark unless the vapor is in a confined space

B. Are non toxic in all concentrations
C. Cannot be ignited by a spark unless they are at their auto ignition
temperature
D. Are heavier than air
Ans: D

4606 you have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just
inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in buoyancy tube.
Which of the following statements identifies the cause of this situation?

A. The salt water is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy
B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the fuels full inflated
C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of co2
D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop
Ans: D

4607 two peoples are administrating CPR to the victim. How much times per
minute the chest should be compressed?

A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 80
Ans: C

4608 you are administrating chest compressions during CPR. Where on victims
body should the pressure be applied?

A. Tip of the sternum

B. Top half of the sternum
C. Lower half of the sternum
D. Left chest over the heart
Ans: C

4609 the MOST important element in administering CPR is______________

A. Having the proper equipment for the process

B. Treating for shock
C. Administering of oxygen
D. Starting the treatment quickly
Ans: D

4610 most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with which of the following?

A. A hydraulic start diesel engine

B. Tanks for the storage of drinking water
C. Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing
D. Auxiliary mechanical propulsion
Ans: A

4611 the oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the ____________

A. The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space

B. Amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower explosive limit in
a confined space
C. Concentration of co2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined space
D. None of the above
Ans: A

4612 a simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the

paint locker is to ______________

A. Label the fixed fire fighting system

B. Store paint cans on metal shelves only
C. Not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space
D. Place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker
Ans: C

4613 a characteristic of most petroleum vapours is that they are

_____________________

A. Lighter than air

B. Not explosive at low temperatures
C. Heavier than air
D. Inert in stable air
Ans :C
4614 if more one liferaft is manned after the vessel has
sunk_____________________

A. Each raft should go in a different direction in search of land

B. The possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by spreading out
C. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as
few rafts as possible
D. Tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group

Ans :D
4615 when a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water
,one of the FIRST things to be done is_______________

A. Separate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of detection.

B. Transfer all supplies to one raft.
C. Transfer all the injured to one raft.
D. Secure the raft together to keep them from the drifting apart .
Ans :D

4616 An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible

vapors removes oxygen and provide a heat and smokes screen is
__________________

A. Halon 1301
B. Dry chemical
C. Water fog
D. Carbondioxide
Ans :C

4617 During annual inspection ,each none metallic oil transfer hose must not
burn ,bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under a static liquid pressure of at
least __________________
A. 7bar
B. The pressure of the relief value setting
C. The pressure applied by the shore side pump
D. 1 ½ times the maximum allowable work pressure
Ans :D

4618 The most effective way of applying carbon-di-oxide from a portable

extinguisher to a fire is by _________
A. Forming a cloud cover over the flames
B. Discharging the carbon-di-oxide into the heat of the flames
C. Directing the gas at the base of the flame in a slow sweeping motion
D. Bouncing the discharge off an adjacent bulkhead just above the burning
service.
Ans : C

4619 Where should muster list be posted?

A. In crew’s accommodation spaces
B. on the navigating bridge
C. In the engine room
D. All the above

Ans : D

4620 In the fire main system , quick cleaning strainers are located at the
_________

A. Pump situation
B. Pump discharge
C. Fire hydrants
D. Hose nozzle

Ans : C

4621 While a drifting in a inflatable liferaft in hot , tropical

weather___________

A. The canopy should be defected so that it will not block cooling breezes
B. The pressure value may be periodically opened to prevent excessive air
pressure
C. Deflating the floor panels may help to cool personal
D. The entrance curtains should never be opened
Ans : C

4622 The heat generated by a fire will be transferred through a bulkhead or

head as a result of _______
A. Conduction
B. Radiation
C. Convection
D. Advection
Ans : A

4623 Quick cleaning strainers are installed in the fire main system at individual
fire hydrants to ______
A. Prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the system piping
B. Prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the hoses and nozzles
C. Protect the fire pumps from becoming clogged with marine growth
D. Filter out some of the salt in an effort to reduce pipeline scaling
Ans : B

4624 What effect will transferring fuel oil from #1p double bottom to #3p
double bottom have on trim of a vessel?
A. The mean draft will increase
B. The mean draft will decrease
C. The forward draft will decrease
D. The after draft will decrease
Ans : C
4625 How are solid materials kept from fouling a fire hose nozzle?
A. Using a cadium chloride coating
B. Use of inline system strainers
C. Replacements of valve seats at each fire main station
D. Periodic shut down and backflush of fire main
Ans : B

4626 which of the listed extinguishing agents could be used to fight a class ‘’b’’
fire involving the duct work for the galley stove?
A. CO2
B. Dry chemical
C. Halon
 D. All the above
Ans : D

4627.When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire ,you should _________

A.use only carbon di oxide
B. use only dry chemical
C. extinguish the fire then secure the source of gas
D. secure the source of gas then extinguish the fire

ANS: D
4628. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded
an inflatable liferaft is to __________
A. Stream the sea anchor
B. Take an anti-seasickness pill
C. Open the pressure relief valve
D. Drink atleast one can of water

ANS:B

4629.A fire can be extinguished by removing________

A. The heat
B. The fuel

4630. which of the following conditions are true concerning shipboard

extinguishing systems?

A. Carbon di oxide and halon are both effective fixed systems that protect
against “class C” fires
B. Flammable gas fires are not extinguished by fixed systems ;controlled
buring is recommended until the fuel source can be shut off.

b. returned to the pain locker

c. covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources

d. continuously kept in closed containers all the time.

Ans b

4631 the first step to take in fighting engine room fire resulting from a
rupurted fuel oil service line is to

A .evacuate all engine room personnel

b. fight the fire with hand portable extinguishers

c. activate the main co2bank

d. stop the flow of leaking fuel oil

ans : d

4632 petroleum vapors are dangerous

a. only if the source of vapour is above its flash point

b. only if the vapor is between the upper and lower explosive unit

c. only if oxygen concentration is below 16 percent

d. at all times due to their toxicity

ans: d

4633 engines for life boats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate for
how many hours

a. 6 hours

b. 12 hours

c. 18 hours

d. 24 hours

ans: d
4634 the three basic elements necessary for any fire are

a. heat gas and flames

b. fuel heat and oxygen

c. fuel nitrogen and fuel

d. fuel oil, nitrogen and oxygen

ans: b

4635 when launching a life boat , frapping lines should be rigged

a. before the griges are realesed

b. before the boat is moved frm the davits

c. at the embarkation deck

d. after the boat in the water

ans: c

4636 when a combating a deck fire due to a leaking cargo line you should first

a. blanket the cargo spill with foam

b. apply co2 on the burning fuel at its source

c. stop the transfer of cargo

d. prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam

ans: c

4637 the sea painter of the life boat should be led

a. forward and outside of all obstructions

b. forward and inside of all obstructions
c. up and down from main deck
d. to the foremost point on the ship
 ans : a

4638 an oxygen indicator will detect

a. the amount of oxygen in the space

b. the presence of harmful amount of carbon monoxide
c. concentrations of explosive gas
d. all of the above
ans: a

4639 frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to

a. reduce the swinging of the life boat as it is being owered from the
embarkation level
b. secure the life boat in the davits when in the stowed position
c. hold it to the ship‘s side until the tricing lines are passed
d. be used as a safety line in an emergency
ans: a

4640 frapping lines are

a. secure the life boats in the davits when in the stowed position
b. bring the life boat close along side the rail in the embarkation position
c. give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered from the
embarkation level
d. reduce the swinging of the life boat at the embarkation level
ans: d

4641 when more than six short blasts and one long blast of the ships whistle,
accompanied by the same signal on the general alarm bell is sounded , the signal
is for

a. fire and emergency

b. boat recall
c. man overboard
d. boat stations
ans: d
4642 in fighting a fire in a fuel tank the first action you should attempt is to

a. secure all source of fresh air to the tank

b. begin transferring the fuel to other tanks
c. top off the tank to force out all vapours
d. station someone at the fixed co2 release control
ans: a

4643 which of the life boat parts listed must be painted bright red

a. hatches
b. releasing gear
c. hooks
d. compass
ans: b

4644 which of the actions listed should be taken first to control an oil fire in a
fuel oil tank

Page 252

4649 Burning electrical insulation is best extinguished by ………………………

A. soda acid

B. foam

C. Water fog

D. Carbon dioxide

Ans. D

4650 If a fire occurs in an electrical cable, in which the inner layers of insulation,
or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should ……………………..

A. Secure power to the cable

B. Cut the cable with an insulated cable cutter

C. separate the two ends

D. All the above

Ans. D

4651 Portable tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water supply
from the…………………

A. inert gas scrubber

B. fireman

C. mucking supply system

D. pumproom sea chest

Ans. B

4652 When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original
position is caused by the ………………..

A. movement of the center of gravity

B. movement of the center of buoyancy toward the low side of the vessel

C. upward movement of the center of floatation

D. increased free surface in the buoyant wedge

Ans. B

4653 To fight a class “C” fire, you should use Carbon dioxide or ……………………..

A. Mechanical foam

B. dry chemical

C. chemical foam

D. chemically treated saw dust

Ans. B

4654 If a CO2 fire extinguisher is not readily available, which of the listed fire
extinguishers would be best suited to combat a small electrical fire in a
switchboard?

A. Dry Chemical

B. Halon

C. Low velocity fog

D. steam

Ans. B

4655 By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which ……………………

A. spontaneously ignite

B. are highly volatile with a flash point of 0oF

C. have a flash point of 80oF or higher

D. give off flammable vapors at or below 80oF

Ans. C

4656 Which of the following signals represents the emergency signal for a fire
aboard merchant vessel?

A. Rapid blowing of the ship’s whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
supplemented by the same signal on the same signal on the ship’s bell

B. Rapid ringing of the ship’s bell for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm

C. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not
less than 10 seconds.
D. A rapid ringing of the ship’s bell for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
supplemented by the same signal on the ship’s whistle.

Ans. C

4657 Which of the listed fire extinguishers is recommended for use on an

electrical switchboard fire?

A. CO2

B. ABC dry chemical

C. CO2 Propelled foam

D. All the above

Ans. A

4658 Which of the petroleum products listed has the lowest flash point?

A. Hydraulic oil

B. Lubricating oil

C. Diesel oil

D. Refrigeration oil

Ans. C

4659 A vessel’s stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which of the
listed conditions would develop the greatest adverse effect?

A. Tanks which are 95% full

B. Tanks which have been pressed up to full capacity

C. Tanks which have been completely emptied

D. Tanks which are 40% full

Ans. D
4660 What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with tank residue from a cargo
of leaded gasoline?

A. Cover the affected area with petroleum jelly

B. Immerse the area in a solution of boric acid

C. Wash the area with soap and water immediately

D. Administer a strong stimulant and treat for shock

Ans. C

4661 Any single ship’s compartment sustaining partial flooding with free
communication to the sea will …………………

A. increase reserve buoyancy

B. decrease the free surface effect

C. seriously reduce stability

D. result in the ship’s sinking

Ans. C

4662 A tank or compartment is considered gas free when it is free of dangerous

concentrations of ……………..

A. All flammable liquids

B. any combustible liquid

C. flammable or toxic gases

D. all cargo oil

Ans. C

4663 The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher …………………….

A. is always ready for use and requires no attention

B. may cake up and fail to discharge property if not occasionally agitated

C. deteriorates to an unusable condition within three years

D. puts out the fire with its cooling action

Ans. B

4664 When any tank or compartment is partially filled with a liquid free to move
as the ship rolls, the free surface effect is present. This condition will
usually …………………..

A. increase reverse buoyancy

B. reduce ship stability

C. Cause a permanent list

D. Change the ship’s trim

Ans. B

4665 Adverse effects due to free surface will results when ………………..

A. the vessel is trimmed by stern

B. the vessel’s draft is decreased exposing more surface area to the wind and
current

4666 Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely out, which of the
following steps is/are essential?

A. The cause of the fire is to be known

B. The fire area is safe for men to enter without a breathing apparatus

4667.If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be

unsafe to enter because of__________
A. unburned carbon particles

B .excess nitrogen

C. a lack of oxygen

D. excess hydrogen

Ans: c

4667. on a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons equipped

with an approved 15ppm only water separator, and bilge monitor
continous record must be___________
A. kept readily available for 1year only
B. detached monthly for enclosure in the oil record book
C. maintained onboared for not less than 3 years
D. initialised after each engineering watch by the watch engineer
ans: C

4668. If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry chemical fire extinguisher
has been punctured you must ________________
A. replace the pressure cartridge
B. replace the chemical agent
C. have the unit hydrostatically tested
D. weigh the pressure cartridge to determine if it must be replaced
Ans : A

4669. free surface effect occurring in tanks should e avoided to

________________
A. reduce hogging and sagging

B. maintain staility

C. prevent oil pollution

D. all of the above

Ans: B
 4670. When handling petroleum products, static electricity is generated by
moving machinery and ______________
A. a grounded person
B. the flowing petroleum liquids
C. stray electric currents
D. a short circuit
Ans.B

4671. Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of producing
an electrical spark?
A. using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire
B. connecting a bonding wire between the shoreside piping and the vessel
C. placing an insulating flange or a section of nonconducting hose in hose
setup
D. all of the above
Ans.D

4673.One advantage of a catridge operated dry chemical extinguisher over that

of a stored pressure chemical extinguisher is the former__________________

A. be easily recharged aboard ship

B. has a longer operating time

C. can be discharged further from the fire

D. is lighter in weight

Ans. A

4674.How can the build up of static electricity be prevented so that a static spark
does not ignite flammale vapours?

A. each machine and hose involved in the operation should be grounded

B. all electrical near and around the fueling operations should be opened

C. dehumifier used in spaces containing flammable liquids will significantly reduce

the possibility of static being generated
D. static neutralises can be used to reduce ionisation in the air

Ans.A

4675.where would u expect to find a “charged mist” on a tanker?

A. in a common vent header during tank ballasting

B. in a cargo tank during “butterworthing”

C. in a cargo tank during inerting operations

D. in the overflow line while topping

Ans.B

4676.an electrically charged mist will be found in a__

a. diesel engine cylinder

b. cargo tank during butterworthing

c. fuel tank vent outlet

d. flash evaporate flash chamber

ans:b

4677.in order to find out which lifeboat you are assighned,you should look at
the____

a. certificate of inspection

b. muster list

c. ship’s artcles

d. fire control plan

ans:b

4678.which of the following statement is true

a. the agent is extremely toxic in any concentration

b. the agent leaves no residue

c. the agent extinguishes a fire by smothering

d. all the above

ans:b

4679.you can generally improve the vessels stability in a hazardous situation

by____

a. pumping double bottoms to the forepeak

b. ballasting deep tanks

c. transferring ballast athwarships

d. deballasting double bottoms

ans:b

4680.which of the following statements is true

a. agent is considered nontoxic at room temperature in low concentration

b. the agent is less effective than co2

c. halon primarily extinguishes the fire by cooling

d.the agents cannot be used on electrical because it leaves a residue

ans:a

4681.a vessels stability normally increases when tank are ballasted because the
vessels__

a. center of gravity is lowered

b. center of buoyancy is lowered

c. reserve buoyancy is increased

d.freeboard is increased

ans:a

4682.event of a collision water tight may be lost if

a. sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing

b. the dogs on the man hole cover are secure

c. you have recently replaced a gasket in a water tight door

d. you operate the de watering system from a flooded compartment

Ans a

4683.wen checking the liquid level in a tank .u should position yourself____

a.on the windward side of the opening.

b.on the leeward side of the opening.

c.at a right angle to the wind direction

d.so that the obstruction of your body will protect you from the fumes

ans:c

4684.which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low

temperature

a.halon 1211

b.carbon dioxide

c.foam

d.dry chemicals

ans:c
4685.the bypass value on a self contained,demand-type,breathing apparatus
bypasses___

a.the regulator in an emergency

b.the breathing bag containing excessive pressure

c.o2 to the atmosphere

d.the regenerator in an emergency

ans:a

4686.to use a portable co2 fire extinguisher,you must first___

a.turn the tank upside down

b.pull the locking pin

c.open the value on the side of the tank.

d.shake thoroughly

ans:b

4687.which of the component listed are interchangeable between different

backpack demand-type self-contained breathing ,apparatus produced by various
manufacture?

a.the facepiece

b.the regulater

c.the air cylinder

d.all the above

ans:d

4688.which of thr listed fire extinguisher cannot be easily recharged aboard ship?

a.sooa acid
b.co2

c.dry chemical ,cartridge-operated

d.foam

ans:b

4689.the safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a demand type self contained
breathing apparatus is directly influenced by___________

A.the donning of the facepiece

B.the stowing of the facepiece

C. the maintainence of the facepiece

D. all of the above

Ans.d

4690.before the seas get rough,it is a good safety practice to__________

A. secure loose gear

B. move quickly about the strip

C. increase lighting

D. shutdown auxiliary equipment

4691.when the alarm bell on a demand type breathing apparatus sounds how
much air supply remains?

A. a 45 minute supply of air

B. a 23 minute supply of air

C. a 1 minute supply of air

D.less than 1 minute supply of air

4692.which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using
a pressure demand type self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere
that is immediately dangerous to life or health?

A. the positive pressure in the facepiece prevents contaminated air from entering
the facepiece

B. the average operating time for most air cylinder is over an hour

C. the equipment used is lightweight and easy wear a reducing physical strain on
the wearer

D. the equipment is compact is compact and the wearer can work in confined
spaces without difficulty.

Ans. A

4693.which of the following statements is correct concerning fire hoses used

within the machinery spaces of cargo vessels?

A. the fire hoses must be in 25mtr lengths

B. the fire hoses be 1½ inches in diameter or less

C. the fire hoses must be of lined type

D. the fire hoses must all be fitted with approved 5/8 inch nozzles

Ans. C

4694.special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include__________

A. frost burns to flesh

B. high toxicity in small quantities

C. noxious odours

D. all of the above

4695.according to regulations which of the following conditions is true concerning
the construction and/or operation of pressure vacuum relief valves?

A. valve bodies discs spindles and seats must all be made of bronze or a corrosion
resistant material

B. pressue vacuum valves for cargo tank s shall not be less than 2 inches nominal
pipe size

C. where springs are employed to actuate the valve discs the springs are to be
either plated or fabricated of a corrosion resistant material

D. the design and construction of the valves is such that they must be removed
for overhauling insuring there will be no vent blockage which could during a
repair period.

Ans. A

4696.fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall

be_________

A. behind glass or a suitably marked enclosure

B. protected against freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain valves

C. opened up and internally examined at each coast guard biannual inspection for
certification

D. all the above

Ans. B

4697.when u have completed bunkering operations the hoses should be_______

A. blown down with inert gas

B. drained into drip pans or tanks

C. stowed with their ends open for venting

 D. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water

Ans. B

4698.when should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose?

A. when transferring LNG

B. when a bonding caole is employed

C. when static electricity is not expected to be a problem

D. when the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system

Page 259
Page 255

4701. A fire station located in engine room is required to have_________.

A. a spanner wrench suitable for the size of hose at that station.

B. lined or unlined hose depending upon its location.

C. a 2mtr or 3mtr low velocit fog applicator.

D. all the above

4702. the safety rate of bunkering heavy fuel oil is directly related to the_______.

A. type of fuel transfer pump aboard

B. temperaure of the fuel oil being received

C. size of he fuel sorage tanks ashore

D. distance from the fuel oil sorage anks ashore

4703. In a compartement tha has been completely flooded the greatest pressure
will be exerted____.

A. along he bottom of any bulkhead

B. at the centre of all bulkhead

C.along the top of any bulkhead

D. on the overhead of all he compartement

Ans: A

4704. When using portable tank cleaning machines he hoses may be disconneced
when______.

A. the machine is inside the tank

B. the machine is not inside the tank

C.a sailor is sanding by the machine

D. the hoses has been partially drained

Ans: B

4705. After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and ______.

A. draped over the fantail to dry out

B. drained over the side and washed out

C. drained into the bilges and washed out.

D. drained into the bucket of fuel tanks.

Ans: D

4706. After transferring fuel to another vessel, hoses should be drained _______.

A. to the bilges

B. over the side

C. into a bucket

D. all he above
Ans: C

4707. span gas is used abroad liquified natural gas carriers to______.

A. inert the barrier space

B. calibrate the gas leak detectors

C. odorize the cargo

D. detect leaks in cargo piping

Ans: B

4708. too prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due o expansion you should top
off______.

A. to the bottom of the expansion trunk

B. to within 1% to 3% of its capacity

C. to within 3 to 8 cm of its capacity

D. 3 to 8 cm from top of the vent pipe

Ans: B

4709. the mos critical part of the bunkering operation which can result in an oil
split is when the________.

A. hose joint are made up

B. tanks are being topped off

C. system is being lined up

D. pumping operation is being started

Ans: B

4710. after fuel tanks have been topped off which of the listed procedures should
be followed next?
A. the pressure vaccum relief valve should be reset

B. the anks shoud be made seaworthy to prevent contamination

C. the tanks should be sounded to make sure the levels are not rising

D. the tanks should be marked

Ans: C

4711. regulaion for carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing systems

require________.

A. a seperate supply of CO2 be provided for each space protected

B. the total supply of CO2 to be at least sufficient for the space requiring the
greatest amount

C. the total supply of CO2 be equal to the gross tonnage of the vessel divided by
30

D. all the above

Ans: B

4712. regulations state that any space containing charged CO2 cylinders shall be
properly ventilated to prevent a temperature higher than________.

A. 1300F (54.50C)

B.1400 F (600C)

C.1500F(66.60 C)

D.1600F(71.10C)

4713. which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the day while
loading fuel?

A. a red flag
B. a yellow flag

C. a red and yellow flag

D. a red light

Ans: A

4714. the pollution prevention regulation requires an emergency means of

stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operation. That emergency mean may
be a/an

A. manually operated quick valve

B. self-closing automatic disconnect fitting

C. emergency pump control on he cargo deck

D. automaic pressure sensitive oil flow regulator

Ans: c

4715. which of he listed function is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas
generation system?

A. cools the inert gas

B. maintain the oxygen content at 5% by volume

C. drains off satic elecricity in the inert gas

D. maintains the water seal on the gas main

Ans: A

4716. while your vessel is fueling you notice that the transfer hdse has developed
a large bulge. Which of the following action should be taken according to
regulation if you are the peron in charge?

A. wrap the bulge area with nylon line

B.stop the transfer of the fuel

C. report the incident to the master

D. simply order new hose for the next fueling operation

Ans: B

4717. regulations permit which of the following sysem to be used for fire
prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessel?

A. an inert gas system

B. the deck foam system

C.the fixed CO2 system

D. a fixed water spray system

Ans: A

4718.prior to entering a shipboard compartement containing spilled sewage you

should est the atmosphere in the compartement for________.

A. hydrogen sulfide

B. methane gas

C.oxygen

D. all the above

Ans: D

4719. which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas
sysem to he cargo tanks?

A. exhaust gas pressure

B. high capacity fan

C. inert gas compressor

D. natural aspiraion

Anss: B

4720. the pollution prevention regulaion prohibit draining________.

A. waste oil into the slop tanks.

B. lube oil purifier ino the bilge

C. fuel oil heaters into bucket

D. lude oil trainers into drip pans.

Ans: B

4721. open tank ullage holes which are not gas free must be protected
by________.

A. flame screens

B.warning signs

C. PV valves

D. stop check valves

Ans: A

4722. Bilges may be pumped________.

a. on the outgoing tide

b. overboard after dark

c. overboard through an oily water seperator

d. anyiime in an emergrncy i.e, main engine lube oil failure

4723. according to regulations new tanks vessels enroute beyond he 50 mile limit
may not discharge any oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank or cargo pump
room unless________.
a. the quantity of oil discharged into the sea does not exceed 1/30000 of the total
quantity of cargo carried on board

b. anchored outside the breakwater

c. discharging oil at a rate not exceeding 200 litres per nautical mile

d. the quantity of oil dicharged into the surrounding waters does not exceed
1/600000 of the total quanity of cargo carried onboard

Ans: a

4724. the device used preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is
called a________.

a. flame relief valve

b. flame sopper

c. safety valve

d. flame arrestor

ans: d

4725. a low velocity fog applicator is held in an all purpose nozzle by a bayonet
joint. The applicator is prevented from roating in the joint by________.

a. water pressure

b. a keeper screw

c. a spring loaded catch

d. a lockout

ans: c

4726. in port after chemically cleaning a fuel oil tank, you should dispose of the
waste oil by________.
a. pumping it into the sewer connection

b. centrifuging and reclaiming it

c. circulating it through an oil and water seperator

d. discharging it into a slop barge or holding tank

ans: d

4727. as soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal you should ensure that
the________.

a. ring buoys are thrown overboard

b. engines are stopped

c. fire pumps are started

d. life preservers have been issues o everyone

ans: c

4728. which of he following acions should be taken by the engine room watch
when the general alarm is sounded continously?

a. the fire pump hould be started

b. the boiler fires should be executed

c. the fixed Co2 system should be initiated into action

d. the endine room ventilation should be secured.

Ans: a

4729. which of the listed operations must be personally supervised by the person
in charge while taking on fuel?

a. posting of declaration of inspection in a conspicious space under glass

b. topping of any being loaded

c. disposing overboard all waste oil or slops from drip pans

d. periodic sampling during the loading o ensure unifoemiy.

Ans: b

4730. during topping off of bunker tanks the loading rate mus be personally
supervised by the________.

a. terminal operator

b. person-in-charge

c. master

d. engineer in watch

ans: b

4731. when bunkering operation are completed the hoses should be________.

a. drained into drip pans or tanks

b. blown down with nitrogen or inert gas

c. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water

d. slowed with their ends open for vening

ans: a

4732. the term “oil” as used in the pollution prevention regulation

means________.

a. fuel oil only

b. crude oil only

c. liquified petroleum gas

d. petroleum oil of any kind

ans: d

4733. where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration pressure and
temperature oof an inert gas required to be located?

a. bridge and engine control consoles

b. bridge and tanks being inerted

c. main deck and engine control consoles

d. cargo control and engine control consoles

ans: d

4734. an oxygen indicator will detect________.

a. concentrations of explosive gas

b. an oxygen deficiency in a space

c. he pressure of harmful of carbon monoxide

d. all the above

ans: b

4735. during loading and discharging operaion in addition o when the cargo tanks
have been properly filled each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a
minimum gas pressure of________.

a. 50 millimeters of water pressure

b. 25 millimeters of water pressure

c. 00 millimeters of water pressure

d. 5 millimeters of water pressure

4736. an international oil pollution prevention(IOPP) certificate ceases be valid on
a ship when______.

a. the ship change its por of documentation

b. the certificate exceeds 2 years from the dae of issue

c. an intermediate survey as required is not carried out

d. the vessel owners cease to belong o IMO(Internaional Maritime Organisation)

4737 Used engine oil may be properly disposed of by____________

A draining it into the bilges

B discharging it to dock oil waste station

C pumping or throwing it over the side in port

D dumping it in a gasoline fuel tank

ANS B

4738 According to regulations,all exposed and dangerous places,such as gears and

machinery shall be properly protected with______________

A covers

B guards

C rails

D all the above

ANS D

4739 What safety precautions should be observed by the crew while working
around machinery in an engine room?

A They should wear safety shoes

B They should wear ear protection

C They should wear jewelry

D All the above

ANS D

4740 According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations,which of the following

qualifies as a discharge of oil?

A Leakage of oil to the water by an improperly blanked transfer hose

B Spilling oil on the main deck and having it flow over the side

C Pumping oil overboard through a fixed piping system

D A ll the above

ANS D

4741 Vessel stability can be adversely affected by_____________

A increasing the free surface effect

B decreasing the free surface effect

C ballasting down by the bow

D ballasting down bu the stern

ANS A

4742 Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen by

volume,required to be achieved by a ship’s inert gas system,prior to the
commencement of crude oil tank washing?

A 0.06

B 0.08

C 0.1
D 0.12

ANS B

4743 Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion resistant wire mesh screen
to_____________

A prevent dirt from entering the tank

B dissipate fumes leaving the vent

C prevent flames from entering the tank

D prevent accidental overflow

ANS C

4744 You are alone and administrating CPR to an adult victim.H ow many chest
compessions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?

A 5compressions, then 1 inflation

B 15compressions, then 2 inflations

C 20compressions, then 3 inflations

D 30compressions,then 4 inflations

ANS B

4745 A Vessel which is subjected to “sagging”_________

A has its main deck under tensile stress

B has its bottom plating under tensile stress

C is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships

D is said to be under a form of transverse bending

ANS B
4746 Automatically closed fire dampers installed in the vessel’s ventilation system
are operated by the use of a_________

A remote operated valve

B fusible link

C Co2 system pressure switch

D heat or smoke detector

ANS B

4747 The horizontal port,or staboard movement of a vessel is called___________

A yaw

B sway

C surge

D heave

ANS B

4748 If a cup of oil is spiled during fueling and causes a sheen upon the water it
___________

A must be reported to the fire department

B must be reported to the port control authourities

C must be reported to the harbour master

D need not be reported since the spill was less 250 barrels

ANS B

4749 in accordance with regulations ,approved buoyant work vests

___________________________
A should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieunof approved life preserves
because they are less bulky and permit free movement in confined spaces

Bmay be used as a substitute for approved life preserves during routine drills ,but
never during an emergency

C should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets in an
emergency

D all of the above

ANS C

4750 prior to entering a cargo pump room,you should ensure that __________

A the forced ventilating system is operating

B the cargo pumps are secured

C no monocarbon gases are present

D the oily water seperator is de –energized

ANS A

4751 To safeguard the operator and other personnel working on or near a

hoisting operation ,operation,which of the following precautions should be
observed?

A Keep a load on the hoist until all personnel are finished working

B Set the load on a movable dolly when transportation may be needed

C Have one man keep a hand on the load to steady it

D Insure that the lifting gear capacity is not exceeded

ANS D

4752Which of the following statements describes one of the functions of the

ballasting system?
A To permit flooding of any fuel oil storage tank on any class ship

B To use it as a secondary service system

C To store reserve feed or portable water for extended cruises

D To stabilize the ship by flooding certain designed tanks with seawater

ANS D

4753 The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its
bow to its stern is_________

A pitching

B rolling

C heaving

D swaying

ANS B

4754 To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo
piping system,you should FIRST_________

A open sea suction valves,then start the cargo pump

B start the cargo pump,then open sea suction valves

C open block valves,then start the cargo pump

D open slunce valves,then start the cargo pump

ANS B

4755 The resculer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth
ventilation by pinching the victim’s nostrils and__________

A cupping a hand around the patients mouth

B keeping the head elevated

C applying his mouth tightly over the victim’s mouth

D holding the jaw down firmly

ANS C

4756 Why is it necessary to cool the bulkheads,decks,andoverheads surrounding

an involved compartment fire?

A Cool the metal below its ignition temperature

B Form a dense coating of smothering steam

C Prevent oxygen from reaching the flames

D Prevent the fire from spreading by heat conduction

ANS D

4757 An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an_______________

A air bottle for breathing

B whistle and handled flare

C whistle strobe light and reflective tape

D whistle handled flare and sea dye marker

ANS C

4758 Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class”B”fire should be

directed__________________

A at the top of the flames

B at the base of the fire near the edge

C in short,quick bursts

D toward the upward side of the fire

ANS B

4759 When taking soundings the tape should be lowered and brought back
quickly to__________________

A reduce the time the sounding tube is open

B avoid creating a spark

C lessen the effect of roll or pitch on the reading

D lessen the effect of heave on the reading

ANS C

4760 Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for
seating off distress flares and rockets?

A Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels

B At half-hour intervals

C At one hour intervals

D Immediately upon abandoning the vessel

ANS A

4761 A straight stream of water should be used to

extinguish___________________

A galley grease fires

B fuel oil fires

C burning bedding materials

D a fire in the paint locker

ANS C

4762 Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
A Longitudinal

B Transverse

C Vertical

D Centerline

ANS A

4763 Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be

done_______________

A without losing the rhythm of respiration

B only with the help of two other people

C by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes

D at ten minute intervals

ANS A

4764 Which of the listed types of fires should be extinguished with a straight
stream of water?

A Bilge

B Mattress

C Vertical

D Switchboard

ANS B

4765 When is it required for a dry chemical fire extinguisher to be recharged?

A After each use

B When the air temperature exceeds 32*C

C Every six months

D Every 12 months

ANS A

4766 You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your ship .If you close off
tank in the line of tanks being filled,the flow rate to the other open tanks on the
same line will_________________

A increase

B decrease

C stop

D stabilize

ANS A

4767 The term”segregated ballast” is defined in the Pollution Prevention

Regulations as ballast water introduced into a/an_______________

A tank that is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil systems

B fuel setting tank for segragration from lighter fluids

C oily water separator for segregration

D isolated tank for analysis because of its noxious properties

ANS A

4768 For a floating vessel ,the center of buoyancy and the metacenter are in the
line of action of the buoyant force__________________

A only when there is positive stability

B only when there is negative stability

C only when there is neutral stability

D at all times

ANS D

4769 Before CPR is started on the victim,you should______________

A establish an open always

B treat any bleeding wounds

C insure the victim is conscious

D make the victim comfortable

ANS A

4770 When entering a burning compartment and equipped with a fire hose and
an all purpose nozzle,you should first direct_________________

A a straight stream into the center of the space

B the high velocity fog into the center of the space

C the high velocity fog at the overhead to absorb heat

D the high velocity fog at the deck to cool it for entry

ANS C

4771 The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a floating vessel decrease
with the ___________

A surface area of the tank

B displacement volume

C draft of the MODU

D height of the tank above the keel

ANS B
 4772 A load line for a cargo ship is assigned by the______________

A P&I club

B Ministry of Surface Transport

C Corps of Engineers

D a recognized classification society approved by the Administration

ANS D

4775 Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel

A. Pitch
B. Surge
C. Sway
D. Roll
Ans: B
4776 according to pollution prevention regulations (MARPOL) if a cargo
Hose shows a small leak in its fiber you may transfer oil after.
A. The terminal foreman is notified.
B. The hose is replaced.
C. The hose leak is securely wrapped.
D. The drip pan is placed under the leak.
Ans: B
4777 When two people are administrating CPR to a victim , how manytime
Per minute should the chest be compressed?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 60
D. 80
Ans: C
4778 to effectively and safely combat a passage way fire.
A. Two hose teams should attack the fire from opposite direction
B. The fire should be attacked from above if possible.
C. Fire should be attacked form only one direction.
D. Water must not be used if the passage way is above the metacentric height.
Ans: C
4779 spaces protected by a fixed co2 system must be equipped with an
 Alarm which is to sound----------------
A. for the first 20 seconds co2 is being released into the space
B. for the least 20 seconds prior to release of co2
C. during the entire period that co2 is being released
D. if all doors and ventilation are not secured .
Ans: D
4780 what must be accurately assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been
damaged .
A. the integrity of the water type boundaries .
B. the capacity of the water sprinklers system.
C. The operation of machinery space blige level alarms.
D. All the above.
Ans : B

4781 if a leak in fueling hose coupling cannot be stopped by lightening

The coupling joint , you should
A. reduce the pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate
B. stop the fueling operation and correct the leak
C. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak in order to
confine it
D. notify the local port authority of a potential oil spill
Ans:B
4782 when using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft , the first collection should be ,
A. passed around so all can drink,
B. poured over board because of salt washed of the canopy,
C. saved to be used ,at later time,
D. used to boil food.
Ans: B

4783 Low velocity fog extinguishes a fire by

A. smothering and washing out
B. smothering and cooling
C. cooling and washing out
D. none of the above
Ans:B
4784 when small angle stability , when external force is exist the buoyant force
is assumed at vertically upwards to the center of buoyance and through
 A. center of gravity,
B. center of floatation
C. metacenter
D. metacentric height
Ans:C

4785 After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should
Be
A. walking around until he is back to normal
B. given several shots of whiskey
C. kept lying down and warm
D. allowed to do as he wishes
Ans:c

4786 the low velocity fog applicator is used in fire fighting to

A. apply large droplets of foam
B. cool and smother the fire
C. breakup burning emburs
D. extinguishing hard to reach electrical fires ,
Ans :B

4787 The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishes
Cylinder o prevent its over pressurization is called a
A. safety valve
B. relief valve
C. rupture disc
D. control head
Ans:C

4788 the jettisoning of topside weight from a floating vessel serves which of purposes listed
A. it returns the vessel to an even keel
B. it reduces free surface effect.
C. It lower the center of gravity .
D. It raises the center of gravity,
Ans: C
4789 In order for you to operate your vessel’s crude oil wash system, the
Cargo tanks to be washrd must be
A. opened to the atmosphere for ventilation
B. gas free
C. inerted
D. full of cargo
Ans: C

4790 oil population regulation (MARPOL) requires any transfer or discharged of oil
or oily mixtures to be recorded in
A. bridge log
B. masters log
C. engine room log
D. oil record book.
Ans :D
4791 where multiple fire pumps are installed , they may be used for other
Purposes provided that one pump is
A. on line and in operations at all times to the fire main
B. kept available for use on the fire man at all times
C. capable of being quickly connected to the fire main with a suitable pipe spool
D. rated at or above 125psi
Ans.B
4792 in order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim
A. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water
B. drain water from the lungs before ventilation
C. begin mouth to mouth ventilation
D. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting
Ans: C
4793 inspection of a Halon fire extinguisher involves checking the hose
Handle , nozzle ,and
A. easy sight glass
B. weighting of the extinguisher
C. the service technicians report
D. the last date it was charged
Ans: B
4794 which of the following is correct statement with respect to inserting an airway tube
 A. only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube
B. a size#2 airway is correct size for an adult
C. the airway tube will not damage the victim’s thorat
D. inserting the air way tube will prevent vomiting
Ans:A

4795 The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used with a fire
Hose to produce
A. high velocity fog
B. mechanical foam
C. low velocity fog
D. light water
Ans:B
4796 after using a portable halon fire extinguisher if should be
A. put back in service if more more than 50% of charge remains
B. repainted
C. hydrostaticaly tested before resuse
D. discared
Ans: D
4797
A floting vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward
Through the………….
A. center of gravity
b. centre of buoyancy
c. center of flotation
d. metecenter
Ans.A
4798 in a crude oil washing system ,according to regulation each cargo tank shall be fitted with a
sufficient number of a machine such that those areas unwashed by direct impingement shall not
execeed 10% for horizontal area
A. 5% for vertical area s
B. 10% for vertical areas
C. 15% for vertical areas
D. 20% for vertical areas
Ans:C
4799 To turn over a life raft that is floating upside down you should
Pull on the …………
A. canopy
B. manropes
C. seapainter
D. righting lines
Ans D
4800 which of the following conditions can contribute to accidents
A. Good housekeeping
B. Inspections
C. Unsafe conditions
D. Intelligent work habits
4801 Class b EPIRB transmit on frequency’s that are mentioned by………..
A. orbiting satellite in space
B, commercial radio stations
C. private,commercialand military aircraft
D. commercial fishing vessel
Ans.C
4802 which of the following procedures is the generally accepted method
of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is overich
explosive or too lean to support combustion
A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank
B. Send a gas sample ashore for library analysis
C. Enter the tank with a Teledyne oxygen analyser
D. Use the explosive
Ans: D
4803 The master or the captain who is in charge of cargo ship must record the date
Of each emergency lighting system power system the condition of each and performance
Of the equipment
A. on the certificate of inspection
B. on the muster list
C. in the operations manual
D. in the office log
Ans:D
4804 in the absence of external forces the center of gravity of a floating
Vessel is located directly above the
A. Metacenter
B. Amidships
C. Center of flotation
 D. Geometric center of displaced volume
Ans: D

4805 A vessel that is subjected to hogging…………..

A. has its main deck under compressive stress
B. has its main deck plating under tensile stress
C. has its bottom plate under tensile stress
D. has its bottom plating under ductile stress
Ans:B
4806 the sea painter of an inflatable liferaft Should be
A. Free running on deck
B. Faked out next to the case
C. Secured to a permanent object on the deck via a weak link
D. Stowed near the raft
Ans: C
4807
Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crudeoil washed, but
Not water rinsed , shall be regarded as
A. clean ballast
B. dirty blast
C. segregated ballast
D. crude oil
Ans: B
4808 at all angles of inclination the metacenter is located
A. Vertically above the center of buoyancy
B. Vertically above the center of gravity
C. At the intersection of the upright vertical center line and the line of action
Of buoyant force
D. Geometric center of the underwater volume
Ans: A
4809
According to MARPOL regulation , all ships are required to
Prepare , submit and maintain an
A. synthetic plastic discharge plan
B. oil discharge plan
C. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan
D. vapour recovery procedures plan
Ans: C
4810 a person has suffered a laceration of the arm . serve bleeding has been
Controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure .which of the following
Actions should be taken next?
A. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting
B. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing
C. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic
D. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood
Ans: B
4813 the term arrival ballast refers to _______?

a. brackish water ballast

b. dirty ballast

c. clean ballast

d. any form of sea water ballast

ans c

4814 the volume of vessel above the ewater line that can be made water tight is?

a. displacement volume

b. reserve bouyance

c. gross tonnage

d. net tonnage

ans b

4815 when fire pumps are used for purpose other than firefighting, each pipe
connection to the other(other than the branch line used for deck washing) must
have a
a. check valve installed in the line

b. shutoff valve near the manifold near the pumo

c. quick d/c union with in 10 feet of the pump

d. regulator set in the line at 8.8 kg/cm2

ans b

4816 bleeding from a wound may ordinarily be controlled by

a. applying pressure on the wound

b. heavy disinfectant application

c. pouring ice water directly

d. pinching the wound closed.

Ans a

4817 stability after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a cargo

vessel is called

a. intact stability

b. initial stability

c. immersion stability

d. damage stability

and d

4818 as per MARPOL , the ship board oil pollution emergency plan must
include_________?

a. all info provided in the oil record book.

b. an explaination and purpose of the plan

c. a one line schematic of the plan to be implimented

d. the operating instructions for any and all oily water separator installed aboard
the vessel

and b

4819 when compared to others water fog has

a. the greatest ability to form foam.

b. the greatest cooling ability

c. will completely remove toxic fumes from the air

d. will completely remove combustible vapors from air

and b

4820 the quality of initial stability is indicated by

a. GM

b. KM

d. maximum allowed KG

ans a

4821 an initial attempt to to extinguish a galley fire may be made by

using______?

a. water.

b. mechanical foam system

c. the range hood extinguishing system

d. fire dampers only

ansc
4822 which of the following is the method to release an inflatable life raft by
hand from an ocean going vessel?

a. connect the stainless steel linkto the vessel

b.pull the line (painter) from the container and make it fast to the cleat provided

c. open canopy relief valves

d. remove the raft from the container to permit complete inflation

and b

4823 the wooden plug fitted tightly on vent of a damaged tank may prevent the
tank from

A. filling completely

b. developing free spaces

c. developing free space moments

d. collapsing

ans a

4824 the anglr to which a floating vessel with a negative initial meta centric
height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of_______?

a. trim

b. yow

c. heel

d. loll

ans d

4825 on a cargo ship size I & II fire extinguishers are considered_____?

a. fixed systems
b. steam generated

c. hand portable units

d. semi portable units

ans c

4826 the upward force of displaced water is known as______

a. buoyancy

b. dead weight

c. draft

d. free board

ans a

4827 blood flowing from a cut artillery will appear_____

A. dark red and steady slow

B, bright red and a constant flow

c. dark red on spurts

d. bright res in spurts

ans c

4828 one of the precautions when fighting galley fire is__________

a. contamination of food

b. spreading of fire through machinery space

c. the loss of stability

d. the igniting of grease fire in the range hood ventilation system

ans d
4829 actuating the CO2 system should automatically shut down

a. fuel supply only

b. exhaust ventilation only

c. supply of exhaust ventilation

d. mechanical and natural ventilation

ans c

4830 the stamped full weight of a 45 kg CO2 cylinder is 142 kg. what is the total
minimum height of the cylinder before it must be recharged?

a. 128 kg

b. 133kg

c. 133kg

d.138 kg

ans d

4831 during counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated byon off
center load, the cargo ship suddenly takes the list or trim to the opposite side,
you should

a. continue counterflooding in same direction

b couter flood in opposite direction

c. immediately stop counter flood

d. deballast from the low side

ans

4832 if the alarm in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine room you
should_______
a. leave space immediatlly

b. start the fire pump

c. make certain that the CO2 starts flowing into the space

d. immidiatly assist the fixed system by discharging all portable units as well.

Ans a

4833 which represents height of the center buoyancy

a. BK

b. HB

c. CB

d. BM

ans b

4834 how often are fire hoses required to be tested?

a. ones a week

b. ones a month

c. ones a year.

c. ones in each drill

ans c

4835 what is the primary purpose of applying splint in the first aid?

a. control bleeding

b. reduce pain.

c. immobilize the fracture.

d. reset the bone

ans c

4836 a Crude Oil Wash system is considered as______

a. a water operated butterworth syste,

b. a mechanism that filters and purifies crude oil

c. a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning system

d. a clean up for pump room bilges

ans c

4837 a CO2 extinguisher has lost 10% of its charge it now must be

a. used at the earliest opportunity

b. hydrotested

c, recharged

d. weighed again in one month

ans c

4838 before releasing the CO2 in the machinery space the alarm for the fixed co2
system must sound for atleast

a. 20 secs

b. 40 secs

c. 60 secs

d. 30 secs

ans a

4839 a co2 fire extinguisher must be weighed

a. monthly
b. quarterly

c. semi annually

d. annually

ans d

4840 a compound fracture is a fracture in which

a. more than one bone is broken

b. one bome is broken in more than one place

c. causes internal bleeding

d. causes external bleeding at the sight of the fracture

ans d

4841 which of the following would be the most serious>

A. compound

b.greenstick

c. closed

d. crack

ans a

4842 which of the folloeing concerning chemical foam is true

a. formed as a result os reaction b/w dry powder and water

b. it is used on fires in main propultion electric motors

c. formed by rapid mixing of foam liquid, water and air

d. used in fighting only chemical fires,

ans a
4843 in positive stability GZ reps

a. Righting moment
b. Center of gravity
c. Righting arm
d. Metallic height

Ans c

4844 in the fixed CO2 system Pilot cylinders are used for

a. direct CO2 in the pilot house

b. activate individual groups of CO2 bottles in a pre determined time delay

sequence

c. activate the main bank all at ones

d. automatically activate the main bank if the abnormal heat rise is detected

ans c

4845 to keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning the ship they
must

a. be placed in the middle of the circle formed by other survivors

b. float on the water with arms extended for maximum area

c. remove the life jacket and hold on to the un injured survivor

d. ship sea water at interval of 15 mins

ans a

4846 if you have to abandon a ship and jump in water, your legs must be

a. spread apart as far as possible

b. held as tightly against your chest as possible

c. in a kneeling positon

d. extended straight back and crossed at the ankles

ans d

4847 when discharging the main bank of fixed CO2 into the major engine room
fire CO2 pressure is used to

a. discharge each bottle

b. sound a general alarm

c. secure the ventilation fan dampers

d. all of the above

ans a

4848 when should the emergency position indicating beckon must be activated
after abandoning the ship?

a. immediately

b. after an hour

c. only when another vessel In sight

d. only after sunset

ans a

4849 flooding of any compartment in the ship leading to loss in reserve

buoyancy will always

a. increase ship stability

Page 271

B. safe for men –not safe for fire

c. not safe for men – safe for fire
d. not safe for men –not safe for fire

ans: B

4963 The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8.0% by volume in air. If a
reading of 50% of the lower explosive limits is obtained.using the meter shown in
the illustration. Thevapor at the sample point is
A. 3.3% by volume
B. in the flammable range
C. too rich to burn
D. too laan to burn

Ans: D

4964: after life boat has reached the top of the davit hends, the davit arms begin
moving up the tracks until movements is stopped by the
a. hoist man
b. limit switch
c. brake handle
d. preventer bar

ans: B

4965 Which of the following procedures is NOT recommended which it is

necessary to swim through an oil fire?
A. wear as much as clothing as possible
B.enter the water feet first and legs together
c.swim iol the the same direction as the wind is blowing
D.cover your eyes with one hand when entering the water

Ans:C

4966: if ignited,which of the listed materials , would be a class “b”fire?

a. magnesium
b. paper
c. wood
d. diesel oil

ans: D

4967the function of the lifeboat davit switch is to

a.control the decent rate of the lifeboat
b.control the ascent rate of the lifeboat
c.cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position
d.cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers

Ans:C

4968: to determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse the rescuerer
should check for the pulse at the
a. carotine artery in the neck
b. femoral artery groin
c. brachian artery in the arm
d. radial artery in the wrist

ans: A

4969 Provided every effort is used to produce.as well as preserve body moisture
content by avoiding prepration.how long is it normally possible to survive
without stored quantity of water?
a.up to 3 days
b.8 to 15 days
c. 15 to 20 days
d.25 to 30 days

ans:B

4970: you will find a limit switch on a

a. life raft cradle
b. radial davit
c. sheath-screw davit
d. gravity davit
ans: D

4971 A class “D” fire would be considered as burning

a.wood
b.oil
c.electrical equipment
d.magnesium

Ans:D

4972: the flammable limits of kerosene is 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in air.if a tank
having contained kerosene is tested with the combustable gas indicator, shown in
the illustration ,and a reading of 50% is obtained ,this means
a. insuffient oxygen exists in the space to support life
b. atmosphere contains 50% kerosene vapours by volume in air
c. the sample is below the lower explosive limit
d. the sample contains approx. 3.0%kerosene vapour by volume

ans: C

4973 An unconscious person should NOT be

a.placed in a position with the head lower than the body
b.gives an inhalation stimulant
c.givesn somethings to drink
d. treated for injuries.

