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IJSO-CHEMISTRY MODULE - (PART-1)

CONTENT

Sr. No. Topic Name Page No.

1. SOME BASICS OF CHEMISTRY 1 - 48

2. MOLE CONCEPT 49 - 104

3. ATOMIC STRUCTURE 105 - 153

4. GASEOUS STATE 154 - 208

5. PERIODIC TABLE 209 - 272

6. CHEMICAL BONDING 273 - 343


IJSO CHEMISTRY

CHEMISTRY-1. SOME BASICS OF CHEMISTRY

S.I. UNITS (System International Units)


 Seven Basic Units the seven basic physical quantities in the international system of units, their
symbols, the names of their units (called the base units) and the symbols of these units are given in
table.
TABLE SEVEN BASIC PHYSICAL QUANTITIES AND THEIR S.I. UNITS

Physical Quantity Symbol S.I. Unit Symbol


Length Metre m
Mass m Kilogram kg
Time t Second s
Electric current I Ampere A
Thermodynamic temperature T Kelvin K
Luminous intensity Candela cd
Amount of the substance n Mole mol

 Derived units- The units of all other physical quantities are derived from those of above basic
quantities. The units thus obtained are called the derived units. Some common physical quantities
and their derived units are shown in table.

TABLE SOME COMMON PHYSICAL QUANTITIES AND THEIR DERIVED UNITS

Physical Description Unit Symbol


Quantity
Area Length square Square metre m 2

Volume Length cube Cubic metre m 3

Density Mass/unit volume kilogram per cubic


metre
Velocity Distance/unit time Metre per second
Acceleration Speed change/unit time Metre per second
square
Force Mass Acceleration newton
Pressure Force/unit area Pascal (newton per
square metre)

Work energy Force Distance joule


Frequency Cycles/second hertz
Electric charge Current Time coulomb C = As
Potential - volt
difference
Electric resistance Reciprocal of resistance
Electric Potential- ohm
conductance difference/current

 Prefixes used with units the S.I. system recommends the multiples such as 103, 106, 109 etc and
fraction such as10–3, 10–6, 10–9 etc, i.e. the powers are the multiples of 3. These are indicated by

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special prefixes. These along with some other fractions or multiples in common use, along with their
prefixes are given below in table and illustrated for length (m)

TABLE SOME COMMONLY USED PREFIXES WITH THE BASE UNITS

Prefix Symbol Multiplication Factor Example


deci d 10 -1
1 decimetre (dm)=10 m -1

centi c 10 -2
1 centimetre (cm)=10 m -2

milli m 10 -3
1 millimetre (mm) = 10 m -3

micro 10 -6
1 micrometre ( m)=10 m -6

nano n 10 -9
1 nanometre (nm)=10 m -9

pico p 10 -12
1 picometre (pm)=10 m -12

femto f 10 -15
1 femtometre (fm)=10 m -15

atto a 10 -18
1 attometre (am)=10 m -18

deka da 10 1
1 decametre (dam)=10 m 1

hector h 10 2
1 hectometre (hm)=10 m 2

kilo k 10 3
1 kilometre (km)=10 m 3

mega M 10 6
1 megametre (Mm) = 10 m 6

giga G 10 9
1 gigametre (Gm)=10 m 9

tera T 10 12
1 teramerte ™=10 m12

peta P 10 15
1 petametre (Pm)=10 m 15

exa E 10 18
1 exametre (Em)=10 m 18

As volume is very often expressed in litres, it is important to note that the equivalence in S.I. units for
volume is as under
1 litre (1L) = 1 dm = 1000 cm
3 3

and 1 millilitre (1mL) = 1 cm = 1cc


3

Some important unit conversions:


1. Length 1 mile = 1760 yards
1 yard = 3 feet
1 foot = 12 inches
1 inch = 2.54 cm
= or
2. Mass 1 Ton = 1000 kg
1 Quintal = 100 kg
1 kg = 2.205 Pounds (lb)
1kg = 1000 g
1 gram = 1000 milli gram
1 a.m.u =
3. Volume 1 litre =
1 millilitre =
= 1 cc
4. Energy = 1 calorie = 4.184 joules 4.2 joules
1 joule = ergs
1 litre atmosphere (L-atm) = 101.3 joule
1 electron volt (Ev) = joule

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5. Pressure 1 atmosphere (atm) = 760 torr


=760mm of Hg
= 76 cm of Hg
= pascal (Pa)
=

Johann Berzelius, a swiss chemist suggested that the initial capital letter should represent a particular
element such as ‘O’ for oxygen, ‘H’ for the hydrogen and ‘C’ for Carbon and so on.

Symbols: A symbol is defined as an abbreviation or short hand sign for the full name of an element.

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Lecture 2 : Basic of Chemistry
Ions Name

H Hydride ion
Cl– Chloride ion

Br Bromide ion
I– Iodide ion
–2
O Oxide ion
Monoatomic anion
S–2 Sulfide ion
–3
N Nitride ion
P–3 Phosphide ion
–4
C Carbide ion
OH– Hydroxide ion

CN Cyanide ion
H+ Hydrogen ion
+
Na Sodium ion
Li+ Lithium ion
K+ Potassium ion
2+
Mg Magnesium ion
Be2+ Beryllium ion
2+
Cations with fixed valency Ca Calcium ion
Rb+ Rubidium ion
+
Cs Caesium ion
Sr2+ Strontium ion
2+
Ba Barium ion
Al3+ Aluminium ion
2+
Zn Zinc ion

Ions Name
Fe+2 Ferrous ion
Fe+3 Ferric ion
Cu+ Cuprous ion
Cu+2 Cupric
Hg+ Mercurous ion
Cations with variable valency Hg+2 Mercuric ion
Pb+2 Plumbous ion
Pb+4 Plumbic ion
Sn+2 Stannous ion
Sn+4 Stannic ion
Pt+2 Platinous ion
Pt+4 Platinic ion
SO24 Sulfate ion
SO32 Sulfite ion

HSO4 Bisulfate ion

HSO3 Bisulfite ion


Atomic anion variable
oxygen atoms NO3 Nitrate ion

NO2 Nitrite ion


Phosphate ion
PO43
Phosphite ion
PO33
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Ions Name
HPO24 Biphosphate ion
HPO32 Biphophite ion
CO32 Carbonate ion
HCO3 Bicarbonate ion

CH3COO Acetate ion

HCOO  Formate ion


Polyatomic anion with fixed number PbO 22 Plumbate ion
of oxygen atom Stannate ion
SnO22
ZnO22 Zincate ion

AlO2 Aluminate ion

MnO24 Manganate ion


MnO4 Permanganate ion

Cr2O92 dichromate ion

CrO 24 Chromate ion

Ions Name
ClO Hypochlorite ion
ClO2 Chlorite ion

ClO3 Chlorate ion

ClO4 Perchlorate

BrO  Hypobromite ion


Polyatomic anion with variable BrO2 Bromite ion
number of oxygen atom
BrO3 Bromate ion
BrO4 Perbromate ion
IO  Hypoiodite ion
IO 2 Iodite ion
IO3 Iodate ion
IO 4 Periodate ion

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Nomenclature of ions:
for Anions:
1. Monoatomic anions are named by ending with suffix__ide ion.

2. Polyatomic anions with fixed no. of O-atoms are named with suffix__ate ion

3. Polyatomic anions with variable no. of O- atoms are named with suffix __ ate ion(higher no. O-
atoms) and with suffix ___ite ion( lower no. pf O-atoms). If more than two variable no. of O-atoms
are possible, then polyatomic anions with extreme lowest no. of O-atom are named with prefix
“hypo” and highest no. of O-atoms are named with prefix “per”.

For Cations:

1. Cations with fixed valency are named by their elemental name followed by word ion.

2. Cations with variable valency are named by ending with suffix __ic ion( higher valency) and with
suffix __ous ion(lower valency).

Balancing a chemical equation:

Rules:

1. Elements with a maximum appearance in many reactants and products are recognized as having the
highest frequency number( frequently appeared in the chemical equation) in the equation., such
elements are balanced at the last.

2. If two are more elements are having same frequency number, then metallic element is balanced first.

3. If elements which have maximum frequency are metallic elements then metallic element with the
highest atomic number is balanced first. same goes for non-metals.

OXIDATION NUMBER
 It represent the number of electron gained or lost by atom when it changes into compound
from a free state.
 It is the charge developed on an atom when atom is in combination.
 It electron are gained by an atom in the formation of compound, oxidation number is given
(+)ve sign.
 It represents the real charge in case of ionic compounds and represents the imaginary charge in
case of covalent compounds.
 Maximum oxidation number of an element is equal to group number which belongs in the
periodic table.
 Minimum oxidation number of an element is equal to (group number – 8)
I group elements always shows +1 as oxidation number
II Group elements always shows +2 as oxidation number
III Group elements always shows +3 oxidation number
IV Group shows – 4 to + 4 oxidation number
V Group shows – 3 to +5 oxidation number
VI Group shows – 2 to + 6 oxidation number
VII Group shows – 1 to + 7 oxidation number (except F)
Inert gases always shows zero oxidation number

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OXIDATION STATE
Oxidation state of an atom is defined as oxidation number per atom for all practical purposes. Oxidation
state is often expressed as oxidation number.
The rules to derive oxidation number or oxidation state
(a) The oxidation state of an element in its free state is zero. Example, oxidation state of Na, Cu, I,
CI, O etc. are zero.
(b) Sum of oxidation state of all the atoms in a neutral molecule is zero.
(c) Sum of oxidation state of all the atoms in a complex ion is equal to number of charge present
on it.
(d) In complex compounds, oxidation state of some neutral molecules (ligands) is zero. Example
CO, NO, NH3 , H2 O .
(e) Generally oxidation state of Oxygen is –2 but in H2O2 it is –1 and in OF2 it is +2.
(f) Generally oxidation state of Hydrogen is +1 but in metallic hydrides it is –1.
(g) Generally oxidation state of Halogen atoms is –1 but on interhalogen compounds it changes.
(h) Generally oxidation state of alkali metals is +1 and that of alkaline earth metals is +2.
(i) Oxidation state of transition elements varies from compound to compound. Mn has oxidation
state from +1 to +7.
Mn 2O  1 MnO  2 Mn 3O4  8 / 3 MnO2   4 Mn 2 O5   5
MnO 4 2   6 MnO 4   7
(i) Oxidation state of an atom may be fractional, negative, zero as well as positive.

Special note: Sometimes same atom in a compound has different oxidation state for example,
structures of Na 2S2O3 is
S2

Na O S1 O Na

O
Here S1 and S2 both are sulphur atoms but they have different oxidation state
Oxidation state of S1  6
Oxidation state of S2  2 (it is accepting two electrons form S1 )
62
Average oxidation state of S  2
2

Oxidation state as a periodic property


Oxidation state of an atom depends upon the electronic configuration of an atom i.e. why it is periodic
property.
(a) I A group of alkali metals show +1 oxidation state.
(b) II A group or alkaline earth metals show +2 oxidation state.
(c) The maximum normal oxidation state, show b III A group elements is +3. These elements
also show +2 to +1 oxidation states also.
(d) Elements of IV A group show their maximum and minimum oxidation states +4 and -4
respectively.
(e) Non metals shows number of oxidation states, the relation between maximum and minimum
oxidation states for non metals is equal to (maximum oxidation state – minimum oxidation
state = 8).
For example sulphur has maximum oxidation number +6 as being in VI A group element.

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Fractional oxidation states


Most of elements show fractional oxidation states. For example oxidation state of oxygen in superoxide of
alkali metals  KO 2 , SO 2 , RbO 2  is – 1/2.
e.g. In Fe3O4 , Fe shows its oxidation state as 8/3 as it is a mixed oxide and can be written as
Fe II Fe 2III O 4 . Similarly oxidation states of Boron in B4O10 and B5 H9 is – 2.5 and – 1.8 respectively.

APPLICATION OF OXIDATION NUMBER


(1) To compare the strength of acid and base:
Strength of acid Oxidation number
1
Strength of base
Oxidation Number
Example: Order of acidic strength in HCIO, HCIO2 , HCIO3 , HCIO4 will be.
Solution: Oxidation Number of chlorine
HCIO (Hypo chlorous acid) +1
(Chlorous acid) +3
(Chloric acid) +5
(Perchloric acid) +7
Strength of acid Oxidation number
So the order will be
HCIO4  HCIO3  HCIO2  HCIO
(2) To determine the oxidizing and reducing nature:
Group Range of Oxidation Number
(n – 8) to n
IA +1
IIA +2
IIIA +1, +3
IVA – 4 to +4
VA – 3 – to +5
VIA – 2 to +6
[Exception Oxidation of F is – 1]
VIIA – 1 to +7
[Exception Oxidation of F is – 1]
 If any compound is in maximum oxidation state (n), then it will act as only oxidant.
 If compound is in minimum oxidation state (n – 8) then it will act as only reductant.
 If oxidation state is intermediate then compound can act as reductant as well as oxidant
both.
Ex.  Oxidation number of S in H2S  2 minimum
So act as reducant.
 Oxidation number of N in HNO2  3
So act as reductant as well as oxidant both
 Oxidising strength  Oxidation number
1
 Reducing strength 
Oxidation Number

(3) To calculate the equlvalent weight


Equivalent weights of oxidizing and reducing agents.
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The equivalent weight of an oxidizing agent is that weight which accepts one mole electron in a
chemical reaction.
(a) Equivalent weight of an oxidant (get reduced)
Molecular weight

Number of electrons gained by one mole
Ex. In acidic medium
6e   Cr2 O 72   14H  
 2Cr 3  7H 2O
Here atoms which undergoes reduction is Cr its oxidation state is decreasing from +6 to +3
Molecular weight of K 2 Cr2 O7 Molecular weight
Equivalent weight of K 2Cr2 O7  
3 2 6
Note: [6 in denominator indicates that 6 electrons were gained by Cr2 O 72  as it is clear from
the given balanced equation]

(b) Similarly equivalent weight of a reducant (gats oxidized)


Molecular weight

Number of electrons lost by one mole
Ex. In acidic medium, C2 O42  
 2CO 2  2e 
Molecular weight
Here, Total electrons lost = 2 So, equivalent weight 
2

(c) In different condition a compound may have different equivalent wts. Because, it
depends upon the number of electrons gained or lost by that compound in that reaction.
MnO 4   Mn 2  acidic medium 
Ex. (i)
 7   2 
Here 5 electrons are taken so equivalent weight
Molecular weight of KMnO4 158
   31.6
5 5
MnO 4   Mn 2 (neutral medium)
(ii)
 7   2 
Here, only 3 electrons are gained, so equivalent weight
Molecular weight of KMnO4 158
   52.7
3 3
MnO 4   MnO4 2  alkaline Medium 
(iii)
 7   6 
Here, only one electron is gained, so equivalent weight
Molecular weigh of KMnO4
  158
1
Note: It is important to note that KMnO4 acts as an oxidant in every medium although with
different strength which follows the order –
acidic medium > neutral medium > alkaline medium
while, K 2Cr2O7 acts as an oxidant only in acidic medium as follows
Cr2 O 72  
 2Cr 3
 2  6  
  2  3
Here, 6 electrons are gained so equivalent weight
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Molecular weight K 2 Cr2 O7 294.21


   49.03
6 6
(d) It is clear that KMnO4 is better oxidant than K 2Cr2O7 .
The equivalent weight of a reducing agent is the weight which donates one electron in a
chemical reaction.
Ex. 2S2 O3   S4 O 6  e 
(R. A)
2M
equivalent weight of S2O3  M
2
(4) To determine the molecular formula of compound
Ex. Suppose that there are three atoms A, B, C and their oxidation number are 6, 1, 2,
respectively. Then the molecular formula of compound will be.
Sol. Since, the charge on a free compound is zero. So
+6 = ( 1 x 4) + ( 2)
+6 = 6
or +6 = ( 1 x 2) + ( 2 x 2)
= 2 + ( 4) = 6
So molecular formula, AB4C or AB2C2
Remember:
When metals participate in chemical reaction, they are always oxidized. Thus metals always behave
like reducing agents.
 The acidic nature of non – metal oxide increases with increasing oxidation state of the
non–metal.
 The strength of oxy – acid of an element increases with increasing oxidation state of the
element.
Strength of oxy – acid of nitrogen increases in the following order.
1 3 5
H2 N2 O2  HNO 2  HNO3
Hyponitrous acid Nitrous acid Nitric acid
 Weakest acid 
 An element in its lowest state in its compound behave like a reducing agent only.
 Metals exist in mixed oxidation states in non – stoichiometric compounds.
For Example: Oxidation state of Fe in Fe0.94 O is +2 and +3
 The oxidation state of iron in ferro compounds is +2 while in ferric compounds, it is in +3
oxidation state.
 The formula of the anhydride of an oxy – acid of an element can be calculated as follows:
Acid anhydride
Oxy  acid 1 2
CI O
H 1 CIO

CI 2 O
Acid anhydride
Oxy  acid 3 2
N O
H 1 CIO

N2O3

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TYPES OF CHEMICAL REACTION:


A chemical reaction is a process generally characterized by a chemical change in which the starting
materials (reactants) are different from the products. Chemical reactions tend to involve the motion
of electrons, leading to the breaking and formation of chemical bonds. There are several different types of
chemical reactions and more than one way of classifying them. Here are some common reaction types:

DIRECT COMBINATION OR ADDITION REACTION:


In a synthesis reaction, two or more chemical species combine to form a more complex product.
A + B → AB
The combination of iron and sulfur to form iron (II) sulfide is an example of a synthesis reaction:
8 Fe + S8 → 8 FeS

CHEMICAL DECOMPOSITION OR ANALYSIS REACTION:


In a decomposition reaction, a compound is broken into smaller chemical species.
AB → A + B
The electrolysis of water into oxygen and hydrogen gas is an example of a decomposition reaction:
2 H2O → 2 H2 + O2

SINGLE DISPLACEMENT REACTION OR SUBSTITUTION REACTION:


A substitution or single displacement reaction is characterized by one element being displaced from a
compound by another element.
A + BC → AC + B
An example of a substitution reaction occurs when zinc combines with hydrochloric acid. The zinc
replaces the hydrogen:
Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

Following is the list of metals in the order of their decreasing chemical reactivities:
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > [H] > Cu > Hg > Ag (F > Cl > Br > I)

METATHESIS OR DOUBLE DISPLACEMENT REACTION:


In a double displacement or metathesis reaction two compounds exchange bonds or ions in order to form
different compounds.
AB + CD → AD + CB
An example of a double displacement reaction occurs between sodium chloride and silver nitrate to form
sodium nitrate and silver chloride.
NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → NaNO3(aq) + AgCl(s)

ACID-BASE REACTION:
An acid-base reaction is a type of double displacement reaction that occurs between an acid and a base. The
H+ ion in the acid reacts with the OH- ion in the base to form water and an ionic salt:
HA + BOH → H2O + BA
The reaction between hydrobromic acid (HBr) and sodium hydroxide is an example of an acid-base reaction:
HBr + NaOH → NaBr + H2O

COMBUSTION:
A combustion reaction is a type of redox reaction in which a combustible material combines with an
oxidizer to form oxidized products and generate heat (exothermic reaction). Usually, in a combustion
reaction oxygen combines with another compound to form carbon dioxide and water. An example of a
combustion reaction is the burning of naphthalene:
C10H8 + 12 O2 → 10 CO2 + 4 H2O.

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OXIDATION-REDUCTION OR REDOX REACTION:

Many chemical reactions involved in transfer in transfer of electrons from one chemical substance to
another. These electron – transfer reaction are termed as Oxidation – Reduction of Redox reactions.
Or
 Those reactions which involves oxidation and reduction both simultaneously are known as oxidation
and reduction or Redox Reaction.
Or
 Those reaction which involves increase in oxidation number and decrease in oxidation number
simultaneously are known as Oxidation and Reduction or Redox Reaction.

OXIDATION AND REDUCTION


There are four concepts for oxidation and reduction reactions.
(A) Classical concept (B) Modern concept
(C) Valency concept (D) Oxidation number concept

(A) Classical concept:According to this concept, oxidation and reduction can be explained as
(a) Oxidation: Oxidation is a process which involves
(i) Addition of oxygen
Ex. 2Mg  O 2   2MgO (Oxidation of Magnesium)
(ii) Removal of hydrogen
Ex. H 2S  CI 2   2HCI  S (Oxidation of Hydrogen sulphide)
(iii) Addition of electronegative element
Ex. Fe + S   FeS (Oxidation of iron)
(iv) Removal of electropositive element
Ex. 2Nal  H 2 O 2   2NaOH  I 2 (Oxidation of Nal)
(v) Increment in oxidation state of electropositive element
SnCl2  Cl2  SnCl4  Oxidation of Nal 
Ex.
Cn 2 Sn  4
(b) Reduction: Reduction is a process which involves
(i) Removal of oxygen
Ex. CuO + C   Cu + CO (Reduction of cupric oxide)
(ii) Addition of hydrogen
Ex. N 2  3H 2   2NH 3 (Reduction of Nitrogen)
(iii) Removal of electronegative element
Ex. 2HgCl2  SnCl 2   Hg 2Cl  SnCl 4
(iv) Addition of electropositive element
Ex. HgCl 2  Hg   Hg 2 Cl 2 (Reduction of mercuric chloride)
(v) Decrement in oxidation state of electropositive element
CuSO 4  Fe   FeSO 4  Cu  Reduction of CuSO 4 
Ex.
Cu  2 Cu 0

(B) Modern concept of Electronic concept


(i) Oxidation: According to this concept the process which involves the loss of one or more
electrons from an atom or an ion or molecule is called oxidation (de – electro nation).

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Ex.  M  n  ne 
M 
Mg   Mg   2e 
(ii) Reduction: According to this concept, the process which involves gain of one or more
electrons by an atom or ion or molecule is called reduction (electro nation).
Ex. M  n 2   n 2  n1  e  
 M  n1
(C) Valency concept of oxidation and reduction
(i) Oxidation: According to this concept, it is the process in which increase in (+) ve
valency or decrease in (-) ve valency of a substance takes place.
2Mg  O 2   2MgO
Ex.
 0 2
(ii) Reduction: According to this concept, the process in which (+)ve valency decreases
whereas (-) ve valency increases
2HgCl2  SnCl2   Hg 2Cl2  SnCl4
Ex.
 2   1
(D) Oxidation number concept
(i) Oxidation: According to this concept, the oxidation no. of an element in a reaction
increases.
(ii) Reduction: According to this concept, the oxidation no. of an element in a reaction
decreases.
Example:
6H   2MnO 4  5H 2S   2Mn 2  5S  8H 2O
Mn 2 S2 Mn 2 S0

Redox reaction involves two half reactions, one involving loss of electron called half oxidation
reaction and the other involving gain of electron called half reduction reaction.

Ex.

OXIDIZING AGENTS OR OXIDANTS (O. A.)


It is the substance which accepts electrons in a chemical reaction i.e., electron acceptors are oxidizing agent.
(i) Oxidising agents are lewis acids.
(ii) Substance which can oxidises others and reduces themselves.
(iii) Substances which shows the decrement in oxidation number.
Some important oxidation agents or oxidant.
 All high electronegative elements like N, O, F, CI etc.
 All metallic oxides like Li 2O, Na 2 O, Na 2O2 , CO2 , CaO, MgO, BaO2 etc.
 Some nonmetallic oxides like CO2 , SO2 , H 2O2 , O3
 All neutral compound or ion in which element shows their highest no or state, will act as
oxidant or oxidizing agent like KMnO4 , H2SO4 , SnCl4 , H3PO4 , K 2Cr2O7 , HCIO4 , CuCI 2 ,
HNO3 , H 2SO5 , FeCI3 , HgCI2 etc.
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REDUCING AGENT OR REDUCTANT (R. A.)


The substance which donates electrons in a chemical reaction is called reducing agent i.e., electrons donor
are reducing agents.
(i) Reducting agents are lewis bases.
(ii) Substances which can reduce other and oxidise themselves.
(iii) Substances which show the increment in oxidation number.
Some important reducing agent or reductant
 All metal like, K, Mg, Ca, etc.
 All metallic hydrides like NaH, CaH 2 , LiAIH 4 , NaBH 4 , AIH3 etc.
 All hydroacids like HF, HCI, HBr, H 2s, etc
 Some organic compound or ions, in which element shows their lowest oxidation no. or state,
will act as reductant or reducing agent MnO, HCIO, HCIO2 , H3PO2 , HNO2 , H2SO3 , FeCI 2 ,
SnCI 2 , Hg 2 CI 2 , CH 2CI2 etc

Special points
 Some important compound which can acts as oxidant and reductant both.
HNO2 , SO2 , H2O2 , O3 , AI 2O3 , CrO 2 , MnO2 , ZnO, CuO, AI2O3 , CrO2 , MnO2 , ZnO, CuO are
called as amphoteric oxide.

EXAMPLES OF REDOX REACTION:

Oxidant Reductant
S. No. Reaction
(Getting Reduced) (Getting Oxidised)
1. C  O 2 
 CO 2 O[0  -2] C[0  +4]
2. PbS  4H 2 O 2 
 PbSO 4  4H 2O O[-1 
 -2] S[-2 
 +6]
3. Sn  2F2 
 SnF4 F[0 
 -1] Sn[0 
 +4]
4. SO 2  2H 2 O  Cl2 
 2HCI  H 2SO 4 Cl[0 
 -1] S[+4 
 +6]
5. I 2  10HNO 3 
 2HIO 3  10NO 2  4H 2O N[+5 
 +4] I[0 
 +5]
6. CuO  H 2 
 Cu  H 2 O Cu[+2 
 0] H[0 
 +1]
7. 2KMnO 4  3H 2SO 4  5H 2S 
 Mn[+7 
 +2] S[-2 
 0]
K 2SO4  2MnSO4  8H2O  5S
8. H 2 O 2  Ag 2 O 
 2Ag  H 2 O  O 2 Ag[+1 
 0] O[-1 
 0]
 Oxygen of H 2O 2 
9. H 2SO 4  2HI 
 SO 2  I 2  2H 2 O S[+6 
 +4] 1[-1 
 0]

Types of Redox reaction


(a) Intermolecular redox reaction: When oxidation and reduction take place separately in the
different compounds, celled intermolecular redox reaction.
SnCI 2  2FeCI3  SnCl 4  2FeCl 2
Sn  2 
 Sn  4  Oxidation 
Fe 3 
 Fe 2  Reduction 

(b) Intra molecular redox reaction: During the chemical reaction, if oxidation and reduction take
place in single compound ten reaction is called intramolecular redox reaction.
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2KCIO3 KCI  3O2


CI5 O2 CI1 O0

Oxidation
Reduction

(c) Disproportionation reaction: When reduction and oxidation takes place on same element of a
compound is called disproportionation reaction.
H2 O2 H2O  1 / 2 O2
O1 O2 O0
Reduction

Oxidation

BASICS OF CHEMISTRY
EXERCISE-1

1. The scientist who suggested a method of representing elements using English Capital Letters
__________.
(1) J J Thomson (2) J J Berzelius (3) John Dalton (4) Neils Bohr

2. ‘O’ stands for the symbol of:


(1) Osmium (2) Oxygen (3) Aluminium (4) Aurum

3. The symbol of cobalt


(1) C (2) CO (3) Co (4) Cu

4. Germanium symbol is
(1) Ge (2) Ga (3) G (4) Gr

5. Symbol “Al” stands for


(1) Aluminium (2) Alumina (3) Alumonium (4) Aluminas

6. Symbol of Iron
(1) Fe (2) F (3) FE (4) I

7. Latin name of Tungsten is:


(1) Wolfram (2) Stibium (3) Aurum (4) Natrium

8. Symbols for gold and mercury respectively are:


(1) Au, Hg (2) Go, Me (3) G, M (4) Ge, Mo

9. The name of the planet after which the element is named as Neptunium
(1) Uranus (2) Neptune (3) Pluto (4) Mars

10. The element named after the name of Ernico Fermi is _________.
(1) Neptunium (2) Plutonium (3) Fermium (4) Radium

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11. ‘N’ stands for the symbol of


(1) Nitrogen (2) Natrium (3) Niobium (4) Nickel

12. Lattin name of ‘Lead’


(1) Plumbum (2) Stibium (3) Aurum (4) Natrium

13. Rubidium symbol is


(1) Rb (2) RB (3) R (4) Ri

14. The name of the planet after which the element is named as plutonium?
(1) Uranus (2) Neptune (3) Pluto (4) Mars

15. The latin name of sodium


(1) Natrium (2) Stribium (3) Aurum (4) Wolfram

16. The symbol of an element is Hg. Identify the name of the element.
(1) Gold (2) Mercury (3) Hafnium (4) Holmium

17. The symbol of carbon monoxide


(1) Co (2) CO (3) Co2 (4) Hg

18. The latin names for iron, copper and tin are:
(1) Cuprum, Ferrum and Stannum (2) Ferrum, Cuprum and Stannum
(3) Stannum, Ferrum and Cuprum (4) Plumbum, Ferrum and Cuprum

19. The symbol of Rhodium


(1) Rh (2) Rv (3) Rd (4) Rp

20. The atomic number Bromine


(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 80 (4) 35

Matrix Match type:


21.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Krypton 1 18
(b) Argon 2 10
(c) Neon 3 36
(d) Xenon 4 54
(e) Radon 5 86

Integer Answer type:

22. Atomic No. of silver __________.

23. Which one of the following is correct statement


(1) The symbols of rhodium is RH (2) The atomic number of chlorine is 17
(3) The symbol of krypton is Kr (4) The symbol of boron is B

24. Which of the following is Incorrect statement?


(1) The symbol of calcium C (2) The symbol of chromium ‘ch’
(3) The symbol of zirconium Zi (4) The atomic number of mercury is 80
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Level - 1

Single correct choice type

1. Symbol of Curium is
(1) Cm (2) Cu (3) Cr (4) Ci

2. The symbol for the element Astatine is:


(1) As (2) At (3) Ai (4) An

3. Symbol La stands for


(1) Lanthanum (2) Lanthanim (3) Lanthaniod (4) Larensium

4. The symbol of Osmium


(1) O (2) Os (3) Om (4) Oi

5. The latin name of copper


(1) Copper (2) Cuprum (3) Ferrum (4) Stannum

6. The latin name of silver is:


(1) Natrium (2) Cuprum (3) Stannum (4) Argentum

7. The Latin names for the elements Tungsten, Potassium and Sodium are:
(1) Wolfram, Kalium and Argentum (2) Kalium, Wolfram and Natrium
(3) Wolfram, Stannum and Natrium (4) Wolfram, Kalium and Natrium

8. The symbol of Holmium


(1) Hb (2) Ho (3) Hm (4) Hn

Multi correct choice type:

9. The element named after the scientist name is/are:


(1) Mendelevium (2) Fermium (3) Nobelium (4) Curium

10. The elements named after countries names is/are:


(1) Curium (2) Neptunium (3) Californium (4) Berkelium

Level – 2 & 3

11. The atomic number of ‘Zirconium’


(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 39 (4) 40

12. The atomic number of mercury


(1) 79 (2) 80 (3) 76 (4) 77

13. Which of the following is correct statement?


(1) The symbol of Berillium ‘B’ (2) The symbol of krypton k
(3) The atomic number of silver is 47 (4) The atomic number of cerium 58

14. Which the following is correct


(1) Tellurium - Te (2) Mercury - Hg (3) Iridium - Ir (4) Osmium-Os

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Level – 4 & 5

15. The element Nobelium named after the name of the scientist is:
(1) Madam Curie (2) Mendeleev (3) Alfred Nobel (4) Enrico Fermi

16. Which the following is correct


(1) Atomic number of Palladium is 46 (2) Atomic number of Gallium is 31
(3) Atomic number of Bromine is 35 (4) Atomic number of Zirconium is 40

Matrix Match

17.
Column - I Column - II
At. No. Symbol
1 107 (a) Rf
2 105 (b) Db
3 103 (c) Lr
4 104 (d) Bh

EXERCISE-2

1. The valency of argentous (Ag+) ion is:


(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

2. The valency of carbon


(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0

3. The valency of Helium


(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 4

4. Ferric ion is
(1) Fe+ (2) Fe+2 (3) Fe+3 (4) Fe

5. Cuprous ion is
(1) Cu+2 (2) Cu+3 (3) Cu+1 (4) Cu

6. The valency of hydrogen


(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 3

7. The lower valency of mercury is:


(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

8. Higher valency of iron is


(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 0

9. The charge of ferrous ion


(1) Fe+ (2) Fe+2 (3) Fe+3 (4) Fe

10. The higher valency of Cu is:


(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2

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Level – 1
Single correct choice type

1. When element exbits more than one Valency it is said to be


(1) Single Valency (2) Double Valency (3) Triple Valency (4) Variable valancy

2. The valency of ‘Mg’


(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

3. The valency of Ammonium ion


(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

4. Which of the following is monovalent ion


(1) Potassium (2) Magnesium (3) Zinc (4) Aluminium

5. The higher valency of Phosphorus


(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 4

6. The higher valency of lead


(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Multi correct choice type:

7. Identify the following trivalent positive ions


(1) Chromium (2) Aluminium (3) Ferric (4) Proton

8. Which of the following elements have valency ‘o’


(1) Helium (2) Neon (3) Argon (4) Radon

Level – 2 & 3

9. Radicals are formed by the loss of electron (or) electrons, such radicals are called _________.
(1) Anions (2) Cations (3) Compounds (4) Molecules

10. Radicals are formed by the gain of electrons, such radicals are called
(1) Anions (2) Cations (3) Compounds (4) Molecules

11. Name the cation which is having the valency 5


(1) Platinum (2) Arsenic (3) Lead (4) Cobalt

12. The valency of iron in Ferric chloride


(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2

Comprehension Type:
The combining capacity of an element is called its valency. It is given by the number of hydrogen or
chlorine atoms that combine atoms that combine with or displaced from a compound by one atom of the
element. If an element exhibits two different positive valencies, the suffix-ous is attached at the end of the
name of the metal for higher valency.

13. (i) The name of the element with lower valency in a compound ends with suffix __________.
(ii) The name of the element with higher valency ends with suffix ___________.

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(i) (ii)
(1) ous ous
(2) ic ous
(3) ous ic
(4) ic ic

14. Identify tetravalent ion from the following.


A) Chromous B) Stannic C) Auric D) Mercurous
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Only D

15. Which of the following statement is correct?


(1) The combining capacity of an element is called its valency
(2) The valency of sodium is 2
(3) Oxygen valency and charge is + 2
(4) None

Level – 4 & 5

16. The valency o Nitrogen


(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

17. The higher valency of antimony


(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 0

Multi correct type:

18. In which of the following compounds valency of metal is 2?


(1) FeCl2 (2) FeCl3 (3) Cu2Cl2 (4) CuCl2

19. Matrix Match Type:


Column - I Column - II
1 Cobalt (a) Trivalent
2 Platinum (b) Tetravalent
3 Potassium (c) Monovalent
4 Cadmium (d) Bivalent
(e) Pentavalent

EXERCISE-3

1. An element has electronegative valency if it accepts.


(1) Proton (2) Electron (3) Nutron (4) Meson

2. The positive or negative valencies of ions or radicals present in a compound add upto _________
(1) One (2) Three (3) Zero (4) None

3. The symbolic representation of one molecule of a compound representing a number of atoms of


various elements in it is called
(1) Formula (2) Equation (3) Valency (4) None

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4. The charge of superoxide is:


(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) –3 (4) 0

5. The charge of peroxide ion


(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) –3 (4) –4

6. Cyanide ion is represented as:


(1) CN– (2) SNC– (3) SN– (4) None

7. The charge of Permanganate ion


(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) –3 (4) –4

8. The formula of aluminium sulphate is:


(1) Al2(SO4)3 (2) Al2(SO3)4 (3) Al3(SO3)3 (4) Al2S3

9. The formula of baking soda


(1) Na2CO3.10H2O (2) NaHCO3 (3) Na2SO4 (4) NaHSO4

10. The formula for mercurous chloride is


(1) HgCl2 (2) Hg2Cl2 (3) HgCl3 (4) All the above

11. The charge of carbide is:


(1) –4 (2) 4 (3) –2 (4) 6

12. The chemical formula of washing soda (sodium carbonate deca hydrate) is:
(1) Na2CO3.7H2O (2) Na2CO3.H2O (3) Na2CO3.10H2O (4) Na2CO3

13. The molecular formula of glauber’s salt is


(1) MgSO4.7H2O (2) Na2SO4.10H2O (3) FeSO4.7H2O (4) Na3PO4.10H2O

14. The charge of oxide ion is


(1) –2 (2) –1 (3) –3 (4) –4

15. The charge of superoxide ion


(1) –1/2 (2) –2 (3) –1 (4) 0

16. The charge of carbide ion


(1) –1 (2) –3 (3) –4 (4) –5

17. Sulphate, bisulphate ions are respectively


2 2 2 1 2 3 2 3
(1) SO4 ,HSO4 (2) SO4 ,HSO4 (3) SO4 ,SO4 (4) SO4 ,HSO4

18. Sulphite and Sulphate ions are respectively:


    2 2 2 2
(1) SO3 and SO4 (2) SO4 and SO3 (3) SO3 and SO4 (4) SO4 and SO3

19. The formula of ‘gypsum’ is


(1) CaSO 4 . 1 H 2 O (2) CaSO4 (3) CaSO4.2H2O (4) CaSO4.5H2O
2

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20. The formula of “Dolomite”


(1) CaCO3.MgCO3 (2) CaSO 4 . 1 H 2 O (3) CaSO3 (4) MgSO4
2
21. The formula of calcium hydroxide
(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) CaO (3) Ca(OH) (4) Ca(OH)3

22. The charge on phosphide ion


(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) –3 (4) –4

23. Which of the following is/are monovalent negative ion


(1) Hydroxide (2) Cyanide (3) Chloride (4) Bromide

24. The formula of Aluminium nitride


(1) AlN (2) AlN3 (3) Al3N (4) AlN2

25. The formula of “lead nitrate”


(1) Pb(NO3)2 (2) PbNO3 (3) PbNO2 (4) Pb(NO2)2

Statement type:

26. Statement I: The formula of calcium carbonate is CuCO3


Statement II: The formula of sodium chloride is NaCl
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

27.
Column - I Column - II
(1) HSO  i Oxide
4
(2) CO32 ii Peroxide
(3) O–2 iii Bisulphate
(4) P–3 iv Phosphide
v Carbonate

28.
Column - I Column - II
(1) MnO  i Manganate
4
(2) Cr2O72 ii Chromate
(3) O21 iii Oxide
(4) O22 iv Peroxide
v Superoxide

Integer Answer type:

29. The valency of hypochlorite ion is

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Matrix Match type:


30.
Column - I Column - II
1 Mercurous chloride i PbCrO4
2 Lead chromate ii CaOCl2
3 Carbondioxide iii CO2
4 Calcium oxychloride iv Hg2Cl2
v H2SO4

Comprehension Type:
The representation of a molecule of a substance (element or compound in terms of symbols and subscript
numbers is known as the formula

31. A metal M forms a compound MPO4. What will be the formula of the metal oxide?
(1) M2O4 (2) M2O3 (3) M2O5 (4) MO

32. Chemical formula for sodium sulphate is Na2SO4. The formula of sodium oxide
(1) Na2O2 (2) Na2O (3) NaO2 (4) NaO

33. Chemical formula of Magnesium oxide is


(1) MgO (2) Mg2O (3) Mg3O2 (4) MgO2

Single correct choice type

1. The charge of Bromide ion is:


(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) –3 (4) 0

2. The charge of hypochlorite ion is:


(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) –3 (4) –4

3. The charge on sulphite ion


(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) –3 (4) –4

4. The charge of Thiosulphate ion


(1) –1 (2) –2 (3) –4 (4) –3

5. Carbonate and bicarbonate ions are respectively:


2  2 2 2 2 2 2
(1) CO3 , HCO3 (2) CO2 , HCO3 (3) CO , HCO3 (4) CO3 , HCO2

6. The formula of Aluminium sulphite


(1) Al2  SO 4 3 (2) Al2  SO 4  4 (3) Al2  SO3 3 (4) AlSO4

7. Phosphate has the chemical formula


2 3 4 1
(a) PO4 (b) PO4 (c) PO4 (d) PO4

8. The symbol of dichromate


2 3 1 4
(a) Cr2O7 (b) Cr2O7 (c) Cr2O7 (d) Cr2O7

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Level – 1

Multi correct choice type:

9. Which of the following is/are trivalent electronegative ions?


(1) Nitride (2) Phosphide (3) Phosphite (4) Phosphate

10. The formula of potassium superoxide


(1) KO2 (2) K2O (3) K2O2 (4) KO3

11. The charges of chromate and dichromate is:


(1) –2, –2 (2) –1, –1 (3) –3, –3 (4) 0, 0

12. Chemical formula for calcium sulphate is CaSO4. The formula for ferric sulphate will be:
(1) Fe2(P2O7)3 (2) Fe4P3O14 (c) Fe2(SO4)3 (d) Fe3PO4

13. Identify right chemical formula for the following compounds


(1)Calcium carbide CaC3 (2) Aluminium Carbide Al4 C3
(3) Magnesium phosphide  Al4C3 (4) Aluminium oxide Al2O4

14. The formula of Aluminium oxide


(1) Al2O3 (2) Al2O4 (3) AlO (4) Al2O5

15. Choose the correct order of formulae for the given radicals:
(1) Permanganate (2) Chlorite (3) Phosphite

(A) (B) (C)


(1) MnO2– ClO 
HPO33
3
(2) MnO24 ClO4 PO32
(3) MnO4 ClO2 PO33
(4) MnO– ClO22 H 2 PO33

Statement Type:
3
16. Statement I: PO3 is a trivalent electronegative ion.
Statement II: An ion or a radical formed by the acceptance of one electron is called monovalent
electronegative ion.
(a) Both statements I and II are correct
(b) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

Level – 2 & 3
Multi correct choice type:
17. The formula of Nitrite ion
 1 1
(1) NO3 (2) NO2 (3) N 3  (4) NO2

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Matrix Match type:


18.
Column-I Column-II
(1) SO2 1 Oxide
4
(2) O 2 2 Sulphite
2
(3) SO32 3 Sulphate
(4) S2 4 Sulphide

Comprehension type:
An ion or radical formed by the acceptance of 2 electrons is called bivalent electronegative ion or radical.

19. Sulphate ion is a


(1) Monovalent negative ion (2) Bivalent negative ion
(3) Bivalent positive ion (4) Monovalent positive ion

20. The number of electrons accepted by an atom of an element is called


(1) Its electronegative valency (2) Its electropositive valency
(3) Its outermost shell (4) Both 1 and 2

21. Cl–, O–2, N–3 are respectively called as:


(1) Mono, di, trivalent ions (2) Mono, tetra, divalent ions
(3) Mono, tri, divalent ions (4) All the above

Level – 4 & 5

22. The symbol of borate ion


1 2 3 4
(1) BO3 (2) BO3 (3) BO3 (4) BO3

23. The valency of tin in SnCl2 is A and SnCl4 is B

A B
(1) 2 4
(2) 4 2
(3) 1 1
(4) 2 2

24. The metal ‘M’ forms a chloride MCl2 then what will be the formula of metal sulphate
(1) M 2SO 4 (2) MSO 4 (3) M  SO4 3 (4) M 3  SO 4 2

25.
Column-I Column-II
(1) Ferric chloride I FeCl3
(2) Cuprous chloride ii Cu2Cl2
(3) Cupric chloride iii CuCl2
(4) Mercurous chloride iv Hg2Cl2

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26. Select the correct formula for each of the following compounds:
(i) Calcium carbonate (ii) Calcium hydrogen carbonate

(i) (ii)
(1) Ca(OH)2 CaCO3
(2) CaCO3 Ca(HCO3)2
(3) CaCO3 Ca(OH)2
(4) Ca(HCO3)2 Ca(OH)2

EXERCISE-4

1. The chemical formula of potassium hypochlorite is:


(1) KClO (2) KClO2 (3) KClO3 (4) KClO4

2. The chemical formula of potassium per-chlorate is:


(1) KClO (2) KClO2 (3) KClO3 (4) KClO4

3. The formula of carbonic acid is:


(1) H2CO3 (2) H2SO3 (3) HNO3 (4) H2SO4

4. H2SO4 is:
(1) Sulphuric acid (2) Dihydrogen sulphate
(3) Hydrogen sulphide (4) Sulphurous acid

5. The formula of magnesium Nitride


(1) Mg3N2 (2) NaCl (3) MgN (4) Mg3N4

6. The chemical formula of phosphrous penta chloride


(1) PCl3 (2) PCl5 (3) PCl4 (4) PCl

7. A compound of aluminium and oxygen is


(1) Al2O3 (2) NaCl (3) CaS (4) Mg3N2

8. Common name of hydrogen hydroxide is


(1) Water (2) Ammonia (3) Table salt (4) Hydrogen peroxide

9. The formula of potassium hypo chlorite


(1) KClO2 (2) KClO3 (3) KClO4 (4) KClO

10. The formula of sodium chloride


(1) NaCl (2) NaCl2 (3) ClNa (4) NaCl3

11. The _______ present in a compound are named in order of symbols appearing in formula.
(1) Compounds (2) Elements (3) Mixtures (4) Both a and c

12. In binary compounds, the metal ion is:


(1) Named second (2) Cannot be named
(3) Named first with the metal name (4) Both a and b

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13. What is the name of H2O in binary compound?


(1) Hydrogen monoxide (2) Hydrogen peroxide
(3) Hydrogen dioxide (4) Hydrogen sub oxide

14. The chemical formula of Aluminium oxide


(1) Al2O3 (2) AlO (3) Al2O4 (4) Al3O4

15. The prefix and suffix in binary acids containing hydrogen and non metal like halogen respectively
are:
(1) Hydro and ic (2) ic and hydro (3) ate, ite (4) ite, ate

Level – 1
Single correct choice type:

1. In binary compounds, the non-metallic part is given a suffix as?


(1) ate (2) ite (3) ide (4) All of these

2. In a binary compound the non metal ion is


(1) Named first (2) Named second with suffix ide
(3) Named first with the metal name (4) Both (1) & (2)

3. The chemical formula of Hydrogen peroxide


(1) H2O (2) H2O2 (3) H2O3 (4) HO2

4. The chemical formula of Sodium Nitrate is NaNO3 then chemical formula of sodium Nitrite
(1) NaNO2 (2) NaNO4 (3) NaNO3 (4) NaNO

5. In a binary compound the non metal ion is


(1) Name first (2) Named second
(3) Named first with the metal name (4) Both (1) & (2)

6. The chemical formula of sodium chlorate


(1) NaOCl (2) NaClO3 (3) NaOCl2 (4) NaOCl4

7. The chemical formula of sulphur hexa fluoride


(1) SO2 (2) SO3 (3) SF6 (4) SO5

Comprehension Type:
Usually the elements present in a compound are named in order of symbols appearing in formula.

8. The chemical formula of Aluminium hydroxide


(1) Al(OH)3 (2) Al(OH)2 (3) AlOH2 (4) AlOH

9. The compound of Aluminium and Nitrogen


(1) Aluminium Nitride (2) Aluminium Hydroxide
(3) Aluminium Carbide (4) Aluminium Phosphate

10. The chemical formula of sulphur dioxide


(1) SO2 (2) SO3 (3) SO4 (4) SO5

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Multi correct choice type:

11. Which of the following is a binary compound


(1) NaCl (2) Mg3N2 (3) Al2O3 (4) CaS

Level-2 & 3

12. What is the prefix if two oxygen is less than the oxygen present in a compound?
(1) Per (2) Hypo (3) Hyper (4) All

13. What is the prefix, if oxygen is less than the oxygen present in a compound?
(1) Per (2) Hypo (3) Hyper (4) All

14. What is the trival name of Acetic acid


(1) Vinger (2) Amminia (3) Baking salt (4) Water

15. The formula of sodium hypochlorite


(1) NaClO (2) NaClO2 (3) NaClO3 (4) NaClO4

Matrix Match type:

16.
Column-I Column-II
(1) H2SO3 i Sulphurous acid
(2) H2SO4 ii Sulpuric acid
(3) H3SO4 iii Phosphoric acid
(4) H3SO3 iv Phosphorous acid

17. The chemical formula of hydro floric acid


(1) HCl (2) HBr (3) HF (4) HI

Integer Answer type:

18. How many molecules of Magnesium chloride is formed when 1 volume of Magnesium reacts with
two volumes of hydrogen chloride?

