BASIC PHARMACOLOGY EVALUATION 8

QUESTIONS 1. Which of these agents are derived from the actinomycete Miscromonospora? A. Spectinomycin B. Streptomycin C. Gentamicin D. All of the above E. A and B. Which of these agents does not contain amino sugars on its aminocyclitol nucleus? A. Spectinomycin B. Streptomycin C. Tobramycin D. Gentamicin E. None of the above. The primary intracellular ribosomal subunit site of action of aminoglycosides is the: A. 70s B. 50s C. 30s D. None of the above. E. B and C The Aminoglycoside energy-dependent phase I transport is inhibited or blocked by: A. Divalent cations B. Reduction in pH C. Hyposmolarity D. All of the above. E. A and B. Which of these Aminoglycosides should not be used against Serratia or Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections as they have limited effects on these bacteria? A. Streptomycin B. Kanamycin C. Gentamicin D. All of the above. E. A and B. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding the Aminoglycosides? A. They are highly polar cations. B. They are very poorly absorbed from the GIT. C. Absorption into body cavities with serosal surfaces may be rapid. D. All of the above. E. A and B only. Which of these agents contains a streptidine nucleus and an aminocyclitol that is not centrally positioned? A. Amikacin B. Netilmicin C. Gentamicin D. Streptomycin E. Paromomycin Which of these drugs does Aminoglycosides act synergistically on susceptible bacteria? A. Vancomycin B. Ampicillin C. Penicillin D. All of the above. E. B and C 9. High concentrations of Aminoglycosides are expectedly found in the following tissues: A. Inner ear endolymph B. Renal cortex C. Adipose D. All of the above. E. A and B.

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10. Which of these Aminoglycoside dosing methods is equally efficacious and potentially less toxic? A. Three equal divided doses daily. B. High dose at extended intervals. C. Low doses at more frequent intervals. D. None of the above. E. A and C. 11. Which of these agents predominantly causes vestibular ototoxicity? A. Gentamicin B. Kanamycin C. Neomycin D. Amikacin E. All of the above. 12. Which of these agents predominantly causes cochlear ototoxicity? A. Streptomycin B. Tobramycin C. Netilmicin D. Amikacin E. All of the above. 13. Which of these Aminoglycosides exhibit the broadest spectrum of activity? A. Amikacin B. Netilmicin C. Gentamicin D. Spectinomycin E. None of the above. 14. Which of the following property/ies may allow for singledaily dosing of Aminoglycosides? A. Rapid concentration killing. B. Time-dependent killing. C. Post-antibiotic effect. D. All of the above. E. A and C. 15. The rationale/s for present use of Aminoglycosides in combination with cell wall-active agents is/are: A. Provide synergistic bacterial killing. B. Expansion of empiric spectrum of drug activity. C. Prevent emergence of resistance to individual drugs. D. All of the above. 16. Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for treatment of tularemia? A. Streptomycin B. Gentamicin C. Kanamycin D. A and B. E. B and C.

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17. Which agent is the latest of Aminoglycosides to be marketed, is more active against Enterobacter and E. coli? A. Spectinomycin B. Tobramycin C. Kanamycin D. Netilmicin E. Amikacin 18. This agents use has declined markedly because of its limited therapeutic advantages as well its marked toxicity: A. Streptomycin B. Tobramycin C. Kanamycin D. Netilmicin E. Amikacin 19. Which of these agents is a broad-spectrum Aminoglycoside usually used in combination with Polymyxin, Bacitracin and Corticosteroids for a variety of skin infections? A. Tobramycin B. Gentamicin C. Neomycin D. Netilmicin E. Amikacin 20. Which of these agents is most likely to produce the unusual toxic reaction of neuromuscular blockade and apnea upon administration? A. Amikacin B. Neomycin C. Kanamycin D. Tobramycin E. All of the above. 21. To prevent degradation of Omeprazole in the stomach, the following measure/s may be applicable: A. use of enteric coated formulations B. administer concomitantly with sodium bicarbonate C. administer 30 minutes before meals D. all of the above 22. The best time to administer a proton pump inhibitor: A. 30 minutes before breakfast B. 30 minutes before lunch C. 30 minutes before dinner D. 30 minutes before going to sleep 23. Omeprazole will enhance the toxicity of the following drug/s given concomitantly: A. Ketoconazole B. Warfarin C. Theophylline D. all of the above 24. For the treatment of H pylori associated peptic ulcer, Omeprazole is given: A. once every other day B. once a day C. twice a day 25. Suppression of gastric acid production produced by Omeprazole lasts for: A. 12 hrs B. 1-2 days C. 30 minutes 1 hour D. 3-5 days

