INDEX ---

CLASS - IX (VISTAAR-EXPERT)

S. NO. SUB3ECT NAME PA

SPECIMEN COPY
PHYSICS

2. CHEMISTRY
20-34

35-57

58-64

65-97

98-100

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 FORCE AND NEWTONíS LAWS OF MOTION

INTRODUCTION of nuclear forces. It acts within the nucleus that too

Force is a push or pull which tries to change or
successfully changes the state of rest or of uniform
motion of a body, i.e., force is the cause of
translatory motion.
It arises due to interaction of the bodies either due to
contact (e.g., normal reaction, friction, tension, spring
force etc.) or from a distance (e.g., gravitational or
electric force).
FUNDAMENTAL FORCES
All forces observed in nature such as muscular force,
tension, reaction, friction, weight, electric, magnetic,
nuclear, etc., can be explained in terms of only
following four basic interactions.
upto a very small distance. It does not depends on
charge and acts equally between a proton and proton,
a neutron and neutron, and proton and neutron,
electrons does not experience this force. It acts for
very short distance order of 10ñ15 m.
(d) Weak Force :
It acts between any two elementary particles. Under
its action a neutron can change into a proton emitting
an electron and a particle called antineutrino. The
range of weak force is very small, in fact much smaller
than size of a proton or a neutron.
It has been found that for two protons at a distance of
1 fermi :
FN:FEM:FW :FG::1:10ñ2:10ñ7:10ñ38

(a) Gravitational Force :

The force of interaction which exists between two

particles of masses m1 and m2, due to their masses is On the basis of contact forces are classified into two
called gravitational force. The gravitational force acts categories
over long distances and does not need, any
(i) Contact forces
intervening medium. Gravitational force is the
weakest force of nature. (ii) Non contact or field forces

(b) Electromagnetic Force : (a) Contact force :

Force exerted by one particle on the other because of Forces which are transmitted between bodies by short
the electric charge on the particles is called range atomic molecular interactions are called contact
electromagnetic force. Following are the main forces. When two objects come in contact they exert
characteristics of electromagnetic force contact forces on each other. e.g. Normal, Tension
etc.
(i) These can be attractive or repulsive.
(b) ) Field force :
(ii) These are long range forces.
Force which acts on an object at a distance by the
(iii) These depend on the nature of medium between
interaction of the object with the field produced by
the charged particles.
other object is called field force. e.g. Gravitational
(iv) All macroscopic forces (except gravitational)
force, Electro magnetic force etc.
which we experience as push or pull or by
contact are electromagnetic, i.e., tension in a
DETAILED ANALYSIS OF CONTACT FORCE
rope, the force of friction, normal reaction,
muscular force, and force experienced by a (a) Normal force (N) :
deformed spring are electromagnetic forces.
It is the component of contact force perpendicular to
These are manifestations of the electromagnetic
the surface. It measures how strongly the surfaces in
attractions and repulsions between
contact are pressed against each other. It is the
atoms/molecules.
electromagnetic force.
(c) Nuclear Force : e.g.1 A table is placed on Earth as shown in figure
It is the strongest force. It keeps nucleons (neutrons
and protons) together inside the nucleus inspite of
large electric repulsion between protons.
Radioactivity, fission, and fusion, etc. results because
of unbalancing

PAGE # 1
Here table presses the earth so normal force exerted
by four legs of table on earth are as shown in figure.
e.g.2 A boy pushes a block kept on a frictionless
surface.
(b) Tension :
Tension is the magnitude of pulling force exerted by a
string, cable, chain, rope etc. When a string is
connected to a body and pulled out, the string said to
be under tension. It pulls the body with a force T,
whose direction is away from the body and along the
length of the string. Usually strings are regarded to be
massless and unstretchable, known as ideal string.

Here, force exerted by boy on block is

electromagnetic interaction which arises due to
similar charges appearing on finger and contact  Note : (i) Tension in a string is an electromagnetic
surface of block, it is normal force. force and it arises only when string is pulled. If a
massless string is not pulled, tension in it is zero.
(ii) String can not push a body in direct contact.
(c) Force Exerted by spring :
A spring is made of a coiled metallic wire having a
A block is kept on inclined surface. Component of its definite length. When it is neither pushed nor pulled
weight presses the surface perpendicularly due to then its length is called natural length.
which contact force acts between surface and block. At natural length the spring does not exert any force
on the objects attached to its ends. f the spring is
pulled at the ends, its length becomes larger than its
natural length, it is known as stretched or extended
spring. Extended spring pulls objects attached to its
ends.
A B
Normal
Normal force exerted spring
by block on the surface
of inclined plane is Spring force on A Spring
shown in figure. Here force
normal force is a on B A
component of weight of B
the body perpendicular Stretc
to the inclined surface hed
i.e. N = mgsin spring
Spring force on A Spring
force on B

A B
Compressed spring

If the spring is pushed

at the ends, its length
becomes less than
Force acts natural length. It is
perpendicular to the known as compressed
surface
spring. A compressed
spring pushes the
objects attached to its
ends.

no e
1. Two blocks are kept in rm x
contact on a smooth al e
surface as shown in for rt
figure. Draw ce e

PAGE # 2
 d by A on B. r Fext
F i
n
= g
Hence normal force F
exerted by A on B is F
0 c Fext
o zero.
Sol. In above problem, n F=ñ
s  Note : kx
block A does not p
s
t x=
push block B, so r ï Normal is a compre
a
there is no i ssion in
n
n dependent force
t spring
molecular g it comes in role
interaction between when one
o surface presses
A and B. i
r
n the other.
s
n
t
a
i
t
f
u
f
r
n
a
e
l
s
l
s
e
n
g c
t o
h n
s
t
d
a
o
n
e
t
s

(
n
u
o
n
t
i
e
t
x
e
r =
t
s N
/
a m
n )
y x =
extens
f ion in
o spring
r
x
c
e

o
n

i
t
s

e
n
d
s

F
F

=
ñ
k
x
;
k
=
s
p

PAGE # 3
 Note : Spring force is also electromagnetic in nature :

(d) Friction force :

When a body is moving on a rough surface resistance

to the motion occurs because of the interaction
between the body and its surroundings. We call such
resistance as force of friction. Friction is also
considered as component of contact force which acts
parallel to the surfaces in contact.

(i) Origin of friction : The frictional force arises due

to molecular interactions between the surfaces at the
points of actual contact. When two bodies are placed
one over other, the actual area of contact is much
smaller then the total surface areas of bodies. The (C) Once the motion started, the smaller force is now
molecular forces starts operating at the actual points necessary to continue the motion (F3) and thus
frictional force decreases. The force of friction
of contact of the surfaces. Molecular bonds are
when body is in state of motion over the surface is
formed at these contact points. When one body is called kinetic or dynamic friction fk (figure d).
pulled over the other, these bonds are broken, and
the material get deformed and new bonds are formed.
The local deformation sends vibrations into the
bodies. These Vibrations ultimately dumps out
and energy of vibrations appears as heat. Hence to
start or carry on the motion, there is a need of force.

Body 1

Body 2 (iii) More about frictional force :

(A) About static friction
Actual area of contact
1. The limiting friction depends on the materials
(ii) Statics and Kinetic Frictions : of the surfaces in contact and their state of
polish.
ï Experiment :
2. The magnitude of static friction is
(A) Consider a block placed on a table, and a small independent of the apparent area of contact
force F1 is acted on it. The block does not move. It so long as the normal reaction remains the
indicates that the frictional force fs same.
starts acting in
opposite direction of applied force and its magnitude 3. The limiting friction is directly proportional to
is equal of F (figure b). That is for the equilibrium of the magnitude of the normal reaction
1
between the two surfaces i.e. f =  N. Here
lim S
the block, we have
sis coefficient of static friction.
F1 ñ fs = 0 or F1 = fs
The force of friction when body is in state of rest over flim
 We can write,  =s
the surface is called static friction (fs). N

(B) As the applied force increases the frictional force (B) About kinetic friction
also increases. When the applied force is increased
up to a certain limit (F2) such that the block is on the
verge of motion. The value of frictional force at this
stage is called limiting friction f
(figure c).
lim
:
1. The kinetic friction depends on the materials
of the surface in contact.
2. It is also independent of apparent area of
contact as long as the magnitude of normal
reaction remains the same.
3. Kinetic friction is almost independent of the
velocity, provided the velocity is not too large
not too small.
 4. The kinetic friction is directly proportional to
the magnitude of the normal reaction
between the surfaces.
fk=  kN. Here  kis coefficient of kinetic friction.
fk
 We can write,  = A force is conservative if the total work done by the
k
N force on an object in one complete round is zero,
ï There are two types of kinetic frictions: i.e. when the object moves around any closed path
(returning to its initial position).
(i) Sliding friction : The force of friction when one
body slides over the surface of the another body A force is conservative if there is no change in kinetic
is called sliding friction. energy in one complete round. KE = 0

This definition illuminates an important aspect of a

(ii) Rolling friction : When a wheel rolls without
slipping over a horizontal surface, there is no
relative motion of the point of contact of the wheel
with respect to the plane. Theoretically for a
rolling wheel the frictional force is zero. This can
only possible when bodies in contact are
perfectly rigid and contact of wheel with the
surface is made only at a point. But in practice no
material body is perfectly rigid and therefore
bodies get deformed when they pressed each
other. The actual area of their contact no longer
remains a point, and thus a small amount of
friction starts acting between the body and the
surface. Here frictional force is called rolling
friction. It is clear from above discussion that
rolling friction is very much smaller than sliding
friction.
conservative force viz. Work done by a conservative
force is recoverable. Thus in figure, we shall have to
do mgh amount of work in taking the body from A to
B. However, when body is released from B, we
recover mgh of work.
Other examples of conservative forces are spring
force, electrostatic force etc.
(b) Non-Conservative Force :
A force is non-conservative if the work done by that
force on a particle moving between two points
depends on the path taken between the points.
The force of friction is an example of non-conservative
force. Let us illustrate this with an instructive example.
Suppose we were to displace a book between two
points on a rough horizontal surface (such as a table).
If the book is displaced in a straight line between the
two points, the work done by friction is simply FS
where :
F = force of friction ;
S = distance between the points.

However, if the book is moved along any other path

between the two points (such as a semicircular path),
the work done by friction would be greater than FS.
flim > fkinetic > frolling.
Finally, if the book is moved through any closed path,

 Note : s and  are dimensionless quantities and the work done by friction is never zero, it is always
k negative. Thus the work done by a non-conservative
independent of shape and area of contact . It is a
force is not recoverable, as it is for a conservative force.
property of two contact surfaces.  wills always be
greater than k .Theoretical value of  can be o to  This is illustrated in figure.
but practical value is 0 <   1.6

(a) Conservative Force :

A force is said to be conservative if the amount of

work done in moving an object against that force
is independent on the path. One important example of
conservative force is the gravitational force. It means
that amount of work done in moving a body against
gravity from location A to location B is the same
whichever path we may follow in going from A to B.
SYSTEM

Two or more than two objects which interact with

each other form a system.
Classification of forces on the basis of
boundary of system :

(a) Internal Forces : Forces acting with in a

system among its constituents.

(b) External Forces : Forces exerted on the

constituents of a system by the outside
surroundings are called as external forces.
 FREE BODY DIAGRAM
B
A free body diagram consists of a diagrammatic A
representations of single body or a subsystem of
bodies isolated from surroundings showing all the
forces acting on it. Sol.F.B.D. of sphere ëAí :

 Steps for F.B.D.

Step 1 : Identify the object or system and isolate it

from other objects, clearly specify its boundary.
Step 2 : First draw non-contact external force in the
diagram, generally it is weight.
Step 3 : Draw contact forces which acts at the
boundary of the object of system. Contact forces are F.B.D. of sphere ëBí :
normal , friction, tension and applied force. In F.B.D, (exerted by A)
internal forces are not drawn only external are drawn.
2. A block of mass ëmí is kept on the ground as shown in
figure.

 Note : Here NAB and NBA are the action - reaction pair
(Newtonís third law).
(i) Draw F.B.D. of block. 4. Draw F.B.D. for systems shown in figure below.
(ii) Are forces acting on block forms action- reaction
pair.

(iii) If answer is no, draw action reaction pair.

Sol.(i) F.B.D. of block

Sol.

(ii) ëNí and mg are not action -reaction pair. Since

pair act on different bodies, and they are of
same nature.

(iii) Pair of ëmgí of block acts on earth in opposite

direction.

earth
mg

and pair of ëNí acts on surface as shown in figure. TRANSLATORY EQUILIBRIUM

N When several forces acts on a body simultaneously in

such a way that resultant force on the body is zero,
i.e., 

3. Two sphere A and B are placed between two vertical

walls as shown in figure. Draw the free body diagrams
F = 0 with F =  F the body is said to be in
i

translatory equilibrium. Here it is worthy to note that :

of both the spheres.
(i) As if a vector is zero all its components must
vanish
 i.e. in equilibrium as -

F = 0 with F = F =
i
 Note : The absolute unit of force remains the same
everywhere, but the gravitational unit of force varies
0
from place to place because it depends on the value of
g.
=0;
 F Fx
=0; F z
=0
( b) Applications of Newtonís 2nd Law
y (i) When objects are in equilibrium :
So in equilibrium forces along x axes must balance Steps to solve problem involving objects in
each other and the same is true for other directions. equilibrium :
If a body is in translatory equilibrium it will be either at
Step 1 : Make a sketch of the problem.
rest or in uniform motion. If it is at rest, equilibrium is
Step 2 : Isolate a single object and then draw the
called static, otherwise dynamic.
free- body diagram for the object. Label all external
Static equilibrium can be divided into following forces acting on it.
three types : Step 3 : Choose a convenient coordinate system and
(a) Stable equilibrium : resolve all forces into rectangular components along x
and Y direction.
If on slight displacement from equilibrium position a
body has a tendency to regain its original position it is
said to be in stable equilibrium. In case of stable
Step 4 : Apply the equations 
Fx  0 and 
Fy  0 .
Step 5 : Step 4 will give you two equations with
equilibrium potential energy is minimum and so center several unknown quantities. If you have only two
of gravity is lowest. unknown quantities at this point, you can solve the
two equations for those unknown quantities.
Step 6 : If step 5 produces two equations with more
O
than two unknowns, go back to step 2 and select
another object and repeat these steps. Eventually at
(b) Unstable equilibrium : If on slight displacement step 5 you will have enough equations to solve for all
from equilibrium position a body moves in the unknown quantities.
direction of displacement, the equilibrium is said to be
unstable. In this situation potential energy of body is
maximum and so center of gravity is highest. 5. A ëblockí of mass 10 kg is
suspended with string as
O
shown in figure.
Find tension in the string.
(g = 10 m/s2).
(c) Neutral equilibrium : If on slight displacement Sol.F.B.D. of block
from equilibrium position a body has no tendency to For equilibrium of block along Y axis
come back to its original position or to move in the
direction of displacement, it is said to be in neutral F y 0
equilibrium. In this situation potential energy of body T ñ 10 g = 0
is constant and so center of gravity remains at  T = 100 N
constant height.
6. The system shown in figure is in equilibrium. Find the
magnitude of tension in each string ; T1 , T2, T3 and T4.
(g = 10 m/s2).

(a) Newtons 2nd law of motion :

The rate of change of linear momentum of a body is

directly proportional to the applied force and the
change takes place in the direction of the applied
force.
  
In relation F = ma the force F stands for the net Sol.F.B.D. of 10 kg block
external force. Any internal force in the system is not be included in F . newton
to In S.I. the absolute unit of force is (N) and

 gravitational unit of force is kilogram weight or For equilibrium of block along Y axis.
T0
kilogram force (kgf.)
F y 0
T0 = 10 g
T0 = 100 N 10g

F.B.D. of point ëAí

y N2 = 50 sin 30F + N3
N = 100 ñ 25 = 75 N

F
3
T2
y 0 & N4 = 50 cos 30F + 20 g
30F
T cos 30F = T = 100 N N4 = 243.30 N
2 0 x
T1 A
8. Find magnitude of force exerted by string on pulley.
200
 T =2 3 N
T0

F x 0

T1 = T2 . sin 30F
Sol B. F.B.D. of 10 kg block :
200 1 100
= 3 . = 3 N.
2
F.B.D. of point of ëBí
y

T4
T = 10 g = 100 N
60F F.B.D. of pulley :
T3 x
B
30F

T2

Fy = 0  T cos 60F = T cos 30F

4 2

 T =4 200 N Since string is massless, so tension in both sides

of string is same.
and Fx = 0  T + T sin30F = T sin3 2 4 So magnitude of force exerted by string on pulley
60F
200
= 100 2  100 2 = 100
2
N
T = N
3
3
7. Two blocks are kept in contact as shown in figure. Find F.B.D. of 20 kg block
:-

(a) forces exerted by surfaces (floor and wall) on

blocks.

(b) contact force between two blocks.

SolA : F.B.D. of 10 kg block

N1 = 10 g = 100 N.......(1)
N2 = 100 N.........(2)

 Note : Since pulley is in equilibrium position, so net
forces on it is zero.
(ii) Accelerating Objects :
Steps to solve problems involving objects that are in
accelerated motion :
Step 1 : Make a sketch of the problem.
Step 2 : Isolate a single object and then draw the free
other body. Some of the forces may be unknown ,
label them with algebraic symbols.
Step 3 : Choose a convenient coordinate system,
show location of coordinate axis explicitly in the free -
body diagram, and then determine components of
forces with reference to these axis and resolve all
forces into x and y components.
Step 4 : Apply the equations Fx = ma & Fy =
x

- body diagram for that object. Label all external may.

forces acting on it. Be sure to include all the forces
acting on the chosen body, but be equally careful not
to include any force exerted by the body on some
Step 6 : If step 5 produces two equations with more
than two unknowns, go back to step 2 and select
another object and repeat these steps. Eventually at
step 5 you will have enough equations to solve for all
unknown quantities.
9. A force F is applied horizontally on mass m1 as shown
in figure. Find the contact force between m1 and m2.
Step 5 : Step 4 will give two equations with several
unknown quantities. If you have only two unknown
quantities at this point, you can solve the two
equations for those unknown quantities.
Sol.For calculating the value of F0.
F.B.D of whole system
F0
(a) 2m/s2
10 g = 100 N
F0 ñ100 = 10 I 2
F0 = 120 N.................................(1)

(b) According to Newtonís second law, net force on

Sol.Considering both blocks as a system to find the rope.
common acceleration. F = ma = 2 I 2
Common acceleration = 4N................................(2)

F (c) For calculating tension at the middle point we draw

F.B.D. of 3 kg block with half of the rope (mass 1
a=
m1  m2  ....... kg) as shown.
(1)

F m1 m2 a
Tñ4g=4.2

To find the contact force between ëAí and ëBí we draw

F.B.D. of mass m2.
T = 48 N
F.B.D. of mass m2
11. A block of mass 50 kg is kept on another block of
mass 1 kg as shown in figure. A horizontal force of 10
N is applied on the 1Kg block. (All surface are
smooth). Find : (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) Acceleration of blocks A and B.
(b) Force exerted by B on A.
Fx = ma x
B 50 kg
N = m2 . a A 1 kg
 F 
m2F sincea  Sol.(a) F.B.D. of 50 kg
N=  
m 1  m 2   m1  m2 

10. A 5 kg block has a rope of mass 2 kg attached to its other end of the rope. The whole system is
underside and a 3 kg block is suspended from the accelerated upward at 2 m/s2 by an external

0
 force F .

N2 = 50 g = 500 N
along horizontal direction, there is no force aB = 0
(a) What is F0 ?
(b) F.B.D. of 1 kg block :
(b) What is the net force on rope ?
N1 N2
(c) What is the tension at middle point of the rope ?
(g = 10 m/s2) 10 N

1g

along horizontal direction

10 = 1 aA.
aA = 10 m/s2
along vertical direction
N1 = N2 + 1g
= 500 + 10 = 510 N
12. One end of string which passes through pulley and N = Mg
connected to 10 kg mass at other end is pulled by 100 = 60 I 10
N force. Find out the acceleration of 10 kg mass. (g N = 600 N.
=9.8 m/s2) SPRING BALANCE

It does not measure the weight. It measures the force

exerted by the object at the hook. Symbolically, it is
represented as shown in figure.
A block of mass ëmí is suspended at hook. When
spring balance is in equilibrium, we draw the F.B.D. of
Sol.Since string is pulled by 100 N force. So tension in the
mass m for calculating the reading of balance.
string is 100 N

F.B.D. of 10 kg block

spring balance

hook
m
F.B.D. of ëmí.

100 ñ 10 g = 10 a
100 ñ 10 I 9.8 = 10
a mg ñ T = 0
T = mg
a = 0.2 m/s2.
Magnitude of T gives the reading of spring balance.
WEIGHING MACHINE
14. A block of mass 20 kg is suspended through two light
A weighing machine does not measure the weight but spring balances as shown in figure . Calculate the :
measures the force exerted by object on its upper
surface.
13. A man of mass 60 Kg is
standing on a weighing
machine placed on ground.
Calculate the reading of
machine (g = 10 m/s2). weighing machine
Sol.For calculating the reading of weighing machine, we
draw F.B.D. of man and machine separately. (1) reading of spring balance (1).
F.B.D of man (2) reading of spring balance (2).
Sol.For calculating the reading, first we draw F.B.D.of 20 kg
block.
F.B.D of man taking F.B.D. of weighing F.B.D. 20 kg
mass of man as M machine
N
N
weighing machine T

N = Mg Mg
N1
Mg
20 g

Here force exerted by object on upper surface is N

Reading of weighing machine

mg ñ T = 0
T = 20 g = 200 N
Since both the balances are light so, both the scales
As the block is in equilibrium along y-axis, so we have
will read 200 N.
15. (i) A 10 kg block is supported by a cord that runs to a F y  0;
spring scale, which is supported by another cord or N = mg + F sin 
from the ceiling figure (a). What is the reading on To just move the block along x-axis, we have
the scale ?
F cos  =  N =  (mg + F sin )
(ii) In figure (b) the block is supported by a cord that
runs around a pulley and to a scale. The opposite mg
end of the scale is attached by cord to a wall. or F = (i)
cos ñ  sin
What is the reading of the scale.
 Pull : Along y-axis we have ;
(iii) In figure (c) the wall has been replaced with a
second 10 kg block on the left, and the assembly
is stationary. What is the reading on the scale
now ?

T
spring balance F y  0;
hook
 N = mg ñ F sin 
10 kg
To just move the block along x-axis, we have
(a) F cos  =  N =  (mg ñ F sin )
T T
 mg 
T or F =  cos    sin(ii)
 
10kg
It is clear from above discussion that pull force is
smaller than push force.
(b)
T T 17. Discuss the direction of friction in the following cases :

T (i) A man walks slowly, without change in speed.

10kg 10kg (ii) A man is going with increasing speed.

Sol. In all the three cases the spring balance reads 10 kg.
(c) To understand this let us cut a section inside the spring
 as shown;
(iii) When cycle is gaining speed.

(iv) When cycle is slowing down .

As each part of the spring is at rest, so F= T. As the Sol. (i) Consider a man walks slowly without acceleration,
block is stationary, so T= 10g = 100N. and both the legs are touching the ground as
16. Pull is easier than push shown in figure (a). The frictional force on rear
leg is in forward direction and on front leg will be
on backward direction of motion.
As a = 0,
 F = 0 or fñf=0
net 1 2
 Push : Consider a block of mass m placed on  f =1 f 2
& N1= N 2.
rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and surface is  . Let a
push force F is applied at an angle  with the
horizontal.

N1 N2

f1 f1 f2 f2
Ground
N1 N2
(b)
(ii) When man is gaining the speed : The frictional
Block is to be raised without acceleration, so
force on rear leg f1 will be greater than frictional
T = 25 g.
force on front leg f2 (fig. b).
f1  f2  N1 = 25 g + 50 g
 acceleration of the man, a = .
m = 75 g = 75 I 9.8 = 735 N
In IInd case, let the force exerted by the man on the
(iii) When cycle is gaining speed : In this case
floor in N2 . Consider the forces inside the dotted box,
torque is applied on the rear wheel of the cycle
we have
by the chain-gear system. Because of this the
N2 = 50 g ñ T
slipping tendency of the point of contact of the
and T = 25 g
rear wheel is backward and so friction acts in
N2 = 50 g ñ 25 g
forward direction. The slipping tendency of point
= 25 g = 25 I 9.8 = 245 N.
of contact of front wheel is forward and so
As the floor yields to a downward force of 700 N, so the
friction acts in backward
man should adopt mode .
direction. If f1 and f2 are the frictional forces on
rear and front wheel, then acceleration of the
cycle a = 19. Figure shows a weighing machine kept in a lift is
f1 ñ f2 moving upwards with acceleration of 5 m/s2. A block is
, where M is the mass of the cycle
kept on the weighing machine. Upper surface of block
together is attached with a spring balance. Reading shown by
M weighing machine and spring balance is 15 kg and 45
with rider (fig. a).
N1 N2 N1 N2 kg respectively.

f1 f2 f1 f2
(a) (b)

(iv) When cycle is slowing down : When torque is frictional forces

not applied (cycle stops pedaling), the on rear and front wheel, then retardation
slipping tendency of points of contact of both the f1  f2
wheels are forward, and so friction acts in a= M
backward direction (fig. b). If f1 and f2 are the 18. A block of mass 25 kg is raised by a 50 kg man in two
 different ways as shown in fig.. What is the action on
the floor by the man in the two cases ? If the floor
yields to a normal force of 700 N, which mode should
the man adopt to lift the block without the floor
yielding.

Answer the following questions. Assume that the

weighing machine can measure weight by having
negligible deformation due to block, while the spring
balance requires larger expansion. (take g = 10 m/s2)

(i) Find the mass of the object in kg and the normal

force acting on the block due to weighing machine?

(ii) Find the acceleration of the lift such that weighing

machine shows its true weight ?

Sol. (i)

50g T + N ñ Mg = Ma
50g 45 g + 15 g = M(g + a)
450 + 150 = M(10 + 5)
M = 40 kg
Sol. The FBD for the two cases are shown in figure. Normal force is the reaction applied by weighing
In Ist case, let the force exerted by the man on the machine i.e. 15 I 10 = 150 N.
floor is N1. Consider the forces inside the dotted box,
we have N1 = T + 50 g.
(A) Same (B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
2. Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on the two blocks
of 2kg and 1kg kept on frictionless floor. What is the
(ii) force exerted on 2kg block by 1kg block ?:

6N
T + N ñ Mg = Ma 2kg 1kg
45 g + 40 g = 40(g + a)
450 + 400 = 400 +40 a
450 45
a= = m/s2
40 4

EXERCISE

Normal Force :

1. Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table. One

has mass m and the other 2m.A force F is applied on
2m as shown in the figure. Now the same force F is
applied from the right on m. In the two cases
respectively, the ratio of force of contact between the
two blocks will be :
4. A dish of mass 10 g is kept horizontally in air by between m and Mí is Ní then
firing bullets of mass 5 g each at the rate of 100 per
second. If the bullets rebound with the same speed,
what is the velocity with which the bullets are fired :
(A) 0.49 m/s (B) 0.098 m/s
(C) 1.47 m/s (D) 1.96 m/s
(A) N= Ní (B) N > Ní
(C) Ní> N
5. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a
(D) cannot be determined
frictionless plank. If struck by a jet releasing water at
a rate of 1 kg/s and at a speed of 5 m/s. The initial
ï ASSERTION / REASON
acceleration of the block will be :
(A) 2.5 m/s2 (B) 5.0 m/s2 7. STATEMENT-1 : Block A is moving on horizontal
(C) 10 m /s 2
(D) none of the above surface towards right under action of force. All
surface are smooth. At the instant shown the force
6. A constant force F is applied in horizontal direction exerted by block A on block B is equal to net force on
as shown. Contact force between M and m is N and block B.
3N

(A) 1N (B) 2N
STATEMENT-2 : From Newtonsís third law, the force
(C) 4N (D) 5N
exerted by block A on B is equal in magnitude to force
3. There are two forces on the 2.0 kg box in the exerted block B on A
overhead view of figure but only one is shown. The (A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-2
second force is correct explanation for statement-1.
is nearly :
y (B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-2
is NOT a correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false
F1 = 20 N (D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True
x
8. A certain force applied to a body A gives it an
30F acceleration of 10 msñ2 . The same force applied to
2
body B gives it an acceleration of 15 msñ2 . If the two
a = 12 m/s
bodies are joined together and same force is applied
(A) ñ20 àj N (B) ñ 20 ài + 20 àj N
to the combination, the acceleration will be :
(C) ñ32 ài ñ 12 3 àj N (D) ñ21 ài ñ 16 àj N (IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
(A) 6 msñ2 (B) 25 msñ2
(C) 12.5 msñ2 (D) 9 msñ2
 9. Four blocks are kept in a row on a smooth horizontal
13. Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends of a
table with their centres of mass collinear as shown in
light string which passes over a massless pulley
the figure. An external force of 60 N is applied from
left attached to the top of a double inclined smooth plane
on the 7 kg block to push all of them along the table. of angles of inclination  and . If M > M then the
The forces exerted by them are :(IAO/Sr./Stage- 2 1
I/2008)
acceleration of block M2 down the inclined will be :
P Q R S
60N 7 kg5 kg2 kg1 kg

(A) 32 N by P on Q (B) 28 N by Q on P
(C) 12 N by Q on R (D) 4 N by S on R

Tension : M2 (sin) M1g(sin)

(A)
MM g (B)
MM
 1 2
10. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid support  M2 sin  M1 sin 
1 2

at A as shown in figure. Another rope is tied at the end (C)  g (D) Zero
B, and it is pulled horizontally with a force F. If the rope  M1  
 M2
AB makes an angle  with the vertical in 14. Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are connected to
equilibrium,then the tension in the string AB is : each other by threads and are placed on table as
shown in figure. What is the acceleration with which
the system is moving ? Take g = 10 m sñ2:

(A) (B) F /sin 

F sin  (D) F / cos 
(C) F cos 

11. In the system shown in the figure, the acceleration of

the 1kg mass and the tension in the string connecting
between A and B is : (A) Zero (B) 1 msñ2
(C) 2 m sñ2 (D) 3 m sñ2

15. The pulley arrangements shown in figure are identical

the mass of the rope being negligible. In case I, the
mass m is lifted by attaching a mass 2m to the other
end of the rope. In case II, the mass m is lifted by
pulling the other end of the rope with a constant
g 8g g g downward force F= 2 mg, where g is acceleration due
(A) downward, (B) upward,
4 7 4 7 to gravity. The acceleration of mass in case I is :
g 6 g
(C)
downward, g (D) upward, g
7 7 2
12. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body of
mass 12 kg. The combination is being pulled by a
string with an acceleration of 2.2 m sñ2. The tension T 1
and T2 will be respectively :(Use g =9.8 m/s2)

(A) Zero
(B) More than that in case II
(C) Less than that in case II
(A) 200 N, 80 N (B) 220 N, 90 N
(C) 240 N, 96 N (D) 260 N, 96 N (D) Equal to that in case II
16. A 50 kg person stands on a 25 kg platform. He pulls
20. Two blocks of mass m each is connected with the
massless rope which is attached to the platform via
string which passes over fixed pulley, as shown in
the frictionless, massless pulleys as shown in the
figure. The force exerted by the string on the pulley P
figure. The platform moves upwards at a steady
velocity if the force with which the person pulls the is :
rope is :

(A) mg (B) 2 mg
(C) mg (D) 4 mg
2
 21. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a
(A) 500 N (B) 250 N massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook C
(C) 25 N (D) 50 N while the other end is free. Maximum tension that
rope can bear is 360 N, with what minimum safe
17. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled along a
acceleration (in m/s2) can a monkey of 60 kg move
smooth horizontal surface. The mssses of the blocks
down on the rope :
and tension in one cord are given. The pulling force F is
:

F
30N P
60F 4kg 3kg 2kg 1kg

(A) 50 N (B) 100 N

(C) 125 N (D) 200 N
C
18. A10 kg monkey climbs up a massless rope that runs
over a frictionless tree limb and back down to a 15 kg
package on the ground. The magnitude of the least (A) 16 (B) 6
acceleration the monkey must have if it is to lift the (C) 4 (D) 8
package off the ground is : 22. Which figure represents the correct F.B.D. of rod of
mass m as shown in figure :

(A) 4.9 m/s2 (B) 5.5 m/s2

(C) 9.8 m/s2 (D) none of these (A) (B)
19. Two blocks, each of mass M, are connected by a
massless string, which passes over a smooth
massless pulley. Forces F act on the blocks as shown. (C) (D) None of these
The tension in the string is :
23. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible weight
tightly at its ends so that it is horizontal. A 15 kg
weight is attached to the rope at the mid point which
now no longer remains horizontal. The minimum
tension required to completely straighten the rope is :
(A) 15 kg
(A) Mg (B) 2 Mg 15
(B)
(C) Mg + F (D) none of these kg 2
(C) 5 kg
(D) Infinitely large (or not possible)
24. In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass each have (A) a1 = a2 = a3 (B) a1 > a2 > a3
acceleration a1 , a2 and a3 respectively . F1 and F2 are (C) a1 = a2 , a2 > a3 (D) a1 > a2 , a2= a3
external forces of magnitudes 2 mg and mg
25. A weight is supported by two strings 1.3 and 2.0 m long
respectively then which of the following relations is
fastened to two points on a horizontal beam 2.0 m
correct :
apart. The depth of this weight below the beam is :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2007)

(A) 1.0 m (B) 1.23 m

 29. Two bodies of masses M1 and M2 are connected to
(C) 0.77 m (D) 0.89 m
each other through a light spring as shown in figure. If
26. A fully loaded elevator has a mass of 6000 kg. The we push mass M1 with force F and cause acceleration
tension in the cable as the elevator is accelerated a1 in mass M1 what will be the acceleration in M2 ?
downward with an acceleration of 2msñ2 is (Take g = I0
ms ñ2 ) (KVPY/2007)

(A) 7R2 I 104 N (B) 4.8 I 104 N

(C) 6 I 104 N (D) 1.2 I 104 N
(A) F/M2 (B) F/(M1 + M2)
27. A light string goes over a frictionless pulley. At its one (C) a1 (D) (FñM1a1)/M2
end hangs a mass of 2 kg and at the other end hangs
a mass of 6 kg. Both the masses are supported by 30. A spring balance is attached to 2 kg trolley and is
hands to keep them at rest. When the masses are used to pull the trolly along a flat surface as shown in
released, they being to move and the string gets taut. the fig. The reading on the spring balance remains at
(Take g = 10 msñ2) The tension in the string during the
10 kg during the motion. The acceleration of the trolly
motion of the masses is : (KVPY/2008)
(A) 60 N (B) 30 N is (Use g= 9.8 mñ2) :
(C) 20 N (D) 40 N

Force Exerted by Spring :

28. In the given figure. What is the reading of the spring

balance: (A) 4.9 msñ2 (B) 9.8 msñ2
(C) 49 msñ2 (D) 98 msñ2

31. A body of mass 32 kg is suspended by a spring

balance from the roof of a vertically operating lift and
going downward from rest. At the instants the lift has
covered 20 m and 50 m, the spring balance showed
30 kg & 36 kg respectively. The velocity of the lift is :
(A) Decreasing at 20 m & increasing at 50 m
(B) Increasing at 20 m & decreasing at 50 m
(C) Continuously decreasing at a constant rate
throughout the journey
(D) Continuously increasing at constant rate
throughout the journey

Friction Force :

32. A ship of mass 3 I 107 kg initially at rest is pulled

by a force of 5 I 104 N through a distance of 3m.
Assume that the resistance due to water is
negligible, the speed of the ship is :
(A) 1.5 m/s (B) 60 m/s
(C) 0.1 m/s (D) 5 m/s