Level-4 & 5

19. If oxygen present in a compound ending with-ate, contains more oxygen than is:
(1) Hypo (2) Hyper (3) Per (4) None

20. The chemical formula of Calcium Phosphite


(1) Ca3(PO4)2 (2) Ca3(PO2)4 (3) Ca2(PO4)3 (4) Ca3(PO3)2

21. The chemical formula of Iodine hepta fluoride


(1) IF7 (2) IF6 (3) IF3 (4) IF5

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Comprehension type:
There are certain names of compounds which do not follow any systematic rule. Such names are called
trivial names or common names.

22. What is the trivial name of sodium chloride?


(1) Ammonia (2) Table salt (3) Baking salt (4) Water

23. What is the common name of nitrogen trihydride?


(1) Ammonia (2) Nitrogen hydroxide (3) Hydrogen nitrite (4) Cannot be named

24. Water is:


(1) Hydrogen hydride (2) Hydride hydrogen (3) Hydrogen halide (4) Hydrogen hydroxide

Matrix Match Type:


25.
Column-I Column-II
(1) Potassium Hypochlorite i KClO
(2) Potassium Perchlorate ii KClO2
(3) Potassium Chlorate iii KClO3
(4) Sodium Peroxide iv Na2O2

EXERCISE-5

1. A combination reaction in which a compound is formed from the combination of it’s constituent
element is known as
(1) Chemical combination (2) Chemical displacement
(3) Chemical synthesis (4) Chemical double displacement

2. 2Mg s  O2g   2MgOs . This reaction is an example of:


(1) Chemical combination (2) Chemical decomposition
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction

3. N2  3H2  2NH3 this reaction is an example of


(1) Synthesis reaction (2) Chemical decomposition
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction

4. A chemical reaction in which a single chemical compound decomposes into two or more simpler
substances
(1) Chemical combination (2) Chemical displacement
(3) Chemical decomposition (4) Chemical double displacement

5. 2H2O l 2H2g   O2 ; This is an example of:


(1) Chemical combination (2) Chemical decomposition
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction

Heat
6. 2NaNO3 l    2NaNO2  O2 g  ; This is an example of:
(1) Chemical decomposition (2) Chemical combination
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction

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7. When more reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from its aqueous salt solution, is
(1) Chemical decomposition (2) Chemical combination
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction

8. CuSO4 aq   Zns  ZnSO4 aq   Cus This equation is an example of:


(1) Chemical combination (2) Chemical decomposition
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction

9. A chemical reaction, in which two compounds in their aqueous solution react by exchanging their
radicals, is
(1) Chemical decomposition (2) Chemical combination
(3) Chemical double displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction

10. A 
B     C  D     A  D     C  B   represents
(1) Chemical combination (2) Chemical decomposition
(3) Chemical double displacement (4) All the above

11. Na2SO4  BaCl2  Na2SO4  BaSO4 this reaction is an example for


(1) Chemical Combination (2) Chemical Decomposition
(3) Chemical Displacement (4) Chemical Replacement reaction

12. Which of the following is correct about physical change


(1) New substance are formed during physical change
(2) No substance are formed during physical change
(3) It is permanent change
(4) Composition of original substances not change

13. Which of the following is in correct about chemical change


(1) Composition of substance is changes (2) It is a temporary change
(3) It is a permanent change (4) New substance are formed

14. The substance which are undergoing in chemical reaction is called


(1) Reactants (2) Products (3) Both a & b (4) Catalyst

15. CaO  H2O  Ca  OH 2  heat is an example for


(1) Chemical combination (2) Exo Thermic reaction
(3) Endo Thermic reaction (4) Both a and b

16. (i) Decomposition reaction brought about by heating is called (A)


(ii) Decomposition reaction brought by light is called (B)
(iii) Decomposition reaction brought about by electricity is called (C)
(1) A  Electrolysis  B  Photo decomposition C  Thermal decomposition.
(2) A  Photo decomposition B  Thermal decomposition C  Electrolysis
(3) A  Photo decomposition B  Electrolysis C  Photo decomposition
(4) A  Thermal decomposition B Photo decomposition C  Electrol

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Statement Type:


17. Statement I: C  s   O2  g  
 CO2  g  is an example of analysis
Statement II: When a compound decomposes into two elements, the reaction is called analysis.
(1) Both statement I and II are correct
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

18. Which of the following is/are precipitation reactions?


(1) NaCl  aq   AgNO3  aq  
 AgCl  s   NaNO3  aq 
(2) CuSO4  aq   2NaOH  aq   Cu  OH 2  s   Na 2SO4  aq 

(3) 2Al  OH 3  s    Al 2 O 3  s  3H 2 O  g 
 compound   compound   compound 

(4) 2Pb  NO 3 2  s  
 2PbO  s  4NO 2  g  O 2  g 
 compound   compound   compound   element 

19. Which of the following is/are chemical decomposition reactions


(1) 2H2  O2  2H2O (2) A  B  AB (3) N2  3H2  2NH2 (4) H2  I2 2HI

20. Which of the following is/are chemical displacement reaction


(1) 2KI  Cl2 2KCl  I2 (2) HCl  NaOH  NaCl  H2O
(3) Cu  2uSO4  CuSO4  2n (4) H2O  Ca  Ca  OH 2  H2

MAINS AND ADVANNCED


Single correct choice type:

1. NaOH  HCl  NaCl  H2O reaction is an example of


(1) Neutralisation (2) Chemical double displacement reaction
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Both (1) & (2)

2. Which of the following statements is/are true for the given chemical reaction?
2H2  g   O2  g   2H2O  g 
(1) Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form water
(2) Two elements combine to form a single compound
(3) The formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen is a combination reaction
(4) All the above

3. N2 + O2 + heat 2NO is an example for


(1) Chemical combination (2) Endothermic reaction
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Both (1) & (2)

4. AgNO3  NaCl P  NaNO3 What is ‘P’?


(1) AgCl – White precipitate (2) AgCl-Red precipitate
(3) AgCl-Pink precipitate (4) AgCl-Blue precipitate 10

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Multi correct choice type:


5. (1) CO O2 2CO2 (2) 2HgO 2Hg  O2
(3) Pb  NO3 2  2PbO  4NO2  O2 (4) CaO  H2O  Ca  OH 2

Matrix Match type:


6.
Column-I Column-II
(1) A  B  AB i Chemical combination
(2) AB  C  CB  A ii Chemical displacement
(3) AB  A  B iii Chemical decomposition
(4)  A  B    C  D     A  D   C  B  iv Chemical double displacement reaction

Level – 2 & 3
Single correct choice type:

7. Which of the following is not a single displacement reaction


(1) Pb  NO3  2  KI  PbI2  2KNO3 (2) C uO  M g  M gO  C u
(3) Cl2  2Kl 2KCl  l2 (4) All the above

8. CuSO4  aq   Zn  s   A  aq   Cu  s Identify ‘A’


(1) CuS (2) ZnS (3) ZnSO4 (4) ZnSO3
9. A  B  AB represents a chemical combination. Which of the following is/are an example of
chemical combination?
(1) 2KIaq   Cl2g   2KCl aq  I2s  (2) CaO s   H 2 O     Ca  OH 2 s 

(3) CuSO4aq   Fes  FeSO4 aq   Cus (4) HgO  2Hg  O2

10. Choose the decreasing order of the metals pertaining to their chemical reactivity
(1) Na > Ca > K > Pb > Al > Zn > Fe > Mg > [H] > Cu > Hg > Ag
(2) K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > [H] > Cu > Hg > Ag
(3) Fe > K > Pb > Al > Fe > Zn > Hg> Ag > [H] > Ca > Cu > Hg
(4) Cu > Hg > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb> [H] > K> Ag

Matrix Match type:


11.
Column - I Column - II
(1) NH4 OH  aq   HCl  aq   NH4Cl  aq   H2O  l  i Neutralisation reaction
(2) 2KI  aq   Cl2  g   2KCl  aq   I2  s  ii Chemical displacement
(3) NaCl  aq   AgNO3  aq   AgCl  s   NaNO3  aq  iii Precipitation reactions
(4) CuSO4  Fe2 iv FeSO4 + Cu
v FeSO4 + CuS

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Level – 4 & 5
Single correct choice type:
Heat
12. (i) AgNO3  aq   NaCl  aq   P  Q (ii) PCl5  s  
Cool
R S
P Q R S
(1) AgCl NaNO3 PCl3 Cl2
(2) NaNO3 PCl3 Cl2 AgCl
(3) AgCl PCl3 NaNO3 Cl2

13. A teacher performed the following experiment. He took a strip of lead metal and placed in a solution
of copper chloride. Which of the following is the correct equation for the above reaction?
(1) Cu2Cl  Pb  PbCl2  2Cu (2) CuSO4  Pb  PbSO4  Cu
(3) CuCl2  Pb  PbCl2  Cu (4) Cu2Cl2  2Pb PbCl2  Cu
14. The decreasing order of the reactivity of metals
(1) Na > Cu > Ag (2) Cu > Na > Zn (3) Na > K > Al (4) K > Au > Al

Multi correct choice type:


15. Which of the following is/are an example for chemical double displacement reaction
(1) AgNO3  NaCl  AgCl  NaNO3 (2) Zn  CuSO4  2uSO4  Cu
heat
(3) Na2SO4  BaCl2  BaSO4  2NaCl (4) 2H2O 2H2  O2

EXERCISE – 6

1. A chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element is same on the side of reactants and
products in called:
(1) Balanced equation (2) Unbalanced equation (3) Both (4) Neither (1) or (2)

2. A balanced chemical equation does not tell about:


(1) Seed of the reactions (2) Completion of the reaction
(3) Physical state and conditions (4) All the above

3. A balanced chemical equation does not tell about changes such as


(1) Precipitation (2) Change in colour
(3) Evolution of heat, light and sound energy’s (4) All of these

4. The substances which take part in a chemical reaction are called:


(1) Reactants (2) Products (3) Catalysts (4) All the above

5. he substances formed during a chemical reaction are called


(1) Reactants (2) Products (3) Catalysts (4) All the above

6. The term ‘equation’ means


(1) The number of atoms of each element in reactants side is equal to the number of atoms of each
element in products side
(2) The number of atoms of each element in reactants side is not equal to the number of atoms of
each element in products side
(3) The number of atoms of each element in reactants side may or may not be equal to the number of
atoms of each element in products side.
(4) None of the above
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7. 2KNO3  2KNO2  X Identify “X”


(1) O2 (2) CO2 (3) O3 (4) KNO

8. A balanced chemical equation does not give the information about:


(1) Physical state of the reactants (2) Chemical state of the reactants
(3) Neither a nor b (4) Both a and b

9. According to ___________ law equation has to be balanced


(1) Law of mass action (2) Law of conservation of mass
(3) Law of active (4) All

10. Sn  HCl  NO 
SnCl2  NH2OH
………………………………………………………………………………………………

11.  Fe2 SO4 3  NO  H2O


FeSO4  H2SO4  HNO3 
………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. S8  Cl2 
S2Cl2
………………………………………………………………………………………………

13 Skeleton Equation FeS  O2 


 FeO  SO2
………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Cl2  NaOH 


 NaCl  NaaOCl  H2O
Balanced Equation
………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. C6H12O6  O2 
CO2  H2O
………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. C6H6  O2 
CO2  H2O
………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Fe  SO 4  H2SO4  Cl2 


 Fe2  SO4 3  HCl
………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. 2Mg  O2 
 2MgO Identify true statements for the above reaction
(1) The above reaction is balanced equation
(2) 2 moles of mg. combines with 1 mole O2 to form 2 moles of MgO
(3) 2 moles of mg. combines with 2 mole O2 to form 2 moles of MgO
(4) None of the above

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Statement Type:

19. Statement I: Oxygen in O2 & O3 exists in elementary form.


Statement II: Oxygen inKNO2, PbO & NO exist in the form of a compound.
(1) Bothe statement I and II are correct
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

20.
Column - I Column - II
1 KNO3 i Aluminium sulphate
2 Al2(SO4)3 ii Washing soda
3 Na2CO3.10H2O iii Baking soda
4 NaHCO3 iv Potassium nitrite
5 v Potassium nitrate

21.
Column - I Column - II
Element Atomic number
1 Iodine i 53
2 Gold ii 79
3 Silver iii 47
4 Mercury iv 80

Single correct choice type:


Write the balance equation for the following:

22. (NH4)3 PO4 


 NH3 + H2O + HPO3
………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. CaOCl2 + NH3 


 CaCl2 + H2O + N2
………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. Skeleton Equation CuSO4 + KI 


 CuI + I2 + K2SO4
………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. Skeleton Equation CuCl2 + H2O + SO2 


 CuCl + HCl + H2SO4
………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. Give the balanced symbolic representation for the reaction


Arsenic + Sodium hydroxide   Sodium arsenate + Hydrogen
(1) As + 6NaOH   2Na3AsO3 + 3H2 (2) 2As + 6NaOH  2Na3AsO3 + 3H2
(3) 2As + 6KOH   2K 3 AsO3 + 3H 2 (4) As + 3NaOH  Na3AsO3 + H2

27. Which element is to be balanced first in the given equation?


Mg + CO2   MgO + C
(1) MgO (2) C (3) O (4) Mg

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Write the Balance equation for the following:

28. Skeleton Equation C2H2 + O2 


 CO2 + H2O
………………………………………………………………………………………………

29. Skeleton Equation CH4 + O2 


 CO2 + H2O
………………………………………………………………………………………………

30. Identify the correct set of f numbers of different elements in the given equation
2KNO3   2KNO2 + O2

K N O
(1) 2 2 3
(2) 3 2 2
(3) 2 3 2
(4) 3 3 2

Write the Balanced equation for the following:


31. Skeleton Equation
A12(SO4)3 + NaOH   Al(OH)3 + Na2SO4
………………………………………………………………………………………………

32. Al2(CO3)2 + HNO3 


 Al(NO3)3 + CO2 + H2O
………………………………………………………………………………………………

33. K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 


 K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O + CO2
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

Write the Balance equation for the following:

34. Skeleton Equation


Cu2S + CuSO4   Cu + SO2
………………………………………………………………………………………………

35. Skeleton Equation


Cu2O + Cu2S   Cu + SO2
………………………………………………………………………………………………

36. Identify the correct balanced equation from the following:


(1) 2KNO3   2KNO2 + O2 (2) Mg + HCl  MgCl2 + H2
(3) Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl   2CaCl2 + 2H 2 O (4) 2KClO  2KCl + 2O2
3 

MAINS AND ADVANCED


Level – 1
Single correct choice type

1. XN2  YO2  ZNOwhat are X, Y, Z


(1) 1, 1, 2 (2) 1, 1, 1 (3) 2, 1, 1 (4) 1, 2, 1

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2. P4  XO2 YP2O5 what are X, Y, Z


(1) 2, 4 (2) 1, 5 (3) 2, 5 (4) 5, 2

3. XC2H6  YO2  ZCO2  H2O what are X, Y, Z


(1) 2, 3, 2 (2) 2, 4, 7 (3) 2, 7, 4 (4) 7, 2, 4

4. XPb  NO3  2  YPbO  ZNO2  O2 What are X, Y, Z


(1) 2, 2, 2 (2) 1, 1, 1 (3) 3, 2, 4 (4) 1, 2, 3

Multi correct choice type


5. 2KNO3 2KNO2  O2 Identify true statements for the above reaction
(1) The above reaction is a balanced equation
(2) 2 moles of reactants decomposes to form 3 moles of products
(3) 2 moles of reactants combine to form 4 moles of products
(4) None of the above


6. CaCO3  CaO  CO2 Identity true statements for the above reaction
(1) It is an example for decomposition
(2) It is balanced equation
(3) It is unbalanced equation
(4) It is an example for thermal decomposition reaction

7. N2 3H2 2NH3 identify true statements for the above reaction


(1) It is an example for irreversible reaction (2) It is an example for reversible reaction
(3) It is balanced reaction (4) It is unbalanced reaction

Single correct choice type:


Level 2 & 3
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following
8. XMg  YHClO3  ZMg  ClO3 2  WH2O  HCl what are X, Y, Z, W
(1) 3, 7, 3, 3 (2) 3, 4, 3, 3 (3) 3, 7, 4, 3 (4) 2, 7, 3, 3

9. XFeS2  YO2  ZFe2O3  WSO2 what are X, Y, Z, W


(1) 2, 3, 4, 5 (2) 3, 2, 4, 7 (3) 2, 8, 4, 3 (4) 4, 11, 2, 8

10. MnO2  xHCl  MnCl2  Cl2  yH2O what are X, Y


(1) 2, 4 (2) 4, 2 (3) 2, 3 (4) 3, 4

11. Skeleton Equation


C2H4  XO2  YCO2  ZH2O what are X, Y, Z
(1) 2, 3, 2 (2) 2, 2, 3 (3) 3, 2, 2 (4) 4, 2, 3

12. XNaOH  Cl2  NaCl  NaOCl  H2O what is X


(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2

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13. XeF4  XH2O  XeO3  YHF  H2 what are X, Y


(1) 4, 3 (2) 4, 4 (3) 3, 4 (4) 3, 3

Comprehension type:
A equation in which the no of atoms of reactants is equal to the no of atom of product is called balanced
equation

14. Which of the following is metal?


(1) Fe (2) Ba (3) Pb (4) All of these

15. Which of following equation is balanced


(1) N2  3H2  2NH3
(2) 4Pb  NO3 2  2PbO  O2  2NO2
(3) CaCO3  2CaO  CO2
(4) 4NaCl  MnO2  H2SO4  MnCl2  4NaHSO4  2H2O  Cl2

Level – 4 & 5
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following:

16. XAl2O3  YC  Al4C3  ZCO what are X, Y, Z


(1) 2, 9, 6 (2) 2, 6, 9 (3) 6, 2, 9 (4) 2, 3, 9

17. Skeleton equation XNH3  YNa  ZNaNH2  H2 what are X, Y, Z


(1) 2, 2, 2 (2) 1, 1, 1 (3) 2, 3, 4 (4) 3, 2, 1

18. Skeleton equation XCuFeS2  O2 Cu2S  Y FeS SO2 what are X, Y


(1) 3, 2 (2) 3, 3 (3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 2

EXERCISE – 7

1. Oxidation number of Mn in K 2 MnO 4 is


(a) +7 (b) –5 (c) +6 (d) –6

2. The oxidation number of suphur of number in Na 2S4 O 6 is


(a) 1 1 2 (b) 2 1 2 (c) 3 (d) 2

3. Which substances act as reducing agent in the following reaction?


14H   Cr2 O 7 2  3Ni 2
(a) H 2 O (b) Ni (c) H  (d) Cr2 O 7 2

4. The oxidation state of I in H 4 IO6  is


(a) +7 (b) –1 (c) +5 (d) +1

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5. Strongest oxidising agent amongst the following


(a) H 2SO 4 (b) H3 BO3 (c) HPO3 (d) H3 PO 4

6. Which of the following oxide cannot work as reduing agent?


(a) ClO 2 (b) SO 2 (c) NO 2 (d) NO 2

7. Which one of the following is a redox reaction?


(a) Reaction of H 2SO 4
(b) Evaporation of water
(c) The formation of ozone by lightning of oxygen of atmosphere
(d) The preparation of nitrogen oxide from atmospheric nitrogen & oxygen

8. Which of the following has zero oxidation state of Fe


4 3
(a)  Fe  CN 6  (b)  Fe  CN 6 
(c) Fe  CO 5 (d) All of the above

9. Oxidation number of P in pyrophosphoric acid is


(a) +5 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) +4

10. a Zn  b NO3  cH   dNH 4  eH 2 O  f Zn 2 a, b, c,d, e and f are


a b c d e f
(a) 2 4 6 8 4 2
(b) 1 4 10 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 10 1 3 4
(d) 10 4 1 3 4 2

11. Oxidation numbers of A, B and C are +2, +5 and –2 respectively. Possible formula of the compound
is
(a) A 2  BC2  2 (b) A3  BC 4  2 (c) A 2  BC3  2 (d) A3  B2 C  2

12. Of the following reactions, only one is a redox reaction, identify it


(a) Ca  OH  2  2HCl  CaCl 2  2H 2O
(b) BaCl2  MgSO 4  BaSO 4  MgCl2
(c) 2S2 O 72  2H 2 O  4SO 42   4H 
(d) Cu 2S  2FeO  2Cu  2Fe  SO 2

13. Consider the following reaction,


5H 2 O 2  ClO 2  2OH   Cl  yO 2  6H 2 O The reaction is balanced if
(a) x  5, y  2 (b) x  2, y  5 (c) x  4, y  (d) x , y  5

14. The oxidation states of sulphur states of sulphur in the anions SO32 ,S2SO 42  and S2 O62  follow the
order
(a) S2 O 42   SO32  S2 O 62  (b) SO32   S2 O4  S2 O 62 
(c) S2 O 42   S2 O 62   SO32  (d) S2 O 62   S2 O 42   SO32 

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15. Which of the following statements is not true?


(a) Among halide ions, iodine is the most powerful reducing agent
(b) Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show a variable oxidation state
(c) HOCl is a stringer acid than HOBr
(d) HF is a stronger acid than HCl

16. Which is the best description of the behavior of bromine in the react ion given below?
H 2 O  Br2  HOBr  HBr
(a) Both oxidized and reduced (b) Oxidized only
(c) Reduced only (d) Proton acceptor only

17. The correct order of acidic strength is


(a) HClO 4  HClO3  HClO 2  HClO (b) HClO 2  HClO3  HClO 4  HClO
(c) HClO 4  HClO  HClO 2  HClO3 (d) HClO  HClO 2  HClO 4  HClO 4

18. The oxidation state of osmium (Os) in OsO 4 is


(a) +7 (b) +6 (c) +4 (d) +8

19. Oxidation number of N in NH 4 NO3 is


(a) –3 (b) +5 (c) –3 & 5 (d) +3 & –5

20. In the reaction 2FeCl3  SnCl1 


 2FeCl2  SnCl4
(a) Fe undergoes oxidation (b) Sn undergoes oxidation
(c) Sn undergoes reduction (d) None of the above

21. In the redox reaction


2FeCl3  SnCl   2FeCl2  SnCl 4 . The oxidant and reductant are respectively.
(a) FeCl3 , 5nCl 4 (b) FeCl3 ,SnCl 2 (c) SnCl2 , FeCl3 (d)

22. The characteristic property of reductant is


(a) It accepts electron (b) Gives up electrons
(c) Both the above (d) None of the above

23. How many electrons have been transferred in the process 2Fe 3  2Hg  Hg 2 2  3Fe 2
(a) 2 electron (b) 3 electron (c) 4 electron (d) 6 electron

24. 2Cul   Cul 2 . The above process is called


(a) Redox (b) Disproportionation (c) Oxidation (d) Reduction

25. In the change Ce 3   Ce4


(a) Oxidation number increases (b) Oxidation number decreases
(c) Reduction tales place (d) None of the above

26. The zero oxidation state of carbon is observed in the compound


(a) CH 2 O (b) CO 2 (c) CH 4 (d) CHBr3

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27. The oxidation state of C in CO 2 is


(a) –4 (b) +4 (c) +1 (d) –2

28. The oxidation state of Boron in the compound KBF4 is


(a) +3 (b) +2 (c) +4 (d) –3

29. On which of the following case, metal is reduced [These are not balanced equations]
4 3
(a)  Fe  CN 6    Fe  CN  6  (b) MnO 4  MnO 2
2 2
(c) MnO 4 2  MnO 4 1 (d)  Cr2O 7    CrO 4 

30. Check whether the reaction H 2S  SO 2  H 2 O  S is a redox reaction or not? If yes, what will be the
oxidant
(a) Yes, SO 2 (b) Yes, S (c) Yes, H 2S (d) No, this is not redox

31. Which of the following has minimum oxidation state?


(a) Cl 2 (b) Cl  (c) ClO 2 (d) ClO 4
2
32. The oxidation state of Ni and NH 3 in  Ni  NH 3  6 
(a) Ni  2, NH3  0 (b) Ni  1, NH3  1/ 6
(c) Ni  1, NH3  1/ 6 (d) Ni  0, NH 3  2

33. Oxygen ion structure in its peroxide, superoxide ozonide form is


(a) O 2 , O 22 , O32 (b) O 2 2 , O 2 , O3 (c) O 22 , O 2 , O3 (d) O 2 , O 23 , O32

34.  x  MnO 4   y  H 2O 2   z  H   2Mn 2  8H 2O  5O z In this reaction, value of (x), (y) and (z) are
(a) 2, 5, 6 (b) 5, 2, 9 (c) 3, 5, 6 (d) 2, 6, 6

35. Which of the following is a powerful reducing agent?


(a) HNO3 (b) Na (c) Cl 2 (d) Cr

36. Oxidation state of Fe in K 3  Fe  CN  6 


(a) +2 (b) +3 (c) 0 (d) None

37. In the conversion Br2  BrO3 . Oxidation state of bromine changes from
(a) 0 to 5 (b) 1 to 3 (c) 2 to 4 (d) 5 to 1

38. In which of the following Mn has +6 oxidation state?


(a) K 2 MnO 4 (b) KMnO 4 (c) MnO 2 (d) MnO

39. Oxidation number of S in H 2SO 4 is


(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6

40. Oxidation number of Xe in XeF5 is


(a) +1 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) +4

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41. Which has zero oxidation state?


(a) Cd (b) Cl 2 (c) (a) & (b) (d) None

42. MnO 2  4H   e   Mn 3  2H 2O
In the above reaction oxidation number of Mn changes from
(a) +2 to –3 (b) +4 to –3 (c) +2 to +3 (d) +4 to +3

43. Oxidation involves


(a) Loss of electron (b) Gain of electron
(c) Increase in valency of negative part (d) All

44. In a chemical reaction, Fe 2 is converted into Fe 3 , then Fe 2


(a) Gains one electrons (b) Loses one electron
(c) Gains one proton (d) Loses one proton

45. Zn  H 2SO 4  ZnSO 4  H 2 Zn undergoes


(a) Reduction (b) Oxidation
(c) Both oxidation and reduction (d) None of these

46. Oxidation state of Cr in Cr2 O 72 is


(a) +2 (b) +6 (c) -6 (d) -4

47. In oxidation reduction reaction


MnO 4  C2 O4 2  H   Mn 2  CO 2  H 2O the balance equation coefficient for MnO 4 , C 2 O 42 , H 
are
(a) 2, 5, 16 (b) 16, 5, 2 (c) 2, 16, 5 (d) 5, 2, 16

48. Which of the following act both as oxidant & reductant?


(a) H 2S (b) SO3 (c) H 2 O 2 (d) F2

49. Which of the following reaction is spontaneous oxidant – reduction?


(a) Mn 2  5Fe 3  4H 2O  MnO 4  5Fe2  8H 
(b) MnO 4  5Fe 3  8H   Mn 2  5Fe2  4H 2O
(c) MnO 4  5Fe 2  8H   Mn 2  5Fe 3  4H 2O
(d) Mn 2  5Fe 2  4H 2O  MnO 4  5Fe 3  8H 

50. For reaction


Cr2 O 72  14H   2Cr 3  7H 2 O, How many e s are required?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

51. What is the oxidation number of the element in free state?


(a) 0 (b) +1 (c) –1 (d) None

52. What is the oxidation number of O in KO 2 ?


1
(a) 0 (b)  (c) –1 (d) –2
2

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53. In acidic medium the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO 4 shows the following change
(a) 7  4 (b) 7  2 (c) 7  3 (d) 7  5

54. Oxidation number of nitrogen is –1 in which of the following compounds


(a) NH 3 (b) NH 4 OH (c) NH 2 OH (d) NH 4

55. Manganese achieves its highest oxidation state in which of the following compounds
(a) MnO 3 (b) Mn 3O 4 (c) KMnO 4 (d) K 2 MnO 4

56. In the following reaction 3Br2  6CO32  3H 2 O  5Br   6HCO3


(a) Bromine is oxidised and carbonate is reduced
(b) Bromine is reduced and carbonate is oxidised
(c) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidised
(d) Bromine is reduced and oxidised both

57. In the following reaction


P4  3NaOH  3H 2 O   PH 3  3NaH 2 PO 2
(a) Phosphorus is oxidised (b) Phosphorus is oxidised as well as reduced
(c) Phosphorus is reduced (d) Sodium is oxidised

58. Oxidation number of P in Mg 2 P2 O7 is


(a) +3 (b) +2 (c) +5 (d) –3

59. MnO 4 on reduction in acidic medium forms


(a) MnO 4 (b) Mn  (c) MnO 4 2 (d) Mn

60. KMnO 4 acts as an oxidant in neutral, basic and acidic medium. Its final product under these
conditions would be respectively.
(a) MnO 2 , MnO 2 , Mn 2 (b) MnO 4 2 , Mn 3 , Mn 2
(c) MnO 2 , MnO42 , Mn 2 (d) MnO, MnO 2 , Mn 2

61. In acidic medium potassium dichromate acts as an oxidant according to the equation
Cr2 O 7 2  14H   6e   2Cr 3  7H 2O . What is the equivalent weight of K 2 Cr2 O 7 ?
(molecular weight = M)
(a) M (b) M/2 (c) M/3 (d) M/6

62. The oxidation state of nickel in Ni  CO  4 is


(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 4

63. The reaction,


2H 2 O  I   4H   aq   O2  g   4e  is
(a) An oxidation reaction (b) A reduction reaction
(c) A redox reaction (d) A hydrolysis reaction

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64. The reaction in which hydrogen peroxide acts as a reducing agent is


(a) PbS  4H 2 O 2  PbSO 4  4H 2O
(b) 2Kl  H 2 O2  2KOH  I 2
(c) 2FeSO 4  H 2SO 4  H 2O  Fe 2 SO 4 3  2H 2O
(d) Ag 2 O  H 2 O2  2Ag  2OH 

65. Ag 2 O  H 2 O  2e   2Ag  2OH 


(a) Water is oxidised (b) Silver is oxidised
(c) Silver is oxidised (d) Silver is reduced

66. Which of the following is a redox reaction?


(a) NaCl  KNO3  NaNO3  KCl
(b) CaC 2 O 4  2HCl  CaCl 2  H 2 C2 O 4
(c) Mg  OH  2  2NH 4 Cl  MgCl2  2NH 4 OH
(d) Zn  2AgCN  2Ag  Zn  CN 2

67. HNO3 can act as


(a) Acid (b) Oxidizing agent (c) Reducing agent (d) Both (a) & (b)

68. The oxidation number of iron in Fe3O 4 is


(a) +2 (b) +3 (c) 8/3 (d) 2/3

69. What will be coefficient of the oxalate ion after balancing the following reaction?
MnO 4  C2 O42   H   Mn 2   CO 2  H 2 O
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5

70. Equivalent mass of oxidizing agent in the reaction, SO 2  2H 2S  3S  2H 2 O is


(a) 32 (b) 64 (c) 16 (d) 8

71. Among the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state:
3
(a) MnO 4 (b) Cr  CN 6 (c) NiF62 (d) CrO 2 Cl2

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ANSWER KEY

EXERCISE – 1

CUQ:

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (3)

15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20.(4)

21. 1 – iii; 2 – i; 3 – ii; 4 – iv; 5– v 22. 47 23. (2, 3, 4) 24. (1, 2, 3)

MAINS AND ADVANCED

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (2) 9. (1, 2, 3, 4) 10. (3, 4) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3, 4) 14. (1, 2, 3, 4)

15. (3) 16. (1, 2, 3, 4) 17. 1 – ii, 2 – i, 3 – iii, 4 – iv

EXERCISE – 2

CUQ

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (4)

MAINS AND ADVANCED

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (1, 2, 3)

8. (1, 2, 3, 4) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2)

15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (1, 4) 19. 1 – iv, 2 – iii, 3- i, 4 – ii

EXERCISE – 3

CUQ

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1)

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15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1)

22. (3) 23. (1,2,3,4) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. 1 – iii; 2 – v; 3 – i; 4 – iv

28. 1 – i; 2 – ii; 3 – v; 4 – iv 29. (1)

30. 1 – iv; 2 – i; 3 – iii; 4– ii 21. (2) 32. (2) 33. (1)

MAINS AND ADVANCED

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (2)

8. (1) 9. (1, 2, 3, 4) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2)

14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. 1 – iii, 2 – v, 3- ii, 4 – iv

19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2)

25. 1 – i, 2 – iii, 3- ii, 4 – iv

EXERCISE – 4

CUQ

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1)

15. (1)

MAINS AND ADVANCED

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (1, 2,3,4) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1)

15. (1) 16. 1 – ii, 2 – i, 3- iii, 4 – iv 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (3)

20. (4) 21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (4)

25. 1 – i, 2 – iv, 3- iii, 4 – v

EXERCISE – 5
CUQ

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1)

15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (1)

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MAINS AND ADVANCED

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2, 3) 6. 1 – iii, 2 – ii, 3 – iv, 4 - i

7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. 1 – iii, 2 – i, 3 – ii, 4 - iv

12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1,3)

EXERCISE – 6
CUQ

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (1) 9. (2)

Mains and Advanced:

10. 3Sn + 6HCl + 2NO 


 3SnCl2 + 2NH2OH

11. 6FeSO4 + 2H2SO4 + 2HNO3 


 3Fe2(SO4)3 + 2NO + 3H2O

12. S8 + 4Cl2 
 4S2Cl2

13. 2FeS + 3O2 


 2FeO + 2SO2

14. Cl2 + 2NaOH 


 2NaCl + NaOCl + H2O

15. C6H12O6 + 6O2 


 6CO2 + 6H2O

16. 2C6H6 + 15O2 


 12CO2 + 6H2O

17. Fe(SO)4 + H2SO4 + Cl2 


 Fe2(SO4)3 + HCl

18. 1, 2

19. 1

20. a – 5; b – 1; c – 2; d –3

21. a – 1; b – 2; c – 3; d – 4

MAINS AND ADVANCED

22.  NH 4 3 PO 4 
 3NH 3  H 2 O  HPO 3

23. 3CaOCl2  NH 3 
 3CaCl 2  3H 2 O  N 2

24. 2CuSO 4  KI 
 Cu 2 I 2  2I 2  2K 2SO 4

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25. 2CuCl2  2H 2 O  SO 2 
 2CuCl  2HCl  H 2SO 4

26. (2)

27. (4)

28. C 2 H 2  3O 2 
 2CO 2  2H 2 O

29. CH 4  2O 2 
 CO 2  2H 2 O

30. (1)

31. Al 2  SO 4 3  NaOH 
 2Al  OH 3  3Na 2SO 4

32. 2KI  3H 2SO 4 


 2KHSO 4  2H 2O  SO 2  I 2

33. Cu 2S  CuSO 4 
 3Cu  2SO 2

34. 2Cu 2 O  Cu 2S 
 6Cu  SO 2

35. (1)

MAINS AND ADVANCED

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (1, 2) 6. (1, 2, 4) 7. (2, 3)

8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)

15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (4)

EXERCISE – 7

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)

11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)

21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)

31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)

41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d)

51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (a)

61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (c)

71. (d)

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CHEMISTRY-2. Mole Concept

1. INTRODUCTION

There are a large number of objects around us which we can see and feel. Anything that occupies
space and has mass is called matter. Ancient Indian and Greek philosopher’s believed that the wide variety
of object around us are made from combination of five basic elements: Earth, Fire, Water, Air and Sky. The
Indian philosopher Kanad (600 BC) was of the view that matter was composed of very small, indivisible
particle called “parmanus”. Ancient Greek philosopher also believed that all matter was composed of tiny
building blocks which were hard and indivisible. The Greek philosopher Domocritus named these building
blocks as atoms, meaning indivisible. All these people had their philosophical views about matter, these
views were never put to experimental test.

It was John Dalton who firstly developed a theory on the structure of matter, latter on which was known as
Dalton’s atomic theory.

DALTON’S ATOMIC THEORY:


 Matter is made up of very small indivisible particle called atoms.
 All the atoms of an element are identical in all respect i.e. mass, shape, size, etc. and atoms of different
elements are different in nature.
 Atoms cannot be created or destroyed by any chemical process.

Classification of matter

On the basis of physical behaviour On the basis of chemical behaviour

Pure substances Mixtures


Solids Liquids Gases Element Compound

2. LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATIONS

The combination of elements to form compounds is governed by the following five basic laws.

LAW OF CONSERVATION OF MASS:

It states that matter can neither be created nor destroyed.

This law was put forth by Antoine Lavoisier in 1789. He performed careful experimental studies for
combustion reactions for reaching to the above conclusion. This law formed the basis for several later
developments in chemistry.
Lavoisier stated that “during any physical or chemical change the total mass of the products produced
is equal to the total mass of the reactants reacted”. He showed that when mercuric oxide was heated the
total mass of mercury and oxygen produced was equal to the total mass of mercuric oxide.

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Ex. 1: When 20 g of NaHCO3 is heated, 12.62 g of Na2CO3 and 5.24g of CO2 is produced. How many
grams of H2O is produced?
Solution: Total mass of NaHCO3 heated = 20 gms ;
Total mass Na2CO3 produced = 12.62 gms
Total mass of CO2 produced = 5.24 gms
 Mass of H2O produced = 20–12.62 –5.24 = 2.14 gms

LAW OF DEFINITE PROPORTIONS:

This law was given by, a French chemist, Joseph Proust. He stated that a given compound always
contains exactly the same proportion of elements by weight.

Irrespective of the source, a given compound always contains same elements in the same proportion. The
validity of this law has been confirmed by various experiments. It is sometimes also referred to as Law of
definite composition.

This law implies that irrespective of how a compound is prepared or from where the compound originates, it
is always made up of the same elements combined in the same proportion by the weight.
For example, if water is taken from difference sources, such as rivers, oceans, wells etc. they all contain
hydrogen and oxygen, combined in the same proportion by weight in it.

Ex. 2: When 50 g of ammonia is heated it gives 41.18 g of Nitrogen. When 10 g of Nitrogen is


combined with required amount of hydrogen it produces 12.14g ammonia. Show that the
given data follows the law of constant compositions.
Solution: If 50g of Ammonia gives 41.18g of Nitrogen, then the percentage of Nitrogen in ammonia
41 . 18
is  100 = 82.36%.
50
If 10g of Nitrogen gives 12.14 g of Ammonia then percentage of Nitrogen in ammonia
10
is  100  82.37% .
12.14

LAW OF MULTIPLE PROPORTIONS:

This law was proposed by Dalton in 1803. According to this law, if two elements can combine to form
more than one compound, the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other
element, are in the ratio of small whole numbers.

For example, carbon and oxygen combine to form CO and CO2. In CO, 12 parts by mass of carbon
combines with 16 parts by mass of oxygen while in CO2 12 parts by mass of carbon combines with 32 parts
by mass of oxygen. Therefore the ratio of the masses of oxygen that combines with a fixed mass of carbon is
16:32 that is 1:2.

Ex. 3: Sodium and oxygen combine to form two compounds of which one is Na2O. The percentage of
sodium in the other compound is 59%. Find the formula of this compound.
2  23
Solution : Percentage of sodium in Na2O is  100 = 74.2% and percentage of oxygen is
62
25.8%.Percentage of sodium in other compound is 59% while that of oxygen is 41%. This means
that in the first compound (Na2O) if we take 100 gm then 25.8 gm of oxygen will be present
74.2
therefore the mass of sodium combining with 1g of oxygen would be = 2.87 g. Similarly in
25.8
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59
the second compound the mass of sodium combining with one gm of oxygen is = 1.44g.The
41
ratio of masses of sodium combining with the fixed mass of oxygen is 2.87: 1.44 = 2:1. Therefore
formula of the other compound is Na2O2.

LAW OF RECIPROCAL PROPORTIONS:


This law which was proposed by Ritcher (1792) states that “when two elements combine separately with
fixed mass of third element then the ratio of their masses in which they do so is either the same or
some whole number multiple of the ratio in which they combine with each other”.

FOR EXAMPLE:
Carbon, Sulphur and Oxygen form CO2, SO2 and CS2. In CO2 12 parts by mass of carbon combine with 32
parts by mass of oxygen while in SO2 32 parts by mass of Sulphur combine with 32 parts by mass of oxygen.
Ratio of masses of carbon and sulphur which combine with fixed mass of oxygen is 12:32 or 3:8.In CS2 12
parts by mass of carbon combines with 64 parts by mass of sulphur therefore
the ratio of mass of carbon to sulphur in carbon disulphide is 12:64 i.e. 3:16.
3 3
Therefore, the ratio is : or 2:1
8 16
GAY - LUSSAC LAW OF COMBINING VOLUMES:

This law which was proposed by Gay – Lussac states that, the volumes of gaseous reactants reacted and
the volumes of gaseous products formed, all measured at the same temperature and pressure bear a
simple ratio.
FOR EXAMPLE:
The reaction involved in Haber’s Process(Nitrogen and hydrogen gases react to form ammonia)
N 2  g   3H 2  g   2NH 3  g 
1vol 3 vol 2 vol
It is observed that the ratio of the volumes of N2 and H2 reacted and volume of NH3 produced is equal to
1:3:2 which is a simple ratio.

 This law is applicable only for gaseous reactions and should not be used fornon–gaseous reactants
and products.

3. ATOMIC MASS& MOLECULAR MASS

Analysis of water shows that it contains 88.89% oxygen and 11.11% of hydrogen by mass. Thus the
ratio of masses of hydrogen and oxygen in water is 11.11: 88.89 or 1:8. Moreover the ratio of number of
hydrogen and oxygen atoms in water molecule can be shown to be 2:1.
Therefore oxygen is 16 times heavier than hydrogen. Therefore relative atomic mass of oxygen is 16 units if
we take mass of hydrogen atom as 1 unit.In 1961 International Union of Pure and Applied Chemists(IUPAC)
selected the most stable isotope of carbon, C–12 as the standard for comparison of atomic masses of
elements. The mass of C–12 atom is taken as 12 atomic mass unit.
The scale in which the relative atomic masses of different elements are expressed is called atomic mass unit
or amu.

1
Atomic mass Unit (amu) = the mass of a C - 12 atom = 1.660539 x10-24 gm
12

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Mass of oneatom of the element


Atomic mass of an element 
1
 Mass of one atomof 12
6 C
12
One amu is also called one Dalton (Da). Nowadays amu has been replaced by ‘u’ which is known as unified
mass.

MOLECULAR MASS:
Molecular Mass is the sum of atomic masses of the elements present in a molecule. It is obtained by
multiplying the atomic mass of each element by the number of its atoms and adding them together. For
example, molecular mass of methane which contains one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms can be
obtained as follows:

Molecular mass of methane, CH4 = (12.011) + 4 (1.008) = 16.043


Similarly, molecular mass of H2O = 2 × atomic mass of hydrogen + 1 × atomic mass of oxygen
= 2 (1.008) + 16.00 = 18.016

4. MOLE CONCEPT
One mole is an amount of substance containing Avogadro's number of particles. Avogadro's number is equal
to 602,214,199,000,000,000,000,000 or more simply, 6.02214199 × 1023.
A mole (symbol mol) is defined as the amount of substance that contains as many atoms, molecules,
ions, electrons or any other elementary entities as there are carbon atoms in exactly 12 gm of 12C. The
number of atoms in 12 gm of 12C is called Avogadro’s number (NA).

NA = 6.022  1023

From mass spectrometer we found that there are 6.022 x 1023 atoms present in 12 gm of C – 12 isotope. The
number of entities in 1 mol is so important that it is given a separate name and symbol known as Avogadro
constant denoted by NA. i.e. on the whole we can say that 1 mole is the collection of6.022 x 1023 entities.
Here entities may represent atoms, ions, molecules or even pens, chairs , paper etc also include in this but as
this number (NA) is very large therefore it is used only for very small things.

 HOW BIG IS A MOLE?


One mole of marbles would cover the entire Earth (oceans included) for a depth of three miles. One mole of
$100 bills stacked one on top of another would reach from the Sun to Pluto and back7.5 million times. It
would take light 9500 years to travel from the bottom to the top of a stack of 1mole of $1 bills.

GRAM ATOMIC MASS:


 The atomic mass of an element expressed in grams is called gram atomic mass of that element.
 It is also defined as mass of 6.022 x 1023 atoms.
 It is also defined as the mass of one mole atoms.
 It is also defined as the mass of 1 gram atom of the element.
For example for oxygen atom:
Atomic mass of ‘O’ atom = mass of one ‘O’ atom = 16 amu
Gram atomic mass = mass of 6.022  1023 ‘O’ atoms
= 16 amu x 6.022  1023
= 16 × 1.66 10 -24  6.022  1023  16gm/mole
1.66 1024  6.022 1023  1

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Ex.4: How many atoms of oxygen are there in 16 g oxygen.


1
Sol. x 1.66 10 24 16  16 g x  NA
1.66  10 24

GRAM MOLECULAR MASS:


 The molecular mass of a substance expressed in gram is called the gram-molecular mass of the
substance.
 It is also defined as mass of 6.022 × 1023 molecules.
 It is also defined as the mass of 1 mole molecules.
 It is also defined as the mass of 1 gram molecule.

For examples for ‘O2’ molecules :

Molecular mass of ‘O2 ’ molecule = mass of one ‘O2’ molecule


= 2  mass of one ‘O’ atom
= 2  16 amu
= 32 amu
Gram molecular mass = mass of 6.022 1023 ‘O2’ molecules
= 32 amu  6.022 1023
= 32  1.66  10-24 gm  6.022 1023
= 32 gm/mole

Ex.5: The molecular mass of H2SO4 is 98 amu. Calculate the number of moles of each element in 294 g
of H2SO4.
Sol. Gram molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 gm
294
Moles of H2SO4 =  3 moles
98
H2SO4 H S O
one molecule 2 atoms one atom 4 atoms
1  NA 2  NA atoms 1  NA atoms 4  NA atoms
 one mole 2 mole one mole 4 mole
 3 mole 6 mole 3 mole 12 mole

AVOGADRO’S HYPOTHESIS:

Equal volume of the gases have equal number of molecules (not atoms) at same temperature and pressure
condition.

N.T.P. (Normal Temperature and Pressure)


Temperature = 0oC or 273 K
Pressure = 1 atm = 760 mm of Hg
Volume of one mole of any gas at NTP is found to be experimently equal to 22.4 litres which is known as
molar volume at NTP.

S.T.P. (Standard Temperature and Pressure)


Temperature = 0oC or 273 K
Pressure = 1 bar = 0.987 atm
Volume of one mole of any gas at STP is found to be experimently equal to 22.7 litres which is known as
molar volume at STP.

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Ex.6: Calculate the volume in litre of 20 g hydrogen gas at STP.


Given mass 20 gm
Sol. No. of moles of hydrogen gas = =  10 mol
Molecular mass 2 gm
Volume of hydrogen gas at STP = 10 x 22.7 lt = 227 lt.

T-MAP: INTERCONVERSION OF MOLE-VOLUME,MASS AND NUMBER OF PARTICLES

x NA x22.4 lt
Number of entities Mole Volume at STP
 NA  22.4 lt

 mol. wt x mol. wt
 At. wt x At. wt

Mass

FORMULA SHEET FOR MOLE CALCULATIONS:

S. No. Items Formula


Wt. in gm
1. Molecules
Molecular mass
Wt. in gm
2. Atom
Atomic mass
Volume at STP
3. Gases
Standard molar Volume at STP
Number of particles
4. Any Particle
Avogardro number
5. Moles of A in AxBy x
For Gases at any P(in atm), V(in PV
6. n where R = 0.0821 lit-atm/mol K
litres)& T(in K) RT

IMPORTANT NOTES:
1. STP and NTP conditions : STP means that temperature is 0C or 273K and pressure is one bar.
NTP means that temperature is 0C or 273K and pressure is one atm.
2. 1 gm -atom is same as 1 mole of an atom & hence will have wt equal to atomic wt expressed in gms.
3. 1 gm – molecule is same as 1 mole of the molecule & hence will have wt equal to molecular wt
expressed in gms.
4. 1 gm – Ion is same as 1 mole of an ion & hence will have wt equal to ionic wt

 Remember 1 gm of atom & 1gm– atom are two different phrases. Former is mentioning wt (equal to
1gm) & latter is mentioning moles.

