READING COMPREHENSION INTEGRATION WORKSHOP B

ANSWER KEY 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. E 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. E 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. E 18. A 19. B 20. D 21. C 22. E 23. E 24. D 25. A 26. A 27. B 28. E 29. E 30. A 31. D 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. E 41. A 42. D 43. D 44. E 45. C 46. C 47. D 48. B 49. E 50. A

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EXPLANATIONS 1. B In the second last paragraph, the author lists the different classes of cancer treatment, and describes immunotherapy as the most experimental. This is equivalent to saying that it is the least traditional among the ones listed.

2.

B Paragraph 3 of the passage states that [m]ost cancers result from mutations in somatic DNA. Choice A, germline mutations inherited from parents are listed as a secondary cause. Retroviruses and DNA viruses, discussed in paragraphs 6 and 7, are also less important causes of cancers. Radiation and drugs are mentioned as agents for cancer therapy.

3.

A In paragraph 3, it is stated that mutations arise from errors in DNA replication, making choice A the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect because all genes can undergo mutations. Paragraph 4, for example, gives two other examples of genes mutations in which may lead to cancer: tumor suppressor genes and DNA repair genes. Choice C is incorrect because even though changes in the DNA sequence may ultimately lead to changes in the expression of proteins, the term mutation itself refers to the process undergone by the gene itself. Choice D is incorrect because mutations can arise by chance or by exposure to carcinogens, as stated in paragraph 3. Choice E is incorrect because the passage makes no reference to the frequency of mutations in healthy cells.

4.

B In the very first paragraph of the passage the different stages of the cell cycle are described. The G1 phase is characterized as the one in which the cell grows and prepares to undergo DNA synthesis.

5.

E It can be inferred from the first several paragraphs of the passage that cancer is equivalent to a malignant tumor. (Paragraph 3, for example, defines malignant transformation as the process of a normal cell turning into a cancer cell.) In paragraph 2, the distinction between a benign tumor and a cancer (or malignant tumor) is made: a benign tumor grows unregulated by external signals, but cannot invade and spread to other tissues. Cancers, on the other hand, are capable of doing both.

6.

C Paragraph 7 of the passage mentions some common DNA viruses capable of causing cancer in human beings. One example is the Epstein-Barr virus, which is said to cause nasopharyngeal carcinoma in the Far East.

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7.

A As indicated in paragraphs 3 and 5, even though most cancer arises from mutations in somatic genes, germline mutations can be inherited, thus predisposing the individual to cancer. Among the wrong answer choices, note that choice C is a trap if one has not read carefully. The last sentence of paragraph 5 makes reference to offsprings who do not have a higher chance of developing cancer, but it is referring to offsprings of individuals who acquire cancer-inducing random mutations in somatic genes. In other words, it is stating that such mutations cannot be inherited from parents.

8.

C The last sentence of paragraph 6 states that the human T cell lymphotropic virus type 1 is the only one known to cause cancer in human beings.

9.

A Paragraph 4 states that [o]ncogenes promote uncontrolled cell division, driving the cell through the cell cycle. Choice A is thus correct.

10.

D In paragraph 2, the process of metastasis is defined as the a tumors invading of other tissues and its spreading to other sites. Among the wrong answer choices, choice B does not characterize metastasis because benign tumors also divide uncontrollably; it is only the ability to spread that leads to cancer. Choice E is too general to be a correct definition of metastasis.

11.

A Retroviruses and their role in causing cancer are discussed in paragraph 6. A retroviruss genetic material, in the form of RNA, can be transcribed back into DNA which can then be incorporated into the host genome. Cancer may result if this viral genome is integrated within or near an oncogene.

12.

D In paragraph 1, it is stated that the three phases G1, S, and G2 are collectively known as interphase. M, mitosis, is a stage in the cell cycle, but is not considered to be part of the interphase.

13.

E Paragraph 3 refers to the process of turning a normal cell into a cancer cell as malignant transformation.