26. The risk of hospital acquired pneumonia secondary to loss of antiseptic property of the stomach among patients who develop stress ulcers can be prevented with the use of: A. A, Omeprazole IV B. Ranitidine IV C. Sucralfate D. all of the above 27. For H pylori associated gastric and duodenal ulcer, the duration of treatment with Omeprazole together with H pylori eradication therapy is: A. 2 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 6 weeks D. 8 weeks 28. Gastric acid rebound is likely to occur with use of the following drugs, EXCEPT: A. Omeprazole B. Ranitidine C. Sucralfate D. Aluminum hydroxide + Magneium hydroxide E. none of the above 29. The primary metabolite of Ranitidine is: A. Desmethylranitidine B. Ranitidine S oxide C. Ranitidine N oxide 30. At 100 mcg dose, Misoprostol will produce the following effect/s: A. increase mucus and endogenous bicarbonate production B. enhanced mucosal blood flow C. decrease gastric acid secretion D. all of the above 31. Anti-ulcer drug/s that is/are activated in an environment where pH is acidic: A. Omeprazole B. Misoprostol C. Sucralfate D. all of the above E. A and C only 32. Drug/s used in the treatment of acid peptic diseases that exhibit both gastric acid suppressant and cytoprotective actions will include: A. Misoprostol B. Sucralfate C. Antacids D. All of the above 33. Adverse effect/s that will likely limit the use of Misoprostol: A. can induce abortion if patient is pregnant B. diarrhea C. abdominal cramps D. All of the above 34. The antacid with the highest acid neutralizing action at comparable doses: A. Magnesium hydroxide B. Aluminum hydroxide C. Calcium carbonate D. Sodium bicarbonate

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35. Drug/s shown to exhibit efficacy in healing NSAID induced ulcer and prevent complications: A. Omeparzole B. Ranitidine C. Misoprostol D. A and C E. B and C 36. Bismuth subsalicylate exerts the following action/s in H pylori associated peptic ulcer: A. cytoprotective B. antibacterial C. bind to ulcer base D. all of the above E. A and C only 37. Antibacterial/s used in H pylori eradication therapy will include: A. Metronidazole B. Erythromycin C. Chloramphenicol D. all of the above 38. Eradication of H pylori in gastroduodenal ulcers has shown the following beneficial effect/s: A. almost completely eliminates the risk for ulcer recurrence B. higher ulcer healing rate C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 39. For immediate, effective relief from ulcer symptoms, the following drug/s is/are given: A. Omeprazole B. Ranitidine C. Antacids D. all of the above E. B and C only 40. The antacid formulation that will give the greater neutralizing capacity and faster onset of effects: A. Suspension B. Tablet C. Powder D. Injection 41. The prokinetic effect of Metoclopramide is mediated by: A. activation of presynaptic D2 receptors B. activation of presynaptic 5HT4 receptor C. activation of postsynaptic 5HT4 receptors D. all of the above E. B and C only 42. Onset of anti-emetic action of Metoclopramide given orally: A. 1-3 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 10 minutes D. immediate 43. Metoclopramide will likely affect the metabolism of drugs given concomitantly which are metabolized by which isoform/s of CYPs? A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2D6 C. CYP 1A2 D. All of the above

44. This prokinetic drug undergoes oxidation then subsequent sulphate and glucuronide conjugation A. Erythromycin B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. none of the above 45. The site/s of action of Domperidone is/are the D2 receptors found in the: A. Vomiting center B. Chemoreceptor Trigger zone C. Myenteric motor neurons D. all of the above E. B and C only 46. Drug/s that produce/s their prokinetic action by facilitating cholinergic neurotransmission will include: A. Metoclopramide B. Neostigmine C. Domperidone D. All of the above E. A and C only 47. Adverse effect/s attributed only to Metoclopramide and not to Domperidone include/s: A. sedation B. galactorrhea C. parkinsonian syndrome D. all of the above E. A and C only 48. The best recommended treatment of Gastroesophageal reflux disease consists of drug/s that: A. suppress gastric acid B. enhance gastric emptying C. increase lower esophageal sphincter tone D. none of the above 49. Diarrhea caused by infectious agents that will likely benefit from antibacterial therapy will include: A. Shigellosis B. Salmonellla food poisoning C. Campylobacter induced D. all of the above 50. When fluid therapy is intended to correct fluid and electrolyte deficits in patient who experiences diarrhea, it is referred to as: A. Maintenance therapy B. Replacement therapy C. both A and B D. neither A nor B 51. To get 75 mmol of Sodium in an Oral Rehydration Salt Solution, the preparation should contain, Sodium chloride at: A. 13.5 g/L B. 1.6 g/L C. 2.6. g/L 52. The antidiarrheal drug, Loperamide is: A. primarily antisecretory B. useful for infectious type of diarrhea C. relieve pain induced by intestinal spasm D. all of the above

