Mockssc 2ldcdeo2010 130322004328 Phpapp01

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A - 39, Vikas Puri, New Delhi - 18
PART - I
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE
Di rect i ons Q. 1 t o 8) : Sel ect t he rel at ed l et t ers/wor d/number/f i gure f rom t he gi ven al t er nat i ves.
1. River : Dam :: Traffic : ?
(a) Vehicle (b) Speed (c) Signal light (d) Path
2. Ornithologist : Birds :: Archaeologist : ?
(a) Artifacts (b) Archipelago (c) Arbiter (d) Aquatic
3. AYBZ : CWDX :: EUFV : ?
(a) GSHT (b) GHST (c) SHGT (d) MVGT
4. DCEF : QPRS :: XWYZ : ?
(a) IHGF (b) STUV (c) SRQP (d) NMOP
5. 17 : ? :: 145 : 195
(a) 42 (b) 35 (c) 30 (d) 24
6. 3222 : 7222 :: 3323 ?
(a) 9947 (b) 8838 (c) 7727 (d) 2212
7. Quest i on Mar ks Answer Fi gur e

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Di rect i ons Q. 9 t o 15) : Fi nd t he odd wor d/l et t ers/ number pai r f rom t he gi ven r esponses.
9. (a) Carpenter (b) Goldsmith (c) Blacksmith (d) Driver
10. (a) Ink (b) Paper (c) Office (d) Pen
11. (a) dcba (b) hgfe (c) pqrs (d) rqop
12. (a) BFJ N (b) DHLP (c) GIMQ (d) HLPT
13. (a) (37 - 74) (b) (52 - 26) (c) 47 - 84) (d) (88 - 44)
14. (a) 20, 16, 18 (b) 18, 14, 16 (c) 16, 12, 14 (d) 14, 1, 13
15.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16. A series of figure are given, and these can be grouped into classes. Select from amongst the alternatives one set of groups into
which these figures can be classified.
(a) 1, 3, 8; 2, 4, 6; 5, 7, 9 (b) 1, 4, 9; 3, 6, 8; 2, 5, 7 (c) 3, 4, 7; 9, 8, 7; 4, 3, 1 (d) 2, 3, 6; 9, 3, 4; 6, 3, 2
Di r ect i ons Q. 17 t o 18) : Whi ch one of t he gi ven responses woul d be a meani ngf ul order of t he f ol l owi ng wor ds?
17. 1. Income 2. Fame 3. Education 4. Employment
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2 (c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
18. 1. Plant 2. Tree 3. Soil 4. Fruit 5. Seeds
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 (b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4 (c) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1 (d) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
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Di r ect i ons Q. 19) : Whi ch one set of l et t er s when sequent i al l y pl aced at t he gaps i n t he gi ven l et t er ser i es shal l
compl et e i t
19. QST ___, QS __ R, Q __ TR, __ STR.
(a) SQTR (b) RTSQ (c) TRQS (d) TSRQ
Di rect i ons Q. 20 t o 24) : Fi nd t he mi ssi ng number /l et t er s/f i gure f r om t he gi ven responses.
20. AMV, FQX, KUZ, ____? ___
(a) PYB (b) OXA (c) NYB (d) MYB
21. 27, 32, 30, 35, 33, __?__
(a) 28 (b) 31 (c) 36 (d) 38
22. 71, 59, 48, 38, 29, __?__
(a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 20 (d) 12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25. If
(a) Sunitha is taller than Anitha (b) Reean is taller than Chitra but shorter than Banu
(c) Anitha is shorter than Chitra. (d) Chitra is taller than Sunitha.
Then who is the shortest?
(a) Sunitha (b) Anitha (c) Reena (d) Banu
26. Pointing to a photograph Vikas said She is the daughter of my grandfathers only son. How is the girl related to Vikas in the
photograph?
(a) Father (b) Brother (c) Sister (d) Mother.
27. If the day before yesterday was thursday, when will Sunday be?
(a) Tomorrow (b) Day after tomorrow (c) Today (d) Two days after today
28. If the row of children, ravi is fourth from right and sham is second from left. When they interchange positions Ravi is ninth from
right. What will be shams position from left?
(a) Fifth (b) Sixth (c) Seventh (d) Eight
29. A man was 32 years of age when he had his first son. His wife was 35 years of age when his son attained the age of 7 years.
The difference in age between the man and his wife is
(a) 7 years (b) 3 years (c) 5 years (d) 4 years
Di r ect i ons Q. 30) : From t he gi ven al t ernat i ves sel ect t he word whi ch cannot be f or med usi ng t he l et t er s gi ven i n t he
wor d.
30. PERMANENT
(a) REMNANT (b) TRAMP (c) MENTOR (d) AMPERE
Di rect i ons Q. 31) : In quest i on, number of l et t ers repeat ed i n t he gi ven word are i ndi cat ed i n f ront of each al t ernat i ve.
Ident i f y t he cor r ect al t er nat i ve.
