FORCE AND NEWTONS LAWS OF MOTION

INTRODUCTION
Force is a push or pull which tries to change or
successfully changes the state of rest or of uniform
motion of a body, i.e., force is the cause of translatory
motion.
It arises due to interaction of the bodies either due to
contact (e.g., normal reaction, friction, tension, spring
force etc.) or from a distance (e.g., gravitational or
electric force).

FUNDAMENTAL FORCES
All forces observed in nature such as muscular force,
tension, reaction, friction, weight, electric, magnetic,
nuclear, etc., can be explained in terms of only following
four basic interactions.

of nuclear forces. It acts within the nucleus that too

upto a very small distance. It does not depends on
charge and acts equally between a proton and proton,
a neutron and neutron, and proton and neutron,
electrons does not experience this force. It acts for very
short distance order of 1015 m.
(d) Weak Force :
It acts between any two elementary particles. Under its
action a neutron can change into a proton emitting an
electron and a particle called antineutrino. The range
of weak force is very small, in fact much smaller than
size of a proton or a neutron.
It has been found that for two protons at a distance of 1
fermi :
FN:FEM:FW:FG::1:102:107:1038

(a) Gravitational Force :

The force of interaction which exists between two
particles of masses m1 and m2, due to their masses is
called gravitational force. The gravitational force acts
over long distances and does not need, any intervening
medium. Gravitational force is the weakest force of
nature.

On the basis of contact forces are classified into two

categories
(i)

Contact forces

(ii) Non contact or field forces

(b) Electromagnetic Force :

(a) Contact force :

Force exerted by one particle on the other because of

the electric charge on the particles is called
electromagnetic force. Following are the main
characteristics of electromagnetic force

Forces which are transmitted between bodies by short

range atomic molecular interactions are called contact
forces. When two objects come in contact they exert
contact forces on each other. e.g. Normal, Tension etc.

(i)

( b ) Field force :

These can be attractive or repulsive.

(ii) These are long range forces.

(iii) These depend on the nature of medium between
the charged particles.
(iv) All macroscopic forces (except gravitational) which
we experience as push or pull or by contact are
electromagnetic, i.e., tension in a rope, the force
of friction, normal reaction, muscular force, and
force experienced by a deformed spring are
electromagnetic forces. These are manifestations
of the electromagnetic attractions and repulsions
between atoms/molecules.
(c) Nuclear Force :

Force which acts on an object at a distance by the

interaction of the object with the field produced by other
object is called field force. e.g. Gravitational force,
Electro magnetic force etc.

DETAILED ANALYSIS OF CONTACT FORCE

(a) Normal force (N) :
It is the component of contact force perpendicular to
the surface. It measures how strongly the surfaces in
contact are pressed against each other. It is the
electromagnetic force.
e.g.1 A table is placed on Earth as shown in figure

It is the strongest force. It keeps nucleons (neutrons

and protons) together inside the nucleus inspite of
large electric repulsion between protons. Radioactivity,
fission, and fusion, etc. results because of unbalancing

11

PAGE # 11

Here table presses the earth so normal force exerted

by four legs of table on earth are as shown in figure.

e.g.2 A boy pushes a block kept on a frictionless

surface.

Here, force exerted by boy on block is electromagnetic

interaction which arises due to similar charges
appearing on finger and contact surface of block, it is
normal force.

(b) Tension :
Tension is the magnitude of pulling force exerted by a
string, cable, chain, rope etc. W hen a string is
connected to a body and pulled out, the string said to
be under tension. It pulls the body with a force T, whose
direction is away from the body and along the length of
the string. Usually strings are regarded to be massless
and unstretchable, known as ideal string.

Note : (i) Tension in a string is an electromagnetic

force and it arises only when string is pulled. If a
massless string is not pulled, tension in it is zero.
(ii) String can not push a body in direct contact.
(c) Force Exerted by spring :

A block is kept on inclined surface. Component of its

weight presses the surface perpendicularly due to
which contact force acts between surface and block.

A spring is made of a coiled metallic wire having a

definite length. When it is neither pushed nor pulled
then its length is called natural length.
At natural length the spring does not exert any force on
the objects attached to its ends.f the spring is pulled
at the ends, its length becomes larger than its natural
length, it is known as stretched or extended spring.
Extended spring pulls objects attached to its ends.
A

Normal force exerted by block on the surface of inclined

plane is shown in figure. Here normal force is a
component of weight of the body perpendicular to the
inclined surface i.e. N = mgsin

B
Normal spring

Spring force on A

Spring force on B

B
Stretched spring
Spring force on B

Spring force on A

Compressed spring

Force acts perpendicular to the surface

1.

Two blocks are kept in contact on a smooth surface as

shown in figure. Draw normal force exerted by
A on B.

If the spring is pushed at the ends, its length becomes

less than natural length. It is known as compressed
spring. A compressed spring pushes the objects
attached to its ends.

F = 0 spring in natural
length does not exerts
any force on its ends

x
F

Sol. In above problem, block A does not push block B, so

there is no molecular interaction between A and B.
Hence normal force exerted by A on B is zero.

Note :

Normal is a dependent force it comes in role when

one surface presses the other.

Fext

F = kx ;k = spring
constant or stiffness
constant (unit = N/m)
x = extension in spring

x
F

F
Fext

F = kx
x = compression in spring

22

PAGE # 22

 Note : Spring force is also electromagnetic in nature :

(d) Friction force :
When a body is moving on a rough surface resistance
to the motion occurs because of the interaction
between the body and its surroundings. We call such
resistance as force of friction. Friction is also
considered as component of contact force which acts
parallel to the surfaces in contact.
(i) Origin of friction : The frictional force arises due to
molecular interactions between the surfaces at the
points of actual contact. When two bodies are placed
one over other, the actual area of contact is much
smaller then the total surface areas of bodies. The
molecular forces starts operating at the actual points
of contact of the surfaces. Molecular bonds are formed
at these contact points. When one body is pulled over

(C) Once the motion started, the smaller force is now

necessary to continue the motion (F3) and thus
frictional force decreases. The force of friction
when body is in state of motion over the surface is
called kinetic or dynamic friction fk (figure d).

the other, these bonds are broken, and the material

get deformed and new bonds are formed. The local
deformation sends vibrations into the bodies. These
Vibrations ultimately dumps out and energy of
vibrations appears as heat. Hence to start or carry on
the motion, there is a need of force.

Body 1
Body 2

(iii) More about frictional force :

(A) About static friction

Actual area of contact

1.

The limiting friction depends on the materials

of the surfaces in contact and their state of
polish.

2.

The magnitude of static friction is

independent of the apparent area of contact
so long as the normal reaction remains the
same.

3.

The limiting friction is directly proportional to

the magnitude of the normal reaction
between the two surfaces i.e. flim= SN. Here
s is coefficient of static friction.

(ii) Statics and Kinetic Frictions :

Experiment :
(A) Consider a block placed on a table, and a small
force F1 is acted on it. The block does not move. It
indicates that the frictional force fs starts acting in
opposite direction of applied force and its magnitude
is equal of F1(figure b). That is for the equilibrium of
the block, we have
F1 fs = 0 or F1 = fs
The force of friction when body is in state of rest over

We can write, s =

the surface is called static friction (fs).

(B) As the applied force increases the frictional force
also increases. When the applied force is increased

(B) About kinetic friction :

1.

The kinetic friction depends on the materials

of the surface in contact.

2.

It is also independent of apparent area of

contact as long as the magnitude of normal
reaction remains the same.

3.

Kinetic friction is almost independent of the

velocity, provided the velocity is not too large
not too small.

up to a certain limit (F2) such that the block is on the

verge of motion. The value of frictional force at this

flim
N

stage is called limiting friction flim (figure c).

33

PAGE # 33

4.

The kinetic friction is directly proportional to

the magnitude of the normal reaction
between the surfaces.
fk = k N. Here k is coefficient of kinetic friction.

We can write, k =

fk
N

There are two types of kinetic frictions:

(i)

Sliding friction : The force of friction when one

body slides over the surface of the another body is
called sliding friction.

(ii) Rolling friction : When a wheel rolls without

slipping over a horizontal surface, there is no
relative motion of the point of contact of the wheel
with respect to the plane. Theoretically for a rolling
wheel the frictional force is zero. This can only
possible when bodies in contact are perfectly rigid
and contact of wheel with the surface is made
only at a point. But in practice no material body is
perfectly rigid and therefore bodies get deformed
when they pressed each other. The actual area of
their contact no longer remains a point, and thus
a small amount of friction starts acting between
the body and the surface. Here frictional force is
called rolling friction. It is clear from above
discussion that rolling friction is very much smaller
than sliding friction.

A force is conservative if the total work done by the

force on an object in one complete round is zero,
i.e. when the object moves around any closed path
(returning to its initial position).
A force is conservative if there is no change in kinetic
energy in one complete round. KE = 0
This definition illuminates an important aspect of a
conservative force viz. Work done by a conservative
force is recoverable. Thus in figure, we shall have to
do mgh amount of work in taking the body from A to B.
However, when body is released from B, we recover
mgh of work.
Other examples of conservative forces are spring force,
electrostatic force etc.
(b) Non-Conservative Force :
A force is non-conservative if the work done by that force
on a particle moving between two points depends on
the path taken between the points.
The force of friction is an example of non-conservative
force. Let us illustrate this with an instructive example.
Suppose we were to displace a book between two points
on a rough horizontal surface (such as a table). If the
book is displaced in a straight line between the two
points, the work done by friction is simply FS where :
F = force of friction ;
S = distance between the points.
However, if the book is moved along any other path
between the two points (such as a semicircular path),

flim > fkinetic > frolling.

Note : s and k are dimensionless quantities and

independent of shape and area of contact . It is a
property of two contact surfaces. s will always be

the work done by friction would be greater than FS.

Finally, if the book is moved through any closed path,
the work done by friction is never zero, it is always
negative. Thus the work done by a non-conservative
force is not recoverable, as it is for a conservative force.

greater than k .Theoretical value of can be o to but

practical value is 0 < 1.6

SYSTEM
Two or more than two objects which interact with each

(a) Conservative Force :

A force is said to be conservative if the amount of work
done in moving an object against that force is
independent on the path. One important example of
conservative force is the gravitational force. It means
that amount of work done in moving a body against
gravity from location A to location B is the same
whichever path we may follow in going from A to B. This
is illustrated in figure.

other form a system.

Classification of forces on the basis of boundary of
system :
(a) Internal Forces : Forces acting with in a system
among its constituents.
(b) External Forces : Forces exerted on the
constituents of a system by the outside
surroundings are called as external forces.

44

PAGE # 44

FREE BODY DIAGRAM

A free body diagram consists of a diagrammatic

representations of single body or a subsystem of
bodies isolated from surroundings showing all the
forces acting on it.

Sol.F.B.D. of sphere A :

Steps for F.B.D.

Step 1 : Identify the object or system and isolate it from
other objects, clearly specify its boundary.
Step 2 : First draw non-contact external force in the
diagram, generally it is weight.
Step 3 : Draw contact forces which acts at the boundary

F.B.D. of sphere B :
(exerted by A)

of the object of system. Contact forces are normal ,

friction, tension and applied force. In F.B.D, internal
forces are not drawn only external are drawn.
2.

A block of mass m is kept on the ground as shown in

figure.

Note : Here NAB and NBA are the action - reaction pair
(Newtons third law).
(i)

4.

Draw F.B.D. of block.

Draw F.B.D. for systems shown in figure below.

(ii) Are forces acting on block forms action- reaction

pair.
(iii) If answer is no, draw action reaction pair.
Sol.(i)

F.B.D. of block

Sol.

(ii) N and mg are not action -reaction pair. Since pair

act on different bodies, and they are of same
nature.
(iii) Pair of mg of block acts on earth in opposite
direction.

earth

mg

and pair of N acts on surface as shown in figure.

N

TRANSLATORY EQUILIBRIUM
When several forces acts on a body simultaneously in
such a way that resultant force on the body is zero, i.e.,

F = 0 with F =
3.

Two sphere A and B are placed between two vertical

walls as shown in figure. Draw the free body diagrams
of both the spheres.

Fi the body is said to be in translatory

equilibrium. Here it is worthy to note that :

(i)

As if a vector is zero all its components must vanish

i.e. in equilibrium as -

55

PAGE # 55

F = 0 with F =

=0;

Note : The absolute unit of force remains the same

everywhere, but the gravitational unit of force varies

from place to place because it depends on the value of g.

F = 0

=0;

( b ) Applications of Newtons 2 nd Law

=0

(i)

So in equilibrium forces along x axes must balance

each other and the same is true for other directions.
If a body is in translatory equilibrium it will be either at
rest or in uniform motion. If it is at rest, equilibrium is
called static, otherwise dynamic.

When objects are in equilibrium :

Steps to solve problem involving objects in
equilibrium :

Step 1 : Make a sketch of the problem.

Step 2 : Isolate a single object and then draw the freebody diagram for the object. Label all external forces

Static equilibrium can be divided into following three

types :

acting on it.
Step 3 : Choose a convenient coordinate system and

(a) Stable equilibrium :

resolve all forces into rectangular components along x

and Y direction.

If on slight displacement from equilibrium position a

body has a tendency to regain its original position it is
said to be in stable equilibrium. In case of stable
equilibrium potential energy is minimum and so center
of gravity is lowest.

Step 4 : Apply the equations

0 and

0.

Step 5 : Step 4 will give you two equations with several

unknown quantities. If you have only two unknown
quantities at this point, you can solve the two equations
for those unknown quantities.
Step 6 : If step 5 produces two equations with more
than two unknowns, go back to step 2 and select

O
(b) Unstable equilibrium : If on slight displacement
from equilibrium position a body moves in the direction
of displacement, the equilibrium is said to be unstable.
In this situation potential energy of body is maximum
and so center of gravity is highest.

another object and repeat these steps. Eventually at

step 5 you will have enough equations to solve for all
unknown quantities.

5.

(c) Neutral equilibrium : If on slight displacement from

equilibrium position a body has no tendency to come
back to its original position or to move in the direction
of displacement, it is said to be in neutral equilibrium.
In this situation potential energy of body is constant
and so center of gravity remains at constant height.

A block of mass 10 kg is
suspended with string as
shown in figure.
Find tension in the string.
(g = 10 m/s2).

Sol.F.B.D. of block
For equilibrium of block along Y axis

T 10 g = 0
T = 100 N
6.

The system shown in figure is in equilibrium. Find the

magnitude of tension in each string ; T1 , T2, T3 and T4.
(g = 10 m/s2).

.
(a) Newtons 2 nd law of motion :
The rate of change of linear momentum of a body is
directly proportional to the applied force and the change
takes place in the direction of the applied force.

In relation F = ma the force F stands for the net

external force. Any internal force in the system is not to

Sol.F.B.D. of 10 kg block
For equilibrium of block along Y axis.

be included in F .
In S.I. the absolute unit of force is newton (N) and
gravitational unit of force is kilogram weight or kilogram
force (kgf.)

T0

T0 = 10 g
T0 = 100 N

10g

66

PAGE # 66

N2 = 50 sin 30 + N3
N3 = 100 25 = 75 N
& N4 = 50 cos 30 + 20 g
N4 = 243.30 N

F.B.D. of point A
y

T2

0
30

T2 cos 30 = T0 = 100 N

T1

8.

200
T2 =

N
T0

T1 = T2 . sin 30

200
=

Find magnitude of force exerted by string on pulley.

Sol B.

F.B.D. of 10 kg block :

1 100
=
N.
3
2

F.B.D. of point of B
y
60
T3

T = 10 g = 100 N
F.B.D. of pulley :

T4
x

30
T2

= 0 T4 cos 60 = T2 cos 30

T4 = 200 N

Since string is massless, so tension in both sides

of string is same.
So magnitude of force exerted by string on pulley

and

= 0 T3 + T2 sin30 = T4 sin 60

200
T3 =
7.

Two blocks are kept in contact as shown in figure. Find :-

100 2 100 2

= 100 2 N

Note : Since pulley is in equilibrium position, so net

(a) forces exerted by surfaces (floor and wall) on

blocks.

forces on it is zero.

(b) contact force between two blocks.

Steps to solve problems involving objects that are in

accelerated motion :

(ii) Accelerating Objects :

Step 1 : Make a sketch of the problem.

Step 2 : Isolate a single object and then draw the free
- body diagram for that object. Label all external forces
SolA : F.B.D. of 10 kg block

acting on it. Be sure to include all the forces acting on

the chosen body, but be equally careful not to include
any force exerted by the body on some other body.
Some of the forces may be unknown , label them with
algebraic symbols.
Step 3 : Choose a convenient coordinate system, show

N1 = 10 g = 100 N .......(1)
N2 = 100 N .........(2)
F.B.D. of 20 kg block

location of coordinate axis explicitly in the free - body

diagram, and then determine components of forces
with reference to these axis and resolve all forces into
x and y components.
Step 4 : Apply the equations

= max &

= may.

Step 5 : Step 4 will give two equations with several

unknown quantities. If you have only two unknown
quantities at this point, you can solve the two equations
for those unknown quantities.

77

PAGE # 77

Step 6 : If step 5 produces two equations with more

than two unknowns, go back to step 2 and select
another object and repeat these steps. Eventually at

Sol.For calculating the value of F0.

F.B.D of whole system
F0

step 5 you will have enough equations to solve for all

unknown quantities.
2
(a) 2m/s

9.

A force F is applied horizontally on mass m1 as shown

in figure. Find the contact force between m1 and m2.

10 g = 100 N

F0 100 = 10 2
F0 = 120 N
Sol.Considering both blocks as a system to find the
common acceleration.
Common acceleration

F
a=
m1 m2 .......(1)

m1

m2

........(1)

(b) According to Newtons second law, net force on

rope.
F = ma = 2 2
= 4N
............(2)
(c) For calculating tension at the middle point we draw
F.B.D. of 3 kg block with half of the rope (mass 1
kg) as shown.

T4g=4.2
To find the contact force between A and B we draw
F.B.D. of mass m2.
F.B.D. of mass m2

T = 48 N
11. A block of mass 50 kg is kept on another block of mass
1 kg as shown in figure. A horizontal force of 10 N is
applied on the 1Kg block. (All surface are smooth).
Find : (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) Acceleration of blocks A and B.
(b) Force exerted by B on A.

= max

B
A

N = m2 . a
N=

m2F
m1 m2

F
sin ce a

m1 m 2

Sol.(a)

50 kg
1 kg

F.B.D. of 50 kg

10. A 5 kg block has a rope of mass 2 kg attached to its

underside and a 3 kg block is suspended from the other
end of the rope. The whole system is accelerated
upward at 2 m/s2 by an external force F0.
(a) What is F0 ?
(b) What is the net force on rope ?

N2 = 50 g = 500 N
along horizontal direction, there is no force aB = 0
(b) F.B.D. of 1 kg block :
N1 N2

(c) What is the tension at middle point of the rope ?

10 N

(g = 10 m/s2)
1g

along horizontal direction

10 = 1 aA.
aA = 10 m/s2
along vertical direction

N1 = N2 + 1g
= 500 + 10 = 510 N

88

PAGE # 88

12. One end of string which passes through pulley and

N = Mg

connected to 10 kg mass at other end is pulled by 100

= 60 10

N force. Find out the acceleration of 10 kg mass. (g

N = 600 N.

=9.8 m/s )

SPRING BALANCE

Sol.Since string is pulled by 100 N force. So tension in the

It does not measure the weight. It measures the force

exerted by the object at the hook. Symbolically, it is
represented as shown in figure.
A block of mass m is suspended at hook. When spring
balance is in equilibrium, we draw the F.B.D. of mass
m for calculating the reading of balance.

string is 100 N
F.B.D. of 10 kg block
spring balance
hook
m

F.B.D. of m.
100 10 g = 10 a
100 10 9.8 = 10 a

mg T = 0
T = mg
Magnitude of T gives the reading of spring balance.

a = 0.2 m/s2.

WEIGHING MACHINE
A weighing machine does not measure the weight but

14. A block of mass 20 kg is suspended through two light

spring balances as shown in figure . Calculate the :

measures the force exerted by object on its upper

surface.
13. A man of mass 60 Kg is
standing on a weighing
machine placed on ground.
Calculate the reading of

weighing machine

machine (g = 10 m/s2).

Sol.For calculating the reading of weighing machine, we

draw F.B.D. of man and machine separately.
F.B.D of man

(1) reading of spring balance (1).

(2) reading of spring balance (2).
Sol.For calculating the reading, first we draw F.B.D.of 20 kg
block.

F.B.D of man taking

mass of man as M

F.B.D. of weighing machine

N
weighing machine

F.B.D. 20 kg

T
N = Mg

N1

Mg

Mg

20 g

Here force exerted by object on upper surface is N

Reading of weighing machine
mg T = 0
T = 20 g = 200 N

99

PAGE # 99

Since both the balances are light so, both the scales
will read 200 N.

As the block is in equilibrium along y-axis, so we have

15. (i)

A 10 kg block is supported by a cord that runs to a

spring scale, which is supported by another cord
from the ceiling figure (a). What is the reading on
the scale ?

(ii) In figure (b) the block is supported by a cord that

runs around a pulley and to a scale. The opposite
end of the scale is attached by cord to a wall. What
is the reading of the scale.

0;

or N = mg + F sin
To just move the block along x-axis, we have
F cos = N = (mg + F sin )

or

F=

mg
.......(i)
cos sin

Pull : Along y-axis we have ;

(iii) In figure (c) the wall has been replaced with a

second 10 kg block on the left, and the assembly is
stationary. What is the reading on the scale now ?

spring balance

hook

0;

N = mg F sin

10 kg

To just move the block along x-axis, we have

(a)

F cos = N = (mg F sin )

mg
. .......(ii)
cos

sin

T
10kg

17. Discuss the direction of friction in the following cases :

T

T
10kg

It is clear from above discussion that pull force is

smaller than push force.

(b)
T

or F =

10kg

(c)
Sol. In all the three cases the spring balance reads 10 kg.
To understand this let us cut a section inside the spring
as shown;

(i)

A man walks slowly, without change in speed.

(ii) A man is going with increasing speed.

(iii) When cycle is gaining speed.
(iv) When cycle is slowing down .
Sol. (i)

Consider a man walks slowly without acceleration,

and both the legs are touching the ground as
shown in figure (a). The frictional force on rear leg
is in forward direction and on front leg will be on

As each part of the spring is at rest, so F= T. As the

block is stationary, so T= 10g = 100N.
16. Pull is easier than push

Push : Consider a block of mass m placed on

rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and surface is . Let a
push force F is applied at an angle with the
horizontal.

backward direction of motion.

As a = 0,

Fnet = 0 or

f1 f 2 = 0

f1 = f2

N1 = N2.

&

N1

f1

N2

f1

f2

f2

Ground
N1

N2

(b)

10
10

PAGE # 1010

(ii) When man is gaining the speed : The frictional

force on rear leg f1 will be greater than frictional
force on front leg f2 (fig. b).

f f
acceleration of the man, a = 1 2 .
m

Block is to be raised without acceleration, so

T = 25 g.

N1 = 25 g + 50 g
=
In II

(iii) When cycle is gaining speed : In this case torque

75 g = 75 9.8 = 735 N
nd

case, let the force exerted by the man on the floor

in N2 . Consider the forces inside the dotted box, we

is applied on the rear wheel of the cycle by the

have

chain-gear system. Because of this the slipping

N2 = 50 g T

tendency of the point of contact of the rear wheel is

and T = 25 g

backward and so friction acts in forward direction.

N2 = 50 g 25 g

The slipping tendency of point of contact of front

= 25 g = 25 9.8 = 245 N.

wheel is forward and so friction acts in backward

As the floor yields to a downward force of 700 N, so the

direction. If f1 and f2 are the frictional forces on rear

man should adopt mode .

and front wheel, then acceleration of the cycle a =

f1 f2
, where M is the mass of the cycle together
M
with rider (fig. a).

N1

N2

f1

f2
(a)

N1

N2

f1

19. Figure shows a weighing machine kept in a lift is

moving upwards with acceleration of 5 m/s2. A block is
kept on the weighing machine. Upper surface of block
is attached with a spring balance. Reading shown by
weighing machine and spring balance is 15 kg and 45
kg respectively.

f2
(b)

(iv) When cycle is slowing down : When torque is not

applied (cycle stops pedaling), the slipping
tendency of points of contact of both the wheels
are forward, and so friction acts in backward
direction (fig. b). If f1 and f2 are the frictional forces
on rear and front wheel, then retardation

f1 f2
a=
M
18. A block of mass 25 kg is raised by a 50 kg man in two
different ways as shown in fig.. What is the action on
the floor by the man in the two cases ? If the floor yields
to a normal force of 700 N, which mode should the
man adopt to lift the block without the floor yielding.

Answer the following questions. Assume that the

weighing machine can measure weight by having
negligible deformation due to block, while the spring
balance requires larger expansion. (take g = 10 m/s2)
(i) Find the mass of the object in kg and the normal
force acting on the block due to weighing machine?
(ii) Find the acceleration of the lift such that weighing
machine shows its true weight ?

Sol. (i)

50g
50g

Sol. The FBD for the two cases are shown in figure.
In Ist case, let the force exerted by the man on the floor is
N1. Consider the forces inside the dotted box, we have
N1 = T + 50 g.

T + N Mg = Ma
45 g + 15 g = M(g + a)
450 + 150 = M(10 + 5)
M = 40 kg
Normal force is the reaction applied by weighing
machine i.e. 15 10 = 150 N.

11
11

PAGE # 1111

4.

A dish of mass 10 g is kept horizontally in air by firing

bullets of mass 5 g each at the rate of 100 per second.
If the bullets rebound with the same speed, what is the
velocity with which the bullets are fired :

(ii)

T + N Mg = Ma
45 g + 40 g = 40(g + a)
450 + 400 = 400 +40 a
a=

5.

(A) 0.49 m/s

(B) 0.098 m/s

(C) 1.47 m/s

(D) 1.96 m/s

A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a

frictionless plank. If struck by a jet releasing water at a

450 45
=
m/s2
40
4

rate of 1 kg/s and at a speed of 5 m/s. The initial

acceleration of the block will be :
(A) 2.5 m/s2

(B) 5.0 m/s2

(C) 10 m /s2

(D) none of the above

EXERCISE
6.
Normal Force :
1.

A constant force F is applied in horizontal direction as

shown. Contact force between M and m is N and
between m and M is N then

Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table. One

has mass m and the other 2m.A force F is applied on
2m as shown in the figure. Now the same force F is
applied from the right on m. In the two cases
respectively, the ratio of force of contact between the
two blocks will be :

(A) N= N
(C) N> N

(B) N > N

(D) cannot be determined

(A) Same
(C) 2 : 1
2.

(B) 1 : 2
(D) 1 : 3

Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on the two blocks of

2kg and 1kg kept on frictionless floor. What is the force
exerted on 2kg block by 1kg block ?:

ASSERTION / REASON

7.

STATEMENT-1 : Block A is moving on horizontal surface

towards right under action of force. All surface are
smooth. At the instant shown the force exerted by block
A on block B is equal to net force on block B.

6N
2kg 1kg
(A)1N
(C) 4N

3N

STATEMENT-2 : From Newtonss third law, the force

(B) 2N
(D) 5N

exerted by block A on B is equal in magnitude to force

exerted block B on A

3.

There are two forces on the 2.0 kg box in the overhead

view of figure but only one is shown. The second force
is nearly :

(A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-2

is correct explanation for statement-1.

(B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-2

is NOT a correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True

F1 = 20 N
x

8.
30
a = 12 m/s

A certain force applied to a body A gives it an acceleration

of 10 ms2 . The same force applied to body B gives it
an acceleration of 15 ms2 . If the two bodies are joined

(A) 20 j N

(B) 20 i + 20 j N

(C) 32 i 12 3 j N

(D) 21 i 16 j N

together and same force is applied to the combination,

the acceleration will be :
(A) 6 ms

(C) 12.5 ms2

(IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
(B) 25 ms2
(D) 9 ms2

12
12

PAGE # 1212

 9. Four blocks are kept in a row on a smooth horizontal

table with their centres of mass collinear as shown in
the figure. An external force of 60 N is applied from left
on the 7 kg block to push all of them along the table.
The forces exerted by them are :(IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2008)
60N

7 kg

5 kg

2 kg

1 kg

(A) 32 N by P on Q
(C) 12 N by Q on R

13. Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends of a

light string which passes over a massless pulley
attached to the top of a double inclined smooth plane
of angles of inclination and . If M2 > M1 then the
acceleration of block M2 down the inclined will be :

(B) 28 N by Q on P
(D) 4 N by S on R

Tension :

(A)

10. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid support

at A as shown in figure. Another rope is tied at the end
B, and it is pulled horizontally with a force F. If the rope
AB makes an angle with the vertical in
equilibrium,then the tension in the string AB is :

M2 (sin )
g
M1 M2

(B)

M2 sin M1 sin
g
M1 M2

(D) Zero

(C)

M1g(sin )
M1 M2

14. Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are connected to

each other by threads and are placed on table as
shown in figure. What is the acceleration with which
the system is moving ? Take g = 10 m s2:

(A) F sin
(C) F cos

(B) F /sin
(D) F / cos

11. In the system shown in the figure, the acceleration of

the 1kg mass and the tension in the string connecting
between A and B is :

(A) Zero

(B) 1 ms2

(C) 2 m s2

(D) 3 m s2

15. The pulley arrangements shown in figure are identical

the mass of the rope being negligible. In case I, the
mass m is lifted by attaching a mass 2m to the other
end of the rope. In case II, the mass m is lifted by
pulling the other end of the rope with a constant

g
8g
(A)
downward,
4
7
(C)

g
6
downward,
g
7
7

g
g
(B)
upward,
4
7
(D)

downward force F= 2 mg, where g is acceleration due

to gravity. The acceleration of mass in case I is :

g
upward, g
2

12. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body of

mass 12 kg. The combination is being pulled by a
string with an acceleration of 2.2 m s2. The tension T1
and T2 will be respectively :(Use g =9.8 m/s2)

(A) Zero
(B) More than that in case II
(A) 200 N, 80 N
(C) 240 N, 96 N

(B) 220 N, 90 N
(D) 260 N, 96 N

(C) Less than that in case II

(D) Equal to that in case II

13
13

PAGE # 1313

16. A 50 kg person stands on a 25 kg platform. He pulls

massless rope which is attached to the platform via
the frictionless, massless pulleys as shown in the
figure. The platform moves upwards at a steady velocity
if the force with which the person pulls the rope is :

20. Two blocks of mass m each is connected with the

string which passes over fixed pulley, as shown in figure.
The force exerted by the string on the pulley P is :

(A) mg

(B) 2 mg

(C) 2 mg

(D) 4 mg

21. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a

(A) 500 N
(C) 25 N

(B) 250 N
(D) 50 N

17. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled along a
smooth horizontal surface. The mssses of the blocks
and tension in one cord are given. The pulling force F is :

massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook C

while the other end is free. Maximum tension that rope
can bear is 360 N, with what minimum safe
acceleration (in m/s2) can a monkey of 60 kg move
down on the rope :

F
30N
60

4kg

3kg

(A) 50 N
(C) 125 N

2kg

1kg

(B) 100 N
(D) 200 N
C

18. A10 kg monkey climbs up a massless rope that runs

over a frictionless tree limb and back down to a 15 kg
package on the ground. The magnitude of the least
acceleration the monkey must have if it is to lift the
package off the ground is :

(A) 16

(B) 6

(C) 4

(D) 8

22. Which figure represents the correct F.B.D. of rod of

mass m as shown in figure :

(A) 4.9 m/s2

(C) 9.8 m/s2

(B) 5.5 m/s2

(D) none of these

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

19. Two blocks, each of mass M, are connected by a

massless string, which passes over a smooth

massless pulley. Forces F act on the blocks as shown.

The tension in the string is :

23. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible weight

tightly at its ends so that it is horizontal. A 15 kg weight
is attached to the rope at the mid point which now no
longer remains horizontal. The minimum tension
required to completely straighten the rope is :
(A) 15 kg
(A) Mg

(B) 2 Mg

(C) Mg + F

(D) none of these

(B)

15
kg
2

(C) 5 kg
(D) Infinitely large (or not possible)

14
14

PAGE # 1414

24. In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass each have

29. Two bodies of masses M1 and M2 are connected to

acceleration a1 , a2 and a3 respectively . F1 and F2 are

each other through a light spring as shown in figure. If

external forces of magnitudes 2 mg and mg

we push mass M1 with force F and cause acceleration

respectively then which of the following relations is

a1 in mass M1 what will be the acceleration in M2 ?

correct :

(A) F/M2

(B) F/(M1 + M2)

(C) a1

(D) (FM1a1)/M2

30. A spring balance is attached to 2 kg trolley and is used

to pull the trolly along a flat surface as shown in the fig.
(A) a1 = a2 = a3

(B) a1 > a2 > a3

The reading on the spring balance remains at 10 kg

(C) a1 = a2 , a2 > a3

(D) a1 > a2 , a2= a3

during the motion. The acceleration of the trolly is (Use

25. A weight is supported by two strings 1.3 and 2.0 m

g= 9.8 m2) :

long fastened to two points on a horizontal beam 2.0

m apart. The depth of this weight below the beam is :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2007)
(A) 1.0 m

(B) 1.23 m

(C) 0.77 m

(D) 0.89 m

26. A fully loaded elevator has a mass of 6000 kg. The

tension in the cable as the elevator is accelerated
downward with an acceleration of 2ms2 is (Take g = I0
ms 2 )
(KVPY/2007)
(A) 72 104 N
(C) 6 104 N

(B) 4.8 104 N

(D) 1.2 104 N

(A) 4.9 ms2

(B) 9.8 ms2

(C) 49 ms2

(D) 98 ms2

31. A body of mass 32 kg is suspended by a spring balance

from the roof of a vertically operating lift and going
downward from rest. At the instants the lift has covered
20 m and 50 m, the spring balance showed 30 kg & 36
kg respectively. The velocity of the lift is :
(A) Decreasing at 20 m & increasing at 50 m

27. A light string goes over a frictionless pulley. At its one

end hangs a mass of 2 kg and at the other end hangs
a mass of 6 kg. Both the masses are supported by
hands to keep them at rest. When the masses are
released, they being to move and the string gets taut.
(Take g = 10 ms2) The tension in the string during the
motion of the masses is :
(KVPY/2008)
(A) 60 N
(B) 30 N
(C) 20 N
(D) 40 N
Force Exerted by Spring :
28. In the given figure. What is the reading of the spring
balance:

(A) 10 N

(B) 20 N

(C) 5 N

(D) Zero

(B) Increasing at 20 m & decreasing at 50 m

(C) Continuously decreasing at a constant rate
throughout the journey
(D) Continuously increasing at constant rate throughout
the journey
Friction Force :
32. A ship of mass 3 107 kg initially at rest is pulled by a
force of 5 104 N through a distance of 3m. Assume
that the resistance due to water is negligible, the speed
of the ship is :
(A) 1.5 m/s
(B) 60 m/s
(C) 0.1 m/s
(D) 5 m/s
33. When a horse pulls a cart, the force needed to move
the horse in forward direction is the force exerted by :
(A) The cart on the horse
(B) The ground on the horse
(C) The ground on the cart
(D) The horse on the ground

15
15

PAGE # 1515

34. A 2.5 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal surface.

A 6.0 N horizontal force and a vertical force P are applied

to the block as shown in figure. The coefficient of static
friction for the block and surface is 0.4. The magnitude
of friction force when P = 9N : (g = 10 m/s2)

40. A bock of mass 5 kg is held against wall by applying a

horizontal force of 100N. If the coefficient of friction
between the block and the wall is 0.5, the frictional
force acting on the block is : (g =9.8 m/s2)

100N

(A) 6.0 N
(C) 9.0 N

(B) 6.4 N
(D) zero

35. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination is

perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A body
starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the
bottom, if the coefficient of friction for the lower half is :
(A) 2 tan
(B) tan
(C) 2 sin
(D) 2 cos
36. Minimum force required to pull the lower block is (take
g = 10 m/s2) :

(A) 1 N
(C) 7 N

(B) 5 N
(D) 10 N

37. N bullets each of mass m are fired with a velocity v m/

s at the rate of n bullets per sec., upon a wall. If the
bullets are completely stopped by the wall, the reaction
offered by the wall to the bullets is :
(A) N m v / n
(B) n m v
(C) n N v / m
(D) n v m / N
38. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough horizontal
road with momentum P. If the coefficient of friction
between the tyres and the road be , then the stopping
distance is :
(A)

P
2 mg

(B)

P2
(D)
2 m2g

P
(C)

P2
2 mg

2 m2g

39. What is the maximum value of the force F such that the
block shown in the arrangement, does not move :
F
60

(A) 20 N
(C) 12N

5kg

(A)100 N
(C) 49 N

(B) 50 N
(D) 24.9 N

41. A heavy roller is being pulled along a rough road as

shown in the figure. The frictional force at the point of
contact is :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2007)

(A) parallel to F
(C) perpendicular to F

(B) opposite to F
(D) zero

42. When a motor car of mass 1500 kg is pushed on a

road by two persons, it moves with a small uniform
velocity. On the other hand if this car is pushed on the
same road by three persons, it moves with an
acceleration of 0.2 m/s2. Assume that each person is
producing the same muscular force. Then, the force of
friction between the tyres of the car and the surface of
the road is :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2009)
(A) 300 N
(C) 900 N

(B) 600 N
(D) 100 N

43. A block of mass M is at rest on a plane surface inclined

at an angle to the horizontal The magnitude of force
exerted by the plane on the block is :
(KVPY/2009)
(A) Mg cos
(B) Mg sin
(C) Mg tan
(D) Mg
44. A block of mass M rests on a rough horizontal table. A
steadily increasing horizontal force is applied such that
the block starts to slide on the table without toppling.
The force is continued even after sliding has started.
Assume the coefficients of static and kinetic friction
between the table and the block to be equal. The correct representation of the variation of the frictional
forces, , exerted by the table on the block with time t is
given by :
(KVPY/2010)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

1
2 3
m = 3kg

(B) 10 N
(D) 15 N

16
16

PAGE # 1616

45. A small child tries to move a large rubber toy placed on

the ground. The toy does not move but gets deformed

under her pushing force (F) which is obliquely upward

as shown . Then

(KVPY/2011)

(A) The resultant of the pushing force (F) , weight of

the toy, normal force by the ground on the toy and the
frictional force is zero.
(B) The normal force by the ground is equal and opposite to the weight of the toy.

