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ESE - 2016

Detailed Solutions of

ELECTRONICS ENGG.
PAPER-II

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Directors Message
UPSC has introduced the sectional cutoffs of each paper and screening cut off in
three objective papers (out of 600 marks). The conventional answer sheets of only
those students will be evaluated who will qualify the screening cut offs.
In my opinion the General Ability Paper was easier than last year but Civil
Engineering objective Paper-I and objective Paper-II both are little tougher/
lengthier. Hence the cut off may be less than last year. The objective papers of ME
and EE branches are average but E&T papers are easier than last year.
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each OBJECTIVE Paper (out of 200 Marks)

Category

GEN

OBC

SC

ST

PH

Percentage

15%

15%

15%

15%

10%

30

30

30

30

20

Marks

Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each CONVENTIONAL Paper (out of 200 Marks)

Category

GEN

OBC

SC

ST

PH

Percentage

15%

15%

15%

15%

10%

30

30

30

30

20

Marks

Expected Screening cut off out of 600 Marks (ESE 2016)

Branch

GEN

OBC

SC

ST

CE

225

210

160

150

ME

280

260

220

200

EE

310

290

260

230

E&T

335

320

290

260

Note: These are expected screening cut offs for ESE 2016. MADE EASY does not
take guarantee if any variation is found in actual cutoffs.
B. Singh (Ex. IES)
CMD , MADE EASY Group

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Scroll down
For Answer Key of ESE-2016

Page 2 of 3

ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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3

Paper-II (Electronics Engineering)


1.

A single-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 100. The load connected to the collector
is 500 and its input impedance is 1 k. Two such stages are connected in cascade
through an R-C coupling. The overall gain is
(a) 10000
(b) 6666.66
(c) 5000
(d) 1666.66

Ans.

(b)
A1

Vi

A2

Vo

Voltage gain of A1 decreases due to loading effect.


R01

Av vi1

V01 =
whereas AV2 = 100
Overall gain,

2.

Ri2 V01

Av Ri 2
100 1
= 66.66
=
R01 + Ri 2 0.5 + 1

A v = AV1 AV2
= 66.66 100 = 6666.66

Assuming VCE (Sat)= 0.3 V for a Silicon transistor at ambient temperature of 25C and
hFE = 50, the minimum base current IB required to drive the transistor into saturation
for the circuit shown is
+5 V
1 k
IB
Q

(a) 64 A
(c) 94 A
Ans.

(b) 78 A
(d) 140 A

(c)
IC

sat

IB min =

5 VCE sat
RC
IC sat

= 4.7 mA

4.7
= 94 mA
50

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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4

3.

Which of the following regions of operation are mainly responsible for heating of the
transistor under switching operation?
1. Saturation region
2. Cut-off region
3. Transition from saturation to cut-off
4. Transition from cut-off to saturation Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans.

(b)

4.

In a sinusoidal oscillator, sustained oscillations will be produced only if the loop gain
(at the oscillation frequency) is
(a) Less than unity but not zero
(b) Zero
(c) Unity
(d) Greater than unity

Ans.

(c)
Oscillators have unity loop gain.

5.

The Class-B push-pull amplifier is an efficient two-transistor circuit, in which the two
transistors operate in the following way :
(a) Both transistors operate in the active region throughout the negative ac cycle
(b) Both transistors operate in the active region for more than half-cycle but less than
a whole cycle
(c) One transistor conducts during the positive half-cycle and the other during the
negative half-cycle
(d) Full supply voltage appears across each of the transistors

Ans.

(c)

6.

Consider the following statements regarding Wien Bridge oscillator:


1. It has a larger bandwidth than the phase shift oscillator.
2. It has a smaller bandwidth than the phase shift oscillator.
3. It has 2 capacitors while the phase shift oscillator has 3 capacitors.
4. It has 3 capacitors while the phase shift oscillator has 2 capacitors.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans.

(a)

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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5

7.

For
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Ans.

(a)

8.

Consider the following statements regarding linear power supply:


1. It requires low frequency transformer.
2. It requires high frequency transformer.
3. The transistor works in active region. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Ans.

(c)

9.

The capacitance of a full wave rectifier, with 60 Hz input signal, peak output voltage
Vp = 10 V, load resistance R = 10 k and input ripple voltage Vr = 0.2 V, is
(a) 22.7 F
(b) 33.3 F
(c) 41.7 F
(d) 83.4 F

Ans.

(c)

normal operation of a transistor


Forward bias the emitter diode and reverse bias the collector diode
Forward bias the emitter diode as well as the collector diode
Reverse bias the emitter diode as well as the collector diode
Reverse bias the emitter diode and forward bias the collector diode

IDC 

Vr =
C=

Vm
10
=
= 1mA
RL 10 k
IDC
2foC

IDC

2fo Vr

103
= 41.66 F
2 60 0.2

10.

A full wave rectifier connected to the output terminals of the mains transformer produces
an RMS voltage of 18 V across the secondary. The no-load voltage across the secondary
of the transformer is
(a) 1.62 V
(b) 16.2 V
(c) 61.2 V
(d) 6.12 V

Ans.

(b)

VRMS =

Vm
= 18 V
2

Vm = 18 2 V

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

VDCNL =

2Vm

2 18 2

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= 16.2 V

11.

An
1.
2.
3.
(a)
(c)

Ans.

(a)

12.

In an Op-Amp, if the feedback voltage is reduced by connecting a voltage divider at


the output, which of the following will happen?
1. Input impedance increases
2. Output impedance reduces
3. Overall gain increases
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(c)
If feedback voltage is reduced then overall gain increases.

13.