31. MEASUREMENTS
(a) M
2
E
2
A
2
S
2
U
1
R
1
N
1
T
1
(b) M
2
E
3
A
1
S
1
U
2
R
1
N
2
T
1
(c) M
2
E
2
A
1
S
2
U
1
R
1
N
1
T
1
(d) M
2
E
3
A
1
S
2
U
1
R
1
N
1
T
1
32. If LOVE is coded as 27, then how is COME coded as?
(a) 38 (b) 18 (c) 28 (d) 2
33. In a certain code MONKEY is XDJ MNL. How is TIGER written as ?
(a) QDFHS (b) SDFHS (c) SHFDQ (d) UJ HFS
34. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. On the same basis find the correct answer for the unsolved
equation.
If 13 12 =651 and 41 23 =349 then 24 22 =?
(a) 504 (b) 46 (c) 528 (d) 825
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Di rect i ons Q. 35 t o 37) : Sel ect t he mi ssi ng number f r om t he gi ven responses.
35.
(a) 31 (b) 229 (c) 234 (d) 312
36. 3 6 7
9 18 21
27 54 ?
81 162 189
(a) 22 (b) 63 (c) 190 (d) 55
37.
(a) 0 (b) 125 (c) 100 (d) 144
Di rect i ons Q. 38) : In t he f ol l owi ng quest i on you have t o i dent i f y t he correct r esponse f rom t he gi v en pr emi ses st at ed
accor di ng t o f ol l owi ng symbol s.
38. If >=, V =, <=+, ^+, +==, =<, =>
(a) 6 <2 >3 ^8 V 4 +13 (b) 6 ^2 <<3 >8 <4 13 (c) 6 V 2 <3 ^8 >4 13 (d) 6 >2 V 3 <8 ^4 +13
39. Assuming that the statement Every library has books is true, which of the following statement is definitely true?
(a) Books are only in Library (b) No Library is without books
(c) Some libraries do not have readers (d) Libraries are meant for books only
Di rect i ons Q. 40) : In quest i on, one stat ement i s gi ven, f ol l owed by t wo concl usi ons I and II. You have t o consi der t he
stat ement t o be t rue even i f i t seems t o be at vari ance f rom commonl y known f act s. You have t o deci de whi ch
of t he gi ven concl usi on, i f any, f ol l ow f rom t he gi ven stat ement .
40. Statement : All philosophers are men. Socrates was a philosopher.
Conclusion: I Socrates was a man. II. Women cannot become philosophers.
(a) Only I is valid (b) Only II is valid (c) Both are not valid (d) Both are valid
41. A man drives his car 50 km towards eastward direction. He turned right went for 30 km, then he turned west and drive for 10
km. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 50 km (b) 60 km (c) 100 km (d) 20 km
42. Raju facing North and moves 20 km, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km and then he moves 10 km in North-East, then
he turned to his right and moves 20 km and the he turned to his right and moves 20 km, and again he turned to his left and moves
20 km. Now in which direction Raju is facing?
(a) South-East (b) North-East (c) South-West (d) North-West
43. The following diagram shows the different view of same cube. Find out how many spots are on face directly opposite to the
face of the cube having 6 spots :
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 2
Di rect i ons Q. 44) : In quest i on, among t he f our answer f i gures whi ch one can be f ormed f rom t he cut out pi eces gi ven
b el o w?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Di rect i ons Q. 45) : In quest i on, whi ch one of t he answer f i gur e shal l compl et e t he gi ven quest i ons f i gur e?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
46. In which answer figure is the question figure embedded?
Quest i on Mar ks Answer Fi gur e
(a) (b) (c) (d)
47. A piece of paper is folded and a cut is made as shown below. From the given responses indicate how it will appear when
opened.
Quest i on Mar ks Answer Fi gur e
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Di rect i ons Q. 48) : whi ch of t he answer f i gures i s exact l y t he mi r ror i mage of t he quest i on f i gur e when t he mi rror i s
hel d at XY?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
49. Which represents Carrot, Food, Vegetable?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
50. The diagram given below represents owner, broker and worker. Identify the region which represents all the three i.e., owner,
broker and worker.
(a) L (b) T (c) P (d) R
PART - II
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Di rect ions (Q. 51 to 59) : Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of words in capital letters followed by four
words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is simi l ar in meaning to the word in capital letters.
51. CRAVEN
(a) Greedy (b) Cowardly (c) Flattering (d) Restless
52. FORTY WINKS
(a) A person beyond 40 years of age (b) A studious person
(c) Ordeals of life (d) A short nap
53. VICARIOUS
(a) Ambitious (b) Not experienced personally(c) Nostalgic (d) Vindictive
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54. TO J ETTISON
(a) To go on trekking (b) To sail (c) To abandon (d) To fire a gun
55. THE WORSE FOR WEAR
(a) worrisome (b) Financially poor (c) Hostile (d) Shabby from use
56. BEE IN ONES BONNET
(a) Sickness (b) Obsession (c) Misery (d) Freshness
57. TO BROWBEAT
(a) To bully (b) To chase (c) To give a hint (d) To revive old friendship
58. TO ASSUAGE
(a) To assume (b) To forget (c) To resolve (d) To mitigate
59. DEBONAIR
(a) Bed-ridden (b) Candid (c) Elegant (d) Thrifty
Di rect ions (Q. 60 to 68) : Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of words in capital letters followed by four
words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is opposi te in meaning to the word in capital letters.