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e.g. (1) “ x g atom of nitrogen” = x moles of N atom =  x  NA  number of N atoms


(2) “ x g molecule of nitrogen” = x moles of N2 molecules =  x  NA  molecules of N2
=  2x  NA  number of N atom

Ex.7: How many g atom and no. of atoms are there in (a) 60 g carbon (b) 224.4 g Cu?
Given : At. Weight of C and Cu are 12 and 63.6 respectively. Avogadro’s no. = 6.02 x 1023.
wt wt .  Av.No.
Solution :  g atom  and No. of atoms 
at .wt at.wt
60
(a)  For 60 g C : g atom  5
12
60  6.02 1023
No. of atoms   30.11023
12
224.4
(b) For 224.4 g Cu : g atom   3.53
63.6
224.4  6.02 1023
No. of atoms   21.24 1023
63.6
23
Ex. 8: Find the number of g atoms and weight of an element having 2 × 10 atoms. At. Weight of
element is 32.
Solution  NA atoms have 1 g atom
2 1023
2 1023 atoms have   0.33g atom
6.022 1023
 NA atoms of elements weigh 32 g
2 1023  32
 2 1023 atoms of element weigh   10.628g
6.022 1023
Ex.9: How many mole and molecules of O2 are there in 64g O2? What is the mass of one molecule of
O2?
Solution:  moles of O2 in 32 g O2 = 1
64  1
 In 64 g O2 moles   2 mole
32
23
 32 g O2 contains 6.022 × 10 molecules
6.022 1023  64
 64 g O2 contains   12.044 1023 molecules
32
 NA molecules of O2 weigh 32 gm
32
 1 molecule of O2 weighs  23
 5.3138  10 23 gm .
6.022  10
Ex.10: From 200 mg of CO2 , 1021 molecules are removed. How many g and mole of CO2 are left?
Solution :  6.022 × 1023 molecules of CO2 = 44 g
44 1021
 1021 molecules of CO2  g
6.022 1023
= 7.31 × 10 – 2 = 73. 1 mg
 CO2 left = 200 – 73.1 = 126.9 mg
wt. 126.9 103
Also Mole of CO2 left    2.88 103
M .wt 44
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5. AVERAGE WEIGHT

AVERAGE ATOMIC WEIGHT:

For elements, which have atoms with different relative masses (isotopes) the atomic mass is taken as
weighted mean of the atomic masses.
Average atomic weight = ∑ % of Isotope X Atomic Wt. of Isotope

For example, chlorine contains two isotopes of atomic masses 35 amu and 37 amu. The relative abundance
of these two is in the ratio of 3:1. Thus the atomic mass of chlorine is the average of different relative
35  3  37  1
masses. Therefore atomic mass of chlorine is equal to = 35.5 amu.
4

Ex. 11: Calculate average atomic wt. of siliconif relative abundance is 92.23% Si28, 4.77%Si29,
3% Si30
92.23  28  4.77  29  3  30
Solution : Av at wt  = 28.1 amu
100

Ex. 12: Calculate % abundance of Ag109 if it is known that silver exist in only two isotopesAg107&
Ag109having average atomic weight = 108.5
Solution : Let the % abundance of Ag109 be x
x 109  100  x  107
108.5 
100
10850  10700  2x  x  75%

Shortcut to calculate % abundance when an element X is having only two isotopes XA& XB & average
atomic wt is Xavg
A
X avg  wt of X B
 % of X  100
wt of X A  wt of X b
% obtained above is mole %.

AVERAGE MOLECULAR WEIGHT:

For homogenous mixture of several substances having number of moles, ni& molecular mass M(i) for ith
species, the average molecular weight is given as
n  M1  n 2  M 2  ....
Average Molecular wt. = 1
n1  n 2  .........


T o ta l w eig h t

n Mi i

T o ta l n o .o f m o le s . n i

Ex.13: Dry air has a molar composition as 20% O2& 80% N2. Calculate average molecular wt. of dry
air.
20  32  80  28
Solution :. Average Molecular wt   28.8
100

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MINIMUM MOLECULAR WEIGHT:


It is the molecular weight of a compound shown by presence of minimum number of atoms
[i.e. formonomer = 1 , Dimer = 2 , Trimer = 3 , Tetramer = 4 ]

e.g. Insulin contains 3.4% of Sulphur, Find its Minimum Molecular Weight.
100g insulin contains 3.4g S (sulphur). Assuming it to be monomer [as nothing specified] one sulphur atom
 32 amu (atomic mass),We can write ,3.4 g S is contained by 100g insulin
 100 
32g S is contained by   32  = Minimum Molecular Weight
 3 .4 

6. DETERMINATION OF MOLECULAR & EMPERICAL FORMULAE

The molecular formula of a compound may be defined as the formula which gives the actual number of
atoms of various elements present in the molecule of the compound. For example, the molecular formula of
the compound glucose can be represented as C6H12O6. A molecule of glucose contains six atoms of carbon,
twelve atoms of hydrogen and six atoms of oxygen.
In order to find out molecular formula of a compound, the first step is to determine its empirical formula
from the percentage composition.

Mass of that element


Mass % of an element = × 100
Molar mass

EMPIRICAL FORMULA:
The empirical formula of a compound may be defined as the formula which gives the simplest whole number
ratio of atoms of the various elements present in the molecule of the compound. The empirical formula of the
compound glucose (C6H12O6) is CH2O which shows that C,H and O are present in the simplest ratio of 1:2:1
Empirical formula mass of substance is equal to the sum of atomic masses of all the atoms in the empirical
formula of the substance. Molecular formula is a whole number multiple of empirical formula.
Thus Molecular formula = (Empirical formula)  n where n = 1,2,3…

Molecular Formula Molecular Mass


n 
Empirical Formula Empirical Mass

STEPS FOR WRITING THE EMPIRICAL FORMULA:


The percentage of the elements in the compound is determined by suitable methods and from the data collected, the
empirical formula is determined by the following steps:
 Divide the percentage of each element by its atomic mass. This will give the relative number of moles of
various elements present in the compound.
 Divide the quotients obtained in the above step by the smallest of them so as to get a simple ratio of
moles of various elements.
 Multiply the figures, so obtained by a suitable integer if necessary in order to obtain a whole number
ratio.
 Finally write down the symbols of the various elements side by side and put the above number as the
subscripts to the lower right hand corner of each symbol. This will represent the empirical formula of the
compound.

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STEPS FOR WRITING THE MOLECULAR FORMULA:


 Calculate the empirical formula as described above.
 Find out the empirical formula mass by adding the atomic masses of all the atoms present in the
empirical formula of the compound.
 Divide the molecular mass (determined experimentally by some suitable method) by the empirical
formula mass and find out the value of n.

DENSITY:
Density is of two types,

 Absolute Density

 Relative Density

For liquid and solids:


mass
Absolute density =
volume
density of the substance
Relative density or specific gravity =
density of water at 4o C
For Gases :
Molar mass PM
Absolute density (mass / volume) = 
Molar volume RT
Where P is pressure of gas, M = mol. Wt. of gas, R is the gas constant, T is the temperature.

VAPOUR DENSITY:

Vapour density is defined as the density of the gas with respect to hydrogen gas at the same temperature and
pressure.
PMgas
d gas M M
Vapour density =  RT => V. D. = gas  gas
d H2 PM H 2 M H2 2
RT
Mgas = 2 (V.D.)

Relative density can be calculated w.r.t. to other gases also.

Ex. 14: What is the V.D. of SO2 with respect to CH4

 MW  SO 64
Solution: V.D. = 2
V.D. = 4
 MW CH 4
16

Ex. 15: 11.2 litre of the particular gas at N.T.P. weighs 16 gram. What is the V. D. of gas.

Solution: wt.of11.2 litre = 16 gram.


11.2 16 32
moles =  M  32 gm mole V.D.=  16
22.4 M 2

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Ex.16: A substance, on analysis, gave the following percentage composition: Na = 43. 4%,
C = 11.3%, O = 45.3%. Calculate its empirical formula. {Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16]
Solution:
Simplest
Atomic Relative number of Simple ratio
Element SYMBOL % age whole no.
Mass moles of moles
ratio
43.4 1.88
Sodium Na 43.4 23  1.88 2 2
23 0 .94
11.3 0.94
Carbon C 11.3 12  0.94 1 1
12 0.94
45.3 2.83
Oxygen O 45.3 16  2.83 3 3
16 0.94
Therefore, the empirical formula is Na2CO3.

Ex.17: A compound has the following composition: Mg = 9.76%, S = 13.01%, O = 26.01%,


H2O = 51.22%. What is its empirical formula? [Mg = 24, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1]
Solution:

Atomic Relative number Simple ratio Simplest whole


Element Symbol % age
Mass of moles of moles no. ratio

9.76 0.406
Magnesium Mg 9.76 24  0.406 1 1
24 0.406

13.01 0.406
Sulphur S 13.01 32  0.406 1 1
32 0.406
26.01 1.625
Oxygen O 26.01 16  1.625 4 4
16 0.406
51.22 2.846
Water H2O 51.22 18  2.846 7 7
18 0.406
Hence, the empirical formula is MgSO4. 7H2O.

Ex.18: What is the simplest formula of the compound which has the following percentage
composition. Carbon 80%, Hydrogen 20%. If the molecular mass is 30, calculate its
molecular formula.
Solution:
Relative number Simple ratio Simples whole
Element % age At. Mass
of moles of moles no. ratio
80 6.66
C 80 12  6.66 1 1
12 6.66
20 20
H 20 1  20 3 3
1 6.66

 Empirical formula is CH3


Molecular mass 30
Empirical mass = 12 1+13 = 15 n   2
Emprical formula mass 15
Molecular formula = Empirical formula  2 = CH3 2 = C2H6

Ex.19: A compound on analysis gave the following percentage composition:


C = 54.54%, H = 9.09%, O = 36.36%.The vapour density of the compound was found to be
44. Find out the molecular formula of the compound.

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Solution: Calculation of empirical formula.

Relative number Simple ratio of Simplest whole


Element % age At. Mass
of moles mole no. ratio
54.54 4 .53
C 54.54 12  4.53 2 2
12 2.27
9.09 9.09
H 9.09 1  9.09 4 4
1 2.27
36 .36 2.27
O 36.36 16  2 .27 1 1
16 2.27

 Empirical formula is C2H4O. Calculation of molecular formula:


Empirical formula mass = 12 2+14+161 = 44
Molecular mass = 2  Vapour density = 2 44 = 88
Molecular mass 88
n  2
Empirical formula mass 44
Molecular formula = Empirical formula  n = C2H4O  2= C4H8O2.

Ex. 20: An organic compound on analysis gave the following data: C = 57.82%, H = 3.6%, and the
rest is oxygen. Its vapour density is 83. Find its empirical and molecular formula.

Solution: Calculation of empirical formula:

Simplest
Relative number of Simple ratio of
Element % age At. Mass whole no.
moles moles
ratio
57.82 4. 8
C 57.82 12  4.80 2 4
12 2. 4
3.60 3.6
H 3.60 1  3.60  1.5 3
1 2.3
38 .58 2.4
O 38.58 16  2.40 1 2
16 2.4

 Empirical formula is C4H3O2. Empirical formula mass = 124+ 13 + 2  16 = 83


Molecular mass = 2  V.D. = 2  83 = 166
Molecular mass 166
n  2
Emprical formula mass 83
Molecular formula = Empirical formula  n = C4H3O2 2 = C8H6O4

Ex.21: 2.746 gm of a compound gave on analysis 1.94 gm of silver, 0.268 gm of sulphur and 0.538
gm of oxygen. Find the empirical formula of the compound. (At masses : Ag = 108, S = 32,
O = 16)

Solution: To calculate percentage composition.


Percentage composition of the compound is calculated as under:
1.94
Silver   100  70.65%
2.746
0.268 0.538
Sulphur =  100  9.75 % Oxygen =  100 = 19.6%
2.746 2.746

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To calculate empirical formula:

Relative number Simplest ratio Simplest


Element % age At. Mass
of moles of moles whole no. ratio
70.65 0.654
Ag 70.65 108  0.654 2 2
108 0.305
9.75 0.305
S 9.75 32  0.305 1 1
32 0.305
19.6 1.22
O 19.6 16 16
 1.22 4 4
0.305

 Empirical formula is Ag2SO4

7. STOICHIOMETRY

The word ‘Stoichiometry’ is derived from two Greek words - Stoicheion (meaning element) and metron
(meaning measure). Stoichiometry, thus, deals with the calculation of masses (sometimes volumes also) of
the reactants and the products involved in a chemical reaction. Before understanding how to calculate the
amounts of reactants required or those produced in a chemical reaction, let us study what information is
available from the balanced chemical equation of a given reaction. Let us consider the combustion of
methane. A balanced equation for this reaction is as given below:

CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g)

The above balance reaction gives the following information:


 For every 1 mole of CH4, 2 mole of O2 will be required to produce 1 mole of CO2 and 2 moles of H2O.
this signifies Mole – Mole relation
 For every 16 gms of CH4 , 64 gms of O2 will be required to produce 44gms of CO2 and 36 gms of H2O
this signifies Mass – Mass relation
 Ratio of moles of CO2 : H2O at any time = 1 : 2
 There will be no change in total mass of all reactants and products at any time for any chemical reaction.
 For the above reaction only, there will be no change in total number of moles of all reactants and
products.
In order to solve the problems based on chemical calculations the following steps, in general, are quite helpful.
 Write the balanced chemical equation.
 Write the atomic mass/molecular mass/moles/molar volumes of the species involved in calculations.
 Calculate the result by applying unitary method.

7.1 INTERPRETATION OF BALANCED CHEMICAL EQUATIONS

Once we get a balanced chemical equation then we can interpret a chemical equation by following ways
1. Mass – mass analysis
2. Mass – volume analysis
3. Volume – volume analysis

MASS – MASS ANALYSIS:


Consider the reaction, 2 KClO3  2 KCl + 3O 2
According to stoichiometry of the reaction
Mass – mass ratio: 2 × 122.5 : 2 × 74.5 : 3 × 32

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Mass of KClO3 2 122.5


Or 
Mass of KCl 2  74.5
Mass of KClO3 2 122.5

Mass of O2 3  32

Ex.22: 367.5 gram KClO3 ( M = 122.5) is heated. How many gram KCl and oxygen is produced.
Solution: Balanced chemical equation for heating of KClO3 is
2 KClO3  2 KCl  3O2
Mass – mass ratio: 2 x 122.5 gm 2 x 74.5 gm : 3 x 32 gm
Mass of KClO3 2 122.5 367.5 122.5
  
Mass of KCl 2  74.5 W 74.5
WKCl = 3 x 74.5 = 223.5 gm
Mass of KClO3 2 122.5 367.5 2  122.5
  
Mass of O2 3  32 W 3  32
Woxygen = 144 gm

Ex. 23: How many grams of oxygen (O2) are required to completely react with 0.200 g of hydrogen
(H2) to yield water (H2O)? Also calculate the amount of water formed. (At. Mass H = 1; O =
16).

Solution: The balanced equation for the reaction is


2H2 + O2  2H2O
2 mol 1 mol 2 mol
4g 32 g 36 g
Now, 4g of H2 require oxygen = 32 g
32
0.200 g of H2 require oxygen =  0.200 = 1.6 g
4
Again, 4g of H2 produce H2O = 36 g
36
0.200 g of H2 produce H2O =  0.200 = 1.8 g.
4

MASS – VOLUME ANALYSIS :


Now again consider decomposition of KClO3
2 KClO3  2 KCl  3O2
Mass Volume ratio, 2 x 122.5 gm : 2 x 74.5 gm : 3 x 22.4 lt at N.T.P.
we can use two relation for volume of oxygen.
Mass of KClO3 2  122.5
 …(i)
volume of O2 at NTP 3  22.4 lt
Mass of KCl 2  74.5
And  …(ii)
volume of O2 at NTP 3  22.4 lt

Ex.24: Calculate the volume of O 2 and volume of air needed for combustion of 1 kg carbon at
NTP.(Assume air contains 20% oxygen)
Solution: C + O 2  CO 2
 12 g C requires O 2 = 22.4 litre of O 2 = 1 mole of O 2 = 32 g of O 2

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22.4  1000
 1000 g C requires O 2  litre
12
= 1866.67 litre O 2
 Vair  5  VO  5 1866.67  9333.35litre
2

Ex. 25: What volume of oxygen at N.T.P. can be produced by 6.125 g of potassium chlorate
according to the reaction 2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2.
Solution: The given chemical equation is :
2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2
2 mol 2 mol 3 mol
2  122.5 g 3  22.4L at N.T.P
Now 245 g of KClO3 produce oxygen at N.T.P. = 3  22.4 L
3  22.4
6.125 g of KClO3 produce oxygen =  6.125 = 1.68 L at N.T.P.
245
VOLUME – VOLUME RELATIONSHIP:

It relates the volume of gaseous species (reactants or product) with the volume of another gaseous species
(reactant or product) involved in a chemical reaction.
Ex. 26: What volume of oxygen gas at NTP is necessary for complete combustion of 20 litre of
propane measured at 0oC and 760 mm pressure.
Solution: The balanced equation is
C3 H 8  5O2  3CO2  4 H 2 O
1vol 5 vol
1litre 5litre
1 litre of propane requires = 5 litre of oxygen
20 litre of propane will require = 5  20 = 100 litre of oxygen at 760 mm pressure and 0oC.

Ex.27: The percentage by volume of C 3 H 8 in a mixture of C 3 H 8 , CH 4 and CO is 36.5. Calculate


the volume of CO2 produced when 100 mL of the mixture is burnt in excess of O 2 .
3CO2  4H2O l
Solution: C3H8  5O2 
CO2  2H2O l
CH4  2O2 
1
CO  O 2   CO 2
2
Let a mL, b mL and c mL be volumes of C3H8 , CH 4 and CO respectively in 100 mL given simple,
thena + b + c = 100and a = 36.5
Now CO2 is formed as a result of combustion of mixture.
 1 vol. C3 H 8 gives 3 vol. CO 2 
 
Vol. of CO 2 formed = 3a + b + c  1vol. CH 4 gives 1 vol. CO 2 
 1 vol. CO gives 1 vol. CO 
 2 

 3 36.5  100  36.5 = 173 mL

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7.2 LIMITING REAGENT


In many situations one of the reactants is present in excess therefore some of this reactant is left over on
completion of the reaction. For example, consider the combustion of hydrogen.
2H2(g) + O2(g)  2H2O(g)
Suppose that 2 moles of H2 and 2 moles of O2 are available for reaction. It follows from the equation that
only 1 mole of O2 is required for complete combustion of 2 moles of H2 ; 1 mole of O2 will, therefore, be left
over on completion of the reaction. The amount of the product obtained is determined by the amount of the
reactant that is completely consumed in the reaction. This reactant is called the limiting reagent. Thus,
limiting reagent may be defined as the reactant which is completely consumed during the reaction.
In the above example H2 is the limiting reagent. The amount of H2O formed will, therefore, be determined
by the amount of H2. Since 2 moles of H2 are taken, it will form 2 moles of H2O on combustion.

 The best method to identify limiting reagent is by dividing given moles of each reactant by their
stoichiometric coefficient, the one with least ratio is limiting reagent. It is particularly useful when
number of reactants are more than two.

Ex.28: How much magnesium sulphide can be obtained from 2.00 g of magnesium and 2.00 g of
sulphur by the reaction Mg + S MgS? Which is the limiting reagent? Calculate the
amount of the reactants which remains unreacted.
Solution: First of all each of this masses are converted into moles:
2.00
2.00 g of Mg = = 0.0824 moles of Mg
24.3
2.00
2.00 g of S = = 0.0624 moles of S
32.1
From the equation, Mg + S  MgS, it follows that one mole of Mg reacts with one mole of S.
We are given more moles of Mg than of S. Therefore, Mg is in excess and some of it will remain
unreacted when the reaction is over. S is the limiting reagent and will control the amount of
product. From the equation we note that one mole of S gives one mole of MgS, so 0.0624 mole of S
will react with 0.0624 mole of Mg to form 0.0624 mole of MgS.
Molar mass of MgS = 56.4 g
 Mass of MgS formed = 0.0624  56.4 g = 3.52 g of MgS
Moles of Mg left unreacted = 0.0824 –0.0624 moles of Mg
= 0.0200 moles of Mg
Mass of Mg left unreacted = moles of Mg  molar mass of Mg
= 0.0200  24.3 g of Mg = 0.486 g of Mg

Ex. 29:4 mole of MgCO 3 is reacted with 6 moles of HCl solution. Find the volume of CO 2 gas produced at
NTP. The reaction is MgCO3  2HCl  MgCl 2  CO2  H 2 O
Solution: From the reaction MgCO3  2HCl  MgCl 2  CO2  H 2 O
Given moles 4 mole 6 mole
Given mole ratio 2 : 3
Stoichiometric
Coefficient ratio 1 : 2
There should be one limiting reagent.
To find the limiting reagent, divide the given moles by stoichiometric coefficient.

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MgCO3 HCl
4 6
4 3
1 2
HCl is limiting reagent.
moles of HCl moles of CO 2 produced
 =
2 1
 moles of CO 2 produced = 3 moles
 volumes of CO 2 produced at N.T.P, = 3  22.4  67.2L

Ex.30: What weight of AgCl will be precipitated when a solution containing 4.77 g NaCl is added to a solution of
5.77g of AgNO3 ?
Solution: AgN O 3 + N aC l   AgC l + N aN O 3
5.77 4.77
mmoles. mixed 1000 1000
170 58.5
= 33.94 = 81.54 0 0
mmoles. left 0 47.60 33.94 33.94
 mmoles of AgCl formed = 33.94
w
1000  33.94 W AgC l  4.87 g
143.5

7.3 CALCULATION INVOLVING PERCENT YIELD


In general, when a reaction is carried out in the laboratory we do not obtain actually the theoretical amount of the
product. The amount of the product that is actually obtained is called the actual yield. Knowing the actual yield and
theoretical yield, the percentage yield can be calculated as
Actual yield
%yield =  100
Theoretical yield

7.4 PRINCIPLE OF ATOM CONSERVATION (POAC)


In chemical reaction atoms are conserved, so moles of atoms shall also be conserved. This is known as
principle of atomic conservation. This principle is helpful in solving problems of nearly all stoichiometric
calculations e.g.
KClO3(s) KCl(s) + O2(g)
Applying POAC for K atoms
Moles of K atoms in KClO3 = Moles of K atoms in KCl
Since one mole of KClO3 contains 1 mol of K atom. Similarly 1 mol of KCl contains one mole of K atoms.
WKClO3 WKCl
 1 n KClO3  1 n KCl  1  (Mass-mass relationship)
M KClO3 M KCl
Applying POAC for ‘O’ atoms Moles of O atom in KClO3 = Moles of O atom in O2
WKClO3 Vol.of O2 at STP
 3 n = 2 n  3 ×
KClO 3 O2
=2×
M KClO3 Standard Molar Volume
(Mass volume relationship of reactant and product)
In this way applying POAC we can break the chemical equation into a number of arithmetic equations
without balancing the chemical equation. Moreover number of reactions and their sequence from reactants to
products are not required. It is important to note that POAC can be applied for the atoms which remain
conserved in chemical reaction.

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 Please note that the balanced reaction is essential in Mole method of solving .Only while using
POAC (which would be applicable only in certain cases), balanced reaction is not required.
 You can use POAC for all atoms in the compound only if all the reactants and products are known.
Ex.31: A sample of KClO3 on decomposition yielded 448 mL of oxygen gas at NTP Calculate :
(i) weight of oxygen produced ,
(ii) weight of KClO3 originally taken
(iii) weight of KCl produced
(K = 39 , Cl = 35.5 and O = 16)
448
Solution: (i) Mole of oxygen =  0.02
22400
Wt. of oxygen = 0.02 × 32 = 0.64gm

(ii) KClO3  KCl + O2


Applying POAC for O atoms,
Moles of O atoms in KClO3 = moles of O atoms in O2
3 (moles of KClO3)= 2 (moles of O2)
(1 mole of KClO3 contains 3 moles of O and 1 mole of O2 contains 2 moles of O)
wt. of KClO3 vol. at NTP (litre )
3  2
mol. wt. of KClO3 22.4
wt. of KClO3 vol. at NTP (litre)
3  2
122.5 22.4
Wt. of KClO3 = 1.634 g

(iii) Again applying POAC for K atoms,


Moles of K atoms in KClO3 = 1 x moles of KCl
(1 mole of KClO3 contains 1 mole of K and 1 mole of KCl contains 1 mole of K)
wt. of KClO3 wt. of KCl
1  1
mol. wt . of KClO3 mol . wt . of KCl
Wt. of KCl = 0.9937 g.

Ex.32: 27.6 g of K2CO3 was treated by a series of reagents so as to convert all of its carbon to
K2Zn3[ Fe(CN)6]2. Calculate the weight of the product.

Several
Solution: K2CO3 
steps
 K2 Zn3[ Fe(CN )6 ]2
Since C atoms are conserved, applying POAC for C atoms,
Moles of C in K2CO3 = moles of C in K2Zn3 [ Fe(CN)6 ]2
1 x mole of K2CO3 = 12 x moles of K2Zn3 [ Fe(CN)6]2
  1 mole of K 2CO3 contains 1 mole C & 1 mole of K 2 Zn3[ Fe(CN )6 ] 2 
 
 contains 12 mole of C 
wt. of K 2 CO 3 wt. of the product
= 12 ×
mol. wt. of K 2 CO 3 mol. wt. of product
27.6 698
Wt. of K 2 Zn 3  Fe  CN 6  = × = 11.6 g.
2 138 12
[mol. wt. of K 2CO3  138 and mol. wt. of K 2 Zn 3  Fe  CN 6  = 698 ]
2

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Ex.33: In a gravimetric determination of P, an aqueous solution of dihydrogen phosphate ion H 2 PO 4 is


treated with a mixture of ammonium and magnesium ions to precipitate magnesium
ammonium phosphate, Mg  NH 4  PO 4 . 6H 2 O . This is heated and decomposed to magnesium
pyrophosphate, Mg 2 P2O7 which is weighed. A solution of H 2 PO 4 yielded 1.054 g of Mg 2 P2O7 .
What weight of NaH2PO4 was present originally?

Solution: NaH 2 PO 4  Mg 2  NH 4  Mg  NH 4  PO 4 .6H 2O 


heated
 Mg 2 P2 O 7
Since P atoms are conserved, applying POAC for P atoms, moles of P in NaH2PO4 = moles of
P in Mg 2 P2O7
1 × moles of NaH 2 PO4 = 2 × moles of Mg 2 P2 O7
( 1 mole of NaH2PO4 contains 1 mole of P and 1 mole of Mg 2 P2O7 contains 2 moles of P)
wt. of NaH 2 PO 4 wt. of Mg 2 P2 O 7
=2×
mol. wt. of NaH 2 PO 4 mol. wt. of Mg 2 P2 O 7
wt. of NaH 2 PO4 1.054
=2×
120 222
Wt. of NaH2PO4 = 1.14 g.

Ex.34: What weight of CO is required to form Re 2  CO 10 from 2.50 g of Re 2 O 7 according to the
unbalanced reaction:
Re 2 O 7  CO  Re 2  CO 10  CO 2
(Re = 186.2, C = 12 and O = 16 )

Solution: Suppose the relative moles of each reactant and product are as follows (just for convenience)
Re2 O7  CO  Re2  CO 10  CO2
a moles b moles d moles
cmoles

Applying POAC for Re atoms,


Moles of Re in Re 2 O 7 = moles of Re in Re 2  CO 10
2 × moles of Re2 O 7 = 2 × moles of Re 2  CO 10
2a = 2c or a=c … (i)
Applying POAC for C atoms,
Moles of C atoms in CO = moles of C in Re 2  CO 10 + moles of C in CO2
1 × moles of CO = 10 × moles of Re 2  CO 10 + 1 × moles of CO 2
Or b = 10c + d …. (ii)
Applying POAC for O atoms,
Moles of O in Re 2 O 7 + moles of O in CO
= moles of O in Re 2  CO 10 + moles of O in CO2
7 × moles of Re2O7 + 1 × moles of CO = 10 × moles of Re2 (CO)10 + 2 × moles of CO2
or 7a + b = 10 c + 2d …. (iii)
From the eqns. (i), (ii), (iii), we get,17a = b
i.e., 17 × moles of Re2O7 = moles of CO
2.50 wt. of CO in g  mol. wt. of Re2O7 = 484.4
17 × = . 
484.4 28  mol. wt. of CO = 28 
Wt. of CO = 2.46 g.

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Ex.35: 1.84 g of a mixture of CaCO3 and MgCO3 was heated to a constant weight. The constant
weight of the residue was found to be 0.96 g. Calculate the percentage composition of the
mixture. (Ca = 40, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16)

Solution : On heating CaCO3 and MgCO3 , one of the products, CO2 , escapes out.
We have,
CaCO 3  MgCO 3  CaO  MgO  CO 2 
yg  0.96  y  g
xg 1.84  x  g
Applying POAC for Ca atoms,
Moles of Ca atoms in CaCO3 = moles of Ca atoms in CaO
1 × moles of CaCO3 = 1 × moles of CaO
x y CaCO3  100
  CaO  56  … (i)
100 56  
Again applying POAC for Mg atoms,
Moles of Mg in MgCO3 = moles of Mg in MgO
1 × moles of MgCO3 = 1 × moles of MgO
1.84  x 0.96  y MgCO3  84 
 …. (ii)
84 40  MgO  40 
From eqns. (i) and (ii), we get x = 1 g, y = 0.84 g
1
% of CaCO3 = × 100 = 54.34 %
1.84
% of MgCO3 = 45.66 %

Ex.36: What mass of zinc is required to produce hydrogen by reaction with HCl which is enough to
produce 4 mol of ammonia according to the reactions.
Zn + 2HCl  ZnCl2 + H2
3H2 + N2  2NH3

Solution: The given equations are


Zn + 2HCl  ZnCl2 + H2
3H2 + N2 2NH3
From the equations it is clear that
2 mol of NH3 require = 3 mol of H2 ; 3 mol of H2 require = 3 mol of Zn
Thus, 2 mol of NH3 require = 3 mol of Zn = 3  65 g of Zn
3  65
 4 mol of NH3 require =  4 = 390 g of Zn.
2

8. CONCENTRATION TERMS
Many chemical reactions occur in the solution state and hence stoichiometric problems may sometimes
involve different concentration terms of solutions to give an idea of amount of solute and solvent present in
the solution. There are various ways to represent concentration of the solution as mentioned below.
 In a solution the designation of solute and solvent is often a matter of convenience, however many a
times the one present in smaller quantity is termed as solute. Also, a solution may have more than one
solute but solvent cannot be more than one.
 All the concentration terms given below are applicable only when there is a homogenous solution or
when solute completely dissolves in the solvent.
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The following concentrations terms are used to expressed the concentration of a solution. These are:
1. Molarity (M)
2. Molality (m)
3. Mole fraction (X)
4. % calculation
5. Normality (N) (will be discussed in volumetric analysis)
6. ppm
Please remember that all these concentration terms are related to one another. By knowing one concentration
term you can also find the other concentration terms. Let us discuss all of them one by one.

8.1 MOLARITY (M)


The number of moles of a solute dissolved in 1 L (1000 ml) of the solution is known as the molarity of
the solution.
number of moles
Molarity of solution =
volume of solution in litre
Let a solution is prepared by dissolving w gm of solute of mol. wt. M in V ml water.
w
 Number of moles of solute dissolved =
M
w
 V ml water have mole of solute
M
w 1000
 1000 ml water have
M  Vin ml
w × 1000
 Molarity (M) =
 Mol. wt of solute  × Vin ml
Some other relations may also useful.
mass of solute
Number of millimoles = × 1000 =  Molarity of solution × Vin ml 
 Mol. wt. of solute 
N umber of millimole of solute
Molarity =
T otal volume of solution in ml

 If a particular solution having volume V1 and molarity = M1 is diluted to V2 mL then


M1V1  M 2 V2 M2 : Resultant molarity

 If a solution having volume V1 and molarity M1 is mixed with another solution of same solute
having volume V2 mL & molarity M2
M1V1  M 2 V2
M R = Resultant molarity =
V1  V2

 Molarity is a unit that depends upon temperature. It varies inversely with temperature.
Mathematically : Molarity decreases as temperature increases.
1 
Molarity  
temperature volume

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Ex. 37: 149 gm of potassium chloride (KCl) is dissolved in 10 L of an aqueous solution. Determine
the molarity of the solution (K = 39, Cl = 35.5)

Solution: Molecular mass of KCl = 39 + 35.5 = 74.5 gm


149gm 2
 Moles of KCl = 2  Molarity of the solution =  0.2M
74.5gm 10

Ex.38: What volume of a 3.0 M HCl solution be mixed with 500 mL of a 7 M HCl solution to
prepare a HCl solution whose molarity will be 4.0?

Solution:Let V mL of 3.0 M HCl solution is taken, then 3 V + 500 × 7 = 4 ×  500 + V   V = 1500 mL

Ex.39: Determine molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL of a 0.26 M H 2SO 4 solution with
another 150 mL 0.48 M H 4SO 4 solution.

Solution: It is a case of mixing of two solutions of different molarities. Applying the mixing formula:
M V  M 2 V2 50  0.26  150  0.48
 M3  1 1  = 0.425 M
V3 50  150

Ex.40: What volume of a 5.00 M H 2SO 4 solution should be added to a 150 mL 1.0 M H 2SO 4
solution to obtain a solution of sulphuric acid of molarity 2.5?
Solution: It is again a case of mixing of two solutions. Let us assume that V mL of the stock solution of
H 2SO 4 is added.
 5V + 150 × 1.0 = 2.5 × 150 + V 
 2.5 V = 225
225
 V  90 mL
2.5

Ex.41: A 150 mL 0.25 M NaCl solution, 250 mL 0.45 M CaCl2 solution and a 100 mL 0.60 M AlCl3
solution are mixed together and diluted to a final volume of 750 mL by adding enough water.
 
Determine molarity of chloride ion Cl  in solution assuming that all three salts are
completely soluble as well as completely dissociated.
Solution: First we need to calculate total mmoles of Cl from the three salt solutions:
mmoles of Cl ion from NaCl = 37.5
mmoles of Cl ion from CaCl2 = 2 × mmoles of CaCl2
= 2 × 112.5 = 225

mmoles of Cl ion from AlCl3 = 3 × mmoles of AlCl3
 3  60  180

 Total mmoles of Cl in final solution
= 37.5 + 225 + 180 = 442.5
mmoles of Cl – 442.5
 Molarity of Cl – = = = 0.59 M
mL of solution 750

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8.2 MOLALITY (m)


The molality is the number of moles of solute present in one Kg of solvent

w solute × 1000
m =
Molecular Mass of solute × w solvent  gm 
 Molality is independent of temperature changes.

Ex.42: 255 gm of an aqueous solution contains 5 gm of urea. What is the concentration of the
solution in terms of molality. (Mol. wt. of urea = 60)
Solution: Mass of urea = 5 gm
Molecular mass of urea = 60
5
Number of moles of urea =  0.083
60
Mass of solvent = (255 – 5) = 250 gm
Number of moles of solute
 Molality of the solution = × 1000
Mass of solvent in gram
0.083
= 1000  0.333
250
Ex.43: The molarity and molality of a solution are M and m respectively. If the molecular weight of
the solute is M , calculate the density of the solution interms of M, m and M .
Solution: Let weight of solute be wg and weight of solvent is Wg and volume of solution is V mL.
w 1000
 M … (1)
M  V
w  1000
m … (2)
M  W
wW
D … (3)
V
MMV
By Eq. (1) w  … (4)
1000
w 1000 MMV 1000
By Eq. (2) W   by Eq. (4)
M  m 1000  M  m
MV
W … (5)
m
MV MMV

1 M 
 By Eq. (3) D  m 1000 D  M 
V  m 1000 
MOLARITY(M) AND MOLALITY(m) FOR PURE SUBSTANCES:
1. Water:
Let the sample of water has 1000 ml
Mass of water = 1000 gm [density of water = 1gm/mL.]
Moles of water  1000 mol
18
 1000   1000 
  mol
Molarity  
18   55.55M & molality =  18   55.55 m
1 1 kg

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2. Pure ethanol :
d gm/ml (density of ethanol)
(C2H5OH) let volume of ethanol taken be 1000 ml.
wt of ethanol in 1000 ml = 1000  d gm
1000d 1000d
Mol of ethanol =  Molarity =
46 46
 1000d 
  mol 1000
 46 
& molality of ethanol = 
 1000d  46
  kg
 1000 

 Parts per million (ppm)  Amount of solute ( in g ) with 106 g solvent

 Parts per billion ( ppb)  Amount of solute ( in g ) with 109 g solvent

8.3 MOLE FRACTION (X)

The ratio of number of moles of the solute or solvent present in the solution and the total number of moles
present in the solution is known as the mole fraction of substance concerned.
Let number of moles of solute in solution = n
Number of moles of solvent in solution = N
n
 Mole fraction of solute  X1  
nN
N
 Mole fraction of solvent  X 2  
nN
Also X1  X2  1
 Mole fraction is a pure number. It will remain independent of temperature changes.

8.4 PERCENTAGE CONCENTRATION

The concentration of a solution may also be expressed in terms of percentage in the following way.

1. % WEIGHT BY WEIGHT (W/W):

It is given as mass of solute present in per 100 gm of solution.


mass of solute in gm
% w/w = × 100
mass of solution in gm

2. % WEIGHT BY VOLUME (W/V) :

It is given as mass of solute present in per 100 ml of solution


mass of solute in gm
% w/v = × 100
volume of solution in ml

3. % VOLUME BY VOLUME (V/V) :


It is given as volume of solute present in per 100 ml solution.
Volume of solute in ml
% V/V = × 100
Volume of solution in ml
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Ex. 44:0.5 g of a substance is dissolved in 25 g of a solvent. Calculate the percentage amount of the
substance in the solution.
Solution: Mass of substance = 0.5 g Mass of solvent = 25 g
0.5
 Percentage of the substance (w/w)  100  1.96
0.5  25

Ex. 45: 20cm3 of an alcohol is dissolved in 80cm3 of water. Calculate the percentage of alcohol in
solution.
Solution: Volume of alcohol = 20cm3 Volume of water = 80cm3
20
percentage of alcohol  100  20 %
20  80

EXERCISE

LEVEL-1

LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATIONS

1. Potassium combines with two isotopes of chlorine (35Cl and 37Cl) respectively to form two samples
of KCl. Their formation follows the law of:
(A) constant proportions (B) multiple proportions
(C) reciprocal proportions (D) none of these

2. H2S contains 5.88% hydrogen, H2O contains 11.11% hydrogen while SO2 contains 50% sulphur.
These figures illustrate the law of:
(A) conservation of mass (B) constant proportions
(C) multiple proportions (D) reciprocal proportions

3. Irrespective of the source, pure sample of water always yields 88.89% mass of oxygen and 11.11%
mass of hydrogen. This is explained by the law of:
(A) conservation of mass (B) constant composition
(C) multiple proportion (D) constant volume

MOLE CONCEPT

4. The best standard of atomic mass is:


(A) carbon-12 (B) oxygen-16 (C) hydrogen-1.008 (D) chlorine-35.5

5. The chemical formula of a particular compound represents:


(A) the size of its molecule
(B) the shape of its molecule
(C) the total number of atoms in a molecule
(D) the number of different types of atoms in a molecule

6. Two containers P and Q of equal volume (1 litre each) contain O2 and SO2 respectively at 300 K and
1 atmosphere. Then
(A) Number of molecules in P is less than that in Q
(B) Number of molecules in Q is less than that in P
(C) Number of molecules in P and Q are same
(D) Either (A) or (B)

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7. 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is
(A) NO (B) N2O (C) CO (D) CO2

8. The weight of a molecule of the compound C60H122 is


(A) 1.4  1021 g (B) 1.09  1021 g (C) 5.025  1023 g (D) 16.023  1023 g

9. 1.0 mole of CO2 contains:


(A) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of C (B) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of O
(C) 18.1 × 1023 molecules of CO2 (D) 3 g-atoms of CO2

10. The number of atoms in 1.4 g nitrogen gas is:


(A) 6.02 × 1022 (B) 3.01 × 1022 S(C) 1.20 × 1023 (D) 6.02 × 1023

11. Which of the following has the smallest number of molecules?


(A) 22.4 × 103 ml of CO2 gas (B) 22 g of CO2 gas
(C) 11.2 litre of CO2 gas (D) 0.1 mole of CO2 gas

12. The number of grams of H2SO4 present in 0.25 mole of H2SO4 is


(A) 0.245 (B) 2.45 (C) 24.5 (D) 49.0

13. At NTP 1.0 g of hydrogen gas has volume in litre:


(A) 1.12 (B) 22.4 (C) 2.24 (D) 11.2

14. 19.7 kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. The atoms of gold recovered are: (Au = 197)
(A) 10 (B) 6.02 × 1023 (C) 6.02 × 1024 (D) 6.02 × 1025

15. The molecular mass of CO2 is 44 amu and Avogadro’s number is 6.02 × 1023. Therefore, the mass of
one molecule of CO2 is:
(A) 7.31 × 10–23 (B) 3.65 × 10–23 (C) 1.01 × 10–23 (D) 2.01 × 10–23

16. The number of moles of H2 in 0.224 litre of hydrogen gas at NTP is:
(A) 1 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.01 (D) 0.001

17. Choose the wrong statement:-


(A) 1 Mole means 6.02  1023 particles
(B) Molar mass is mass of one molecule
(C) Molar mass is mass of one mole of a substance
(D) Molar mass is molecular mass expressed in grams

18. 3 mol of ammonia contains:


(A) 18 gm of hydrogen (B) 42 gm of nitrogen
(C) both (D) None

19. Total no. of protons in 36 ml of water at 4°C (where  of water = 1 g/ml) is


(A) 20 (B) 16 (C) 20 NA (D) 16NA

20. In which of the following pairs both members have same no. of atoms
(A) 1 gm O2, 1 gm O3 (B) 1 gm N2, 2 gm N
(C) Both (D) None

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21. The molecular wt. of green vitriol is M0. The wt. of 103 NA molecules of it is
(A) M0 gm (B) M0 mg (C) 103 M0 gm (D) 103 M0 mg

22. Which of the following has the highest mass


(A) 1g atom of C (B) ½ mole of CH4 (C) 10ml of H2O (D) 3.0111023 atom of oxygen.