The transient response rise time (unity gain) of an Op-Amp is 0.05 s. The small signal
bandwidth is
(a) 7 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 7 MHz
(d) 20 MHz

Ans.

(c)

Op-Amp can be connected to provide


Voltage controlled current source
Current controlled voltage source
Current controlled current source Which of the above statements are correct?
1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Bandwidth =

14.

0.35
= 7 MHz
tr

A negative feedback of = 2.5 x 103 is applied to an amplifier of open-loop gain 1000.


What is the change in overall gain of the feedback amplifier, if the gain of the internal
amplifier is reduced by 20%?
(a) 295.7
(b) 286.7
(c) 275.7
(d) 266.7

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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7

(d)

A = 0.8 1000 = 800


New overall gain,

Af =

A
1 + A

Af =

800
= 266.7
1 + 25 103 800

15.

If the quality factor of a single-stage single-tuned amplifier is doubled, the bandwidth


will
(a) Remain the same
(b) Become half
(c) Become double
(d) Become four times

Ans.

(b)
Bandwidth =

fo
Q

Bandwidth becomes half.

16.

Consider the following statements related to oscillator circuits :


1. The tank circuit of a Hartley oscillator is made up of a tapped capacitor and a common
inductor.
2. The tank circuit of a Colpitts oscillator is made up of a tapped capacitor and a
common oscillator.
3. The Wien Bridge oscillator is essentially a two-stage amplifier with an RC bridge
in the first stage, and, the second stage serving as an inverter.
4. Crystal oscillators are fixed frequency oscillators with a high Q-factor.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1,3 and 4 only

Ans.

(b)

17.

The most commonly used transistor configuration for use as a switching device is
(a) Common-base configuration
(b) Common-collector configuration
(c) Collector-emitter shorted configuration
(d) Common-emitter configuration

Ans.

(d)

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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8

18.

The value of hFE (the hybrid parameters) of a Common-Emitter (CE) connection of a Bipolar
Junction Transistor (BJT) is given as 250. What is the value of dc (ratio of collector current
to emitter current), for this BJT?
(a) 0.436
(b) 0.656
(c) 0.874
(d) 0.996

Ans.

(d)
=

19.

= 0.996
1+

For realizing a binary half-subtractor having two inputs A and B, the correct set of logical
expressions for the outputs D (A minus B ) and X (borrow) are
1. The difference output D = AB + AB
2. The borrow output B = AB
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.

(a)
The truth table of Half subtractor is shown below
A B Diff Borrow
0 0 0
0

0
1

1
0

1
1

1
0

Difference = AB + AB
Borrow = AB

20.

The simplified form of the Boolean expression AB + A(B + C ) + B (B + C ) is given


by
(a) AB + AC
(b) B + AC
(c) BC + AC
(d) AB + C

Ans.

(b)

f=
=
=
=
=
=
=

AB + A(B + C) + B(B + C)
AB + AB + AC + BB + BC
AB + AC + B + BC
AB + AC + B (1 + C)
AB + AC + B
B (A + 1) + AC
B + AC

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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21.

Product of Maxterms representation for the Boolean function F = BD + AD + BD is


(a) M (1, 3, 5, 7)
(b) M (0, 2, 4, 6)
(c) M (0,1, 2, 3)
(d) M (4, 5, 6, 7)

Ans.

(b)

F = BD + AD + BD
BD
A

BD BD BD
0
1 1 31
A
A

BD
2
6

F = m(1, 3, 5, 7)
Converting the function from Minterms form to Maxterms form,
F = M(0, 2, 4, 6)

22.

Ans.

Simplified form of the Boolean expression Y = (A B + C ) (A + B + C ) is


(a) AC + AC + BC + BC

(b) (A + B + C )(A + B + C )

(c) (A + B )(A + C )

(d) A (B + C)

(b)

Y = (AB + C)(A + B + C)
= (AB + C) + (A + B + C )
= (AB C ) + (A + B) C
= AC + BC + AC + BC
= m(1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
= M(0, 7)
= (A + B + C ) ( A + B + C )

23.

What is the maximum frequency for a sine wave output voltage of 10 V peak with an
Op-Amp whose slew rate is 1 V/s?
(a) 15.92 kHz
(b) 19.73 kHz
(c) 23.54 kHz
(d) 27.336 kHz

Ans.

(a)

fo

SR 106
2Vm

fo

1 106
2 10

fo 15.92 kHz

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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24.

Which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) TTL logic cannot be used in digital circuits.
(b) Digital circuits are linear circuits.
(c) AND gate is a logic circuit whose output is equal to its highest input.
(d) In a four-input AND circuit, all inputs must be high for the output to be high.

Ans.

(d)
In an AND gate, the output is high only when all inputs are high.

25.

The slew rate is the rate of change of output. voltage of an operational amplifier when
a particular input is applied. What is that input?
(a) Sine wave input
(b) Ramp input
(c) Pulse input
(d) Step input

Ans.

(d)
Slew rate of op-amp in measured by applying step input.

26.

Except at high frequencies of switching, nearly all the power dissipated in the switch
mode operation of a BJT occurs, when the transistor is in the
(a) Active region
(b) Blocking state
(c) Hard saturation region
(d) Soft saturation region

Ans.

(d)

27.

Consider the following statements with respect to combinational circuit:


1. The output at any time depends only on the present combination of inputs.
2. It does not employ storage elements.
3. It performs an operation that can be specified logically by a set of Boolean functions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(d)
A
B
C

f
Combi
g

It has no storage present output depends only on present input.

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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Page
11

28.

Consider the following statements : A multiplexer


1. selects one of the several inputs and transmits it to a single output.
2. routes the data from a single input to one of many outputs.
3. converts parallel data into serial data.
4. is a combinational circuit.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans.