(C) The pushing force (F) of the child is balanced by

the equal and opposite frictional force

(D) The pushing force (F) of the child is balanced by

the total internal force in the toy generated due to
deformation
46. On a horizontal frictional frozen lake, a girl (36 kg) and
a box (9kg) are connected to each other by means of a
rope. Initially they are 20 m apart. The girl exerts a
horizontal force on the box, pulling it towards her. How
far has the girl travelled when she meets the box ?
(KVPY/2011)

Weighing Machine :
49. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and
when it is moving downward with uniform acceleration
a 3:2. The value of a is : (g = acceleration, due to
gravity)
(A) (3/2)g
(B) g
(C) (2/3) g
(D) g/3
50. A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a
coin. The coin reaches the floor of the elevator in time
t1 when elevator is stationary and in time t2 if it is moving
uniformly. Then
(A) t1 = t2
(B) t1 > t2
(C) t1 < t2
(D) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 depending

ASSERTION / REASON

51. STATEMENT-1 : A man standing in a lift which is moving

upward, will feel his weight to be greater than when
the lift was at rest.
STATEMENT-2 : If the acceleration of the lift is a upward
then the man of mass m shall feel his weight to be
equal to normal reaction (N) exerted by the lift given N
= m(g+a) (where g is acceleration due to gravity
(A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement2 is correct explanation for statement 1.
(B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-

(A) 10 m

2 is NOT a correct explanation for statement-1.

(B) Since there is no friction, the girl will not move

(C) 16 m

(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false

(D) 4m
47. Which of the following does NOT involve friction ?

(D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True

52. A beaker containing water is placed on the platform of

(IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
(A) Writing on a paper using a pencil

a digital weighing machine. It reads 900 g. A wooden

(B) Turning a car to the left on a horizontal road.

(C) A car at rest parked on a sloping ground

the beaker (without touching walls of the beaker). Half

(D) Motion of a satellite around the earth.

the reading of weighing machine will be :

block of mass 300 g is now made to float in water in

the wooden block is submerged inside water. Now,
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2009)

48. In the two cases shown below, the coefficient of kinetic

friction between the block and the surface is the same,
and both the blocks are moving with the same uniform
speed. Then,
(IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2008)

(A) 750 g

(B) 900 g

(C) 1050 g

(D) 1200 g

Miscellaneous :
F1

(A) F1 = F2
(B) F1 < F2
(C) F1 > F2
(D) F1 = 2F2 if sin = Mg/4F2

F2

53. An object will continue accelerating until :

(A) Resultant force on it begins to decreases
(B) Its velocity changes direction
(C) The resultant force on it is zero
(D) The resultant force is at right angles to its direction
of motion

17
17

PAGE # 1717

54. In which of the following cases the net force is not zero ?
(A) A kite skillfully held stationary in the sky
(B) A ball freely falling from a height
(C) An aeroplane rising upward at an angle of 45 with
the horizontal with a constant speed
(D) A cork floating on the surface of water.

55. Figure shows the displacement of a particle going

along the X-axis as a function of time. The force acting
on the particle is zero in the region.

(A) AB
(C) CD

(B) BC
(D) DE

58. A force of magnitude F1 acts on a particle so as to

accelerate if from rest to velocity v. The force F1 is then
replaced by another force of magnitude F2 which
decelerates it to rest.
(A) F1 must be the equal to F2
(B) F1 may be equal to F2
(C) F1 must be unequal to F2
(D) None of these
59. In a imaginary atmosphere, the air exerts a small force
F on any particle in the direction of the particles motion.
A particle of mass m projected upward takes a time t1
in reaching the maximum height and t2 in the return
journey to the original point. Then
(A) t1 < t2
(B) t1 > t2
(C) t1 = t2
(D) The relation between t1 and t2 depends on the mass
of the particle

56. A 2 kg toy car can move along x axis. Graph shows force
Fx, acting on the car which begins to rest at time t = 0. The
velocity of the car at t = 10 s is :

60. A single force F of constant magnitude begins to act on

a stone that is moving along x axis. The stone continues
to move along that axis. W hich of the following
represents the stones position ?
(A) x = 5t 3
(B) x = 5t2 + 8t 3
2
(C) x = 5t + 5t 3
(D) x = 5t3 + 4t2 3
61. Three forces act on a particle that moves with

unchanging velocity v = (3 i 4 j ) m/s. Two of the

forces are F1 = (3 i + 2 j 4 k ) N and F2 = (5 i + 8 j

+ 3 k ) N. The third force is :
(A) (2 i + 10 j 7 k ) N
(B) (2 i 10 j + k ) N
(C) (7 i 2 k + 10 j ) N
(D) none of these

(A) i m/s

(B) 1.5 i m/s

(C) 6.5 i m/s

(D) 13 i m/s

57. Figure shows the displacement of a particle going

62. An 80 kg person is parachuting and experiencing a

downward acceleration of 2.5 m/s2 . The mass of the
parachute is 5.0 kg. The upward force on the open
parachute from the air is :
(A) 620 N
(C) 800 N

(B) 740 N
(D) 920 N

along the x-axis as a function of time :

63. A block of mass m is pulled on the smooth horizontal
surface with the help of two ropes, each of mass m,
connected to the opposite faces of the block. The
forces on the ropes are F and 2F. The pulling force on
the block is :
(A) The force acting on the particle is zero in the region AB
(B) The force acting on the particle is zero in the region BC
(C) The force acting on the particle is zero in the region CD
(D) The force is zero no where

(A) F
(C) F/3

(B) 2F
(D) 3F/2

18
18

PAGE # 1818

64. A body of mass 5 kg starts from the origin with an initial

velocity u = 30 i + 40 j ms1 . If a constant force

F = ( i + 5 j ) N acts on the body, the time in which the

68. A body of 0.5 kg moves along the positive x - axis under

the influence of a varying force F (in Newtons) as shown
below :
(KVPY/2011)

y-component of the velocity becomes zero is :

(B) 20 s

(C) 40 s

(D) 80 s

65. STATEMENT-1 :According to the newtons third law of

motion, the magnitude of the action and reaction force
is an action reaction pair is same only in an inertial
frame of reference.
STATEMENT-2 : Newtons laws of motion are
applicable in every inertial reference frame.
(A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement2 is correct explanation for statement 1.
(B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement2 is NOT a correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True

F(N)

(A) 5 s

0,0

10

x(m)

If the speed of the object at x = 4m is 3.16 ms1 then its

66. A body of mass 10 g moves with constant speed 2 m/
s along a regular hexagon. The magnitude of change
in momentum when the body crosses a corner is :
(IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2007)
(A) 0.04 kg-m/s

(B) zero

(C) 0.02 kg-m / s

(D) 0.4 kg-m/s

67. An object with uniform density is attached to a spring

that is known to stretch linearly with applied force as
shown below

speed at x = 8 m is :
(A) 3.16 ms1

(B) 9.3 ms1

(C) 8 ms

(D) 6.8 ms1

69. A soldier with a machine gun, falling from an airplane

gets detached from his parachute. He is able to resist
the downward acceleration if he shoots 40 bullets a
second at the speed of 500 m/s. If the weight of a bullet
is 49 gm, what is the weight of the man with the gun ?
Ignore resistance due to air and assume the
acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s2 . (KVPY/2010)
(A) 50 kg
(B) 75 kg
(C) 100 kg
(D) 125 kg

When the spring object system is immersed in a

liquid of density 1 as shown in the figure, the spring
stretches by an amount x1 ( > 1). When the experiment
is repeated in a liquid of density 2 < 1 . the spring is
stretched by an amount x2. Neglecting any buoyant force
on the spring, the density of the object is:
(KVPY/2011)
1x1 2 x 2
(A) x x
1
2

1x 2 2 x1
(B) x x
2
1

1x 2 2 x1
(C) x x
1
2

1x1 2 x 2
(D) x x
1
2

19
19

PAGE # 1919

CARBON
INTRODUCTION

VERSATILE NATURE OF CARBON

The compounds like urea, sugars, fats, oils, dyes,

proteins, vitamins etc., which are isolated directly or
indirectly from living organisms such as animals and
plants are called organic compounds.The branch of
chemistry which deals with the study of these
compounds is called ORGANIC CHEMISTRY.

VITAL FORCE THEORY OR

BERZELIUS HYPOTHESIS
Organic compounds cannot be synthesized in the
laboratory because they require the presence of a
mysterious force (called vital force) which exists only
in living organisms.

WOHLERS SYNTHESIS

About 3 million organic compounds are known today.

The main reasons for this huge number of organic
compounds are (i) Catenation : The property of self linking of carbon
atoms through covalent bonds to form long straight
or branched chains and rings of different sizes is
called catenation.Carbon shows maximum
catenation in the periodic table due to its small size,
electronic configuration and unique strength of carboncarbon bonds.
(ii) Electronegativity and strength of bonds : The
electronegativity of carbon (2.5) is close to a number
of other elements like H (2.1) , N(3.0) , P (2.1), Cl (3.0)
and O (3.5). So carbon forms strong covalent bonds
with these elements.

In 1828, Friedrich Wohler synthesized urea (a well

known organic compound) in the laboratory by heating
ammonium cyanate.

(iii) Tendency to form multiple bonds : Due to small

size of carbon it has a strong tendency to form multiple
bonds (double & triple bonds).

(NH 4)2 SO4 +

Ammonium
sulphate

(iv) Isomerism : It is a phenomenon by the virtue of

which two compounds have same molecular formula
but different physical and chemical properties.

2 KCNO
Potassium
cyanate

2NH 4CNO + K2SO 4

Ammonium Potassium
sulphate
cyanate

CLASSIFICATION OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

Note :
Urea is the first organic compound synthesized in
the laboratory.

The organic compounds are very large in number on

account of the self -linking property of carbon called
catenation. These compounds have been further
classified as open chain and cyclic compounds.
Organic compounds

MODERN DEFINITION OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Organic compounds may be defined as hydrocarbons
and their derivatives and the branch of chemistry
which deals with the study of hydrocarbons and their
derivatives is called ORGANIC CHEMISTRY.

Open chain
compounds

Closed chain
compounds

(i) Organic compounds are large in number.

(ii) Organic compounds generally contain covalent
bond.
(iii) Organic compounds are soluble in non polar solvents.
(iv) Organic compounds have low melting and boiling
points.

Aromatic
compounds

Alicyclic
compounds

Organic chemistry is treated as a separate branch

because of following reasons-

(a) Open Chain Compounds :

These compounds contain an open chain of carbon
atoms which may be either straight chain or branched
chain in nature. Apart from that, they may also be
saturated or unsaturated based upon the nature of
bonding in the carbon atoms. For example.

(v) Organic compounds show isomerism .

(vi) Organic compounds exhibit homology.

20
20

PAGE # 20

e.g.
Benzene

Toluene

Phenol

n-Butane is a straight chain alkane while

2-Methylpropane is branched alkane.

Ethyl benzene

Aniline

Note :
Benzene is the parent compound of majority of
aromatic organic compounds.

HYDROCARBONS
(b) Closed Chain or Cyclic Compounds :
Apart from the open chains, the organic compounds
can have cyclic or ring structures. A minimum of three
atoms are needed to form a ring. These compounds
have been further classified into following types.
(i) Alicyclic compounds : Those carbocyclic
compounds which resemble to aliphatic compounds
in their properties are called alicyclic compounds .

The organic compounds containing only carbon and

hydrogen are called hydrocarbons. These are the
simplest organic compounds and are regarded as
parent organic compounds. All other compounds are
considered to be derived from them by the
replacement of one or more hydrogen atoms by other
atoms or groups of atoms. The major source of
hydrocarbons is petroleum.
Types of Hydrocarbons :
The hydrocarbons can be classified as :

e.g.

or

or

Cyclopropane

Cyclobutane

(i) Saturated hydrocarbons :

(A) Alkanes : Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons
containing only carbon - carbon and carbon - hydrogen
single covalent bonds.
General formula- CnH2n + 2(n is the number of carbon atoms)
e.g.

or

Cyclopentane

CH4 ( Methane)
C2H6 (Ethane)

(ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons :

(A) Alkenes : These are unsaturated hydrocarbons
which contain carbon - carbon double bond. They
contain two hydrogen less than the corresponding
alkanes.
General formula e.g.

or

Cyclohexane

CnH2n
C2H 4
C3H 6

(Ethene)
(Propene)

(ii) Aromatic compounds : Organic compounds which

(B) Alkynes : They are also unsaturated hydrocarbons

which contain carbon-carbon triple bond. They contain
four hydrogen atoms less than the corresponding
alkanes.

contain one or more fused or isolated benzene rings

are called aromatic compounds.

General formula e.g.

CnH 2n2
C2H 2
(Ethyne)
C3H 4

(Propyne)

21
21

PAGE # 21

Examples :

NOMENCLATURE OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

a

Nomenclature means the assignment of names to

organic compounds . There are two main systems of
nomenclature of organic compounds (1) Trivial system
(2) IUPAC system (International Union of Pure and
Applied Chemistry)
(a) Basic rules of IUPAC nomenclature of
organic compounds :

Note :
The name of the compound, in general , is written in

For naming simple aliphatic compounds, the normal

saturated hydrocarbons have been considered as
the parent compounds and the other compounds as
their derivatives obtained by the replacement of one
or more hydrogen atoms with various functional
groups.

the following sequence(Position of substituents )-(prefixes ) (word root)-(p suffix).

(iii) Names of branched chain hydrocarbon : The
carbon atoms in branched chain hydrocarbons are

(i) Each systematic name has two or three of the

following parts-

present as side chain . These side chain carbon atoms

constitute the alkyl group or alkyl radicals. An alkyl group

(A) Word root : The basic unit of a series is word root

which indicate linear or continuous number of carbon
atoms.

is obtained from an alkane by removal of a hydrogen.

General formula of alkyl group = CnH2n+1

(B) Primary suffix : Primary suffixes are added to the

word root to show saturation or unsaturation in a
carbon chain.
(C) Secondary suffix : Suffixes added after the
primary suffix to indicate the presence of a particular
functional group in the carbon chain are known as
secondary suffixes.

M
E
P
B
E
Propene

Eth -

An alkyl group is represented by R.

e.g.
H

(A)

H
Methyl

(ii) Names of straight chain hydrocarbons : The

name of straight chain hydrocarbon may be divided
into two parts(A) Word root

(B) Primary suffix

(A) Word roots for carbon chain lengths :

Chain
length

Word
root

Chain
length

Word
root

C1
C2
C3
C4
C5

MethEth Prop But Pent-

C6
C7
C8
C9
C10

HexHeptOctNonDec-

(B)

H
H
Ethyl

(B) Primary suffix :

(C)

22
22

PAGE # 22

A branched chain hydrocarbon is named using the

e.g.

following general IUPAC rules :

Rule1: Longest chain rule : Select the longest possible

2Methylpentane

4Methylpentane

(Correct)

continuous chain of carbon atoms. If some multiple

(Wrong)

bond is present , the chain selected must contain the

e.g.

multiple bond.
(i) The number of carbon atoms in the selected chain

3Methylbut1 ene

determines the word root .

(ii) Saturation or unsaturation determines the primary
suffix (P. suffix).
(iii) Alkyl substituents are indicated by prefixes.

CH3

e.g.

Prefix : Methyl

CH3 CH CH2 CH CH3

Word root : Hept-

CH3

CH2 CH2 CH3

e.g. CH3 CH2 C CH3

CH2

e.g. CH3 CH 2 CH CH2 CH 3

CH CH3

e.g.

P. Suffix : -ane

Prefix : Methyl
Word root : ButP. Suffix : ene

Prefixes : Ethyl, Methyl

Word root : PentP. Suffix : -ane

CH3
|

(Wrong)

3-Methylbut-1-yne
(Correct)

Prefix : Methyl
Word root : pentP. Suffix: - ane

e.g. CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3

2Methylbut 3 ene

(Correct)

Rule 2 : Lowest number rule: The chain selected is

numbered in terms of arabic numerals and the
position of the alkyl groups are indicated by the number

2-Methylbut-3-yne
(Wrong)

Rule 3 : Use of prefixes di, tri etc. : If the compound

contains more than one similar alkyl groups,their
positions are indicated separately and an appropriate
numerical prefix di, tri etc. , is attached to the name
of the substituents. The positions of the substituents
are separated by commas.
CH3
5
4 3
2
1
CH3 CH2 C CH CH3

e.g.

CH3 CH3

2,3 - Dimethylpentane

2,3,3 - Trimethylpentane

e.g.

2,3,5 -Trimethylhexane

CH3

CH3
|

2,2,4 - Trimethylpentane

Rule 4 : Alphabetical arrangement of prefixes: If there

are different alkyl substituents present in the
compound their names are written in the alphabetical
order. However, the numerical prefixes such as di,
tri etc. , are not considered for the alphabetical order.

of the carbon atom to which alkyl group is attached .

(i) The numbering is done in such a way that the

e.g.

substituent carbon atom has the lowest possible

number.
3-Ethyl - 2,3-dimethylpentane
(ii) If some multiple bond is present in the chain, the
carbon atoms involved in the multiple bond should
get lowest possible numbers.

Rule 5 : Naming of different alkyl substituents at the

equivalent positions :
Numbering of the chain is done in such a way that the
alkyl group which comes first in alphabetical order
gets the lower position.

e.g.

2Methylbutane
(Correct)

3Methylbutane
(Wrong)

e.g.
3-Ethyl-4-methylhexane

23
23

PAGE # 23

Rule - 6 : Lowest sum rule

According to this rule numbering of chain is done in
such a way that the sum of positions of different
substituents gets lower value.
e.g.

FUNCTIONAL GROUP
An atom or group of atoms in an organic compound
or molecule that is responsible for the compounds
characteristic reactions and determines its properties
is known as functional group. An organic compound
generally consists of two parts (i) Hydrocarbon radical (ii) Functional group

(i)

e.g.
Hydrocarbon radical Functional group
Functional group is the most reactive part of the
molecule.
Functional group mainly determines the chemical
properties of an organic compound.
Hydrocarbon radical mainly determines the physical
properties of the organic compound.
(a) Main Functional Groups :
Word root
: Hex Primary suffix : - ane
Substituent : two methyl & one ethyl groups
IUPAC name : 4-Ethyl - 2, 4 - dimethylhexane

(i) Hydroxyl group ( OH) : All organic compounds

containing - OH group are known as alcohols .
e.g. Methanol (CH3OH) , Ethanol (CH3 CH2 OH) etc .
(ii) Aldehyde group (CHO) : All organic compounds
containing CHO group are known as aldehydes.
e.g. Methanal (HCHO), Ethanal (CH3CHO) etc.

Some other example :

(i)

Word root
: Prop P. Suffix
: -ane
Substituent : two methyl groups
IUPAC name : 2, 2 - Dimethylpropane

(iii) Ketone group (CO) : All organic compounds

containing CO group are known as ketones.
e.g.
Propanone
(CH 3 COCH 3 ),
Butanone
(CH3COCH2CH3) etc.
(iv) Carboxyl group ( COOH) : All organic compounds
containing carboxyl group are called carboxylic acids.
e.g. CH3COOH (Ethanoic acid)
CH3CH2COOH(Propanoic acid)
(v) Halogen group (X = F, Cl, Br, I) : All organic
compounds containing X (F, Cl, Br or I) group are
known as halides.
e.g. Chloromethane (CH3Cl), Bromomethane (CH3Br)
etc .

(ii)

Word root
: But P. Suffix
: - ene
Substituent : two methyl groups
IUPAC name : 2, 3 - Dimethylbut - 1 - ene
(iii)

Word root
: Hex P. Suffix
: - yne
Substituent : one methyl group
IUPAC name : 4 - Methylhex - 2 - yne

(b) Nomenclature of Compounds Containing

Functional Group :
In case functional group (other than C = C and C C)
is present, it is indicated by adding secondary suffix
after the primary suffix. The terminal e of the primary
suffix is removed if it is followed by a suffix beginning
with a, e, i, o, u. Some groups like
F, Cl, Br and are considered as substituents
and are indicated by the prefixes.

O
Some groups like CHO, C , COOH, and OH
are considered as functional groups and are
indicated by suffixes.

24
24

PAGE # 24

Class

Functional
Group

General
Formula

Prefix

Carboxylic
acid

Carboxy

Suffix

IUPAC Name

- oic acid

Alkanoic acid

(R = CnH2n+1)
Ester

Aldehyde

Carbalkoxy

CHO

Formyl
or oxo

R CHO

Ketone

oxo

Alcohol

OH

R OH

Alkenes

C=C

CnH2n

Alkynes

C C

Halides

X
(X = F,Cl,Br,I)

Hydroxy

alkyl (R) - oate

- al
- one

Alkyl alkanoate

Alkanal
Alkanone

- ol

Alkanol

- ene

Alkene

CnH2n2

- yne

Alkyne

RX

Halo

Haloalkane

Steps of naming of an organic compound

Step 4 :

containing functional group :

The carbon atoms of the parent chain are numbered

in such a way so that the carbon atom of the functional

Step 1:
group gets the lowest possible number . In case the
Select the longest continuous chain of the carbon
functional group does not have the carbon atom, then
atoms as parent chain. The selected chain must
the carbon atom of the parent chain attached to the
include the carbon atoms involved in the functional
functional group should get the lowest possible
groups like COOH, CHO, CN etc, or those which

number.

carry the functional groups like OH, NH2, Cl,

Step 5 :

NO2 etc.

The name of the compound is written as -

The number of carbon atoms in the parent chain

Prefixes - word root - primary suffix - secondary suffix

decides the word root.

Note :

Step 2 :
The presence of carbon - carbon multiple bond
decides the primary suffix.

The number of carbon atoms in the parent chain

decides the word root.

Step 3 :
The secondary suffix is decided by the functional
group.

25
25

PAGE # 25

S.No.

Compound

Common name Derived name

IUPAC Name

CH3 OH

Methyl alcohol
or Wood spirit

Carbinol

Methanol

CH3 CH2 OH

Ethyl alcohol

Methyl carbinol

Ethanol

CH3 CH2 CH2 OH

n-Propyl alcohol

Ethyl carbinol

1- Propanol

Structure

CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH

n-Butyl alcohol

HCOOH

Formic acid

Methanoic acid

Acetic acid

Ethanoic acid

CH3COOH

n-Propyl carbinol

methyl acetic
acid

CH3 CH2 COOH

Propionic acid

CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH

Butyric acid

ethyl acetic
acid

10

CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH

Valeric acid

n-Propyl acetic
acid

H C C O H

Isopropyl alcohol Dimethyl carbinol 2 - Propanol

C H3

1- Butanol

Propanoic acid

Butanoic acid

Some more examples :

(iii) CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2

Word root
: Prop Primary suffix
: - ane
Secondary suffix
: - amine
IUPAC name
: Propan - 1 - amine

(i)

Word root
: HeptPrimary suffix : ane
Functional group : OH
Secondary suffix : ol
IUPAC Name :

(iv)

2, 5-Dimethylheptan1 ol

(ii)
Word root
: Pent Primary suffix
: ene
Secondary suffix
: oic acid
Position of double : 2nd bond
IUPAC name : Pent-2-en-1-oic acid/Pent-2-enoic acid

Pentanoic acid

Word root
Primary suffix
Substituent
IUPAC name

: Prop: - ane
: nitro(prefix)
: 1 - Nitropropane

Word root
Primary suffix
Prefix
IUPAC name

: But : ane
: chloro
: 2 - Chlorobutane

(v)

26
26

PAGE # 26

ISOMERISM
(vi)
Word root
Primary suffix
Secondary suffix
Prefix
IUPAC name

: But : ane
: one
: Methyl
: 3 - Methylbutan - 2- one

Such compounds which have same molecular

formula but different physical and chemical properties
are known as isomers and the phenomenon is
known as isomerism.

HOMOLOGOUS SERIES
Homologous series may be defined as a series of
similarly constituted compounds in which the members
possess similar chemical characteristics and the two
consecutive members differ in their molecular formula
by CH2.
(a) Characteristics of Homologous Series :
(i) All the members of a series can be represented by
the same general formula.
e.g. General formula for alkane series is CnH2n+2 .
(ii) Any two consecutive members differ in their formula
by a common difference of CH 2 and differ in
molecular mass by 14.

(a) Chain Isomerism :

The isomerism in which the isomers differ from each
other due to the presence of different carbon chain
skeletons is known as chain isomerism.
e.g.
(i) C4H10
,

(iii) Different members in a series have a common

functional group.
e.g. All the members of alcohol family have OH group .
(iv) The members in any particular family have almost
identical chemical properties. Their physical
properties such as melting point, boiling point, density
etc, show a regular gradation with the increase in the
molecular mass.

2 - Methylpropane
(Isobutane)
(ii) C5H12

2 - Methylbutane
(Isopentane)

(v) The members of a particular series can be

prepared almost by the identical methods.
(b) Homologues :
The different members of a homologous series are
known as homologues.
2, 2 -Dimethylpropane
(neo - pentane)

e.g.
(i) Homologous series of alkanes
General formula : CnH2n+2
Value of n
n=1
n=2
n=3

(iii) C4H8

Molecular formula IUPAC name

CH 4
Methane
C2H 6
Ethane
C3H 8
Propane

(ii) Homologous series of alkenes

General formula :CnH2n
Value of n
n=2
n=3
n=4

Molecular
formula
C2H 4
C3H 6
C4H 8

IUPAC
name
Ethene
Propene
But-1-ene

Common
name
Ethylene
Propylene
- Butylene

(iii) Homologous series of alkynes

General formula : CnH2n2
Value of n
n=2
n=3
n=4

Molecular
formula
C2H 2
C3H 4
C4H 6

IUPAC
Common
name
name
Ethyne
Acetylene
Propyne Methyl acetylene
But -1-yne Ethyl acetylene

CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 ,

But - 1 - ene

Methylpropene

(b) Position Isomerism :

In this type of isomerism, isomers differ in the structure
due to difference in the position of the multiple bond
or functional group.
e.g.
(i) C4H8
CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 , CH3 CH = CH CH3
But -1 - ene
But -2 - ene
(ii) C3H8O
CH3 CH2 CH2 OH ,
Propan-1-ol

CH3 CH CH3
OH
Propan-2-ol

27
27

PAGE # 27

only. These compounds are open chain compounds

which are also addressed as Acyclic compounds.
Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2 .The carbon
atoms in alkanes are in a state of sp3 hybridization,
i.e. the carbon atoms have a tetrahedral geometry.

(c) Functional Group Isomerism :

In this type of isomerism, isomers differ in the
structure due to the presence of different functional
groups.
e.g.

(a) Physical Properties :

(i) C3H8O
CH3 CH2 O CH3

CH3 CH2 CH2 OH

Methoxy ethane

Propan-1-ol

(i) Alkanes of no. of carbon atoms C1 to C4 are gases.

Carbon atoms C5 to C17 are liquids and C18 & onwards
are solids.
(ii) Alkanes are colourless and odourless.
(iii) They are non-polar in nature, hence they dissolve
only in non-polar solvents like benzene, carbon
tetrachloride etc.
(iv) Boiling point of alkanes increases as their
molecular weight increases.

(ii) C4H6
CH3 CH2 C CH
But - 1- yne

CH2 = CH CH = CH2
Buta - 1, 3 - diene
[or 1, 3 - Butadiene ]

ALKANES
Alkanes are aliphatic hydrocarbons having only
C C single covalent bonds. These are also known
as saturated hydrocarbon as they contain single bond

Note :
Alkanes are unaffected by most chemical reagents
and hence are known as paraffins (parum-little, affinis
affinity).

SOME COMMON EXAMPLES OF ALKANES

M olcula r Form ula

Structure

CH 4

CH 4

C2H6

CH 3CH 3

C3H8

CH 3CH 2 CH 3

C 4 H 10

Methane

C H 3 C H 2 CH 2 C H 3

CH 3 CH CH 3
|
CH 3

C 5 H 12

CH

CH

CH

CH

CH 3 CH C H 2 C H 3
|
CH
3

CH

C 6 H 14

Trivia l Na m e

CH
| 3
C CH
3
|
CH
3

CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
C H 3 CH CH 2 CH 2 CH 3

IUPAC Na m e
Methane

Ethane

Ethane

Propane

Propane

n-Butane
Isobutane

Butane
2Methy lpropane

n-P entane

Pentane

Isopentane

2Methy lbutane

Neopentane

2,2Dimethylpropane

n-Hexane

Hexane

Isohexane

2Methy lpentane

3Methy lpentane

2,3Dimethylbutane

Neohexane

2,2Dimethylbutane

CH3
CH 3 CH2 CH CH 2 CH 3
CH 3

CH 3 CH CH CH 3
CH 3 CH 3
CH 3
CH 3 C CH 2 CH3
CH 3

28
28

PAGE # 28

Note :
The C C bond distance in alkanes is 1.54 and the
bond energy is of the order of 80 Kcal per mole.

(vi) Laboratory Method : Methane is prepared in the

laboratory by heating a mixture of dry sodium acetate
and soda lime in a hard glass tube as shown in
figure. It is a decarboxylation reaction.

METHANE
It is a product of decomposition of organic matter in
absence of oxygen. It is found in coal mines (hence
the name damp fire), marshy places (hence the name
marsh gas) and the places where petroleum is found.

Note :

Hard glass tube

Delivery
tube

Sodium acetate
and soda lime

Gas jar
Cork
Bubbles of
methane gas

Burner

Methane is a major constituent of natural gas.

Trough
Beehive shelf
Water

Iron
stand

Gas

(a) Properties :
Methane is a colourless gas with practically no smell
and is almost insoluble in water. It melts at 183 C
and boils at 162C. Methane has tetrahedral
geometry in which Hatoms are situated at four
corners of the regular tetrahedron. Bond angle is
10928. It has sp3 hybridisation.

Methane, so formed is collected by downward

displacment of water. This gas contains some
hydrogen, ethylene etc. as impurities which can be
removed by passing the impure gas through alkaline
potassium permanganate solution.

(b) Structure :

(d) General Reactions :

(i) Combustion :
(A) Methane burns with explosive violence in air
forming carbon dioxide and water.
CH4 + 2O2
CO2 + 2H2O + Heat
(B) In the presence of insufficient supply of oxygen.
2CH4 + 3O2
2CO + 4H2O + Heat

C
H

Tetrahedral

(ii) Halogenation :
(A) In direct sunlight

(c) Preparation of Methane :

(i) Direct synthesis :

Ni
500C

2H2
Hydrogen

Carbon

CH4 + 2Cl2

CH4

CO2 + 4H2

Ni powder
300C

CH4 + H2O

Ni powder
300C
12H2O
Water

2H

4Al(OH)3
Aluminium
hydroxide

ZnCu Couple
CH4
H2O
Methane

H
Hydrogen
iodide

(v) Reduction of methanol or formaldehyde or formic

acid with H
CH3OH

2H

HCHO
Methanal

CH4

H2O

2+

H 2O

Methane

Methanol
+

4H

Red P

CH3Cl
Methyl
chloride

Cl2

Cl2
CH2Cl2
Methylene
dichloride

Cl2
CHCl3
Chloroform

CCl4
Carbon
tetrachloride

Fluorine forms similar substitution products in the

presence of nitrogen which is used as a diluent
because of high reactivity of fluorine. Bromine vapours
react very sluggishly while iodine vapours do not react
at all.

Methane

3CH4
Methane

Red P

Cl2
CH4
Methane

CH4

CH4 + 2H2O

(iv) Reduction of methyl iodide :

CH3
Methyl
iodide

C + 4HCl

(iii) Nitration :

(iii) Hydrolysis of aluminium carbide :

Al4C3
+
Aluminium
carbide

(B) In diffused light

Methane

(ii) Sabatier and Senderens reductive method :

Methane can be prepared by passing carbon
monoxide or carbon dioxide and hydrogen over finely
powdered nickel catalyst at 300C.
CO + 3H2

Preparation of methane gas

CH4
Methane

HONO2
Nitric acid

400C
10 atm.

CH3NO2

H 2O

Nitromethane

(iv) Catalytic Air oxidation : This is a method for

commercial production of methanol.
When a mixture of methane and oxygen in a ratio of 9: 1
by volume is passed through a heated copper tube at
200C and at a pressure of 100 atmospheres,
methanol is formed.
CH4 +
1/2 O2
CH 3OH
Methane
Methanol
(e) Uses :
(i) Alkanes are used directly as fuels .
(ii) Certain alkanes, such as methane, are used as a
source of hydrogen.
(iii) The carbon obtained in decomposition of alkanes
is in very finely divided state and is known as carbon
black. This is used in making printers ink, paints, boot
polish and blackening of tyres.
(iv) Alkanes are used as starting materials for a
number of other organic compounds e.g.
methanol, methyl chloride, methylene dichloride etc.