60. PREPOSSESSION
(a) Incredible (b) Arousing envy (c) Unattractive (d) Recent
61. ADULATION
(a) Confusion (b) Inertia (c) Consolidation (d) Condemnation
62. BLITHESOME
(a) Graceful (b) Sullen (c) Adventurous (d) Mammoth
63. SENILE
(a) Suspicious (b) Mentally alert (c) Corrupt (d) Affluent
64. PREDILECTION
(a) Analogy (b) Anticlimax (c) Antipathy (d) Argument
65. ON THE BLINK
(a) Apologetically (b) Blindly (c) Legally (d) In working order
66. CONSANGUINE
(a) Of different kind (b) Invisible (c) Urbane (d) Untenanted
67. REDOUBTABLE
(a) Truthful (b) Crafty (c) Widely travelled (d) Ordinary
68. INORDINATE
(a) Distant (b) Facile (c) Moderate (d) Attractive
Directi ons (Q. 69 t o 77) : In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
69. Many (P) way to fuel growth (Q) economists argue that (R) and alleviate poverty (S) free trade is a magic bullet-the quickest
which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) Q-P-S-R (b) R-S-P-Q (c) Q-S-P-R (d) R-P-S-Q
70. As a (P) way to fuel growth (Q) economists argue that (R) and alleviate poverty (S) free trade is a magic bullet-the quickest
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
70. As a (P) maestro appeared to be enjoying every bit of it (Q) and followed every composition the (R) thunderous applause
from (S) an appreciative audience preceded
(a) P-Q-S-R (b) R-S-Q-P (c) P-S-Q-R (d) R-Q-S-P
71. Keeping (P) farmers to smoke their fields during (Q) in view the prevailing weather conditions (R) agricultural experts have
advised (S) the night to protect vegetables from cold
(a) S-R-P-Q (b) Q-P-R-S (c) S-P-R-Q (d) Q-R-P-S
72. It is (P) stressful or joyful (Q) with the belief in the evanescence of life itself(R) necessary to rise above the situation, (S)
and in the philosophical quest of the purpose of life
(a) R-P-Q-S (b) Q-S-R-P (c) R-S-Q-P (d) Q-P-R-S
73. The difference (P) and development on the other affects (Q) in the relationship between death and birth rates on the one
hand (R) but the age structure of the population(S) not just the rate of population growth
(a) S-R-Q-P (b) Q-P-S-R (c) S-P-Q-R (d) Q-R-S-P
74. Here (P) another supposed discovery of 29-inch footprints (Q) claim to have found in Kerala (R) we go again with yet (S)
which a group of amateur anthropologists
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150.
(a) R-Q-S-P (b) S-P-R-Q (c) R-P-S-Q (d) S-Q-R-P
75. Creative (P) world of reality (Q) writers and artists, through their imagination (R) transform the details of the (S) into the
world of art
Which of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) S-P-R-Q (b) Q-R-P-S (c) S-R-P-Q (d) Q-P-R-S
76. Thus (P) against the state through the courts (Q) of ones privacy against arbitrary intrusion by the police (R) the court
emphasized that the security (S) is basic to a free society and enforceable
(a) P-Q-S-R (b) R-S-Q-P (c) P-S-Q-R (d) R-Q-S-P
77. The preference (P) responsibilities of looking after parents in their old age (Q) despite the fact that in a growing number of
families (R) at least in urban India, daughters are taking on the (S) for the male child continues
Which one of following is the correct sequence?
(a) S-Q-R-P (b) R-P-S-Q (c) S-P-R-Q (d) R-Q-S-P
Directi ons (Q. 78 to 82) : In this section you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find some questions based on the
passage. First, read the passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers
based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Passage I
Today, India looks to be on course to join the league of developed nations. It is beginning to establish a reputation not just as the
technology nerve-centre and back-office to the world, but also as its production centre. Indias secularism and democracy
serve as a role model to other developing countries. There is great pride in an India that easily integrates with a global economy,
yet maintains a unique cultural identity.
But what is breath taking is Indias youth. For despite being an ancient civilization that traces itself to the very dawn of human
habitation, India is among the youngest countries in the world. More than half the country is under 25 years of age and more than
a third is under 15 years of age.
Brought up in the shadow of the rise of Indias service industry boom, this group feels it can be at least as good if bot better than
anyone else in the world. This confidence has then demonstrating a great propensity to consume, throwing away ageing ideas
of asceticism and thrift. The economic activity created by this combination of a growing labour pool and rising consumption
demand is enough to propel India to double-digit economic growth for decades. This opportunity also represents the greatest
threat to Indias future. If the youths of India are not properly educated and if there are not enough jobs created, India will have
forever lost its opportunity.
Indias Information Technology and Business process Outsourcing industries are engines of job creation, but they still account
for only 0.2 per cent of Indias employment. The country has no choice but to dramatically industrialise and inflate its economy.
According to a recent survey, more than half of Indias unemployed within the next decade could be its educated youth.