33. When a horse pulls a cart, the force needed to move

the horse in forward direction is the force exerted by :
(A) The cart on the horse
(B) The ground on the horse
(A) 10 N (B) 20 N (C) The ground on the cart
(C) 5 N (D) Zero (D) The horse on the ground
34. A 2.5 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal
surface.
A 6.0 N horizontal force and a vertical force P are
applied
to the block as shown in figure. The coefficient of
static friction for the block and surface is 0.4. The
magnitude of friction force when P = 9N : (g = 10
m/s2)
40. A bock of mass 5 kg is held against wall by applying a
horizontal force of 100N. If the coefficient of friction
between the block and the wall is 0.5, the frictional
force acting on the block is : (g =9.8 m/s2)
100N
5kg

(A) 6.0 N
(C) 9.0 N
35. The upper half of an
inclined plane with
inclination  is perfectly
smooth while the lower
half is rough. A body
starting from rest at the
top will again come to
rest at the bottom, if the
coefficient of friction for
the lower half is :
(A)
(B) tan 
(C) 2 sin 
36. Minimum force
required to pull the
lower block is (take g =
10 m/s2) :
(A)
(B) 5 N
(C) 7 N
37. N bullets each of mass
m are fired with a
velocity v m/ s at the
rate of n bullets per
sec., upon a wall. If the
bullets are completely
stopped by the wall,
the reaction offered by
the wall to the bullets is
: surface inclined at an
(A)
(B) n m v
(C) n N v / m(D) n v m /
N exerted by the plane
38. A vehicle of mass m is
moving on a rough
horizontal road with
momentum P. If the
coefficient of friction
between the tyres and
the road be , then the
stopping distance is :
(A)100 N (B) 50
(C) 49 N (D) 24
41. A heavy roller is being
pulled along a rough
road as shown in the
figure. The frictional
force at the point of
contact is :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2007)
F
(A) paralle
(B) opposite to F
(C) perpendicular to F
(D) ze
42. When a motor car of
mass 1500 kg is
pushed on a road by
two persons, it moves
with a small uniform
velocity. On the other
hand if this car is
pushed on the same
road by three
persons, it moves
with an acceleration
of 0.2 m/s2. Assume
that each person is
producing the same
muscular force. Then,
the force of friction
between the tyres of
the car and the
surface of the road is :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2009)
(A) 300 N (B) 60
(C) 900 N (D) 10
43. A block of mass M is
at rest on a plane
angle  to the
horizontal The
magnitude of force
on the block is :
(KVPY/2009)
(A) Mg co
(B) Mg sin 
(C) Mg tan (D) Mg
44. A block of mass M
rests on a rough
horizontal table. A
 steadily increasing continued even after
horizontal force is sliding has started.
applied such that the Assume the
block starts to slide coefficients of static
on the table without and kinetic friction
toppling. The force is
P between the table
P and the block to be
(A)2 (B) 2
equal. The cor-
 2 rect
 representation of
m
m the variation of the
g g frictional forces, É,
P exerted by the
P2
table on the block
with time t is given
by :
(C) (D)
2 2m2g

m
2

39. What is the maximum

value of the force F
(A)
such that the block
shown in the
arrangement, does
not move :
1
F
23
m = 3kg

(A) 20 N
10 N
(C) 12N (C)
15 N

PAGE # 16
45. A small child tries to move a large rubber toy placed
on the ground. The toy does not move but gets
deformed
under her pushing force (F) which is obliquely upward
as shown . Then (KVPY/2011)
(A) The resultant of the pushing force (F) , weight of
the toy, normal force by the ground on the toy and the
frictional force is zero.
(B) The normal force by the ground is equal and
oppo- site to the weight of the toy.
(C) The pushing force (F) of the child is balanced by
the equal and opposite frictional force
(D) The pushing force (F) of the child is balanced by
the total internal force in the toy generated due to
deformation
46. On a horizontal frictional frozen lake, a girl (36 kg) and
a box (9kg) are connected to each other by means of
a rope. Initially they are 20 m apart. The girl exerts a
horizontal force on the box, pulling it towards her. How
far has the girl travelled when she meets the box ?
(KVPY/2011)
(A) 10 m
(B) Since there is no friction, the girl will not move
(C) 16 m
(D) 4m
47. Which of the following does NOT involve friction ?
(IJSO/Stage-I/2011)
(A) Writing on a paper using a pencil
(B) Turning a car to the left on a horizontal road.
(C) A car at rest parked on a sloping ground
(D) Motion of a satellite around the earth.
 48. In the two cases shown below, the coefficient of
kinetic friction between the block and the surface is
the same,
and both the blocks are moving with the same uniform
speed. Then, (IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2008)
F1 F2
(A) F1 = F2
(B) F1 < F2
(C) F1 > F2
2
Weighing Machine :
49. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and
when it is moving downward with uniform acceleration
ëaí 3:2. The value of ëaí is : (g = acceleration, due to
gravity)
(A) (3/2)g (B) g
(C) (2/3) g (D) g/3
50. A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a
coin. The coin reaches the floor of the elevator in time
t1 when elevator is stationary and in time t2 if it is moving
uniformly. Then
(A) t1 = t2
(B) t1 > t2
(C) t1 < t2
(D) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 depending
ï ASSERTION / REASON
51. STATEMENT-1 : A man standing in a lift which is
moving upward, will feel his weight to be greater than
when the lift was at rest.
STATEMENT-2 : If the acceleration of the lift is ëaí
upward then the man of mass m shall feel his weight
to be equal to normal reaction (N) exerted by the lift
given N
= m(g+a) (where g is acceleration due to gravity
(A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
statement- 2 is correct explanation for statement 1.
(B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
statement- 2 is NOT a correct explanation for
statement-1.
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True
52. A beaker containing water is placed on the platform of
a digital weighing machine. It reads 900 g. A wooden
block of mass 300 g is now made to float in water in
the beaker (without touching walls of the beaker). Half
the wooden block is submerged inside water. Now,
the reading of weighing machine will be :
(IAO/Jr./Stage-I/2009)
(A) 750 g (B) 900 g
(C) 1050 g (D) 1200 g
Miscellaneous :
53. An object will continue accelerating until :
(A) Resultant force on it begins to decreases
(B) Its velocity changes direction
(C) The resultant force on it is zero
(D) The resultant force is at right angles to its direction
of motion
PAGE #
 ( = if sin = Mg/4F 61. Three forces act on a with
D2 particle that moves
) F2
F unch
1
angin
54. In which of the following
58. A force of magnitude F1 g
cases the net force is
not zero ? acts on a particle so as
veloci
to
(A) A kite skillfully held
accelerate if from rest ty v =
stationary in the sky
(B) A ball freely falling to velocity v. The force (3 ài
from a height F1 is then replaced by ñ 4 àj
(C) An aeroplane rising another force of ) m/s.
upward at an angle
of 45V with magnitude F2 which Two
the horizontal with a decelerates it to rest. of the
constant speed (A) F1 must be the equal forces are F1 = (3 ài + 2
(D) A cork floating on to F2 àj ñ 4 à ) N and F =
the surface of (B) F1 may be equal to k 2
water. (ñ5 ài + 8 àj
F2
(C) F1 must be unequal + 3 kà ) N. The third
 55. Figure shows the
to F2 force is :
displacement of a
(D) None of these (A) (ñ2 ài + 10 àj ñ 7 kà
particle going along )N
the X-axis as a
59. In a imaginary (A) ñ ài m/s (B) (2 ài ñ 10 àj + kà ) N
function of time. The
atmosphere, the air m/s (C) (7 ài ñ 2 kà + 10 àj )
force acting on the N
exerts a small force F (C) 6.5 ài m/s
particle is zero in the (D) none of these
region. on any particle in the
m/s
direction of the 62. An 80 kg person is
particleís motion. A parachuting and
 57. Figure shows the
particle of mass m experiencing a
displacement of a
projected upward downward
takes a time t1 in particle going along the
acceleration of 2.5
reaching the x-axis as a function of
m/s2 . The mass of the
maximum height and time :
parachute is 5.0 kg.
t2 in the return journey
(A) AB The upward force on
to the original point.
(C) CD the open parachute
Then
from the air is :
(A) t1 < t2
56. A 2 kg toy car can move (A) 620 N (B) 74
(B) t1 > t2
along x axis. Graph (C) 800 N (D) 92
(C) t1 = t2
shows force (A) The force acting on
(D) The relation
Fx, acting on the car the particle is zero in
between t1 and t2
the region AB
which begins to rest at depends on the mass 63. A block of mass m is
time t = 0. The velocity of the particle (B) The force acting on
pulled on the smooth
the particle is zero in
of the car at t = 10 s is : horizontal surface with
the region BC
60. A single force F of the help of two ropes,
(C) The force acting on
constant magnitude the particle is zero in each of mass m,
begins to act on a the region CD connected to the
stone that is moving (D) The force is zero no opposite faces of the
along x axis. The where block. The forces on
stone continues to
the ropes are F and
move along that
2F. The pulling force
axis. Which of the
on the block is :
following represents
the stoneís position ?
(A) x = 5t ñ 3(B) x = 5t2
+ 8t ñ 3 (A) F (B) 2F
(C) x = ñ5t2 + 5t ñ 3 (C) F/3 (D) 3F
= 5t3 + 4t2 ñ 3

PAGE #
64. A body of mass 5 kg starts from the origin with an initial 68. A body of 0.5 kg moves along the positive x - axis under
velocity u = 30 ài + 40 àj msñ1 . If a constant the influence of a varying force F (in Newtons) as
force shown below : (KVPY/2011)
à
F = ñ( ài + 5 j ) N acts on the body, the time in which
the
y-component of the velocity becomes zero is :
(A) 5 s (B) 20 s
(C) 40 s (D) 80 s 3

65. STATEMENT-1 :According to the newtonís third law of

3

F(N)
motion, the magnitude of the action and reaction force
is an action reaction pair is same only in an inertial
frame of reference. 1

STATEMENT-2 : Newtonís laws of motion are

applicable in every inertial reference frame.
0,0 2 4 6 8 10
(A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true, statement-
x(m)
2 is correct explanation for statement 1.
(B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
statement- 2 is NOT a correct explanation for
statement-1. If the speed of the object at x = 4m is 3.16 msñ1 then its
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false speed at x = 8 m is :
(D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True (A) 3.16 msñ1 (B) 9.3 msñ1
(C) 8 msñ1 (D) 6.8 msñ1
66. A body of mass 10 g moves with constant speed 2 m/
s along a regular hexagon. The magnitude of change 69. A soldier with a machine gun, falling from an airplane
in momentum when the body crosses a corner is : gets detached from his parachute. He is able to resist
(IAO/Sr./Stage-I/2007) the downward acceleration if he shoots 40 bullets a
second at the speed of 500 m/s. If the weight of a
(A) 0.04 kg-m/s (B) zero bullet is 49 gm, what is the weight of the man with the
gun ? Ignore resistance due to air and assume
(C) 0.02 kg-m / s (D) 0.4 kg-m/s the acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s2 .
(KVPY/2010)
67. An object with uniform density  is attached to a (A) 50 kg (B) 75 kg
(C) 100 kg (D) 125 kg
spring that is known to stretch linearly with applied
force as shown below

When the spring object system is immersed in a

liquid of density  as
1
shown in the figure, the spring
stretches by an amount x1 ( > 1 ). When the experiment
is repeated in a liquid of density 2 < 1 . the spring is
stretched by an amount x2. Neglecting any buoyant
force on the spring, the density of the object is:
(KVPY/2011)

 x  x x1  x2
  1 x1  x2 2
1 2
(A)

 x  2x1
(C)   1 2
  x  x
  1 x2  x2 1 (B)
2 1

 x  x
  1 x1  x2 2 (D)
1 2
 CARBON

INTRODUCTION VERSATILE NATURE OF CARBON

The compounds like urea, sugars, fats, oils,

About 3 million organic compounds are known today.
dyes, proteins, vitamins etc., which are isolated
The main reasons for this huge number of organic
directly or indirectly from living organisms such as
compounds are -
animals and plants are called organic
compounds.The branch of chemistry which (i) Catenation : The property of self linking of carbon
deals with the study of these compounds is atoms through covalent bonds to form long straight
called ORGANIC CHEMISTRY. or branched chains and rings of different sizes is
called catenation.Carbon shows maximum
VITAL FORCE THEORY OR BERZELIUS HYPOTHESIS catenation in the periodic table due to its small size,
electronic configuration and unique strength of
carbon- carbon bonds.
O gan c compounds canno be syn hes zed in the
labora ory because they requ e the presence o a (ii) Electronegativity and strength of bonds : The
mys er ous force (ca ed v a force) wh ch ex sts electronegativity of carbon (2.5) is close to a number
on y in l v ng organ sms of other elements like H (2.1) , N(3.0) , P (2.1), Cl
(3.0) and O (3.5). So carbon forms strong covalent
WOHLER S SYNTHES S bonds with these elements.
(iii) Tendency to form multiple bonds : Due to
In 1828 Fr ed ch Woh e syn hes zed u ea (a we small size of carbon it has a strong tendency to form
known organ c compound in the labora o y by multiple bonds (double & triple bonds).
hea ng ammon um cyana e.
(iv) Isomerism : It is a phenomenon by the virtue of
(NH ) SO + 2 KCNO 2NH CNO + K SO 4 which two compounds have same molecular formula
Ammon um Po ss m Ammon m Po ass um
su cyan e c ana e su pha
pha but different physical and chemical properties.

CLASSIFICATION OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

The organic compounds are very large in number on

 Note : account of the self -linking property of carbon called
Urea is the first organic compound synthesized in catenation. These compounds have been further
the laboratory. classified as open chain and cyclic compounds.

MODERN DEFINITION OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY Organic compounds

Organic compounds may be defined as

hydrocarbons and their derivatives and the branch Open chain Closed chain
of chemistry which deals with the study of compounds compounds
hydrocarbons and their derivatives is called
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY.
Organic chemistry is treated as a separate Alicyclic Aromatic
compounds compounds
branch because of following reasons-
(i) Organic compounds are large in number. (a) Open Chain Compounds :

(ii) Organic compounds generally contain covalent These compounds contain an open chain of carbon
bond. atoms which may be either straight chain or
branched chain in nature. Apart from that, they may
(iii) Organic compounds are soluble in non polar
solvents. also be saturated or unsaturated based upon the
nature of bonding in the carbon atoms. For example.
(iv) Organic compounds have low melting and
boiling points.

Organic compounds show isomerism .

Organic compounds exhibit homology. , ,

PAGE # 20
 , e.g.

Benzene Toluene Ethyl benzene

Phenol Aniline
 Note :
Benzene is the parent compound of majority of
aromatic organic compounds.

HYDROCARBONS
n-Butane is a straight chain alkane while 2-
Methylpropane is branched alkane.
(b) Closed Chain or Cyclic Compounds :
Apart from the open chains, the organic compounds
can have cyclic or ring structures. A minimum of
three atoms are needed to form a ring. These
compounds have been further classified into
following types.
The organic compounds containing only carbon and
hydrogen are called hydrocarbons. These are the
simplest organic compounds and are regarded as
parent organic compounds. All other compounds are
considered to be derived from them by the
replacement of one or more hydrogen atoms by
other atoms or groups of atoms. The major source
of hydrocarbons is petroleum.
Types of Hydrocarbons :

The hydrocarbons can be classified as :

(i) Alicyclic compounds : Those carbocyclic
compounds which resemble to aliphatic compounds
in their properties are called alicyclic compounds .
(i) Saturated hydrocarbons :
(A) Alkanes : Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons
containing only carbon - carbon and carbon -
hydrogen single covalent bonds.

e.g. or Cyclopropane General formula- CnH2n + 2(n is the number of carbon

atoms)
e.g. CH4 ( Methane)
C2H6 (Ethane)
or Cyclobutane
(ii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons :

(A) Alkenes : These are unsaturated hydrocarbons

which contain carbon - carbon double bond. They
contain two hydrogen less than the corresponding
alkanes.
or Cyclopentane
General formula - CnH2n
e.g. C2 H4 (Ethene)
C3 H6 (Propene)

(B) Alkynes : They are also unsaturated

hydrocarbons which contain carbon-carbon triple
bond. They contain four hydrogen atoms less than
the corresponding alkanes.
or Cyclohexane
General formula - C H

(ii) Aromatic compounds : Organic compounds

which contain one or more fused or isolated benzene
rings
n 2nñ2
are called aromatic compounds. e.g. C2 H 2 (Ethyne)

PAGE #
C 3H 4 (Propyne)

PAGE #
 Examples :
NOMENCLATURE OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
a
Nomenclature means the assignment of names to M
organic compounds . There are two main systems of Eth - E
nomenclature of organic compounds - P
(1) Trivial system B
E
(2) IUPAC system (International Union of Pure and Propene
Applied Chemistry)

(a) Basic rules of IUPAC nomenclature of

 Note :
organic compounds :
The name of the compound, in general , is written in
For naming simple aliphatic compounds, the normal
the following sequence-
saturated hydrocarbons have been considered as
the parent compounds and the other compounds as (Position of substituents )-(prefixes ) (word root)-(p -
their derivatives obtained by the replacement of one suffix).
or more hydrogen atoms with various functional
groups. (iii) Names of branched chain hydrocarbon : The
carbon atoms in branched chain hydrocarbons are
(i) Each systematic name has two or three of the
following parts- present as side chain . These side chain carbon
atoms constitute the alkyl group or alkyl radicals. An
(A) Word root : The basic unit of a series is word
root which indicate linear or continuous number of alkyl group is obtained from an alkane by removal of
carbon atoms. a hydrogen.
(B) Primary suffix : Primary suffixes are added to General formula of alkyl group = CnH2n+1
the
An alkyl group is represented by R.
nsaturation in a carbon chain.
e.g. chain are known as secondary suffixes.
ed after the primary suffix to indicate the presence of a particular functional group in the carbon
arbons : The name of straight chain hydrocarbon may be divided into two parts-
H
ñH
(A) H C

H
Methyl

(A) Word root(B) Primary suffix H H

ñH H C C
(A) Word roots for carbon chain lengths :(B)
ChainWordChainWord lengthrootlengthroot
H H
Ethyl
C1 C2 CMeth-
3 C4 C5 Eth - Prop -C
But
6 C7 C
-Hex-
8Pent-
C9 CHept-
10 Oct- Non- Dec-

A branched chain hydrocarbon is named using the Rule1:

following
(B) general IUPAC
Primary suffix : rules : Lo
ng
est
ch
(C)
ain
rul
e :
Sel
ect
the
lon gest possible continuous chain of carbon
 atoms. If some multiple bond is present , the chain
e.g.
selected must contain the multiple bond.

2ñMethylpentane 4ñMethylpentane
e.g. (Correct) (Wrong)

(i) The number of carbon atoms in the selected chain

determines the word root .
(ii) Saturation or unsaturation determines the primary 3ñMethylbutñ1ñ ene 2ñMethylbut ñ 3 ñ ene
suffix (P. suffix). (Correct) (Wrong)
(iii) Alkyl substituents are indicated by prefixes.
e.g.
CH3 CH3
| 2 |
CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH ñ CH2 ñ CH3 Prefix : Methyl 4 2 1 1 3 4
e.g Word root : pent-
3

. 3-Methylbut-1-yne (Correct) 2-Methylbut-3-yne

(Wrong)
CH3 P. Suffix: - ane
Rule
prefixes di, tri etc. : If the compound contains more than one similar alkyl groups,their positions are indicated separately and an appropriate numerical prefix di, t
ted by commas.

e.g. Prefix : Methyl

CH3 ñ CH ñ CH2 ñ CH ñ CH3
CH3CH2 ñ CH2 ñ CH3 Word root : Hept-
P. Suffix : -ane

CH3
5 4 3 2 1
e.g. CH3 ñ CH2 ñ C ñ Prefix : Methyl e.g. CH3 ñ CH2ñ C ñ CH ñ CH3
CH3 Word root : But- CH3 CH3
P. Suffix : ñene 2,3 - Dimethylpentane 2,3,3 - Trimethylpentane
CH2

Prefixes : Ethyl, Methyl e.g.

e.g. CH ñ CH ñ CH ñ CH ñ CH
3 2 2 3
Word root : Pent-
P. Suffix : -ane
CH ñ CH3
2,3,5 -Trimethylhexane 2,2,4 - Trimethylpentane
CH3
Rule 4 : Alphabetical arrangement of prefixes: If there
are different alkyl substituents present in the
Rule 2 : Lowest number rule: The chain selected is compound their names are written in the alphabetical
numbered in terms of arabic numerals and the order. However, the numerical prefixes such as di,
position of the alkyl groups are indicated by the tri etc. , are not considered for the alphabetical order.
number of the carbon atom to which alkyl group is
attached .
e.g
(i) The numbering is done in such a way that the .
substituent carbon atom has the lowest possible
number. 3-Ethyl - 2,3-dimethylpentane

(ii) If some multiple bond is present in the chain, the

Rule 5 : Naming of different alkyl substituents at the
carbon atoms involved in the multiple bond should
equivalent positions :
get lowest possible numbers.
Numbering of the chain is done in such a way that
the alkyl group which comes first in alphabetical
e.g order gets the lower position.
.
 2ñMethylbutane 3ñMethylbutane
e.g
(Correct) (Wrong) .
3-Ethyl-4-methylhexane
Rule - 6 : Lowest sum rule
According to this rule numbering of chain is done in FUNCTIONAL GROUP
such a way that the sum of positions of different
substituents gets lower value. An atom or group of atoms in an organic compound
e.g. or molecule that is responsible for the compoundís
characteristic reactions and determines its properties
is known as functional group. An organic
compound generally consists of two parts -
(i) (i) Hydrocarbon radical (ii) Functional group

e.g.

Hydrocarbon radical Functional group

ï Functional group is the most reactive part of the
molecule.
ï Functional group mainly determines the chemical
properties of an organic compound.
ï Hydrocarbon radical mainly determines the physical
properties of the organic compound.

(a) Main Functional Groups :

(i) Hydroxyl group (ñ OH) : All organic compounds

Word root : Hex -
containing - OH group are known as alcohols .
Primary suffix : - ane
e.g. Methanol (CH3OH) , Ethanol (CH3 ñ CH2 ñ OH) etc .
Substituent : two methyl & one ethyl groups
(ii) Aldehyde group (ñCHO) : All organic
IUPAC name : 4-Ethyl - 2, 4 - dimethylhexane
compounds containing ñCHO group are known as
aldehydes.
Some other example :
e.g. Methanal (HCHO), Ethanal (CH3CHO) etc.
(iii) Ketone group (ñCOñ) : All organic compounds
containing ñCOñ group are known as ketones.
(i)
e.g. Propanone (CH 3 COCH 3 ), Butanone
(CH COCH CH ) etc.
3 2 3
Substituent : one methyl group
IUPAC name : 4 - Methylhex - 2 - yne
Word root : Prop -
P. Suffix : -ane
Substituent : two methyl groups
IUPAC name : 2, 2 - Dimethylpropane

(ii)

Word root : But -

P. Suffix : - ene
Substituent : two methyl groups
IUPAC name : 2, 3 - Dimethylbut - 1 - ene

(iii)

Word root : Hex -

P. Suffix : - yne
(iv) group are called carboxylic acids.
C e.g. CH3COOH (Ethanoic acid)
a CH3CH2COOH(Propanoic acid)
r
(v) Halogen group (X = F, Cl, Br, I) :
b
All organic compounds containing ñX
o
x (F, Cl, Br or I) group are known as
y halides.
l e.g. Chloromethane (CH3Cl),
g Bromomethane (CH3Br) etc .
r
(b) Nomenclature of Compounds
o
Containing Functional Group :
u
p In case functional group (other than C =
C and C  C) is present, it is indicated
( by adding secondary suffix after the
ñ primary suffix. The terminal ëeí of the
primary suffix is removed if it is followed
C by a suffix beginning with ëaí, ëeí,
O ëií, ëoí, ëuí. Some groups like
O ñF, ñ Cl, ñ Br and ñ  are considered as
H substituents and are indicated by the
) prefixes.
:
A O
ll Some groups like ñ CHO, ñ C ñ , ñ
o COOH, and ñ OH are considered as
r
functional groups and are indicated
g
by suffixes.
a
n
i
c
c
o
m
p
o
u
n
d
s
c
o
n
t
a
i
n
i
n
g
c
a
r
b
o
x
y
l
 Functional General
Class Group Formula Prefix Suffix IUPAC Name

Carboxylic
Carboxy - oic acid Alkanoic acid
acid
(R = CnH2n+1)

Ester Carbalkoxy alkyl (Rí) - oate Alkyl alkanoate

Formyl
Aldehyde ñ CHO R ñ CHO - al Alkanal
or oxo

Ketone oxo - one Alkanone

Alcohol ñ OH R ñ OH Hydroxy - ol Alkanol

Alkenes C=C CnH2n ñ - ene Alkene

Alkynes C C CnH2nñ2 ñ - yne Alkyne

ñX
Halides RñX Halo ñ Haloalkane
(X = F,Cl,Br,I)

Steps of naming of an organic compound Step 4 :

containing functional group : The carbon atoms of the parent chain are numbered
in such a way so that the carbon atom of the
Step 1:
functional group gets the lowest possible number . In
Select the longest continuous chain of the carbon
case the functional group does not have the carbon
atoms as parent chain. The selected chain must
atom, then the carbon atom of the parent chain
include the carbon atoms involved in the functional
attached to the functional group should get the
groups like ñ COOH, ñ CHO, ñ CN etc, or those
lowest possible number.
which carry the functional groups like ñ OH, ñ NH 2,ñ

Cl, ñ NO2 etc. Step 5 :

The name of the compound is written as -

The number of carbon atoms in the parent chain
Prefixes - word root - primary suffix - secondary suffix
decides the word root.
 Note :
Step 2 :
The number of carbon atoms in the parent chain
The presence of carbon - carbon multiple bond
decides the primary suffix. decides the word root.

Step 3 :
The secondary suffix is decided by the functional
group.
S.No. Compound Common name Derived name IUPAC Name Structure

Methyl alcohol
1 CH3 ñ OH Carbinol Methanol
or Wood spirit

2 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ OH Ethyl alcohol Methyl carbinol Ethanol

3 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ OH n-Propyl alcohol Ethyl carbinol 1- Propanol

H H
4 Isopropyl alcohol Dimethyl carbinol 2 - Propanol HñCñCñOñH
H CH 3

5 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ OH n-Butyl alcohol n-Propyl carbinol 1- Butanol

6 HCOOH Formic acid ñ Methanoic acid

7 CH3COOH Acetic acid ñ Ethanoic acid

methyl acetic
8 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ COOH Propionic acid Propanoic acid
acid

ethyl acetic
9 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ COOH Butyric acid Butanoic acid
acid

O
n-Propyl acetic
10 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ COOH Valeric acid Pentanoic acid
acid

Some more examples :

CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ NH2
(iii)

(i) Word root : Prop -

Primary suffix : - ane
Secondary suffix : - amine
Word root : Hept- IUPAC name : Propan - 1 - amine
Primary suffix : ñ ane
Functional group : ñ OH (iv
Secondary suffix : ñ ol ) Word root : Prop-
IUPAC Name : 2, 5-Dimethylheptanñ1ñ ol Primary suffix : - ane
Substituent : nitro(prefix)
IUPAC name : 1 - Nitropropane
(ii)
Word root : Pent - (v)
Primary suffix : ñ ene
Secondary suffix : ñ oic acid Word root : But -
Position of double : 2nd bond Primary suffix : ñ ane
Prefix : ñ chloro
IUPAC name : Pent-2-en-1-oic acid/Pent-2-enoic
IUPAC name : 2 - Chlorobutane
acid
 ISOMERISM
(vi
) Such compounds which have same molecular
formula but different physical and chemical
Word root : But - properties are known as isomers and the
Primary suffix : ñ ane phenomenon is known as isomerism.
Secondary suffix : ñ one
Prefix : Methyl
IUPAC name : 3 - Methylbutan - 2- one

HOMOLOGOUS SERIES
Homologous series may be defined as a series of
similarly constituted compounds in which the members
possess similar chemical characteristics and the two
consecutive members differ in their molecular formula
by ñ CH2.
(a) Characteristics(a)ofChain
Homologous
Isomerism : Series :
The isomerism in which
(i) All the members of a series can be the isomers
represented by differ from each other due to the presence of different carbon chain skeletons is kn
e.g.
the same general formula.
e.g. General formula (i)
forC4alkane
H10 series is C H .
n 2n+2
,
(ii) Any two consecutive members differ in their
formula by a common difference of ñ CH2 and
differ in molecular mass by 14.
(iii) Different members in a series have a common
functional group.
e.g. All the members of alcohol family have ñOH group . 2 - Methylpropane
(Isobutane)
(iv) The members in any particular family have
almost identical chemical properties. Their (ii) C5H12
physical properties such as melting point, boiling
point, density etc, show a regular gradation with the
increase in the molecular mass.
2 - Methylbutane
(v) The members of a particular series can be (Isopentane)
prepared almost by the identical methods.
(b) Homologues :
The different members of a homologous series are
known as homologues.
e.g. 2, 2 -Dimethylpropane
(i) Homologous series of alkanes (neo - pentane)
General formula : CnH2n+2
(iii) C H
4 8
Value of n Molecular formula IUPAC name
n=1 CH4 Methane
n=2 C 2H 6 Ethane CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH = CH2 ,
n=3 C 3H 8 Propane But - 1 - ene Methylpropene
(ii) Homologous series of alkenes (b) Position Isomerism :
General formula :CnH2n
In this type of isomerism, isomers differ in the structure
Value of n Molecular IUPAC Common
formula name name due to difference in the position of the multiple bond
n=2 CH or functional group.
Ethene Ethylene
2 4
e.g.
n=3 C 3H 6 Propene Propylene
n=4 C 4H
8
But-1-ene  - Butylene (i) C4H8
(iii) Homologous series of alkynes CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH = CH2 , CH3 ñ CH = CH ñ CH3
But -1 - ene But -2 - ene
General formula : CnH2nñ2
Value of n Molecular IUPAC Common (ii) C3H8O
formula name name acetylene
CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ OH ,
n=2 C 2H 2 Ethyne Acetylene Propan-1-ol
n=3 C 3H 4 Propyne Methyl
acetylene n = 4 C 4H 6 But -1-yne Ethyl
 CH3 ñ CH ñ CH3 OH
Propan-2-ol

(c) Functional Group Isomerism : only. These compounds are open chain compounds
In this type of isomerism, isomers differ in the which are also addressed as Acyclic compounds.
structure due to the presence of different functional Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2 .The
groups. carbon
e.g. atoms in alkanes are in a state of sp3 hybridization,
i.e. the carbon atoms have a tetrahedral geometry.
(a) Physical Properties :
(i) C3H8O (i) Alkanes of no. of carbon atoms C to C are gases.
1 4

CH3 ñ CH2 ñ O ñ CH3 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ OH Carbon atoms C5 to C17 are liquids and C18 & onwards
are solids.
Methoxy ethane Propan-1-ol
(ii) Alkanes are colourless and odourless.
(ii) C4 H6 (iii) They are non-polar in nature, hence they
CH3 ñ CH2 ñ C  CH CH = CH2 ñ CH = CH2 dissolve only in non-polar solvents like benzene,
But - 1- yne Buta - 1, 3 - diene carbon tetrachloride etc.
(iv) Boiling point of alkanes increases as their
[or 1, 3 - Butadiene
molecular weight increases.
]
 Note :
ALKANES
Alkanes are unaffected by most chemical reagents
Alkanes are aliphatic hydrocarbons having only and hence are known as paraffins (parum-little,
C ñ C single covalent bonds. These are also known affinis affinity).
as saturated hydrocarbon as they contain single
bond
SOME COMMON EXAMPLES OF ALKANES

Molcular Form ula Structure Trivial Nam e IUPAC Nam e

CH4 CH4 Methane Methane

C2 H6 CH3ñCH3 Ethane Ethane

C3 H8 CH3ñCH2ñCH3 Propane Propane

C4H10 C H 3 ñ C H 2 ñ CH 2 ñ C H 3 n-Butane Butane

Isobutane 2ñMethylpropane
CH 3 ñ CH ñ CH 3
|
CH 3

C5H12 CH ñCH ñCH ñCH n-Pentane Pentane

3 2 2 3

CH 3 ñ CH ñ CH 2 ñ CH 3 Isopentane 2ñMethylbutane
|
CH3

CH 3
| Neopentane 2,2ñDimethylpropane
CH 3 ñ C ñ CH 3
|
CH 3

C6H14 n-Hexane Hexane

CH 3 ñ CH 2 ñ CH 2 ñ CH2 ñ CH 2 ñ CH3

CH 3 ñ CH ñ CH 2 ñ CH 2 ñ CH3
Isohexane 2ñMethylpentane
CH3

CH 3 ñ CH2 ñ CH ñ CH 2 ñ CH3 ñ 3ñMethylpentane

CH3

CH 3 ñ CH ñ CH ñ CH3 ñ 2,3ñDimethylbutane
CH3 CH3
 CH 3

CH 3 ñ C ñ CH 2 ñ CH3 Neohexane 2,2ñDimethylbutane

CH3

 Note : (vi) Laboratory Method : Methane is prepared in

The C ñ C bond distance in alkanes is 1.54 L and the the laboratory by heating a mixture of dry sodium
bond energy is of the order of 80 Kcal per mole. acetate and soda lime in a hard glass tube as
shown in figure. It is a decarboxylation reaction.
METHANE
It is a product of decomposition of organic matter in
Hard glass tube
absence of oxygen. It is found in coal mines (hence Delivery
the name damp fire), marshy places (hence the Sodium acetate
tube

name marsh gas) and the places where petroleum is and soda lime Gas jar
Cork
found. Bubbles of
Burner
methane gas
 Note : Trough
Iron
Beehive shelf
Methane is a major constituent of natural gas. Gas stand
Water

(a) Properties :
Methane is a colourless gas with practically no smell
and is almost insoluble in water. It melts at ñ 183P C Preparation of methane gas

and boils at ñ162PC. Methane has tetrahedral Methane, so formed is collected by downward
geometry in which Hñatoms are situated at four displacment of water. This gas contains some
corners of the regular tetrahedron. Bond angle is hydrogen, ethylene etc. as impurities which can be
109P28í. It has sp3 hybridisation. removed by passing the impure gas through alkaline
potassium permanganate solution.
(b) Structure :
(d) General Reactions :
H (i) Combustion :
(A) Methane burns with explosive violence in air
C forming carbon dioxide and water.
H CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O + Heat
H H (B) In the presence of insufficient supply of oxygen.
Tetrahedral 2CH4 + 3O2 2CO + 4H2O + Heat
(c) Preparation of Methane : (ii) Halogenation :
(A) In direct sunlight
(i) Direct synthesis h C + 4HCl
: Ni CH4 + 2Cl2
CH
C + 2H
2
500PC 4 (B) In diffused light
Carbon Hydrogen Methane Cl Cl2 Cl2
CH4 2 CH 3
CH Cl
22
CHCl 3 Cl2
CCl 4

Cl
Carbon
(ii) Sabatier and Senderens reductive method : Methane Methyl
chloride
Methylene
dichloride
Chloroform
tetrachloride
Methane can be prepared by passing carbon
Fluorine forms similar substitution products in the
monoxide or carbon dioxide and hydrogen over finely presence of nitrogen which is used as a diluent
powdered nickel catalyst at 300PC. because of high reactivity of fluorine. Bromine
Ni powder vapours react very sluggishly while iodine vapours
do not react
CO + 3H2 at all.
CH4 + H2O
300PC (iii) Nitration :
Ni powder 400PC
CO2 + 4H2 300PC CH4+ 2H2O CH4 + HOñNO2
10 atm.
CH3ñNO2 + H2O
Methane Nitric acid Nitromethane
(iii) Hydrolysis of aluminium carbide (iv) Catalytic Air oxidation : This is a method for
:
Al4C3 + 12H2O
3CH4 + 4Al(OH)3
commercial production of methanol.
When a mixture of methane and oxygen in a ratio of 9: 1
Aluminium Water Methane Aluminium
carbide hydroxide by volume is passed through a heated copper tube at
(iv) Reduction of methyl 200PC and at a pressure of 100 atmospheres,
methanol is formed.
iodide :
CH3 ñ  ZnñCu Couple
+ 2H CH4 + H CH4 + 1/2 O2
Methyl H2O CH3OH
Methane Hydrogen
iodide iodide Methane Methanol
 (v) Reduction of methanol or formaldehyde (e) Uses :
or formic acid with H (i) Alkanes are used directly as fuels .
CH3OH + 2H Red P (ii) Certain alkanes, such as methane, are used as a
CH4 +  + H 2O
source of hydrogen.
Methanol Methane
(iii) The carbon obtained in decomposition of alkanes
HCHO + 4H Red P
CH4 + 2 + H2 O is in very finely divided state and is known as carbon
Methanal Methane black. This is used in making printerís ink, paints, boot
polish and blackening of tyres.
(iv) Alkanes are used as starting materials for a
number of other organic compounds e.g.
methanol, methyl chloride, methylene dichloride etc.
(b) Uses :
ALKENES
(i) Ethylene is mainly used in the manufacture of
Alkenes are the simplest unsaturated aliphatic ethanol, ethylene oxide and higher 1-alkenes.
hydrocarbons with one carbon - carbon double bond. Ethylene is used for ripening of fruits. It is also used
for preparation of mustard gas.
Alkenes have general formula CnH2n. The carbon
[Cl ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ S ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ Cl]
atoms connected by the double bond are in a state of
sp2 hybridisation and this part of molecule is planar. (ii) Polythene from ethylene, teflon from tetra
A double bond is composed of sigma () and a pi () fluoroethylene and polystyrene from styrene are
bond. Alkenes are also called olefines (oil forming) used as plastic materials. Acrilon or orlon obtained
becuase they form oily products with halogens. from vinyl cyanide is used for making synthetic
fibres.
R ñ CH = CH2 + Br2 R ñ CH ñ CH2
Br Br Ethene occurs in natural gas, coal gas and wood
ETHENE
(Oily liquid) gas. It is also formed during the cracking of high
boiling petroleum fractions.
(a) Properties :
(a) Properties :
(i) Alkenes of C2 to C4 are gases. Alkenes of carbon
atoms C5 to C14 are liquids and C14 and onwards are Ethene is a colourless gas (B.P. = ñ105PC). It is very
solids. sparingly soluble in water but dissolves in acetone,
alcohol etc. It burns with smoky flame. Ethene has
(ii) Ethene is colourless gas with faint sweet smell. trigonal planar geometry. Bond angle is 120P. It has
All other alkenes are colourless and odourless. sp2 hybridisation.
(iii) Alkenes are insoluble in polar solvents like (b) Structure :
water, but fairly soluble in non-polar solvents like
benzene, carbon tetrachloride etc.
(iv) Boiling point of alkenes increases with increase
in molecular mass.