23. Which one of the following samples contains the largest number of atoms.
(A) 2.5 mole CH4 (B) 10 mole He (C) 4 mole SO2 (D) 1.8 mole S8

24. The no. of atoms in 52 a.m.u. of He is


(A) 131023 (B) 1.31023 (C) 13 (D) 103

25. The no. of electrons in 2 gm ion of nitrate ion (NO3-) is


(A) 64 (B) 64NA (C) 32 (D) 32NA

26. The mass of carbon present in 0.5 moles of K4[Fe(CN)6] is


(A) 1.8 g (B) 18 g (C) 3.6 g (D) 36 g

27. The largest no. of molecules is in


(A) 28 g of CO2 (B) 46 g of C2H5OH (C) 36 g of H2O (D) 54 g of N2O5

28. How many electrons are present in 180 gm. of water


(A) 1 NA (B) 10 NA (C) 18 NA (D) 100 NA

29. How many molecules of H2O are contained in 2.48 g of Na2S2O3.5H2O (at.wt. of Na=23,S=32)
(A) 31020 (B) 31021 (C) 31022 (D) 31023

30. The no. of silver atoms present in a 90% pure silver wire weighing 10 g. is (at.wt. of Ag=108)
(A) 8x1022 (B) 0.62x1023 (C) 5x1022 (D) 6.2x1029

31. The number of molecules of water in 333 g of Al2(SO4)3.18H2O is


(A) 186.021023 (B) 96.021023 (C) 18 (D) 36

32. The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018 g is
(A) 6.021026 (B) 6.021023 (C) 6.021020 (D) 6.021019

33. If NA is Avogadro’s number, then the number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of nitride ion ( N3  ) is
(Given One atom of Nhas 5 valence electrons)
(A) 2.4 NA (B) 4.2 NA (C) 1.6 NA (D) 3.2 NA

34. A person adds 3.42 of sucrose (C12H22O11) in his cup of tea to sweeten it. How many atoms of carbon
does he add?
(A) 132.44  1021 atoms (B) 66.22  1021 atoms
(C) 0.1 atoms (D) 72.27 1021 atoms

35. The total number of protons in 8.4 g of MgCO3 is (NA = 6.021023) :


(A) 2.521022 (B) 2.521024 (C) 3.011024 (D) 3.011022

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36. 4.4g of CO 2 and 2.24litre of H 2 at NTP are mixed in a container. The total number of molecules
present in the container will be
(A) 6.022 1023 (B) 1.2044  10 23 (C) 2 mole (D) 6.023 1024

37. Which sample contains the largest number of atoms:


(A) 1mg of C 4 H10 (B) 1mg of N 2 (C) 1mg of Na (D) 1mL of water

38. The atomic weight of a triatomic gas is a. The correct formula for the number of moles of gas in its
w gram is:
3w w a
(A) (B) (C) 3wa (D)
a 3a 3w

39. Number of atoms in 558.5g Fe  at.wt 55.85  is:


(A) Twice that in 60g carbon (B) 6.023 1022
(C) Half in 8g He (D) 558.5  6.023 10 23

40. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3  PO 4 2 will contain 0.25mole of oxygen atoms?
(A) 0.02 (B) 3.125 102 (C) 1.25  10  2 (D) 2.5  102

EMPIRICAL AND MOLECULAR FORMULA

41. The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% by mass of element X (at. wt. 10) and 50% by
mass of element Y (at. wt. 20) is ;
(A) XY (B) X2Y (C) XY2 (D) X2Y3

42. The hydrated salt Na2SO410H2O undergoes X% loss in weight on heating and becomes anhydrous.
The value of X will be
(A) 10 (B) 45 (C) 56 (D) 70
43. An oxide of iodine (I =127) contains 25.4 g of iodine and 8 g of oxygen. Its formula could be
(A) I 2 O3 (B) I 2 O (C) I 2 O5 (D) I 2 O 7

44. The chloride of a metal contains 71% chlorine by weight and the vapour density of it is 50. The
atomic weight of the metal will be
(A) 29 (B) 58 (C) 35.5 (D) 71

STOICHIOMETRY

45. What quantity of limestone (CaCO3) on heating will give 56 Kg of CaO?


(A) 1000 Kg (B) 44 Kg (C) 56 Kg (D) 100 Kg

46. 2 mol of H2S and 11.2 L SO2 at N.T.P. reacts to form x mol of sulphur; x is
SO2 + 2H2S  3S + 2H2O
(A) 1.5 (B) 3 (C) 11.2 (D) 6

47. How many grams of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) would be needed to neutralise 100 g of magnesium
hydroxide (Mg(OH)2).
(A) 66.7 g (B) 252 (C) 112.6 g (D) 168 g

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48. If two mole of methanol (CH3OH) completely burns to carbon dioxide and water, the weight of water
formed is about
(A) 22 g (B) 18 g (C) 36 g (D) 72 g

49. In an experiment, it is found that 2.0769 g of Pure X produces 3.6769 g of pure X2O5. The number of
moles of X is
(A) 0.04 (B) 0.06 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.02

50. 2.7 g of Ag2CO3 on being heated strongly yields a residue weighing


(A) 2.11 g (B) 2.48 g (C) 2.32 g (D) 2.64 g

51. If 1 mole of ethanol (C2H5OH) completely burns to CO2 and H2O, the weight of CO2 formed is
about.
(A) 22 g (B) 45 g (C) 66 g (D) 88 g

52. The percent loss in weight after heating a pure sample of KClO3 (molecular weight = 122.5) will be
(A) 12.25 (B) 24.50 (C) 39.18 (D) 49.0

53. Calculate the weight of iron which will be converted into its oxide by the action of 18g of steam on it.
 2Fe  3H 2 O  Fe 2O 3  3H 2  .
(A) 37.3 gm (B) 3.73 gm (C) 56 gm (D) 5.6 gm

54. A 10.0 g sample of a mixture of calcium chloride and sodium chloride is treated with Na2CO3 to
precipitate the calcium as calcium carbonate. This CaCO3 is heated to convert all the calcium to CaO
and the final mass of CaO is 1.62 gms. The % by mass of CaCl2 in the original mixture is :
(A) 15.2% (B) 32.1% (C) 21.8% (D) 11.07%

55. If 0.5 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of Na3PO4, the maximum number of mol of Ba3(PO4)2 that
can be formed is
(A) 0.7 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1

56. 0.5 mole of H2SO4 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Ca(OH)2. The maximum number of mole of CaSO4
formed is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 1.5

57. For the reaction A + 2B  C + 3D, 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce
(A) 5 moles of C (B) 4 moles of C (C) 8 moles of C (D) None of these

58. 2.4 kg of carbon is made to react with 1.35 kg of aluminium to form Al4C3. The maximum amount in
kg of aluminium carbide formed is
(A) 5.4 (B) 3.75 (C) 1.05 (D) 1.8

59. Consider the reaction 2A  2B, B  2C, 3C  4D. The no. of moles of D formed starting 4
moles of A, are
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 4 (D) 10.67

60. Vapour density of air is (considering air as 80% N 2 and 20% O2 )


(A) 0.001293 (B) 1.293 (C) 14.4 (D) 28.9

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61. The density of chlorine relative to air as mentioned in above problem is


(A) 2.44 (B) 3 (C) 71 (D) 4

62. A gaseous oxide contains 30.4% of nitrogen, one molecule of which contains one nitrogen atom. The
density of the oxide relative to oxygen gas is
(A) 0.9 (B) 1.44 (C) 1.50 (D) 3.0

CONCENTRATION TERMS

63. An aqueous solution of urea containing 18 g urea in 1500 cc of solution has a density of 1.052 g/cc. If
the mol.wt. of urea is 60, then the molality of solution is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.192 (C) 0.064 (D) 1.2

64. Molarity of 1g H2SO4 solution in 1 lit. water is nearly


(A) 0.1 (B) 0.20 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.01

65. 20 ml of 0.2 M Al2(SO4)3 is mixed with 20 ml of 0.6 M BaCl2. Concentration of Al3+ ion in the
solution will be
(A) 0.2 M (B) 10.3 M (C) 0.1 M (D) 0.25 M

66. 50 ml of 0.01 M FeSO4 will react with what volume of 0.01 M KMnO4 solution in acid medium?
(1 mole KMnO4 requires 5 mole of FeSO4 for complete reaction)
(A) 50 ml (B) 25 ml (C) 100 ml (D) 10 ml

67. The number of H+ ions present in 100 ml of 0.001M H2SO4 solution will be
(A) 120.4  1019 (B) 1.20  1020 (C) 6.023  1020 (D) 6.023  1021

68. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.11 g ml . The molarity of the solution is
(A) 2.97 (B) 3.05 (C) 3.64 (D) 3.050

69. 250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na2CO3. If 10 ml of this solution is
diluted to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultant solution? (mol wt. of Na2CO3 = 106)
(A) 0.1 M (B) 0.001M (C) 0.01 M (D) 104 M

70. The mole fraction of NaCl in a solution containing 1 mole of NaCl in 1000g of water is:
(A) 0.0177 (B) 0.001 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.5

LEVEL-2

1. One mole of potassium chlorate is thermally decomposed and excess of aluminium is burnt in the
gaseous product. How many mole of aluminium oxide are formed:
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 2 (D) 3
2. The density of a 3.60M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% H 2SO 4 (molar mass 98 g mol  1 ) by
mass will be:
(A) 1.22 (B) 1.45 (C) 1.64 (D) 1.88

3. 10 moles N 2 and 15 moles of H 2 were allowed to react over a suitable catalyst. 10 moles of NH3
were formed. The remaining moles of N 2 and H 2 respectively are:
(A) 5 moles, 0 mole (B) 0 moles, 5 mole
(C) 9 moles, 12 mole (D) 0 moles, 0 mole
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4. Reaction is: Fe2  SO4 3  BaCl2  BaSO4  FeCl3


How many moles of BaCl2 is needed to produce 1 mole of FeCl3 ?
2
5 1 3
(A) moles (B) mole (C) mole (D) 2 moles
2 2 4
5. How many gms of copper  at.wt  64  would be displaced from the copper sulphate solution by
adding 27 gm of aluminium  at.wt  27 
(A) 32 (B) 64 (C) 96 (D) 160
6. 5 moles of CH 4 is burned with 8 moles of O2 than calculate mole of CO 2 formed and remaining
moles of excess reagent
(A) 4,1 (B) 1, 4 (C) 0,5 (D) 5,0

7. 2.5moles of a hydrocarbon C10 H x requires 32.5 moles of O2 for complete combustion. Calculate
value of x ?
(A) 24 (B) 32 (C) 12 (D) 22

8. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl to give CaCl2 according to the reaction,
CaCO3  s   2 HCl  aq   CaCl2  aq   CO2  g   H 2O  l  . The mass of CaCO 3 required to react
completely with 25mL of 0.75M HCl is
(A) 0.1 g (B) 0.84 g (C) 8.4 g (D) 0.94 g

9. 25.0 ml of HCl solution gave, on reaction with excess AgNO3 solution 2.125 g of AgCl . The
molarity of HCl solution is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.6 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.75

10. Element X reacts with oxygen to produce a pure sample of X 2O3 . In an experiment it is found that
1.00g of X produces 1.16g of X 2O3 . Calculate the atomic weight of X .
Given: atomic weight of oxygen, 16.0g mol1 .
(A) 67 (B) 100.2 (C) 125 (D) 150

11. If half mole of oxygen gas combine with Al to form Al2O3 , the weight of Al used in the reaction is:
(A) 27 g (B) 40.5 g (C) 54 g (D) 18 g

12. 8 g of sulphur is burnt to form SO2 which is oxidised by Cl2 water. The solution is treated with BaCl2
solution. The amount of BaSO4 precipitated is
(A) 1 mole (B) 0.5 mole (C) 0.24 mole (D) 0.25 mole

13. A mixture of KBr and NaBr weighing 0.560 gm was treated with aqueous Ag+ and all the bromide
ion was recovered as 0.970 gm of pure AgBr. The weight of KBr in the sample is
(A) 0.25 gm (B) 0.212 (C) 0.36 (D) 0.285

14. Maximum no. of hydrogen atoms are in:


(A) 16g of CH4 (B) 31.2g of C6H4
(C) 34.2g of C12H22O11 (D) 36g of C6H12O6

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15. A sample contains 200 atoms of hydrogen, 0.05 gm atom of nitrogen, 1020 gm atom of oxygen.
What is the approximate no. of total atoms
(A) 200 (B) 6223 (C) 31022 (D) none of these

16. The element A at wt.=75 and B at wt. =32 combine to form a compound X. If 3 mol of B combine
with 2 mol of A to give 1 mol of X, the weight of 5 mol of X is
(A) 246 gm (B) 1230 amu (C) 1.23 kg (D) None of these

17. Which of the following has greatest no. of oxygen atoms


(A) 10 mole water (B) 200gm of C12H22O11
(C) 144 gm O3 (D) 2.5 mole H2SO3

18. Which of the following substances contains the greatest mass of chlorine
(A) 5 gm Cl2 (B) 60 gm NaClO3
(C) 0.10 mole of KCl (D) 0.5 mole of Cl2

19. Which of the following samples contains the smallest no. of atoms?
(A) 1 g of CO2 (g) (B) 1 g of C8H18 (l) (C) 1 g of C2H6 (g) (D) 1 g of LiF (s)

20. The wt. of NO having the same no. of oxygen atom present in 9.2 gm of NO2 is
(A) 9.2 gm (B) 6 gm (C) 12 gm (D) 24 gm

21. The no. of moles of carbon dioxide which contain 8g of oxygen is


(A) 0.50 mole (B) 0.20 mole (C) 0.40 moles (D) 0.25 moles

22. Which of the following weighs the least


(A) 0.2 g atom of N (at. wt. N=14) (B) 3x1023 atoms of C (at. wt. C = 12)
(C) 1 mole atoms of S (at. wt. S=32) (D) 7 g silver (at. wt. Ag=108)

23. Which one of the following statements is not correct?


(A) One gm atom of silver equals 108 gms
(B) One mole of CO2 and NH3 at NTP occupies same volume
(C) One mole Ag weighs more than one mole of Zn
(D) One gm molecule of CO2 is 44 times heavier than one molecule of CO2

24. A mixture contains n moles of H2 and 2n moles of CH4.The ratio of no. of C:H atoms in the mixture
is:
(A) 1/5 (B) 2/3 (C) 4/5 (D) 1/3

25. The charge on 1 gram ion of Al3+ is (e represents magnitude of charge on 1 electron)
(A) 1/27 NAe coulomb (B) 1/3 NAe coulomb
(C) 1/9 NAe coulomb (D) 3 NAe coulomb

26. Cortisone is a molecular substance containing 21 atoms of carbon per molecule. The weight
percentage of carbon in cortisone is 69.98%. What is the molecular weight of cortisone?
(A) 176.5 (B) 252.2 (C) 287.6 (D) 360.1

27. A partially dried clay mineral contains 8% water. The original sample contained 12% water and 45%
silica. % of Silica in the partially dried sample is nearly
(A) 50% (B) 49% (C) 55% (D) 47%

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28. A compound contains 28% nitrogen and 72% metal by mass 3 atoms of the metal combine with 2
atoms of nitrogen. The atomic mass of metal is
(A) 36 (B) 20 (C) 24 (D) 36

29. An organic compound on analysis was found to contain 0.014% of nitrogen. If its molecule contains
two N atoms, then the molecular mass of the compound
(A) 200 (B) 2000 (C) 20,000 (D) 200000

30. An element, X, have three isotopes X 20, X 21 and X 22. The percentage abundance of X 20 is 90% and
its average atomic mass of the element is 20.11. The percentage abundance of X 21 should be
(A) 9% (B) 8% (C) 10% (D) 0%

31. The O18/O16 ratio in some meteorites is greater than that used to calculate the average atomic mass of
oxygen on earth. The average mass of an atom of oxygen in these meteorites is ………. that of a
terrestrial oxygen atom.
(A) equal to (B) greater than (C) less than (D) None of these

32. 6.023 ×1023 molecules of Ca (OH)2 react with 3.01×1022 molecules of HCl, number of moles of
CaCl2 obtained are
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.10 (C) 0.025 (D) 3.01

33. A copper sulphate solution contains 1.595% of CuSO4 by weight. Its density is 1.2 g / ml, Its
molarity will be
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.06 (C) 1.20 (D) 1.595

34. Which of the following samples contains 2.0  1023 atoms?


(A) 8.0 g O2 (B) 3.0 g Be (C) 8.0 g C (D) 19.0 g F2

35. Simplest formulae of a compound containing 20% of element X (atomic weight 10) and 80% of
element Y (atomic weight 20) is
(A) XY (B) X2Y (C) XY2 (D) X2Y3

36. At room temperature and pressure two flask of equal volumes are filled with H2 and SO2
respectively. Particles which are equal in number in two flasks are
(A) Atoms (B) Electrons (C) Molecules (D) Neutrons

37. Chlorophyll contains 2.68% of magnesium by mass. Calculate the number of magnesium atoms in
3.00 gms of chlorophyll.
(A) 2.01  1021 atoms (B) 6.023  1023 atoms
(C) 1.7  1020 atoms (D) 2.8  1022 atoms

38. What is the total number of atoms present in 25.0 mg of camphor C10H16O?
(A) 9.89  1019 (B) 6.02  1020 (C) 9.89  1020 (D) 2.67 
1021

39. The number of electron in the telluride ion. 52Te2– is


(A) 50 (B) 52 (C) 53 (D) 54

40. An ore contains 1.34% of the mineral argentite, Ag2S, by weight. How many grams of this ore would
have to be processed in order to obtain 1.00 g of pure solid silver, Ag?
(A) 74.6 g (B) 85.7 g (C) 134.0 g (D) 171.4 g

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41. Hydrogen evolved at NTP on complete reaction of 27 gm of Al with excess of aq NaOH would be
(Chemical reaction: 2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O  2NaAlO2 + 3H2)
(A) 22.4 lit (B) 44.8 lit (C) 67.2 lit (D) 33.6 lit

42. The formula of metal oxide is Z 2 O 3 . If 6 mg of hydrogen is required for complete reduction of
0.1596 g metal oxide, then the atomic weight of metals is
(a) 227.9 (b) 159.6 (c) 79.8 (d) 55.8

43. The number of moles of OH in 0.3 litre of 0.005M Ba  OH  2 is


(a) 0.075 (b) 0.005 (c) 0.045 (d) 0.003

44. The volume of CO 2 at STP obtained heating 1g of CaCO3 will be


(a) 1 litre (b) 22.4 litre (c) 0.224 litre (d) 11.2 litre

45. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2 the volume occupied by 11.2 g of this has at NTP is
(a) 1 litre (b) 11.2 litre (c) 22.4 litre (d) 20 litre

46. The significant figures in 5.23 105 are


(a) 8 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) Infinite

47. From the following the number of atoms is greater in


(a) 4 g hydrogen (b) 71 g chlorine (c) 48 g magnesium (d) 127 g iodine

48. One mole of CO 2 contains


(a) 6.02  1023 atoms of C (b) 6.02  10 23 atoms of O
(c) 18.11023 molecules of CO2 (d) 3 gram atoms of CO 2

49. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of N3 ion is


(a) 2.1N A (b) 4.2N A (c) 1.6N A (d) 2.4N A

50. How much amount of zinc is required to react with dilute H 2SO 4 for obtaining 224 mL hydrogen at
STP
(a) 0.65 g (b) 6.5 g (c) 65 g (d) 0.065 g

51. At normal temperature and pressure 0.24 g volatile substances produces 43 mL vapour. Then the
vapour density of substances will be- (Density of hydrogen = 0.000089 g/mL)
(a) 95.39 (b) 5.993 (c) 95.93 (d) 62.7

52. Percentage of C, H and N are given as follows C = 40%, H = 13.33%, N = 46.67% The empirical
formula will be
(a) CH 2 N (b) C 2 G 4 N (c) CH 4 N (d) CH 3 N

53. Which has maximum molecules


(a) 7 g N 2 (b) 2 g H 2 (c) 16 g NO2 (d) 16 g O 2

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54. The maximum number of molecules is present in


(a) 5L of N 2 gas at STP (b) 0.5 g of H 2 gas
(c) 10g of O 2 gas (d) 15L of H 2 gas at STP

55. An organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen contains 52.20% carbon and 13.04%
hydrogen. Vapour density of the compound is 23. Its molecular formula will be:
(a) C2 H6 O (b) C3 H 8 O (c) C4 H8 O (d) C5 H10 O

56. The empirical formula of a compound is CH 2 . One mole of this compound has a mass of 42 g. Its
molecular formula is
(a) CH 2 (b) C2 H2 (c) C3 H 6 (d) C3 H8

57. In Victor Mayer’s method 0.2 g of an organic substances displaced 56 mL of air at S.T.P. The
molecular weight of compounds
(a) 56 (b) 112 (c) 80 (d) 28

58. The empirical formula of a compound is CH 2 O and its molecular weight is 120. The molecular
formula of the compound is
(a) C 2 H 4 O 2 (b) C3 H6 O3 (c) C4 H8 O4 (d) CH 2 O

59. The law of multiple proportion was proposed by:


(a) Lavoisier (b) Dalton (c) Proust (d) Gaylussac

60. In the reaction N 2  3H 2 


 2NH3 , ratio by volume of N 2 , H 2 and NH3 is 1 : 3 : 2. This illustrates
law of
(a) Define proportion (b) Multiple proportion
(c) Reciprocal proportion (d) Gaseous volumes

61. Different proportions of oxygen in the various oxides of nitrogen prove the law of
(a) Equivalent proportion (b) Multiple proportion
(c) Constant proportion (d) Conservation of matter

62. One part of an element A combines with two parts of another element B. Six parts of the element C
combines with four parts of the element B. If A and C combine together the ratio of their weights
will be governed by
(a) Law of definite proportion (b) Law of multiple proportion
(c) Law of reciprocal proportion (d) Law of conservation of mass

63. Oxygen combines with two isotopes of carbon 12 C and 14 C to form sample of carbon dioxide. The
data illustrates
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Law of multiple proportions
(c) Law of multiple reciprocal proportions (d) None of these

64. Law of definite proportions when expressed in terms of volumes becomes


(a) Dalton’s law (b) Berzelius hypothesis
(c) Gay-Lussac’s Law (d) Avogadro’s law

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65. The law of conservation of mass holds good for all of the following except
(a) All chemical reactions (b) Nuclear reactions
(c) Endothermic reactions (d) Exothermic reactions

66. The actual weight of a molecule of water is


(a) 18 g (b) 2.99 1023 g
(c) Both (a) & (b) are correct (d) None of these

67. Which of the following contains highest number of molecules?


(a) 2.8 g of CO (b) 3.2 g of CH 4 (c) 1.7 g of NH3 (d) 3.2 g of SO2

68. Which of the following contains greatest number of oxygen atoms?


(a) 1 g of O (b) 1 g of O 2
(c) 2 g of O 3 (d) All have the same number of atoms

69. Molecular weight of tribasic acid is W. Its equivalent weight will be:
W W
(a) (b) (c) W (d) 3W
2 3

70. 50 g CaCO3 will react with ………g of 20% HCl by weight.


(a) 36.5 g (b) 73 g (c) 109.5 g (d) 182.5 g

71. 9 g of Al will react, with


(a) 6 g O 2 (b) 8 g O 2 (c) 9 g O 2 (d) 4 g O 2

72. A hydrocarbon contains 75% of carbon. Then its molecular formula is


(a) CH 4 (b) C2 H4 (c) C2 H6 (d) C2 H2

73. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of carbon. Then its molecular formula is
(a) SO2 (b) SO 3 (c) SO (d) S2 O

74. Empirical formula of glucose is


(a) C6 H12 O 6 (b) C3 H6 O3 (c) C 2 H 4 O 2 (d) CH 2 O

75. A compound is found to contain 80% of carbon and 20% of hydrogen, then the molecular formula of
the compound is
(a) C6 H6 (b) C 2 H 5 OH (c) C2 H6 (d) C2 H4

76. The number of atoms of Cr and O are 4.8 1010 and 9.6 1010 respectively. Its empirical formula is
(a) Cr2 O 3 (b) CrO 2 (c) Cr2O 4 (d) None

77. The empirical formula of an organic compound containing carbon and hydrogen is CH 2 . The mass
of one litre of this organic gas is exactly equal to that of one litre of N 2 . Therefore, the molecular
formula of the organic gas is
(a) C2 H4 (b) C3 H 6 (c) C6 H12 (d) C4 H8

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78. Avogadro’s law finds its application in the determination of


(a) Atomicity of gases (b) Molecular weights of gases
(c) Molecular formula of certain gases (d) All of these

79. Vapour density of volatile substance w.r.t. CH 4 is 4. Its molecular weight would be
(a) 8 (b) 32 (c) 64 (d) 128

80. If 1.2 g of a metal displaces 1.12 litre of hydrogen at NTP, equivalent mass of the metal would be
(a) 1.2  11.2 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 1.2  11.2

81. 2.8 g of iron displaces 3.2 g of copper from a solution of copper sulphate solution. If the equivalent
mass of iron is 28, then equivalent mass of copper will be
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 48 (d) 64

82. Which property of an element is not variable


(a) Valency (b) Atomic weight (c) Equivalent weight (d) None

83. The weight of substance that displace 22.4 litre air at NTP is
(a) Molecular weight (b) Atomic weight (c) Equivalent weight (d) All

84. Density of a gas at STP is 1.43 g/L what is its molecular weight?
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 48 (d) 64

85. Hydrogen combines with chlorine to form HCl. It also combines with sodium to form NaH. If
sodium and chlorine also combine with each other, they will do so in the ration of their masses as
(a) 23 : 35.5 (b) 35.5 : 23 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 23 : 1

86. If 32 g of O 2 contains 6.022 1023 molecules at NTP. Then 32 g of S. under the same conditions,
will contains
(a) 6.022 1023 S (b) 3.0111021S (c) 11023 S (d) 12.044 1023 S

87. 4.4 g of an unknown gas occuples 2.24 litres of volume at STP. The gas may be
(a) N 2 O (b) CO (c) CO 2 (d) (a) & (c) both

88. Simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic weight = 10) and 50% of
element Y (atomic weight = 20) is
(a) XY (b) X 2 Y (c) XY2 (d) X3 Y

89. Which contains least number of molecules


(a) 1 g CO 2 (b) 1 g N 2 (c) 1 g O 2 (d) 1 g H 2

90. What is the mass of a molecule of CH 4


(a) 16 (b) 26.6 1022 (c) 2.66 1023 (d) 16 NA

91. The weights of two elements which combine with one another are in the ratio of their
(a) Atomic weight (b) Molecular weight (c) Equivalent weight (d) None

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92. Element ‘A’ reacts with oxygen to form a compound A 2O3 .If 0.359 gram of ‘A’ react to give 0.559
gram of the compound, atomic weight of ‘A’ in amu will be
(a) 51 amu (b) 43.08 amu (c) 49.7 amu (d) 47.9 amu

93. Which of the following combination illustrate law of reciprocal proportion


(a) N 2 O3 , N 2 O4 , N 2 O5 (b) PH3 , P2 O 5 , P2S5 (c) CS2 , CO 2 ,SO 2 (d) NaCl, NaBr, Nal

94. If law of conservation of mass was to hold true, then 20.8 g of BaCl2 on reaction with 9.8 g of
H 2SO 4 will produce 7.3 g of HCl and BaSP4 equal to
(a) 11.65 g (b) 23.3 g (c) 25.5 g (d) 30.6 g

95. The number of atoms inn mole of gas can be given by


n  NA
(a) n  N A  atomicity (b)
Atomicity
NA  Atomicity
(c) (d) None
n
12
96. Total number of protons electrons and neutrons in 12g of 6 C is
(a) 1.8 (b) 12.044 1023 (c) 1.084 1025 (d) 10.84 1023

97. Which of the following empirical formula as that of glucose?


(a) CH3CHO (b) CH 3COOH (c) CH 3OH (d) C2 H6

98. The number of g molecules of oxygen in 6.02 1023 CO molecules is


(a) 1 gram molecule (b) 0.5 gram molecule
(c) 5 gram molecule (d) 10 gram molecule

99. 1.6 g of Ca and 2.60 g of Zn when treated with an acid in excess separately, produced the same
amount of hydrogen. If the equivalent weight of Zn is 32.6, what is the equivalent weight of Ca
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 5

100. The number of moles of carbon dioxide which contain 8 g of oxygen is


(a) 0.5 (b) 0.20 (c) 0.40 (d) 0.25

101. A chemical equation is balanced according to the law of


(a) Multiple proportions (b) Constant proportions
(c) Reciprocal proportions (d) Conservation of mass

102. The oxide of an element posses the molecular formula M 2 O3 . If the equivalent of mass of the metal
is 9, the molecular mass of the oxide will be
(a) 27 (b) 75 (c) 102 (d) 18

103. The number of gram molecules of oxygen in 6.02 1024 CO molecules is


(a) 10 gram molecules (b) 5 gram molecules
(c) 1 gram molecules (d) 0.5 gram molecules

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104. Among the following pairs of compounds, the one that illustrates the law of multiple proportion is
(a) NH3 and NCl3 (b) H 2 O and D2 O (c) CuO 2 and Cu 2 O (d) CS2 and FeSO 4

105. Sulphur forms two chlorides S2 Cl2 and SCl2 . The equivalent mass of sulphur in SCl2 is 16. The
equivalent weight of sulphur in S2 Cl2 is
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64

106. The number of molecules in 16 g of methane is


16 16
(a) 3.0 1023 (b) 6.02 1023 (c) 1023 (d) 1023
6.02 3.0
107. The molecular weight of hydrogen peroxide is 34. what is the unit of gm molecular weight
(a) g (b) mol (c) g mol 1 (d) mol g 1

108. The number of moles of sodium oxide in 62O g of it is


(a) 1 mol (b) 10 moles (c) 18 moles (d) 100 moles

109. The number of molecules of SO2 present in 64g of SO2 is


(a) 6.0 1023 (b) 3 1023 (c) 12 1023 (d) 3 1010

110. The number of atoms present in 16 g of oxygen is


(a) 6.02 10115 (b) 3.011023 (c) 3.0110115 (d) 6.02 1023

111. Given that one mole of N 2 at NTP occupies 22.4 litre the density of N 2 is
(a) 1.25 g/L (b) 0.80 g/L (c) 2.5 g/L (d) 1.60 g/L

112. A compound of X and Y has equal mass of them. If their atomic weights are 30 and 20 respectively.
Molecular formula of that compound. (Its mole. wt is 120) could be
(a) X 2 Y2 (b) X3 Y3 (c) X 2 Y3 (d) X3 Y2

113. An oxide of metal M has 40% by mass of oxygen. Metal M has atomic mass of 24. The empirical
formula of the oxide
(a) M 2 O (b) M 2 O3 (c) MO (d) M 3 O 4

114. Volume of CO 2 obtained at STP by the complete decomposition of 6.84 g. BaCO3 is


(At. Wt of Ba = 137)
(a) 2.24 lit (b) 1.12 lit (c) 0.84 lit (d) 0.56 lit

115. 1.2 g of Mg (At mass 24) will produce MgO equal to


(a) 0.05 mol (b) 40 g (c) 40 mg (d) 4 g

116. How many moles of potassium chloride to be heated to produce 11.2 litre oxygen at NTP?
1 1 1 2
(a) mol (b) mol (c) mol (d) mol
2 3 4 3

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117. Oxygen combines with two isotopes of carbon 12 C and 14 C form two sample of carbon dioxide. The
data illustrates
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Law of multiple proportions
(c) Law of reciprocal proportions (d) None of these

118. Law of reciprocal proportion can be verified by following compounds


(a) CO 2 , CH 4 , H 2 O (b) N 2 O, N 2 O3 , N 2 O 5
(c) NaCl, Na 2 CO 3 , NaOH (d) H 2 O, HCl, NaCl

119. Which of the following is the best example of law of conservation of mass?
(a) 12 g of carbon combines with 32 g of oxygen to form 44 g of CO 2
(b) When 12 g of carbon is heated in a vaccum there is no charge in mass
(c) A sample of air increases in volume when heated at constant pressure but its mass remains
unaltered
(d) The weight of a piece of platinum is the same before and after heating in air

120. The law of definite proportions is not applicable to nitrogen oxide because
(a) Nitrogen atomic weight is not constant (b) Nitrogen molecular weight is variable
(c) Nitrogen equivalent weight is variable (d) Oxygen atomic weight is variable

121. 1.0 g a metal combines with 8.89 g of Bromine. Equivalent weight of metal is nearly
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 7

122. The equivalent weight of an element us 4. It’s chloride has a V.D.59.25. Then the element is
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

123. If equivalent weight of S in SO2 is 8 then equivalent weight of S in SO 3 is


8 2 8 3 23
(a) (b) (c) 8  2  3 (d)
3 2 8

124. The atomic mass of an element is 27. If valency is 3, the vapour density of the volatile chloride will
be
(a) 66.75 (b) 6.675 (c) 667.5 (d) 81

125. A gas is found to have the formula  CO  x . It’s VD is 70 the value of x must be
(a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

126. If V ml of the vapours of substance at NTP weights W gm. Then mol. wt. of substance is
V W 1
(a)  W / V   22400 (b)  22.4 (c)  W  V   22400 (d)
W V  22400

127. The oxide of a metal gas 32% oxygen. It’s equivalent weight would be
(a) 34 (b) 32 (c) 17 (d) 16

128. Number of oxygen atoms in 8 g of ozone is


23 6.02  10 23 6.02  10 23 6.02  10 23
(a) 6.02 10 (b) (c) (d)
2 3 6

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129. 5.6 lt. of oxygen at STP contains


(a) 6.02 1023 atoms (b) 3.011023 atoms
(c) 1.505 1023 atoms (d) 0.7525 1023 atoms

130. The number of molecule in 4.25 g of NH3 is


(a) 1.505 1023 (b) 3.011023 (c) 6.02 1023 (d) None of these

131. Which of the following has the highest mass?


(a) 1 g atom of C (b) 1 mole of CH 4
2

(c) 10 ml of water (d) 3.0111023 atoms oxygen

132. A person adds 1.71 gram of sugar  C12 H 22 O11  in order to sweeten his tea. The number of carbon
atoms added are (mol. mass of sugar = 342)
(a) 3.6 1021 (b) 7.2 1021 (c) 0.05 (d) 6.6 1022

133. 500 ml. of a gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in excess of O 2 gave 2.5 lt. of CO 2 and 3.0 lt. of water
vapours under same conditions. Molecular formula of the hydrogen is
(a) C4 H8 (b) C4 H10 (c) C 5 H10 (d) C 5 H12

134. On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the weight ratio of
254:80. The formula of the compounds is: (At mass I = 127, O = 16)
(a) IO (b) I 2 O (c) I5 O 2 (d) I 2 O5

135. A compound contains 38.8% C, 16.0% H and 45.2% N. the empirical formula of the compound
would be
(a) CH 3 NH 2 (b) CH3CN (c) C 2 H 5 CN (d) CH 2  NH 2

136. A compound (80 g) on analysis gave C = 24 g, H = 4 g, O = 32 g. Its empirical formula is


(a) C 2 H 2 O 2 (b) C2 H 2 O (c) CH 2 O2 (d) CH 2 O

137. The percentage value of nitrogen in area is about


(a) 46 (b) 85 (c) 18 (d) 28

138. The volume of gas at NTP produced by 100 g of CaCl2 with water
(a) 70 litre (b) 35 litre (c) 17.5 litre (d) 22.4 litre

139. 26 cc of CO 2 are passes over red hot coke. The volume of CO evolved is
(a) 15 cc (b) 10 cc (c) 32 cc (d) 52 cc

140. H 2 evolved at STP on complete reaction of 27 g of Aluminium with excess of aqueous NaOH would
be
(a) 22.4 litres (b) 44.8 litres (c) 67.2 litres (d) 33.6 litres

141. What is the concentrating of nitrate ions if, equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.1 M NaCl are
mixed together
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.2 M (c) 0.05 M (d) 0.25 M

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142. If 5.85 gms of NaCl are dissolved in 90 gms of water, the mole fraction of NaCl is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.019

143. The molarity of 0.006 mole of NaCl in 100ml solution is


(a) 0.6 (b) 0.06 (c) 0.006 (d) 0.066

144. What will be the molarity of solution containing 5g of sodium hydroxide in 250 ml solution.
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 0.1

145. The molarity of 0.3M phosphorus acid  H 3 PO 3  is


(a) 0.1 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.6

146. Molarity is expressed as


(a) Gram/litre (b) Moles/litre (c) Litre/mole (d) Moles/1000 gms

147. How much of NaOH is required to neutralize 1500 cm3 of 0.1N HCl (At wt. of Na = 23)
(a) 4g (b) 6g (c) 40 g (d) 60 g

148. A mixture has 18g water and 414g ethanol. The mole fraction of water in mixture is (assume ideal
behavior of the mixture)
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.9

149. The normality of 2.3M H 2SO 4 solution is


(a) 2.3 N (b) 4.6 N (c) 0.46 N (d) 0.23 N

150. 171g of cane sugar  C12 H 22 O11  is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The molarity of the solution is
(a) 2.0 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 0.5 M (d) 0.25 M

151. Which statements true for solution of 0.O0M H 2SO 4


(a) 2 litre of the solution contains 0.020 mole SO24
(b) 2 litre of the solution contains 0.080 mole SO24
(c) 2 litre of the solution contains 0.010 mole SO 24 
(d) 2 litre of the solution contains .04 mole of SO24

152. The amount of K 2 Cr2 O 7 (eq. wt. 49.04) required to prepare 100ml of its 0.05N solution
(a) 2.4924 g (b) 0.4904 g (c) 1.4712 g (d) 0.2452 g

153. 2.0 molar solution is obtained, when 0.5 mole solute is dissolved in
(a) 250 ml solvent (b) 250 g solvent (c) 250 ml solution (d) 1000 ml solvent

154. How many gram of HCl will be present in 150ml of its 0.52 M solution?
(a) 2.84 gm (b) 5.70 gm (c) 8.50 gm (d) 6.65 gm

155. The number of moles present in 2 litre of 0.5M NaOH is


(a) 0.5 (b) 0.1 (c) 1 (d) 2

156. 36 g water and 828 g ethyl alcohol form an ideal solution. The mole fraction of water in it, is
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.1
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157. Molar solution means 1 mole of solute present in


(a) 1000 g of solvent (b) 1 litre of solvent
(c) 1 litre of solution (d) 1000 g of solution

158. Which of the following solutions has the highest normality?


(a) 8 gof KOH/litre (b) N phosphoric acid
(c) 8 g of NaOH/100 ml (d) 0.5M H 2SO 4

159. What volume of 0.8 M solution contains 0.1 mole of the solute?
(a) 100 ml (b) 125 ml (c) 500 ml (d) 62.5 ml

160. Molarity of 0.2N H 2SO 4 is


(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.1

161. The mole fraction of water in 20% aqueous solution of H 2 O 2


77 68 20 80
(a) (b) (c) (d)
68 77 80 20

162. Normality (N) of a solution is equal to


No.of moles of solute No.of gram equivalent of solute
(a) (b)
Volume of solution inlitre Volume of solution in litre
No.of moles of solute
(c) (d) None of these
Mass of solvent in kg

163. The volume strength of 1.5N H 2 O 2 solution is


(a) 4.8 (b) 5.2 (c) 8.8 (d) 8.4

164. How many g of H 2SO 4 is present in 0.25 g mole of H 2SO 4 ?


(a) 24.5 (b) 2.45 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.245

165. 20 g of hydrogen is present in 5 litre vessel. The molar concentration of hydrogen is


(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 2

166. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1N solution is
(a) 4g (b) 1g (c) 2g (d) 10g

167. The number of moles of solute per kg of solvent is called its:


(a) Molarity (b) Normality (c) Molar fraction (d) Molarity

168. The molality of 90% weight/volume H 2SO 4 solution is [density = 1.8 gm/ml]
(a) 1.8 (b) 48.4 (c) 9.18 (d) 91.8

169. The sum of the mole fraction of the components of a solution


(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4

170. NaClO solution reacts with H 2SO3 as, NaClO  H 2SO 3  NaCl  H 2SO 4 . A solution of NaClO used
in the above reaction contained 15g of NaClO per litre. The normality of the solution would be
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.33
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171. Molecular weight of urea is 60. A solution contain 6 gram of urea in one litre is
(a) 1 molar (b) 1.5 molar (c) 0.1 molar (d) 0.01 molar

172. How many moles of water are present in 180 g of water


(a) 1 mole (b) 18 mole (c) 10 mole (d) 100 mole

173. 15 ml of N/10 NaOH solution completely neutralizes 12 ml of H 2SO 4 solution. The normality of
H 2SO 4 solution will be
(a) N/5 (b) N/10 (c) N/8 (d) N

N
174. 8 ml of HCl are required to neutralize 20 ml solution of Na 2 CO3 in water. Normality of Na 2 CO3
10
solution is
(a) 0.40 N (b) 0.040N (c) 4.0 N (d) 1.4 N

175. 5 N H 2SO 4 was diluted from 1 litre to 10 litres. Normality of the solution obtained is
(a) 10 N (b) 5 N (c) 1 N (d) 0.5 N

176. The volume of 0.05M H 2SO 4 required to neutralize 80 ml of 0.13N NaOH will be
(a) 104 ml (b) 52 ml (c) 10.4 ml (d) 26 ml

177. How many grams of H 2SO 4 are needed to neutralize completely 10 litres of ammonia gas (at NTP)?
(a) 21.87 g (b) 49.0 g (c) 24.5 g (d) 98.0 g

178. How many g of copper (at weight = 64) would be displaced from at the copper sulphate solution by
adding 27g of aluminium (at weight = 27)?
(a) 32 (b) 64 (c) 96 (d) 160

179. What is the mole fraction of a solute in its one molal aqueous solution?
(a) 1 (b) 1.8 (c) 18 (d) 0.018

180. 20 g solute is present in 200 mL solvent. The density of solvent is 0.9 g/mL. What is the weight
fraction and weight percent of the solute?
(a) 0.1 and 10 (b) 0.2 and 20 (c) 0.3 and 10 (d) 0.2 and 30

181. To neutralize 200 mL of Na  OH 2 solution, we have to add 100 mL of 0.1 M H 2SO 4 solution.
What is the normality of Ba  OH 2  ?
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.01 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.1

182. 1 g metal carbonate required 200 mL. of 0.1 HCl for complete neutralization. What is the equivalent
weight of metal carbonate?
(a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 100

183. The concentration of 10 volume H 2 O 2 is


(a) 30 % (b) 3 % (c) 1 % (d) 10 %

184. Calculate the volume of N/100 oxalic acid solution obtained by dissolving 126 g of oxalic acid
(a) 100 litres (b) 300 litres (c) 200 litres (d) 250 litres

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185. 100 cc of 1.2 N add should be dilute to ……in order to prepare its one normal solution
(a) 120 cc (b) 200 cc (c) 240 cc (d) 360 cc

N
186. What is the volume of water that should be added to 150 mL of oxalic acid to prepare a solution
2
N
of oxalic acid?
10
(a) 750 c.c. (b) 400 c.c. (c) 800 c.c. (d) 60 c.c.

187. A sample of calcium carbonate is 80% pure. 25 g of this sample is treated with excess of HCl. How
much volume of CO 2 will be obtained at N.T.P
(a) 4.48 litre (b) 5.6 litre (c) 11.2 litre (d) 2.24 litre

188. When axcess of CaCO3 is treated with 100 mL of HCl solution, the CO 2 gas obtained was found to
be 1.12 litre, (at N.T.P.). What is the normality of HCl?
(a) 0.2 N (b) 1N (c) 0.1N (d) 2N

189. How many g of copper (at weight = 64) would be displaced from at the copper suphate solution by
adding 27 g of aluminium (at weight = 27)?
(a) Sulphate (b) Nitrate
(c) Hydrogen phosphate (d) Carbonate

190. Which of the following contains largest number of atoms?


(a) 4 g of NH3 (b) 16 g of O 2 (c) 28 g of N 2 (d) 18 g of H 2 O

191. How many H atoms are in 3.42 g of C12 H 22 O11 ?


(a) 6.0 1023 (b) 1.3 1023 (c) 3.8 1022 (d) 6.0 1021

Questions asked in previous exams

192. At the same temperature and pressure which sample contains the same number of moles of particles
as 1 litre of O2 (g) ?
(a) 1 L Ne (g) (b) 2L N 2 (g) (c) 0.5 L SO2 (g) (d) 1 L H 2 O(g)

193. Which compounds has the empirical formula with the greatest mass?
(a) C2 H6 (b) C4 H10 (c) C 5 H10 (d) C6 H6

194. Which of the following combinations of elements of given atomic numbers can lead to a compound
with a chemical formula of XY3 ?
(a) 2 and 6 (b) 5 and 15 (c) 3 and 18 (d) 13 and 17

195. Which list of formulas represents compounds only?


(a) CO 2 , H 2 O, NH3 (b) H 2 , N 2 , O 2 (c) H 2 , Ne, NaCl (d) MgO, NaCl, O 2

196. Which sample at STP has the same number of molecules as 5 litres of NO 2 (g) at STP?
(a) 5 gram of H 2 (g) (b) 5 litres of CH 4 (g)
(c) 5 moles of O2 (g) (d) 5 1023 molecules of CO 2 (g)
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197. Which substances can not be broken down by a chemical reaction?


(a) Ammonia (b) Argon (c) Methane (d) Water

198. A solution of H 2SO 4 is 80% be weight, having specific gravity 1.73 its normality is
(a) 18.0 (b) 28.2 (c) 1.0 (d) 10.0

199. Given 1 dm3 of 0.15 MHCl and 1 dm3 of 0.40 MHCl. What is the maximum volume of 0.25 MHCl
which can be made by directly mixing the two solutions without adding water.
(a) 1 dm3 (b) 2 dm3 (c) 0.667 dm3 (d) 1.667 dm3

200. Calculate the mass of Litium that contains same number of atoms as present in 8g of Magnesium.
Atomic masses of lithium and magnesium are 7 and 24 respectively.
(a) 8g (b) 3g (c) 7g (d) 2.3 g

201. A solution containing Na 2 CO3  NaOH required 300 ml of 0.1 NHCl using phenolphthalein
indicator. Methyl orange is than added to the above titrated solution and a further 25 ml of 0.2 N HCl
is required. What is the amount of NaOH present in the solution.
(a) 0.8 g (b) 1.0 g (c) 1.5 g (d) 2.0 g

202. The volume occupled by 16 g of oxygen under NTP conditions is


(a) 1.12 dm3 (b) 5.60 dm3 (c) 11.20 dm3 (d) 22.4 dm3

203. A certain quantity of gas occupied a volume of 0.1L, when collected over water at 10o C and a
pressure 0.90 atm. The same gas occupied a volume of 0.080 L at STP in dry conditions. Calculate
the aqueous tension at 10o C
(a) 0.061 (b) 0.051 (c) 0.071 (d) 0.081

204. A certain sample of concentrated hydrochloric acid contains 50% HCl by mass and gas density 1.20
gcm 3 . What is the molarity of this sample?
(a) 16.4 M (b) 8.2 M (c) 32.8 M (d) 13.4 M

205. 6.02 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution
is
(a) 0.001 M (b) 0.01 M (c) 0.02 M (d) 0.1 M

206. Three contains A, B and C of equal volume contain N 2 , NO 2 and CO 2 respectively at the same
temperature and pressure, The ascending order of their masses is
(a) A, C, B (b) C, A, B (c) B, C, A (d) C, B, A

LEVEL-3

ONLY ONE OPTION IS CORRECT


1. N2 and H2 are mixed in 14:3 mass ratio. After certain time ammonia was found to be 40% by mol.
The mole fraction of N2 at that time in the mixture of N2, H2 and NH3 is
(A) 0.15 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.45 (D) none of these

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2. Two flasks of equal volumes are evacuated, then one is filled with gas A and other with gas B at the
same temperature and pressure. The weight of B was found to be 0.80 gm while the weight of gas A
is found to be 1.40 gm. What is the weight of one molecule of B in compared to one molecule of A
(A) 1.40 times as heavy as A (B) 0.40 times as heavy as A
(C) 0.57 times as heavy as A (D) 0.80 times as heavy as A

3. On reduction with hydrogen, 3.6 g of an oxide of metal left 3.2 g of the metal. If the atomic weight of
the metal is 64, the simplest formula of the oxide would be
(A) M2O3 (B) M2O (C) MO (D) MO2

4. A certain compound has the molecular formula X4 O6. if 10 g of X4O6 has 5.72 g of X, atomic mass of
X is :
(A) 32 amu (B) 37 amu (C) 42amu (D) 98 amu

5. If 224 ml of a triatomic gas has a mass of 1 g at 273 K and 1 atm pressure, then the mass of one atom
is
(A) 55.31023 g (B) 0.5531023 g (C) 5.531023 g (D) 5531023 g

6. The weight of 350mL of a diatomic gas at 00C and 2 atm pressure is 1g. The wt of one atom is
16 32
(A)16 NA (B) 32 NA (C) (D)
NA NA
7. 25.4 g of iodine and 14.2g of chlorine are made to react completely to yield a mixture of ICl and ICl3.
Calculate the ratio of moles of ICl and ICl3.
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:3 (D) 2:3

8. A mixture contains FeSO4 and Fe 2 SO 4 3 . If both FeSO4 and Fe 2 SO 4 3 provide equal number of
sulphate ions then, the ratio of Fe2 and Fe3 ions in mixture is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 :3 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 2

9. In what volume ratio a 0.36 M HNO 3 solution should be mixed with another 0.15 M HNO 3 solution
to obtain a 0.24 M HNO 3 solution?
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 4 : 9 (D) 3 : 4

10. One atom of an element weighs 3.981023g. Its atomic mass is


(A) 18 (B) 29.9 (C) 24 (D) 108

11. Weight ratio of Fe:C in Fe2[Fe(CN)6] is:


(A) 3/7 (B) 7/5 (C) 7/3 (D) 5/7

12. Which of the following has the highest mass:


(A) 12g of C atom (B)13 g of H atom (C)9 moles of NH3 (D)80g molecule of H2SO4

13. Ratio of carbon to hydrogen atom is maximum in:


(A) 16 g CH4 (B) 31.2 g C6H4 (C) 34.2 g C12H22O11 (D)36 g C6H12O6

14. How many grams are contained in 1 g atom of Nitrogen ?


(A) 14 g (B) 7 g (C) 1 g (D) Data Insufficient

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15. The volume of 3M HCl required to completely react with 1.431g of sodium carbonate
(A) 10 ml (B) 9 ml (C) 8 ml (D) 4.5 ml
16. In which of the following pairs do 1 g of each have an equal number of molecules?
(A) N2O and CO (B) N2 and C3O2 (C) N2 and CO (D) NO2 and CO2
0
17. How many spherical colloidal oil particles 20 A in radius can be made from a spherical oil drop
whose radius is 2 microns?
(A) 109 (B) 106 (C) 104 (D) 102
18. A 10 g sample of KClO 3 , gave on complete decomposition , 2.24 L of oxygen at NTP. What is the
percentage purity of the sample of potassium chlorate?
(A) 61.2 (B) 81.6 (C) 96.6 (D) 24.6

19. A 0.65 M BaCl2 solution is prepared by dissolving pure solid BaCl2 .2H 2 O in water. Determine the
mass of hydrated salt dissolved per milliliter of solution and mass of anhydrous BaCl2 present per
milliliter of solution. Molar masses are : Ba = 137, Cl = 35.5.
(A) 0.158 g, 0.135 g (B) 0.226 g, 0.135 g (C) 0.248 g, 0.163 g (D) 1.1 g, 2.2 g

20. What volume of a 1.36 M HCl solution should be added to a 200 mL 2.4 M HCl solution and finally
diluted to 500 mL so that molarity of final HCl solution becomes 1.24 M.
(A) 29.2 mL (B) 102.94 mL (C) 46.34 mL (D) 9.4 mL

21. Potassium salt of benzoic acid  C6 H 5 COOK  can be made by the action of potassium permanganate
on toluene as follows:
C 6 H 5 C H 3  K M nO 4  
 C 6 H 5 C O O K  M nO 2  K O H  H 2 O
If the yield of potassium benzonate can’t realistically be expected to be more than 71%, what is the
minimum number of grams of toluene needed to achieve this yield while producing 11.5 g of
C6 H 5 COOK ?
(A) 6.23 (B) 9.3 (C) 4.23 (D) 5.63

22. A mixture of CuSO 4 .5H 2 O and MgSO 4 .7H 2 O is heated until all the water is driven-off. If 5.0 gm
of a mixture gives 3g of anhydrous salts, what is the percentage by mass of CuSO 4 .5H 2 O in the
original mixture?
(A) 44% (B) 64% (C) 74% (D) 94%

23. Aspirin C9 H 8O 4 , is prepared by heating salicylic acid, C7 H 6 O3 with acetic anhydride, C4 H 6 O3 . The
other product is acetic acid, C 2 H 4 O 2 , C 7 H 6 O 3  C 4 H 6 O 3  
 C 9 H 8 O 4  C 2 H 4 O 2 , when 2.00 g of
salicylic acid is heated with 4.00 g of acetic anhydride? If the actual yield of aspirin is 2.1 g, what is
the percentage yield?
(A) 80.7% (B) 40.7% (C) 25.2 % (D) 43.9%

24. An element X forms an iodide XI3 and a chloride XCl3 . The iodide is quantitatively converted to the
chloride when it is heated in a stream of chlorine
2X I 3  3C l 2  
 2 XC l 3  3l 2
If 0.5000 g of Xl3 is treated, 0.2360 g of XCl3 is obtained. Calculate the atomic weight of the
element X.
(A) 246 (B) 139 (C) 180 (D) 196

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25. A solution of palmitic acid in benzene contains 4.24 g of acid per litre. When this solution is dropped
on a surface, benzene gets evaporated and palmitic acid forms a unimolecular film on the surface. If
we wish to cover an area of 500cm 2 with unimolecular film, what volume of solution should be
used? The area covered by one palmitic acid molecule may be taken as 0.21nm 2 .
Mol. Wt. of palmitic acid = 256.
(A) 4.38  10 5 (B) 2.4 105 (C) 4 10 41 (D) 5.6 105

26. 6.0 g of a sample containing CuCl2 and CuBr2 is dissolved in 100 mL water. A 10 mL portion of this
solution on treatment with AgNO3 solution results in complete precipitation of Cl and Br  giving
0.9065 gram of precipitate. The precipitate thus obtained was shaken with dilute solution of NaBr
where all AgCl gets converted into AgBr. Mass of the new precipitate was found to be 1.005 g.
Determine % mass of CuCl2 and CuBr2 in the original sample.
(A) 25 %, 58% (B) 50%, 50% (C) 75%, 25% (D) 20%, 80%

27. An element (X) reacts with hydrogen leading to formation of a class of compounds that is analogous
to hydrocarbons. 5.00 g of X forms 5.625 g of a mixture of two compounds of X  XH 4 and X 2 H 6 
in the molar ratio of 2:1. Determine the molar mass of X.
(A) 28 (B) 58 (C) 72 (D) 83

28. A 2.00 g portion of a sample containing NaBr and Na 2SO 4 was dissolved and diluted to 250 mL.
One fifth aliquot portions were titrated by silver nitrate, an average of 42.5 mL solution being
required for the aliquot portion. In standardization 1.00 mL AgNO3 is found to be equimolar to
0.0125 g KBr. Calculate percentage of Br in sample.
(A) 42% (B) 52% (C) 33% (D) 12%

29. The molecular mass of an organic acid was determined by the study of its barium salt. 4.290 g of salt
was quantitatively converted to free acid by the reaction with 21.64 mL of 0.477 M H 2SO 4 . The
barium salt was found to have two mole of water of hydration per Ba 2 ion and acid is mono basic.
What is molecular weight of anhydrous acid?
(A) 122 (B) 142 (C) 108 (D) 110

30. What volume of 0.010 M NaOH  aq  is required to react completely with 30 g of an aqueous acetic
acid solution in which mole fraction of acetic acid is 0.15?
(A) 108.55 lt (B) 18.55 lt (C) 34.66 lt (D) 42 lt

31. A mixture of ethane  C 2 H 6  and ethene  C 2 H 4  occupies 40 litre at 1.00 atm and at 400 K. The
mixture reacts completely with 130 g of O 2 to produce CO 2 and H 2 O . Assuming ideal gas behavior,
calculate the mole fraction of C 2 H 4 and C 2 H 6 in the mixture.
(A) 0.34, 0.66 (B) 0.66, 0.34 (C) 0.50, 0.50 (D) 0.20, 0.80

32. A crystalline hydrated salt on being rendered anhydrous, looses 45.6% of its weight. The percentage
composition of anhydrous salt is: Al = 10.5% , K = 15.1% , S = 24.8% and O = 49.6%. The
empirical formula of the crystalline salt.
(A) KAlS2 O8 .12H 2 O (B) K 2 Al2S2 O8 .12H 2 O
(C) KAl2S2 O8 .12H 2 O (D) None of these

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COMPREHENSIVE TYPE

PASSAGE-1

The terms mole first used by Ostwald in 1896 refers to the ratio of molecular weight of molecule to mass of
one molecule of substance in gm. Also, 1 mole of gaseous compound occupies 22.4 litre at NTP and contains
6.022 x 1023 molecules of gas.