14.

D The end of paragraph 7 lists the diseases that can be caused by the Epstein-Barr virus: Burkitts lymphoma (in Africa), nasopharyngeal carcinoma (in the Far East), and lymphomas (in immunocompromised patients). Hepatitis B and cervical cancer are NOT given as examples of diseases caused by the virus.

15.

D The general role of tumor suppressor genes is described in paragraph 4. These genes inhibit the cells passage through the cell cycle. It is further stated that their loss of function allows the cell to divide. It can therefore be inferred that these genes serve as a check on cell division, and that their loss of function may allow the cell to divide uncontrollably, leading to a tumor. If this tumor metastasized, cancer would result. 12

16.

B It can be inferred from the last two sentences of paragraph 1 that mechanisms exist that regulate the cell cycle, causing cells to divide in a controlled fashion. The malfunctioning of these mechanisms may allow unregulated cell growth, i.e. a tumor. Normal cell division is therefore dependent on cell cycle regulation.

17.

E A cell becomes malignant when the DNA accumulates enough mutations for the cell to acquire the ability to grow unchecked and metastasize. None of the choices A through D captures the essence of this definition. In particular, choice A is incorrect because 5 to 10 mutations by themselves may not be enough; they have to occur in crucial genes (e.g. oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes, DNA repair genes), as indicated by the last sentence of paragraph 3.

18.

A Paragraph 2 states that EEG measures the electrical activity of the brain during sleep.

19.

B According to the third paragraph, sleep spindles are the spindle-shaped tracings in an EEG pattern. These are said to occur in stage 2 of NREM sleep.

20.

D REM sleep is first discussed in paragraph 4. Its characteristic EEG pattern is described as consisting of fast sawtooth waves.

21.

C Paragraph 9 states that an REM period occurs about every 90-100 minutes during the night. This cyclical nature is quite regular, even though the duration of each REM period changes as the night goes on.

22.

E The change in sleeping patterns over the life span is discussed in paragraph 10, where it is stated that newborns pass from wakefulness directly to REM sleep. This is no longer true by about four months of age, when REM sleep is preceded by an initial period of NREM sleep. Choice E is therefore correct. Among the other answer choices, note that your general knowledge may tell you that the statement in choice B is correct, but the passage makes no reference to this difference.

23.

E The distribution of sleep stages in adulthood is given in paragraph 10 as follows: 75% in NREM sleep and the rest of the time in REM sleep. It can therefore be easily inferred that the percentage of sleep time spent in REM sleep is 25%.

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24.

D The last paragraph of the passage characterizes short sleepers (individuals requiring normally less than 6 hours of sleep each night) as efficient, ambitious, socially adept, and content. Choice D, congenial, is NOT one of the descriptions.

25.

A The characteristic brain waves for each stage of sleep are given in paragraph 3. Alpha waves characterize an awake individual. These waves start to disappear in stage 1. In stage 2, two types of waves appear: sleep spindles and triphasic waves known as K complexes. Individuals in stages three and four sleep display EEG patterns with delta waves. The correct order is therefore alpha waves, then sleep spindles and K complexes, then delta waves.

26.

A The later REM periods tend to last longer, according to paragraph 9. The duration of an REM period goes from less than 10 minutes to 15-40 minutes. Incorrect choice C may trap the careless reader: 90-100 minutes is the typical frequency at which REM periods occur, not their duration.

27.

B In paragraph 4, depression and narcolepsy are given as two examples of disorders that can cause a shortening in REM latency.

28.

E The EEG pattern characteristic of REM sleep is very similar to that of a state of wakefulness, according to paragraph 7. Furthermore, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure, all reduced in NREM sleep, are once again high in REM sleep. REM sleep is therefore most similar to the wakeful state.

29.

E Paragraph 6 refers to stages 3 and 4 as the deepest portions of NREM sleep.

30.