29
29

PAGE # 29

(b) Uses :

ALKENES
Alkenes are the simplest unsaturated aliphatic
hydrocarbons with one carbon - carbon double bond.
Alkenes have general formula CnH2n. The carbon
atoms connected by the double bond are in a state of
sp2 hybridisation and this part of molecule is planar.
A double bond is composed of sigma () and a pi ()
bond. Alkenes are also called olefines (oil forming)
becuase they form oily products with halogens.
R CH = CH2 + Br2

R CH CH2

(i) Ethylene is mainly used in the manufacture of

ethanol, ethylene oxide and higher 1-alkenes.
Ethylene is used for ripening of fruits. It is also used
for preparation of mustard gas.
[Cl CH2 CH2 S CH2 CH2 Cl]
(ii) Polythene from ethylene, teflon from tetra
fluoroethylene and polystyrene from styrene are used
as plastic materials. Acrilon or orlon obtained from
vinyl cyanide is used for making synthetic fibres.

ETHENE

Br Br
(Oily liquid)

Ethene occurs in natural gas, coal gas and wood

gas. It is also formed during the cracking of high boiling
petroleum fractions.

(a) Properties :
(i) Alkenes of C2 to C4 are gases. Alkenes of carbon
atoms C5 to C14 are liquids and C14 and onwards are
solids.
(ii) Ethene is colourless gas with faint sweet smell.
All other alkenes are colourless and odourless.
(iii) Alkenes are insoluble in polar solvents like water,
but fairly soluble in non-polar solvents like benzene,
carbon tetrachloride etc.

(a) Properties :
Ethene is a colourless gas (B.P. = 105C). It is very
sparingly soluble in water but dissolves in acetone,
alcohol etc. It burns with smoky flame. Ethene has
trigonal planar geometry. Bond angle is 120. It has
sp2 hybridisation.
(b) Structure :

(iv) Boiling point of alkenes increases with increase

in molecular mass.
Bond length of C = C is 1.34 . The energy of the
double bond is 142 Kcal mol1, which is less than
twice the energy of a single bond i.e. 80 Kcal mole-1.
This indicates that a pi () bond is weaker than a
sigma () bond.
(c) Preparation of Ethene :
(b) Some common examples of alkenes Molecular
formula

Structure

Trivial
Name

IUPAC
Name

CH3 CH2 OH

Ethene

Ethanol

C2H4

H2C = CH2

Ethylene

C3H6

CH3 CH = CH2

Propylene

Propene

-Butylene

1-Butene

-Butylene
(cis)

2-Butene
(cis)

-Butylene
(trans)

2-Butene
(trans)

C4C8

CH3 CH2 CH = CH2

CH3 C H
CH3 C H
CH3 C H
H C CH3
CH3 C = CH2

(i) By dehydration of alcohol (Lab. method) :

Isobutylene

2-Methyl propene

Conc. H2SO4

CH2 = CH2 + H2O

165 170C

Ethene

(ii) By cracking of kerosene :

Cracking

CH3 (CH2)4 CH3

CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 + CH2 = CH2

Butane

n-Hexane

Ethene

(iii) From alkyl halides (Dehydrohalogenation) :

CH2 CH2 + KOH
(Alcoholic)
H
X

CH2 = CH2 + KX + H2O (Here X = Halogen)

Ethene

Ethyl halide

CH3
C5H10

CH2 = CH (CH2)2CH3

1-Pentene

CH3CH = CHCH2CH3

2-Pentene
(cis and
trans)

CH3 CH CH = CH2

3-Methyl-1-butene

2-Methyl-2-butene

2-Methyl-1-butene

(d) General Reactions :

(i) Addition of halogens :
CH2 = CH2
Ethene

Cl2
Chlorine

CCl4

Cl Cl
1,2-Dichloroethane
(Ethylene dichloride)

CH3
CH3 C = CH CH3
CH3
CH2 = C CH2 CH3
CH3

CH2 = CH2
Ethene

CH2 CH2

CCl4
Br2
Bromine
(red-brown colour)
+

CH2 CH2
Br
Br
1,2-Dibromoethane
(colourless)

30
30

PAGE # 30

Note :
Addition of bromine on alkenes in presence of CCl4

ALKYNES
Alkynes are unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons
having a carbon-carbon triple bond. Alkynes have
general formula CnH2n2. Thus, they have two hydrogen
atoms less than an alkene and four hydrogen atoms
less than an alkane with same number of carbon
atoms. A triple bond is composed of one sigma ()
and two pi () bonds. The carbon atoms connected
by a triple bond are in state of sp hybridisation.

is the test for unsaturation.

(ii) Addition of halogen acids (Hydrohalogenation) :
CH2 = CH2 + HCl
Ethene

CH2 CH2
Cl
H
Chloroethane

(iii) Hydrogenation :
(a) Properties :
Ni or Pt

CH2 = CH2 + H2
CH3 CH3
High T& P
Ethene
Ethane

(i) Alkynes of carbon atoms C2 to C4 are gases. Alkynes

of carbon atoms C5 to C12 are liquids.Alkynes of C13 &
onwards are solids.

(iv) Combustion :
C2H4 + 3O2
Ethene

2CO2

(ii) Alkynes are colourless and odourless, but ethyne

has characteristic odour.

2H2 O + Heat

(iii) Boiling point and solubilities in water are relatively

higher than those of alkanes and alkenes.

(v) Addition of oxygen :

(iv) Alkynes are weakly polar in nature.

(v) Alkynes are lighter than water and soluble in nonpolar solvents.
(vi) Boiling point of alkynes increases with the increase
in molecular mass.

(vi) Polymerisation :

nCH2 = CH2

High T
& High P

(CH2 CH2 )n
Polyethene

Ethene

Note :
The bond energy of a triple bond is 190.5 Kcal per
mole, which is less than thrice the energy of a single
() bond.

SOME COMMON EXAMPLES OF ALKYNES :

M ole cula r form ula

Structure

C2H2

H C

C3H4

CH 3 C

C4H6

C5H8

De rive d Na m e

IUPAC na m e

Acetylene

Ethyne

M ethyl acetylene

Propyne

Ethyl acety lene

1Butyne

Dimethyl acety lene

2 Buty ne

n-Propyl ac etylene

1Pentyne

Ethyl m ethyl acetylene

2-Pentyne

Isopropyl acety lene

3-M ethy l- 1-buty ne

CH
C H

CH3 CH 2 C CH

CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 C CH

C H 3 CH C C H
C H3

ETHYNE

(a) Structure :

It is also known as acetylene. Acetylene is the first

member of alkyne series and has a linear geometry.
It has sp hybridisation.The carbon-carbon triple bond
distance and carbon-hydrogen bond distance have
been found to be 1.20 and 1.06 respectively. The

180
H

carbon-carbon hydrogen bond angle is 180.

Linear

31
31

PAGE # 31

(b) Properties :
It is a colourless gas which is slightly soluble in water.
Pure ethyne has ethereal odour. Acetylene burns with
luminous flame like aromatic compounds. This is a
highly exothermic reaction.

TEST FOR ALKANES, ALKENES AND ALKYNES

(a) Alkanes :
(i) Bromine water test: It does not decolourise the
bromine water.

Note :
The temperature of oxyacetylene flame is about
3000C and is used for welding and cutting steel.

(ii) Baeyers test: It does not, react with Baeyers

reagent (alkaline solution of KMnO4).

(c) Preparation :

(b) Alkenes:

(i) From carbon and hydrogen (Direct synthesis ) : When

an electric arc is struck between carbon (graphite) rods
in an atmosphere of hydrogen, acetylene is formed.

(i) Bromine water test: It decolourises the orange

colour of Bromine water.

1200C

2C + H2

(iii) Silver nitrate Test: No reaction

C2H2

Ca(OH)2 + C2H2

CCl

4
+ Br2
Bromine water
(red-brown colour)

H
Ethene

(ii) From calcium carbide (Lab. Method) :

CaC2 + 2H2O
Calcium
carbide

H
C=C

H
CC

H Br Br H
1,2-Dibromoethane
(Colourless)

(ii) Baeyers test: It decolourises the purple colour of

Baeyers reagent.

Calcium Ethyne
hydroxide

(iii) Dehydrohalogenation of dihaloalkanes :

H2O + [O]

C=C
H

HCCH

OH OH
Ethylene glycol

Ethene

(iii) Silver nitrate Test: No reaction

(c) Alkynes :

(d) Chemical Properties :

(i) Bromine water test : It decolourises the Br2 water.

(i) Addition of halogens :

H C C H + Br2
Ethyne

Cl
HC CH + HCl

H2C = CH

Ethyne

Cl
Chloroethene
(Vinyl chloride)

HC CH
Ethyne

HC CH

H2C = CH2
Ethene

H2/Ni

1,2-Dibromoethene

Br C C Br
Br Br
1,1,2,2-Tetrabromoethane
(Colourless)

Cl
1,1-Dichloroethane
(Gem dihalide)

(iii) Silver nitrate Test : It gives white precipitate

H C C H + 2 [Ag (NH3)2 ]NO3
Ethyne
Tollen's reagent

Ag C C Ag + 2NH4NO3 + 2NH3
White ppt.

CH3 CH3
Ethane

EXERCISE
H2

H2C = CH2
Ethene

Pd/BaSO4

Ethyne

1.

4CO2 + 2H2O + Heat

(A) 3,3,3-Trimethyl -1-propane

(B) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-1-butene
(C) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butene
(D) 1,1Dimethyl- 3 -butene

(v) Polymerisation :
H
3HC CH

Fe

The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula

(CH3)3 CCH = CH2 is -

(iv) Combustion :
2C2H2 + 5O2
Ethyne

Ethyne

Br2

Br

H3C CH

(iii) Hydrogenation :
H2
Ni

H
C=C

(ii) Baeyers test : It also decolourises the purple

colour of alkaline KMnO4 .

(ii) Addition of Halogen acid :

HCl

Bromine
water

H
Br

H
H
Benzene

or (C6H6)

2.

Which of the following is not an example of aromatic

compound ?
(A) Benzene
(B) Naphthalene
(C) Cyclobutane
(D) Phenol

32
32

PAGE # 32

3.

4.

5.

The IUPAC name of the following compound is CH2 = CH CH (CH3)2

(A) 1,1-Dimethyl -2-propene
(B) 3-Methyl-1-butene
(C) 2-Vinylpropane
(D) 1-Isopropylethylene
Which of the following is an alkyne ?
(A) C4H8
(B) C5H8
(C) C7H19
(D) None of these
The IUPAC name of the following compound is -

C2H5
CH3 CH C = CH2

(A) 3-Ethyl-2-methylbut-3-ene
(B) 2-Ethyl-3- methylbut -1-ene
(C) 2-Methyl-3-ethylbut-3-ene
(D) 3-Methyl-2-ethylbut-1-ene
6.

The first organic compound synthesized in the

laboratory was (A) urea
(B) glucose
(C) alcohol
(D) None of these

7.

Propane is an (A) acyclic compound

(B) open chain compound
(C) alipthatic compound
(D) All of these

8.

The scientist who gave vital force theory was (A) Berzelius
(B) Avogadro
(C) Wohler
(D) Lavoisier
Which one of the following is not an organic compound ?
(A) Hexane
(B) Urea
(C) Ammonia
(D)Ethyl alcohol

10. Vast number of carbon compounds is due to the fact

that carbon has (A) variable valency
(B) property of catenation
(C) great chemical affinity
(D) None of these

O
||
11. The IUPAC name for CH3 C H is (A) Acetal
(C) Ethanal

(B) Methanal
(D) Acetaldehyde

12. The IUPAC name of compound

H
CH3 C CH2 CH3 is COOH

(A) Butan -3- oic acid

(B) Butan -2- oic acid
(C) 3-Methylbutanoic acid
(D) 2-Methylbutanoic acid

14. How many chain isomers (non- cyclic aliphatic) could

be obtained from the alkane C6H14 ?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
15. The isomerism exhibited by n-propyl alcohol and
isopropyl alcohol is (A) chain isomerism
(B) position isomerism
(C) functional isomerism
(D) None of these
16. Any two consecutive members in a homologous
series differ in molecular mass by(A) 8
(B) 14
(C) 24
(D) 12

CH3

9.

13. The functional group, present in CH3COOC2H5 is (A) ketonic

(B) aldehydic
(C) ester
(D) carboxylic

17. The IUPAC name ofCH3 C(CH3) (OH) CH2 CH(CH3) CH3 is (A) 2,4-Dimethylpentan -2-ol
(B) 2,4- Dimethylpentan-4-ol
(C) 2,2-Dimethylbutane
(D) Isopentanol
18. The IUPAC name of (CH3)2 CHCH2 CH2 Br is(A) 1-Bromopentane
(B) 2-Methyl-4-bromopentane
(C) 1-Bromo -3- methylbutane
(D) 2-Methyl-3-bromopentane
19. Which of the following does not belong to homologous
series of alkanes ?
(A) C2H6
(B) C3H4
(C) C4H10
(D) C5H12
20. Isomers have (A) same molecular formula & same structure.
(B) different molecular formula & different structure.
(C) same molecular formula & different structure.
(D) different molecular formula & same structure.
21. Which of the following properties is not true regarding
organic compounds ?
(A) They are generally covalent compounds.
(B) They have high melting and boiling points.
(C) They are generally insoluble in water.
(D) They generally show isomerism.
22. The nature of linkage in organic compounds is
generally (A) ionic bond
(B) covalent bond
(C) co-ordinate covalent
(D) metallic bond
23. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
The members of the homologous series of alkanes
(A) are all straight chain compounds.
(B) have the general formula CnH2n+2.
(C) have similar chemical properties .
(D) show a regular gradation of physical properties.

33
33

PAGE # 33

24. Which of the following pairs is an example of chain

isomer ?
(A) CH3 CH2 OH & CH3OCH3
(B) CH3 CH2 CHO & CH3 CO-CH3
(C)CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 &

32. Ethyne on passing through a red hot iron tube gives (A) mesitylene
(C) butenyne

33. The general molecular formula of alkynes is (A) CnH2n

(C) CnH2n2

(D) All of the above

25. Which of the following is a functional isomer of
CH3 COOH ?

(B) benzene
(D) None

(B) CnH2n4
(D) CnH2n+2

34. Which of the following is not a pair of homologues ?

(A) Ethylacetylene and Dimethylacetylene
(B) Methylacetylene and Ethylacetylene
(C) 1-Butyne and 2-Pentyne

(A) CH3 CH2 OH

(B)

(C)

(D) All of these

(D) 1-Pentyne and 3-Hexyne

35. Ethyne is obtained by dehydrobromination of -

26. Which of the following forms a homologous series ?

(A) Ethane, Ethylene, Acetylene
(B) Ethane, Propane, Butanol
(C) Methanal, Ethanol, Propanoic acid
(D) Butane, 2-Methylbutane, 2,3-Dimethylbutane
27. Homologous have the same (A) empirical formulae
(B) molecular formulae
(C) chemical properties
(D) physical properties

(A) CHBr = CHBr

(C) CH3CH2Br

(B) CH3CHBr2
(D) None of these

36. The temperature of oxy-acetylene flame is

(A) 200C

(B) 1600C

(C) 2000C

(D) > 2500

37. Ethyne is isoelectronic with-

28. Write down the general formula of homologous series

whose third homologue is C4H6 ?
(A) CnH2n 2
(B) Cn H2n + 2
(C) Cn + 1 H2n 2
(D) Cn H2n
29. The general formula of saturated hydrocarbons is (A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnH2n2
(D) CnH2n+1
30. The third member of methyl ketone homologous
series is (A) Acetone
(B) 2Butanone
(C) 2Pentanone
(D) 3Pentanone.
31. The values of bond energies of single, double and
triple bonds are in the order (A) C C > C = C > C C
(B) C = C > C C > C C
(C) C C > C = C > C C
(D)C = C > C C > C C

(A) chlorine

(B) oxygen

(C) nitrogen gas

(D) CO2

38. C C bond length is (A) 1.54

(B) 1.20

(C) 1.34

(D) 1.39

39. Which of the following gives silver nitrate test ?

(A) Methane

(B) Ethene

(C) Ethyne

(D) All

40. Which of the following does not decolourise bromine

water ?
(A) Alkanes only

(B) Alkenes only

(C) Alkynes only

(D) (B) and (C) both

41. Unsaturated fatty acids contain [IJSO-State-I/2011]

(A) atleast one double bond
(B) two double bonds
(C) more than two double bonds
(D) no double bond

34
34

PAGE # 34

NUMBER

Pre-requisite : Before going through this chapter, you

should be thorough with the basic concepts of the
same chapter explained in IX NCERT.

SYSTEM
Fundamental Laws of Logarithm :
Logarithm to any base a (where a > 0 and a 1 ).
(i)

LOGARITHM
If a is a positive real number, other than 1 and x is a
rational number such that ax = N, then x is the
logarithm of N to the base a.
If ax = N then loga N = x.
[ Remember N will be +ve]
Systems of Logarithm :

loga a = 1

(ii) loga 0 = not defined

[As an = 0 is not possible, where n is any number]
(iii) loga (ve no.) = not defined.
[As in loga N, N will always be (+ ve)]
(iv) loga (mn) = loga m + logan
[Where m and n are +ve numbers]

There are two systems of logarithm which are generally

used.
(i) Common logarithm : In this system base is always
taken as 10.
(ii) Natural logarithm : In this system the base of the
logarithm is taken as e. Where e is an irrational
number lying between 2 and 3. (The approximate value
of e upto two decimal places is e = 2.73)

m
(v) loga = logam logan
n

(vi) loga(m)n = n logam

(vii) logam

Some Useful Results :

log m
b
log a
b

(i) If a > 1 then

(a) loga x < 0 [for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1]
(b) loga x = 0 for x = 1
(c) loga x > 0 for x > 1
(d) x > y loga x > loga y i.e. logax is an increasing
function.

(viii)logam . logma = 1

Graph of y = loga x, a > 1

rational number, then

(ix) If a is a positive real number and n is a positive

rational number, then

a loga n n
(x) If a is a positive real number and n is a positive

logaq np p log n
a

y = logax, a > 1
x'

(1,0)

(xi) ploga q qloga p

(xii) logax = logay x = y

y'

(ii) If 0 < a < 1, then

(a) loga x < 0 for all x > 1
(b) loga x = 0 for x = 1
(c) logax > 0 for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1
(d) x > y logax < loga y i.e. loga x is a decreasing
function.

Graph of y = loga x, 0 < a < 1.

y

a = 34

a = 81.
Ex.2 Find the value of log

(1,0)
0

9
27
3
log
log
8
32
4

Sol. Given :
log

y = logax, 0 < a < 1.

x'

Ex.1 If log3a = 4, find value of a.

Sol. log3a = 4

3
9
27
3
9 27
log
log log
log
4
8
32
4
8 32

9 32 3
log

8 27 4

= log1 = 0.

[ loga1 = 0]

y'
PAGE # 3535

Ex.3 If 2log4x = 1 + log4(x 1), find the value of x.

Sol. Given

FACTORS AND MULTIPLES

2log4x = 1 + log4(x 1)
Factors : a is a factor of b if there exists a relation
such that a n = b, where n is any natural number.

log4x2 log4(x 1) = 1
log4

x2
=1
x 1

x2 = 4x 4
2

(x 2) = 0

x2
x 1

41 =

x2 4x + 4 = 0

x = 2.

1 is a factor of all numbers as 1 b = b.

Factor of a number cannot be greater than the number

(in fact the largest factor will be the number itself).
Thus factors of any number will lie between 1 and the
number itself (both inclusive) and they are limited.

Ex.4 Evaluate : 3 2 log3 5 .

Sol. Given 3 2 log3 5 = 3 2.3 log3 5
= 9. 3

Multiples : a is a multiple of b if there exists a relation

[ am + n = am.an]

of the type b n = a. Thus the multiples of 6 are

6 1 = 6, 6 2 = 12, 6 3 = 18, 6 4 = 24, and so on.

log3 5 1

= 9 51

The smallest multiple will be the number itself and the

number of multiples would be infinite.

9
.
5

NOTE :
To understand what multiples are, lets just take an

Ex.5 If A = log27625 + 7

log11 13

and B = log9125 + 13

then find the relation between A and B.

Sol. A = log27625 + 7

log11 13

4
log 13
= log 3 3 5 + 7 11

log11 7

example of multiples of 3. The multiples are 3, 6, 9, 12,

.... so on. We find that every successive multiples
appears as the third number after the previous.
So if one wishes to find the number of multiples of 6
less than 255, we could arrive at the number through

4
log 13
or, A = log35 + 7 11
3

and,B = log9125 + 13

If one wishes to find the multiples of 36, find

log11 13

3
log 13
or, B = log35 + 7 11
2
By (i) and (ii) we have,
3
4
log35 = B log35
2
3

4
3
log35 <
log35
3
2

A < B.

Ex.6 Find the value of log25125 log84

Sol. Given, log25125 log84
= log 5 2 5 3 log 2 3 2 2

255
= 42 (and the remainder 3). The remainder is of
6
no consequence to us. So in all there are 42 multiples.

log11 7

or, B = log 3 2 5 3 + 7

....(i)

3
2
log55 log2 2
2
3

255
=7
36

(and the remainder is 3).

Hence, there are 7 multiples of 36.
...(ii)

Ex.7 How many numbers from 200 to 600 are divisible by

4, 5, 6 ?
Sol. Every such number must be divisible by L.C.M. of
(4, 5, 6) = 60.
600
200
60 60 = 10 3 = 7.

Such numbers are 240, 300, 360, 420, 480, 540 and
600.
Clearly, there are 7 such numbers.
Factorisation : It is the process of splitting any number
into a form where it is expressed only in terms of the
most basic prime factors.
For example, 36 = 22 3 2. It is expressed in the
factorised form in terms of its basic prime factors.
Number of factors : For any composite number C,

3 2

2 3

5
= .
6

[ loga a 1 ]

which can be expressed as C = ap bq cr ....., where

a, b, c ..... are all prime factors and p, q, r are positive
integers, the number of factors is equal to
(p + 1) (q + 1) (r + 1).... e.g. 36 = 22 32. So the
factors of 36 = (2 +1) (2 + 1) = 3 3 = 9.

PAGE # 3636

Ex.8 If N = 123 34 52, find the total number of even factors

of N.
Sol. The factorised form of N is
(22 31)3 34 52 26 37 52.
Hence, the total number of factors of N is
(6 + 1) (7 + 1) (2 + 1) = 7 8 3 = 168.
Some of these are odd multiples and some are even.
The odd multiples are formed only with the combination
of 3s and 5s.
So, the total number of odd factors is
(7 + 1) (2 + 1) = 24.
Therefore, the number of even factors is
168 24 = 144.

(i) No. of closed lockers = No. of non-perfect square

numbers from 1 to 1000 = 1000 31 = 969.
(ii) Upto 500 students they can go to two or more than two
lockers, while the rest 500 can go to only one locker.
(iii) The 31 perfect squares ( the last being 312 = 961)
will be open while the lockers from 971 to 1000 is yet
to be accessed last time so they all are open. The total
being = 31 + 30 = 61
(iv) The no. of students that have gone to locker no.
840 is same as the no. of factors of 840.
840 = 23 3 5 7.
So, the no. of factors = (3 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) = 32.

HCF AND LCM

Ex.9 A number N when factorised can be written

N = a4 b3 c7. Find the number of perfect squares
which are factors of N (The three prime numbers
a, b, c > 2).
Sol. In order that the perfect square divides N, the powers
of a can be 0, 2 or 4, i.e. 3.
Powers of b can be 0, 2, i.e. 2. Power of c can be 0, 2,
4 or 6, i.e. 4.
Hence, a combination of these powers given 3 2 4
i.e. 24 numbers.
So, there are 24 perfect squares that divides N.
Ex.10 Directions : (i to iv) Answer the questions based on
the given information.
There are one thousand lockers and one thousand
students in a school. The principal asks the first student
to go to each locker and open it. Then he asks the
second student go to every second locker and close it.
The third student goes to every third locker, and if it is
closed, he opens it, and it is open, he closes it. The
fourth student does it to every fourth locker and so on.
The process is completed with all the thousand
students.
(i) How many lockers are closed at the end of the
process ?
(ii) How many students can go to only one locker ?
(iii) How many lockers are open after 970 students
have done their job ?
(iv) How many student go to locker no. 840 ?
Sol. (i to iv) : Whether the locker is open or not depends on
the number of times it is accessed. If it is accessed odd
number of times, then it is open while if it is accessed
even number of times then it is closed.
How many times a locker will be accessed depends
on the locker no. If it contains odd number of factors,
then it will be open and if it contains even number of
factors. Then it will be closed. We know that a perfect
square contains odd number of factors while a
non-perfect square contains even number of factors.
Thus the lockers with perfect square number will be
open and the number of these perfect squares from 1
to 1000 determines the no. of open lockers.

LCM (least Common Multiple) : The LCM of given

numbers, as the name suggests is the smallest
positive number which is a multiple of each of the given
numbers
HCF (Highest Common factor) : The HCF of given
numbers, as the name suggests is the largest factor
of the given set of numbers.
Consider the numbers 12, 20 and 30. The factors and
the multiples are
Given
numbers

Factors
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12
1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20
1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30

12
20
30

Multiples
12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, 108, 120....
20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120.....
30, 60, 90, 120....

The common factors are 1 and 2 and the common

multiples are 60, 120...
Thus the highest common factor is 2 and the least
common multiple meaning of HCF it is the largest
number that divides all the given numbers.
Also since a number divides its multiple, the meaning
of LCM is that it is the smallest number which can be
divided by the given numbers.

HCF will be lesser than or equal to the least of the

numbers and LCM will be greater than or equal to the
greatest of the numbers.

Ex.11 Find a number greater than 3 which when divided by

4, 5, and 6 always leaves the same remainder 3.
Sol. The smallest number which, when divided by 4, 5 and
6, leaves the remainder 3 in each case is
LCM (4, 5 and 6) + 3 = 60 + 3 = 63.
Ex.12 In a school 437 boys and 342 girls have been divided
into classes, so that each class has the same number
of students and no class has boys and girls mixed.
What is the least number of classes needed?
Sol. We should have the maximum number of students in
a class. So we have to find HCF (437, 342) = 19.
HCF is also the factor of difference of the number.

437
342
+
19
19
= 23 + 18 = 41 classes.

Number of classes =
`

PAGE # 3737

For any two numbers x and y,

x y = HCF (x, y) LCM (x, y).

DIVISIBLITY
Division Algorithm : General representation of result

HCF and LCM of fractions :

is,

LCM of numerators
LCM of fractions = HCF of deno min ators

Dividend
Re mainder
Quotient
Divisor
Divisor

HCF of numerators
HCF of fractions = LCM of deno min ators

Dividend = (Divisor Quotient ) + Remainder

Make sure the fractions are in the most reducible form.

Ex.18 On dividing 15968 by a certain number, the quotient
10
8 16 2
Ex.13 Find the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of
,
,
and
.
9
27
81 3

H.C.F. of (2, 8,16,10 )

2
Sol. H.C.F. of given fractions =
=
,
L.C.M. of (3, 9, 81, 27 )
81

is 89 and the remainder is 37. Find the divisor.

Dividend Re mainder 15968 37

Quotient
89
= 179.

Sol. Divisor =

L.C.M. of (2, 8,16,10 ) 80

L.C.M. of given fractions =
=
.
H.C.F. of (3, 9, 81, 27 )
3
Ex.14 Find the least number which when divided by 6, 7, 8, 9
and 10 leaves remainder 1.
Sol. As the remainder is same
Required number = LCM of divisors + Remainder
= LCM (6, 7, 8, 9, 10) +1
= 2520 + 1
= 2521.
Ex.15 Six bells start tolling together and they toll at intervals
of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 sec. respectively, find
(i) after how much time will all six of them toll together ?
(ii) how many times will they toll together in 30 min ?
Sol. The time after which all six bells will toll together must
be multiple of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12.
Therefore, required time = LCM of time intervals.
= LCM (2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12) = 120 sec.
Therefore after 120 s all six bells will toll together.
After each 120 s, i.e. 2 min, all bell are tolling together.
30

1
Therefore in 30 min they will toll together
2

= 16 times
1 is added as all the bells are tolling together at the
start also, i.e. 0th second.
Ex.16 LCM of two distinct natural numbers is 211. What is
their HCF ?
Sol. 211 is a prime number. So there is only one pair of
distinct numbers possible whose LCM is 211,
i.e. 1 and 211. HCF of 1 and 211 is 1.
Ex.17 An orchard has 48 apple trees, 60 mango trees and
96 banana trees. These have to be arranged in rows
such that each row has the same number of trees and
all are of the same type. Find the minimum number of
such rows that can be formed.
Sol. Total number of trees are 204 and each of the trees
are exactly divisible by 12. HCF of (48, 60, 96).

204
= 17 such rows are possible.
12

NOTE :
(i) (xn an) is divisible by (x a) for all the values of n.
(ii) (xn an) is divisible by (x + a) and (x a) for all the
even values of n.
(iii) (xn + an) is divisible by (x + a) for all the odd values of n.
Test of Divisibility :

No.

Divisiblity Te st

U nit digit s hould be 0 or even

The s um of digits of no. s hould be divis ible by 3

The no form ed by las t 2 digits of given no. s hould be divis ible by 4.

U nit digit s hould be 0 or 5.

N o s hould be divis ible by 2 & 3 both

The num ber form ed by las t 3 digits of given no. s hould be divis ible by 8.

Sum of digits of given no. s hould be divis ible by 9

11

The difference betw een s um s of the digits at even & at odd places
s hould be zero or m ultiple of 11.

25 Las t 2 digits of the num ber s hould be 00, 25, 50 or 75.

Rule for 7 : Double the last digit of given number and

subtract from remaining number the result should be
zero or divisible by 7.
Ex.19 Check whether 413 is divisible by 7 or not.
Sol. Last digit = 3, remaining number = 41, 41 (3 x 2) = 35
(divisible by 7). i.e. 413 is divisible by 7.
This rule can also be used for number having more
than 3 digits.
Ex.20 Check whether 6545 is divisible by 7 or not.
Sol. Last digit = 5, remaining number 654, 654 (5 x 2)
= 644; 64 (4 x 2) = 56 divisible by 7. i.e. 6545 is
divisible by 7.
Rule for 13 : Four times the last digit and add to
remaining number the result should be divisible by
13.
Ex.21 Check whether 234 is divisible by 13 or not .
Sol. 234, (4 x 4) + 23 = 39 (divisible by 13), i.e. 234 is divisible
by 13.

PAGE # 3838

Rule for 17 : Five times the last digit of the number and
subtract from previous number the result obtained
should be either 0 or divisible by 17.

REMAINDERS
The method of finding the remainder without actually
performing the process of division is termed as

Ex.22 Check whether 357 is divisible by 17 or not.

Sol. 357, (7 x 5) 35 = 0, i.e. 357 is divisible by 17.
Rule for 19 : Double the last digit of given number and
add to remaining number The result obtained should
be divisible by 19.

remainder theorem.
Remainder should always be positive. For example if
we divide 22 by 7, generally we get 3 as quotient
and 1 as remainder. But this is wrong because
remainder is never be negative hence the quotient

Ex.23 Check whether 589 is divisible by 19 or not.

Sol. 589, (9 x 2) + 58 = 76 (divisible by 19), i.e. the number
is divisible by 19.
Ex.24 Find the smallest number of six digits which is exactly
divisible by 111.
Sol. Smallest number of 6 digits is 100000.
On dividing 100000 by 111, we get 100 as remainder.
Number to be added = (111 100) = 11.
Hence, required number = 100011.
Ex.25 Find the largest four digit number which when
reduced by 54, is perfectly divisible by all even natural
numbers less than 20.
Sol. Even natural numbers less than 20 are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10,
12, 14, 16, 18.
Their LCM = 2 LCM of first 9 natural numbers
= 2 2520 = 5040.
This happens to be the largest four-digit number
divisible by all even natural numbers less than 20. 54
was subtracted from our required number to get this
number.
Hence, (required number 54) = 5040
Required number = 5094.
Ex.26 Ajay multiplied 484 by a certain number to get the
result 3823a. Find the value of a.
Sol. 3823a is divisible by 484, and 484 is a factor of 3823a.
4 is a factor of 484 and 11 is also a factor of 484.
Hence, 3823a is divisible by both 4 and 11.
To be divisible by 4, the last two digits have to be
divisible by 4.
a can take two values 2 and 6.
38232 is not divisible by 11, but 38236 is divisible by
11.
Hence, 6 is the correct choice.
Ex.27 Which digits should come in place of and $ if the
number 62684$ is divisible by both 8 and 5 ?
Sol. Since the given number is divisible by 5, so 0 or 5 must
come in place of $. But, a number ending with 5 in
never divisible by 8. So, 0 will replace $.
Now, the number formed by the last three digits is 40,
which becomes divisible by 8, if is replaced by 4 or 8.
Hence, digits in place of and $ are (4 or 8 or 0) and 0
respectively.

should be 4 and remainder is +6. We can also get

remainder 6 by adding 1 to divisor 7 ( 71 = 6).
Ex.28 Two numbers, x and y, are such that when divided by
6, they leave remainders 4 and 5 respectively. Find the
remainder when (x2 + y2) is divided by 6.
Sol. Suppose x = 6k1 + 4 and y = 6k2 + 5
x2 + y2 = (6k1 + 4)2 + (6k2 + 5)2
= 36k12 + 48k1 + 16 + 36k22 + 60k2 + 25
= 36k12 + 48k1 + 36k22 + 60k2 + 41
Obviously when this is divided by 6, the remainder will
be 5.
Ex.29 A number when divided by 259 leaves a remainder
139. What will be the remainder when the same
number is divided by 37 ?
Sol. Let the number be P.
So, P 139 is divisible by 259.
Let Q be the quotient then,

P = 259Q + 139

P
259 Q 139
=
37
37

P 139
=Q
259

259 is divisible by 37,

When 139 divided by 37, leaves a remainder of 28.
Ex.30 A number being successively divided by 3, 5 and 8
leaves remainders 1, 4 and 7 respectively. Find the
respective remainders if the order of divisors be
reversed.
Sol.

3 x
5 y 1
8 z 4
1 7
z = (8 1 + 7) = 15 ; y = (5z + 4) = (5 15 + 4) = 79 ;
x = (3y + 1) = (3 79 + 1) = 238.
Now,
8 238
5 29 6
3
5
4
1
2

Respective remainders are 6, 4, 2.

PAGE # 3939

Ex.31 A number was divided successively in order by 4, 5

and 6. The remainders were respectively 2, 3 and 4.
Then find out the number.
Sol.
4 x
5 y 2
6 z 3
1 4

z = (6 1 + 4) = 10
y = (5 z + 3) = (5 10 + 3) = 53
x = (4 y + 2) = (4 53 + 2) = 214
Hence, the required number is 214.
Ex.32 In dividing a number by 585, a student employed the
method of short division. He divided the number
successively by 5, 9 and 13 (factors of 585) and got the
remainders 4, 8 and 12. If he had divided number by
585, then find out the remainder.
Sol.
5 x
9 y 4
13 z 8
1 12
Now, 1169 when divided by 585 gives remainder
= 584.
To find the remainder of big number

16

Ex.36 What is the remainder when 1415

is divided by 5 ?