Bond length of C = C is 1.34 L . The energy of the

double bond is 142 Kcal molñ1, which is less than
twice the energy of a single bond i.e. 80 Kcal mole-1.
This indicates that a pi () bond is weaker than a
sigma () bond.
Molecular Structure Trivial IUPAC
formula Name Name
(c) Preparation of Ethene :
C(b)
2 H4 Some
H C common
= CH examples of alkenes
Ethylene -
Ethene
2 2
(i) By dehydration of alcohol (Lab. method) :
C3H6 CH3 ñ CH = CH2 Propylene Propene
-Butylene 1-Butene Conc. H2SO4
C4C8 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH = CH ñ CH ñ OH CH = CH + H O
3 2
CH2 CH3 ñ C ñ H -Butylene 2-Butene 165 ñ 2 2 2
170PC
CH3 ñ C ñ H
(cis) (cis) Ethanol Ethene
CH3 ñ C ñ H -Butylene 2-Butene (ii) By cracking of kerosene :
(trans) (trans)
H ñ C ñ CH3 Cracking
CH3 ñ (CH2)4ñ CH3 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ CH3 + CH2 = CH2
CH3 ñ C = CH2 Isobutylene 2-Methyl propene
n-Hexane Butane Ethene
CH3
C5H10 CH2 = CH (CH2)2CH3 ñ 1-Pentene (iii) From alkyl halides (Dehydrohalogenation) :
CH3CH = CHCH2CH3 ñ 2-Pentene CH2 ñ CH2 + KOH
(Alcoholic) CH2 = CH2 + KX + H2O (Here X = Halogen)
(cis and
Ethene
trans) H X
Ethyl halide
CH3 ñ CH ñ CH = CH2 ñ 3-Methyl-1-butene

CH3
CH3 ñ C = CH ñ CH3 ñ 2-Methyl-2-butene
CH3

CH2 = C ñ CH2 ñ CH3 ñ 2-Methyl-1-butene

CH3
 (d) General Reactions :
(i) Addition of halogens :
CCl
CH2 = CH2 + Cl2 4 CH2 ñ CH2
Ethene Chlorine
Cl Cl
1,2-Dichloroethane
(Ethylene dichloride)

CH2 = CH2 + Br2 CCl

Ethene Bromine 4 CH2 ñ CH2

(red-brown colour) Br Br
1,2-Dibromoethane
(colourless)
 Note :
Addition of bromine on alkenes in presence of CCl4 ALKYNES
is the test for unsaturation. Alkynes are unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons
having a carbon-carbon triple bond. Alkynes have
(ii) Addition of halogen acids (Hydrohalogenation) general formula CnH2nñ2. Thus, they have two
: hydrogen atoms less than an alkene and four
hydrogen atoms
CH2 = CH2 + HCl CH2 ñ CH2 less than an alkane with same number of carbon
Ethene atoms. A triple bond is composed of one sigma ()
H Cl
and two pi () bonds. The carbon atoms connected
Chloroethane
by a triple bond are in state of sp hybridisation.
(iii) Hydrogenation :
(a) Properties :
CH = CH + H Ni or Pt CH ñ CH
2 2 2
High T& P 3 3 (i) Alkynes of carbon atoms C2 to C4 are gases.
Ethene Alkynes of carbon atoms C5 to C12 are liquids.Alkynes
Ethane
of C13 & onwards are solids.
(iv) Combustion :
(ii) Alkynes are colourless and odourless, but ethyne
C2H4 + 3O2 2CO2 + 2H2 O + Heat has characteristic odour.
Ethene (iii) Boiling point and solubilities in water are
relatively higher than those of alkanes and alkenes.
(v) Addition of oxygen
: (iv) Alkynes are weakly polar in nature.
(v) Alkynes are lighter than water and soluble in non-
polar solvents.
(vi) Boiling point of alkynes increases with the
increase in molecular mass.
(vi) Polymerisation :  Note :
nCH2 = CH2 High T The bond energy of a triple bond is 190.5 Kcal per
ñ (CH2ñ CH2ñ)n
& High P mole, which is less than thrice the energy of a single
Ethene Polyethene () bond.

SOME COMMON EXAMPLES OF ALKYNES :

Molecular formula Structure Derived Name IUPAC name

C2 H2 HñCCñH Acetylene Ethyne

C3 H4 Methyl acetylene Propyne

CH 3 ñ C CñH

C4 H6 CH3ñCH2 ñ C  CH Ethyl acetylene 1ñButyne

Dimethyl acetylene 2ñ Butyne

 C5 H8 CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CH2 ñ C  CH n-Propyl acetylene 1ñPentyne

Ethyl methyl acetylene 2-Pentyne

CH 3 ñ CH ñ C  C H Isopropyl acetylene 3-Methyl- 1-butyne

C H3

(a) Structure :
ETHYNE

It is also known as acetylene. Acetylene is the first

member of alkyne series and has a linear geometry.
180P
It has sp hybridisation.The carbon-carbon triple bond
H C CH
distance and carbon-hydrogen bond distance have
been found to be 1.20 L and 1.06 L respectively. The
carbon-carbon hydrogen bond angle is 180P.
Linear
(b) Properties :
TEST FOR ALKANES, ALKENES AND ALKYNES
It is a colourless gas which is slightly soluble in
water. Pure ethyne has ethereal odour. Acetylene (a) Alkanes :
burns with luminous flame like aromatic compounds.
This is a highly exothermic reaction. (i) Bromine water test: It does not decolourise the
bromine water.
 Note :
(ii) Baeyerís test: It does not, react with Baeyerís
The temperature of oxyacetylene flame is about
reagent (alkaline solution of KMnO4).
3000PC and is used for welding and cutting steel.
(iii) Silver nitrate Test: No reaction
(c) Preparation :
(b) Alkenes:
(i) From carbon and hydrogen (Direct synthesis ) :
(i) Bromine water test: It decolourises the orange
When
colour of Bromine water.
an electric arc is struck between carbon (graphite) rods
in an atmosphere of hydrogen, acetylene is formed.
H H H H
2C + H 1200PC C=C +
CCl4
CñC
CH
Br2
H H H
Br Br H
2 22
Bromine water
(ii) From calcium carbide (Lab. Method) Ethene (red-brown colour)
: 1,2-Dibromoethane
(Colourless)
CaC2 + 2H2O Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
(ii) Baeyerís test: It decolourises the purple colour
Calcium Calcium Ethyne of Baeyerís reagent.
carbide hydroxide
H H H
(iii) Dehydrohalogenation of dihaloalkanes H2O + [O]
HñCñCñH
:
H
C=C
H H
OH OH
Ethene Ethylene glycol
(iii) Silver nitrate Test: No reaction
(c) Alkynes :
(d) Chemical Properties :
(i) Bromine water test : It decolourises the Br2 water.
(i) Addition of halogens :
H H H H
Br2
H ñ C  C ñ H + Br2 C= Br ñ C ñ C ñ Br
C Br
Ethyne Bromine Br Br Br

(ii) Addition of Halogen acid :

Cl
 water 1,2-Dibromoethene 1,1,2,2- (ii) Baeyerís test : It also decolourises the purple
Tetrabromoethane
(Colourless) colour of alkaline KMnO4 .

HC  CH + HCl HCl
H2C = CH H3C ñ CH
Ethyne
Cl Cl
Chloroethene 1,1-Dichloroethane
(Vinyl chloride) (Gem dihalide) (iii) Silver nitrate Test : It gives white precipitate
(iii) Hydrogenation H ñ C  C ñ H + 2 [Ag (NH3)2]NO3 Ag ñ C C ñ Ag + 2NH4NO3 + 2NH3
:
Ethyne Tollen's reagent White ppt.
HC  CH H2/Ni
H2 H2C = CH ñ CH
Ni CH2 3

Ethyne Ethene Ethane

EXERCISE
HC  CH H2
H2C = CH2
Ethyne Pd/BaSO
4
Ethene 1. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula
(CH3)3 CCH = CH2 is -
(iv) Combustion :
2C2H2 + 5O2 4CO2 + 2H2O + Heat (A) 3,3,3-Trimethyl -1-propane
Ethyne
(B) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-1-butene
(v) Polymerisation : (C) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butene
H (D) 1,1ñDimethyl- 3 -butene
Fe H
3HC  CH
or (C6H6) 2. Which of the following is not an example of aromatic
H compound ?
H H (A) Benzene (B) Naphthalene
 H Benzene
Ethyne (C) Cyclobutane (D) Phenol
3. The IUPAC name of the following compound is -
13. The functional group, present in CH3COOC2H5 is -
CH2 = CH ñ CH (CH3)2 (A) ketonic (B) aldehydic
(A) 1,1-Dimethyl -2-propene (C) ester (D) carboxylic
(B) 3-Methyl-1-butene
(C) 2-Vinylpropane 14. How many chain isomers (non- cyclic aliphatic) could
be obtained from the alkane C H6 14
?
(D) 1-Isopropylethylene (A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
4. Which of the following is an alkyne ?
(A) C4 H8 (B) C5H8 15. The isomerism exhibited by n-propyl alcohol and
(C) C H (D) None of these isopropyl alcohol is -
7 19
(A) chain isomerism
5. The IUPAC name of the following compound is -
(B) position isomerism
C2H5 (C) functional isomerism
(D) None of these
CH3 ñ CH ñ C = CH2
16. Any two consecutive members in a homologous
CH3 series differ in molecular mass by-
(A) 3-Ethyl-2-methylbut-3-ene (A) 8 (B) 14
(B) 2-Ethyl-3- methylbut -1-ene (C) 24 (D) 12
(C) 2-Methyl-3-ethylbut-3-ene 17. The IUPAC name of-
(D) 3-Methyl-2-ethylbut-1-ene CH ñ C(CH ) (OH) CH ñ CH(CH ) CH is -
3 3 2 3 3

6. The first organic compound synthesized in the (D) All of these

laboratory was -
8. The scientist who gave vital force theory was -
(A) urea (B) glucose
(C) alcohol (D) None of these

7. Propane is an -
(A) acyclic compound
(B) open chain compound
(C) alipthatic compound
 (A) 2,4-Dimethylpentan -2-ol (B) 2-Methyl-4-bromopentane
(B) 2,4- Dimethylpentan-4-ol (C) 1-Bromo -3- methylbutane
(C) 2,2-Dimethylbutane (D) 2-Methyl-3-bromopentane
(D) Isopentanol
18. The IUPAC name of (CH3)2 CHCH2 CH2 Br is- 19. Which of the following does not belong to
homologous series of alkanes ?
(A) 1-Bromopentane
(A) Berzelius (B) Avogadro (A) C2H6 (B) C3H
4
(C) Wohler (D) Lavoisier (C) C4H10 (D) C5H12
9. Which one of the following is not an organic compound
?
(A) Hexane (B) Urea 20. Isomers have -
(C) Ammonia (D)Ethyl alcohol (A) same molecular formula & same structure.
(B) different molecular formula & different structure.
10. Vast number of carbon compounds is due to the fact
that carbon has - (C) same molecular formula & different structure.
(A) variable valency (D) different molecular formula & same structure.
(B) property of catenation 21. Which of the following properties is not true
(C) great chemical affinity regarding organic compounds ?
(D) None of these (A) They are generally covalent compounds.
O (B) They have high melting and boiling points.
|| (C) They are generally insoluble in water.
11. The IUPAC name for CH3 ñ C ñ H is - (D) They generally show isomerism.
(A) Acetal (B) Methanal
22. The nature of linkage in organic compounds is
(C) Ethanal (D) Acetaldehyde
generally -
12. The IUPAC name of compound (A) ionic bond
H
(B) covalent bond
(C) co-ordinate covalent
CH3 ñ C ñ CH2 ñ CH3 is -
(D) metallic bond
COOH
23. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) Butan -3- oic acid
The members of the homologous series of alkanes
(B) Butan -2- oic acid
(A) are all straight chain compounds.
(C) 3-Methylbutanoic acid
(B) have the general formula CnH2n+2.
(D) 2-Methylbutanoic acid
(C) have similar chemical properties .
(D) show a regular gradation of physical properties.
24. Which of the following pairs is an example of chain
32. Ethyne on passing through a red hot iron tube gives -
isomer ?
(A) mesitylene (B) benzene
(A) CH3 ñ CH2 ñ OH & CH3OCH3
(C) butenyne (D) None
(B) CH3 ñ CH2 ñ CHO & CH3 ñ CO-CH3
(C)CH ñCH ñCH ñCH ñCH & 33. The general molecular formula of alkynes is -
3 2 2 2 3
(A) C H (B) C H
n 2n n 2nñ4

(D) All of the above (B) molecular formulae

(C) chemical properties
25. Which of the following is a functional isomer of (D) physical properties
CH3 ñ COOH ?
28. Write down the general formula of homologous series
whose third homologue is C4H6 ?
(A) CH3 ñ CH2 ñ OH (B) (A) CnH2n ñ 2 (B) Cn H2n + 2

(C) (D) All of these

26. Which of the following forms a homologous series ?

(A) Ethane, Ethylene, Acetylene

(B) Ethane, Propane, Butanol

(C) Methanal, Ethanol, Propanoic acid
(D) Butane, 2-Methylbutane, 2,3-Dimethylbutane
27. Homologous have the same -
(A) empirical formulae
 (C) CnH2nñ2 (D) CnH2n+2 is (A) 200PC (B)
1600PC
34. Which of the following is not a pair of homologues ?
(C) 2000PC (D) > 2500P
(A) Ethylacetylene and Dimethylacetylene
(B) Methylacetylene and Ethylacetylene
37. Ethyne is isoelectronic with-
(C) 1-Butyne and 2-Pentyne
(A) chlorine (B) oxygen
(D) 1-Pentyne and 3-Hexyne
(C) nitrogen gas (D) CO2
35. Ethyne is obtained by dehydrobromination of -
(A) CHBr = CHBr (B) CH3CHBr2 38. C  C bond length is -
(C) CH3ñCH2Br (D) None of these (A) 1.54 L (B) 1.20 L
(C) 1.34 L (D) 1.39 L
36. The temperature of oxy-acetylene flame
(C) C H (D) C H 39. Which of the following gives silver nitrate test ?
n + 1 2n ñ 2 n 2n

29. The general formula of saturated hydrocarbons is - (A) Methane (B) Ethene
(A) C H (B) C H (C) Ethyne (D) All
n 2n n 2n+2

(C) CnH2nñ2 (D) CnH2n+1

40. Which of the following does not decolourise bromine
30. The third member of methyl ketone homologous water ?
series is - (A) Alkanes only (B) Alkenes only
(A) Acetone (B) 2ñButanone
(C) Alkynes only (D) (B) and (C) both
(C) 2ñPentanone (D) 3ñPentanone.
31. The values of bond energies of single, double and 41. Unsaturated fatty acids contain -
triple bonds are in the order - [IJSO-State-I/2011]
(A) C ñ C > C = C > C  C (A) atleast one double bond
(B) C = C > C ñ C > C  C (B) two double bonds
(C) C  C > C = C > C ñ C (C) more than two double bonds
(D) C = C > C  C > C ñ C (D) no double bond

    
 NUMBERSYSTEM

 Pre-requisite : Before going through this chapter, Fundamental Laws of Logarithm :

you should be thorough with the basic concepts
of the same chapter explained in IX NCERT. Logarithm to any base a (where a > 0 and a  1 ).

LOGARITHM (i) loga a = 1

If ëaí is a positive real number, other than 1 and x is a (ii) loga 0 = not defined
rational number such that ax = N, then x is the [As an = 0 is not possible, where n is any number]
logarithm of N to the base a.
(iii) loga (ñve no.) = not defined.
 If ax = N then log Na = x. [As in loga N, N will always be (+ ve)]
[ Remember N will be +ve]
Systems of Logarithm : (iv) loga (mn) = loga m + logan
There are two systems of logarithm which are [Where m and n are +ve numbers]
generally used.
m
(i) Common logarithm : In this system base is (v) log   = log m ñ log n
always taken as 10. a
n a a

(ii) Natural logarithm : In this system the base of the (vi) loga(m)n = n log m
a
logarithm is taken as ëeí. Where ëeí is an
irrational
number lying between 2 and 3. (The approximate  log m
value of e upto two decimal places is e = 2.73) (vii) log a b
log a
m b
Some Useful Results :
(i) If a > 1 then
(viii) logam . logma = 1
(a) loga x < 0 [for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1]
(b) loga x = 0 for x = 1 (ix) If ëaí is a positive real number and ëní is a positive
(c) loga x > 0 for x > 1 rational number, then
(d) x > y  loga x > loga y i.e. logax is an increasing
function.
a loga n  n
(x) If ëaí is a positive real number and ëní is a positive
 Graph of y = loga x, a > 1 rational number, then
y
logaq np 
p
log n
a
y = logax, a > 1 q
x' 0 (1,0) x (xi)
ploga q  qloga p

(xii) logax = loga y  x = y

y'
Ex.1 If log3a = 4, find value of a.
(ii) If 0 < a < 1, then
Sol.  log3a = 4
(a) loga x < 0 for all x > 1  a = 34
(b) loga x = 0 for x = 1
(c) logax > 0 for all x satisfying 0 < x < 1  a = 81.
(d) x > y  logax < loga y i.e. loga x is a decreasing 9 27 3
function. Ex.2 Find the value of log ñ log  log
8 32 4
 Graph of y = loga x, 0 < a < 1. Sol. Given :

y 9 3 27  3
log ñ log  log  log 9    log
y = logax, 0 < a < 1. 8 27 4 32  4

32 8
0
(1,0)    9 log
x' 8
x
32 3  27 4 

= log1 = 0. [loga1 = 0]
y'
Ex.3 If 2log4x = 1 + log4(x ñ 1), find the value of x. FACTORS AND MULTIPLES
Sol. Given 2log4x = 1 + log4(x ñ 1)
 log x42 ñ log (x4 ñ 1) = 1 Factors : ëaí is a factor of ëbí if there exists a relation
x such that a # n = b, where ëní is any natural number.
 2 2 x
1

4=
log4 =1 xñ1  1 is a factor of all numbers as 1 7 b = b.
xñ1
 x = 4x ñ 4
2
 x ñ 4x + 4 = 0
2
 Factor of a number cannot be greater than the
 (x ñ 2) = 0 2
 x = 2. number (in fact the largest factor will be the number
itself). Thus factors of any number will lie between 1
Ex.4 Evaluate : 3 2ñlog3 5 . and the number itself (both inclusive) and they are
limited.

Multiples : ëaí is a multiple of ëbí if there exists a

Sol. Given 32ñlog3 5 = 32.3ñ log3 5 [am + n =
am.an] relation of the type b # n = a. Thus the multiples of
ñ1 6 are 6 7 1 = 6, 6 7 2 = 12, 6 7 3 = 18, 6 7 4 = 24,
= 9. 3log3 5
and so on.
= 9 7 5ñ1
 The smallest multiple will be the number itself and the
9 number of multiples would be infinite.
= .
5
 NOTE :
To understand what multiples are, letís just take an
Ex.5 If A = log 13 7 example of multiples of 3. The multiples are 3, 6, 9, 12,
27 625 + 7log11 and B = log 125 + 13 log11 ,
9
then find the relation between A and B. .... so on. We find that every successive multiples
13 4 appears as the third number after the previous.
27 625 + 7
Sol. A = log log11
= log3 3 5 + 7log11 So if one wishes to find the number of multiples of 6
13
less than 255, we could arrive at the number through
4 13 255
or, A = log 5 + 7log11 ....(i) = 42 (and the remainder 3). The remainder is of
3
3 6
no consequence to us. So in all there are 42 multiples.
7
and,B = log 9125 + 13 log11
If one wishes to find the multiples of 36, find 255 = 7

or, B = log32 5 3
36
+ 7log11 13 (and the remainder is 3).
3 Hence, there are 7 multiples of 36.
13
or, B = log 5 + 7log11 ...(ii)
2 3
Ex.7 How many numbers from 200 to 600 are divisible by
By (i) and (ii) we have, 4, 5, 6 ?
Sol. Every such number must be divisible by L.C.M. of
4 3
Añ log35 = B ñ log35 (4, 5, 6) = 60.
3 2
 600   200 
4 3  60  ñ  60  = 10 ñ 3 = 7.
   
 log35 < log35
3 2 Such numbers are 240, 300, 360, 420, 480, 540 and
 A < B. 600.
Clearly, there are 7 such numbers.
Ex.6 Find the value of log25125 ñ log84
Sol. Given, log25125 ñ log84 Factorisation : It is the process of splitting any number

= log52 into a form where it is expressed only in terms of the

53 ñ log 3 22
most basic prime factors.
 2

For ex ample, 36 = 22 7 32. It is expressed in the

3 2
= log 5 ñ log 2 factorised form in terms of its basic prime factors.
5 2
2 3
Number of factors : For any composite number C,
3 2 which can be expressed as C = ap 7 bq 7 cr 7...., where
= ñ [loga a  1]
23 a, b, c.......are all prime factors and p, q, r are positive
integers, the number of factors is equal to
5
= . (p + 1) 7 (q + 1) 7 (r + 1).... e.g. 36 = 22 7 32. So the
6
factors of 36 = (2 +1) 7 (2 + 1) = 3 7 3 = 9.
Ex.8 If N = 123 7 34 752, find the total number of even then it will be open and if it contains even number of
factors of N. factors. Then it will be closed. We know that a perfect
Sol. The factorised form of N is square contains odd number of factors while a non-
(22 7 31)3 7 34 7 52  26 7 37 7 52. perfect square contains even number of factors. Thus
Hence, the total number of factors of N is the lockers with perfect square number will be open
(6 + 1) (7 + 1) (2 + 1) = 7 7 8 7 3 = 168. and the number of these perfect squares from 1
Some of these are odd multiples and some are even.
The odd multiples are formed only with the
combination of 3s and 5s.
So, the total number of odd factors is
(7 + 1) (2 + 1) = 24.
Therefore, the number of even factors is
168 ñ 24 = 144.
Ex.9 A number N when factorised can be written
N = a4 7 b3 7 c7. Find the number of perfect squares
which are factors of N (The three prime numbers
a, b, c > 2).
Sol. In order that the perfect square divides N, the powers
of ëaí can be 0, 2 or 4, i.e. 3.
Powers of ëbí can be 0, 2, i.e. 2. Power of ëcí can be 0,
2,
4 or 6, i.e. 4.
Hence, a combination of these powers given 3 7 2 7 4
i.e. 24 numbers.
So, there are 24 perfect squares that divides N.

Ex.10 Directions : (i to iv) Answer the questions based on

the given information.
There are one thousand lockers and one thousand
students in a school. The principal asks the first
student to go to each locker and open it. Then he
asks the second student go to every second locker
and close it. The third student goes to every third
locker, and if it is closed, he opens it, and it is open,
he closes it. The fourth student does it to every fourth
locker and so on. The process is completed with all
the thousand students.
(i) How many lockers are closed at the end of the
process ?
(ii) How many students can go to only one locker ?
(iii) How many lockers are open after 970 students
have done their job ?
(iv) How many student go to locker no. 840 ?
Sol. (i to iv) : Whether the locker is open or not depends
on the number of times it is accessed. If it is accessed
odd number of times, then it is open while if it is
accessed even number of times then it is closed.
How many times a locker will be accessed depends
on the locker no. If it contains odd number of factors,
 (i) No. of closed lockers = No. of non-perfect square
numbers from 1 to 1000 = 1000 ñ 31 = 969.
(ii) Upto 500 students they can go to two or more than
two lockers, while the rest 500 can go to only one
locker.
(iii) The 31 perfect squares ( the last being 31 2 =
961) will be open while the lockers from 971 to 1000
is yet to be accessed last time so they all are open.
The total being = 31 + 30 = 61
(iv) The no. of students that have gone to locker no.
840 is same as the no. of factors of 840.
840 = 23 7 3 7 5 7 7.
So, the no. of factors = (3 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) =
32.

HCF AND LCM

LCM (least Common Multiple) : The LCM of given

numbers, as the name suggests is the smallest
positive number which is a multiple of each of the
given numbers
HCF (Highest Common factor) : The HCF of given
numbers, as the name suggests is the largest factor
of the given set of numbers.
Consider the numbers 12, 20 and 30. The factors
and the multiples are

Given
Factors Multiples
numbers
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 12 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, 108, 120....
1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20 20 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120.....
1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30 30 30, 60, 90, 120....

The common factors are 1 and 2 and the common

multiples are 60, 120...
Thus the highest common factor is 2 and the least
common multiple meaning of HCF it is the largest
number that divides all the given numbers.
Also since a number divides its multiple, the
meaning of LCM is that it is the smallest number
which can be divided by the given numbers.
 HCF will be lesser than or equal to the least of the
numbers and LCM will be greater than or equal to
the greatest of the numbers.

Ex.11 Find a number greater than 3 which when divided

by 4, 5, and 6 always leaves the same remainder 3.
Sol. The smallest number which, when divided by 4, 5
and 6, leaves the remainder 3 in each case
is LCM (4, 5 and 6) + 3 = 60 + 3 = 63.
Ex.12 In a school 437 boys and 342 girls have been
divided into classes, so that each class has the
same number of students and no class has boys
and girls mixed. What is the least number of classes
needed?
Sol. We should have the maximum number of students
in a class. So we have to find HCF (437, 342) = 19.
HCF is also the factor of difference of the number.
 to 1000 determines the no. of open lockers. 437 342
 Number of classes = 19 +
19
` = 23 + 18 = 41 classes.
 For any two numbers x and y, DIVISIBLITY
x # y = HCF (x, y) # LCM (x, y).

HCF and LCM of fractions : Division Algorithm : General representation of result

LCM of numerators is,

LCM of fractions = HCF of denominators
Dividend Remainder
 Quotient 
HCF of numerators Divisor Divisor
HCF of fractions = LCM of denominators
Dividend = (Divisor # Quotient ) + Remainder
Make sure the fractions are in the most reducible
form. Ex.18 On dividing 15968 by a certain number, the quotient
Ex.13 Find the H.C.F. and L.C.M. 8 16 2 10
of , , and . is 89 and the remainder is 37. Find the divisor.
9 81 3 27 Dividend  Remainder 15968  37

H.C.F.of (2,8,16,10) 2 Sol. Divisor = Quotient 89
Sol. H.C.F. of given fractions = = ,
L.C.M.of (3,9,81,27) 81 = 179.
 NOTE :
L.C.M.of (2,8,16,10) 80
L.C.M. of given fractions = = . (i) (xn ñ an) is divisible by (x ñ a) for all the values of n.
H.C.F.of (3,9,81,27) 3
(ii) (xn ñ an) is divisible by (x + a) and (x ñ a) for all the
Ex.14 Find the least number which when divided by 6, 7, 8, even values of n.
9
(iii) (xn + an) is divisible by (x + a) for all the odd values of
and 10 leaves remainder 1. n.
Sol. As the remainder is same
Required number = LCM of divisors + Remainder Test of Divisibility :
= LCM (6, 7, 8, 9, 10) +1 No. Divisiblity Test
= 2520 + 1 2 Unit digit s hould be 0 or even
= 2521. 3 The s um of digits of no. s hould be divis ible by 3

Ex.15 Six bells start tolling together and they toll at 4 The no form ed by las t 2 digits of given no. s hould be divis ible by 4 .

intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 sec. respectively, find 5 Unit digit s hould be 0 or 5.

(i) after how much time will all six of them toll together
? 8
(ii) how many times will they toll together in 30 min ?
Sol. The time after which all six bells will toll together must
be multiple of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12.
Therefore, required time = LCM of time intervals.
= LCM (2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12) = 120 sec.
Therefore after 120 s all six bells will toll together.
After each 120 s, i.e. 2 min, all bell are tolling
together.
6 No s hould be divis ible by 2 & 3 both
The num ber form ed by las t 3 digits of given no. s hould be divis ible by 8 .
9 Sum of digits of given no. s hould be divis ible by 9
The difference between s um s of the digits at even & at odd places
11
s hould be zero or m ultiple of 11 .
25 Las t 2 digits of the num ber s hould be 00 , 25, 50 or 75.
Rule for 7 : Double the last digit of given number and
subtract from remaining number the result should be

Therefore in 30 min they will toll together  30  zero or divisible by 7.

= 16 times
1 is added as all the bells are tolling together at the
start also, i.e. 0th second.
Ex.16 LCM of two distinct natural numbers is 211. What is
their HCF ?
Sol. 211 is a prime number. So there is only one pair of
distinct numbers possible whose LCM is 211,
i.e. 1 and 211. HCF of 1 and 211 is 1.
 
1 Ex.19 Check whether 413 is divisible by 7 or not.
 2 
such that each row has the same number of trees and
all are of the same type. Find the minimum number of
such rows that can be formed.
Sol. Total number of trees are 204 and each of the trees
are exactly divisible by 12. HCF of (48, 60, 96).
204
 = 17 such rows are possible.
12

Ex.17 An orchard has 48 apple trees, 60 mango trees and

96 banana trees. These have to be arranged in rows
Sol. Last digit = 3, remaining number = 41, 41 ñ (3 x 2) =
35
(divisible by 7). i.e. 413 is divisible by 7.
This rule can also be used for number having more
than 3 digits.
Ex.20 Check whether 6545 is divisible by 7 or not.
Sol. Last digit = 5, remaining number 654, 654 ñ (5 x 2)
= 644; 64 ñ (4 x 2) = 56 divisible by 7. i.e. 6545 is
Rule for 17 : Five times the last digit of the number
and subtract from previous number the result
obtained should be either 0 or divisible by 17.
Ex.22 Check whether 357 is divisible by 17 or not.
Sol. 357, (7 x 5) ñ 35 = 0, i.e. 357 is divisible by 17.
Rule for 19 : Double the last digit of given number
and add to remaining number The result obtained
should be divisible by 19.
Ex.23 Check whether 589 is divisible by 19 or not.
Sol. 589, (9 x 2) + 58 = 76 (divisible by 19), i.e. the
number is divisible by 19.
Ex.24 Find the smallest number of six digits which is
exactly divisible by 111.
Sol. Smallest number of 6 digits is 100000.
On dividing 100000 by 111, we get 100 as remainder.
 Number to be added = (111 ñ 100) = 11.
Hence, required number = 100011.
Ex.25 Find the largest four digit number which when
reduced by 54, is perfectly divisible by all even natural
numbers less than 20.
Sol. Even natural numbers less than 20 are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10,
12, 14, 16, 18.
Their LCM = 2 7 LCM of first 9 natural numbers
= 2 7 2520 = 5040.
This happens to be the largest four-digit number
divisible by all even natural numbers less than 20. 54
was subtracted from our required number to get this
number.
Hence, (required number ñ 54) = 5040
 Required number = 5094.
Ex.26 Ajay multiplied 484 by a certain number to get the
result 3823a. Find the value of ëaí.
Sol. 3823a is divisible by 484, and 484 is a factor of 3823a.
4 is a factor of 484 and 11 is also a factor of 484.
Hence, 3823a is divisible by both 4 and 11.
To be divisible by 4, the last two digits have to be
divisible by 4.
ëaí can take two values 2 and 6.
38232 is not divisible by 11, but 38236 is divisible by
11.
Hence, 6 is the correct choice.
Ex.27 Which digits should come in place of  and $ if the
divisible by 7.
Rule for 13 : Four times the last digit and add to
remaining number the result should be divisible by
13.
Ex.21 Check whether 234 is divisible by 13 or not .
Sol. 234, (4 x 4) + 23 = 39 (divisible by 13), i.e. 234 is
divisible
by 13.
REMAINDERS
The method of finding the remainder without actually
performing the process of division is termed as
remainder theorem.
Remainder should always be positive. For example if
we divide ñ22 by 7, generally we get ñ3 as quotient
and ñ1 as remainder. But this is wrong because
remainder is never be negative hence the quotient
should be ñ4 and remainder is +6. We can also get
remainder 6 by adding ñ1 to divisor 7 ( 7ñ1 = 6).
Ex.28 Two numbers, x and y, are such that when divided
by 6, they leave remainders 4 and 5 respectively. Find
the remainder when (x2 + y2) is divided by 6.
Sol. Suppose x = 6k1 + 4 and y = 6k2 + 5
x2 + y2 = (6k 1 + 4)2 + (6k 2 + 5)2
= 36k 2 + 48k + 16 + 36k 2 + 60k + 25
1 1 2 2
number 62684$ is divisible by both 8 and 5 ?
Sol. Since the given number is divisible by 5, so 0 or 5 must
come in place of $. But, a number ending with 5 in
never divisible by 8. So, 0 will replace $.
Now, the number formed by the last three digits is 40,
which becomes divisible by 8, if  is replaced by 4 or 8.
Hence, digits in place of  and $ are (4 or 8 or 0) and 0
respectively.
 = 36k 2 + 48k + 36k 2 + 60k + 41  When 1391 divided 1by 37, 2leaves a2 remainder of 28.
Obviously when this is divided by 6, the remainder
Ex.30 A number being successively divided by 3, 5 and 8
will be 5.
leaves remainders 1, 4 and 7 respectively. Find the
Ex.29 A number when divided by 259 leaves a remainder respective remainders if the order of divisors be
139. What will be the remainder when the same reversed.
number is divided by 37 ? Sol.
3 x
Sol. Let the number be P.
5 y 1
So, P ñ 139 is divisible by 259. 8 z 4
17
P  139
Let Q be the quotient then, =Q  z = (8 7 1 + 7) = 15 ; y = (5z + 4) = (5 7 15 + 4) = 79 ;
259
x = (3y + 1) = (3 7 79 + 1) = 238.
 P = 259Q + 139
Now,
8 238
P 259Q  139 5 29 6
 37 = 37 3 5 4
1 2
 259 is divisible by 37,
 Respective remainders are 6, 4, 2.
Ex.31 A number was divided successively in order by 4, 5
Ex.36 What is the remainder when 141516 is divided by 5
?
and 6. The remainders were respectively 2, 3 and 4.
Sol. = (15 ñ1)odd = 15n + (ñ1)odd, i.e. a (multiple of 5)
Then find out the number.
141516
Sol. ñ1. Thus when divided by 5 the remainder will be (ñ1),
4 x
5 y 2 i.e. 4.
6 z 3
1 4 Ex.37 What is the remainder when 357 + 27 is divided by
28?
 z = (6 7 1 + 4) = 10 Sol. 357 = (33)19
 y = (5 7 z + 3) = (5 7 10 + 3) = 53  357 + 27 = (27)19 + 27
 x = (4 7 y + 2) = (4 7 53 + 2) = 214 = (28 ñ 1)19 + 27

Hence, the required number is 214. = 28M + (ñ1)19 + 27 [Expand by binomial theorem]
Ex.32 In dividing a number by 585, a student employed = 28M ñ 1 + 27
the method of short division. He divided the = 28M + 26
number successively by 5, 9 and 13 (factors of 585) When 28M + 26 divided by 28, the remainder is 26.
and got the remainders 4, 8 and 12. If he had divided Hence, the required remainder is 26.
number by 585, then find out the remainder. Ex.38 What is the remainder when 82361 + 83361 + 84361
Sol.
5 x + 85361 + 86361 is divided by 7?
9 y 4 Sol. 82361 + 83361 + 84361 + 85361 + 86361 = [(84 ñ 2)361
13 z 8 + (84 ñ 1)361 + 84361 + (84 + 1)361 + (84 + 2)361]
1 12
Since, 84 is a multiple of 7, then the remainder will be
Now, 1169 when divided by 585 gives remainder when, (ñ 2)361 + (ñ1)361 + 1361 + 2361 is divided by 7 is
= 584. (ñ 2)361 + (ñ1)361 + 1361 + 2361 = 0. So the remainder is
To find the remainder of big number zero.