78. Consider the following statements :
1. Indias rich cultural heritage prevents India from surging ahead to become and active partner in the global economy
2. By and large, Indias youth still believe in a thrifty lifestyle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
79. What is the approximate number of people in India who are in the age group 15-25 years?
(a) 500 million (b) 350 million (c) 210 million (d) 180 million
80. In the recent past, which sector has witnessed a phenomenal growth?
(a) Heavy industry (b) Service industry (c) Petrochemical industry (d) Textile industry
1. Rising consumption demand will retard economic growth.
2. Indias youth are its greatest opportunity as well as threat.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both 1 and 2 (c) neither 1 nor 2
1. Information Technology sector provides a relatively large proportion of jobs in India.
2. In the coming decade only uneducated youth will remain deprived of employment opportunity.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
Directions (Q. 83 to 92) : In this section 10 sentences are given. Each sentence has three parts (a), (b) and (c). Read each
sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in
any one of the part (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response accordingly. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In
that case letter (d) will signify a No error response.
83. (a) The prime ministers good looks won him/(b) the election but he has still to prove/(c) that hes not a just pretty face/(d) no
error.
84. (a) The two books are the same/(b) except for the fact that this /(c) has an answer in the back/(d) no error.
85. (a) He estimated his income tax bill/(2) by extrapolation over figures/(c) among the old buildings in the area./(d) no error.
86. (a) The modern office block/(b) sticks out like a sore thumb/(c) among the old buildings in the area/(d) no error
87. (a) I will try to put over /(b)some feelers to gauge/(c) peoples reactions to our proposal/(4) no error.
88. (a) A major contribution of Mathura sculptors/(b) of that period were the creation and popularization/(c) of the Buddhas
image in human form.(4) no error.
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Directions (Q. 93 to 100) : In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S
1
) and the sixth
sentence (S
6
) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the correct sequence of the four sentence.
93. S
1
: Political empowerment apart, the state should recognise the right to life of every citizen.
S
6
: The state should prepare for the seasons ahead, not just winter, and create shelters on a war footing.
P : Places of religious worship play an important role in this respect, providing food and shelter.
Q : Where lives are at state, resource crunch cannot work as an excuse.
R : It can still intervene to save lives, by ensuring that offices, schools and other institutions that function only during the day
are used as night shelters.
S : However, civil society organisations cannot be expected to compensate for state neglect.
94. S
1
: This is the age of knowledge.
S
6
: Not surprisingly then that we Indians are often labelled as being overly superstitious.
P : Logic and intuition are no longer enemies. Q : It is also the age of Aquarius
R : The two live together comfortably in every Indian household.
S : So why should superstitions be considered out of place in this age of nanotechnology and computers?
95. S
1
: Sachin has second centuries against all oppositions, in all countries.
S
6
: But largely, he has been the dictator, giving nightmares to quality bowlers of the world.
P : There have been those rare occasions when he looked entangled at the crease.
Q : In fact, some of his most memorable essays came in adverse conditions.
R : Gavaskar called him the closest thing to batting perfection this game has every seen.
S : Sachin has established his stamp over all type of attack
(a) P-Q-S-R (b) R-Q-S-P (c) P-S-Q-R (d) R-S-Q-P
96. S
1
: J agan has been working in our home for over 25 years
S
6
: Then came the question of raising his children on the paltry sum of money he earned washing cars and sweeping
homes.
P : And another
Q : Till finally his wife delivered a son and he declared his innings.
R : I remember the day his first daughter was born. S : And then came another.
(a) R-P-S-Q (b) Q-S-P-R (c) R-S-P-Q (d) Q-P-S-R
97. S
1
: Diabetes is a silent killer and because it does not seem as potent as cancer or AIDS is very often overlooked with too
much heed by patients.
S
6
: Though diabetes can never be totally cured it can definitely be controlled from causing serious consequences.
P : Worse, as many as a third of them dont even know it.
Q : Untreated diabetes can lead to heart and kidney failure, amputations and even death
R : Millions of people suffer from diabetes
S : The early symptoms of diabetes are often confused with other less grave conditions.
98. S
1
: Ships, built in dry docks are launched amidst chanting of Atharva Veda.
S
6
: The latest INS Mumbai is the tenth reincarnation of its original INS Bombay.
P : Even now newer warships are given names of old decommissioned warships.
Q : One of the enduring superstitions of the navy is that old ships, dont die.
R : In Europe, they break champagne bottles on the bow; in India we break coconuts.
S : It derives from the animistic belief that a ship has a soul that lives on the that it is reborn.
(a) R-Q-S-P (b) S-P-R-Q (c) R-P-S-Q (d) S-Q-R-P
99. S
1
: J aswant Singh of 4 Garhwal Rifles was apparently relaxing at 10,000 feet when he spotted a whole battalion of
Chinese troops advancing towards an Indian army post.
S
6
: Versions of the story vary
P : They surrounded him, captured the three and beheaded them.
Q : Finally the enemy sent a scout party to ascertain the real strength of the Indian defence, and they found just a rifleman
and two girls.