(c)
Data is routed from a single input to one of many outputs in a demultiplexer and not
in a multiplexer.

29.

What are the two types of basic adder circuits?


(a) Half adder and full adder
(b) Half adder and parallel adder
(c) Asynchronous adder and synchronous adder
(d) One's complement adder and two's complement adder

Ans.

(a)
A half adder adds 2 bits.
A full adder adds 3 bits.
These are the two types of basic adder circuits.

30.

Consider the following statements :


1. An 8-input MUX can be used to implement any 4 variable functions.
2. A 3-line to 8-line DEMUX can be used to implement any 4 variable functions.
3. A 64-input MUX can be built using nine 8-input MUXs.
4. A 6-line to 64-line DEMUX can be built using nine 3-line to 8-line DEMUXs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans.

(c)
An 8-input MUX can implement only some functions of 4 variables and not all functions
of 4 variables.

31.

For an n-bit binary adder, what is the number of gates through which a carry has to
propagate from input to output?
(a) n
(b) 2n
(c) n2
(d) n + 1

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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12

Ans.

(b)
In a single adder, the carry propagates through 2 gates.
in an n-bit binary adder, the carry would propagate through 2n gates.

32.

The main disadvantage of DTL logic circuits is


(a) Medium speed
(b) Very large power supply voltage
(c) High cost
(d) Very large gate propagation delay

Ans.

(d)
The propagation delay of DTL logic circuits is about 30 ns, which is relatively quite large.

33.

Which one of the following statements best describes the operation of a negativeedge-triggered D flip-flop?
(a) The logic level at the D input is transferred to Q on NGT of CLK.
(b) The Q output is always identical to the CLK input if the D input is high.
(c) The Q output is always identical to the D input when CLK = PGT.
(d) The Q output is always identical to the D input.

Ans.

(a)
Input

clk

Q+ = D
The logic level at the D input is transferred at negative edge.

34.

A 3-bit ripple counter is constructed using three T flip-flops to do the binary counting.
The three flip-flops have T -inputs fixed at
(a) 0, 0 and 1
(b) 1, 0 and 1
(c) 0, 1 and 1
(d) 1, 1 and 1

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

(d)
In a ripple counter, the T inputs of all T flip flops are always applied logic 1.

35.

What is the function Y = A + BC in Product-of-Sums (POS) form?


(a) M6 M5 M4 M3
(c) M0 M2 M3

Ans.

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Page
13

(b) M3 M2 M4 M0
(d) M4 M3 M2 M1

(c)

Y = A + BC
the function is plotted on K map below,
BC
A

BC
A
A

0
4

BC
1

BC
3

1
1

BC
2

Y = m(1, 4, 5, 6, 7)
Converting the function from SOP to POS form
Y = M(0, 2, 3)
= M0 M2 M3

36.

The initial content of a four-bit shift register is 1000. What is the register content after
it is shifted four times to the right, with the serial input being 111100?
(a) 1111
(b) 1100
(c) 1000
(d) 0011

Ans.

(b)
1

37.

When a large number of analog signals is to be converted to digital form, an analog


multiplexer is used. The A-to-D converter most suitable in this case will be
(a) Forward counter type
(b) Up-down counter type
(c) Successive approximation type
(d) Dual slope type

Ans.

(c)
Conversion time of successive approximation ADC is less than up counter type, updown counter and dual slope ADC.

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

38.

For
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Ans.

(b)
In ECL, the transistors operate only in Active and Cut off regions.

39.

A flip-flop is a
(a) Combinational logic circuit and edge sensitive
(b) Sequential logic circuit and edge sensitive
(c) Combinational logic circuit and level sensitive
(d) Sequential logic circuit and level sensitive

Ans.

(b)
Flip-flop is sequential and edge triggered.

40.

The transfer function


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Ans.

Page
14

Emitter-Coupled Logic (ECL), the switching speed is very high because


Negative logic is used
The transistors are not saturated when they are conducting
Multi-emitter transistors are used
Of low fan-out

dc
dc
dc
dc

gain
gain
gain
gain

1
0
1
0

and
and
and
and

1
will have
2s + 1
high frequency gain
high frequency gain
high frequency gain
high frequency gain

0
1

(c)

TF=

M=
M at

41.

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1
2S + 1
1
4 2 + 1

= 0 is 1 and at = is 0.

The closed-loop transfer function of a certain control system is given by


C
100
. Then the settling time for a 2% tolerance band is given by
(s) = 2
R
s + 10s + 100

(a) 0.8 s
(c) 1.5 s

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(d) 2.1 s

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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15

(a)

TF=

100
S + 10S + 100
2

2n = 10 n = 5
4
4
ts (2%) = = 5 = 0.8 s
n

42.

The unit step input response of a certain control system is given by


c (t ) = 1 + 0.2 e60t 1.2 e10t. Then the undamped natural frequency n and damping
ratio are, respectively
(a) 24.5 and 1.27
(b) 33.5 and 1.27
(c) 24.5 and 1.43
(d) 33.5 and 1.43

Ans.

(c)

SR = 1 + 0.2 e60t 1.2 e10t


From SR the poles are at 10, 60
Hence
q(s) = (S + 10) (S + 60) = 0
q(s) = S 2 + 70S + 600 = 0

Wn =

600 24.5

2n = 70
= 1.43

43.

In Force-Voltage Analogy
(a) Force is analogous to current
(b) Mass is analogous to capacitance
(c) Velocity is analogous to current
(d) Displacement is analogous to magnetic flux linkage

Ans.

(c)
As per theory of analogy velocity is analogous to current.