 NOTE :
CYCLICITY
(i) Binomial Expansion :
n n(n  We are having 10 digits in our number systems and
(a + b)n = an + anñ1b + 1) an ñ 2b2 +......+ bn, or some of them shows special characteristics like they,
1!
2!

n
repeat their unit digit after a cycle, for example 1 repeat
n(n 
(a ñ b)n = an a bnñ1
1) anñ 2b2 ñ......+ (ñ 1)nbn. its unit digit after every consecutive power. So, its
ñ + cyclicity is 1 on the other hand digit 2 repeat its unit
1! 2!
Hence, first term is purely of a i.e an and last digit is is (n + 1).
purely of b, i.e. bn.
Ex.33 What is the remainder when 738 is divided by 48.
(ii) Total number of terms in the expansion of (a + b) n
 digit after every four power, hence the cyclicity of 2 is four. The cyclicity of digits are as follows :
Digit Cyclicity

Sol.
738
72 49 1
48  0, 1, 5 and 6 1
1 so by using
9 19
48 4 and 9 2

=
19 =
48 48
= 2, 3, 7 and 8
48
binomial expansion, we can say that 18 terms are
completely divisible by 48 but the last term which is
 119
is not divisible. So, 119 = 1 is the remainder.
48
Ex.34 What is the remainder if 725 is divided by 4?
Sol. 725 can be written (8ñ1)25. There are 26 terms in all
and first 25 terms are divisible by 8, hence also by 4.
The last term is (ñ1)25. Hence, (8 ñ1)25 can be
written 8X ñ 1 or 4Y ñ1 ( where Y = 2X). So, 4Y ñ 1
divided by 4 leaves the remainder 3.
Ex.35 What is the remainder if 345 is divided by 8 ?
Sol. 345 can be written as 922 7 3. 9 can be written as (8 +
1). Hence, any power of 9 can be written as 8N + 1. In
other words, any power of 9 is 1 more than a multiple
of 8. Hence, (8N + 1) 7 3 leaves remainder 3 when
divided by 8.
4
So, if we want to find the last digit of 245, divide 45 by
4. The remainder is 1 so the last digit of 2 45 would be
same as the last digit of 21 which is 2.
To Find the Unit Digit in Exponential
Expres s ions :
(i) When there is any digit of cyclicity 4 in unitís
place. Since, when there is 2 in unitís place then in 2 1
unit digit is 2, in 22 unit digit is 4, in 23 unit digit is 8, in
24 unit digit is 6, after that the unitís digit repeats. e.g.
unit digit (12)12 is equal to the unit digit of, 24 i.e.6.
Ex.39 In (32)33 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 2 1 i.e. 2.
Ex.40 In (23)15 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 3 3 i.e. 7.
Ex.41 In (57)9 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 7 1 i.e. 7.
Ex.42 In (678)22 unit digit is equal to the unit digit of 82 i.e.

4.

(ii) When there is any digit of cyclicity 2 in unitís

place. Since, when there is 4 in unitís place then in 4 1 HIGHEST POWER DIVIDING A FACTORIAL
unit digit is 4, in 42 unit digit is 6 and so on.
Factorial n : Product of n consecutive natural
Ex.43 In (34)33 unit digit is 4. numbers is known as ëfactorial ní it is denoted by ën!í.
So, n! = n(n ñ 1)(n ñ 2)...321. e.g. 5! = 5 74 73 72 71 =
Ex.44 In (29)15 unit digit is 9. 120.
Ex.45 In (49)18 unit digit is 1.
 The value of factorial zero is equal to the value of
(iii) When there is any digit of cyclicity 1 in unitís factorial one. Hence 0! = 1 = 1!
place. The approach to finding the highest power of x dividing
Since, when there is 5 in unitís place then in 51 unit y  y  y 
y! is   , where [ ] represents just
  
digit is 5, in 52 unit digit is 5 and so on.  x  x2  x3 
 


Ex.46 In (25)15 unit digit is 5. Ex.49 Find unitís digit in y = 717 + 734
Sol. 717 + 734 = 71 + 72 = 56, Hence the unit digit is 6
Ex.47 In (46)13 unit digit is 6.
Ex.50 What will be the last digit of (73)756476
Ex.48 Find the last digit of
(i) 357 (ii) 1359
57
Sol. (i) The cyclicity of 3 is 4. Hence, gives the remainder
4
1. So, the last digit of 357 is same as the last digit of 31,
i.e. 3.

(ii) The number of digits in the base will not make a

difference to the last digit. It is last digit of the
base which decides the last digit of the number itself.
59
For 1359, we find which gives a remainder 3. So
4
the last digit of 1359 is same as the last digit of 33, i.e.
7.
 the integral part of the answer and ignoring the
fractional part.
Ex.52 What is the highest power of 2 that divides 20!
completely?
Sol. 20! = 1 7 2 7 3 7 4 7 7 18 7 19 7 20 = 1 7 (2 1) 7 3 7
(22)
7 5 7 (21 7 31) 7 7 7 (23) 7 so on. In order to find the
highest power of 2 that divides the above product,
expansion. All numbers that are divisible by 21 will
contribute 1 to the exponent of 2 in the product
20
= 10. Hence, 10 numbers contribute 21 to the
21
product. Similarly, all numbers that are divisible by
22 will contribute an extra 1 to the exponent of 2 in the
20

we need to find the sum of the powers of all 2 in this
product, i.e 2 = 5. Hence, 5 numbers contribute an
2
extra 1 to exponents. Similarly, there are 2 numbers
3
that are divisible by 2 and 1 number that is divisible

Sol. Let by 24. Hence, the total 1s contributed to the exponent

(73)756476 = (73)x where x =
= (75) even power
of 2 in 20! is the sum of ( 10 + 5 +2 +1) = 18. Hence,
756476
 Cyclicity of 3 is 4 group of all 2s in 20! gives 218 x (N), where N is not
 To find the last digit we have to find the divisible by 2.
remainder when x is divided by 4. If 20! is divided by 2x then maximum value of x is 18.
x = (75)even power = (76 ñ 1)even power , where n is divided by
Ex.53 What is the highest power of 5 that divides of
4 so remainder will be 1.
x = 100! = 100 7 99 7 98 7.......7 3 7 2 7 1.
6476
Therefore, the last digit of (73)75 will be 31 = 3. Sol. Calculating contributions of the different powers of 5,
100 100
= 4.
Ex.51 What will be the unit digit of (87) 635
75
we have 1 = 20,
5 52
5 .
Hence, the total contributions to the power of 5 is 24, or
6355
Sol. Let (87) 75 = (87)x where x = 756355 = (75)odd the number 100! is divisible by 524.
 Cyclicity of 7 is 4.
Ex.54 How many zeros at the end of first 100 multiples of
 To find the last digit we have to find the
10.
remainder when x is divided by 4.
Sol. First 100 multiple of 10 are = 10 7 20 7 30 7.....7 1000
x = (75)odd power = (76 ñ 1)odd power
= 10100 (1 7 2 7 3 7 .......7 100)
where x is divided by 4 so remainder will be ñ1 or 3,
= 10100 7 1024 7 N
but
= 10124 7 N
remainder should be always positive.
Therefore, the last digit of Where N is not divisible by 10
will be 73 = 343.
(87)756355
So, there are 124 zero at the end of first 100 multiple of
Hence, the last digit is of is 3. 10.
(87)756355
Ex.55 What is the highest power of 6 that divides 9! (i) Conversion from base 10 to any other base :
9
9
Sol. By the normal method. = 0. Thus Ex.58 Convert (122)10 to base 8 system.
6 = 1 and
62
answers we get is 1 which is wrong. True there is just Sol.
8 122
one multiple of 6 from 1 to 9 but the product 2 7 3 = 6
8 15 2
and also 4 7 9 = 36, can further be divided by 6. Thus, 8 1 7
when the divisor is a composite number find the 0 1
highest power of its prime factors and then proceed.
In this case, 9! can be divided by 2 7 and 34 and thus by The number in decimal is consecutively divided by the

64 (In this case we need not have checked power of 2 number of the base to which we are converting the
as it would definitely be greater than that of 3). decimal number. Then list down all the remainders in
the reverse sequence to get the number in that base.
Ex.56 What is the largest power of 12 that would divide 49!
? So, here (122)10 = (172)8.
Sol. To check the highest power of 12 in 49!, we need to

check the highest powers of 4 and 3 in it.

Ex.59 Convert (169)10 in base 7.
Highest power of 3 in 49! = 22
Highest power of 2 in 49! = 46 7 169
46 7 24 1
 Highest power of 4 in 49! = = 23 73 3 Remainder
2 Sol 0 3
.
 Highest power of 12 will be 22. (Since the common
power between 3 and 4 is 22). (169)10 =(331)7

Ex.60 Convert (0.3125)10 to binary equivalent.

Ex.57 How many zeros will be there at the end of 36!36! ?
Sol. Integer
Sol. Highest power of 5 in 36! is 8.
2  0.3125 = 0.625 0
So, there will be 8 zeros at the end of 36!.
2  0.625 = 1.25 1
So, at the end of 36!36! , there will be 8 7 36! zeros.
2  0.25 = 0.50 0
2  0.50 = 1.00 1
BASE SYSTEM
Thus
The number system that we work in is called the
(0.3125)10 = (0.1010)2
ëdecimal systemí. This is because there are 10 digits
in the system 0-9. There can be alternative system Ex.61 Convert (1987.725)10  (........)8
that can be used for arithmetic operations. Some of
Sol. First convert non-decimal part into base 8.
the most commonly used systems are : binary, octal
8 1987
and hexadecimal. 8 248 3
These systems find applications in computing. 8 31 0
Binary system has 2 digits : 0, 1. 8 3 7
Octal system has 8 digits : 0, 1,..., 7. 0 3
Hexadecimal system has 16 digits : 0, 1, 2,..., 9, A ,
B, C, D, E, F.  (1987)10 = (3703)8
After 9, we use the letters to indicate digits. For Now we have to convert (0.725)10  (........)8
instance, A has a value 10, B has a value 11, C has a Multiply
value 12,...
0.725 7 8 = [5.8] ...5
so on in all base systems.
The counting sequences in each of the systems would 0.8 7 8 = [4.8]
[6.4]
be different though they follow the same principle.
0.4 7 8 =
[3.2]
0.2 7 8 =
[1.6]
0.6 7 8 =
 ...6 ...1
...3 ...4
Conversion : Conversion of numbers from (i) decimal
Keep on accomplishing integral parts after
system to other base system. (ii) other base system to
multiplication with decimal part till decimal part is zero.
decimal system.
 (0.725)10= (0.56314...) 8

 (1987.725)10 = (3703.56314...)8
(ii) Conversion from any other base to decimal
Ex.68 The sum of first n natural numbers is a three-digit
system :
number, all of whose digits are the same. What is the
Ex.62 Convert (231)8 into decimal system.
value of n?
Sol. (231)8 , the value of the position of each of the
numbers ( as in decimal system) is : Sol. In 5 seconds, you can solve the equation
1 = 80 7 1 n(n  1)
3 = 81 7 3 = aaa (111, 222, etc) . How do you proceed
2
2 = 82 7 2 next ? If you think it's hit-and-trial from this point, you
Hence, (231) 8 = (80 7 1 + 81 7 3 + 82 7 2) 10 are wrong. Here goes the simple logic. It might strike
(231)8 = (1 + 24 + 128)10 you instantly if you have been working with numbers:
(231)8 = (153)10
n(n  1) = aaa = a 7 111 = a 7 3 7 37
Ex.63 Convert (0.03125)10 to base 16.
2
Sol. 16  0.03125 = 0.5 0  n(n + 1) = 6a x 37
16  0.5 = 8.0 8
So (0.03125)
a product of two consecutive natural
10
= (0.08)
numbers.16
Therefore, R.H.S. should also be a product of two consecutive natural numbers. One of the numbers is 37. Therefore
um is equal Ex.64 Convert (761.56)  (......)
8 16
Sol. In such conversion which are standard form
conversions, it is easier to
(761.56)  (.....)  (.....)
8 2 16
Converting every digit in base 8 to base 2,
(111110001.101110)2  (1F1.B8)16

Ex.65 Convert (3C8.08)16 to decimal

Sol. (3C8.08)16 = 3  162 + C  161 + 8  16 + 0  16ñ1 + 8 
to 666.
16ñ2
= 768 + 192 + 8 + 0 + 0.03125 Ex.69 If ABC x CBA = 65125, where A, B and C are single
= (968.03125)10
So, (3C8.08)16 = (968.03125)10
digits, then A + B + C = ?
Sol. As the unit digit of the product is 5, therefore, the unit
ALPHA NUMERICS NUMBERS
digit of one of the numbers is 5 and the unit digit of
the other number is odd. Therefore, AB5 x 5BA =
aa
65125, where A = 1, 3, 5, 7 or 9.
b b
Ex.66 If a ñ b = 2, and then find the value of a, b and As the product of two three-digit numbers is a five-
c.
cc0 digit number, and not a six-digit number, A can only
be equal to 1. IB5 x 5B1 = 65125.
Sol. These problems involve basic number
(i) aa + bb = 11(a + b) (ii) aa, bb are two-digit numbers. The digit sums of both numbers, 1B5 and 5B1 will be
Hence, their sum cannot exceed 198. So, c must be 1. same. Therefore, the product would give digit sum of
(iii) Hence, cc0 = 110. This implies a + b = 10 or a = 6 a perfect square. The digit sum on the R.H.S. is 1.
and b = 4.
Therefore, the digit sum of each number can be 1or 8.
Such problems are part of a category of problems
called alpha numerics. Correspondingly B will be 4 or 2 (as digit sum cannot
be equal to 1).
a3b

Ex.67 If  a c Keeping B = 2, we can see that 125 x 521 = 65125.

then find a, b and c if each of them is
a a 9
Ex.70 Find the four-digit number ABCD such that
distinctly different digit. (ii) there must be a carry over from 3 to b, because if no
Sol. (i) since the first digit of (a 3 b) is written as it is after carry over is there, it means 3 ñ a = a.
subtracting ac carry over from a to 3.
 3
 2a = 3  a =
ABCD x 4 = DCBA.
2
which is not possible because a is a digit. For a carry Sol. Any number multiplied by 4 will give us an even
over 1, 2 ñ a = a number. Hence, the digit D when multiplied by 4 will
a=1
(iii) it means b and c are consecutive digit (2, 3), give us an even number.
(3, 4),....(8, 9) Since A is the unit digit of the product it is even.
Hence, A = 2, 4, 6 or 8 (It cannot be 0). A is also the
first digit of the multiplicand and if A = 4, 6 or 8 the
product ABCD x 4 will become a 5 digit number.
Hence A = 2. Writing the value of A we get 2BCD x 4
= DCB2.

Now for the value of D looking at the first and last 6. How many numbers between 200 and 600 are
digits of the multiplicand, we can see that 4 x D gives divisible by 14?
the unit digit of 2 and 4 x 2 gives the first digit of D. (A) 28 (B) 29
Yes, you got it right D = 8. Writing the multiplication (C) 27 (D) None of these

again with the value of D we get 2BC8 x 4 = 8CB2. 7. The number of prime factors of (3 7 5)12 (2 7 7)10 (10)25
Now for the value of B. A number is divisible by 4 if the is :
(A) 47 (B) 60
number formed by the last two digits is divisible by 4.
(C) 72 (D) 94
Since the number 8CB2 is a multiple of 4, the number
B2 should be divisible by 4. Or, the number B2 = 12, 8. How many three-digit numbers would you find, which
when divided by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 leave the remainders 1,
32, 52, 72 or 92. Hence the original number ABCD is
2, 3, 4, and 5 respectively ?
21C8, 23C8, 25C8, 27C8 or 29C8. But the last 4
(A) 4 (B) 3
numbers when multiplied by 4 will not give you the (C) 2 (D) 1
first digit of 8 in the product. Therefore B = 1 and the
9. Six strings of violin start vibrating simultaneously and
original number is 21C8. We write the multiplication they vibrate at 3, 4, 5, 6,10 and 12 times in a minute,
again 21C8 x 4 = 8C12. find :
Now for the value of C notice that when you multiply i. After how much time will all six of them vibrate
together ?
8, the unit digit of 21C8, by 4 you write 2 in the unit
ii. How many times will they vibrate together in 30 min ?
digit of the product and carry 3. The tenth digit of the
(A) 60 min, 31 times (B) 60 sec, 31 times
product is (C) 120 sec, 15 times (D) None of these
1. Therefore, 4 x C + 3 (carry over) gives a unit digit of
10. The HCF of 2 numbers is 11 and their LCM is 693.
1. Hence, C is 2 or 7. You can easily check by the
If their sum is 176, find the numbers.
hundreds digit in the product (which is C again) that C (A) 99,77 (B) 110, 66
= 7. Therefore, our answer is 2178 x 4 = 8712. (C) 88,77 (D) 121, 44

11. If P is a prime number, then the LCM of P and (P + 1)

is (A) P(P +1) (B) (P + 2)P
(C) (P + 1)(P ñ 1) (D) None of these
1. Convert 0.225 in to form p/q.
3 9
(A) (B) 12. Find out (A + B + C + D) such that AB x CB = DDD,
10 40
9 9 where AB and CB are two-digit numbers and DDD is a
(C) (D) three- digit number.
50 400
2. When (55)10 is represented in base 25 then the (A) 21 (B) 19
(C) 17 (D) 18
expression is : 1 3
(A) (25)25 (B) (35)25 13. Three pieces of cakes of weights 4 Ibs, 6 Ibs and
(C) (55)25 (D) none of these 2 4
1
3. There are four prime numbers written in ascending order. The product of the first three is 385 and that
 of the last three is 1001. The last number is : 7 Ibs respectively are to be divided into parts of
5
(A) 11 (B) 13
equal weights. Further, each must be as heavy as
(C) 17 (D) 19 possible.
4. If log y = 100 and log x = 10, then the value of y is : If one such part is served to each guest, then what is
the maximum number of guests that could be
entertained ?
x 2
(A) 54 (B) 72
(A) 21000
(B) 2100
(C) 20 (D) 41
(C) 2 2000
(D) 2 10000
14. How many natural numbers between 200 and 400 are
5. Find the value of ëxí if 2logx there which are divisible by
7 + log7x 7 + 3log 49x 7 = 0
4 i. Both 4 and 5?
(A) x = (B) x = 7 ñ1/2 ii. 4 or 5 or 8 or 10 ?
3
(A) 9, 79 (B) 10, 80
(C) x = 7ñ4/3 (D) Either (B) or (C) (C) 10, 81 (D) None of these
15. 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 is divisible by :
61 62 63 64
23. What is the remainder when 9875347 7 7435789 7
(A) 3 (B) 10 5789743 is divided by 4 ?
(C) 11 (D) 13 (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) None of these
16. If x is a whole number, then x2 (x2 ñ 1) is always
divisible 24. What is remainder when 784 is divided by 2402?
by : (A) 1 (B) 6
(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 2401 (D) None of these
(C) 12 ñ x (D) Multiple of 12
25. P is a prime number greater than 5. What is the
17. If 653 xy is exactly divisible by 80, then the find the remainder when P is divided by 6?
value of (x + y). (A) 5 (B) 1
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 or 5 (D) None of these
(C) 4 (D) 6
26. What is the remainder when 3040 is divided by 17?
18. Find the unit digit of (7 ñ 3 ). 95 58
(A) 1 (B) 16
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 13 (D) 4
(C) 3 (D) None of these

19. When a number P is divided by 4 it leaves remainder

3. If the twice of the number P is divided by the same
divisor 4 than what will be the remainder ?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 6

20. If (232 +1) is divisible by a certain number then which

of the following is also divisible by that number.
(A) (216 ñ 1) (B) 216 + 1
(C) 296 + 1 (D) None of these

21. If the number 357y25x is divisible by both 3 and 5,

then find the missing digit in the unitís place and
the thousand place respectively are :
(A) 0, 6 (B) 5, 6
(C) 5, 4 (D) None of these

22. A number when divided by 342 gives a remainder 47.

When the same number is divided by 19, what would
be the remainder ?
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 9 (D) None of these
27. What is the remainder when 650 is divided by 215? the warden calls all the residents and tells them to go
(A) 1 (B) 36 back to their rooms as well as multiples of their room
(C) 5 (D) 214 numbers. When a guy visits a room and finds the door
open, he closes it, and if the door is closed, he opens
28. What is the remainder when 7413 ñ 4113 + 7513 ñ 4213
it, All 1,000 guys do this operation. All the doors were
is divided by 66?
open initially.
(A) 2 (B) 64
(C) 1 (D) 0 31. The last room that is closed is room number ?
(A) 1936 (B) 2000
29. A number when divided successively by 4 and 5
(C) 1922 (D) None of these
leaves remainders 1 and 4 respectively. When it
is successively divided by 5 and 4, then the 32. The 38th room that is open is room number :
respective remainders will be : (A) 80 (B) 88
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (C) 76 (D) None of these
(C) 3, 2 (D) 4, 1
33. If only 500 guys, i.e. residents of room number 2 to
30. When Sholey screened on the TV there was a 1000 do the task, then the last room that is closed is
commercial break of 5 min after every 15 min of the room number
movie. If from the start of the movie to the end of the (A) 2000 (B) 1936
movie there was in all 60 min of commercials that (C) 1849 (D) None of these
was screened what is the duration the movie ?
34. In the case of the previous question, how many rooms
(A) 180 min (B) 195 min
will be closed in all ?
(C) 169 min (D) 165 min
(A) 513 (B) 31
Directions : (31 to 35) Read the following information (C) 13 (D) 315
carefully and answer the questions given below.
35. If you are a lazy person, you would like to stay in a
In a big hostel, there are 1,000 rooms. In that hostel
room whose number is :
only even numbers are used for room numbers, i.e.
(A) more than 500 (B) more than 1000
the room numbers are 2, 4, 6, , 1998, 2000. All the
(C) 500 (D) 2000
rooms have one resident each. One fine morning,
36. A 4-digit number is formed by repeating a 2-digit 45. In a number system, the product of 44 and 11 is 3414.
number such as 2525, 3232 etc. Any number of this The number 3111 of this system, when converted to
from is exactly divisible by : the decimal number system, becomes :
(A) 7 (B) 11 (A) 406 (B) 1086
(C) 13 (C) 213 (D) 691
(D) Smallest 3-digit prime number
46. A set of consecutive positive integers beginning with 1
37. How many numbers between 400 and 600 begin with is written on the blackboard. A student came and
or end with a digit of 5 ? erased one number. The average of the remaining
(A) 40 (B) 100 numbers
(C) 110 (D) 120 7
is 35 . What was the number erased?
38. If (1 + 2 + 3 +......+ 10 ) = 385, then the value of
2 2 2 2 17
(A) 7 (B) 8
(22 + 42 + 62 +...... + 202).
(C) 9 (D) None of these
(A) 770 (B) 1155
(C) 1540 (D) (385 7 385) 47. Let D be a recurring decimal of the form D = 0. a1 a2 a1
a2 a1 a2 , where digits a1 and a2 lie between 0 and 9.
39. Find the total number of prime factors in the Further, at most one of them is zero. Which of the
expression (4)11 7 (7)5 7 (11)2. following numbers necessarily produces an integer,
(A) 37 (B) 33 when multiplied by D?
(C) 26 (D) 29 (A) 18 (B) 108
40. The largest number which exactly divides the product (C) 198 (D) 288

48. What is the value of the following expression

of any four consecutive natural numbers is :  1   1   1   1 
      .....  
(A) 6 (B) 12  (22  1)   (4 2  1)   (62  1)   (202  1)  ?
       
(C) 24 (D) 120 9 10
(A) (B)
41. The largest natural number by which the product of 19 19
 three consecutive even natural numbers is always 10 11
(C) (D)
divisible, is : 21 21
(A) 6 (B) 24 49. Let N = 1421 7 1423 7 1425. What is the remainder
(C) 48 (D) 96 when N is divided by 12?
(A) 0 (B) 9
42. A 3-digit number 4a3 is added to another 3-digit
(C) 3 (D) 6
number 984 to give the four-digit number 13b7, which
is divisible by 11. Then ,(a + b) is : 50. Let N = 553 + 173 ñ 723, then N is divisible by :
(A) 10 (B) 11 (A) both 7 and 13 (B) both 3 and 13
(C) 12 (D) 15 (C) both 17 and 7 (D) both 3 and 17

43. Anita had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 51. Convert the number 1982 from base 10 to base 12.
as one of the multipliers, she took 53. As a result, the The results is :
product went up by 540. What is the new product? (A) 1182 (B) 1912
(A) 1050 (B) 540 (C) 1192 (D) 1292
(C) 1440 (D) 1590 52. If n2 = 12345678987654321, find the value of n ?
44. Three friends, returning from a movie, stopped to eat (A) 12344321 (B) 1235789
at a restaurant. After dinner, they paid their bill and (C) 11111111 (D) 111111111
noticed a bowl of mints at the front counter. Sita took
 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
   




 




1/3 of the mints, but returned four because she had a 53  2  3  4  5  6  7  8
    
monetary pang of guilt. Fatima then took 1/4 of what is equal to :
was left but returned three for similar reasons. Eswari (A) 9 (B) 8
then took half of the remainder but threw two back (C) 4.5 (D) None of these
into the bowl. The bowl had only 17 mints left when
54. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 9. If
the raid was over. How many mints were originally in
the difference between the two numbers is 18, find
the bowl? (A) 38 (B) 31
the two numbers :
(C) 41 (D) 48
(A) 36 and 18 (B) 78 and 60
(C) 63 and 81 (D) 52 and 34
55. If a, a + 2, and a + 4 are prime numbers, then the 64. Which of the following surds is greatest in magnitude
number of possible solution for a is :
(A) three (B) two
6
17, 2,12 25,3 4 .
(C) one (D) more than three (A) 6 17 (B) 12 25
(D)
56. Find the square root of 7 ñ 4 3 . (C) 34
2
(A) 2 ñ 3 (B) 5 ñ 3
65. If log 10N  2.5 then, find out total number of digits in N.
(C) 2 ñ 5 (D) None of these (A) 3 (B) 4
57. How many even integers n, where 100  n  200, are (C) 5
divisible neither by seven nor by nine ? (D) cannot be determine
(A) 40 (B) 37
66. If log x = n then 2n is equal to :
(C) 39 (D) 38
(A) log (x ) (B) (logx)2
2

58. The number of positive n in the range 12  n  40 (C) log (x+2) (D) log 2x
such that the product (n ñ1) (n ñ 2) 3.2.1 is not
67. Given log2 = 0.3010, then log 16 is :
divisible by
(A) 2.4080 (B) 1.2040
n is :
(C) 0.2408 (D) 1.9030
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 13 (D) 14 68. The value of [log10 (5 log10 100)] 2is :
(A) 0 (B) 1
59. A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He
(C) 2 (D) 10
did not want any body to know about him. One day,
his wife asked, ìHow many gold coins do we have?î 69. If log10 [log10(log10x)] = 0.
After pausing a moment he replied, ìWell ! if divide the (A) x = 103 (B) x = 1010
coins into two unequal numbers, then 48 times the (C) x = 155 (D) None
difference between the two numbers equals the
70. If n = 67 then find the unit digit of [3n + 2n ].
difference between the square of the two numbers. ì
(A) 1 (B) 10
The wife looked puzzled. Can you help the
(C) 5 (D) None
merchantís wife by finding out how many gold coins
71. What is the decimal equivalent of the 25 digits of
the merchant has ? (A) 96 (B) 53
hexadecimal number (100.....001)16 ?
(C) 43 (D) 48
(A) 223 + 1 (B) 224 + 1
60. 76n ñ 66n, where n is an integer > 0, is divisible by : (C) 292 + 1 (D) 296 + 1
(A) 13 (B) 127
(C) 559 (D) All of these 72. If the decimal number 2111 is written in the octal
system, then what is its unit place digit ?
61. The value of 10 25 108 154 225 is : (A) 0 (B) 1
   

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 3

(C) 8 (D) 10 1
log M  3
73. If 3
N = 1+ log 0.008 5, then :
3 log3
 1
1  1  1
  + log 1  + log 1  + ... + 9 9
62. log 10 (A) M9  (B) N9 
 2 10
 3 10
 4
N M
3 3
 1 (C) M3  (D) N9 
log 1  . When simplified has the value equal N M
10
 1999 

to : 74. The value of x, when log3(log2 x) + 2 log9(log7 8) = 2, is

(A) 1 (B) 3 : (A) 243 (B) 27
(C) 10 (D) 100 (C) 343 (D) 64
63. Arrange the following rational number in ascending 75. Find x if log10 1250 + log1080 = x.
3 ,
order , 4 7 1
, 2, .
59
7
4 3 1 3 1 7 4
(A) 7 , (B) , , ,
,
 ( 5 (C) ) 76. P, Q and R are three natural numbers such that P and
A 8 ( 7 Q are primes and Q divides PR. Then out of the
) (B) D
5592 7295
following the correct statement is : [IJSO-2008]
(A) Q divides R (B) P divides R
(C) 4 , 7 1
3, (D) 1 7
3 , ,4 , (C) P divides QR (D) P divides PQ
,
5 9 2 7 279 5
77. It is required to decide if 1107 is a prime number or 85. If 2009 = pa.qb, where "p" and "q" are prime numbers,
not. The number of trials of division necessary is :
then find the value of p + q. [NSTSE 2009]
[IJSO-2008]
(A) 3 (B) 48
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 51 (D) 2009
(C) 12 (D) 235
86. If HCF (p, q) = 12 and p 7 q = 1800 n then LCM (p, q) is
32 :
78. The number of integers between ñ 8 and is : [NSTSE 2010]
[NSTSE-2009] (A) 3600 (B) 900
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 150 (D) 90
(C) 7 (D) 8

79. When expanded, the number of zeros in 100010 is : x

87. If y + y 10
and x + y = 10, then the value of xy
[NSTSE-2009] x = 3
will
(A) 13 (B) 30 be : [NSTSE 2010]
(C) 4 (D) 10 (A) 16 (B) 9
80. If a2 + 2b = 7, b2 + 4c = ñ 7 and c2 + 6a = ñ 14, then the (C) 2 (D) 10
value of (a2 + b2 + c2) is : [IJSO-2009]
88. The value of log10(3/2) + log10 (4/3) +............up to 99
(A) 14 (B) 25
terms. [IAO 2008]
(C) 36 (D) 47
(A) 0 (B) 2
81. Let N = 28, the sum of All distinct factors of N is : (C) 2.5 (D) None of the above
[IJSO-2009]
89. In the familiar decimal number system the base is 10.
(A) 27 (B) 28
In another number system using base 4, the counting
(C) 55 (D) 56
proceeds as 1, 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 20, 21 ....
82. The units digit of (1 + 9 + 92 + 93 +----------+ 92009) is : The twentieth number in this system will be :
 [IJSO-2009] [IJSO-2010]
(A) 0 (B) 1 (A) 40 (B) 320
(C) 9 (D) 3 (C) 210 (D) 110

83. The biggest among the following is :[IJSO-2009]90. If the eight digit number 2575d568 is divisible by 54
(A) 21/2 (B) 31/3 and 87, the value of the digit ëdí is : [IJSO-2011]
(C) 61/6 (D) 81/8 (A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 0 (D) 8
84. If a, b  1, ab > 0, a  b and log ab = log b,a then ab = ?
[IAO- 2009]
91. If x < 0 and log (x2 ñ 5x ñ 65) = 0, then x is :
(A) 1/2 (B) 1 7

(C) 2 (D) 10 [IJSO-2011]

(A) ñ13 (B) ñ11
(C) ñ 6 (D) ñ 5


 TRIGONOMETRY

ANGLE (ii) Centesimal system : In this system a right angle

An angle is the amount of rotation of a revolving line
with respect to a fixed line. If the rotation is in
anticlock-wise sense, then the angle measured is
positive and if the rotation is in clock-wise sense,
then the angle measured is negative.
is divided into 100 equal parts, called grades. Each
grade is sub divided into 100 minutes, and each
minute into 100 seconds.
Thus, 1 right angle = 100 grades (100g)
1 grade = 100 minutes (100í)
1 minute = 100 seconds (100î)

(iii) Circular system : In this system the unit of

measurement is radian. One radian, written as 1c, is
the measure of an angle subtended at the centre of a
circle by an arc of length equal to the radius of the
circle.

QUADRANTS

Let XíOX and YOYí be two lines at right angles in a

The number of radians is an angle subtended by an
plane. These lines divide the plane into four equal length of arc
arc of a circle at the centre is equal to .
parts are known as quadrants. The lines XíOX and
radius
YOYí are known as X-axis and Y-axis respectively. s
 =
These two lines taken together are known as the co- r
ordinate axes. The regions XOY, YOXí, XíOYí and Where,  = angle in radian, s = arc length and r =
YíOX are known as first, second, third and fourth radius.
quadrants respectively.
(b) Relation Between Three System of
Measurement of Angles :

D G 2R
 
90 100 

Where, D = number of degrees,

G = number of grades,
and R = number of radians.

NOTE :

(i) The angle between two consecutive digits in a

clock is 30$ = (/6 radians).