R : After the war, the Chinese, impressed by the riflemans valour, gave his head back to the Indians, who set up a temple
for him.
S : With just one 303 and ammunition supplied by two girls from an abandoned dump, he mowed down about 50 enemy
troopers
(a) P-Q-S-R (b) S-R-P-Q (c) P-R-S-Q (d) S-Q-P-R
100. S
1
Each creature of the sea has it own significance for seamen.
S
6
: A dead dolphin is a bad omen.
P : One reason could be that dolphins and sharks do not cohabit
Q : Sighting a dolphin is supposed to bring luck. R : A dolphin swimming with the ship brings good luck
S : Upon sighting the first dolphin on a voyage even the admiral will come up on deck to watch it.
(a) S-R-Q-P (b) Q-P-S-R (c) S-P-Q-R (d) Q-R-S-P
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PART - III
NUMERICAL APTITUDE
101. The least fraction to be subtracted from the expression
1 4 5
3 of
4 5 6
1 1 3 1
4 21
3 5 10 5
| |
+
|
\ .
to make it an integer. .
(a)
1
2
(b)
5
6
(c)
1
4
(d)
3
10
102. If
2 2
0.014 0.14x 0.014 14 y = , find the value of
x
y
(a) 0.000196 (b) 0.00196 (c) 0.0196 (d) 0.196
103. The value of
2 2
(0.337 0.126) (0.337 0.126)
0.337 0.126
( +
(

is
(a) 4 (b) 0.211 (c) 0.463 (d) 0.4246
104.
3
12
4
125
is equal to
(a) 1.4 (b) 1.6 (c) 1.8 (d) 2.4
105. The simplified value of
900 0.09 .000009 + 0
is
(a) 30.27 (b) 30.297 (c) 30.097 (d) 30.197
106. The simplified value of
5 11 19 29 49 + + + +
is
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
107. The least number among
4 9
, ,0.45
9 49

and (0.8)
2
is
(a)
4
9
(b)
4
49
(c)
0.45
(d) (0.8)
2
108. The value of
95
99 99
99
is
(a) 9798 (b) 9997 (c) 9898 (d) 9896
109.
1.2 0.03
=
(a)
0.04
(b)
0.037
(c)
0.13
(d)
0.37
110.
1 1 1 1 1
3 8 8 7 7 6 6 5 5 2
+ +

=
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
111. Evaluate
3 4
16 9
4 3
if
12 3.46 =
(a) 3.46 (b) 10.38 (c) 13.84 (d) 24.22
112. If
2x y
2 16
=
and
x y
2 32
+
=
, then value of xy is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
113. The LCM of two multiples of 12 is 1056. If one of the numbers is 132, the other number is
(a) 12 (b) 72 (c) 96 (d) 132
114. Sum of two numbers is 384. H. (3) F. of the numbers is 48. The difference of thenumbers is
(a) 100 (b) 192 (c) 284 (d) 336
115. The two number are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their product is 96. The sum of the number is
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 101 (d) 102
116. The sum of two number is ten. Their product is twenty. Find the sum of the reciprocals of the two numbers.
(a) 1 (b)
3
5
(c)
1
2
(d)
11
6
117. A number when divide by 192 gives a remainder of 54. What remainder would be obtained on dividing the same number of 16?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
118. The least number which twhen divided by 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided by 9 leaves no remainder is
(a) 1677 (b) 1683 (c) 2523 (d) 3363
Page 9
SMARTPREP
119. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 10. The number formed by reversing the digits is 18 less than the original number.
Find the original number.
(a) 81 (b) 46 (c) 64 (d) 60
120. The least number to the subtracted from 36798 to get a number which is exactly divisible by 78 is
(a) 18 (b) 60 (c) 38 (d) 68
121. Five times of a positive integer is equal to 3 less than twice the square of that number. The number is
(a) 3 (b) 13 (c) 23 (d) 33
122. The product of two number is 24 times, the difference of these two numbers. If the sum of these number is 14, the larger number
is
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 10
123. The greatest number of four digits which when divided by 12, 16 and 24 leave remainders 2, 6 and 14 respectively is
(a) 9974 (b) 9970 (c) 9807 (d) 9998
124. When a number is divided by 15, 20 or 35, each time the remainder is 8. Then the smallest number is
(a) 428 (b) 427 (c) 328 (d) 338
125. A man read 2/5th of a book on 1st day. He read1/4rd more than he read on first day. 15 pages were left for third day. The number
of pages in the book is
(a) 100 (b) 105 (c) 225 (d) 250
126. J yothi can do 3/4th of a job in 12 days. Mala is twice as efficient as J yothi. In how many days Mala will finish the job?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
127. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 6 hours. After wrking at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B fill it in 7 hours
more. The time taken by C alone to fill the cistern is
(a) 14 hours (b) 15 hours (c) 16 hours (d) 17 hours
128. A is twice as good a workman as B and B is twice as good a workman as 93) If A and B can together finish a piece of work in
4 days, then C can do it by himself in
(a) 6 days (b) 8 days (c) 24 days (d) 12 days
129. A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. B and C can do it in 12 days; C and A in 15 days. In how many days will C fiish it alone?