16

15
Sol. 14
= (15 1)odd = 15n + (1)odd, i.e. a (multiple of 5)
1. Thus when divided by 5 the remainder will be (1),
i.e. 4.

Ex.37 What is the remainder when 357 + 27 is divided by

28?
Sol. 357 = (33)19
357 + 27 = (27)19 + 27
= (28 1)19 + 27
= 28M + (1)19 + 27
[Expand by binomial theorem]
= 28M 1 + 27
= 28M + 26
When 28M + 26 divided by 28, the remainder is 26.
Hence, the required remainder is 26.
Ex.38 What is the remainder when 82361 + 83361 + 84361
+ 85361 + 86361 is divided by 7?
Sol. 82 361 + 83 361 + 84 361 + 85 361 + 86 361 = [(84 2) 361
+ (84 1)361 + 84361 + (84 + 1)361 + (84 + 2)361]
Since, 84 is a multiple of 7, then the remainder will be
when, ( 2)361 + (1)361 + 1361 + 2361 is divided by 7 is
( 2)361 + (1)361 + 1361 + 2361 = 0. So the remainder is
zero.

NOTE :

CYCLICITY
(i) Binomial Expansion :
(a + b)n = an +

n
1!

(a b)n = an

an1b +

n(n 1)
2!

an 2b2 + .... + bn, or

n(n 1)

an1b +
an 2b2 ......+ ( 1)nbn.
1!
2!
Hence, first term is purely of a i.e an and last digit is
purely of b, i.e. bn.
(ii) Total number of terms in the expansion of (a + b)n is
(n + 1).
Ex.33 What is the remainder when 738 is divided by 48.
19

19

19

49
48 1
7 38
72
Sol.
=
=
=
so by using
48
48
48
48
binomial expansion, we can say that 18 terms are
completely divisible by 48 but the last term which is

119
48

We are having 10 digits in our number systems and

some of them shows special characteristics like they,
repeat their unit digit after a cycle, for example 1 repeat
its unit digit after every consecutive power. So, its
cyclicity is 1 on the other hand digit 2 repeat its unit
digit after every four power, hence the cyclicity of 2 is
four. The cyclicity of digits are as follows :
Digit

Cyclicity

0, 1, 5 and 6

4 and 9

2, 3, 7 and 8

So, if we want to find the last digit of 245, divide 45 by 4.

The remainder is 1 so the last digit of 245 would be
same as the last digit of 21 which is 2.

is not divisible. So, 119 = 1 is the remainder..

Ex.34 What is the remainder if 725 is divided by 4?

Sol. 725 can be written (81)25. There are 26 terms in all and
first 25 terms are divisible by 8, hence also by 4. The
last term is (1)25. Hence, (8 1)25 can be written
8X 1 or 4Y 1 ( where Y = 2X). So, 4Y 1 divided by
4 leaves the remainder 3.
Ex.35 What is the remainder if 345 is divided by 8 ?
Sol. 345 can be written as 922 3. 9 can be written as (8 + 1).
Hence, any power of 9 can be written as 8N + 1. In
other words, any power of 9 is 1 more than a multiple
of 8. Hence, (8N + 1) 3 leaves remainder 3 when
divided by 8.

To Fi n d t h e U n i t Di g i t i n Ex p o n e n t i a l
Ex p r e s s i o n s :
(i) When there is any digit of cyclicity 4 in units place.
Since, when there is 2 in units place then in 21 unit
digit is 2, in 22 unit digit is 4, in 23 unit digit is 8, in 24 unit
digit is 6, after that the units digit repeats. e.g. unit digit
(12)12 is equal to the unit digit of, 24 i.e.6.
Ex.39 In (32)33 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 21 i.e. 2.
Ex.40 In (23)15 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 33 i.e. 7.
Ex.41 In (57)9 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 71 i.e. 7.
Ex.42 In (678)22 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 82 i.e. 4.

PAGE # 4040

(ii) When there is any digit of cyclicity 2 in units place.

Since, when there is 4 in units place then in 41 unit
digit is 4, in 42 unit digit is 6 and so on.

HIGHEST POWER DIVIDING A FACTORIAL

Factorial n : Product of n consecutive natural numbers
is known as factorial n it is denoted by n!.

33

Ex.43 In (34) unit digit is 4.

So, n! = n(n 1)(n 2)...321. e.g. 5! = 5 4 3 2 1 = 120.

Ex.44 In (29)15 unit digit is 9.

Ex.45 In (49)18 unit digit is 1.

(iii) When there is any digit of cyclicity 1 in units
place.
Since, when there is 5 in units place then in 51 unit
digit is 5, in 52 unit digit is 5 and so on.

Ex.52 What is the highest power of 2 that divides 20!

(ii) 1359

57
gives the remainder
4
1. So, the last digit of 357 is same as the last digit of 31,
i.e. 3.

Sol. (i) The cyclicity of 3 is 4. Hence,

(ii) The number of digits in the base will not make a

difference to the last digit. It is last digit of the
base which decides the last digit of the number itself.
59
For 1359, we find
which gives a remainder 3. So
4
the last digit of 1359 is same as the last digit of 33, i.e. 7.

Ex.49 Find units digit in y = 717 + 734

Sol. 717 + 734 = 71 + 72 = 56, Hence the unit digit is 6
Ex.50 What will be the last digit of (73 )75
6476

= (73)x where x = 75 64

6476

Therefore, the last digit of (73 )75

6476

76

= (75)even power

will be 31 = 3.
55

Ex.51 What will be the unit digit of (87 )

6355

75 63

= (87)x where x = 75 63

55

.
= (75)odd

Cyclicity of 7 is 4.
To find the last digit we have to find the remainder
when x is divided by 4.
x = (75)odd power = (76 1)odd power
where x is divided by 4 so remainder will be 1 or 3, but
remainder should be always positive.
Therefore, the last digit of (87 )75
Hence, the last digit is of (87 )75

6355

6355

completely?
Sol. 20! = 1 2 3 4 .... 18 19 20 = 1 (21) 3 (22)
5 (21 31) 7 (23) ..... so on. In order to find the
highest power of 2 that divides the above product, we
need to find the sum of the powers of all 2 in this
expansion. All numbers that are divisible by 21 will
contribute 1 to the exponent of 2 in the product
20

= 10. Hence, 10 numbers contribute 21 to the

21
product. Similarly, all numbers that are divisible by
22 will contribute an extra 1 to the exponent of 2 in the
20

product, i.e

= 5. Hence, 5 numbers contribute an

22
extra 1 to exponents. Similarly, there are 2 numbers
that are divisible by 23 and 1 number that is divisible
by 24. Hence, the total 1s contributed to the exponent

Cyclicity of 3 is 4
To find the last digit we have to find the remainder
when x is divided by 4.
x = (75)even power = (76 1)even power , where n is divided by
4 so remainder will be 1.

75
Sol. Let (87 )

y y y
y! is 2 3 ......., where [ ] represents just
x x x

part.

Ex.47 In (46)13 unit digit is 6.

Sol. Let (73 )75

factorial one. Hence 0! = 1 = 1!

The approach to finding the highest power of x dividing

the integral part of the answer and ignoring the fractional

Ex.46 In (25)15 unit digit is 5.

Ex.48 Find the last digit of

(i) 357

The value of factorial zero is equal to the value of

will be 73 = 343.
is 3.

of 2 in 20! is the sum of ( 10 + 5 +2 +1) = 18. Hence,

group of all 2s in 20! gives 218 x (N), where N is not
divisible by 2.
If 20! is divided by 2x then maximum value of x is 18.
Ex.53 What is the highest power of 5 that divides of
x = 100! = 100 99 98 ...... 3 2 1.
Sol. Calculating contributions of the different powers of 5,
we have

100

= 20,

100

= 4.
5
52
Hence, the total contributions to the power of 5 is 24, or
the number 100! is divisible by 524.
1

Ex.54 How many zeros at the end of first 100 multiples

of 10.
Sol. First 100 multiple of 10 are = 10 20 30 ...... 1000
= 10100 (1 2 3 ....... 100)
= 10100 1024 N
= 10124 N
Where N is not divisible by 10
So, there are 124 zero at the end of first 100 multiple of
10.
PAGE # 4141

Ex.55 What is the highest power of 6 that divides 9!

9
= 1 and 2 = 0. Thus
6
6
answers we get is 1 which is wrong. True there is just

Sol. By the normal method.

(i) Conversion from base 10 to any other base :

Ex.58 Convert (122)10 to base 8 system.
Sol.

one multiple of 6 from 1 to 9 but the product 2 3 = 6

and also 4 9 = 36, can further be divided by 6. Thus,
when the divisor is a composite number find the

8 122
8 15 2
8 1 7
0 1

highest power of its prime factors and then proceed. In

The number in decimal is consecutively divided by the

this case, 9! can be divided by 27 and 34 and thus by 64

(In this case we need not have checked power of 2 as

number of the base to which we are converting the

it would definitely be greater than that of 3).

decimal number. Then list down all the remainders in

the reverse sequence to get the number in that base.

Ex.56 What is the largest power of 12 that would divide 49! ?

So, here (122) 10 = (172)8.

Sol. To check the highest power of 12 in 49!, we need to

check the highest powers of 4 and 3 in it.

Ex.59 Convert (169)10 in base 7.

Highest power of 3 in 49! = 22

Highest power of 2 in 49! = 46
46
= 23
2
Highest power of 12 will be 22. (Since the common

Highest power of 4 in 49! =

7 169
7 24
7 3
Sol. 0

Sol. Highest power of 5 in 36! is 8.

So, there will be 8 zeros at the end of 36!.
So, at the end of 36!36! , there will be 8 36! zeros.

BASE SYSTEM

Remainder

(169)10 =(331)7

power between 3 and 4 is 22).

Ex.57 How many zeros will be there at the end of 36!36! ?

1
3
3

Ex.60 Convert (0.3125)10 to binary equivalent.

Sol.

Integer
2 0.3125 = 0.625

2 0.625 = 1.25

2 0.25 = 0.50

2 0.50 = 1.00

Thus
The number system that we work in is called the

(0.3125)10 = (0.1010)2

decimal system. This is because there are 10 digits

in the system 0-9. There can be alternative system that

Ex.61 Convert (1987.725)10 (........)8

can be used for arithmetic operations. Some of the

Sol. First convert non-decimal part into base 8.

most commonly used systems are : binary, octal and

8 1987
8 248 3

hexadecimal.

8
8

These systems find applications in computing.

Binary system has 2 digits : 0, 1.
Octal system has 8 digits : 0, 1,..., 7.

31
3
0

0
7
3

Hexadecimal system has 16 digits : 0, 1, 2,..., 9, A , B,

(1987)10 = (3703)8

C, D, E, F.

After 9, we use the letters to indicate digits. For instance,

Now we have to convert (0.725)10 (........)8

A has a value 10, B has a value 11, C has a value 12,...

Multiply

0.725 8 = [5.8]
0.8 8 = [6.4]
0.4 8 = [3.2]
0.2 8 = [1.6]
0.6 8 = [4.8]

so on in all base systems.

The counting sequences in each of the systems would
be different though they follow the same principle.
Conversion : Conversion of numbers from (i) decimal
system to other base system. (ii) other base system to
decimal system.

...5
...6
...3
...1
...4

Keep on accomplishing integral parts after

multiplication with decimal part till decimal part is zero.

(0.725)10 = (0.56314...)8

(1987.725)10 = (3703.56314...)8

PAGE # 4242

(ii) Conversion from any other base to decimal

system :
Ex.62 Convert (231)8 into decimal system.
Sol. (231)8 , the value of the position of each of the numbers
( as in decimal system) is :
1 = 80 1
3 = 81 3
2 = 82 2
Hence, (231)8 = (80 1 + 81 3 + 82 2)10
(231)8 = (1 + 24 + 128)10
(231)8 = (153)10
Ex.63 Convert (0.03125)10 to base 16.
Sol. 16 0.03125 = 0.5
0
16 0.5 = 8.0
8
So (0.03125)10 = (0.08)16

Ex.68 The sum of first n natural numbers is a three-digit

number, all of whose digits are the same. What is the
value of n?
Sol. In 5 seconds, you can solve the equation
n(n 1)
= aaa (111, 222, etc) . How do you proceed
2
next ? If you think it's hit-and-trial from this point, you

are wrong. Here goes the simple logic. It might strike

you instantly if you have been working with numbers:

n(n 1)
= aaa = a 111 = a 3 37
2
n(n + 1) = 6a x 37

Look at the L.H.S. of the equation, n(n + 1) is a product

Ex.64 Convert (761.56)8 (......)16

Sol. In such conversion which are standard form
conversions, it is easier to
(761.56)8 (.....)2 (.....)16
Converting every digit in base 8 to base 2,
(111110001.101110)2 (1F1.B8)16

of two consecutive natural numbers. Therefore, R.H.S.

Ex.65 Convert (3C8.08)16 to decimal

Sol. (3C8.08)16 = 3 162 + C 161 + 8 16 + 0 161 + 8 162
= 768 + 192 + 8 + 0 + 0.03125
= (968.03125)10
So, (3C8.08)16 = (968.03125)10

numbers have been summed up and their sum is equal

ALPHA NUMERICS NUMBERS

should also be a product of two consecutive natural

numbers. One of the numbers is 37. Therefore, what
could the other number 6a, consecutive to 37 be? It can
only be 36, giving a = 6 and n = 36. Therefore, 36
to 666.
Ex.69 If ABC x CBA = 65125, where A, B and C are single
digits, then A + B + C = ?
Sol. As the unit digit of the product is 5, therefore, the unit
digit of one of the numbers is 5 and the unit digit of the
other number is odd. Therefore, AB5 x 5BA = 65125,

aa
Ex.66 If a b = 2, and

b b

where A = 1, 3, 5, 7 or 9.
then find the value of a, b and c.

cc 0
Sol. These problems involve basic number
(i) aa + bb = 11(a + b) (ii) aa, bb are two-digit numbers.
Hence, their sum cannot exceed 198. So, c must be 1.
(iii) Hence, cc0 = 110. This implies a + b = 10 or a = 6
and b = 4.
Such problems are part of a category of problems called
alpha numerics.
a 3b
a c
Ex.67 If _____
a a 9

As the product of two three-digit numbers is a five-digit

number, and not a six-digit number, A can only be equal
to 1. IB5 x 5B1 = 65125.
The digit sums of both numbers, 1B5 and 5B1 will be
same. Therefore, the product would give digit sum of a
perfect square. The digit sum on the R.H.S. is 1.
Therefore, the digit sum of each number can be 1or 8.
Correspondingly B will be 4 or 2 (as digit sum cannot
be equal to 1).

then find a, b and c if each of them is

distinctly different digit.

Sol. (i) since the first digit of (a 3 b) is written as it is after
subtracting ac carry over from a to 3.
(ii) there must be a carry over from 3 to b, because if no
carry over is there, it means 3 a = a.
3
2a = 3 a =
2
which is not possible because a is a digit. For a carry
over 1, 2 a = a
a=1
(iii) it means b and c are consecutive digit (2, 3),
(3, 4),.... (8, 9)

Keeping B = 2, we can see that 125 x 521 = 65125.

Ex.70 Find the four-digit number ABCD such that
ABCD x 4 = DCBA.
Sol. Any number multiplied by 4 will give us an even number.
Hence, the digit D when multiplied by 4 will give us an
even number.
Since A is the unit digit of the product it is even. Hence,
A = 2, 4, 6 or 8 (It cannot be 0). A is also the first digit of
the multiplicand and if A = 4, 6 or 8 the product
ABCD x 4 will become a 5 digit number. Hence A = 2.
Writing the value of A we get 2BCD x 4 = DCB2.
PAGE # 4343

Now for the value of D looking at the first and last digits

6.

How many numbers between 200 and 600 are divisible

by 14?

of the multiplicand, we can see that 4 x D gives the unit

digit of 2 and 4 x 2 gives the first digit of D. Yes, you got

(A) 28

(B) 29

(C) 27

(D) None of these

it right D = 8. Writing the multiplication again with the

value of D we get 2BC8 x 4 = 8CB2.

7.

is :

Now for the value of B. A number is divisible by 4 if the

number formed by the last two digits is divisible by 4.
Since the number 8CB2 is a multiple of 4, the number

The number of prime factors of (3 5)12 (2 7)10 (10)25

8.

(A) 47

(B) 60

(C) 72

(D) 94

How many three-digit numbers would you find, which

B2 should be divisible by 4. Or, the number B2 = 12,

when divided by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 leave the remainders 1, 2,

32, 52, 72 or 92. Hence the original number ABCD is

3, 4, and 5 respectively ?

21C8, 23C8, 25C8, 27C8 or 29C8. But the last 4

(A) 4

(B) 3

numbers when multiplied by 4 will not give you the first

(C) 2

(D) 1

digit of 8 in the product. Therefore B = 1 and the original

number is 21C8. We write the multiplication again

9.

Six strings of violin start vibrating simultaneously and

they vibrate at 3, 4, 5, 6,10 and 12 times in a minute,
find :

21C8 x 4 = 8C12.
Now for the value of C notice that when you multiply 8,

i. After how much time will all six of them vibrate

together ?

the unit digit of 21C8, by 4 you write 2 in the unit digit of

ii. How many times will they vibrate together in 30 min ?

the product and carry 3. The tenth digit of the product is

(A) 60 min, 31 times

(B) 60 sec, 31 times

1. Therefore, 4 x C + 3 (carry over) gives a unit digit of 1.

(C) 120 sec, 15 times

(D) None of these

Hence, C is 2 or 7. You can easily check by the hundreds

10. The HCF of 2 numbers is 11 and their LCM is 693.

digit in the product (which is C again) that C = 7.

If their sum is 176, find the numbers.

Therefore, our answer is 2178 x 4 = 8712.

(A) 99,77

(B) 110, 66

(C) 88,77

(D) 121, 44

11. If P is a prime number, then the LCM of P and (P + 1) is

1.

Convert 0.225 in to form p/q.

3
(A)
10
(C)

2.

3.

4.

5.

9
50

9
(B)
40

(D)

9
400

When (55) 10 is represented in base 25 then the

expression is :
(A) (25)25
(B) (35)25
(C) (55)25
(D) none of these
There are four prime numbers written in ascending
order. The product of the first three is 385 and that of
the last three is 1001. The last number is :
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 17
(D) 19
If logxy = 100 and log2x = 10, then the value of y is :
(B) 2100
(A) 21000
2000
(C) 2
(D) 210000
Find the value of x if 2logx 7 + log7x 7 + 3log49x 7 = 0
(A) x =

4
3

(C) x = 74/3

(A) P(P +1)

(B) (P + 2)P

(C) (P + 1)(P 1)

(D) None of these

12. Find out (A + B + C + D) such that AB x CB = DDD, where

AB and CB are two-digit numbers and DDD is a threedigit number.
(A) 21

(B) 19

(C) 17

(D) 18

13. Three pieces of cakes of weights 4

1
3
Ibs, 6 Ibs and
2
4

1
Ibs respectively are to be divided into parts of equal
5
weights. Further, each must be as heavy as possible.
7

If one such part is served to each guest, then what is

the maximum number of guests that could be
entertained ?
(A) 54

(B) 72

(C) 20

(D) 41

14. How many natural numbers between 200 and 400 are
there which are divisible by
i. Both 4 and 5?

(B) x = 71/2
(D) Either (B) or (C)

ii. 4 or 5 or 8 or 10 ?
(A) 9, 79

(B) 10, 80

(C) 10, 81

(D) None of these

PAGE # 4444

15. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 is divisible by :

(A) 3

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 13

16. If x is a whole number, then x2 (x2 1) is always divisible

by :
(A) 12

(B) 24

(C) 12 x

(D) Multiple of 12

17. If 653 xy is exactly divisible by 80, then the find the value
of (x + y).
(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 6

18. Find the unit digit of (795 358).

(A) 6
(C) 3

(B) 4
(D) None of these

19. When a number P is divided by 4 it leaves remainder

3. If the twice of the number P is divided by the same
divisor 4 than what will be the remainder ?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2

(D) 6

20. If (232 +1) is divisible by a certain number then which of

the following is also divisible by that number.
(A) (216 1)
(B) 216 + 1
(C) 296 + 1

(D) None of these

21. If the number 357y25x is divisible by both 3 and 5, then

find the missing digit in the units place and the
thousand place respectively are :
(A) 0, 6
(C) 5, 4

(B) 5, 6
(D) None of these

22. A number when divided by 342 gives a remainder 47.

When the same number is divided by 19, what would
be the remainder ?
(A) 3

(B) 5

(C) 9

(D) None of these

23. What is the remainder when 9875347 7435789

5789743 is divided by 4 ?
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) None of these

24. What is remainder when 784 is divided by 2402?

(A) 1
(C) 2401

(B) 6
(D) None of these

25. P is a prime number greater than 5. What is the

remainder when P is divided by 6?
(A) 5
(C) 1 or 5

(B) 1
(D) None of these

26. What is the remainder when 3040 is divided by 17?

(A) 1
(B) 16
(C) 13

(D) 4

27. What is the remainder when 650 is divided by 215?

(A) 1
(B) 36
(C) 5
(D) 214
28. What is the remainder when 7413 4113 + 7513 4213 is
divided by 66?
(A) 2
(B) 64
(C) 1
(D) 0
29. A number when divided successively by 4 and 5 leaves
remainders 1 and 4 respectively. W hen it is
successively divided by 5 and 4, then the respective
remainders will be :
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 2
(D) 4, 1
30. W hen Sholey screened on the TV there was a
commercial break of 5 min after every 15 min of the
movie. If from the start of the movie to the end of the
movie there was in all 60 min of commercials that was
screened what is the duration the movie ?
(A) 180 min
(B) 195 min
(C) 169 min
(D) 165 min
Directions : (31 to 35) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
In a big hostel, there are 1,000 rooms. In that hostel
only even numbers are used for room numbers, i.e.
the room numbers are 2, 4, 6, ...., 1998, 2000. All the
rooms have one resident each. One fine morning, the
warden calls all the residents and tells them to go
back to their rooms as well as multiples of their room
numbers. When a guy visits a room and finds the door
open, he closes it, and if the door is closed, he opens
it, All 1,000 guys do this operation. All the doors were
open initially.
31. The last room that is closed is room number ?
(A) 1936
(B) 2000
(C) 1922
(D) None of these
32. The 38th room that is open is room number :
(A) 80
(B) 88
(C) 76
(D) None of these
33. If only 500 guys, i.e. residents of room number 2 to
1000 do the task, then the last room that is closed is
room number
(A) 2000
(B) 1936
(C) 1849
(D) None of these
34. In the case of the previous question, how many rooms
will be closed in all ?
(A) 513
(B) 31
(C) 13
(D) 315
35. If you are a lazy person, you would like to stay in a room
whose number is :
(A) more than 500
(B) more than 1000
(C) 500
(D) 2000

PAGE # 4545

36. A 4-digit number is formed by repeating a 2-digit

number such as 2525, 3232 etc. Any number of this
from is exactly divisible by :
(A) 7
(C) 13

(B) 11

(D) Smallest 3-digit prime number

37. How many numbers between 400 and 600 begin with
or end with a digit of 5 ?
(A) 40

(B) 100

(C) 110

(D) 120

38. If (12 + 22 + 32 + .....+ 102) = 385, then the value of

(22 + 42 + 62 +...... + 202).
(A) 770

(B) 1155

(C) 1540

(D) (385 385)

39. Find the total number of prime factors in the expression

(4)11 (7)5 (11)2.
(A) 37

(B) 33

(C) 26

(D) 29

40. The largest number which exactly divides the product

of any four consecutive natural numbers is :
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 24

(D) 120

41. The largest natural number by which the product of

three consecutive even natural numbers is always
divisible, is :
(A) 6
(C) 48

(B) 24
(D) 96

42. A 3-digit number 4a3 is added to another 3-digit

number 984 to give the four-digit number 13b7, which
is divisible by 11. Then ,(a + b) is :
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12

(D) 15

43. Anita had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 as

one of the multipliers, she took 53. As a result, the
product went up by 540. What is the new product?
(A) 1050
(C) 1440

(B) 540
(D) 1590

44. Three friends, returning from a movie, stopped to eat

at a restaurant. After dinner, they paid their bill and
noticed a bowl of mints at the front counter. Sita took
1/3 of the mints, but returned four because she had a
monetary pang of guilt. Fatima then took 1/4 of what
was left but returned three for similar reasons. Eswari
then took half of the remainder but threw two back into
the bowl. The bowl had only 17 mints left when the raid
was over. How many mints were originally in the bowl?
(A) 38
(B) 31
(C) 41

(D) 48

45. In a number system, the product of 44 and 11 is 3414.

The number 3111 of this system, when converted to
the decimal number system, becomes :
(A) 406
(B) 1086
(C) 213
(D) 691
46. A set of consecutive positive integers beginning with 1
is written on the blackboard. A student came and erased
one number. The average of the remaining numbers
7
. What was the number erased?
17
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) None of these

is 35

47. Let D be a recurring decimal of the form D = 0. a1 a2 a1

a2 a1 a2 ....., where digits a1 and a2 lie between 0 and 9.
Further, at most one of them is zero. Which of the
following numbers necessarily produces an integer,
when multiplied by D?
(A) 18
(B) 108
(C) 198
(D) 288
48. W hat is the value of the following expression

1 1 1

(2 2 1) ( 4 2 1) (6 2 1) ..... (20 2 1) ?

9
10
(A)
(B)
19
19
10
11
(C)
(D)
21
21
49. Let N = 1421 1423 1425. What is the remainder
when N is divided by 12?
(A) 0
(B) 9
(C) 3
(D) 6
50. Let N = 553 + 173 723, then N is divisible by :
(A) both 7 and 13
(B) both 3 and 13
(C) both 17 and 7
(D) both 3 and 17
51. Convert the number 1982 from base 10 to base 12.
The results is :
(A) 1182
(B) 1912
(C) 1192
(D) 1292
52. If n2 = 12345678987654321, find the value of n ?
(A) 12344321
(B) 1235789
(C) 11111111
(D) 111111111
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8

53

is equal to :
(A) 9
(C) 4.5

(B) 8
(D) None of these

54. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 9. If

the difference between the two numbers is 18, find the
two numbers :
(A) 36 and 18
(B) 78 and 60
(C) 63 and 81
(D) 52 and 34

PAGE # 4646

55. If a, a + 2, and a + 4 are prime numbers, then the

number of possible solution for a is :
(A) three
(B) two
(C) one
(D) more than three
56. Find the square root of 7 4 3 .
(A) 2 3

(B) 5 3

(C) 2 5

(D) None of these

58. The number of positive n in the range 12 n 40 such

that the product (n 1) (n 2).... 3.2.1 is not divisible by
n is :
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 13
(D) 14
59. A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did
not want any body to know about him. One day, his
wife asked, How many gold coins do we have? After
pausing a moment he replied, Well ! if divide the coins
into two unequal numbers, then 48 times the difference
between the two numbers equals the difference
between the square of the two numbers. The wife
looked puzzled. Can you help the merchants wife by
finding out how many gold coins the merchant has ?
(A) 96
(B) 53
(C) 43
(D) 48
60. 76n 66n, where n is an integer > 0, is divisible by :
(A) 13
(B) 127
(C) 559
(D) All of these
10 25 108 154 225

(A) 4
(C) 8

is :

(B) 6
(D) 10

(A) 6 17

(B)

(C)

(D)

1
1
1

62. log 10 1 + log 10 1 + log 10 1 + ... +

2
3
4

. When simplified has the value equal

log10 1
1999

(B) 3
(D) 100

63. Arrange the following rational number in ascending

order

3 4 7 1
, , , .
7 5 9 2

(A)

4 7 3 1
, , ,
5 5 9 2

(B)

3 1 7 4
, , ,
7 2 9 5

(C)

4 7 1 3
, , ,
5 9 2 7

(D)

1 3 7 4
, , ,
2 7 9 5

(A) 3
(C) 5
(D) cannot be determine

12

25
2

(B) 4

66. If log x = n then 2n is equal to :

(A) log (x2)
(B) (logx)2
(C) log (x+2)
(D) log 2x
67. Given log2 = 0.3010, then log 16 is :
(A) 2.4080
(B) 1.2040
(C) 0.2408
(D) 1.9030
68. The value of [log10 (5 log10 100)]2 is :
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 10
69. If log10 [log10(log10x)] = 0.
(A) x = 103
(C) x = 155

(B) x = 1010
(D) None

70. If n = 67 then find the unit digit of [3n + 2n ].

(A) 1
(B) 10
(C) 5
(D) None
71. What is the decimal equivalent of the 25 digits of
hexadecimal number (100.....001)16 ?
(A) 223 + 1
(C) 292 + 1

(B) 224 + 1
(D) 296 + 1

72. If the decimal number 2111 is written in the octal system,

then what is its unit place digit ?
(A) 0
(C) 2
73. If

to :
(A) 1
(C) 10

17 , 2,12 25 , 3 4 .

65. If log 10N 2.5 then, find out total number of digits in N.

57. How many even integers n, where 100 n 200, are

divisible neither by seven nor by nine ?
(A) 40
(B) 37
(C) 39
(D) 38

61. The value of

64. Which of the following surds is greatest in magnitude

(B) 1
(D) 3

1
log 3 M 3 log 3 N = 1+ log 5, then :
0.008
3

9
N
3
3
(C) M
N
9
(A) M

9
M
3
9
(D) N
M
9
(B) N

74. The value of x, when log3(log2 x) + 2 log9(log7 8) = 2, is :

(A) 243
(B) 27
(C) 343
(D) 64
75. Find x if log10 1250 + log1080 = x.
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 7
76. P, Q and R are three natural numbers such that P and
Q are primes and Q divides PR. Then out of the
following the correct statement is :
[IJSO-2008]
(A) Q divides R
(B) P divides R
(C) P divides QR
(D) P divides PQ

PAGE # 4747

77. It is required to decide if 1107 is a prime number or

not. The number of trials of division necessary is :
[IJSO-2008]
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 235
78. The number of integers between 8 and

32 is :

[NSTSE-2009]
(A) 5
(C) 7

(B) 6
(D) 8

79. When expanded, the number of zeros in 100010 is :

[NSTSE-2009]
(A) 13
(B) 30
(C) 4
(D) 10
80. If a2 + 2b = 7, b2 + 4c = 7 and c2 + 6a = 14, then the
value of (a2 + b2 + c2) is :
[IJSO-2009]
(A) 14
(B) 25
(C) 36
(D) 47
81. Let N = 28, the sum of All distinct factors of N is :
[IJSO-2009]
(A) 27
(B) 28
(C) 55
(D) 56
82. The units digit of (1 + 9 + 92 + 93 + --------- + 92009) is :
[IJSO-2009]
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 9
(D) 3
83. The biggest among the following is :
(A) 21/2
(B) 31/3
(C) 61/6
(D) 81/8

[IJSO-2009]

84. If a, b 1, ab > 0, a b and logba = logab, then ab = ?

[IAO- 2009]
(A) 1/2
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 10

85. If 2009 = pa.qb, where "p" and "q" are prime numbers,
then find the value of p + q.
[NSTSE 2009]
(A) 3
(B) 48
(C) 51
(D) 2009
86. If HCF (p, q) = 12 and p q = 1800 n then LCM (p, q) is :
[NSTSE 2010]
(A) 3600
(B) 900
(C) 150
(D) 90

87. If

x
y +

be :
(A) 16
(C) 2

y
10
=
and x + y = 10, then the value of xy will
3
x
[NSTSE 2010]
(B) 9
(D) 10

88. The value of log10(3/2) + log10 (4/3) + ......... up to 99

terms.
[IAO 2008]
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 2.5
(D) None of the above
89. In the familiar decimal number system the base is 10.
In another number system using base 4, the counting
proceeds as 1, 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 20, 21 ....
The twentieth number in this system will be :
[IJSO-2010]
(A) 40
(B) 320
(C) 210
(D) 110
90. If the eight digit number 2575d568 is divisible by 54
and 87, the value of the digit d is :
[IJSO-2011]
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 0
(D) 8
91. If x < 0 and log7 (x2 5x 65) = 0, then x is :
[IJSO-2011]
(A) 13
(B) 11
(C) 6
(D) 5

PAGE # 4848

TRIGONOMETRY
ANGLE
An angle is the amount of rotation of a revolving line
with respect to a fixed line. If the rotation is in
anticlock-wise sense, then the angle measured is
positive and if the rotation is in clock-wise sense,
then the angle measured is negative.

(ii) Centesimal system : In this system a right angle is

divided into 100 equal parts, called grades. Each grade
is sub divided into 100 minutes, and each minute into
100 seconds.
Thus, 1 right angle = 100 grades (100g)
1 grade = 100 minutes (100)
1 minute = 100 seconds (100)
(iii) Circular system : In this system the unit of
measurement is radian. One radian, written as 1c, is
the measure of an angle subtended at the centre of a
circle by an arc of length equal to the radius of the
circle.

QUADRANTS
Let XOX and YOY be two lines at right angles in a

The number of radians is an angle subtended by an

plane. These lines divide the plane into four equal

parts are known as quadrants. The lines XOX and

arc of a circle at the centre is equal to

YOY are known as X-axis and Y-axis respectively.

These two lines taken together are known as the co-

length of arc
.
radius

s
r

ordinate axes. The regions XOY, YOX, XOY and YOX

are known as first, second, third and fourth quadrants

Where, = angle in radian, s = arc length and r = radius.

respectively.

(b) Relation Between Three

Measurement of Angles :

System

of

D
G
2R

90 100

Where, D = number of degrees,

G = number of grades,
and
R = number of radians.
NOTE :
(i) The angle between two consecutive digits in a clock
is 30 = (/6 radians).
(ii) The hour hand rotates through an angle of 30 in
one hour, i.e. (1/2) in one minute.
(a) Systems of measurement of angles :
(i) Sexagesimal system

(ii) Centesimal system

(iii) Circular system

(i) Sexagesimal system : In this system a right angle
is divided into 90 equal parts called degrees. Each
degree is divided into 60 equal parts called minutes
and each minute is divided into 60 equal parts called
seconds.
Thus, 1 right angle = 90 degrees ( 90)
1 = 60 minutes (60)
1 = 60 seconds (60)

(iii) The minute hand rotates through an angle of 6 in

one minute.
Ex.1 Express in radians 47 25 36.
'

36
3
Sol. 47 25 = 47 25
60
5
'

'

128
128 1
32

= 47
= 47

= 47
5
5
60

75

3557
3557 c
3557 c
=

=
=
.
13500
75
180
75

PAGE # 4949

Ex.2 Express in degrees :

2
(a)
15

Ex.6 The angles in one regular polygon is to that in another

as 3 : 2, also the number of sides in the first is twice

that in the second ; how many sides do the polygons

(b) ( 2)c .

have ?
Sol. Suppose the second regular polygon has number of

2
2 180

= 24
Sol. (a)

15
15
180

(b) ( 2)c = 2

side = x.
The first regular polygon will have number of side = 2x.