A The EEG pattern of REM sleep is said to consist of low-voltage, random fast activity with sawtooth waves in paragraph 4. Spikes are not given as a characteristic.

31.

D In paragraph 8, poikilothermia is mentioned as a condition present in REM sleep that distinguishes it from NREM sleep or wakefulness. Given the definition of poikilothermia, we can conclude that choice D, sweating, cannot be characteristic of REM sleep is it is a mechanism of thermoregulation. It is thus in a sense opposite to poikilothermia. The other two choices are mentioned as characteristics of REM sleep. The last sentence of paragraph 8 states that the most distinctive feature of REM sleep is dreaming (choice A). Immediately above that, near paralysis of skeletal muscles is mentioned as a physiological change experienced in REM sleep.

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32.

B Long sleepers are those individuals who typically need more than 9 hours of sleep each night to function adequately. According to the last paragraph, they have more REM periods than do short sleepers.

33.

C The last sentence of paragraph 10 states that a reduction in both SWS and REM sleep is observed in the elderly. SWS sleep (slow-wave sleep) is stages 3 and 4 of NREM sleep, as mentioned in the third paragraph. The stages of sleep that are not constant into old age are therefore stage 3, stage 4, and REM. Only stage 3 is found among the answer choices.

34.

B The second last paragraph lists the symptoms of prolonged sleep deprivation as ego disorganization, hallucinations and delusions. Anxiousness is not mentioned there, although it is given as a characteristic of long sleepers towards the end of the passage.

35.

D Autoradiography is mentioned at the end of paragraph 5 as the means of determining the DNA fragments to which a probe hybridizes, but the passage makes no effort of describing how the technique works. Choice A, DNA profiling, is in fact the topic of the passage. The other techniques all complement the process or constitute part of it. Polymerase Chain Reaction, choice B, for example, can be a preliminary step in DNA profiling, aimed at allowing analysis on small and/or dated samples. It is described in relative detail in paragraph 7. Southern blotting is described in paragraph 5, and the general principle behind electrophoresis is also given in that paragraph.

36.

D In order to perform analysis on a DNA sample, the DNA must first be cleaved (digested) by restriction enzymes to generate fragments of various sizes (choice C). These fragments are separated based on size in a gel. Then, the gel is soaked in an alkali solution, a procedure which denatures the DNA (choice A). Nowadays, to make the technique more powerful in criminal investigations, amplification via PCR is performed beforehand to obtain a large enough sample to perform analysis on (choice D). Even though an agarose gel is used in the analysis, it is not radioactively labeled. The DNA probes are radioactive. (See paragraphs 5 and 8.)

37.

B Paragraph 3 states that over one hundred different specific sequences are recognized by one or more of the 800+ restriction enzymes discovered. In other words, some redundancy occurs and different restriction enzymes may recognize (and thus cleave at) the same sequence. Choice A is incorrect because DNA methylase helps protect bacterial DNA sequences from being cleaved by restriction enzymes. Choice C cannot be inferred from the passage: We are not told exactly what the enzymes are exactly. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the description of the activity of these enzymes leads us to believe that recognition and cleaving occur only on fresh DNA in a plentiful amount. The requirement for a large, fresh sample of DNA in the technique of DNA profiling arises from other considerations. Choice E is incorrect because the first sentence of paragraph 4 implies otherwise: Only a subset of the recognition sites are sequence polymorphisms.

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38.

A A crucial assumption in the technique of DNA profiling is that [t]he sizes of the fragments identified vary from one individual to the next, (paragraph 8) since this is what leads to different banding patterns that allow for matching between the suspect and the crime scene sample. If, however, the sequence polymorphisms are not recognized by any restriction enzyme, then digestion would occur only at sequences common to all the DNA. In other words, the distribution of the sizes of the fragments would be identical from individual to individual. This would mean that the technique would fail.

39.

D Paragraph 3 states that restriction enzymes were originally identified in bacteria.

40.