Ans: c

4974: why is it essential to introduce co2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system ,
into a large engine room , as quickly as possible?
a. the fire may warp the co2 piping
b. to keep the fire from spreading through the bulk heads
c. updraft from the fire tends to carry the co2 away
d. co2 takes the long time to disperse toall porioons of a space

ans: C
4975when a helicopeter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat,the other
individuals in the boat should
a.enter the water in case the person being from the sling
b.stand on the outsides of the boat to assist the person being lifted
c.remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
d.remain seated inside to provide boby weigth for stability

ans:D

4976: which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire damage,
associated with a class “c” fire?
a. susceptible to relflash
b. electrocution or shock
c. explosion
d. deep seated fire

ans: B

4977 the reading of a combustible gas indicates the percentages of the

a.concentration of the flammable gas in a compartment
b.lower explosives limits of a flammable gas concentration
c.upper explosives limits of a flammable gas concentration
d.concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartments

ans:B

4978: the fire main system should be flushed with water ,whenever possible to
a. help to destroy marine growth
b. identify loose pipe joints
c. prevent corrosion of valve stems
d. eliminate cracking of fire hose lining

ans: A

4979 one of the disadvantange of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a fire in an

enclosed space is
a.the “snow” which is sometime discharged along with gas is toxic
b.prolonged exposure to high concentration of CO2 gas causes soffacations
c.rapid dissipation of the co2 vapour
d.the co2 gas is lighter than air and a large amount is requiredto extinguish a fire
near the deck.

Ans:b

4980: inflatable liferafts are provided with

a. a portable radio
b. an oil lantern
c. canned milk
d. a towing bridle

ans: D

4981the good approach to the personnel safty is to assume that all tanksang
pumprooms are potentially dangerous. You should immideatly an area whenever
A.you have irratations in eyes,nose ,throat
b.you smell an unusual odour
c.you experience an abnormal bodily sensation
d.any of the condition above occur

ans:D

4982: in reviving person has been overcome by gas fumes,which of the following
treatments wouldyou avoid using?
a. giving stimulants
b. prompt removal of patients from the suffocating atmosphere
c. detremine the need for , and administer CPR if appropriate
d. keeping him warm and comfortable

ans: A

4983when testing the atmosphere of the compartment with a combustable gas

indicator , the operator must remember that
a.most petroleum vapours are lighter than air and accumulate the deck
latitudinals
b.the indicator garantes a safe atmosphere for a maximum of two hours
c.the meters scale indicates only the upper explosive range
d.the indicator tests only the atmosphere at the suction tube

ans:a

4984: lower level fire mainsstations in the engine room should undergo regular
routine maintanence including
a. operating the self cleaning strainers once a day
b. flushing out the hydrants with full fire main pressure
c. repacking valve sterns at three month intervals
d. a weekly replacements of fire hose fittings
ans: B

4985 when any fire has been extinguished with carbon dioxide there is always the
dangers of the
a. Fire being reignited by residual damage
b. Machinery suffering thermal shock damage
c. Dry ice crystal clogging the machinery
d. Atmosphere containing a dangerous charge of static electricity

Ans:A

4986: a safely feature providing on all inflatable liferafts is

a. overhead safety straps
b. built in seats
c. internal releasing hooks
d. the use of water stabilizing pockets

ans: D

4987 when operating gravity davits

a. The gripes should be released after the boats is moving
b. The davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final
stowed position
c. The boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around crucuiform
bits
 d. The tricking pendent should tripped prior to releasing the gripes

Ans:B

4988: which of the following can result in an oxygen deficiencyin a closed space?
a. rusting
b. cargo residue
c. fuel oil residue
d. all of the above

ans: D

4989 combustable gas indicator are used to tndicate the flammable gases or
vapours in atmospheres. As a safty feature they are equipped with
a. An audiable signaling devices
b. An inflatable bag
c. A pressure reliveing devices
d. Flame arrest

Ans:D

4990: which of the following conditions would be true if a serious leak developed
in the main line of a horizontal, looped, fire main system?
a. it would not be possible to provide water beyond the point where the break
occurred
b. the ruptured section could be isolated allowing water to be delivered to all
other parts of the system
c. the capability of the system would be greatly reduced to the drop in line
pressure butstill remain operational through the use of the alternate loop
d. full fire main pressure could be maintained but only on one sideof the vessel
through the use of either the fore or aft isolation valve

ans: B

4991 if you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after
abandoning your vessel ,it will
a. Weigh you down
 b. Preserve body heat
c. Enduce your body heat
d. Make it more difficult to breath

Ans:B

4992: the operating cord on a inflatable liferaft also serves as a

a. lifeline
b. painter
c. progue
d. marker

ans: B

4993 the purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads is to
a. Keep the movement of the davits at the same speed
b. Keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed positon
c. Prevent the vibration during lowering the boat

4994: a tank has been sealed an unventilated for a long period of time which of
the following conditions does this indicate?
a. the tank is safe to enter
b. the tank is especially dangerous to enter
c. carbon monoxide is present

D. support the manropes

Ans: D

4995 The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the
water is the use of------------

A. Straw
B. Booms
C. Skimmers
D. Chemical dispersants
Ans :B

D. Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized

Ans: B

4996 Which of the following signals is used to report for boat stations or boat
drills?

A. More than six short blasts followed one long blast of the whistle

B. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds

C. One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle

D. Three short blasts of the whistle

Ans: A

4997 Combustible gas indicator detect flammable gases or vapors present in

the atmosphere by an intricate system which includes ---------------

A. Burning vapors
B. Metering the vapor
C. Measuring the vapor volume
D. Weighing the vapor

Ans: A

4998 How may a cargo tank atmosphere be tested for explosive gases?

A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from
the tank

B. Sent a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis

C. Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer

D. Use an explosimeter
Ans: D

4999 Before you initiate the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish a
serious fire you would -------

A. Start the emergency dieselrning

B.
C. Stop the main engine
D. Evacuate all engine room personnel
E. Turn of electrical power

Ans: C

5000 After having thrown the liferait and stowage container into the water the
liferaft is inflated by-----------

A. pulling on the painter line

B. forcing open the container which the CO2

C. hitting the hydrostatic release

D. using the hand pump provided

Ans: A

5001 which of the following statements concerning immersion suit s is

correct?

A. All models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in the

water
B. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection
against hypothermia for weeks.
C. The suit will still serviceable after a brief (2-6 seconds) exposure to flame
and burning
 D. The wearer of the suit is no way restricted in body movement and the
sum may be donned well in advance of abandoning ship

Ans :C

5002 Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given
large quantities of warm,soapy water or warm salt water to ----------------------

A. induce vomiting

B. absorb the poison from the blood

C. neutralize the poison in the blood

D. increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison

Ans: A

5003 in cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical agents would-------------

A. Absorb the oil for easy removal

B. Remove the oil from the water
C. Disperse or dissolve the oil in the water
D. Not affected the oil

Ans: C

5004 If fuel is burned from only the starboard tanks, the ship will--------------------

A. go down by the head

B. list to starboard

C. trim by the stern

D. list of port

Ans: A
5005 A raft should be manually released from its cradle by--------------------

A . cutting the straps that enclose the container

B. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container

C. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap

D. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release

Ans: D

5006 A fire is a pile of canvas would be classified as a-------------------

A. class A

B. class B

C. classC

D. classD

Ans: A

5007 Which of the following best defines First Aid?

A. Medical treatment of internal injuries

B. Setting of broken bones and transport of victim
C. Emergency treatment of the injury at the scene
D. Dosage of medications and application of bandages

Ans: C

5008 Which of the following terms is the minimum temperature at which a

liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet(MSDS),gives off sufficient vapour
concentration to ignite in the presence of an ignition source?

A. explosion point
 B. flash point

C. fire point

D. danger point

Ans: B

5009 While at your lifeboat station, a signal consisting of two short blasts of the
ship’s whistle is sounded.This indicates -------------

A. Abandon ship
B. Commence lowering boats
C. Stop lowering boats
D. Secure from boat stations

Ans: C

5010 which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is FALSE?

A. They should be worn while working on deck if the possibly exists

being washed overboard.

B. The suit is received from the manufacturer in a bag intended to

be used for storage of the suit on board ship.

C. During the annual inspection and maintenance ,the zipper should

be lubricated with bees wax or paraffin.

D. A small leak of water in to the suit will destroy the protective

qualities against hypothermia.

Ans: D
5199 if the over flow tank high-level alaram sounds whilethe fuel oil tank are
being topped off, the engineer should__________

A close the static leg filling valve

B close the over flow tank filling valve

C reduce the fuel oil pumping rate

D stop the fuel oil pumping operation

Ans D

5200 To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling hoses while you are topping
off tanks,the_________

A loading rate should be decreased

B oiler should sound all tanks continously

C hoses should be looped

D tank vent valves should be clear

ANS A

5201 A cylinder used for storing co2 in a fixed fire fighting system, must be
hydrostatically retested and restamped every ____________

A once in every calender year

B 5 years
C 8 years

D 12 years

ANS D

5202 which of the following statement is correct concerning fixed carbondioxide

fire extinguishing systems ?

A a separate supply of carbondioxide must be provided for each space protected

B the piping shall be used for no other purpose exceed that it may be in
corporated with the fire detecting system

C distribution piping within the space shall be proper oned from the supply line
t0 give the proper throttling to the outlet

D all the above

ANS B

5203 The componenet in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid
and sulphur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas , is
called the ____________________

A fillter

B Cooler

C Scrubber

D Purifier

Ans C

5204 the fire extinguishing action of co2 comes mostly from _________
A breaking the fire chemical chain reaction

B smothering

C cooling
D isolating the heat from the fuel

Ans b

5205 the lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may be
prevented by ___________-

A welding brackets across both ends of the crack

B chipping out and slots welding the entire crack

C drilling a hole at each end of the crack

D cutting a square knotch at each end of the crack

Ans c

5206 the high concentration of hyrogen sulphide gas is most likely to be found in
which of the locations listed ?

A fire room bilges where hydrazine has accumalted

B sea weage compatment bilges where leaked seaweage has accumulated

C engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have accumulated

D emergency battery storage compartment where discharged gases have

accumulated

Ans b

5207 the blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker,will be

automatically secured if ______________

A normal water supply at the water seal is lost

B the temprature of the inert gas beign delivered to the cargo tanks is more than
65c

C the cooling water supply to the scrubber is lost

D all of the above

Ans d

5208 when pumping sour cruds which gas should be tested for prior to entering
the cargo pump room to reapair a leaking pump?

A benzene

B carbon monooxide

C hydrogensulphide

D tetraethyl lead

Ans c

5209 after allowing for pressure losses,the pressure-volume capacity of an

inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure,in any cargo tank,with
a minimum of ________________

A 50 ml of water

B 100 ml of water

C 150 ml of water

D 200 ml of water

Ans b

5210 the pollution prevention regulations prohibing draining

__________________

A fuel oil burners into buckets

B oil transfer hoses into buckets

C fuel oil strainers into the ships bilges

D lube oil strainers into the fixed drip pans

Ans c

5211 flame screens used on ullage openings prevent flames from entering a tank
by ___________

A reducing the cross sectional area of the opening

B restricting the flow of gases through the opening sea

C creating turbulence in the exiting gas stream

D dissipating heat from the flame into the sorrounding metal

Ans d

5212 following a grounding you can best determine that a slack fuel oil tankhas
been holded by ___________________________

A sounding the tank

B waiting for the vessel to list

C examining tank boundaries

D checking fuel oil strainers

Ans a

5213 when cargo oil tanks are cleaned by crude oil washing while in
port____________________

A provision should be made for a shore side holding tank or an onboard slop tank

B water should be allowed to settle before discharge overboard

C fitters should be installed in bilge strainers to observe oil befofe discharge

overboard

D the dock superviser need not be notified before discharging oily mixtures
overboard
Ans a

5214 at the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel ,you must
FIRST_______________

A locate the fire

B determine which type of fire is burning

C sound the alaram

D fight the fire

Ans c

5215 a fire mans outfit carried on board cargo vessels ,must have a ___________

A canister-type gas mask

B fresh air breathing apparatus

C self contained breathing apparatus

D combustible gas indicator

Ans c

5216 while on watch in the engine room you hear a continous sounding of the
genral alaram.which of the following actions should you take first?

A canister-type gas mask

B fresh-air breathing apparatus

C self-contained breathing apparatus

D combustible gas indicator

Ans C
5217 pollution prevention regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or
from a vessel unless ______________________

A hoses are supported so that couplings have no strain on them

B a sample has been taken from the oil being received

C an oil containment boom is available for immediate use

D each part of the transfer system is blown through with air

ANS: A

5218 when the general alarm is sounded continuosly, the engine room personnel
should _______________________________

A proceed to their man over board stations

B start the fire pump

C put on life jacket and go to their abandon ship stations

D secure the propulsion diesel engines and evacute the engine room

ANS: B

5219 as soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal you should ensure that
__________________________

A the ring buoys are thrown overboard

B the engines are stopped

C the fire pumps are started

D everyone is suited in an approved life preserver

ANS:C
5220 when fuel tanks are being topped off,the person incharge of bunkering is
directly responsible for the ________________

A loading rate

B vessel draft readings

C quality of fuel received

D temprature of fuel received

ANS :A

5221 the term oil as defined in the pollution prevention regulations

means_______________________

A petroleum in any form

B animal or vegetable based oil

C noxious liquid substances designated under ANNEX II of MARPOL 73/78

D all of the above

ANS A

5222each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas
or mixture of gases that has an oxygen content by volume of
________________________

A 5% or less

B 10% or less

C 15% or less

D 20% or less

ANS A
5223 each inert gas system must be equipped with the following instruments :
oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder,
and temperature indicator . the point of measurement for these instruments
must be located _________________

A after the regulating valve

B down stream of the blowers

C scrubber outlet

D up stream of the liquid filled breaker

ANS B

5224 to determine that a compartment that contains suffient oxygen to sustain

life,you should use a/an ________________________

A explosi meter

B oxygen indicator

C fresh air indicator

D all of the above

ANS B

5225 each ship having an inert gas must have a portable instruments to measure
concentrations of hydro carbon vapour in inert atmospheres and also to measure
_______________________

A nitrogen

B oxygen

C carbon-di-oxide

D water vapour

ANS B
5226 the upper limit of sulphurdioxide permited to be maintained in the inert gas
should not exceed______________

ANS D

5227 if a fuel tank levels are found to have incresed after a grounding, you should
suspect_______________

A a damaged pneumecator line

B a puncture, crack,or hole in the skin of the vessel

C improper record keeping of fuel transfer activities

D contamination of the contaminated steam supply system

ANS B

5228 regulations require geers, couplings, fly wheels, and all machinery capable
of injuring perrsonnel shall be____________________

A protected with adequate covers or guards

B indentified by yellow and black warning signs

C conspicuously indefied as to their particular hazard

D located vwhere they may not be easily contacted

ANS A

5229 the explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapours is specified as a

percentage of_________________
A flammable vapour by volume in air

B oxygen present to support combustion

C the temperature of the flash point

D the lower limit of explosibility of the mixture

Ans A

5230 what operational limitation should the user of a self-contained breathing

apparatus be concerned with using a device?

A the weight of the unit changes the users center of gravity

B the lens of the face piece reduces the pheripheral vision

C the attached lifeline limits the users mobility

D all of the above are correct

Ans D

5027. A combustible gas indicator is used to determine___________________

A. if there is sufficient oxygen to support life

B. the toxicity of flammable gases or vapors

C. the amount of CO2 present in flue gas

D. the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air

Ans. D
5028. Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use
only?

A. handheld red flare

B. self contained rocket propelled parachute red flare

C. orange smoke signal

D. red aerial pyrotechnic flare

Ans. C

5029. Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the hose and
you have ordered the pumping stopped. Before resuming pumping you
should___________________

A. notify terminal superintendent

B. place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers

C. repair the hose with a patch

D. replace the hose

Ans. D

5030. What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic release?

A. to release raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks

B. to inflate the raft automatically

C. to test rafts hydrostatically

D. None of the above

Ans. C
5031. According to regulation, grinders or comminutors used for the discharge of
garbage between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the nearest land must be
___________________

A. provided with flush back capabilities insuring the passage of all ground particles
through a final control element

B. provided on all vessels that may operate on the great lakes and shall discharge
under the highest load line of the vessels

C. capable of reducing the size of garbage so that it will pass through a screen
with openings no greater than 25millimeters

D. capable of processing all garbage generated onboard the vessel including all
deck and engine department refuse

Ans. C

5032. Material listed on a material Safety Data Sheet referring to more than one
chemical is called a__________________

A. mixture

B. combination

C. multi-material

D. toxin

Ans. A

5033. While loading bulk oil, you notice on the water rear the barge, which of the
following actions should you carry out first?

A. Search the vessels for leaks

B. notify terminal superintendent

C. stop loading
D. notify the port authorities

Ans. C

5034. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked
with an oxygen indicator and a/an_______________

A. orsat apparatus

B. flame safety lamp

C. Halide torch

D. combustible gas indicator.

Ans. D

5035. When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to

_______________

A. give patient a laxative to relieve pain

B. give patient morphine sulphate to relieve pain

C. evacuate patient to a hospital

D. give patient aspirin with a glass of water

Ans. C

5036. The upper explosive limit of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is
defined as_______________

A. that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to

produce an explosion

B. that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn

C. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an

explosion
D. the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion

Ans. C

5037. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the
following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?

A. the ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links

B. The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent
asphyxiation of the crew

C. A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high
volume manual pump

D. A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the
survivors and the diesel engine

Ans. D

5038. Victual waste is______________

A. the final discharge of sewage treatment plans

B. any garbage that comes from food provisions

C. the resultant sludge that is collected after waterwashing a boiler

D. the final waste product of a manufacturing process

Ans. B

5039. Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with____________________

A. tanks for the storage of drinking water

B. ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing

C. buoyant bars and paddles

D. auxiliary mechanical propulsion

Ans. C

5040. According to regulations, Which of the following statements is accurate

concerning the discharge of garbage?

A. the discharge of plastic or garbage mixed with plastic into any waters is
permitted

B. the discharge of dunnage , living and packing materials that do not float is
prohibited within 25 nautical miles of the nearest island.

C. the discharge of all garbage is prohibited in the navigable inland waters and in
all other waters within three nautical miles of the nearest island

D. All of the above are correct

Ans. C

5041. Which of the following devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from
being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 35 meter deep?

A. The hydrostatic release

B. A shear pin

C. A rottmer release

D. removing the oxygen

Ans. D

5042. If you detect oil in the water around your vessel while discharging fuel, the
first thing to do is_____________

A. try to find out where the oil is coming from

B. call the Master

C. have the pump man check the discharge piping

D. shutdown operations
Ans. D

5043. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire

by____________________

A. removing the fuel

B. removing the heat

C. interrupting the chain reaction

D. removing the oxygen

Ans. A

5044. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be

_______________________

A. placed in a sitting position with the head lowered to the knees

B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously

C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15minutes of rest

D. directed to move to a cool space unassisted

Ans. D

5045. When the height of the metacentre is less than the height of the centre of
gravity, a vessel has what type what type of stability?

A. stable

B. neutral

C. Negative

D. positive

Ans. C
5046. If the metacentric height is small, a floating ship
will________________________

A. be tender

B. have a quick and rapid motion

C. be still

D. yaw

Ans.A

5047. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard
during fuel transfer operations, which of the following actions should be taken
FIRST?

A. close the valves at the transfer manifold

B. notify the person in charge of the shore facility

C. shut down the transfer operation

D. sound the fire alarm

Ans. C

5048. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be

_______________________

A. given a mild seawater solution to drink to replace salt and fluids

B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously

C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15minutes of rest

D. moved to a cool room and told to lie down

Ans. D

5049. The symptoms of a fractured back are __________________

A. leg cramps in the muscles

B. pain and uncontrollable jerking of the legs and arms

C. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement

D. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the
injury.

Ans. D

5050. To fight a large class A fire contained in a closed compartment, the

nozzleman should open a door enough to insert the hose nozzle and
initially_______________

A. sweep a straight stream around the compartment

B. hold the nozzle steady while applying a straight stream in the area where he
suspects the source of the fire to be

C. sweep a fog stream around the compartment

D. hold the nozzle steady and direct a fog stream in the area where he suspects
the fire

Ans. C

5051. Which statement regarding garbage disposal is correct?

A. records for ground garbage disposal are not required when disposal into the
sea occurs more than 25 miles offshore

B. discharging or transfer of garbage while in port to a shore facility must be

recorded.

C. maintaining records for the incineration of garbage aboard ship is not required

D. the recording of garbage disposal should include the approximate weight.

Ans. B
5052. When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas
_______________

A. the Port State control must be notified for each occurrence

B. records must be provided and maintained for two years

C. an entry into the official log book must be made

D. no record is required if dumping is carried out more than25 miles offshore and
there is no included plastic material

Ans. B

5053. How much warning must be provided by the CO2 warning alarm before CO2
is discharged into a space?

A. 5 seconds

B.10 seconds

C. 15 seconds

D. 20 Seconds

Ans. D

5054.CO2 extinguishes a fire by ________________

A. a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire

B. smothering

C. cooling

D. isolating the heat from the fuel

Ans. B

5055. You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking
the________________
A. vessels logbook

B. vessels documentation

C. muster list

D. Certificate of inspection

Ans. C

5056. The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft

operate______________

A. by turning the globe clockwisestances

B. by a switch at each light

C. by a light sensor

D. automatically when the raft is inflated

Ans. D

5057. When administering first aid you should avoid ____________________---

A. any conversation with the patient

B. instructing bystanders

C. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainity

D. touching the patient

Ans. C

5058. The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning mattress fire is the use
of_________________

A. carbon dioxide

B. water in a solid stream

C. foam

D. dry chemicals

Ans. B

5059. Normal mouth temperature is____________________

A. 96.4’F

B. 97.5’F

C.98.6’F

D.99.7’F

Ans. C

5060. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is best suited for use on a
large class B fire occurring on the open deck of a vessel?

A. CO2

B. Aqueous film forming foam

C. dry chemical

D. steam smothering system

Ans. B

5011 To launch a liferaft by hand, you should--------------

A. cut the casing bands throw the liferaft over the side and it will then inflate

B. detach the operating cord, throw the raft over the side and it will then inflate

C. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the operating cord

D. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord
Ans: D

5012 A fire involving trash and paper waste would be classified as a-------------

A. classA

B. classB

C. classC

D. classD

Ans: A

5013 A liquid as listed on Material Safety Data Sheet(MSDS)having a flash

point at above 100F is called a/an----------------

A. explosive liquid

B. combustible liquid

C. flammable liquid

D. viscous liquid

Ans: B

5014 If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown on a

tank vessel,it must stop the flow of oil through-------------------

A. the main deck manifold

B. the facility

C. the pump

D. a mean that is not dependant on electrical power

Ans C
5015 When should distress flares and rockets be used?

A. only when there is a chance of them being sighted by rescue vessels

B. they should be set off at half-hour intervals

C. they should be set off at one-hour intervals

D. immediately upon abandoning the vessel

Ans: A

5016 Physical data on a safety data sheet(MSDS) which describes chemicals that
produce health effects requiring medical attention where damage may be
permanent but is neither life threatening nor seriously disabling, is called------------
----

A. moderate exposure level

B. high toxicity

C. high exposure level

D. moderate toxicity

Ans: D

5017 Burning wood is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire?

A. class A

B. class B

C. class C

D. class D

Ans:A
5018 A specific document identities a chemical,listing its physical
properties,health hazards,required controls, firefighting procedures,clean up
methods,waste disposal and the safe handling and storage requirements. This
document is a----------------

A. hazardous chemical information sheet

B. physical/chemical characteristics documents

C. material safety data sheet

D. hazardous chemical loading document

Ans: C

5019 epilespsy is a chronic nervous disorder charecterised by

________________

A. severe nausea and cramps

B. Muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness

C. sudden thirst and craving for candy

D. severe agitation and desire to get out of close spaces

Ans B

5020 Which of the following statements describes the correct method to use
when applying CO2 from a portable fire extinguisher?

A. bounce the CO2 off the bulkhead

B. apply CO2 to the base of the flames in a sweeping motion

C. Apply the CO2 to the center of the flames with a beating motion
D. Direct the CO2 in as near a vertical upward direction as possible

Ans: B

5021 when using a handheld smoke signal in a life boat ,you should
______________

A. Activate the signal on the downwind side

B. activate the signal on the upwind side

C. activate the signal inside the boat

D. activate the signal at the stern

Ans: A

5022 A chemical material as listed on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) that
supplies oxygen required to start or support fire is called a/an…………..

A. irritant

B. polymerization hazard

C. oxidizer

D. toxin

Ans: C

5023 As a vessel sinks to a depth of 5 meters, the hydrostatic trip releases the life
craft container from its cradle by _________________

A. breaking the weak link

B. releasing the tie-down strap

C. pulling the operating cord

D. releasing the co2 canister

Ans: B

5024 which of the statements listed is accurate concerning fire involving

carbon tetrachloride?

A. it will explode if exposed to a flame

B. phosegene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal

C. it will burn rapidly once ignited

D. you cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon
tetrachloride

Ans: B

5025 prior to the lifeboat,the most important item to check is the ____________

A. oars

B. sail

C. boat plug

D. life preservers

Ans:

5026 While providing assistance to victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most

important to………………….

A. move a patient to a comfortable bed

B. get professional medical advice for further medical care

C. keep the patient awake and make him walk if necessary to keep him awake
D. Remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed

Ans: a

patient awake and make him walk if necessary to keep him awake

D. Remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed

Ans:

5027. A combustible gas indicator is used to determine___________________

A. if there is sufficient oxygen to support life

B. the toxicity of flammable gases or vapors

C. the amount of CO2 present in flue gas

D. the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air

Ans. D

5028. Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use
only?

A. handheld red flare

B. self contained rocket propelled parachute red flare

C. orange smoke signal

D. red aerial pyrotechnic flare

Ans. C

5029. Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the hose and
you have ordered the pumping stopped. Before resuming pumping you
should___________________

A. notify terminal superintendent

B. place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers
C. repair the hose with a patch

D. replace the hose

Ans. D

5030. What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic release?

A. to release raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks

B. to inflate the raft automatically

C. to test rafts hydrostatically

D. None of the above

Ans. C

5031. According to regulation, grinders or comminutors used for the discharge of

garbage between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the nearest land must be
___________________

A. provided with flush back capabilities insuring the passage of all ground particles
through a final control element

B. provided on all vessels that may operate on the great lakes and shall discharge
under the highest load line of the vessels

C. capable of reducing the size of garbage so that it will pass through a screen
with openings no greater than 25millimeters

D. capable of processing all garbage generated onboard the vessel including all
deck and engine department refuse

Ans. C

5032. Material listed on a material Safety Data Sheet referring to more than one
chemical is called a__________________

A. mixture
B. combination

C. multi-material

D. toxin

Ans. A

5033. While loading bulk oil, you notice on the water rear the barge, which of the
following actions should you carry out first?

A. Search the vessels for leaks

B. notify terminal superintendent

C. stop loading

D. notify the port authorities

Ans. C

5034. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked
with an oxygen indicator and a/an_______________

A. orsat apparatus

B. flame safety lamp

C. Halide torch

D. combustible gas indicator.

Ans. D

5035. When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to

_______________

A. give patient a laxative to relieve pain

B. give patient morphine sulphate to relieve pain

C. evacuate patient to a hospital

D. give patient aspirin with a glass of water

Ans. C

5036. The upper explosive limit of a mixture of flammable vapors and air is
defined as_______________

A. that concentration above which there is just enough flammable vapor to

produce an explosion

B. that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn

C. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to create an

explosion

D. the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support combustion

Ans. C

5037. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the
following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in flames?

A. the ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links

B. The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent
asphyxiation of the crew

C. A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high
volume manual pump

D. A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the
survivors and the diesel engine

Ans. D

5038. Victual waste is______________

A. the final discharge of sewage treatment plans

B. any garbage that comes from food provisions

C. the resultant sludge that is collected after waterwashing a boiler

D. the final waste product of a manufacturing process

Ans. B

5039. Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with____________________

A. tanks for the storage of drinking water

B. ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing

C. buoyant bars and paddles

D. auxiliary mechanical propulsion

Ans. C

5040. According to regulations, Which of the following statements is accurate

concerning the discharge of garbage?

A. the discharge of plastic or garbage mixed with plastic into any waters is
permitted

B. the discharge of dunnage , living and packing materials that do not float is
prohibited within 25 nautical miles of the nearest island.

C. the discharge of all garbage is prohibited in the navigable inland waters and in
all other waters within three nautical miles of the nearest island

D. All of the above are correct

Ans. C

5041. Which of the following devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from
being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 35 meter deep?

A. The hydrostatic release

B. A shear pin
C. A rottmer release

D. removing the oxygen

Ans. D

5042. If you detect oil in the water around your vessel while discharging fuel, the
first thing to do is_____________

A. try to find out where the oil is coming from

B. call the Master

C. have the pump man check the discharge piping

D. shutdown operations

Ans. D

5043. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire

by____________________

A. removing the fuel

B. removing the heat

C. interrupting the chain reaction

D. removing the oxygen

Ans. A

5044. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be

_______________________

A. placed in a sitting position with the head lowered to the knees

B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously

C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15minutes of rest

D. directed to move to a cool space unassisted

Ans. D

5045. When the height of the metacentre is less than the height of the centre of
gravity, a vessel has what type what type of stability?

A. stable

B. neutral

C. Negative

D. positive

Ans. C

5046. If the metacentric height is small, a floating ship

will________________________

A. be tender

B. have a quick and rapid motion

C. be still

D. yaw

Ans.A

5047. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard
during fuel transfer operations, which of the following actions should be taken
FIRST?

A. close the valves at the transfer manifold

B. notify the person in charge of the shore facility

C. shut down the transfer operation

D. sound the fire alarm

Ans. C
5048. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be
_______________________

A. given a mild seawater solution to drink to replace salt and fluids

B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously

C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15minutes of rest

D. moved to a cool room and told to lie down

Ans. D

5049. The symptoms of a fractured back are __________________

A. leg cramps in the muscles

B. pain and uncontrollable jerking of the legs and arms

C. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement

D. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the
injury.

Ans. D

5050. To fight a large class A fire contained in a closed compartment, the

nozzleman should open a door enough to insert the hose nozzle and
initially_______________

A. sweep a straight stream around the compartment

B. hold the nozzle steady while applying a straight stream in the area where he
suspects the source of the fire to be

C. sweep a fog stream around the compartment

D. hold the nozzle steady and direct a fog stream in the area where he suspects
the fire

Ans. C
5051. Which statement regarding garbage disposal is correct?

A. records for ground garbage disposal are not required when disposal into the
sea occurs more than 25 miles offshore

B. discharging or transfer of garbage while in port to a shore facility must be

recorded.

C. maintaining records for the incineration of garbage aboard ship is not required

D. the recording of garbage disposal should include the approximate weight.

Ans. B

5052. When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas
_______________

A. the Port State control must be notified for each occurrence

B. records must be provided and maintained for two years

C. an entry into the official log book must be made

D. no record is required if dumping is carried out more than25 miles offshore and
there is no included plastic material

Ans. B

5053. How much warning must be provided by the CO2 warning alarm before CO2
is discharged into a space?

A. 5 seconds

B.10 seconds

C. 15 seconds

D. 20 Seconds

Ans. D
5054.CO2 extinguishes a fire by ________________

A. a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire

B. smothering

C. cooling

D. isolating the heat from the fuel

Ans. B

5055. You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking
the________________

A. vessels logbook

B. vessels documentation

C. muster list

D. Certificate of inspection

Ans. C

5056. The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft

operate______________

A. by turning the globe clockwisestances

B. by a switch at each light

C. by a light sensor

D. automatically when the raft is inflated

Ans. D

5057. When administering first aid you should avoid ____________________---

A. any conversation with the patient

B. instructing bystanders

C. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainity

D. touching the patient

Ans. C

5058. The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning mattress fire is the use
of_________________

A. carbon dioxide

B. water in a solid stream

C. foam

D. dry chemicals

Ans. B

5059. Normal mouth temperature is____________________

A. 96.4’F

B. 97.5’F

C.98.6’F

D.99.7’F

Ans. C

5060. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is best suited for use on a
large class B fire occurring on the open deck of a vessel?

A. CO2

B. Aqueous film forming foam

C. dry chemical

D. steam smothering system

Ans. B

5095 you are along and administering CPR to an victim .how many chest
compression and how many inflations should your adminster in each sequence
?

A. 5compressions then 1 inflation

B. 15 compression then 2 inflation
C. 20 compression then 3 inflation
D. 3o compression then 4 inflation
Ans ; B

5096 Which of the following procedure reduces the possibility of an interior

ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading ?

A.having a portable co2 ready at each duct opening

B.keeping the duct interior clean
C. Having the fire hose charged at each duct opening
D.keeping the duct exterior clean
Ans : E

5097 which of the following statements is true concering Bunker ‘’C’’ vapours?

A. They cannot be ignited by a spark unless the vapours are in a confined

space
B. They are nontoxic in all concentrations
C. They can not be ignited by spark unless vapours are at their autoignition
temperature
D. They are heavier than air
Ans :d
5098 You have just aboned ship and boared a liferaft. After the raft is
completely inflated you hear a whisting noise coming from a safetly value .
You should ………………………….

A . not become alarmed unless it continued for a long period of time

B. plug the safely value

c.unscrew the deflation plugs

D. remove the safely valule and replace it with low velocity

Ans ; a

5099 The lifeline which is part of a fireman’s outfit must be ……………………

A. Made of steel or bronze wire rope

B. Corrosion resistant
C. Not less than 16mtrs in length
D. All the above
Ans ; d

5100 A hand portable co2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only
……………….

A. If applied promptly
B. If applied in connection with foam
C. To prevent rekindinly
D. If attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed

Ans ; A

5101 You are at sea in an inflatable lifeart in high latitude ,the greatest danger
is ………………………

A. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperature

B. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
C. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
D. Starvation
Ans :c
5102 You have abanded ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be
used during a prolonged period in a raft ?

A. wet clothes during the day to decrease perpiration

B. get plenty of rest
C. keep the entrance cortins open
D. all the above

5103 which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled
under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100feet (30.48m) deep?

A. The hydrostatic release

B. A sheare pin
C. A roftmer release
D. A weak ink in the panter
Ans : d

5104 A crewmember has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding
excessively .what can be done as sn alternating to sturing to close the wound ?

A. Apply a compression bandage

B. Use temporary stitches
C. Wrap a tight bandage around the world
D. Apply butterfly strips ,then a sterile dressing
Ans :d

5105 when approaching a fire from windward .you should shield firefighters from
the fire by asing ………………….

A. Low –verlocity fog

B. High –velocity fog
C. A straight stream of water
D. Foam spray
Ans:a

5106 The best method of extinguisher a class aA fire is to ………………..

A. Remove oxygen from the areas

B. Smoother fire with foam
C. Smoother fire with co2
D. Cool fuel below ignition temperature

Ans: d

5107 which of the listed fire extinguished agent combination is the best for
simultaneous use on a large oil fsire ?

A. Solid stream of water in conjuction with co2

B. Water fog used in conjuction with foam
C. Co2 applied in conjuction with foam
D. Co2 applied in conjjuction with dry chemical
Ans:B

5108 The best method of extinguisheing a class A fire is to ………………….

A. Approximetly 1% for each 13̊˚̊ c(25̊˚̊ f)temperature rise

B. Calculated in british thermal units
C. Measured by weight
D. Also called absolute viscosity
Ans: A

5109 on a tanker ,the most likely location for a liquid carge fire to occur would be
…………………….

A. In the midships house

B. At the main duck manifold
C. At the vent header
D. In the pumproom
Ans:D

5110 if you see an individual fail overboard ,you should ………………..

A. Throw them a life ring

B. Hail “man overboard “
C. Pass the word to the bridge
D. All the above
Ans;d
5111 When abanding ship in an emergency situation ,you should ………………

A. Jump off feet from the windward side

B. Dive head first from the bridge
C. Dive head from the main deck
D. Follow directly behind another person on the leeward side
Ans:A

5112 The rate of expansionof heated fuel oilvarites with ………………………

A. Conductivity
B. Viscosity
C. Volume
D. Specific gravity
Ans;d

5113 A large oil on the weather deck of a Ship can be effectively fought using
………………………….

A. Dry chemical
B. Soda act
C. Foam
D. High velocity
Ans: C

5114 The greatest danger in cold temperature, when a sea in an inflatable life art
is ………………….

A. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy

B. hypothermia caused by the cold temperature
C. collapsing of the raft due to the cold temperature
D. starvation

ans :b

5115 Which of the following statement in true concerning n inflatable life art ?

A. the floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water

B. crew members can jump into the raftnwithout damaging it
 C. the raft may be boared before it is fully inflated
D. all of the above

5116 which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a
closed compartment involved in a fire ?

A. nitrogen
B. hydrogen
C. Carbon dioxiode
D. Carbon monooxiode
Ans d

5117 Fires resulting from escaping liquefied flemed gaseous are generally
extinguished by …………….

A. Cooling off the ignition point

B. Cutting off the oxygen supply
C. Stopping the flow of the gas
D. Interrupting the chemical chain reaction

Ans. C

5118 a class’b’ fire develops on the weather deck a mid ship of moored tank
vessel. The fire party should man the ______________

A. Leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while applying
a solid string of water to wash residual fuel over the side away from the pier
B. Leeward monitor and direce the foam onto a vertical surface while applying
water fog to protect the monitor operator
C. windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing
by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if
needed
D. windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while standing
by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with water fog if
needed

ans. D
5119 If a fire occurs in the fire room as a result of fuel oil leaking from the boiler
fuel oil manifold the first action taker should be to--------------------

A. pressurize the fire main

B. activae the CO2system
C. secure the fuel supp;y
D. sound the general alarm

ans. c

5120 If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat you should______

A. remain in the immediate vicinity

B. head for the nearest land
C. head for the closest sea-lanes
D. vote on what to do, so all will have a part in the decision
ans; a

5121 if help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning ship in lifeboat, you
should______

A. go in one direction until the fuel runs out

B. plot course for the nearest land
C. plot a course to the neareset sealanes
D. shut down the engines and set the sea anchor
ans;d

5122 the four basic components of a fire aare chain reaction heat, fuel,
and+___________

A. carbon monoxide
B. oxygen
C. carbon dioxide
D. any gaseous substance
E. ans;d

5123 when fighting a spreading fire resulting from a broken fuel line, you should
first_____
 A. look for a CO2 extinguisher
B. use a soda acid extinguisher
C. shut off the fuel supply
D. use other fire with rags
ans;c

5124 when lowering lifeboats as the vessel in pitching in heavy seas ,a good
practice is rig frapping lines --------------

A. on the forward fulls

B. on only the after falls
C. fore and aft with a lead of about 45 to the boat
D. from the falls to the tricing gear
ans ; C

5125 The highest concentration of a harmful substances to which a person may be

exposed without danger to health ,is termed the ------------------

A. odor threshold
B. threshold limit value
C. poor preasure
D. interfereance point

ans; c

5126 The rekinding of a fire ca n occur when a fire extinguished by smothering

is resupplied with oxygen ,which of thre fire extinguished agents when properly
used on a oil fire ,will prevent rekindling?

A. low velocity fog

B. high velocity fog
C. chemical foam
D. dry chemical
ans:c

5127 The volability of a ;iquid to --------------------

A. ignore
B. explode
C. asphyxioate
D. vapourize
ans ; D

5128 lines passed around the falls to hold the boat into vessel while boarding
passengers

Are called ----------------

A. lifelines
B. frapping lines
C. chemical foam
D. dry chemical
Ans: b

5129 Vessel blidge kee’s are designed primarily to --------------

A. asssist in reducing rolling

B. improve vessel steel response
C. reinforce the bilge knocked in the way bottom tanks
D. provide strengthening of the bige plating the mid body
ans;A

5130 Which of the following emergency signals are used to report for boat drills
?

A. threeshort blast of the whistle along with the same signal on the general
alaram bells
B. more than six short blasts and one long blast of the whistle ,along with the
same signal on the general alarm bells
C. steady temperature on the general bells at least 10 sec ,along with the same
signal on the general alarm bells
D. less than fire short blasts and one long blast of the whistle , along with the
same signal on the general alarm bells

ans;b

5131 The No.3 lifeboat would be ----------------------

 A.
B.
C.
D.

5132 To extinguish a fire in an unrupted cargo tank ,you

Should FIRST ---------------------

A.
B.
C.
D.

5199 if the over flow tank high-level alaram sounds whilethe fuel oil tank are
being topped off, the engineer should__________

A close the static leg filling valve

B close the over flow tank filling valve

C reduce the fuel oil pumping rate

D stop the fuel oil pumping operation

Ans D

5200 To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling hoses while you are topping
off tanks,the_________

A loading rate should be decreased

B oiler should sound all tanks continously

C hoses should be looped

D tank vent valves should be clear

ANS A
5201 A cylinder used for storing co2 in a fixed fire fighting system, must be
hydrostatically retested and restamped every ____________

A once in every calender year

B 5 years

C 8 years

D 12 years

ANS D

5202 which of the following statement is correct concerning fixed carbondioxide

fire extinguishing systems ?

A a separate supply of carbondioxide must be provided for each space protected

B the piping shall be used for no other purpose exceed that it may be in
corporated with the fire detecting system

C distribution piping within the space shall be proper oned from the supply line
t0 give the proper throttling to the outlet

D all the above

ANS B

5203 The componenet in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid
and sulphur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas , is
called the ____________________

A fillter

B Cooler

C Scrubber

D Purifier

Ans C
5204 the fire extinguishing action of co2 comes mostly from _________
A breaking the fire chemical chain reaction

B smothering

C cooling

D isolating the heat from the fuel

Ans b

5205 the lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may be
prevented by ___________-

A welding brackets across both ends of the crack

B chipping out and slots welding the entire crack

C drilling a hole at each end of the crack

D cutting a square knotch at each end of the crack

Ans c

5206 the high concentration of hyrogen sulphide gas is most likely to be found in
which of the locations listed ?

A fire room bilges where hydrazine has accumalted

B sea weage compatment bilges where leaked seaweage has accumulated

C engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have accumulated

D emergency battery storage compartment where discharged gases have

accumulated

Ans b

5207 the blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker,will be

automatically secured if ______________
A normal water supply at the water seal is lost

B the temprature of the inert gas beign delivered to the cargo tanks is more than
65c

C the cooling water supply to the scrubber is lost

D all of the above

Ans d

5208 when pumping sour cruds which gas should be tested for prior to entering
the cargo pump room to reapair a leaking pump?

A benzene

B carbon monooxide

C hydrogensulphide

D tetraethyl lead

Ans c

5209 after allowing for pressure losses,the pressure-volume capacity of an

inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure,in any cargo tank,with
a minimum of ________________

A 50 ml of water

B 100 ml of water

C 150 ml of water

D 200 ml of water

Ans b

5210 the pollution prevention regulations prohibing draining

__________________
A fuel oil burners into buckets

B oil transfer hoses into buckets

C fuel oil strainers into the ships bilges

D lube oil strainers into the fixed drip pans

Ans c

5211 flame screens used on ullage openings prevent flames from entering a tank
by ___________

A reducing the cross sectional area of the opening

B restricting the flow of gases through the opening sea

C creating turbulence in the exiting gas stream

D dissipating heat from the flame into the sorrounding metal

Ans d

5212 following a grounding you can best determine that a slack fuel oil tankhas
been holded by ___________________________

A sounding the tank

B waiting for the vessel to list

C examining tank boundaries

D checking fuel oil strainers

Ans a

5213 when cargo oil tanks are cleaned by crude oil washing while in
port____________________

A provision should be made for a shore side holding tank or an onboard slop tank

B water should be allowed to settle before discharge overboard

C fitters should be installed in bilge strainers to observe oil befofe discharge
overboard

D the dock superviser need not be notified before discharging oily mixtures
overboard

Ans a

5214 at the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel ,you must
FIRST_______________

A locate the fire

B determine which type of fire is burning

C sound the alaram

D fight the fire

Ans c

5215 a fire mans outfit carried on board cargo vessels ,must have a ___________

A canister-type gas mask

B fresh air breathing apparatus

C self contained breathing apparatus

D combustible gas indicator

Ans c

5216 while on watch in the engine room you hear a continous sounding of the
genral alaram.which of the following actions should you take first?

A canister-type gas mask

B fresh-air breathing apparatus

C self-contained breathing apparatus

D combustible gas indicator

Ans C

5217 pollution prevention regulations state that no person may transfer oil to or
from a vessel unless ______________________

A hoses are supported so that couplings have no strain on them

B a sample has been taken from the oil being received

C an oil containment boom is available for immediate use

D each part of the transfer system is blown through with air

ANS: A

5218 when the general alarm is sounded continuosly, the engine room personnel
should _______________________________

A proceed to their man over board stations

B start the fire pump

C put on life jacket and go to their abandon ship stations

D secure the propulsion diesel engines and evacute the engine room

ANS: B

5219 as soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal you should ensure that
__________________________

A the ring buoys are thrown overboard

B the engines are stopped

C the fire pumps are started

D everyone is suited in an approved life preserver

ANS:C

5220 when fuel tanks are being topped off,the person incharge of bunkering is
directly responsible for the ________________

A loading rate

B vessel draft readings

C quality of fuel received

D temprature of fuel received

ANS :A

5221 the term oil as defined in the pollution prevention regulations

means_______________________

A petroleum in any form

B animal or vegetable based oil

C noxious liquid substances designated under ANNEX II of MARPOL 73/78

D all of the above

ANS A

5222each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks with a gas
or mixture of gases that has an oxygen content by volume of
________________________

A 5% or less

B 10% or less

C 15% or less

D 20% or less
ANS A

5223 each inert gas system must be equipped with the following instruments :
oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure indicator and recorder,
and temperature indicator . the point of measurement for these instruments
must be located _________________

A after the regulating valve

B down stream of the blowers

C scrubber outlet

D up stream of the liquid filled breaker

ANS B

5224 to determine that a compartment that contains suffient oxygen to sustain

life,you should use a/an ________________________

A explosi meter

B oxygen indicator

C fresh air indicator

D all of the above

ANS B

5225 each ship having an inert gas must have a portable instruments to measure
concentrations of hydro carbon vapour in inert atmospheres and also to measure
_______________________

A nitrogen

B oxygen

C carbon-di-oxide

D water vapour
ANS B

5226 the upper limit of sulphurdioxide permited to be maintained in the inert gas
should not exceed______________

ANS D

5227 if a fuel tank levels are found to have incresed after a grounding, you should
suspect_______________

A a damaged pneumecator line

B a puncture, crack,or hole in the skin of the vessel

C improper record keeping of fuel transfer activities

D contamination of the contaminated steam supply system

ANS B

5228 regulations require geers, couplings, fly wheels, and all machinery capable
of injuring perrsonnel shall be____________________

A protected with adequate covers or guards

B indentified by yellow and black warning signs

C conspicuously indefied as to their particular hazard

D located vwhere they may not be easily contacted

ANS A
5229 the explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapours is specified as a
percentage of_________________

A flammable vapour by volume in air

B oxygen present to support combustion

C the temperature of the flash point

D the lower limit of explosibility of the mixture

Ans A

5230 what operational limitation should the user of a self-contained breathing

apparatus be concerned with using a device?

A the weight of the unit changes the users center of gravity

B the lens of the face piece reduces the pheripheral vision

C the attached lifeline limits the users mobility

D all of the above are correct

Ans D

5407 when the voltage remains constant,and the resistance increases in a series
circuit,current flow

A. Decreases
B. Remains constant
C. Increases
D. Increases by square

Ans:A

5408 A DC ammeter is always connected

A. In series with a circuit

B. In parallel with a circuit
C. With internal shunts only
D. Without regred to polarity

Ans:A

5409 An operational amplifier,as used in today’s consoles,may have a

calculated gain of 5 . This means that as the input changes by

A.1 volt the output changes 5 volts

B.5 volts the output changes 1 volt

C. 5 volts the output changes 10 volts

D. 10 volts the output changes 5 volts

Ans:A

5410 Under which of the following conditions will a lead –acid battery be given
a “ test discharge”?

A.to determine its capacity

B. whenever a cell cannot be brought within 10 points of full charge specific

gravity.