1. Weight of 1 atom of hydrogen is:


(A) 1.66 × 10 -24 amu (B) 3.32 × 10 -24 g (C) 1.66 × 10 -24 g (D) 3.32 × 10 -24 amu

2. The amount of sulphur required to produce 100 mole of H2SO4 is :


(A) 3.2 × 103 g (B) 32.65 g (C) 32 g (D) 3.2 g

3. A substance contains 3.4% sulphur. If it contains two atoms of sulphur per molecule the molecular
weight of substance will be:
(A) 941 (B) 1882 (C) 470.5 (D) 1411.5

4. The volume of air at NTP required for burning 12 g carbon completely is: (Assuming air contains
20% oxygen).
(A) 22.4 litre (B) 112 litre (C) 44.8 litre (D) 50 litre

PASSAGE-2

The concentration of solutions can be expressed in number of ways such as Molarity, Molality, Mole
fraction, % weight, % by volume % by strength and many others. All these are inter-convertible if certain
data like density of solution, molecular mass of solute and solvent are known. Also, addition of water to a
solution changes all these terms, though a change in temperature does not change molality, mole fraction and
% by weight terms.

1. A 6.90 M KOH solution in water has 30% by weight of KOH. The density of KOH solution is:
(A) 1.288 g/mL (B) 12.88 g/mL (C) 0.1288 g/ml (D) None of these

2. Two litres of NH3 at 30o C and 0.20 atm is neutralized by 134 mL of acid H2SO4. The molarity of
H2SO4 is:
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.24 (C) 0.06 (D) 0.03

3. The volume of water required to make 0.20M solution from 1600 ml of 0.2050 M solution
(A) 40 ml (B) 80 ml (C) 120 ml (D) 180 ml

4. What volume of 0.2 M H 2SO 4 is required to produce 34.0 g of H 2S by the reaction?


8K I  5H 2 S O 4  
 4 K 2 SO 4  4 I 2  H 2 S  4 H 2 O
(A) 25 litre (B) 50 litre (C) 75 litre (D) 100 litre

PASSAGE-3
The term mole was introduced by Ostwald in 1896. In Latin word ‘moles’ meaning heap or pile. A mole is
defined as the number of atoms in 12.00 g of carbon – 12. The number of atoms in 12 g of carbon -12 has
been found experimentally to be 6.022 1023 . This number is also known as Avogadro’s number named in
honour of Amedeo Avogadro (1776 - 1856).

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The mass of one mole atoms of any element is exactly equal to the atomic mass in gram (gram atomic mass)
of that element. One mole of a gas occupies 22.4 litre at S.T.P. Atomic mass unit is the unit of atomic mass.
1amu  1.66 1024 g

1. Mass of one molecule of water is approximately:


(A) 1 g (B) 0.5 g (C) 1.66  10 24 g (D) 3  10 23 g

2. x L N2 gas at N.T.P. contains 3  10 23 molecules. The number of molecules in x L ozone at N.T.P.


will be:
(A) 3  10 23 (B) 4 1023 (C) 6.023 1023 (D) 3  10 24

3. If Avogadro’s number is 1 1023 mol 1 then the mass of one atom of oxygen would be:
16
(A) amu (B) 16  6.02amu (C) 16 amu (D) 16  10 23 amu
6.02

4. The maximum number of atoms presents are in:


(A) 4 g He (B) 4 g O2 (C) 4 g O3 (D) 4 g H2O2

PASSAGE-4

The concentration of solutions can be expressed in number of ways such that Normality, Molarity, Molality,
Mole fractions, Strength , % by weight , % by volume and % by strength. The molarity of ionic compound is
usually expressed as formality because we use formula weight of ionic compound. Addition of water to a
solution changes all these terms, however increase in temperature does not change molality, mole fraction
and % by weight terms.

1. The weight of AgCl precipitated by adding 5.77 g AgNO3 to 4.77g NaCl in a solution is:
(A) 4.88g (B) 5.77 g (C) 4.77 g (D) None of these

2. The weight of H 2SO 4 in 1200 mL of 0.1M solution is:


(A) 11.76 g (B) 5.83g (C) 16.42 g (D) 2.92

INTEGER TYPE

1. Number of moles of electrons in 0.5 mole of N 3 will be ________.

2. How many gm atoms of carbon are there in 132 gm CO2.

3. A sample of metal chloride weighing 0.22 g required 0.51g of AgNO3 to precipitate the chloride
completely. The specific heat of the metal is 0.057. Find out the valency of metal, if the symbol of
the metal is ‘M’. (Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16, Cl = 35.5) [Dulong petit’s law says approximate atomic
weight  specific heat  6.4 ]

4. A complex compound of iron has molar mass = 2800 and it contain 8 % iron by weight. The number
of iron atoms in one formula unit of complex compound is

5. If x mL 5 M HCl is mixed with 20 mL, 2 M HCl, a 2.6 M HCl is produced. The x is

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6. A gaseous alkane Cn H 2n  2 on explosion with O2 gives CO 2 , the volume of O2 required for


complete combustion of alkane to CO 2 formed is in the ratio 7 : 4 the value of n is

7. The number of moles of fullerene  C 60  (a soccer ball structure molecule discovered in 1980) in
1.44 kg fullerene are

8. Weight of a 5% by weight of a NaCl solution to yield 0.3 g of NaCl is

9. Haemoglobin contains 0.25% iron by weight, the molecular weight of Haemoglobin is 89600.
calculate the number of Iron atoms per molecule of Haemoglobin.

10. 1g of dry green algae absorbs 4.7  103 mole of CO2 per hour by photosynthesis. If the fixed carbon
atoms were all stored after photosynthesis as starch,  C6 H10O5 n , how long would it take for the
algae to double their own weight assuming photosynthesis takes place at a constant rate?
Answer should be reported to the nearest integer value.

WINDOW TO JEE MAIN

1. Which of the following concentration factor is affected by change in temperature ? [AIEEE 2002]
(A) Molarity (B) Molality (C) Mole fraction (D) Weight

2. Number of atoms in 560g of Fe (atomic mass 56g/mol) is : [AIEEE 2002]


(A) Twice that of 70g N (B) Half that of 20g H
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

3. In an organic compound of molar mass 108 g/mol C, H and N atoms are present in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by
weight. Molecular formula can be : [AIEEE 2002]
(A) C6H8N2 (B) C7H10N (C) C5H6N3 (D) C4H18N3

4. What volume of hydrogen gas at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 gm of
elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen?
[AIEEE 2003]
(A) 44.8 lit. (B) 22.4 lit. (C) 89.6 lit. (D) 67.2 lit.

5. 6.02 ×1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution
is
[AIEEE 2004]
(A) 0.001 M (B) 0.01 M (C) 0.02 M (D) 0.1 M

6. If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass
unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will [AIEEE 2005]
(A) decrease twice (B) increase two fold
(C) remain unchanged (D) be a function of the molecular mass of the substance

7. Density of a 2.05M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/ml. The molality of the solution is :
[AIEEE-2006]
(A) 1.14 mol/kg (B) 3.28 mol/kg (C) 2.28 mol/kg (D) 0.44 mol/kg

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8. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will contains 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?
(A) 0.02 (B) 3.125 × 10 -2 (C) 1.25 × 10 -2 (D) 2.5 × 10 – 2 [AIEEE-2006]

9. The density (in g/mL) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% by mass will be
[AIEEE-2007]
(A) 1.22 (B) 1.45 (C) 1.64 (D) 1.88

10. The reaction,


2Al(s)  6 H C l(aq )  2 Al 3  (aq )  6C l  (aq )  3H 2 (g )
(A) 33.6 L H2(g) is produced regardless of temperature and pressure for every mole of Al that reacts
(B) 67.2 L H2(g) at STP is produced for every mole of Al that reacts
(C) 11.2 L H2(g) at STP is produced for every mole of HCl (aq) consumed
(D) 6 L HCl (aq) is consumed for every 3L H2 (g) produced [AIEEE-2007]

11. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol, CH3OH is supplied. What is the mole fraction of
methyl alcohol in the solution
(A) 0.86 (B) 0.086 (C) 0.043 (D) 1.0 [AIEEE-2007]

12. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea ( Mol.Mass = 60u ) in 1000 g of water
is 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution is
(A) 1.02 M (B) 0.50 M (C) 2.05 M (D) 1.78 M [AIEEE-2007]

13. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 mL of 0.5 M HCl with 250 mL of 2M HCl will be
(A) 1.75 M (B) 0.975 M (C) 0.875 M (D) 1.78 M [AIEEE-2013]

14. Number of atoms in the following samples of substances is the largest in [JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) 4.0 g of hydrogen (b) 70.0g of chlorine
(c) 127.0 g of iodine (d) 48.0 g of magnesium

15. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in a molecule of heavy water are respectively
[JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) 8, 10, 11 (b) 10, 10, 10 (c) 10, 11, 10 (d) 11, 10, 10

16. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion 0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO2. The empirical
formula of the hydrocarbon is [JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) C2H4 (b) C3H4 (c) C6H5 (d) C7H8

17. The density of 3M solution of sodium chloride is 1.252 g mL–1. The molality of the solution will be
(molar mass, NaCl = 58.5 g mol–1) [JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) 2.60 m (b) 2.18 m (c) 2.79 m (d) 3.00 m

18. 10 mL of 2M NaOH solution is added to 200 mL of 0.5 M of NaOH solution. What is the final
concentration? [JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) 0.57 M (b) 5.7 M (c) 11.4 M (d) 1.14 M

19. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of
number of their molecule is [JEE Main Offline 2014]
(a) 1:4 (b) 7:32 (c) 1:8 (d) 3:16

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20. The amount of BaSO4 formed upon mixing 100ml of 20.8% BaCl2 solution with 50 ml of 9.8%
H2SO4 solution will be
(Ba = 137, Cl = 35.5, S = 32, H = 1 and 0 = 16) [JEE Main Online 2014]
(a) 23.3 g (b) 11.65 g (c) 30.6 g (d) 33.2 g

21. Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (Mol. Wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density 1.12
g/ml. The molarity of the solution is [JEE Main Online 2014]
(a) 1.00M (b) 2.00 M (c) 2.50 M (d) 4.00 M

22. A gaseous compound of nitrogen and hydrogen contains 12.5% (by mass) of hydrogen. The density
of the compound relative to hydrogen is 16. The molecular formula of the compound is
[JEE Main Online 20014]
(a) NH2 (b) N3H (c) NH3 (d) N2H4

23. 3g of activated charcoal was added to 50 ml of acetic acid solution (0.06M) in a flask. After an hour
it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 M. The amount of acetic acid
adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is [JEE Main Offline 2015]
(a) 18 mg (b) 36 mg (c) 42 mg (d) 54 mg

24. A  2B  3C  AB2C3
Reaction of 6.0g of A, 6 1023 atoms of B and 0.036 mol of C yields 4.8 g of compound AB2C3 . If
the atomic mass of A & C are 60 and 80 amu respectively the atomic mass of B is (Avogadro No
 6 1023 ) [JEE Main Online 2015]
(a) 70 amu (b) 60 amu (c) 50 amu (d) 40 amu

25. A sample of a hydrate of barium chloride weighing 61g was heated until the water of hydration is
removed. The dried sample weighed 52g. The formula of the hydrated salt is (atomic mass of
Ba  137 amu, Cl = 35.5 amu) [JEE Main Online 2015]
(a) BaCl2 .H 2O (b) BaCl2.2H2O (c) BaCl2. 3H2O (d) BaCl2.4H2O

26. An organic compound contains C, H and S. The minimum molecular weight of the compound
containing 8% sulphur is: (atomic weight of S = 32 amu) [JEE Main Online 2016]
(a) 200 g mol-1 (b) 400 g mol-1 (c) 600 g mol-1 (d) 300 g mol-1

27. 5 L of an alkane requires 25 L of oxygen for its complete combustion. If all volumes are measured at
constant temperature and pressure, the alkane is: [JEE Main Online 2016]
(a) Ethane (b) Propane (c) Butane (d) Isobutane

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IJSO CHEMISTRY
ANSWER KEY
LEVEL-1
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (D)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (A)
16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B)
26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (B)
36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (D)
46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (A)
51. (D) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (D)
56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (A)
66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (A)

LEVEL-2
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41.(d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (d)
101. (d) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (d)
111. (a) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (c)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (b) 129. (b) 130. (a)
131. (a) 132. (a) 133. (d) 134. (d) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (a) 138. (b) 139. (d) 140. (d)
141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (c)
151. (d) 152. (d) 153. (c) 154. (a) 155. (c) 156. (d) 157. (c) 158. (c) 159. (b) 160. (d)
161. (b) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (a) 165. (d) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (d) 169. (b) 170. (b)
171. (c) 172. (c) 173. (c) 174. (b) 175. (d) 176. (a) 177. (a) 178. (c) 179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (d) 182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (c) 185. (a) 186. (d) 187. (a) 188. (b) 189. (b) 190. (d)
191. (b) 192. (c) 193. (b) 194. (d) 195. (a) 196. (b) 197. (b) 198. (b) 199. (d) 200. (d)
201. (b) 202. (c) 203. (c) 204. (a) 205. (b) 206. (a)
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LEVEL-3
SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (B)
16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (B)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B)

COMPREHENSIVE TYPE
PASSAGE – I 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B
PASSAGE – II 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A
PASSAGE – III 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. A
PASSAGE – IV 1. A 2. A

WINDOW TO JEE MAIN


1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B)
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B)
16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
26. (B) 27. (B)

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 
 
The existence of atoms has been proposed since the time of early Indian and Greek philosophers
(400 B.C.) who were of the view that atoms are the fundamental building blocks of matter. According to
them, the continued subdivisions of matter would ultimately yield atoms which would not be further divisible.
The word ‘atom’ has been derived from the Greek word ‘a-tomio’ which means ‘uncutable’ or ‘non-divisible’.
These earlier ideas were mere speculations and there was no way to test them experimentally. These ideas
remained dormant for a very long time and were revived again by scientists in the nineteenth century.
In this unit we start with the experimental observations made by scientists towards the end of nineteenth
and beginning of twentieth century.

 

All the objects around you, this book, your pen or pencil and things of nature such as rocks, water
and plant constitute the matter of the universe. Matter is any substance which occupies space and has
mass.

Dalton, in 1808, proposed that matter was made up of extremely small, indivisible particles called atoms.
(In Greek atom means which cannot be cut). This concept was accepted for many years.

The main postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory are


Matter is made up of small indivisible particles, called atoms.
Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed. This means that a chemical reaction is just a simple
rearrangement of atoms and the same number of atoms must be present before and after the
reaction.
Atom is the smallest particle of an element which takes part in a chemical reaction.
Atoms of the same element are identical in all respects especially, size, shape and mass.
Atoms of different elements have different mass, shape and size.
Atoms of different elements combine in a fixed ratio of small whole numbers to form compound
atoms, called molecules.

Drawbacks:
1. The discovery of isotopes and isobars showed that atom of same element may have different
atomic mass (isotopes) and atom of different kinds may have same atomic masses (isobars).
2. Atoms can be split into more fundamental particles: electrons, protons and neutrons.

 
Dalton’s atomic theory was able to explain the law of conservation of mass, law of constant
composition and law of multiple proportions very successfully. However, it failed to explain the results of
many experiments; for example, it was known that substances like glass or ebonite when rubbed with silk
or fur generate electricity. Many different kinds of sub-atomic particles were discovered in the twentieth
century. However, in this section we will talk about three particles, namely electron, proton and neutron.

 

Michael Faraday showed that chemical changes occur when electricity is passed though an
electrolyte. He stated that electricity is made up of particles called atoms of electricity. G.J Stoney
suggested the name of electron for the atoms of electricity. However, the real credit for the discovery of
electrons goes to J.J. Thomson. In mid 1850s many scientists mainly Faraday began to study electrical
discharge in partially evacuated tubes, known as cathode ray discharge tubes. A cathode ray tube is
COLLEGES: ANDHERI / BORIVALI / CHEMBUR / DADAR / KALYAN / KHARGHAR / NERUL / POWAI / THANE 2

105
 
made of glass containing two thin pieces of metal, called electrodes, sealed in it. The electrical discharge
through the gases could be observed only at very low pressures and at very high voltages. The pressure of
different gases could be adjusted by evacuation.
When sufficiently high voltage is applied across the electrodes, current starts flowing as a stream of
particles moving in the tube from the negative electrode (cathode) to the positive electrode (anode). These
were called cathode rays or cathode ray particles. The flow of current from cathode to anode was further
checked by making a hole in the anode and coating the tube behind anode with phosphorescent material
zinc sulphide. When these rays, after passing through anode, strike the zinc sulphide coating, a bright spot
on the coating is developed (same thing happens in a television set)

The results of these experiments are summarised below.

(i) The cathode rays start from cathode and move towards the anode.

(ii) These rays themselves are not visible but their behaviour can be observed with the help of certain
kind of materials (fluorescent or phosphorescent) which glow when hit by them. Television picture
tubes are cathode ray tubes and television pictures result due to fluorescence on the television
screen coated with certain fluorescent or phosphorescent materials.

(iii) In the absence of electrical or magnetic field, these rays travel in straight lines

(iv) In the presence of electric or magnetic field, the behaviour of cathode rays is similar to that
expected from negatively charged particles, suggesting that the cathode rays consist of negatively
charged particles, called electrons.

(v) The characteristics of cathode rays (electrons) do not depend upon the material of electrodes and
the nature of the gas present in the cathode ray tube. Thus, we can conclude that electrons are
basic constituent of all the atoms.

(vi) Cathode rays produce heating effect. When these rays are made to strike on a metal foil, the latter
gets heated.

(vii) Cathode rays produce X-rays when they strike on surface of hard metals such as tungsten, copper
molybdenum etc.

(viii) Cathode rays can pass through thin foils of metals like aluminium. However, these are stopped if
the foil is quite thick.

(ix) Cathode rays ionize the gas through which they pass.

J. J. Thomson (1856–1940):

Sir J.J. Thomson confirmed these findings in 1897. Thomson performed a series of
e
experiments in which he was able to determine the charge/mass ratio of the particles that make up
m

COLLEGES: ANDHERI / BORIVALI / CHEMBUR / DADAR / KALYAN / KHARGHAR / NERUL / POWAI / THANE 3

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the cathode ray by measuring the deflection of the rays with varying magnetic and electric fields. Thomson
performed the same experiments using different metals for the cathode and anode as well as different
gases inside the tube.

e
This value is found to be 1.76 1011 coulomb per kg.
m

The e/m ratio for electron was found to be same irrespective of the nature of cathode and nature of
gas taken in discharge tube. This shows that the electrons are universal constituent of all matter.

 

R.A. Millikan (1868-1953) devised a method known as oil drop experiment (1906-14), to determine
the charge on the electrons. Millikan concluded that the magnitude of electrical charge, q, on the droplets is
always an integral multiple of the electrical charge, e,
That is, q = n e, where n = 1, 2, 3............... That means charge is quantised.
–19
He found that the value of e is –1.6 ×10 C. The present accepted value of electrical charge is
–19
– 1.6022 ×10 C.
The mass of the electron (me) was determined by combining these results with Thomson’s value of e/m
ratio.

Calculation of mass of an electron: With the help of the experiments discussed above, it is possible to
calculate the values of e/m ratio and also the charge (e) on the electron. The mass (m) of the electron can
be calculated as follows.

e (1.60 10 19 C ) 28 31
Mass of electron (m) 9.10 10 g 9.10 10 kg .
e/m (1.76 108 Cg 1 )

An electron may be defined as: A fundamental particle present in an atom, which carries one unit
negative charge (1.60 10 19 C ) and negligible mass (9.1 10 28 g ) which is 1/1837 of the mass of an
atom of hydrogen.

 

We know that an atom is electrically neutral, if it contains negatively charged electrons it must also
contain some positively charged particles. This was confirmed by Goldstein in his discharge tube
experiment with perforated cathode. On passing high voltage between the electrodes of a discharge tube it
was found that some rays were coming from the side of the anode which passed through the holes in the
cathode. These anode rays (canal rays) consisted of positively charged particles formed by ionization of
gas molecules by the cathode rays. The charge to mass ratio (e/m value) of positively charge particles was
found to be maximum when the discharge tube was filled with hydrogen gas as hydrogen is the lightest
element. e/m varies with the nature of gas taken in the discharge tube. The positive particles are positive
residues of the gas left when the gas is ionized.

 

The neutral charge particle, neutron was discovered by James Chadwick by bombarding boron or
beryllium with –particles.
9 4
4 Be 2 6 C12 0 n1

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Characteristics of the three fundamental particles are:

Electron Proton Neutron

Approximate relative mass 1/1836 1 1

Approximate relative charge –1 +1 No charge

Mass in kg 9.109 10–31 1.673 10–27 1.675 10–27

The electron and proton have equal, but opposite, electric charges while the neutron is uncharged.

 
We know the fundamental particles of the atom. Now let us see, how these particles are arranged in
an atom to suggest a model of the atom.



J.J. Thomson, in 1904, proposed that there was an equal and opposite positive charge enveloping
the electrons in a matrix. This model is called the plum – pudding model after a type of Victorian dessert in
which bits of plums were surrounded by matrix of pudding.

electron
Positive sphere

This model could not satisfactorily explain the results of scattering experiment carried out by Rutherford
who worked with Thomson.

 

– Particles emitted by radioactive substance were shown to be dipositive Helium ions (He ++)
having a mass of 4 units and 2 units of positive charge.

Rutherford allowed a narrow beam of –particles to fall on a very thin gold foil of thickness of the order of
0.0004 cm and determined the subsequent path of these particles with the help of a zinc sulphide
fluorescent screen. The zinc sulphide screen gives off a visible flash of light when struck by an particle,
as ZnS has the remarkable property of converting kinetic energy of particle into visible light.

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

i) Majority of the –particles pass straight through the gold strip with little or no deflection.

ii) Some –particles are deflected from their path and diverge.

iii) Very few –particles are deflected backwards through angles greater than 90 .

iv) Some were even scattered in the opposite direction at an angle of 180 [ Rutherford was very
much surprised by it and remarked that “It was as incredible as if you fired a 15–inch shell at a
piece of tissue paper and it came back and hit you”]. There is far less difference between air and
bullet than there is between gold atoms and -particles assuming of course that density of a gold
atom is evenly distributed.



1. The fact that most of the - particles passed straight through the metal foil indicates the most part
of the atom is empty.
2. The fact that few - particles are deflected at large angles indicates the presence of a heavy
positively charge body , for such large deflections to occur - particles must have come closer to or
collided with a massive positively charged body.
3. The fact that one in 20,000 have deflected at 180° backwards indicates that volume occupied by
this heavy positively charged body is very small in comparison to total volume of the atom.

 

On the basis of the above observation, and having realized that the rebounding -particles had met
something even more massive than themselves inside the gold atom, Rutherford proposed an
atomic model as follows.
i) All the protons (+ve charge) and the neutrons (neutral charge) i.e nearly the total mass of an atom
is present in a very small region at the centre of the atom. The atom’s central core is called nucleus.
ii) The size of the nucleus is very small in comparison to the size of the atom. Diameter of the nucleus
is about 10–13cm while the atom has a diameter of the order of 10–8 cm. So, the size of atom is 105
times more than that of nucleus.
iii) Most of the space outside the nucleus is empty.
iv) The electrons, equal in number to the net nuclear positive charge, revolve around the nucleus with
fast speed in various circular orbits.
v) The centrifugal force arising due to the fast speed of an electron balances the coulombic force of
attraction of the nucleus and the electron remains stable in its path. Thus according to him atom
consists of two parts (A) nucleus and (B) extra nuclear part.

COLLEGES: ANDHERI / BORIVALI / CHEMBUR / DADAR / KALYAN / KHARGHAR / NERUL / POWAI / THANE 6

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 :

1. Position of electrons: The exact positions of the electrons from the nucleus are not mentioned.
2. Stability of the atom: Neils Bohr pointed out that Rutherford’s atom
should be highly unstable. According to the law of electro–dynamics,
any charged particle under acceleration should continuously lose
energy. The electron should therefore, continuously emit radiation
and lose energy. As a result of this a moving electron will come
closer and closer to the nucleus and after passing through a spiral
path, it should ultimately fall into the nucleus.

It was calculated that the electron should fall into the nucleus in less than 10 –8 sec. But it is known
that electrons keep moving outside the nucleus. To solve this problem Neils Bohr proposed an improved
form of Rutherford’s atomic model. Before going into the details of Neils Bohr model we would like to
introduce you some important atomic terms.

 
(a) Atomic Number (Z): The atomic number of an element is the number of protons contained in the
nucleus of the atom of that element.

(b) Nucleons: Protons and neutrons are present in a nucleus. So, these fundamental particles are
collectively known as nucleons.

(c) Mass Number (A): The total number of protons and neutrons i.e, the number of nucleons present
in the nucleus is called the mass number of the element.

(d) Nuclide: Various species of atoms in general. A nuclide has specific value of atomic number and
mass number.

(e) Isotopes: Atoms of the element with same atomic number but different mass number e.g. 1H1, 1H2,
3
1H . There are three isotopes of hydrogen.

32 32
(f) Isobars: Atoms having the same mass number but different atomic numbers, e.g. 15P and 16S
are called isobars.

(g) Isotones: Atoms having the same number of neutrons but different number of protons or mass
number, e.g. 6C14, 8O16, 7N15 are called isotones.

(h) Isoelectronic: Atoms, molecules or ions having same number of electrons are isoelectronic e.g.
N2,CO, CN–.

(i) Isosters : Molecules having same number of atoms and also same number of electrons are called
isosters.
e.g., (i) N2 and CO ii) CO2 and N2O iii) HCl and F2
1
(j) Atomic mass unit: Exactly equal to of the mass of 6C12 atom
12
1 amu = 1.66 10–27 kg, If it is converted to energy then E= 931.5 MeV

(k) Isodiapheres: Atoms having same difference between neutrons & protons are called isodiapheres.
They have same value of N - Z or A - 2Z
238 234
Example: i) 92 U & 90Th ii) 13 H & 7
3 Li

COLLEGES: ANDHERI / BORIVALI / CHEMBUR / DADAR / KALYAN / KHARGHAR / NERUL / POWAI / THANE 7

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 
A wave is a sort of disturbance which originates from some vibrating source and travels outward as
a continuous sequence of alternating crests and troughs. Every wave has five important characteristics,
namely, wavelength ( ), frequency ( ), velocity (C), wave number and amplitude (A).

Crest Crest

Trough Trough A sinusoidal wave

Ordinary light rays, X–rays, –rays, etc. are called electromagnetic radiations because similar waves can
be produced by moving a charged body in a magnetic field or a magnet in an electric field. These
radiations have wave characteristics and do not require any medium for their propagation.

i) Wave length ( ): The distance between two neighbouring troughs or crests is known as
wavelength. It is denoted by and is expressed in cm, m, nanometers (1nm=10–9m) or Angstrom
(1Å=10–10m); 1 micron ( ) 10 6 m, 1 milli micron ( m ) 10 9 m 1 pm 10 12 m.

ii) Frequency ( ): The frequency of a wave is the number of times a wave passes through a given
point in a medium in one second. It is denoted by (nu) and is expressed in cycles per second (cps)
or hertz (Hz) 1Hz = 1cps.

1 c
The frequency of a wave is inversely proportional to its wave length ( ) or =

iii) Velocity: The distance travelled by the wave in one second is called its velocity. It is denoted by c
c
and is expressed in cm sec–1. c= or =

iv) Wave number : It is defined as number of wavelengths per cm. It is denoted by and is
1
expressed in cm–1. = (or) =
c

v) Amplitude: It is the height of the crest or depth of the trough of a wave and is denoted by a. It
determines the intensity or brightness of the beam of light & is also expressed in the unit of length

Ex.1 A source of sound velocity 330 m s produces waves in the frequency range 500 Hz to
6600 Hz . Find the wavelength range of sound produced
Ans: V . 330 m s
V 330 V 330
max 0.66 m min 0.05m
min 500 max 6600

Ex.2 Find the distance traveled by a wave of frequency 20 KHz in 2 minutes if its wavelength is 1.5 cm
Ans: V . 1.5 10 2 m 20 10 3 Hz 300 m s distance v t 300 120 s 36 km

COLLEGES: ANDHERI / BORIVALI / CHEMBUR / DADAR / KALYAN / KHARGHAR / NERUL / POWAI / THANE 8

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 
When a black body is heated, it emits thermal radiations of different wavelengths or frequency. To
explain these radiations, Max Planck put forward a theory known as Planck’s quantum theory. The main
points of quantum theory are

i) Substances radiate or absorb energy discontinuously in the form of small packets or bundles of
energy.

ii) The smallest packet of energy is called quantum. In case of light the quantum is known as photon.

iii) The energy of a quantum is directly proportional to the frequency of the radiation .E (or) E = h
were is the frequency of radiation and h is Planck’s constant having the value 6.626 10–27

erg – sec or 6.626 10–34 J–sec.


iv) A body can radiate or absorb energy in whole number multiples of a quantum. Hence it can be h ,
2h ,3h ………..nh . where n is a positive integer.

nhc
v) Energy of photons can also be represented by Joules . Where,

n : number of photons
34
h : 6.626 10 J s.

C 3 108 m s

: Wavelength in 'm ' .

In eV units,

12400 19
E photon eV where, 1eV 1.6 10 Joules
in A

 
Wave theory was given by C. Huygens. In 1856, James Clark Maxwell stated that light, X-rays,
-rays and heat etc. emit energy continuously in the form of radiations or waves and the energy is called
radiant energy. These waves are associated with electric and magnetic fields and are, therefore, known
as electromagnetic waves (or radiations). A few important characteristics of these waves are listed:

(i) They emit energy continuously in the form of radiations or waves.

(ii) The radiations consist of electric and magnetic fields which oscillate perpendicular to each other
and also perpendicular to the direction in which the radiations propagate.

(iii) All the electromagnetic waves travel with the velocity of light (3.0 108 ms 1 ) .

(iv) These rays do not require any medium for propagation.

(v) They are not affected by electric or magnetic fields.

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

Electromagnetic radiations Wave length (Å)


Radio waves 3 1014 to 3 107
Micro waves 3 109 to 3 106
Infrared (IR) 6 106 to 7600
Visible 7600 to 3800
Ultra violet (UV) 3800 to 150
X–rays 150 to 0.1
Gamma rays 0.1 to 0.01
Cosmic rays 0.01 to zero

The complete range of the electromagnetic waves is known as electromagnetic spectrum. It may be
defined as: The arrangement of different electromagnetic radiations in order of increasing wavelength or
decreasing frequency.

Ex.3 Find the energy range of photons belonging to the visible region Given:

violet 4000 A and Re d 8000 A


Sol: Maximum energy (minimum )
12400
Emax eV 3.1 eV
4000
12400
Minimum energy (maximum ) Emin 1.55eV
8000eV
Ex.4 Two waves differ in frequency by 1015 Hz . If one wave has 2000 A . Find possible values of
other wave.
c
Sol: Given, 1 2000 A 1 1.5 1015

Possible 2 values 0.5 1015 , 2.5 1015 Hz


2 values are:

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C C
(i) 15
6000 A (ii) 1200 A
0.5 10 2.5 1015
Ex.5 Find the number of photons required to raise the temperature of 5 g of water from 20 C to 22 C ,

given that water has a specific heat capacity of 4.2 J g C and that 5000 A . It is also given that
photon energy is 80% utilized to heat the water

Ans: Heat required m.s. T


5 g 4.2 J g C 2 C 42 J
80
i.e 42 J E photon ,total
100
hc 80
ie n 42
100
10
42 100 5000 10
n
34
80 6.626 10 3 108

1.32 10 20 photons

 
Bohr developed a model for hydrogen atom and hydrogen like one–electron species (hydrogenic
species). He applied quantum theory in considering the energy of an electron bound to the nucleus.

Important postulates

An atom consists of a dense stationary nucleus situated at the centre with the electron revolving
around it in circular orbits without emitting any energy. The force of attraction between the nucleus
and an electron is equal to the centrifugal force on the moving electron.

Out of many circular orbits around the nucleus, an electron can revolve only in those orbits whose
angular momentum (mvr) is an integral multiple of factor h 2
nh
mvr = ; where, m = mass of the electron
2
v = velocity of the electron ; n = orbit number in which electron is present ; r = radius of the orbit

As long as an electron is revolving in such an orbit it neither loses nor gains energy. Hence these
orbits are called stationary states. Each stationary state is associated with a definite amount of
energy and it is also known as energy levels. The greater the distance of the energy level from the
nucleus, the more is the energy associated with it. The different energy levels are numbered as
1,2,3,4, (from nucleus onwards) or K,L,M,N etc.

Ordinarily an electron continues to move in a particular least possible energy stationary state
without losing energy. Such a stable state of the atom is called as ground state or normal state.

If energy is supplied to an electron, it may jump (excite) instantaneously from lower energy (say 1)
to higher energy level (say 2,3,4, etc.) by absorbing one photon. This new state of electron is called
as excited state. The quantum of energy absorbed is equal to the difference in energies of the two
concerned levels.

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Since the excited state is less stable, atom will lose its energy and come back to the ground state.

Energy absorbed or released in an electron jump, ( E) is given by E = E2 – E1 = h

Where E 2 and E1 are the energies of the electron in the first and second energy levels, and is the
frequency of radiation absorbed or emitted.

[Note: If the energy supplied to hydrogen atom is less than 13.6 eV, it will accept or absorb only
those quanta which can take it to a certain higher energy level i.e., all those photons having energy
different from what is required for a particular transition will not be absorbed by hydrogen atom. But
if energy supplied to hydrogen atom is more than 13.6 eV then all photons are absorbed and
excess energy appears as kinetic energy of emitted photo electron].

Radius and Energy levels of hydrogen atom

Consider an electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ revolving around a nucleus of charge Ze (where,
Z = atomic number and e is the charge of the proton) with a tangential velocity v. r is the radius of
the orbit in which electron is revolving.

By Coulomb’s Law, the electrostatic force of attraction between the moving electron and nucleus is
KZe 2
Coulombic force =
r2
1
K= (where o is permittivity of free space) ; K = 9 109 Nm2 C–2
4 o

In C.G.S. units, value of K = 1 dyne cm2 (esu)–2


mv 2
The centrifugal force acting on the electron is
r
Since the electrostatic force balance the centrifugal force, for the stable electron orbit.
mv 2 KZe 2 KZe 2
= … (1) (or) v2 = … (2)
r r2 mr
According to Bohr’s postulate of angular momentum quantization, we have
nh nh n2h2
mvr = ; v= ; v2 = 2
… (3)
2 2 mr 4 m2r 2
KZe 2 n2h2
Equating (2) and (3) 2
mr 4 m2r 2
n2h 2
solving for r we get r = , where n = 1,2,3 - - - - -
4 2 mKZe 2

Hence only certain orbits whose radii are given by the above equation are available for the electron.
The greater the value of n, i.e., farther the energy level from the nucleus, the greater is the radius.

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 
The radius of the smallest orbit (n=1) for hydrogen atom (Z=1) is ro.

34 2
n2h2 12 6.626 10
ro = = = 5.29 10–11 m = 0.529 Å
4 2
me 2 K 2 31 19 2 9
4 3.14 9 10 1.6 10 9 10

Radius of nth orbit for an atom with atomic number Z is simply written as

n2
rn = 0.529 Å
Z

Calculation of velocity :
nh nh
We know that ; mvr = ;v =
2 2 mr
2 KZe 2
By substituting for r we are getting ; v=
nh
Z
Where excepting n and z all are constants ; v = 2.18 108 cm/sec.
n

Calculation of energy of an electron:


The total energy, E of the electron is the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy.
Kinetic energy of the electron = ½ mv2
KZe 2
Potential energy =
r
KZe 2
Total energy = ½ mv2 – … (4)
r
mv 2 KZe2 KZe 2
From equation (1) we know that = ; ½ mv2 =
r r2 2r
Substituting this in equation (4)
KZe2 KZe2 KZe2
Total energy (E) = – =
2r r 2r
2
2 mZ 2e4K 2
Substituting for r, gives us E = where n = 1,2,3……….
n2h2

This expression shows that only certain energies are allowed to the electron. Since this energy
expression consist of so many fundamental constant, we are giving you the following simplified
expressions.
Z2 Z2 Z2
E = –21.8 10–12 erg per atom = –21.8 10–19 J per atom = –13.6 eV per atom
n2 n2 n2

(1eV = 3.83 10–23 kcal, 1eV = 1.602 10–12 erg, 1eV = 1.602 10–19J)
Z2
E = –313.6 kcal / mole (1 cal = 4.18 J)
n2

The energies are negative since the energy of the electron in the atom is less than the energy of a
free electron (i.e., the electron is at infinite distance from the nucleus) which is taken as zero. The
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lowest energy level of the atom corresponds to n=1, and as the quantum number increases, E
becomes less negative.

When n = , E = 0, which corresponds to an ionized atom i.e., the electron and nucleus are
infinitely separated.

H H++ e– (ionisation).

Ex.6 Find the distance between 2nd and 4th orbit in He


n2
Ans: Required answer r4, He r2, He . Now, radius 0.529 A
Z
0.529 2 2
Distance 4 2 A 3.174 A
2

Ex.7 Find the time taken for half a revolution by electron in 3rd orbit of Li 2
distance circumference
time = 12
speed velocity
1 2 r3 , Li 2
2 V3 , Li 2
0.529 32
r3 , Li 2 1.587 A
3
Z
V3 , Li 2 2.18 106 2.18 106 m s
n

1.587 A 16
Time 6
2.287 10 s
2.18 10 m s

Ex.8 Find the wavelength of photon absorbed upon transition of an electron from 4th orbit to 6th orbit in
He
Ans: E photon E6, He E4,He
Z2
But, En,Z 13.6 eV
n2
1 1
E photon 13.6 4 2
1.89 eV
4 62
12400
A 6560 A
1.89


Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom was no doubt an improvement over Rutherford’s nuclear
model, as it could account for the stability and line spectra of hydrogen atom and hydrogen like ions (for
+ 2+ 3+
example, He , Li , Be and so on).

Merits of Bohr’s theory

i) The experimental value of radii and energies in hydrogen atom are in good agreement with that
calculated on the basis of Bohr’s theory.
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ii) Bohr’s concept of stationary state of electron explains the emission and absorption spectra of
hydrogen like atoms.
iii) The experimental values of the spectral lines of the hydrogen spectrum are in close agreement with
that calculated by Bohr’s theory.

Limitations of Bohr’s theory

i) It does not explain the spectra of atoms having more than one electron.

ii) Bohr’s atomic model failed to account for the effect of magnetic field (Zeeman Effect) or electric
field (Stark effect) on the spectra of atoms or ions. It was observed that when the source of a
spectrum is placed in a strong magnetic or electric field, each spectral line further splits into a
number of lines. This observation could not be explained on the basis of Bohr’s model.

iii) De Broglie suggested that electrons like light have dual character. It has particle and wave
character. Bohr treated the electron only as particle.

iv) Another objection to Bohr’s theory came from Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle. According to
this principle “It is impossible to determine simultaneously the exact position and momentum
of a small moving particle like an electron”. The postulate of Bohr, that electrons revolve in well
defined orbits around the nucleus with well defined velocities is thus not tenable.

 
When light coming from a source is dispersed by a prism, light of different wavelength are deviated
through different angles and get separated. This phenomenon is called dispersion and such a dispersed
light may be received on a photo graphic plate or it may be viewed directly by eye. A collection of dispersed
light giving its wave length composition is called a spectrum.

Energy
Red VIBGYOR
Angle of dispersion Frequency
1 Violet
Wavelength

 

(I) Emission Spectra:


The spectrum of radiation emitted by a substance that has absorbed energy is called an emission
spectrum. Atoms, molecules or ions that have absorbed radiation are said to be “excited”. To
produce an emission spectrum, energy is supplied to a sample by heating it or irradiating it and the
wavelength (or frequency) of the radiation emitted, as the sample gives up the absorbed energy, is
recorded. If the atom gains energy the electron passes from a lower energy level to a higher energy
level, (energy is absorbed). That means a specific wave length is absorbed. Consequently, a dark
line will appear in the spectrum. This dark line constitutes the absorption spectrum.

If the atom loses energy, the electron passes from higher to a lower energy level, energy is
released and a spectral line of specific wavelength is emitted. This line constitutes the emission
spectrum. There are two types of emission spectrum.

(i) Continuous Spectrum: When white light is dispersed a bright spectrum continuously distributed
on the dark back ground is obtained. The colours are continuous during change and there are no

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sharp boundaries in between various colours. Colours appear to be merging into each other. Such
a spectrum is known as a continuous spectrum.

VIBGYOR
Red
orange

Indigo
Violet

(ii) Discontinuous Spectrum:

(a) Line Spectrum (For atoms) : When an electron in excited state makes a transition to lower energy
states, light of certain fixed wave lengths are emitted. When such a light is dispersed we get sharp
bright lines in dark back ground, such a spectrum is line emission spectrum:

+ Energy (Heat)

Electron in Electron in excited state


ground state

Transition

+
Photon of
Specturm wavelength

(b) Band Spectrum (In molecules):

Band

(II) Absorption spectrum:


When white light (composed of all visible photon frequencies) is passed through atomic hydrogen
gas, certain wave lengths are absent. The resulting spectrum consists of bright background with
some dark lines. The pattern of the dark lines is called an absorption spectrum.

Gas

Transmitted
absorbed wave length
wave length

The missing wavelengths are same as the ones observed in the corresponding emission
spectrum.

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 
We have seen earlier that when electromagnetic radiation interacts with matter, atoms and
molecules may absorb energy and reach to a higher energy state. With higher energy, these are in an
unstable state. For returning to their normal state (more stable, lower energy states), the atoms and
molecules emit radiations in various regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. These lines constitute the
atomic spectrum of the elements. The atomic spectrum of the elements is a “characteristic property” of the
elements and is often termed as “finger prints” of the elements.

 
If an electric discharge is passed through hydrogen gas taken in a discharge tube under low
pressure, and the emitted radiation is analysed with the help of spectrograph, it is found to consist of a
series of sharp lines in the UV, visible and IR regions. This series of lines is known as line or atomic
spectrum of hydrogen. The lines in the visible region can be directly seen on the photographic film.
Each line of the spectrum corresponds to a light of definite wavelength. The entire spectrum consists of six
series of lines, each series known after their discoverer as Lyman, Balmer, Paschen, Brackett, Pfund and
Humphrey series. The wavelength of all these series can be expressed by a single formula which is
attributed to Rydberg.

1 1 1
=R Where, = wave number ; = wave length
n12 n22

R = Rydberg constant (109678 cm–1) = 10967820 m 1


n1 and n2 have integral values as follows

Series n1 n2 Main spectral lines

Lyman 1 2,3,4, etc Ultra – violet

Balmer 2 3,4,5 etc Visible

Paschen 3 4,5,6 etc Infra – red

Brackett 4 5,6,7 etc Infra – red

Pfund 5 6,7,8, etc Infra – red


[Note: All lines in the visible region are of Balmer series but reverse is not true. i.e., all Balmer lines will not
fall in visible region]

n=

n=6 Humphery
n=5 (Infrared)
Pfund
n=4 (Infrared)
Bracket
(Infrared)
n=3
Paschen
(Infrared)
n=2
Balmer
(visible)
n=1
Lyman(ultraviolet region)

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 
n 2 n1
n n 1
Total possible transitions for jump from n 2 to n1 i , where n n 2 n 1 . This
1 2
also gives us the number of spectral lines observed under the given circumstances

As discussed earlier, the above pattern of lines in atomic spectrum is characteristic of hydrogen.