(a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 60
130. Water is flowing at the rate of 5 km/hr through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide.
Determine the time inwhich the level of water in the tank will rise by 7 cm.
22
Tank
7
| |
t =
|
\ .
(a) 2.1 hour (b) 2.0 hour (c) 2.5 hour (d) 2.2 hour
131. Two solid cylinders of radii 4 cm and 5 cm and legnths 6 cm and 4 cm respectively are recast into cylinderical disc of tickness
1 cm. The radius of the disc is
(a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm (c) 21 cm (d) 28 cm
132. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what per cent would the breadth to be decreased to maintain the same area?
(a)
1
37
2
(b) 60 (c) 75 (d) 120
133. Volume of two cones are in the ratio 1 : 4 and their diameters are in the ratio 4 : 5. The ratio of the height is
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 5 : 16 (d) 25 : 64
134. What is the greatest length of the rod which can e kept in a room 12 m 9m 8m?
(a) 288 m
(b) 29 m
12
A
D
B
9
C
8
(c) 17 m
(d) 13 m
135. Water is being pumped out through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 7 cm. If the flow of water is 12 cm per second, how
many litres of water is being pumped out in one hour?
(a) 1663.2 (b) 1500 (c) 1747.6 (d) 2000
136. The lateral surface area of a cylinder is 1056 cm
2
and its height is 16 cm. Find it volume.
(a) 4545 cm
3
(b) 4455 cm
3
(c) 5445 cm
3
(d) 5544 cm
3
137. The largest sphere is carved out of a cube of side 7 cm. The volume of the sphere (in cm
3
) will be
(a) 718.66 (b) 543.72 (c) 481.34 (d) 179.67
138. The radius of circle A is twice that of circle B and the radius of circle B is twice that of circle (3) Their are will be in the ratio
(a) 16 : 4 : 1 (b) 4 : 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2: 4 (d) 1 : 4: 16
139. A dozen pair of socks quoted at Rs. 80 are available at a discount of 10%. How many pairs of socks can be bought for Rs. 24?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 6
140. The marked price of a T.V. is Rs. 16000. After two successive discounts it is sold for Rs. 11,400 if the first dicount is 5%, then
the rate of second discount is
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 25%
Page 10 SMARTPREP
141. The difference between a discount of 30% on Rs. 2000 and two successive discounts of 25% and 5% on the same amount is
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs.35 (c) Rs. 25 (d) Rs. 40
142. If x : y =2 : 1, then
2 2 2 2
(x y ):(x y ) + is
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 6
143. Three cars travelled distances in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If the ratio of the time of travel is 3 : 2 : 1, the the ratio of their speeds is
(a) 3 : 9 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 : 9 (c) 1 : 2 : 4 (d) 4 : 3 : 2
144. The ratio between two numbers is 3 : 4. If each number is increased by 6, the ratio becomes 4 : 5. The difference between the
numbers is
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 8
145. There are three numbers A, B, C such that twice A is equal to thrice B and four times B is equal to five times (3) Then the ratio
between A and C is
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 8 : 15 (c) 15 : 8 (d) 4 : 3
146. The weights of Mr. Gupta and Mrs. Gupta are in the ratio 7 : 8 and their total weight, combined is 120 kg. After taking a dieting
course Mr. Gupta reduces by 6 kg and the ratio between their weights cjanges to 5 : 6. so, Mrs. Gupta has reduced by
(a) 2 kg (b) 4 kg (c) 3 kg (d) 5 kg
147. Three numbers are inthe ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If the pooduct of the numbers is 5670, then the greatest number is
(a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 28
148. A road of 5 km will be constructed in 100 days. So, 280 workers were employed. But after 80 days it was found that only
1
3
2
km
road was completed. Now, how many more people were needed to finish the work in the specified time?
(a) 480 (b) 80 (c) 200 (d) 100
149. A constant distance from Chennai to Bangalore is covered by Express train at 100 km/hr. If it returns back to same distance at
80 km/hr, then the average speed during the whole journey is
(a) 90.20 km/h (b) 88.78 km/h (c) 88.89 km/h (d) 88.89 km/h
150. The average weight of 15 students in a class increases by 1.5 kg when one of the students weighing 40 kg is replaced by a
new student. What is the weight (in kg) of the new student?
(a) 64.5 (b) 56 (c) 60.5 (d) 62.5
PART - IV
GENERAL AWARENESS
151. The quit India Movement was launched in 1942 in the month of
(a) J anuary (b) March (c) August (d) December
152. Match the following :
Col umn - I Col umn - II
(a) Keshab Sen 1. Prarthana Samaj
(b) Dayanand Saraswati 2. Bramo Samaj
(c) Raha Rammohan Roy 3. Aligarh Movement
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan 4. Arya samaj
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 1, 4, 2, 3 (c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
153. Who was the first English president of the Indian National congress?
(a) George Yule (b) william Wedderburn (c) (1) O. Hume (d) Henry Cotton
154. Which one of the following personalities is known as Grand Old man of India?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Dadabhai Naoroji (c) Motilal Nehru (d) Lala lajpat Rai
155. Who wrote Akbarnama?
(a) Akbar (b) Birbal (c) Abul Fazal (d) Bhagavan Das
156. The pledge for poorna Swaraj was taken at the Congress Session of
(a) Calcutta (b) Lahore (c) Allahabad (d) Madras
157. When was the panchayati Raj system introduced in India?
(a) 1950 (b) 1945 (c) 1959 (d) 1962
158. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (b) Mr. R. Venkatararaman
(c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma (d) Mr. V.V. Giri
159. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words-Socialist and Secular in the Preamble?