C. when one or more cells is found to have less than normal voltage after an
equalizing charge

d.all of the above

Ans:D

5411 Nickel –cadmium batteries are superior to lead-acid batteries at high

discharge rates because they

A. Deliver a large amount of power and can be recharged in a shorter time

B. Need fewer cells in connected series and less mounting space
C. Have higher output voltage and require no maintenance
D. All of the above

Ans: A

5412 when the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the mid-
position,the circuit breaker is indicated as being

A.IN THE “CLOSED”position

B.IN the “OPENED”postion

C.tripped

D.reset

ANS: C

5413.Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded

electrical distribution system?

A.Accidental contact between one line and ground does not cause an outage

B.double ground faults on different phases will not cause an outage

C.ground detection system are unnecessary

D.accidental contact betweeen one line and ground will always cause an
outage

Ans.A

5414.What is the apporximate voltage per cell produced by the nickle-

iron(Edison)battery?

A.0.85 volts

B.1.35 volts

C.2.20 volts

D.6.05 volts
Ans.B

5415.Part of the insulation of practically all electrical machinery is in the form

of organic compounds which contain some amount of

A.asbestos

B.water

C.fibre

D.plastic

Ans.B

5416.when the current in a power transmission line is increased the power

loss

A.increase as the square of the current

B.decrease as the square root of the current

C.remains the same,as it is independent of current flow

D.increase in direct propotion as the current

Ans.A

5417.The standard method of controlling the output voltage of a 440

volts,60hz ,AC generator is accomplished by adjusting the

A.prime mover speed droop

B.no.of poles

C.alternator field exciation

D.load on a alternator

Ans.C
5418.The air gap provided in induced motors should be checked prediocally
with a feeler gage to detect an unequalair gap and

A.decreased motor magnetizing current

B.hysteresis losses

C.increased power factor

D.mechanical damage to the rotor

Ans. D

5419.an accidental path of low resistance which passes an abnormal amount

of current is known as a/an

A.polarised ground

B.Short circuit

C.ground reference point

D.open circuit point

Ans.B

5420.a milliammeter, with a full scale defelection reading of 100 milliamps,

Is known to have an accuracy of + or -2% A meter reading of 10 milliamps

would indicate a line current of between

A.8.0 and 10.milliamps

B.8.0 and 12.0 milliamps

C.9.8 and 10.0 milliamps

D.9.8 and 10.2 milliamps

Ans.B

5421.An instantaneous trip type fuse will

A.open as soon as the load current exceeds its set point

B.allow a preset delay between over current and melting

c.open a circuit by using a time delay element with a magnetic trip

D.reset itself when over current is corrected

Ans.A

5422.Basic electrical motor depend on

A.a conductor rotated with in a magnetic field

B.a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field

C.the relative force of the commutator and commutating poles

D. the relative force of the armature and interpoles

Ans. B

5423.Upon failure of normal power supply the emergency generator is placed

on the line by the

A.main bus tie feeder

B.automatic bus transfer device

C.line connection feeder

D.power failure Alarm bus

Ans.B

5424.Routeline maintaince of a ship’s service alternator should include

A.changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly

B.magger testing of all retifying diodes

C.libricating excitation ship rings

D.periodic cleaning of air filters or screens

ans.D

5425.the speed of a multi-speed,squirrel-cage,induction motor operating in a

fixed system can be changed by

A.reconnecting stator windings for different numbers of poles

B.changing the RPM of the rotor flux

C.changing the phases sequence of the applied voltage

D.reconnecting the stator so that no poles have the same polarity

Ans.A

5426.in the of d c motors parts of both the series and shunt fields are wound
on the

a.opposite main pole

b.rotor core

c.interpole

d.same main pole

ans d

5427 inductance is th prop of an electric circuit that

a.oppose any change in the applied voltage

b.oppose any change in the current flow thro the circuit

c.aids any changes in the applied voltage

d. aids any changes in the current through the circuit

ans b
5428.an important factor in rerrent thro the circducing d c motor commulator
wear is

a.keeping the ambient humidity as low as possible

b.ensuring a very low brush current density

c.establishing the copper oxide surface film

ans c

5429.capacitance is the property of an electric circuit opposing a change in the

a.voltage In circuit

b.current in the circuit

c.inductance in the circuit

d.resistance in the circuit

ans.a

5430.a megaohmmeter is connected to each end of an individual motor

winding .a low reading indicates

a.an open coil

b.a loose coil

c.good continuity

d.a dirty coil

ans.c

5431.a high discharge rates nickel and cadmium storage batteries are superior
to lead-acid batteries because they

a.require fewer cell for same voltage and less mounting space

b.are able to produce higher voltages and do not have to be charged as often
c.can be charged and discharged many times without much damaged

d.have no individual cells to replace at the end of usefullife

ans.c

5432.a megaohmmeter can be used to test for

a.an open field coil

b.a shorted field pole

c.under cut mica

d.reversed polarity

ans.a

5433. in an ac circuit the inductive reactance of coil varies with the

a.resistance of the cicuit

b.frequency of the circuit

c.voltage of the circuit

d.current of the circuit

ans.b

5434.complete maitenence of electricalmotors should include periodic cheaks

for machine

a.vibration

b.watertight integrity

c.speed drop

d.reactive power

ans.a
5435.sparking of dc motor brushes can be caused by

a.an popen commutating winding

b.many electrical,mechanicalor operating faults

c.an open interpole

d.all the above

ans.b

5436.a hydrometer is used tomeasure the

a.specific gravity of the battery

b.water pressure electrolyte

c.water pressure in a deck pipeline

d.power developed by a salt water service pump

ans.a

5437.electricalinsulation is classed by the

a.international association of electrical manufacturers

b.approximate operating vvoltage and current expected

c.IEEE

d.temperature stability of the manufacturer materials

ans.d

5438.in dc motor construction commutating windings are wound on

a.opposite main poles

b.interpoles

c.adjacent main poles

d.the rotor core

ans.b

5439.electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor .the ratesof

this flow is measured as

a.volts/watt

b.ampheres/centimeters

c.coloumbs/seconds

d.ohms/volts

ans.c

5440.if the pointer on a megger fails to return to zero when not being used the

a.meeger is out of calibration

b.megger is poperating normally

c.hairsprings are burned out

d.pointerprobably struck in that position

ans.b

5441.voltage will always lead current ina/an

A.inductive cicuit

b.magnetic circuit

c.capacitive circuit

d.resistive circuit

ans.b

5442.the need for insulation cleaningmay be determined

 A.visual inspection for dirt accumulation

b.his megger reading

c.low operating temperature

d.time period since the last cleaning

ans.a

5443.when troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being faulty

,first check operating voltages ,cleanthe card and the

a.make sure wired connection and push on connection are tight

b.test each resistor and capacitor on the card with an ohmmeter

c.check the continuity of all printed circuits traces with an ohmmeter

d.measure the gain of each transistor or integrated circuit

ans.

5444.four lambs are connected in parallel in a single circuit .if one of the lamb
burnout the others will

a.all go out

b.become dimmer

c.burn with their orginal intensities

d.become brighter

ans.

5463 you are attempting to parallel two ac generator and the

synchroscope pointer is revolving fast in the clockwise direction this indicate that
the frequency of the incoming machine is

a. Higher than the bus frequency

b. Lower than the bus frequency
c. The same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be closed at any
position
d. The same as the bus frequency but out the phase with it
Ans. A

5464. a dielectric is a/an

a. electric insulator
b.current flow
c. good conductance
d. semiconductor material
ans. A
5466. using a fuse whose railing is higher than necessary
a. endangers the apparatus it is supposed to protect
b. reduces the probability of short circuits
c. increases the efficiency of the equipment by allowing more current to be
used
d. wastes money because they are more exoensive
ans. A

5468.propulsion of D.C. motor brush pressures can be calculated by

a. dividing the brush contact area by the spring pressure
b. substracting the brush contact area from the spring pressures
c.dividing the spring force by the brush contact area
d. substracting the spring pressure from the brush contact area
ans. C

5470. which of the following statements represents the action of a

megaohmmeter when the small capacitor in good condition?
a. the meter pointer should immediately swing to the maximum resistance
value of the capacitor
b. the meter pointer should first swing quickly to zero and gradually move
up the scale as the capacitor changes.
c. the meter should immediately swing to infinity and then drop its sharp
jerk as the voltage increases.
d. the meter pointer should immediately swing to high reading and
gradually decrease.
Ans. B

5472. a capacitor to be tested with a megohmeter if the meter is

connected to a shorted capacitor the mater pointer should
a. immediately swing the maximum resitance value
b. deflect to zero and remain at the same position
c. swing to a high reading and gradually decrease
d. swing to zero then gradually increase with slight pointer movements
down scale
ans. B

5474. which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire
connection s and electronic components?
a. silver flux
b. rosin flux
c. solid flux
d. acid flux
ans. B

5476. when paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps the
flickering of all three lamps becomes progressively slower and slower. This
means the
a. frequency of the incoming generator is approaching that of the bus
b. frequency of the incoming alternator is less than that of the bus
c. phase rotation of the incoming alternators is opposite to that of the bus
d. terminal voltage of the incoming alternator is approaching that of the
bus
ans. A

5478. when paralleling two AC generators the synchroscope selector switch

and frequency meter switch should be set upto sense the frequency of the
a.bus
5465. a galvanometer is an instrument used to measure
a. thickness of galvanzised metal
b. resistance of electrical winiring insulation
c. very small amount of current or voltage
d. quantity of galvans in an electric circuit
ans. C
5467. a device which can be used to check the calibration of a circuit
breaker is a
a. 500 volt megohmmeter
b. portable low voltage high current testing unit
c. star ,dard digital multi meter
d. clamp on voltmeter
ans. B
5469. the operating torque of the upper induction disc element or timer
element of ac reverse power relay is obtained from
a. the main bus
b. a separate battery source
c. line voltage
d. electromagnet
ans. D
5471. which of the listed transformer uses a single winding to produce
voltage tranaformer
a. stepup transformers
b. stepdown transformer
c. auto transformers
d. isolation transformers
ans. C
 5473. the hook-on ac volt ammeter consist essentially of a solitt core and a
rectifier type instruments connected to the secondary winding of a
a. potential transformer
b. control transformer
c. current transformer
d. reactance transformer
ans. C
5475. an internal resistance is place in series with the meter movement of
which of the following instrument
a. ac ammeter
b. dc ammeter
c. dc voltmeter
d. frequency meter
5477. ac voltmeter are generally calibrated to read the
a. instaneous voltage
b. the movement of the disc is dampd by a permanent magnet
c. one generator motorized
ans. A

Page 299

5479. if a small electric motor has been submerged in saltwater for a short period of
time, you should……………………..

A. send it ashore for rewinding

B. rinse it with warm freshwater and bake it dry in an oven

c. soak it in a bucket of commercial solvent and bake with internal heat

D. clean it with carbon tetrachloride and blow it out with compressed air

Ans: B

5480. How will a molded case circuit breaker react after it has tripped, as a result of an
overloaded circuit?
 A. The breaker will trip again if immediately reset.

B. The breaker handle will lock in the OFF position

C. The breaker handle will lock in the tripped position until the thermal element
cools down

D. The breaker handle cannot be moved to the OFF position until the thermal
element cools down

Ans: A

5481. when a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be
replaced immediately, or the resultant flashing may………………………………………

A. blow the lamp’scircuit breaker

B. explode causing glass to fly in all directions

C. short circuit the ballast transformer

D. damage the starter and the ballast

Ans: D

5482. One of the generator or motor bearings is generally insulated form the end
housing in order to prevent…………………………

A. rapid brush wear

B.current leakeage from the shaft

C. exesive field winding heat

D. circulation of shaft current induced in the machine frame Ans: D

5483. Electrostatic force in high voltage circuits cause indicating instruments to

give……………..

A. parallelax reading
 B. highly intuitive readings

C. highly accqurate readings

D. inaccurate readings

Ans: D

5484. If a circuit breaker the utilize built –in, current limiting fuse (clf’s) cannot be closed
problem maybe traced to ………………………….

A. a blow clf pluncher holding the tripbar in the open position

B. missing clf

c. a misaligned limited housing assembly

d. all of the above

Ans: d

5485. which of the following procedures should be used to maintain a large electric
motor during periods of inactivity?

a. a thin layer of air drying varnish should be applied on the windings.

b. Compressed air should be blown over areas where dust is deposited.

c. Spraying a solvent periodically to remove carbon dust

d. Space heaters should be used to prevent comdensation of moisture.

Ans: d

5486. In replacing a defective transformer with a new one, which of the following
actions must be carried out to insure proper operation of the equipment it servers?

a. The secondary leads must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove static

charges.
 b. The transformer connections must be made as before with regard to the
indicated polarity.

c. The iron core of the transformer must be flashed to ore magnetize it.

d. The iron core must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove any residual
magnetism.

5487. The speed of a synchronous motor is varied by…………………………………

a. interchanging any two of the three live leads

b. changing the voltage of the system

c. Changing the input frequency

d. increasing the field excitation

Ans: c

5488. When working on electrical circuitys containing large capacitors in addition to de

energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions should also be taken?

a. Keep all radio equipment away

b. Measure capacitor insulation resistance

c. Ground the capacitor terminals

d. Check capacitor circuit polarity

Ans: c

5489. Seating the brushes on a D.C motor is first accomplished using

……………………………….

a. A file for cutting the approximate curvature followed by sandpaper for the final
fit

b. sandpaper with the motor not operating and then a seating stone while
running the machine
 c. emery paper for the intial cut and crocus cloth for the finishing cut

d. Course lapping compound followed bu a medium and then a fine grade

Ans: B

5490. The basic type of D.C. motor speed control where a generator armature directly
feeds the motor aremature and the motor and generator fields are exicted by a
separate D.C source is called………………………..

a. Burmeister wain

b. Ward leonard

c. Sperry rand

d. atlas copco

5491. Which of the following problems will most likely occur. If the starting winding
of a split phase Induction motor failed to cutout once the motor was in continuous
operation?

a. The motor will overspeed.

b. The motor will run at a reduced speed

c. A time delay will stop the motor.

d. The winding will burn out

5492. When insulation failure produced a low resistance current path between to
conductors, the resulting comdition is known as………………………..

a. an open

b. a short circuit

c. a ground

d. a surge
 Ans: b

5493 A single phase induction motor fails to start. The rotor is spun rapidly with the
line switch closed. Having started by this method it is noted that the motor fluctuated
between a very slow speed and half speed. The problem probably lies in
the…………………..

a. starting winding

b. centrifugal mechanism

c. centrifugal switch

d. running windling

Ans: d

5494. when disassembling motors for maintenance or overhaul,……………………………..

a. Starting winding

b. centrifugal mechanism

c. centrifugal switch

d. running windling

Ans:d

5495. The true power indicated by a wattmeter depends on the current flow through
the load, the magnitude of the potential across the load and the…………………………

a. power factor of the load

b. angle of coil displacement

c. inertia of the movable coil

d. high resistance from the load.

Ans: a
5496. when paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the machine coming
online, immediately prior to closing its breaker, should be ……………………………..

a. slightly less than the oncoming generator frequency

b. the same as the bus frequency

c. slightly greater than the bus frequency

d. the same as the bus voltage.

5497. A multimeter can be used to directly measure……………………………

a. watts

b. field flux

c. current

d. all of the above

5498. The Kilowatt load can be adjusted on a paralled generator by using

the……………………….

a. field rheostat

b. governor control

c. automatic voltage regulators

d. hand tachometer

Ans: b

5499. A volt ohm millimeter can be used to check for ………………….

a. continuity

b. grounds

c. voltage
 d. all of the above

Ans:d

5500. When paralleling two AC generators the frequency of the incoming generator,
just prior to closing breaker, should…………………….

a. slightly less than the frequency of the generator on the line

b. the same as rthe frequency of the generator on the line

c. slightly more than the frequency of the generator on the line

d. all of the above

ans: c

5501. when paralleled, AC generators must have the same…………………..

a. frequency

b. number of phases

c. phase rotation

d. all of the above

Ans: d

5502. discoloration of the rotor bars in a squirrel cage motor is typical evidence of
…………………….

a. moisture

b. overheating

c. vibration

d. all of the above

Ans:b
5503. A voltmeter located on a control panel has been operationg correctly for six
months suddenly burns out. After removing it, it is found that neither side of the meter
has been grounded. When installing the new meter it should be……………………

a. grounded to the negative side

b. connected to a large resistor between the positive side and the ground

c. installed exactly as the old instailation

d. gronded to the positive side

Ans: c

5504. which of the following should be the first step in removing a generator from
parallel operation

a. trip the generator off the switch board

b. turn off all electrical equipment.

c. Remove the load freom the off going generator.

d. increase the cycles of the generator staying on the line

Ans: c

5505. if a synchronous motor begins to vibrate severely and pull out of synchronism, the
cause may be………………

a. an overload

b. an open in the field lcoils

c. no exciter voltage

d. all of the aboce

ans: d
5506. accidental grounds in shipboard electrical system must be reap\paired as soon as
possible as they will………………………

a. result in immediate power outafes

b. damage circuit breakers

c. appear on the ground detection system

d. damage insulation and may cause outages

Ans:d

5507. a device used in an electrical circuit to change alternating current to direct current
is known as a…………………..

a. current transformer

b. rectifier

c. condenser

d. shunt

Ans:b

5508. Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in parallel. One with a zero
speed droop setting and the other with a 5% apped droop. If its capacity is not
exceeded, the unit whose governor has the zero speed droop setting will………………

a. assume the smaller share of the load

b. maintain the frequency of the system

c. have poor sensitivity characteristicfs

d. have poor power response

And:b
5509. An alternator is being paralleled with one on the line. At the instant the circuit
breaker is closed the frequency of the incoming alternator will normally…………..

a. increase

b. notchange

decrease

d. be exactly 60 hertz

Ans: C

5510. if a three phase induction motor is operated under a light load and it develops an
open in one of its supply lines the motor will ………………..

a. continue to run but will vibrate and have reduced torque

b. speed up due to the reduce number of poles

c. run cooler due to reduce current flow

d. stop

Ans: a

5511. battery capacities are given in………………

a. volts
b. volt amperes

c. volt hours

5512. when a low input voltage is imparted to a device which then delivers a high
output voltage, the device is known as a………………………………..

a. primary transformer

b. secondary transformer

c. stepdown transformer
5513 The twisting force developed by a motor and applied to a shaft is called
A.magnetism
B.electromotive force
C.torque
D.voltage
ANS:C
5514 If field extitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel,that
alternator will
A.supply excessive current to the bus
B.operate at the same load ,but with reduced voltage
C.lose its load and tend to overspeed
D.become overloaded and slow down
ANS:C
5515 The unit of electrical power is the
A.ampere
B.kilovolt
C.watt
D.farad
ANS:C
5516 If the energy inpyt is significantly reduced to the prime mover of one
shipboard alternayor
operating in parallel with others that alternator will
A.continue to operate at no load
B.lose its load and overspeed
C.begin yo motorize and then tripout
D.slow down and operate at reduced load
ANS:C
5517 Some large A.C motors at equipped with the heaters.These could be---------
-------.resistance
Heaters bolted directly to te frame ii.low voltage windings embedded in the
motor windings
A.i only
B.ii only
C.either ior ii,
D.neitheri orii.
ANS:C
5518 The unit of electrical resistance is the
A.ampere
B.volt
C.watt
D.ohm
ANS:D
5519 A current carrying conductor making electrical contact with a wiring
conduct will beindicated by a
A.high switchboard wattmeter reading
B.totally dark switched ground detecting light
C.low switchboard wattmeter reading
D.all the above.
ANS:B
5520 maintanence of alkalinr batteries should be
A.checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer
B.replacing the electrolyte using 5 years
C.trickle charging
D.replacement when the volts per call drops below 1.8vdc
ANS:C
5521 if air gap rading for an electrical generating machine have changed
significantly from the last
reading you should check
A.the bearings
B.INSULATION READING AND MACHINE CLEANLINESS
C.the prime mover thrust bearing
D.the field coil bolts for the proper tporque values
ANS:A
5522 In the event of a powetr failure during cargo winch will be stopped by
A.a manual override switch
B.the weight of the load on the boom
C.a spring set brake
D.a hand operated band brake
ANS:C
5523 A circuit that has two wires in contact with the hull of a ship is called a
A.Grounded circuit
B.short circuit
C.series circuit
D.closed circuit
ANS:A
5524 attempting to parell an ac generator which is out of phase with will result
in which of the following problems
A.the breaker should strip
B.THE KVA WILL DECREASE
C.the synchronising lamps will burn out
D,the power factor will b unitized
ANS:A
5526 to remove an alternator operating in parell with another unit from the
main electrical circuit,you must first
A.adust the power factor
B.set the desired voltage on the outgoing alternator
C.open the circuit breaker on the outgoing alternator
D.remove the load from the outgoing alternator
ANS:D
5527 maintanence of alkalinr batteries should be
A.checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer
B.replacing the electrolyte using 5 years
C.top off with sulphuric acid as needed
D.making certain connections tight and clean
ANS:D
5528 one item listed on the name plate of a cargo cargo pump motor is degree
centigrade rise’.this number is based on
A.normal temperature change from cold to hot
B.an arbient temperature of 40c
C.minimum haet rise from no load to full load
 D.maximum degree centigrade rise from zero
ANS:D
5529 If your multimeter gives a readinr in ohms when testing each end of each
conductor of a three conductor cable
A.continuity of the conductor
B.an infinite resistance
C.the presence of a partial ground
D.that the conductor is not circuited
ANS:B
5530 what is the rotor speed of a ffour pole 60 cycle induction motor operating
at full loadwith 3%slip
A.270RPM
B.540RPM
C.873RPM
D.1746RPM
ANS:A
5531 Which of the methods listed is used to start a ac generator fuming
A.residual magnetism in the field poles
B. residual magnetism in the field poles
C. residual magnetism in the ARMATUre
D.rotation by a prime mover
ANS:D
5532 when a meghometer is being used on a alternating current machine the
meter pointer will dip toward zero and then gradually rise to the true resistance
value if motor insulation is
A.grounded
B.good
C.SHORTED
D,dirty
ANS:B
5533 the three most effective metfod of locating a loose commutator bar in a
d.c.motor is by
A.visual inspection
B.jiggling each by hand
C.sounding each bar with a light weight hammer
D.checking with a calibrated torque wrench
ANS:C
5534 an open armature connection in adc motor could be caused by
A.low load operation
B.CLOGGED VENTILATION ducts
C.sparking at the brushes
D.a grounded shunt field coil
ANS:B
5535 If the energy inpyt is significantly reduced to the prime mover of one
shipboard alternayor
operating in parallel with others that alternator will
A.continue to operate at no load
B.lose its load and overspeed
C.begin yo motorize and then tripout
D.slow down and operate at reduced load
ANS:D
5536 if a dc motor hums ,but noy exist in an energised ,which of the list is exist
A.incorrect load connections
B,incorrect brush setting
C.a dirty commutator
D. all the above area correct
ANS:D
5537 which of the following represents the corrected specific gravity ofa lead
acid battery with a temperature of 90 f and a hydro meter reading of 1160
A.1150
B.1156
C.1160
D.1164
ANS:D
5538 a shorted aramature coil in a dc motor can be detected by
A.Sparkink at the brushes
B.Shiny armature coil
C.Worn grooves in the armature
D.Under cut maica
ANS:A
5539 a short in shunt field of adc motor is best located by
A.Visual inspection of the comotator
B.Applying ac voltage to each field coil and measuring the voltage across
each field coil
 C.Using agrowler and hack saw blade
D.Isolating each coil from the othr=ers and using megohmmeter
ANS:B
5540 in athree wire 230 /115 volt dc system the potential between neutral and
negative is
A.0volts
B.115volts
C.230volts
D.460volts
ANS:B
5541 sparking at the brushes of arunning motor could be an indicatin of
A.Naormal operation
B.A dirty comodator
C.Increased brush capacity
D.Water wapour absorption
ANS: B
5542 electrical failures in motor are caused by the brake down of insulation
which may be causeeed by
A.Penetaion of moisture
B.Acummalation of dirt
C.Over heating
D.All of the above
ANS:D
5543 a four pole 60hertz induction motor has asyncronus spped of 1800rpm
and a slip of 4% at full load what will be its full load spped
A.1728.0rpm
B.1730.7rpm
C.1800.0rpm
D.1872.0rpm
ANS:A
5544 the spped of a squirrel cage ,multiy speed ,induction motor as used abroad
ship , is varied by changing the
A.Numer of connector holes in the stator
B.Frequency of the motor
C.Extitation voltage
D.Resistsnce of the rotor cirucuit
ANS:A
5545 What is the main function in the use of acapacitor for starting a single face
motor
A.Reduce radio interference
B.Slit in the phase to established a rotating magnetic field
C.Reduce the phase sngel
D.Prolong the life of the starting contacts
ANS: B
5546 the most practical method of controlling the rpm of a step speed ac
motor is to
A.Change input voltage
B.Vary the number of poles
C.Vary power factor
D.Change the number of brushes
ANS: B
5547 a hich of the following is a chacter stics of a fractional horse power
eoulsion start motors
A.They stsrt with a rotating stator field
B.They short circuiting ring is removed from the comotator while starting
C.The brushes are removed from the comotator while starting
D.They have a low staring torgue
ANS:B

5548 a vessel is equppied with the two ships service generators
.generator #1 is rated at 900kw and generator #2is rated at 600kw .during
the parallel operation with a load of 1000kw.what should be the load on
generator #2
A.100kw
B.400kw
C.500kw
D.600kw
ANS:B
5549 which state ment is true concerning a split face induction motor
 PAGE:-305
5585. Regulations stats that a
normal source for emergency
loads and power on cargo vessel
must be supplied
from_________
A. emergency generator supply
to the emergency switchboard.
B. emergency generator supply
to the main switchboard.
C. battery supply to the main
switchboard.
D. ship's service generator via
emergency switchboard.
Ans-D
5586. A storage battery for an
emergency lighting and power
system must have capacity
to____
A. close all waterlight doors
twice
B. open all waterlight doors four
times
C. open and close all waterlight
door in six consecutive cycles
within a 20 second period
D. none of the above
Ans-A
5587. Regulation require the
emergency diesel generator on
cargo vessel of over 1600 gross
tones sailing internation voyages
to be able to supply power to
the ______
A. smoke detector system
B. emergency loudspeaker
system
C. daylight signaling light system
D. all of the above.
Ans-D
5588. While on watch in the
engine room at sea with only
one ship's service turbine
alternator on line, the entire
plant suddenly blacks out
without warning. After restoring
power, the cause for this
casaulty was attributed to which
of the following faults-
A. the micro switch at the
generator throttle trip vibrate
open, allowing the main breaker
to open the via under voltage
trip
B. someone pushed the trip
button to the"shore power"
breaker
C. the main air compressor
suddenly stopped
D. the standby generator started
automatically and become
moterize
Ans-A
5589. On vessel with turbo
electric drive, which of the
following condition would
indicate that the propulsion
motor had dropped out of
synchronization with the
prupolsion generator
A. excessive vibration of the
vessel
B. tripped main motor interlocks
C. overheated crosstie busses
D. closed contact in the field
circuit
Ans-A
5590.On some diesel electric
ship, the DC propulsion moter
will only attain half speed when
the generator fields are fully
excited. speeds above this are
obtained by_____
A. rotating brush alignment
B. raising the generator engine
speed
C. lowering the generator engine
speed
D. decreasing excitation
Ans-B
5591. The shunt used in an
ammeter should be connected in
______
A. series with the load and in
parallel with the meter
movement
B. parallel with the load and in
series with meter movement
C. parallel with load and in
parralr with the parallel
movement
D. series with the load and in
series with the meter movement
Ans-A
5592. Brushless generator are
designed to operate without the
use of ______
A. brushes
B. slip ring
C. commutators
D.all of the above
Ans-D
5593. Which of the following
conditions will occure if
thesolenoid coil burns out on a
cargo which with an
electricalbrake-
A. the brake will be set by spring
force.
B. the moter will overspeed and
burn up
C. the load suspended from the
cargo boom will fat.
D. nothing will happen; the
which will continue to operate as
usual
Ans-A
5594. Which of the listed battery
charging circuit is used to
maintain a wet cell, lead acid,
storage battery in a fully
charged state during long period
of disuse
A. normal charging circuit
B. quick charigng circuit
C. Tricle charging circuit
D. high ampere charging circuit
AnsC
5595. Which of the following
statements represent the main
difference between a relay and
contactor-
A. contactors control current and
relays control voltage. abnormal amount of current is
known as a/an-
B. a relay is series connected and
a contactor is parallel connected. A. open circuit.

C. contactor can handle heavier B. short circuit.

loads than relays.
C. polerized circuit.
D. contactors are made from
D. ground reference circuit
silver and relays are made from
copper. Ans-B

Ans-C 5598. A resistant in circuit of

unknown value is to be tested
5596. Which is following
using the voltmeter/ammeter
statements is true concerning a
method. therefor, the meters
polyphase synchronous
should be connected with______
propulsion moto-
A. both meters in series with
A. The moter started as an
resistant
induction moter
B. both meters in parallel with
B. Resistant is gradually added to
the resistant
the moter circuit
C. the ammeter in series and the
C. The starting current is held
voltmeter in parallel with the
below the rated current
resistant
D. The field winding is energized
D. the ammeter in parallel and
for starting purposes only
the voltmeter in series with the
Ans-A resistant

5597. An accidental path of low Ans-C

resistance, following passage of
5599. which of the following
electric moters would be the
safestand most reliable to use on
the main deck of a vesseline foul
weather-
A.sealed moter
B. drip proof moter
C. enclosed moter
D.watertight moter
Ans-D
5600. A direct current passing
through a wire coiled around a
soft iron core is the description
of a simple______
A. magnetic shield
B. electromagnet
C. piezoelectric device
D.electromagnetic domain
Ans-B
PAGE:-
306
5601. A molded-caso breaker
provides protection against short
circuit by using a/an-
A. shading coil
B. arc quenchor
C. electromagnet
D. holding coil
Ans-C
5602.The method used to
produce electron emission in
most vaccumetubes is known
as______
A. photoelectric emission
B. secondary electric emission
C. cold cathodic electric emission
D. thermionic emission
Ans-D
5603. A moter using a rheostat
in the moter circuit to very the
speed is called a-
A. squirrel- cargo induction
moter
B. regenerative braking moter.
C. wound-roter induction moter
D. synchronous motor
Ans-C
5604. Which of the following
precautions should you take
when securing propulsion
generators and motors for an
extended period of time
B. Disconnect the brush pigtails
from their contact and discharge
carbon dioxide intomthe units to
keep them dry
C. Lift the brushes from
commulator collector ring and
use the built-in heated to
prevent moisture accumulation
D. Lift the brushes from
commulator collector ring and
circulate cool dry air through the
unit
Ans-C
5605. One factor that determine
the frequency of an alternator is
the_______
A. no. of turns of wire in the
armuter coil.
B. no. of magnetic poles
C. strenght of the magnets used
D. output voltage
Ans-B
5606. The variable resistance
placed in the rotor circuit of a
wound-rotor induction motor
provides for_____
A. speed control
B. frequency comtrol
C. voltage control
D. use as a split-phase motor
Ans-A
5607. The wheatstone bridge is
precision measuring instrument
utilizing the principle of
changes______
A. inductance
B. capacitance
C. resistance
D. amperage for for a perticular application,
major consideration should be
Ans-C
given to the battery's____
5608. The greatest detrimental
A. amp-hour capacity
effect on idle electrical
equipment, such as cargo pump B. terminal polarity
motor, is the____
C. stability under charge
A. loss of residual magnetism
D. ambient temperature rise
B. absorption of moisture in the
Ans-A
insulation
5611. An electric devide which
C. insulation varnish flaking
prevents an action from occuring
D. dirt collecting on the windings untill all other required condition
are met is called a/an_
Ans-B
A.
5609. Which is the listed logic
gates is considered to be a BASIC B. monitor
building block(basic logic gate)
C. modulator
used in logic diagram.
D.
A.NAND
Ans-D
B.OR
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
C. NOR
@@@@@@@@@@
D.all of the above
5612. A circuit breaker and a
Ans-B fuse have a basic similarity in
that they both ____
5610. When choosing a battery
A. can be reset to energized the
circuit
B. should open the circuit when
overloaded
C. will burn out when an over
current flow develops
D. all of the above
Ans-B
5614. A circuit breaker differs
from a fuse in that a circuit
breaker ______
A. melt and must be replaced
B. is enclosed in a tube of
insulating material with metal
ferrules at each end
C. give no visual indication of
having opened the circuit
D. trips to break the circuit and
may be reset
Ans-D
5615. An electrical device which
employs a stationary armature
and a rotating electromagnetic
field is used aboard ship as
a_______
A. magnetic amplifier
B. ship's service alternator
C. three wire DC generator
D. saturable core reactor
Ans-B
5616. T he main purpose of the
auxilliary winding on a split-
phase, single-phase motor is
to_________
A.limit the starting voltage
B. increase the strating current
C. start a motor
D. keep the motor running in the
event the main winding should
fail
Ans-C
5617. The load sharing
characterstics of two diesel
generator operating in parallel
are mostly dependent on their
governor______
A. load limit setting
B. idle speed setting
C. speed limit setting
D. speed droop setting
Ans-D
5618. What type of rotor is used
in split-phase motors
A. Drum
B. Salient pole
C. Squirrel-cage
D. Wound-rotor
Ans-C
5619. In ac generator direct
current from a seperate sourcies
passed through the
winding of the rotor________
5620. The purpose of a cage
rotor winding placed on the
rotor of a synchronous moter is
to___
A. By means of slip rings and
brushes
A. provide excitation to the
DC field
B. By means of a commutator
B. start the machine as an
inductor motor
C. By means of rotating bar
magnet
C. contribution extra
torque at synchronous
speed
D. To minimize the danger of
arc over
D. prevent the machine
from falling out of step
Ans : A
Ans: B
5621. A constant output voltage
from an AC generator
5622. Amortisseur winding are
installed in a synchronous
motor
Is maintained by
the_______________
to________________________
_______
 A. Prime mover external source of
governor heat
A. reduce eddy B. Line loss
current loses B. renew the winding
B. Excited generator C. IR drop
B. produces a higher C. send it ashore to
power factor an approved service
C. Voltage regulator facility
C. provide a means D. Hysteresis
for starting D. rinse all electrical
D. Reverse power relay with carbon
D. eliminate arcing tetrachloride cleaning
brtween the stator solvent
and the motor
Ans: c And then blow dry
Ans: c the motor with
5623. The heating of conductors compressed air
as a result of resistances Ans : B
5624. To repair a small electrical Ans: A
motor that has been submerged 5625. In process control
In a distribution circuit a terminology values which can
power loss expressed as_____ change 5626. The proper way
in salt water,you to apply plastics tape to an
should____________________ electrical cable
Distinct increment, such as
A. Line drop temp, pressure, or level is
A. wash it with fresh splice is
water and apply a
to________________________ field
____ because________________
Called________________
A. Binary values
A. apply tape to the
braided cover,but
avoid touching it
B. Digital values
B. wind the tape so
that each turn over
laps the turn before
C. Bumpless values
C. apply the tape in
one non- overlapping
layer only
D. Analog values
D. heat the tape with
a soldering iron for
good bonding
Ans : D
Ans: B
5627. Which of the following
statement best describes the
5628. A synchronous motor
maintains synchronism with the
coating
Material known as
varnished cambric
A. Felted asbestos
sealed with
varnished
A. field strength
varies directly with
rotor slip
B. Cotton cloth coated
with varnish
B. DC current applied
to the rotor coil
causes the rotor
magnets to
Lock in with the
rotating flux of the
stator
C. Rubber insulation
coated with a layer
of tin
C. the stator poles
are dragged around
due to the flux
created
D. Paper impregnated
with mineral oil,
specially
 D. the stator flux
rotates in the
opposite direction
Nonmetallic tape and
coated with vanished
Ans: B 5631. Before reassembling any
Ans: B
5629. The function of
amortisser,or damper winding
in a 5630. The main
difference between a motor
control circuit, containing
Motor is
to_________________
low voltage protection and low
voltage release is that the
latter_
A. Eliminate slippage
A. a magnetic
operating coil
B. Provide excitation
B. normally open line
contacts
C. Provide starting
torque
C. thermal overload
protection
D. Increase efficiency
D. a momentary
contact start button
Ans: C
Ans: D
machinery, you
should_____ 5632.
The purpose of
commutator and
brushes on a DC
generator is__
A. Replace all bearing
regardless of length of
service A.
transfer generated
direct current voltage
from the armature line
B. Apply a heavy coat of
oil to all mating
surfaces B.
convert the alternating
voltage generated
within the armature
C. Clean any corroded
surfaces and file all
burr smooth C.
 provide a sliding circuit breaker is
contact method to opened and tagged on
excite the field C. Farad
D. Coat all part with C. be certain that the
alemite grease air is clean and is
D. reduce spark cleaned and as dry as
between the armature possib
end the carbon D. Henry
brushes D. all the above
Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: B 5635. Which of the following
5633. The basic measuring unit statement concerning
of inductance is nickel 5636.
the_____ 5634. Power transformer is
Which of the listed rated
precaution should be in_________________
taken when cleaning Cadmium batteries are
the true?
A. When mixing electrolyte
Internal of a motor always add acid to water
with compressed air A. kilowatts
A. Coulomb B. Nickel-cadmium
A. open the machine batteries con be
on both ends so as to changed and
allow the air and dust B. Ampere-turns
B. Ohm Discharged only a
B. be certain that the limited without damage
to the
 Cells
C. Nickel-cadmium
batteries can be stored
for a long
C.kilowatt-volts
Times
D. The electrolyte of an idle
nickel –cadmium battery
D. kilovolt-amperes
Must be replaced
monthly to maintain
condition
Ans: C
Ans: D
5639. A device which print out a
5637. Local action in nickel-
cadmium battery is offset by
5638. Alternating current circuit
develop resistance, inductances
and
__________
Capacitance. The inductance of
a coil is expressed in _______
A. Separating the positive
and negative plates with
A. ohms
Plastics spacers
B. Separating the positive
and negative plates with
B. mhos
Resin impregnated
spacers
C. Adding a small amount
of lithium hydroxide to
the C. Henry
Electrolyte
D. Trickle charging
D. farads
Ans: D
Ans: C
permanent record of the
5640. Alternating
current circuit develop
resistance, inductance
and
Plant operating conditions
is known as the_______
capacitance .The
capacitance of individual
capacitors is expressed
A. Ana logger
A. ohms
 B. Bell longer B. Reluctances
B. mhos B. every time the brush
C. Alarm logger rigging is adjusted
C. henry C. Impedance
D. Data logger C. immediately after
D. farads starting up the machine
Ans: D D. Inductance
Ans: D D. every 30 days
5641. The opposition to the whether the machine is
establishment of in use or not
magnetic 5642. The Ans: B
insulation of electric Ans: A
equipment and
5643. The RMS value of a sine-
machinery should be
wave current may also 5644.
tested
On tank vessels with an
Lines of forces in a
electrically-driven capstan, the
magnetic in a magnetic
motor should
circuit for the
lowest normal Expressed as
insulation the__________________
values_____________ be mongered periodically to
Is called the test_____________
circuit’s___________ A. Average values
A. Resistance A. insulation resistances
A. immediately after B. Maximum values
shutting down the B. eddy currents
machine C. Effective values
C. capacitances
 D. Instantaneous values
D. armatures reactance
Ans: C
Ans: A
5645. The apparent power in a
purely inductive circuit
5646. The multiple
prefix “gig”(G)
means______________
_ B. Zero
Is also known
as_____________
A. True power
A. thousand(10 to the
3rd power)
B. Lead power
B. million(10 to the 6th
power)
C. Induced power
C. billion(10 to the 9th
power)
D. Reactive power
D. trillion (10 to the 12th
power)
Ans: D
Ans: C
5647. A grounded switch or
cable will be indicated
by a 5648. Regarding
battery charging rooms,
ventilation should be
provided
Megohmmoter reading
of_____________
A. Infinity
A. at the lowest point
of the room
B. horizontally near the
batteries
C. Being unsteady in the
high range
C. at the highest point
of the room
D. Being unsteady in the
lower range
D. only when charging
is in progress
Ans: B
Ans: C
5649. Which of the following
statement concerning
the 5650. The ratio of
the effective value of
the counter EMF in
volts, to the
Specific gravity of the
batteries electrolyte is
true? Effective
values of the current in
amperes is
called______________
A. The electrolyte becomes
less dense when it
cooled A.
impedance factor
B. The specific gravity
reading is lower when
the B.
capacitive reactance
Electrolyte is heated
C. The most accurate
hydrometer reading is
obtained C.
inductive reactance
Immediately after water
is added
D. The temp does not
affect the specific
gravity of D. not
mean square 5653. In a DC series circuit all the
the electrolyte
Ans: B
Ans: C
5651. An adjustable resistor,
whose resistance can be
5652. The purpose of
the heat sink as
frequently used with
transistor is
Changed without opening
the circuit in which is
__________________
Connected_____________
A. Bleeder resistor
A. prevent excessive
temp rises
B. Rheostat
B. compensative for
excessive doping
C. Bridge
C. increase the
reverse current
D. Variable shunt strip
D. decrease the
forward current
Ans: B
Ans: A
conductors have the
5654. Battery
charging room
 should be well To_______________
ventilated because A. Eliminate contact
the chatter
Same_______________ A. DC to AC and
charging process control relatively
produces_________ low load current
_______
A. Power expended in
Page 309
them
A. high poisonous gas b) dissipate opening contact arcs
B. Voltage drop across c) delay current build up in
them holding coil
B. highly combustible
oxygen d) protect the motor windings
C. Resistance to current from momentary starting
flow current overload
C. explosive gas Ans.a
D. Current passing through
them 5657 most three phase
D. corrosive gas induction motors used for diving
Ans: D engine room auxillaries are
Ans: C started by
5655. Shading coil are installed a)resistor starters
on AC full-voltage
b)across the line starters
starter 5656. A silicon
controller rectifier c) impedence starters
(SCR) is a solid state
d) reactor starters
devices used to
Ans.b
5658 when electrical cabels
penetrate water light bulck
heads
a)they should be grounded on
either side of the bulck heads
b)they must be bent to a radius
of six diameters
c) a water light stuffing tubes
capable of accepting packing
should be employed
d) they should be secured by
clamp
Ans.c
5659 a variable shunt connected
across the series field couls of DC
compound wound generator, to
permit adjustements of the
degree of cpmpounding is called
a
a)divider
b) diverter
c) converter
d) rhestot
Ans.b
5660 across the line starters
used with AC motors to provide
a) reduced starting current
b) regulated starting current
c) high starting torque
d)controlled starting
acceleration
Ans.c
5661 The electrician reporting to
you that has obtained low (but
above 1 mega ohm) megger
reading on the windings of a
deck winch motor . upon
checking the records of the
motor ,you find the reading have
consistently been at the level of
last six years
a) Motor be replaced
b) Windings be dried
c) Windings be cleaned
d) Readings are acceptable
Ans d
5662 In a face plate type motor
starter starting arm held in the
OFF position by a/an
a) Cotter pen
b) Magnet
c) Electrical circuit
d) Strong spring
Ans.d
5663 which of following
components are used convert
alternating current produced in
generator windings to direct
current ?
a) Armature and equalizer
b) Commulator and brushes
c) Rotor and interpoles
d) Field and exciter
Ans.b
5664 in electronic circuitry ,the
observation “PCB” commonly
means
a) Pulse cooled binary
b) Printed circuit board
c) Poly coated bride
d) Personal computer bits
Ans.b
5665 The final step in testing a
circuit for a ground involves the
use of a megaohmmeter , A
grounded switch or cable will be
indicated by a megaohmmeter
reading of
a) Zero
b) Infinity
c) Steady in ahing range
d) Unsteady in the low range
Ans.a
5666 which of the following
statement is true concerning the
cleaning if electrical contacts?
a) Compressed air should be
used to blow out metallic
dust
b) Magnetic brushes should
be used to remove metallic
dust
c) The contact surfaces
shouid be greased to
increase resistance.
 d) Delicate parts should be
cleaned with a brush and
approved safely solvent
Ans .d
5667 a nickel cadmium battery
receiving a normal charge and
gases freely the charging current
should be
a) Be increased
b) Be decresed
c) Be cut off and the battery
allowed to cool
d) Remain the same
Ans.d
5668 Reduced motor specified to
a motor during the starting
period
a) Result in decreased
acceleration time only
b) Lower the starting current
and increase accelerating
time only
c) Cause a greater starting
torque
d) Increase the starting
current and pump capacity
Ans.b
5669 A saturable core reactor
operate on the principle of
controlling load windings
inductance by varying the core
a) Dielectric
b) Permeability
c) Reactance
d) Inductance
Ans.b
5670 operational amplifiers
used primarily in analog circuits
,are characterized by
a) High input impedance ,high
gain and low output
impedance
b) High input impedance ,high
gain and high output
impedance
c) Low input impedance ,low
gain and high output
impedance
d) Low input impedance, high
gain and low output
impedance
Ans.a
5671 The total resistance of a Ans.c
parallel circuit is always
5673 A “Deadfront” switchboard
a) Larger than the greater is one
branch resistance
a) Without switches on it
b) Smaller than the lowest
b) With insulated switches
branch resistance
and no exposed terminals
c) Equal to the sum of the
c) Without circuit breakers
individual branch
d) Without safety hand rails
resistance
and nor rubber mats
d) One half the individual
branch resistance Ans.b