(ii) The hour hand rotates through an angle of 30$ in

one hour, i.e. (1/2)$ in one minute.
(a) Systems of measurement of angles :
(iii) The minute hand rotates through an angle of 6$ in
(i) Sexagesimal system (ii) Centesimal system
one minute.
(iii) Circular system
Ex.1 Express in radians 47º 25í 36î.
(i) Sexagesimal system : In this system a right
angle is divided into 90 equal parts called degrees.  36 '  3 '
Sol. 47º 25í   = 47º  25 
Each degree is divided into 60 equal parts called  60   5
minutes
and each minute is divided into 60 equal parts called
seconds. ' 128  1 º  32 º
 128
Thus, 1 right angle = 90 degrees (
90$)
= 47º   = 47º    =  47 
5 5 60 75
     
 1$ = 60 minutes  º3557 3557 c 3557
(60í) 
1í = 60 seconds (60î) =   =  =  .
75 13500 c
Ex.2 Express in degrees :
Ex.6 The angles in one regular polygon is to that in another
 2 c as 3 : 2, also the number of sides in the first is twice
(a)  
(b) (ñ 2)c .
15
that in the second ; how many sides do the polygons
 
 2 have ?
 2 180 = 24º
º
c 
 Sol. Suppose the second regular polygon has number of
Sol. (a)  
15
15
   
side = x.
 180  º  The first regular polygon will have number of side = 2x.
c
(b) (ñ 2) =   2  
   (4x  4)

180 º  6 º  Each angle of the first polygon = right angle
2x
=  7  (2) =  114  And each angle of the second polygon
22 11
   
(2x 
 6 '  8 ' 4) right angle
=
= ñ 114º   60 = ñ 114º   x
 11  32 11 4x  4 2x  =3:2
 4
 :
8  ''
2x x
= ñ 114º 32í   60 4x  4 6x  12
11
   
x x
= ñ 114º 32í 44î.
 4x ñ 4 = 6x ñ 12
Ex.3 Express in radians 345g 25í 36î.
Sol. 345g 25í 36î = 345.2536g  2x = 8  x = 4.
3452536  The number of sides in the first and second polygons
= c = 1.726268 c respectively are 8 and 4.
2000000

2x
Ex.7 The radius of a certain circle is 30 cm, find the
Ex.4 One angle of a triangle is grades another is
3 approximately length of an arc of this circle ; if the
length
3x x of the chord of the arc be 30 cm.
degrees, whilst the third is radians ; express Sol. Let ABC be the circle whose centre is O and AC is
2 75
all angles in degrees. chord.
2 2
g
 9º  3 In AOC, AO = OC = AC = 30 cm.
Sol. x = x   xº
3 3 
 10  5  AOC = 60º =
3
xc x 12xº Hence,

And 75 75 180º = 5
3 3 12  
arc AC = radius = 30 5 = 10 = 31.4159 cm.
5
But xº +
xº + xº = 180º 3 3
5 2 5
 6xº + 15xº + 24xº = 1800  x = 60º
45xº = 1800 According to the question.
x = 40º
Hence, three angles of the triangle are 24º, 60º and
96º.
Ex.5 The angles of a triangle are in A.P. and the number of
degrees in the least is to the number of radians in the
greatest is 60 to c. Find the angles in degrees.
Sol. The three angles in A.P. ; if y is common difference,
let these angles be (x ñ y)º, xº and (x + y)º.
 x + y + x + x ñ y= 180º 75 180
TRIGONOMETRY the measurement of triangles.

Trigonometry means, the science which deals with Trigonometric Ratios :

(x  y) 60 A right angled triangle is shown in Figure.  B is of
c   90$. Side opposite to  B is called hypotenuse. There
(x  y)
180
 are two other angles i.e. A and C. If we consider
or  (x ñ y) = (x + y) 5 60º C as , then opposite side to this angle is called
180 º
 3 (x ñ y) = x + y perpendicular and side adjacent to  is called base.
 4y = 2x
(i) Six Trigonometric Ratios are :
 y = x/2
60º
 y= = 30º. Perpendicular P AB
2 sin  = Hypotenuse = =
Hence three angles are 30º, 60º and 90º. H AC
13
Hypotenuse H AC Ex.9 If cosec A = , then prove that :
cosec  = = = 5
Perpendicular P AB tan2 A ñ sin2 A = sin4A sec2 A.

Base B BC Sol. We have cosec A = 13 = Hypotenuse .

cos  = = = 5 Perpendicular
Hypotenuse H AC
So, we draw a right triangle ABC, right angled at C
Hypotenuse H AC such that Hypotenuse AB = 13 units and perpendicular
sec  = = =
B BC BC = 5 units
Base
By pythagoras theorem,
Perpendicu
lar P AB AB2 = BC2 + AC2  (13)2 = (5)2 + AC2
tan  = = = 2
AC = 169 ñ 25 = 144
Base B BC
AC = 144 = 12 units
cot  Base =B =
= BC BC 5 BC 5
Perpendicular P AB tan A = = and sin A = =
AC 12 AB 13
(ii) Interrelationship in Basic Trigonometric Ratios AB 13 B
and sec A = =
:
AC 12
1 1
tan  =  cot  = 2
L.H.S tan A ñ sin A 2
cot  tan  13
1 1  5 2 5
=  5   ñ  
2

cos  =  sec  = 12 13
sec  cos     
25 A
25 ñ C 12
1 1 = 144 169
sin  = cosec   cosec  =
sin 25(169  144)
=
144  169
We also observe that
sin  cos  25  25
tan  = and cot  =
cos  sin 144  169
=
m R.H.S. sin4A 5 sec2 A
Ex.8 If tan  = , then find sin 
=  5   5  13 
4 2
n
13 12
Sol. Let P = m and B = n    
= 5  13
4 2

P m 134  122
 tan  = = 54
25  25
B n = =
13  122
2 144  169
So, L.H.S = R.H.S Hence Proved.

Ex.10 In  ABC, right angled at B, AC + AB = 9 cm and

BC = 3 cm. Determine the value of cot C, cosec C, sec
 C.
Sol. In  ABC, we have
(AC)2 = (AB)2 + BC2
 (9 ñ AB)2 = AB2 + (3)2 C
H2 = P 2 + B 2 [ AC + AB = 9cm  AC = 9 ñ
AB]
H2 = m 2  2 + n 2  2  81 + AB2 ñ 18AB = AB2 + 9
5cm
 72 ñ 18 AB = 0 3cm
H =  m2  n2 72
 AB = = 4 cm.
18
Now, AC + AB = 9 cm
P m A
 sin  = = AC = 9 ñ 4 = 5 cm 4cm B
H  m2  n 2 BC 3 AC 5
m So, cot C  , cosec C  ,
= AB 4
AB
=4
sin  = . AC 5
m2  n2 
sec C = .
BC 3
 TRIGONOMETRIC TABLE

TRIGONOMETRIC RATIOS OF COMPLEMENTARY ANGLES

sin (90 ñ ) = cos  cos (90 ñ ) = sin 

tan (90 ñ ) = cot  cot (90 ñ ) = tan 

sec (90 ñ ) = cosec  cosec (90 ñ ) = sec 

cot 54º tan 20º

Ex.14  ñ 2.
tan 36º cot 70º

cot 54º tan 20º

Sol. tan 36º  cot 70º ñ 2

cot(90º36º )
= tan(90º70º )
tan 36º + ñ2
cot 70º

tan cot 70º

Ex.11 Given that cos (A ñ B) = cos A cos B + sin A sinB, 36º + ñ2
find = cot 70º
tan
the value of cos15º.
36º
Sol. Putting A = 45º and B = 30º
[cot (90 ñ ) = tan and tan (90 ñ ) = cot ]
We get
= 1 + 1 ñ 2 = 0.
cos (45º ñ 30º) = cos 45º cos 30º + sin 45º sin 30º
3 1 1
1   2 sin 68º 2cot 15º
Ex.15. cos 22º  5 tan 75º
 cos 15º = 2
2+ 2 2
31 3 tan 45º tan 20º tan 40º tan 50º tan 70º
 cos 15º = .
ñ .
22 5

Ex.12 A Rhombus of side of 10 cm has two angles of 60º 2 sin 68º 2 cot
each. Find the length of diagonals and also find its 
Sol. 15º cos 22º
5 tan
area. 75º
Sol. Let ABCD be a rhombus of side 10 cm and
3 tan 45º tan 20º tan 40º tan 50º tan 70º
BAD = BCD = 60º. Diagonals of parallelogram
ñ
5
2 sin(90º22º ) 2 cot(90º75º )
= 
bisect each other. cos 22º 5 tan 75º
So, AO = OC and BO = OD 3(1)(tan 20º tan 70º )(tan 40º tan 50º )
In right triangle AOB ñ
D C 5
OB
sin 30º = AB 2 cos 22º 2 tan 75º
= 
1 OB cos 22º 5 tan 75º
 = O
2 10 3[tan(90º70º ) tan 70º ][tan(90º50º ) tan
ñ 50º ] 5
 OB = 5 cm 30º
 BD = 2(OB) A 2 3
B =2ñ  (cot 70º tan 70º) (cot 50º tan 50º)
 BD = 2 ( 5 ) 5 5
 BD = 10 cm [ tan ( 90 º ñ ) = cot, cot ( 90 º ñ ) = tan  &
OA sin (90º ñ ) = cos]
cos 30º =
AB 2 3
3 OA 
 = =2ñ = 2 ñ 1 = 1.
2 10 5 5

 OA = 5 3 Ex.16 If sin 3A = cos (A ñ 26º) where 3A is an acute angle,

 AC = 2(OA) find the value of A.
Sol. sin 3A = cos (A ñ 26º)
 AC = 2 ( 5  cos (90º ñ 3A) = cos (A ñ 26º)
3 ) = 10 3 cm
So, the length of diagonals AC = 10 3 cm & BD = 10 cm. [sin = cos(90º ñ ]
1  90º ñ 3A = A ñ 26º
Area of Rhombus = 5 AC 5 BD
21  4A = 116º
= 5 10 3 5 10 = 50 3 cm2.
2  A = 29º
 AREA OF TRIANGLE

In a  ABC, a & b are the length of 2 sides of triangle

and  is the included angle between them.
1
Then, Area of triangle = ab sin
Proof : 2

Ex.17 A man is standing on the deck of a ship, which is 8

m above water level. He observes the angle of
elevation of the top of a hill as 60º and the angle of
depression of the base of the hill as 30º. Calculate the
distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the
hill.
Sol. Let x be distance of hill from man and h + 8 be height
of hill which is required.

Const. : Draw a line from B perpendicular to AC,

i.e.BD  AC
BD
sin =  BD = a sin
a

 Area of triangle = 1  base  height

2
1
=  b  BD
2
1 1
ab sin
=  b  a sin = In right triangle ACB,
2 2
 tan 60º =
AC h

ANGLE OF ELEVATION BC x
h
In order to see an object which is at a higher level  3=
x
compared to the ground level we are to look up. The In right triangle BCD,
line joining the object and the eye of the observer is CD 8
tan 30º = 
known as the line of sight and the angle which this
BC x
line
of sight makes with the horizontal drawn through the
eye of the observer is known as the angle of 1 8
elevation.   x=83
3 x
Therefore, the angle of elevation of an object
helps in finding out its height (Figure).  Height of hill = h + 8

= 3 .x + 8 =  3 3  +8 = 32 m.

8
observerís eyes, he has to look downwards to have a
view of the

ANGLE OF DEPRESSION

When the object is at a lower level than the

 Distance of ship from hill = x = 8 3 m. are respectively 30º and 60º. Find the height of tower.
Sol. Let AB be the tower of height h metre and BC be the
Ex.18 A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and
height of flag staff surmounted on the tower.
is surmounted by a vertical flag staff of height 5
Let the point on the plane be D at a distance x meter
meters. At a point on the plane, the angle of
from the foot of the tower
elevation of the bottom and the top of the flag staff
In  ABD
1
object. In that case, the angle which the line of sight tan 30º AB  3 = x
h
makes with the horizontal through the observerís eye AD
=
is known as the angle of depression (Figure). x= 3 h..................................(i)
3000
 1 =
3 xy ( AB = CD)

 x + y = 3000
3 .......(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii)

 x + 3000 = 3000 3

 x = 3000 3 ñ 3000  x = 3000 ( 3 ñ 1)

 x = 3000 5 (1.732 ñ 1)  x = 3000 5 0.732
 x = 2196 m.
Dis tancecovered
Speed of Aeroplane =
In  ADC Time taken
AC 2196
tan 60º = = m/sec
AD 15
2196 18
5h =  Km/hr
 = 15 5
3
x
= 527.04 Km/hr
5h
 x= ......(ii) Hence, the speed of aeroplane is 527.04 Km/hr.
3
From (i) and (ii) Ex.20 If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point h
metres above a lake is  and the angle of depression
5h
 3 h=
3 of its reflection in the lake is , prove that the distance
 3h = 5 + h  2h = 5 of the cloud from the point of observation is
5 2hsec 
h= = 2.5 m .
2 tan  tan
So, the height of tower = 2.5 m Sol. Let AB be the surface of the lake and let C be a point
of observation such that AC = h metres. Let D be the
Ex.19 The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point
position of the cloud and Dí be its reflection in the
on the ground is 45º. After a flight of 15 sec, the
lake. Then BD = BDí.
elevation changes to 30º. If the aeroplane is flying at a
In  DCE
height of 3000 metres, find the speed of the
aeroplane.
Sol. Let the point on the ground is E which is y metres
from point B and let after 15 sec flight it covers x
metres distance.
In  AEB
 AB
tan 45º =
EB
3000 DE
 1= y tan  =
CE
 y = 3000 m..............................(i) H
 CE =
In  CED tan 
......(i)
CD In  CEDí
 tan 30º =
ED ED'
tan  =
EC
hH 4. Angle between the minute hand of a clock and hour
 CE =
h tan hand when the time is 7 : 20 am is :
2h  H
.......(ii) (A) 80º (B) 100º
 CE = tan
(C) 120º (D) 140º
From (i) & (ii) 7
H 2h  H
5. Degree measure of is :
6
 = (A) 210R (B) 240R
tan  tan
 H tan  = 2h tan  + H tan  (C) 270R (D) None
 H tan  ñ H tan  = 2h tan  a a sin  bcos 
 H (tan  ñ tan ) = 2h tan  6. If tan  = then value of is =
b asin  ñ bcos 
2htan a2  b 2 a2 ñ b2
H= ........(iii) (A) (B)
tan  tan 2
a ñb
2 2
a b
2

In  DCE a 1
DE (C) (D)
sin  = a2  b2 a2  b2
CD
DE 7. If tan 15º = 2 ñ 3 , then the value of cot2 75º is :
 CD =
sin
(A) 7 + 3 (B) 7 ñ 2 3
H
 CD = (C) 7 ñ 4 3 (D) 7 + 4 3
sin 
Substituting the value of H from (iii) 4 3
8. If a = cot2 30º + 3 sin2 60º ñ 3 cosec2 60º ñ tan2 30º
3 4
2htan
CD =
tan  tansin and b = 3 tan2 45º + cos 0º ñ cot 90º then log (a)
b
is :
sin (A) 2 (B) ñ1
 CD = 2h 1 1
 cos (C) (D)
tan  tan  sin
2 2

CD = 2hsec 
9. The angles of the triangles ABC and DEF are given
tan  tan
as follows : A = 900, B = 300, D = 900 and E = 300. If
the side
Hence, the distance of the cloud from the point of
BC is twice the side EF, which of the following
2hsec 
observation is . Hence Proved. statement is true?
tan  tan
(A) Sin B = 2 Sin E (B) Sin E = 2 Sin B
(C) Sin B = Sin E (D) Sin A = Sin B

1. Radian measure of 175º 45í is : 10. The value of the expression

700 4 3
(A) 720  703 tan2 30º is :
(B) 720  cot 30º + 3sin 60º ñ 2cosec 60º ñ
2 2 2
4
3
a  1 c
s 4
2. u
705 r
(C) 720  e
De of
gre
e
me
 is : 720 20
(A) 1 (B) ñ
3
(D 10
) (C) (D) 5
71 3
0
 11. The value of the expression

5 sin2 30º cos2 45º4 tan2 60º
(A) 15º 19í5î (B) 14º 19í 5î is :
2 sin30º cos 60º tan
(C) 15º 18º 6î (D) 14º 18º 6î 45º
(A) 4 (B) 9
3. A horse is tied to a post by a rope. If the horse moves
along a circular path always keep the rope tight and 55
(C) 53 (D) 6
describes 88 metres when it has traced out 72º at the 12
centre, then the length of rope is : 12. The value of tan 5º tan 10º tan 15º tan 20º...tan 85º is :
(A) 60 m (B) 65 m (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 70 m (D) 72 m (C) 3 (D) None
  1 21. If each of ,  and  is a positive acute angle such that
13. If  +  = and sin  = , then sin  is : 1 1
2 3
sin ( +  ñ  ) = , cos( +  ñ ) = and
2 2
(A) 2 22 tan (  +  ñ ) = 1, then the values of ,  and  is :
3 (B) 3
(A) 45º, 45º & 90º (B) 60º, 45º & 75º
2 3
(D) 1 1
(C) 4 (C) 37  , 45R & 52 (D) none
3

2 2

14. If 7 sin  = 24 cos ; 0 <  < , then value of 1
2 22. If tan (A ñ B) = and tan (A + B) = 3 ,
3
14 tan  ñ 75 cos  ñ 7 sec  is equal to :
0º < A + B  90º, A > B. Then the value of A and B is
(A) 1 (B) 2
: (A) 45º, 30º (B) 45º, 15º
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) 60º, 30º (D) none
 
 
15. If tan  = 4, then  tan is equal to :
23. If A, B, C are the interior angles of a triangle ABC, then
AB
 sin 3   cos   equals to :
 cos   sincos   2
 
(A) 0 (B) 2 C C
2 (A) cos (B) sec
2 2
(C) 2 (D) 1
16. Find the value of x from the equation : C C
(C) cosec (D) sin
2 2
  
2 sec tan 24. An aeroplane when flying at a height 2500 m from the
x   cot
sin cos2  6  3 4 ground, passes vertically above another aeroplane. At
6 4 
cosec 2 cosec an instant when the angles of elevation of the two
4 6
aeroplanes from the same point on the ground are 45º
(A) 4 (B) 6 and 30º respectively, then the vertical distance between
(C) ñ 2 (D) 0 the two aeroplanes at that instant is :
(A) 1158 m (B) 1058 m
17. The area of a triangle is 12 sq. cm. Two sides are 6
(C) 1008 m (D) none
cm and 12 cm. The included angle is :
25. The shadow of a tower is 30 metres when the sunís
(A) 1 1
cos (B) 6 altitude is 30º. When the sunís altitude is 60º, then the
ñ1 3 cos
ñ1

    length of shadow will be :

(A) 60 m (B) 15 m
1 1
(C) sinñ1   (D) sinñ1   (C) 10 m (D) 5m
6 3
   
26. The angles of elevation of the top of a vertical tower
18. If  +  = 90º and  = 2, then cos2  + sin2  equals to : from two points 30 metres apart, and on the same
straight line passing through the base of tower, are
1
(A) (B) 0 300 and 600 respectively. The height of the tower is :
2 (A) 10 m (B) 15 m
(C) 1 (D) 2
(C) 15 3 m (D) 30 m
19. The difference between two angles is 19º and their
890
sum is 27. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 200
9 grades. Find the greater angle. metres above a lake is 30º and the angle of depression
(A) 63º (B) 35º of its reflection in the lake is 60º, then the height of the
(C) 27º (D) 54º cloud (in metres) above the lake is :
1 (A) 200 (B) 300
20. If  and  are angles in the first quadrant, tan  = , (C) 500 (D) none
7
28. The angle of elevation of the top of tower from the top
sin  = 1
, then using the formula sin (A + B) = sin and bottom of a building h metre high are  and , then
A
10 the height of tower is :
 cos B + cos A sin B, one can find the value of ( + 2)
to (A) h sin  cos  / sin ( + )
be : (B) h cos  cos  / sin(ñ)
(A) 0º (B) 45º (C) h cos  sin  / sin(ñ)
(C) 60º (D) 90º (D) None of these

29. When a eucalyptus tree is broken by strong wind, its 35. The trigonometric expression
top strikes the ground at an angle of 30º to the ground
and at a distance of 15 m from the foot. What is the sec  ñ 1  sin  ñ 1 
height of the tree? cot2  1 sin  +  1 sec   has the value
    
sec2 
(A) 15 3 m [IJSO-2009]
(B) 10 3 m
(A) ñ1 (B) 0
(C) 20 m (D) 10 m (C) 1 (D) 2
30. A man at the top of a vertical lighthouse, observes a 36. (1 + tan2 ) / (1 + cot2 ) = [IJSO-2009]
boat coming directly towards it.If it takes 20 minutes (A) tan  (B) cot2 
2

for the angle of depression to change from 30º to 60º, (C) sec2  (D) cosec2 
the time taken by the boat to reach the lighthouse
from the point when the angle of depression was 30º, 37. If cos + sin = 2 cos, then cos ñ sin = ?
is :
[NSTSE 2009]
(A) 30 minutes (B) 20
minutes (A) 2 tan (B) 2 sin
(C) 10 minutes (D) 5 minutes
2
31. In a triangle ABC, the internal bisector of the angle
A meets BC at D. If AB = 4, AC = 3 and A = 60º,
then
the length of AD is : (C) (D) none of these.
cos  sin
12 3
(A) 2 (B) 38. The tops of two poles of heights 20m and 14m are
3 7
connected by a wire. If the wire makes an angle of 30º
15 3 (D) None of these with the horizontal, then the length of the wire is :
(C) 8
[NSTSE 2009]
32. The expression (1 ñ tan A + sec A) (1 ñ cot A + cosec (A) 40 m (B) 12 m
A) has value : [IJSO-2008] (C) 28 m (D) 68 m
(A) ñ 1 (B) 0
(C) + 1 (D) + 2 23 4 x1
39. If sin 2  . . ......
1 2 3  = 1, 0º < x < 100º, then the
33. A person on the top of a tower observes a scooter x 2
moving with uniform velocity towards the base of the value of x is equal to : [NSTSE 2010]
tower. He finds that the angle of depression changes (A) 91º (B) 80º
from 30º to 60º in 18 minutes. The scooter will reach (C) 49º (D) 46º
the base of the tower in next : [IJSO-2008]
1ñ sinx 1ñ sinx , r = cos x , then
(A) 9 minutes 40. If p 1 sinx , q = cos x 1 sinx
=
(B) 18 / ( 3 ñ 1) minutes Which one of the following statement is correct ?
[NSTSE-2010]
(C) 6 3 minutes
(A) p = q  r (B) q = r  p
(D) the time depends upon the height of the tower
(C) r = p  q (D) p = q = r
34. In the diagram, PTR and QRS are straight lines. Given
41. If sin  + cosec  = 2, then [sin8  + cosec8 ] will have
4
that, tan xº = and "T" is the midpoint of PR, calculate the value : [IJSO-2010]
3
(A) 2 (B) 24
the length of PQ, in cm. [NSTSE 2009]
(C) 26 (D) 28
S
42. An aeroplane is flying horizontally at a height of
xº
3 cm

3150 m above a horizontal plane ground. At a

particular instant it passes another aeroplane verti-
T
R P cally below it. At this instant, the angles of elevation of
6 cm
the planes from a point on the ground are 30º and that instant is :
60º. Hence, the distance between the two planes at
[IJSO-2011]
Q (A) 1050 m. (B) 2100 m.
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 4200 m. (D) 5250 m.
(C) 59 (D) 10
 PROTOPLASM
INTRODUCTION
All the living organisms are essentially formed of
numerous coordinated compartments called as cells.
Every cell basically formed of two functional regions
as plasma membrane and protoplasm. The ground
substance of protoplasm, after removing nucleus, all
the cell organelles and cell inclusions, is called
hyaloplasm/ cytoplasm. It consists of high water
contents containing various compounds of biological
importance, some of which are soluble in water e.g.
glucose, amino acids, minerals etc. while some of
these are insoluble in water e.g. lipids.
ï Physical Properties :
(i) Protoplasm is a polyphasic colloidal system.
(ii) Its specific gravity is slightly above that of water.
(iii) Its viscosity has been found to be like that of
glycerin.
(iv) It has power of responding to external stimuli, like
heat, electric shocks, application of chemicals
etc.This property of protoplasm is called irritability.
(v) It exhibits streaming movement e.g. rotatory
movements in the leaves of aquatic plants like
Hydrilla and Vallisneria.
(vi) Amoeboid movement of the protoplasm can also
be noticed in myxomycetes and Amoeba.
(vii) In general, the pH of cytoplasm is slightly acidic
i.e. 6.8, however pH of the nucleoplasm is 7.6 to 7.8.
ï Chemical Properties :
The collection of various types of biomolecules of a
cell collectively form cellular pool. Elements do not
occur in free form but combines to form organic
molecules and inorganic molecules. Organic and
inorganic compounds occur in a ratio of 9 : 1. Cellular
pool is mainly constituted by :
ï Inorganic materials include salts, minerals and water.
These materials generally occur in aqueous phase
which contains molecules and ions dissolved in
water.
ï Organic compounds as carbohydrates, lipids, amino
acids, proteins, nucleic acids and vitamins.
These molecules usually occur in aqueous and nonñ
aqueous phase.
(a) Inorganic Compounds :
ï The inorganic substances include salts, minerals and
water.
(A) Minerals: These occur in ionic state and form
only 1-3 % of cellular pool. Cellular functions fail to
occur in the absence of proper ionic balance in the
cell cytoplasm and extracellular fluid.
ï A compound which releases H+ ion when dissolved
in water is called as an acid, e.g., HCl, H2SO4 etc.
and base releases OH- ion, e.g., NaOH, KOH etc.
ï Salt is a compound formed, when an acid and a base
react with each other.
ï A cell has many salts of Na+, K+, Ca++ and Cl-, HCO 3-,
PO4-3 etc.
ï A large amount of minerals also occur as hard
deposits as crystals within the cell.
ï The salt concentration in cells and in body fluids is of
great importance for normal cell functioning.
(B) Gases: Oxygen, carbon dioxide , nitrogen and
other gases are also present in protoplasm.
(C) Water : Water is not an organic molecule
because it does not contain carbon. The bonding
properties of water account for some of its
characteristics, which are very important to living
organisms.
(i) Water is the main component of cell contents and
body fluid.
(ii) It is neutral with pH 7. It ionises to H + and OH- ion.
Phospholipids, nucleic acids and proteins by
accepting or donating H+ ions from water attain
specific ionic state.
(iii) It forms an average 55 to 60% of living material.
(iv) Water dissolves more substances in it than any
other liquid due to it's highest known dielectric
constant (the measure of capacity to neutralize the
attraction between electric charges).Only polar
molecules dissolve in water.
(v) It is generally non toxic to the cell. Colloids like
starch, glycogen and protein remain dispersed in
water in cell cytoplasm.
(vi) It is a medium of heat exchange and transfer.
(vii) It participates in chemical reactions both as a
reactant and a product. It forms an ideal medium for
chemical reactions, because dissolved molecules
can make intimate contact.
(viii) It acts as a lubricating and protective fluid.
(b) Organic Compounds :
A large series of covalent compounds are formed
with the help of carbon, hydrogen and some
other elements. These are called as organic
compounds. Their special properties distinguish
them from inorganic compounds found in living
bodies.
(i) Carbohydrates :
ï Carbohydrates can be chiefly composed of carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen. In this hydrogen and oxygen
atoms are present in a ratio of 2 : 1. As in
carbohydrates hydrogen and oxygen are present
PAGE #
 therefore these are also termed as hydrates of
ï Carbohydrates have general formula as Cn H2n On.
ï Carbohydrates are widely distributed in plant tissues
and in animal tissues. In animals they are in the form
of glucose and glycogen. In plants they are in the
form of cellulose and starch.
ï One gram of carbohydrate yields about 4 kilocalories
of energy.
ï Carbohydrates can be defined chemically as
aldehyde or ketone derivatives or the poly hydric
(more than one ñ OH group) alcohol and their
derivatives. Carbohydrates can be further divided
as :
(A) Monosaccharides (B) Disaccharides
(C) Polysaccharides
(A) Monosaccharides : These sugars cannot be
hydrolyzed into simpler forms. They have the general
formula C n H 2n On. The simplest types of
monosaccharides are glyceraldehyde and
dihydroxyacetone. Depending upon the number of
carbon atoms present, these can be further
subdivided into trioses (e.g. Glyceraldehyde),
tetrose (e.g. Erythrose), pentoses (e.g. Ribose,
Deoxyribose ) etc. Generally if free ñH is present at
carbon 1 the sugar is an aldose but if a CH2OH
group is substituted,
the sugar is a ketose. They have reducing property
due to the presence of aldehyde or ketone group
present in them. Some examples are as follows :
ï Glucose : It is a hexose. It 's formula is C 6 H12 O6 . It is
normally found in fruit juice and formed in the body
by
the hydrolysis of starch, cane sugar, maltose and
lactose. Glucose is said to be the sugar of the body.
It is a principal sugar in blood, serving the tissue as a
major metabolic fuel. Normal level of blood glucose
is 80 ñ120 mg / 100 ml of blood. When the blood
sugar level exceeds the threshold value i.e. 180 mg /
100 ml, glucose begins to appear in the urine. This
condition is called as glycosuria.
Structure of glucose
O carbohydrates and is found in cereals, potatoes,
II
CñH
I
H ñ C ñ OH
I CH2OH
HO ñ C ñ H
I O
H ñ C ñ OH H H H Glucose molecules) and Amylopectin (a branched
I chain of about 2000-20,000 -Glucose molecules.).
H ñ C ñ OH OH OH H OH
I colour with iodine solution.
CH 2OH H OH
Glucose simple chain Ring structure of glucose
ï Note : The simple ring structure of glucose is given
by
Haworth.
ï Fructose : Fructose or fruit sugar is also known as
carbon.
ï Galactose : It is found in milk sugar or lactose along
with glucose. It is synthesized in the mammary
glands and combines with glucose to make the
lactose of milk. In the liver it can be changed to
glucose and thus used in the body. It is a part of
glycolipids and glycoproteins.
(B) Disaccharides : The disaccharides are sugars
composed of two molecules of the same or different
monosaccharides, united by a glycosidic linkage.
They have a general formula Cn (H2O)nñ1 . These
include maltose, lactose , sucrose.
ï Maltose: They consist of two glucose residues. It's
occurrence have been reported in germinating
cereals and malt. It is the major product of
enzymatic hydrolysis of starch.
ï Lactose: It is found in milk to the extent of about 5%.
Upon hydrolysis it yields a mixture of galactose and
glucose.
ï Sucrose : A single molecule of sucrose consists of
one glucose and one fructose molecule. It is the
common sugar of commerce and the kitchen. It is
derived commercially from either cane sugar or
occurs in varying amount in a variety of fruits, seeds,
leaves , flowers, roots and in maple sugar.
ï On hydrolysis it yields an equimolar mixture of
glucose and fructose.
(C) Polysaccharides : Polysaccharides (Glycans)
are those which yield more than six molecules of
monosaccharides on hydrolysis. It's general formulae
is (C6 H10 O5)n. It's examples are as follows :
ï Cellulose : It is the chief constituent of the frame
work of plants, constituting 50% or more of all carbon
in vegetation. It is a linear and unbranched
homopolysaccharide of about 6000 to 10,000 - D
Glucose molecules.
ï Mammals do not have cellulase enzyme and
therefore cannot digest wood & vegetable fibers.
ï Purest form of cellulose is found in cotton which is
about 90%.
ï Starch : It is the most important food source of
legumes and other vegetables. Chemically, the
starch
is formed of two glucose polymers : -Amylose (an
unbranched but spiral chain of about 200-2000 -
Natural starch is insoluble in water and gives a blue
ï Glycogen : The counterpart of starch in the animal
body is glycogen thats why it is also called as animal
levulose. Similar to glucose it is a ketohexose and
less readily absorbed by tissue cells. It is obtained by
the hydrolysis of cane sugar.
PAGE #
 starch, which occurs in significant amount in liver Glucose molecules.
and muscles. Glycogen is non ñ reducing sugar
which gives red colour with iodine. It is a branched ï Note : Glycosidic linkage: The linkage between the
homopolysaccharide formed of about 30,000 - D- hydroxyl groups of two monosaccharide molecules
with the release of one molecule of water.
ï Biological significance of carbohydrates :
Essential Non-Essential Semi-Essential
ï Carbohydrates serve as an important structural
Amino acids Amino acids Amino acids
material in some animals and in all plants, where
they constitute the cellulose framework. Is oleucine Alanine Arginine
ï Carbohydrates are essential for life. Almost all Leucine As pargine His tidine
animals use them as respiratory fuel. In animal Methionine As partic acid ñ
cells, carbohydrates are in the form of glucose and Phenylalanine Cys teine ñ
glycogen, which serve as an important source of
Threonine Glutam ic acid ñ
energy for the vital activities.
Tryptophan Glutam ine ñ
ï Carbohydrates play a key role in the metabolism of Valine Glycine ñ
amino acids and fatty acids.
Lys ine Proline ñ
ï Some carbohydrates have highly specific functions ñ Serine ñ
e.g. ribose in the nucleoprotein of the cells, ñ Tyros ine ñ
galactose
in certain lipids and the lactose of milk. ï Note : Peptide bond : Polypeptide and simple
protein consist entirely of long chain of amino acids
(ii) Protein : The name protein is derived from the
linked together by peptide bonds formed between
Greek word proteios, which means"Of the first
the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino
rank". This was coined by Berzelius in 1838. group of other amino acid. A molecule of water is
Proteins are the complex nitrogenous substances released out during bond formation.
found in the cells of animals and plants. Chemically
proteins are polymers of molecular units called as
amino acids.
These polymers contain carbon, oxygen, nitrogen H HO H H O
I I II I I II
and hydrogen atoms. Usually sulphur atoms are H ó N ó C ó C ó H ó N ó C ó C ó OH
also present .Certain proteins contain phosphorus or OH I
some trace metal elements, such as copper, iron etc. I R2
R1
in addition to the other elements. The proteins have H H O
high molecular weight. One gram of protein yields H H O I I II
4 kilocalories of energy. The amino acids found in a I I II N ó C ó C ó OH
Hó Nó Có C I
molecule of protein are linked together by peptide ó R2
I
R1
bonds. The general structure of a amino acid is are termed as non ñ essential amino acids.
represented by the following formula :
ï Semiñessential amino acids : They are two in
number and needed by growing children and lactating
and pregnant women.

The R group is variable in different amino acids.

Amino acids can react with acid and base both, this
is due to the presence of carboxyl and amino groups
in them. There are about 20 amino acids that take
part in the formation of proteins. The 20 amino acids
are further divided into three groups :
ï Essential amino acids : They are 8 in number. They
are not synthesized in a human body and are
obtained from food etc. are called as essential
amino acids.

ï Non ñ essential amino acids : They are 10 in

number. They are synthesized in a human body and

PAGE #
 Peptide bond formation
ï Biological significance of proteins
:
ï They act as a structural components of cell. They
are essential for growth and repair of the body.
ï All the enzymes are made up of proteins. They help
to catalyze various reactions occurring in our body.
ï They play important roles as hormones, antibodies, etc.
ï Haemoglobin , the respiratory pigment of animals is
a conjugated protein composed of colourless basic
protein the globin and haem.
(iii) Lipid : Term lipid was coined by Bloor. Fats and
their derivatives are collectively known as lipids (In
greek Lipas = fat). The principal component
associated with most lipids are the fatty acids. The
lipids are a heterogenous groups of substances
which have the common property of being relatively
insoluble in water and soluble in non ñ polar solvents
such as ether, chloroform and benzene. They
consist of comparatively less oxygen. One gram of
fat yields 9 kilocalories of energy. Similar or different
fatty acids participate in the composition of a fat
molecule. The lipids include fats, oils, ghee, waxes
and related compounds.