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53. Drug/s that exert/s primarily antisecretory activity will include: A. Racecadotril B. Loperamide C. Kaolin Pectin Mixture D. all of the above 54. Chronic diarrhea in patients with poorly controlled Diabetes Mellitus is treated with: A. Racecadotril B. Clonidine C. Loperamide D. A and B E. B and C 55. The best recommended anti-emetic regimen for Cisplatin induced nausea and vomiting: A. Ondansetron alone B. Ondansetron + Dexamethasone C. Ondansetron + Dexamethasone + Aprepitant 56. This 5HT3 antagonist has the longest half life: A. Granisetron B. Tropisetron C. Palonosetron D. Ramosetron 57. The anti-emetic effect of Promethazine is mediated by its antagonist action in the following receptors, EXCEPT: A. Dopaminergic B. Muscarinic C. Histaminergic D. Serotonergic 58. Drug/s which may be used for the treatment of nausea and vomiting that occur after surgery will include: A. Metoclopramide B. Promethazine C. Ondansetron D. All of the above E. A and B only 59. The sites of action of Ondansetron are sites where 5HT3 receptors are found and which include/s: A. Solitary tract nucleus B. Chemoreceptor trigger zone C. Stomach and intestines D. All of the above E. B and C only 60. The best recommended 5HT3 receptor antagonist for delayed onset cancer chemotherapy induced emesis is: A. Ondansetron B. Granisetron C. Palosetron D. Metoclopramide 61. This drug is both a Tissue and luminal amebicide: A. Metronidazole B. Paromomycin C. Chloroquine D. Idoquinol 62. Metronidazole exerts a cidal action against the following protozoa? A. Helicobacter pylori B. Entamoeba histolytica C. Bacteroides fragilis D. all of the above

63. In the treatment of Trichomoniasis in females, Metronidazole is administered: A. orally B. parenterally C. intravaginally D. all of the above E. A and C only 64. The use of Iodoquinol is limited by this serious adverse reaction, especially if given to children in high doses: A. Thyroid gland enlargement B. Optic atrophy C. Muscle weakness D. Arrhythmia 65. In the treatment of amebic liver abscess, which of the following regimens is best recommended? A. Metronidazole + Paromomycin B. Dehydroemetine + Paromomycin + Chloroquine C. Metronidazole + Paromomycin + Chloroquine D. Metronidazole alone 66. The duration of treatment of Amebic coltitis is: A. 3-5 days B. 7-10 days C. 10-14 days 67. Amebicidal drug/s that have neurotoxic potential will include: A. Metronidazole B. Paromomycin C. Iodoquinol D. All of the above 68. In the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile,Metronidazole is given: A. Intravenously B. Orally C. Rectally 69. Dehydroemetine, an alternative drug for amebic liver abscess is given: A. Orally B. Intravenously C. Intramuscularly D. all of the above 70. Amebicidal drug/s active against trophozoites and cysts in the intestinal lumen: A. Metronidazole B. Dehydroemetine C. Chloroquine D. All of the above 71. For the treatment of amebic dysentery, if Dehydroemetine is indicated, it is usually given for: A. 5 days B. 7 days C. 10 days D. 14 days 72. Disulfiram-like effect is observed if patient takes alcohol while taking Metronidazole, This is caused by inhibition of: A. Alcohol dehydrogenase B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase C. Aldehyde dehydrogenase D. none of the above Page 4 of 6