Ans.b 5674 Mercury filled

thermometers should never be
5672 which of the following
used to determine the
express the relationship of the
temperature of the battery
input and output in a full wave
electrolyte because accidental
rectifier?
breakage of the thermometer
a) The output frequency is can cause
same as the input
a) Sever sparking and
frequency
explosions
b) The output frequency is
b) Rapid oxidation of battery
one half the input
plates
frequency
c) Contamination of the
c) The output frequency is
electrolyte
twice the input frequency
d) Corrosion of the battery
d) The output frequency is
terminals
four times the input
frequency Ans.a
5675the purpose of the main
switch board circuit breakers
reverse power trip is to
a) Pevent main circuit
overload
b) Protect the circuit breakers
blow out coils
c) Prevent alternator
motorization
d) Prevent low voltage tip out
Ans.c
5676a temperature
instrumentation system for an
engine room console consist of a
resistance temperature
detector(RTD),a measuring
bridge circuit a meter (R alarm
circuit).which of the following
statement is true concerning
bridge circuit
a) The input voltage varies in
a linear fashion with
temperature
b) The voltage across the
centre of the resistance
circuit is always constant
c) The resistance circuit is
said to be balanced when
its output voltage is zero
d) The input voltage of th
resistance bridge is the
constant temperature
signal
Ans.c
5677modem DC generator are
fitted with commutating poles to
a) Prevent motorizing
b) Reduce sparking
c) Reduce the load to the
main poles
d) Reduce spring pressure on
the brushes
Ans.b
5678the purpose of magnetic
relay is to
a) Open a circuit only in the
event of overload
b) remotely open and close
contacts
c) provide over current
protection during starting
 d) relay voltage at increased scale as the capacito
power charges
c) Immediately deflect and
Ans.b
remains at zero
5679a semiconductor is a d) Immediately swing to the
material…………. high reading and the
a) Conductivity higher than a gradually decreases
normal conductor Ans.c
b) Conductivity higher than a
5681when mixing electrolyte for
normal insulator
lead acid storagebattery,you
c) High conductivity at low
should pour th
temperatures
d) Low conductivity at high a) Distilled water into acid in a
temperatures zinc plated container.
b) Distilled water into acid in a
Ans.b
glass container
5680capacitor can be tested c) Acid into distilled water into
using a megohmmeter or an zinc plated container
ohm meter. If the meter is d) Acid into distilled water into
connected to the shorted glass container
capacitor the meter pointer
Ans.b
should
5682to carry out an insulation
a) Immediately swing to the
resistance test,one terminal of
maximum resistance value
the megohmmeter should be
for the capacitor
connected the winding, with
b) First swing quickly to “then
other terminal being connected
gradually moves up the
to the
 a) Power supply c) Directly as its length and
b) Variable resistor directly as its cross sectional
c) Frame of the machine area
d) Armature d) Inversely as its length and
inversely as its cross
Ans.c
sectional area
5683the charge of the lead acid
Ans.a
battery can be restored by
5685in order to check the
a) Passing an alternating
performance of the transisitor
electric current through the
removed from its circuit by
coil
instrument to be used by a/an
b) Passing a direct electric
current through the coil a) Voltmeter or transistor
c) Adding acid to the resistance
electrolyte b) Impedance meter
d) All the above c) Ohmmeter or transistor
tester
Ans.b
d) Sensitive potentiometer
5684the resistance of the
conductor varies
Ans : C
a) Directly as its length and
5686 to test the state of charge
inversely as its cross
of a nickel- cadmium battery,
sectional area
you should use a/an_____
b) Inversely as its length and
directly as its cross sectional A. Ammeter
area B. Voltmeter
C. Hydrometer
D. Potentiometer
Ans : B
5687 on a switchboard, if all
three ground detection lamps
remain burning at half intensity
when the test button is
depressed, which of the listed
conditions is indicated?
A. No grounds exist
B. All three phases are
grounded
C. The test switch is grounded
D. The current transformers
are shorted
Ans: A
5688 which of the following
actions can be carried out in
order to prevent thermal runway
in transistor?
a) Increase the current
through the collector base
junction
b) Install a heat sink
c) Shift the “Q” point to
increase collector current
d) Increase the potential
difference between the
emitter and the base
Ans: B
5689 insufficient brush pressure
on a DC motor may cause
_________
a) Generator overload
b) Excess residual magnetism
c) Water vapor absorption
d) Sparking of the brushes
Ans: D
5690 burning of com=ntroller
contacts, when opening is
prevented by __________-
a) Coating the contact
surfaces lightly with
petroleum jelly
b) Magnetic blowout coils
c) An overvoltage release
d) An over current release
Ans: B
5691 which of the electrical
properties listed will always be
the same for each component in
a parallel circuit?
a) Impedance
5692 which of the listed
instruments can be best used to
locate a grounded field coil in a
synchronous motor?
a) Frequency meter
5693. The standard procedure
for maintaining the charge in an
emergency diesel battery is to
trickle charge the battery…………
A.continuously
B.astleast once each week
C.whenever the charge falls to
75% of full charge
D.whenever the electrolyte
specific gravity falls to 1.250 or
lower
Ans:A
5694.A replacement wire having
twice the legth and one – half
the cross –sectional area of the
original wire will have a
resistance that is ………………
A.four that of the original wire
B.twice that of the original wire
C.the same as that of the original
wire
D.one – half that of the original
wire
Ans:A
5695.If a delicate component
must be soldered into a circuit ,
the component may be
protected from the part of the
soldering process by
………………………
A.operating the soldering gun
not more than 60 seconds at the
time
B.using a thermal shunt
C.pre- oxidizing the leads to be
soldered
D.coating the leads to be
soldered with the light oil film
Ans:B
5696.If you disconnect and
arrange both ends of a three
conductor cable without any
contact between the individual
conductors an indicated ohmic
value between the ends of a
single conductor could
indicate……………..
A.continuity of the conductor
B.an infinite resistance
C.the presence of a partial
ground
D.that the conductor is not short
circuited
Ans:A
5697.Why is it a poor practice to
use a high wattage soldering iron
when soldering or desoldering
components on a printed circuit
board?
A.the circuit board will blister
and warp
B.the foil wire bonded to a board
may come loosened from the
board
C.the circuit board has a low
melting temperature
d.the solder is kept to a dull heat
dissipating finish
Ans:b
5698.which of the following
temperatures represent the
maximum allow able
temperature for the electrolyte
of a lead acid battery?
A.100F
B.125F
C.145F
D.212F
Ans:B
5699.Which of the following
method should be used to dress
the face of silver plated
contacts?
A.filing
B.burnishing
C.sanding with 0000 sand paper
D.all of the above or correct
Ans :C
5700.A lead acid battery may
become hotter than normal
during the change if the …………..
A.battery as a shortered cell
B.charging voltage is too low
C.specific gravity is too high
D.battery room door is secured
Ans:A
5701.which of the substances
listed can be used toshield
sensitive equipment from static
magnetic field ?
A.glass
B.mica
C.bakelight
D.premeable iron
Ans:D
5702.Handheld phase sequence
indicators are useful when
…………..
A.preparing to parallel
alternaters
B.connecting lighting branch
circuits
C.troubleshooting DC motors
D.connecting shore power lines
to the ship
Ans:D
5704.To determine the state of
change of a nickel-cadmium
battery,you should ……………..
A.check the electrolyte with a
hydrometer
B.use the constant specific
gravity method
C.use a nonbreakable mercury
thermometer.
D.connect a voltmeter to a
battery terminals
Ans:D
5705.The timer element of a
reverse power relay cannot
energized unless ……………………
A.one generater is fully
motorized
B.the movement of a disk is
damped by a permanent
magnent
C.the power flow is same as the
tripping direction
D.the power flow is opposite to
the tripping direction
Ans:C
5706.Before touching the small
capacitor connected to a de-
energized circuit or even one
that is completely disconnected
,you should ……………..
A.gently tap the body with a
screw driver
B.tag it with ade energized tag
C.be equipped with an insulated
fuse puller
D.shortcircuit the terminals to
make sure that the capacitor is
dis charged
Ans:D
5707.An increase which of the
listed conditions will increase
the speed of a synchronous
motor ?
A.frequency
B.voltage
C.armature current
D.inductance
Ans :A
5708.Before working on an
electric cargo winch master
switch or controller ,you should
…………………
A.spray the gasket surface with a
solvent
B.drain condensate from the box
C.open the circuit breaker in the
power supply and tag
D.heat the switch box to remove
any moisture
Ans :C
5709.Which of the following
methods Should be used to test
for an “open”coil in an AC motor
stator?
A.test with on ohm meter ,one
test lead on the shaft and the
other test lead to the stator
leads
B.test with an ohm meter with
the test leads between the
stator leads
C.use a growler listening for
noise and vibration to diminish
when over an open coil
D. .use a growler listening for
noise and vibration to increase
when over an open coil
Ans:B
5710.If a three- phase induction
motor malfunctions and drops to
a single-phase (one supply line
open ) ……………………….
A.the motor will continue to run
if it is noy heavily loaded
B.more torque will be developed
C.the motor will immediately
stop and not be able to be
restarted
D.the motor will immediately
stop and can only be restarted at
no load
Ans :A
5711. which of the problems
listed will occur if a lead-acid
battery is allowed to remain in a
discharged condition for a long
period of time?
A.The battery may be unable to
accept a full charge
B.The electrolyte will change to
lead sulfate
C.The concentrated sulfuric acid
will attack the lead peroxide
plate
D.The separator will harden
Ans; A
5712.the division of the kilowatt
load between two AC
generators operating in parallel
is controlled by the setting and
characteristics of the…………………
A . voltage regulators
B . field rheostats
C . reverse power relays
D. prime mover governors
Ans ; D
5713 . when lesting a capacitor
with an analog type ohmmeter a
good capacitor will be indicated
when ……………….
A . There is no meter deflection
B . The meter deflects to a low
resistance value and remain
there
C . The meter deflects to a low
resistance value and slow
increases towards infinity
D . The meter deflects to a low
resistance value and increases
rapidly to a higher value but
stays fairly low
Ans . c
5714 . The division of the
kilowatt load between two AC
generators operating in parallel
is controlled by the setting and
characteristics of the
…………………..
A . amount of field excitation of
the leading machine
B . load –speed characteristics
of the governors
C . amount of field excitation to
the tagging machine
D . type of alternator
Ans ; B
5715 . While troubleshooting
acircuit in an engine room
central control console , a
resistor is suspected of being
faulty . which of the following
precautions must be observed if
an ohmmeter is to be used to
check its value
A . correct polarity must be
observed because reverse bias
will damage the component
B . meter leads must not be
twisted so as to cancel out the
individual magnetic fields
C . resistor’s circuit must be de-
energized and at least one end
of the component isolated
D . the mater case must be
groundedprior to attaching the
leads
Ans ; C
5716 . which of the following
procedures should be used to
determine the load of a three-
phase delta wound . AC
generator?
A . Multiply the amperage in
one phase by three
B . Divide the total amperage in
all phases by three
C . multiply the amperage in one
phase by the square root of
three
D . divides the total amperage in
all phases by the square root of
three
Ans ; B
5717 . the full load torque of an
electric motor is the
…………………..
A . minimum torque developed
by a motor accelerating from
stop to full speed
B . turning moment exerted by
the motor at the rate load and
full speed
C. maximum torque developed
by the motor with related
voltage and frequency
D.turning moment excerted by
motor from any rotor angular
position at any load
Ans B
5718
Prior using an analog type
ohmmeter the leads are
shortened together .which of the
following actions should be
taken if when adjusting to zero
ohms,the indicating needle
cannot be returned to zero on
the scale?
A.The lead chips could be
replaced
B.the batteries should be
replaced
C.the least reading should be
added to each final reading
D.the least reading should be
subtracted from each final
reading
Ans:B
5719 . the transmit and receive
elements of a sound –powered
telephone handset are ………….
A . Identical and can be used for
either function
B . of similar construction but
different enough to be used
only for its own function
C . of very different construction
and MUST be used only for its
own function
D . constructed so that each can
fit only in its own recess
Ans ; A
5720 . The resistance of most
conducting materials will change
as a result of temperature
change . the resistance of copper
will ……………
A . increases as temperature
decreases
B . decreases as temperature
decreases
C . remain the same between -
7*c and 44*c
D . remain the same between
20*c and 110*c
5721 . the function of a step
down potential transformer is to
reduce the load ……………….
A . voltage and current
B . voltage and increase line
current
C . current and increase line
voltage
D . POWER
Ans ; B
5722 . to avoid damaging the
component of a printed circuit
board when testing it with aDC
volt –ohm meter, you should
………………..
A . ground the board
B . avoid reversing the polarity of
the leads
C . isolated sensitive component
with sinks
5724 . Increasing the load to the
secoundry winding of a
transformer will cause a/an
………………….
A . decrease in the primary
voltage
B . increase in the primary
voltage
C . decrease in the primary
current
D . increases in primary current
Ans ; C

D . all of the above 5725 . if an induction motor

were to be operated at 90*
Ans ; B
rated voltage,……………
5723 . A loud buzzing noise in an
A . there would be an increase in
AC controllel probally caused by
starting torque
…………………………
B . starting current would
A . poor contact with the
increase slightly
overload relay

B . an incorrectly sized heater

C . a broken shading coil
D . abnormal starting current
Ans ; C
5726 . when trouoleshootinga
magnetic controller,it is found
that the contacts are welded
together the most probable
cause is ……………………….
A .excessive operation at low
load
B . high amblent temparature
C. Synchronous speed would
decrease slightly
D. the slip would increase
Ans.D
5727. The instantaneous
reduction in voltage of an AC
generator, resulting
From an increase in load, and
prior to the automatic voltage
Regulator correcting the
situation , is called voltage
A. droop
B. drop
C. dip
D .regulation
Ans.C
5728.A characteristic of a
wound-rotor induction motor,
with a high resistance rotor
winding, is
A. low starting torque
B. high starting torque
C. high speed
D .low starting voltage
Ans.B
5729. Magnetic controller
contacts may become welded
together during operation
because of
A .excessive magnetic gap
B .low contact pressure
C .an open coil
D .excessive ambient
temperature
Ans:B
5730. If a transformer is
connected to a DC source, the
transformer will overload at the
A. contacts
B. primary coil
C. secondary coil
D. core
Ans:B
5731. The output voltage of a
440 volt, 60 Hz AC generator is
controlled by the
A. load on the alternator
B. load on the prime mover
C. speed of the prime mover
D. exciter output voltage
Ans:D
5732.In a three-phase,squirrel-
cage type,induction motor the
rotating magnetic field is
established by the
A. current induced in the rotor
windings
B. application of a three-phase
voltage supply to the stator
windings
C. laminated steel core and
aluminium conductors in the
rotor
D. interaction of the magnetic
field caused by the induced
current in the squirrel-cage bars
with the magnetic field of the
stator
5733.When placed in a magnetic
field, which of the materials
listed will maintain the highest
permeability?
A. Glass
B. Bakelite
C. soft iron
D. Aluminium
Ans.C
5734. Before measuring an
unknown resistance with an
ohmmeter, you should
A. adjust the meter’s pointers to
mid-scale
B. change the master’s hatteries
C. center the meter’s pointer at
infinity
D. short the test leads and
calibrate the meter
Ans:D
5735. One diode of a full-wave
rectifier has burned out in a
shorted condition. Therefore,
the output will be
A. zer0
B. a rectified half-wave
C. a rectified full-wave
D .equal to the AC input
Ans:D
5736. The charge of a lead-acid
battery is checked with a/an
A. manometer
B. hydrometer
C. voltmeter
D. ohmmeter
Ans: B
5737.Magnetic controller
contacts may become welded
together during operating
conditions as a result of
A. high ambient temperature
B. high spring pressure
C. an open coil
D. low voltage on operating coil
Ans:D
5738. When a transformer is
used to step down voltage, the
low voltage winding is
A. part of the core
B. the primary coil
C. not insulated
D. the secondary coil
Ans:D
5739.An AC circuit has
capacitance arranged in series. If
the line voltage remains
constant, the capacitive
reactance value can be varied by
changing the
A. line frequency
B. resistance
C. number of commutating
poles
D. number of interpoles
Ans:A
5740.The total voltage of a series
circuit in the
A.sum of the individual voltage
drops
B. total resistance dinided by the
total current
C.sum of the individual currents
multiplied by the number of
resistors
D.total currents divided by the
total resistance
Ans:A
5741 .Excessive humming of AC
contactors may be caused by
A. burnt arc shields
B. shorted armature coils
C. a broken shading coil
D. high voltage
Ans:C
5742.Decreasing the frequency
in a capacitive circuit while
maintaining a constant circuit
voltagw,will result in a/an
A. increase in apparent power
B. decrease in circuit current
C. decrease in capacitive
resistance
D. decrease in total impedence
Ans:B
5743. The counter EMF
produced in the windings of a DC
motor is “zero” when the
A. armature has just begun to
turn
B. armature is not turning
C. motor is almost up to rated
speed
D. motor is at rated speed
Ans:B
5744.A loud buzzing noise
coming from the contacts in a
magnetic controller can be
caused by
A. excessive current
B. excessive magnet gap
C. bouncing of contacts
D. dirt on magnet faces
Ans:D
5745. The function of the
commutator in a Dc motor is to
A. reverse the flow of current
through the armature
B. reverse the flow of current in
the field poles
C. reduce the reluctance of the D. an armature has just begun to
magnetic path through the turn
motor Ans:A
D. shift the neutral running plane 5749. In the flow of one cycle of
of the brushes to prevent single phase AC current past any
sparking given point in a circuit, the
Ans:A maximum current peak occurs
5746. Humming or buzzing of A. one time
electric contacts is a symptom of B. two times
A. low voltage on the operating C. three times
coil D. four times
B. power failure to the operating Ans:D
coil 5750. AC and DC generators are
C. a contralto circuit ground similar in that they
D. a control circuit overload A. both generate alterating
Ans:A voltages
5747. To increase the frequency B. both rectify the voltage before
of an operating AC generator, delivery
you should C. are constructed at the same
A. increase the field excitation physical size for the same
B. decrease the field excitation kilowatt rating
C. increase the number of D. both supply three-phase
magnetic poles power
D. increase the speed of the Ans:A
prime mover 5751.If the length of a wire is
Ans:D halved and the cross-sectional
5748. The counter EMF of a DC area is doubled,the resistance
motor is maximum when the will be
A. motor is at rated speed A. unaltered
B. armature is not turning B. unchanged
C. motor is almost up to raised C. doubled
speed D. unadrupled
Ans:A
5752. Prior to taking a resistance
reading with a volt-ohm-
milliammeter the “zero” setting
must be adjusted. After clipping
the two leads together, you find
the adjustment knob will not
return the pointer to “zero”. This
is most likely an indication of
A. an improper resistance range
setting
B. weak batteries
C. a faulty xero ohms knob
D. a faulty matter movement
Ans.B
5753. When correcting specific
gravity readings of a lead-acid
battery for existing temperature
conditions ,you should
A. add 10 points for each
2.2’above 26.7’C
B. subtract 10 points for each
2.2’C above 26.7’C
C. add 4 points for each 4.5’
above 26.7’C
D. add 4 points for each 4.5’C
below 26.7’C
Ans:C
5754. Relative of the secondary
winding of a step-up transformer
.The primary winding will have
A. more turns
B. fewer turns
C. half as many turns
D. twice as many turns
Ans:B
5755. The total power used up in
a series circuit is
A. the sum of the powers used in
each load (resistor) divided by
the number of loads
B. the sum of the powers used in
each load
C. always less than the power
used in the smallest load
D. never more than the power
used in largest load
Ans :B
5756. When the operating
handle of a molded-case circuit
breaker is in the mid-position,
this indicates that the circuit
breaker is
A. On
B. off
C. reset
D. tripped
Ans:D
5757: If a magnetic controller
fails to pick up when the
operating coil is energized on a
possible cause may be
A. low spring pressure
B. low voltage to the coil
C. the residual magnetism of the
contact faces
D. dirt contact faces
Ans:B
5758. Which of the listed forms
of water should be added to a
lead-acid battery?
A. saktwater
B. brackish water
C. distilled water
D. light water
Ans:C
5759. The primary function of an
electric motor is to
A. develop torque
B. generate high voltages
C. produce a magnetic field
D. generate high electrical
resistance
Ans:A
5760. Current measuring
instrument must always be
connected in
A. series with a circuit
B. parallel with a circuit
C. series-parallel with a circuit
D. delta with the shunt
Ans.A
5761 .The resistance of electric
wire will decrease wire will
decrease as its
A. length increases
B. cross-sectional area increases
C. temperature increases
D. percent of metallic purities
increases
Ans:B
5762. Which of the instruments
listed should always be
connected in series with a
circuit?
A. Ammeter
B. Magohmeter
C. Waltmeter
D. Voltmeter
Ans .A
5763. When the voltage remains
constant and the resistance is
increased is increased in a series
circuit, the flow of current
A. increases by the square of the
original value
B. increases
C. remains the same
D. decreases
5764.An ammeter should be
used to measure
A. the voltage between two
points in a circuit
B. circuit continuity
C. current flow in a circuit
D.total or partial circuit
resistance
5769 when a console indicating
lamp burns out ,attempts to
renew it should not be made
while maneuvering
because_______________
A the new lamp may be a higher
voltage and cause heat damage
to the lens
B removing the faulty lamp
usually causes an alaram to
sound on the bridge
C attention should be paid only
to engine orders
D a SOCKET/WIRING fault may
cause a ground or short circuit to
shutdown in a vital function
ANS :D
5770 The rate at which heat is
produced in a direct current
circuit is equal to
________________
A P divided by R
B I square times R
C E divided by I
D I times R divided by T
ANS :B
5771 One horse power is equal
to ________________
A 500watts
B 663 watts
C 746 watts
D 1000 watts
ANS :C
5772 An ameter reads slightly
above “zero”when its leads are
disconnected,thisis a result of
______________
A mechanical misalignment of
the meter pointer
B a poor ground for the meter
case
C static electricity in the air
D resistor inside the meter
storing charges
ANS :A
5773 Modern head held digital
tachometers operated by
counting light pulses returned to
the unit by ____________
A the tach generator
B either the coupling or shaft
C a small bulb attached to the
shaft
D a piece of reflective tape
ANS :D
5774 To determine the state of
charge of nickelcadmium battery
,you would use
a/an________________
A voltmeter
B hydrometer
C ammeter
D potentiometer
ANS :A
5775 When trouble shooting a
lead acid storage battery weak
or dead cell is best defected
by_____________
A measuring end comparing all
cells specific gravity
B taking an open circuit voltage
test of individual cells
C visually inspecting the
electrolyte levels of each cells
D taking each cells temprature
with a calibrated mercury
thermometer
ANS :A
5776 Common nickel cadmium
and nickel iron storage batteries
utilize ____________________
A acid primary cells
B alkaline primary cells
C acid secondary cells
D alkaline secondary cells
ANS :D
5777 The amont of voltage
induced in the windings of an ac
generator depends mainly on
_______________________
A the number of field poles
energised
B the speed at which the stator
windings rotate through the
magnetic field
C the strength of the magnetic
field
D all of the above
ANS :C
5778 Which of the following
material is the good electric
insulator___________
A wood
B silver
C copper
D gold
ANS :A
5779 When mixing electrolyte ,
which of the following
precautions should always be
absorved?
A add the acid to the water
B use a heavy duty aluminum
pail
C add the water to the acid
D mix the solution out dooers
ANS :A
5780 Which of the following
statements represents the
correct method of connecting
the shunt of an ammeter prior to
taking a reading?
A in series with the load and in
series with the meter movement
B in series with the load and in
parrllel with the meter
movement
C in parrllel with the load and in
series with the meter movement
D in parrllel with the load and in
parllel with the meter
movement
ANS :B
5781 Nickel- cadmium storage
batteries are superior to lead-
acid batteries bacause they
___________
A put out higher voltages and
require no maintainance
B can remain idle and keep a full
charge for a long time
C need fewer cells in sense and
useless mounting space
D all of the above 5784 which of the listed sections
of an emergency switch board is
ANS : B
used to supply power for alaram
5782 The force that causes free signals under emergency
electrons to move in a conductor conditions
as electric current flow is called ____________________
a/an_________
A the generator and the bus
A resistant force transfer section
B electromotive force B the 450 volts 60 cycle 3 phase
C inductive force bus

D dielctric force C the 120 volt 3 phase 60 cycle

bus
ANS :B
D the 24 dc bus
5783 a hand held digital
tachometre could give a bad ANS D
reading if _______________ 5785 when removing ball or
A aimed directiv at the shaft roller bearing from shaft of a
motor you should use a
B partially aimed at a 60hz ________________
floursent light
A rawhide hammer
C positioned 10-25 cms from the
shaft B brass mallet

D the tape is too shiny C wheel pulle

ANS B D soft iron prybar

ANS C
5786 the rotation of athree to supply power to the
phase indetion motor can be _________________
reversed by
A general alarm system
_______________________
B gyro compass power failure
A inter changing any two of
alarm system
three lines leads to stator
C smoke detection system
B disconnecting one of three ilne
leads to the stator D all of the above

C switching the shunt field coit ANS D

leads 5789 the frequency of an
D permanetly disconnecting any alternator is controlled from the
two of the three lines leads to main switch board by adjusting
the stator the
___________________________
ANS A
____
5787 the frequency of an ac
A frequency metre
generator is controlled by the
B voltage regulator
A rheostat
C governor control
B governor
D sychroscope switch
C exciter
ANS C
D capacitor
5790 the reversal of an ac three
ANS B
phase induction motor
5788 the 24 volt dc bus on the isaccomplished
emergency switch board is used by_______________________
A changing all three motor leads
B reversing the positionof the
slip rings
C interchanging any two of the
three motor leads
D interchanging any two brushes
ANS C
5791 in order to take a current
reading with a clamp on
ammeter the instruments’s
jaws___________________
A shouid remain open
B cannot touch the adjacent
conductor
C must be fully closed
D will act as a transformer
primary
ANS C
5792 the number of cycles per
second occuring in ac voltage is
known as the
____________________
A phase angle
B frequency
C wave form
D half mode
ANS B
5793 when troubleshooting an
alkaline storage battery a week
or dead cell is best located
by________________
A checking the specific gravity of
each cell
B visually inspecting each cells
electrolyte level
C testing each cell with a
voltmetre
D measuring the electrolyte
temperature with an accurate
mercury thermometre
ANS C
5794 when a meghometre is
used to test the the dielectric
strength of wire insulation the
initial dip of the pointer toward
zero is caused
by________________________
A good insulation ANS C

B leakage of current along the 5796 when trouble shooting

surface of dirty insulation motor controller a shorted
releay contactor coil is often
C the capacitance of the circuit
indicated by_________________
D the cielectric absorption effect
A a resistance reading of infinity
of the insulation
of an ohmmetre
ANS C
B charred insulation and /or a
5795 which of the following blown control fuse
statement concerning ac circuit
C a reading of zero on a megger
is
from one of the coils lead to
correct_____________________
ground
____
D a higher than normal voltage
A the power factor of a ressistive
reading across the windings
circuit is always zero
ANS B
B true power in an inductive
circuit always equals apparent 5797 if the driving torque such
power as that produced by adiesel
engine create pulsation when
C inductive reactance varies
coupled with a synchronous
directly with the frequncy and
generator operating in parallel
the inductance
the generator rotor may be
D total opposition to the flow of periodically pulled a head on
alternating current depends behind its normal position as it
upon the amount of reactive rotates this
power
hurt_______________________
____
A amortisseur windings
B direct coupling
C increase governor speed drop
D decreasing governor speed
drop
ANS A
5798 which of the following
statement represents the first
step in settings new brushes on
slip
rings_______________________
____
A wrap sand paper around the
slip rings and side it back and
forth between the brushes and
the slip rings
B press the brushes against the
slip rings with e wood block
C increase brush pressure and
run at no load for 3 to 4 hours
D apply seating compound under
the brushes and run at no load
for 2 hours
ANS A
5799 motor name plate includes
vc rise the indicates the
__________________
A actual running temperature
after winding from no load to full
load
B permissble temperature rise of
the windings above the designed
ambient temerature
C maximum allowable
temperature rise above normal
full load operating temperature
D
5800 when using ameghno
metre to test the dielectric
strength of wire insulation a
continous series of slight down
scale kicks by the pointer is
result of __________________
A good insulation
B the leakage of current along
the surface of dirty insulation
C the capacitance of the
windings
-5801. A commulators protective
oxide film can be destroyed by
a. periods of low humidity
b.very low brush current
density
c.improper brush grade
d.all the above
ans; d
5802. when the electrolyte level
of a lead acid storage battery has
decreased due to normal
evaparation
The level should be
restabilished by adding
a.distilled water only
b.sulfuric acid only
c.a weak solution of
sulfuric acid and distilled water
d.a strong solution of
sulfuric acid and distilled water
ans;a
5803.when ship board electrical
distribution circuits are
connected in parllel additional
parllel circuits will cause the
total circuit resistance to
a.increase causing a drop in
the line current
b.increase causing a
decrease in the line voltage
c.decrease causing an
incrase in the line voltage
 d.decrease cauding an
increase in the line current
ans;d
5804.which of the listed classes
of electrical insulation is suited
for the highest operating
temperature?
a.class 90(0)
b.class105(a)
c.class130(b)
d.class180(h)
ans;d
5805.when the control handle is
in the off position the solenoid
actuated brake of the electric
winch is
a.de energized and the
brake is released
b.energised and the brake
is released
c.energised and the brake
is set by a spring
d.de energized and the
brade is set by a spring
ans ;d
5806.in d.c motor construction
the armature coils ends are
a.soldered to the
commutator arrisers
b.imbedded into core slots
c.crimped together with
brush pigtails
d.splicad with the field
windings
ans;a
5807.when troubleshooting a
console circuit card suspected of
being faulty the last step would
be to
a.check the fuses and
voltage levels of all power
supplies in the console
b.clean dust and debris
from the card and burnish the
sliding connections
 c.make sure all connections b.unimpregnated papeer
are tight including wire wrapping and cotton
and push on types
c.pure glass and quartz
d.substitute a new or
d.mica and porcelian with
repaired spare card and check
bonding agents
the operation of the circuit
ans;c
ans;d
5810.capacitors can be used in
5808.The armature cores of the
electrical distribution system to
d c motors are constructed with
improve power factor this is
laminations to
accomplished by seesawing
a.eliminate hysteresis energy between the capacitor
and the
b.minimize brush sparking
a.generator
c.reduce eddy current
losses b.inductive loads

d.compensate for armature c.resistive loads

reaction
d.all of the above
ans;c
ans;b
5809.which of the listed groups
5811.you are paralleling two
oj electrical insulation materials
alternators the synchornizing
is best suited for the highest
lamps grow dim and are totally
operating
darkened as the synchroscope
Temperatures? pointer approaches the 0
position this indicates that the
a.impregnated cotton and
silk
 a.alternator voltages are
180 a part
b.circuit breaker can be
closed
c.incoming alternator is
running too slowly
d.synchroscope is defective
or broken
ans;b
5812.if you reverse both the
field and the armature
connections to a dc propulsion
motor
a.the direction of motor
rotation will change
b.the brushes will become
over heated
c.a magnetic lock will occur
in the motor
d.the direction of motor
rotation will remail the same
ans ;d
5813.the leads from a
megohmmeter are attached to
the leads of an ac motor field
coil a reading of infinity is
obtained indicating a
a.open field coil
b.shorted field coil
c.grounded field coil
d.shunted field coil
ans;a
5814.the direction of rotation of
a dc propulsion motor can be
changed by reversing the
a.brush holder position
b.polarity of the field poles
c.brush staggered order
d.motor interpole
connections
ans;b
5815.moisture absorbed in the
windings or condensed on the
surface of electrical machinery
insulation
a.is good for long term
preserving since most insulation
is organic and contains some
amount
b.lowers the insulation
value and is a common cause of
fault grounds in idle machines
c.will enhance insulation
resistance only if it is fresh water
and contains no salt
d.reduces the amount of
current supplied or drawn by the
machine so horse power is
limited
ans;b
5816.the voltage devoloped by
an ac generator is controlled by
varying the
a.speed of the prime mover
b.ac excitation to the field
c.dc excitation to the field
d.dc excitation to the
voltage regulator
ans;c
5817.if a fuse of correct size and
type blows frequently
a.try the next higher
amperage rating
b.try the next lower
amperage rating
c.look for trouble within the
circuit
d.reduce the applied voltage
10%
ans.c
5818.if voilet gassing occurs
when a lead acid storage battery
is first placed on charge the
a.battery must be given an
emergency charges
b.charging rate is too low
c.charging rate is too high
d.specific gravity of the
electrolyte solution is too low
ans;c
5819.what type of electric motor
is commonly used to start small
auxilary diasel engines?
a.
 b.series 5822.a reverse current relay will
prevent ac generator
c.shunt
motorization by
d.cage
a.automatically redirecting
ans; the load
5820.voilet gassing developed by b.automatically speeding up
a lead acid battery during charge the prime mover
indicates that
c.tripping the panel board
a. main switch
b.cell voltages are excessive d.tripping the generator
c.specific gravity in in circuit breaker
sufficient ans;d
d.charges rate is excessive 5823.complete controller
ans;d maintanance includes

5821.all the following items can a.peroidic testing of

be used in the maintanance of a protective devices
dc propulsion motors b.checking for loose or worn
commutator except contacts and weak springs
a.a canvas wiper c.maintaining a sufficient
b.safety solvent supply of spare parts

c.abrasive dressing stones d.all the above

d.sand paper ans.d

ans;b
5824.if a loaded shunt motors
field were weakened by rheostat
resistance or byan open circuit
the motor would
a.overspeed due to reduced
cemf
b.stop because of low flux
c.continue to run at base
speed
d.slow down and over heat
ans.a
5825.how is a wattmeter
electrically connected ina
circuit?
a.in series
b.in parllel
c.in series parllel
d.inductively
ans;c
5826.an ac generator panel is
fitted with both synchronising
lamps and a synchroscope when
the synchroscope pointer
reaches the noon positioin one
synchronizing light is bright and
the other
a.there is a ground on the phase
wirh the lamp
b.the phase sequence is
incorrect
c.the generator breaker may be
closed
ans.b
5827.a wattmeter is used to
determine
a.the power being consumed by
electrical equipment
b.partial circuit resistance
c.current flowing in a circuit
d.voltage existing between two
points in a circuit
ans;a
5828.which of the following
statements is true concerning a
step down transformer in a n
operating ac power circuit?
A.voltage and current will both b.glass or mica
be increased
c.plastic or teflon’
b.voltage and current will both
d.dry air or vacum
be decreased
ans.d
c.voltage decreases as current
increases 5831.if the pointer of the
synchroscope is rotating in the
d.voltage increases as current
slow direction when you are
decreases
preparing to parllel two
ans.c alternators the

5829.the rpm of an ac generator a.incoming machine is turning

can be measured with a faster than the load alternator

a.ammeter b.loaded alternator is turning

faster than the incoming
b.voltmeter
machine
c.vibrating reed meter
c.load on the loaded alternator is
d.synchroscope ready to split
ans;c d.incoming machine is beginning
5830.then dielectric constant is to pick up some of the load
a numerical value indicating the ans.b
effectiveness of a dielectric
5832.the air gap in an induction
material
motor should be checked
In comparison to that of a periodically with a feeler gage to
standard which is detect
a.paper or cloth
a.rotor contact with the
laminations
b.changes in armature magnetic
strength
c.excessive bearing wear
d.electrical damage to the rotor
ans.c
5833.the following air gap
readings were obtained from a
horizontally mounted bilge
pump induction motor equipped
with sleeve bearings
A.the aft bearing should be
realigned or replaced
b.shims should be removed from
the aft bearing
c.the farward bearing should be
lowered
d.the aft bearing should be
lowered
ans .a
5834.the dielectrical constant of
dry air or a vaccum is
a.
b.
c.
d.
ans.a
5835.when the operating handle
of a molded case circuit breaker
is in the mid position it indicates
the circuit breaker is
a.in the opened position
b.in the closed position
c.tripped
d.reset
ans.c
5836.during maintenance of
circuit breakers
a.always smooth roughened
contact surfaces with a file
b.never pass more than rated
breaker current through the
overload heater element
c.inspect for wear and
misalignment of main contacts
d.assume heater elements
installed are of correct size
ans.c
5837 In a three-phase, open-
delta connected transformer,
the line current is equal
to________
(A) The phase current
(B) Three times the
phase current
(C) The sum of any two
phase current
(D) The difference of any
two phase current
Answer: (A)
5838 Most AC voltmeter are
calibrated to indicate________
(A) Peak-to-peak voltage
(B) Root-mean-square
voltage
(C) Average voltage
(D) Peak voltage only
Answer: (B)
5839 To limit the current flow
through a DC voltmeter to as low
a value as possible, the moving
coil circuit is provided with
a/an__________
(A) High series resistance
(B) High parallel
resistance
(C) Series inductor
(D) External shunt
Answer: (A)
5840 Encrusted dirt
accumulated inside a motor
should be remove with
a____________
(A) Fiber scraper
(B) Pointed welding rod
(C) Hammer and chisel
(D) Paint scraper
Answer: (A)
5841 to check the three line
fuses of a three-phase system
consisting of a three-phase
motor. You must_________
 (A) Place the starter in
the “stop” position
(B) Make sure the motor
is operating at full load
to guard against a false
reading
(C) Place the leads across
the “hot”ends of the
fuses
(D) Place the leads across
the bottom ends of the
fuses
Answer: (A)
5842 If the voltage applied to a
moving disk frequency meter
decreases while the applied
frequency remains the same, the
frequency indication
will_________
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) Oscillate
Answer: (C)
5843 Which of the listed
conditions could indicate the
need for cleaning electrical
insulation?
(A) Low ambient
temperature
(B) Low operating
temperature
(C) High dielectric
strength
(D) Low megger reading
Answer: (D)
5844 The reactive power drawn
by a motor from an AC generator
is the power which is _________
(A) Used to establish the
magnetic field of the
motor
(B) Lost in overcoming
friction in the bearing
(C) Strictly converted to
heat generated by
current flow through the
windings
(D) Transmitted directly
through the rotor shaft
to perform useful work
Answer: (A)
5845 The most inefficient
method of voltage reduction,
from the stand point of poer
loss,even when placed in series
with the load, is the use of
a/an__________
(A) Capacitor
(B) Inductor
(C) Resistor
(D) Transistor
Answer: (C)
5846 When using a multimeter
for resistance measurements, it
should be calibrated by clipping
the loose ends of the leads
together and_________
(A) Setting the
instrument pointer at
“zero”ohms
(B) Adjusting the line
voltage to calibrate the
instrument
(C) Plugging each ends of
one test lead into the
plus and minus
terminals
(D) Using a special
purpose resistance
measuring instrument(a
bridge)
Answer: (A)
5847 Which of the following
statements regarding the use of
current measuring instrument is
correct?
(A) It must be connected
in series with the circuit
(B) You should always
start with the lowest
range until a suitable
reading is obtained
(C) The indicating needle
is deflected from left to
right regardless of
polarity
(D) An external shunt is
generally utilized where
current is less than 10
amperes
Answer: (A)
5848 how many possible states
dose a binary logic circuit have?
 (A) One (D) Reverses an input
(B) Two logic condition
(C) Three
Answer: (D)
(D) Four
5851 In a logic circuit the NOR
Answer: (B)
and NAND gate
5849 Which of the listed pairs of functions________
materials make the best
(A) Must be
insulator?
accomplished with a
(A) Copper and common base transistor
aluminum arrangement
(B) Glass and mica (B) Are available in diode
(C) Dry air and the form
vacuum (C) Are exact opposite
(D) Dropped silicon and with the same NOR and
germanium NAND input
(D) Have output
Anawer: (B)
conditions that are
5850 In a logic circuit, the NOT exactly opposites to the
gate function________ out put condition for OR
(A) Does not alter a logic and AND , respectively
input Answer: (D)
(B) Serves to amplify a
5852 Conductor resistance may
given signal level
be indirectly MEASURED by
(C) Must be
using a/an___________
accomplished with a
common collector (A) Voltmeter only
transistor arrangement (B) Ammeter only
 (C) Voltmeter ad an
ammeter
(D) Ohmmeter only
Answer: (C)
5853 A three-phase, squirrel
cage,indication motor will run
hot due to ___________
(A) Open stator coils
(B) High power factor
(C) Dirty or corroded slip
rings
(D) Reversed
commutating poles
Answer: (A)
5854 The ground indicating light
on the main electrical switched
board is indicating a ground. The
best procedure for locating a
grounded circuit is
to____________
(A) Trace the circuit parts
while looking for burnt
spots
(B) Check circuit
resistances with a
megohmeter connected
between the grounded
lone and the distribution
panel frame work
(C) Open the circuit
breakers on the
distribution panel, one
at a time until the lights
no longer indicate a
ground
(D) Check all circuit for
continuity
Answer: (C)
5855 A three-phase,squirre
cage, indication motor will run
hot due to a/an________
(A) Improper brush
position
(B) Reversed
commutating pole
(C) Shorted stator
(D) High power factor
Answer: (C)
5856 Which of the listed pairs of
materials make the best
insulators?
(A) Dry air and a vacuum
 (B) Tin and lead
(C) Dropped silicon and
germanium
(D) Paper and coil
Answer: (D)
5857 A split-phase induction
squirrel-cage motor will not
come up to speed, even though
the rated voltage, rated
frequency, and rated load are
applied. The suspected trouble
could be due to__________
(A) A faulty centrifugal
switch
(B) Broken rotor bars
(C) Worn bearings
(D) All of the about
Answer: (D)
5858 A ground is indicated by
the ground-detecting system on
the main electrical swithch
board . The first step in locating
the actual ground is
to___________
(A) Close all circuit
breakers in the
distribution panel until
the ground detector
indicates normal
(B) Open the individual
circuits breakers, one by
one until the ground
detection system
indicates normal
(C) Change over
generators
(D) Check each circuit
with a megohmmeter
Answer: (B)
5859 Multiple grounds have
developed and were initially
indicated by the ground-
indicating system as one ground.
The FIRST step in locating th
ground is to__________
(A) Examine the main bus
bars for signs of
overheating
(B) Eliminate the
individual circuits one by
one until the ground
detecting system no
 longer indicates any
grounds
(C) Change over
generators
(D) Check each circuit
with a megohmmeter
Answer: (B)
5860 To protect the rotor of a
motor disassembled for
maintenance or overhaul, it
should be
___________________
(A) Suspended by wire
slings in one corner of
the shop
(B) Wrapped in several
layers of heavy paper or
cardboard
(C) Supported by flat
wood blocks on the
workbench
(D) Returned to the
frame as soon as the
bearings are removed
Answer: (B)
5861 an overload in which of
the listed motors will result in
the illumination of an indicating
light at the propulsion control
station alarm panel?
(A) Fuel pump motor
(B) Steering motor
(C) Condensate pump
motor
(D) Forced draft blower
motor
Answer(B)
5862 A current carrying
conductor makes accidental
ontact with the wiring circuit.this
will be indicated by a
(A) Low switchboard
wattmeter reading
(B) high switchboard
wattmeter reading
(C) darkened
switchboard ground
detecting lamp
(D) darkened
switchboard synchronizing
lamps
answer (C)
5863 A change in field excitation (B) the flow of current to
of an alternator operating in the protection device is
parallel will cause a change in its reverse
(C) the electrical current
(A) alternator frequency
exceeds the rated value of
(B) kilowatt load
the fuse
(C) voltage output
(D) unequal resistors are
(D) all the above
connected in parallel
Answer:C
answer:D
5864 The effect of carrying field
5866 the inductance of a coil is
excitation excessively high on a
measured in
synchronous motor will result in
a (A) ohms
(B) volts
(A) tendency for the
(C) henries
motor to fall out of step
(D) ampere
(B) tendency of motor to
answer:C
over speed
(C) tendency for the 5867 When a flourascent lamp
motor to overheat fails to light, the trouble can be
(D) loss of motor speed in the
regulation
(A) lamp
answer:C
(B) starter
5865 A fuse will blow if (C) ballast
(D) all of the above
(A) an electric motor is
Answer:D
suddenly stopped by
opening a switch
5868 Electric current is the flow need to be clean the insulation
of electrons the rate of thisflow on the windings of an electric
is measured in motor?

(A) volts (A) Higher than normal

(B) amperes operating temperature
(C) coulombs (B) Excessive vibration at
(D) ohms normal speed
answer:B (C) Sparking at the
brushes
5869 Which of the following
(D) High megger readings
conditions can lead to the failure
Answer :A
of a resistor?
5872 Which of the listed devices
(A) Excessive vibration
may be used as a digital device?
(B) Insufficient
ventilation (A) Variable resistor
(C) Corrosion (B) Diode
(D) All of the above (C) Strain gauge
Answer :D (D) Thermistor
ANSWER:A
5870 A circuit with a blown fuse
would be escribedas a/an 5873 which of the listed
procedures is the best way o tell
(A) Short circuit
if a motor has been overloaded?
(B) Open circuit
(C) Bonded circuit 5874 If a small electric motor is
(D) Grouned circuit immersed in salt water it should
Answer:B be_________ i.washed in fresh
water II dried in an ovens
5871 Which of the following
conditions listed will indicate the
A Measure the current flow
and compare it with the motor
full load current flow as shown
on the nameplate.
B Feel the motor and judge by
the temperature
C Watch for telltale signs of
smoke coming from the motor
D Periodic opening of the O/L
relay coil
ANS: A
5875) on some electrical
generating equipment one
outboard bearing pedestal is
insulted from the bedplate. To
check this insulation with the
machine assembled you should
use a………………
A ohmmeter with the machine
secured
B millivolt meter and a jumper
with the machine running
C megohm meter with the
machine running
D voltmeter and ampmeter
with the machine running
ANS: B
5876) when an AC or a DC
moto fails to start, the first step
in troubleshooting should be to
check the………………….
A motor windings for obvious
opens
B motor controller leads for
continuity
C fuse or circuit breaker
D motor controller leads for
ground
ANS:C
5877) if the deck machinery is
expected to be idle for an
extended period of time you
should…………..
A have electrical safety gloves
available in case of electrical
shock before running
B perform a “high pot” test to
determine the condition of the
insultation
C water wash the motor and
controller to remove any salt
that may interfere with smooth
operation
D voltmeter and ampmeter
with the machine running.
ANS: D
5878) ambient temperature is
the……………………..
A amount of temperature rise
with no load
B amount temperature
developed by an operating
motor
C temperature of the
compartment where the motor
is located
D normal operating
temperature less the room
temperature
ANS : C
5879) A switch board ammeter
indicates a reading slighty above
“zero” when the leads are
disconnected this is caused
by……………………….
A mechanical misalignment of
the meter pointer
B a poor ground for the meter
case
C statics electricity in the air
D capacitors inside the meter
storing charges
ANS:A
5880) Air gap readings should be
periodically taken for electrical
generation equipment. The best
tool to use to take these
measurement is a…………………….
A cloth(nonmetallic) tape
measure
B dial indicator
C inside micrometer
D tapered,long blade,feeler
gage.
ANS:D
5881) Brush sparking during
communication may be caused
by…………………………..
A eddy currents in the armature
core
B lamination in the generator
field pieces
C induced current opposite to
coil inductance
D coil inductance discharge
occurring at communication.
ANS:D
5882) Air gape readings for
electrical generating equipments
should be taken periodically this
is to …………………. I determine
the condition of the bearings. Ii
prevent damage to rotor and
stator
A I only
B II only
C both I and II
D neither I or II
Ans:C
5883)The following air gape
readings were obtained from a
horizontally mounted,bilge
pump,induction motor,equipped
with sleeve bearings:
FWD END AFT END TOP 045
047Left side
A both the aft and forward
bearings should be replaced
B shims should be removed
from the aft bearing
C the forward bearing should
be lowered
D the aft bearing should be
lowered
ANS:A
5884) A ground on a particular
phase of a three phase low
voltage distribution system
would be indicated by a
…………………….
A high switchboard wattmeter
reading
B low switchboard wattmeter
reading
C dark or dim switchboard
ground detecting light
D bright switchboard ground
detecting light.
ANS:C
5885) As part of a routine
maintenance program for deck
machinery ,you
should………………..
A inspect electrical wing and
push button switches for
evidence of corrosion or burned
insulation
B disassemble pushbutton
switches and drain water each
week
C remove motor covers and
ventilate as weather permits
D check drum switch contact
pressure every three months.
ANS:A
5886) Which of the listed
conditions will occur if the
polarity of the field poles and
the direction of current to the
brushes of a DC motor were
both reversed?
A the motor would not start
B the direction of rotation of
the armature would be reversed
C the direction of rotation of
the armature would be
unchanged
D the field pole windings
would become overheated
ANS: C
5887) the armature cores of the
D.C motors are constructed with
laminations to………………………
A eliminate hysteresis
B minimize brush sparking
C reduce eddy current losses
D compensates armature
reaction
ANS :C
5888) equalization of the power
factors of two alternators
operating in parallel is
accomplished…….
A manually, by adjusting the
governor controls
B automatically by automatic
voltage regulators
C manually adjusting the
output of current transformers
D automatically by the
designed action of the governors
5889) DC generator voltage is
decreased by
cutting………………………….
A in field resistance
B out field resistance
C in armature resistance
D out armature resistance
5890) in a three phase
electrical system, three ground
detecting lamps are provided if
all the three lamps remain at
half brilliance when the ground
detecting test switch is
operated……………
A there is a slight ground at all
three phases
B the switch must be replaced
C there are no grounds present
D the light bulbs are of
improper voltage.
ANS:C
5891) an open coil in a
transformer will be indicated by
which of the listed conditions?
A “zero” resistance
accompanied by high inductance
B no resistance accompanied
by stray inductance
C infinite resistance in addition
to no inductance
D infinite resistance in addition
to normal inductance
ANS:C
5892) A four-pole induction
motor, operating on three phase
60 cycle current will operate at
approximately…………………….
A 850 RPM
B 1150RPM
C 1750RPM
D 3550RPM
ANS:C
5893) an open in the armature
of a DC motor is suspected, but
is not found by visual inspection
of the commutator. The next
step in trouble shooting this
problem is
to………………………………………….
A conduct a band bar test of
the armature
B visually inspect the armature
windings
C conduct an insulating
resistance test of the armature
D test the commutator for a
ground
Ans : A
5894)An autotransformer is
equipped with a 50% tap,a 65%
and an 80%tap which of the
following statement is true
concerning a load connected to
the 50%tap?
A the load is receiving
minimum voltage and minimum
current.
B the load is receiving
minimum voltage and maximum
current
C the load is receiving
maximum voltage and minimum
current
D the load is receiving
maximum voltage and maximum
current
ANS:B
5895) A battery is connected to a
circuit containing three resistors
in parallel. The values of the
three resistors are 2 ohms,3
ohms and 6 ohms what is the
voltage of the battery if the total
circuit current is 12 ohms?
A 2volts 5898)Which of the following
methods listed is used to
B 6volts
maintain the division of load
C 12volts between two compounds-
D 24volts wound ,DC generators operating
in parallel?
ANS :C
A The shunt fields are
5896)When two generators are interconnected
on the line and are sharing the
load equally,they are said to be B the shunt field rheostats are
operating in………………….. interconnected

A frequency C the series fields of both

B series
C parallel
D resonance
ANS:C
5897)IF a DC motor runs hot, the
cause may be…………………….
A high mica condition
B low ambient temperature
C clogged ventilation ducts
D an open in the shunt field.
ANS:C
generators are connected in
series
D the equalizer connection
parallels the series fields of all
machines.
5899) an operational amplifier as
used in todays consoles , has a
calculated gain of 5.this means
that when the input changes
……………….
A 5 volts, the output changes
10 volts
B 10 volts the output changes 5
volts
C 2 volts the output changes 10 5902) universal motors will
volts operate on AC or DC current and
are generally found in……………….
D 10 volts the output changes 2
volts A portable tools