ï Note : Lipids generally consist of a single molecule (B) RNA : (Ribonucleic acid) Structure of RNA is
of glycerol and three molecules of fatty acids fundamentally the same as DNA but there are some
joined together by ester bonds. Therefore these are differences. The differences are as follows.
also termed as triglycerides. Three molecules of
ï In place of deoxyribose sugar of DNA, there is a
water are released during the formation of
presence of ribose sugar in RNA.
triglycerides.
ï In place of nitrogen base, thymine present in DNA
ï Biological significance of lipids :
there is a nitrogen base uracil in RNA.
ï They takes part in the synthesis of steroids,
ï RNA is made up of only one polynucleotide chain i.e.
hormones, vitamin D, bile salts etc.
RNA is single stranded.
ï They act as a solvent for fat soluble vitamins i.e.
ï In RNA, polynucleotide chain runs in 3'  5' direction.
vitamin A , D, E and K.
ï Exception : RNA found in Reoñvirus is double
ï They act as storage compounds in animals, in the
fruits and seeds of plants and in other organism.
ï They act as structural cellular components
particularly in cell membranes. They are found in the
form of phospholipids, glycolipids and sterols.
ï They act as insulators. They provide electrical and
thermal insulation. They are deposited beneath the
skin and other internal organs to reduce the heat
loss. They also work as shock absorbers and
other mechanical impacts.
(iv) Nucleic acids : These are the hereditary
materials of living organisms. There are two types of
nucleic acids :
(A) DNA (Deoxyribose nucleic acids) : DNA is
coiled macromolecule made of two antiparallel
chains held together by hydrogen bonds. DNA has
diameter of 20
?. One turn of spiral has a distance of 34 ? and
distance
between two adjacent nucleotides is 3.4 ?.
ï Nucleotides : A single nucleotide consist of following
parts :
ï Pentose sugar : It is a 5 - carbon containing sugar
which is ribose is RNA and deoxyribose in DNA.
ï Nitrogen bases : There are two types of purines
which include adenine (A), and guanine (G) and
pyrimidines which include thymine (T), uracil (U) and
cytosine (C). In DNA adenine, thymine, guanine
and cytosine present while in RNA uracil is present
in place of thymine.
ï Phosphate group : PO4-3 group in the form of H 3PO 4

PAGE #
 stranded i.e. it has two polynucleotide chains.
ï Types of RNA- A cell contains three types of RNA :
1. Ribosomal RNA (r ñ RNA) : This RNA is 80% of
the cell's total RNA. It is the most stable form of
RNA. It is found in ribosomes and it is produced in
nucleolus. They are present as 80 ñ S type of
ribosome in eukaryotic cells and 70 ñ S type of
ribosome in prokaryotic cells. It is the site of protein
synthesis.
2. Transfer RNA (t ñ RNA) :
ï It is 10 ñ 15% of total RNA
ï It is synthesized in the nucleus by DNA.
ï It is also known as soluble RNA.
ï It is also known as adapter RNA.
ï It is the smallest RNA. At the time of protein
synthesis it acts as a carrier of amino acids.
ï It has the most complex structure.
3. Messenger RNA (m ñ RNA) : The m ñ RNA is 1 ñ
5 % of the cells total RNA. The m ñ RNA is
produced by genetic DNA in the nucleus. This
process is called as transcription, m ñ RNA is also
called as template RNA. It acts as the template for
protein synthesis.
(v) Enzymes : Enzymes are protein catalysts for
biochemical reactions in the living cells. The
substance which increases reaction rate is called as
store light energy obtained from the sun, in the form
of chemical energy. Thus, chlorophyll is the
nutritional basis of life on earth. The colour of our
skin is due to the pigment melanin. Haemoglobin &
haemocyanin pigments play an important role in
transportation of oxygen in the body of living beings.
Pigments belong to the group carotenoid are found
in both plants and animals.
BIOCHEMICAL REACTIONS
The reactions undergoing inside a living cell to
sustain life are called as biochemical reactions. The
biological system can't use heat liberated in
biological reactions directly as they are isothermic
so the biological systems use chemical energy
(ATP) to perform various living processes.
Biochemical reactions are catabolic
(breakdown/exergonic reactions) and anabolic
(synthetic reactions), collectively they are called as
metabolic reactions.
EXERCISE
1. Which of the following is a disaccharide ?
(A) Galactose (B) Fructose
(C) Maltose (D) Dextrin
catalyst and the phenomenon is called as catalysis.
The term enzyme is derived from Greek word which
means 'in yeast' because the yeast cells were the
first to reveal enzyme activity in living organisms.
Enzyme was first introduced by W. Kuhne in 1878.
Berzelius was the first to define and recognize the
nature of catalyst. In 1926 J.B Sumner isolated the
enzyme urease as a crystalline protein for the first
time. Enzymes could be intracellular and extracellular
enzymes. When the enzymes remain and function
inside the cells, they are called as endoenzymes or
intracellular enzymes. The enzymes which leave
the cell and function outside the cell are called
extra cellular enzymes.
ï General properties of enzymes :
ï They remain unaltered at the end.
ï They are required in small quantities.
ï They accelerate the rate of reaction.
ï They are proteinaceous in nature.
ï Enzymes are highly specific towards substrate.
ï Certain enzymes exhibit the property of reversibility.
(vi) Pigments :
The coloured substance found in the living being is
called as pigment. The beauty of nature is due to
animals, birds and flowers having different pigments.
The living beings depend on sun for energy. The
green
pigment in nature is called as chlorophyll, can only
2. Nucleic acids are made up of
(A) amino acids (B) pentose sugars
(C) nucleosides (D) nucleotides
3. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate ?
(A) Starch (B) Glycogen
(C) Wax (D) Glucose
4. To get quick energy one should use
(A) carbohydrates (B) fats
(C) vitamins (D) proteins
5. Circular and double stranded DNA occurs in
(A) golgi body (B) mitochondria
(C) nucleus (D) cytoplasm
6. The most abundant protein in human body is
(A) collagen (B) myosin
(C) actin (D) albumin
7. Which is not a polysaccharide ?
(A) Sucrose (B) Starch
(C) Glycogen (D) Cellulose
8. The decreasing order of the amount of organic
compounds, present in an animal body is
(A) carbohydrates, proteins, fats, and nucleic acid
(B) proteins, fats, nucleic acid and carbohydrates
(C) proteins, fats, carbohydrates and nucleic acid
(D) carbohydrates, fats, proteins and nucleic acid
PAGE #
9. Term protoplasm was introduced by
(A) Purkinje (B) Schultze 10. Which of the following is a monosaccharide ?
(C) Sutton and Boveri (D) Van Mohl (A) pentose sugar (B) hexose sugar
(C) glucose (D) all of the above
11. The process of m-RNA synthesis on a DNA template
is known as
(A) translation (B) transcription
(C) transduction (D) transformation
12. Which amino acid is non essential for a human body ?
(A) Glycine (B) Phenylalanine
(C) Arginine (D) Methionine
13. Double helix model of DNA was proposed by
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Schleiden and Schwann
(C) Singer and Nicholson
(D) Kornberg and Khurana
14. Which of the following nitrogen base is not found in
DNA ?
(A) Thymine (B) Cytosine
(C) Guanine (D) Uracil
15. Glycogen is a / an
(A) polymer of amino acids
(B) polymer of fatty acids
(C) unsaturated fat
(D) polymer of glucose units
16. Carbohydrate is a
(A) polymer of fatty acids
(B) polymer of amino acids
(C) polyhydric aldehyde or ketone
(D) none of the above
17. In which form, food stored in animal body ?
(A) Glucose (B) Glycogen
(C) Cellulose (D) ATP

18. Chemically enzymes are

(A) fats (B) carbohydrates
(C) hydrocarbons (D) proteins

19. Long chain molecules of fatty acids are obtained by

(A) polymerisation of two carbon compounds
(B) decomposition of fats
(C) polymerisation of glycogen
(D) conversion of glycogen

20. The amino acids which are not synthesized in the

body are called as
(A) nonñessential
(B) essential
(C) deaminated
(D) all of them are correct

21. Fats in the body are formed when

(A) glycogen is formed from glucose
(B) sugar level becomes stable in blood
(C) extra glycogen storage in liver and muscles is
stopped
(D) all of the above
22. Which element is not found in nitrogen base ? (A) Nitrogen (B) Hydrogen
PAGE #
 (C) Carbon (D) Phosphorous 29. Similarity in DNA and RNA is
23. Proteins are the polymers of (A) both are polymers of nucleotides
(A) amino acids (B) natural protein (B) both have similar pyrimidine
(C) enzymes (D) nucleic acids (C) both have similar sugar
(D) None of the above
24. DNA polymerase is needed for
30. In which stage of cell cycle, DNA replication occurs
(A) replication of DNA (B) synthesis of DNA
(A) G1ñphase (B) S ñ Phase
(C) elongation of DNA (D) all of the above
(C) G2 ñ phase (D) M ñ phase
c31. Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted
25. Duplication of DNA is called as
(A) replication (B) transduction pickle because [IJSO-Stage-I/2011]
(C) transcription (D) translation (A) they become plasmolysed and consequently die.
(B) they do anaerobic respiration.
26. Ligase enzyme is used for (C) water is not available to them.
(A) denaturation of DNA (D) of all the reasons mentioned above.
(B) splitting of DNA into small fragments
32. Maximum vitamin A content is likely to be found in
(C) joining fragments of DNA
the extract of [IJSO-Stage-I/2011]
(D) digestion of lipids (A) sprout of pulse (B) cod liver
27. Orange juice contains plenty of (C) white muscles (D) rose petals
(A) vitamin C (B) vitamin A 33. The ointment prescribed for burns usually contains,
(C) vitamin D (D) vitamin E among other ingredients, [IJSO-Stage-I/2011]
(A) vitamin A (B) vitamin B
28. Sucrose is composed of
(C) vitamin D (D) vitamin E
(A) glucose & fructose
(B) glucose & glycogen 34. Unsaturated fatty acids contain [IJSO-Stage-I/2012]
(C) two molecules of glucose (A) atleast one double bond
(D) glycogen & fructose (B) two double bonds
(C) more than two double bonds
(D) no double bond

    

PAGE #
 SERIES COMPLETION

Series completion problems deals with numbers, Ex 5. 8, 12, 21, 46, 95, ?
alphabets and both together. While attempting to (A) 188 (B) 214
solve the question, you have to check the pattern (C) 148 (D) 216
of the series. Series moves with certain Sol. (D) The pattern is + 2 , + 3 , + 52, + 72, .......
2 2

mathematical operations. You have to check the  missing number = 95 + 112 = 216
pattern.
Ex 6. 3, 9, 36, 180, ?
Type of questions asked in the examination :
(A) 1080 (B) 900
(i) Find the missing term(s).
(C) 720 (D) None of these
(ii) Find the wrong term(s).
Sol. (A) Each term is multiplied by 3, 4, 5 and so on
respectively. Therefore, the next term would be
NUMBER SERIES
180 9 6 = 1080.

(a) Some Important Patterns : (b) Multiple Series :

(i) a, a ± d, a ± 2d, a ± 3d...(Arithmetic A multiple series is a mixture of more than one

Progression) series :

(ii) a, ak, ak2, ak3,..............(Geometric Progression) Ex 7. 4, 7, 3, 6, 2, 5, ?

a a a
(A) 0 (B) 1
(iii) a, , 2 3 ,............(Geometric (C) 2 (D) 3
k k
, kProgression)
Sol. (B) The sequence is a combination of two series
(iv) Series of prime numbers ñ i.e. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, I 4, 3, 2, ?
...... II 7, 6, 5
The pattern followed in I is ñ 1, ñ 1, ñ 1
(v) Series of composite numbers ñ
 missing number = 2 ñ 1 = 1
i.e. 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, .................
Ex 8. 14, 15, 12, 16, 9, 18, 4, 21, ?
Directions : (1 to 10) Find the missing numbers :
(A) 2 (B) 3
Ex 1. 16, 19, 22, 25, ? (C) ñ 3 (D) ñ 5
(A) 27 (B) 28 Sol. (C) The sequence is a combination of two series.
(C) 29 (D) 25  14, 12, 9, 4, (...) and
Sol. (B) As per series a, a + d, a + 2d,.........  15. 16, 18, 21
a = 16 The pattern followed in  is ñ 2, ñ 3, ñ 5, .......
 missing number = 4 ñ 7 = ñ 3
d=3
a + 4d = 16 + 4 9 3 Ex 9. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, ? ,16, 64
(A) 21 (B) 27
Ex 2. 9, 18, 36, ?, 144
(C) 25 (D) 28
(A) 70 (B) 56
Sol. (B) (i) 1, 4, 9, 16 [12, 13, 22, 23, 32, 33......................]
(C) 54 (D) 72 (ii) 1, 8, , 64 mixed combination
Sol. (D) As per series, a, ak, ak , ak3, ........
2

a = 9, k = 2 Ex 10. 3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, ?, 132

ak3 = 9 9 23 = 72 (A) 58 (B) 42
(C) 90 (D) 120
Ex 3. 2, 6, 14, 26, ? Sol. (D) The difference between the terms is given
(A) 92 (B) 54 below as :
(C) 44 (D) 42
Sol. (D) The pattern is +4, +8, +12, +16, ....... 3 6 24 30 63 72 ? 132

Ex 4. 240, ? , 120, 40, 10, 2 Difference 3 18 6 33 9 48 ?

(A) 120 (B) 240
(C) 40 (D) 10
Difference
3 15 3 15 ?
1 1 1 1
Sol. (B) The pattern is 91, 9 ,9 ,9 ,9  missing term = 240 9 1 = 240
2 3 4 5
Therefore, alternate difference between the difference is 3 and 15 respectively.
Hence, the next term would be 72 + 48 = 120.
Directions : (11 to 12) Find the wrong term(s) ó Ex 13. 12 28 64 140
Ex 11. 5, 8, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20, 23 37 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(A) 8 (B) 12 Which number will come in place of (T) ?
(C) 15 (D) 18 (A) 1412 (B) 164
Sol. (B) (C) 696 (D) 78

Sol. (A)
Therefore, number 12 is wrong and should be
replaced by 13. Similarly (P) (Q) (R)(S)(T)
78 164 3406961412
Ex 12. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 88, 184 37
92+4
(A) 3 (B) 8 92+8 92+1292+16 92+20
(C) 19 (D) 88 Therefore, the number 1412 will come in place of (T).
Sol. (D)
Ex 14.
2 9 57 337
1 3 8 19 42 89 184
3 (P) (Q) (R)(S)(T)
2 5 11 23 47 95
Which number will come in place of (Q) ? (A) 113(B) 17
3 6 12 24 48 (C) 3912(D) 8065
Hence, number 88 is wrong and should be
replaced by 89. (A)
or 1 9 2 + 1, 3 9 2 + 2, 8 9 2 +3, 19 9 2 + 4, 42 9 2 Sol.
+ 5, Similarly,
89 9 2 + 6 (P)(Q)(R)(S)

Directions : (13 to 14) In each of the following questions,

a number series is given. After the series, below it 3 17 113 673 3361

in the next line, a number is given followed by (P), 98ñ7 97ñ6 96ñ5 95ñ4
(Q),
(R), (S) and (T). You have to complete the series
Therefore, the number 113 will come in place of (Q).
starting with the number given following the
sequence of the given series. Then answer the
question given below it.

ALPHABET SERIES

(a) Pattern of Alphabets Show Variation Based on :

(i) Position of the letters (ii) Difference between the alphabets

(i) Position of alphabets :

Alphabets in order :

Alphabets in reverse order :

Directions : (15 to 24) Find the missing term(s) : (C) J (D) G

Sol. (A) In the given series, every letter is moved three steps
Ex 15. B, E, H, ? backward to obtain the corresponding letters of the
(A) K (B) L next term. So, the missing term is H.
(C) J (D) M
Sol. (A) In the given series, every letter is moved three
steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters
of the next term. So, the missing term is K.
Ex 16. Q, N, K, ?, E
(A) H (B) I
Ex 17. A, Y, D, W, G, U, J, ? . Y, W, U, ? in which each letter is moved two
(A) R (B) T steps backward to obtain the next term.
(C) S (D) P So, the missing term would be S.
Sol. (C) The given sequence consists of two series :
. A, D, G, J in which each letter is moved three Ex 18. AG, LR, WC, HN, ?
steps forward to obtain the next term (A) SX (B) RY
(C) SY (D) TX
Sol. (C) The first letter of each group and the second Ex 24. (ABC) ñ 6, (DEF) ñ 15, (GHI) ñ 24, ?
letter of each group differs by 11 letters between (A) (IJK) ñ 33 (B) (JKM) ñ 33
them. (C) (IJK) ñ 32 (D) (JKL) ñ 33
A L W Sol. (D) In a given series
1 12 H Alphabetical
positions
Let A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4, E = 5, F = 6, and so
23 8
on
    
11 11 11 Difference in  A  B  C   6  D  E  F , GH I  24
Alphabetical  789
 15 ,
positions 1 2 3  456
G R C N  
7 18 3 14 Alphabetical J  K  L  33
positions
So, the missing term would be  
10 11 12 
Similarly, 11
11 Difference
11
in
Directions : (25 to 27) Find the wrong term (s) :
Alphabetical
positions
Therefore, the next group of letter would be SY. question mark would be FGU.
H S N Y
Ex 23. 17Z5, 15X4, 13V3, ?, 9R1
And
(A) 11S2 (B) 11T2
11 11
(C) 11U2 (D) 11T3
Ex 19. AD, EI, JO, PV, ? Sol. (B) The first number & second letter of every term is
(A) VD (B) WC moved two steps backward & the third number of
(C) WD (D) VE every term is moved one step backward. So, the
Sol. (C) The first letter of subsequent groups have a missing term would be 11T2.
difference of 4, 5 and 6 places respectively,
whereas the second letter of the subsequent
groups has a difference of 5, 6, and 7 places
respectively, Therefore, on following the same
pattern, we get ëWDí as the next term which
would replace the question mark.

Ex 20. AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?

(A) SRQP (B) SRPQ
(C) SQRP (D) RSQP
Sol. (A) The first term is reversed to get second term.
The third term is reversed to get the fourth term.
Similarly, to get the sixth term, we reverse the fifth
term. So, the missing term would be SRQP.

Ex 21. HEJ, JGL, LIN, NKP, ?

(A) MOR (B) PNS
(C) PMR (D) NPT
Sol. (C) First letter of each group differs by 2 letters.
Second letter of each group differs by 2 letters.
Third letter of each group differs by 2 letters. All
the letters differ in the forward direction. Hence,
the next choice would be PMR.

Ex 22. XYQ, ZAR, BCS, DET, ?

(A) GFU (B) FUG
(C) FZU (D) FGU
Sol. (D) Here, first two terms of every group of letters
are in continuation, like XY, ZA, BC, DE, and the
third letter of each group is again in forward
continuation,
i.e. Q, R, S, T. Hence, the term replacing the
Ex 25. ABD, DGK, HMS, NTB, SBL, ZKW Sol. (B) First letter of every term is moved three steps
(A) NTB (B) DGK forward in each next term. Second number of
(C) SBL (D) ZKW every term of the pattern  9 2 + 1, 9 2 + 2, 9 2 +
Sol. (A) First letter of first, second, third, terms is 3, and
moved three, four, five, ........steps forward third letter of every term is moved two steps
respectively. Similarly, second letter is moved backward. Hence, G10T is the wrong term and
five, six, seven, steps forward respectively
should be replaced by G9T.
and third
letter is moved seven, eight, nine, steps
LETTER REPEATING SERIES
forward respectively. Hence, NTB is the wrong
term and should be replaced by MTB. Pattern of such questions is that some letters
in sequence are missing.
Ex 26. EPV, FQW, GRX, HTY, ITZ
(A) FQW (B) GRX (i) The letters may be in cyclic order (clockwise or
(C) HTY (D) ITZ anti-clockwise).
Sol. (C) In every term, first second and third letter is in (ii) To solve a problem, we have to select one of
alphabetical order to its next term respectively. the alternative from the given alternatives.
Fourth term is not following the same rule. The alternative which gives a sequence form of
Hence, HTY is the wrong term and should be letters is the choice.
replaced by HSY. Directions : (28 to 32) Find the missing term(s) :
Ex 27. D4V, G10T, J20R, M43P, P90N Ex 28. aa_baa_bbb_a
(A) P90N (B) G10T (A) baa (B) abb
(C) J20R (D) D4V (C) bab (D) aab
Sol. (A) we proceed step by step to solve the above repeated
series:
Directions : (33 to 34) The question given below is based
Steps :
on the letter series, In series, some letters are
1. The first blank space should be filled in by 'b' so missing. Select the correct alternative. If more than
that we have two a's followed by two b's. five letters are missing, select the last five letters of
the series.
2. Second blank space should be filled in by 'a' so
that we have three a's followed by three b' s. Ex 33. xyzu _ yz _ v _ _ uv _ _ _ _ _ _ _
(A) uvxyz (B) vuzyx
3. The last blank space must be filled in by 'a' to (C) uvzyx (D) vuxyz
keep the series in sequence. Sol. (A) The series is x y z u v / y z u v x/ z u v x y/u v x
Ex 29. _ bca _ ca _ c _ b _ y z Thus the letters are written in a cyclic order.
(A) aabbc (B) abbbc
(C) aabcc (D) abbac EX 34. abcd _ bc _ e _ _ de _ _ _ _ _ _ _
(A) deabc (B) edcba
(C) decba (D) edabc
Sol. (D) Sol. (A) The series is a b c d e / b c d e a / c d e a b / b
e a b c Thus the letters are written in a cyclic
order.
Series is abc/ abc/ abc/ abc. So, pattern abc is Direction : (35 to 36) There is a letter series in the first row
repeated. and a number series in the second row. Each
number in the number series stands for a letter in
Ex. 30 a _ abb _ aa _ ba _ a _ b
the letter series. Since in each of that series some
(A) ababa (B) aabba
term are missing you have to find out as to what
(C) aabab (D) aaabb
those terms are, and answer the questions based
Sol- (C) Series is aaabb/ aaabb/ aaabb. So, pattern
on these as given below in the series.
aaabb is repeated.

Ex 31. a _ c _ abb _ ca _ a
(A) baca (B) bbca
(C) bacc (D) bacb
Sol- (A) Series is abc/ aabbcc/ aaa

Ex 32. bc _ b _ c _ b _ ccb
(A) cbcb (B) bbcb
(C) cbbc (D) bcbc
Sol- (A) Series is bccb / bccb / bccb. So, pattern bccb is
 Ex 35. a _ h _ _ c _ n e _ h _ e a c _ _ _ _ _ Sol. (B) In the first row, 6 + 9 = 15
21_43_5__254________ In the second row, 8 + 12 = 20
The last five terms in the series are  In the third row, missing number = 4 + 6 = 10.
(A) 32524 (B) 43215
(C) 25314 (D) 32541
Sol. (B) By taking a = 2, c = 1, n = 4, h = 5 and e = 3, the
numbers series runs as 21543 15432 54321
43215. If first digit of a group of five digits is
placed as the last digit, we obtain the second
group of five digits and so on.

Ex 36. _ m y e _ _ y l x _ y l m _ _ l _ _ _ _
46_5 86 ___5 7_6 58 __ __ _
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 46758 (B) 74658
(C) 76485 (D) 46785
Sol. (D) By taking e = 5, l = 4, m = 6, y = 7 and x = 8 the
number series runs as 46758 67485 74658
46785. By taking the digits in the groups of five,
we find that first digit of the first group (i.e. 4) is
the third digit of the second group and the last
two digits have interchanged their positions. The
same rule applies in others groups also.

Direction : (37) In the following question, three

sequences of letter/numbers are given which
correspond to each other in some way. In the
given question, you have to find out the
letter/numerals that come in the vacant places
marked by (?). These are given as one of the
four alternatives under the question. Mark your
answer as instructed.

Ex 37. C B _ _ D _ BAB C C B
_ _235 4__? ?? ?
p _ p q _ r _ q _ _ _
_
(A) 4 5 5 4 (B) 4 3 3 4
(C) 4 2 2 4 (D) 2 5 5 2
Sol. (C) Comparing the positions of the capital letters,
numbers and small letters, we find p
corresponds to C and 2 corresponds to p. So, p
and 2 correspond to C. q corresponds to A and 3
corresponds to q. So, q and 3 corresponds to A.
Also, 5 corresponds to D. So, the remaining
number i.e., 4 corresponds to B. So, BCCB
corresponds to 4, 2, 2, 4.

MISSING TERMS IN FIGURES

Directions : (38 to 47) Find the missing number(s) :

6 9 15
8 12 20
Ex 38.
4 6 ?

(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 21
 3 5 5
Ex 39. 10 30 ?2
Ex 43. 6 2 9 3 6 5
4 5

(A) 11 (B) 6 (A) 15 (B) 20

(C) 3 (D) 2 (C) 25 (D) 40

Sol. (C) Clearly, in the  column, Sol. (B) Clearly

64
18  3 3 8 In first figure] 6 9 3 ñ 4 9 2 = 18 ñ 8 = 10
In the  column,  In second figure] 9 9 5 ñ 5 9 3 = 45 ñ 15 = 30
27 We take x in place of  In third figure] 6 9 5 ñ 2 9 5 = 30 ñ 10 = 20
?
2
15 x 95
Similarly in the  column, 9,x 3
5 15 5 26 4 6?3 8 29 3
Ex 44.
6 4 5
3C 27D 9E
(A) 32 (B) 22
7I 21K 3M (C) 18 (D) 27
Ex 40.
4D ? 7J Sol. (B) In first figure] 5 9 4 + 6 = 26
In second figure] 8 9 3 + 5 = 29
(A) 11E (B) 28G
(C) 35I (D) 48F
 missing number in third figure] 6 × 3 + 4 = 22
Sol. (B) The letters in the first row form a series C, D, 5
8 3
E (a series consecutive letters). The letters in the 6 7 5 32 5
second row form a series I, K, M (a series of Ex 45.
alternate letters). Similarly, the letters in the third 174 336 ?
row will form the series D, G, J (a series in which
each letter is three steps ahead of the previous 329 279 645
one). So, the missing letter is G. Also, the (A) 140 (B) 150
number in the second column is equal to the (C) 200 (D) 180
product of the numbers in the first and third Sol. (B) In first figure] 8 9 5 9 3 + 3 9 2 9 9 = 120 + 54 =
columns. So, missing number is (4 9 7) i.e. 28. 174
Thus, the answer is 28G. In second figure] 6 9 7 9 5 + 2 9 7 9 9= 210 + 126
= 336
 missing number in third figure]
3 9 2 9 5 + 6 9 4 9 5 = 30 + 120 = 150
4 5
Ex 41. 11 9 15 7 25 21
41
6 ? 5 2 Ex 46.
7 1 40 176 ?
(A) 184 (B) 210
(A) 16 (B) 9
(C) 241 (D) 425
(C) 85 (D) 112
Sol. (C) Hint ; 42 + 52 = 16 + 25 = 41 Sol. (A) The number at the bottom is the difference of
12 + 22 = 1 + 4 = 5 squares of two numbers given at top
62 + 72 = 36 + 49 = 85 In first figure] 112 ñ 92 = 121 ñ 81 = 40
In second figure] 152 ñ 72 = 225 ñ 49 = 176
84 81 88  In third figure] 252 ñ 212 = 625 ñ 441 = 184
Ex 42.
14 12 18 9 ? 11
(A) 16 (B) 21
(C) 61 (D) 81 3 5 4 7 3 5
14 33 48 ?
Ex 47.
Sol. (A) In first figure, 12  = 84. 6 3 4
5 4 5
2
18
In second figure, 9  = 81. (A) 47 (B) 45
2
Let the missing number In third figure be x. (C) 37 (D) 35
 x Sol. (D) In first figure, 6 9 3 + 3 9 5 = 33
Then, 11 = 88 or x = 88 
= 16. In second figure, 5 9 4 + 4 9 7 = 48
2 2
 In third figure, 5 9 4 + 3 9 5 = 35
11

16. 78, 79, 81, ?, 92, 103, 119

(A) 88 (B) 85
(C) 84 (D) 83
Directions : (1 to 25) Find the missing numbers :

1. 2, 8, 18, 32, ?
(A) 62 (B) 60
(C) 50 (D) 46

2. 16, 54, 195, ?

(A) 780 (B) 802
(C) 816 (D) 824

3. 14, 316, 536, 764, ?

(A) 981 (B) 1048
(C) 8110 (D) 9100

4. 8, 11, 15, 22, 33, 51, ?, 127, 203

(A) 80 (B) 53
(C) 58 (D) 69

5. 2, 3, 6, 18, ?, 1944
(A) 154 (B) 180
(C) 108 (D) 452

6. 7,19, 55, 163, ?

(A) 387 (B) 329
(C) 527 (D) 487

7. 1, 2, 9, 4, 25, 6, ?
(A) 51 (B) 49
(C) 50 (D) 47

8. 16, 33, 67, 135, ?

(A) 371 (B) 175
(C) 271 (D) 287

9. 8, 24, 16, ?, 7, 14, 6, 18, 12, 5, 5, 10

(A) 14 (B) 10
(C) 7 (D) 5

10. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?

(A) 194 (B) 210
(C) 252 (D) 258

11. 101, 100, ?, 87, 71, 46

(A) 92 (B) 88
(C) 89 (D) 96

12. 100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ? 16, 8

(A) 30 (B) 36
(C) 14 (D) 32

13. 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, 336, ?, 720

(A) 496 (B) 502
(C) 504 (D) 498

14. 3, 1, 4, 5, 9, 14, 23, ?

(A) 32 (B) 37
(C) 41 (D) 28

15. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ?

(A) 720 (B) 1080
(C) 1600 (D) 2160
17. 0, 6, 20, 42, 72, ? come in place of (R) ?
(A) 106
EXERCISE-1
(B) 112 (A) 251 (B) 315
(C) 110 (D) 108 (C) 176 (D) 151

18. 2, 9, 28, 65, ?

(A) 121 (B) 195
(C) 126 (D) 103

19. 1, 11, ?, 11, 11, 11, 16, 11

(A) 1 (B) 11
(C) 6 (D) 192

20. 137, 248, 359, 470, ?

(A) 582 (B) 581
(C) 571 (D) 481

21. 3, 15, 35, ?, 99, 143

(A) 63 (B) 77
(C) 69 (D) 81

22. 9, 16, 30, 58, ?

(A) 104 (B) 114
(C) 116 (D) 118

23. 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ?

(A) 192 (B) 183
(C) 162 (D) 147

24. 1, 4, 12, 30, ?

(A) 60 (B) 62
(C) 64 (D) 68

25. 94, 166, 258, ?, 4912

(A) 3610 (B) 1644
(C) 1026 (D) 516

Directions : (26 to 28) In each of the following

questions, a number series is given.
After the series, below it in the next
line, a number is given followed by (P),
(Q), (R), (S) and (T). You have to
complete the series starting with the
number given following the sequence
of the given series. Then answer the
question given below it.

26. 2 3 8 27
5 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which of the following numbers will
come in place of (T) ?
(A) 184 (B) 6
(C) 925 (D) 45

27. 5 18 48 112
7 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which number will come in place of (S) ?
(A) 172 (B) 276
(C) 270 (D) 376

28. 15 159 259 323

7 (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
Which of the following numbers will
Directions : (29 to 35) Find the wrong term(s) ó 8. DFK, FEL, HDM, JCN, ?
(A) KBN (B) KBO
29. 9, 11, 15, 23, 39, 70, 135 (C) LBO (D) LBN
(A) 23 (B) 39
(C) 70 (D) 135 9. JXG, HTJ, FPN, ?, BHY
(A) EKS (B) ELS
30. 3, 9, 36, 72, 216, 864, 1728, 3468 (C) DLR (D) DLS
(A) 3468 (B) 1728
(C) 864 (D) 216 10. CYD, FTH, IOL, LJP, ?
(A) PET (B) OET
31. 2, 5, 11, 20, 30, 47, 65 (C) OEY (D) PEV
(A) 5 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 47 11. ZGL, XHN, VIQ, TJU, ?
(A) RKX (B) RKY
32. 121, 143, 165, 186, 209 (C) RLZ (D) RKZ
(A) 143 (B) 165
(C) 186 (D) 209 12. MTH, QRK, UPN, YNQ, ?
(A) CKT (B) ELT
33. 9, 15, 24, 34, 51, 69, 90 (C) CLT (D) EKT
(A) 15 (B) 24
13. ZSD, YTC, XUB, WVA, ?
(C*) 34 (D) 51 (A) VZZ (B) ZVX
(A) 15 (B) 24 (C) VWZ (D) VZX
(C) 34 (D) 51
14. RML, VIJ, ZFH, DDF, ?
34. 9, 13, 21, 37, 69, 132, 261 (A) HDC (B) CHI
(A) 21 (B) 37 (C) HCD (D) DIC
(C) 69 (D) 132 15. LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ?
(A) ELS (B) FMR
35. 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, ñ 45, ñ 90
(C) GKS (D) FLR
(A) 85 (B) ñ 45
(C) 105 (D) 0 16. MAD, OBE, SCH, YDM, ?
(A) HET (B) HES
(C) GET (D) UAE
EXERCISE-2
17. 2B, 4C, 8E, 14H, ?
Directions : (1 to 24) Find the missing term(s) : (A) 22L (B) 24L
(C) 22K (D) 2M
1. X, U, S, P, N, K, I, ?
(A) J (B) K 18. 1 BR, 2 EO, 6 HL, 15 KI, ?
(C) M (D) F (A) 22 NF (B) 31 NF
(C) 31 NE (D) 28 NF
2. Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
(A) F (B) K 19. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?
(C) G (D) E (A) Y17O (B) X17M
(C) X17O (D) X16O
3. A, H, N, S, W, ?
(A) A (B) Y 20. Z 15 A, W 13 C, ?, Q 9 G, N 7 I
(C) B (D) Z (A) T 12 E (B) R 11F
(C) T 11E (D) R 13 D
4. Q, T, V, Y, A, ?
21. B3M, E7J, H15G, K31D, ?
(A) B (B) C
(A) N65A (B) O63A
(C) D (D) F
(C) N63A (D) N63Z
5. X, A, D, G, J, ?
22. 5X9, 8U12, 11R15, 14O18, ?
(A) N (B) O
(A) 17L21 (B) 17K21
(C) M (D) P
(C) 17M21 (D) 17L23
6. Z, L, X, J, V, H, T, F, ?, ?
23. 6C7, 8F10, 11J14, 15O19, ?
(A) R, D (B) R, E
(A) 19U24 (B) 20U25
(C) S, E (D) Q, D
(C) 19U25 (D) 20U24
7. AZ, YB, CX, WD, ?
24. B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ?
(A) VE (B) UE
(A) J58Q (B) J56Q
(C) EU (D) EV (C) J57Q (D) J56P
Directions : (25 to 30) Find the wrong term(s) : 9. a _ cab _ a _ c _ b c
(A) bbac (B) abab
25. ECA, JHF, OMK, TQP, YWU
(C) abba (D) bcba
(A) ECA (B) JHF
(C) TQP (D) YWU 10. ba _ cb _ b _ bab _
(A) acbb (B) bcaa
26. DKY, FJW, HIT, JHS, LGQ
(C) cabb (D) bacc
(A) FJW (B) LGQ
(C) JHJ (D) HIT 11. a _ bc _ a _ bcda _ ccd _ bcd _
(A) abddbd (B) acbdbb
27. DVG, FSI, HPK, JNM, LJO (C) adbbad (D) bbbddd
(A) DVG (B) JNM
(C) HPK (D) LJO 12. cc _ ccdd _ d _ cc _ ccdd _ dd
(A) dcdcc (B) dcddc
28. CDF, DEG, EFH, FHI (C) dccdd (D) None of these
(A) CDF (B) DEG
(C) FHI (D) EFH 13. a_baa_baa_b a
(A) a a b (B) b a b
29. ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS (C) b b a (D) b b b
(A) ZLA (B) BMY
(C) FOU (D) CNW 14. babbb_b_b_bb
(A) b b a (B) b a a
30. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L (C) a b a (D) a a a
(A) G4T (B) J10R
15. m _ l _ ml _ m _ llm
(C) M20P (D) P43N
(A) lmmm (B) lmlm
(C) lmml (D) mllm
EXERCISE-3 Directions : (16 to 19) The questions given below are
based on the letter series, In each of these series,
Directions : (1 to 15) Which sequence of letters when some letters are missing. Select the correct
placed at the blanks one after the other will alternative. If more than five letters are missing,
complete the given letter series ? select the last five letters of the series.
1. a_baa_aa__ab 16. _ _ r _ ttp _ _ s _ tp _ _ _ s _ _ _
(A) a a a a (B) b a a a (A) rstqp (B) tsrqp
(C) b b a a (D) a b b a (C) rstpq (D) None
2. _aabb_a_ab_b 17. _ _ x _ zbxazyxabyz _ _ _ _ _
(A) b b a a (B) b a b a (A) abxzy (B) abzxy
(C) b a a b (D) a b a b (C) abxyz (D) bxayz
3. aab_aaa_bba_ 18. x _ xxy _ x _ xy _ yxx _ _ yy _ y
(A) b a a (B) a b b
(A) xyyyy (B) xxyyx
(C) b a b (D) a a b
(C) yxxyx (D) xyxyx
4. a__b_a_ab_aa
19. _ _ r _ tqrptsrpqst _ _ _ _ _
(A) a b a a b (B) b b a b a
(A) pqrts (B) pqtrs
(C) b b a b b (D) b a a b a
(C) pqrst (D) qrpst
5. abc _ d _ bc _ d _ b _ cda
Directions : (20 to 23) There is a letter series in the first
(A) bacdc (B) cdabc
row and a number series in the second row.
(C) dacab (D) dccbd
Each number in the number series stands for a
6. a _ bbc _ aab _ cca _ bbcc letter in the letter series. Since in each of that
(A) bacb (B) acba series some term are missing you have to find out
(C) abba (D) caba as to what those terms are, and answer the
questions based on these as given below in the
7. _bc__bb_aabc
series.
(A) acac (B) babc
(C) abab (D) aacc 20. ab_cd_a_abd_dba_
8. _ b c c _ ac _ a a b b _ a b _ c c 1_3_32_1___4____
(A) aabca (B) abaca The last four terms in the series are
(C) bacab (D) bcaca (A) 1234 (B) 3112
(C) 3211 (D) 4312
21. _bnt__nam_nab__a____
13_253__524_325_____
The last five terms in the series are 3.
(A) 13425 (B) 41325
(C) 34125 (D) 13452 (A) 112 (B) 92
(C) 82 (D) 102
22. n _ g f _ t _ f h t n _ _ t _ b _ f
13_2450_4__3______
The last five terms of the number series are
(A) 50123 (B) 40321
(C) 40231 (D) 51302 4.
23. _miax_irxa__ma_____ _
4_ 5_73 __ _6__ __ __ __ __
The last five term of the letter series are (A) 235 (B) 141
(A) r m x i a (B) x m r a i (C) 144 (D) 188
(C) x r m a i (D) r m i x a
Directions : (24 to 26) 1 1 3
2 6 6
In each of the
following 1 3 1
8 2 8
questions,
4
three 3 0 2
0 7
sequences of
letter/numbers
8
are given 6 ?
which
5.
correspond to
each other in
some way. In
each
question, you
have to find
out the
letter/numeral
s that come
in the vacant
places
marked by
(?). These
are given as
one of the D
four
alternatives
2
under the
question.
Mark your _
answer as
instructed. 4

_
1
A

_
C

1
_

4
B

_
D

_
_

_
C

_
D

C
(A) 18
4
(C) 9
rs_qr_p? 6 4 8
??? 6. ? 1
2 0 7.
(A) p q p q
12
(B) p r p r 1 (A) 14
6
7 (A) 12
(C) r q r q B D C C (C) 32
(C) 16
24__23
53___ 5 9 8
25. A_BAC_
_
D _ B C D EXERCISE-4 5 15 ?
p__q__rs??? 8.
C
? 3 5 6
_
(A) p r s s Directions : (1 to 39)
(C) r p s s Find the
4 (A) 72 (B) 18
p missing term
in the given (C) 9 (D) 19
_
figures
3

_ 1.
9.
2
(A)
_
36
(A) 1
5 (C) 90
9
225
(C)
? 25

? 64

?
2. 10.
?

d (A)
(A) 20
14
22
c
(C) 24
18
12
_ (C)
11
_
13
b

_
(A) 2 4 5 4

(C) 3 4 5 4

26. _A
D
A
C
B_
_
 7 11 49
11. 12 8 54
15 4 ?
18.
(A) 36 (B) 7
(C) 25 (D) 0

18 24 32
12 14 16 (A) 28 (B) 36
3 ? 4 (C) 81 (D) 49
12.
72 112 128
6 2 5
(A) 2 (B) 3 2 ? 8
6 8 6
(C) 4 (D) 5 19. 72 6 140
4 12 3 1 4 3 4 10 7
2 4 8
(A) 16 (B) 14
13. 4 C26 3 10 H70 5 6 J90 ? (C) 20 (D) 22

5 4 6
(A) 1 (B) 3 5 3 8 9 4
20.
(C) 4 (D) 5 24 11 ? 13
4
20 9 (B) 36

(A) 117
29 27 29 30 59 40 (C) 32 (D) 26
14. 39803342 7031 ?8010
454343 44 3920
(A) 69 (B) 49
(C) 50 (D) 60 21.