44.

For a unity feedback control system having an open-loop transfer function G(s) =

25
,
s(s + 6)

what is the time tp at which the peak of the step input response occurs?
(a) 0.52 s
(b) 2.75 s
(c) 0.79 s
(d) 1.57 s

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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Page
16

(c)

GH(s) =

25
S (S + 6)

q(s) = 1 + GH(s) = S2 + 6S + 25 = 0
n = 5 ; = 0.6 d = 4

45.

tp = = 0.79 s
d

The transfer function G(s) =

10(s 1)
represents
(s + 10)

(a) Unstable system


(c) Non-minimum phase system
Ans.

(b) Minimum phase system


(d) PID controller system

(c)

GH(s) =

10(s 1)
S + 10

If a system has at least a zero (or) a pole in right side of S plane then it is called Nonminimum phase system.

46.

What is the maximum input frequency limit of a 3-bit Ripple counter configured around
flip-flops, with inherent propagation delay time tpd = 50 ns?
(a) 6670 MHz
(b) 667 MHz
(c) 66.7 MHz
(d) 6.67 MHz

Ans.

(d)

fCLK =

47.

1
1
=
= 6.67 MHz
N TPD 3 50 ns

The characteristic equation of a certain feedback control system is given by


s 4 + 4s 3 + 13s 2 + 36s + k = 0. The range of values of k for which the feedback system
is stable, is given by
(a) 0 < k < 4
(b) 4 < k < 36
(c) 0 < k < 36
(d) 13 < k < 36

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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17

(c)

q(s) = s4 + 4s3 + 13S2 + 36S + K = 0


S4

13 K

36

S1

36 4 4K
4

S0

For stability K > 0 and K < 36


0 < K < 36

48.

The closed-loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is,


C (s)
n2
= 2
. The velocity error constant of the system is
R (s) s + 2n + n2

(a)
(c)
Ans.

n
2

2 n

(b)

(d)

3 n
2

(a)

TF=
OLTF GH(s) =

n2

S 2 + 2 nS + n2

n2
S (S + 2 n )

SGH (s)
Velocity error constant = Kv = slim
0

49.

n
S
= n
Kv = slim
0 S (S + 2 n )
2

The system described by the following state equations


0 1
0
X& =
X + u, Y = [ 1, 1 ] X

2 3
1
1. Completely controllable
2. Completely observable
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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Page
18

(c)
0 1
0
x& = 2 3 + 1 U

[1 1] X

Y=

0 1
QC = [B AB ] = 1 3 ; QC = 1 0

For controllability

QC 0
C
1 1
Q0 = =
CA
2
2

Q0 = 4 0
For observability

50.

Q0 0

Consider the system with G(s) =

K (s + 2)
and H (s ) = 1. The breakaway point(s) of
s + 2s + 3
2

the root loci is/are at


(a) 0.265 only
(c) 3.735 and 0.265
Ans.

(b) 3.735 only


(d) There is no breakaway point

(b)

GH(s) =

K (S + 2)
S 2 + 2S + 3

Breakaway point is solution of

Solution of

51.

dK
that lies on root locus.
dS

dK
are 2 3
dS
2 3 = 3.73 lies on root locus

How would a binary number 0010 be represented by a 4-bit binary word, if the range
of voltage is 0 to 10 V?
(a) 0.666 V
(b) 1.333 V
(c) 0.333 V
(d) 2000 V

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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Page
19

(b)

VFS = 10 V
n=4
0010 D = 2
R=

VFS
n

2 1

10
= 0.66667
15

Analog output = R D = 0.66667 2


= 1.333 volts

52.

For a unity feedback system with open-loop transfer function

25
, the resonant peak
s(s + 6)

at output M m and the corresponding resonant frequency m, are respectively


(a) 2.6 and 2.67 r/s
(b) 1.04 and 2.67 r/s
(c) 2.6 and 4.8 r/s
(d) 1.04 and 4.8 r/s
Ans.

(b)

GH (s ) =

25
s(s + 6)

q(s ) = 1 + GH (s ) = s2 + 6s + 25 = 0
n = 5 : = 0.6

Wr = n 1 22 = 2.67

Mr =

1
2 1 2

= 1.04

53.

The transfer function of a control system is said to be All Pass System, if it has
(a) Unit magnitude at all frequencies with anti-symmetric pole-zero pattern
(b) Unit magnitude at all frequencies with symmetric pole-zero pattern
(c) Magnitude varying with frequency and with anti-symmetric pole-zero pattern
(d) Unit magnitude at some frequencies with symmetric pole-zero pattern

Ans.

(b)
All pass system has constant magnitude response for all frequencies. This can happen
only if poles and zeros are symmetric w.r.t. j -axis.

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

54.

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Page
20

Consider the following:


1. Bode plot 2. Nyquist plot 3. Nichols chart
Which of the above frequency response plots are commonly employed in the analysis
of control systems?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(d)
All the mentioned plots are popular and commonly used in control analysis.

55.

An
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Ans.

(c)
Successive approximation ADC

A-to-D converter in which one sub-circuit is a D-to-A converter is


Parallel A/D converter
Dual slope A/D converter
Successive approximation A/D converter
Extended parallel type A/D converter

DAC

Va

Control
circuit

SAR

Start EOC

56.

Consider the transfer function :

G(s) =

5(s 2 + 10s + 100)


s 2 (s 2 + 15s + 1)

The corner frequencies in Bode's plot for this transfer function are as
(a) 10 r/s and 10 r/s
(b) 100 r/s and 10 r/s
(c) 10 r/s and 1 r/s
(d) 100 r/s and 1 r/s
Ans.