Ans: C B large pump motors

C turbo electric main motors

5900) Damp armature windings D forced draft fans

in a DC motor leads to ………………
Ans : A
A reduced voltage
5903) A diesel driven
B reduced current emergency generator is
prevented from being
C increased resistance
paralleled with the ships service
D overheating generators by ……………….
Ans : D A an electrical interlock system
5901) When the length and the B an automatic paralleling trip
cross sectional area of a wire are switch
both tripled the
C the synchronizing
resistance………….
oscilloscope
A increases nine fold
D reverse current relay
B increases three fold
Ans: A
C remains the same
5904) The energy consumed by
D decreases six fold an AC motor has strictly reactive
Ans : C power is …………………..
A used to do mechanical work
B used to establish the magnetic
field of the motor
C lost as the heat generated by
the windings
D lost in doing work to turn the
monitor itself
Ans: B
5905) which of the listed motors
will operate at the highest RPM
assuming that each operates at
the same frequency?
A a four pole synchronous
motor under normal load
B A for pole induction motor
under no load
C A six pole synchronous motor
under normal load
D A six pole induction motor
under full load
Ans: A
5906) On large generators space
heaters are used to……………..
A keep the machine at ambient
temperature of the machinery
space
B maintain rotor and stator
winding temperature above the
due point to prevent the
formation of condensation
C prevent condensation in lube
oil
D prevent electrolysis due to
condensation in the bearings
Ans : B
5907) which of the listed colours
properly describes a DC motor
commutator when correct
commutation is taking place
……………………..
A shiny blue
B burnished green
C brick red
D chocolate brown
Ans : D
5908) An Ac generator produces
60Hertz at 1800 rpm if the
generator speed is increased to Ans: A
1830 RPM 5911 In order to safely
The cycle will…………………… carry out repairs to a
generator circuit breaker, it
A remain at 60 Hertz must be isolated from
B increased to 16 Hertz the bus. This is
accomplished by opening the
C decreased to59 Hertz
A. Reverse power relay
D increased to 63 hertz B. Bus disconnect link
C. Generator bus fuse
connections
A. One cell D. Power directional relay
B. Three cells Ans: B
C. Six cells
D. Twelve cells 5912 Three 12 volt, lead-
acid, batteries connected in
Ans: C series will deliver
A. Feeding current into A. 12 volts
the windings at low voltage B. 24 volts
B. Short circuiting the C. 36 volts
armature and fields D. 48 volts
windings
C. Short circuiting the Ans: C
field windings and passing 5913 The removal of paint
current through armature from electrical equipment
D. Obtaining current from such as generations, should be
a DC source such as an cautiously
electric welder feeding it
into the armature Undertaken because
While running the A. The mechanical shock
motor at full speed of a paint removal lessens
 the dielectric strength of vibrate severaly and eventually
the insulation trips out on
B. The paint dust is
The reverse power
composed of abrasive and
relay. The cause of the vibration
semi-conducting materials
was a result of
which impair
Insulation A. The dropping of load
C. Paint dust buildup has by that alternator
a tendency to cause B. Overspeeding of the
corrosion vibrating alternator
D. Phase windings C. The alternator was
frequently become isolated operating out of
from each other due to synchronism
dust interference at D. Flashover at the
The interference at alternator collector rings
the terminals
Ans: D
Ans: B
5916 severe vibration
5914 An alternator will accompanied by flashover at
fail to produce line voltage as a the collector an alternator
result of operating in parallel
A. A closed circuit Is a symptom of
breaker
A. Reverse current
B. Oxidized slip rings
motorization
C. Improperly staggered
B. Loss of synchronism
brushes
C. Destructive
D. Exciter generator
overspeeding
failure
D. Reversed polarity
Ans: D
Ans: B
5915 An alternator
operating in parallel begins to
 5917 which of the following Ans: C
problems will occur if the
5919 According to
circuit breaker of the incoming
regulations, which of the
Alternator is closed following systems must be
and it is 180o out of phase with arranged so as to be
the loaded alternator when
energized by the final
Paralleling? emergency power source?
A. The rotor of the loaded A. At least one light in the
alternator will hunt steering gear room
B. Severe cross currents ill B. Each power operated
occur which could cause watertight door system
damage C. Each charging panel for
C. The rotor of the temporary emergency
incoming alternator will batteries
stop D. All of the above
D. Both alternators will
Ans: D
parallel 180o out of phase
5920 Hysteresis in a direct
Ans: B
current generator is indicated
5918 voltage failure of an by
AC generator may be caused
A. Arcing at the brushes
by
B. Plusating terminal
A. Failure of the exciter current
generator C. Heating of the armature
B. A tripped bus circuit core
breaker D. Hunting and over
C. High mica segments on control
the stator bus bar
Ans: C
D. Excessive prime moved
speed 5921 The most practical
method used for resurfacing a
ship’s service motor commutator voltage as load is applied to an
is to AC generator
A. Turn it down intthe are: 1) the drop
ship’s lathe incresistance on the armature
B. Use a grinding ring circuit
C. Use a hand stone
2) the change in
D. Burnish it with
the flux and 3) the
commutator stones
Ans: B
A. armature winding
5922 An open shunt field in
speed
a direct current machine may
B. Inductance load drop
be located connecting the field
C. Coil pitch factor
circuit
D. Armature reactance
To an external power voltage drop
source. Equally rated field
Ans: D
voltage or less, and tested
with a voltmeter 5924 The division of the
reaction KVA loaded between
A. One line terminal to
paralleled AC generator is
each coil lead in succession
initiated by the
B. One field coil to each
adjacent field coil in turn A. Prime mover governors
C. Any suitable ground to B. Voltage regulators
any available line lead C. Phase balance relay
D. Any field pole to each D. Proportioner
coil lead
Ans: B
Ans: A
5925 Which of the following
5923 Three factors statements about a three-
responsible for the change in phase wye connection
correct?
A. The line current is 1.73 D. Wheelhouse
times the phase current
Ans: A
B. The phase current is
1.73 times the line current 5928 The emergency
C. The line voltage is electrical power source on the
1.73times the phase voltage tank vessels over 500 GT on
D. The phase voltage is an international
1.73 times the line voltage
Vouyage , should be
Ans: C capable of continuous
operation under emergency
5926 According to
load for
Regulations the talking and
calling circuits of a powered A. 6 hours
telephone system must B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours
A. Intrinsically safe
D. 24 hours
B. Independent of each
other Ans: C
C. Independent of
5929 Which of the following
grounded
statements concerning
D. Connected to a common
electrical ables is correct?
good
A. Where they pass
Ans: B
through water tight bulk
5927 Regulations require heads they should be fitted
that lighting fixture globes with water tight
must be protected by guards if Stuffing boxes
the fixtures B. Electrical cable
coverings should never be
Are located in the
grounded
A. Steering gear room C. Electrical cable must be
B. Galley rigidly held in place by
C. Living quarters
 welding of armored cable
or glued in place
Where non metallic
insulation is used
D. All of the above
Ans: A
5930 From the standpoint
of safety you should never allow
salt water to enter a lead-acid
Storage battery or
come in contact with sulfuric
acid because
A. The resulting gas is
extremely flammable
B. The resulting gas is
respiratory irritant that can
be fatal
C. The primary
constituent sodium reacts
lethally with lead peroxide
D. Combining salt water
with lead-acid creates an
invisible gas resulting in
severe corrosion
5931 If overloading a DC
machine becomes necessary in
an emergency you should
A. Cool the machine with
portable blowers and fans
B. Hold thermal overload
relays open with blocks of
wood
C. Inject small amounts of
CO2 into the windings for
cooling
D. Increase the residual
magnetism value of
windings to reduce eddy
currents
Ans: A
5932 Which of the
following statements of
Regulations concerning battery
installation is
correct?
A. Sign permanently
secured to the battery
trays, indicating that “
naked lights or smoking
Is prohibited in the
vicinity” is not necessary to
be posted if trickle charging
B. When power
ventilation is required
blower must be non
sparking and the system
must be
Interlocked with the
battery charger to prevent
simultaneous operation
 C. Trays should be A. Closed sides
chocked with wood strips B. A dripshield
or equivalent to prevent C. A door at each entrance to
movement and each tray a rear working space
should be fitted with D. All the above
nonabsorbent insulating
Ans : D
supports on the bottom
D. Power and lighting
batteries must be of the
5935 regulations require that
lead-acid type only
each alternating current
Ans : C generator arranged for parallel
operation shall be provided
with__________
5933 unless it can be
A. More than one means of
shown that a 45 C ambient
excition
temperature will not be
B. Individual circuit fuses
exceeded . moters within
C. A high back-pressure trip
a machinery space be designed
D. A reverse – power trip
for an ambient temperature
of___________ Ans : D
A. 45 C
B. 50 C
5036 when supplying
C. 55 C
emergency lighting loads , the
D. 60 C
storage battery intial voltage
Ans : B must not exceed the standard
system voltage by more than
_____
5934 regulations require
A.
each switchboard to have
mechanical protection B.
including_______________
C.
D.
Ans : C
5037 when there is a fire in a
large electric motor , normally
the very FIRST step is to
________
A. Secure the electric supply
B. Ventilate area to remove
smoke
C. Start the fire pump and
lead out hose
D. Apply form
Ans : A
5038 according to regulations
which of the following
statements is the ONLY method
allowed to ease the starting of
emergency diesel generator
engines?
A. Bayonet –type electrical oil
heaters
B. Steam or hot water tube oil
heaters
C. Thermostatically controlled
electric jacket water
heaters
D. Electric resistence heaters
in the air intake manifold
Ans : C
5039 which of the following
devices for a lifeboat winch
electrical circuit automatically
prevents the davit of a gravity-
unit from over travelling their
tracks when raising the lifeboat?
A. Master cutout switch
B. Emergency disconnect
switch
C. Limit switch
D. Clutch interlock
Ans : C
5040 regulations require that
automatic starting emergency
diesel generators assume
emergency power loads as soon
as__________
A. It is started
B. The electrical potiential of
the ship’s service
generators drops 15 to 20
percent below normal
value
C. The potential from the
emergency generator
reaches 85 to 95 percent of
its normal value
D. The electric potiential of
the ship’s service
generators drops to 10 to
40 percent of normal value
d. A reduced ambident
temperature causes a
corresponding reduced service
life .
ans: b
5973) tightly knit metal used
briad wire can be used with a
printed circuit board when
_________
a. conductor flexibility is
required
b. desiodering components in
the circuit
c. electrically produced magnetic
fluxes would cause inaccuracies
in adjacer components
d. reactance in the circuit must
be kept to a minimum
ans : b
5974)the open –circuit voltage
of a fully charged lead –acid
battery cell is _______
a. 1.5 volts
b. 1.8 volts
c. 2.0 volts
d. 2.3 volts
ans.c
5975) motor controllers are
seidom troubled with grounds
because _______
a. the auxiliary contacts have a
high resistance connection
b. the contactors and relays are
mounted on a non conducting
panel
c. the resistors banks are
composed of individual series
connected units
d. there are separate switches
for the motor and the controls
ans :b
5976) A delayed –action fuse is
most frequently used in which of
the listed circuits
a. lighting circuit
b. motor circuit
c. electric heater circuit
d. radar circuit
ans:b
5977)electric strip heaters are
used in motor controllers
to_______
a. prevent freezing of moveable
contacts
b. keep the components at their
design ambient temperature
c. prevent condensation of
moisture
d. minimize resistance in interal
circuits
ans : c
5978)A fuse that blows often
should be replaced only with a
fuse of ______
a. the recommeded current and
voltage rating
b. higher current and voltage
rating
c. higher current and lower
voltage rating
d. lower current and higher
voltage rating
ans : a
5979)the ouput voltage of a
three –phase alternator is
regulated by the _______
a. ac voltage to the armature
b. ac voltage to the field
c. dc voltage to the armature
d. dc voltage to the field
ans :d
5980) the function of damper
windings in a synchronous motor
is to _____
a. eliminate slippage
b. provide excitation
c. provide strating torque
d. increase efficiency
ans:c
5981) which of the following
statements is true concerning all
three phase alternators ____
A.each has three separate but
iddntical armature windings
acted on by one system of
rotating magnets.
B. each has one armature
winding acted on by three
identical but separate system of
rotating magnets.
C.all three-phase alternators are
designed to operate with a0.8
laeding power factor.
D.the three phases always
provide power to the load
through three sets of slip ring
and brushes.
Ans :A
5982) a low –voltage protection
circuit is used in electric motor
starting equipment to _______
a. trip circuit contactors when
the motor overspects due to
low voltage
b. trip circuit contactors when
the motor develops a short
circuit due to low voltage
c. allow the motor to restart
automatically on restoratior of
voltage without manually
resetting
d. prevent the motor from
restarting automatically on
restoration of voltage
ans :d
5983) the part of a fuse that
melts and opens the circuit is
made up of _________
A.copper and antimony
B.steel and babbit
C.aliminium or berilliyum alloy
D.Zinc or an alloy of tin and lead
Ans:D
5984)the cross sectional area of
shipboard electrical cable is
expressed in _________
A. millimeters
B.gage numbers
C.centimetres
D.circular mils
Ans:D
5985) fuses placed in series with
a thermal trip-type circuit
breaker are used for _________
A. time-delay protection
B.short circuition protection
C.short duration surge
protection
D.sustained overload protection
ANS: B
5986)on an engine throttle
control system, the auxillary
control circuits are provided with
devices to prevent excessive
overtravel of the pilot valve by
the synchronous motor. These
devices are called ____________
A. overlap sensors
B. limit switches
C.overtravel relays
D.proximity switches
Ans:B
5987) the most common source
of excitation for synchronous
motors is a/an _____________
A.low voltage battery
B.motor alternator set
C.dc exciter generator
D.ac supply
Ans:C
5988) the type of feature
offorded auxillaries vital to the
operation of propelling
equipment.where automatic
restart after a voltage failure
would not create a hazard is
termed _________
A. low voltage protection
B.high amperage protection
C.low voltage release
D.high amperage release
Ans:C
5989)the purpose of dc
generator brushes is to
___________
A. neutralize armature reaction.
B.conduct electric current to an
outside circuit
C.convert dc current to ac
current
D.provide excitation to a dc
generator
Ans:B
5990) the most common source
of excitation for a synchronous
motor is a/an ________
A.stepup transformer
B.half wave rectifier
C.dc supply
D.ac supply
Ans:c
5991) which of the listed
precautions should be observed
before spraying liquid solvent on
the insulation of an electric
motor ?
a. slow the motor down to low
speed
b. disconnect the motor from
the power source
c. secure all ventilation in the
area
d. preheat the insulation to
assist in cleaning
ans: b
5992) the simplest method of
controlling the terminal voltage
of compound wound dc
generator is with a
____________
a. hand operated field rheostat
connected in series with the
shunt field circuit
b. separate exciter in series with
the shunt field
c. carbon pile regulator in series
with the load
d. balance coil diverting neutral
current through the shunt field
ans :a
5993) one method of test is
performed on a particular piece
of electric equipment . in
addition to the resistance
reading . what information listed
below should be entered in the
electrical log ?
a. the maximum allowable
operating temperature of the
machine
b. the temperature of the
machine at the time the
resistance reading was taken
c. the normal temperature rise
of the machine
d. the complete nameplate data
from the resistance test
instrument used to obtain the
reading
ans :b
5994) A compound generator
has a no load voltage of 250
volts and a full load voltage of
230 volts ,and therefore is
considered to be ______
a. flat compounded
b. over compounded
c. under compounded
d. terminal compounded
ans :c
5995) one method of testing for
a reversed shunt field coil in a
DC generator or motor is by
connecting the field to a direct
current source , at reduced field
rated voltage ,and test for
polarity using a/an __________
a. iron bar across each field
b. magnetic compass placed
near each field
c. test lamp across adjacent
fields
d. copper jumper across the
interpole connections
ans :b
5996) which of the following
statements represents the
important factor that must be
considered to be _________
a. be certain that the
replacement diode is the same
polarity as the one removed
b. never alter the diode
alignment to cause a change in
the neutral plane
c. replacement of a diode also
requires balancing of the rotor
with a one piece rotor
lamination to be shrunk fit and
keyed to the shaft
d. the replacement diode must
be dipped in varnish prior to
installation to protect against
humidity
ans :a
5997)which of the terms listed
best describes a compound –
wound DC generator having a
higher voltage at no load than
at fulload ?
a. flat compounded
b. over compounded
c. under compounded
d. terminal compounded ans :c

5998)the purpose of squirrel – 6000)the speed of a squirrel

cage windings in a synchronous cage induction motor is
motor is to ________ determined by the __________

a. provide more precise a. diameter of the stator

balancing
b. number of stator poles
b. produce a higher power factor
c. rotor winding resistance
c. eliminate arching between the
d. bar resistance of the
stator and the frame
conducting rotor
d. provide a means for starting
ans : b
ans :d
6001) copper is often used as an
5999) A triac thyristor functions electrical conductor because it
as a control device and is __________
basically ________
a. has high resistance at low
a. two NPN transistors in temperature
parallel with a common base
b. has a highly polished surface
lead
c. is able to pass current with
b. diode in series with a
little opposition
temperature sensitive capacitor
d. holds insulation together well
c. two back –to-back SCR’s with
a common gate lead ans :c

d. a triode tube with an extra 6002) under which of the listed

heavy grid element condition can the engine room
retake the throttle control from starting torque is the
the bridge ? ____________

a. any time it is deemed A. shaded pole motor

necessary
B.wound rotor motor
b. only with the masters
C.capacitor start motor
permission
D.resistance start motor
c. after a 10 minute delay to the
input command 6005)a generator has beer
exposed to water and is being
d. only after the throttle has
checked for its safe operation.
been placed in stop
There ore it is necessary to
ans :a ______________

6003) in a 11kw induction type A. check for shorted coils with a

motor with a cage rotor, the growler
current required at standstill to
B.take moisture readings with a
produce starting torque is
hydrometer
approximately ________
C.test insulation values with a
A.half the full load current
megger
B. equal to the full load
D.ground the commutator or slip
C. five times the full load current rings run it at half load for 12
hours
D. ten to twenty times the full
load current 6006)the speed of a three phase
squirrel cage induction type
6004) a single phase induction
motor operating in a fixed
motor having a relatievely high
frequency system is varied by
changing the ________
A.number of phases to the
motor
B.number of stator poles
C.locked rotor current
D.resistance of the rotor winding
B. be located as close as
possible to the engine
C. have sufficient capacity to
provide at least 50 starts
consecutively without recharging
D. only be of the nickel alkaline
type
Ans. B
B. total reactance
C. impedence
D. resonance
Ans. C
6009. AC circuits develop
resistance ,induction, and
capacitance. The inductive
resistance of a circuit is
expressed in ____
a. ohms
b. mhos
c. henry
d. farads
ans: a
6010 .when a mega ohm meter
is used to test insulation, the
gradual rise of the pointer
reading as a result of continued
cranking, is caused by_____
a. good conductor resistance
b. the leakage of current along
the surface of dirty insulation
c. the inductive resistance of the
windings
d. the dielectric-absorption
effect of the insulation
ans: d
6011.the basic control action of
a magnetic amplifier depends
upon_____________
A. variation in the load
capacitance
B. changes in inductance
C. type of coal material
D. construction of the core
Ans. B
6012. During the charging
process of storage batteries the
charging rooms should be well
ventilated because
A. without ventilation excessive
gassing will occur
B. highly poisonous gases are
realsed
C. highly explosive gases will
otherwise accumulate
D. without ventilation the
battery will not take full charge
Ans. C
6013. The purpose of an
impressed current cathodic
protection system aborad ship is
to___________
A. prevent corrosion of hull
propeller ruddered and line
shaffting
B. neutralize the vessels stray,
magnetic fields which would
interfere with radar.
C. protect engine room and deck
machinery from oxidation in the
presence of salt air.
D. maintain the minimum
constant alternator load to
prevent over heating
Ans. A
6014. routine maintenance of
lead acid batteries should
include_______________\
A. keeping the terminals clean
B. coating cable connection with
petroleum jelly
C. maintaining a trickle charge
D. all the above
Ans. D
6015. electric circuits are D. overload transformer
protected against over heating
Ans. B
by means of a/an _________
6018. which of the following
A. circuit breaker
devices should be used to
B. amplifier measure the temperatures of a
battery electrolyte__________
C. diode
A. mercury thermometer
D. capacitor
B. alcohol thermometer
Ans. A
C. thermo couple pyrometer
6016. the function of a rectifier
is similar to that of a D. potentiometer
_____________
Ans. B
A. trap
6019. the seven segment
B. regulating valve arrangement for numerical
display on consoles test meters
C. check valve
and other application can be
D. filter either__________
Ans. C A. UJT or BJT
6017. A circuit is protected from B. BCU or OCD
overheating by
C. JFET or IGFET
a/an______________
D. LED or LCD
A. pyrometer
Ans. D
B. thermal overload relay

C. magnetic contractor
6020. line losses in the
distribution circuit are kept to a
minimum by____________
A. adding rubber insulation
conductors to the circuit
B. using higher current and
lower voltage
C. increasing the number of
thermal relays in the circuit
D. using higher voltage and
lower current
And. D
6021. which of the following
describes the action when the
handlers moved to the start
position of a drum type motor
controller used with a compound
motor?
A. full current is supplied to the
shunt field, series field and
armature
B. full line current is supplied to
the shunt and series fields and
reduced current is supplied to
armature
C. full line current is supplied to
the shunt and reduced current is
supplies to series field and
armature
D. reduced current is supplied to
shunt, series and armature
Ans. C
6022. the multiple prefix “mega”
means________
A. thousand
B. million
C. billion
D trillion
Ans. B
6023. Armature cores in a DC
generator are made laminated
steel sheets to____________
A. fit the curvature of the flame
B. increase the hysteresis effect
C. reduce eddy current losses
D. allow for easy assembly
Ans. C
6024. The item reffered to as a
pigtail on a DC motor brush
rigging is a /an____________
A. feather spring
B. uninsulated wire
C. flexible spring adjuster
D. brush holder
Ans. B
6025. Reversing the current flow
through a coil
will_______________
A. reduce the amount of flux
produced
B. have no effects on the eddy
currents produced
C. reduce the power consumed
D. reverse its two – pole field
Ans. D
6026. in testing a three – phase
delta winding for an open circuit
using a megohmmeter, you
must_____________
A. test each phase with all
connections intact
B. measure the voltage across
the open connections while
testing
C. test the windings as parallel
groups to avoid short circuiting
D. open the delta – connections
to avoid shunting the phase
being tested
Ans. D
6027. The direction of rotation
of an induction motor
is________________
A. opposite the rotation field
direction
B. the same as the direction of
the rotating field
C. detrmine by the number of
poles
D. determined by the staggering
of the brushes
Ans. B
6028. An insulation resistance should be reduced as the battery
reading is taken at 20⁰C and nears its full
found to be 10 megaohms. What
Charge to
should be the expected reading
………………………..
at 40⁰C?
A.prevent damaging battery
plates
B. 10 megohms
B.allow equalisation of cell
C. 15 megohms plates

D. 20 megohms C.reduce lead sulfate deposits

Ans. A D.increase lead peroxide

formation
6029. The sub-multiple
prefix”milli”(means)…………… Ans.A

A.one thousandth(10 to the - 3rd 6031.A saturable reactor uses

power) relatively small DC currents to
control………………….
B.one millionth (10 to the -6th
power) A.high frequeny low power loads

C.one billionth (10 to the -9th B.low frequency low power

power) loads

D.one trillionth (10 to the-12th C.high frequqncy high power

power) loads

Ans. A D.low frequency high power

loads
6030. When charging lead-acid
batteries,the chargingrate Ans. D
6032.A shaded-pole motor is
a………………..
A.synchronous motor
B.three phase induction motor
C.compound-wound motor
D.single-phase induction motor
Ans.D
6033.A saturable reactor uses
relatively small DC current to
control___________
A.high frequency low power
loads
B.low frequency low power
loads
C.high frequency low power
loads
6034.a single derieved from a
controlled functon and returned
to the initiating point is called
a/an_________
A.monitoring signal
B.inverse signal
C.reverse signal
D.feedback signal
Ans.D
6035.A shaded pole monitor is a
__________
A.synchronous motor
B.three phase indicator-motor
C.compound-wound motor
D.single phase indicator motor
6036.To provide its unique
characteristics to analog circuits,
the operational amplifier is
made up of a/an_________
A.voltage amp,current amp and
output amp
B.input amp, power amp and
output amp
C.scaling amp, power amp and
voltage amp
D.differential amp,voltage amp
and output amp
Ans.D
6037.The mica used in the 6039.To determine if a stator
commutator of DC machinery coil is grounded, you should use
is___________ a/an

A.harder than copper A.ammeter

B.softer than copper B.ground detection lamp

C.the same hardness as the C.magneto

copper
D.megger
D.softer than copper but wears
6040.In an impressed cerrent
away at a slower rate
cathodic protection system, the
Ans.A anode is________________

6038.When starting a DC A.connected to the hull and

propulsion motor the variable detoriates with time
rheostat must first be
B.insulated from the hull and
turned__________
doesnot waste away
A.all the way to the run position
C.connected to the hull but
then quickly back to slow
doesnot waste away
B.to the slow position the
D.insulated from the hull but
gradually back to speed
detoriates with time
C.to the mid position
6043.When checking thee
D.quickly to the run position specific gravity of the battery
electrolyte you should be aware
Ans.B
that________
A.the battery is fully charged a)thousandth(10 to the 3rd
when the float sinks into the power)
electrolyte
b)millionath(10 to the -6th
B.the battery is discharged when power)
the float is highest into the
c)billionath(10 to the -9th power)
electrolyte
d)trillionth(10 to the -12th
C.a hydrometer is accurate if
power)
taken immediately after water is
added to the cell ans c

D.waarm temperature will lower 6046

the sp. Gravity of the electrolyte A switchboard for a ac electrical
Ans. D distribution system will be
provided with which of the
6044.Basic operating
following components
characteristics of the operational
amplifier such as gain and A frequency meter
stability are the functions of B ammeter
its____________
C voltmeter
A.differential input stage
D all of the above
B.power output satge
Ans d
C.feedback circuit
6047
D.supply voltage
A generator is prevented from
6045 becoming motorized by the use
The sub multiple prefix nano of a/an
means
A overspeed trip D megohmeter

B roverse power relay Ans d

C back pressure trip 6050

D governor controls The electrical energy necessary

to power a sounf powered
Ans b
telephone small vibrating bell is
6048 obtained from
Which type of ac single phase A the emergency batteries for
motor will also operate on direct the general alarm
current
B each station hand cranked
A split phase generator
B series wound C the emergency switch board
C shaded pole D normal 115 volt dc supplies
D repulsion start Ans b
Ans b 6051
6049 A testing device called a growler
Aboard ship a ground field coil in is being used to locate a shorted
an ac motor can be determined coil in the stator of an ac
by using a electrical machine when the
feeer is moved over a slor
A portable growler containing the shorted coil
B galvanometer A a loud growling noise will be
C visual inspect heard
B any vibration within the feeler
will cease
C the meter needle will be
deflected to zero
D the meter needle will be
deflected to full scale
Ans a
6052
A dc shunt generator has its field
windings connected in
A series with the series windings
B parallel with the field rheostat
C series with the armature
windings
C parallel with the armature
windings
Ans d
6053
The sub multiple prefix pico
means
A thousandth (10 to the -3rd
power)
B millionath(10 t0 the -6th
power)
C billionath (10 to the -9th
power)
Dtrillionath(10 to the -12th
power)
Ans d
6054
Which of the following
statements concering a simple
parallel resistance circuit is
correct
A the voltage drop across each
resistor is the same
B the total current flos equals
the reciporal of the sum of the
indivifual currents
C the total resistance equals the
sum of the individual resistances
D the total voltage equals the
sum of the individual voltages
across resistances
Ans a
6055
The resistance value of a resistor
in a circuit can best be
determined by the
A single solid body color of the
resistor
B band markings on the resistor
C amperage value written on the
resistor
D physical size of the resistor
Ans b
6056
On ac vessels which of the
following statements represents
the most difficult problem
involved in obtaining a dc
potential suitable for use by
computer components
A a stepdown transformer is
always required
B vessel vibrations affect the
voltage source
C the voltage must be rectified
and made ripple free
D rectifiers cannot operate with
voltage regulators
Ans c
6057
As unt wound dc generator is
one in which the shunt field
windings are in parallel with the
A commutator
B brushes
C armature
D all of the above
Ans d
6058
The rotor of the synchorous
motor operates in synchronism
with the rotating field because
A of the amortisseur windings
B the rotor is magnetically
locked in to the step with the
rotating magnetic field by the
excitation current
C the field strength varies
directly with rotor slip
D the stator flux rotates in the
opposite direction
Ans b
6059
Hand portable phase sequences
indicators should be used when
A installing a new synchroscope
B preparing to make the shore
power connection
C replacing a defective solenoid
D all of the above
Ans b
6060
The division of kilowatt load
between two paralledfed
alternators is determined by the
A amount of field excitation to
the leading machine
B load speed characteristics of
the governors
C amount of the field excitation
to the lagging machine
D number of the field poles of
alternator
Ans b
6061
A breakable mercury filled
thermometer should not be used
in a lead acid battery to measure
electrolyte temperature as an
accidental breakage can cause
A sever sparking and explosions
B rapid oxidation
C violent gassing at the positive
plates
D corrosion on the battery
terminals
Ans a
6062
Which of the following
statements is true concering
simple parallel resisitance
circuits
A the total current flow equals
the sum of the individual
currents
B the total current flow equals
the reciporal of the sum of the
individual currents
C the total resistance equals the
sum of the individual resistance
D the total voltage equals the
sum of the individual voltages
across each resistance
Ans a
6063
The pushbutton on the number
of a ships sound –powered
telephone must be depressed to
A talk then released to listen
B listen then released to talk
C both talk and then
D ring the station being called
Ans c
6064
When troubleshooting an
electroniccircuit a cold scolder
joint can be located with the aid
of ammohmeter once the
problem has been located you
should
A reheat the circuit in an even
temperature and recheck with
an ohmmeter
B reheat the connection with a
match and recheck with an
ohmmeter
C reheat the connection with a
soldering tools and recheck with
an ohmmeter
D do nothing as this is the
normal condition
Ans c
6065
During its operation loud
buzzingand resultant weidling of
contacts of a magnetic relay may
be caused by
A over heating of the contactor
coil
B low voltage on the operating
coil
C low insulation resistance to C across the line starters
ground
D reactor starters
D lubrication of the contact
Ans c
bearing points
6068
Ans b
If a magnetic controller relay
6066
fails to drop out when the coil
Although saturable reactors are voltage is removed from the
extremely useful in some relay the probable cause may be
applications their gain is low
A excessive spring tension
because of
B over voltage
A core hysteris s losses
C excessive currents
B inductive reactance in the
control winding D welded contacts

C ir drop throughout the load Ans d

winding 6069
D all of the above The synchronous speed of an
Ans a induction motor is the

6067 A speed at which the rotor turns

Most thress phase induction B speed of the rotating field

motors of five horsepower or C frequency of the rotor current
less are started by
D
A autotransformer starters
Slip in per cent of the rotor rpm
B resistor starters
Ans b Excessive heat in an operating
motor controller can result from
6070
A closed starter contact
In a simple series circuit the
entire source voltage will drop B loose connections
across
C missing are chutes
A the resistor next to the
D low motor starting torque
negative terminal
Ans b
B a short circuit
6073
C the resistor next to the
positive terminal The speed of a wound rotor
induction motor
D a open circuit
A will be fixed by the number of
Ans d
field poles
6071
B can be varied by a rheostat
An across the line starter type control
provides
C Can only be synchorous speed
A maximum torque at full load

B slow starting power D can only attain synchorous

speed at no load
C high speed
Ans b
D reduced voltage
6074
Ans a

6072
If you hear a loud buzzing noise
coming from a magnetic motor
controller should
A assume that the motor is
operating at a full load
B assume that the controllers is
operating normally
C notify the electrician or watch
engineer of the problem
D feel the outside of the casing
with your hand to see if it is hot
Ans c
6075
Which of the following
conditions indicates a short
circuited capacitor when
checking its condition with an
ammeter
A the capacitor shows charging
but the final resistance reading is
appreciably less than normal
B the reading is practically zero
and remains there
C the capacitor shows no
charging action but indicates a
very high resistance
D the pointer moves quickly to
the low resistance side of the
scale then slowly recedes to vard
infinity
Ans
6076
Which of the following will
happen to the alternator
frequency if the load is removed
from a turbogenerator has a 3%
speed drop
A it will remain unchanged
B it will decreases by
approximately 3%
C it will become variable
D it will increase
Ans d
6077
A resistor placed un paralled to
the output of a power supply
A is temperature compensator
B corrects power factor
C prevents excessive currents
D aids in output voltage
regulation
Ans d
precautions listed must be
observed when using a
ohmmeter to carry out this test
A correct polarity must be
observed connecting the red
lead to the banded end of the
resistor

6078 B meter leads must be twisted to

cancel the leads magnetic fields
With both end of the three
conductor cable disconnected C the meter must be placed in
and arranged without the series with the resistor and the
conductors touching each other circuit
an ohmmeter reading zero ohms
between the ends of one
6080
conductor would indicate
The stats of charge of a lead acid
A continuity
battery is best indicated by the
B a partial ground
A individual cell voltage
C the resistance is infinite
B ampere hour capacity
D a short circuit
C electrolyte specific gravity
Ans a

6079

In troubleshooting a circuit in s
console you find that a resistor
may be fauly which of the

D. The resistor’s circuit
must be de-energized and at least
one end of the component
isolated
Ans: D
6081 For pratical purposes in a
simple series circuit, the source
voltage will be dropped
Across one resistor if it
has
A. Half the resistor of the
other resistor
B. A resistance equal to the
other
C. At least ten times the
resistance of the other
D. A parital short circuit
Ans : C
6082 If both the “high level
“and “low level” alarms come on
for the same address of a
centralized control console , the
most lively problem is a/an
A. Sensor failure
B. Failed alarm
C. Low level
D. Extramely high level
Ans: A
6083 You have installed a zener
diode in parallel with the load.
While measuring the voltage
across the zener diode it is found
that it does not change as current
through the load increses. This
means that the zener diode
A. Is workingas it should
B. Is should
C. Is open
D. Does not regulate as it
should
Ans :A
6084 violet gassing from alead-
acid battery while it is being
charged indicates that the
A. Plate separates are
grounded
 B. Battery compartment 6087 Motor controllor or starter
ventilation is contains may becomes pitted and
inadeqate welded together if the contacts
C. Electrolyte spicific
A. Open under loaded
gravity is too low
conditions
D. Charging rate is too
B. Close slowly with
high
light pressure
Ans :D
C. Open too quickly
6085 yrned-out LED should
and arc
be indicated by
D. Close quickly with
A. Excessive
proportionate
output
pressure
B. a slight glow in
Ans: B
the crystal
6088 Transformer cores are
C.Excessive
laminated to reduces
illumination
A. Eddy currents
D.No illumination
B. Secondary flux
Ans:D C. Leakage flux
D. All of the
6086 Whena lead-acid battery
above
begins gassing freely while
Ans : A
receiving a normal charge .the
charging current should be 6089 The governor control
switch of an alternator is moved
A. Increased
to the “raise” poisition . This
B. Shut off
action will
C. Decreased
D. Unchange A. Raise the
d no-load
Ans :C speed
 setting of upo
the n
governor the
B. Raise the mot
percentag or
e of speed load
droop B. An
C. Lower the incr
no- load ease
speed in
setting of mot
the or
governor load
D. Lower the resu
percentag lts
e of speed in
droop less
Ans: A slip
C. A
6090 which of the following
decr
statements is true concerning the
ease
operating charactreistics of a
s in
squirrel-cage motor?
roto
A. Rot r
or spee
slip d
is resu
dep lts
end in
ent less
 gent A. C
erat o
ed p
curr p
ent e
D. A r
decr
ease l
s in o
roto s
r s
spee B. E
d d
prod d
uces y
a
wea c
ker u
mag r
neti r
c e
field n
Ans t
:A
l
6091 as an armature revolves
o
within a magentic field ,friction
s
is developed bewteen the rotated
s
magnetized particles as they pass
C. H
through each magnetization
y
cycle. This results in
 s A
t n
e s
r :
e
s C
i
6092 To test fuses in an
s
energized circuit you should use
a
l
o A. L
s o
s w
D. A
r v
m o
a l
t t
u a
r g
e e

r l
e i
a g
c h
t t
i
o b
n u
 l c
b e
B. M
e m
g e
o t
h e
m r
m A
e n
t s
e
r :
C. V c
o
6093 the proper way to mix the
l
electrolyte for a battery is to add
t
m
e
t
e
r
D. R
e
s
i
s
t
a
n
 i
n
e

w
a
t
e
r
B. A
c
i
d

t
o

d
i
s
t
i
l
l
e
d

w
a
t
 A. DC voltmeter l
B. Dc ammeter l
C. Frequency meter e
D. Power factor meter d
Ans: a
w
6095 When mixing electrolyte
a
for a lead-acid storage battery
t
A. Stirring should always
e be
avoided r
B. A lead container should
always be used t
C. Always pour the watero into
the acid
D. Always pour the acid a into
the water c
Ans :d i
d
6096 If the approximate voltage
A
to be measured in a circuit is not
n
known you should
s
A. Use the lowest voltage
range on the voltmeter
:
B. Connect the meterBin series
with the circuit
C. Only have to calibrate the
6094 in order to increase its
meter brfore using it
range of measurtments a
D. Use the highest voltage
resistance would be placed in
range on the voltage
series with which of following
Ans : D
instrument
6097 caution must be exercisrd A. Good
during the charging of lead acid B. Open
storage batteries as C. Grounded
D. Short
A. The acid will becomes
Ans. B
weaker
B. Hydrogen gas is being 6100 The specific gravity of the
continuously liberated electrolyte in lead acid battery is
C. Both plates are changing measured by
chemically to led sulfate
A. Gould plate
D. Lead feroxide in the
B. Titration pipette
negative plate is poisonous
C. Hydrometer
Ans : B
D. Litmus paper list
6098 When the current flow Ans : C
through a copper wire increases
6101 capacitance in an Ac circuit
its
will
A. Resistances will decrease
A. Stop current flow once the
B. Insulation will burn
capicator is fully charged
C. Temperature will increase
B. Allow current flow in only
D. Conducitivity will increase
one direction
Ans : C
C. Oppose any change in
circuit voltage
D. Rectify the current
6099. while testing a
Ans :C
semiconductor diode with an
ohm meter both the forward and 6102 which of the folloeing
reverse readings are almost in activities occurs during the
infinity range this would indicate charging process of the lead acid
that the unit is storage battery?
 A. The specific gravity of the Ans : C
acid increases
6105 Shunt ,series ,and
B. Both plate change
compound wound motors are all
chemically to lead sulfate
DC motors designed to operate
C. The specific gravity of the
from
acid decreases
D. Hydrogen gas is absorbed A. Constant potential,variable
Ans :A current DC sources
B. Variable potential ,constant
6103 Magnet chatter or
current DC sources
‘pumping “ occurring in a
C. Variable potential,variable
magnetic contactor can be caused
current DC sources
by
D. Constant potential, constant
A. Dirt or grease on pole faces current DC sources
B. Mechanical interference in Ans : A
the contacts
6106 motor starter or controller
C. Chattering contacts on the
contacts may become welded
control relay
together if the contacts
D. Magentic lock out of the
contacts A. Open too quickly and arc
Ans :c B. Close under excessive
pressure
6104 Which of the following
C. Open or close too quickly
characteristics is most critical in
D. Close under excessive
determining the size of the cable
starting current
to be used in a particular circuit?
Ans : D
A. Voltage rating
6107 Which of the following
B. Weight per unit length
devices are protected from being
C. Current rating
motorized by a reverse –power
D. Inductances per unit length
relay?
 A. Alternators
B. Wave guide
C. Exciters
D. Amplidynes
Ans :A
6108 An advantage of DC
motors over Ac motors is that
they
A. Are less expensive
B. Require less maintenance
C. Can be started across the
line
D. Offer a more effective
means of controlling speed
Ans :D
6109 Before using the volt-
ohmmeterto measure resistance
readings, you should
A. Replace all batteries
B. Test the insulation
resistances of thr leads
C. Make sure the test leads do
not touch
D. Hold the leads together and
“zero” the meter
Ans : D
6110 To equalize the power
factor of two alternators
operating in parallel the
A. Field excitation of both
units is adjusted
B. Governors of both units are
adjusted
C. Phase sequence is altered
D. Kilowatt load is evenly
divided
Ans :A
6111 When you check the
specific gravity of the battery
eletrolyte with a hydrometer if
should be kept in mind that
A. The battery is fully charged
when the indicator floats
low in the electrolyte
B. Any water that has been
previously added to the
cells with dilute the
solution and give a false
reading
 C. A hydrometer reading is
inaccurate if taken
immediately after water is
added to the cell
D. Temperature has no effect
on hydrometer readings
Ans: C
6112 e total resistance of a
parallel circuit is always
_________
A. Larger than that of the
branch with the greatest
resistance
B. Smaller than that of the
branch with the lowest
resistance
C. Equal to the sum of the
individual branch resistance
D. Equal to the sum of the
individual branch resistance
divided by the number of
branches
Ans: B
6113 If the resistance of a
circuit is cut in half and the
applied voltage is kept
constant, the current flow will
be
A. Doubled
B. Quatrapled
C. Unchanged
D. Cut in half
Ans: A
6114 The power factor at
which a parallel AC
generator operates is
usually adjust by the
options
A. Connected load
B. Prime mover speed
C. Field excitation
D. Generator’s rated
voltage
Ans: C
6115 If the excitation is
increased to one of to two
alternators operating in
parallel, the
A. Power factor will
change in the lagging
direction
B. Power factor will
change in the leading
direcction
C. Kilo volt load will be
greatly increased
D. Ampere load will be
greatly decreased
 Ans: A
6116 In a series wound
motor the currennt passing
through the field windings
is also passing through the
A. Armature
B. Shunt field
C. Reactants comperator
D. Lamination
Ans: A
6117 The power factor of
an AC generator operating
singularly is determined
by the
A. Connected load
B. Prime mover speed
C. Field excitation
D. Generator’s rated
voltage
Ans: A
6118 The speed of a series
wound winch motor is
controlled by
A. Varying the voltage
applied to the motor
B. The weight of the load
on the cargo boom
C. Over-current protection
device in the motor
D. A hydraulic speed
limitting governor
Ans: A
6119 Why is it desirable to
operate AC generators at the
same at the same power factor?
A. Circulating current is kept
to a minimum.
B. Field excitation losses are
kept to a minimum.
C. Generator rotors will have
a lesser tendency to hunt.
D. Because a power factor
increase will decrease
kilowatt output
Ans: A
6120 The change of a lead-
acid battery is checked with a
_____________
A. Manometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Viscosimeter
D. Ohmmeter
Ans: B
6121 If a 6 volt battery were
connected in series with a 24
volt battery by putting their
negative
terminals together what
would be the result?
A. “Zero” volts
B. 12 volts of the opposite
polarity
C. 18 volts, positive on the 24
volts battery
D. 30 volts, negative on the
24 volts battery
Ans: C
6122 you can determine if a
circuit breaker has tripped by
_____________
A. Examining the position of
the handle.
B. Checking for which of the
breaker is warm
C. Looking for a burned-out
link
D. All of the above
Ans: A
6123 Which of the following
statement describes what will
happen when both the polarity
of the field
poles, and the direction
of the current to the brushes of
a DC motor are reversed?
A. The motor will not start
B. The direction of rotation of
armature will be reversed
C. The direction of rotation of
armature will remain the
same
D. The field pole winding will
become overheated
Ans: C
6124 A slow continual loss of
electrolyte level from one cell of
a storage battery could be due
to
___________
A cracked casing
A. Too low a charging rate
 B. The specific gravity
being higher than Ans: D
normal
C. One filter cap installed 6126 When the power is
too tightly restored after a complete power
failure a steering gear pump
Ans: A motor will
___________
6125 The basic meter
movement responds to the flow A. Have to be restarted
of current through its coil. B. Have to be reset
Therefore, this C. Restart automatically
movement may be used D. Trip its overload relays
as a/an
Ans: C
A. Voltmeter by placing a
resistance in parallel 6127 When an alternator is to
with the coil remain idle for even a few days
B. Ohm meter by placing ___________
another meter
movement in parallel A. Lift the brush and
with the coil disconnect the pigtails
C. Wattmeter by placing a B. Insulate the collector
battery in parallel with rings with the strip of
the coil card board
D. Ammeter by placing a C. Energize the heater
low resistance in parallel circuit
with the coil
 D. Open the equalizing bus
disconnected switch
Ans: C
6128 Proper storage battery
maintenance includes
___________
A. Keeping connections
tight and casing surfaces
clean
B. Making sure electrolyte
level is below the
separator plates
C. Insulating the terminals
with naval jelly
D. Maintaining a high
charge rate at all time
Ans: A
6129 The true power indicated
by the pointer movement of a
wattmeter depends on the
current
flow through the load,
the magnitude of the potential
across the load and the
___________
A. Power factor of the load
B. Angle of coil
displacement
C. Inertia of the movable
coil
D. High resistance from the
load
Ans: A
6130 The shunt of a DC
ammeter should be connected in
___________
A. Series with the load and
in parallel with the
meter movement
B. Parallel with the load
and in series with the
meter movement
C. Parallel with the load
and in parrallel with the
meter movement
 D. Series with the load and
in series with the meter
movement
Ans: A
6131 Due to the operating
characteristics of the system
time lag fuse (or dual-element
fuses) are
necessary for use in
___________
A. Main lighting circuits
B. Motor starting circuits
C. Emergency lighting
circuits
D. General alarm circuits
Ans: B
6132 Loss of or weak residual
magnetism in an alternator or
generator can be corrected for
by
___________
A. Running the rotor in the
opposite direction for 5
minutes
B. Allowing the generator
to run at 10% of normal
speed for 5 minutes
C. Running the generator
at normal speed with
the field rheostat fully
counter clockwise
D. Using a storage battery
or battery charger to
“flash” the field
Ans: D
6133 Cleaning of electrical
insulation should be
___________
A. Done every six months
B. Accomplished every 12
months
C. Determined by need
and not the calendar
D. Performed whenever
the electrician is not
otherwise busy
 D. Interpole preceding
Ans: C
Ans: C
6134 The plates of a NiCad
battery are made of 6136 One method of trouble
___________ shooting digital circuits in a
console is to ___________
A. Potassium hydroxide
with a small amount of A. Supply alternate logic
sulfuric acid levels at the input(s) and
B. Lead and lead peroxide test for change of state
C. Silver oxide and lead conditions at the output
sulfate B. Ground all inputs and
D. Combination of nickel test for a logic “1” at the
powder and nickel & output
cadmium salts C. Open all inputs and test
for a logic “0” at the
Ans: D output
D. Vary each output from
6135 Relative to the direction 0-10 volts and test for
of rotation, a DC motor similar variance at the
commutating poles has the same output
polarity as the
___________ Ans: A

A. Main pole following

B. Interpole following 6137 Which of the following
C. Main pole preceding meters uses a shunt connected
in series with the load, but gravity corrected for
parallel with temperature for the
the meter movement? Electrolyte of a fully
charged portable lead-acid
A. Voltmeter battery?
B. Power factor meter
C. Wattmeter A. 1,100 to 1,150
D. Ammeter B. 1,180 to 1,200
C. 1,280 to 1,300
Ans: D D. 1,750 to 2,000

6138 Electrical machinery Ans: C

insulation will breakdown more
rapidly due to ___________ 6140 The operator of electrical
motors should keep a constant
A. Low loading of motors check on the loads they carry
and generators because
B. Frequent megger testing ___________
C. High temperature and
vibration A. Low loads necessitate
D. High operating frequent insulation
frequencies cleaning
B. Exceeding name plate
Ans: C values shortens useful
life
6139 Which of the listed C. Energy is wasted if full
ranges represents specific loading is not utilized
 D. Power fraction Ans: B
correction methods are
load dependent 6142 The amount of
mechanical force or torque
Ans: B produced by an electric motor
depends on the
6141 When troubleshooting a ___________
console circuit card which is
suspected of being faulty the A. Strength of its magnetic
first step field
would be to B. Amount of armature
___________ current flow
C. Length of conductor in
A. Put the card and the field
measure the value of all D. All the above
the resistors
B. Check for the correct Ans: D
value and polarity of all
power connections to 6143 The life expectancy of
the card electrical insulation, is
C. Pull the card and visually approximately halved for an
inspect for burned increased operating
components temperature of
D. Check for continuity of ___________
circuit board traces and
then the gain of each A. 10 C
transistor B. 25C
C. 50C
 D. 100C
Ans: D
6144 Under normal condition,
storage batteries used for
starting the emergency diesel
generator
are maintained in a
charged state by which of the
following methods?
A. Trickle charging
B. Fast charging
C. Equalizing charging
D. Reverse charging
Ans: A
6145 When troubleshooting a
console circuit card suspected of
being faulty, first check for
proper
voltage to the card and
then ___________
A. Test transistors or
integrated circuits for
gain and compare with
manufacturers
specifications
B. Blow ary accumulated
dust from the card with
at least 2kg/cm2 air
from the ships service
air system
C. Pull the card, clean the
sliding connections with
a pencil eraser, and
remove accumulated
dust
D. De-energize the card
and check the printed
circuit traces for
continuity with an
ohmmeter
Ans: C
6146 A useful instrument for
checking A.C. motor
performance by measuring
possible unbalanced
current is the
___________
 A. Hand or battery-
operated megger
B. Vibrating-reed
frequency meter
C. Hook-on voltmeter-
ammeter
D. D’Arsonval iron-vane
probe
Ans: C
6147 What is the approximate
voltage produced by a nickel-
cadmium battery cell?
A. 1.25 volts
B. 1.50 volts
C. 2.20 volts
D. 6.05 volts
Ans: A
6148 You are using a
mechanical voltage tester to
check the fuses in a three-phase
circuit supplying an
electric motor. For
which of the following reasons
must the motor be stopped
during the test?
A. Testing an energized
circuit presents a hazard
to the testing personnel
B. A faulty fuse could go
undetected with the
motor energized
C. Reversed polarity of the
circuit would be
indicated by the voltage
tester with the circuit
energized
D. All of the above
Ans: B
6149 The voltage of an
operating A.C turbo
generator is raised or
lowered by adjusting
the
___________
A. Exciter generator
governor controls
B. Synchronizing switch
 C. Phase sequence switch
D. Generator field exciter
Ans: D
6150 To properly seat the
brushes on the slip ring, you
should use ___________
A. Sand paper
B. Crocus cloth
C. Emery cloth
D. All of the above
Ans: A
6151 When a battery-charging
panel is being used the batteries
will discharge if ___________
A. DC voltage is supplied
B. The polarity is reversed
C. The voltage fluctuates
D. Too little current is
supplied
Ans: B
6152 Routine A.C motor
maintenance should include
periodic ___________
A. Thermometer readings
at normal loads to
detect abnormal
temperature rises
B. Inspection of the
motor’s internals for
loose rotor bars or field
poles
C. Bearing replacement
each year using sealed
units if available
D. All of the above
Ans: A
6153 When replacing fuses,
always make sure ___________
A. To stand on a rubber
mat and use rubber
gloves
B. To use insulated pliers
or screwdriver
 C. The fuse clips are
straight, tight and in Ans: B
good contact
D. To increase the fuse
D. to increase the fuse rating
rating 10% to guard
10% to guard against “nuisance
against “nuisance
blowing”
blowing”
Ans: C