(a) 28th (b) 40th (c) 42nd (d) 52nd
160. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by
(a) a personnominated by both the Houses of Parliament (b) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (d) the chief J ustice of India
Page 11
SMARTPREP
161. The constituion of India came into force on
(a) 26 J anuary, 1950 (b) 26 J anuary, 1952 (c) 15 August, 1948 (d) 26 Novermber, 1949
162. Who was the first woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following?
(a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu (b) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani (c) mrs. Indira Gandhi (d) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi pandit
163. The parliamentary Committe which scrutinises the report of the comptroller and Auditor General of India is
(a) Estimates Committee (b) Select committee
(c) Public Accounts committee (d) None of these
164. Fog is an example of
(a) Gas dispersed in gas (b) Liquid dispersed in gas (c) Solid dpspersed in gas (d) solid dispersed in liquid
165. Which from the following is a landlocked sea?
(a) Timor Sea (b) Arafura Sea (c) Greenland Sea (d) Aral Sea
166. Match the following :
Sea par t s St at es
(a) Bhatkal 1. Kerala
(b) Alleppey 2. Tamil Nadu
(c) Kakinada 3. Karnataka
(d) Tuticorin 4. andhra Pradesh
(a) a, 3, 4, 2 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
167. Which one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall?
(a) Isohypses (b) Isohalines (c) Isobars (d) Isohyets
168. Equator represents
(a) line joining North and south poles
(b) imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(c) a bet (ring) around the planet Saturn
(d) axis of rotation of Earth
169. Global Warming is expected to result in
(a) increase in level of sea (b) change incrop pattern (c) change in coast line (d) all of the above
170. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by
(a) UNESCO (b) UNCED (c) WHO (d) UNICEF
171. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price eleasticity is
(a) Zero (b) positive (c) negative (d) imaginary number
172. Opportunity cost of productionof a commodity is
(a) the cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
(b) the cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
(c) the acutal cost incurred
(d) the next best alternative output sacrificed
173. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as
(a) economic rent (b) net rent (c) quasi-rent (d) super-normal rent
174. Who is the Ex-officio chairman of the Planning commission?
(a) Minister for Planning & Development (b) Finance Minister
(c) Prime Minister (d) Minister for Rural 7 community Development
175. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up?
(a) Savings increases (b) Lending decreases (c) Lending decreases (d) Return on capital increases
176. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income?
(a) Value Added Method (b) Income Method (c) Investment Method (d) Expenditure method
177. Labour intensive technique would get chosen in a
(a) Labour Surplus Economy (b) Capital Surplus Economy (c) Developed Economy (d) Developing Economy
178. Which one of the following would not constitute and ecomomic activity?
(a) A teacher teaching students in his class
(b) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(c) A teacher teaching his own daughter at Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(d) A teacher providing consultancy sevices from his residence
179. The Finance Commission
(a) Draws up Five Year Plans
(b) formulates Monetary Policy
(c) Recommends pay revision of central Government employees
(d) Adjudicates one the sharing of resources between centre and the States
Page 12 SMARTPREP
180. Net National product of a country is
(a) GDP minus depreciation allowances (b) GDP plus net income from abroad
(c) GNP minus net income from abroad (d) GNP minus depreciation allowances
181. J aundice is caused due to the infection of
(a) Brain (b) Liver (c) Kidney (d) Spleen
182. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is
(a) 82 (b) 92 (c) 72 (d) 98
183. EEG records the activity of
(a) Heart (b) lungs (c) brain (d) muscles
184. The colour of cows milk is slightly yellow due to the presence of
(a) Xanthophyll (b) Riboflavin (c) Ribulose (d) Carotene
185. Which one of these is a communicable disease?
(a) Diabetes (b) Diphtheria (c) Arthritis (d) Cancer
186. The concentration of which of following decreases in anaemia?
(a) Haemoglobin (b) Collagen (c) Hyoglobin (d) Myosin
187. Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air?
(a) Plague (b) Typhoid (c) Tuberculosis (d) Cholera
188. Cereals are a rich source of
(a) Starch (b) Glucose (c) Freuctose (d) Maltose
189. Aspirin is common name of
(a) Salicylic acid (b) Salicylate (c) Methyl Salicylate (d) Acetyl salicylic acid
190. Small Pox is caused by
(a) Rubeola virus (b) VAriola Virus (c) Varicella (d) Myxovirus
191. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the followiwng is also inflammable?
(a) Helium (b) Nitrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Hydrogen
192. Respiration process requires
(a) heat (b) water (c) oxygen (d) sunlight
193. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce hydrogen?