(c)

5(s 210S + 100)


GH(s) = 2
S (S+ 15S + 1)
Corner frequency in Bode plot is defined for finite poles and zeros, which are complex
in given system.
For complex pole, zeros corner frequency.
Hence 10, 1.

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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21

57.

Consider the transfer function (0.1 + 0.1s) for a PD controller. What is the frequency at
which the magnitude is 20 dB (by using asymptotic Bodes plot)?
(a) 2000 r/s
(b) 1000 r/s
(c) 200 r/s
(d) 100 r/s

Ans.

(b)

GH(s) = [0.1 + 0.01s ] = 0.1 [1 + 0.1s ]


Bode plot is
+20 dB
decade

20 dB
0 dB
20 dB
1

10 100 1000

58.

The main objectives of drawing the root-locus plot are


1. To obtain a clear picture of the open-loop poles and zeros of the system.
2. To obtain a clear picture of the transient response of the system for varying gain, K.
3. To find the range of K to make the system stable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans.

(d)
Root locus obtained mainly to obtain response and stability of system.

59.

A unity feedback system has open-loop poles at s = 2 j 2, s = 1 and s = 0 and a


zero at s = 3. What are the angles made by the root-loci asymptotes with the real axis?
(a) 60, 180 and 60
(b) 30, 90 and 60
(c) 60, 120 and 30
(d) 30, 60 and 180

Ans.

(a)
Total number of poles = 4
Total number of zeros = 1
(2K + 1)180
PZ
K = 0, 1, 2
Angles = 60, 180, 300 (or) 60

Angles of asymptotes =

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

60.

The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is G(s) =

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22

K
. The
s(s + 5)

gain K that results in a phase margin of 45 is


(a) 35
(b) 30
(c) 25
(d) 20
Ans.

(a)

GH(s) =

K
S (s + 5)

q(s) = 1 + GH(s) = S 2 + 5S + K = 0
n =

K; =

5
2 K

PM = 100 = 100

K 35

5
= 45
2 K

61.

Consider the following statements :


The Gain margin and Phase margin of an unstable system may respectively be
1. Positive, negative 2. Negative, positive 3. Negative, negative
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(a)
GM and PM of unstable system are always negative

62.

Ans.

1 + 0.5s
. The maximum
1 + 0.05s
phase lead and the corresponding frequency, respectively are nearly
(a) sin1 (0.9) and 6 r/s
(b) sin1 (0.82) and 4 r/s
1
(d) sin1 (0.82) and 6 r/s
(c) sin (0.9) and 4 r/s

A phase lead compensator has its transfer function, Gc (s) =

(d)

Gc(s) =
Zero :

1 + 0.5S
1 + 0.05S

S = 2; pole : S = 20 ; =

Z
= 0.1
P

1 1
1
M = sin
= sin [0.82]
+

M =

Z P = 40 6

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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23

63.

Consider the following statements :


1. Lead compensation decreases the bandwidth of the system.
2. Lag compensation increases the bandwidth of the system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.

(d)
Lead compensator is high pass filter hence it increases bandwidth Lag compensator
is low pass filter hence it decreases bandwidth.

64.

A proportional controller with transfer function, Kp is used with a first-order system having
its transfer function as Gc (s) =

K
, in unity feedback structure. For step inputs, an
(1 + s)

increase in Kp will
(a) Increase the time constant and decrease the steady state error
(b) Decrease the time constant and decrease the steady state error
(c) Decrease the time constant and increase the steady state error
(d) Increase the time constant and increase the steady state error
Ans.

(b)

GH(s) =

K
; G (s) = kP
1 + ST c

KK p
1 + KK p
KK p
=
CLTF =
T
1 + ST + KK p
S +1
KKP

T
time constant = 1 + KK
P
1
ess = KK
P

If KP is increased then both time constant and ess decreases.

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

65.

For
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Ans.

(c)

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24

a second-order differential equation, if the damping ratio , is unity, then


The poles are imaginary and complex conjugate
The poles are in the right half of s-plane
The poles are equal, negative and real
Both the poles are unequal, negative and real

= 1 means critically damped.


Hence, roots are real, equal, negative.

66.

Consider the following statements associated with microstrip patch antenna :


1. The microstrip patch behaves more like a leaky cavity rather than like a radiator and
this is not a highly efficient antenna.
2. They can be adapted for radiation of circularly polarized waves.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.

(c)

67.

A carrier waveform 10 cos ct and modulating signal 3 cos mt have fc = 100 kHz and
fm = 4 kHz. Given that sensitivity of FM is 4 kHz/V and FM spectra beyond J6 is
negligible, what are the channel bandwidth requirements for AM and FM, respectively?
(a) 12 kHz and 48 kHz
(b) 8 kHz and 48 kHz
(c) 12 kHz and 24 kHz
(d) 8 kHz and 24 kHz

Ans.

(b)
AM BW = 2 fm = 8 kHz
FM BW = 12 fm (significant sidebands upto 6th order, so bandwidth 12 fm)
= 48 kHz

68.

When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the
modulating voltage remains constant. The modulation system is
1. Amplitude modulation
2. Phase modulation
3. Frequency modulation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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25

(c)
For FM;

kf Am
fm

If modulating frequency doubled, then modulation index is half.

69.

What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a carrier swing of 100 kHz and
modulating frequency of 8 kHz?
(a) 4.75
(b) 5.50
(c) 6.25
(d) 7.50

Ans.

(c)
Carrier swing
2f = 100 kHz
f = 50 kHz
=

f 50
=
= 6.25
fm
8

70.