6155) you are attempting to

Ans: C
6154 Periodic testing of circuit
breakers is necessary to assure
that a correctly rated and
properly
installed unit
___________
A. Can trip faster as
increases in age
B. Will continue to provide
the original degree of
protection
C. Does not exceed its
interrupting capacity
D. To able to withstand at
least 125% of applied
voltage
parallel two AC generators
and the synchroscope
pointer is revolving in the
slow direction. This
indicates that the
frequency of the incoming
machine is _________.
A. higher than the bus
frequency.
B. Lower than the bus
frequency
C. The same as the bus
frequency but out of phase
with it
D. The same as the bus
frequency and the circuit
 breaker may be closed at
any pointer position.
Ans: B
6156) periodic testing by a
short side support technician
using a special camera which
can detect poientality
dangerous ioose or corroded
bus bar and controller
connection is
termed_______________
A. Heat sensitive
thermography
B. Visual pyrotronics
C. Corrosion electrolysis
D. Electric vibroanalysis
Ans; A
6157 ) When troubleshooting
a motor controller, all
indications are that a relay
coil should be energised. If
there were no magnetic
pull, with rated voltage
measured across the coil,
the most probable cause
would be that the
_________.
A. Coil is open
B. Control fuse is open
C. Auxilary contact in the
series with the coil is
defective
D. Relay armature is stuck
Ans: A
6158) materials that retain a
large part of their
magnetization ,after the
magnetizing force is removed
,are said to have ____________
A. Low hysteresis loss
B. High flux density
C. High permanence
D. High permeability
Ans; C
6159) Which of the following
procedures represents the
best method to prevent
the freezing of batteries
 continuously exposed to
low temperatures?
A. The battery caps should be
removed
B. The battery caps vent
should be sealed
C. The battery should be kept
in a fully charged condition
D. The battery should be
disconnectedfrom its
Ans: A
charging source.
6161) Electric circuits are
protected against
overloads and short
circuits by means of a/an
__________.
A. Circuit breaker
B. Amplifier
C. Diode
D. Capacitor

Ans: C
6162) in addition to testing the
6160) ambient temperature is
calibration of a circuit breaker ,
the ___________
,maintenance should include all
A. Amount of temperature
of the following
rise with no load
EXPECT_____________
B. Temperature of the
compartment where the A. Changing out of magnetic
motor is located elements thermal heaters
C. Normal operating yearly
temperature less than B. Checking for corrosion,
room temperature accumulation of dirt and
D. Amount of temperature thermal fatigue
developed by an operating C. Inspecting for loose or
motor missing part

Ans; B
 D. Making sure foreign ,
matter does not block
tripping element
Ans: A
6163) When a
megohmmeter is being used to
test insulation resistance
current leakage along the `
surface of the insulation is
indicated by the megohmmeter
pointer ___________.
A. flucuating around a constant
resistance reading
B. dipping towards “Zero”, then
rising slowly
C. kicking slightly downscale as
voltage is applied
D.continually rising as the test
voltage is applied
Ans: C
6164) while paralleling two
(2)AC generators using
synchronizing lamps only, both
lamps will go dark when
generators are___________
A. Running at same speed
B. Grounded
C. Of the same polarity
D. In phase
Ans:D
6165) A lead-acid battery
cell sustaining a short
circuit__________.
A. will be indicated by lime
accumulation on the terminal
posts.
B. will have unusually high cell
voltage
C. will become excessively
heated while being charged
D. cannot be completely
discharged under load
Ans: C
6166) The propeller shaft
speed in a turbo-electric
,synchronous,propulsion drive
motor is changed by varying
the ________.
A. turbine speed
B. number of motor poles
C. field strength of the generator
D. field strength of the motor
Ans: A
6167) A fuse will blow for
all the listed reasons
EXCEPT__________.
A. excessive vibration
B. exremely hot surroundings
C. loose fuse clips
D. low contact resistance within
the fuse
Ans: D
6168)Two contributors of
electronic console failures are
heat and vibrateion.to combat
some of their effects,preventive
maintanence procedures should
include_____________
A. systematic rotation of circuit
cards with those from spares to
allow component cooling
B.periodic changing or cleaning
of console ventilation and
control room air conditioning
filters
C.weekly tightening of console
foundation bolts and changing
of the air in the control room.
D.all of the above
Ans: B
6169) in general D.C. propulsion
motor brush sparking can be
caused by ____________
A.incorect brush grade,Pressure
or position
B.a concentric commutator
C.a dark chocolate colored
commutator
D.all of the abovec gcvb
Ans:A
6170) automatic voltage
regulators provided on switc
hboard function to___________
A.regulate the AC load on the
generator
B.protect the switchboard from
high voltage
C.govern prime mover speed to
control voltage
D.very the field excitation to the
generators
Ans:D
6171) In which of the
situations listed will a
megohmmeter give the most
accurate readings ?
A. while the machine is in
operation
B. while the machine is
discharging static electricity
C. Immediately prior to
restarting the machine
D. When the machine has been
shut down and grounded for a
period of 15 minutes
Ans: d
6172 you are attempting to
parallel two AC generator and
the sychroscope pointer is
revolving in fast direction this
indicates that the frequency of
the incoming machine is_____
A. Higher than the bus
frequency
B. lower than the bus
frequency
C. C. the same as the bus
frequency but frequency
and the circuit phase with
it
D. D. the same as the
frequency and the circuit
breaker may be closed at
any pointer position
Ans; A
6173) The most practical
way to control the voltage
output of an AC generator is to
vary the ________.
A. number of windings
B. Speed of the rotating
field
 C. strength of the rotating
magnetic field
D. power factor of the load
Ans : C
6174 which of instrument s
listed could be used to locate a
grounded field coil in a
synchronous
motor____________
A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
C. Me ohmmeter
D. Frequency meter
Ans; C
6175 One important
difference between wye-
connected and delta connected
generators is that delta
connections
have___________
A. line voltages equal to
the vector sum of the phase
voltages
B. phase voltages 90* out
sync
C. line current equal to
the phase current
D. line voltage equal to
the phase voltage
Ans: D
6176 a me ohmmeter is used
to measure of______________
A. Voltage
B. Dielectric strength
C. Current
D. Power
Ans; B
6177 If many turns of an
alternating current coil for a
contactor become short
circuited, the coil______
A. will continue to
operate
B. will probably burn out
immediately
C. will operate on reduced
current
 D. temperature will drop
Ans:B
6178 when a battery is
continuously exposed to low
temperature the best procedure
to keep it freezing is to
___________
A. Renovo the battery caps
B. Searle cover the battery
C. The battery fully charged
D. Disconnect the battery
Ans; C Ans; D
6179 The purpose of the reverse
power relay provided on a
ship’s service alternator
panel is to trip the circuit in
the event of
___________.
A. main circuit overload
B. high power transfer
C. generator over speeding
D. alternator motorization
Ans: D
6180 which of the following
conditions indicate that a lead
acid battery is being charged too
rapidly __________
A. Sparks occurring at the
positive terminal
B. Unusually high electrolyte
specific gravity
C. Low plate penitential
D. Excessively high
temperature and gassing
rates
6181 Which of the listed faults
cannot be eliminated, EXCEPT by
turning or grinding a
commutator
with a rigidly supported
tool?
A. Sparking brushes
B. Eccentricity
C. High mica
D. Blackened commutator
Ans: B
6182 the dielectric strength of
the vacuum or dry is
approximately ___________
A. 450 volts/inchs
B. 1000 volts/inchs
C. 20 kv/inchs
D. 50 kv/inchs
Ans; C
6183 When a megohmmeter is
used to test the insulation
of a large motor the initial
dip of the pointer toward
“zero” is caused by
_________.
A. good insulation
B. the capacitance of the
windings
C. the leakage of the
current along the surface
of dirty insulation
D. the dielectric absorption
effect of the insulation
Ans: B
6184 for rout line cleaning of a
commentator, you should
apply____________
A. Course sand paper in a
slow back and forth motion
across the commulator
slots
B. An enemy cloth parallel to
the axis of the machine
C. A canvas wiper to the
machine while running
D. Cotton swabs between the
commutator bars
Ans; C
6185 The air gap in an induction
motor should be
periodically checked with a
feeler gage to prevent
possible __________.
A. motor contact with the
stator
B. axial misalignment of
the motor
C. damage to the motor
bearings
 D. electrical damage to the C. in a quick disconnect
bearings coupling is used

Ans: A D. when the ship’s

generators have been
6186 under voltage trips are
removed from the bus
frequently installed on switch
board circuit breakers to trips Ans: D
__________
6188) when a resistor is used as
A. Out generators in the a shunt and is connected in
events of severe arcing or parallel with a meter movement
spraking coil, it will provide
B. Out generators when there ____________
is reversal of power in the
A. A measurement of circuit
main circuit
resistance
C. The breaker if the
B. An increased accuracy of
generator over speeds by
approximately 1.5%
5%but continues to run
C. An extended meter range
D. Out generators when there
D. None of above
is low voltages in the main
Ans; C
circuit
Ans; D 6189 )You can determine if a
circuit breaker is tripped by
6187) A shore power circuit
__________.
breaker should be closed
only ___________. A. Examining the position
of the handle
A. When the ship’s
generators B. checking for the warm
breaker
B. in a hipyard
 C. looking for a burned-out
link
6190) in addition to undercutting
the mica proper maintenance of
a d.c motor’s commuter
includes__________
A. Side cutting the copper
segments and insulating
the slots
B. Coating the copper surface
with light machine oil for
the first four hour of
operation
C. Baking the armature in an
oven at a maximum of 95.c
for not over 8hour
6189. Continuation…
D.looking for the tripped breaker
light
Ans.A
6190. Continuation…
D.all of the above
Ans.A
6191. If there is a reduction in
the normally supplied frequency
to a 120/240 volt, three phase
AC current motor from 60 hertz
to 55 hertz, the motor would
A. run at a slower speed
B.operate at a lower current
C.over heat
D.trip off the one
Ans .A
6192. Which of the following
electric meter movements uses a
stationary permanent magnet
and a movable coil……………………
A.D’arsonwal
B.electrodynamometer
C.moving iron-vane
D.inclined coil iron vane
Ans.A
6193.when paralling two
alternators the synchronising
lamps glow dim and are totally
darkened as the synchroscope
pointer approaches the ‘0’
position. This
indicates……………………..
A. alternator voltages are 180
apart
B.incoming alternator is running
too fast
C.incoming alternator is in phase
with the bus voltage
D.synchroscope pointer is
defective or broken
Ans.C
6194. D C motor brush
adjustment includes attention
to………………..
A. angle with the commutator
and clearance with the holder
B.brush length and pigtail
tightness
C.grade of material and surface
dirt conditions
D.all of the above
Ans.D
6195. If all the three ground-
detection lamps continue to
burn at equal intensity after the
test button is dipressed and
released, which of the listed
condition is indicated?
A.no grounds exists
B.all three phases are grounded
C.the test switch is faulty
D.the current transformers are
shorted out
Ans.A
6196. One of the generator
bearing shells is generally
insulated the end housing in
order to prevent……………..
A. rapid brush wear
B.residual magnetism leak off
C.excessive field winding heat
D.circulation of shaft current
Ans.D
6197. You are calibrating a
voltmeter using internal
batteries to supply power for
resistance measurements
.however; you are unable to
adjust the pointer to ’zero’ using
the adjustment knob. Therefore
you should……………………….
A. replace the batteries in the
instrument
B.measure resistance by dividing
the voltmeter indication by the
ammeter indication
C.set the pointer using a bridge
D.change scales to the R X
100scale and adjust using the
‘zero ‘ ohms adjusting knob
Ans.A
6198. When paralleling two
alternators, the synchronizing
lamps remain lit as the
synchroscope pointer
approaches the 0 .This indicates
the……………..
A. incoming alternator is running
too fast
B.alternator voltages are 180
degrees apart
C.synchroscope is defective or
broken
D.alternator power factors are in
phase
Ans.C
6199. A multimeter may be
damaged by taking a
…………………..
A. voltage reading while in the
ammeter mode
B.current reading while in the
volt meter mode
C.resistance reading while in the
ammeter mode
D.resistance reading while in the
volt meter mode
Ans.A
6200. When two AC generators
are being paralleled, the breaker
should be closed with the
synchroscope pointer rotating in
the ……………………………….
A. ‘slow’ direction just before 12 A. varnished cloth
0’ clock position
B. Rubber
B.’fast’ direction just after the 12
C. Silicon
0’clock position
D. Asbestos
C. ’fast’ direction just before 12
0’ clock position Ans:B

D. ’slow’ direction just after the 6203. A multimeter can be used

12 0’clock position to measure…………….

Ans.C A. resistance

6201. If two AC generators have B. voltage

just been placed in parallel, the C. current
true power, load is initially
distributed evenly by…………… D. all of the above

A. a balance coil Ans:D

B. changing field excitation 6204. The KW load is evenly

C. adjusting the governor control
settings
D. a rheostat
Ans:C
6202. Which of the following
types of insulation will begin to
deteriorate FIRST as a result of
the heat generated in the
conductor it surrounds?
distributed between two
altermators just placed in
parallel by adjusting……………..
A. a balance coil
B. the governor settings
C. the field excitation
D. a rheostat
Ans:B
6205. Before using an all-
purpose electric measuring
instrument (multimeter) utilizing
internal batteries to supply
power for resistance
measurements, you should
FIRST……………….
A. remove one of batteries
B. remove all the batteries
C. calibrate using a known
external resistance
D. select the proper range
Ans:D
6206. When paralleling two AC
genarators, the frequency of the
incoming machine immediately
prior to closing its breaker
should be……………..
A. controlled by placing the
governor switch in the automatic
position
B. adjusted with the voltage
regulator
C. slightly greater than bus
frequency
D. slightly less than bus
frequency
Ans:D
6207. If the centrifugal switch or
relay used for cutting out the
starting winding of a split-phase
induction motor fails to open
once the motor is in
operation,the………………
A. motor will overspeed
B. starting winding will burn out
C. motor will immediately stall
under load
D. motor torque will above
normal at rated speed
Ans:B
6208. A flickering ground
detection lamp on a DC system
would indicate a ………………
A. multiple-ground condition in
the distribution system
B. ground in a armature coil of
an DC operating machine
C. ground in a motor
accompanied with a short
D. short between two adjacent
bars of the generator
commutator
Ans:B
6209. D.C. propulsion motor
brush pressure depends on the
brush grade used and in practice
is set with a………..
A. multimeter
B. manometer
C. spring scale
D. compound gauge
Ans:c
6210. The unit “hertz” is
equivalent to…..
A. coulombs per second
B. revolutions per second
C. revolutions per minute
D. cycles per second
Ans:D
6211. A current carrying
conductor making an electrical
contact with a wiring metal
conduit is indicated by a
……………
A. low switchboard wattmeter
reading
B. reading of 1 0 on the power
factor meter
C. high switchboard voltmeter
reading
D. totally darkened switchboard
ground-detecting light
Ans:D
6212. A DC generator is used to
supply direct current in order to
maintain an AC generator field
and is known as a/an………
A. rotor
B. stator
C. exciter
D. armature B. aluminium

Ans:C C. glass

6213. Fuses are usually rated in D. copper

………
Ans:C
A. Watts
6216. Electrical power is
B. amps only expressed in…

C. volts only A. ohms

D. amps and volts B. volts

Ans:C C.amps

6214. When used for taking D. watts

resistance measurements, a volt-
Ans:D
ohm-milliammeter is normally
powered by…………….. 6217.An electrical connection
between the wiring of an electric
A. a hand cranked generator
motor and the metal frame is
B. internal storage batteries known as
a/an………………………………….
C. the current in the circuit being
tested A.eddy current

D. a step down transformer B.ground

Ans:B C.impedence

6215. Which of the following D.flux leakage

materials is a good insulator?
Ans.B
A. steel
6218. Prior to closing the
breaker, when parallelizing two
AC generators the
recommended practice is to
have the frequency of the
incoming
machine…………………………
A. slightly less than the line
frequency
B.the same as the line frequency
C.slightly greater than the line
frequency
D.all of the above
Ans.C
6219.In addition to short circuits
and sustained overloads ,fuses
are likely to blow due to
…………………..
A.loose fuse clips
B.low ambient temperatures
C.low contact resistance
D.all of the above
Ans.A
6220.the greatest single cause of
electrical failure is
……………………………
A.breakdown of insulation
B.over current
C.high inductance
D.too frequent testing
Ans.A
6221.You are reconnecting a
three phase induction motor to
the supply line.To prevent
possible damage to the load due
to wrong direction of rotation
you should
………………………………………………….
.
A.connect the motor and then
use the ‘jog’ button to
determine the direction of
rotation
B.connect the phase indicator to
the motor lead rotate the motor
by hand and then connect to the loaded alternator when
supply voltage paralleling two alternators?

C.connect the phase indicator to A.this allows the oncoming

the supply voltage then connect machine to accept load
the line motor immediately

D.connect the supply line phase B.this prevents the machine

sequence and motor rotation from floating on the line
with appropriate indictors, then
C.the reverse power relay is
connect correspondingly the
prevented from activating
marked leads
D.all of the above
Ans.D
Ans .D
6222. Current flowing in only
one direction is 6224.In an alternating current
called………………….. electrical system,a low system
power factor is a direct sign
A. alternating current
of…………
B.omnidirectional current
A.wasted energy
C.direct current
B.efficient operation
D.sinusoidal current
C.a short in the exciter field
Ans.C windings

6223.Why is it a good practice to D.an excessive number of minor

have the frequency of the system grounds
incoming alternator adjusted
Ans.A
slightly higher than that of the
6225. Two paralleled alternators D.all of the above
are operating near rated load, if
Ans.D
one trips out mechanically,
which if the listed actions should
be taken FIRST? 6259. A turbogenerator has a
A. restart the tripped machine rated output of 1200kw at 60
immediately hertz with a no load frequency of
61.5 hertz. What is ists speed
B.strip the board of all non vital
droop?
circuits

C.start the emergency generator

A.0.01025
D.transfer all vital loads to the
emergency bus B.0.015

Ans.B C. 0.02439

6226. Routine maintenance of D. 0.025

the dry type transformerers,
should include………………….
Ans.D
A. preventing the entrance of
water from broken pipe lines
stamlines 6260. if an alternator is to be
B.keeping protective surfaces inactive for a considerable
and insulating bushings free period of time which of the
from dust and conductive debris following actions should be
taken?
C.periodic testing of insulation
resistance with a megger
A. it should be disconnected
from the prime mover and
raised off its bearing supports
B. insulation resistance readings
should be taken weekly to
ensure resistance is not
deteriorating
C. the brushes should be lifted
off the slip rings to prevent
pitting of the metal by
electrolytic action
D. the windings and collector
rings should be protected
with a thin coat of grease or
coil
6261. which of the following
materials is recommented for
finishing the slip rings after
grinding or turning ?
A. grade 00 sandpaper
B. canvas wiper
C. crocus cloth
D. smooth file
Ans.D
6262. A meggar is being used to
test the insulation of an AC
generator the resistance value
of a dry, clean winding will
A. continue to rise as test
potential is maintained
becoming fairly steady a sthe
dielectric absorption effect of
insulation stabilizes.
B. Remain constant as the
temperature of the windings
increases
C. Continue to drop as test
potential is maintained
becoming fairly steady after
5-7 minutes
D. Stabilize after approximately
2-4 minutes of fluctuation.
Ans .A
6263. brushes in a generator
must be positioned in the
neutral plane to avoid sparking
between the brushes and the
A. Yoke
B. Armature windings
C. Field pole windings
D. Commutator
6264. if the connections for the
field and the armature on a DC
motor are reversed.
A. The motor will run as a
generator
B. The motor will not run
C. The direction of rotation
will be the same
D. The direction of rotation
will be reversed
Ans.C
6265. A series wound DC motor
has its armature and field
connected in series with a
resistor. When the motor is
disconnected from its power
supply this motor will exemplify
A. The proper connections for
across the line starting
B. The proper connections for
an automatic strip heater
C. Dynamic braking
Ans . D
6266. uneven wear of the
commulator surface on a direct
current propuksion motor can be
caused by
A. Rapid change in load
B. Excessive operation at
light load
C. Incorrect brush staggering
D. Unequal pole spacing
6267. unnecessary and frequent
applications of varnish to thee
generator windings to repair
defective insulation will result in
 A. Havy coatings of varnish
interfering with heat
dissipation
B. Deficient air gap clearance
and eventual damage to the
casing
C. Failure of the rectifier
assembly
D. A built up of varnish without
changing generator
operation
Ans . A
6268. the insulation of electric
generators during short idle
periods should be
A. Allowed to cool slowly
ambient temperatures
B. Flashed with direct current
to remove any magnetism
C. Kept warm by using strip or
space heaters
D. Relieved of all capactiive
charge by grounding the
conductors
Ams. C
6269. if an AC generator
experiences voltage failure the
cause may be
A. An open on the field circuit
B. The brushes shifting out of
the neutral plane
C. Excessive locked rotor
current
D. A rotating slip ring
6270. A wire is being used as a
replacement having twice the
length and one half the cross
sectional area of the original
wire. The resistance of this new
wire.when compared to that of
the new wire. When cpmpared
to that of the original wire is
A. Four times as great
B. Twice as much
C. The same as the original
resistance
 D. One-half of the original
resistance
Ans. A
6271. an open occurring within
the field rheostat of an AC
generator can be detected by
shortly circuiting its terminals
and observing a
A. Negative deflection of the
wattmeter pointer
B. Positive deflection of the
wattmeter pointer
C. …
D. Low but constant alternator
voltage
Ans. C
6772. if three AC generators are
operating in parallel, and one of
the them were to pull out of
synchronism with the other two
generators the
A. Normally operating AC
generators will vibrate
severely
B. AC generator pulling out of
synchoronism will vibrate
severely
C. Normally operating AC
generators will overspeed
D.
Ans.B
6273.A loss of field excitation to
an AC generator while operating
in parallel will cause it to
A. Absorb more and more load
due to decreased armature
reaction
B. Lose its load due to the
inherent speed droop built
into the governor
C. Smoke and overload due to
field flashover as residual
field flux changes polantly
 D. Lose its load begin to
motorize trip out on
reverse power relay and
possibly overspeed.
Ans.D
6274. An AC generator operating
in parallel loses its excitation
without tripping the circuit
breaker. This will
A. Not affected the faulty
generator due to the
compensation of the other
generator
B. Cause the slip rings to melt
C. Cause a low voltage
differential to develop
between the armature and
the bus
D. Cause high currents to be
induced in the field
windings
Ans.D
6275. Etched or burned bands
on the contacts faces of the
brushes in a direct current
generator can be caused by
A. high mica segments
B. copper drag in the
commutator
C. brushes improperly
positioned
D. copper embedded in the
brushes.
Ans.C
6276.if only one brush on a
commulator is sparking
excessively, you should look for
A. a high commulator bar
B. copper imbedded in the
brush
C. a loose commutator bar
D. flux in the commutating
zone
 Ans.B
6277. which of the following
statements describes the effect
of ambient temperature on local
action within lead acid storage
batteries?
A. Increasing ambient
temperature increases local
action
B. Increasing ambient
temperature decreases local
action
C. Ambient temperature has no
effect on local action
D. At 32 c all local action
virtually ceases
6278. Diesel generators #1 and
#2 are operating in parallel at
near full load capacity. Diesel
generators #1 suddenly trips out
mechanically due to low tube oil
pressure. The reverse powe relay
functions properly and trips
generator #1. Electrically off the
boa
A. Start the emergency
generator
B. Ascertain cause of the low
lube oil pressure
C. Strip the board of all nonvital
circuits
D. Secure alarms, reset reverse
powe relay, and restart #1
engine
Ans . C
6279. which of the following
losses is/are present in every
direct current generators
armature?
A. Winding copper loss
B. Core eddy current loss
C. Magnetic hysteresis loss
D. All of the above
6280. upon failure of the normal
power supply the emergency
generator is placed on the line
by the
A. Bus tie feeder
B. Automatic bus transfer
device
C. Line connection feeder
D. Powe failure alarm bus
6281.which of the spaces listed
is defined as a locationrequring
an expectional degree of
protection” when considering
the installation of shipboard
electricalequipment?
A. Machiney space
B. Chart room
C. Console room
D. Accommodation space
Ans. A
6282. the source of emergency
lighting and power at loss of
normal ship’s power on a cargo
vessel should be obtained from
the
A. Emergency generator supply
to the emergency
switchboard
B. Emergency generator supply
to the main switchboard
C. Battery supply to the main
switchboard
D. Turbogenerator supply to the
emergency switchboard
Ans.A
6283. which of the following
statements represents the FIRST
precaution to be taken prior to
working on any installed
electrical component?
A. Wear rubber gloves and
boots
B. Use only approved Ans.C
nonconducting tools
C. Ground the case of the
machine before beginning 6286. before any work on
any repairs
electrical or electronic
D. Open the supply circuits and
tag the switches equipment is performed which
of the following precautions
should be carried out?
Ans.D

A. De-energize the appicabel

6285. which of the following switchboard bus
precautions should be taken B. Bypass the interlocks
when a blown fuse rated at 10 C. Secure and tag the supply
amperes is replaced? circuit breaker in the open
position
D. Station a man at the circuit
supply switch
A. Short cut the fuse before
removing it from the circuit
B. Jse needle nose pliers to Ans.C
remove fuse from the
circuit
C. Replace blown fuse with
one of equal voltage and
ampere capacity 6287.receptacle outlets aboard
D. Fuses 0’10 ampere rating ship should be designed so
and less are virtually
those mounted have
harmless when energized
and may be handled freely
 A. There must be a sufficient
number of receptacle
outlets in the crew
accommodation for an
adequate level of
habitability
B. Each receptable outlet must
be compatible with the
voltage and current of the
circuit in which it is installed
C. A receptable outlelt must
not have any exposed parts
with the plug opening
uncovered
D. All the above
Ans.D
6288.regulations require that an
indicating light at the propulsion
control station will operate if
overloading or overheading
occurs in a
A. Forced draft blower motor
B. Steering gear motor
C. Fuel pump motor
D. Condensate pump motor
Ans.B
Page 346
MMD Question Paper 1 (Marine
Engineering Knowledge,
General)
1. Write a letter to the
company management
representative explaining
how you rectified a faulty
lube oil purifier desludging
problem.
2. Sketch and describe a high
pressure fuel oil filter of
any make known to you.
3. Give an outline sketch of an
auxillary engine starting air
system showing the safety
devices in the system.
4. Write short notes on the
following
 a. Fusible plugs on air Briefly justify your
receiver answer Q. No. 3519

b. Steam traps on 6. In reference to air

condensate lines conditioning when air
c. Anti-vibration attains the maximum
mountings of auxillary amount of moisture it can
engines hold at a specific
d. Flexible coupling of temperature. It is to be
pumps A. Superheaded
5. An axial piston pump B. Saturated
differs from a radial piston C. Condensed
pump as the pistons of an D. Convected
axial piston pump are
positioned
a. Radially from the shaft
b. Parallel to each other
Briefly justify your
and to the shaft
answer Q. No. 2064
c. Parallel to each other but
7. Positive displacement
at right angles to the
helical gear pumps are well
shift
suited for pumping oil
d. At an angle to each other
because
and to the shaft
A. Stuffing boxes
eliminate the leakage
 problems usually 9. Describe for an auxiliary
associated with other boiler safety valve to pop
gear pumps. open and reseat quickly to
a. Give warning that
B. It is not necessary to
excessive boiler pressure
closely maintain
has been reached.
C. They are essentially b. Prevent wire drawing of
self –priming and the disc and seat
produce a high suction c. Prevent valve pounding
lift d. Provide sufficient blow
down.
D. These pumps are
Briefly justify your answer
designed with extreme
Q. No. 1011
tooth angles
10. The purpose of the
Briefly justify your programmed purge cycle on
answer Q.No.2600 an automatically fired
8. The conical steel or auxiliary boiler is to
composition cone installed on a a. Cool the furnace to
propeller known as fair water prevent pre ignition.
cone provides which of the b. Remove explosive
following benefits vapours from the furnace.
c. Evaporate accumulated
a. Reduce turbulence unburned fuel oil.
b. Help with lubrication D. Provide sufficient air in
the furnace to allow
c. Protect against ignition of the fuel.
electrolytic corrosion Briefly justify your
d. All of these. answer
Briefly justify your answer
Briefly justify your answer Q. No. 1055
Q. No.2749
MMD Question paper 2 b. Lighting in
(Marine engineering bilges/below the floor
knowledge general)
plates
1. Write a letter to the
c. Vent pipes on main
company management
sea water line main
representative explaining
suction filters.
how you rectified a
d. Safety guards on
faulty diesel oil purifier
rotating parts.
desludging problem
2. Sketch and describe the 5. The major controlling
low pressure supply factor in the location of
condensate returning piping from
filter of a pneumatic
a heating system
controller which controls is/are
a fuel supply valve. a. The requirement
3. Give an outline sketch of for a gravity return
a domestic fresh water b. The requirement
supply system confining for short horizontal level run
the sketch to the engine c. The requirement
room only. to minimize conflict with
headroom and other services.
4. Write short notes on the
following d. All the above.

a. Steam trap on Briefly justify your

answer Q.NO.2853
condensate lines
6. If the existing vapour
pressure is subtracted from the
indicated pressure at the pump
suction the remainder is the
A. Pump head
B. Total suction
head
C. Discharge head
D. Apparent net positive suction
head
Briefly justify your answer
Q.no.2542
7. The heat removed from the
refrigerant in the condenser of a
refrigeration plant is the
A. latent heat of expansion
B. sensible head of condensation
C. heat of compression
D. all the above
Briefly justify your answer
Q.no.1908
8. Freeze ,leakage and pre
mature failure of valve
packing is a result of
A. Opening a valve too
quickly
B. Lamming a wall in a close
position
6289. According to regulations,
which of the following is an
acceptable lining for battery trays
containing alkaline batteries?
A. Brass
B. Lead
C. Steel
D. Zinc
Ans. C
6290. According to regulations
the motor controller for a
summer stone electric motor
driven bilge pump should be
installed ………………
A. In the shaft alley
B. At the submersible bilge pump
C. Above the upper most
continuous deck
D. At the engine room
emergency control panel
Ans. C
6291. In accordance with
regulations a steering gear feeder
circuit from the emergency
switch board or alternate power
supply must have the capacity for
continuous operation of the
rudder 15 side-side in not more
than 60 seconds of period of
A. ¼ hour
B. ½ hour
C.1 hour
D. 2 hours
Ans. B
6292. In accordance with
regulations the capacity of each
branch circuit providing powder
to a fire detection or alarm
system must not be less than
what percent of the maximum
load?
A. 0.5
B.1
C. 1.25
D. 1.5
Ans. C
6293. Regulations require the
minimum number of ships
services generators for ocean
vessels to be ……………..
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Ans. B
6294. Regulations require over
current protection for steering
gear feeder circuits and shall be
protected by …………….
A. circuit breaker with an
instantaneous tip only
B. Motor –running over current
protection only
C. Non-renewable link cartridge
fuse only
D. Renewable link cartridge fuse
only
Ans. A
6295. When power ventilation is
required in a battery
compartment regulations require
…………..
A. The power ventilation system
to be separate from ventilation
systems for other spaces
B. Electric ventilation motors to
be inside the vent duct
C. Electric ventilation motors
D. All the above
Ans. A
6296. Regulations require each
motor controller to have a wiring
diagram located…………
A. On the inside of the controller
door
B. In the engineering department
office
C. In the spare parts locker
D. all of these
Ans. A
6297. In accordance with
regulations receptacles for
refrigerated containers
must…………..
A. Have a switch near the
receptacles that disconnects all
power to those receptacles
B. Have a sign stating that the
switch should be opened before
cables are disconnected from the
receptacles
C. Be designed for circuit
breaking service
D. All the above
Ans. D
6298. Regulations require that
the emergency lighting and
power system ………..
A. Emergency generator must be
tested under load before sailing
B. Must be tested and inspected
weekly and the date recorded
C. Batteries must be tested
annually and date recorded
D. Must be capable of sustaining
the emergency load for 48 hours
Ans. B
6299 Regulations require
emergency diesel engine starting
systems to have sufficient
capacity to provide power for at
least ……….
A. Three continuous starting
sequences
B. Six consecutive cranking
cycles
C. Nine repeated starts under
load
D. Twelve cracking periods of 5
seconds
Ans. B
6300 Which of the following
statements is a regulation
concerning emergency generator
diesel engines?
A. The fuel must have a flash
point not less than 24c
B. Emergency diesel engines
must be capable of operating full
load in not less than 30 seconds
after cracking
C. The starting battery must
produce 12 consecutive cranking
cycles
D. Emergency diesel engines
must operate satisfactorily up to
a 22.5 list
Ans. D
Q.NO.3363
9. Which of the following
problems may be encountered
by using an oil having a viscosity
higher than that specified for an
operating hydraulic system?
a) external seal leakage
b) hunting-due to fast response
c) increased power consumption
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.3575
10. An inadequate reciprocating
bilge pump discharge is most
often caused by
a) defective intake valves
b) clogged suction strainers
c) scored cylinder walls
d) clogged drain valves
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.2413
MMD QUESTION
PAPER3 (MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE – GENERAL)
1. Write a letter to the
Engineer Superintendant of
the company stating why
the control air used on
board for the pneumatic
controllers remains highly
contaminated and how you
propose to rectify it.
2. Give outline sketches of
the following components
of a refrigeration system
and explain the working
briefly
(A) Liquid receivers with
fittings
(B) Driers showing flow
of gas through the filters
(C) Line filters showing
flow of gas through the
filters
3. Sketch and describe a main
air compressor air filter of
the Viscous impingement
type
4. Write short notes on the
following.
(A) Fir tree type fusible
plugs
(B) Mechanical oil seals
as used in pumps
(C) High pressure cut
outs in the refrigeration
system
Give sketches where ever
necessary
PART B
5. Why is the discharge
pressure of a herringbone
gear pump steadier than
the discharge pressure of a
simple spur gear pump?
(A) Clearance between
the gear teeth and
casing is smaller
(B) The gear teeth are
smaller than those of
 the simple spur gear (D) The packing is
pump adjusted for greater
(C) One discharge phase cooling or replaced
begins before the Briefly justify your
previous discharge has answer Q.NO.2769
been completed 7. A bourdon tube-type
(D) The herringbone gear steam pressure gauge is
pump has four spur fitted with a siphon loop to
gears has been prevent damage from
completed _________
Briefly justify your (A) Extreme thermal
answer stress
Q.NO.2716 (B) The admission of
6. Which of the following condensate
actions, pertaining to (C) Pressure shock
saltwater lubricated stern (D) Differential expansion
tube, stuffing boxes is rates
usually observed when the
Briefly justify your answer
ship is expected to be in
Q.NO.2802
port for an extended
period? 8. In a refrigeration system,
(A) The stuffing box is the refrigerant absorbs the
continually flushed latent heat of vaporization
(B) The drain connection in the ______
is left opened (A) Compressor
(C) The stuffing box is (B) Condenser
tightened (C) Receiver
(D) Evaporator
 Briefly justify your
answer Q.NO.1910
9. Oil emulsification in engine
lubricating oils will tend to
_________
(A) Decrease sludge
formation in lubricating
oil
(B) Cause water to
separate from oil
(C) Improve the
lubricating oil viscosity
(D) Displace lubricating
oil required in areas of
friction
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.3680
10. The conical steel or
composition cone installed
on a propeller, known as
fair-weather cone, provides
which of the following
benefits?
(A) Reduces turbulence
(B) Helps with lubrication
(C) Protects the nut
(D) All of the above
Briefly justify your
answer
Q.NO.2749
QUESTION PAPER4
(MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE –
GENERAL)
1. Submit a report to
the Chief Engineer,
how an emergency
fire pump which had
difficulty taking
suction earlier during
ballast passage of a
ship is rectified
2. Sketch a main
seawater Suction
filter and state
(a) How is air purged
out of such a filter
(b) How is filter
isolated for
maintenance work
3. Give an outline sketch
of a Fresh water
hydrophone system
briefly explaining the
system
4. Write short notes on (a) Frequently cutting
the following out an over load
(a) The need for (b) Frequently
taking double starting and
bottom tank stopping
surroundings (c) Running too fast
regularly after a (d) Running too
grounding incident slow
(b) Need to preheat
Briefly justify your
main engines to
answer
continuous
Q.NO.1904
running of the
engines 6. The emergency bilge
(c) Utility of pressure suction valve is
gauges on either typically used
side of high __________
pressure fuel oil (a) To inject cleaning
filters additives when the
(d) The purpose of bilges are
opening indicator extremely dirty
cocks before (b) When the main
blowing through condenser
an engine becomes fouled, in
5. Short cycling of a order to provide
refrigeration additional cooling
compression refers to water circulation
a ________ (c) To connect the
rose box to the
 independent bilge Briefly justify your
section answer
(d) If the bilges Q.NO.3515
become flooded
8. Which of the
and they cannot be
following describes
emptied by any
the purpose of a
other means
striker or double
Briefly justify your plate?
answer (a) Provides a surface
Q.NO.2890 for the application
of force, or the
7. The by-products of
installation of a
oxidation, as a result
machinery
of water
(b) Provides landing
contamination of
surface for the
hydraulic oi;\l, are
sounding bob of a
generally
tank sounding tape
___________
(c) Absorbs machinery
(a) Removed by
vibration
cellulose type
(d) Prevents valve
filters
system over travel
(b) Gums, varnishes
and acids Briefly justify your
(c) Always neutralized answer Q.NO.
by oil additives
9. Which of the
(d) Harmless and
following statements
have no effect on
represents the proper
system
relative direction of
components
 flow through a globe (a) Compressed,
valve? condensed and
(a) Direction of flow returned to the cargo
through the valve tanks
is unimportant (b) Burned in the
(b) Direction of boilers
flow through the (c) Vented to the
valve depends atmosphere
upon the type of (d) Mixed with
seat design used in nitrogen and
the valve circulated through a
(c) Direction of flow primary barrier
should be from (e)Burnt off in a
below the seat controlled manner
(d) Direction of through a chimney
flow should be stack within the
from above the funnel
seat
Briefly justify your
Briefly justify your answer
answer Q.NO.2822
Q.NO.3168
QUESTION PAPER5
10. A portion of the (MARINE ENGINEERING
cargo of an LNG KNOWLEDGE –
carrier boils off GENERAL)
during each voyage. 1. Write a letter to
How is the cargo boil the engineer
off normally superintendent of
handheld? the company,
 stating how (A) hydrogen in
different types of crankcase
corrosion have (B) valve throats
damaged auxillary and diameters
engine Lubricating (C) structure Borne
Oil cooler Noises
2. Give only outline (D) refrigeration F-
sketches of heat 11
exchangers with 5. the temperature at
the following type which water
of flow vapour in the
(A) Radial flow atmosphere begins
(B) Segmental to condense is
flow called the
(C) Guided ____________
flow (A) dew point
(D) Axial flow temperature
(B) condensation
Do not give
temperature
any explanation
(C) psychometric
3. sketch and temperature
describe a low (D) absolute
pressure relief humidity
valve for any make temperature
of multistage air
Briefly justify your
compressor,
answer
known to you
Q.NO.2214
4. write short notes
on the following
6. the tendency of (A) the inside
the lubricating oil diameter of the
to thin out at high tube
temperature and (B) the
thicken at low numerical
temperatures will designation
be characterized found on the
by ______ “skin” of the
(A) low hose
viscosity index (C) the color
(B) high code of the
viscosity index armor
(C) high (D) the
neutralization thickness of the
number tube wall
(D) low (A) Transferring ballest
domulsibility water
quality (B) Dumping bulk
materials including cargo at
Briefly justify your
sea
answer
(C) Pumping out flooded
Q.NO.3678
compartment
7. the size of a (D) Evacuating the vessel
flexible hose used of oil consumable s and
in a hydraulic personnel
system is indicated Briefly Justify Your Answer
by________
4 Keeping the draft of shipat.or
below the load line mark,insures
the unit will have (C) Spread absoeben
adecuate__________ material on dek beneath the leak

(A) Reserve ballast (D) uniform P & I clubs to

(B) Reserve buoyancy prepare for claim
(C) Lightweight
Briefly Justify Your Answer
displacement
(D) Critical motion 7 The hydrant valves on a crude
(E) A small reserve capacity oil tanker shall be rotated from
for additional shopping crude oil washing
Breifly Justify Your Answer

5 The motion about the vertical

axis of a vessel is known
system by________________
(A) Vaw
(B) Surge (A) Space blank
(C) Sway (B) Face blanks
(D) Roll (C) Nonreturn valves
Briefly Justify Your Answer (D) Automatic closing
valves
6 Teal in an oil hose coupling Briefly Justify Your Answer
cannot be stopped by tightening
the coupling bolts you 8 After using a portable Halon
should_________ fire extinguisher. It should
be________
(A)notify the Coast Guard of
a potential oil spin (A) Put back in service if
more than 50% of the
(B) reducing purnping charge remains
pressure to reduce a leakage (B) Repainted
rate
 (C) Hydrostatistically
tested before use
(D) Discarded
Briefly Justify Your
Answer
9 Which of the following must
be eliminated to prevent
accidents?
(A) Unsafe action
(B) Orderliness
(C) Frequent inspection
(D) Good work
habit/practices
Briefly Justify Your
Answer
10 A floating vessel will behave
as if all of its weight is acting
downward through the
____________
(A) Centre of gravity
(B) Centre of buoyancy
(C) Centre of floatation
(D) Metacentre
Briefly Justify Your
Answer
MMD QUESTION PAPER 4(SHIP’S
SAFETY AND ENVIRONTMENTAL
PROTECTION)
1 the emergency fire pump
of your ship is in an
explosion.State the general
requirement
requirements of a
replacement pump giving
technical details,certification
required and perticulars of
matting it with engine
primary pump suction
manifold etc.
2 With reference to regulate
(MARPOL 73/78) for the
presentation of pollution
by and
(A)Explain the following
terms
(a) Pl
(b) H
(c) Cow
(B) define the following
terms
(a) new ship
(b) segregated ballast
 (c) permealibility 5 The most frequent incident of
tanker pollution occurring during
3 A low velocity for application
tanker operation is
is used in referigation to
(A) Due to collusion
(A) Apply large droplets
(B) Routine discharge of
of foam
oil during ballasting and
(B) Clean and smother
tank crude washing
the fire
(C) Loading and
(C) Break up burning
discharging
embers
(D) Due safety to
(D) Clear smoke each
groundings
electrical fire
Briefly Justify Your
Briefly Justify Your
Answer
Answer
6 in a refrigeration system,the
4‘GM’cannot be used as
refrigerant absorbs the latent
indicator of stability at effected
heat of vapourisation in the
inclusion mixture
(A) Compressor
(A) ‘M’ is not fix at large
(B) Condenser
angles
(C) Receiver
(B) There is ‘M’ fixed at
(D) Evaporator
large angles
(C) ‘G’ is fixed at large
angle 7 emulsification in engine
(D) There is ‘G’ at large lubricating oils will tend to
angle
(A) Decreasing
Briefly Justify Your
sludge formation
Answer
in lubricating oil
 (B) Cause water to MMD QUESTION
separate from the PAPER 5(SHIP’S SAFETY AND
oil ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION)
(C) Improving the
1 Briefly state the major areas of
lubricating oil
a ship and its equipment that a
viscosity
safety equipment certificate
(D) Distinguishing
covers within its scope of
lubricating oil
certification
required in areas
of friction 2 briefly state what do the
Briefly justify your following certificates
answer stands for and what are
their validity periods
(A) safcon certificate
(B) IOPP certificate
8 the conical steel of
(C) LL certificate
composition cone installed on a
3 briefly state the salient
propeller,known as fair water
features of ISM
cone,provides which of the
certification on board a
following benefits?
ship.Does the ISM code
(A) Reduces replace any existing
turbulence certificate on board.
(B) Helps with 4 There has been a crank
lubrication case explosion on board
(C) Protects the nut a ship and two crew are
(D) All the above injured.on arrival port
Briefly justify your which of the following
answer persons would you
inform
 (A) The port state (A) storing all items
inspector in an assigned place
(B) The ship (B) storing all items
chandeler in a common storage
(C) The dock safety container except
inspector those ready for sea
(D) The port health (C) tagging all items
officer according to their age
(E) The port safety and then storing
officer them together
(D) diposing of
worn out items
briefly justify your
5 angular motion about answer
the longitudinal axis of a 7 recharging a previously
vessel is known as used catridge operated
(A) pitch dry chemical fire
(B) surging extinguisher is
(C) sway accomplished by
(D) roll (A) authourized fire
briefly justify your equipment servicing
answer personnel only
(B) replacing the
6 safety is dependent on ropellant catridge and
orderliness and refilling it with
cleanliness.order may be pyrotechnic powder
maintained by
 (C) puncturing the (D) a recognized
catridge seal after classification
installation approved by the
(D) recharging the administration
catridge and refilling 10 when entering a
it with powder compartment which is
briefly justify your on fire
answer (A) you must wear
gloves
(B) the flames
8 heave is the motion of a should be beaten
vessel along the back from the door
(A) longitudinal axis with water fog
(B) transverse axis (C) a straight
(C) vertical axis stream of water
(D) centerline axis should be used to
briefly justify your cool the door
answer (D) straight stream
of water should be
used to cool the fire
9 a lead line for a ship is fighters
assigned by the briefly justify your
(A) port health answer
inspector
(B) assesors and 9.An advantage of a helical gear
arbitrators pump over a simple gear pump is
(C) institute of the helical gear pump Is capable
marine engineers of

(a)maintaining a steadier speed

(b)delivering liquids over greater
distances
(c)operating for longer periods
of time
(d)producing a smoother
discharge flow
Briefly justify your answer
10.restrictions occurring in the
small orifices of pneumatic
control system components can
be caused by
(a)moisture in the compressed
air supply
(b)excessive dryness in the
compressed air supply
(c)pressure surging in the
compressed air receiver
(d)insufficient lubrication of the
stem components
Briefly justify your answer
MMD QUESTION PAPER 9
(MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE-GENERAL)
1.Write short notes on:
(a)effect of moisture in a
refrigerating system
(b)effect of excess refrigerant
(c)underchange
(d)halocarbon’s(hcf’s)
2.make a outline sketch of a fall-
safe steering gear for a ums
vessel.state what steering tests
need to be carried out under
IMO regulations.within 12
hours.before the departure of
the vessel.
3.what is the importance of the
following in a stage marine non
oil-free compressor.
(a)oil system relief value
(b)fusible plug
(c)condensate pot
(d)configuration of 2nd stage
valves
4.state atleast four problems
areas.which mmmust be
considered when treating engine
cooling water
Systems.what tests are
recommended to be don e,in
order
5.how will you initiate chemical
cleaning of your boiler during lay
up?why do boilers suffer from
corrosion during periods when
hot in use or laid-up ?state the
6. in your opinion ,what could be
the reasons for the following:
(a)excessive wear of piston
rings and liners
(b)scuffing
(c)piston ring failure
(d)deposit formation in oil
cooled piston
7.what could be the possible
reasons for:
(a)bearing failure
(b)valve deposits
(c)vibrations in crankshaft
(d)chain slackening
(e)noisy gear drive
8.write with respect to deck
machinery ,discuss
(a)importance of specifications
of windlass
(b)anchor windlass brake tests
(c)a simple rigging arrangements
of a winch for cargo handling
(d)function of a fin stabilizer
9.write shorts notes on:
(a)cascade control
(b)remote water level control
(c)open and closed loop control
10.discuss the following:
(a)effect of running the engine
on contaminated fuel
(b)microbial degradation of
lubricating oil
(c)use of homogenisers
MMD QUESTION PAPER 10
(MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE-GENERAL)
1.WRITE SHORT NOTES ON:
(a)volumetric efficiency
(b)propeller curve
(c)scavevge efficiency
(d)swept volume
(e)compression ratio
2.with reference to hull
protection against
corrosion,describe how an
impressed current system
operates.what are the
advantages,as compared to
using
3.what are the usual causes of
oil being found in air passages
between turbocharger blower
and scavenge air cooler.how will
the fouling of the scavenge air
4.write briefly notes on the
adverse effects that a fuel
containing high values of the
following may cause:
(a)viscosity
(b)density
(c)sulphur
(d)conrodson carbon residue
(e)asphaltenes
(f)vanadium
(g)ash
(h)water
5.with reference to multitublar
heat exchangers,state why:
(a)fresh water is generally
preferred to sea water as
coolant
(b)lubricating oil is generally
maintained at a marginally
positive head relative to the
coolant
(c)contra flow and multi pass
arrangments tend to improve
heat transfer rates for a given
surface area.
6.State the chemical methods of
treating boiler water .Explain
coagulation .Describe the
process of softening water.
7(A) Sketcha diagram showing a
typical “Inert gas system” used
for inerting the cargo tanks of an
oil tanker.Labelling the
component parts
(B) Describe the exworking of
the system
(C) State what maximum oxygen
content you would expect,in the
flue gas of a boiler,if this was
used in an inert gas system
8. Petroleum vapours are a
dangerous substance and when
mixed with air may get ignited.
With this in mind
(A)For the mixture of petroleum
vapour and ar,explain what the
term ‘Lower and Upper
Flammable Limit’ means
(B)Describe the explosimeter
and its working principle
(C)state what can cause the
explosimeter to give a false
reading
9 Describe the hull examination
you carry out on a ship in
drydock,making special
reference to essential
maintenance that can only be
carried out in dry dock
10 State advantages of welding
joints over other types of joining
What provision must be made
for taking care of expansion of
pipelines,especially those
carrying high tmperature fluids
and gases
MMD QUESTION
PAPER 1 (MARINE
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-
MOTOR)
1.Write a letter to the company
Technical Manager,stating with
reasons,why the mail engine
crankcase Lube OIL bunkered in
the last port and now in use,is
2.Sketch and describe a four
stroke marine diesel engine one
piece linen of ny make.
3.Give the outline sketch of a
piston cooling water system of a
large 2-stroke marine diesel
engine,stating the means of
replnishing the water.
4.Write short notes on following:
a) Cylinder head relief valves
b) Cam shaft lubrication in large
two strike marine diesel engines
c) turning gear
d) main bearing wear down
measurement.
5.An increase in the air inlet
manifold pressure of a diesel
engine will result in
a) dcrease in maximum cylinder
pressure
b) increase in ignition lag
c) dcrease in fuel consumption
per horsepower-hour
d)dcrease in exhaust manifold
pressure
Give reasion justify your
answer.
6.It is desirable for an auxiliary
boiler saftey valve to pop open
and reseat quickly to
a) give warnimg that excessive
boiler pressure has been
reached
b) prevent wire drawing of the
disc and seat
c) prevent valve pounding
d) provide sufficient blowdown
Give reason to justify your
answer.
7.For a continuous operation
diesel engine,a duplex filter unit
would be the best arrangement
because
a) changing filter elements
would not interrupt engine
operation
b) filtering occurs twice in each
pass of oil through the system
c) clogging will not occur
d) dropping pressure is half of
that through a single filter unit
Give reason to justify your
answer.
8.Which of the following devices
controls the discharge flow rate
of an attached,positive
displacement,rotary gear,lube oil
pump,for a diesel engine?
a) A pressire regulating valve
b) A pressure relief valve
c) The engine speed
d) An orifice
Give reason to justify your
answer.
9.The expantion tank for diesel
engine closed cooling system is
designed to maintain a constant
head on the system and
a) reduce water temperature
b) reduce water turbulence
c) provide an air cushion
d) aiiow for an increase in water
volume as the engine warms up
Give reason to justify your
answer.
10.Why are heavy fuels not
usually prone to the problems of
microbiological infection?
a) Heavy fuels are subjected to
better refining processes which
prevent the formation of these
growths
b) Most heavy fuels contain
chemicals which prevent growth
of fungi and other bacteria
c) Microbiological infection does
not affect marine fuel but rather
the personnel who are involved
with the handling storage and
purification of fuel.
d) The necessary nutrients that
the organisms feed on are in a
more complex form and not
available for microbial
degradation.
Give reason to justify your
answer.
MMD QUESTION
PAPER 2 9MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR)
1.Write a letter to the company
Technical Manager stating with
reasons,why the main engine
cylinder lube oil,bunkered in the
last port and now in use,is of
2.Sketch and describe a high
powered four stroke marine
diesel engine main beraring of
any make
3.Give an outline sketch of a
piston cooling water system of a
large 2 strokes slow speed
marine diesel engine stating the
pressure and temperature at the
a) at entry to piston
b) inside piston
c) at piston cooling water pump
outlet
d) at piston cooling water tank
4.Write short notes on the
following (for large 2 stroke
marine diesel engines)
a) cylinder head holding down
studs and nut
b) cylinder head landing joints
for sealing
6. The intake valves in a diesel engine
are reseated by
a) cam followers
b) push rods
c) combustion gases
d) valve springs

c) crankshaft bearing clearance Briefly justify your answer

measurements Q.NO.134

7. When preparing to light off a cold

boiler equipped with a return flow fuel
oil system the circulating valve directs
5.The outlet from an expansion the flow of oil
tank of a closed freshwater
a) directly to the fuel oil heater inlet for
cooling system should be piped
further warm-up
to the
b) back to the fuel oil settler for further
a) cylinder head water outlet
filtration
header
c) back to the suction side of the service
b) cylinder jacket inlet main
pump
c) heat exchange inlet
d) directly to deep tanks
connection
Briefly justify your answer
d) jacket water pump suction
Q.NO.1057
line

Breifly justify your answer.