101 48 (A) 26 (B) 25

43 34
(C) 27 (D) 30
15. 38 ?
3515 56 184
(A) 127 (B) 142 12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 34
(C) 158 (D) 198
22.

30 44 ?
1 7 6 (A) 48 (B) 9
16.
3 3 ? (C) 44 (D) 64
5 4 8
35 74 104

5 21 51
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 16 109 2 22 53 19 17 ? 48
23.

6 15 13

(A) 25 (B) 129

(C) 7 (D) 49
17.

2 3 6

(A) 33 (B) 145 3 33 2 4 54 2 3 ? 5

24.
(C) 135 (D) 18 4 5 4
(A) 78 (B) 82
(C) 94 (D) 86

PAGE # 74
 2 5 1 3 8 10 2 ? 1
28 38 ? 34.
25. 4 5 7 4 2 3 6 56 90 2 20 0

3 3 7 (A) 0 (B) 3
(A) 14 (C) 5
7
(C) 11

3
(A) 9 5
2 .
6 (C) 10
.

BIG - 792 HCA - 138 FED - 456 E?H - 87?

(A) G,
6
9
(C) G,
27. 5 3
5 6
.
3
6

2
5
 (A) 40.
1 01 4 8 34
( 25 (B) Find the 15 2 9 7 13 16
38 (B) 23 37.
A (A) 19 (C) value of X 80 65 ?
) (C) 25 (D) 31 35 in the 5 6 4 6 11 8
4 (D) following
8 2 3 6 15 figure

( 3 2 8 4 1 6 12 ? 8
B 56
6 8 4 32. 15 4
)
(A) 3 (B) 4 33 2
7 184
(C) 5 (D) 6
2 27 2
(A) 127 (A)
( 12 36 8
C
) (B) 142 32 X
(C) 158 (B) 9
3 18 9
(C)
5 22 11
(D) 198 14
29. 12 3
(
(D)
D
10
) 12 18 30
1 1 36 33
2 6 18
0 3 27 Fin
2 d
4 the
0 mis
sin
g
38 lett
29 29 59. 6 ers
( ? fro
A 27 30 40 m
) 3 3 4 ? (A) 18 left
3 0. 9 2 12 to
8 8 (C) 9 rig
8 7 0 ht.
( 0 0
B 1
) 3 3 0
6 3 1
4 3
4 4 9 (A)
(
C 5 3
) 2
4 4 4 0
3 4
( (A
D ) 9 1
) 69 6 (C)
1 1 ? JRS
(B 3 6
6 3 9
) . (D)
28. 1 49 2
4 . KRS
(C 1 0
96
)
50
2
6 (D
)
6 60
4 (C) 3
1
(
8 A
1 )

2 0
1
(
B
2 )
5
2
 PUZZLE TEST

Directions : (1 to 5) Read the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below Names University Subject
Dr. Joshi Delhi History
it.
Dr. Davar Osmania Geology
(i). Five professors (Dr. Joshi, Dr. Davar, Dr.
Dr. Natrajan Gujarat Botany
Natrajan, Dr. Choudhary and Dr. Zia) teach five
Dr. Choudhary Mumbai Zoology
different subjects (zoology, physics, botany,
Dr. Zia Gujarat Physics
geology and history) in four universities ( Delhi,
Gujarat, Mumbai, and Osmania). Do not
assume any specific order. On the basis of the above table, rest of the
(ii). Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in Mumbai questions can be solved very easily.
University .
(C) Dr. Davar teaches geology.
(iii). Dr. Natrajan is neither in Osmania University 1.
nor in Delhi University and he teaches neither (A) Dr. Zia is from Gujarat university.
geology nor history. 2.
(iv). Dr. Zia teaches physics but neither in Mumbai (D) Dr. Natrajan teaches botany.
3.
University nor in Osmania University.
(v). Dr. Joshi teaches history in Delhi University. (B) Dr. Davar is from Osmania University.
4.
(vi). Two professors are from Gujarat University.
(D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University is the
(vii). One professor teaches only one subject and 5.
in one University only. correct combination.

Ex 1. Who teaches geology ? Ramesh is taller than Vinay who is not as tall as
Ex 6.
(A) Dr Natrajan (B) Dr. Zia Karan. Sanjay is taller than Anupam but shorter
(C) Dr. Davar (D) Dr. Joshi than Vinay. Who among them is the tallest ?
Ex 2. Which university is Dr. Zia from ? prepare the following table.
(A) Gujarat (B) Mumbai
(C) Delhi (D) Osmania

Ex 3. Who teaches botany ?

(A) Dr. Zia (B) Dr. Davar
(C) Dr. Joshi (D) Dr. Natrajan

Ex 4. Who is from Osmania University ?

(A) Dr. Natrajan (B) Dr. Davar
(C) Dr. Joshi (D) Dr. Zia

Ex 5. Which of the following combinations is correct ?

(A) Delhi University - Dr. Zia
(B) Dr. Choudhary - geology
(C) Dr. Davar - Mumbai University
(D) Dr. Natranjan - Gujarat University
Sol. : (1 to 5)
From the given information in the question :
From II, we get Dr. Choudhary teaches zoology in
Mumbai University.

From III, We get Dr. Natrajan is neither in

Osmania nor in Delhi University. Therefore, he will
be either at Mumbai or Gujarat University.
Similarly, as he teaches neither geology nor
history, therefore, he must be teaching physics or
botany.........................................................(1)
From IV, Dr. Zia  Physics but as he is not
teaching in either Mumbai or Osmania University,
he must be teaching either in Delhi or Gujarat
University (2)
Form V, we get Dr Joshi teaches history in Delhi
University Form (1) and (2), we conclude that Dr
Natarajan teaches botany. And from (1), (2) and
VI, we get both Natarajan and Zia teach in Gujarat
University. Finally, On summarisation we can

PAGE # 76
 (A) Ramesh (B) Karan E and Q have to be
(C) Vinay (D) Cannot be determined together. C and T have to be
Sol. (D) In this question ranking of Karan is not defined. together. D and P cannot go
Consequently, either Ram or Karan occupies the together. C cannot go with
top position with regard to height. Hence, Q.
option (d) is the correct choice.
Ex 7. If the team is to consist of two male advocates, two
Directions : (7 to 11) Read the following information lady doctors and one teacher, the members of the
carefully and answer the questions given below team are
it : (A) A B P Q U (B) A B P U S
There are five men A, B, C, D and E and six (C) A P R S U (D) B E Q R S
women P, Q, R, S, T and U. A, B and R are Sol. (B) The male advocates are A and B, lady doctors
advocates; C, D, P, Q and S are doctors and the are P, Q and S ; teachers are E, T and U.
rest are teachers. Some teams are to be Now, A and B will be selected.
selected from amongst these eleven persons A, P and U have to be together. Now, we have to
subject to the following conditions : select one lady doctor more. It can be Q or S. But
A, P and U have to be Q and E have to be together. Since E is not
together. B cannot go with D selected, so S will be selected. Thus, the team is
or R. A B P U S.

Ex 8. If the team is to consist of one advocate, two doctors,
three teachers and C may not go with T, the
members of the team are :
(A) A E P Q S U (B) A E P Q T U
(C) B E Q S T U (D) E Q R S T U
Sol. (B) The advocates are A, B and R ; doctors are
C, D, P, Q, S ; teachers are E, T and U. The team
consists of 3 teachers i.e. E, T, U. Now, A, P and
U have to be together. E and Q have to be
together. Thus, the team is A E P Q T U.
and Q cannot be together. So, C will not be
selected. P also cannot be selected because U is
not selected. So, two other doctors D and S will be
selected. P is not selected, so A will not be
selected. D is selected, so B cannot be selected.
Thus, the team is D E Q R S.

Ex 9. If the team is to consist of one male advocate, one

male doctor, one lady doctor and two teachers,
the members of the team are :
(A) A C P T U (B) A D E P T
(C) A D E P U (D) B C E Q U
Sol. (A) The male advocates are A and B ; male doctors
are C and D ; lady doctors are P, Q and S ;
teachers are E, T and U. If A is selected, P and U
will be selected. D and P cannot go together. So,
a male doctor C will be selected. C and T have to
be together. Thus, the team is A C P T U. If B is
selected, D will not be selected. So, male doctor
C will be chosen. C and T have to be together.
Now, the second teacher to be selected is E or U.
But, U cannot go without A. So, E will be selected.
E and Q have to be together. Thus, the team can
also be B C E Q T.

Ex 10. If the team is to consist of one advocate, three

doctors and one male teacher, the members of
the team are:
(A) A D P S U (B) C D R S T
(C) D E Q R S (D) D E Q R T
Sol. (C) The advocates are A, B and R ; the doctors are
C, D, P, Q and S ; male teacher is E. Clearly, E
will be selected. E and Q have to be together. C

PAGE # 77
Directions : (12 to 15) Read the following paragraph (A) A (B) B
carefully : (C) C (D) D
Four women A, B, C and D and three men E, F
and G play bridge, a game for four players. Sol. : (12 to 15)
(i) The group consists of three married couples From (iv), is married either to A or to C. If F is
and a widow. married to A, then G is married to B or to C. If G is
(ii) Spouses are never partners in a game. married to B, then E is married to D ; if G is
(iii) No more than one married couple ever plays married to C, then E is married to B or to D. If F is
in the same game. married to C, then G is married to B ; then E is
(iv) One day they played four games as married to D. Hence, the married couples are :
follows. A and E versus B and F. FA, GB, ED or FA, GC, EB or FA, GC, ED or FC,
A and G versus D and GB, ED. Of these, only FA, GB, ED does not
F. B and C versus F contradict any of the statements.
and G. C and E versus 12. (D) E is married to D.
D and G.
13. (A) F is married to A.
Ex 12. Whom is E married to ?
(A) A (B) B 14. (B) G is married to B.
(C) C (D) D 15. (C) C is a widow.
Ex 13. Whom is F married to ? Ex 16. A vagabond runs out of cigarettes. He searches for
(A) A (B) B the stubs, having learnt that 7 stubs can make a
(C) C (D) D new cigarette, good enough to be smoked, he
gathers 49 stubs, If he smokes 1 cigarette every
Ex 14. Whom is G married to ?
three - quarters of an hour, how long will his
(A) A (B) B
supply last ?
(C) C (D) D
(A) 5.25 hr (B) 6 hr
Ex 15. Which of the following is a widow ? (C) 4.5 hr (D) 3 hr

Ex 11. If the team is to consist of two advocates, two

Sol. (B) He has got = 49
7  7 cigarettes.
doctors, two teachers and not more than three
ladies, the members of the team are :  The duration of time he will take to smoke
these
(A) A B C P T U (B) A C P R T U 3
7 cigarettes = 7  hr = 5.25 hr (i.e. 5 hr and 15
(C) A E P Q R T (D) B C E Q R T 4
Sol. (A) A C P R T U and A E P Q R T are wrong min). Now note that after he has smoked these 7
because each of these combinations consists of cigarettes, he will collect 7 more stubs (one form
each), form which he will be able to make another
four ladies.
3
B C E Q R T is incorrect because B and R cannot cigarette. This will take him another hr (45 min)
go together. 4
to smoke. Therefore, total time taken = 6hr.
Directions : (17 to 18) Read the following information and Above 25
answer the questions that follow.
Married 7 12
There are 70 clerks working with M/s. Jha Lal
Khanna & Co. chartered accountants, of which 30 Unmarried 5 0
are female. Below 25
(i) 30 clerks are married.
(ii) 24 clerks are above 25 years of age married 8 3
(iii) 19 Married clerks are above 25 years of age; unmarried 20 15
among them 7 are males. Total 40 30
(iv) 12 males are above 25 years of age
(v) 15 males are married.
17. There are 15 unmarried girls.
Ex 17. How many unmarried girls are there ?
(A) 12 (B) 15 18. In these 15 unmarried girls no one is above 25.
(C) 18 (D) 10

Ex 18. How many of these unmarried girls are above 25 ? EXERCISE

(A) 12 (B) 15
(C) 4 (D) 0
Sol. (17 to 18) : From the given data, we can make the Directions : (1 to 5) Study the following information
following table with the help of which rest of the carefully and answer the questions given below it :
questions can be solved very easily. There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. Two of
them are businessmen while the other three belong
Male (40) Female (30) to different occupations viz. medical, engineer and

PAGE # 78
legal. One businessman and the lawyer stay in 1. Who stays in locality Q ?
the same locality S, while the other three stay in
(A)A (B) B
three different localities P, Q and R. Two of these
(C) C (D) E
five persons are Hindus while the remaining three
come from three different communities viz.
2. What is Eís occupation ?
Muslim, Christian and Shikh. The lawyer is the
(A) Business (B) Engineer
oldest in age while one of the businessmen who
runs a factory is the youngest. The other (C) Lawyer (D) Doctor
businessman is a cloth merchant and agewise lies
3. Agewise who among the following lies between A
between the doctor and the lawyer. D is a cloth
merchant and stays in locality S while E is a and C ?
Muslim and stays in locality R. The doctor is a (A) Lawyer (B) Doctor
Christian and stays in locality P, B is a Shikh while (C) Cloth merchant (D) Engineer
A is a Hindu and runs a factory.
4. What is Bís occupation ?
(A) Business (B) Engineer
(C) Lawyer (D) Doctor

5. What is Cís occupation ?

(A) Doctor (B) Lawyer
(C) Engineer (D) Business

Directions : (6 to 10) Study the given information carefully

and answer the questions that follow.
There are four people sitting in a row : one each
from India, Japan, USA and Germany, but not in
that order,
. They are wearing caps of different colours -
green,
yellow, red and white, not necessarily in that order.
II. One is wearing a kurta and one a T-shirt.
III. The Indian is wearing a green cap and a jacket.
IV. The American is not seated at either end.
V. The persons with kurta and T-shirt are sitting
next to each other.
VI. The persons with kurta wears a red cap and
sits next to the Japanese.
VII. The Japanese wears a shirt and is not seated
at either end.
VIII. The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is
seated at one end.

6. Who wears the T-shirt ?

(A) Indian (B) Japanese
(C) American (D) German

7. Who is wearing a kurta ?

(A) Indian (B) Japanese
(C) American (D) German

8. What is the colour of the cap worn by the

Japanese?
(A) Red (B) Green
(C) Yellow (D) White

9. Who precedes the man wearing T-shirt ?

(A) Indian (B) Japanese
(C) American (D) German

10. Who precedes the man wearing jacket ?

(A) Indian (B) German

PAGE # 79
 (C) Japanese (D) Cannot say
Directions : (11 to 15) Read the following information (D) A is older than C
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
I. There are six students ( A, B, C, D, E and F) in
a group. Each student can opt for only three
choices out of the six which are music, reading,
painting, badminton, cricket and tennis.
II. A, C and F like reading.
III. D does not like badminton, but likes music.
IV. Both B and E like painting and music.
V. A and D do not like painting, but they like
cricket.
VI. All student except one like badminton.
VII. Two students like tennis.
VIII. F does not like cricket, music and tennis.

11. Which pair of students has the same combination

of choices ?
(A) A and C (B) C and D
(C) B and E (D) D and F

12. Who among the following students likes both

tennis and cricket ?
(A) A and B (B) C
(C) B and D (D) D

13. How many students like painting and badminton ?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

14. Who among the following do not like music ?

(A) A , C and D (B) A, B and C
(C) A, C and F (D) B, D and F

15. Which of the following is the most popular choice?

(A) Tennis (B) Badminton
(C) Reading (D) Painting

16. R earns more than H but not as much as T, M

earns more than R. Who earns least among
them?
(A) R (B) T
(C) H (D) M

17. Harish is taller than Manish but shorter than

Suresh. Manish is shorter than Anil but taller than
Raghu. Who among them is the shortest having
regard to height ?
(A) Anil (B) Manish
(C) Raghu (D) Cannot be determined

Direction : (18) Examine the following statements :

I. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older
than B.
II. Either C and D are of the same age or D is
older than C.
III. B is older than C.

18. Which one of the following conclusions can be

drawn from the above statements ?
(A) A is older than B
(B) B and D are of the same age
(C) D is older than C

PAGE # 80
Directions : (19 to 23) Read the information given below (A) A, C, D, B, E, F (B) F, D, E, C, A, B
and answer the questions. (C) D, C, A, B, E, F (D) C, D, A, B, E, F
The age and height of six children in a class are
as follows : 23. Whose Rank in height cannot be positioned
(i) A is taller and older than B but shorter and definitely ?
younger than C. (A) B (B) D
(ii) D is taller than E who is not as tall as B. (C) C (D) E
(iii) The oldest is the shortest. Directions : (24 to 28) Study the information given below
(iv) The youngest would be fourth if the children and answer the questions that follow.
stood in a line according to their height and one (i) Six Plays P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be
started counting from the tallest. organised from Monday to Saturday i.e. 10 to 15
(v) D is younger than F but older than E who is one play each day.
older than C. (ii) There are two plays between R and S and one
19. Who among them is the tallest ? play between P and R.
(A) B (B) E (iii) There is one play between U and T and T is to
(C) C (D) Data inadequate be organised before U.
(iv) Q is to be organised before P, not necessarily
20. Who is older than B but younger than C ? immediately.
(A) F (B) D (v) The organisation does not start with Q.
(C) A (D) Data inadequate
24. The organisation would start from which play ?
21. Which of the following statements is definitely (A) P (B) S
true? (C) T (D) None
(A) D is the most old person
(B) B has the max. height 25. On which date is play T to be organised ?
(C) A is older than D (A) 10th (B) 11th
(D) F is the shortest (C) 12 th
(D) None

22. Which of the following is the correct order of 26. The organisation would end with which play ?
height in descending order? (A) P (B) Q
(C) S (D) None
27. Which day is play Q organised ? (D) The civics book is placed before two books
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday above the economics book.
(C) Thursday (D) None
30. To know which three books are kept above the
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of English book, which of the following additional
organising plays ? pieces of information, if any, is required?
(A) PTRUQS (B) QSTURP (A) The economics book is between the English
(C) SUTRQP (D) None and the science books.
(B) There are two books between the English and
Directions : (29 to 30) Read the following information the history books.
carefully and answer the questions given below it. (C) The geography book is above the English book.
I. Seven books are placed one above the other in (D) No other information is required.
a particular way .
II. The history book is placed directly above the Directions : (31 to 32) A five-member team that includes
civics book. Rama, Shamma, Henna, Reena, and Tina, is
III. The geography book is fourth from the bottom planning to go to a science fair but each of them
and the English book is fifth from the top. put up certain conditions for going .They are as
IV. There are two books in between the civics and follows.
economics books. I. If Rama goes, then at least one amongst
Shamma and Henna must go.
29. To find the number of books between the civics II. If Shamma goes, then Reena will not go.
and the science books, which other extra piece of III. If Henna will go, then Tina must go.
information is required, from the following ? IV. If Reena goes, then - Henna must go.
(A) There are two books between the geography V. If Tina goes, then Rama must go but Shamma
and the science books. cannot go.
(B) There are two books between the VI. If Reena plans not to go the fair, then Rama will
mathematics and the geography books . also not go.
(C) There is one book between the English and
the science books.

PAGE # 81
31. If it is sure that Henna will go to the fair, then
who among the following will definitely go ? 33. If A is chosen to be moved, which of the following
(A) Rama (B) Shamma cannot be a team ?
(C) Reena (D) Rama and Reena (A) ABDEH (B) ABDGH
(C) ABEFH (D) ABEGH
32. If Tina does not go to the fair, which of the
following statements must be true ? 34. If C and F are to be moved to the new office, how
(i) Henna cannot go many combinations are possible ?
(ii) Shamma cannot go (A) 1 (B) 2
(iii) Reena cannot go (C) 3 (D) 4
(iv) Rama cannot go
35. If C is chosen to the new office, which number of
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv)
the staff cannot be chosen to go with C ?
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)
(A) B (B) D
Directions : (33 to 37) Read the following paragraph (C) F (D) G
carefully and choose the correct alternative.
36. Under the guidelines, which of the following must
The office staff of XYZ corporation presently
be chosen to go to the new office ?
consists of three females A, B, C and five males
(A) B (B) D
D, E, F, G and H. The management is planning
(C) E (D) G
to open a new office in another city using three
males and two females of the present staff. To 37. If D goes to the new office, which of the following
do so they plan to separate certain individuals is/are true ?
who do not function well together. The following I. C cannot be chosen
guidelines were established II. A cannot be chosen
I. Females A and C are not to be together III. H must be chosen.
II. C and E should be separated (A) I only (B) II only
III. D and G should be separated (C) I and II only (D) I and III only
IV. D and F should not be part of a team.
Directions : (38 to 42) Study the following information (A) P Q B C (B) P Q C E
carefully and answer the questions that follow : (C) P S A B (D) P S C E
A team of five is to be selected from amongst five
boys A, B, C, D and E and four girls P, Q, R and 41. If A and C are members, the other members of the
S. Some criteria for selection are : team cannot be :
A and S have to be (A) B E S (B) D E S
together P cannot be put (C) E S P (D) P Q E
with R.
42. If including P at least three members are girls, the
D and Q cannot go together.
members of the team other than P are :
C and E have to be
(A) Q S A B (B) Q S B D
together. R cannot be put
(C) Q S C E (D) R S A D
with B.
Unless otherwise stated, these criteria are Directions : (43 to 44) Read the given information carefully
applicable to all the questions below : and answer the questions that follow :
Ratan, Anil, Pinku and Gaurav are brothers of
38. If two of the members have to be boys, the team
Rakhi, Sangeeta, Pooja and Saroj, not necessarily
will consist of :
in that order. Each boy has one sister and the
(A) A B S P Q (B) A D S Q R
names of bothers and sisters do not begin with the
(C) B D S R Q (D) C E S P Q
same letter. Pinku and Gaurav are not Sarojís
39. If R be one of the members, the other members of or Sangeetaís brothers. Saroj is not Ratanís
the team are : sister.
(A) P S A D (B) Q S A D
43. Poojaís brother is
(C) Q S C E (D) S A C E
(A) Ratan (B) Anil
40. If two of the members are girls and D is one of the (C) Pinku (D) Gaurav
members, the members of the team other than D
44. Which of the following are brother and sister ?
are :

PAGE # 82
 (A) Ratan and Pooja (B) Anil and Saroj Directions : (45 to 49) Read the following information
(C) Pinku and Sangeeta (D) Gaurav and Rakhi carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) There is a family of six persons- L, M, N, O, P
and Q. They are professor, businessman,
chartered account, bank manager, engineer and
medical representative, not necessarily in that
order.
(ii) There are two married couples in the family.
(iii) O, the bank manager is married to the lady
professor.
(iv) Q, the medical representative, is the son of M
and brother of P.
(v) N, the chartered accountant, is the daughter -
in law of L.
(vi) The businessman is married to the chartered
acconuntant.
(vii) P is an unmarried engineer.
(viii) L is the grandmother of Q

45. How is P related to Q.

(A) Brother (B) Sister
(C) Cousin (D) Either brother or sister

46. Which of the following is the profession of M ?

(A) Professor
(B) Chartered accountant
(C) Businessman
(D) Medical representative

47. Which of the following is the profession of L ?

(A) Professor (B) Charted accountant
(C) Businessman (D) Engineer

48. Which of the following is one of the couples ?

(A) QO (B) OM
(C) PL (D) None of these

49. How is O related to Q?

(A) Father (B) Grandfather
(C) Uncle (D) Brother

Directions : (50 to 54)

I. There is a group of six persons P,Q, R, S, T and
U from a family. They are Psychologist, Manager,
Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
II. The Doctor is grandfather of U, who is a
Psychologist.
III. The Manager S is married to P.
IV. R, the Jeweller is married to the Lawyer.
V. Q is the mother of U and T.
VI. There are two married couples in the family.

50. What is the profession of T ?

(A) Doctor (B) Jeweller
(C) Manager (D) None of these

51. How is P related to T ?

(A) Brother (B) Uncle
(C) Father (D) Grandfather

52. How many male members are their in the family ?

(A) One (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Data inadequate
53. What is the profession of P ? (A) Doctor (B) Lawyer

PAGE # 83
 (C) Jeweller (D) Manager
54. Which of the following is one of the pairs of
couples in the family ?
(A) PQ (B) PR
(C) PS (D) Cannot be
determined
Direction : (55) The ages of Mandar, Shivku, Pawan and
Chandra are 32, 21, 35 and 29 years, not in order,
Whenever asked they lie of their own age but tell 56.
the truth abut others.
(i) Pawan says, ìMy age is 32 and Mandarís age
is not 35î
(ii) Shivku says, ìMy age is not 2 9 and Pawanís
age in not 21î 57.
(iii) Mandar says, ìMy age is 32.î
55. What is Chandraís age ?
(A) 32 years (B) 35 years
(C) 29 years (D) 21 years
Directions : (56 to 57) Answer the questions on the basis
of the information given below. 5 friends Nitin,
Reema, Jai, Deepti and Ashutosh are playing a
game of crossing the roads. In the beginning,
Nitin, Reema and Ashutosh are on the one side of 58.
the road and Deepti and Jai are on the other side.
At the end of the game, it was found that Reema
and Deepti are on the one side and Nitin, Jai
and Ashutosh are on the other side of the road.
Rules of the game are as follows :
I. One ìmovementî means only one person crosses
the road from any side to the other side.
II. No two persons can cross the road
simultaneously from any side to the other side.
    
III. Two persons from the same side of the roads
cannot move in consecutive ìmovementsî.
IV. If one person crosses the road in a particular
movement, he or she cannot immediately move
back to the other side.
V. Jai and Reema did not take part in first 3
movements.
What is the minimum possible number of
movements that took place in the entire game ?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
If number of movements are minimised in the
game, then which of the following combination of
friends can never be together on one particular
side of the road during the course of the game ?
(A) Nitin, Reema amd Deepti
(B) Nitin, Jai and Deepti
(C) Deepti, Jai and Ashutosh
(D) Ashutosh, Nitin and Deepti
You have 12 similar looking coins. 11 of them
weigh the same. One of them has a different
weight, but you donít know whether it is heavier or
lighter. You also have a scale. You can put coins
on both sides of the scale and itíll tell you which
side is heavier or will stay in the middle if both
sides weigh the same. What is the minimum
number of weighing required to find out the odd
coin.
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
PAGE # 84
 CALENDAR AND CLOCK TEST

 Similarly, 200 years = 10 odd days = 03 odd days

15
We are to find the day of the week on a 300 years = = 1 odd day.
mentioned 7
date. Certain concepts are defined as under. 20  1
400 years = = 0 odd day (1 is added as 400
7
 An ordinary year has 365 days. is a leap year)
 In an ordinary year, first and last day of the year Similarly, 800, 1200, 1600, 2000, 2400 years
contain 0 odd days.
are same.
 After counting the odd days, we find the day
 A leap year has 366 days. Every year which is according to the number of odd days.
divisible by 4 is called a leap year. For example
1200, 1600, 1992, 2004, etc. are all leap years.  Sunday for 0 odd day, Monday for 1 odd day and
so on as shown in the following table.
 For a leap year, if first day is Monday than last day
Table : 1 (Odd days for week days)
will be Tuesday for the same year.

 In a leap year, February is of 29 days but in an Days Sunday Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday

ordinary year, it has only 28 days.

Odd Days 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
 Year ending in 00's but not divisiable by 400 is not
considered a leap year. e.g., 900, 1000, 1100, Table : 2 (Odd days for months in a year)
1300, 1400, 1500, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2100 are
Ordinary Odd Odd
not leap years. Days Leap year Days
Year Days Days

 The day on which calendar started (or the very first January 31 3 January 31 3
day ) i.e., 1 Jan, 0001 was Monday. February 28 0 February 29 1
March 31 3 March 31 3
 Calendar year is from 1 Jan to 31 Dec. Financial April 30 2 April 30 2
year is from 1 April to 31 March. May 31 3 May 31 3
June 30 2 June 30 2
ODD DAYS Total 181 days 6 Total 182 days 0
July 31 3 July 31 3
The no. of days exceeding the complete no. of August 31 3 August 31 3
weeks in a duration is the no. of odd days during September 30 2 September 30 2
that duration. October 31 3 October 31 3
November 30 2 November 30 2
COUNTING OF ODD DAYS December 31 3 December 31 3
Total 184 days 1 Total 184 days 2
 Every ordinary year has 365 days = 52 weeks +1
day. Table : 3 (Odd days for every quarter)
 Ordinary year has 1 odd day.
Ist three IInd three III rd three Iv th three
M onths Total year
 Every leap year 366 days = 52 weeks + 2 days. of
months m onths months months
1 Jan to
1 Jan to 1 Apr to 1 July to 1 Oct. to
 Leap year has 2 odd days. years
31 March 30 June 30 Sep. 31 Dec.
31 Dec.

 Odd days of 100 years = 5, Total days

90 / 91
91 92 92
365 / 366
Ord. / Leap Ord. / Leap
Odd days of 200 years = 3, 6 /0 0 1 1 1 /2
Odd days
Odd days of 300 years = 1, Ord. / Leap Odd day Odd day Odd day Ord. / Leap
Odd days of 400 years = 0.
Ex 1. If it was Saturday on 17th December 1982 what
Explanation : will be the day on 22nd December 1984 ?
 100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years Sol. Total number of odd days between 17 Dec.1982
( The year 100 is not a leap year) to 17 Dec.1984 the number of odd days = 1+2 =
3.
= 76 odd days + 2 × 24 odd days = 124 odd days.
124
Odd days = = 5 odd days. From 17 to 22 Dec. number of odd days = 5
7  3 + 5 = 8 odd days = 1 odd day.
  Saturday + 1 odd day = Sunday.
Ex 2. Find the day of the week on 16 January, 1969. days (Thus Proved)
Sol. 1600 years have ë0í odd day ...................(A)
300 years have ë1í odd day ..................... (B)
68 years have 17 leap years and 51 ordinary
years. Thus = (17 × 2 + 51 × 1 ) = 85 odd days
 ' 01' odd day.. .(C)
16 January has = ' 02' odd days..(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 01 +01 +02 = 04 odd days
Ans. Thursday

Ex 3. Find the day of the week on 18 July, 1776 (leap

year).
Sol. Here 1600 years have ë0í odd day ..................(A)
100 years have ë5í odd days ..........................(B)
75 years = (18 leap years + 57 ordinary years)
= (18 × 2 + 57 × 1)
= 93 odd days
= (7 × 13 + 2) = ë2í odd days .........................(C)
Now, the no. of days from 1st January to 18 July,
1776
= 182 + 18 = 200 days
= (28 × 7 + 4) days = ë4í odd days ..................(D)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D),
We get, 0 + 5 + 2 + 4 = 04 odd days
Ans. Thursday

Ex 4. On what dates of October, 1975 did Tuesday fall

?
Sol. For determining the dates, we find the day on 1st
Oct, 1975.
1600 years have ë0í odd days ..................(A).
300 years have ë01í odd days ..................(B).
74 years have (18 leap years + 56 ordinary years)
2 × 18 + 1 × 56 = 92 odd days
= ë01í odd days ...........(C)
Days from 1st January to 1st Oct., 1975
1st Jan ñ 30 June + 1st July to 1st Oct.
181 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 1 = 274 days
= ë01í odd days......(D) (274/7= 01 days)
Adding (A) + (B) +(C) +(D) = 0 + 01 +01 +01
= '03' odd days
Ans. Wednesday( 1st Oct), hence 7,14,21,28 Oct. will
Tuesday fall.

Ex 5. Calendar for 1995 will serve for 2006, prove ?