In a Pulse Code Modulated system, the number of bits is increased from 7 to 8 bits.
The improvement in signal to quantization noise ratio will be
(a) 2 dB
(b) 4 dB
(c) 6 dB
(d) 8 dB

Ans.

(c)
If k bits increased, then SQNR is increased by 6 k dB.
if one bit is increased, then SQNR is increased by 6 dB

71.

In the process of modulation


(a) Some characteristics of a high frequency sine wave are varied in accordance with
the instantaneous value of a low frequency signal
(b) Parameters of carrier wave are held constant
(c) For proper and efficient radiation, the receiving antennas should have heights
comparable to half-wavelength of the signal received
(d) The signal is converted first within the range of 10 Hz to 20 Hz

Ans.

(a)

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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26

72.

If the sampling is carried out at a rate higher than twice the highest frequency of the
original signal (fmax), then it is possible to receive the original signal from the sampled
signal by passing it through
(a) A high-pass filter with the cut-off frequency equal to fmax
(b) A low-pass filter with the cut-off frequency equal to fmax
(c) A high-pass filter with the cut-off frequency greater than fmax
(d) A low-pass filter with the cut-off frequency greater than fmax

Ans.

(b)
In sampling process with sampling frequency greater than nyquist frequency for
reconstruction of original signal, LPF is used.

73.

The open-loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is G(s)


phase shift at = 0 and = , will be, respectively
(a) 90 and 180
(b) 0 and 180
(c) 90 and 90
(d) 0 and 0

Ans.

10(1 + 0.2s)
. The
(1 + 0.5s)

(d)

GH(s) =

10 [1 + 0.25]
1 + 0.5S

type = 0 ; P Z = 0
Phase at = 0 is 90 type = 0
phase at = is 90 (P Z) = 0

74.

The conversion time for a 10-bit successive approximation A / D converter, for a clock
frequency of 1 MHz is
(a) 1 s
(b) 5 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 15 s

Ans.

(c)

fCLK = 1 MHz

TCLK = 1 s
In successive approximation ADC, the conversion time is always constant, and is equal
to number of bits in ADC. Tconv. = 10 1 s = 10 s.

75.

The minimum bandwidth of the link needed for a guard band of 10 kHz frequency to
prevent interference between six channels, each with 100 kHz frequency, is
(a) 425 kHz
(b) 575 kHz
(c) 650 kHz
(d) 725 kHz

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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27

Ans.

(c)
6 signals multiplexed. So 5 guard bands will exist
BW = 6 100 kHz + 5 10 kHz
= 650 kHz

76.

The different access methods which permit many satellite users to operate in parallel
through a single transponder without interfering with each other are
1. Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)
2. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
3. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(b)
In TDMA, different users access the transponder in different time slots, not parallely.

77.

In an optical fibre, the pulse dispersion effect is minimized by


1. Using a high frequency light source
2. Using plastic cladding
3. Minimizing the core diameter
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(c)

78.

Consider the following statements:


As compared to short-circuited stubs, open-circuited stubs are not preferred because
the latter
1. Are of different characteristic impedance
2. Have a tendency to radiate Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.

(b)

79.

Consider the following statements for multiple access system in a satellite earth station:
1. Access to same repeater sub-systems and same RF channel is possible.
2. Frequency division multiple access is used.
3. Several carriers are not amplified by same TWT.

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.

(d)

80.

The Bode plot of the open-loop transfer function of a system is described as follows:
Slope 40 dB/decade < 0.1 rad/s
Slope 20 dB/decade 0.1 < < 10 rad/s
Slope 0 > 10 rad/s
The system described will have
(a) 1 pole and 2 zeros
(b) 2 poles and 2 zeros
(c) 2 poles and 1 zero
(d) 1 pole and 1 zero

Ans.

(b)
As per given details Bode plot is
40
20

Initial slope indicates 2 poles at origin.


Final slope indicates
P=Z

P=Z = 2

81.

From the Nichols chart, one can determine the following quantities pertaining to a closedloop system:
(a) Magnitude, bandwidth and phase (b) Bandwidth and phase only
(c) Magnitude and phase only
(d) Bandwidth only

Ans.

(a)
Nichols chart provides complete frequency response of a system.

82.

In position control systems, the Tacho-generator feedback is used to


(a) Increase the effective damping in the system
(b) Decrease the effective damping in the system
(c) Decrease the steady state error
(d) Increase the steady state error

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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29

(a)
Tacho generator (or) derivative controller mainly used to increase system damping
K D n
2
KD = tachometer constant

new = old +

83.

Consider the following statements :


1. The pin diode consists of two narrow, but highly doped, semiconductor regions
separated by a thicker, lightly doped material called the intrinsic region.
2. Silicon is used most often for its power-handling capability and because it provides
a highly resistive intrinsic region.
3. The pin diode acts as an ordinary diode at frequencies above 100 MHz.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(d)

84.

Consider the following statements :


1. Additional cavities serve to velocity-modulate the electron beam and produce an
increase in the energy available at the output.
2. The addition of intermediate cavities between the input and output cavities of the
basic klystron greatly improves the amplification, power output, and efficiency of
the klystron.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.

(c)

85.

In a waveguide with perfectly conducting flat wall, the angle of reflection is equal to the
angle of
(a) Diffraction
(b) Incidence
(c) Refraction
(d) Penetration

Ans.

(b)

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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30

86.

In microwave system, waveguides have the advantages of


(a) High power-handling capability and low loss
(b) Thin dielectric substrate
(c) Low power-handling and adequate stability
(d) Positive phase shift

Ans.

(a)

87.

A straight dipole radiator fed in the centre will produce maximum radiation at
1. The plane parallel to its axis
2. The plane normal to its axis
3. Extreme ends
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans.