6
180

7 ( 2) = 114
=
11
22

'

8
6

= 114 60 = 114 32
11

11

= 114 32 60
11

( 4 x 4)
right angle
2x
And each angle of the second polygon

Each angle of the first polygon =

'

''

4 x 4 2x 4
:
=3:2
2x
x

4 x 4 6 x 12

x
x

4x 4 = 6x 12

= 114 32 44.
Ex.3 Express in radians 345g 25 36.
Sol. 345g 25 36 = 345.2536g
=

3452536 c
= 1.726268 c
2000000

Ex.4 One angle of a triangle is

2x
grades another is
3

x
3x
degrees, whilst the third is
radians ; express
75
2
all angles in degrees.

Sol.

2 g 2 9 3
x = x x
3
3 10 5

And

x c
x
12 x

180 =
75
75
5

But

3
12
3
x +
x +
x = 180
5
5
2

6x + 15x + 24x = 1800

45x = 1800
x = 40
Hence, three angles of the triangle are 24, 60 and 96.

Ex.5 The angles of a triangle are in A.P. and the number of

degrees in the least is to the number of radians in the
greatest is 60 to c. Find the angles in degrees.
Sol. The three angles in A.P. ; if y is common difference, let
these angles be (x y), x and (x + y).
x + y + x + x y= 180
x = 60
According to the question.
( x y)
60

c
(x y)
180

or (x y) = (x + y)
60
180
3 (x y) = x + y
4y = 2x
y = x/2
60
y=
= 30.
2
Hence three angles are 30, 60 and 90.

( 2x 4)
right angle
x

2x = 8 x = 4.
The number of sides in the first and second polygons
respectively are 8 and 4.
Ex.7 The radius of a certain circle is 30 cm, find the
approximately length of an arc of this circle ; if the length
of the chord of the arc be 30 cm.
Sol. Let ABC be the circle whose centre is O and AC is
chord.
In AOC, AO = OC = AC = 30 cm.

AOC = 60 =

Hence,
arc AC = radius

= 30
= 10 = 31.4159 cm.
3
3

TRIGONOMETRY
Trigonometry means, the science which deals with
the measurement of triangles.
Trigonometric Ratios :

A right angled triangle is shown in Figure. B is of

90. Side opposite to B is called hypotenuse. There
are two other angles i.e. A and C. If we consider
C as , then opposite side to this angle is called
perpendicular and side adjacent to is called base.
(i) Six Trigonometric Ratios are :
Perpendicular P AB
sin = Hypotenuse = =
H AC
PAGE # 5050

cosec =

13
, then prove that :
5
2
2
tan A sin A = sin4A sec2 A.

Hypotenuse
H AC
= =
Perpendicular
P AB

Ex.9 If cosec A =

BC
Base
B
=
=
AC
Hypotenuse
H

cos =

sec =

Hypotenuse
H
AC
=
=
Base
B
BC

tan =

Perpendicu lar
AB
P
=
=
Base
BC
B

Sol. We have cosec A =

So, we draw a right triangle ABC, right angled at C

such that Hypotenuse AB = 13 units and perpendicular
BC = 5 units
By pythagoras theorem,
AB2 = BC2 + AC2
(13)2 = (5)2 + AC2
2
AC = 169 25 = 144
AC =

cot =

BC
Base
B
= =
AB
Perpendicular P

1
cot

144 = 12 units

BC
5
5
BC
=
and sin A =
=
AC 12
13
AB
AB
13
B
and sec A =
=
AC
12

tan A =

(ii) Interrelationship in Basic Trigonometric Ratios :

tan =

1
tan

cot =

1
sec =
cos

L.H.S tan2 A sin2 A

2

1
cos =
sec

1
sin = cos ec

cosec =

1
sin

5
5
=
12
13

sin
cos
and cot =
cos
sin

Ex.8 If tan =

m
, then find sin
n

Sol. Let P = m and B = n

tan =

P
m
=
B
n

H2 = P2 + B2
H2 = m22 + n22
H = m 2 n2

sin =
sin =

m
P
=
H
m2 n 2
m
2

m n2

25
25
=

169
144

25(169 144 )
144 169

25 25
144 169

We also observe that

tan =

13
Hypotenuse
=
.
5
Perpendicular

13

12

R.H.S. sin4A sec2 A

4

5
13
=
13
12
5 4 13 2
=
13 4 12 2
54
25 25
=
=
2
144 169
13 12 2
So, L.H.S = R.H.S

Hence Proved.

Ex.10 In ABC, right angled at B, AC + AB = 9 cm and

BC = 3 cm. Determine the value of cot C, cosec C, sec C.
Sol. In ABC, we have
(AC)2 = (AB)2 + BC2
(9 AB)2 = AB2 + (3)2
C
[ AC + AB = 9cm AC = 9 AB]
81 + AB2 18AB = AB2 + 9
72 18 AB = 0
5cm
3cm
72
AB =
= 4 cm.
18
Now, AC + AB = 9 cm
A
B
4cm
AC = 9 4 = 5 cm
BC 3
AC 5
, cosec C =
,
So, cot C =
AB 4
AB 4
AC 5
.
sec C =
BC 3

PAGE # 5151

TRIGONOMETRIC TABLE

TR IG O N O M E T R I C RA TIO S O F
COMPLEMENTARY ANGLES
sin (90 ) = cos

cos (90 ) = sin

tan (90 ) = cot

cot (90 ) = tan

sec (90 ) = cosec cosec (90 ) = sec

Ex.14

Sol.

Ex.11 Given that cos (A B) = cos A cos B + sin A sinB, find

the value of cos15.
Sol. Putting A = 45 and B = 30
We get
cos (45 30) = cos 45 cos 30 + sin 45 sin 30

cos 15 =

cos 15 =

1
2

1 1
3

+
2
2 2

3 1
2 2

cot 54 tan 20

2
tan 36 cot 70

cot( 90 36 )
tan( 90 70 )
+
2
tan 36
cot 70

tan 36
cot 70
+
2
tan 36
cot 70

[cot (90 ) = tan and tan (90 ) = cot ]

= 1 + 1 2 = 0.
Ex.15.

Ex.12 A Rhombus of side of 10 cm has two angles of 60

each. Find the length of diagonals and also find its
area.
Sol. Let ABCD be a rhombus of side 10 cm and
BAD = BCD = 60. Diagonals of parallelogram
bisect each other.
So, AO = OC and BO = OD
In right triangle AOB
D
C
OB
sin 30 =
AB
1 OB
O

=
2 10
OB = 5 cm
30
A
BD = 2(OB)
B
BD = 2 ( 5 )
BD = 10 cm
OA
cos 30 =
AB
3 OA

=
10
2

OA = 5 3

AC = 2(OA)

AC = 2 ( 5 3 ) = 10 3 cm

So, the length of diagonals AC = 10 3 cm & BD = 10 cm.

1
AC BD
Area of Rhombus =
2
1
=
10 3 10 = 50 3 cm2.
2

cot 54 tan 20

2.
tan 36 cot 70

Sol.

2 sin 68 2 cot 15

cos 22 5 tan 75

3 tan 45 tan 20 tan 40 tan 50 tan 70

.
5

2 sin 68 2 cot 15

cos 22 5 tan 75

3 tan 45 tan 20 tan 40 tan 50 tan 70

5
2 sin( 90 22 ) 2 cot( 90 75 )

=
cos 22
5 tan 75

3(1)(tan 20 tan 70 )(tan 40 tan 50 )

5

2 cos 22 2 tan 75

cos 22
5 tan 75

3[tan( 90 70 ) tan 70 ][tan( 90 50 ) tan 50 ]

5

2 3
(cot 70 tan 70) (cot 50 tan 50)
5 5
[ t an ( 90 ) = c ot , c ot ( 90 ) = ta n &

=2

sin (90 ) = cos]

=2

2 3

5 5

= 2 1 = 1.

Ex.16 If sin 3A = cos (A 26) where 3A is an acute angle,

find the value of A.
Sol. sin 3A = cos (A 26)

cos (90 3A) = cos (A 26)

[ sin = cos(90 ]

90 3A = A 26

4A = 116

A = 29

PAGE # 5252

AREA OF TRIANGLE
In a ABC, a & b are the length of 2 sides of triangle
and is the included angle between them.
Then, Area of triangle =

1
ab sin
2

Proof :
Ex.17 A man is standing on the deck of a ship, which is 8 m
above water level. He observes the angle of elevation
of the top of a hill as 60 and the angle of depression of
the base of the hill as 30. Calculate the distance of the
hill from the ship and the height of the hill.
Sol. Let x be distance of hill from man and h + 8 be height of
hill which is required.
Const. : Draw a line from B perpendicular to AC,
i.e.BD AC

BD
BD = a sin
a
1
Area of triangle =
base height
2
1
=
b BD
2
1
1
=
b a sin =
ab sin
2
2
sin =

ANGLE OF ELEVATION
In order to see an object which is at a higher level
compared to the ground level we are to look up. The
line joining the object and the eye of the observer is
known as the line of sight and the angle which this line
of sight makes with the horizontal drawn through the
eye of the observer is known as the angle of elevation.
Therefore, the angle of elevation of an object
helps in finding out its height (Figure).

In right triangle ACB,

AC h

tan 60 =
BC x
h
x
In right triangle BCD,

3 =

tan 30 =
1

CD 8

BC x

8
x x=8

Height of hill = h + 8
=

3 .x + 8 =

3 8 3 + 8

= 32 m.

Distance of ship from hill = x = 8 3 m.

ANGLE OF DEPRESSION
When the object is at a lower level than the observers
eyes, he has to look downwards to have a view of the
object. In that case, the angle which the line of sight
makes with the horizontal through the observers eye
is known as the angle of depression (Figure).

Ex.18 A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is

surmounted by a vertical flag staff of height 5 meters.
At a point on the plane, the angle of elevation of the
bottom and the top of the flag staff are respectively 30
and 60. Find the height of tower.
Sol. Let AB be the tower of height h metre and BC be the
height of flag staff surmounted on the tower.
Let the point on the plane be D at a distance x meter
from the foot of the tower
In ABD
1
AB
h
tan 30 =

=
3
AD
x

x=

3h

.....(i)

PAGE # 5353

3000
= xy

x + y = 3000

( AB = CD)
3

.......(ii)

From equation (i) and (ii)

x + 3000 = 3000 3

x = 3000 3 3000

x = 3000 (1.732 1) x = 3000 0.732

x = 2196 m.

x = 3000 ( 3 1)

......(ii)

Dis tan ce covered

Time taken
2196
=
m/sec
15
2196 18

=
Km/hr
15
5
= 527.04 Km/hr
Hence, the speed of aeroplane is 527.04 Km/hr.

2h = 5

Ex.20 If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point h

metres above a lake is and the angle of depression
of its reflection in the lake is , prove that the distance
of the cloud from the point of observation is

Speed of Aeroplane =
In ADC
AC
AD
5h

3 =
x
5h
x=
3
From (i) and (ii)

tan 60 =

5h

3 h=

3h = 5 + h

5
= 2.5 m
2
So, the height of tower = 2.5 m

h=

Ex.19 The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point

on the ground is 45. After a flight of 15 sec, the elevation
changes to 30. If the aeroplane is flying at a height of
3000 metres, find the speed of the aeroplane.
Sol. Let the point on the ground is E which is y metres from

2h sec
.
tan tan
Sol. Let AB be the surface of the lake and let C be a point of
observation such that AC = h metres. Let D be the
position of the cloud and D be its reflection in the lake.
Then BD = BD.
In DCE

point B and let after 15 sec flight it covers x metres

distance.
In AEB

tan 45 =

AB
EB

3000
1= y
y= 3000 m
In CED

tan 30 =

CD
ED

DE
CE
H
CE =
tan
In CED

tan =

.......(i)

tan =

......(i)

ED'
EC

PAGE # 5454

hHh
tan

CE =

2h H
CE =
tan

4.

hand when the time is 7 : 20 am is :

.......(ii)

From (i) & (ii)

5.

H
2h H
=
tan
tan
H tan = 2h tan + H tan

H tan H tan = 2h tan

H (tan tan ) = 2h tan

H=

6.

2h tan
........(iii)
tan tan
In DCE
sin =
CD =

DE
sin

7.

CD =

8.

2h tan
CD =
tan tan sin
sin
2h
cos
CD =
tan tan sin

2h sec
observation is
.
tan tan

700

720

Hence Proved.

(B)

703

720

710

(D)
720

(D) None

If tan =

a
a sin b cos
then value of is
=
b
a sin b cos

a2 b2

(B)

a2 b2
a

9.

a2 b2
1

(D)

a 2 b2

If tan 15 = 2

a 2 b2

a 2 b2

3 , then the value of cot2 75 is :

(A) 7 + 3

(B) 7 2 3

(C) 7 4 3

(D) 7 + 4 3

4
3
If a =
cot2 30 + 3 sin2 60 3 cosec2 60 tan2 30
3
4
and b = 3 tan2 45 + cos 0 cot 90 then logb(a) is :

1
2

(B) 1
(D)

1
2

The angles of the triangles ABC and DEF are given as

follows : A = 900, B = 300, D = 900 and E = 300. If the side
is true?
(A) Sin B = 2 Sin E

(B) Sin E = 2 Sin B

(C) Sin B = Sin E

(D) Sin A = Sin B

4
3
cot2 30 + 3sin2 60 2cosec2 60
tan2 30 is :
3
4

(A) 1
(C)

10
3

(B)

20
3

(D) 5

11. The value of the expression

(B) 14 19 5
(D) 14 18 6

A horse is tied to a post by a rope. If the horse moves

along a circular path always keep the rope tight and
describes 88 metres when it has traced out 72 at the
centre, then the length of rope is :
(A) 60 m
(C) 70 m

(C) 270

10. The value of the expression

3.

(B) 240

BC is twice the side EF, which of the following statement

1
Degree measure of is :
4

(A) 15 195
(C) 15 18 6

(D) 140

7
Degree measure of
is :
6
(A) 210

(C)

Radian measure of 175 45 is :

705

(C)
720

2.

(C) 120

(A) 2

2h sec
tan tan
Hence, the distance of the cloud from the point of

(A)

(B) 100

(C)

DE
CD

CD =

1.

(A) 80

(A)

H
sin
Substituting the value of H from (iii)

Angle between the minute hand of a clock and hour

(B) 65 m
(D) 72 m

5 sin2 30 cos 2 45 4 tan 2 60

is :
2 sin 30 cos 60 tan 45
(A) 4
(C)

53
12

(B) 9
(D)

55
6

12. The value of tan 5 tan 10 tan 15 tan 20...... tan 85 is :

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) None

PAGE # 5555

13. If + =

21. If each of , and is a positive acute angle such that

and sin = , then sin is :

3
2

(A)

2
3

(B)

2 2
3

(C)

2
3

(D)

3
4

1
1
, cos( + ) =
and
2
2
tan ( + ) = 1, then the values of , and is :

sin ( + ) =

, then value of
2
14 tan 75 cos 7 sec is equal to :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

14. If 7 sin = 24 cos ; 0 < <

tan

is equal to :
15. If tan = 4, then
sin 3

sin cos
cos

(A) 0
(B) 2 2

(C)

(B) 6
(D) 0

17. The area of a triangle is 12 sq. cm. Two sides are 6 cm

and 12 cm. The included angle is :

1
(C) sin1 6

1
(D) sin1
3

1
2

(B) 0

(C) 1

(D) 2

1
22. If tan (A B) =

and tan (A + B) = 3 ,
3
0 < A + B 90, A > B. Then the value of A and B is :
(A) 45, 30
(B) 45, 15
(C) 60, 30
(D) none

C
2

(B) sec

C
2

(D) sin

C
2

24. An aeroplane when flying at a height 2500 m from the

ground, passes vertically above another aeroplane. At
an instant when the angles of elevation of the two
aeroplanes from the same point on the ground are 45
and 30 respectively, then the vertical distance between
the two aeroplanes at that instant is :
(A) 1158 m
(B) 1058 m
(C) 1008 m
(D) none
25. The shadow of a tower is 30 metres when the suns
altitude is 30. When the suns altitude is 60, then the
length of shadow will be :
(A) 60 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 10 m
(D) 5m

18. If + = 90 and = 2, then cos2 + sin2 equals to :

(A)

(D) none

(C) cosec

cot 2 sec tan

2
6
3
4
x sin cos

6
4 cos ec 2 cos ec
4
6

1
(B) cos1 6

1
1
(C) 37 , 45 & 52
2
2

A B
equals to :
cos
2
C
(A) cos
2

16. Find the value of x from the equation :

1
(A) cos1
3

(B) 60, 45 & 75

23. If A, B, C are the interior angles of a triangle ABC, then

(D) 1

(A) 4
(C) 2

(A) 45, 45 & 90

26. The angles of elevation of the top of a vertical tower

from two points 30 metres apart, and on the same
straight line passing through the base of tower, are
300 and 600 respectively. The height of the tower is :
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 15 3 m

(D) 30 m

19. The difference between two angles is 19 and their

890
grades. Find the greater angle.
9
(A) 63
(B) 35
(C) 27
(D) 54

sum is

20. If and are angles in the first quadrant, tan =

1

1
,
7

, then using the formula sin (A + B) = sin A

10
cos B + cos A sin B, one can find the value of ( + 2) to
be :
(A) 0
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) 90
sin =

27. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 200

metres above a lake is 30 and the angle of depression
of its reflection in the lake is 60, then the height of the
cloud (in metres) above the lake is :
(A) 200
(B) 300
(C) 500
(D) none
28. The angle of elevation of the top of tower from the top
and bottom of a building h metre high are and , then
the height of tower is :
(A) h sin cos / sin ( + )
(B) h cos cos / sin()
(C) h cos sin / sin()
(D) None of these

PAGE # 5656

29. When a eucalyptus tree is broken by strong wind, its

top strikes the ground at an angle of 30 to the ground
and at a distance of 15 m from the foot. What is the
height of the tree?
(A) 15 3 m

(B) 10 3 m

(C) 20 m

(D) 10 m

30. A man at the top of a vertical lighthouse, observes a

boat coming directly towards it.If it takes 20 minutes
for the angle of depression to change from 30 to 60,
the time taken by the boat to reach the lighthouse from
the point when the angle of depression was 30, is :
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 20 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D) 5 minutes

35. The trigonometric expression

sec 1
sin 1
cot2
+ sec2

has the value

1 sin
1 sec

[IJSO-2009]
(A) 1
(C) 1
36. (1 + tan2 ) / (1 + cot2 ) =
(A) tan2
(C) sec2
37. If cos + sin =

(A) 2 3
(C)

(B)

15 3
8

12 3
7

(D) None of these

32. The expression (1 tan A + sec A) (1 cot A + cosec

A) has value :
[IJSO-2008]
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) + 1
(D) + 2
33. A person on the top of a tower observes a scooter
moving with uniform velocity towards the base of the
tower. He finds that the angle of depression changes
from 30 to 60 in 18 minutes. The scooter will reach
the base of the tower in next :
[IJSO-2008]
(A) 9 minutes
(B) 18 / ( 3 1) minutes
(C) 6

3 minutes

(D) the time depends upon the height of the tower

34. In the diagram, PTR and QRS are straight lines. Given
4
that, tan x =
and "T" is the midpoint of PR, calculate
3
the length of PQ, in cm.
[NSTSE 2009]

[IJSO-2009]
(B) cot2
(D) cosec2

2 cos, then cos sin = ?

[NSTSE 2009]
(A)

31. In a triangle ABC, the internal bisector of the angle A

meets BC at D. If AB = 4, AC = 3 and A = 60, then
the length of AD is :

(B) 0
(D) 2

(C)

2 tan

2
cos sin

(B)

2 sin

(D) none of these.

38. The tops of two poles of heights 20m and 14m are
connected by a wire. If the wire makes an angle of 30
with the horizontal, then the length of the wire is :
[NSTSE 2009]
(A) 40 m
(B) 12 m
(C) 28 m
(D) 68 m
x 1
2 3 4
39. If sin 2 1 . 2 . 3 ...... x 2 = 1, 0 < x < 100, then the

value of x is equal to :
(A) 91
(C) 49
40. If p =

[NSTSE 2010]
(B) 80
(D) 46

1 sin x
1 sin x
cos x
,q=
,r=
, then
1 sin x
cos x
1 sin x

Which one of the following statement is correct ?

[NSTSE-2010]
(A) p = q r
(B) q = r p
(C) r = p q
(D) p = q = r
41. If sin + cosec = 2, then [sin8 + cosec8 ] will have
the value :
[IJSO-2010]
(A) 2
(C) 26

(B) 24
(D) 28

42. An aeroplane is flying horizontally at a height of

3150 m above a horizontal plane ground. At a

3 cm

particular instant it passes another aeroplane vertically below it. At this instant, the angles of elevation of

6 cm

the planes from a point on the ground are 30 and 60.

Hence, the distance between the two planes at that
instant is :
[IJSO-2011]
Q

(A)
(C)

(B) 9

59

(D) 10

(A) 1050 m.

(B) 2100 m.

(C) 4200 m.

(D) 5250 m.

PAGE # 5757

PROTOPLASM
INTRODUCTION
All the living organisms are essentially formed of
numerous coordinated compartments called as cells.
Every cell basically formed of two functional regions
as plasma membrane and protoplasm. The ground
substance of protoplasm, after removing nucleus, all
the cell organelles and cell inclusions, is called
hyaloplasm/ cytoplasm. It consists of high water
contents containing various compounds of biological
importance, some of which are soluble in water e.g.
glucose, amino acids, minerals etc. while some of
these are insoluble in water e.g. lipids.

A compound which releases H+ ion when dissolved

in water is called as an acid, e.g., HCl, H2SO4 etc. and
base releases OH- ion, e.g., NaOH, KOH etc.

Salt is a compound formed, when an acid and a base

react with each other.

A cell has many salts of Na+, K+, Ca++ and Cl-, HCO3-,
PO4-3 etc.

A large amount of minerals also occur as hard deposits

as crystals within the cell.

The salt concentration in cells and in body fluids is of

great importance for normal cell functioning.
(B) Gases: Oxygen, carbon dioxide , nitrogen and
other gases are also present in protoplasm.

Physical Properties :

(ii) Its specific gravity is slightly above that of water.

(C) Water : Water is not an organic molecule because

it does not contain carbon. The bonding properties of
water account for some of its characteristics, which
are very important to living organisms.

(iii) Its viscosity has been found to be like that of

glycerin.

(i) Water is the main component of cell contents and

body fluid.

(iv) It has power of responding to external stimuli, like

heat, electric shocks, application of chemicals
etc.This property of protoplasm is called irritability.

(ii) It is neutral with pH 7. It ionises to H+ and OH- ion.

Phospholipids, nucleic acids and proteins by
accepting or donating H+ ions from water attain specific
ionic state.

(i) Protoplasm is a polyphasic colloidal system.

(v) It exhibits streaming movement e.g. rotatory

movements in the leaves of aquatic plants like Hydrilla
and Vallisneria.

(iii) It forms an average 55 to 60% of living material.

(iv) Water dissolves more substances in it than any
other liquid due to it's highest known dielectric
constant (the measure of capacity to neutralize the
attraction between electric charges).Only polar
molecules dissolve in water.

(vi) Amoeboid movement of the protoplasm can also

be noticed in myxomycetes and Amoeba.
(vii) In general, the pH of cytoplasm is slightly acidic
i.e. 6.8, however pH of the nucleoplasm is 7.6 to 7.8.

(v) It is generally non toxic to the cell. Colloids like

starch, glycogen and protein remain dispersed in
water in cell cytoplasm.

Chemical Properties :
The collection of various types of biomolecules of a
cell collectively form cellular pool. Elements do not
occur in free form but combines to form organic
molecules and inorganic molecules. Organic and
inorganic compounds occur in a ratio of 9 : 1. Cellular
pool is mainly constituted by :

(vi) It is a medium of heat exchange and transfer.

(vii) It participates in chemical reactions both as a
reactant and a product. It forms an ideal medium for
chemical reactions, because dissolved molecules can
make intimate contact.

Inorganic materials include salts, minerals and water.

These materials generally occur in aqueous phase
which contains molecules and ions dissolved in water.

(viii) It acts as a lubricating and protective fluid.

(b) Organic Compounds :

Organic compounds as carbohydrates, lipids, amino

acids, proteins, nucleic acids and vitamins.
These molecules usually occur in aqueous and non
aqueous phase.

A large series of covalent compounds are formed with

the help of carbon, hydrogen and some other
elements. These are called as organic compounds.
Their special properties distinguish them from
inorganic compounds found in living bodies.

(a) Inorganic Compounds :

The inorganic substances include salts, minerals and

water.
(A) Minerals: These occur in ionic state and form only
1-3 % of cellular pool. Cellular functions fail to occur
in the absence of proper ionic balance in the cell
cytoplasm and extracellular fluid.

(i) Carbohydrates :

Carbohydrates can be chiefly composed of carbon,

hydrogen and oxygen. In this hydrogen and oxygen
atoms are present in a ratio of 2 : 1. As in carbohydrates
hydrogen and oxygen are present therefore these are
also termed as hydrates of carbon.
PAGE # 59

Carbohydrates have general formula as Cn H2n On.

Carbohydrates are widely distributed in plant tissues

and in animal tissues. In animals they are in the form
of glucose and glycogen. In plants they are in the form
of cellulose and starch.

One gram of carbohydrate yields about 4 kilocalories

of energy.

Carbohydrates can be defined chemically as aldehyde

or ketone derivatives or the poly hydric (more than one
OH group) alcohol and their derivatives.
Carbohydrates can be further divided as :
(A) Monosaccharides
(B) Disaccharides
(C) Polysaccharides
(A) Monosaccharides : These sugars cannot be
hydrolyzed into simpler forms. They have the general
formula C n H 2n O n . The simplest types of
monosaccharides are glyceraldehyde and
dihydroxyacetone. Depending upon the number of
carbon atoms present, these can be further subdivided
into trioses (e.g. Glyceraldehyde), tetrose
(e.g. Erythrose), pentoses (e.g. Ribose, Deoxyribose )
etc. Generally if free H is present at carbon 1 the
sugar is an aldose but if a CH2OH group is substituted,
the sugar is a ketose. They have reducing property
due to the presence of aldehyde or ketone group
present in them. Some examples are as follows :

Glucose : It is a hexose. It 's formula is C6 H12 O6 . It is

normally found in fruit juice and formed in the body by
the hydrolysis of starch, cane sugar, maltose and
lactose. Glucose is said to be the sugar of the body. It
is a principal sugar in blood, serving the tissue as a
major metabolic fuel. Normal level of blood glucose
is 80 120 mg / 100 ml of blood. When the blood
sugar level exceeds the threshold value i.e. 180 mg /
100 ml, glucose begins to appear in the urine. This
condition is called as glycosuria.
Structure of glucose
O
II
CH
I
H C OH
I
HO C H
I
H C OH
I
H C OH
I
CH2OH
Glucose simple chain

(B) Disaccharides : The disaccharides are sugars

composed of two molecules of the same or different
monosaccharides, united by a glycosidic linkage.
They have a general formula Cn (H2O)n1 . These
include maltose, lactose , sucrose.

Maltose: They consist of two glucose residues. It's

occurrence have been reported in germinating cereals
and malt. It is the major product of enzymatic
hydrolysis of starch.

Lactose: It is found in milk to the extent of about 5%.

Upon hydrolysis it yields a mixture of galactose and
glucose.

Sucrose : A single molecule of sucrose consists of

one glucose and one fructose molecule. It is the
common sugar of commerce and the kitchen. It is
derived commercially from either cane sugar or occurs
in varying amount in a variety of fruits, seeds, leaves ,
flowers, roots and in maple sugar.

On hydrolysis it yields an equimolar mixture of glucose

and fructose.
(C) Polysaccharides : Polysaccharides (Glycans)
are those which yield more than six molecules of
monosaccharides on hydrolysis. It's general formulae
is (C6 H10 O5)n. It's examples are as follows :

Cellulose : It is the chief constituent of the frame work

of plants, constituting 50% or more of all carbon in
vegetation. It is a linear and unbranched
homopolysaccharide of about 6000 to 10,000 - D
Glucose molecules.

Mammals do not have cellulase enzyme and therefore

cannot digest wood & vegetable fibers.

Purest form of cellulose is found in cotton which is

about 90%.

Starch : It is the most important food source of

carbohydrates and is found in cereals, potatoes,
legumes and other vegetables. Chemically, the starch
is formed of two glucose polymers : -Amylose (an
unbranched but spiral chain of about 200-2000 Glucose molecules) and Amylopectin (a branched
chain of about 2000-20,000 -Glucose molecules.).
Natural starch is insoluble in water and gives a blue
colour with iodine solution.

Glycogen : The counterpart of starch in the animal

body is glycogen thats why it is also called as animal
starch, which occurs in significant amount in liver and
muscles. Glycogen is non reducing sugar which
gives red colour with iodine. It is a branched
homopolysaccharide formed of about 30,000 D-Glucose molecules.

Note : Glycosidic linkage: The linkage between the

hydroxyl groups of two monosaccharide molecules
with the release of one molecule of water.

CH2OH
O
H
OH

H
OH

H
H

OH

H
OH
Ring structure of glucose

Note : The simple ring structure of glucose is given by

Haworth.

Fructose : Fructose or fruit sugar is also known as

levulose. Similar to glucose it is a ketohexose and
less readily absorbed by tissue cells. It is obtained by
the hydrolysis of cane sugar.

Galactose : It is found in milk sugar or lactose along

with glucose. It is synthesized in the mammary glands
and combines with glucose to make the lactose of
milk. In the liver it can be changed to glucose and thus
used in the body. It is a part of glycolipids and
glycoproteins.

PAGE # 60

Biological significance of carbohydrates :

Carbohydrates serve as an important structural

material in some animals and in all plants, where
they constitute the cellulose framework.

Carbohydrates are essential for life. Almost all animals

use them as respiratory fuel. In animal cells,
carbohydrates are in the form of glucose and glycogen,
which serve as an important source of energy for the
vital activities.

Carbohydrates play a key role in the metabolism of

amino acids and fatty acids.

Some carbohydrates have highly specific functions

e.g. ribose in the nucleoprotein of the cells, galactose
in certain lipids and the lactose of milk.
(ii) Protein : The name protein is derived from the
Greek word proteios, which means"Of the first
rank". This was coined by Berzelius in 1838. Proteins
are the complex nitrogenous substances found in the
cells of animals and plants. Chemically proteins are
polymers of molecular units called as amino acids.
These polymers contain carbon, oxygen, nitrogen and
hydrogen atoms. Usually sulphur atoms are also
present .Certain proteins contain phosphorus or some
trace metal elements, such as copper, iron etc. in
addition to the other elements. The proteins have high
molecular weight. One gram of protein yields 4
kilocalories of energy. The amino acids found in a
molecule of protein are linked together by peptide
bonds. The general structure of a amino acid is
represented by the following formula :

The R group is variable in different amino acids.

Amino acids can react with acid and base both, this is
due to the presence of carboxyl and amino groups in
them. There are about 20 amino acids that take part
in the formation of proteins. The 20 amino acids are
further divided into three groups :

Essential amino acids : They are 8 in number. They

are not synthesized in a human body and are obtained
from food etc. are called as essential amino acids.

Non essential amino acids : They are 10 in number.

They are synthesized in a human body and are termed
as non essential amino acids.

Semiessential amino acids : They are two in number

and needed by growing children and lactating and
pregnant women.

Essential
Am ino acids

Non-Essential
Am ino acids

Sem i-Essential
Am ino acids

Is oleucine

Alanine

Arginine

Leucine

As pargine

His tidine

Methionine

As partic acid

Phenylalanine

Cys teine

Threonine

Glutam ic acid

Tryptophan

Glutam ine

Valine

Glycine

Lys ine

Proline

Serine

Tyros ine

Note : Peptide bond : Polypeptide and simple protein

consist entirely of long chain of amino acids linked
together by peptide bonds formed between the
carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group
of other amino acid. A molecule of water is released
out during bond formation.
H
H O
H
H
O
I
I II
I
I
II
H N C C OH H N C C OH
I
I
R1
R2
O
H
H
I
II
I
HNCC
I
R1

H
O
H
I
I
II
N C C OH
I
R2

Peptide bond formation

Biological significance of proteins :

They act as a structural components of cell. They are

essential for growth and repair of the body.

All the enzymes are made up of proteins. They help to

catalyze various reactions occurring in our body.

They play important roles as hormones, antibodies, etc.

Haemoglobin , the respiratory pigment of animals is

a conjugated protein composed of colourless basic
protein the globin and haem.
(iii) Lipid : Term lipid was coined by Bloor. Fats and
their derivatives are collectively known as lipids (In
greek Lipas = fat). The principal component
associated with most lipids are the fatty acids. The
lipids are a heterogenous groups of substances which
have the common property of being relatively insoluble
in water and soluble in non polar solvents such as
ether, chloroform and benzene. They consist of
comparatively less oxygen. One gram of fat yields 9
kilocalories of energy. Similar or different fatty acids
participate in the composition of a fat molecule. The
lipids include fats, oils, ghee, waxes and related
compounds.

PAGE # 61

Note : Lipids generally consist of a single molecule

of glycerol and three molecules of fatty acids joined
together by ester bonds. Therefore these are also
termed as triglycerides. Three molecules of water
are released during the formation of triglycerides.

Biological significance of lipids :

They takes part in the synthesis of steroids, hormones,

vitamin D, bile salts etc.

They act as a solvent for fat soluble vitamins i.e. vitamin

A , D, E and K.

They act as storage compounds in animals, in the

fruits and seeds of plants and in other organism.

They act as structural cellular components particularly

in cell membranes. They are found in the form of
phospholipids, glycolipids and sterols.

They act as insulators. They provide electrical and

thermal insulation. They are deposited beneath the
skin and other internal organs to reduce the heat loss.
They also work as shock absorbers and other
mechanical impacts.

stranded i.e. it has two polynucleotide chains.

Types of RNA- A cell contains three types of RNA :

1.

Ribosomal RNA (r RNA) : This RNA is 80% of the

cell's total RNA. It is the most stable form of RNA. It is
found in ribosomes and it is produced in nucleolus.
They are present as 80 S type of ribosome in
eukaryotic cells and 70 S type of ribosome in
prokaryotic cells. It is the site of protein synthesis.

2.

Transfer RNA (t RNA) :

It is 10 15% of total RNA

It is synthesized in the nucleus by DNA.

It is also known as soluble RNA.

It is also known as adapter RNA.

It is the smallest RNA. At the time of protein synthesis

it acts as a carrier of amino acids.

It has the most complex structure.

3.

Messenger RNA (m RNA) : The m RNA is 1 5 %

of the cells total RNA. The m RNA is produced by
genetic DNA in the nucleus. This process is called as
transcription, m RNA is also called as template
RNA. It acts as the template for protein synthesis.

(iv) Nucleic acids : These are the hereditary materials

of living organisms. There are two types of nucleic
acids :

(v) Enzymes : Enzymes are protein catalysts for

biochemical reactions in the living cells. The
substance which increases reaction rate is called as
catalyst and the phenomenon is called as catalysis.
The term enzyme is derived from Greek word which
means 'in yeast' because the yeast cells were the
first to reveal enzyme activity in living organisms.
Enzyme was first introduced by W. Kuhne in 1878.
Berzelius was the first to define and recognize the
nature of catalyst. In 1926 J.B Sumner isolated the
enzyme urease as a crystalline protein for the first
time. Enzymes could be intracellular and extracellular
enzymes. When the enzymes remain and function
inside the cells, they are called as endoenzymes or
intracellular enzymes. The enzymes which leave the
cell and function outside the cell are called extra
cellular enzymes.