Explanation for hydrogen spectrum by Bohr’s theory


According to the Bohr’s theory electron neither emits nor absorbs energy as long as it stays in a
particular orbit. However, when an atom is subjected to electric discharge or high temperature, and
electron in the atom may jump from the normal energy level, i.e., ground state to some higher energy
level i.e. excited state. Since the life time of the electron in excited state is short, it returns to the ground
state in one or more jumps.

During each jump, energy is emitted in the form of a photon of light of definite wavelength or frequency.
The frequency of the photon of light thus emitted depends upon the energy difference of the two energy
levels concerned (n1, n2) and is given by
2
2 mZ 2 e 4 K 2 1 1 2 2
mZ 2 e 4 K 2 1 1
h = En En1 = 2
; =
n 22 n12 3
n12 n 22
2
h h

The frequencies of the spectral lines calculated with the help of above equation are found to be in good
agreement with the experimental values. Thus, Bohr’s theory elegantly explains the line spectrum of
hydrogen and hydrogenic species.

Bohr had calculated Rydberg constant from the above equation.

c 2 2mZ 2e4K 2 1 1 1 2 2mZ 2e 4K 2 1 1


= = ;
h3 n12 n 22 h3c n12 n 22

2 2me 4K 2
Where = 1.0967 107m–1 or 109678 cm–1 i.e., Rydberg constant (R)
h3c

Further application of Bohr’s work was made, to other one electron species (Hydrogenic ion) such as He+
and Li2+. In each case of this kind, Bohr’s prediction of the spectrum was correct.
Now after obtaining the explanation of Rydberg‛s equation from Bohr‛s theory, can you
derive what could be the equation for other uni-electronic species? What would be the
value of Rydberg‛s constant for He+1 , Li+2 ?

Ex.9 Find out the longest wavelength of absorption line for hydrogen gas containing atoms in
ground state.

1 1 1
Solution: RZ 2
n12 n 22
for longest wavelength E should be smallest i.e. transition occurs from
n = 1 to n = 2

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 
n=7
n=6

n=5

n=4

n=3

n=2

n=1

1 1 1
i.e. = 109678 cm–1 12
1 22
1 3
= 109678 cm–1
4
4
= = 1.2157 10–5 cm = 121.6 nm
3 109678cm 1

Ex.10: The series limit for the Paschen series of hydrogen spectrum occurs at 8205.8Å. Calculate.
(A) Ionization energy of hydrogen atom
(B) Wave length of the photon that would remove the electron in the ground state of the
hydrogen atom.
34
6.626 10 3 10 8
Solution: (A) Energy corresponding to 8205.8 A o = 10
8205.8 10
1240 1 1
= 2.422 × 10-19 J = =1.512 eV ; E E1, H Z2
820.58 n12 n22

1 1 E 1H
1.512 eV = E 1,H × (1)2 × ; 1.512 eV =
32 2
9
E 1, H = 13.608 eV
Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV
34
hc 6.626 10 3 10 8 1240
(B) 19
= in nm = 91.6 nm
E 13.6 1.602 10 13.6

Ex.11 Calculate frequency of the spectral line when an electron from 5th Bohr orbit jumps to
the second Bohr orbit in a hydrogen atom
1 1 1 1 1
Solution: =R = 109673 = 2.304 106 m–1
n 12 n 22 22 52
C
= = 2.304 106 m–1 2.998 108 m/s = 6.906 1014 Hz

Ex.12: Calculate the energy of an electron in 3rd Bohr orbit.

13.6 13.6
Solution: En = eV = = – 1.51 eV = – 2.42 10–19 J
n2 32

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Ex.13: Calculate the energy in kJ per mole of electronic charge accelerated by a potential of
1 volt.

Solution: Energy in joules = charge in coulombs potential difference in volt

= 1.6 10–19 6.02 1023 1 ; = 9.632 104 J or 96.32 kJ

Ex.14: What is highest frequency photon that can be emitted from hydrogen atom? What is
wavelength of this photon?

Solution: Highest frequency photon is emitted when electron comes from infinity to 1st energy level.
13.6Z 2
E= = – 13.6eV
12
or 13.6 1.6 10–19 Joule = 2.176 10–18 Joule
E 2.176 10 18 J C
E=h = = = 0.328 1016 Hz ; =
h 6.626 10 34 Js
3 10 8
= = 9.146 10–8 m
0.328 10 16
Ex.15: Calculate the longest wavelength transition in the Paschen series of He+.
1 1
Solution: RH Z2 ; For He; Z = 2; For Paschen series n1 = 3
n12 n 22
For longest wavelength n2 = 4
1 2 1 1 1 1 7
109678 2 2 2
= 109678×4× = 109678 × 4 ×
3 4 9 16 144
= 4689 Ao
Ex.16: Calculate the ratio of the wavelength of first and the ultimate line of Balmer series of
Li2+?

1 1 5 9R 5R
Solution: wave number of first line of Balmer, 1 = RZ 2 2 2
2 3 36 4
4
wave length of first line of Balmer =
5R
1 1 9R
wave number of ultimate line of Balmer, 2= RZ 2 =
22 4
4 9
wave length of ultimate line of Balmer = Ratio =
9R 5

 
Sir J.J. Thomson observed that when a light of certain frequency strikes the surface of a metal,
electrons are ejected from the metal. This phenomenon is known as photoelectric effect and the ejected
electrons are called photoelectrons. A few metals, which are having low ionisation energy like Cesium,
show this effect under the action of visible light but many more show it under the action of more energetic
ultraviolet light.

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11. Particle-Wave duality of Matter and Radiation
Particle-Wave duality of Matter and Radiation
In case of light some phenomenon like diffraction and interference can be explained on the basis of its
wave character. However, the certain other phenomenon such as black body radiation and photoelectric effect
can be explained only on the basis of its particle nature. Thus, light is said to have a dual character. Such
studies on light were made by Einstein in 1905.

Louis de Broglie, in 1924 extended the idea of photons to material particles such as electrons and he proposed
that matter also has a dual character-as wave and as particle.

124
Where R(r), Radial Wave function is dependent only on distance from the nucleus and A( , ),
Angular Wave function depends only on the two angles.

Significance of The wave function may be regarded as the amplitude function expressed in
terms of coordinates x, y and z. The wave function may have positive or negative values depending
upon the value of coordinates. The main aim of Schrödinger equation is to give solution for
probability approach. When the equation is solved, it is observed that for some regions of space the
value of is negative. But the probability must be always positive and cannot be negative, it is
thus, proper to use 2 instead of .
2 2
Significance of : gives us probability density. It describes the probability of finding an electron within
a small space. The space in which there is maximum probability of finding an
electron is termed as orbital. The important point of the solution of the wave equation
is that it provides a set of numbers called quantum numbers which describe energies
of the electron in atoms, information about the shapes and orientations of the most
probable distribution of electrons around nucleus.

An atom contains large number of shells and subshells. These are distinguished from one
another on the basis of their size, shape and orientation (direction) in space. The parameters are
expressed in terms of different numbers called quantum numbers.

Quantum numbers may be defined as a set of four numbers with the help of which we can get
complete information about all the electrons in an atom. It tells us the address of the electron i.e.,
location, energy, the type of orbital occupied and orientation of that orbital.

i) Principal quantum number (n): It tells the main shell in which the electron resides and the
approximate distance of the electron from the nucleus. This value determines to a large extent
energy of the orbital. It also tells the maximum number of electrons a shell can accommodate is
2n2, where n is the principal quantum number.
Shell K L M N
Principal quantum number (n) 1 2 3 4
Maximum number of electrons 2 8 18 32
Permissible values of n: all positive integers.

ii) Azimuthal or angular momentum quantum number ( ): This represents the number of subshells
present in the main shell. These subsidiary orbits within a shell will be denoted as s,p,d,f… This tells
the shape of the sub shells. The orbital angular momentum of the electron is given as:
h
1 h (or) 1 for a particular value of ' ' where .
2 2

For a given value of n, possible values of vary from 0 to n – 1. This means that there
th
are 'n ' possible shapes in the n shell.

iii) The magnetic quantum number (m): An electron due to its angular motion around the nucleus
generates an electric field. This electric field is expected to produce a magnetic field. Under the
influence of external magnetic field, the electrons of a subshell can orient themselves in certain
preferred regions of space around the nucleus called orbitals. The magnetic quantum number
determines the number of preferred orientations of the electron present in a subshell. The values
allowed depends on the value of , the angular momentum quantum number, m can, assume all

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125
integral values between – to + including zero. Thus m can be –1, 0, +1 for = 1. Total values
of m associated with a particular value of are given by 2 + 1.
iv) The spin quantum number (s): Just like earth not only revolves around the sun but also spins
about its own axis, an electron in an atom not only revolves around the nucleus but also spins about
its own axis. Since an electron can spin either in clockwise direction or in anticlockwise direction,
therefore, for any particular value of magnetic quantum number, spin quantum number can have
two values, i.e., +1/2 and –1/2 or these are represented by two arrows pointing in the opposite
directions, i.e., and . When an electron goes to a vacant orbital, it can have a clockwise or
anticlockwise spin. This quantum number helps to explain the magnetic properties of the
substances.
h
Spin angular momentum s s(s 1) where s = ½.
2
Another term, defined as multiplicity is given as 2|S|+1 where |S| is total spin

= no. of unpaired electrons × 1/2.

Can you derive the following expressions?

1. no. of orbital = n2 or (2 1) for ‘n’ ' ' respectively

2. no. of e- = 2n2 or 2(2 1) for ‘n’ ' ' respectively

Nodes : The region where the probability of finding an electron is zero or the probability density function
reduces to zero is called a nodal surface or simply nodes. Nodes are classified as radial nodes
and angular nodes. In general, an orbital with principal quantum number = n and azimuthal
quantum number = l, has
2
Total nodes = n – 1 ; Radial nodes = n – – 1 ;Angular nodes = ; At Nodes, =0, =0

An orbital is the region of space around the nucleus within which the probability of finding an
electron of given energy is maximum (B > 90%). The shape of this region (electron cloud) gives the
shape of the orbital. It is basically determined by the azimuthal quantum number , while the
orientation of orbital depends on the magnetic quantum number (m). Let us now see the shapes of
orbitals in the various subshells.

s–orbitals: These orbitals are spherical and


symmetrical about the nucleus. The
probability of finding the electron is
maximum near the nucleus and keeps
on decreasing as the distance from the
nucleus increases. There is vacant
space between two successive
s–orbitals known as radial node. But
there is no radial node for 1s orbital
since it is starting from the nucleus.

The size of the orbital depends upon the value of principal quantum number (n). Greater the value
of n, larger is the size of the orbital. Therefore, 2s– orbital is larger than 1s orbital but both of them
are non-directional and spherically symmetrical in shape.

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p–orbitals ( =1): The probability of finding the p–electron is
Y
maximum in two lobes on the opposite sides of the
nucleus. This gives rise to a dumb–bell shape for the p–
orbital. For p–orbital = 1. Hence, m = –1, 0, +1. Thus,
p–orbital have three different orientations. These are X py pz
designated as px , py & pz depending upon whether the px
Z
density of electron is maximum along the y and z axis
respectively. As they are not spherically symmetrical,
they have directional character. The two lobes of p–orbitals are separated by a nodal plane, where
the probability of finding electron is zero.

The three p-orbitals belonging to a particular energy shell have equal energies and are called
degenerate orbitals.

d–orbitals ( =2): For d–orbitals, =2. Hence m= – 2,–1,0,+1,+2. Thus there are 5 d orbitals. They
have relatively complex geometry. Out of the five orbitals, the three (d , dyz,dzx) project in between
the axis and the other two dz 2 and d 2 y 2 lie along the axis.

Z X

Y
d z2 d x2 2
y

Do u g h – n ut sh a p e o r Ba b y C lo ve r le a f sh a p e
so othe r sha p e

X X Y

Y Z Z

dxz dyz
dxy

It is found that wave functions ( ) can be expressed as the product of two functions, one of which
the radial part R(r) depends only on the distance from the nucleus, the other being the angular part
f( , ) depends only on the angles & . (r, , ) R(r) f( , )

Radial wave function angular wave function

Hence, Probability distribution curves which give the variation of probability of finding the electron
can also be classified into two types (i) one which give the variation of probability of finding the
electron with radial distance (r), termed as radial probability distribution curves, and (ii) and
one which give the variation of probability of finding the electron with angle keeping the radial
distance same & ). Let us understand each of them separately.

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Can you guess where will be the two angular nodes for dz2 located ?

no. of radial nodes = n - - 1


no. of angular nodes =
total no. of nodes = n - - 1 +
= (n – 1)
No. of peaks in r2 vs r curve is (n - )

 
The electron configuration of an atom is the particular distribution of electrons among available
shells. It is described by a notation that lists the subshell symbols, one after another. Each symbol has a
superscript on the right giving the number of electrons in that subshell. For example, a configuration of the
lithium atom (atomic number 3) with two electrons in the 1s subshell and one electron in the 2s subshell is
written 1s22s 1. The notation for electron configuration gives the number of electrons in each subshell.



The atom is built up by filling electrons in various orbitals according to the following rules.

Aufbau Principle: This principle states that the electrons are added one by one to the various orbitals in
order of their increasing energy starting with the orbital of lowest energy. The increasing order of
energy of various orbital is

1s,2s,2p,3s,3p,4s,3d,4p,5s,4d,5p,6s,4f,5d,6p,5f,6d,7p……………………

How to remember such a big sequence? To make it simple we are giving you the method to write
the increasing order of the orbitals. Starting from the top, the direction of the arrows gives the order of
filling of orbitals.

1s

2s 2p

3s 3p 3d

4s 4p 4d 4f

5s 5p 5d

6s 6p

7s

Alternatively, the order of increasing energies of the various orbitals can be calculated on the basis
of (n+) rule.

The energy of an orbital depends upon the sum of values of the principal quantum number (n) and
the azimuthal quantum number (). This is called (n+) rule. According to this rule,

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“In neutral isolated atom, the lower the value of (n+ ) for an orbital, lower is its energy.
However, if the two different types of orbitals have the same value of (n+), the orbitals with
lower value of n has lower energy’’.

Illustration of (n +) rule

Values of
Type of orbitals Value of n Values of l Relative energy
(n+)
1s 1 0 1+0=1 Lowest energy
2s 2 0 2+0=2 Higher energy than 1s orbital
2p 2 1 2+1=3 2p orbital (n=2) have lower
3s 3 0 3+1=3 energy than 3s orbital (n=3)

(n + ) rule is applicable for multi electronic systems only. For uni-electronic system like
H, order of energy of orbitals is not “significantly influenced” by . Now can you write
the order of energy of orbitals for uni-electronic system?

Pauli’s Exclusion principle

According to this principle, an orbital can contain a maximum number of two electrons and these
two electrons must be of opposite spin.

Two electrons in an orbital can be represented by or

Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity

This rule deals with the filling of electrons in the equal energy (degenerate) orbitals of the same sub
shell (p,d and f). According to this rule,

“Electron pairing in p,d and f orbitals cannot occur until each orbital of a given subshell contains one
electron each or is singly occupied & that too with the same spin.

This is due to the fact that electrons being identical in charge, repel each other when present in the
same orbital. This repulsion can, however, be minimized if two electrons move as far apart as
possible by occupying different degenerate orbitals. All the electrons in a degenerate set of orbitals
will have same spin.

Multiplicity is given by 2|S| + 1. Can you now comment why the rule is called Hund‛s rule
of maximum multiplicity.

 

Electronic configuration is the distribution of electrons into different shells, subshells and
orbitals of an atom.

Number of electrons in the


subshell
x
nl
Principal quantum number Symbol of subshell or
orbitals (s,p,d,f)

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Alternatively

Orbital can be represented by a box and an electron with its direction of spin by arrow. To write the
electronic configuration, we need to know (i) the atomic number (ii) the order in which orbitals are to
be filled (iii) maximum number of electrons in a shell, sub–shell or orbital.

(A) Each orbital can accommodate two electrons

(B) The number of electrons to be accomodated in a subshell is 2 number of degenerate orbitals.


Subshell Maximum number of electrons
s 2
p 6
d 10
f 14

(C) The maximum number of electron in each shell (K,L,M,N…) is given by 2n2. Where n is the principal
quantum number.

(D) The maximum number of orbitals in a shell is given by n2 where n is the principal quantum number.

Ex. 23 Write the electronic configuration of nitrogen (atomic number= 7)

Solution:

1s2 2s2 2p3

Exceptional Configurations (Extra stability of half-filled and fully-filled sub shell) :

The electronic configuration of most of the atoms follow the Aufbau’s rule. However, in certain elements
such a Cr, Cu etc. electron fills in 3d in preference to 4s provided the subshell become either half-filled or
fully filled.
24Cr [Ar] 3d5, 4s1 and not [Ar] 3d4, 4s2 ; 29Cu [Ar] 3d10 4s 1 and not [Ar] 3d9, 4s2
It has been found that there is extra stability associated with these electronic configurations. This
stabilization is due to the following two factors

1. Symmetrical distribution of electron:


It is well known that symmetry leads to stability. The completely filled or half-filled subshells have
symmetrical distribution of electrons in them and are therefore more stable. This effect is more
dominant in d and f-orbitals.
This means three or six electrons in p-subshell, 5 or 10 electrons in d-subshell, and 7 or 14
electrons in f-subshell forms a stable arrangement.

2. Exchange Energy:
This stabilizing effect arises whenever two or more electrons with the same spin are present in the
degenerate orbitals of a subshell. These electrons tend to exchange their positions and the energy
released due to this exchange is called exchange energy. The number of exchanges that can take
place is maximum when the subshell is either half-filled or full filled. As a result the exchange energy
is maximum and so is the stability.

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(1) (2) (3) (4)

4-exchanges by 3-exchanges by 2-exchanges by 1-exchanges by


electron 1 electron 2 electron 3 electron 4
Total exchanges = 10
If n is the number of electron with parallel spins then can you calculate total number of
possible exchanges?
e.g. Total exchanges possible are = 3

e.g. 24Cr : Total exchanges possible are = 6

Total exchanges possible are = 10

The stabilation due to exchange energy will compensate for the energy required for
excitation from 4s to 3d.

However in case of carbon (6C): 1s2, 2s2 2p

Total exchanges possible are = 1

Total exchanges possible are = 3

The stabilation due to exchange energy will not be able to compensate for the energy required for
excitation from 2s to 2p.
Electronic configuration of ions :

Note that while filling electrons in various orbitals they are filled according to the three laws –
Aufbau, Pauli and Hund’s. For removing electrons to form cations, electrons are removed from
outermost shell as they are bound to the nucleus by lesser forces of attraction because of
shielding effect.
For example for iron,

26 Fe 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d6, 4s2 & the configuration of ions would be
2+
Fe 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d6 & Fe3+ 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d5
Similarly for copper 29Cu 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p6 3d10, 4s1 & for its ions
2 2 6 2

Cu+ 1s 2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10 & Cu2+ 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d9

The anions are formed by adding electrons to the vacant orbital of lowest energy [follow (n +l) rule]
For example 9F 1s 2, 2s2 2p5 & that of its ion F- 1s2, 2s2 2p6
Similarly for Chlorine 17Cl 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p & that of its ion Cl-
2 2 6 2 5
1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6

Some Exceptional electronic configuration :


24Cr: 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d5, 4s1 2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6
47Ag : 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s 4p 5s
1
2 2 6 2 6 10 1 2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6 5 1
29Cu: 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s 42 Mo: 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p 3d , 4s 4p 4d , 4s

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 

   


1. In the following reaction 3Li6 + ? 2He


4
+ 1H3, the missing particles is
(A) Neutron (B) Proton (C) Electron (D) Deuterium

2. The increasing order (lowest first) for the magnitude of e/m (charge/mass) for electron (e), proton
(p), neutron (n) and alpha particle ( ) is
(A) e,p,n, (B) n,p,e, (C) n,p, ,e (D) n, ,p,e,

3. X has 56 electrons, the atomic number X is


(A) 56 (B) 58 (C) 28 (D) 54
23
4. 11Na and 12Mg24 are
(A) Isotopes (B) Isobars (C) Isodiaphers (D) Isotones

5. Particles in cathode ray has same charge/ mass ratio as of


(A) particle (B) particle (C) particle (D) proton

6. During Muliken’s oil drop experiment, out of the following, which is not a possible charge on oil
droplet?
(A) 1.6×10 C (B) 2.4×10 C (C) 3.2×10 C (D) 4.8×10 C



7. In a time period of 2 sec., the following wave pattern is observed:

Then the frequency of wave in Hz is


(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

8. Yellow light is more energetic than


(A) Violet (B) blue (C) Indigo (D) Red

9. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of -particles showed for the first time that the atom has
(A) electrons (B) protons (C) nucleus (D) neutrons

10. The wave number of radiation of wavelength 500 nm is


(A) 5 10–7 m–1 (B) 2 107 m–1 (C) 2 106 m–1 (D) 500 10–9 m–1

11. The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000Å wavelength radiation to that of 4000Å radiation is
(A) ¼ (B) ½ (C) 2 (D)4

12. Radio city broadcasts on a frequency of 5,090 KHz. What is the wavelength of electromagnetic
radiation emitted by the transmitter?
(A)10.3 m (B) 58.9 m (C) 60.5 m (D) 75.5 m

13. A 1000 watt radio transmitter operates at a frequency of 880 kilocycle/sec. How many photons per
sec does it emit?
(A) 2.01×1029 (B) 1.72×1030 (C) 1.51×1029 (D) 1.77×1031

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14. The eyes of certain members of reptile family pass a visual signal to the brain when the visual
receptors are struck by photons of wavelength 890 nm. If a total energy of 3.15×10 J is required
to trip signal, what is the minimum number of photons that must strike the receptor?
(A) 3.05×1019 (B) 1.72×109 (C) 1.41×105 (D) 2.75×1010

15. A certain dye absorbs light of wavelength 4500 Ao and then emits fluorescence light of 5000 Ao.
Assuming that, under given conditions 50% of the absorbed energy is re-emitted out as
fluorescence. Calculate the ratio of quanta emitted to the number of quanta absorbed?
(A) 0.55 (B) 2.1 (C) 1.8 (D) 0.75


x
16. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from x to . The
4
change in potential energy will be:
(A) 3 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D) 3
x x x x
2 8 4 4

17. The potential energy of an electron in the Hydrogen atom is – 6.8 eV. Indicate in which excited
state, the electron is present?
(A) first (B) second (C) third (D) fourth

18. What is the potential energy of an electron present in N-shell of the Be3+ ion?
(A) – 3.4 eV (B) – 6.8 eV (C) – 13.6 eV (D) – 27.2 eV

19. The kinetic and potential energy (in eV) of electron present in third Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom
are respectively:
(A) – 1.51, – 3.02 (B) 1.51, – 3.02 (C) – 3.02, 1.51 (D) 1.51, – 1.51

20. The distance between 4th and 3rd Bohr orbits of He+ is:
10 10 10
(A) 2.645 10 m (B) 1.322 10 m (C) 1.851 10 m (D) None

21. What is the atomic number (Z) correspond to which 4th orbit would fit inside the 1st Bohr orbit of H-
atom?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 25

22. The ratio of velocity of the electron in the third and fifth orbit of Li2+ would be:
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 5 : 3 (C) 25 : 9 (D) 9 : 25

23. If radius of second stationary orbit (in Bohr’s atom) is R. Then radius of third orbit will be:
(A) R/3 (B) 9R (C) R/9 (D) 2.25 R

24. Which state of Be3+ has the same orbit radius as that of the ground state of hydrogen atom?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
1
25. Select the incorrect graph for velocity of e in an orbit Vs. Z , and n:
n
v
v v v
(A) (B) (C) (D)
n 1/n Z n

26. What is the frequency of revolution of electron present in 2nd Bohr’s orbit of H-atom?
(A) 1.016 1016 s 1 (B) 4.065 1016 s 1
(C) 1.626 1015 s 1
(D) 8.2 1014 s 1

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27. The number of photons of light having wave number ‘x’ in 10 J of energy source is:
(A) 10hcx (B) hc (C) 10 (D) None of these
10 x hcx

28. The ionization potential for an electron in ground state of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. What would
be the ionization potential for the electron in the first excited state of H atom?
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 6.8 eV (C) 3.4eV (D) 27.2 eV

29. According to Bohr’s theory, angular momentum of electron in any orbit of Hydrogen is directly
proportional to
(A) 1 (B) 1
2
(C) rn (D) rn
rn rn

30. If the revolutions per second by the electron in 3rd orbit of H is , then the revolutions per second by
the electron in 2nd orbit of He+ is
(A) (B) 13.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.07

31. If the kinetic energy of electron moving in 4 th orbit of hydrogen is €, then the total energy in 1st orbit
of Li2+ is
(A) –144 € (B) –0.0069 € (C) –(27/9) € (D) – €

32. If same energy is supplied to electron in ground state of Hydrogen as well as He+, electron jump to
5th main shell in Hydrogen, then final orbit of electron in He+ is
(A) 2nd (B) 1st (C) 3rd (D) 4th

33. If force of attraction between the electron and nucleus in 2 nd orbit of Li2+ is , force of attraction if
electron present in 1st orbit of H is
(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 16
49 25 81 27

34. If acceleration of electron in 1st orbit of He+ is , acceleration of electron 2rd orbit of Be3+ is
(A) (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 1
2 4

35. The spacing between the orbits in terms of distance is maximum in the case of
(A) 1st and 2nd (B) 2nd and 3rd (C) 3rd and 4th (D) 4th and 5th

36. The spacing between the orbits in terms of energy is maximum in the case of
(A) 1st and 2nd (B) 2nd and 3rd (C) 3rd and 4th (D) 4th and 5th



37. Transition of an electron from n = 2 to n = 1 level results (for a H - atom) in


(A) IR spectrum (B) UV spectrum (C) Visible spectrum (D) X - ray spectrum

38 The emission spectrum of He+ ion is the consequence of transition of electrons from orbit n2 to orbit
n1. Given that 2n2 + 3n1 = 18 and 2n2 – 3n1 = 6, then what will be the maximum number of spectral
lines in atomic spectrum when electrons transit from n2 to orbit n1?
(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 21

39. Find the value of wave number in terms of Rydberg’s constant, when transition of electron takes
place between two levels of He+ ion whose sum is 4 and difference is 2.
8R 32 R 3R
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
9 9 4

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135
136
137
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

138
139
140
ANSWER KEY
FOUNDATION BUILDER (OBJECTIVE)
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. C

15. A 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. D 26. D 27. C 28. C

29. D 30. B 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. D 36. A 37. B 38. A 39. B 40. A 41. C 42. B

43. B 44. B 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. B 49. A

61. A 62. A 63. A 64. C 65. D 66. B 67. B 68. A 69. D 70. D 71. C 72. D 73. B 74. C

75. A 76. A 77. D 78. C 79. D 80. A 81. D

90. C 91. D 92. A 93. A 94. C 95. A 96. D 97. C 98. B 99. C 100. D 101. B

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. B

15. A 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. D

29. D 30. B 31. C 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. D

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JSO IX- CHEMISTRY

ATOMIC STRUCTURE

1. Na+ is isoelectronic with


(a) Li+ (b) Mg+2 (c) Ca+2 (d) Ba+2

2. Number of unpaired electron in 1s2, 2s2, 2p4


(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d)1

3. Unpaired electron present in Cr+3


(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 5

4. Which of following set of quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) is not correct ?


(a) 3, 1, 0, –1/2 (b) 3, 2, 1, +1/2 (c) 3, 1, 2, –1/2 (d) 3, 2, 0, +1/2

5. Which of the following is incorrect for n = 5 and m = 3 ?


(a)   4 (b)   3 (c)   0,1, 2, 3 (d) s = + 1/2

6. An element M has 25 protons. The number of electrons in it M +2 cation will be


(a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 23 (d) 22

7. The energy of H-atom in nth orbit is E n then energy in nth orbit of singly ionised helium atom will be
(a) 4En (b) En/4 (c) 2 En (d) En/2

8. Ionization energy of second orbit of Li+2 will be


(a) 122.4 eV (b) 40.8 eV (c) 30.6 eV (d) 13.6 eV

9. If change in energy
(E) = 3  10–8 J, h = 6.64  10–34 J–s and c = 3  108 m/s, then wavelength of the light is
o o o o
(a) 6.64  103 A (b) 6.64  10 5 A (c) 6.64  10 –8 A (d) 6.64  1018 A

10. The following quantum number are possible for how many orbitals n = 3,   2 , m = +2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

11. The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63  10–34Js. The velocity of light is 3.0  108ms–1. Which value
is closest to the wavelength in metres of a quantum of light with frequency of 8  10 15 s–1
(a) 3  10 7 (b) 2  10 –25 (c) 5  10–18 (d) 3.75  10–8

12. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n =4 to n = 1in a hydrogen atom will
be (Given ionization energy of H = 2.18  10 –18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625  10 –34 Js)
(a) 1.03  1015 s–1 (b) 3.08  10 15 s–1 (c) 2.00  10 15 s–1 (d) 1.54  1015 s–1

13. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is –328 kJ/mol. Hence the energy of fourth
Bohr orbit should be
(a) –41 kJ/mol (b) –1312 kJ/mol (c) –164 kJ/mol (d) – 82 kJ/mol

14. Given : The mass of electron is 9.11  10–31 kg Planck constant is 6.626  10–34 Js, the uncertainty
o
involved in the measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 A is
(a) 5.79  106 ms–1 (b) 5.79  10 7 ms–1 (c) 5.79  10 8 ms–1 (d) 5.79  105 ms–1

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142
JSO IX- CHEMISTRY

15. With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy
(a) 1s22s22p6 (b) 1s22s22p 5 (c) 1s22s22p 3 (d) 1s22s22p 63s1

16. An element, X has the following isotopic composition


200
X : 90%
200
X : 8.0%
200
X : 2.0%
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to
(a) 199 amu (b) 200 amu (c) 201 amu (d) 202 amu

17. Consider the following sets of quantum number


n  m s
(i) 3 0 0 +1/2
(ii) 2 2 1 +1/2
(iii)4 3 –2 +1/2
(iv) 1 0 –1 +1/2
(v) 3 2 3 +1/2
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i),(ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iv) and (v)

18. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass 10–6 kg moving with a velocity of
10ms–1 is
(a) 6.63  10–22 m (b) 6.63  10 –29 m (c) 6.63  10 –31 m (d) 6.63  10–34 m

19. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is permissible ?


(a) n  3;   2; m  2 and s   1
2
(b) n  3;   4; m  0 and s   1
2
(c) n  4;   0; m  2 and s   1
2
(d) n  4;   4; m  3 and s   1
2

20. Which of the following has maximum energy ?

21. For principle quantum number n =4 the total number of orbitals having  = 3 is
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 9

22. The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He+ is
(a) 0.0 (b) 52.9 (c) 26.5 (d) 105. 8

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23. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is
o
(a) 6.626  10 –34 m (b) 13.20  10–34 m (c) 10.38  10–21 m (d) 6.626  10–34 A

24. The electron should be filled in the orbiral in accordance with the increasing order of their energy.
This statement is related with
(a) Aufbau principle (b) Paul’s principle (c) Hund’s rule (d) Planck’s rule

25. Which orbital has n = 3,   1 , m = –1 values ?


(a) 3px (b) 2py (c) 3pz (d) 4s

26. Which electronic configuration is most stable ?


(a) 3d24s0 (b) 3d04s1 (c) 3d54s1 (d) 3d14s2

27. For magnetic quantum no. m = 0, 1, 2 the value of the principle shell is
(a) n = 2 (b) n = 4 (c) n = 3 (d) n = 5

28. Which rule is not followed by configuration

(a) Hund’s rule (b) Aufbau rule (c) Pauli’s rule (d)  n    rule

29. The radius of 2 nd Bohr orbit for H atom is


(a) 0.529 nm (b) 0.0529  2 nm (c) 0.0529  22 nm (d) 0.0529  2–2 nm

30. Electronic configuration of Fe26 is [Ar] _________.


(a) 3d54s2 (b) 3d64s2 (c) 3d74s2 (d) 3d84s2

31. Element having electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p 6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p 4 is similar to which
element in property
(a) C (b) N (c) O (d) F

32. Angle between p orbitals is


(a) 90o (b) 180 o (c) 120o (d) 109o 28

33. If kinetic energy of electron is 13.6 eV then its total energy is


(a) –13.6 eV (b) –6.8 eV (c) 27.2 eV (d) 6.8 eV

34. 1s2, 2s2, 2p 6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p 5 the element having this electronic configuration is
(a) Cu (b) Hb (c) Mn (d) Br

35. n = 3,   1 , m = 0 represent
(a) 3p-orbital (b) 3s-orbital (c) 3d-orbital (d) 4s-orbital

36. 1st excitation potential of H atom is


(a) 10.2 eV (b) 3.4 eV (c) 0 (d) –3.4 eV

37. If the wave number of emitted light is 2 10 6 m–1 then its wave length will be
(a) 500 m (b) 200 nm (c) 0.5 10 7 m (d) 500 nm

38. Value of n and  for 2px orbital are


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(a) 2 and 1 (b) 2 and 0 (c) 2 and +1 (d) 2 and – 1

39. Possible values of m for  = 1 is


(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 2

40. A and B are two elements which have same mass number and are having atomic number 27 and 30
respectively. If the mass number of A is 57 then number of neutron in B is
(a) 27 (b) 33 (c) 30 (d) 40

41. In a particular shell, the increasing order of subshell energy is represented by


(a) Decreasing value of n (b) Increasing value of 
(c) Increasing value of m (d) None of them

42. In ground state of Cr24 number of orbitals with paired and unpaired electron
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 18

43. Atomic number of element which are 4s2 4p 6 as electronic configuration of valence shell is
(a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38

44. Boron have two isotopes having mass number 10.01 (I) and 11.01 (II) respectively. The weight of
natural boron is 10.81, then % availability of I and II isotopes will be
(a) 20 and 80 (b) 10 and 90 (c) 15 and 75 (d) 30 and 70

45. Energy required to remove an e– from M shell of H-atom is 1.51 eV, then energy of 1st excited state
will be
(a) –1.51 eV (b) +1.51 eV (c) –3.4 eV (d) –13.6 eV

46. When 3d orbital is complete, the new electron enters into


(a) 4p (b) 4f orbital (c) 4s orbital (d) 4d orbital

76
47. Which of the following is isotone of 32 Ge ?
77 78 77 78
(a) 32 Ge (b) 33 As (c) 34 Se (d) 34 Se

48. The electronic configuration of outer most shell of halogen


(a) s2p 5 (b) s2p 3 (c) s2p6 (d) s2p4

49. Aufbau principle is not followed by


(a) Cr and Cl (b) Cu and Ag (c) Cu and Mg (d) Cu and Na

50. Which of these is represented by the configuration [Kr]5s2?


(a) Ca (b) Sr (c) Ba (d) Ra

51. Find out the nucleus which are isoneutronic


(a) 14 15 17
6 C, 7 N , 9 F (b) 12 14 19
6 C, 7 N , 9 F (c) 14
6 C, 14
7 N , 17
9 F (d) 14
6 C, 14
7 N , 19
9 F

52. The radius of a shell for H-atom is 4.761Ao. The value of n is


(a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 5 (d) 4

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53. Which configuration does not obey Pauli’s exclusion principle ?

54. The nitrogen atom has 7 proton, so the nitride ion will have
(a) 7e– and 7p (b) 7e– and 4p (c) 10e– and 7p (d) 10e– and 4p

55. Pair of which of the following have equal number of electrons in their outer most shell
(a) Mg, Fe+2 (b) Na, Ca (c) Pb, Sb (d) As, Bi

56. In 2s orbital, electrons orbital angular momentum is


1 h h h
(a)  (b) 0 (c) (d) 2
2 2 2 2

57. For ‘d’ orbital electrons, orbital angular momentum is


6h 2h h 2h
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2

58. h is angular momentum in ___________ orbit of He+


2
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Infinite

59. Which element contain non spherical electron density ?


(a) He (b) B (c) Be (d) Li

60. 1st shell energy of He+ is –54.4 eV. Then energy of its 2nd shell is
(a) –54.4 eV (b) –13.6 eV (c) –27.2 eV (d) +27.2 eV

61. If   2 and n = 3 for any atom then maximum number of electrons is


(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 10

62. Which of following equation represents De-broglie relation ?


h h h v
(a) P (b)   (c)   (d)  m 
mv mv mP P

63. Ground state electronic configuration of Cu +2(Z–29) is


(a) [Ar]4s1 3d8 (b) [Ar]4s2 3d10 4p1 (c) [Ar]4s1 3d10 (d) [Ar]3d9

64. For any anion X–3, the mass number is 14, if anion have 10 electrons, then number of neutron in X2
nucleus
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 7 (d) 5

65. Energy of electron moving in nth orbit is


2 2 m 4 e2 Z 2 2 2 me 2 Z 2 2 2 me 4 Z 2 2 m 2 e 2 Z 4
(a) En  (b) En  (c) En  (d) En 
n 2h 2 n2 h 2 n2 h 2 n2 h2

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66. For Na(Z=11) set of quantum numbers for last electron is


(a) n = 3,   1, m = 1, s = + 1 (b) n = 3,   0, m = 0, s = + 1
2 2
(c) n = 3,   0, m = 1, s = + 1 (d) n = 3,   1, m = 1, s = – 1
2 2

67. Energy of electron in 2nd Bohr orbit of H-atom is


(a) –5.44 10–19 Joule (b) –5.44 10–19 kJ (c) –5.44 10 –19 Calorie(d) –5.44 10 –19 eV

68. The ratio of radii of 3rd and 2nd Bohr’s orbits of hydrogen atom is
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 4 : 6 (c) 9 : 4 (d) 9 : 1

69. Which of the following configuration follows the Hund’s rule ?

70. [Ar]3d 6 is the configuration of the following ion


(a) Fe+2 (b) Ti+3 (c) Co+2 (d) Cr+3

71. Outer electronic configuration of the element of atomic number 24 is


(a) 3s23p 63d54s1 (b) 3s23p 63d44s2 (c) 3s22p63d6 (d) None

72. Total number of electrons in CO2 molecule are


(a) 44 (b) 22 (c) 33 (d) 11

73. A metal in its dipositive state has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 14 and has the mass number equal
to 56. Number of neutrons in its nucleus would be
(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 34 (d) 28

74. Sub-shell designated by azimuthal quantum number   3 can have maxiumum number of electrons
(a) 14 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 0

75. The minimum real charge on any particle which can exist
(a) 1.6 10–19 C (b) 1.6 10–10 C (c) 4.8 10 –10 C (d) Zero

76. Which of the following pair of orbitals possess two nodal planes ?
(a) pxy , d x1  y 2 (b) d xy , d zx (c) p yz , d z 2 (d) d x2 , d x2  y2

77. Highest energy will be absorbed to eject out the electron in the configuration
(a) 1s22s22p1 (b) 1s22s22p 3 (c) 1s22s22p 2 (d) 1s22s22p 4

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78. The energy of a photon is calculated by


v h
(a) E = hv (b) h = Ev (c) h 
(d) E 
E v
79. The energy required to dislodged electron from excited isolated H-atom, (E2 = – 13.6 eV) is
(a) = 13.6 eV (b) > 13.6 eV (c) < 13.6 and > 3.4 eV (d)  3.4 eV

80. An electron has kinetic energy 2.8  10 –23J, de-Broglie wavelength will be nearly
(a) 9.28  10–24m (b) 9.28  10 –2m (c) 9.28  10 –8m (d) 9.28  10–10m

81. What will be de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity of 1.2 105 ms–1 ?
(a) 6.0622  10–9m (b) 3.133  10–37m (c) 6.626  10–9m (d) 6.018  10–7m

82. What is the maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in an atom in which the
highest principal quantum number value is 4 ?
(a) 10 (b) 18 (c) 32 (d) 54

83. The number of unpaired electrons in Fe3+(Z = 26) are


(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 4

84. Which of the following electronic configurations is not possible ?


(a) 1s2, 2s2 (b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p 6 (c) [Ar] 3d10, 4s2, 4p2 (d) 1s2, 2s2, 2p 2, 3s1

85. The number of nodal plane(s) in a p orbital is


(a) one (b) Two (c) Three (d) Zero

86. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2, 2s2, 2p 6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s1. This represents its
(a) Excited state (b) Ground state (c) Cationic form (d) Anionic form

o
87. The radius of first Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen is 0.53 A . The radius of third Bohr’s orbit would be
o o o o
(a) 0.79 A (b) 1.59 A (c) 3.18 A (d) 4.77 A

88. The third line in Balmer series corresponds to an electronic transition between which Bohr’s orbits in
hydrogen
(a) 5  3 (b) 5  2 (c) 4  3 (d) 4  2

89. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electron (atomic number of Fe26) ?
(a) Fe (b) Fe(II) (c) Fe(III) (d) Fe(IV)

90. Rutherford’s -particle scattering experiment proved that atom has


(a) electrons (b) neutrons (c) nucleus (d) orbitals

91. The atomic number of an element is 17. The number of orbitals containing electron pairs in its
valence shell is
(a) Eight (b) Six (c) Three (d) Two

92. Wavelength of spectral line emitted is inversely proportional to


(a) Radius (b) Energy (c) Velocity (d) Quantum number

93. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom was made by
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(a) Bohr (b) Planck (c) Einstein (d) Heisenberg

94. The quantum numbers +1/2 and –1/2 for the electron spin represent
(a) Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anti-clockwise direction respectively
(b) Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively
(c) Magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively
(d) Two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogue

95. Which of the following set of quantum number is connect for the 19th electron of chromium ?
n  m s
(a) 3 0 0 1/2
(b) 3 2 –2 1/2
(c) 4 0 0 1/2
(d) 4 1 –1 1/2

96. When the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3, magnetic quantum number can have values
(a) +1, 0, – 1 (b) +2, +1, 0, –1, –2
(c) –3, –2, –1, 0, –1, +2, +3 (d) +1, –1

97. The atomic number of an element is 35 and mass number is 81. The number of electrons in the outer
most shell is
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 3

98. An element have mass number 40 and its electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p 6. Then its
atomic number and number of neutrons will be respectively
(a) 18 & 22 (b) 22 & 18 (c) 20 & 20 (d) 40 & 18

99. The quantum number n = 3,   1 represent


(a) 1s orbital (b) 2s orbital (c) 3p orbital (d) 3d orbital

100. The charge of an electron is –1.6  10–19 Cl. The value of free charge on  Li+ ion will be
(a) 3.6  10 –19 Cl (b) 1  10 –19 Cl (c) 1.6  10–19 Cl (d) 2. 6 10–19 Cl

101. The orbital with maximum energy is


(a) 3d (b) 5p (c) 4s (d) 6d

102. How many unpaired electrons are present in cobalt [Co] metal ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7

103. The nucleus of tritium contains


(a) 1 Proton + 1 Neutron (b) 1 Proton + 3 Neutron
(c) 1 Proton + 0 Neutron (d) 1 Proton + 2 Neutron

104. Bohr model of atom is contradicted by


(a) Paul’s exclusion principle (b) Planck quantum theory
(c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle (d) All of these

105. The spectrum of He is expected to be similar to that of


(a) H (b) Na (c) He+ (d) Li+

106. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in dz2 orbital is
(a) 10 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 2

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107. Nodal plane is found in which orbital


(a) n = 2,   0 (b) n = 3,   0 (c) n = 2,   1 (d) n = 1,   0

108. In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in ground state is –13.6eV, then energy in the 2nd
excited state is
(a) –1.51 eV (b) –3.4 eV (c) –6.04 eV (d) –13.6 eV

109. Uncertainty in position of a 0.25 g particle is 10–5 m. Then uncertainty in its velocity will be
(h = 6.6  10–34 Js)
(a) 1.2  10 34 (b) 2.1  10–29 (c) 1.6  10–20 (d) 1.7  10–9

110. The Ratio between kinetic energy and the total energy of the electrons of hydrogen atom according
to Bohr’s model is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : – 1 (d) 1 : 2

111. The outer electronic structure 3s2 392 is possessed by


(a) Cl (b) O (c) Ar (d) Br

112. Which of the following set of quantum number is not possible ?


n  m s
(a) 3 2 1 +1/2
(b) 3 2 1 –1/2
(c) 3 2 1 0
(d) 5 2 –1 +1/2

113. p-subshell of an atom in presence of magnetic field are


(a) Two fold degenerate (b) Non-degenerate
(c) Three fold degenerate (d) None of these

114. Energy of the electron in Hydrogen atom is given by


131.38 131.33
(a) En  2
kJ mol 1 (b) En  kJ mol 1
n n
1313.3 313.13
(c) En  2
kJ mol 1 (d) En  2
kJ mol 1
n n

115. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the hydrogen electron in its third orbit
(a) 9.96  10–10 cm (b) 9.96  10 –15 cm (c) 9.96  10 4 cm (d) 9.96  108 cm

116. In Bohr atomic model radius of 1st orbit of Hydrogen is 0.053 nm then radius of 3 rd orbit of Li+2 is
(a) 0.159 (b) 0.053 (c) 0.023 (d) 0.026

117. Wave length of some radiation is 500 nm. What is its wave number?
(a) 2 10 6 m (b) 5 106 m (c) 2 10–3 m–1 (d) 2 10–6 m–1

118. Which one of the following group represents a collection of isoelectronic species ?
(a) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+ (b) N3–, F–, Na+ (c) Be, Al3+, Cl– (d) Ca2+. Cs+, Br

119. The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres per
second is approximately
(a) 10–33 metres (b) 10–31 metres (c) 10–16 metres (d) 10–25 metres
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120. Ratio of radii of second and first Bohr orbits of H atom will be
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5

121. Correct statement is


(a) K = 4s1, Cr = 3d4 4s2, Cu = 3s10 4s2 (b) K = 4s2, Cr = 3d4 4s2, Cu = 3s10 4s2
(c) K = 4s2, Cr = 3d5 4s1, Cu = 3s10 4s2 (d) K = 4s1, Cr = 3d 5 4s1, Cu = 3s10 4s1

122. The total number of electrons prevent in all the s-orbitals all the p-orbitals and all the d-orbitals of
cesium ion are respectively
(a) 8, 26, 10 (b) 10, 24, 20 (c) 8, 22, 24 (d) 12, 20, 22

123. Zero point energy is associated with principal quantum number


(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

124. Which set of quantum number is correct for an electron in 3p orbital ?


(a) n  3,   2, m  0, s   1 (b) n  3,   0, m   1, s   1
2 2
(c) n  3,   2, m   1, s   1 (d) n  3,   1, m  0, s   1
2 2

125. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?


(a) Isotopes 1020 Ca,19
40
K (b) Isotones 30
14
31
Si, 15 32
P , 16 S
(c) Isobars 16
8 O, 17 18
8 O, 8 O (d) Isoelectronic N 3 , O 2 , Cr 3

126. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons ?