(b)

88.

In communication systems, modulation is the process of


(a) Improving frequency stability of transmitter
(b) Combining signal and radio frequency waves
(c) Generating constant frequency radio waves
(d) Reducing distortion in RF waves

Ans.

(b)
Modulation is the process of transmitting low frequency message signal by combining
with high frequency carrier signal.

89.

Which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) Sampling and quantization operate in amplitude domain.
(b) Sampling and quantization operate in time domain.
(c) Sampling operates in time domain and quantization operates in amplitude domain.
(d) Sampling operates in amplitude domain and quantization operates in time domain.

Ans.

(c)
Sampling is done in time domain and quantization is done is amplitude domain.

90.

What is the voltage attenuation provided by a 25 cm length of waveguide having a = 1 cm


and b = 0.5 cm in which a 1 GHz signal is propagated in the dominant mode?
(a) 721 dB
(b) 681 dB
(c) 521 dB
(d) 481 dB

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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31

(b)
For dominant mode, fc10 =

C
3 108
=
= 15 GHz
2a 2 (1 102 )

Given operating frequency, f = 1 GHz


= o o

fc10
f 1

2 (109 ) 15
1 = 313.46
3 108 1

Voltage attenuation in dB = 20log10 e (313.46) (25 102 ) = 681 dB

91.

When a plane wave travelling in free-space is incident normally on a medium having


r = 9.0 and r = 1.0, the fraction of power transmitted into the medium is
(a) 4/3
(b) 3/4
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/3

Ans.

(b)

r 1 = 1; r 1 = 1 (air) r 2 = 9 ; r 2 = 1 (dielectric)

Pt
n 2 r 1
=T2 1 =
Fraction of power transmitted =
Pin
n2 r 1 + r 2

r 2
r 1

2
2 1 9 2 2
Pt
3
1
(3)
=
=
=
2 3 = 4
1 1 + 3
Pin
1
9
+

92.

A microwave antenna with the absorbing cross-section area (A) and the power flux
density(S) in the incident wave is employed as an absorber. The absorbed power (P )
of the antenna is
(a)

A
S

(c) SA
Ans.

(b)

S
A

(d)

S +1
A 1

(c)

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
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32

93.

LASER beam of light essentially finds its application in transmission of a signal in the
optical fibre communication systems due to
(a) Incredible speed of signal communication
(b) Low loss transmission of the signal
(c) Inexpensive installation cost
(d) Bulk availability of LASER sources

Ans.

(b)

94.

The controller which is highly sensitive to noise is


(a) PI
(b) PD
(c) Both PI and PD
(d) Neither PI nor PD

Ans.

(b)
PD controller increases system bandwidth since it is analogous to high pass filter. Hence
it is highly sensitive to noise because Bandwidth Noise.

95.

The 2s complement representation of 17 is


(a) 100001
(b) 101111
(c) 110011
(d) 101110

Ans.

(b)
The binary equivalent of 17 is 10001
the signed magnitude system representation of +17 is 010001
2s complement representation iof 17 is

0 1 0 0 0 1
2s comp
1 0 1 1 1 1

96.

The subtraction of two hexadecimal numbers 8416 2A16 results in


(a) 2B16
(b) 3A16
(0 4B16
(d) 5A16

Ans.

(d)
(84)16

(2A)16
+ 84 H
2AH
5AH = (5A)16

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

97.

The Vestigial Side Band (VSB) modulation is preferred in TV systems because


1. It reduces the bandwidth requirement to half
2. It avoids phase distortion at low frequencies
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.

(a)
In VSB bandwidth requirement will be reduced to half compared to AM.

98.

If, A = 60 and B = 3, then using C-programming A >> B results in


(a) 11100000
(b) 00000111
(c) 00111111
(d) 01111000

Ans.

(b)

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33

0 0 1111 0 0
Right shift by "3" times

0 0 0 0 0 111

99.

What is the base of the numbers for the following operation to be correct?
(54)b
= (13)b
(4)b

(a) 2
(c) 8
Ans.

(b) 4
(d) 16

(c)
(54)b
= (13)b
(4)b

Converting all number to decimal system,

100.

5.b + 4
= b+3
4
56 + 4 = 4b + 12
b=8

It is awkward to employ signed-magnitude system in computer arithmetic, because


1. Sign and magnitude have to be handled separately
2. It has two representations for 0
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

1234567890
1234567890
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34

Ans.

(b)
The signed magnitude system, has two different representation for the digit 0.
For example, for 4 bits
+0 0 000
0 1 000

101.

Consider the following statements : Pointers in C-programming are useful to


1. Handle the data tables efficiently
2. Reduce the length of a program
3. Reduce the complexity of a program Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans.

(b)
Using pointer we can,
1. Goto table any entry change contents accordingly.
2. If you want to pass array no need to pass total array pass only 1st ele address.
It will reduce the length of the program and it will reduce complexity.

102.

Data transfer between the main memory and the CPU register takes place through two
registers, namely,
(a) General purpose register and MDR (b) Accumulator and Program counter
(c) MAR and MDR
(d) MAR and Accumulator

Ans.

(c)
MAR Memory Address Register
MDR Memory Data Register
When data is transferred between memory and CPU, MAR holds address of memory,
MDR holds data from memory or to memory.

103.

In a binary tree, the number of internal nodes of degree 1 is 3, and the number of internal
nodes of degree 2 is 6. The number of leaf nodes in the binary tree is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

1234567890
1234567890
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35

(a)
2
2

2
1

1
0

0
0

0
0

degree 2 6
degree 1 3
degree 0 7

104.