Sol. The Calendar for 1995 and 2006 will be the same
,if day on 1st January of both the years is the
same. This is possible only if the total odd days
between 31st Dec. 1994 and 31st Dec.2005 is 0.
[one day before both the years as we want to
know the day on 1st January of both the years i.e.
same] During this period, we have
3 leap years
(1996, 2000, 2004) and
08 ordinary years
(1995,1997,1998,1999, 2001, 2002, 2003,2005)
Total odd days = (2 × 3 + 1 × 8) = 14 = 0 odd
Ex 6. The year next to 1996 having the same Calendar
will be -
Sol. 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003
2 1 1 1 2 Important Notes :
Total = 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 7= 0 odd days
 Minute hand and hour hand coincides once in
Hence, year 2001 will have the same calendar
every hour. They coincide 11 times in 12 hours
as year 1996.
and 22 times in 24 hours.
Ex 7. Prove that last day of a century cannot be
 They coincide only one time between 11 to 1 Oí
Tuesday, Thursday or Saturday.
clock. at 12 Oí clock.
Sol. 100 years have = 5 odd days
 Last day of st century is  Minute hand and hour hand are opposite once in
Friday 200 years have = 10 every hour. They do it 11 times in 12 hours and 22
odd days times in 24 hours.
 Last day of IInd century is Wednesday
= 3 odd days  They opposite only one time between 5 to 7 Oí
300 years have = 15 odd days clock. at 6 Oí clock.
 Last day of rd century is Monday
 Both hands (minute and hour) are perpendicular
= 01 odd day
twice in every hour. 22 times in 12 hours and 44
400 years have = (5 × 4 + 1)
times in 24 hours.
Last day of 4th century is Sunday
= 21 odd days  In one minute, hour hand moves 1/2: and minute
= 0 odd days hand moves 6:. In one hour, hour hand moves 30:
Since the order keeps on cycling, we see that and minute hand moves 360:.
the last day of the century cannot be Tuesday,
Thursday or Saturday.  In an hour, minute hand moves 55 minutes ahead
of hour hand.

HANDS COINCIDE Case-II When the time taken (20 + 15) = 35 min.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
Ex.8 At what time between 3 OíClock and 4 OíClock 60 min.
will  Minute hand is 35 min. ahead of hour hand in
the two hands coincide ?
Sol. At 3 Oíclock the distance between the two hands 60  420 2
= = 38 min.
is 35
15 minutes when they coincide with each other  Minute hand is 15 min. ahead of hour hand in
the 55 11 11
distance between the two hands will be 0 min. 2
Hence, the right time is 38 min. past 4.
So, the time taken (15 + 0 ) = 15 minutes. 11
 Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min. MIRROR IMAGE OF CLOCK
 Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in
60
min.
55  If the time is between 1 Oíclock to 11 Oíclock, then
to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from
60  15 4 11 : 60.
180
55 = 11 = 16 min.
11  If the time is between 11 Oíclock to 1 Oíclock, then
4
Hence the right time is 16 minute past 3. distance, they are opposite to each other. The time
11 taken (30 + 10 ) = 40 min.
 Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in 60
HANDS ARE OPPOSITE min.
 Minute hand is 1 min. ahead of hour hand in
Ex.9 At what time between 2 Oíclock and 3 Oíclock will 60
the two hands be opposite ? min.
55
Sol. At 2 Oíclock the distance between the two hands is  Minute hand is 40 minutes ahead of hour hand
10 minutes. When they are at 30 minutes
 to find the mirror image, time is subtracted from
23 : 60. TO FIND THE ANGLE BETWEEN TWO HANDS
Ex.11 The time in the clock is 4 : 46, what is the mirror
image ?  Angle are of two types :
Sol. (11 : 60) ñ (4 : 46) = 7 : 14. Positive angle : It is obtained by moving from
hour hand to minute hand moving in clockwise
Ex.12 The time in the clock is 12 : 35, then find its direction. Negative angle : It is obtained by
mirror image. moving from minute hand to hour hand.
Sol. (23 : 60) ñ (12 : 35) = 11 : 25.
60  40 480 7
in min.  Both types of angles are 360: in total. If one angle
= = 43
55 11 11 is known, other can be obtained by subtracting from
7
Hence, the right time is 43 360:.
11 min. past 2.
Ex.13 At 4 : 30, what is the angle formed between hour
HANDS ARE PERPENDICULAR hand and minute hand ?
Sol. At 4 Oí clock angle between hour and min. hand is
Ex.10 At what time between 4 Oíclock and 5 Oíclock will of 120:.
the hands are perpendicular ?  In 30 min. minute hand make an angle of 180:.
Sol. At 4 Oíclock the distance between the two hands is
So, the resultant angle is 180: ñ 120: = 60:.
20 min. When they are at 15 minutes distance,
But in 30 min. hour hand will also cover an angle of
they are perpendicular to each other.
15:. Hence, the final angle between both hands
Case-I When the time taken (20 ñ 15) = 5 min. is 60: ñ 15: = 45:.
Minute hand is 55 min. ahead of hour hand in
60 min. Short trick
 Minute hand is 5 min. ahead of hour hand in
60  5 60
5 min.
= = 5
55 11 11
5
Hence, the right time is 5 min. past 4.
11

9. If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what

day will fall on the day after tomorrow ?
Ex.14 A bus for Delhi leaves every thirty minutes from a bus
stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the (A) Friday (B) Thursday
bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next (C) Wednesday (D) Tuesday
bus will leave at 9.35 A.M. At what time did the
enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger 10. If February 1, 1996 is Wednesday, what day is
? March 10, 1996 ?
Sol. Bus leaves after every 30 minutes. (A) Monday (B) Sunday
The next bus will leave at 9 : 35
(C) Saturday (D) Friday
A.M.
The last bus left at 9 : 35 ñ 0 : 30 = 9 : 05 A.M.
11. If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier
but clerk said that bus had left 10 minutes earlier.
 9 : 05 + 0 : 10 = 9 : 15 A.M. than Friday, what day will it be on the nineteenth

EXERCISE
day of the month ?
1. Find the day of the week on 26 January, 1950. (A) Sunday (B) Monday
(A) Tuesday (B) Friday (C) Wednesday (D) Friday
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
12. Mohini went to the movies nine days ago. She
2. Which two months in a year have the same
goes to the movies only on Thursday. What day
calendar ?
of the week is today ?
(A) June, October (B) April, November
(A) Thursday (B) Saturday
(C) April, July (D) October,
(C) Sunday (D) Tuesday
December
 between 5 and 6 ?
13. At what time are the hands of a clock together
3. Are the years 900 and 1000 leap years ?
(A) Yes (B) No 3 3
(A) 33 min. past 5 (B) 28 min. past 5
(C) Can't say (D) None of these 11 11
3 3
4. If it was Saturday on 17th November, 1962 what (C) 27 min. past 5 (D) 26 min. past 5
11 11
will be the day on 22nd November, 1964 ?
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday 14. At what time between 9 and 10 will the hands of a
(C) Wednesday (D) Sunday clock be in the straight line, but not together ?
5. Sangeeta remembers that her father's birthday (A) 16 minutes past 9
4
was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of (B) 16 minutes past 9
11
December. Her sister Natasha remembers that 6
their father's birthday was definitely after ninth but (C) 16 minutes past 9
11
before fourteenth of December. On which date of
December was their father's birthday ? 9
(D) 16 minutes past 9
(A) 10th (B) 11th 11
(C) 12th (D) Data inadequate 15. At what time between 5 & 5 : 30 will the hands of
a clock be at right angle ?
6. Find the day of the week on 15 August, 1947. 10
(A) Tuesday (B) Friday (A) 10 minutes past 5
11
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday 5
(B) 11 minutes past 5
7. Karan was born on Saturday 22nd March 1982. 11
On
what day of the week was he 14 years 7 months 10
(C) 9 minutes past 5
and 8 days of age ? 11
9
(A) Sunday (B) Tuesday (D) 10 minutes past 5
(C) Wednesday (D) Monday 11
16. Ajay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier
8. If on 14th day after 5th March be Wednesday, what than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach the stop.
day of the week will fall on 10th Dec. of the same He reached the stop at 8.40 a.m. What time does
year ? he usually leave home for the bus stop ?
(A) Friday (B) Wednesday (A) 8.30 a.m. (B) 8.45 a.m.
(C) Thursday (D) Tuesday (C) 8.55 a.m. (D) Data inadequate
17. The priest told the devotee, "The temple bell is 19. A tired worker slept at 7.45 p.m.. If he rose at 12
rung at regular intervals of 45 minutes. The last noon, for how many hours did he sleep ?
bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is (A) 5 hours 15 min. (B) 16 hours 15 min.
due to be rung at 7.45 a.m." At what time did the (C) 12 hours (D) 6 hours 45 min.
priest give this information to the devotee ?
(A) 7.40 a.m. (B) 7.05 a.m. 20. How many times are the hands of a clocks
(C) 6.55 a.m. (D) None of these perpendicular in a day ?
(A) 42 (B) 48
18. There are twenty people working in an office. The (C) 44 (D) 46
first group of five works between 8.00 A.M. and
2.00 21. If a clock shows 04: 28 then its mirror image will be
P.M. The second group of ten works between ?
10.00 (A) 07: 42 (B) 07: 32
A.M. and 4.00 P.M. And the third group of five (C) 08: 32 (D) 08: 42
works between 12 noon and 6.00 P.M. There are
22. A watch, which gains uniformly, is 3 minutes slow
three computers in the office which all the
at noon on Monday and is 3 minutes 48 seconds
employees frequently use. During which of the
fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. What time it
following hours the computers are likely to be
was correct ?
used most ?
(A) 2 p.m. On Tuesday
(A) 10.00 A.M. ññ 12 noon
(B) 2 p.m. On Wednesday
(B) 12 noon ññ 2.00 P.M.
(C) 3 p.m. On Thursday
(C) 1.00 P.M. ññ 3.00
(D) 1 p.m. On Friday.
P.M. (D) 2.00 P.M. ññ
4.00 P.M. 23. How many times are the hands of a clocks coincide
 in a day ? 26. The train for Lucknow leaves every two and a half
(A) 10 (B) 11
hours from New Delhi Railway Station. An
(C) 12 (D) 22
announcement was made at the station that the
24. At what time between 2 and 3 Oí clock the hands train for Lucknow had left 40 minutes ago and the
of next train will leave at 18. 00 hrs. At what time
a clock will make an angle of 160: ? was the announcement made ?
(A) 20 minutes past 2 (B) 30 minutes past 2 (A) 15.30 hrs (B) 17.10 hrs
(C) 40 minutes past 2 (D) 50 minutes past 2 (C) 16.00 hrs (D) None of these
25. Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in
27. A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each
the morning, reaches Kunalís house in 25
hour and rests for a while when he slips back 20
minutes, they finish their breakfast in another 15
feet before he again starts climbing in the
minutes and leave for their office which takes
another 35 minutes. At what time do they leave beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent
Kunalís house to reach their office ? at 8.00 a.m., at what time will he first touch a flag
(A) 7.40 am (B) 7.20 am at 120 feet from the ground ?
(C) 7.45 am (D) 8.15 am (A) 4 p.m. (B) 5 p.m.
(C) 6 p.m. (D) None of these

28. If the two incorrect watches are set at 12 : 00

noon at correct time, when will both the watches
show the correct time for the first time given that
the first watch gains 1 min in 1 hour and second
watch loses 4 min in 2 hours :
(A) 6 pm, 25 days later
(B) 12 : 00 noon, 30 days later
(C) 12 noon, 15 days later
(D) 6 am 45 days later

29. Rajeev and Sanjeev are too close friends

Rajeev's watch gains 1 minute in an hour and
Sanjeev's watch loses 2 minutes in an hour. Once
they set both the watches at 12 : 00 noon, with my
correct watch. When will the two incorrect
watches of Rajeev and Sanjeev show the same
time together?
(A) 8 days later (B) 10 days later
(C) 6 days later (D) can't be determined

30. At a railway station a 24 hour watch loses 3

minutes in 4 hours. If it is set correctly on Sunday
noon when will the watch show the correct time ?
(A) 6 pm after 40 days
(B) 12 noon after 75 days
(C) 12 pm after 100 days
(D) 12 noon after 80 days

31. A swiss watch is being shown in a museum which

has a very peculiar property. It gains as much in
the day as it loses during night between 8 pm to 8
am. In a week how many times will the clock show
the correct time ?
(A) 6 times (B) 14 times
(C) 7 times (D) 8 times

32. A wrist watch which is running 12 minutes late on

a Sunday noon is 16 minutes ahead of the correct
time at 12 noon on the next Sunday. When is the
clock 8 minutes ahead of time ?
(A) Thursday 10 am (B) Friday noon
 (C) Friday 8 pm (D) Tuesday noon
33. A clock loses 2 minutes in a hour and another
38. Kumbhakarna starts sleeping between 1 pm and
clock gains 2 minutes in every 2 hours. Both
2 pm and he wakes up when his watch shows
these clocks are set correctly at a certain time on
Sunday and both the clocks stop simultaneously such a time that the two hands (i.e., hour-hand
on the next day with the time shown being 9 am and minute-hand) interchange the respective
and 10 : 06 AM. What is the correct time at which places. He wakes up between 2 pm and 3 PM on
they stopped? (A) 9 : 54 am (B) 9 : 44 pm the same night. How long does he sleep ?
(C) 9 : 46 am (D) 9 : 44 am 5
(A) 55 min (B) 110 min
13 10
34. David sets his watch at 6 : 10 am on Sunday, 6
which 13
gains 12 minutes in a day. On Wednesday if this (C) 54 min (D) None of these
13
watch is showing 2 : 50 pm. What is the correct
time ? 39. clock loses 3% time during the first week and
(A) 1 : 50 pm (B) 2 : 10 pm then gains 2% time during the next one week. If
(C) 2 : 30 pm (D) 3 : 30 pm the clock was set right at 12 noon on a Sunday,
35. Ramu purchased a second hand Swiss watch what will be the time that the clock will show
which is very costly. In this watch the minute-hand exactly 14
days from the time it was set right ?
3
and hour hand coincide after every 65 minutes. (A) 1 : 36 : 48 (B) 1 : 40 : 48
11 (C) 1 : 41 : 24 (D) 10 : 19 : 12
How much time does the watch lose or gain per
day ?
Direction : (40 to 41) A 12 dial clock has its minute hand
(A) 4 min (B) 5 min
(C) 4 min, 20 sec (D) none of these defective. Whenever it touches dial 12, it
immediately falls down to 6 instead of running
36 My watch was 8 minutes behind at 8 pm on Sunday smoothly (the hour hand remains unaffected
but within a week at 8 pm on Wednesday it was 7
during that fall). It was set right at 12 ëOí clock in
minutes ahead of time. During this period at which
the noon.
time this watch has shown the correct time :
(A) Tuesday 10 : 24 am
40. What was the actual time when the minute hand
(B) Wednesday 9 : 16 pm
(C) It cannot show the correct time during this of the clock touched dial 9 for the 5th time?
period (A) 2 : 15 (B) 3 : 00
(D) None of the above (C) 5 : 15 (D) 6 : 45

37. Out of the following four choices which does not 41. If the actual time is 10 : 10, what is the position of
show the coinciding of the hour hand and minute-
the hour hand in that defective clock ?
hand :
(A) Between 2 and 3 (B) Between 4 and 5
(A) 3 : 16 : 2 (B) 6 : 32 : 43
(C) 9 : 59 : 05 (D) 5 : 27 : 16 (C) Between 10 and 11 (D) Between 3 and 4

    
 CUBE AND DICE-TEST

CUBES

A cube is three dimensional figure, having 8

corners, 6 surfaces and 12 edges. If a cube is
painted on all of its surfaces with any colour and
further divided into various smaller cubes, we get
following results. Smaller cubes with three
surfaces painted will be present on the corners of
the big cube.
side of big cube4
Here n = side of small cube  1  4
32 2 3
2 112 3
211 2
2
3223
2 2
3 2 2 3 3
11 Ex 1. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces painted ?
2 1 1 2 22 (A) 4(B) 8
1 (C) 16(D) 24
2 1 1 2 213
2 (B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces painted = 8
3 2 2 3 32
Sol.
Smaller cubes with two surface painted will be
present on the edges of the big cube. Smaller
cubes with one surface painted will be present on Ex 2. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces
the surfaces of the big cube. Smaller cubes with painted ?
no surface painted will be present inside the big (A) 4 (B) 8
cube.
(C) 16 (D) 24
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with a Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
colour and then divided into smaller cubes of
painted = (n ñ 2) " 12 = (4 ñ 2) " 12 = 24
equal size then after separation, number of
smaller cubes so obtained will be calculated as
Ex 3. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
under : Number of smaller cubes with three
surfaces painted = 8 painted ?
Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces (A) 8 (B) 16
painted = (n ñ 2) " 12 (C) 24 (D) 32
Number of smaller cubes with one surfaces
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = (n ñ 2)2 " 6
Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces painted painted = (n ñ 2)2 " 6 = (4 ñ 2)2 " 6 = 4 " 6 = 24
= (n ñ 2)3
Ex 4. How many smaller cubes will have no side painted
Where n = No of divisions on the surfaces of the ? (A) 18 (B) 16
bigger cube
(C) 22 (D) 8
lengthof edge of big cube Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with no surface
=
length of edge of one smaller cube painted = (n ñ 2)3 = (4 ñ 2)3 = (2)3 = 8

TYPE I
TYPE II
If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with
single colour and then divided into various smaller If a cube is painted on all of its surfaces with
cubes of equal size.
different colours and then divided into various
Directions : ( 1 to 4) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black smaller cubes of equal size.
on all of its surfaces and then divided into various
smaller cubes of side 1 cm each. The smaller Directions : ( 5 to 7 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted black
cubes so obtained are separated. on
444 the pair of one opposite surfaces, blue on the pair

of another opposite surfaces and red on
remaining
Total cubes of obtained =
 64 r of opposite surfaces. The cube is now divided
111 pai
into smaller cubes of equal side of 1 cm each.
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 0 (Because each smaller cube at the
corner is attached to a surface which is unpainted.)

Ex 5. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces
painted = 8
(These smaller cubes will have all three surfaces
painted with different colour blue, black and red.)

Ex 6. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces

painted ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 24
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces
painted = 24. And out of this -
(a) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with black and blue colour = 8.
(b) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with blue and red colour = 8.
(c) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted
with black and red color = 8.
Ex 7. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = 24. And out of this -
(a) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with black colour =8.
(b) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with blue colour = 8.
(c) Number of cubes with one surface painted
with red colour = 8.

TYPE III
If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way
that one pair of opposite surfaces is left
unpainted.
Directions : ( 8 to 11 ) A cube of side 4 cm is painted red
on the pair of one opposite surfaces, green on the
pair of another opposite surfaces and one pair of
opposite surfaces is left unpainted. Now the cube
is divided into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm
each.

Ex 8. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces

painted ?
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 20
Ex 9. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces Ex 11. How many smaller cubes will have no side painted
painted ? ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 16 (D) 24 (C) 22 (D) 8
Sol. (C) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces Sol. (B) Number of smaller cubes with no side painted
painted = Number of cubes present at the = Number of cubes on the two unpainted surfaces +
corners number of cubes present inside the cube.
+ Numbers of cubes present at 4 edges = (n ñ 2)2 " 2 + (n ñ 2)3 = 4 " 2 + (2)3 = 8 + 8 = 16.
= 8 + (n ñ 2) " 4 = 8 + 8 = 16
TYPE IV

If a cube is painted on its surfaces in such a way

that one pair of adjacent surfaces is left
unpainted.
Directions : (12 to 15 )A cube of side 4 cm is painted red
on the pair of one adjacent surfaces, green on the
pair of other adjacent surfaces and two adjacent
surfaces are left unpainted. Now the cube is
divided into 64 smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.

Ex 10. How many smaller cubes have only one

surface painted ?
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 24 (D) 32
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface
painted = Number of cubes present at the 8 Ex 12. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
edges painted ?
+ number of cubes present at the four surfaces= (A) 2 (B) 4
(n ñ 2) " 8 + (n ñ 2)2 " 4 (C) 8 (D) 6
= 2 " 8 + 4 " 4 = 16 + 16 = 32
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with three surfaces ?
painted = Number of smaller cubes at two corners (A) 18 (B) 16
=2 (C) 22 (D) 8
Sol. (A) Number of smaller cubes with no surfaces painted
Ex 13. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces = Number of smaller cubes from inside the big
painted ? cube + Number of cubes at two surfaces + Number
(A) 4 (B) 8
of cubes at one edge.
(C) 16 (D) 14 = (n ñ 2)3 + (n ñ 2)2 " 2 + (n ñ 2)
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces = (2)3 + (2)2 " + 2
painted = Number of smaller cubes at four = 8 + 8 + 2 = 18
corners
+ Number of smaller cubes at 5 edges. DICES
= 4 + (n ñ 2) " 5 = 4 + 2 " 5
= 4 + 10 = 14 Type-I
General Dice : In a general dice the sum of
Ex 14. How many smaller cubes have only one surface
numbers on the any two adjacent faces is ë7í.
painted ?
Standard Dice : In a standard dice the sum of
(A) 8 (B) 16
numbers on the opposite faces is '7'.
(C) 24 (D) 30
Sol. (D) Number of smaller cubes with one surface painted Ex 16. Which number is opposite 4 in a standard dice
= Number of smaller cubes at four surfaces + given below ?
Number of smaller cubes at 6 edges + Number of
smaller cubes at two corners.
1
= (n ñ 2)2 " 4 + (n ñ 2) " 6 + 2
= 4 " 4 + 2 " 6 + 2 = 16 + 12 = 28 + 2 = 30

Ex 15. How many smaller cubes will have no side

painted
 (common number) in block I and second number
Type-II in block II. Therefore, numbers 3 and 2 being the
first and second number to 4 in anticlockwise
Ex 17. The figures given below show the two different directions respectively, will appear in block I & II
positions of a dice. Which number will appear respectively.
opposite to number 2 ?.
Step IV. Consider figure (ii) and wire first and second
number in the anticlock-wise direction to number
4, (common number) in block (III) & (IV). Hence
numbers 6 and 5 will appear in the blocks III and
IV respectively.
(A) 3 (B) 4 Step V. Write remaining number in the remaining block.
(C) 5 (D) 6 Therefore, number 1 will come in the remaining
Sol. (C) The above question, block. Now, from the unfolded figures we find that
where only two positions number opposite to 6 is 3, number opposite to 2 is
of a dice are given, can 5 and number opposite to 4 is 1. Therefore, option
easily be solved with the (C) is our answer.
following method. ( Short Trick : From the given dice, we will take
the common number as the base and then in its
Step I. The dice, when unfolded, will appear as shown in
respect move clockwise direction and write as
the figure given on the right side.
follows : 4 ñ 2 ñ 3
Step II. Write the common number to both the dice in the 4 ñ 5 ñ 6.
middle block. Since common number is 4, hence Here,we find that number opposite to 6 is 3,
number 4 will appear in the central block. number opposite to 2 is 5 and number opposite to
4 is remaining number 1.
Step III. Consider the figure (i) and write the first number
Therefore, option (C) is our answer. )
in the anti-clockwise direction of number 4,
5
4 Ex 18. On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to
tell what number will be on the opposite face of
number
(A) 1 (B) 3 5?
(C) 5 (D) Canít be determined

Sol. Clearly , from the standard dice the sum of numbers

on the opposite faces is '7', so number opposite to
4 is 3.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6
Sol. (D) The above question where only two positions
of a dice are given, can easily be solved with the Type-V
following method :
If in the given dice, there are two numbers Ex 21. Which of the following dices is identical to the
common, then uncommon numbers will always be unfolded figure as shown here ?
opposite of each other.
Therefore, option (D) is our answer.

Type-III

Ex 19. From the following figures of dice, find which

number will come in place of ë?í
(X)

(A) (B)

(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 3
Sol. (D) If the above dice is unfolded, it will look like as Now the number in place of ë?í can be obtained by
the figure (i) given below. making a slight change in the figure as given here.
Now comparing figure (ii) with third dice as above,
we get that number in place of ? is 3.

Figure (i)
 (C) (D)

Figure (ii) Sol. (A) From the unfolded figure of dice, we find that
number opposite to 2 is 4, for 5 it is 3 and for 1 it
Type-IV is
6. From this result we can definitely say that figure
Ex 20. A dice has been thrown four times and produces (B), (C) and (D) can not be the answer figure as
following results. numbers lying on the opposite pair of surfaces are
present on the adjacent surfaces.

EXERCISE

Directions : (1 to 5) A cube is coloured orange on one

face, pink on the opposite face, brown on one
face and silver on a face adjacent to the brown
face. The other two faces are left uncoloured. It is
Which number will appear opposite to the number then cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal size.
3? Now answer the following questions based on
(A) 4 (B) 5
the above statements.
(C) 6 (D) 1
Sol. (A) From the figures (i), (ii) and (iv) we find that 1. How many cubes have at least one face coloured
numbers 6, 1, 5 and 2 appear on the adjacent pink ?
surfaces to the number 3. Therefore, number 4 (A) 1 (B) 9
will be opposite to number 3. (C) 16 (D) 25

2. How many cubes have all the faces uncoloured ?

(A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 48 (D) 64

3. How many cubes have at least two faces coloured

? (A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 21 (D) 23

4. How many cubes are coloured orange on one

face and have the remaining faces uncoloured ?
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 16
5. How many cubes one coloured silver on one face,
orange or pink on another face and have four
uncoloured faces ?
(A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 16
Directions : (6 to 11) A cube is painted red on two (A) 8 (B) 24
adjacent surfaces and black on the surfaces (C) 28 (D) 48
opposite to red surfaces and green on the
9. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
remaining faces. Now the cube is cut into sixty
painted ?
four smaller cubes of equal size.
(A) 4 (B) 8
6. How many smaller cubes have only one surface (C) 16 (D) 24
painted ?
10. How many smaller cubes with two surfaces
(A) 8 (B) 16
painted have one face green and one of the
(C) 24 (D) 32
adjacent faces black or red ?
7. How many smaller cubes will have no surface (A) 8 (B) 16
painted ? (C) 24 (D) 28
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 16 11. How many smaller cubes have at least one surface
painted with green colour ?
8. How many smaller cubes have less than three (A) 8 (B) 24
surfaces painted ?
 (C) 32 (D) 56
Directions : (17 to 21) The outer border of width 1 cm of a
Directions : (12 to 16) A cube of 4 cm has been painted cube with side 5 cm is painted yellow on each
on its surfaces in such a way that two opposite side and the remaining space enclosed by this 1
surfaces have been painted blue and two
cm path is painted pink. This cube is now cut into
adjacent surfaces have been painted red. Two
remaining surfaces have been left unpainted. Now 125 smaller cubes of each side 1 cm. The
the cube is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm smaller cubes so obtained are now seperated.
each.
17. How many smaller cubes have all the surfaces
12. How many cubes will have no side painted ?
uncoloured ?
(A) 18 (B) 16
(C) 22 (D) 8 (A) 0 (B) 9
(C) 18 (D) 27
13. How many cubes will have at least red colour on
its surfaces ?
18. How many smaller cubes have three surfaces
(A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 28 (D) 32 coloured ?
(A) 2 (B) 4
14. How many cubes will have at least blue colour on
(C) 8 (D) 10
its surfaces ?
(A) 20 (B) 8
19. How many cubes have at least two surfaces
(C) 24 (D) 32
coloured yellow ?
15. How many cubes will have only two surfaces (A) 24 (B) 44
painted with red and blue colour respectively ?
(C) 48 (D) 96
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 24 (D) 30
20. How many cubes have one face coloured pink
16. How many cubes will have three surfaces coloured ? and an adjacent face yellow ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 16
(C) 2 (D) 4

21. How many cubes have at least one face coloured

? (A) 27 (B) 98
(C) 48 (D) 121

Directions : (22 to 31) A solid cube has been painted

yellow, blue and black on pairs of opposite faces.
The cube is then cut into 36 smaller cubes such
that 32 cubes are of the same size while 4 others
are of bigger sizes. Also no faces of any of the
bigger cubes is painted blue.

22. How many cubes have at least one face painted

blue ?
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 32

23. How many cubes have only one faces painted ?

(A) 24 (B) 20
(C) 8 (D) 12

24. How many cubes have only two faces painted ?

(A) 24 (B) 20
(C) 16 (D) 8

25. How many cubes have atleast two faces painted ?

(A) 36 (B) 34
(C) 28 (D) 24

26. How many cubes have only three faces painted ?

(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 0
27. How many cubes do not have any of their faces 37. How many cubes will be formed?
painted yellow ?
(A) 6 (B) 12
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 16 (D) 24
(C) 8 (D) 16
38. If cubes having only black as well as green colour
28. How many cubes have at least one of their faces
are removed then how many cubes will be left?
painted black ?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(A) 0 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 20 (C) 16 (D) 30

29. How many cubes have at least one of their faces 39. How many cubes will have 4 coloured sides and
painted yellow or blue ? 2 sides without colour?
(A) 36 (B) 32 (A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 16 (D) 0 (C) 16 (D) 10

30. How many cubes have no face painted ? 40. How many cubes will have two sides with green
(A) 8 (B) 4 colour and remaining sides without any colour?
(C) 1 (D) 0 (A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 4
31. How many cubes have two faces painted yellow
and black respectively ?
(A) 0 (B) 8 41. Which alphabet is opposite D ?
(C) 12 (D) 16

Directions : (32 to 35) Some equal

cubes are arranged in the
form of a solid block as
shown in the adjacent (A) E (B) C
figure. All the visible (C) F (D) A
sufaces of the block (except
the bottom) are then 42. What should be the number opposite 4 ?
painted.
32. How many cubes do not have any of the faces
painted ?
(A) 27 (B) 8 (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) 10 (D) 12
(A) 5 (B) 1
33. How many cubes have one face painted ? (C) 3 (D) 2
(A) 9 (B) 24
(C) 22 (D) 20

34. How many cubes have only two faces painted ?

(A) 0 (B) 16 43.
(C) 20 (D) 24

35. How many cubes have only three faces painted ? (i) (ii)
(A) 4 (B) 12
(C) 6 (D) 20
Directions : (36 to 40) A cuboid of dimensions
(6 cm  4 cm  1 cm) is painted black on both the
surfaces of dimensions (4 cm  1 cm), green on (iii) (iv)
the surfaces of dimensions (6 cm  4 cm). and red
Which letter will be opposite to letter D ?
on the surfaces of dimensions (6 cm  1 cm). Now
(A) A (B) B
the block is divided into various smaller cubes of
(C) E (D) F
side 1 cm. each. The smaller cubes so
obtained are
separated.
Directions : (44 to 45) The figure (X) given below is the
36. How many cubes will have all three colours black, unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of the
green and red each at least on one side? following questions this unfolded figure is followed
(A) 16 (B) 12 by four different figures of dice. You have to select
(C) 10 (D) 8 the figure which is identical to the figure (X).
50. Which symbol will appear on the opposite surface
to the symbol x?

44. (X)

(A)  (B) =
(A) (B)
(C)  (D) O

51. Three positions of the same dice are given below.

Observe the figures carefully and tell which
(B) (D) number will come in place of ë?í

1
3 4
6 3 4
5 2 ?
(i)
(ii) (iii)
45. (X)
(A) 1 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 5

52. On the basis of the following figures you have to

tell which number will come in place of ë?í
3 4 ?
(A) (B)
6 1 2 6 1 5
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) (D) (C) 6 (D) 4
Directions : (46 to 48) In each of the following questions,
select the correct option for the question asked. Directions : (53 to 55) Choose from the alternatives, the
boxes that will be formed when figure (X) is folded:

(i) (ii)
53. (X)
46. Which number will come opposite to number 2?
(A) 5 (B) 1
(C) 6 (D) 3

47. Which number will come opposite to number 6?

(A) 1 (B) 5 (A) (B)
(C) 4 (D) 3

48. Which number will come opposite to number 4? (C) (D)

(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 2

49. On the basis of two figures of dice, you have to tell

what number will be on the opposite face of number +
5? 54. (X)

(A) (B)
(i) (ii)
+
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6 (C) (D)
 59.
55. (X)
(i) (ii)

(A) (B)

(iii) (iv)
Which number is opposite to number 5?
(C) (D) (A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 3

Directions : (60 to 64) Choose the cube from the options

that will unfold to give the figure on the left
Direction : (56) The six faces of a cube have been marked
with numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. This
cube is rolled down three times. The three X
positions are given. Choose the figure that will be 60.
formed when the cube is unfolded. M

56.
M X M
M X

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B)

4 1 8

61. 3
7
9
(C) (D)
9 7 8
1 8 4 1 8
7 7 74
57. Which number is opposite 3 in a standard dice
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
given below ?

62.
(A) 1 (B) 4 8
(C) 5 (D) Canít be determined
D

58. Which number is opposite 4 ?

8 8 D

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1 63.

Directions : (59) In the following question four positions of B

the same dice have been shown. You have to see
these figures and select the number opposite to B
the number as asked in each question.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

 66. Which number/letter is opposite 2 ?
J

64. 3 I C
A
B
2

J J

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Directions : (65 to 68) In each of the following questions, (A) A (B) C
a diagram has been given which can be folded (C) 1 (D) 3
into a cube. The entries given in the squares
indicate the entries on the face of the cube. In 67. Which number/letter is opposite O?
each question a number or a letter has been
given . Of the four alternatives given below it, you L
have to find the one that would appear on the face
N M 2
opposite to it in the cube.
I O
65. Which letter is opposite Q ?
(A) L (B) M
(C) N (D) 2

68. Which letter is opposite R?

Q Q R
O P LN S P
M
U T

(A) L (B) M (A) P (B) S

(C) N (D) P (C) T (D) U


 ANSWER KEY
FORCE AND NEWTONíS LAW OF MOTION(PHYSICS)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C C B A B D A ACD B C C C C C
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B D A A A C C D B B B B A D C
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B C B A A C B D A C A B D A A
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D D CD D A D D C B A,C C A,B,C B B B
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69
Ans. B A C C D C B B C

CARBON(CHEMISTRY)
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C C B B B A D A C B C D C B B
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 2223 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B A C B C B B A C C D C A B C
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
Ans. C B C A B D C B C A A

NUMBERSYSTEM(MATHEMATICS)
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A B A D A D C B A
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A A D A B A D B C C
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C A C C A B D B B
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. C B A A B D C C D C
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. C A D D A A C C C D
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. C D C C C A C B D D
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. A B B A A A B B B C
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. D A B C A A,D B D B A
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. D A B B B B B D D B
Q. 91
Ans. C
 TRIGONOMETRY(MATHEMATICS)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B C B A A C C C C
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D A B B D B D A D B
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B D B C C D C A A
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B D A D B A B B D D
Q. 41 42
Ans. A B

PROTOPLASM(BIOLOGY)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A. C D C A B A A C A D B A A D D
Q. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. C B D B B C D A D A C A A A B
Q. 31 32 33 34
A. A B D A

SERIES COMPLETION(MENTALABILITY)
EXERCISE-1(Number Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C D D A C D B C C C D C C B D
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C C C B A B D D A C B B C A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. C C C D D

EXERCISE- 2 (Alphabet Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D A D C C A D C D B D C C C D
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C A B C C C A B A C D B C D B

EXERCISE- 3 (Letter Repeating Series)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D D A A C B A C D D C B D C B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. C A A A C D D D A B D
 EXERCISE- 4 (Missing Term In Figure)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B D B D C C C D A D D B C A B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C A B B A C A D D A C D B A
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B B A C A C B C D B
PUZZLE-TEST(MENTALABILITY)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B D C A D C C C C C D C C B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C C D D C D D B B C A A D C D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D C B A B A D A D C D A C B D
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
Ans. C A D B D D D A C A A D B

CALENDAR AND CLOCK-TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D C B D D B C B C C A B C B A
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B B B B C B C D C B D C B B D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
Ans. D B D B A A C A D A C

CUBE AND DICE TEST(MENTAL ABILITY)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D C C D A C C D B B C A C D B
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C D C B A B D D A D C A D C B
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. C D C D C A D C B C B B A D B
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D A B C D A B D B D C B A C C
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans. A D E D C A B B