(a) Potassium (b) Cadmium (c) Sodium (d) Lithium
194. Ozone consists of
(a) oxygen only (b) Oxygen and Nitrogen (c) Hydrogen and Carbon (d) Oxygen and Carbon
195. Which of the following liquids has the least density?
(a) Fresh water (b) Salt water (c) Petrol (d) Mercury
196. Which of the following principle is sued to produce low-temperature?
(a) Super conductivity (b) J oule-Delvin effect (c) Therm-electric effect (d) Adiabatic demagnetisation
197. A photo-electric cell converts
(a) mechanical energy to electric energy (b) heat energyto mechanical energy
(c) light energy to chemical energy (d) light energy to electrical energy
198. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building
(a) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier (b) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier.
(c) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time. (d) Depends on the composition of the stone.
199. Pulsars are
(a) starts moving towards the Earth (b) stars moving away from Earth
(c) rapidly spinning stars (d) high temperature s stars
200. Biggest planet of solar system is
(a) Earth (b) Mars (c) Saturn (d) J upiter
*** End ***
Page 13
SMARTPREP
ANSWER CARD
MOCK SSC LDC DETA ENTRY
1. c 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. c
13. c 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. b
25. b 26. c 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. 2 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. b
37. 3 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. c
49. a 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. c 55. d 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. c
61. d 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. b 71. d 72. a
73. d 74. b 75. a 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. b 82. a 83. c 84. c
85. c 86. d 87. a 88. b 89. c 90. c 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. d 96. c
97. b 98. a 99. d 100. b 101. a 102. b 103. a 104. b 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. d
109. b 110. a 111. a 112. c 113. c 114. b 115. b 116. c 117. c 118. b 119. c 120. b
121. a 122. b 123. a 124. a 125. c 126. b 127. a 128. c 129. c 130. b 131. b 132. a
133. d 134. c 135. a 136. d 137. d 138. a 139. a 140. d 141. b 142. a 143. b 144. c
145. c 146. b 147. c 148. c 149. d 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. a 154. b 155. c 156. b
157. c 158. a 159. c 160. d 161. a 162. a 163. c 164. b 165. d 166. c 167. d 168. b
169. d 170. b 171. c 172. d 173. c 174. c 175. d 176. c 177. a 178. c 179. d 180. d
181. b 182. c 183. c 184. d 185. b 186. a 187. c 188. a 189. d 190. b 191. d 192. c
193. b 194. a 195. c 196. d 197. d 198. c 199. c 200. d
ANSWER CARD
MOCK SSC LDC DETA ENTRY
1. c 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. c
13. c 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. b
25. b 26. c 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. 2 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. b
37. 3 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. c
49. a 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. c 55. d 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. c
61. d 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. b 71. d 72. a
73. d 74. b 75. a 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. b 82. a 83. c 84. c
85. c 86. d 87. a 88. b 89. c 90. c 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. d 96. c
97. b 98. a 99. d 100. b 101. a 102. b 103. a 104. b 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. d
109. b 110. a 111. a 112. c 113. c 114. b 115. b 116. c 117. c 118. b 119. c 120. b
121. a 122. b 123. a 124. a 125. c 126. b 127. a 128. c 129. c 130. b 131. b 132. a
133. d 134. c 135. a 136. d 137. d 138. a 139. a 140. d 141. b 142. a 143. b 144. c
145. c 146. b 147. c 148. c 149. d 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. a 154. b 155. c 156. b
157. c 158. a 159. c 160. d 161. a 162. a 163. c 164. b 165. d 166. c 167. d 168. b
169. d 170. b 171. c 172. d 173. c 174. c 175. d 176. c 177. a 178. c 179. d 180. d
181. b 182. c 183. c 184. d 185. b 186. a 187. c 188. a 189. d 190. b 191. d 192. c
193. b 194. a 195. c 196. d 197. d 198. c 199. c 200. d
St udent I D :
Name :
Bat c h :
Dat e :
Ti me :
1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.
2. Ensure that your personal data has been correctly entered on top of this booklet and in the Answer Sheet.
3. Use only a HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.
4. This Booklet contains 12 pages. Immediately after opening this booklet, verify that all pages are printed
properly.
5. Keep only the SmartPrep Id Card, pencil, eraser and sharpner with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books,
rulers, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones or any
other device or loose paper. These should be left outside the room.
6. This paper has 200 questions. The total time for the test is 2 :00 Hours.
7. This paper is divided into four sections:
8. Directions for answering the questions are given in the text booklet before each group of questions to
which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropri-
ate circles
9. Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question.
10. For every correct answer you score 4 marks and for every wrong answer you lose 1 mark.
11. The correct way of shading the ovals.
12. Do the rough work on the test booklet only and NOT on the answer sheet or any other paper.
13. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.
14. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, You may leave
now. The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets and answer
sheets from everyone in the room.
ANY CANDIDATE GIVING/ SEEKING/ RECIEVING ANY SORT OF ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING WILL
BE IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED.
INSTRUCTIONS
MOCK SSC - 2

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