Consider the following :


1. Operation code
2. Source operand reference
3. Result operand reference
4. Next instruction reference
Which of the above are typical elements of machine instructions?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.

(a)

105.

Which addressing mode helps to access table data in memory efficiently?


(a) Indirect mode
(b) Immediate mode
(c) Auto-decrement or Auto-increment mode
(d) Index mode

Ans.

(a)
In indirect addressing mode, once a pointer is set to memory only increment and
decrement operations are required to access or send data so less machine cycles are
required.

106.

Converting an analog signal to a digital signal is done by Sampling and


(a) Companding
(b) Mixing
(c) Quantizing
(d) Pre-emphasis

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

1234567890
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36

Ans.

(c)
Analog signal can be converted to digital by performing sampling quantization and
coding.

107.

A computer employs RAM chips of 256 bytes and ROM chips of 1024 bytes. If the
computer system needs 1 kB of RAM and 1 kB of ROM, then how many address lines
are required to access the memory?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13

Ans.

(b)
RAM 256 B
ROM 1024 B. i.e. 1 KB
1 KB of RAM and 1 KB of ROM total 2 KB

2n = N = 2 KB = 21(210) = 211
n = 11 (bits are required)

108.

A computer system has a cache with access time 10 ns, a hit ratio of 80% and average
memory access time is 20 ns. Then what is the access time for physical memory?
(a) 50 ns
(b) 40 ns
(c) 30 ns
(d) 20 ns

Ans.

(a)

Tavg
20
20
0.2x
x

=
=
=
=
=

HTc + (1 H ) (Tm + Tc)


(0.8 10) + (1 0.8) (x + 10)
8 + 0.2x + 2
10
50 ns

109.

In a synchronous TDM, there are four inputs and data rate of each input connection is
3 kbps. If 1 bit at a time is multiplexed, what is the duration of each frame?
(a) 0.02 ms
(b) 0.03 ms
(c) 0.33 ms
(d) 0.22 ms

Ans.

(c)
In synchronous TDM, frame duration is equal to bit duration
frame duration =

1sec
= 0.33 msec
3000

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
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37

110.

Consider the following statements comparing static RAM with dynamic RAM :
1. In static RAM typical cell requires more number of transistors than the dynamic RAM.
2. Power consumption per bit of static RAM is less than that of dynamic RAM.
3. Dynamic RAM is less expensive than the static RAM.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans.

(d)
Static RAM More cost, power consumption
DRAM low cost and power consumption

111.

An addressing mode in which the location of the data is contained within the mnemonic,
is known as
(a) Immediate addressing mode
(b) Implied addressing mode
(c) Register addressing mode
(d) Direct addressing mode

Ans.

(b)
Location of data within Mnemonic i.e. in CMA no operands are there but operation is
done on Accumulator only.

112.

A processor has 32-bit architecture. Each instruction is 1 word long (32 bits). It has 64
registers. It supports 50 instructions, which have 2 register operands +1 immediate
operand. Assuming that the immediate operand is an unsigned integer, what is its
maximum value?
(a) 16383
(b) 32767
(c) 65536
(d) 1024

Ans.

(a)
Opcode

Reg

Reg

log2 50 log2 64 log2 64

6 bit

6 bit

Immediate
14 bit

6 bit

Largest unsigned value = (2n 1) = (214 1) = 16383

113.

Microwave resonators are used in


1. Microwave oscillators
2. Microwave narrow band amplifiers
3. Microwave frequency meters Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
1234567890
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38

Ans.

(d)

114.

The serial connection of interrupt lines for establishing hardware priority is known as
(a) Daisy Chaining Priority
(b) Parallel Priority
(c) Polling
(d) Serial-line Priority

Ans.

(a)
In daisy changing priority, each device is verified whether it has interrupt or not
separately so more time is wasted.

Directions:
'Statement
and select
Codes:
(a)

Each of the next six (6) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the
(I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. Examine these two statements carefully
the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

115.

Statement (I) : PAM can be demodulated using a suitable integrator.


Statement (II) : A suitable integrator practically acts as an envelope detector.

Ans.

(a)
PAM can be demodulated by a process of envelope detection, where suitable integrator
will acts as envelope detector.

116
116.

Statement (I): The direction flag D in 8086 selects increment or decrement mode for
DI and/or SI registers.
Statement (II) : If D = 0, the registers are automatically decremented.

Ans.

(c)
D Direction flag in to set direction in string manipulation instructions.
D 0 ; Auto increment mode
D 1 ; Auto decrement mode

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ESE-2016 : Electronics Engg.


Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

117.

Statement (I) : An antenna of length

Statement (II): An antenna of length

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39

will have radiation pattern of two lobes.


2
3
will have radiation pattern of two lobes and
2

two minor lobes.


Ans.

(c)

118.

Statement (I) : The complex conjugate poles and zeros of the open-loop transfer function
have no effect on the root-loci on the real axis.
Statement (II): Angle contribution of such a pair of conjugate poles or zeros is 2 radians
on the real axis.

Ans.

(a)
Complex poles and zeros exists in pair. Hence they dont have any effect on root locus
on real axis. 2 radian angle means 0 angle. Hence it cannot change the phase of
the system.

119.

Statement (I): A basic memory unit of a flip-flop is a bistable multivibrator.


Statement (II): A flip-flop has two stable states. It remains in one state until it is directed
by an input signal to switch over.

Ans.

(a)
The binary data stored in a flip flop changes only when the circuit is triggered by an
external input signal. This is the characteristic of a Bistable Multivibrator.

120.

Statement (I) : Multimode fibres are now used for long distance communication.
Statement (II): Multimode fibres have larger core-radius than single-mode fibres.

Ans.

(d)

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