(a) Zn (b) Fe+2 (c) Ni+3 (d) Cu+

127. The wavelength of radiation emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an
1312
energy level with n = 3 to a level with n = 2 is [Given that En  kJ mol 1 ]
n2
(a) 6.56 10 7 m (b) 65.6 nm (c) 65.6 107 m (d) any of the above

128. Electronic energy of hydrogen atom depends on the quantum number


(a) n, l and m (b) n and l only (c) n and m only (d) n only

129. Which one of the following electron transitions between energy levels in the hydrogen atom
produces the line of shortest wavelength in hydrogen spectrum ?
(a) n2  n1 (b) n3  n1 (c) n4  n1 (d) n4  n3

130. Bohr postulate is followed by which type of species


(a) Only for spectrum of Hydrogen-atom (b) Spectrum of all ionic or atomic nucleus
(c) Spectrum of H2 molecule (d) Solar spectrum

131. Azimuthal quantum number shows the _________ is orbital.


(a) Shape (b) Energy (c) Configuration (d) Spin

132. The first three radius ratio of Bohr orbits of H atom


(a) 1 : 05 : 0.5 (b) 1 : 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 8 : 27

133. Ratio of mass of proton to electron is


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3
(a) Infinite (b) 1.8  10 (c) 1 : 8 (d) None of these

134. Which one of the following is isoelectronic ?


(a) Fe+3, Co +3 (b) Fe+3, Mn+2 (c) Co+3, Sc+3 (d) Sc+3, Ti+3

135. The electronic configuration of Ti+3 is


(a) [Ar]4s03d 1 (b) [Ar]4s03d2 (c) [Ar]4s23d1 (d) [Ar]4s03d3

136. According to Bohr’s model, the exact relation of energy of 3s, 3p and 3d. For hydrogen is
(a) 3s < 3p < 3d (b) 3p < 3d < 3s (c) 3d < 3p < 3s (d) 3s = 3p = 3d

137. Difference of radius of 3rd Bohr orbit to 2nd in terms of r1 for H-atom
3 2
(a) r1 (b) r1 (c) r1 (d) 5r1
2 3
138. How many electron in an atom can have the quantum number n = 3,   2 , m = 2 ?
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 14

139. Which quantum numbers are same for 2px, 2p y, 2pz electrons ?
(a) n,  (b) n, s (c) n,  , m (d) n,  , s

140. The energy of e– in first orbit of H is –1312 kJ/mol, then ionization energy will be (in kJ/mol) ?
1312 1312
(a) –1312 (b) +1312 (c) (d)
4 4
PREVIOUSLY ASKED QUESTIONS

141. Which conclusion was a direct result of the gold foil experiment ?
(a) An atom is mostly empty space with a dense, positively charged nucleus
(b) An atom is composed of at least three types of subatomic particles
(c) An electron has a positive charge and is located inside the nucleus
(d) An electron has properties of both waves and particles

142. The ratio of the size of the atom to the size of the nucleus is typically
(a) 10 (b) 102 (c) 104 (d) 105

143. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and I can be placed in order of increasing energy,
from the lowest to highest as
(i) n = 4 & l = 1 (ii) n = 4 & l = 0 (ii) n = 3 & l = 2 (iv) n = 3 & l = 1

(a) iv < ii < iii < i (b) ii < iv < i < iii (c) i < iii < ii < iv (d) iii < i < iv < i

144. How many unpaired electrons does a gaseous atom of phosphorus P, have in its ground state ?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7

145. How do the energy gaps between successive electron energy levels in an atom vary from low to high
n values ?
(a) All energy gaps are the same
(b) The energy gap decreases as n increases
(c) The energy gap increases as n increases
(d) The energy gap changes unpredictably as n increases

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Answer Key :

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)

21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)

41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (b)

51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (c)
101. (d) 102. (b) 103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (b)
121. (d) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (d) 125. (b) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (d) 129. (c) 130. (a)
131. (a) 132. (c) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (a) 140. (b)
141. (a) 142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (b) 145. (b)

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1. INTRODUCTION
The various kinds of substance that make up matter can be divided roughly into three categories, namely,
gases, liquids and solids. These are called as three states of matter. These states can be considered to arise as
a result of competition between two opposing molecular forces, namely, the force of attraction which tends
to hold the molecules together, and the disruptive force due to the thermal energy of molecules. If the
disruptive forces due to thermal energy are much greater than the forces of attraction, then we have matter in
its gaseous state. Molecules in the gaseous state move with very large speeds and the forces of attraction
amongst them are not sufficient to bind the molecules at one place, with the result that the molecules move
practically independent of one another. Because of this feature, gases are characterized by marked sensitivity
of volume change with change of temperature and pressure. There exists no boundary surface and, therefore,
gases tend to fill completely any available space, i.e. they do not possess a fixed volume. If the forces of
attraction are greater than the disruptive forces due to thermal energy, we have matter in the liquid state.
Molecules in the liquid state too have kinetic energy but they cannot go very far away because of the larger
forces of attraction amongst them. Due to this feature, liquids have definite volume, but they do not have
definite shape. They take the shape of the vessel in which they are placed. In general, liquids are denser and
less compressible than gases. If the forces of attraction between molecules are much greater than the
disruptive forces due to thermal energy, the positions of the molecules remain fixed and we have the solid
state of matter. The molecules in the solid state, therefore, do not possess any translational energy, but have
only vibrational energy since they can vibrate about their mean positions. Extremely large forces of
attraction exist amongst them. That is why solids differ markedly from liquids and gases in respect of size,
shape and volume. Solids, in general, have definite size, shape and volume.

Gaseous state is the simplest state of matter. Throughout our life we remain immersed in the ocean of air
which is a mixture of gases. We spend our life in the lowermost layer of the atmosphere called troposphere,
which is held to the surface of the earth by gravitational force. The thin layer of atmosphere is vital to our
life. It shields us from harmful radiations and contains substances like dioxygen, dinitrogen, carbon dioxide,
water vapour, etc. Let us now focus our attention on the behavior of substances which exist in the gaseous
state under normal conditions of temperature and pressure.

The gaseous state is characterized by the following physical properties.


Gases are highly compressible.
Gases exert pressure equally in all directions.
Gases have much lower density than the solids and liquids.
The volume and the shape of gases are not fixed. These assume volume and shape of the container.
Gases mix evenly and completely in all proportions without any mechanical aid.

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2. EXPERIMENTAL GAS LAWS


2.1 Basic parameters associated with gas
The characteristics of gases are described fully in terms of four parameters (measurable properties)

(i) Pressure:- It is exerted by gas due to collision of randomly moving gas molecules with the walls of the
container. Pressure can be measured in following units:
Pascal: - It is SI unit for pressure; Pascal is very small amount of pressure
2
o (10mg weight on 1cm area)
2
o 1 Pa = 1 N/m
Atm: - atm is pressure exerted by mass of the atmosphere on the earth’s surface
Various units of pressure can be interrelated as follows
1 atm = 76 cm of Hg = 760 torr = 101325 Pa = 1.01325 bar

(ii) Volume :- It represents free volume available for motion of gas particles
Various units of volume are interrelated as follows
1 L = 1000 ml = 10-3 m3 = 1000 cc

(iii) Temperature :- Units of temperature are interrelated as follws


T K = T0 C + 273

(iv) Amount of gas :- Generally measured in moles of gas

Simplicity of gases is due to the fact that the forces of interaction between their molecules are
negligible. Their behavior is governed by same general laws, which were discovered as a result of their
experimental studies. These laws are relationships between measurable properties of gases. Some of
these properties like pressure, volume, temperature and mass are very important because relationships
between these variables describe state of the gas. Inter-dependence of these variables leads to the
formulation of gas laws.

2.2 Boyle’s Law


In 1662, Robert Boyle discovered that there existed a relation between the pressure and the volume of a
fixed amount of gas at a fixed temperature. In his experiment, he discovered that the product of Pressure
& Volume of a fixed amount of gas at a fixed temperature was approximately a constant.
1
V (if T and n constant). PV = Constant
P

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Graphical Representation: - Boyle’s law can be graphically represented in following ways

Temperature-constant Temperature-constant
T = constant
Mass-constant Mass-constant
Mass = constant

P V PV

V 1/P P

T1 T1
T2 T2
(T1 > T2 > T3)
T3 log P
T3
P P
(T1 > T2 > T3) T1 PV
T2 (T 1>T 2 > T 3 )
T3 log V
1/V
V P

Example 1: A 1.1 L flask containing nitrogen at a pressure of 710 mm is connected to an evacuated


flask of unknown volume. The nitrogen, which acts ideally is allowed to expand into the
combined system of both the flasks isothermally. If the final pressure of nitrogen is
583 mm, determine the volume of evacuated flask.
Solution: Applying Boyle’s law: p1V1 = p 2V2
Let V be the volume of evacuated flask
710 1.1 = 583 (1.1 + V)
V = 0.24 L

2.3 Charles law


Charles made measurements of the volume of a fixed mass of a gas at various temperatures under the
condition of constant pressure and found that the volume of the gas is a linear function of the temperature.

Experiments have shown that when 273 ml sample of a gas at 0 oC is heated to 1oC, its volume increases by 1
ml, i.e., it becomes 274 ml. At 10 oC, the volume increases to 283 ml if the pressure remains constant in both
cases. Similarly, when 273 ml sample of gas at 0 oC is cooled to oC, its volume decreases to 272 ml while
o
at C the volume decreases to 263 ml if the pressure remains constant.

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Thus, all gases expand or contract by the same fraction of their volumes at 0oC per degree change of
temperature, i.e., for each degree change of temperature, the volume of a sample of a gas changes by the
1
fraction of its volume at 0oC.
273
Let the volume of a given amount of a gas be V o at 0 oC. The temperature is increased by toC and the new
volume becomes Vt.
V0 t
Thus, Vt V0 t = V0 1+
273 273
273 + t
or Vt = V0 (since K = oC + 273) … Eq(i)
273
by substituting T for 273 + t and To for 273 in Eq. (i),
V0 T Vt V0 V
Vt or or = constant (if pressure is kept constant)
T0 T T0 T
This is Charles law. It can be stated as follows:
The volume of a given amount of a gas at constant pressure varies directly as its absolute
temperature.
V T (if pressure is kept constant)
P1
P2 > P1
P2

Since volume is directly proportional to Kelvin temperature, the volume of a gas should theoretically be zero
at Kelvin zero. However, gases liquefy and then solidify before this low temperature is reached. In fact, no
substance exists as a gas at a temperature near Kelvin zero, through the straight-line plots can be
o
extrapolated to zero volume. The temperature that corresponds to zero volume is C.

Can you guess how the graph of volume vs Temperature (0C) will look like

Example2: A flask is of a capacity of 1 liter. What volume of air will escape from the flask if it is
heated from 270C to 370C? Assume pressure is constant.
Solution Since pressure is constant
1/300=V1/310
V1 = 1.0333 litres
Since capacity is 1 liter
Thus Volume escaped = 1.0333-1 = 0.0333 L

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2.4 Gay Lussac’s Law


It relates the pressure and absolute temperature of a given mass of a gas at constant volume. Volume
1
remaining constant, the pressure of a given mass of a gas increases or decreases by of its pressure
273
at 0oC per degree change of temperature.
P0 t t
Pt = P0 + or Pt = P0 1 +
273 273
273 + t T
or Pt = P0 = P0
273 T0
Pt P
or = 0 or P T (if volume is kept constant)
T T0

At constant volume, the pressure of a given amount of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute
temperature.
Example 3: A certain amount of ethane is confined in a bulb of 1 liter capacity. The bulb is so weak that it
will burst if pressure exceeds 10 atm. Initially gas exerts 8 atm pressure at 27 0 C.
Find temperature at which the bulb will burst?
Solution: Considering limiting condition
P1 P
Since volume remain constant = 2
T1 T2
Thus 8/300=10/T2
T2 = 375 K

2.5 Ideal Gas Law


The results of the laws of Boyle and Gas-Lussac can be combined into an expression which represents the
relationship between pressure, volume and temperature of a given mass of a gas; such an expression is
described as an equation of state.
Suppose the gas is in the initial state with volume, V1, pressure p 1and temperature T1. We then change the
state of the gas to a volume V2, pressure p2 and temperature T2. Let us carry out this change in two steps.
(i) First we change the pressure from p1 to p2 keeping the temperature T1 constant.The resultant
pV
volume Vr as given by Boyle’s law is Vr = 1 1
p2
(ii) Next, temperature is changed from T1 to T2, keeping the pressure p 2 constant. The
final volume V2 as given by Charles law is
Vr T2 p V /p T p1V1 pV
V2 = = 1 1 2 2 or = 2 2
T1 T1 T1 T2
It follows that no matter how we change the state of the given amount of a gas, the ratio pV/T
pV
always remains constant, i.e. =K
T

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The value of K depends on the amount of gas in the system. Since V is an extensive property (which is
mass dependent), its value at constant p and T is proportional to the amount of the gas present in the
system. Then K must also be proportional to the amount of gas because p and T are intensive
properties (which have no mass dependence). We can express this by writing K = nR, in which n is the
amount of gas in a given volume of gas and R is independent of all variables and is, therefore, a
universal constant. We thus have the general gas law
pV = nRT
The universal gas constant R = pV/nT. Thus, it has the unit of (pressure volume) divided by (amount
of gas temperature). Now the dimensions of pressure and volume are,
Pressure = (force/area) = (force/length2) = force length
Volume = length3
(force length ) (length 3 ) (force length) work (or energy)
Thus R=
(amount of gas) (kelvin) (amount of gas) (kelvin) (amount of gas) (kelvin)

Thus, the dimensions of R are energy per mole per kelvin and hence it represents the amount of
work (or energy) that can be obtained from one mole of a gas when its temperature is raised by one
kelvin.

Numerical Values of R

i) In liter atmosphere = 0.0821 litre atm deg–1 mole–1 ii) In ergs = 8.314 107 erg deg–1 mole–1

iii) In calories = 1.987 cal deg–1 mole–1 iv) In Joules = 8.314 J deg–1 mole–1

Use the value of R depending on the units in which value of pressure and volume has been used in
ideal gas equation.

Example 4 : What mass of ammonia will exert same pressure as 12 g of H2S(g) in the same container
under the similar conditions of temperature?
Solution: Under identical conditions of T and V, p n
equal moles of ammonia as that of H2S(g) will exert same pressure, when confined in
the same container
Moles of H2S = 12/34 = moles of ammonia
Mass of ammonia = (12/34) 17 = 6g

Example 5: 4 g of an ideal gas was confined in a 1.0 L flask at 1.0 atm. Increasing temperature of
flask by 30 oC increases gas pressure by 8%. Determine molar mass of gas.
Solution: Let the initial temperature be, TK.
1 T
Since, n and V are constants P1/T1= P2/T2 T 375K
1.08 T 30
Since pV = nRT and n = w/M
4 1 1
M 123
M 0.082 375

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Relation between Molecular Mass and Gas Density

From the ideal gas equation

nRT w dRT d
P= RT M= RT
V M V M P

M= Molecular mass, P = Pressure, T=Temperature, d= Density

Vapour Density
For gases another term which is often used is vapour-density. Vapour density of a gas is
defined as the ratio of the mass of the gas occupying a certain volume at a certain temperature and
pressure to the mass of hydrogen occupying the same volume at the same temperature and pressure
i.e.
PVM
W(gas) = and
RT
PV 2
WH 2 ( mol. wt.of Hydrogen is 2)
RT
Wgas M
= Vapour density of gas
WH2 2
Vapour Density × 2 = Molecular wt.

Vapour density of a gas is same at any temperature, pressure and volume.

Example 6: Determine the density of carbon dioxide gas at the sublimation temperature of 78 oC
and 1.0 atm, assuming ideal behaviour of the gas.
pM 1 44 1
Solution: 2.75 g L
RT 0.082 195
Example 7: Determine payload of a 1000,000 L balloon filled with He gas at 27oC and 1.0 atm.
Composition of air can be considered to be 79% N2 and 21% O2 by volume and balloon is
massless.
Solution: Moles of gas present in balloon
pV 1000,000
40650.4
RT 0.082 300
Payload = Wair Wgas = 40650.4 (Mair MHe) g

40650.4
= ( 28.84 4) kg 1009.75 kg
1000

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2.6 Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure


The ideal gas equation pV = nRT applies to mixtures just as to pure gases. It was in fact with a gas mixture,
ordinary air, that Boyle, Gay-Lussac and Charles did their early experiments. The only new concept we need
in order to deal with gas mixtures is partial pressure.

The pressure exerted by a gas depends on the force exerted by each molecular collision with the walls of the
container and on the number of such collisions in a unit area per unit time. If a gas contains two types of
molecules, each species will engage in such collisions and thus, make a contribution to the total pressure, in
exact proportion to its abundance in the mixture. The contribution that each species makes to the total
pressure of gas is known as the “partial pressure” of the species. Therefore, in other words, “partial pressure
of a component gas, in a gaseous mixture, is the pressure that would have been exerted, had the said
component occupied the entire volume alone under identical conditions of temperature.”

The statement of Dalton’s Law is “The total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the
sum of their partial pressures”.
Let a mixture of gases have amount n1 of the first gas, n2 of the second gas, and so on. Let the corresponding
partial pressures be p1, p2, …… The total pressure is given by
ptotal = p1 + p2 + ….
If the gases present in the mixture behave ideally, then, it is possible to write separately for each gas,
p1V = n1 RT (a)
p2V = n2RT (b)
Hence (p1 + p2 + …) V = (n1 + n2 + …) RT
i.e., ptotal V = ntotalRT (c)
where ntotal is the total moles of gases in the mixture. Dividing Eqs (a) and (b) by Eq. (c), We get
n1
p1 = ptotal = x1p total
n total
n2
p2 = p total = x 2 p total
n total
x1 , x2, and so on are the mole fraction of each gas respectively

Partial Pressure of a gas = Mole fraction of the gas × Total Pressure of the gaseous mixture

Dalton’s Law of Partial pressure is applicable only for non – reacting gases.

Example 8: Calculate partial pressure of nitrogen and oxygen in air assuming it to be composed of mostly
nitrogen and oxygen. Volume percentage of oxygen and nitrogen in air are 20 and 80
respectively, and atmospheric pressure to be 1.0.
Solution: Mole fraction of N2(g) = 0.8 and Mole fraction of O2(g) = 0.2
Partial pressure of N2(g) = 0.8 1 = 0.8 atm
Partial pressure of O2(g) = 0.2 1 = 0.2 atm

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Example 9: 0.1 mol of ethane gas and 0.3 mol of oxygen gas are taken in a flask at 27 oC and 1.0 atm
pressure and sealed. Now the flask is heated to 1000 K where the following reaction
occurs quantitatively:
5
C2H6 + O2 2CO + 3H2O
2
Calculate partial pressure of each component at the end of reaction.
Solution: The balanced chemical reaction (with states specified) is
5
C2H6(g) + O2(g) 2CO(g) + 3H2O(g) at 1000 K
2
Moles at start: 0.10 0.3 0 0
Moles at end: 0 0.05 0.2 0.3
Total moles ng = 0.55
Now, applying gas laws at constant volume
p nT n T 0.55 1000
1 11 p2 p1 2 2 1.0 4.58 atm
p n T nT 0.4 300
2 2 2 11
0.05
p 4.58 0.416 atm
O 0.55
2
0.2
p CO 2 4.58 1.664 atm and
0.55
0.30
p 4.58 2.5 atm
H O 0.55
2

Partial pressure and aqueous tension

Dalton’s law is used to calculate the pressure of a dry gas when it is (Gas + Water vapour)
collected over water at atmospheric pressure. By Dalton’s law.

Pressure of dry gas = atmospheric pressure – aqueous tension

Aqueous tension is partial pressure of water vapour in air and it


depends only on temperature. It increases with temperature and Water
becomes 760 mm at 100°C.
2.7 Graham’s Law of Diffusion
If a tiny hole is made in the wall of a vessel containing a gas, then the rate at which gas molecules leak out
of vessel will be proportional to the number of molecules that collide with unit area of the wall in unit time.

Diffusion is the tendency of any substance to spread throughout the space available to it. Diffusion will take
place in all direction and even against gravity. So gases diffuse through firm substances and through small
holes. The streaming of gas molecules through a small hole is called effusion

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Diffusion: mixing of gas molecules to Effusion: escape of a gas through a


minimize pressure gradient pinhole

Schottish physical chemist, Thomas Graham’s research on the diffusion of gases was triggered by his
reading about the observation of Germen chemist Johan Dobereiner that Hydrogen gas effused out of a small
crack in a glass bottle faster than the surrounding air diffused in to replace it. Graham measured the rate of
effusion of different gases experimentally through very fine tube. In this way he slowed down the process,
so that it could be studied quantitatively.
He plotted the following graph for complete effusion of 100 ml of different gases at 25oC.
According to Graham the rate of diffusion (effusion) of a gas at constant P&T is inversely proportional to
square root of its molecular mass.

1 r M
r at constant P & T 1= 2 at constant P & T
M r M
2 1

The above Equation is applicable only if two said gases are at same temperature
and pressure, effusing through openings of identical geometry. The two gases
may be in the combined system if they are non-reacting and at the same partial
pressure.

If a gaseous mixture consists of several components of different molar masses and at different partial
pressure as well, initial rate of effusion of a component will depend on both molar mass and their partial
pressure as
1
ri pi and r
i M
i
p
r i , if rate of effusion is linearly related to its partial pressure.
i M
i
r p M2
Under the above conditions, 1 1
r p M1
2 2
Rate can be expressed in following terms

Volume diffused (V) moles diffused(n) distance travelled in a narrow tube(d)


r= = r=
time taken time taken time taken
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Example 10: Rate of effusion of ethane is 1.53 times faster than rate of a hydrocarbon containing 14.27%
hydrogen by weight, under identical conditions. Deduce the molecular formula of
hydrocarbon.
r (ethane) M
Solution: 1.53 M 70.23
r (hydrocarbon) 30
Empirical formula C H
Wt.% 85.73 14.27
Mol % 85.73 / 12 14.27
SR 1 2
Empirical formula = CH2 ;

Molecular weight = 70.23


= Empirical formula weight n = 14 n
n =5 ; hence, molecular formula of hydrocarbon is C5H10.

Example 11: Ammonia gas and HCl gas from the two flasks, at same temperature and pressure were
injected simultaneously through pinholes of similar geometry, attached at the two ends of a
1.0 m long glass tube. At what distance from the ammonia end, the first flash of white fume
would be observed?
Solution: Since, the two gases are injected at same pressure, their rate of effusion will depend only on
molar mass and ammonia being the lighter than HCl, will move at faster rate as illustrated
in the following diagrams:
100 cm
NH3 HCl
x cm

Point at which the two gases will meet first to


produce white fumes of NH4Cl

r NH 3 x 36.5
x 59.43 cm
r HCl 100 x 17

Example12 : Diffusion of a certain volume of N2(g) at 1.0 atm and 300 K, takes 25s, while same volume of
an unknown gas of Xenon and Fluorine at 2.0 atm and 300 K takes 34 s for diffusion through
the same pinhole. Deduce the molecular formula of the unknown gas.
1 r N2 34 PN 2 M 1 M
Solution: Rate M = 207.15
time r gas 25 Pgas 28 2 28
Since atomic mass of Xe = 131, the gas cannot contain more than one Xe atom per
molecule.Hence, the molecular formula of unknown gas could be XeF n.
207.15 = 131 + 19 n x = 4 and gas is XeF4.

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Instantaneous rate of diffusion

Instantaneous rate of effusion will depend on the instantaneous partial pressure of that component, which
decreases continuously with progress of effusion. Considering, instantaneous rate of decrease of partial
pressure (
dp Kp
square root of molar mass, instantaneous pressure at any time can be solved as
dt M
where K is constant of proportionality,
p2 t
dp K p1 Kt Kt
= dt ln = or p 2 = p1 exp
p1
p M 0
p2 M M

Hence, partial pressure decreases exponentially with time as

p ln p

t t

Example13: Pressure of nitrogen gas falls from 4000 mm to 2000 mm in 30 min, when allowed to effuse
through a pinhole in the cylinder. If the same cylinder is filled with an equimolar mixture of
N2 and He gas at 4000 mm of Hg, what would be the molar ratio of gases (N2 / He) in the
cylinder after 1.0 hour? Assume rate of decrease of pressure as linear function of gas
pressure.
Solution: Since, initially equal moles of gases are present, initial partial pressure of both N2 and He is
2000 mm of Hg. Also
dP KP p1 K1t
ln
dt M p2 M
4000 30K
For N2(g): ln … (i)
2000 28
In mixture: For N2 :
2000 60 K
ln … (ii)
p N2 28

2000 60 K
For He: ln … (iii)
p Hg 4
Solving Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), pN2 = 500 mm : pHe = 51 mm of Hg
Molar ratio after 1.0 hour (N2 : He) = p N2 : p He = 500 : 51

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Example 19: A two litre bulb contains 3 1023 gas molecules and exert 106 Pa pressure. Calculate
translational energy per molecule and total translational energy.
pV 10 6 2 10 3 6.022 1023
Solution: pV = nRT T 483K
nR 3 1023 8.314
3 3 23 20
E trans k bT 1.38 10 483 10 J / moleule
2 2
3
Etrans (Total ) kb TN 3000.25 J
2

4. REAL GASES
The ideal gas laws are derived from the kinetic theory of gases which is based on the following two
important assumptions:
(i) The volume occupied by the molecules is negligible in comparison to the total volume of the gas.
(ii) The molecules exert no forces of attraction upon one another.
It is because neither of these assumptions can be regarded as applicable to real gases that the real
gases show departure from the ideal behaviour.

4.1 Van der waal Equation


Van der Waal was the first to introduce systematically the correction terms due to the above two invalid
assumptions in the ideal gas equation PV = nRT. His corrections are given below.

Volume Correction
V in the ideal gas equation represents an volume where the molecules can
2r
move freely. In real gases, a part of the total volume is, however, occupied excluded
by the molecules of the gas.. If b represents the effective volume occupied volume
by the molecules of 1 mole of a gas, then for the amount n moles of the
gas Vi is given by V = V container nb
where b is called the excluded volume or co-volume. The numerical value
of b is four times the actual volume occupied by the gas molecules. This
can be shown as follows. If we consider only bimolecular collisions, then
the volume occupied by the sphere of radius 2r represents the excluded
volume per pair of molecules as shown in Fig
4 3 4 3
Thus excluded volume per pair of molecules
3 3
1 4 3 4 3
Excluded volume per molecule = 8
2 3 3
4 3
Since b represents excluded volume per mole of the gas, it is obvious that b = N A 4
3

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Pressure Correction
Consider a molecule A in the bulk of a vessel as shown in fig. This molecule
is surrounded by other molecules in symmetrical manner, with the result that
this molecule on the whole experiences no net force of attraction.
Now, consider a molecule B near the side of the vessel, which is about to
strike one of its sides, thus contributing towards the total pressure of the gas.
There are gas molecules only on one side of the vessel, i.e. towards its centre,
with the result that this molecule experiences a net force of attraction towards
the centre of the vessel. This results in decreasing the velocity of the molecule, and hence its
momentum. Thus, the molecule does not contribute as much force as it would have, had there been no
force of attraction. Thus, the pressure of a real gas would be smaller than the corresponding pressure of
an ideal gas, i.e. pi = pr + correction term

This correction term depends upon two factors:


(i) The number of molecules per unit volume of the vessel :- larger this number, larger will be the force of
attraction with which the molecule B is dragged behind. This results in a greater decrease in the
velocity of the molecule B and hence a greater decrease in the rate of change of momentum.
Consequently, the correction term also has a large value. If n is the amount of the gas present in the
volume V of the container, the number of molecules per unit volume of the container is given as
nN A n
N = or N
V V
n
Thus, Correction term
V
(ii) The number of molecules striking the side of the vessel per unit time:- Larger this number, larger will
be the decrease in the rate of change of momentum. Consequently, the correction term also has a larger
value. Now, the number of molecules striking the side of vessel in a unit time also depends upon the
number of molecules present in unit volume of the container, and hence in the present case:
n
Correction term
V
Taking both these factors together, we have
n n n2 n2
Correction term or Correction term correction term = a
V V V2 V2
Where a is the proportionality constant and is a measure of the forces of attraction between the
n2
molecules. Thus pi = pr + a
V2
When these expressions are substituted in the ideal gas equation pi Vi = nRT, we get
n 2a
p (V nb) = nRT
V2
This equation is applicable to real gases and is known as the Van der Waals equation.

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The constants a & b: Van der Waals constant for attraction (a) and excluded volume (b) are
characteristic for a given gas. Some salient features of a & b are:
i) For a given gas Vander Waal’s constant of attraction ‘a’ is always greater than Vander Waals
constant of excluded volume (b).
ii) The gas having higher value of ‘a’ can be liquefied easily and therefore H2 & He are not
liquefied easily.
iii) The units of a = litre2 atm mole–2 & that of b = litre mole –1
iv) The numerical values of a & b are in the order of 10–1 to 10–2 & 10–2 to 10–4 respectively.
v) Volume correction factor, depends on molecular size and larger molecule will have larger b.
For example, size of He, CH4, CF4, C4H10 are in order of He < CH4 < CF4 < C4H10 and same
will be the order of b.
n 2a
vi) Pressure correction factor ( ) depends on intermolecular force of attraction. Hence, larger the
V2
intermolecular force of attraction larger the value of ‘a’, for same n and V. For example,
intermolecular force of attraction among the molecules H2, CO2, NH3 are in order of
H2 < CO2 < NH3 (H-bonding) thus same is the order of a.

4.2 Compressibility Factor


The deviations from ideal behavior can be displayed more clearly, by plotting the ratio of the observed
molar volume Vm to the ideal molar volume Vm,ideal (=RT/p) as a function of pressure at constant
temperature. This ratio is called the compressibility factor Z and can be expressed as
Vm p
Z= = Vm
Vm,ideal RT

For an ideal gas Z=1 and is independent of pressure and temperature. For a real gas,
Z = (T, p), is a function of both temperature and pressure.

i) At low pressures: ‘V’ is large and ‘b’ is negligible in comparison with V. The Vander Waals equation
reduces to:
a a
P+ 2
V=RT ; PV + = RT
V V
a
PV = RT - or PV RT
V

This accounts for the dip in PV vs P isotherm at low pressures.

ii) At fairly high pressures


a
may be neglected in comparison with P. The Vander Waals equation becomes
V2
P (V – b) = RT
PV – Pb = RT
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a
iii) At very low pressures: V becomes so large that both b andbecome negligible and the Vander
V2
Waals equation reduces to PV = RT. This shows why gases approach ideal behaviour at very low
pressures.

iv) Hydrogen and Helium: These are two lightest gases known. Their molecules have very small masses.
a
The attractive forces between such molecules will be extensively small. So 2 is negligible even at
V
ordinary temperatures. Thus PV RT.
0°C

2 CO2 50° C
100°C
N2
100°C
H2 Z
He
Ideal gas
1.0
Z 1 50°C
0°C

0 P
P (atm)

(Deviation of gases from ideal The plot of Z vs P for N2 gas at different temperature is
behaviour with pressure.) shown here.
Example20: The density of steam at 100oC and 1.0 atm pressure is 0.5974 kg m 3. Determine
compressibility factor for steam in the given condition.
Solution Since Z=Vm,real/Vm,ideal ideal real

pM 1 18
Z 0.985
RT 0.5974 0.082 373

4.3 Liquefaction of Gases


First complete data on pressure - volume -temperature
relations of a substance in both gaseous and liquid state
was obtained by Thomas Andrews on carbon dioxide. He
plotted isotherms of carbon dioxide at various
temperatures. Later on it was found that real gases behave
in the same manner as carbon dioxide. Andrews noticed
that at high temperatures isotherms look like that of an
ideal gas and the gas cannot be liquefied even at very high
pressure. As the temperature is lowered, shape of the curve
changes and data shows considerable deviation from ideal
behaviour. At 30.98 °C carbon dioxide remains gas upto
73 atm pressures. At 73 atm pressure, liquid carbon
Volume
dioxide appears for the first time. The temperature 30.98 °C
is called critical temperature (TC) of carbon dioxide.

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Example 21: Calculate the pressure exerted by a mole of CO 2 gas confined in a 0.095 L container at
100oC. The 1st and 2nd coefficients Bv RT and Cv RT are -2.26 (l2 atm mol 1) and 0.161
(L3 atm mol 1) respectively.
Solution: Virial equation in volume is:
pVm Bv Cv
1 ....
RT Vm Vm2

RT RT Cv RT
p Bv
Vm Vm2 Vm3
0.0821 373 2.26 0.161
= = 259.32 atm
0.095 (0.095) 2 (0.095) 3

5.1 SOLVED PROBLEMS (OBJECTIVE)


Example 1 Which of the following curve does not represent Boyle’s law?

(A) P (B) log P

V log V

(C) P (D) P

1
V V
C 1
Solution: P= Where C is a constant. We can see that (c) is true as the graph of P vs would be a
V V
straight line.
(B) is true because log P = log C – log V.
dP C
(A) is true because
dV V2
which means that as V increases the slope decreases and is always negative (D)

Example 2 Boyle’s law may be expressed as


dP K dP K dP K
(A) (B) 2
(C) (D) none
dV T V dV T V dV T V
dP P K
Solution: from Boyle’s law; PV = constant; PdV +VdP = 0;
dV T V V2
Thus (PV = K) (B)

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Example 3 A commercial gas cylinder contains 75 L of He at 15 bar (Gauge pressure). Assuming ideal
gas behavior for the isothermal expansion, how many 3.0 L balloons at 1.1 bar pressure can
be filled by the gas in the cylinder?
(A) 338 (B) 430 (C) 403 (D) 304
Solution: Assuming atmospheric pressure to be one bar, initial pressure and final pressure
of He gas present in cylinder will be:
pi = 15 + 1 = 16 bar and pf = 1.1 bar
75 16
Volume of He gas when expanded isothermally to 1.1 bar = 1090.9L
1.1
Out of 1090.9L, 75 L of gas will remain in cylinder since this point pressure
equilibrium will be established.
1090.9 75
Numbers of balloons = 338 Thus (A)
3

Example 4 A vessel has N2 gas saturated with water vapor at a total pressure of 1 atm. The partial
pressure of water vapour is 0.3 atm. The contents of this vessel are transferred to another
vessel having one third of the capacity of original volume, at the same temperature the total
pressure of this system in the new vessel is
(A) 3.0 atm (B) 1 atm (C) 3.33 atm (D) 2.4 atm
Solution: PN' 2 PH' 2 O 1atm PH' 2O 0.3 atm PN' 2 0.7 atm
Now new pressure of N2 in another vessel of volume V/3 at same temperature T is given by
V1
PN" 2 0. 7V PN" 2 2.1 atm
3
since aqueous tension remains constant, and thus total pressure in new vessel
PN" 2 PH' 2 O = 2.1 + 0.3 = 2.4 atm (D)

Example 5 X ml of H2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the
effusion of the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is :
(A) 10 seconds : He (B) 20 seconds : O2
(C) 25 seconds : CO (D) 35 seconds : CO2
rH 2 4 rH 2 32
Solution: 2 (A) is incorrect ; 4 (B) is correct
rHe 2 rO2 2
rH 2 28 rH 2 2 1
14 (C) is incorrect ; = (D)is incorrect (B)
rCO 2 rCO2 44 12

Example 6 In what molar ratio He and CH4 should be mixed so that when the mixture is allowed to
effuse through a pinhole, initially both gases come out at equal rate?
(A) 2:1 (B) 1:1
(C) 2:3 (D) 4:1

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n
Solution: Since, rate of effusion (r) from a mixture.
M
r ( He) n( He) 16
1. 0 n CH 4 : n He 2 :1 (A)
r (CH 4 ) n(CH 4 ) 4

Example 7 Dalton’s law of partial pressure is not applicable to, at normal conditions
(A) H2 and N2 mixture (B) H2 and Cl2 mixture
(C) H2 and CO2 mixture (D) H2 and O2 mixture
Solution: H2 and Cl2 reacts to form HCl; Dalton’s law of partial pressure is valid only for the gases
which don’t react at ordinary conditions (B)

Example 8 For two gases A and B with molecular weights MA and MB, it is observed that at a certain
temperature T1 the mean velocity of A is equal to the root mean square velocity of B. thus the
mean velocity of A can be made equal to the mean velocity of B if
(A) A is at temperature T and B at T , T > T
(B) A is lowered to a temperature T2 , T2 < T while B is at T
(C) Both A and B are raised to a higher temperature
(D) Both A and B are placed at lower temperature

8RT 3RT 8 MA
Solution: (UAV)A = and (Urms)B =
MA MB 3 MB

8RT2 8RT T2 MA 8 8
for A (UAV) = for B (UAV) = T2 = T or
MA MB T MB 3 3

T2 < T (B)

Example 9 The K.E. of N molecule of O2 is x Joules at –123°C. Another sample of O2 at 27°C has a KE
of 2x Joules. The latter sample contains.
(A) N molecules of O2 (B) 2N molecules of O2
(C) N/2 molecules of O2 (D) N/4 molecule of O2
3 3
Solution: Total KE = nRT ; T = – 123 + 273 = + 150 K ; nR 150 xJ
2 2
=> 225 8.314 n = x
At 27°C = 27+ 273 = 300K
3
Total KE = 2x Joule = n1 8.314 300 n1 n (A)
2
Example 10 If for two gases of molecular weights MA and MB at temperature TA and TB,
TAMB = TBMA, then which property has the same magnitude for both the gases.
(A) density (B) pressure (C) KE per mol (D) Vrms
PM
Solution: i) density of a gas ( ) =
RT

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MB MA
Since , at the same pressure A = B . But if pressure is different
TB TA
then A B .
ii) Pressure of the gases would be equal if their densities are equal otherwise not.
3
iii) KE per mol = RT
2
It will be different for the two gases.
3RT T TB
iv) Vrms = , since A ; Vrms of A = Vrms of B (D)
M MA MB
Example 11 Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule. At 298 K, the average kinetic
energy of a Helium atom is
(A) two times that of hydrogen molecule (B) same as that of a hydrogen molecule
(C) four times that of a hydrogen molecule (D) half that of a hydrogen molecule
3
Solution: The average kinetic energy of an atom is given as kT.
2
It does not depend on mass of the atom. (B)

Example 12 The ratio between the rms velocity of H2 at 50 K and that of O2 at 800 K is
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 1/4 [IIT–JEE ’96]
3R 50 3R 800
Solution: Vrms (H2 at 50 K) = ; Vrms (O2 at 800K) =
2 10 3 32 10 3
3R 50
Vrms (H2 ) 2 10 3 25 103
1 (C)
Vrms (O 2 ) 3R 800 25 103
32 10 3

Example 13 The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 140 K to 560 K. If at 140 K the root mean
square velocity of the gas molecule is V, at 560 K it becomes
(A) 5V (B) 2V (C) V/2 (D) V/4
Solution: The Vrms at 140K is V
3R 140
V=
M
3R 560 3R 140 4 3R 140
At 540 K, V = = =2 = 2V
M M M
(B)

Example 14 At 100oC and 1 atm, if the density of liquid water is 1.0 g/cc and that of water vapour is
0.0006 g/cc, then the volume occupied by water molecule in one litre of steam at that
temperature is
(A) 6 cc (B) 60 cc (C) 0.6 cc (D) 0.06 cc

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Solution: Mass of 1 lt water vapour = V ×d = 1000 × 0.0006 = 0.6g


0 .6
volume of liquid water = = 0.6cc (C)
1
Example 15 A gas can be liquefied by pressure alone when its temperature is
(A) higher than its critical temperature (B) lower than its critical temperature
(C) either of these (D) none
Solution: A gas can be liquefied only if its temperature is lower than its critical temperature
(B)
Example 16 The behavior of a real gas is usually depicted by plotting compressibility factor Z versus P at
a constant temperature. At high temperature and high pressure, Z is usually more than one.
This fact can be explained by van der Waals equation when
(A) the constant ‘a’ is negligible and not ‘b’
(B) the constant ‘b’ is negligible and not ‘a’
(C) both constants ‘a’ & ‘b’ are negligible
(D)both the constants ‘a’&‘b’ are not negligible.
n 2a
Solution: P (V – nb) = nRT
V2
At high pressures, ‘b’ cannot be ignored as the volume of the gas is very low. At high
temperatures ‘a’ can be ignored
P (V–b) = RT ; PV - Pb = RT
PV Pb
PV = RT + Pb ; Z 1 (A)
RT RT
Example 17 The compressibility factor for a given gas is 0.927 at 273 K and 100 atm.
Calculate the amount of gas required to fill a gas cylinder of 100 liter capacity
under given conditions. (Molecular wt of gas is 30
(A) 16.4 Kg (B) 14.44 Kg (C) 4 Kg (D) 10.5 Kg
Solution Since for real gas PV= Z nRT
=> 100 × 100 = 0.927 ×w/30×0.0821×273
=> W = 14.439 Kg (B)

Example 18 Using van der waal’s equation, calculate the constant, ‘a’ (atm Ltr2 mole-2)when
two moles of a gas confined in a four litre flask exerts a pressure of 11 atm at a
temperature of 300 K. The value of ‘b’ is 0.05 Litre mole-1
(A) 6.5 (B) 2.23 (C) 23.2 (D) .85
Solution Vander waal’s gas equation is
( P + n2a/V2) (V-nb) = nRT
Since V =4 litre, P = 11 atm, T = 300K, b = 0.05 litre mol-1, n = 2
Thus (11+22a/42) (4-2 ×0.05) = 2× 0.082× 300
=> a = 6.5 atm litre2 mol-2 (A)

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5.2 SOLVED PROBLEMS (SUBJECTIVE)

Example 1 A compound of P and F was analyzed as follows:


Heating 0.2324 g of compound in a 378 mL container turned all of it into gas, which had a
pressure of 97.3 mm of Hg at 77oC. Then the gas was mixed with calcium chloride solution
which turned all the F to 0.2631 g CaF2. Determine the molecular formula of compound.
Solution Number of moles of gas
pV 97.3 0.378 3
1.684 10
RT 760 0.0821 350
0.2324
Molar mass of gas = 3
137.99
1.684 10
38
Also weight of F in 0.2631 gCaF2 = 0.2631 0.128 g
78
Weight of P in 0.2324 g of gas = 0.2324 – 0.128 = 0.10448 g
Empirical formula of gas P F
Weight 0.1044 0.128
0.1044 0.128
Moles
31 19
0.128 31
Simple ratio 1 2
19 0.1044
Empirical formula is PF2 and empirical formula weight = 69
137.99
No. of empirical formula unit in a molecule = 2
69
Hence, molecular formula = P2F4

Example 2 A flask containing some He gas at 1.5 atm and 300 K is connected to another flask, four
times larger in volume containing nitrogen gas at same temperature and pressure by means of
a narrow tube of negligible volume. The bigger flask was then kept in a thermostat bath
maintained at 500 K, while other flask was maintained at constant 300 K. Determine the final
pressures.
Solution: Since, initially gases are at same temperature and pressure, if there is x mol of He gas, mole
of N2(g) = 4x (Avogadro’s law)
V 4V
He N2

Final conditions:
n1, 300 K, p n2, 500 K, p
Applying ideal gas laws
V V V 4V
nT I nT II n1 300 I
n2 500 II

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12n1 17 n1 25 x
Also, n1 + n2 = x + 4x = 5x = n1 + n1
5 5 17
Now, applying ideal gas law on flask I, before and after heating.
1.5 x x 17 1.5 25
p n 17 p 2.2
p n1 25 x 25 17
Thus p =2.2 atm

Example 3 Two flasks of equal volume, connected by a narrow tube of negligible volume contain 1.0
mol of H2 gas at 300 K and 0.5 atmosphere. Now one of the flasks is immersed into a
thermostat maintained at 400 K and other was maintained at constant 300 K temperature.
Determine final pressure and amount of H2 gas in each flask.
Solution: Initially, both the flasks contained Initial conditions: 0.5 mol. 0.5 atm 0.5 mol. 0.5 atm
300 K 300 K
equal moles of H2(g) i.e., 0.5 mol each
(Avogadro’s law). A B

Final conditions: x mol, p atm y mol, p atm


On heating one of the flasks, keeping 300 K 400 K
other at constant temperature, kinetic
energy of the gas molecule present in the hotter flask will increase and they will migrate
towards colder flask. Equilibrium will be re-established when the two flasks acquire a
constant uniform pressure and at equilibrium, amount of gas will be more in colder flask than
in hotter flask
On applying gas equations in final conditions:
300 x = 400 y 3x = 4y
3 7 4 3
Also, x + y = 1 x
x x 1 x and y
4 4 7 7
Now apply gas law on flask A in its initial and final conditions:
0. 5 0.5
p = 4/7 atm
p x

Example 4 A 10.00 cm long column of air is trapped by a column of


mercury, 8.00 cm long in a capillary tube of uniform bore Air Hg
when the tube is held horizontally in a room at 1.0 atm 10 cm 8 cm
pressure as shown below
What will be the length of air column when the tube is held
(a) vertically with the open end up?
(b) with the open end down?
(c) at an angle of 45o from vertical with the open end up?
Solution: The laboratory pressure is 1.0 atm = 760 mm of Hg.
If the cross-sectional area of the bore of tube is A, then, the volume of trapped air
of length l will be A l. p1V1 p2V2
p1l1A p 2l 2A p1l1 p 2 l2
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The three different situations are described diagrammatically in the following figures:

(a) pair = patm + pHg (b) pair = patm pHg

(c) p air = patm + pHg


In case of (a)
Pressure on air column = 760 + 80 = 840 mm
p1l1 p2 l2 and, 760 10 8 40 =>x x = 9.047 cm
Hence, length of air column in (a) is 9.047 cm
In case (b)
P(air) = 760 80 = 680 mm Y = 760 10/680 = 11.18 cm
In case (c).
Effective height h of Hg column = 8 sin 45 = 5.657 cm
P(air) = 760 + 56.57 = 816.57 mm Z= 760 10/816.57 = 9.3 cm

Example 5 A vertical hollow cylinder of height 1.52m is fitted with a movable piston of negligible mass
and thickness. The lower half of the cylinder contains an ideal gas and the upper half is filled
with mercury. The cylinder is initially at 300 K. When the temperature is raised half of the
mercury comes out of the cylinder. Find the temperature assuming the thermal expansion of
mercury to be negligible?