8. The main function of the rods is the 10. When accumulated carbon at the
construction of large low speed diesel air inlet ports of a two stroke /cycle
engine is to diesel engine is being removed , you
should take care to avoid carbon
a) stiffen the bed plate in the main
bearing to increase the engine’s a) entering the cylinder
longitudinal strength
b) particles becoming lodged under the
b) accept most of the tensile loading intake valves
that result from the firing forces
c) entering the water jacket
developed during operation
d) particles entering lube oil
c) mount the engine frame securely to
the hull to prevent shaft coupling Briefly justify your answer
misalignment Q.NO.731

d) connect the crosshead solidly to the MMD

piston rod QUESTION PAPER 3(MARINE
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR)
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.8 1. One of the auxiliary engines of your
ship always has a starting
9. On most of the modern diesel
problem.Write a letter to the owners
engines,the main and connecting rod
suggesting two very specific reasons
bearings receive their lubricating oil by
why the engine does not start on
a) drip feed/reed valve feed fuel even after giving repeated air
kicks and putting on the fuel lever.
b) splash feed
2. Give an outline sketch of a main
c) gravity feed engine cylinder lubricating system
d) pressure feed and briefly state typical properties of

Briefly justify your answer Q.NO.9

 a cylindrical lubricating oil used for b)Test the relief valves
large 2 stroke marine engines. c)Watch the temperature to prevent
3. Sketch and describe any two type of the fluctuations in pressure
turbo charging systems used in d)Clean the interior to remove oil
modern 2 stroke diesel engines used and foreign matter
as prime movers.Give outline Briefly justify your answer
sketches only. Q.NO.834
4. A set of fuel injectors along with 7. In comparison to the exhaust valves ,
their needle and guide for an intake valves of the diesel engines
auxiliary engine of 500kw capacity is may be fabricated from low-alloy
air freighted to your ship completely steels because___________
scaled at the manufacturing site.Give a)the beveled edges of the intake
a step by step method of how you valves for self-centering during
would make such an injector ready seating
for the installation on the engine. b)intake valves utilize satellite-
5. Crank web deflection readings will coated valve seat inserts which
give a positive indication reduce wear
of________________ c)the volume of air passing through
a) worn main bearing journals intake of the valves is less than a
b) torsional stress deformation volume of air passing through
c) slack thrust bearings exhaust valves
d) bearing shells shim dimensions d)intake values are less affected to
Briefly justify your answer the corrosive action of the exhaust
Q.NO.730 gases
6. What preventive maintainence Briefly justify your answer
should be done frequently done to Q.NO.1337
diesel engine starting air receivers? 8. Friction developing between the
a)Drain the accumulated moisture moving parts of the governor ,
 governor linkages and control valve Briefly justify your answer
will cause the governor Q.NO.1313
to_______________ MMD
a)react with insufficient speed drop QUESTION PAPER 3(MARINE
b)fail to react to small speed changesENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR)
c)have excessive sensitivity to small 1.Write a letter to the company
speed changes Technical manger stating with reasons
d)remain in the neutral position why the fuel bunkered in the last port is
Briefly justify your answer of very poor quality.
Q.NO.1305 2.Sketch and describe a 4 stroke marine
9. Which of the bearings listed are diesel engine piston of any make.
most widely used for the main and 3.Give the outline sketch of a cylinder
connecting rods bearings of a 4 lubricating system of a large 2-stroke
stroke medium speed diesel engine?marine diesel engine stating the
a)roller measure for varying cylinder lube oil
b)steeve feed.
c)precison inser(bimetal or trimetal)4.Write short notes on the following.
d)needle A)crankcase explosion doors
Briefly justify your answer B)poppet type exhaust valves
Q.NO.234 C)gear teeth backlash
10.Which of the following method is D)main engine flywheel markings.
normally used to lubricate bearings in a5.To minimize the corrosion,fuel oil
small high-speed diesel engine? strainer disks,spacers and scrapper
a)splash lubrication blades are made of __________
b)pressure lubrication A)brass
c)slight feed lubrication B)copper
d)mechanical lubricators C)iron
D)monel metal or stainless steel
Briefly justify your answer B)clock the air clock once fires are lit
Q.NO.980 C)blowdown the gauge class
6.In a diesel engine, maximum lube oil D)crack open the steam stop valve to
system pressure is normally controlled ensure protective steam flow
by__________ Give a reason to justify your answer
A)the capacity of lube oil pump Q.NO.1016
B)the speed of the lube oil pump 9.Within the cycle of a forced
C)the outlet pressure of the lube oil circulation auxiliary water tube boiler
pump ,part of the water into the steam and
D)relief valve the remaining hot water is__________
Give a reason to justify your answer A)collected in the lower portion of the
Q.NO.904 steam accumulator for re-circulation
7.Which of the following statements back to the heating coil or water tank.
describes the function of an expansion B)returned to the lower drum via
tank in a diesel engine cooling system?downcomers due to density difference
A)maintains a constant head on the for re-heating
system C)passes through the domestic heating
B)reduces the likelihood of air or steamsystem return line stream traps to the
pockets formation auxiliary feed supply tank
C)provides a low pressure point for theD)automatically dumped into auxiliary
addition of make up cooling water feed heater and re-heated by auxiliary
D)all the above exhaust back pressure
Give a reason to justify your answer Give a reason to justify your answer
Q.NO.1563 Q.NO.1041
8.prior lighting of the cold automatically
10.Ignition failure in an automatically
fired auxiliary boiler , you controlled auxiliary boiler could be
should__________ caused by__________
A)check and regulate the water level A)carbon deposits on the flame scanner
B)high fuel oil temperature 5.Which of the following actions should
C)low fuel oil viscosity normally be taken during each watch
D)high steam pressure when the auxiliary boiler is in
Give a reason to justify your answer operation?
Q.NO.1456 A)clean the flame scanner photocell
MMDwindow
QUESTION PAPER 3(MARINE B)inspect and clean all solenoid valves
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) C)lift and safety valves by hand
1.Write a letter to the company D)inspect for oil or water leaks
Technical manager stating with the Briefly justify your answer
reason why a particular make of V-beltsQ.NO.1141
appear to be defective when put to use. 6.Lubrication for the main reduction
2.Sketch and describe a 2 stroke marinegears with diesel engines is usually
diesel engine ,connecting rod of any supplied by ______________
make . A)oil from the main engine sump
3.Give the outline sketch of a jacket B)an independent lube oil system
cooling water system of a large 2-strokeC)the stem tube bearing head tank
marine diesel engine stating the meansD)the stern tube bearing the sump tank
of replenishing the water. Briefly justify your answer
4.Write short notes on the following. Q.NO.874
A)cylinder head air starting valves 7.When there is a flame failure in an
B)camshaft lubrication in a medium automatically fired auxiliary boiler,the
speed 4-stroke diesel engine A)air supply off
C)Thrust pad lubrication on a large 2- B)fuel supply is shut off
stroke marine diesel engine
D)main drive gear teeth backlash
measurement
(c) water supply is shut off
(D)safety valve lifts
 Briefly Your Answer
Q.NO.1025
8 Cooling the intake an supplied
to a diesel engine wil
(A)reduce mean effective
pressure
(B)decrease average
compression pressure
(C)decrease air charge density
(D)increase power output
Briefly Your answer
Q.NO.1190
9 Which of the listed items
should be secured before
performing maintenance on a
sole and operated air stating
valve?
(A)Electric power
(B)lube oil standby pump
(C)hydraulic switch
(D)Motor drain
Briefly Your answer
Q.NO.838
10 What is to be istalled on an
internal combustion engine if
the cylinder bone exceeds
200mm?
(A)Crankcase vapour moniters
(B)Engine exhaust silencers
(C)Constant pressure type
turbochargers
(D)explosion relier valves
Briefly justify Your answer
Q.NO.142
MMD QUESTION
PAPER 6 (MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE –MOTOR)
1 Write a letter to the company
Technical superintendent what
do you suspect ccould be the
primary reason for a
Relatively new main engine to be
under performing so badly
2 sketch and describe any type
of crances explosion relief valvas
know to you
3 state the sources of noise
emanating from a large 2 stroke
slow speed marine diesel
engines catagoring them
Under air borne and structure
borne types
4 write short notes on the
following
(A)igniting quality of the fuel for
large 2 storke slow speed marine
diesel engines
(B)piston crown cracking
(C)scuff resistance in bearing
matenals
5 The amount of fuel oil
atomized by a returned flow oil
burner is directly controlled by
the
(A)header supply valve
(B)buner rool valve
(D)fuel oil back pressure
Briefly Justify Your Answer
Q.NO.1061
6 The crankercase of many
modern high speed marine
diesel engines Are kept under a
slight vacuum by the
(A)scavenging action of the
oiston
(B)piston typed vacuum pump
taking suction off a differential
manometer
(C)gland exhausting evacuation
pump
(D)crankcase exhaust fan
Briefly Justify Your Answer
Q.NO.262
7 Which of the following
condition will cause only one of
the burner solenoid to close on
an automatically fired two buner
unit auxiliary boiler?
(A)Loss of the forced draft fan
(B)low boiler water level
(C)high boiler water level
(D)A faulty coil in one of the
solenoid valves
Briefly Justify Your Answer
Q.NO.1488
8 The expand tank in a diesel
engine closed fresh water
cooling system is located at
(A)the highest point in the
system
(B)the lowest point in the system
(C)or near the floor plate level
(D)or near the tank top level
Briefly Justify Your Answer
Q.NO.1575
9 Lubrication for an auxily
marine diesel engine bearing are
usually provided by which of the
following typed of lubncating oil
system?
(A)Splash
(B)Gravity
(C)Pressure
(D)Bypass
Briefly Justify your Answer
Q.NO.9
10 The burner assembly on an
automatically fired auxiliary
boiler with variable capacity
pressure atomizing burners
maintain steam pressure by
(A)cycling fuel oil return pressure
(B)changing the speed of a
rotary cup
(C)changing the fuel oil return
pressure
(D)varying air pressure supplied
the nozzle
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.1464
MMD QUESTION
PAPER 7 (MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR)
1 Give a letter to the company to
technical superintend, explaining
what you suspect could be the
cause for all the auxillary engine
governors to be function
erratically
2 Describe any type auxillry
engine flexible mounting, which
also serves to isolate things to a
great extent.
3 shorts notes on following
(A)cavitation erosion resistance
in bearings
(B)low cycle fatigue stresses in
bearings
(C)composition of gaseous
exhaust emission from large 2
stroke slow speed marine diesel
engines
4.The primary requirements you
would look for in a marine
diesel engine for main
population.the main engine of
main 2 strokes speed type ,and
your requirement should be
general and not restricted to
ships specifies
Part-b
1.if an auxiliary boiler is
operating at design load , which
of the following actions wil occur
if the combustion contril system
detects a steam pressure
(A)more burners will lighted on
(B)The registers will open fully
(C)The fuel oil valve and air
damper will open wider
(D)the steam flow will be
automatically regulated
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.1489
2.Spring loaded unit type fuel
injector is used on a diesel
engine cylinder head to
(A)meter the fuel
(B)produced the proper oil
pressure
(C)atomize the fuel
(D)all the above
Briefly Justify Your Answer
Q.NO.133
3 Heating system for diesel
engine are usually designed to
initially provide lube oil to the
engine
(A)camshaff bearings
(B)crosshead Bearings
(C)main bearings
(D)thrust bearings
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.891
4 The valve tappets in a diesel
engine are set at greater
clearances than those specified
by the engine manufactuers
those valves will
(A)open late and close early
(B)open late and close late
(C)fail to open when the engine
is cold
(D)fail to open at operating
temperature
Briefly Justify Your Asnswer
Q.NO.1426
5.The function of a flame
safeguard system as used on an
automatillay fired auxillary boiler
is to prevent
(A)accident dry firing
andoverpressure
(B)uncontrolled fires in the
furnace
(C)explosion in the boiler
furnace
(D)overheating of the pressure
parts
Briefly Justify Your Answer
Q.NO.265
6.The primary finction of a flame
safeguard system,as used on an
automatically fired auxiliary
boiler I to prevent__________-
A)accidental dry firing and
overpressure
B)uncontrolled fires in furnace
C)explosion in the furnace
D)overheating in the pressure
parts
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.1467
MMD
QUESTION PAPER (MARINE
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE –
MOTOR)
1 Writer the letter to the
company technical manager
stating why the fuel bunked in
the last port is of very poor
quality
2 sketch and describe a fours
stoke marine diesel engine pistol
of any make
3 Give the outline sketch of the
cylinder lubricating system of a
large 2 stoke engine starting the
measures for varying cylinder
Lube oil feed
4 write the short note on the
folling.
(A)crankcase explosiondoors
(B)popper type exhaust valves
(c)Gear teeth backlash
(D)main engine fly wheel
markings
5 to mninize corrosion fuel oil
strainer disks spacers blades are
made of
(A)brass
(B) copper
(C) iron
(D) monel metal nor stainless
steel
Give reasons to justify your
answer q .No . 980
6 In a diesel engine maximum
lube oil pressure is normally
controlled by…………….
A)The capacity of the lube oil
pump
B)The speed of the lube oil pump
C)The outlet pressure of the lube
oil pump
D)A rene valve
Give reasons to justify your
answer q .No .904
7.Which of the following
statements describes the
function of an expansion tank in
a diesel engine cooling system?
A)Maintains a constant head on
the system
B)Reduces the likelihood of air or
steam pockets formation
C)Provides a low pressure point
for the addition of makeup
cooling water
D)All of the above
Give reasons to justify your
answer q .No .1563
8.Prior to lighting off cold
automatically fixed manually
boiler , you should____________
A)check and regulate the water
level
B)clock the air clock once fires
and lit
(C) slowdown the guage glass
(D) crack open the steam stop
valve to assure protective steam
flow
Give reasons to justify your
answer
Q.NO.1016
9. Within the cycle of a forced
circulation auxiliary water-tube
boiler part of the water flashes
into steam and the remaining
hot water is………………
(A) collected in the lower portion
of the steam accumulator for
recirculation back to the heating
coil or water tank
(B)returned to the lower drum
via downcomers due to density
different for reheating
(C) passes through the domestic
heating system return line steam
traps to the auxiliary feed supply
tank
(D)automatically dumped into
auxiliary feed heater and
reheated by auxiliary exhaust
back pressure
Give reasons to justify your
answer?
Q.No.1041
10. Ignition control in an
automatically controlled
auxiliary boiler could be caused
by…………..
(A) carbon deposits on the flame
scanner
(B) high fuel oil temperature
(C) low fuel oil viscosity
(D) high steam pressure
Give reasons to justify your
answer?
Q.No.1456
MMD QUESTION PAPER 9
(MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR)
1. Issue a cautionary notice to
the Navigator Watch
Keeping Officer on too
many engine movements
during maneuvering owing
to under performing main
air
2. Sketch and describe any
type of four stroke oil
cooled piston used in
medium speed marine
diesel engines for main
propulsion
3. Write short notes on the
following
(A)friction losses and fuel
consumption in auxilliaary
engines
(B) The importance of
stroke/bore ratio in engine
performance
(C) Noise reduction
techniques used in main
engines to improve noise level
conditions for personnel in
the engine room
4.What is the effect of
vibration on the following
fitting structures and
components in a engine room
(A) main air compressor
foundation
(B) Main jacket cooling water
internal surfaces
(C)double bottom tanks
Explain how these effects take
place, specially the
mechanism by which these
effects take place
5.Which of the fuel injection
systems uses a spring
loadeddifferential spray
needle valve and an individual
pump for each cylinder?
(a) common rail injection
(b) air injection
(c) jerk pump injection
(d) distributor injection
briefly justify your answer
q.no:260
6.proper lubrication of the
main bearings is more
easily obtained in a single
acting four stroke bar cycle
diesel engine than in
asingle acting two stroke
bar cycle engine
(a) bearing pressure in a
four stroke bar cycle single
acting diesel engine is
continually reversed
(b) bearing pressure in a
two stroke bar cycle single
acting diesel engine is
continually reversed
(c) the maximum bearing
pressure is higher in a
single acting two stroke bar
cycle diesel engine
(d) two stroke bar cycle
diesel engines required
more complicated
lubrication piping
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO
.1357
7. The interial of some
diesel engine salt water
heat exchangers are
protected from corrosion
by the use of
(A) aluminium plates
(B) lead cathodes
(C) copper baffle plates
(D) sacrificial zines
Briefly justify you answer
8. increasing the valve
clearance between a valve
stem and rock arm will
result in the valve
(A) closing later
(B) opening sooner
(C) staying open for a
shorter period of time
(D) staying open for a
longer period of time
Briefly justify your answer.
Q.NO -1397
9.Internal combustion
engine crankcase vent
outlets must be equipped
with
(A) hinged rain guards
(B) corrosion resistant
flame screens
(C) dipsticks for measuring
oil levels
(D) crankcase ventilation
fans
Briefly justify your answer
Q.No-141
10. The amount of chloride
content in the water of an
auxilliary boiler can be
reduced by
(A) adding hydrazine
(B) blowing down the
boiler
(C) adding phenolphthalein
(D) adding sulphite chloride
scavenger
Briefly justify your answer
engine drive gear\timing
gear
4.cooling of intake air
supplied to a diesel engine
will

(A) reduce mean effective

pressure
Q.NO-1140
(B) decrease the average
MMD QUESTION PAPER
compression pressure
10(MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR) (C) decrease air charge
density
1. Give instructions to the
support crew for (D) increase power output
matters concerning
safety during Briefly justify your answer
watchkeeping related to Page-353
rotating machinery parts
2. Sketch and describe a Q.No-1190
main air starting valve of
any large two stroke 5. When there is flame
marine diesel engine failure in an automatically
known to you fired auxiliary boiler
3. Write short notes on
(A) air supply is shutoff
(A) Turning gear
(B) Means of absorbing (B) fuel supply is shutoff
thrust of a four stroke
auxiliary engine (C) water feed is shutoff
crankshaft
(D) safety valve lifts
(C) Lubrication of large
two stroke marine diesel Briefly justify your answer
 Q.No-1025 (D) motor drain

6. Lubrication for a main Briefly justify your answer

reduction gears used with
diesel engines is usually
supplied by

(A) Oil from the main

engine pump

(B) an independent lube oil

system
Q.No-838
(C) the stern bearing head
tank 8.What is to be installed on
an internal combustion
(D) the stern bearing sump engine if its cylinder bore
tank exceeds 200mm?
Briefly justify your answer (A) crankcase vapour
Q.No-874 monitors

7. Which of the listed items (B) engine exhaust

should be secured before
performing any
maintainance on a solenoid
operated air start valve?
(A) electric power
(B) lube oil standby pump
silencers
(C) constant pressure type
turbochargers
(D) explosion relief valves
Briefly justify your answer

(C) hydraulic switch

Q.No-142
9. Which of the following
actions should normally be
taken during watch when
the auxiliary boiler is in
operation?
(A) clean the flame scanner
photocell window
(B) inspect and clean all
solenoid valves
(C) lift the safety valves by
hand
(D) inspect for oil or water
leaks
Briefly justify your answer
Q.No-1141
10. Excessive vibrating of
an automatically fired
auxiliary boiler can be
caused by
(A) air or water in the
furnace
(B) combustion pulses
(C) fuel oil pump failure
(D) flame failure
Briefly justify your answer
Q.No-1060
MMD QUESTION PAPER
11(MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR)
1. The cylinder liner of one
of the units is cracked
inspite of the engine
having logged only 300
hours since last
overhaul. Make a report
on what you feel?
2. Sketch the main engine
piston cooling water
system of any large two
stroke marine diesel
engine and state how it
is replenished?
3. With the aid of line
sketches describe any
two types of crosshead
lubrication systems used
in large two stroke
marine diesel engines?
4. A turning gear must be four stroke engines it
engaged when serves many purposes
dismantling any moving such as
part of the engine for (A) It eliminates the
the following reasons condensation of the
(A) To eliminate risk of water vapour contained
injury to personnel in the product of
(B) To eliminate risk combustion
damage to engine parts (B) It lowers the viscosity
(C) To prevent external of the cylinder
influences inadvertently lubricating oil
turning the engine (C) It reduces
crankshaft. considerably the
Enumerate each of the amount of water that
points with adequate needs to be circulated
reasoning? (D) It increases the
temperature difference
5. The factors that
between the cooling
influence detonation are
water and the charge air
(A) Fuel characteristics
to which the heat is
(B) Combustion of the
rejected
cylinder charge air
Explain briefly each one of
(C) Compression ratio
(D) Ignition the above points with
(E) Combustion chamber adequate reasoning
profile
7. The use of ball and roller
Briefly enumerate each
bearings in internal
factor combustion engines is
6. By raising the jacket becoming more and
cooling water more popular for some
temperature to around or all the following
80 deg celcius in modern (A) The lower coefficient
of friction
(B) The absence of wear a cargo ship is opened
under favourable for survey, it is
conditions mandatory for the
(C) The independence in crosshead to be
lubrication inspected by the
(D) The extreme (A) Port state inspector
reliability of such (B) Cargo ear surveyor
bearings (C) ISM auditor
Give the correct answer
with adequate justification
D Attending the
8. Efficient smooth workshop superindent
combustion depends
upon some or all of the If u agree with the above
following stay why and if not then who
(A) A sufficiently high are the designated people to
temperature to effect carry out
ignition
(B) A large delay period The survay?
or ignition lag
10 Write short notes on any
(C) A minimum of
afterburning three of the following
(D) A large and rapid A main engine vibration
rate of pressure rise dampers
during the second stage
of combustion B main engine
Give the correct answer tachometers
with adequate
C auxillary engine
justification?
goveernor
9. When a crosshead
bearing of a large two D engine room lighting
stroke marine engine on
 E emergency air A Near the end of the
compressor rise,after the ignition of the
charge
F emergency air
compressor B just before the fuel charge
is about to ingnite
G welding transformer
on boat ships C immediaty after the unit
reches the peak preassure
MMD QUESTION PAPER
and before ingnition of the
12(MARINE ENGINEERING
fuel
KNOWLEDGE-MOTOR)
D at any stage of the
1 A large marine main
combussion prosses
propulsion engine’s
fluctuates are the time State the correct answer and
during the voyage make explain why the other reason
a report to the chief are not justified
engineer on the basis of
4 The main requirments
abdotion of
which a fuel injection
2 Skecth the main
system must fulfil are
engine’s stating system
(A) Accurate metering of
showing the various
small quatities of fuel oil
components and fittings
(B) Control of qulity of
in the system
fuel injection
3 A vey sudden rising
(C) Proper timing of fuel
preassure accomained
injection
by a metalic hammer
(D) Selective distribution
like sound is called
of the fuel in the
locking of the unit or
combustion space
detonation and usually
State weather each one of the
points made above are true or
false . if any point you percive
false state why is it so.
5 In any marine diesel engine
air movement in the combustion
chamber is very important.
Generally speaking air
movement helps
(A) to distribute the fuel
(B) to mix with air
(C) to cool the cylinder
liner
(D) to reduce after
burning
(E) to help in optimizing liner
lubrication
(F) to assist combustion
(G) to reduse combustion
tempratures
6 The speed of an auxiliary
engine under load continuosly
fluctuates even with a steady
load. The fault could be owing
to
(A) The qulity of fuel
used
(B) The quality of
servicing of the governor
in the last port
(C) The supply of the
charge air
(D) To reduse the
combustion tempratures
7 an auxiliary engine Turbo-
charger is making strange noises
when the load changes. The
diesel engine’s parameter
however are absoulutely correct.
An
(A) Continue to run the
engine and wait for
sometime
(B) Stope the engine and
make some checks
(C) Reduce the load of
the engine
(D) Run it on steady load
to make some checks
State which one of these
would be your course of
action briefly giving
justifications supporting your
action
8 The diesel driven life boat
engine simply refuses to start
after running perfectly for a
period of half an hour before this
state just 4 checks, you would
need to
9 the exhaust mainfold of an
auxiliary engine under load turns
red hot. There is no lagging on
the mainfold. What efforts
would you make to cool down
the
10 Duing every night watch ,
the Bridge watch keeper comlin
of continuous sparks from the
funnel. You are convinced that
the sparks are something to do
to identify the cause of sparking?
MMD QUESTION PAPER 1
(MARINE
ELECTROTECHNOLOGY)
1 A 250 50 Hz alternator of ships
supplies current to a circuit
having a resistance of 30 ohms
and an impedence of 50 ohms.
Calculate the inductance of the.
Calculate for the latter
condition………
(A) the frequency
(B) the power factor
2 A ships automatic voltage
regulator has a coil of resistance
20 ohms and inductance 0.01272
henry connected in series with a
condenser of capacitance
3. Brushless generators are
designed to operate without the
use of
(A) brushes
(B) sliprings
(C) commutators
(D) all of the above
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.5592
4. An operating characteristic
appearing on the name plates of
shipboard AC motors
(A) the type of winding
(B) input kilowatts
 (C) temperature rise
(D) locked rotor torque
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.5947
5. Low horsepower polyphase
induction motors cam be started
with full voltage by means of
(A) compensator starters
(B) autotransformer starters
(C) across the line starter
(D) primary-resistor starters
Briefly explain your answers
Q.NO.5948
6. Determine the number of
turns/phase in each winding of a
three phase transformer with a
ratio of 20000/2000 volt to work
on a 50c/s network. The high
voltage
Section-B
7 With reference to electrical
switch gears explain the purpose
of each of the following
(A) preferential tripping
(B) dash pots
(C) reverse power
tripping
(D) under voltage
tripping
8. With respect to an emergency
stand by lead acid battery
(A) describe the safety
aspects considered in the design
and construction
(B) state with reasons, two
causes of short circuit
(C) state with reasons, five
causes of fall off in related
capacity
9. (A) sketch a direct on line
starter suitable for a three phase
AC induction motors
(B) explain the limitations of
the direct online starter with
respect to length of starting time
and repeated successive starts.
10. (A) Explain why the neutral
line on a three phase shipboard
electrical distribution system as an efficiency of 84% and a power
usually insulated as against the factor of 0.7 lagging. Calculate
shore practice of having the
(A) the input apparent
(B) State the disadvantages power
of the insulated neutral line
(B) the active and reactive
three phase system.
components of the current
MMD QUESTION PAPER 2
(C) the reactive power
(MARINE ELECTROTECHNOLOGY)
4. A 250 KVA 11000V/ 415V . 50
Section-A
Hz single phase transformer
1.The current flowing in certain has 80 turns on the
P-N junction at room secondary. Calculate
temperature is 2 X 107 Amp,
(a) the approximate values of
when large reverse bias voltage
primary and secondary
is applied. Calculate current
currents
flowing when
(b) the approximate number
2. A resistance 7.0 is connected
of primary turns
in series with a pure inductance
of 314 mH and the circuit is (c) the maximum value of flux
connected to 100V, 50Hz. 5. a three phase induction motor
Sinusoidal supply calculate is wound for four poles and is
(A) the circuit current supplied from a50 Hz system
. calculate
(B) the passage angle
(A) the synchronous
3. A single phase motor
speed
operating off a 400V . 50 Hz
supply is developing 10 KW with
 (B) the speed of rotor
when the slip is 4%
(C) the rotor frequency
when the speed of the
rotor is 600 r/min.
6. (A) Discuss the factors which
affecting the sharing of load
between two alternators running
in parallel
b) draw volt ampere
characteristic of
i. ideal diode
ii. practical diode
iii. repeat(ii)for silicon and
germanium diodes by
mentioning the ranges of
current and the voltage in
the graph

(B) Two single phase 9.describe the different types

alternators each have terminal of dry cells and discuss their
voltage and are linked through merits and demerits
an 8 ohms reactor , the
MMD QUESTION PAPER
resistance of which is negligible
3(MARINE
Section-B ELECTROTHENOLOGY)

7. a) Whet are variable resistors SECTION A

? define the following terms with
respect to variable resistors
1.a 20 volt battery with an
i. total resistance
internal resistance of 5 ohms
ii. resolution
is connected to a resistor of x
iii. linearity
ohms if an additional 6ohms is
iv. precision
connected across the
v. equivalent noise resistance
battery,find the
vi. temperature co-efficient
2.calculate the volume of
8.a) explain the concept of PN
water needed for compensate
junction as rectifier
 for gassing due to electrolysis
in a fully charged acid battery
caused by an over change of
5A for 20 hr
3.discuss the possible reasons
for a dc generator failing to
self excite and explain how?
a) A break in a shunt reostart
is located by means of a
continuity test
b) Lost indidual magnetism is
restored
Section B
4 a flexible wire 1meter long is
formed into a square ,the plate
of which is perpendicular to a
uniform field of 1m
Weber/m2.find the work done if
the wire under the
5 a two phase slip ring induction
motor gives a reading of 55volts
across sliprings on open circuit
when a rest with a normal stator
voltage applied the rotor is start
a) At stannstill with slip rings
joined to star connected
srarter with phase
impedance of (4+j3)
b) Running normally with
5%slip
5 explain a rotating field is
produced by a 3phase
current in the 3 phase
state of an induction
motor .how is torque is
produced in a such a
motor and what is
section C
6 with a reference to ‘p’
and ‘n’ type germanium
crystals explain the
meaning of three of the
following terms
a) donor ions
b) acceptor ions
c) valency electrons
d) covalent bonds
7 with refrence to data
logging system explain
the following terms
a) sensing device
b) scanner
c) transducer
d) scaling unit
 8 describe an electronic
type of salinometer and
explain clearly the
prerating principle how
the variations of water
temperature is
compensated for and
how the
MMD QUESTION PAPER
4(MARINE ELECTRO
TECHNOLOGY)
1.A battery having EMF of 110
volts and internal resistance of
0.2 ohm is connected in parallel
with another battery with an
EMF of 100 volts and
2.a choking coil of negligible
resistance takes a current of 10
amperes when connected to a
220 volts 50 hz supply a non
inductive resistor under the
same
page 361
a current is represented by
the equation i=40 sin 50t
where t is in seconds. A
second current of the same
frequency but twice the
amplitudes lags behind the
a)the value of the first
current when the second is
at a positive peak and
b)the values of both
current 0.02 sec
moisture damage as a
result of condensation
occurring inside of the
cargo winch master
switches can be reduced by
a)installing a light bulb in
the bulb of the pedestal
stant
b) coating of the switch box
internals with epoxy sealer
c)venting the switch box
regularly
d)using strip heaters inside
the switch box
q.no 5236
which of the following
conditions will occur if the
solenoid coil burns out of a
cargo which with an
electrical brake
a)the brake will be set by
spring later
b)the motor will over
speed and burn up
c)the load suspended from
the cargo boom will fail
d)nothing will happen the
winch will continue to
operate s usual
q.no 5593
which of the listed battery
charging circuits is used to
maintain a wet cell lead
acid storage battery in a
fully charged state during
long periods of disuse
a)normal charging circuit
b)quick charging circuit
c)trickle charging circuit
d)high ampere charging
circuit
q.no 5594
with reference to the
electrical switch gear
explain the purpose of
each of the following
a)preferential tripping
b)dash pots
c)reverse power tripping
d)under voltage tripping
with reference to the
electrical equipment in
areas aboard ship having
potentially flammable
atmospheres
a)explain the hazards
involved
b)state the design features
that render the equipment
safe
c)explain the precautions
necessary when
maintanence work is being
carried out
sketch s simplified circuit of
a reverse power relay
a)explain how the reverse
power relay
b)explain why the there is a
time delay incorporated
before the reverse power
operates
when troubleshooting
most electronic circuits
loading effect can be
minimized by using a
voltmeter with an
a)input impedence much
greater than the
impedance across which
the voltage is being
measured
b)input impedence much
less thean the impedance
across which the voltage is
being measured
c)sensitivity of less than
1000ohms/volt
d)sensitivity of more then
1000ohms/volts
q.no 5232
which of the following
conditions will occur if the
solenoid coil burns out on a
cargo winch with an
electrical brake
a)the brake will be set by
the spring force
b)the motor will overspeed
and burn up
c)the suspended from the
cargo boom will fail
d)nothing will happen the
winch will continue to
operate as usual
q.no.5593
which of the listed battery
charging circuits is used to
maintain the wet;cell lead
acid storage battery in a
fully charged state during
long periodsof disuse
a)normal charging circuits
b)quick charging circuits
c)trickle charging circuits
d)high ampere charging
circuits
q.no.5594
a ground can be defined as
an electrical connections
between the wiring of a
motor and its
a)shunt field
b)circuit breaker
c)metal framework’
d)interpole
q.no.5949
external shunts are
sometimes used with
ammeters to
a)increase meter sensitivity
b)permit shunts with larger
resistances to be utilized
c)prevent damage to the
meter movement from
heat generated by the
shunt
d)enable the construction
of a compact meter with a
virtulally unlimited range
q.no.5950
the output voltage of a 44o
volts 60 hertz ac generator
is controlled by the
a)primer mover speed
b)exciter output voltage
c)load on the alternator
d)numberof the poles
q.no.5237
any electric motor can be
constructed to be
a)short proof
b)ground proof
c)explosion proof
d)overload proof.
Briefly justify your answer
q.no; 5238
7. which of the following
statements represents the main
difference between a relay and a
contactor?
a) contactors control current and
relays control voltage
b) a related series connected
and a contactor is parallel
connected
c) contactors can handle heavier
loads than relays
d)contactors are made from
silver and relays are made from
copper
q.no 5595
8. which of the following
statements is true concering a
polyphase synchorous
propulsion motor?
a) the motor is started as an
induction motor
b)resistance is gradually added
to the motor circuit
c) the starting current held
below the rated current
d) the field cinding is energized
for starting purpose only
q.no 5596
9. a 250v 50hz alternator
supplies current to a circuit
having a resistance of 30ohms
and an impedance of
50ohms.calculate the inductance
of the circuit
a)the frequency
b) the power factor
10. draw a simplified diagram of
a hightension magnet ignition
system such as might be used of
a lifeboat engine. Explain the
working principle
Mmd question paper 1(marine
engineering practice)
1. Afew values on the valve
chest of a bilge pump on
the suction side need
urgent repair/renewal.
Write a letter to the owner
asking fo spares. Clearly
2. 2. Suggest some means of
aligning a pump and its
drive motor which are
mounted on it common
case base and joined by a
flexible coupling.
3. 3. A boiler wared feed
pump which used to run
very smoothly gradually
starts to vibrate and make
noise. Excepting for a small
variation in ampere load of
the
4. 4. A fresh water cooler for
the auxiliary engine is
stripped open during
overhaul for survey
purposes state out of alist
of components parts of
areas which you
5. 5. A lubricating oilpurifier
vibrates moderately when
 just about to stop your
inspection of the drive
mechanism bowl etc
reveals nothing unususl
suggest
6. In machine shop practice a
thread gauge is used for
checking
7. A)needle and threads
B)screw threads
C)screw pitch
D)thread cutting tools
Briefly justify your answer
Which of the fittings listed
below should be the used
for the joining of pipes in
the pipeline installations
for a drinking water system
in the accomdation of a a
A)universal coupling
b)pipe jointing union
c)instanteous coupling
d) reducing nipple
which of the listed
conditions can lead to
cavitation in centrifugal
pump?
a)Vapor pockets formed in
the suction flow stream
b)rough casing volute
surfaces
c)worn wearing rings
d)heavily fluid in the flow
streams
the process of removing
moisture from air is known
as q.no 2544
a)humidification
b)dehumidification
c)caporization
d)evaporation
a centrifugal bilge pump
requires priming q.no
2621
a)primarily ro lubricate the
shaft seals
b)due to the inability of
this type of pump of lift
water to cover the suction
of the impeller
c)to initially unload the
pump by having it s
pressure equal to discharge
pressure
d)in order to overcome the
potential energy of water
in the discharge line
question paper 2 q.no
2470
write a letter to company
management
representative explaining
how you rectified a typical
main sea water pump low
discharge pressure
problem given
sketch and describe a main
sea water low level sea
suction filter complete with
fittings
given an outline sketch of a
low pressure service air
system used for pneumatic
control valve operation
write short notes on the
following
a)need for drain plugs on
main air receives
b)burning discs on air
compressor
c)fitting on receivers inship
board domestic Freon
circuits
d)insulation on floors in
front of the main switch
board
which of the following
conditions should be used
to support the need to
change the lube oil when
has been an increase in the
neutralization number?
a)a decrease in the
viscosity of the oil
b)a increase in the viscosity
of the oil
c)a change in the clous
point
d)a change in the floc point
the dew point of air is
reached when the wet bulb
temperatute is
a)twice the dry bulb
temperature
b)10f above the dry bulb
temperature
c)5f above the dry bulb
temperature
 d)aequal to the dry bulb
temperature
the purpose of bilge keels
is to
(c) composition of gaseous
exhaust emission from large 2
stroke slow speed marine diesel
Engine
4.state six primary requirement
you would look for in a modern
marine diesel engine for main
Propulsion.The main engine is of
a large 2 stroke slow speed type
and your requirements should
be general and not restricted to
ship specifics
5 while any auxiliary boiler is
operating at design load which
of the following actions will
occur if the
Automatic combustion control
system defects a stream
pressure drop?
(A) More burner will be
lighted on
(B) The register a will
open fully
(C) The fuel oil valve and
air damper will open wider
(D) Steam flow will be
automatically regulated
Briefly your answer
Q.NO1489
6 A spring loaded unit type fuel
injector is used on diesel engine
cylinder head to ………………
(A)meter the fuel
(B)the produce the proper fuel
oil pressure
(c)automize the fuel
(d)all of the above
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO 133
7 lubricating system for diesel
engines are usually designed to
initially provide lube oil to the
engine
(a)camshaft bearings arrangement and installation
should preclude
(b)main bearings
The possibility of ………………
(c)crosshead bearings
(a)free entry of air to the
(d)thrust bearings
crankcase
Briefly justify your answer
(b)water entering the crankcase
Q.NO 891
will engine washdowns are being
8if the valve tappets in a diesel performed
engine are set greater clearances
(c)excessive oil leakage during
than those specified by the
periods of increased blowy
engine manufacture those valves
will…………….. (d)subcocling internal
components
(a)open late and close early
Briefly justify your answer
(b)open late and close late

(c)fail to open when the engine

Q.NO 265
is clod

(d)fail to open at no mal

operating temperature
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO 1426
9 Regarding a diesel engine
crankcase the general
10 The primary function of a
flame safeguard system are used
on an automatically fired
auxiliary boiler is to prevent
(a) accidental dry firing
and over pressure
(b) Uncontrolled fires
in the furnace
 (c) Explosion in the boiler renew some broken components
furnace ,which can stick or break .
(d) Overheating of the
3 elaborate on any two types of
pressure parts
welding joints used in joining of
Briefly justify your answer
medium diameter mild steel
pipes for used as sheathing and
Q.NO.1467
protection on electrical cables in
MMD
tankers. Are the joints used
QUESTION PARTS
any different from the practice
5(MARINE ENGINEERING
on board for joining such pipes
PRACTISE)
for other purpose such as bilge
ballast fire mains etc…
PART A
4 write short notes on the
1 give instructions in writing to
following
the support crew suggesting a
repair procedure for a (a)metal cad gaskets used for
horizontally mounted pump jointing
used for ballast water who’s (b)radiography tests on welds
shaft is scored in way of the
impeller key way. It is presumed (c)joining heavy duty electrical
that there is no other stand by cables for high rating
pump and repair imperative

2 the emergency air compressor

on board your ship is not PART B
building up pressure owing to a
defective discharge valve.
Suggest a method/which you 5 an alignment punch is used
would overhaul such a valve and to …………………………
(a)line up corresponding holes
in adjacent parts
(b) completely loosen up a
jammed bolt
(c)mark centers and lines in
layout work
(d)make a starting mark for a
drill
Briefly justify your answer.
Q.NO.1901
6 which of the gasket
materials and /or types listed
typical used on high pressure
steam flang joints?
(a) Spiral wound asbestos
components
(b) Wire -impegrnated
sheet asbestos
(c) Rubber
(d) Wire –impegranted
rubber
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO 2462
7 the taper produced by a
leather taper attachment is
determined by setting
the……………
(a) Guide(swivel )bar
(b) Automatic cross feed
(c) Tailstock off center
(d) Compound rest angle
Q.NO 3167
8 increasing a speed of a
rotary pump above its rated
speed will result in which of
the following condition to
occur ?
(a) Loss of section
(b) Increased clearances
(c) Decreased clearance
(d) Decreased slippage
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.2414
 9 the function of lubricating
oil is to Q.NO.1104
MMD QUESTION PAPER
(a) Maintain even distribution
3(MARINE ENGINE
of bearing wear
PRACTISE)
(b) Maintain a constant
1 Give instructions in
oil temperature
writing to the support crew
(c) Maintain a pressurized
suggesting a repair
fluid film between moving
procedure for a law
surfaces
pressure small steam
(d) Remove entrained
return line crack which
water
cannot be welded
Briefly justify your answer 2 Elaborate an any two
types of welding joints
Q.NO.3668 used in joining a steel
plate and a aluminium
10 a burner producing a block plate of similar
smoke in an automatic dimensions………………………
auxillary boiler would be …………
caused by a/ an 3The fresh water heater in
(a) In correct electrode setting domestic hot water system
(b) Defective solenoid shows poor performance
value suggest some measures
(c) Grounded high tension you would initiate to
lead received and
(d) Incorrect primary air 4write short notes on the
setting following
Briefly justify your answer (a)brazing
(b)MIG and TIG welding
(c)cementing used as fillers
5a fluctuating and
unsteady vacuum in an
evaporator may be caused
by
(a)wet steam entering the
air ejector nozzie
(b)pin hole leaks in the
evaporator nests
(d)high waters levels in the
last effect
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.3231
6 If a radial position
hydraulic fails to deliver
rated fluid ,volume the
case can be
(a) centeminated fluid
(b) pitted thrust rings
(c) worn pintle bearing
(d) obstructed section
passages
briefly justify your
answer
Q.NO.3517
7 pip threads are cut with a
taper to
(a)prevent over tightening the
joint
(b)provide a leak proof fit
(c)permit easy joint disassembly
(d)produce a fine even thread
briefly justify your
answer
Q.NO.1902
8 when liquid reaches the
compressor of a refrigeration
system through the section line
the condition is called
(a)flooding back
(b)super heating
(c)over flowing
(d)recycling
briefly justify your
answer
Q.NO.1906

9 the ability of a metal to be

hammered or rolled out is called
its

(a)ductlity

(b)elasticity

(c)malleability

(d)flexibility

briefly justify your

answer

Q.NO.2784

10 the factors that determine

the service life of packing in a 2) Sketch a two way cock,
pump will include which of the commonly used to drain tanks
following condition? and state

(a) Type of pump a) its use on board ship

(b) Condition of the shaft b) the materials used in the cock
(c) Length of time in use
(d) All of the above 3) make an outline sketch of the
H.F.O setting tank heating
system and briefly explain the
system. Sketch only the low c) a non return valve and a U
pressure steam inlet up to the bend of pipe line
condensate.
d) any valve and a nozzle
4) write short notes on the
state which of the option are
following:
true and why
a) need to ensure that F.O
6) some of the following are
service tanks are not heated
preferred refrigerants of the
beyond a certain temperature.
future
b) importance of the level of the
a) carbon dioxide
FW expansion tank for jacket
cooling of main engine as an b) Freon R11
indication of impeding trouble. c) ammonia
c) need to check remote stop of d) Freon R 502
all FO installation regularly.
e) bromine
d) necessity for a proper check
of all engine room parameters f) argon
before taking over the watch. state in brief the correct option
5) in any compressed air system giving reason why the others are
a safety device should be placed ruled out
where air can be trapped
between
7) in air-conditioning of a ship a “
a) any two valves which can be comfort zone” constitutes
closed manually
a) low humidity, low room
b) a non return valve and screw temperature
down valve
b) low humidity, moderate a) to cover small oil spills
temperature
b) to use along with cement for
c) high humidity, moderate doing repair jobs
temperature
c) for making the floor anti-skid
d) very low temperature, by giving more friction
moderate humidity
b) for use as ginding paste in
8) the passenger space of a case of emergency
passenger ship is protected
state if any of the above points
against major fires by a
are true or false suggest the
a) high expansion foam system correct answer giving adequate
justification
b) high density co2 system
10) the auxillary boiler of a ship
c) by a mixture of fire detection,
periodically needs feed water
fire retardant, A-1 class bulk
and rate of feed was found to be
head, fire doors, fire insulation
gradually increasing everyday
and elaborate halon system
without an increase in demand
d) high pressure steam system
MMD QUESTION PAPER 1
suggest if any of the above (NAVAL ARCHITECTURE)
option is true and if not what
1) The half ordinates of a wall
would you propose as a correct
sided bottom tank
combination
measured at intervals of
9) sand impregnated with 3m are 9.8, 6.5, 4.5, and
chemicals is kept in metal 2.0 meters
containers with a shovel, in the
room for the following purposes
 The tank is divided
longitudinally at centerline.
Calculate
a) Area of tank on one side
b) Position of the centroid
from center line
2) Define the term
a) Breadth moulded
b) Depth moulded
c) Draught
a ship has a displacement
In displacement in SW of
9000 tonnes. Its breadth is
14% of its length and 2.25
times its draught. The block
co-efficient of 0.75
determine the
3) A ship of 26800 tonnes of
displacement has a daily
fuel consumption of 105
tonnes, including 9 tonnes
for the domestic load,
when steaming at 16 knots
a) The fuel saved on
voyage of 5 days
steaming at half speed
b) The daily fuel
consumption at 15 knots
for a similar ship whose
displacement is 63800
tonnes.
4) A propeller havig a
diameter of 5.5m and a
pitch ratio of 0.95 works in
an apparent slip of 8% .
assuming a prcude wak e
fraction of 0.36 determine
(a) The rpm of the propeller
(b) The true slip at a chip
speed of 14 knots, given
Froude wake fraction
here v = ship speed
Va = speed of advance
5) A ship at a displacement
of 10,000 tonne, has a KM
of 6.7m. When floating at
this displacement a weight
of 10 tonne at a Kg of
6.7m. when floating at this
determine
(a) The distance through
which the weight was
moved
 (b) The KG of the ship
after 10 tonne has been
removed
6) A vessel 120m long has a
displacement of 11,400
tonne. If the wetted
surface area is given by
2.58 x Displacement of the
ship (tonnes) x Length (m),
det ermine the power to
overcome the fractional
resistance of the ship at 12
knots
The co-efficient of
frictional resistance f =
1.421
The speed index n=1.825
Section B
7) With reference to a pump
room in an oil tanker
explain
(a) Arrangement for
mechanical ventilation
(b) How is the event of
fire vent system is
isolated
8) Explain with the aid of the
sketches the meaning of
the following terms as
applied to ships
(a) Rise of floor
(b) Water tight bulkhead
(c) Free board
(d) Length between
perpendiculars
(e)Summer board line
9) Sketch and describe the
methods of attachment of
the following paying
particular attention to the
locking arrangements.
MMD QUESTION PAPER2
(NAVAL ARCHITECTURE)
1) A)Sketch a ships stern
frame, showing how is it
connected to the ships
structure and detailing
the special ships plates to
which it is attached
 B) State the material used
to manufacture the stern
frame
C) Explain why corrosion is
a problem and how it is
prevented
2) A) describe with sketch
how an aluminum
superstructure is attached to the
steel deck. Indicate
All material used.
B) Discuss the use of
aluminum for ship construction,
explaining its advantage and
disadvantages.
3) A) buoy is to be used to
float a mooring chain. The buoy
is cylindrical, of length 4m,
radius 0.75m
And is to float half
submerged. The mooring chain
is made of
a) The mass of the buoy
b) The thickness of the
plate which should be
used to construct the
buoy if the buoy is to be
made of metal of RD
7.5.
4) A vessel with a summer
load dreaft of 10m is floating at a
draft of 9.8m in water density
1.010 tonnes /m3 in a
summer zone. The vessel has
TPC of 20.
5) A box shaped vessel has
length 120m breadth 18m,
depth 12m is floating at draft
8min fresh water with KG
7.278m. a weight of 432 tonnes
is loaded on
6) according to solas a
bulkhead capable of preventing
a smoke and flame for one hour
would be classified as an
a) A-60
b) B-60
c) C-60
d) D-60
7) The average of the
observed drafts is known as
 a) Mean draft
b) True mean draft
c) Mean of the calculated
drafts
d) Draft at the center of
floatation
8) When flooding occurs in a
damaged vessel reserve
buoyancy
a) Decreases
b) remains same
c) Increases
d) Shifts to the low side
9) The vertical distance between
“G” and “M” of a vessel is used
as measure of
a) Stability at all angles of
inclination
b) Initial stability
c) Stability at all angles less than
the limit of positive stability
d) Stability at angles less than
the down flooding angle
10) Reserve buoyancy is the
a) Unoccupied space below the
waterline
b) Volume of intact space above
the waterline
c) Excess of the buoyancy in salt
and fresh water
MMD QUESTION PAPER 2
(NAVAL ARCHITECTURE)
1) A vessel as the following
dimension length 120.0m
block coefficient 0.78 KB
3.2m ½ ordinates of the
water plane at the 6.0m
draft are station
½ ordinate (m)
If the vessel is floating on
an even keel at a draft 0f
6.0m. Calculate the vessel’s
KM.
2) A vessel about to complete
loading in a summer zone
is expected to enter a
 winter zone after steaming
from a loading port for 10
days. On passage fuel
summer load draft 9.475m,
FWA 203mm, TPC 30
tonnes/cm
Find
a) The maximum
permissible draft on
completion of loading
b) The amount if cargo
which the vessel can
load.
(NOTE: a vessel passing
from a summer zone to a
winter zone, or from a
tropical zone to summer
zone, must arrive at the
zone boundary at the
draft)
3) A vessel has displacement
6200 tonnes KG 8.0m.
distribute 9108 tonnes of
cargo between spaces KG
0.59m and 11.45m, so that
the vessel completes
4) A floating body has square
cross section of side 1m
and KG always equal to
0.5m. find the range of
relative densities over
which the body will be
a) Stable
b) Unstable, when floating
fresh water.
What will be the maximum
GM and at which draft
does it occur.
5) A box vessel length 140m,
breadth 20m, depth 14m is
floating at a draft 5.8m, KG
8.00m. a midship
compartment length 24m,
breadth 7m, find the bilged
draft and the GM in the
intact and bilged condition.
6) A ship of 5000 tonnes
displacement has GM = 0.5
meters. The still water
period of roll is seconds.
Find the new period of roll
when mass of tones is
7) Reserve buoyancy is the
a. unouucpied space below
the waterline
 b. volume of intact space b. heel
above the waterline
c. trim
c. excess of the buoyant force
over gravitational force d . floatation
d. difference between Briefly justify your
buoyancy in salt and fresh answer
water Q.NO.3908

Briefly justify your answer.