(A) DNA (Deoxyribose nucleic acids) : DNA is coiled

macromolecule made of two antiparallel chains held
together by hydrogen bonds. DNA has diameter of 20
. One turn of spiral has a distance of 34 and distance
between two adjacent nucleotides is 3.4 .

Nucleotides : A single nucleotide consist of following

parts :

Pentose sugar : It is a 5 - carbon containing sugar

which is ribose is RNA and deoxyribose in DNA.

Nitrogen bases : There are two types of purines which

include adenine (A), and guanine (G) and pyrimidines
which include thymine (T), uracil (U) and cytosine (C).
In DNA adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine
present while in RNA uracil is present in place of
thymine.

Phosphate group : PO4-3 group in the form of H3PO4

General properties of enzymes :

(B) RNA : (Ribonucleic acid) Structure of RNA is

fundamentally the same as DNA but there are some
differences. The differences are as follows.

They remain unaltered at the end.

They are required in small quantities.

They accelerate the rate of reaction.

They are proteinaceous in nature.

Enzymes are highly specific towards substrate.

Certain enzymes exhibit the property of reversibility.

In place of deoxyribose sugar of DNA, there is a

presence of ribose sugar in RNA.
In place of nitrogen base, thymine present in DNA
there is a nitrogen base uracil in RNA.
RNA is made up of only one polynucleotide chain i.e.
RNA is single stranded.

In RNA, polynucleotide chain runs in 3' 5' direction.

Exception : RNA found in Reovirus is double

(vi) Pigments :
The coloured substance found in the living being is
called as pigment. The beauty of nature is due to
animals, birds and flowers having different pigments.
The living beings depend on sun for energy. The green
pigment in nature is called as chlorophyll, can only
PAGE # 62

store light energy obtained from the sun, in the form of

chemical energy. Thus, chlorophyll is the nutritional
basis of life on earth. The colour of our skin is due to
the pigment melanin. Haemoglobin & haemocyanin
pigments play an important role in transportation of
oxygen in the body of living beings. Pigments belong
to the group carotenoid are found in both plants and
animals.

BIOCHEMICAL REACTIONS
The reactions undergoing inside a living cell to sustain
life are called as biochemical reactions. The biological
system can't use heat liberated in biological reactions
directly as they are isothermic so the biological
systems use chemical energy (ATP) to perform various
living processes. Biochemical reactions are catabolic
(breakdown/exergonic reactions) and anabolic
(synthetic reactions), collectively they are called as
metabolic reactions.

EXERCISE
1.

Which of the following is a disaccharide ?

(A) Galactose
(B) Fructose
(C) Maltose
(D) Dextrin

2.

Nucleic acids are made up of

(A) amino acids
(B) pentose sugars
(C) nucleosides
(D) nucleotides

3.

Which of the following is not a carbohydrate ?

(A) Starch
(B) Glycogen
(C) Wax
(D) Glucose

4.

To get quick energy one should use

(A) carbohydrates
(B) fats
(C) vitamins
(D) proteins

5.

Circular and double stranded DNA occurs in

(A) golgi body
(B) mitochondria
(C) nucleus
(D) cytoplasm

6.

The most abundant protein in human body is

(A) collagen
(B) myosin
(C) actin
(D) albumin

7.

Which is not a polysaccharide ?

(A) Sucrose
(B) Starch
(C) Glycogen
(D) Cellulose

8.

9.

The decreasing order of the amount of organic

compounds, present in an animal body is
(A) carbohydrates, proteins, fats, and nucleic acid
(B) proteins, fats, nucleic acid and carbohydrates
(C) proteins, fats, carbohydrates and nucleic acid
(D) carbohydrates, fats, proteins and nucleic acid
Term protoplasm was introduced by
(A) Purkinje
(B) Schultze
(C) Sutton and Boveri
(D) Van Mohl

10. Which of the following is a monosaccharide ?

(A) pentose sugar
(B) hexose sugar
(C) glucose
(D) all of the above
11. The process of m-RNA synthesis on a DNA template
is known as
(A) translation
(B) transcription
(C) transduction
(D) transformation
12. Which amino acid is non essential for a human body ?
(A) Glycine
(B) Phenylalanine
(C) Arginine
(D) Methionine
13. Double helix model of DNA was proposed by
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Schleiden and Schwann
(C) Singer and Nicholson
(D) Kornberg and Khurana
14. Which of the following nitrogen base is not found in
DNA ?
(A) Thymine
(B) Cytosine
(C) Guanine
(D) Uracil
15. Glycogen is a / an
(A) polymer of amino acids
(B) polymer of fatty acids
(C) unsaturated fat
(D) polymer of glucose units
16. Carbohydrate is a
(A) polymer of fatty acids
(B) polymer of amino acids
(C) polyhydric aldehyde or ketone
(D) none of the above
17. In which form, food stored in animal body ?
(A) Glucose
(B) Glycogen
(C) Cellulose
(D) ATP
18. Chemically enzymes are
(A) fats
(C) hydrocarbons

(B) carbohydrates
(D) proteins

19. Long chain molecules of fatty acids are obtained by

(A) polymerisation of two carbon compounds
(B) decomposition of fats
(C) polymerisation of glycogen
(D) conversion of glycogen
20. The amino acids which are not synthesized in the
body are called as
(A) nonessential
(B) essential
(C) deaminated
(D) all of them are correct
21. Fats in the body are formed when
(A) glycogen is formed from glucose
(B) sugar level becomes stable in blood
(C) extra glycogen storage in liver and muscles is
stopped
(D) all of the above

PAGE # 63

22. Which element is not found in nitrogen base ?

(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Carbon
(D) Phosphorous
23. Proteins are the polymers of
(A) amino acids
(C) enzymes

(B) natural protein

(D) nucleic acids

24. DNA polymerase is needed for

(A) replication of DNA
(B) synthesis of DNA
(C) elongation of DNA
(D) all of the above
25. Duplication of DNA is called as
(A) replication
(B) transduction
(C) transcription
(D) translation
26. Ligase enzyme is used for
(A) denaturation of DNA
(B) splitting of DNA into small fragments
(C) joining fragments of DNA
(D) digestion of lipids

30. In which stage of cell cycle, DNA replication occurs

(A) G1phase
(B) S Phase
(C) G2 phase
(D) M phase
c31. Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted pickle
because
[IJSO-Stage-I/2011]
(A) they become plasmolysed and consequently die.
(B) they do anaerobic respiration.
(C) water is not available to them.
(D) of all the reasons mentioned above.
32. Maximum vitamin A content is likely to be found in
the extract of
[IJSO-Stage-I/2011]
(A) sprout of pulse
(B) cod liver
(C) white muscles
(D) rose petals

27. Orange juice contains plenty of

(A) vitamin C
(B) vitamin A
(C) vitamin D
(D) vitamin E
28. Sucrose is composed of
(A) glucose & fructose
(B) glucose & glycogen
(C) two molecules of glucose
(D) glycogen & fructose

29. Similarity in DNA and RNA is

(A) both are polymers of nucleotides
(B) both have similar pyrimidine
(C) both have similar sugar
(D) None of the above

33. The ointment prescribed for burns usually contains,

among other ingredients,
[IJSO-Stage-I/2011]
(A) vitamin A
(B) vitamin B
(C) vitamin D
(D) vitamin E
34. Unsaturated fatty acids contain [IJSO-Stage-I/2012]
(A) atleast one double bond
(B) two double bonds
(C) more than two double bonds
(D) no double bond

PAGE # 64

SERIES COMPLETION
Series completion problems deals with numbers, Ex 5.
alphabets and both together. While attempting to
solve the question, you have to check the pattern of
the series. Series moves with certain mathematical Sol.
operations. You have to check the pattern.
Type of questions asked in the examination :
Ex 6.
(i) Find the missing term(s).
(ii) Find the wrong term(s).
Sol.

NUMBER SERIES

8, 12, 21, 46, 95, ?

(A) 188
(B) 214
(C) 148
(D) 216
(D) The pattern is + 22, + 32, + 52, + 72, .......
missing number = 95 + 112 = 216
3, 9, 36, 180, ?
(A) 1080
(B) 900
(C) 720
(D) None of these
(A) Each term is multiplied by 3, 4, 5 and so on
respectively. Therefore, the next term would be
180 6 = 1080.

(a) Some Important Patterns :

(b) Multiple Series :
(i) a, a d, a 2d, a 3d.......(Arithmetic Progression)

A multiple series is a mixture of more than one

series :

(ii) a, ak, ak2, ak3, ................(Geometric Progression)

a a a
(iii) a, , 2 , 3 , .............(Geometric Progression)
k k k

Ex 7.

Sol.
(iv) Series of prime numbers i.e. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ......
(v) Series of composite numbers
i.e. 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, .................
Directions : (1 to 10) Find the missing numbers :
Ex 1.

Sol.

16, 19, 22, 25, ?

(A) 27
(B) 28
(C) 29
(D) 25
(B) As per series a, a + d, a + 2d,.........
a = 16
d=3
a + 4d = 16 + 4 3

Ex 8.

Sol.

Ex 9.
Ex 2.

Sol.

Ex 3.

Sol.
Ex 4.

Sol.

9, 18, 36, ?, 144

(A) 70
(B) 56
(C) 54
(D) 72
(D) As per series, a, ak, ak2, ak3, ........
a = 9, k = 2
ak3 = 9 23 = 72
2, 6, 14, 26, ?
(A) 92
(B) 54
(C) 44
(D) 42
(D) The pattern is +4, +8, +12, +16, .......
240, ? , 120, 40, 10, 2
(A) 120
(C) 40

(B) 240
(D) 10

1
1
1
1
(B) The pattern is 1, , , ,
3
5
2
4
missing term = 240 1 = 240

Sol.

Ex 10.

Sol.

4, 7, 3, 6, 2, 5, ?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(B) The sequence is a combination of two series
I
4, 3, 2, ?
II 7, 6, 5
The pattern followed in I is 1, 1, 1
missing number = 2 1 = 1
14, 15, 12, 16, 9, 18, 4, 21, ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 3
(D) 5
(C) The sequence is a combination of two series.
14, 12, 9, 4, (....) and
15. 16, 18, 21
The pattern followed in is 2, 3, 5, .......
missing number = 4 7 = 3
1, 1, 4, 8, 9, ? ,16, 64
(A) 21
(B) 27
(C) 25
(D) 28
(B) (i) 1, 4, 9, 16 [12, 13, 22, 23, 32, 33.............]
(ii) 1, 8, __, 64
mixed combination
3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, ?, 132
(A) 58
(B) 42
(C) 90
(D) 120
(D) The difference between the terms is given
below as :
3

24 30

Difference 3

18

Difference

15

63

33
3

72
9
15

48

132
?

Therefore, alternate difference between the

difference is 3 and 15 respectively.
Hence, the next term would be 72 + 48 = 120.
PAGE # 65

Directions : (11 to 12) Find the wrong term(s)

Ex 11.

Sol.

Ex 13.

5, 8, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20, 23

(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 18
(B)
Sol.

12 28 64
140
37 (P) (Q)
(R)
Which number will come
(A) 1412
(C) 696
(A)

Therefore, number 12 is wrong and should be

Similarly
replaced by 13.
Ex 12.

Sol.

37

1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 88, 184

(A) 3
(B) 8
(C) 19
(D) 88
(D)
3

1
2

19

8
11

5
3

12

(Q)

(R)

(S)

(T)

78

164

340

696

1412

2+8

2+12

2+16

2+20

Therefore, the number 1412 will come in place of (T).

Ex 14.
184

89
47

24

(P)

2+4

42
23

(S)
(T)
in place of (T) ?
(B) 164
(D) 78

95
48

Hence, number 88 is wrong and should be

replaced by 89.
or 1 2 + 1, 3 2 + 2, 8 2 +3, 19 2 + 4, 42 2 + 5, Sol.
89 2 + 6

2
9
57
3
(P)
(Q)
Which number will come
(A) 113
(C) 3912

(T)

(A)
Similarly,
(P)

Directions : (13 to 14) In each of the following questions, a

number series is given. After the series, below it in
the next line, a number is given followed by (P), (Q),
(R), (S) and (T). You have to complete the series
starting with the number given following the
sequence of the given series. Then answer the
question given below it.

337
(R)
(S)
in place of (Q) ?
(B) 17
(D) 8065

(Q)

87

76

(S)

673

113

17

(R)

3361
54

65

Therefore, the number 113 will come in place of (Q).

ALPHABET SERIES
(a) Pattern of Alphabets Show Variation Based on :
(i) Position of the letters

(ii) Difference between the alphabets

(i) Position of alphabets :

Alphabets in order :

Alphabets in reverse order :

Directions : (15 to 24) Find the missing term(s) :

Ex 15.

Sol.

Ex 16.

Sol.

Ex 17.

B, E, H, ?
(A) K
(B) L
Sol.
(C) J
(D) M
(A) In the given series, every letter is moved three
steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters
of the next term. So, the missing term is K.
Q, N, K, ?, E
(A) H
(B) I
(C) J
(D) G
(A) In the given series, every letter is moved three Ex 18.
steps backward to obtain the corresponding letters
of the next term. So, the missing term is H.

A, Y, D, W, G, U, J, ?
(A) R
(B) T
(C) S
(D) P
(C) The given sequence consists of two series :
. A, D, G, J in which each letter is moved three
steps forward to obtain the next term
. Y, W, U, ? in which each letter is moved two steps
backward to obtain the next term.
So, the missing term would be S.
AG, LR, WC, HN, ?
(A) SX
(C) SY

(B) RY
(D) TX
PAGE # 66

Sol.

(C) The first letter of each group and the second Ex 24.
letter of each group differs by 11 letters between
them.
L
A
W
H
Sol.
12

11

23

11

11
R
18

G
7

Similarly,

Alphabetical
positions

11

Difference in
Alphabetical
positions
C
N
3
14
11

11

A B C 6 D E F 15 G H I 24

, 4 5 6
,

1 2 3
7 8 9
Alphabetical
positions
Difference in
Alphabetical
positions

Therefore, the next group of letter would be SY.

H

10 11 12

So, the missing term would be J K L 33

Directions : (25 to 27) Find the wrong term (s) :
Ex 25.

And
11

Ex 19.

Sol.

Ex 20.

Sol.

Ex 21.

Sol.

Ex 22.

Sol.

Ex 23.

Sol.

(ABC) 6, (DEF) 15, (GHI) 24, ?

(A) (IJK) 33
(B) (JKM) 33
(C) (IJK) 32
(D) (JKL) 33
(D) In a given series
Let A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4, E = 5, F = 6, and so on

11

Sol.

AD, EI, JO, PV, ?

(A) VD
(B) WC
(C) WD
(D) VE
(C) The first letter of subsequent groups have a
difference of 4, 5 and 6 places respectively, whereas
the second letter of the subsequent groups has a
difference of 5, 6, and 7 places respectively,
Therefore, on following the same pattern, we get Ex 26.
WD as the next term which would replace the
question mark.
Sol.
AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?
(A) SRQP
(B) SRPQ
(C) SQRP
(D) RSQP
(A) The first term is reversed to get second term.
The third term is reversed to get the fourth term.
Similarly, to get the sixth term, we reverse the fifth
Ex 27.
term. So, the missing term would be SRQP.
HEJ, JGL, LIN, NKP, ?
(A) MOR
(B) PNS
Sol.
(C) PMR
(D) NPT
(C) First letter of each group differs by 2 letters.
Second letter of each group differs by 2 letters.
Third letter of each group differs by 2 letters. All the
letters differ in the forward direction. Hence, the
next choice would be PMR.
XYQ, ZAR, BCS, DET, ?
(A) GFU
(B) FUG
(C) FZU
(D) FGU
(D) Here, first two terms of every group of letters
are in continuation, like XY, ZA, BC, DE, and the
third letter of each group is again in forward
continuation,
i.e. Q, R, S, T. Hence, the term replacing the
question mark would be FGU.

ABD, DGK, HMS, NTB, SBL, ZKW

(A) NTB
(B) DGK
(C) SBL
(D) ZKW
(A) First letter of first, second, third,.........terms is
moved three, four, five, ........steps forward
respectively. Similarly, second letter is moved five,
six, seven,......steps forward respectively and third
letter is moved seven, eight, nine,........steps
forward respectively. Hence, NTB is the wrong term
and should be replaced by MTB.
EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
(A) FQW
(B) GRX
(C) HTY
(D) ITZ
(C) In every term, first second and third letter is in
alphabetical order to its next term respectively.
Fourth term is not following the same rule. Hence,
HTY is the wrong term and should be replaced by
HSY.
D4V, G10T, J20R, M43P, P90N
(A) P90N
(B) G10T
(C) J20R
(D) D4V
(B) First letter of every term is moved three steps
forward in each next term. Second number of every
term of the pattern 2 + 1, 2 + 2, 2 + 3,............and
third letter of every term is moved two steps
backward. Hence, G10T is the wrong term and
should be replaced by G9T.

LETTER REPEATING SERIES

Pattern of such questions is that some letters in
sequence are missing.
(i) The letters may be in cyclic order (clockwise or
anti-clockwise).
(ii) To solve a problem, we have to select one of the
alternative from the given alternatives. The
alternative which gives a sequence form of letters
is the choice.

17Z5, 15X4, 13V3, ?, 9R1

(A) 11S2
(B) 11T2
(C) 11U2
(D) 11T3
Directions : (28 to 32) Find the missing term(s) :
(B) The first number & second letter of every term
is moved two steps backward & the third number Ex 28. a a _ b a a _ b b b _ a
of every term is moved one step backward. So, the
(A) baa
(B) abb
missing term would be 11T2.
(C) bab
(D) aab

PAGE # 67

Sol.

(A) we proceed step by step to solve the above Ex 35.

series:
Steps :

1.

The first blank space should be filled in by 'b' so

that we have two a's followed by two b's.

2.

Second blank space should be filled in by 'a' so

that we have three a's followed by three b' s.

3.
Ex 29.

The last blank space must be filled in by 'a' to keep

the series in sequence.
_ bca _ ca _ c _ b _
Ex 36.
(A) aabbc
(B) abbbc
(C) aabcc
(D) abbac

Sol.

(D)

Sol.

Sol.

Series is abc/ abc/ abc/ abc. So, pattern abc is

repeated.
Ex. 30

a_h_ _c_ ne_ h_ eac_ _ _ _ _

21_4 3_5 __2 54 ____ _ _ _ _
The last five terms in the series are
(A) 32524
(B) 43215
(C) 25314
(D) 32541
(B) By taking a = 2, c = 1, n = 4, h = 5 and e = 3, the
numbers series runs as 21543 15432 54321
43215. If first digit of a group of five digits is placed
as the last digit, we obtain the second group of five
digits and so on.
_ m y e _ _ y l x _ y l m _ _ l _ _ _ _
4 6 _ 5 8 6 _ __ 5 7_ 6 5 8 __ _ _ _
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 46758
(B) 74658
(C) 76485
(D) 46785
(D) By taking e = 5, l = 4, m = 6, y = 7 and x = 8 the
number series runs as 46758 67485 74658 46785.
By taking the digits in the groups of five, we find
that first digit of the first group (i.e. 4) is the third
digit of the second group and the last two digits
have interchanged their positions. The same rule
applies in others groups also.

a _ abb _ aa _ ba _ a _ b
(A) ababa
(B) aabba
(C) aabab
(D) aaabb
Sol(C) Series is aaabb/ aaabb/ aaabb. So, pattern Direction : (37) In the following question, three sequences
aaabb is repeated.
of letter/numbers are given which correspond to
each other in some way. In the given question, you
Ex 31. a _ c _ abb _ ca _ a
have to find out the letter/numerals that come in
(A) baca
(B) bbca
the vacant places marked by (?). These are given
(C) bacc
(D) bacb
as one of the four alternatives under the question.
Sol(A) Series is abc/ aabbcc/ aaa
Mark your answer as instructed.
Ex 32. bc _ b _ c _ b _ ccb
Ex 37. C B _ _ D _ B A B C C B
(A) cbcb
(B) bbcb
(C) cbbc
(D) bcbc
_ _ 2 3 5 4 _ _ ? ? ? ?
Sol(A) Series is bccb / bccb / bccb. So, pattern bccb is
p _ p q _ r _ q _ _ _ _
repeated
(A) 4 5 5 4
(B) 4 3 3 4
(C)
4
2
2
4
(D) 2 5 5 2
Directions : (33 to 34) The question given below is based
(C) Comparing the positions of the capital letters,
on the letter series, In series, some letters are Sol.
numbers and small letters, we find p corresponds
missing. Select the correct alternative. If more than
to C and 2 corresponds to p. So, p and 2 correspond
five letters are missing, select the last five letters
of the series.
to C. q corresponds to A and 3 corresponds to q.
So, q and 3 corresponds to A. Also, 5 corresponds
Ex 33. xyzu _ yz _ v _ _ uv _ _ _ _ _ _ _
to D. So, the remaining number i.e., 4 corresponds
(A) uvxyz
(B) vuzyx
to B. So, BCCB corresponds to 4, 2, 2, 4.
(C) uvzyx
(D) vuxyz
Sol.
(A) The series is x y z u v / y z u v x/ z u v x y/u v x y z
MISSING TERMS IN FIGURES
Thus the letters are written in a cyclic order.
EX 34.

Sol.

abcd _ bc _ e _ _ de _ _ _ _ _ _ _
(A) deabc
(B) edcba
(C) decba
(D) edabc
(A) The series is a b c d e / b c d e a / c d e a b / b e a b c
Thus the letters are written in a cyclic order.

Directions : (38 to 47) Find the missing number(s) :

Ex 38.

Direction : (35 to 36) There is a letter series in the first row

and a number series in the second row. Each
number in the number series stands for a letter in
the letter series. Since in each of that series some
term are missing you have to find out as to what Sol.
those terms are, and answer the questions based
on these as given below in the series.

15

12

20

(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 21
(B) In the first row, 6 + 9 = 15
In the second row, 8 + 12 = 20
In the third row, missing number = 4 + 6 = 10.
PAGE # 68

3
Ex 39.

10 2

Ex 43.

4
(A) 11
(C) 3
Sol.

(B) 6
(D) 2

(C) Clearly, in the column,

6 4
8
3

18 3
27 We take x in place of ?
2
95
15 x
Similarly in the column,
3
9 ,x
15
5

Sol.

In the column,

Ex 40.

Sol.

3C

27D

9E

7I

21K

3M

4D

7J

Ex 41.

Sol.

Ex 42.

Sol.

(A) 32
(B) 22
(C) 18
(D) 27
(B) In first figure] 5 4 + 6 = 26
In second figure] 8 3 + 5 = 29
missing number in third figure] 6 3 + 4 = 22

81
18

Sol.

88
? 11

9
(B) 21
(D) 81

In second figure, 9

6 ? 3
4

8 29 3
5

174

2 5
?

336

3 2 9
2 7 9
6 4 5
(A) 140
(B) 150
(C) 200
(D) 180
(B) In first figure]8 5 3 + 3 2 9 = 120 + 54 =
174
In second figure]6 7 5 + 2 7 9= 210 + 126
= 336
missing number in third figure]
3 2 5 + 6 4 5 = 30 + 120 = 150

15

21

25

14

2
18
2

Ex 47.

= 84.
= 81.

= 88 or x =

88 2
11

= 16.

Sol.

176

(A) 184
(B) 210
(C) 241
(D) 425
(A) The number at the bottom is the difference of
squares of two numbers given at top
In first figure] 112 92 = 121 81 = 40
In second figure] 152 72 = 225 49 = 176
In third figure] 252 212 = 625 441 = 184

Let the missing number In third figure be x.

x
2

40

(A) In first figure, 12

Then, 11

Ex 46.

(A) 16
(C) 61
Sol.

(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 40
(B) Clearly
In first figure] 6 3 4 2 = 18 8 = 10
In second figure] 9 5 5 3 = 45 15 = 30
In third figure] 6 5 2 5 = 30 10 = 20

11

(A) 16
(B) 9
(C) 85
(D) 112
(C) Hint ; 42 + 52 = 16 + 25 = 41
12 + 22 = 1 + 4 = 5
62 + 72 = 36 + 49 = 85

84
14 12

5 26 4
6

41
? 5

30 3

Ex 44.

(A) 11E
(B) 28G

(C) 35I
(D) 48F
(B) The letters in the first row form a series C, D, E
(a series consecutive letters). The letters in the
second row form a series I, K, M (a series of
Ex 45.
alternate letters). Similarly, the letters in the third
row will form the series D, G, J (a series in which
each letter is three steps ahead of the previous
one). So, the missing letter is G. Also, the
number in the second column is equal to the
product of the numbers in the first and third
Sol.
columns. So, missing number is (4 7) i.e. 28.
Thus, the answer is 28G.

33
6 3

7
48

3
?

(A) 47
(B) 45
(C) 37
(D) 35
(D) In first figure, 6 3 + 3 5 = 33
In second figure, 5 4 + 4 7 = 48
In third figure, 5 4 + 3 5 = 35
PAGE # 69

17.

EXERCISE-1
Directions : (1 to 25) Find the missing numbers :
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

2, 8, 18, 32, ?
(A) 62
(C) 50
16, 54, 195, ?
(A) 780
(C) 816
14, 316, 536, 764, ?
(A) 981
(C) 8110

(B) 60
(D) 46

3, 15, 35, ?, 99, 143

(A) 63
(C) 69

(B) 77
(D) 81

9, 16, 30, 58, ?

(A) 104
(C) 116

(B) 114
(D) 118

3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ?

(A) 192
(C) 162

(B) 183
(D) 147

1, 4, 12, 30, ?
(A) 60
(C) 64

(B) 62
(D) 68

94, 166, 258, ?, 4912

(A) 3610
(C) 1026

(B) 1644
(D) 516

22.
(B) 180
(D) 452

7,19, 55, 163, ?

(A) 387
(C) 527

(B) 329
(D) 487

1, 2, 9, 4, 25, 6, ?
(A) 51
(C) 50

(B) 49
(D) 47

24.

16, 33, 67, 135, ?

(A) 371
(C) 271

(B) 175
(D) 287

25.

101, 100, ?, 87, 71, 46

(A) 92
(C) 89

(B) 88
(D) 96

13.

6, 24, 60, 120, 210, 336, ?, 720

(A) 496
(B) 502
(C) 504
(D) 498

16.

(B) 581
(D) 481

2, 3, 6, 18, ?, 1944
(A) 154
(C) 108

100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ? 16, 8

(A) 30
(B) 36
(C) 14
(D) 32

15.

137, 248, 359, 470, ?

(A) 582
(C) 571

21.

(B) 210
(D) 258

3, 1, 4, 5, 9, 14, 23, ?
(A) 32
(C) 41

(B) 37
(D) 28

3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ?

(A) 720
(C) 1600

(B) 1080
(D) 2160

78, 79, 81, ?, 92, 103, 119

(A) 88
(B) 85
(C) 84
(D) 83

(B) 195
(D) 103

20.

8, 11, 15, 22, 33, 51, ?, 127, 203

(A) 80
(B) 53
(C) 58
(D) 69

2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?

(A) 194
(C) 252

2, 9, 28, 65, ?
(A) 121
(C) 126

1, 11, ?, 11, 11, 11, 16, 11

(A) 1
(B) 11
(C) 6
(D) 192

(B) 1048
(D) 9100

8, 24, 16, ?, 7, 14, 6, 18, 12, 5, 5, 10

(A) 14
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 5

(B) 112
(D) 108

19.
(B) 802
(D) 824

12.

14.

18.

0, 6, 20, 42, 72, ?

(A) 106
(C) 110

23.

Directions : (26 to 28) In each of the following questions, a

number series is given. After the series, below it in
the next line, a number is given followed by (P), (Q),
(R), (S) and (T). You have to complete the series
starting with the number given following the
sequence of the given series. Then answer the
question given below it.
26.

2
3
8
27
5
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
(T)
Which of the following numbers will come in place
of (T) ?
(A) 184
(B) 6
(C) 925
(D) 45

27.

5
18
48
7
(P)
(Q)
Which number will come
(A) 172
(C) 270

28.

112
(R)
(S)
in place of (S) ?
(B) 276
(D) 376

(T)

15
159
259
323
7
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
(T)
Which of the following numbers will come in place
of (R) ?
(A) 251
(B) 315
(C) 176
(D) 151
PAGE # 70

Directions : (29 to 35) Find the wrong term(s)

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

9, 11, 15, 23, 39, 70, 135

(A) 23
(B) 39
(C) 70
(D) 135
3, 9, 36, 72, 216, 864, 1728, 3468
(A) 3468
(B) 1728
(C) 864
(D) 216
2, 5, 11, 20, 30, 47, 65
(A) 5
(C) 30
121, 143, 165, 186, 209
(A) 143
(C) 186

(B) 20
(D) 47

(B) 165
(D) 209

9, 15, 24, 34, 51, 69, 90

(A) 15
(B) 24
(C*) 34
(A) 15
(C) 34

8.

9.

10.

11.

35.

(C) 69

(D) 132

105, 85, 60, 30, 0, 45, 90

(A) 85
(B) 45
(C) 105
(D) 0

4.

5.

6.

7.

ZGL, XHN, VIQ, TJU, ?

(A) RKX
(C) RLZ

(B) RKY
(D) RKZ

RML, VIJ, ZFH, DDF, ?

(A) HDC
(C) HCD

(B) CHI
(D) DIC

LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ?

(A) ELS
(C) GKS

(B) FMR
(D) FLR

MAD, OBE, SCH, YDM, ?

(A) HET
(C) GET

(B) HES
(D) UAE

2B, 4C, 8E, 14H, ?

(A) 22L
(C) 22K

(B) 24L
(D) 2M

15.

16.

Directions : (1 to 24) Find the missing term(s) :

3.

(B) OET
(D) PEV

(B) ZVX
(D) VZX

17.

2.

CYD, FTH, IOL, LJP, ?

(A) PET
(C) OEY

ZSD, YTC, XUB, WVA, ?

(A) VZZ
(C) VWZ

EXERCISE-2

1.

(B) ELS
(D) DLS

13.

9, 13, 21, 37, 69, 132, 261

(B) 37

JXG, HTJ, FPN, ?, BHY

(A) EKS
(C) DLR

MTH, QRK, UPN, YNQ, ?

(A) CKT
(B) ELT
(C) CLT
(D) EKT

(D) 51
(B) 24
(D) 51

(A) 21

(B) KBO
(D) LBN

12.

14.
34.

DFK, FEL, HDM, JCN, ?

(A) KBN
(C) LBO

X, U, S, P, N, K, I, ?
(A) J
(C) M

(B) K
(D) F

18.

1 BR, 2 EO, 6 HL, 15 KI, ?

(A) 22 NF
(B) 31 NF
(C) 31 NE
(D) 28 NF

Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
(A) F
(C) G

(B) K
(D) E

19.

P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?

(A) Y17O
(C) X17O

A, H, N, S, W, ?
(A) A
(C) B

(B) Y
(D) Z

20.

Z 15 A, W 13 C, ?, Q 9 G, N 7 I
(A) T 12 E
(B) R 11F
(C) T 11E
(D) R 13 D

Q, T, V, Y, A, ?
(A) B
(C) D

(B) C
(D) F

21.

B3M, E7J, H15G, K31D, ?

(A) N65A
(B) O63A
(C) N63A
(D) N63Z

X, A, D, G, J, ?
(A) N
(C) M

(B) O
(D) P

22.

5X9, 8U12, 11R15, 14O18, ?

(A) 17L21
(B) 17K21
(C) 17M21
(D) 17L23

Z, L, X, J, V, H, T, F, ?, ?
(A) R, D
(C) S, E

(B) R, E
(D) Q, D

23.

6C7, 8F10, 11J14, 15O19, ?

(A) 19U24
(B) 20U25
(C) 19U25
(D) 20U24

AZ, YB, CX, WD, ?

(A) VE
(C) EU

(B) UE
(D) EV

24.

B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ?

(A) J58Q
(B) J56Q
(C) J57Q
(D) J56P

(B) X17M
(D) X16O

PAGE # 71

Directions : (25 to 30) Find the wrong term(s) :

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

ECA, JHF, OMK, TQP, YWU

(A) ECA
(B) JHF
(C) TQP
(D) YWU

9.

10.

a _ cab _ a _ c _ b c
(A) bbac
(C) abba

(B) abab
(D) bcba

ba _ cb _ b _ bab _
(A) acbb
(C) cabb

(B) bcaa
(D) bacc

DKY, FJW, HIT, JHS, LGQ

(A) FJW
(B) LGQ
(C) JHJ
(D) HIT

11.

DVG, FSI, HPK, JNM, LJO

(A) DVG
(B) JNM
(C) HPK
(D) LJO

a _ bc _ a _ bcda _ ccd _ bcd _

(A) abddbd
(B) acbdbb
(C) adbbad
(D) bbbddd

12.

CDF, DEG, EFH, FHI

(A) CDF
(C) FHI

cc _ ccdd _ d _ cc _ ccdd _ dd
(A) dcdcc
(B) dcddc
(C) dccdd
(D) None of these

13.

a_baa_baa _ba
(A) a a b
(C) b b a

(B) b a b
(D) b b b

babbb_b_b_bb
(A) b b a
(C) a b a

(B) b a a
(D) a a a

m _ l _ ml _ m _ llm
(A) lmmm
(C) lmml

(B) lmlm
(D) mllm

(B) DEG
(D) EFH

ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS

(A) ZLA
(B) BMY
(C) FOU
(D) CNW

14.

G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L

(A) G4T

(B) J10R

(C) M20P

(D) P43N

15.

EXERCISE-3

Directions : (16 to 19) The questions given below are based

on the letter series, In each of these series, some
Directions : (1 to 15) Which sequence of letters when placed
letters are missing. Select the correct alternative. If
at the blanks one after the other will complete the
more than five letters are missing, select the last
given letter series ?
five letters of the series.
1.

2.

3.

4.

a_baa_aa__ab
(A) a a a a
(C) b b a a

(B) b a a a
(D) a b b a

_aabb_a_ab_b
(A) b b a a
(C) b a a b

(B) b a b a
(D) a b a b

aab_aaa_bba_
(A) b a a
(C) b a b

(B) a b b
(D) a a b

a__b_a_ab_aa
(A) a b a a b
(C) b b a b b

(B) b b a b a
(D) b a a b a

5.

abc _ d _ bc _ d _ b _ cda
(A) bacdc
(B) cdabc
(C) dacab
(D) dccbd

6.

a _ bbc _ aab _ cca _ bbcc

(A) bacb
(B) acba
(C) abba
(D) caba

7.

_bc__bb_aabc
(A) acac
(B) babc
(C) abab
(D) aacc
_ b c c _ ac _ a a b b _ a b _ c c
(A) aabca
(B) abaca
(C) bacab
(D) bcaca

8.

16.

_ _ r _ ttp _ _ s _ tp _ _ _ s _ _ _
(A) rstqp
(B) tsrqp
(C) rstpq
(D) None

17.

_ _ x _ zbxazyxabyz _ _ _ _ _
(A) abxzy
(B) abzxy
(C) abxyz
(D) bxayz

18.

x _ xxy _ x _ xy _ yxx _ _ yy _ y
(A) xyyyy
(B) xxyyx
(C) yxxyx
(D) xyxyx

19.