73. Metronidazole exerts its cidal action against anaerobic parasite and bacteria by: A. Inhibiting protein synthesis B. Destruction of DNA structure C. Disruption of cell wall D. None of the above 74. The best recommended treatment for asymptomatic cyst passers: A. Metronidazole B. Paromomycin C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B 75. Paromomycin exerts its amebicidal action by: A. cidal action on E histolytica B. cidal action on the bacterial flora C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B 76. Adverse effect/s of Paromomycin given orally include/s: A. ototoxicity B. nephrotoxicity C. nausea, vomiting D. all of the above 77. Clearance of Metronidazole is by: A. Hepatic metabolism B. Renal excretion C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B 78. For the treatment of Trichomoniasis, Metronidazole is given at a dose of 2 grams: A. for 5 days B. for 10 days C. single dose D. for 3 days 79. Drug/s poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract: A. Metronidazole B. Paromomycin C. Iodoquinol D. A and B E. B and C 80. Drug/s useful as adjunct treatment of Hepatic encephalopathy: A. Paromomycin B. Neomycin C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B 81. Among the following anthelmintics, which has an active metabolite? A. Albendazole B. Pyrantelpamoate C. Diethylcarbamazine D. A and B only E. A and C only 82. Anthelmintic/s which should not be given in pregnant women: A. Metrifonate B. Oxamniquine C. Praziquantel D. A and B only E. A and C only

83. Single dose therapy with the Benzimidazoles reduces worm burden the least for A. Ascaris B. Ancylostoma C. Trichuris D. Enterobius E. Taenia 84. Eating pork sisig will enhance the gastrointestinal absorption of this drug A. Diethylcarbamazine B. Metrifonate C. Pyrantel D. Ivermectin E. Albendazole 85. Which drug is best taken on an empty stomach? A. Ivermectin B. Niclosamide C. Oxamniquine D. A and B only E. A and C only 86. Precautions should be observed in persons with liver impairment during the administration of: A. Piperazine B. Ivermectin C. Pyrantelpamoate D. A and B only E. A and C only 87. The incidence of soil-transmitted helminths is highest in which population? A. Elderly B. School-aged children C. Young adults D. Toddlers E. Adolescents 88. Used in the treatment of tapeworms A. Albendazole B. Niclosamide C. Bithionol D. A and B only E. B and C only 89. Ocular complications due to high worm burden may be seen in the use of: A. Praziquantel B. Oxamniquine C. Diethylcarbamazine D. A and B only E. A and C only 90. Diarrhea,urination, miosis, bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation and salivation may be experienced during the administration of: A. Praziquantel B. Oxamniquine C. Metrifonate D. Diethylcarbamazine E. Pyrantelpamoate 91. First line drug for treating lymphatic filariasis A. Praziquantel B. Diethylcarbamazine C. Oxamniquine D. Albendazole E. Metrifonate Page 5 of 6

92. In terms of drug absorption and food intake which statement is true? A. Protein intake increases bioavailability of Praziquantel B. Oxamiquine should be taken on an empty stomach C. Cimetidine causes increased bioavailability of Praziquantel D. Niclosamide should be immediately swallowed E. None of the above 93. In the use of Metrifonate which statement is true? A. It may cause inhibition of cholinesterase B. It is generally safe C. It is used as an alternative treatment for S. haematobium D. It is not safe for pregnant women E. All of the above 94. The mechanism of action of this anthelmintic drug is induction of spastic paralysis due to calcium entry into the tegument A. Albendazole B. Praziquantel C. Piperazine D. Diethylcarbazepine E. Niclosamide 95. Which maneuver can increase plasma half-life of Diethylcarbazepine? A. Administration of Ascorbic acid B. Intake of high fat meal C. Acidification of the urine D. Alkalinization of the urine E. Chewing prior to swallowing the drug 96. Acts by targeting the bacterial symbiont of the parasite A. Doxycycline B. Metrifonate C. Niclosamide D. Oxamniquine E. Piperazine 97. Used as an alternative treatment to Ascariasis. It acts on acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction A. Doxycycline B. Metrifonate C. Niclosamide D. Oxamniquine E. Piperazine 98. The Mazzoti reaction can be observed with A. Diethylcarbazipine B. Ivermectin C. Metrifonate D. A and B only E. B and C only 99. Considered as a second choice drug to Praziquantel in the treatment of cestodes A. Niclosamide B. Oxamniquine C. Bithionol D. Metrifonate E. Ivermectin 100. Which benzimidazole has the least systemic toxicity A. Mebendazole B. Albendazole C. Thiabendazole D. None of the above Page 6 of 6