E As discussed in the explanation to question 38 above, DNA fingerprinting works because the DNA samples from different individuals are expected to produce different restriction fragment lengths, which produce different banding patterns. Among the wrong answer choices, note that choice D is the exact opposite of what has to be true, if sequence polymorphisms do not exist, there would be no difference in the fragments produced upon cleavage from one individual to another.

41.

A In paragraph 5, it is stated that the DNA fragments migrate to the positive electrode under electrophoresis. If the anode is the positive electrode, then, it is the one to which the DNA fragments will migrate.

42.

D The overall process is succinctly summarized in paragraph 8. The sample is first collected from the crime scene. Since the sample may be very small, it is amplified using PCR. Then, restriction enzymes are used to generate the fragments which then undergo electrophoresis. Radioactively labeled probes are then used to determine the restriction fragment lengths.

43.

D Paragraph 3 states that the recognition sequences are typically short sequences from four to six base pairs.

44.

E No specific reason is given in the passage for the denaturing of the DNA. We can eliminate the other answer choices as follows. Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence given in the passage that transfer to nitrocellulose paper happens only if the DNA is denatured. Choice B is incorrect because the radioactively labeled probes are introduced externally afterwards to bind to the sample fragments. It is not part of the DNA that undergoes the Southern blotting process itself. Choice C is incorrect because the DNA is already cleaved into fragments by the time it is soaked in the denaturing solution. Choice D is incorrect because PCR occurs prior to the Southern blotting procedure.

45.

C Paragraph 6 states that the Southern blot procedure requires relatively fresh DNA samples and larger amounts of DNA than are generally present at a crime scene, implying that by itself it is not a useful forensic

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technique. It is only after the invention of PCR in 1984 that small samples of DNA can be amplified so that they can be analyzed accurately. Choice A is incorrect because the technique itself is intrinsically capable of producing accurate results if the sample is fresh and large. Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence given in the passage that understanding of restriction enzymes was not complete then. The use of restriction enzymes has been a step in the procedure from the very beginning, and even if it were true that a detailed understanding of the functioning of the enzymes was lacking, that does not necessarily compromise the effectiveness of the technique. Choice D is incorrect because it is not supported by any part of the passage. Choice E is incorrect because PCR had not yet been incorporated into the procedure; furthermore, the power of PCR lies in its ability to work on small samples of DNA.

46.

C The role of Taq 1 is not made explicit in the passage, but we can nonetheless eliminate all the other answer choices based on the information given in paragraph 7. Choices A and D cannot be correct because these are steps that are completed prior to the addition of Taq 1. Similarly, since the four deoxynucleoside triphosphates are added together with Taq 1, they must have been synthesized independently beforehand. Choice E therefore cannot be correct. Finally, choice B can be eliminated: Taq 1 is heat-stable (i.e. it can withstand heat), but by itself cannot cause the mixture to heat up.

47.

D It can be inferred from the last sentence of paragraph 8 that the more probes used in the analysis, the more accurate the results. If only one probe is used, then, the accuracy will be compromised. Among the incorrect answer choices, note that choices B and D are (as discussed in the explanations to previous questions) NECESSARY for the technique to work.

48.

B Soaking in alkali solution is the means of denaturing the DNA, as described in paragraph 5. Choice A, methylation of sequences, protects the sites from being cleaved by restriction enzymes. Choice C is a step in the Southern blotting procedure and does not denature the DNA. Choices D and E are mentioned in paragraph 7 on PCR as steps in the amplification of DNA samples.

49.

E The first paragraph of the passage indicates that DNA fingerprinting, DNA typing, and DNA profiling are three names for the same technique.

50.

A Under electrophoresis, DNA fragments migrate to the positive electrode at a rate dependent upon their size. Size is therefore the criterion based on which the fragments are separated. While charge (choice B) certainly plays a very important role in the process (since only charged species will migrate), it is not the standard by which the DNA fragments are separated.

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I.N. DD3098A Printed in the USA