_ _ r _ tqrptsrpqst _ _ _ _ _
(A) pqrts
(B) pqtrs
(C) pqrst
(D) qrpst

Directions : (20 to 23) There is a letter series in the first row

and a number series in the second row. Each
number in the number series stands for a letter in
the letter series. Since in each of that series some
term are missing you have to find out as to what
those terms are, and answer the questions based
on these as given below in the series.
20.

ab_cd_a_abd_dba_
1_3_32_1___4____
The last four terms in the series are
(A) 1234
(B) 3112
(C) 3211
(D) 4312
PAGE # 72

21.

22.

23.

_bnt _ _nam _nab_ _a__ _ _

13_25 3__ 5 24_32 5__ _ __
The last five terms in the series are
(A) 13425
(B) 41325
(C) 34125
(D) 13452
n _ g f _ t _ f h t n _ _ t _ b _ f
1 3_ 2 4 5 0 _ 4 _ _ 3 _ _ _ _ _ _
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 50123
(B) 40321
(C) 40231
(D) 51302

3.

_ m i a x _ i r x a _ _ma _ _ _ _ _ _
4 _ 5 _7 3 _ _ _6 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
The last five term of the letter series are
(A) r m x i a
(B) x m r a i
(C) x r m a i
(D) r m i x a

25.

_ A C _ B D _ CD C D
2 _4 1 _ 1 4 _ _ _ _
r s _ q r _ p ? ? ? ?
(A) p q p q
(B) p r p r
(C) r q r q
(D) r s r s

6.

(A) 235
(C) 144

(B) 141
(D) 188

12

18

30

16

(A) 18
(C) 9

12

_ A D A C B _ _ B D C C
2 4 _ _2 3 5 3 _ _ _ _
p _ _ q _ _ r s ? ? ? ?
(A) p r s s
(B) p s r r
(C) r p s s
(D) s r p p

36

18 27

(B) 12
(D) 6

21

(A) 14
(C) 32

A _ B A C _ D _ B C D C
_ 4 _ 3 _ 2 _ 5 ? ? ? ?
d c _ _ b a c b _ _ _ _
(A) 2 4 5 4
(B) 2 5 4 5
(C) 3 4 5 4
(D) 4 5 2 5

32 40

7.
26.

(B) 92
(D) 102

4.

Directions : (24 to 26) In each of the following questions,

three sequences of letter/numbers are given which
5.
correspond to each other in some way. In each
question, you have to find out the letter/numerals
that come in the vacant places marked by (?). These
are given as one of the four alternatives under the
question. Mark your answer as instructed.
24.

(A) 112
(C) 82

10
(B) 22
(D) 320

15

(A) 12
(C) 16

(B) 11
(D) 26

(A) 72
(C) 9

(B) 18
(D) 19

(A) 1
(C) 90

(B) 18
(D) 225

(A) 20
(C) 24

(B) 22
(D) 12

EXERCISE-4
8.
Directions : (1 to 39) Find the missing term in the given
figures

1.
9.
(A) 36
(C) 25

(B) 9
(D) 64

2.

10.
(A) 14
(C) 11

(B) 18
(D) 13

PAGE # 73

11.

7
12
15

11 49
8 54
4
?

(A) 36
(C) 25

12.

18 24 32
12 14 16
3
?
4
72 112 128

(A) 28
(C) 81

(B) 3
(D) 5

2
4

10

27
80

39
45

29

33

42

20.

43

43

(A) 69
(C) 50

30
70

59

31
44

35

43

48

15

56

(A) 1
(C) 3

(B) 142
(D) 198

7
3
4
74

12

140
4 10 7

3
(B) 14
(D) 22

4
9

3
24

9
?

(A) 117
(C) 32

(B) 36
(D) 26

(A) 26
(C) 27

(B) 25
(D) 30

4
13

21.

34
184

12 18 30

16 32 40

36 18 34

30

44

22.

(A) 48
(C) 44

23.

17.

(B) 145
(D) 18

8
11

20

6
?
8
104
(B) 2
(D) 4

5
20

(B) 9
(D) 64

21

16 109 2

22 53 19

15

(A) 25
(C) 7

(A) 33
(C) 135

2
6

10

(A) 127
(C) 158

1
3
5
35

80

?
39

38

15.

40

(B) 49
(D) 60

101

6
(B) 3
(D) 5

29

72

(A) 16
(C) 20

J90

(A) 1
(C) 4

16.

6
4

H70

14.

19.

C26

(B) 36
(D) 49

(A) 2
(C) 4

13.

18.

(B) 7
(D) 0

24.

17

?
13

(B) 129
(D) 49

3 33 2

4 54 2

(A) 78
(C) 94

51

6
3

4
(B) 82
(D) 86
PAGE # 74

48

2
25.

28 5

7 38 4

34.

(A) 14
(C) 11

10

56

90

20

(A) 0
(C) 5

(B) 18
(D) 26

(B) 3
(D) 7

15
35.

(A) 9
(C) 10
27.

HCA - 138 FED - 456 E?H - 87?

BIG - 792

36
49 26 64
25

9
81 21
16

25

64

25
?

144

11

(A) 48
(C) 35

(B) 72
(D) 120

(A) 38
(C) 4

(B) 64
(D) 16

3
8

101

36

12 ?

15

56

(A) 127
(C) 158

184

(B) 142
(D) 198

(A) 3
(C) 5

34

38
35

48

43

37.

(B) 23
(D) 31

2
3

36.

(B) I, 9
(D) I, 5

(A) 19
(C) 25

29.

(B) 11
(D) 12

(A) G, 6
(C) G, 5

28.

16

13

65

5
26.

80

(B) 4
(D) 6

12 18 30

16 32 40

36 18 27

38.

29
30.

39

27
80

45
(A) 69
(C) 50

33
43

29
42
43

30
70

31
44

59

40
80

?
39

(B) 49
(D) 60

(A) 18
(C) 9

10
20
39.

(B) 12
(D) 6

9
6

16

16
12

?
20

31.
(A) 0
(C) 3

(B) 2
(D) 1

(A) 60
(C) 21
40.

(B) 50
(D) 25

Find the value of X in the following figure :

15

32.

4
33

(A) 12
(C) 14
33

27

(B) 9
(D) 10

(B) JNS
(D) KRS

2
36

8
32

Find the missing letters from left to right.

(A) JSN
(C) JRS

(A) 3
(C) 8

18

22

11

12

(B) 4
(D) 12
PAGE # 75

PUZZLE TEST
Directions : (1 to 5) Read the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below it.
(i). Five professors (Dr. Joshi, Dr. Davar, Dr.
Natrajan, Dr. Choudhary and Dr. Zia) teach five
different subjects (zoology, physics, botany, geology
and history) in four universities ( Delhi, Gujarat,
Mumbai, and Osmania). Do not assume any
specific order.
(ii). Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in Mumbai
University .
(iii). Dr. Natrajan is neither in Osmania University
nor in Delhi University and he teaches neither
geology nor history.
(iv). Dr. Zia teaches physics but neither in Mumbai
University nor in Osmania University.
(v). Dr. Joshi teaches history in Delhi University.
(vi). Two professors are from Gujarat University.
(vii). One professor teaches only one subject and
in one University only.
Ex 1.

Ex 2.

Ex 3.

Ex 4.

Ex 5.

Sol. :

Who teaches geology ?

(A) Dr Natrajan
(C) Dr. Davar

(B) Dr. Zia

(D) Dr. Joshi

Which university is Dr. Zia from ?

(A) Gujarat
(B) Mumbai
(C) Delhi
(D) Osmania
Who teaches botany ?
(A) Dr. Zia
(C) Dr. Joshi

(B) Dr. Davar

(D) Dr. Natrajan

Names
Dr. Joshi
Dr. Davar
Dr. Natrajan
Dr. Choudhary
Dr. Zia

University
Delhi
Osmania
Gujarat
Mumbai

Subject
History
Geology
Botany
Zoology

Gujarat

Physics

On the basis of the above table, rest of the questions

can be solved very easily.
1.

(C) Dr. Davar teaches geology.

2.

(A) Dr. Zia is from Gujarat university.

3.

(D) Dr. Natrajan teaches botany.

4.

(B) Dr. Davar is from Osmania University.

5.

(D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University is the correct

combination.

Ex 6.

Ramesh is taller than Vinay who is not as tall as

Karan. Sanjay is taller than Anupam but shorter
than Vinay. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Ramesh
(B) Karan
(C) Vinay
(D) Cannot be determined
(D) In this question ranking of Karan is not defined.
Consequently, either Ram or Karan occupies the
top position
with regard to height. Hence,
option (d) is the correct choice.

Sol.

Directions : (7 to 11) Read the following information carefully

and answer the questions given below it :
There are five men A, B, C, D and E and six women
P, Q, R, S, T and U. A, B and R are advocates; C, D,
Which of the following combinations is correct ?
P, Q and S are doctors and the rest are teachers.
(A) Delhi University - Dr. Zia
Some teams are to be selected from amongst
(B) Dr. Choudhary - geology
these eleven persons subject to the following
(C) Dr. Davar - Mumbai University
conditions :
(D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University
A, P and U have to be together.
(1 to 5)
B cannot go with D or R.
From the given information in the question :
E and Q have to be together.
From II, we get Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in
C and T have to be together.
Mumbai University.
D and P cannot go together.
From III, We get Dr. Natrajan is neither in Osmania
C cannot go with Q.
nor in Delhi University. Therefore, he will be either
If the team is to consist of two male advocates, two
at Mumbai or Gujarat University. Similarly, as he Ex 7.
lady doctors and one teacher, the members of the
teaches neither geology nor history, therefore, he
team are
must be teaching physics or botany. ..........(1)
(A) A B P Q U
(B) A B P U S
From IV, Dr. Zia Physics but as he is not teaching
(C) A P R S U
(D) B E Q R S
in either Mumbai or Osmania University, he must
(B) The male advocates are A and B, lady doctors
be teaching either in Delhi or Gujarat University...(2) Sol.
are P, Q and S ; teachers are E, T and U.
Form V, we get Dr Joshi teaches history in Delhi
Now, A and B will be selected.
University Form (1) and (2), we conclude that Dr
Natarajan teaches botany. And from (1), (2) and VI,
A, P and U have to be together. Now, we have to
we get both Natarajan and Zia teach in Gujarat
select one lady doctor more. It can be Q or S. But Q
University. Finally, On summarisation we can
and E have to be together. Since E is not selected,
prepare the following table.
so S will be selected. Thus, the team is A B P U S.
Who is from Osmania University ?
(A) Dr. Natrajan
(B) Dr. Davar
(C) Dr. Joshi
(D) Dr. Zia

PAGE # 76

Ex 8.

Sol.

Ex 9.

If the team is to consist of one advocate, two Directions : (12 to 15) Read the following paragraph
carefully :
doctors, three teachers and C may not go with T,
Four women A, B, C and D and three men E, F and
the members of the team are :
G play bridge, a game for four players.
(A) A E P Q S U
(B) A E P Q T U
(i) The group consists of three married couples
and a widow.
(C) B E Q S T U
(D) E Q R S T U
(ii) Spouses are never partners in a game.
(B) The advocates are A, B and R ; doctors are
(iii) No more than one married couple ever plays in
C, D, P, Q, S ; teachers are E, T and U. The team
the same game.
(iv) One day they played four games as follows.
consists of 3 teachers i.e. E, T, U. Now, A, P and U
A and E versus B and F.
have to be together. E and Q have to be together.
A and G versus D and F.
Thus, the team is A E P Q T U.
B and C versus F and G.
C and E versus D and G.
If the team is to consist of one male advocate, one
male doctor, one lady doctor and two teachers, the Ex 12.
members of the team are :

Sol.

(A) A C P T U

(B) A D E P T

(C) A D E P U

(D) B C E Q U

Ex 13.

(A) The male advocates are A and B ; male doctors

are C and D ; lady doctors are P, Q and S ; teachers
are E, T and U. If A is selected, P and U will be Ex 14.
selected. D and P cannot go together. So, a male
doctor C will be selected. C and T have to be
together. Thus, the team is A C P T U. If B is Ex 15.
selected, D will not be selected. So, male doctor C

Whom is E married to ?
(A) A
(C) C

(B) B
(D) D

Whom is F married to ?
(A) A
(C) C

(B) B
(D) D

Whom is G married to ?
(A) A
(C) C

(B) B
(D) D

Which of the following is a widow ?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

will be chosen. C and T have to be together. Now,

the second teacher to be selected is E or U. But, U
cannot go without A. So, E will be selected. E and Q
have to be together. Thus, the team can also be
B C E Q T.
Ex 10.

If the team is to consist of one advocate, three

doctors and one male teacher, the members of

Sol. : (12 to 15)

From (iv), is married either to A or to C. If F is married
to A, then G is married to B or to C. If G is married to
B, then E is married to D ; if G is married to C, then
E is married to B or to D. If F is married to C, then G
is married to B ; then E is married to D. Hence, the
married couples are : FA, GB, ED or FA, GC, EB or
FA, GC, ED or FC, GB, ED. Of these, only FA, GB,
ED does not contradict any of the statements.

the team are:

Sol.

(A) A D P S U

(B) C D R S T

(C) D E Q R S

(D) D E Q R T

12.

(D) E is married to D.

13.

(A) F is married to A.

(C) The advocates are A, B and R ; the doctors are 14.

C, D, P, Q and S ; male teacher is E. Clearly, E will
15.
be selected. E and Q have to be together. C and Q
cannot be together. So, C will not be selected. P Ex 16.
also cannot be selected because U is not selected.
So, two other doctors D and S will be selected. P is
not selected, so A will not be selected. D is
selected, so B cannot be selected. Thus, the team
is D E Q R S.

Ex 11.

If the team is to consist of two advocates, two Sol.

doctors, two teachers and not more than three
ladies, the members of the team are :

Sol.

(A) A B C P T U

(B) A C P R T U

(C) A E P Q R T

(D) B C E Q R T

(B) G is married to B.
(C) C is a widow.
A vagabond runs out of cigarettes. He searches for
the stubs, having learnt that 7 stubs can make a
new cigarette, good enough to be smoked, he
gathers 49 stubs, If he smokes 1 cigarette every
three - quarters of an hour, how long will his supply
last ?
(A) 5.25 hr
(B) 6 hr
(C) 4.5 hr
(D) 3 hr
(B) He has got =

49
7 cigarettes.
7

The duration of time he will take to smoke these

3
7 cigarettes = 7 hr = 5.25 hr (i.e. 5 hr and 15
4

each of these combinations consists of four ladies.

min). Now note that after he has smoked these 7

cigarettes, he will collect 7 more stubs (one form
each), form which he will be able to make another

B C E Q R T is incorrect because B and R cannot

cigarette. This will take him another

(A) A C P R T U and A E P Q R T are wrong because

go together.

3
hr (45 min)
4

to smoke. Therefore, total time taken = 6hr.

PAGE # 77

Directions : (17 to 18) Read the following information and 1.

answer the questions that follow.
There are 70 clerks working with M/s. Jha Lal
Khanna & Co. chartered accountants, of which 30
are female.
2.
(i) 30 clerks are married.
(ii) 24 clerks are above 25 years of age
(iii) 19 Married clerks are above 25 years of age;
among them 7 are males.
3.
(iv) 12 males are above 25 years of age
(v) 15 males are married.
Ex 17.

Ex 18.

Sol.

17.
18.

How many unmarried girls are there ?

(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 10

4.

Who stays in locality Q ?

(A) A
(C) C

(B) B
(D) E

What is Es occupation ?
(A) Business
(B) Engineer
(C) Lawyer
(D) Doctor
Agewise who among the following lies between A
and C ?
(A) Lawyer
(B) Doctor
(C) Cloth merchant
(D) Engineer
What is Bs occupation ?
(A) Business
(B) Engineer
(C) Lawyer
(D) Doctor

How many of these unmarried girls are above 25 ?

(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 4
(D) 0
5.
What is Cs occupation ?
(17 to 18) : From the given data, we can make the
(A) Doctor
(B) Lawyer
following table with the help of which rest of the
(C) Engineer
(D) Business
questions can be solved very easily.
Directions : (6 to 10) Study the given information carefully
Male (40) Female (30)
and answer the questions that follow.
Above 25
There are four people sitting in a row : one each
from India, Japan, USA and Germany, but not in
Married
7
12
that order,
Unmarried
5
0
. They are wearing caps of different colours - green,
Below 25
yellow, red and white, not necessarily in that order.
married
8
3
II. One is wearing a kurta and one a T-shirt.
III. The Indian is wearing a green cap and a jacket.
unmarried
20
15
IV. The American is not seated at either end.
40
30
Total
V. The persons with kurta and T-shirt are sitting
next to each other.
There are 15 unmarried girls.
VI. The persons with kurta wears a red cap and
sits next to the Japanese.
In these 15 unmarried girls no one is above 25.
VII. The Japanese wears a shirt and is not seated
at either end.
VIII. The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is
EXERCISE
seated at one end.

Directions : (1 to 5) Study the following information carefully

and answer the questions given below it :
There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. Two of them
are businessmen while the other three belong to
different occupations viz. medical, engineer and
legal. One businessman and the lawyer stay in
the same locality S, while the other three stay in
three different localities P, Q and R. Two of these
five persons are Hindus while the remaining three
come from three different communities viz. Muslim,
Christian and Shikh. The lawyer is the oldest in
age while one of the businessmen who runs a
factory is the youngest. The other businessman is
a cloth merchant and agewise lies between the
doctor and the lawyer. D is a cloth merchant and
stays in locality S while E is a Muslim and stays in
locality R. The doctor is a Christian and stays in
locality P, B is a Shikh while A is a Hindu and runs
a factory.

6.

Who wears the T-shirt ?

(A) Indian
(C) American

(B) Japanese
(D) German

7.

Who is wearing a kurta ?

(A) Indian
(B) Japanese
(C) American
(D) German

8.

What is the colour of the cap worn by the Japanese?

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) White

9.

Who precedes the man wearing T-shirt ?

(A) Indian
(B) Japanese
(C) American
(D) German

10.

Who precedes the man wearing jacket ?

(A) Indian
(B) German
(C) Japanese
(D) Cannot say

PAGE # 78

Directions : (11 to 15) Read the following information Directions : (19 to 23) Read the information given below
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
and answer the questions.
I. There are six students ( A, B, C, D, E and F) in a
The age and height of six children in a class are as
group. Each student can opt for only three choices
follows :
out of the six which are music, reading, painting,
(i) A is taller and older than B but shorter and
badminton, cricket and tennis.
younger than C.
II. A, C and F like reading.
(ii) D is taller than E who is not as tall as B.
III. D does not like badminton, but likes music.
(iii) The oldest is the shortest.
IV. Both B and E like painting and music.
(iv) The youngest would be fourth if the children
V. A and D do not like painting, but they like cricket.
stood in a line according to their height and one
VI. All student except one like badminton.
started counting from the tallest.
VII. Two students like tennis.
(v) D is younger than F but older than E who is
VIII. F does not like cricket, music and tennis.
older than C.
11.

12.

Which pair of students has the same combination 19.

of choices ?
(A) A and C
(B) C and D
(C) B and E
(D) D and F
20.
Who among the following students likes both
tennis and cricket ?
(A) A and B
(B) C
21.
(C) B and D
(D) D

13.

How many students like painting and badminton ?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

14.

Who among the following do not like music ?

(A) A , C and D
(B) A, B and C
(C) A, C and F
(D) B, D and F

15.

Which of the following is the most popular choice?

(A) Tennis
(B) Badminton
23.
(C) Reading
(D) Painting

22.

16.

Who among them is the tallest ?

(A) B
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
Who is older than B but younger than C ?
(A) F
(B) D
(C) A
(D) Data inadequate
Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(A) D is the most old person
(B) B has the max. height
(C) A is older than D
(D) F is the shortest
Which of the following is the correct order of height
in descending order?
(A) A, C, D, B, E, F
(B) F, D, E, C, A, B
(C) D, C, A, B, E, F
(D) C, D, A, B, E, F
W hose Rank in height cannot be positioned
definitely ?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) C
(D) E

R earns more than H but not as much as T, M

earns more than R. Who earns least among
them?
Directions : (24 to 28) Study the information given below
(A) R
(B) T
and answer the questions that follow.
(C) H
(D) M
(i) Six Plays P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be organised
from Monday to Saturday i.e. 10 to 15 one play each
17.
Harish is taller than Manish but shorter than
day.
Suresh. Manish is shorter than Anil but taller than
(ii) There are two plays between R and S and one
Raghu. Who among them is the shortest having
play between P and R.
regard to height ?
(iii) There is one play between U and T and T is to
(A) Anil
(B) Manish
be organised before U.
(C) Raghu
(D) Cannot be determined
(iv) Q is to be organised before P, not necessarily
Direction : (18) Examine the following statements :
immediately.
I. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older
(v) The organisation does not start with Q.
than B.
The organisation would start from which play ?
II. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older 24.
(A) P
(B) S
than C.
(C)
T
(D) None
III. B is older than C.
18.

Which one of the following conclusions can be 25.

drawn from the above statements ?
(A) A is older than B
(B) B and D are of the same age
26.
(C) D is older than C
(D) A is older than C

On which date is play T to be organised ?

(A) 10th
(B) 11th
th
(C) 12
(D) None
The organisation would end with which play ?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) S
(D) None

PAGE # 79

27.

Which day is play Q organised ?

(A) Tuesday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) None

28.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of

organising plays ?
32.
(A) PTRUQS
(B) QSTURP
(C) SUTRQP
(D) None

31.

If it is sure that Henna will go to the fair, then who

among the following will definitely go ?
(A) Rama
(B) Shamma
(C) Reena
(D) Rama and Reena
If Tina does not go to the fair, which of the following
statements must be true ?
(i) Henna cannot go
(ii) Shamma cannot go
(iii) Reena cannot go
(iv) Rama cannot go
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)

Directions : (29 to 30) Read the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below it.
I. Seven books are placed one above the other in a
particular way .
II. The history book is placed directly above the
civics book.
Directions : (33 to 37) Read the following paragraph
III. The geography book is fourth from the bottom
carefully and choose the correct alternative.
and the English book is fifth from the top.
The office staff of XYZ corporation presently
IV. There are two books in between the civics and
consists of three females A, B, C and five males D,
economics books.
E, F, G and H. The management is planning to
open a new office in another city using three males
29.
To find the number of books between the civics
and two females of the present staff. To do so they
and the science books, which other extra piece of
plan to separate certain individuals who do not
information is required, from the following ?
function well together. The following guidelines
(A) There are two books between the geography
were established
and the science books.
I. Females A and C are not to be together
(B) There are two books between the mathematics
II. C and E should be separated
and the geography books .
III. D and G should be separated
(C) There is one book between the English and
IV. D and F should not be part of a team.
the science books.
(D) The civics book is placed before two books
33.
above the economics book.
30.

To know which three books are kept above the

English book, which of the following additional
pieces of information, if any, is required?
(A) The economics book is between the English 34.
and the science books.
(B) There are two books between the English and
the history books.
(C) The geography book is above the English book.
35.
(D) No other information is required.

Directions : (31 to 32) A five-member team that includes

Rama, Shamma, Henna, Reena, and Tina, is
planning to go to a science fair but each of them
36.
put up certain conditions for going .They are as
follows.
I. If Rama goes, then at least one amongst
Shamma and Henna must go.
II. If Shamma goes, then Reena will not go.
37.
III. If Henna will go, then Tina must go.
IV. If Reena goes, then - Henna must go.
V. If Tina goes, then Rama must go but Shamma
cannot go.
VI. If Reena plans not to go the fair, then Rama will
also not go.

If A is chosen to be moved, which of the following

cannot be a team ?
(A) ABDEH
(B) ABDGH
(C) ABEFH
(D) ABEGH
If C and F are to be moved to the new office, how
many combinations are possible ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
If C is chosen to the new office, which number of
the staff cannot be chosen to go with C ?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) F
(D) G
Under the guidelines, which of the following must
be chosen to go to the new office ?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
If D goes to the new office, which of the following
is/are true ?
I. C cannot be chosen
II. A cannot be chosen
III. H must be chosen.
(B) II only
(A) I only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only

PAGE # 80

Directions : (38 to 42) Study the following information Directions : (45 to 49) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
carefully and answer the questions that follow :
(i) There is a family of six persons- L, M, N, O, P
A team of five is to be selected from amongst five
and Q. They are professor, businessman,
boys A, B, C, D and E and four girls P, Q, R and S.
chartered account, bank manager, engineer and
Some criteria for selection are :
medical representative, not necessarily in that
A and S have to be together
order.
(ii) There are two married couples in the family.
P cannot be put with R.
(iii) O, the bank manager is married to the lady
D and Q cannot go together.
professor.
C and E have to be together.
(iv) Q, the medical representative, is the son of M
R cannot be put with B.
and brother of P.
Unless otherwise stated, these criteria are
(v) N, the chartered accountant, is the daughter - in
applicable to all the questions below :
law of L.
(vi) The businessman is married to the chartered
38.
If two of the members have to be boys, the team
acconuntant.
will consist of :
(vii) P is an unmarried engineer.
(viii) L is the grandmother of Q
(A) A B S P Q
(B) A D S Q R
(C) B D S R Q
39.

40.

(D) C E S P Q

45.

How is P related to Q.
(A) Brother
(B) Sister
(C) Cousin
(D) Either brother or sister

46.

Which of the following is the profession of M ?

(A) Professor
(B) Chartered accountant
(C) Businessman
(D) Medical representative

If R be one of the members, the other members of

the team are :
(A) P S A D

(B) Q S A D

(C) Q S C E

(D) S A C E

If two of the members are girls and D is one of the

members, the members of the team other than D
are :
47.
(A) P Q B C
(B) P Q C E
(C) P S A B
(D) P S C E

41.

If A and C are members, the other members of the 48.

team cannot be :
(A) B E S
(C) E S P

42.

(B) D E S
(D) P Q E

If including P at least three members are girls, the

members of the team other than P are :
(A) Q S A B
(C) Q S C E

(B) Q S B D
(D) R S A D

Directions : (43 to 44) Read the given information carefully

and answer the questions that follow :
Ratan, Anil, Pinku and Gaurav are brothers of Rakhi,
Sangeeta, Pooja and Saroj, not necessarily in that
order. Each boy has one sister and the names of
bothers and sisters do not begin with the same

49.

44.

Poojas brother is
(A) Ratan

(B) Anil

(C) Pinku

(D) Gaurav

Which of the following are brother and sister ?

(A) Ratan and Pooja
(C) Pinku and Sangeeta

(B) Anil and Saroj

(D) Gaurav and Rakhi

Which of the following is one of the couples ?

(A) QO
(B) OM
(C) PL
(D) None of these
How is O related to Q?
(A) Father
(C) Uncle

(B) Grandfather
(D) Brother

Directions : (50 to 54)

I. There is a group of six persons P,Q, R, S, T and U
from a family. They are Psychologist, Manager,
Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
II. The Doctor is grandfather of U, who is a
Psychologist.
III. The Manager S is married to P.
IV. R, the Jeweller is married to the Lawyer.
V. Q is the mother of U and T.
VI. There are two married couples in the family.

letter. Pinku and Gaurav are not Sarojs or 50.

Sangeetas brothers. Saroj is not Ratans sister.
43.

Which of the following is the profession of L ?

(A) Professor
(B) Charted accountant
(C) Businessman
(D) Engineer

51.

52.

What is the profession of T ?

(A) Doctor
(B) Jeweller
(C) Manager
(D) None of these
How is P related to T ?
(A) Brother
(C) Father

(B) Uncle
(D) Grandfather

How many male members are their in the family ?

(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Data inadequate

PAGE # 81

53.

What is the profession of P ?

(A) Doctor
(B) Lawyer
(C) Jeweller
(D) Manager

54.

Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples

in the family ?
(A) PQ
(B) PR
(C) PS
(D) Cannot be determined

Direction : (55) The ages of Mandar, Shivku, Pawan and

56.
Chandra are 32, 21, 35 and 29 years, not in order,
Whenever asked they lie of their own age but tell
the truth abut others.
(i) Pawan says, My age is 32 and Mandars age is
not 35
(ii) Shivku says, My age is not 2 9 and Pawans 57.
age in not 21
(iii) Mandar says, My age is 32.
55.

What is Chandras age ?

(A) 32 years
(B) 35 years
(C) 29 years
(D) 21 years

Directions : (56 to 57) Answer the questions on the basis

of the information given below. 5 friends Nitin,
Reema, Jai, Deepti and Ashutosh are playing a
58.
game of crossing the roads. In the beginning, Nitin,
Reema and Ashutosh are on the one side of the
road and Deepti and Jai are on the other side. At
the end of the game, it was found that Reema and
Deepti are on the one side and Nitin, Jai and
Ashutosh are on the other side of the road. Rules
of the game are as follows :
I. One movement means only one person crosses
the road from any side to the other side.
II. No two persons can cross the road
simultaneously from any side to the other side.

III. Two persons from the same side of the roads

cannot move in consecutive movements.
IV. If one person crosses the road in a particular
movement, he or she cannot immediately move
back to the other side.
V. Jai and Reema did not take part in first 3
movements.
W hat is the minimum possible number of
movements that took place in the entire game ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
If number of movements are minimised in the
game, then which of the following combination of
friends can never be together on one particular
side of the road during the course of the game ?
(A) Nitin, Reema amd Deepti
(B) Nitin, Jai and Deepti
(C) Deepti, Jai and Ashutosh
(D) Ashutosh, Nitin and Deepti
You have 12 similar looking coins. 11 of them weigh
the same. One of them has a different weight, but
you dont know whether it is heavier or lighter. You
also have a scale. You can put coins on both sides
of the scale and itll tell you which side is heavier or
will stay in the middle if both sides weigh the same.
What is the minimum number of weighing required
to find out the odd coin.
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

PAGE # 82

CALENDAR AND CLOCK TEST

Similarly, 200 years = 10 odd days = 03 odd days

300 years =

= 1 odd day..
7
20 1
400 years =
= 0 odd day (1 is added as 400
7
is a leap year)
Similarly, 800, 1200, 1600, 2000, 2400 years
contain 0 odd days.

We are to find the day of the week on a mentioned

date. Certain concepts are defined as under.

An ordinary year has 365 days.

In an ordinary year, first and last day of the year are

same.

15

After counting the odd days, we find the day

according to the number of odd days.

A leap year has 366 days. Every year which is

divisible by 4 is called a leap year. For example

1200, 1600, 1992, 2004, etc. are all leap years.

Sunday for 0 odd day, Monday for 1 odd day and so

on as shown in the following table.

For a leap year, if first day is Monday than last day

will be Tuesday for the same year.

In a leap year, February is of 29 days but in an

ordinary year, it has only 28 days.

Year ending in 00's but not divisiable by 400 is not

considered a leap year. e.g., 900, 1000, 1100, 1300,
1400, 1500, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2100 are not leap
years.

Ordinary
Year

Days

The day on which calendar started (or the very first

day ) i.e., 1 Jan, 0001 was Monday.

January

31

February

28

March

31

April

30

May

31

Table : 1 (Odd days for week days)

Days

Sunday Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday

Odd Days

Calendar year is from 1 Jan to 31 Dec. Financial

year is from 1 April to 31 March.

ODD DAYS
The no. of days exceeding the complete no. of
weeks in a duration is the no. of odd days during
that duration.

COUNTING OF ODD DAYS

Every ordinary year has 365 days = 52 weeks +1 day.

Ordinary year has 1 odd day.

Every leap year 366 days = 52 weeks + 2 days.

Leap year has 2 odd days.

Table : 2 (Odd days for months in a year)

Odd
Leap year
Days

Days

Odd
Days

January

31

February

29

March

31

April

30

May

31

June

30

June

30

Total

181 days

Total

182 days

July

31

July

31

August

31

August

31

September

30

September

30

October

31

October

31

November

30

November

30

December

31

December

31

Total

184 days

Total

184 days

Table : 3 (Odd days for every quarter)

Odd days of 100 years = 5,

Odd days of 200 years = 3,
Odd days of 300 years = 1,
Odd days of 400 years = 0.

M onths
of
years

I st three
m onths
1 Jan to
31 M arch

Total days

90 / 91
Ord. / Leap

Odd days

6 /0
0
Ord. / Leap O dd day

Explanation :
100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years Ex 1.
( The year 100 is not a leap year)
= 76 odd days + 2 24 odd days = 124 odd days. Sol.
Odd days =

124
7

= 5 odd days.

IInd three IIIrd three

m onths m onths
1 Apr to 1 July to
30 June 30 Sep.
91

92
1
Odd day

Iv th three
Total year
m onths
1 Jan to
1 Oct. to
31 Dec.
31 Dec.
92

365 / 366
Ord. / Leap

1
1 /2
Odd day Ord. / Leap

If it was Saturday on 17th December 1982 what

will be the day on 22nd December 1984 ?
Total number of odd days between 17 Dec.1982
to 17 Dec.1984 the number of odd days = 1+2 = 3.
From 17 to 22 Dec. number of odd days = 5
3 + 5 = 8 odd days = 1 odd day.
Saturday + 1 odd day = Sunday.
PAGE # 83

Ex 2.
Sol.

Ans.
Ex 3.
Sol.

Ans.
Ex 4.
Sol.

Ans.

Ex 5.
Sol.

Find the day of the week on 16 January, 1969.

Ex 6.
1600 years have 0 odd day. .....................(A)
300 years have 1 odd day. ......................(B)
Sol.
68 years have 17 leap years and 51 ordinary years.
Thus = (17 2 + 51 1 ) = 85 odd days
' 01' odd day ...(C)
16 January has = ' 02' odd days..(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 01 +01 +02 = 04 odd days
Thursday

Ex 7.

Find the day of the week on 18 July, 1776 (leap Sol.

year).
Here 1600 years have 0 odd day.....................(A)
100 years have 5 odd days..............................(B)
75 years = (18 leap years + 57 ordinary years)
= (18 2 + 57 1)
= 93 odd days
= (7 13 + 2) = 2 odd days.............................(C)
Now, the no. of days from 1st January to 18 July,
1776
= 182 + 18 = 200 days
= (28 7 + 4) days = 4 odd days.....................(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 5 + 2 + 4 = 04 odd days
Thursday
On what dates of October, 1975 did Tuesday fall ?
For determining the dates, we find the day on 1st
Oct, 1975.
1600 years have 0 odd days.....................(A).
300 years have 01 odd days.....................(B).
74 years have (18 leap years + 56 ordinary years)
2 18 + 1 56 = 92 odd days
= 01 odd days.............(C)
Days from 1st January to 1st Oct., 1975
1st Jan 30 June + 1st July to 1st Oct.
181 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 1 = 274 days
= 01 odd days......(D) (274/7= 01 days)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D) = 0 + 01 +01 +01
= '03' odd days
Wednesday( 1st Oct), hence 7,14,21,28 Oct. will
Tuesday fall.

The year next to 1996 having the same Calendar

will be 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003
2
1
1
1
2
Total = 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 7= 0 odd days
Hence, year 2001 will have the same calendar as
year 1996.
Prove that last day of a century cannot be Tuesday,
Thursday or Saturday.
100 years have = 5 odd days
Last day of st century is Friday
200 years have = 10 odd days
Last day of IInd century is Wednesday
= 3 odd days
300 years have = 15 odd days
Last day of rd century is Monday
= 01 odd day
400 years have = (5 4 + 1)
Last day of 4th century is Sunday
= 21 odd days
= 0 odd days
Since the order keeps on cycling, we see that the
last day of the century cannot be Tuesday, Thursday
or Saturday.

Important Notes :

Minute hand and hour hand coincides once in every

hour. They coincide 11 times in 12 hours and 22
times in 24 hours.