Q.NO.3905 10.In the external forces, adding
8. Adding the transverse free weight to one side of a floating
surface correction to the vessel, will cause the vessel to
uncorrect height of the center of A .heel until the angle
gravity of a vessel yields of loll is reached
a.”FSCT” b. list until the center
b.”KG” of buoyancy is aligned vertically
with center of gravity
c.”KGT”
c. trim to the side
d.”GMT” opposite TCG until all moments
Briefly justify your are equal
answer. d. decrease draft at
9. the difference between the the center of floatation
average of the forward and aft 4239: According to Pollution
drafts is Prevention Regulations, no
a. list person May connect or engage
in any other critical oil transfer
operations unless_______
A. The designated person-in-
charge is present.
B. That person holds a
tankerman endorsements.
C. That person holds a license
as master , mate or
engineer.
D. That person holds a valid
port security card.
Ans: A
4240: Which of the actions listed
should be taken by the engineer
on watch when the general
alarm is sounded continuously
for 10 seconds?
A. Engine room ventilation
should be started.
B. Main engines should be
secured.
C. The fire pump should be
started.
D. The fixed CO2 system
should be activated.
Ans: C
4241: Pollution Prevention
Regulations specify that the
person-in-charge of bunkering is
responsible for the ________
A. Vessel draft
B. Quantity of fuel received.
C. Quality of fuel received.
D. Communications with
terminal operator.
Ans: D
4242: According to Pollution
Prevention Regulations, how
much hose should you use in
transferring oil in bulk?
A. Twice the distance
between ship and dock.
B. One and one half times the
distance between ship and
dock.
C. Not over 300 feet (91.4 m)
of hose.
D. Sufficient for maximum
vessel movement without
straining the hoses.
Ans: D.
4243: The term “oily mixture”, as
defined in the Pollution
Prevention Regulations
includes__________.
A. Sludge.
B. Oily ballast water.
C. Bilge slops.
D. All of the above.
Ans: D.
4244: Which of the following
represents the maximum
percent of oxygen, by volume,
required to be achieved by a
ship’s inert gas system, prior to
the commencement of crude
oiltank washing?
A. 0.06
B. 0.08
C. 0.1
D. 0.12
Ans: B.
4245: Each inert gas system gas
main must have an automatic
shut down valve at the outlet of
the gas production plant. This
valve must close automatically
upon_________
A. Cargo pump failure
B. Blower failure
C. Deck seal low water level
D. Low inert gas temperature
Ans: B.
4246: Which of the following
statements is true regarding
oxygen indicators ?
A. The instrument is capable
of providing an immediate
accurate reading of any
space with no delay.
B. Prolonged exposure to
gases such as CO2 may
affect the accuracy of the
indicator.
C. A cotton filter placed in the
end of the sampling tube
prevents damaging the
instrument when exposed
to strongly acidic gases.
D. All of the above.
Ans: B.
4247: An inert gas system
incorporating a separately fired
inert gas generator shall be
provided with visual and audible
alarms to indicate failure of the
power supply to the generator,
the automatic control system,
and ____________
A. Cooling water flow.
B. Combustion air temp too
low.
C. High sea water temp.
D. Insufficient fuel supply.
Ans: D.
4248: Which of the following
liquids can ordinarily be
discharged overboard without
being processed through an oily
water separator?
A. Cargo tank ballast
B. Segregated ballast
C. Engine room bilges
D. Cargo pump room bilges
Ans: B.
4249: People should be
protected from the rotating
parts of the machinery by
_________
A. Vents
B. Bright lights
C. Reflective tape
D. Guard
Ans: D.
4250: The word “discharge” as
used in Pollution Prevention
Regulations applies to
oil_______
A. Leaked into navigable
waters
B. Poured into navigable
waters
C. Pumped into navigable
waters through a fixed
piping system
D. All of the above.
Ans: D.
4251: Why is it important for
fuel oil tanks not to be topped
off when loading cold oil?
A. Increased viscosity of the
product needs higher
 loading pressure, which Halon 1301 fixed extinguishing
increases the chance of a system?
spill.
A. The quantity of Halon
B. Air pockets may cause the
supplied would be less
fuel to bubble out of the
than the quantity of CO2
ullage hole.
for the same space
C. The chance in its specific
protected.
volume when headed may
B. CO2 gas is used to propel
cause an overflow.
the halon to the space on
D. The fueling valve may
fire.
become stuck closed and
C. The Halon must be agitated
cause the fuel oil to spill
occasionally to ensure that
before the valve can be
it does not cake up
opened.
D. All if the above.
Ans: C.
Ans: A.
4252: The trim of a vessel is the
4254: Regulations require that
______
life jackets shall be ______
A. Valve of the mean draft
A. Provided for each person
B. Degree of list
onboard
C. Amount of roll
B. Provided for all personnel
D. Difference in fore and aft
on watch
drafts.
C. Readily accessible to
Ans: D. persons in the engine room
D. All of the above.
4253: Which of the following
statements is true concerning a Ans:D.
4255: The most critical time for A. 4
preventing an accidental oil spill B. 8
during bunkering , is when C. 12
the________ D. 20

A. Tanks are being topped off. Ans: C.

B. Fuel begins to come
4258:Which of the listed classes
aboard.
of fires should be extinguished
C. Hoses are being blown
with a water fog?
down.
D. Hoses are being A. Class A and B
disconnected. B. Class A and C
C. Class Band C
Ans: A.
D. Class A,B,and C
4256: Where would you look to
Ans: A.
find out what your duties are
during a fire? 4259:The zipper of an immersion
suit should be lubricated with
A. Ship’s articles
_____________
B. Muster list
C. Certificate of inspection A. Paraffin
D. Manning Certificate. B. Oil
C. Graphite
Ans: B.
D. Vegetable oil
4257:When administering only
mouth-to-mouth Ans: A
resusoitation,you shoud
4260:The blocking open or
continue the victim’s ventilation
absence of fire dampers can
rate at how many inflations per
contribute to ___________
minute?
 A. The accumulation of
explosive gases
B. Faster cooling of the fire
C. The fire spreading by way
of the ventilation system
D. Fixed foam systems to be
ineffective
Ans:C
4261:Topping lifts and runners
supporting flexible cargo hoses
should be made fast to the
____________
A. Capstan
B. Gypsy head
C. Cleats
D. Manifold riser
Ans: C
4262:The purpose of the vessel
inclining experiment is to
____________
A. Determine the location of
the metacenter
B. Determine the lightweight
center of gravity location
C. Verify the hydrostatic data
D. Verify data in the vessel’s
operating manual
Ans:B
4263:Atificial respiration to an
adult should be administered
____________
A. 4 to 3 times per minute
B. 12 to 15 times per minute
C. 20 to 30 times per minute
D. At least 30 times per
minute
Ans: B
4264:Whivh of the firefighting
agents listed is the least
hazardous to personnel?
A. Co2
B. Steam
C. Water
D. Carbon tetrachloride
Ans: C
4265:The external flotation
bladder or an immersion suit
should be inflated _________
A. Before you enter the water
 B. After you enter the water D. Wave crest plus the
C. After one hour in the water charted water depth,plus
D. After you notice that your tidal corrections and storm
suit is losing buoyancy surge

Ans: B Ans : A

4266:The principlr personnel 4268:which of the listed

hazard unique to Halon fire conditions could cause a
extinguishers is ________ dangerous reduction in oxygen
in a shipboard compartment?
A. Displacement of oxygen
B. Skin irritation A. Fire
C. Inhaling topic vapours B. Rustingor the drying of
produced when exposed paint
directly to a flame for C. Decomposing organic
extended periods material
D. Eye irritation produced D. All of the above conditions
immediately after
Ans: D
discharge from cylinder
4269: Horizontal transverse
Ans: C
motion of a vessal is known as
4267:”Air gap” is the vertical __________
distance between the bottom of
A. Pitch
the hull and the___________
B. Surge
A. Still water level C. Sway
B. Wave crest D. Heave
C. Wave crest plus the
Ans: C
charted water depth and
tidal corrections
4270: As aprecaution against oil
spills when topping off fuel
tanks, you should _________
A. Close the deck filling the
valve to reduce the
pumping rate
B. Close all tank vents to
prevent overflow
C. Fill the tank to the bottom
of the expantion trunk
D. Notify the shore pumping
station to reduce the
pumping rate as tanks near
full capacity
Ans: D
4271: the signal emergency
stations is __________
A. A 30 second on-30 second
off alternating signal
B. The continuous ringing of
the general alarm signal
C. An intermittent ringing of
the general alarm for not
less than 10 seconds
D. Announced over PA system
Ans: C
4272: When administering chest
compression during CPR ,at what
part of the victim’s body should
the pressure be applied?
A. Lower half of the stemum
B. Tip of the stemum
C. Top half of the stemum
D. Left chest over the heart
Ans: A
4273: Dry chemical fire
extinguishers may be effectively
used on which of the listed
classes of fires?
A. Class “A” only
B. Class “B” only
C. Class “B” and “C” only
D. Class ”A” and “C” only
Ans :C
4274: When removing the cap
from a sounding tube, the sound
of air escaping indicates
A. The tank is full
B. The tank may be partially
flooded
C. The tank level has dropped
 D. The tank is completly
flooded
Ans: B
4275: when the height of the
metacenter has the same value
as the height of the center of
gravity, the metacentric height is
equal to __________
4276: If a liferaft should capsize,
____________
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.4889
MMD
QUESTION PAPER 1(SHIP’S
SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENTAL
PRETECTION)
1 .Suggest some precautions by
way of instruction, you would
like a brand new engineer to be
aware of, before ever
attempting to pump out bilges in
2.there is constant ‘sweating’ on
some sections of sea water pipes
at pericular locations in the
engine room ,, whereas the nest
of the pipe is clean suggest.
3. what statutory certificates
need to be carried by an Indian
flagged vessel when trading
internationally . Name the
certificates and state the validity
of each of
4. What routines are carried out
an enclosed lifeboat other than
those carried out on the lifeboat
engine
a. Are these boats
certified and tested
b. Are the lifeboat
engines certified and tested
c. Who certifies and
tests the item stated in (a)&(b)
5. Expand the following
a.SBT Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.3763
b.CBT

c. SOLAS
7.in the event of a galley fire on
d. IMDG
board a general cargo ship,most
e. STCW dry chemicals or carbondioxide
f. SAFCON portable extinguishers are
automatically activated through
g. LL the
h. SOPEP a. fusible ink of tritium ,gallium
i.GRT arsenide alloy

j.IBC b. stack switch with sensors

6. A fuel oil double bottom tank c. thermostat of bimetallic type

on a ship has been certified by d. pyrostat with activation of
an “Explosive Inspector ”as being pyrotechnics
“Safe For Men” and “Safe For
Fire”. This condition may change e. none of the above

a. the ambient temperature Briefly justify your answer

changes Q.NO.4944

b. a product leaks into the 8. which of the following

certified tank
c. muck, sludge, or scale in the
tank give off additional vapors
d. all of the above
statements is true concerning a
halon 1301 fixed extinguishers
system?
a. the quantity of halon supplied
would be less than the quantity
of CO2 for the same space
protected
b.co2 gas is used to propel the
halon to the space on fire
c. the halon must be agitated
occasionally to ensure that it
doesn’t cake up.
d. all the above
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.4253
9.a ballast tank is one third full
when additional ballast until it is
two-thirds full.the increased
amount of liquid in the tank will
have the greatest
a.free surface effect
b.transverse stability
virtual rise in the center of
gravity
d.value of the moment to trim
one centimeter(MTC)
Briefly justify your answer
10.fuel oil tank vents are fitted
with a corrosion resistant wire
mesh screen to
a.prevent dirt from entering the
tank
b.dissipate fumes leaving the
vent
c.prevent flames from entering
the tank
d.prevent accidental overflow
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.4743
MMD QEUSTION PAPER
2(SHIPS’S SAFETY AND
ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION)
1.which of the listed devices is
requirde to be located on the
discharge side of the pump in
afire main system?
a) pressure guage
b) strainer
c)reduction valve
d)international shore connection
Briefly justify your answer a)centre of gravity
Q.NO.4293
b)centre of floatation
2.artificial respiration is
c)meta center
necessary in the cases of
d)metacentric height
a)drowning
e)fire control centre
b)electrocution
Briefly justify your answer
c)poisioning
Q.NO.4784
d)all of the above
5.an oceangoing ship of 350
Briefly justify your answer gross tons contracted for in
Q.NO.4294 january 1976,and not equipped
with an oily water seperator,all
3.low velocity fog extinguishes a
bilge slops may be retained
fire by
a)onboard in the ship’s bilges
a)smothering and washing out
b)in the forward peak tank
b)smothering and cooling
c)in the oil purifier drain tank
c)cooling and washing out
d)in a cofferdam
d)none of the above
Briefly justify your answer
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.3805
Q.NO.4783
6.carbondioxide cykinders must
4.in small angle stability,when
be recharged when the cylinder
external forces exist,the bouyant
charge weight is less than what
force is assumed to act vertically
of the stamped full weight
upwards through the centre of
charge?
bouyancy and through the
a)80%
b)85%
c)90%
d)95%
Briefly justify your answer
7.repairing damage to the hull of
the ship at or above the
waterline reduces the threat of
a)free surface effects
b)capsizing the vessels
c)continued progressive flooding
d)wind overturning moments
Briefly justify your answer
8.If accidents are considered as
an “unexpected contact”,you
will be able to perform a better
job by observing which of the
following practices?
a)looking for unsafe practices
b)inspecting the unsafe
conditions
c)analysing jobs for safer
methods
d)doing all the above
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.4306
9.repair of vital machinery and
services related to an emergency
on a ship should be
accomplished(in sequence)
a)after control of fire,flooding
and structural repairs
b)immediately before
emergencyis under control
c)after control of fire,but before
control of flooding
d)after stability is restored
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.3818
10.in a crude oil washing
system, to reduces the
possibilities of an explosive zone
to be created each cargo tank
shall be fitted with a sufficient
number of
a)5% for vertical areas
b)10% for vertical areas
c)15% for vertical areas
d) 20% for vertical areas
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.4798
MMD QUESTION PAPER 3(SHIPS
SAFETY AND ENVIRONMENTAL
PROTECTION)
1.A fire extinguising product
produced by first mixing a foam
concentrate with water to
produce a foam solution then
mixing the foam solution with
water is
a)light water
b)halon 1301
c)chemical foam
d)mechanical foam
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.3798
2.co2 cylinders equipped with
pressure actuated discharge
heads will discharge
automatically
when_____________
a)the dischage valve is open
b)the control box glass is broken
c)pressure from the control
cylinders is initially detected
d)the control cylinders have
been completely discharged
Briefly justify your answer
Q.NO.4287
3.progressive slow flooding with
transverse bulkheads and water
tight compartments is controlled
by securing water tight
boundaries_____________
8. in a radial piston pump,
reversal and control of fluid flow
are accomplished by moving
Central valve
Radial plunger
Floating ring
Cylinder body
Briefly justify your answer
9.which of the following actions
should be taken when an
auxiliary boiler is in operation?
Clean all electrical connections
Lift the relieve valves by hand
Inspect and clean all solenoid
valves
Inspect for oil and water leaks
Briefly justify your answer
10. small amounts of moisture
are necessary to trigger the
growth of microbiological
organisms found in some marine
fuels. Some sources of water
contamination are
Tank surface leakage
humidity and condensation
improper tank washing
procedures
all of the above
briefly justify your answer
MMD
QUESTION PAPER 6 (MARINE
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE
GENERAL)
1.write a letter to the company
management representative,
how you rectified a faulty main
air compressor lubricating
problem
2.sketch and describe a low
pressure fuel oil filter of any
make, known to you
3.give an outline of an auxiliary
engine lube oil system, showing
the safety, devices in the system.
4.write short notes on the
following
Bilge suction strainers
Air line filter
The engine room telegraph
Water tight doors
5.the pressure produced within
the oil wedge of a rotating
journal is
The same as the pressure in the Outside diameter
lubricating system
threaded diameter
Less than the pressure in the
briefly justify your answer
lubricating system
8. the ambient heat in an engine
Greater than the pressure in the
room which is identified by only
lubricating system
a change in temperature is
Highest at the groove location known as

Briefly justify your answer Sensible heat

6. which of the main shaft latent heat

segment listed below, that are
total heat
connected with the main engine,
are coupled to the tail shaft residual heat
flange briefly justify your answer
Thrust shaft 9.the usual number of single
Stern tube shaft acting pistons used in a variable
stroke axial piston pump used in
Intermediate shaft
steering gears is
Crank shaft
3 or 5
Briefly justify your answer
5 or 7
7.piping cross sections over 30
7 or 9
cm in diameter are sized by the
9 or 11
Inside diameter
Briefly justify your answer
Wall thickness
10. heavy soot accumulations in
an auxiliary boiler could be
caused by
Water in the fuel
Excessive cycling
high fuel oil pressure
improper burner maintenance.
Briefly justify your answer.
MMD QUESTION
PAPER 7(MARINE ENGINEERING
KNOWLEDGE GENERAL)
1. Write a note to the
assistant watch keeping
engineer officer telling him
to be cautious of a possibly
false bilge alarm that may
be a warning of some
major.
2. Sketch and describe any
non return type ship side
discharge valve state the
components of the valve
and the material it is made
of
3. Sketch any type of fuel oil
used in the engine room
and describe the principles
on which it operates. With
special emphasis on the
measuring variables.
4. Write short notes on the
following
Unregulated emission of
engine exhaust
Sources of generation of
mechanical noise in the
engine room
Low pressure cut outs on
domestic refrigeration
systems
5. One characteristic of a
lubricating oil adversely
affecting the results of
centrifuging is
High TBN value
Low oil floo point
Low oil demulsibility
Low oil neutralization
number
Briefly justify your answer
6. Which of the devices listed
prevents water from
entering a ships hull via the
propulsion shaft
Stern tube packing or
mechanical seal
deflector ring and drain
spring bearings
oiler rings
briefly justify your answer
7. With reference to a vessels
structural integrity, the
most significant
characteristic of a
cryogenic liquid is its
Capability of causing brittle
fractures
highly corrosive action on
mild steel
vapour cloud which reacts
violently with salt water
toxicity at atmospheric
pressure
briefly justify your answer.
8. The heat required to
change a substance from a
solid to a liquid state at its
freezing temperature is
known as the latent heat of
Fusion
Vapourization
Condensation
Sublimation
Briefly justify your answer
9. Which of the following
problems occurring in a
hydraulic system can be
caused by the use of an oil
having known viscosity
lower than specified
Seal deterioration
fast response and hunting
increased power
consumption
oil film breakdown
briefly justify your answer
10. The only means of
removing the latent heat of
condensation from a
refrigerant in the normal
refrigeration cycle is by
Passing it through the
expansion valve
condensing refrigerant in
the system condenser
 passing the gaseous 3. If a centrifugal pump is
refrigerant through the being driven by a steam
heat exchanger on the turbine and the
suction side of the discharge valve closed
compressor off the pump will
maintaining a high Slow down
pressure on the system Cooler
receiver Speed up by 5% until the
discharge valve is
MMD QUESTION PAPER 8 reopened
(MARINE ENGINEERING no longer continue to
KNOWLEDGE GENERAL) internally convert the
resultant energy
1. Explain the overhaul imparted to the pump
procedure for any type briefly justify your
of non return globe answer
valve in the engine room 4. The process of grinding
give sketches to support or shredding sewage
your statement. into smaller particles is
2. Write short notes on the known as
following; Detention
Testing of fuel valves Communution
maintenance of steam Bulking
traps Skimming
over hauling of rain briefly justify your
cocks answer
give sketches to 5. The sudden reduction of
illustrate your answer pressure occurring
 within the crankcase of the suction strainer is
refrigeration clogged
compressor during the discharge valve is
starting causes the clogged
Sudden evaporation of the shaft is worn
wax crystals in the briefly justify your
lubricant answer
sudden evaporation of 7. Which of the additives
entrapped air in the listed will maintain the
lubricant suspension of fine
release of refrigerant residue particles in the
from the oil refrigerant lube oil?
mixture Flood point
release of dissolved suppressant
lubricant from the dispersant
refrigerant all of the above
briefly justify your briefly justify your
answer answer
6. If an operating bilge 8. The size of ball and
pump is developing roller bearings can be
good vacuum, but is identified by the
unable to discharge any Rolling member size
water, which of the Inner race cone widthss
following problems is
Page 309
the most probable
cause? b) dissipate opening contact arcs
The wearing rings are c) delay current build up in
excessively worn holding coil
d) protect the motor windings
from momentary starting
current overload
Ans.a
5657 most three phase
induction motors used for diving
engine room auxillaries are
started by
a)resistor starters
b)across the line starters
c) impedence starters
d) reactor starters
Ans.b
5658 when electrical cabels
penetrate water light bulck
heads
a)they should be grounded on
either side of the bulck heads
b)they must be bent to a radius
of six diameters
c) a water light stuffing tubes
capable of accepting packing
should be employed
d) they should be secured by
clamp
Ans.c
5659 a variable shunt connected
across the series field couls of DC
compound wound generator, to
permit adjustements of the
degree of cpmpounding is called
a
a)divider
b) diverter
c) converter
d) rhestot
Ans.b
5660 across the line starters
used with AC motors to provide
a) reduced starting current
b) regulated starting current
c) high starting torque
d)controlled starting
acceleration
Ans.c
5661 The electrician reporting to
you that has obtained low (but
above 1 mega ohm) megger
reading on the windings of a
deck winch motor . upon
checking the records of the
motor ,you find the reading have
consistently been at the level of
last six years
e) Motor be replaced
f) Windings be dried
g) Windings be cleaned
h) Readings are acceptable
Ans d
5662 In a face plate type motor
starter starting arm held in the
OFF position by a/an
e) Cotter pen
f) Magnet
g) Electrical circuit
h) Strong spring
Ans.d
5663 which of following
components are used convert
alternating current produced in
generator windings to direct
current ?
e) Armature and equalizer
f) Commulator and brushes
g) Rotor and interpoles
h) Field and exciter
Ans.b
5664 in electronic circuitry ,the
observation “PCB” commonly
means
e) Pulse cooled binary
f) Printed circuit board
g) Poly coated bride
h) Personal computer bits
Ans.b
5665 The final step in testing a
circuit for a ground involves the
use of a megaohmmeter , A
grounded switch or cable will be
indicated by a megaohmmeter
reading of
e) Zero
f) Infinity
g) Steady in ahing range
h) Unsteady in the low range
 Ans.a
5666 which of the following
statement is true concerning the
cleaning if electrical contacts?
e) Compressed air should be
used to blow out metallic
dust
f) Magnetic brushes should
be used to remove metallic
dust
g) The contact surfaces
shouid be greased to
increase resistance.
h) Delicate parts should be
cleaned with a brush and
approved safely solvent
Ans .d
5667 a nickel cadmium battery
receiving a normal charge and
gases freely the charging current
should be
e) Be increased
f) Be decresed
g) Be cut off and the battery
allowed to cool
h) Remain the same
Ans.d
5668 Reduced motor specified to
a motor during the starting
period
e) Result in decreased
acceleration time only
f) Lower the starting current
and increase accelerating
time only
g) Cause a greater starting
torque
h) Increase the starting
current and pump capacity
Ans.b
5669 A saturable core reactor
operate on the principle of
controlling load windings
inductance by varying the core
e) Dielectric
f) Permeability
g) Reactance
h) Inductance
Ans.b
5670 operational amplifiers Ans.b
used primarily in analog circuits
5672 which of the following
,are characterized by
express the relationship of the
e) High input impedance ,high input and output in a full wave
gain and low output rectifier?
impedance
e) The output frequency is
f) High input impedance ,high
same as the input
gain and high output
frequency
impedance
f) The output frequency is
g) Low input impedance ,low
one half the input
gain and high output
frequency
impedance
g) The output frequency is
h) Low input impedance, high
twice the input frequency
gain and low output
h) The output frequency is
impedance
four times the input
Ans.a frequency

5671 The total resistance of a Ans.c

parallel circuit is always
5673 A “Deadfront” switchboard
e) Larger than the greater is one
branch resistance
e) Without switches on it
f) Smaller than the lowest
f) With insulated switches
branch resistance
and no exposed terminals
g) Equal to the sum of the
g) Without circuit breakers
individual branch
h) Without safety hand rails
resistance
and nor rubber mats
h) One half the individual
branch resistance Ans.b
5674 Mercury filled
thermometers should never be
used to determine the
temperature of the battery
electrolyte because accidental
breakage of the thermometer
can cause
e) Sever sparking and
explosions
f) Rapid oxidation of battery
plates
g) Contamination of the
electrolyte
h) Corrosion of the battery
terminals
Ans.a
5675the purpose of the main
switch board circuit breakers
reverse power trip is to
e) Pevent main circuit
overload
f) Protect the circuit breakers
blow out coils
g) Prevent alternator
motorization
h) Prevent low voltage tip out
Ans.c
5676a temperature
instrumentation system for an
engine room console consist of a
resistance temperature
detector(RTD),a measuring
bridge circuit a meter (R alarm
circuit).which of the following
statement is true concerning
bridge circuit
e) The input voltage varies in
a linear fashion with
temperature
f) The voltage across the
centre of the resistance
circuit is always constant
g) The resistance circuit is
said to be balanced when
its output voltage is zero
h) The input voltage of th
resistance bridge is the
constant temperature
signal
Ans.c
5677modem DC generator are
fitted with commutating poles to
 e) Prevent motorizing
f) Reduce sparking
g) Reduce the load to the
main poles
h) Reduce spring pressure on
the brushes
Ans.b
5678the purpose of magnetic
relay is to
e) Open a circuit only in the
event of overload
f) remotely open and close
contacts
g) provide over current
protection during starting
h) relay voltage at increased
power
Ans.b
5679a semiconductor is a
material………….
e) Conductivity higher than a
normal conductor
f) Conductivity higher than a
normal insulator
g) High conductivity at low
temperatures
h) Low conductivity at high
temperatures
Ans.b
5680capacitor can be tested
using a megohmmeter or an
ohm meter. If the meter is
connected to the shorted
capacitor the meter pointer
should
e) Immediately swing to the
maximum resistance value
for the capacitor
f) First swing quickly to “then
gradually moves up the
scale as the capacito
charges
g) Immediately deflect and
remains at zero
h) Immediately swing to the
high reading and the
gradually decreases
Ans.c
5681when mixing electrolyte for
lead acid storagebattery,you
should pour th
 e) Distilled water into acid in a
zinc plated container.
f) Distilled water into acid in a
glass container
g) Acid into distilled water into
zinc plated container
h) Acid into distilled water into
glass container
Ans.b
5682to carry out an insulation
resistance test,one terminal of
the megohmmeter should be
connected the winding, with
other terminal being connected
to the
e) Power supply
f) Variable resistor
g) Frame of the machine
h) Armature
Ans.c
5683the charge of the lead acid
battery can be restored by
e) Passing an alternating
electric current through the
coil
f) Passing a direct electric
current through the coil
g) Adding acid to the
electrolyte
h) All the above
Ans.b
5684the resistance of the
conductor varies
e) Directly as its length and
inversely as its cross
sectional area
f) Inversely as its length and
directly as its cross sectional
area
g) Directly as its length and
directly as its cross sectional
area
h) Inversely as its length and
inversely as its cross
sectional area
Ans.a
5685in order to check the
performance of the transisitor
removed from its circuit by
instrument to be used by a/an
 e) Voltmeter or transistor
resistance
f) Impedance meter
g) Ohmmeter or transistor
tester
h) Sensitive potentiometer
Ans : C
5686 to test the state of charge
of a nickel- cadmium battery,
you should use a/an_____
E. Ammeter
F. Voltmeter
G. Hydrometer
H. Potentiometer
Ans : B
5687 on a switchboard, if all
three ground detection lamps
remain burning at half intensity
when the test button is
depressed, which of the listed
conditions is indicated?
E. No grounds exist
F. All three phases are
grounded
G. The test switch is grounded
H. The current transformers
are shorted
Ans: A
5688 which of the following
actions can be carried out in
order to prevent thermal runway
in transistor?
e) Increase the current
through the collector base
junction
f) Install a heat sink
g) Shift the “Q” point to
increase collector current
h) Increase the potential
difference between the
emitter and the base
Ans: B
5689 insufficient brush pressure
on a DC motor may cause
_________
e) Generator overload
f) Excess residual magnetism
g) Water vapor absorption
h) Sparking of the brushes
Ans: D
5690 burning of com=ntroller
contacts, when opening is
prevented by __________-
e) Coating the contact
surfaces lightly with
petroleum jelly
f) Magnetic blowout coils
g) An overvoltage release
h) An over current release
Ans: B
5691 which of the electrical
properties listed will always be
the same for each component in
a parallel circuit?
b) Impedance
5692 which of the listed
instruments can be best used to
locate a grounded field coil in a
synchronous motor?
b) Frequency meter
Section-1
1)Attempt any two questions
a)A rectangular double bottom
tank 12m*10m is full of heavy
oil. specific gravity of H.O=0.991.
calculate load of oil above tank
top if the load due to H.O
pressure on tank top is 9.6MN
b)a vertical bulk head 9m wide
and has sea water on one side
only to a depth of 6m. calculate
the pressure in KN/M2 at the
bottom of the bulk head and the
load on the bulk head
3)a ship displaces 12000 tonne,
it’s centre of gravity is 6.50m
above the keel and its centre of
gravity of buoyancy is 3.60m
above the keel.if second
moment of area of water plane
about the centerline is 42.5*10
*10*10 m*m*m*m. find
metacentre height
2)attempt any two questions
a)an inclination experiment was
carried out an ashore of 3000
tonne displacement .a mass of
10 tonne was moved 14m across
the deck causing a pendulum 8.5
long to deflect 110mm.the
transerve metacentre was 7.15
above the keel.calculate the
metacentric height and the
height of centre of gravity above
the keel
b)a ship was a wetted surface
area of 3200m*m. calculate the
power requiredto overcome
functional resistance at 17 knot
if n=1.825,and f=0.424
c)the power required to drive a
ship at a given sprrd was 3400
kwatt and the pressure on the
thrust 19.5bar.calculate the new
thrust pressure If the speed is
reduced by 12% and new power
is 2900 kwatt
3)attempt any four questions
a)derive a formula for fuel
consumption of a ship using
displacement and speed
b)define-admiralty co-efficient
and fuel co-efficient
c)derive a formula for propeller
pitchfor radius R and angle of
pitch 0.if radius is 2.5m and pitch
angle 22.5 degree calculate pitch
of propeller
d)define(i)real ship (ii)appent
ship (iii)wake
e)a ship’s propeller has a pitch of
5.1m. after 24 hrs of steaming at
91 rev/min. it was found that the
vessel has actually moved 331km
. find the percentage slip
f)a ship traveler 900km at a
speed of 12.5 knot and burns
150 tonnes of fuel over the
voyage .estimATE THE DISTANCE
THE SHIP COULD TRAVEL ATA
SPEED 13.5KNOT on 250 tonnes
of fuel
Section-2
1) Attempt any two
questions
a)Define-breadth moulded ; free
board ; chamber
b)what is the difference
between light weight dead
weight and displacement .
c)why mild steel is the most
commonly used material of ship
construction
2)attempt any two questions
a)why bulbous bow is fitted on
hull of some ships. How it
effectsship’s propulsion
b)draw a transverse cross
section of a bulk carrier, showing
all the tanks and duct keel
c) sketch and describe different
types of weld joints,what are
expected defects in weld joints
3)Attempt any four questions
a)classify different types of
merchant vessels and briefly
describe construction features
b)where you will find web
frames and why?
c)write a short note-double
bottom tanks
d)what is the difference
between (i) balance (ii)
unbalance (iii) semi-balance
rudder
e)define-propeller drop. How it
is measured,what is the effect if
it exceeds limit value
f)why rudder Is made
hollow.how you will know at sea
if rudder is hoded
OPERATION&MAINTAINANCE
AND MAIN AUXILSRY
SECTION-1
1)Attempt any two questions
a)sketch and describe a
reciproctory p/p capable of
continuous deliveri
without fluctustion of didchsrge
pressure .
b)what is net positive suction
need in centrifugal pump what
role it plays in perstion of the
centrifugal pump, why does it
change .
c)Sketch and describe a
centrifugal pump, where in
laternring fitted, what is the
purpose of fitting wear ring.
2) Attempt any two questions
a) Draw simple sketch of engine
room bilge piping system, what
are the safely devices fitted on
the system .
b)what are the advantages and
disadvantages of smoke and
water tube boilers :
Describe procedure for boiler
blow down .
c) why it is necessary to add
chemicals in boiler water
3)Attempt any four questions .
a) write a short note on (i) follow
up (ii)non follow up
(iii)emergency steering
b)what are the expected working
faults in the Boiler gauge glass ,
explain in detail .
c) why boiler producing super
heater system , the need is
always there for saturated
stream . How it is achieved .
d)with simple sketch describe a
variable delivery pump used in
steering operation
e)Describe the major difference
between purifier and clarifier ,
How to convert purifier to
clarifier.
f) sketch and describe a double
pass shell and tube type heat
exchanger used on board ship .
What are the Safties fitted.

SECTION – II
1) Attempt any two questions
. on refloting what checks will
a) Why ship is dry docked.
What is the interval of dry
docking.what inspection
you will carry out in dry
dock .
b) Vacuum evaporator on
board ship failed to
produce design quantity of
fresh water , specify
reasons and how you will
rectify them .
c) What is the importance of
air bubbling in biological,
sewage plant , if the
attach air compressorb
fails what immediate
action you will take .
2) Attempt any two
questions
a) describe the procedure to
start a cold boiler to raise the
steem to working pressure .
b) As an engineer what will
be your action on grounding
on a ship .
you carry out .
c) On ship where is
emergency fire p/p is
installed , what are the
different methords of
keeping at self –primed
3)Attempt any four questions
.
a) What action you will take if
intermediate shaft bearing
running hot
b) Where and why hydraulic
accumulators are fitted on the
hydraulic circuit .
c)If bilge pump fails to
discharge , how will you
diagnose the fault and correct
it .
d) Boiler gauge glass showing
no water - what is your
immediate action, justify.
 e)rubber is stuck up at 5 stb .
what is your immediate action
–justify action .
f) On reciprocating air
compressor , if during over
hauling, you are running short
of original cyllender head
gasket. What action you will
take , and wthat precaution
you will take before starting
compressor .
REPORT WRITING
There is an increasing
need for marine engineers to
provide reports for
consideration by top
management like ship owners or
ship managers, characters etc.,
and to write technical letters to
external organizations like
administration, class, engine
manufactures etc. Skills in
writing technical letters are
important for Chief Engineers
since they are away at sea
remote from the central
organization of the company.
The important of this
aspect of the work of the marine
engineer officer is recognized
within the Certificate of
Competency examinations. A
common question in the
Management Level Engineering
Knowledge examination paper
requires a report to be written,
usually from the Chief Engineer
Officer to Head Office, on a
selected technical topic. At
Operations Level the engineers
are more likely to be directly
concerned with ‘on ship’
management and are therefore
examined for skills for writing
‘Onboard instruction’ for juniors
and crew members, on topics
related to safe practices.
Students find difficulty
in writing mock letters
reports/instructions. Through no
‘model’ answer is possible,
however some instructions and
guideline s have been given
below for the help of the
students.
English Usage:
1. The student is advised to
collect his thoughts and
make a skeleton plan on a
rough sheet by asking:
‘what am I trying to say,
‘what words will express it
‘can I put it clearly and
briefly?’
2. In the rough plan all the
thoughts collected should
have sequence. The body
of the letter will normally
consist of three parts
which are:
(a) What has been the
problem, details of the
same and if required
the events may be
presented in
chronological order.
(b) The details of the
action taken by ship,
giving technical details,
again if deemed fit, in
chronological order.
Technical details
however need not be
very comprehensive.
(c) At the end the writer
should give the
summary or conclusion
or future advice –
whichever will be
relevant for the report.
3. While communicating on
‘expert to expert’ basis,
the writer can include
technical wording and
information providing this
is not overdone.
4. The ‘shape’ of a letter is
important. A clear
 opening sentence, or
short paragraph, is
preferable to catch the
immediate interest of the
reader and to indicate
what is to follow.
5. Write neatly. Do not
scratch. Sentences should
be short and well
punctuated with compact
paragraphs relating the
main points.
6. Simple words should be
used in place of more
complicated words or
phrases.
7. ‘Robot like’ reference
such as ‘it is regretted’,
‘for your information’, ‘I
am further to point out’,
etc., should not be used.
8. Verbosity, especially with
adjectives (serious danger,
unfilled vacancy), adverbs
(to risk unduly, to enhance
markedly) and
prepositions (in terms of –
about, until such time –
until), is to be avoided.
9. The use of ‘buzz word’,
e.g. maximize, optional,
oriented, etc., is inclined
to be showy.
10. Worn-out expression
like according to our
records, acknowledge
with pleasure, anticipating
your advice, assuring you
of, for your information
are sleeping pills which
defeat the aim of making
every letter a warm
contact the reader.
11. Do not be a ‘goozler’.
A ‘goozler’ is one who
never uses a short word if
he knows a long one of
the same or similar
meaning.
12. The best letter
writers know the power of
short words.
13. Do not repeat the
same word again and
again. Many writers fall in
 rut and use the same
words forever again and
again.
14. Cliches (my grateful
thanks, accept seasons
greetings on this day, in
this day and age), similes
(as good as gold, words
Examination Requirements:
like a horse) and
metaphors (hit for six,
backed a winner will leave
no stone unturned) are
best avoided.
15. A positive is
preferable to double
negative (not unnaturally
not unblack!).
16. Letter endings are
best made, ‘yours
faithfully’ if the method of
address is ‘Dear Sir’ and
yours sincerely to a ‘Dear
Mr. Godbole’ address.
Subservient (your
obedient servant) and
somewhat ridiculous (at
your convenience)
remarks and not used.
17. Try to be complete. It
is a sign of slovenly
thinking when you have to
add postscripts at the end
of a letter.
(a) The examiners look for
clarity of expression, good
punctuation, paragraph,
etc., i.e. English
presentation is being
assessed.
(b) Technical accuracy is
not so important, within
reasonable limits.
(c) Major details, without
minor technical points, are
required.
(d) The experienced of
the candidate in matters of
management, personnel
relations, work study, etc.,
is part of the assessment.
(e)(e)The examiners attach
particular importance to
the following:
(f) Machinery surveys: (q) Performance:
arranging,preparing,recordi Assessment of voyage
ng records and test data.
(g) Safety (r) Safety schedules:
equipments:certificates. Day-to-Day Safety Training.
(h) Planned (s) Bunkering:
maintenance:schedule,surv Information on bunker
eys. chits,stability during
(i) Testing:machinery bunkering.
space lifting gears. (t) Crews: duties of
(j) Marpose 73/78 staff,general purpose
Annex 1& 2(Oil in navigable duties.
waters act:) (u) Ship
(k) Instructions to staff. Maintenance:overall
(l) Annex 6 of Marpose maintenance criteria for
(Clean air act:) instructions whole vessel.
to staff. (v) Emergency
(m) Fire Fighting: conditions:machinery
Instructions and training failures,fire,flooding.
for E.R. staff. (w)
(n) Training:engine (x) Specimen Question:
er cadet training schedules. (y)
(o) Training: (z)
Instructions to new junior (aa) Write a letter to
officer. your companies
(p) Various Engineering
Important ship procedures Superintendent concerning
as laid in safety manual. emergency fire pump
 which had difficulty taking (jj)
suction during ballast (kk)
passage of a ship is now (ll)
rectified. The letter should (mm)
state tha probable (nn)
cause,action taken and (oo)
suggest preventative (pp)
measures. (qq)
(bb) (rr)
(cc) The candidate (ss)
should first ask himself the (tt) Page-382
following question and (uu) Specimen answer:
then answer accordingly (vv)
(the same technique is MV
applicable to most Indian Princess
examination question in (ww)
the subject): C/o Miller &
(dd) Miller management Ltd.
(ee) 1.What (xx) Brisbane,Queensland,
happened……when? (yy) AUSTRALIA.
(ff) 2.What was the (zz)
cause……effect? (aaa) 14th June 2001
(gg) 3.How was the (bbb)
condition dealt with? (ccc) Engineering
(hh) 4.How can a re- Superintendent ,
occurrence be prevented? (ddd) The East India
(ii) 5.Any other relevant Shipping Company Ltd.
comment?
(eee) Diamond House,
Ballard Estate,
(fff) MUMBAI-INDIA
(ggg)
(hhh) Sub:- Repairs on
emergency fire pump; to
eliminate problem of
priming on ballast
voyages
(iii)
(jjj) Dear Sir,
(kkk)
(lll) Further to my
telephone conversation of
4thJune, I wish to confirm
that the emergency fire
pump is working at its
optimum level after the
necessary repairs.
(mmm)
(nnn) Lately it was
becoming more and more
difficult for the emergency
fire pump to draw out the
air from the suction pipe.
The pumps incapability of
handling large volume of
air present in suction pipe
during ballast conditions
became more evident in
the last voyage. During the
routine emergency drill on
the last ballast voyage, the
pump was found struggling
to draw in the water from a
low draft water level and
decision for total overhaul
was called for.
(ooo)
(ppp) The pump
consist of main centrifugal
pump having a belt driven
vane type air pump. The air
pump is designed to get
engaged and disengaged
automatically on discharge
pressure signal. The worn
out links of this mechanism
was making it difficult for
vane pump to get fully
engaged and therefore
produce the desired rpm
for creating good suction.
This called for the
replacement of links with
spare new ones.
(qqq) (yyy)
(rrr) Meanwhile the (zzz)
overhaul time was also (aaaa)
utilized to renew both the (bbbb)
wear rings of the
centrifugal pump.
Subsequent trials during
ballast voyage showed that
the air pump was getting
fully engaged and attaining
good rpm to make water
rise from low levels also.
(sss)
(ttt) It may be
advisable to let other sister
ship know about this
development so that they
can take similar actions in
advance. The indent for the
next quarter includes the
spares for fire pump, same
may be supplied at the
earliest.
(uuu) Yours faithfully,
(vvv)
(www) Percy Mistry(Chief
Engineer)
(xxx)