They coincide only one time between 11 to 1 O

clock. at 12 O clock.

Minute hand and hour hand are opposite once in

Calendar for 1995 will serve for 2006, prove ?

The Calendar for 1995 and 2006 will be the same
,if day on 1st January of both the years is the same.
This is possible only if the total odd days between
31st Dec. 1994 and 31st Dec.2005 is 0. [one day
before both the years as we want to know the day
on 1st January of both the years i.e. same]

During this period, we have

3 leap years
(1996, 2000, 2004)
and
08 ordinary years

(1995,1997,1998,1999, 2001, 2002, 2003,2005)

Total odd days = (2 3 + 1 8) = 14 = 0 odd
days (Thus Proved)

every hour. They do it 11 times in 12 hours and 22

times in 24 hours.
They opposite only one time between 5 to 7 O
clock. at 6 O clock.
Both hands (minute and hour) are perpendicular
twice in every hour. 22 times in 12 hours and 44
times in 24 hours.
In one minute, hour hand moves 1/2 and minute
hand moves 6. In one hour, hour hand moves 30
and minute hand moves 360.
In an hour, minute hand moves 55 minutes ahead
of hour hand.

PAGE # 84

Case-II When the time taken (20 + 15) = 35 min.

HANDS COINCIDE
Ex.8
Sol.

Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in

At what time between 3 OClock and 4 OClock will

the two hands coincide ?
At 3 Oclock the distance between the two hands is
15 minutes when they coincide with each other the
distance between the two hands will be 0 min.
So, the time taken (15 + 0 ) = 15 minutes.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min.
Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min.
55

60 min.
Minute hand is 35 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 35
420
2
=
= 38
min.
55
11
11
2
Hence, the right time is 38 min. past 4.
11

MIRROR IMAGE OF CLOCK

to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from

11 : 60.

Minute hand is 15 min. ahead of hour hand in

60 15
180
4
=
= 16 min.
55
11
11

4
Hence the right time is 16 minute past 3.
11

HANDS ARE OPPOSITE

Ex.9
Sol.

60 40
480
7
=
= 43
min.
55
11
11

Hence, the right time is 43

23 : 60.
Ex.11

The time in the clock is 4 : 46, what is the mirror image ?

Sol.

(11 : 60) (4 : 46) = 7 : 14.

7
min. past 2.
11

Case-I

At what time between 4 Oclock and 5 Oclock will

the hands are perpendicular ?
At 4 Oclock the distance between the two hands is
20 min. When they are at 15 minutes distance,
they are perpendicular to each other.
When the time taken (20 15) = 5 min.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min.
Minute hand is 5 min. ahead of hour hand in

Both types of angles are 360 in total. If one angle

is known, other can be obtained by subtracting from
360.

Ex.13

At 4 : 30, what is the angle formed between hour

Sol.

hand and minute hand ?

At 4 O clock angle between hour and min. hand is

HANDS ARE PERPENDICULAR

Sol.

If the time is between 11 Oclock to 1 Oclock, then

to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from

At what time between 2 Oclock and 3 Oclock will

Ex.12 The time in the clock is 12 : 35, then find its mirror
the two hands be opposite ?
image.
At 2 Oclock the distance between the two hands is
Sol.
(23 : 60) (12 : 35) = 11 : 25.
10 minutes. When they are at 30 minutes distance,
they are opposite to each other. The time taken
TO FIND THE ANGLE BETWEEN TWO HANDS
(30 + 10 ) = 40 min.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in

Angle are of two types :

60 min.
Positive angle : It is obtained by moving from hour
Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in
hand to minute hand moving in clockwise direction.
60
min.
Negative angle : It is obtained by moving from
55
minute hand to hour hand.
Minute hand is 40 minutes ahead of hour hand
in

Ex.10

If the time is between 1 Oclock to 11 Oclock, then

of 120.
In 30 min. minute hand make an angle of 180.
So, the resultant angle is 180 120 = 60.
But in 30 min. hour hand will also cover an angle of 15.
Hence, the final angle between both hands is
60 15 = 45.
Short trick

60 5
60
5
=
= 5
min.
55
11
11
5
Hence, the right time is 5 min. past 4.
11

PAGE # 85

9.

Ex.14

Sol.

A bus for Delhi leaves every thirty minutes from a bus

stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus
had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will
leave at 9.35 A.M. At what time did the enquiry clerk 10.
give this information to the passenger ?
Bus leaves after every 30 minutes.
The next bus will leave at 9 : 35 A.M.
The last bus left at 9 : 35 0 : 30 = 9 : 05 A.M.
but clerk said that bus had left 10 minutes earlier. 11.
9 : 05 + 0 : 10 = 9 : 15 A.M.

EXERCISE
1.

Find the day of the week on 26 January, 1950.

(A) Tuesday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday

2.

W hich two months in a year have the same

calendar ?
(A) June, October
(B) April, November
13.
(C) April, July
(D) October, December

3.

4.

5.

12.

Are the years 900 and 1000 leap years ?

(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Can't say
(D) None of these
If it was Saturday on 17th November, 1962 what
will be the day on 22nd November, 1964 ?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
14.
(C) Wednesday
(D) Sunday
Sangeeta remembers that her father's birthday
was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of
December. Her sister Natasha remembers that
their father's birthday was definitely after ninth but
before fourteenth of December. On which date of
December was their father's birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 12th
(D) Data inadequate
15.

6.

Find the day of the week on 15 August, 1947.

(A) Tuesday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday

7.

Karan was born on Saturday 22nd March 1982. On

what day of the week was he 14 years 7 months
and 8 days of age ?
(A) Sunday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday

8.

If on 14th day after 5th March be Wednesday, what

day of the week will fall on 10th Dec. of the same
year ?
(A) Friday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Tuesday

16.

If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what day

will fall on the day after tomorrow ?
(A) Friday
(B) Thursday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Tuesday
If February 1, 1996 is Wednesday, what day is March
10, 1996 ?
(A) Monday
(B) Sunday
(C) Saturday
(D) Friday
If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier
than Friday, what day will it be on the nineteenth
day of the month ?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Friday
Mohini went to the movies nine days ago. She goes
to the movies only on Thursday. What day of the
week is today ?
(A) Thursday
(B) Saturday
(C) Sunday
(D) Tuesday
At what time are the hands of a clock together
between 5 and 6 ?
(A) 33

3
min. past 5
11

(B) 28

3
min. past 5
11

(C) 27

3
min. past 5
11

(D) 26

3
min. past 5
11

At what time between 9 and 10 will the hands of a

clock be in the straight line, but not together ?
(A) 16 minutes past 9
4
(B) 16 minutes past 9
11
6
(C) 16 minutes past 9
11
9
(D) 16
minutes past 9
11
At what time between 5 & 5 : 30 will the hands of a
clock be at right angle ?
10
(A) 10
minutes past 5
11
5
(B) 11
minutes past 5
11
10
(C) 9
minutes past 5
11
9
(D) 10
minutes past 5
11
Ajay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier
than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach the stop.
He reached the stop at 8.40 a.m. What time does
he usually leave home for the bus stop ?
(A) 8.30 a.m.
(B) 8.45 a.m.
(C) 8.55 a.m.
(D) Data inadequate

PAGE # 86

17.

The priest told the devotee, "The temple bell is 26.

rung at regular intervals of 45 minutes. The last
bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is
due to be rung at 7.45 a.m." At what time did the
priest give this information to the devotee ?
(A) 7.40 a.m.
(B) 7.05 a.m.
(C) 6.55 a.m.
(D) None of these

18.

There are twenty people working in an office. The

first group of five works between 8.00 A.M. and 2.00
P.M. The second group of ten works between 10.00 27.
A.M. and 4.00 P.M. And the third group of five works
between 12 noon and 6.00 P.M. There are three
computers in the office which all the employees
frequently use. During which of the following hours
the computers are likely to be used most ?
(A) 10.00 A.M. 12 noon
(B) 12 noon 2.00 P.M.
(C) 1.00 P.M. 3.00 P.M.
(D) 2.00 P.M. 4.00 P.M.
28.

19.

A tired worker slept at 7.45 p.m.. If he rose at 12

noon, for how many hours did he sleep ?
(A) 5 hours 15 min.
(B) 16 hours 15 min.
(C) 12 hours
(D) 6 hours 45 min.

20.

How many times are the hands of a clocks

perpendicular in a day ?
(A) 42
(B) 48
(C) 44
(D) 46

21.

If a clock shows 04: 28 then its mirror image will

be ?
(A) 07: 42
(B) 07: 32
(C) 08: 32
(D) 08: 42

22.

A watch, which gains uniformly, is 3 minutes slow

at noon on Monday and is 3 minutes 48 seconds
fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. What time it
was correct ?
(A) 2 p.m. On Tuesday
30.
(B) 2 p.m. On Wednesday
(C) 3 p.m. On Thursday
(D) 1 p.m. On Friday.

29.

23.

How many times are the hands of a clocks coincide

in a day ?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 22

24.

At what time between 2 and 3 O clock the hands of

a clock will make an angle of 160 ?
(A) 20 minutes past 2
(B) 30 minutes past 2
(C) 40 minutes past 2
(D) 50 minutes past 2

25.

Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in

the morning, reaches Kunals house in 25 minutes,
they finish their breakfast in another 15 minutes
and leave for their office which takes another 35 32.
minutes. At what time do they leave Kunals house
to reach their office ?
(A) 7.40 am
(B) 7.20 am
(C) 7.45 am
(D) 8.15 am

31.

The train for Lucknow leaves every two and a half

hours from New Delhi Railway Station. An
announcement was made at the station that the
train for Lucknow had left 40 minutes ago and the
next train will leave at 18. 00 hrs. At what time was
the announcement made ?
(A) 15.30 hrs
(B) 17.10 hrs
(C) 16.00 hrs
(D) None of these
A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each
hour and rests for a while when he slips back 20
feet before he again starts climbing in the
beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent
at 8.00 a.m., at what time will he first touch a flag at
120 feet from the ground ?
(A) 4 p.m.
(B) 5 p.m.
(C) 6 p.m.
(D) None of these
If the two incorrect watches are set at 12 : 00 noon
at correct time, when will both the watches show
the correct time for the first time given that the first
watch gains 1 min in 1 hour and second watch
loses 4 min in 2 hours :
(A) 6 pm, 25 days later
(B) 12 : 00 noon, 30 days later
(C) 12 noon, 15 days later
(D) 6 am 45 days later
Rajeev and Sanjeev are too close friends Rajeev's
watch gains 1 minute in an hour and Sanjeev's
watch loses 2 minutes in an hour. Once they set
both the watches at 12 : 00 noon, with my correct
watch. When will the two incorrect watches of
Rajeev and Sanjeev show the same time together?
(A) 8 days later (B) 10 days later
(C) 6 days later (D) can't be determined
At a railway station a 24 hour watch loses 3 minutes
in 4 hours. If it is set correctly on Sunday noon
when will the watch show the correct time ?
(A) 6 pm after 40 days
(B) 12 noon after 75 days
(C) 12 pm after 100 days
(D) 12 noon after 80 days
A swiss watch is being shown in a museum which
has a very peculiar property. It gains as much in
the day as it loses during night between 8 pm to 8
am. In a week how many times will the clock show
the correct time ?
(A) 6 times
(B) 14 times
(C) 7 times
(D) 8 times
A wrist watch which is running 12 minutes late on
a Sunday noon is 16 minutes ahead of the correct
time at 12 noon on the next Sunday. When is the
clock 8 minutes ahead of time ?
(A) Thursday 10 am
(B) Friday noon
(C) Friday 8 pm
(D) Tuesday noon
PAGE # 87

33.

34.

35.

A clock loses 2 minutes in a hour and another clock 38.

gains 2 minutes in every 2 hours. Both these clocks
are set correctly at a certain time on Sunday and
both the clocks stop simultaneously on the next
day with the time shown being 9 am and 10 : 06
AM. What is the correct time at which they stopped?
(A) 9 : 54 am
(B) 9 : 44 pm
(C) 9 : 46 am
(D) 9 : 44 am
David sets his watch at 6 : 10 am on Sunday, which
gains 12 minutes in a day. On Wednesday if this
watch is showing 2 : 50 pm. What is the correct
time ?
39.
(A) 1 : 50 pm
(B) 2 : 10 pm
(C) 2 : 30 pm
(D) 3 : 30 pm
Ramu purchased a second hand Swiss watch
which is very costly. In this watch the minute-hand
and hour hand coincide after every 65

36

37.

3
minutes.
11

Kumbhakarna starts sleeping between 1 pm and

2 pm and he wakes up when his watch shows
such a time that the two hands (i.e., hour-hand
and minute-hand) interchange the respective
places. He wakes up between 2 pm and 3 PM on
the same night. How long does he sleep ?
(A) 55

5
min
13

(B) 110

10
min
13

(C) 54

6
min
13

(D) None of these

A clock loses 3% time during the first week and

then gains 2% time during the next one week. If the
clock was set right at 12 noon on a Sunday, what
will be the time that the clock will show exactly 14
days from the time it was set right ?
(A) 1 : 36 : 48
(B) 1 : 40 : 48
(C) 1 : 41 : 24
(D) 10 : 19 : 12

How much time does the watch lose or gain per

day ?
Direction : (40 to 41) A 12 dial clock has its minute hand
(A) 4 min
(B) 5 min
defective. W henever it touches dial 12, it
(C) 4 min, 20 sec
(D) none of these
immediately falls down to 6 instead of running
My watch was 8 minutes behind at 8 pm on Sunday
smoothly (the hour hand remains unaffected during
but within a week at 8 pm on Wednesday it was 7
that fall). It was set right at 12 O clock in the noon.
minutes ahead of time. During this period at which
time this watch has shown the correct time :
40.
What was the actual time when the minute hand of
(A) Tuesday 10 : 24 am
the clock touched dial 9 for the 5th time?
(B) Wednesday 9 : 16 pm
(A) 2 : 15
(B) 3 : 00
(C) It cannot show the correct time during this period
(C) 5 : 15
(D) 6 : 45
(D) None of the above
Out of the following four choices which does not 41.
show the coinciding of the hour hand and minutehand :
(A) 3 : 16 : 2
(B) 6 : 32 : 43
(C) 9 : 59 : 05
(D) 5 : 27 : 16

If the actual time is 10 : 10, what is the position of

the hour hand in that defective clock ?
(A) Between 2 and 3
(B) Between 4 and 5
(C) Between 10 and 11
(D) Between 3 and 4

PAGE # 88

CUBE AND DICE-TEST

CUBES
A cube is three dimensional figure, having 8
corners, 6 surfaces and 12 edges. If a cube is
painted on all of its surfaces with any colour and
further divided into various smaller cubes, we get
following results. Smaller cubes with three
surfaces painted will be present on the corners of
the big cube.
Here
3

2
2

1
1

3
2
2
3

2
1
1
2

2
1

1
2

2
2

2 3
1 2
1 2
2 3

2
2
3

n=

2
1
1

side of big cube

4
4
side of small cube
1

2
1
1
2

Ex 1.

How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?

(A) 4

(B) 8

(C) 16

(D) 24

Sol.

(B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces

Smaller cubes with two surface painted will be

present on the edges of the big cube. Smaller
cubes with one surface painted will be present on Ex 2.
the surfaces of the big cube. Smaller cubes with
no surface painted will be present inside the big
cube.

painted = 8

If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with a Sol.

colour and then divided into smaller cubes of equal
size then after separation, number of smaller cubes
so obtained will be calculated as under :
Ex 3.
Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8
Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = (n 2) 12
Number of smaller cubes with one surfaces
Sol.
painted = (n 2)2 6
Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces painted
= (n 2)3
Ex 4.
Where n = No of divisions on the surfaces of the
bigger cube

(D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces

length of edge of big cube

=
length of edge of one smaller cube

(D) Number of smaller cubes with no surface

TYPE I

Sol.

How many smaller cubes have two surfaces

painted ?
(A) 4

(B) 8

(C) 16

(D) 24

painted = (n 2) 12 = (4 2) 12 = 24
How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8

(B) 16

(C) 24

(D) 32

(C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface

painted = (n 2)2 6 = (4 2)2 6 = 4 6 = 24
How many smaller cubes will have no side painted ?
(A) 18

(B) 16

(C) 22

(D) 8

painted = (n 2)3 = (4 2)3 = (2)3 = 8

TYPE II
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with single
colour and then divided into various smaller cubes
of equal size.

If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with

different colours and then divided into various

smaller cubes of equal size.

Directions : ( 1 to 4) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on
all of its surfaces and then divided into various
smaller cubes of side 1 cm each. The smaller Directions : ( 5 to 7 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on
the pair of one opposite surfaces, blue on the pair
cubes so obtained are separated.

444
64
Total cubes of obtained =
1 1 1

of another opposite surfaces and red on remaining

pair of opposite surfaces. The cube is now divided
into smaller cubes of equal side of 1 cm each.

PAGE # 89

Ex 9.

Sol.

Ex 5.

Sol.

Ex 6.

Sol.

How many smaller cubes have two surfaces

painted ?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 24
(C) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = Number of cubes present at the corners
+ Numbers of cubes present at 4 edges
= 8 + (n 2) 4 = 8 + 8 = 16

How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 24
(B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8
(These smaller cubes will have all three surfaces
painted with different colour blue, black and red.)
How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
painted ?
Ex 10.
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 24
(D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = 24. And out of this (a) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted Sol.
with black and blue colour = 8.
(b) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with blue and red colour = 8.
(c) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with black and red color = 8.
Ex 11.

Ex 7.

How many smaller cubes have only one surface

painted ?
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 24
(D) 32
(D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = Number of cubes present at the 8 edges
+ number of cubes present at the four surfaces=
(n 2) 8 + (n 2)2 4
= 2 8 + 4 4 = 16 + 16 = 32
How many smaller cubes will have no side painted
?
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 22
(D) 8
(B) Number of smaller cubes with no side painted
= Number of cubes on the two unpainted surfaces +
number of cubes present inside the cube.
= (n 2)2 2 + (n 2)3 = 4 2 + (2)3 = 8 + 8 = 16.

How many smaller cubes have only one surface

painted ?
(A) 8
(B) 16
Sol.
(C) 24
(D) 32
Sol.
(C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = 24. And out of this (a) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with black colour =8.
TYPE IV
(b) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with blue colour = 8.
If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way
(c) Number of cubes with one surface painted
that one pair of adjacent surfaces is left unpainted.
with red colour = 8.
Directions : (12 to 15 )A cube of side 4 cm is painted red on
TYPE III
the pair of one adjacent surfaces, green on the
pair of other adjacent surfaces and two adjacent
If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way
surfaces are left unpainted. Now the cube is divided
that one pair of opposite surfaces is left unpainted.
into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
Directions : ( 8 to 11 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted red on
the pair of one opposite surfaces, green on the
pair of another opposite surfaces and one pair of
opposite surfaces is left unpainted. Now the cube
is divided into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
Ex 8.

Sol.

How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?
(A) 0
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 20
(A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces Ex 12.
painted = 0 (Because each smaller cube at the
corner is attached to a surface which is unpainted.)

How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 6
PAGE # 90

Sol.

Ex 13.

Sol.

Ex 14.

Sol.

Ex 15.

(A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces

Type-II
painted = Number of smaller cubes at two corners
=2
Ex 17. The figures given below show the two different
positions of a dice. Which number will appear
How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
opposite to number 2 ?.
painted ?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 14
(D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = Number of smaller cubes at four corners
(A) 3
(B) 4
+ Number of smaller cubes at 5 edges.
(C) 5
(D) 6
= 4 + (n 2) 5 = 4 + 2 5
Sol.
(C) The above question,
= 4 + 10 = 14
where only two positions of
a dice are given, can easily
How many smaller cubes have only one surface
be solved with the
painted ?
following method.
(A) 8
(B) 16
Step I. The dice, when unfolded, will appear as shown in
(C) 24
(D) 30
the figure given on the right side.
(D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = Number of smaller cubes at four Step II. Write the common number to both the dice in the
middle block. Since common number is 4, hence
surfaces + Number of smaller cubes at 6 edges +
number 4 will appear in the central block.
Number of smaller cubes at two corners.
= (n 2)2 4 + (n 2) 6 + 2
Step III. Consider the figure (i) and write the first number in
= 4 4 + 2 6 + 2 = 16 + 12 = 28 + 2 = 30
the anti-clockwise direction of number 4,
(common number) in block I and second number
How many smaller cubes will have no side painted
in block II. Therefore, numbers 3 and 2 being the
?
first and second number to 4 in anticlockwise
directions respectively, will appear in block I & II
(A) 18
(B) 16
respectively.
(C) 22
(D) 8

Sol.

(A) Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces Step IV. Consider figure (ii) and wire first and second
number in the anticlock-wise direction to number
painted = Number of smaller cubes from inside
4, (common number) in block (III) & (IV). Hence
the big cube + Number of cubes at two surfaces +
numbers 6 and 5 will appear in the blocks III and IV
Number of cubes at one edge.
respectively.
3
2
= (n 2) + (n 2) 2 + (n 2)
3
2
Step V. Write remaining number in the remaining block.
= (2) + (2) + 2
Therefore, number 1 will come in the remaining
= 8 + 8 + 2 = 18
block. Now, from the unfolded figures we find that
DICES
number opposite to 6 is 3, number opposite to 2 is
5 and number opposite to 4 is 1. Therefore, option
(C) is our answer.
Type-I
( Short Trick : From the given dice, we will take the
General Dice : In a general dice the sum of numbers
common number as the base and then in its
on the any two adjacent faces is 7.
respect move clockwise direction and write as
follows : 4 2 3
Standard Dice : In a standard dice the sum of
4 5 6.
numbers on the opposite faces is '7'.
Here,we find that number opposite to 6 is 3, number
Ex 16. Which number is opposite 4 in a standard dice
opposite to 2 is 5 and number opposite to 4 is
given below ?
remaining number 1.
Therefore, option (C) is our answer. )

1
5
4
(A) 1
(C) 5
Sol.

Ex 18.
(B) 3
(D) Cant be determined

Clearly , from the standard dice the sum of

numbers on the opposite faces is '7', so number
opposite to 4 is 3.

On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to tell

what number will be on the opposite face of number
5?

(A) 1
(C) 4

(B) 2
(D) 6

PAGE # 91

Sol.

(D) The above question where only two positions

Type-V
of a dice are given, can easily be solved with the
following method :
If in the given dice, there are two numbers common, Ex 21. Which of the following dices is identical to the
unfolded figure as shown here ?
then uncommon numbers will always be opposite
of each other.
Therefore, option (D) is our answer.

Type-III
Ex 19.

From the following figures of dice, find which

number will come in place of ?
(X)

Sol.

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 3
(D) If the above dice is unfolded, it will look like as
the figure (i) given below.
Sol.

Figure (i)

Now the number in place of ? can be obtained by

making a slight change in the figure as given here.
Now comparing figure (ii) with third dice as above,
we get that number in place of ? is 3.

Figure (ii)

Sol.

(B)

(C)

(D)

(A) From the unfolded figure of dice, we find that

number opposite to 2 is 4, for 5 it is 3 and for 1 it is
6. From this result we can definitely say that figure
(B), (C) and (D) can not be the answer figure as
numbers lying on the opposite pair of surfaces are
present on the adjacent surfaces.

EXERCISE
Directions : (1 to 5) A cube is coloured orange on one face,
pink on the opposite face, brown on one face and
silver on a face adjacent to the brown face. The
other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut
into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. Now answer
the following questions based on the above
statements.
1.

Type-IV
Ex 20.

(A)

A dice has been thrown four times and produces

following results.
2.

How many cubes have at least one face coloured

pink ?
(A) 1
(B) 9
(C) 16
(D) 25
How many cubes have all the faces uncoloured ?
(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 48
(D) 64

3.

How many cubes have at least two faces coloured ?

(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 23

4.

How many cubes are coloured orange on one face

and have the remaining faces uncoloured ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16

Which number will appear opposite to the number

3?
5.
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 1
(A) From the figures (i), (ii) and (iv) we find that
numbers 6, 1, 5 and 2 appear on the adjacent
surfaces to the number 3. Therefore, number 4
will be opposite to number 3.

How many cubes one coloured silver on one face,

orange or pink on another face and have four
uncoloured faces ?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 16

PAGE # 92

Directions : (6 to 11) A cube is painted red on two adjacent Directions : (17 to 21) The outer border of width 1 cm of a
surfaces and black on the surfaces opposite to
cube with side 5 cm is painted yellow on each side
red surfaces and green on the remaining faces.
and the remaining space enclosed by this 1 cm
Now the cube is cut into sixty four smaller cubes of
path is painted pink. This cube is now cut into 125
equal size.
smaller cubes of each side 1 cm. The smaller
6.
How many smaller cubes have only one surface
cubes so obtained are now seperated.
painted ?
(A) 8
(B) 16
17.
How many smaller cubes have all the surfaces
(C) 24
(D) 32
uncoloured ?
7.
How many smaller cubes will have no surface
(A) 0
(B) 9
painted ?
(C) 18
(D) 27
(A) 0
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
18.
How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
8.
How many smaller cubes have less than three
coloured ?
surfaces painted ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(A) 8
(B) 24
(C) 28
(D) 48
(C) 8
(D) 10
9.

10.

11.

How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

19.
painted ?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 24

How many cubes have at least two surfaces

coloured yellow ?
(A) 24

(B) 44

How many smaller cubes with two surfaces

painted have one face green and one of the
20.
adjacent faces black or red ?
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 24
(D) 28

(C) 48

(D) 96

(A) 0

(B) 1

How many smaller cubes have at least one surface

painted with green colour ?
21.
(A) 8
(B) 24
(C) 32
(D) 56

(C) 2

(D) 4

How many cubes have one face coloured pink and

an adjacent face yellow ?

How many cubes have at least one face coloured ?

(A) 27

(B) 98

(C) 48

(D) 121
Directions : (12 to 16) A cube of 4 cm has been painted on
its surfaces in such a way that two opposite Directions : (22 to 31) A solid cube has been painted yellow,
surfaces have been painted blue and two adjacent
blue and black on pairs of opposite faces. The
surfaces have been painted red. Two remaining
cube is then cut into 36 smaller cubes such that
surfaces have been left unpainted. Now the cube
32 cubes are of the same size while 4 others are
is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.
of bigger sizes. Also no faces of any of the bigger
cubes is painted blue.
12.
How many cubes will have no side painted ?
(A) 18
(B) 16
22.
How many cubes have at least one face painted
(C) 22
(D) 8
blue ?
13.
How many cubes will have at least red colour on
(A) 0
(B) 8
its surfaces ?
(C) 16
(D) 32
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 28
(D) 32
23.
How many cubes have only one faces painted ?
(A) 24
(B) 20
14.
How many cubes will have at least blue colour on
(C)
8
(D) 12
its surfaces ?
(A) 20
(C) 24
15.

16.

(B) 8
(D) 32

24.

How many cubes will have only two surfaces

painted with red and blue colour respectively ?
25.
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 30
How many cubes will have three surfaces coloured ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
26.
(C) 2
(D) 16

How many cubes have only two faces painted ?

(A) 24
(B) 20
(C) 16
(D) 8
How many cubes have atleast two faces painted ?
(A) 36
(B) 34
(C) 28
(D) 24
How many cubes have only three faces painted ?
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 0
PAGE # 93

27.

28.

29.

How many cubes do not have any of their faces 37.

painted yellow ?
(A) 0
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
38.
How many cubes have at least one of their faces
painted black ?
(A) 0
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 20
39.
How many cubes have at least one of their faces
painted yellow or blue ?
(A) 36
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 0
40.

30.

How many cubes have no face painted ?

(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 0

31.

How many cubes have two faces painted yellow

and black respectively ?
(A) 0
(B) 8
41.
(C) 12
(D) 16

Directions : (32 to 35) Some equal

cubes are arranged in the
form of a solid block as
shown in the adjacent
figure. All the visible
sufaces of the block (except
the bottom) are then
painted.
32.

How many cubes have one face painted ?

(A) 9
(B) 24
(C) 22
(D) 20

34.

How many cubes have only two faces painted ?

(A) 0
(B) 16
(C) 20
(D) 24

35.

How many cubes have only three faces painted ?

(A) 4
(B) 12
(C) 6
(D) 20
Directions : (36 to 40) A cuboid of dimensions
(6 cm 4 cm 1 cm) is painted black on both the
surfaces of dimensions (4 cm 1 cm), green on the
surfaces of dimensions (6 cm 4 cm). and red on
the surfaces of dimensions (6 cm 1 cm). Now the
block is divided into various smaller cubes of side
1 cm. each. The smaller cubes so obtained are
separated.
36.

How many cubes will have all three colours black,

green and red each at least on one side?
(A) 16
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 8

If cubes having only black as well as green colour

are removed then how many cubes will be left?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 30
How many cubes will have 4 coloured sides and
2 sides without colour?
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 16
(D) 10
How many cubes will have two sides with green
colour and remaining sides without any colour?
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 4

Which alphabet is opposite D ?

(A) E
(C) F
42.

How many cubes do not have any of the faces

painted ?
(A) 27
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12

33.

How many cubes will be formed?

(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 24

(B) C
(D) A

What should be the number opposite 4 ?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(A) 5
(C) 3

(B) 1
(D) 2

(i)

(ii)

43.

(iii)
(iv)
Which letter will be opposite to letter D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) E
(D) F
Directions : (44 to 45) The figure (X) given below is the
unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of the
following questions this unfolded figure is followed
by four different figures of dice. You have to select
the figure which is identical to the figure (X).
PAGE # 94

50.

44.

(X)

(A)

(B)
51.

(B)

45.

Which symbol will appear on the opposite surface

to the symbol x?

(D)

(A)

(B) =

(C)

(D) O

Three positions of the same dice are given below.

Observe the figures carefully and tell which number
will come in place of ?

1
6 3

3
5 4

4
2 ?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(A) 1
(C) 3

(X)
52.

(A)

(C)

(B)

(B) 6
(D) 5

On the basis of the following figures you have to

tell which number will come in place of ?

3
6 1

4
2 6

?
1 5

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(A) 2
(C) 6

(D)

(B) 3
(D) 4

Directions : (53 to 55) Choose from the alternatives, the

boxes that will be formed when figure (X) is folded:
Directions : (46 to 48) In each of the following questions,
select the correct option for the question asked.

53.

(i)
46.

47.

48.

(X)

(ii)

Which number will come opposite to number 2?

(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 3
Which number will come opposite to number 6?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Which number will come opposite to number 4?

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 1
(D) 2
+

49.

On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to tell what 54.
number will be on the opposite face of number 5?

(i)

(ii)

(A) 1
(C) 4

(B) 2
(D) 6

(X)

(A)

(C)

(B)

(D)

PAGE # 95

55.

59.

(X)

(i)

(A)

(C)

(ii)

(B)
(iii)
(iv)
Which number is opposite to number 5?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 1
(D) 3

(D)

Directions : (60 to 64) Choose the cube from the options

that will unfold to give the figure on the left
Direction : (56) The six faces of a cube have been marked
with numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. This
cube is rolled down three times. The three
60.
positions are given. Choose the figure that will be
formed when the cube is unfolded.

56.
M

(A)

(A)

M
(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(B)
1

61.

7
9

(C)

(D)
9

7
8

57.

Which number is opposite 3 in a standard dice

given below ?

(A) 1
(C) 5
58.

(B) 4
(D) Cant be determined

(A)

(B)

(C)

7
(D)

8
7 4
(E)

62.
8
D

Which number is opposite 4 ?

(A) 5
(C) 2

(B) 3
(D) 1

Directions : (59) In the following question four positions of

the same dice have been shown. You have to see
these figures and select the number opposite to
the number as asked in each question.

(A)

(B)

D
(C)

(D)

(E)

(D)

(E)

63.
B
B

(A)

(B)

(C)

PAGE # 96

66.

Which number/letter is opposite 2 ?

64.

J
(A)

(B)

(A) A
(C) 1

J
(C)

(D)

Which letter is opposite Q ?

Q
O P L
N
M
(A) L
(C) N

(B) C
(D) 3

(E)

Directions : (65 to 68) In each of the following questions, a 67.

diagram has been given which can be folded into
a cube. The entries given in the squares indicate
the entries on the face of the cube. In each question
a number or a letter has been given . Of the four
alternatives given below it, you have to find the one
that would appear on the face opposite to it in the
cube.
65.

I C
A
B
2

68.

Which number/letter is opposite O?

L
N M 2
I O
(A) L
(C) N

(B) M
(D) 2

Which letter is opposite R?

Q R
S P
U T
(B) M
(D) P

(A) P
(C) T

(B) S
(D) U

PAGE # 97

ANSWER KEY
FORCE AND NEWTONS LAW OF MOTION(PHYSICS)
Que.

10

11

12

13

14

Ans.

A ACD B

Que.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

26

27

28

29

30

24

25

15

Ans.

Que.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans.

Que.

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Ans.
Que.
Ans.

CD

A,C

A,B,C

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

CARBON(CHEMISTRY)
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Que s. 1
Ans. C C B B B A D A C B C D C B B
Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B A C B C B B A C C D C A B C
Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
Ans. C B C A B D C B C A A

NUMBER SYSTEM(MATHEMATICS)
Q.

10

Ans.

Q.

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

Ans.

Q.

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

Q.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

Ans.

Q.

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

Ans.

Q.

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Ans.

Q.

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

Ans.

Q.

71

72

73

74

75

76

77

78

79

80

Ans.

A,D

Q.

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

Ans.

Q.

91

Ans.

PAGE # 9898

TRIGONOMETRY(MATHEMATICS)
1

Q.

10

Ans.

Q.

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

Ans.

Q.

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

Q.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

Ans.

Q.

41

42

Ans.

PROTOPLASM (BIOLOGY)
Q. 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A. C D C A B A A C A D B A A D D
Q. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. C B D B B C D A D A C A A A B
Q. 31 32 33 34
A. A B D A

SERIES COMPLETION(MENTAL ABILITY)

EXERCISE-1 (Number Series)
Que.

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

Que.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

12

13

14

15

Ans.

Que.

31

32

33

34

35

Ans.

EXERCISE- 2 (Alphabet Series)

Que.

10

11

Ans.

Que.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

EXERCISE- 3 (Letter Repeating Series)

Que.

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

Que.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

Ans.

PAGE # 9999

EXERCISE- 4 (Missing Term In Figure)

Que .

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans .

Que .

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans .

Que .

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

Ans .

PUZZLE-TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)
Que.
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
Que.
Ans.

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

27
A
42

28
D
43

29
C
44

30
D
45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57
D

58
B

CALENDAR AND CLOCK-TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que.

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

D
16
B
31
D

C
17
B
32
B

B
18
B
33
D

D
19
B
34
B

D
20
C
35
A

B
21
B
36
A

C
22
C
37
C

B
23
D
38
A

C
24
C
39
D

C
25
B
40
A

A
26
D
41
C

B
27
C

C
28
B

B
29
B

A
30
D

Que.
Ans.
Que.
Ans.

CUBE AND DICE TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que.

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans.

Que.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

Que.
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
Que.
Ans.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41
B
56
C

42
B
57
B

43
A
58
A

44
D
59
C

45
B
60
C

46
D
61
A

47
A
62
D

48
B
63
E

49
C
64
D

50
D
65
C

51
A
66
A

52
B
67
B

53
D
68
B

54
B

55
D

PAGE # 100
100