Solution: Initially at lower end


P = 76 cm due to Hg + 76 cm due to atm
V1
= 152 cm, T = 300K, V =
2
(where V1 is the volume of cylinder)
Finally at lower end
P = 76 cm of air + 38 cm of Hg

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3 V1
= 114 cm, T = ?, V =
4
P1V1 P2 V2
T1 T2
152 V1 114 3 V1
T = 337.5 K
2 300 4 T

Example 6 A spherical glass bulb of radius 1.0 m contains a concentric rubber balloon that contains
some N2 gas and the remaining space in the flask contains 50 g H2. In the given conditions,
radius of the rubber balloon was found to be 40 cm. Now the seal of glass bulb was opened
and 25 g H2(g) was further added and resealed. Determine radius of the rubber balloon in the
new conditions. Assume constant temperature throughout.
Solution:
50 g H2(g) 75 g H2(g)
p p
40 cm +25 g H2(g) r cm
N2 N2
p p

I II
From the above illustration, it is obvious that pressure inside and outside the balloon is same
in both the cases. Applying the gas law on I to N2(g) and H2(g); p and T are same:
4 4
V( H 2 ) V( N 2 ) 1003 403 403
3 3
n( H 2 ) n( N 2 ) 25 n( N 2 )

25 (40)3
n( N 2 ) 1.7 mol
[(100) 3 (40) 3 ]
Applying the gas law on II to N2(g):
4 3
r 3
4 [(100) 3 r 3 ] 3 37.5 (100)3 r3 100
1
3 37.5 1.7 1.7 r3 r
3
100 37.5 392
1 r = 35.13 cm
r 1.7 17
Example 7 A 100 mL flask containing oxygen gas at 1.2 atm and 300 K is connected to a 250 mL flask
containing NO(g) at 0.6 atm and 300 K, by means of a narrow tube of negligible volume,
where they combine quantitatively to form NO2. Finally NO2(g) dimerized partially into
N2O4 and pressure inside the flask was found to be 0.41 atm at the same temperature.
Determine the percentage dimerization of NO2 as
2NO2(g) N2O4(g)
Solution: Before reaction Partial pressure of O2 in the combined system
100
= 1.2 0.3428 atm
350
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Partial pressure of NO in the combined system


250
0.6 0.4285 atm
350
250 mL (T)
100 mL (T)

O2(g)
NO(g)
1.2 atm 0.6 atm

Also, in the combined system P1 n1; partial pressure can directly be used to
solve the stoichiometry of reaction as
l
2NO + O2 2NO2 N2O4
Initial partial p: 0.4285 0.3428 0 0

Partial pressure at the 0 0.12855 0.4285 0


end of reaction I
p
Partial pressure after reaction II: 0 0.12855 0.4285 p
2
Total pressure p at the end of reaction II,
p
p 0.55705 0.41
2
p 0.2941 atm
0.2941
% dimerization = 100 68.63
0.4285
Thus % dimerization is 68.63 %

Example 8 A 50.00 ft long classroom has twenty


rows of seats and the adjacent rows 18.8 ft
are separated by 2.5 ft each. A N2O 1.3 ft
CH 4
cylinder on the front door and a CH4 N2O
cylinder on the rear door were 1.2 ft
opened simultaneously, so that gases
start diffusing into the
classroom. Student of which row will 8th row from edge
7th row
from front
first experience both tears and from front
laughing? Assume both the cylinders have gases at same temperature and
pressure and valves have similar dimensions.
Solution: Since, CH4 (16) is lighter than laughing gas N2O (44), former will diffuse at faster rate. Let
at x ft from the front door, two types of gases meet first. Then according to Graham’s law:
50 x 44
x 18.8 ft
x 16
The above distance is lying between 7th and 8th row from the front as shown:

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6.1 FOUNDATION BUILDERS (OBJECTIVE)


Experimental Gas Laws

1. I, II, III are three iso-therm respectively at T1, T2 & T3 temperatures will be in order
(A) T1 = T2 = T3 (B) T1 T2 T3 P

(C) T1 T2 T3 (D) T1 T2 = T3 II
I

III

V
2. The volume of a large irregularly shaped tank is determined as follows. The tank is
first evacuated, and then it is connected to a 50 L cylinder of compressed helium gas. The gas
pressure in the cylinder, originally at 21atm, falls to 7.0atm without a change in temperature. What is
the volume of the tank?
(A) 100L (B) 150L (C) 200L (D) 300L

3. At a constant temperature what should be the percentage increase in pressure for a 5% decrease in
the volume of gas:
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 5.26% (D) 4.26%

4. At a constant pressure, what should be the percentage increase in the temperature in Kelvin for a
10% increase in volume
(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 5% (D) 50%

5. According to Charles law


dV dV dV K
(A) K (B) K (C) (D) none
dT p dT P dT p T

6. The volume of gas is 100ml at 100 oC. If pressure remains same then at what temperature it will be
200ml?
(A) 200oC (B) 473oC (C) 746oC (D) 50oC

7. A gas cylinder containing cooking gas can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atm. The pressure gauge of
cylinder indicates 12 atm at 27°C. Due to sudden fire in building the temperature starts rising. The
temperature at which the cylinder will explode is.
(A) 42.5°C (B) 67.8°C (C) 99.5°C (D) 25.7°C

Ideal Gas Law


8. Flasks A and B of equal size contain 2 gm of H2 and 2 gm of N2 respectively at the same
temperature. The number of molecules in flask A is
(A) Same as those in flask B (B) Less than those in flask B
(C) Greater than those in flask B (D) Exactly half of those in flask B

9. 3.2g S on heating if occupy a volume of 780 ml at 450°C and 723 mm pressure. Formula of sulphur
is:
(A) S2 (B) S (C) S4 (D) S8

10. The volume of balloon filled with 4.0g He at 22oC and 720 mm of Hg is
(A)25.565 L (B) 20 L (C) 15 L (D) 30 L

11. Two containers A and B contain the same gas. If the pressure, volume and absolute temperature of
the gas in A are twice as compared to that of gas in B, and if the mass of the gas B is x g, the mass of
gas in A is
(A) x g (B) 4x g (C) 2/x g (D) 2x g
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12. What is the final temperature if a sample of ammonia gas, initially at a pressure of 3.00 atm, a
temperature of 500K, and a volume of 275L is changed to a volume of 200L and a pressure of
2.50atm?
(A) 303K (B) 436K (C) 573K (D) 825K

13. 5.40 gm of an unknown gas at 27 C occupies the same volume as 0.14 gm of hydrogen at 17 C and
same pressure. The molecular weight of unknown gas is
(A) 79.8 (B) 81 (C) 79.2 (D) 83

14. Which of the following gases would have the largest density at 25 C and 1.00 atm pressure?
(A) Methane, CH4 (B) Acetylene, C2H2 (C) Ethylene, C2H4 (D) Propane, C3H8

15. To expel half the mass of air from a large flask at 27oC, it must be heated to:
(A) 54oC (B) 177oC (C) 277oC (D) 327oC

16. An open vessel containing air is heated from 300 K to 400 K. The fraction of air originally present
which goes out of it is:
(A) 3/4 (B) 1/4 (C) 2/3 (D) 1/8

17. 0.2 mole sample of hydrocarbon CxHy yields after complete combustion with excess O2 gas, 0.8
mole of CO2, 1.0 mole of H2O. Hence hydrocarbon is
(A) C4H10 (B) C4H8 (C) C4H5 (D) C8H16

18. If the pressure of a given mass of gas is reduced to half and temperature is doubled simultaneously
then the volume will be
(A) Same as before (B) Twice as before (C) ¼ the as before (D) None

19. The 1 mol of an Ideal gas A with 300 mm of Hg is separated by 2 mol of another ideal gas B with
300 mm of Hg in closed container at the same temperature. If the separation is removed than total
pressure is
(A) 200 mm of Hg (B) 300 mm of Hg (C) 500 mm of Hg (D) 600 mm of Hg

20. Assume centre of sun to consist of gases whose average molecular weight is 2. The density and
pressure of the gas are 1.3 g cc–1 and 1.12 109 atm respectively. The temperature of sun is
(A) 2 103 K (B) 2 105 K (C) 2 107 K (D) 2 109 K

21. 6 g each of the following gases at 87oC and 750 mm pressure are taken. Which of them will have the
least volume
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI

22. The density of O2 gas at 25oC is 1.458 mg/lt at one atm pressure. At what pressure will O2 have the
density twice the value?
(A) 0.5 atm/250C (B) 2atm/25oC (C) 4atm/25oC (D) none

23. The density of neon gas is highest at


(A)STP (B) 0oC, 2 atm (C) 273oC, 1 atm (D) 273oC, 2 atm

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24. Figure shows graphs of pressure versus density for an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 and T2.
Which is correct? T 1

T2

Pressure
Density

(A) T1 > T2 (B) T1 = T2 (C) T1 < T2 (D) none of these

25. Equal masses of three ideal gases X, Y and Z are mixed in a sealed rigid container. If the
temperature of the system remains constant, which of the following statements about the partial
pressure of gas X is correct?
(A) It is equal to 1/3 the total pressure
(B) It depends on the intermolecular forces of attraction between molecule of X, Y and Z.
(C) It depends on the relative molecular masses of X, Y and Z.
(D) It depends on the average distance travelled between molecular collisions.

Dalton’s Law Of Partial Pressure

26. When 2g gas A is introduced into an evacuated flask kept at 25°C, the pressure is found to be 1 atm.
If 3g of another gas B is further added to same flask, the total pressure becomes 1.5 atm. The ratio of
molecular weights is
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:3 (D) 1:4
27. Air contains 79 % N2 and 21 % O2 by volume. If the barometric pressure is 750 mm Hg. The partial
pressure of oxygen is
(A) 157.5 mmHg (B) 175.5 mmHg (C) 315.0 mmHg (D) none

28. A gaseous mixture contains 1g of H2, 4g of He, 7g of N2 and 8g of O2. The gas having the highest
partial pressure is
(A) H2 (B) O2 (C) He (D) N2

29. A mixture consisting of 0.10 moles of N2, 0.05 moles of O2 and 0.20 moles of CH4 and an unknown
amount of CO2 occupied a volume of 9.6 L at 27 C and 1.0 atm pressure. How many moles of CO2
are there in this sample ?
(A) 0.04 mol (B) 0.39 mol (C) 0.05 mol (D) 0.10 mol

Graham’s Law
30. X ml of H2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 secs. The time taken for effusion of same
volume of gas specified below under identical condition is
(A) 10 secs : He (B) 20 secs : O2 (C) 25 secs : CO (D) 55 secs : CO2

31. Which of the following pair will diffuse at the same rate?
(A) CO2 and N2O (B) CO2 and NO (C) CO2 and CO (D) N2O and NO

32. A mixture of H2 and O2 in 2:1 volume is allowed to diffuse through a porous partition what is the
composition of gas coming out initially
(A) 1:2 (B) 4:1 (C) 8:1 (D) 1:4
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33. The valves X and Y in the adjoining figure are


opened simultaneously. The white fumes of NH 4Cl NH3 HCl
will first formed at A C
B Y
(A) A (B) B X
(C) C (D) A, B and C simultaneously

34. The pair of gases which can be most easily separated from effusion technique
(A) D2 and H2 (B) CH4 and CD4 (C) C12H4 and C14H4 (D) U235F6 and U238F6

35. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of gas X. The molecular weight
of X is:
(A) 64.0 (B) 32.0 (C) 4.0 (D) 8.0

36. Which of the following mixture of gases cannot be separated by diffusion method
(A) NO + C2 H6 (B) NO + NO2
(C) CO + CO2 (D) C2H4 + C2 H6
37. Bromine vapour at a given temperature is roughly 5 times denser than oxygen gas. Calculate the
relative rates at which Br2(g) and O2(g) diffuse.
(A) O2 should diffuse roughly 2.2 times faster.
(B) Br2 should diffuse roughly 2.2times faster.
(C) O2 should diffuse roughly 5.0 times faster.
(D) Br2 should diffuse roughly 5 times faster.

38. A balloon filled with moist air has developed a pinhole. It is quickly plunged into a tank of dry air at
the same pressure. In a short while
(A) It will collapse (B) It will enlarge
(C) No change will take place (D) can’t be predicted

39. Some moles of SO2 diffuse through a small opening in 20 seconds. Same number of moles of an
unknown gas diffuses through the same opening in 60 seconds. Molecular mass of the unknown gas
is
2 60 2 20
(A) 64 (B) 64
20 60
2 2
60 20
(C) 64 (D) 64
20 60
40. Vegetables are canned, while they are steaming hot because
(A) the heat inside will seal the jars
(B) the heat increases the atmospheric pressure
(C) the heat creates more pressure inside the jars
(D) when the jars cool, a vacuum inside will help to seal the jars

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Compressibility Factor
72. The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is
(A) 1.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D)

73. The compressibility factor of He as a real gas at room temperature is


(A) Unity (B) 1 a (C) 1 Pb (D) RTV
RTV RT 1 a
74. For a non-zero volume of molecules having no force of attraction,
the variation of compressibility factor, Z vs P is best represent by
(A) I (B) II Z II
1.0
(C) III (D) All the above I
III
2 CO2
N2
75. In a given diagram gas X and Y can be P (atm)

X
(A) Hydrogen and Helium (B) Helium and Hydrogen Y
Z 1
(C) Hydrogen and Neon (D) Helium and Neon

0 P

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76. The plot of Z vs P for N2 gas at different temperature is shown,


correct order of the temperature T1, T2 and T3 is
T3
Z
(A) T1 > T2 > T3 (B) T1 < T2 > T3 1.0

(C) T1 < T2 < T3 (D) T1 = T2 = T3 T1


T2

P (atm)
Van der Waal’s gas equation
77. For non-zero value of force of attraction between gas molecules gas equation will be
n 2a nRT
(A) PV = nRT – (B) PV = nRT + nbP (C) PV = nRT (D) P =
V V b

78. Out of the following gases, which one has least value of Vander Waals constant ‘a’
(A) CO2 (B) NH3 (C) CH4 (D) H2

79. The value of Vander Waals constant ‘a’ is maximum for


(A) Helium (B) nitrogen (C) CH4 (D) NH3

80. Which of the following statement is true for Van der waals gas constant ‘a’ and ‘b’?
(A) ‘a’ depends on size and shape, ‘b’ depends only on size of molecule.
(B) ‘b’ depends on size and shape, ‘a’ depends only on size of molecule.
(C) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ depends on shape and size of molecule.
(D) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ depends only on size of molecule.

81. Table gives values of ‘a’ for different gases


O2 H2 NH3 CH4
1.310 1.390 4.17 2.253
Therefore which can most easily liquefied is
(A) O2 (B) NH3 (C) H2 (D) CH4

82. Identify the conditions of pressure and temperature at which a real gas shows maximum deviation
from ideal behavior:
(A)10 atm, 273 K (B) 5 atm, 273 K (C) 10 atm, 373 K (D) 5 atm, 373 K

83. a/V2 given in van der Waals equation is for:


(A) internal pressure (B) intermolecular attraction
(C) both a and b (D) temperature correction.

84. Which of the following statement is not true ?


(A) The pressure of the real gas is equal to the pressure calculated for an ideal gas.
(B) The van der Waals’ equation helps to calculate the pressure and volume of real gases
(C) Real gas molecules do occupy a finite, but small, volume.
(D) None of these

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6.2 FOUNDATION BUILDERS (SUBJECTIVE)

Experimental Gas Laws and Ideal Gas Law


1. An iron cylinder contains helium at a pressure of 250 kPa and 270C. The cylinder can withstand a
pressure of 106 Pa. The room in which cylinder is placed catches fire. Predict whether the cylinder
blow up before it melts or not (mp of cylinder = 1800K)

2. a) How large a balloon could you fill with 4.0 g of He gas at 22 oC and 720 mm of Hg?
b) Calculate the density of CO2 at 100 0C and 800 mm Hg pressure.

3. a) A container has 3.2 g of a certain gas at NTP. What would be the mass of the same gas contained
in the same vessel at 200 C and 16 atm pressure?
b) A certain quantity of a gas measured 500 mL at a temperature of 15°C and 750 mm Hg. What
pressure is required to compress this quantity of gas into a 400 mL vessel at a temperature of 50°C?

4. An open vessel at 27 C is heated until three-fifths of the air in it has been expelled. Assuming the
volume of the vessel remains constant, find the temperature to which the vessel has to be heated.

5. At 60°C the vapour density of N2O4 gas was found to be 30.2. Calculate the percentage of NO2
molecules by moles.

6. 100 mL of gas is collected at 750 mm pressure. What volume will it occupy at 745 mm pressure?

7. A toy balloon originally held 1.0 gm of He gas and had a radius 10 cm. During the night, 0.25 gm of
the gas effused from the balloon. Assuming ideal gas behaivour, under these constant P and T
conditions, what was the radius of the balloon the next morning?

8. 5 L of nitrogen measured at 750 mm have to be compressed into an iron cylinder of 1 L respectively.


If temperature is kept constant, calculate the pressure in atmospheres required to do so

9. Three hollow metallic boxes A,B and C are connected through a narrow tube of negligible volume
and filled with He gas. If the internal volumes of these boxes are in the ratio of 1:2:4, (i) Find the
molar ratio of He in these boxes (ii) How the molar ratio of He would change if the boxes A,B and
C are immersed in different temperature baths having temperature 270C,1270C,&3270C,
respectively?

10. The temperature of a given mass of air was changed from 150C to – 150C. If the pressure remains
unchanged and the initial volume was 100 mL, what should be the final volume?

11. The density of a gas at 270C and 760 mm pressure is 24. Calculate the temperature at which it will be
18, the pressure remaining constant.

Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure


12. 12 g N2, 4 gm H2 and 9 gm O2 are put into a one liter container at 27°C. What is the total pressure?

13. 1.0×10–2 kg of hydrogen and 6.4×10–2 kg of oxygen are contained in a 10×10–3 m3 flask at 473 K.
Calculate the total pressure of the mixture. If a spark ignites the mixture. What will be the final
pressure?

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14. Exactly 100 mL of oxygen is collected over water of 23 0C and 800 mm pressure. Calculate the
volume of dry oxygen at NTP. (Vapour pressure of water at 230C is 21 mm.)

15. 250 ml of nitrogen gas maintained at 650 mm pressure and 380 mL of oxygen gas maintained at 650
mm pressure are put together in 1 L flask. If temperature is kept constant, what will be the final
pressure of the mixture?

16. At 627 oC and 1.0 atm, SO3 partially dissociates into SO2 and O2. One liter of the equilibrium mixture
weighs 0.94 g under the above conditions. Determine the partial pressure of the constituent gases in
the mixture.

Graham’s Law
17. At room temp , NH3 gas at one atm & HCl gas at “P” atm are allowed to effuse through identical
pin holes to the opposite ends of a glass tube 1m long & uniform cross-section. A white deposit is
observed at a distance of 60 cm from the HCl end. What is “P”.

18. The relative of diffusion of ozone as compared to chlorine is 6:5. If the density of Cl2 is 35.5, find
out the density of ozone.

19. 127 mL of a certain gas diffusion of the same time as 100 mL of chlorine under the same conditions.
Calculate the molecular weight of the gas.

20. The ratio of rates of effusion of two gases A and B is 1:4. If the ratio of their masses present in the
mixture is 2:3. What is the ratio of their mole fraction in mixture?

21. A gaseous mixture consists of CH4, O2 and SO2 in the weight ratio of 4:2:1. The mixture was then
allowed to effuse through a small hole at a definite temperature. What will be the mole composition
of the mixture leaving the hole initially?

22. Calculate the molecular weight of a gas X which diffuses four times as fast as another gas Y, which in
turn diffuses twice as fast as another gas Z. Molecular weight of the gas Z is 128.

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ANSWER KEY
Foundation Builders (objective)

1. C 17. A C B B
2. A 18. D A C A
3. C 19. B A B B
4. A 20. C A A A
5. A 21. D A C
6. B 22. B A A
7. C 23. B C D
8. C 24. A D D
9. D 25. C A
10. A 26. C
11. D 27. A
12. A 28. C
13. A 29. A
14. D 30. B
15. D 31. A
16. B 32. C

Foundation Builders (Subjective)

1. Will burst 1
1 3
2 a) 25.5 litre, b)1.5124 g/litre 20
24
3 a) 29.55g, b) 1051.4 mm of Hg
4 750 K 21 32 : 4 2 :1
5 68.7 % 22 M=2
6 100.67ml
7 9.08 cm
8 4.93atm
9 1 : 2 : 4, 2 : 3 : 4
10 89.58ml
11 400K
12 66.7 atm
13 Ptotal = 27.54×105 N/m2 , Pfinal =
19.66×105N/m2
14 94.5ml
15 P= 409.5mm,
16 SO3 =0.6, SO2 =0.265 and O2 =0.135 atm
17 2.19 atm
18 24.65
19 44

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EXERCISE
1. Substances whose solutions can readily diffuse through animal membranes are called:
(a) Colloids (b) Crystalloids (c) Electrolytes (d) Non-electrolytes

2. The size of the colloidal particles is in between


(a) 107 109 cm (b) 109 1011 cm (c) 106 107 cm (d) 102 103 cm

3. An emulsion is a colloidal solution consisting of


(a) Two solids (b) Two liquids
(c) Two gases (d) Two solid and one liquid

4. The colloidal solution of gelatin is known as


(a) Solvent loving (b) Reversible (c) Hydrophilic (d) All the above

5. Colloids are purified by


(a) Brownian motion (b) Precipitation (c) Dialysis (d) Filtration

6. Which of the following substance gives a positively charged sol


(a) Gold (b) Arsenic sulphide (c) Starch (d) Ferric hydroxide

7. Which is lyophobic in nature


(a) Gelatin (b) Phosphorus (c) Starch (d) Agar-Agar

8. Adsorbed acetic acid on activated charcoal is


(a) Adsorber (b) Absorber (c) Adsorbent (d) Adsorbate

9. Which is kinetic phenomenon?


(a) Brownian motion (b) Tyndall effect (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

10. The number of phases present in colloidal solution is


(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1

11. Tyndall effect is not observed in


(a) Suspension (b) Starch sol (c) Gold sol (d) NaCl solution

12. Lyophobic colloids are


(a) Reversible (b) Irreversible (c) Water loving (d) Solvent loving

13. The capacity of an ion to coagulate a colloidal solution depends on


(i) Its shape
(ii) The amount of its charge
(iii)The sign of the charge
(iv) Both, the amount and the sign of the charge

14. Which of the following is associated colloid


(a) Soap (b) Detergent (c) Both (d) KCl

15. To coagulate Pt sol, which of the following is most effective


(a) NaCl (b) Na 3PO4 (c) AlCl3 (d) Alcohol

16. An example of micelle is


(a) As 2O3 sol (b) Ruby glass
(c) Na 2 CO3 solution (d) Sodium stearate concentration solution

190
17. Brownian motion shown by colloidal particle is its _________ property
(a) Optical (b) Electrical (c) Kinetic (d) Chemical

18. A colloidal solution of Fe  OH 3 in water is


(a) A hydrophilic colloid (b) A hydrophobic colloid
(c) An emulsion (d) None

19. Which metal sol cannot be prepared by Bredig’s aru method


(a) K (b) Cu (c) Au (d) Pt

20. Purple of Cassius is


(a) Colloidal sol. of silver (b) Colloidal sol. of gold
(c) Colloidal sol. of platinum (d) Oxy acids of gold

21. Which is not shown by sols.


(a) Adsorption (b) Tyndall effect (c) Flocculation (d) paramagnetism

22. Which is not a colloidal solution


(a) Smoke (b) Ink (c) NaCl (d) Blood

23. Which one is natural colloid


(a) NaCl (b) Blood (c) RCOONa (d) Sugar

24. Medicines are more effectibe if they are used in


(a) Colloidal state (b) Solid state (c) Solution state (d) None

25. Albumin protein is


(a) Reversible colloid (b) Lyophilic colloid
(c) Protective colloid (d) All

26. Milk is a colloidal sol in which


(a) Liquids is dispersed in a liquid (b) Solid is dispersed in a liquid
(c) Gas is dispersed in a liquid (d) Sugar is dispersed in a liquid

27. Colloidal particles carry charge. This can be shown by:


(a) Tyndall effect (b) Electrophoresis
(c) Brownian movement (d) Dialysis

28. When dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3 (excess) is added to Kl solution, positively sol particles of
Agl are formed due to adsorption of ion
(a) K  (b) Ag  (c) I (d) NO3

29. Which one of the following substance is not used for preparing lyophilic sols
(a) Starch (b) Gum (c) Gelatin (d) Metal sulphide

30. The charge of As2S3 sol is due to the absorbed


(a) H  (b) OH (c) O2 (d) S2

31. A freshly prepared Fe  OH 3 , precipitate is peptized by adding FeCl3 solution. The charge on the
colloidal particle is due to preferential adsorption of
(a) Clions (b) Feions (c) OHions (d) None

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32. Which of the following sol is formed due to following Rxn: SnO2  HCl (Excess)
(a) SnCl4  Cl (b) SnCl4  O2 (c) SnCl 4  H (d) None

33. Isoelectric point refers to the Hion concentration at which the colloidal particles
(a) Peptization takes place
(b) Become electricity neutral
(c) Can move to either electrode when subjected to an electric field
(d) Reverse their electrical charge

34. The volumes of gases H2 , CH4 , CO2 and NH3 adsorbed by 1 g of charcoal at 288K are in the order
(a) H2  CH 4  CO2  NH3 (b) CH4  CO2  NH3  H 2
(c) CO2  NH3  H 2  CH 4 (d) NH3  CO2  CH 4  H 2

35. Following are various types of colloids. Match column X with column Y.
X [Colloids] Y [Classification]
I. Smoke A. Sol
II. Gelatin B. Aerosol
III. Soap lather C. Emulsion
IV. Milk D. Foam
Correct matching is
I II III IV
(a) A B C D
(b) A C B D
(c) B A D C
(d) B A C D

36. Some of the following are true solutions


I: Urea solution
II: Gelatin
III: Glucose solution
IV: NaCl solution
V: Butter
VI: Blood
Select true solutions:
(a) I, III, IV (b) II, III, IV, V (c) I, IV, V (d) II, IV, VI

37. Which one of the following is lyophilic colloid


(a) Gelatin (b) Sulphur (c) Gold (d) Carbon

38. Milk is an example of


(a) Pure solution (b) Emulsion (c) Gel (d) Suspensions

39. Alum helps in purifying water by


(a) Forming SI complex with clay particles
(b) Sulphate part which combines with the dirt and removes it
(c) Aluminium which coagulates the mud particles
(d) Making mud water soluble

40. Lyophilic sols are


(a) Irreversibles sols
(b) They are prepared from inorganic compound
(c) Coagulate by adding electrolytes
(d) Self-stabilizing

192
41. If dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion inedium is solid, the colloid is known as
(a) A sol (b) A gel (c) An emulsion (d) A foam

42. An emulsion is a colloidal solution consisting of


(a) Two solids (b) Two liquids (c) Two gases (d) One solid and one lquid

43. The colloidal solution of gelatin is known as


(a) Solvent loving (b) Reversible (c) Hydrophilic (d) All the above

44. Peptization is a process of


(a) Precipitating the colloidal particles
(b) Purifying the colloidal sol
(c) Dispersing the precipitate into colloidal sol
(d) Movement of colloidal particles towards the oppositely charged electrodes

45. Colloids are purified by


(a) Brownian motion (b) Precipitation (c) Dialysis (d) Filtration

46. Which of the following substance gives a positively charged sol


(a) Gold (b) Arsenic sulphide (c) Starch (d) Ferric hydroxide

47. When excess of electrolyte is added to a colloid it


(a) Coagulates (b) Gets diluted (c) Dissolved (d) Does not change

48. A liquid is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves no residue when passed through the filter
paper. The liquid can be described as
(a) A suspension (b) Oil (c) A colloidal sol (d) True solution

49. Which is lyophobic in nature


(a) Gelatin (b) Phosphorus (c) Starch (d) Agar-Agar

50. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice creams in order to


(a) Prevent making of colloid
(b) Stabilise the colloid and prevent crystalisation
(c) Stabilise the mixture
(d) Enrich the aroma

51. Blood may be purified by


(a) Dialysis (b) Electro osmosis (c) Coagulation (d) Filteration

52. The work of enzymes in living system is


(a) Oxygen Trandfer (b) To provide immunity
(c) To catalyst bio chemical reactions (d) To provide energy

53. When some special substance like protein particles, blood corpuscles etc. are separated by a
permeable, the process is called
(a) Dialysis (b) Diffusion (c) Exosmosis (d) Endosmosis

54. At critical micelle concentration (CMC) the surfactant molecules


(a) Decomposes (b) Becomes completely soluble
(c) Associates (d) Dissociates

55. Which one of the following method is commonly used for destruction colloid
(a) Dialysis (b) Condensation
(c) Filteration by animal membrane (d) By adding electrolyte

193
56. Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of gas on surface of solid.
(a) On increasing temp. adsorption increases continuously
(b) Enthalpy & entropy charge is negative
(c) Adsorption is more for some specific substances
(d) Reversible

57. Position of non polar and polar part in micelles


(a) Polar at outer surface but non polar at inner surface
(b) Polar at inner surface but non polar at outer surface
(c) Disturbed over all the surface
(d) Are present on the surface only

58. Milk is a colloidal sol in which


(a) Liquid is dispersed in a liquid
(b) Solid is dispersed in a liquid
(c) Gas is dispersed in a liquid
(d) Sugar is dispersed in a liquid

59. Adsorbed acetic acid on activated charcoal is


(a) Adsorber (b) Absorber (c) Adsorbent (d) Adsorbate

60. Who was awarded Noble Prize for the study of catalytic reactions:
(a) Ostwald (b) Berzelius (c) Vant-Hoff (d) Werner

61. Colloidal particles carry charge. This can be shown by


(a) Tyndall effect (b) Electrophoresis
(c) Brownian movement (d) Dialysis

62. Which forms a colloidal solution in water


(a) NaCl (b) Glucose (c) Starch (d) Barium nitrate

63. When dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3 (excess) is added to KI solution, positively charged sol
particles of Aglare formed due to adsorption of ion?
(a) K  (b) Ag  (c) I (d) NO3

64. Flocculation value is expressed in terms of


(a) Millimole per litre (b) Mol per litre
(c) Gram per litre (d) Mol per millilitre

65. A liquid which markedly scatters a beam of light (visible in dark room) but leaves no residue when
passed through a filter paper is best described as
(a) A suspension (b) Sol (c) True solution (d) None

66. Which one of the following substances is not used


(a) Starch (b) Gum (c) Gelatin (d) Metal sulphide

67. In physical adsorption, the forces associated are


(a) Ionic (b) Covalent (c) Vander waals (d) H-bomding

68. Catalyst is a substance which


(a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
(b) Changes the equilibrium constant of the reaction
(c) Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
(d) Supplies energy to the reaction

194
69. Which of the following is not a colloidal system?
(a) Bread (b) Muddy water (c) Concrete (d) Sugar in water

70. Tyndall effect in colloidal soln. is due to:


(a) Absorption of light (b) Scattering of light
(c) Reflection of light (d) Presence of electricity charged particle

71. Lapis lazuli is


(a) Ferrous sulphate (b) Copper sulphate
(c) Sodium alumino silicate (d) Zinc sulphate

72. Which of the following forms cationic micelles above certain concentration
(a) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide (b) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
(c) Sodium acetate (d) Urea

73. Which one of the following forms micelles in aqueous solution above certain concentration
(a) Glucose
(b) Urea
(c) Dodecyltrimethyl ammonium chloride
(d) Pyridinium

74. Butter is a colloid formed when


(a) Fat is dispersed in fat (b) Fat is dispersed in water
(c) Water is dispersed in fat (d) Suspension of casein in water

75. The capacity of an ion to coagulate a colloidal solution depends on


(a) Its shape
(b) The amount of its charge
(c) The sign of the charge
(d) Both, the amount and the sign of the charge

76. All colloidal solutions show


(a) Very high osmotic pressure
(b) High osmotic pressure
(c) Low osmotic pressure
(d) No osmotic pressure

77. Which of the following is associated colloid


(a) Soaps (b) Detergent (c) Both (d) KCl

78. Which of the following has minimum flocculation value


(a) Pb2 (b) Pb4 (c) Sr2 (d) Na 

79. The charge of As2S3 sol is due to the absorbed


(a) H  (b) OH (c) O2 (d) S2

80. To coagulate gelatin sol, which of the following is most effective


(a) NaCl (b) Na 3PO4 (c) AlCl3 (d) Alcohol

81. An example of micelle is


(a) As2O3sol (b) Rudy glass
(c) Na 2 CO3 solution (d) Sodium stearate concentrated solution

195
82. Brownian motion shown by colloidal particle is its _______ property
(a) Optical (b) Electrical (c) Kinetic (d) Chemical

83. The correct statement in case of milk


(a) Milk is an emulsion of fat in water (b) Milk in an emulsion of protein in water
(c) Milk is stabilized by protein (d) Milk is stabilized by fat

84. A colloidal system involves


(a) A state of dissolution (b) A state of dipersion
(c) A state of suspension (d) None

85. Which is not the correct matching of emulsions


(a) Milk: O/W (b) Cold cream: W/O
(c) Butter: O/w (d) Vanishing cream: O/W

86. The correct gas equation is


PV T V T VT P1T1 P2T2 V1V2
(a) 1 1  1 (b) 2 2  1 1 (c)  (d)  P1P2
P2 V2 T2 P1 P2 V1 V2 T1T2

87. If the density of a gas A is 1.5 times that of B then the molecular mass of A is M. The molecular
mass of B will be
M M
(a) 1.5 M (b) (c) 3M (d)
1.5 3

88. The value of gas constant R is 8.314 X. Here X is represent


(a) L atm K1mol1 (b) cal mol 1K 1 (c) J K 1 mol1 (d) None of the above

89. A certain mass of a gas occupies a volume of 2 litre at STP. Keeping the pressure constant at what
temperature would the gas occupy a volume of 4 litre.
(a) 546o C (b) 273o C (c) 100o C (d) 50o C

90. In the gas equation PV  nRT the value of universal gas constant depends upon
(a) The nature of the gas (b) The pressure of the gas
(c) The temperature of the gas (d) The units of measurement

91. 8.2L of an ideal gas weighs 9.0g at 300K and 1 atm pressure. The molecular mass of gas is
(a) 9 (b) 27 (c) 54 (d) 81

92. At similar temperature and pressure condition. The equal volume of different gases contain equal
number of
(a) Atoms (b) Molecules (c) Radicals (d) Compounds

93. Two flasks A and B of 500 mL each are respectively with O 2 and SO2 at 300K and 1 atm pressure.
The flasks contain
(a) The same number of atoms
(b) The same number of molecules
(c) More number of moles in flask A as compared to flask B
(d) The same amount of gases

94. The density of a gas is equal to (P = pressure V = volume, T = temperature, R = gas constant, n =
number of moles and M = molecular weight)
PM w P Mw
(a) nP (b) (c) (d)
RT RT V

196
95. A 0.5 dm3 flask contains gas A and 1 dm3 flask contains gas B at the same temperature. If density
1
of A  3.0g dm3 and that of B  1.5g dm3 and the molar mass of A  of B , then the ratio of
2
pressure exerted by gases is
P P P P
(a) A  2 (b) A  1 (c) A  4 (d) A  3
PB PB PB PB

96. When the pressure of 5L of N 2 is doubled and its temperature is raised from 300K to 600K, the final
volume of the gas would be
(a) 10 L (b) 5L (c) 15 L (d) 20L

97. One litre of an unknown gas weighs 1.25g at N.T.P. which of the following gas pertains to the above
data
(a) CO 2 (b) NO 2 (c) N 2 (d) O 2

98. When gases are heated from 20o C to 40o C at constant pressure, the volumes
(a) Increase by the same magnitude
(b) Become double
(c) Increase in the ration of their molecular masses
(d) Increase but to different extent

99. A vessel has two equal compartments A and B containing H 2 and O 2 respectively, each at 1 atm
pressure. If the wall separating the compartment is removed, the pressure
(a) Will remain unchanged in A and B (b) Will increase in A and increase in B
(c) Will decrease in A and increase in B (d) Will increase in both A and B

100. A flask of methane  CH 4  was weighed. Methane was then pushed out and the flask again weighed
when filled with oxygen at the same temperature and pressure. The mass of oxygen would be
(a) The same as the methane
(b) Half of the methane
(c) Double of that of methane
(d) Negaligible in comparison to that of methane

101. A gas can be liquefied by


(a) Cooling (b) Compressing (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None

102. Which set of conditions represents easiest way to liquiefy a gas


(a) Low temperature and high pressure (b) High temperature and low pressure
(c) Low temperature and low pressure (d) High temperature and low pressure

103. A box of 1L capacity is divided into two equal compartments by a thin partition which are filled with
2g H 2 and 16g CH4 respectively. The pressure in each compartment is recorded as P atm. The total
pressure when partition is removed will be
(a) 9 (b) 2P (c) P/2 (d) P/4

104. A 2.24L cylinder of oxygen at N.T.P. is found to develop a leakage. When the leakage was plugged
the pressure dropped to 570mm of Hg. The number of mole of gas that escaped will be
(a) 0.025 (b) 0.050 (c) 0.075 (d) 0.09

105. 10 g of a gas at NTP occupies 5 litres. The temperature at which the volume become double for the
same mass of gas at the same pressure is?
(a) 273 K (b) 273o C (c) 273o C (d) 546o C

197
106. An open vessel containing air is heated from 27o C to 127o C . The fraction of air originally present
which goes out of it is
(a) 3/4 (b) 1/4 (c) 2/3 (d) 1/8

107. At 740 mm pressure in a closed vessel. Number of oxygen and hydrogen molecule is same. If
oxygen is removed from system than pressure become
(a) Half of 740 mm (b) Unchanged
1
(c) th of 740 mm (d) double than 740 mm
9

108. When pressure is changed from 1 atm to 0.5 atm then number. of molecule in 1 mole ammonia
changes to:
(a) 75% of its initial volume (b) 50% of its initial volume
(c) 25% of its initial volume (d) None

109. In a closed flask of 5 litre, 1.0 g of H 2 is heated from 300 to 600K. which statement is not correct
(a) Pressure of the gas increases
(b) The rate of collision inctrases
(c) The number of moles of gas increases
(d) The energy of gaseous molecules increases

110. V versus T curves at constant pressure P1 and P2 for an ideal gas are shown in figure which is
corrected

(a) P1  P2 (b) P1  P2
(c) P1  P2 (d) Cannot be interpreted by graph

111. In pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased 0.5% when heated by 1o C its initial
temperature
(a) 250 K (b) 250o C (c) 2500 K (d) 25o C

112. There is 10 litre of a gas at STP. Which of the following changes keeps the volume constant
(a) 273 K and 2 atm (b) 273o C and 2 atm (c) 546o C and 0.5 atm (d) 0o C and 0 atm

113. The density of oxygen gas at 25o C is 1.458 mg/kitre at one atmosphere. At what pressure will
oxygen have the density twice the value
(a) 0.5 atm/ 25o C (b) 1atm/ 25o C (c) 4 atm/ 25o C (d) None

114. Figure shows graphs of pressure versus density for an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 and T2 .
Which is correct

(a) T1  T2 (b) T1  T2 (c) T1  T2 (d) None of the above

198
115. The molecular weight O 2 and SO2 are 32 and 64 respectively. If one of O 2 at 15o C and 759 mm
pressure contains N molecules, the number of molecules in two litre of SO2 under the same
conditions of temperature and pressure will be
(a) N/2 (b) N (c) 2N (d) 4N

116. At a constant pressure, what should be the percent age increase in the temperature in Kelvin for a
10% increase in volume
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 5% (d) 50%

117. Which pair of the gaseous species diffuse through a small jet with the same rate of diffusion at same
P and T
(a) NO, CO (b) NO, CO2 (c) NH 3 , PH3 (d) NO, C2 H 6

118. The rate if diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular weight
of X is
(a) 64 (b) 32 (c) 4.0 (d) 8.0

119. The increasing order of effusion among the gases, H 2 , O2 , NH 3 and CO 2 is


(a) H 2 , CO2 , NH 3 , O 2 (b) H 2 , NH3 , O2 , CO 2 (c) H 2 , O2 , NH 3 , CO 2 (d) CO2 , O 2 , NH 3 , H 2

120. Gas a having molecular weight 4 diffuses thrice as fast as the gas B at a given T. The molecular
weight of gas B is
(a) 36 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 24

121. Four rubber tubes are respectively filled with H2 , O2 , N 2 and CO 2 . The tube which will be reinflated
first is
(a) H 2 filled tube (b) O 2 filled tube (c) N 2 filled tube (d) CO 2 filled tube

122. Ratio of diffusion of hydrogen is


(a) Half of He (b) 1.4 times of He (c) Double than He (d) Four times of He

123. If the densities of methane & oxygen are in the ratio 1 : 2, the ratio of rate of diffusion of O 2 %
CH4 is
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:1.414 (c) 2:1 (d) 1.414:1

124. The total pressure of a mixture of two gases is equal to


(a) Sum of their partial pressures (b) The difference in partial pressures
(c) The product of partial pressures (d) The ratio of partial pressures

125. Equal masses of SO2 , CH 4 and O 2 are mixed in empty container at 298K, when total pressure is 2.1
atm. The partial pressures of CH4 in the mixture.
(a) 0.5 atm (b) 0.75 atm (c) 1.2 atm (d) 0.6 atm

126. If 500 mL of a gas A at 1000 torr, and 1000 mL of gas B 800 torr. are placed in a 2L container, the
final pressure will be
(a) 100 torr (b) 650 torr (c) 1800 torr (d) 2400 torr

127. If saturated vapours are compressed slowly (temperature remaining constant) to half the initial
volume, the vapour pressure will
(a) Become four times (b) Become doubled
(c) Remain unchanged (d) Become half

199
128. The partial pressure of hydrogen in a flask containing 2g of H 2 & 32g of SO2 is
1 1
(a) of total pressure (b) of total pressure
16 2
2 1
(c) of total pressure (d) of total pressure
3 8
129. At constant temperature 200 cm3 of N 2 at 720 mm and 400 cm3 of O 2 at 750 mm pressure are put
together in a one litre flask. The final pressure of mixture is
(a) 111 mm (b) 222 mm (c) 333 mm (d) 444 mm

130. Air contains 79% N 2 and 21% O 2 be volume. If the barometric pressure is 750 mm Hg partial
pressure of oxygen is
(a) 157.5 mm of Hg (b) 175.5 mm of Hg (c) 315.0 mm of Hg (d) None

131. Among the following gases which one has the lowest mean square speed at 25o C
(a) SO2 (b) N 2 (c) O 2 (d) Cl 2

132. 
The ratio of most probable velocity    average velocity v root mean square velocity  u  is
8
(a) 2: : 3 (b) 1: 2 : 3 (c) 2: 3: 8 (d) 1 : 8 : 3

133. At STP, the order of root mean square speed of molecules H2 , N 2 , O 2 and HBr is
(a) H2  N2  O2  HBr (b) HBr  O2  N 2  H2
(c) HBr  H 2  O2  N2 (d) N 2  O2  H2 HBr

134. The RMS speed at NTP of the gas can be calculated from the expression
 3P   3PV   3RT 
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d) All are correct
 d   Mw   Mw 

135. Which of the following expression does not give root mean square velocity
1 1 1 1
2
 3RT   3P  2  3P  2  PV  2
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
 Mw   DM w  D  Mw 
136. A gas X diffuses three times faster than another gas Y the ratio of their densities i.e., Dx : D y is
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/9 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/12

137. Four particles have speed 2, 3, 4 and 5 cm/s respectively. Their rms speed is
 27   54 
(a) 3.5 cm/s (b)   cm / s (c) 54cm / s (d)   cm / s
 2   2 

138. Kinetic energy of 1 mole of an ideal gas is?


3 3 RT 2R
(a) RT (b) KT (c) (d)
2 2 2 3

139. If a gas is expands at constant temperature then


(a) Number of gaseous molecule decreases (b) Kinetic energy of molecules decreases
(c) Kinetic energy remain same (d) Kinetic energy increase

200
140. Average kinetic energy of CO 2 at 27o C is E. The average kinetic of NO 2 at the same temperature
will be
(a) E (b) (c) (d)

141. At what temperature will be total kinetic energy (KE) of 0.30 mole of He be the same as the total
kinetic energy of 0.40 mole of Ar at 400 K
(a) 400 K (b) 373 K (c) 533 K (d) 300 K

142. When a real gas show behaviour same as ideal gas


(a) At low temperature and low pressure
(b) At high temperature and high pressure
(c) At low temperature and high pressure
(d) At high temperature and low pressure

143. The correct expression for the vander waal’s equation of states is
 a   an 2 
(a)  p  2 2   V  nb   nRT (b)  p  2   V  nb   nRT
 nV   V 
 an 2   an 2 
(c)  p  2   V  b   nRT (d)  p  2   V  nb   nRT
 V   V 

144. The term that accounts for intermolecular force in van der Waal’s equation for non ideal gas is
 a  1
(a) RT (b) V  b (c)  P  2  (d)  RT 
 V 

145. Pressure of real gas is less than the pressure of ideal gas because
(a) Number of collisions increases
(b) Difinite shape of molecule
(c) Kinetic energy of molecule increases
(d) Inter molecular forces

146. Which gas can be easily liquefied? Given ‘a’ for NH3  4.17, CO2  3.59,SO2  6.71, Cl 2  6.49
(a) NH3 (b) Cl 2 (c) SO2 (d) CO 2

147. At relatively high pressure, van der waal’s equation reduces to


a a
(a) PV  RT (b) PV  RT  (c) PV  RT  Pb (d) PV  RT  2
V V
148. The vapour density of a gas is 35.5. The volume occupied by 3.55g of the gas at N.T.P. is
(a) 1.12 litres (b) 11.2 litres (c) 22.4 litres (d) 44.8 litres

149. One mole of a gas refers to


(a) The number of molecules in one litre of gas
(b) The number of molecules in one gram litre of gas
12
(c) The number of molecules contained in 12 grams of C
(d) The number of molecules in 22.4 litres of a gas

150. The vapour density of pure ozone would be


(a) 48 (b) 32 (c) 24 (d) 16

151. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by11.2 g of this gat at N.T.P. g of this gas
at N.T.P. is
(a) 22.4 litres (b) 11.2 litres (c) 1 litre (d) 2.24 litres

201
152. In the equation PV  nRT which one can not be numerically equal to R
(a) 8.31 107 ergs K 1mol1 (b) 8.31107 dynes Cm K 1 mol1
(c) 8.31JK 1 mol1 (d) 8.31L atm K 1 mol1

153. If P.V.T represents pressure, volume and temperature of the gas, the correct representation of
Boyle’s law is
1
(a) V (P is constant) (b) PV  RT
P
1
(c) V (at constant T) (d) PV  nRT
P

154. The density of Neon will be highest at


(a) STP (b) 0 o C, 2 atm (c) 273o C, 1 atm (d) 273o C, 2 atm

155. A sample of a given mass of gas at a constant temperature occupies 95 cm3 under a pressure of
9.962 104 Nm3 . At the sane temperature its volume at a pressure of 10.13 104 Nm2 is
(a) 190 cm3 (b) 93.42 cm3 (c) 46.5 cm3 (d) 47.5 cm3

156. One time of a gas weighs 2g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is mase 0.75 atm at which
of the following temperatures will one litre of the same gas, weigh one gram?
(a) 450 K (b) 600 K (c) 800 K (d) 900 K

157. The density of a gas at 27 o C and 1 atm is d. pressure remaining constant, at which of the following
temperatures will its density become 0.75 d?
(a) 20o C (b) 30 o C (c) 400 K (d) 300 K

158. Select one correct statement. In the gas equation: PV  nRT


(a) n is the number of molecules of a gas
(b) n moles of the gas have a volume V
(c) V denotes volume of one mole of the gas
(d) p is the pressure of the gas when only one mole of gas is present

159. Two separate bulbs contain ideal gases A and B. The density of A is twice as that of gas B. The
molecular mass of gas A is half as that of B. If two gases are at same temperature, the ratio of the
pressure of A to that of B is
(a) 2 (b) 1/2 (c) 4 (d) 1/4

160. The density of methane at 2.0 atmosphere pressure at 27 o C is


(a) 0.13gL1 (b) 0.26gL1 (c) 1.30gL1 (d) 26.0 gL1

161. The number of moles of H 2 in 0.224 L of hydrogen gas at STP (273 K, 1 atm) assuming ideal gas
behavour is
(a) 1 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.001

162. The pressure of 1 moles of ideal gas at 546 K having volume 44.8 L is
(a) 2 atm (b) 3 atm (c) 4 atm (d) 1 atm

163. If the volume of 1 moles of an ideal gas at 540 K is 44.8 litre then its pressure will be
(a) 1 atmosphere (b) 2 atmosphere (c) 3 atmosphere (d) 4 atmosphere

202
164. Densities of two gases are in the ratio 1:2 and their temperature are in the ration 2:1 then the ratio of
their respective pressure is
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 4:1

165. An ideal gas will have maximum density when


(a) P  0.5 atm, T  600 K (b) P  2 atm, T  150 K
(c) P  1atm, T  300 K (d) P  1atm, T  500 K

166. The following graph illustrates

(a) Dalton’s Law (b) Charles Law (c) Boyles Law (d) Gay Lussac Law

167. 4.4 g of gas at STP occuples a volume of 2.24 litre the gas can be
(a) O2 (b) CO (c) NO 2 (d) CO 2

168. For an ideal gas number of moles per lit in terms of its pressure P gas constant R and temperature T
is
PT P RT
(a) (b) PRT (c) (d)
R RT P

169. The rate of diffusion of hydrogen is about


1
(a) that of Helium (b) 1.4 times that of Helium
2
(c) Twice that of H (d) Four times that of Helium

170. The relative rate of diffusion of a gas (Molecular weight = 98) as compared to hydrogen will be
(a) 1/7 (b) 1/5 (c) 1/4 (d) 1

171. The relative rate of diffusion of a gas (molecular weight = 128) as compared to oxygen is
(a) 2 times (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/2

172. Since the atomic weights of carbon, nitrogen and oxygen are 12, 14 and 16 respectively, among the
following pairs of gases, the pair that will diffuse at the same rate is
(a) Carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide (b) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen peroxide
(c) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide (d) Carbon dioxide and nitric oxide

173. 50 mL of a gas A diffuse through a membrane in the same time as for the diffusion of 40 mL of a gas
B under identical pressure temperature conditions. If the Molecular weight of A = 64, that of B
would be
(a) 100 (b) 250 (c) 200 (d) 80

174. If rate of diffusion of A is 5 times that of B, what will be the density ratio of A and B
(a) 1/25 (b) 1/5 (c) 25 (d) 5

175. 50 mL of hydrogen diffuses through a small hole from vessel in 20 minutes time. Time taken for 40
mL of oxygen of diffuse out diffuse out under similar conditions will be
(a) 12 min (b) 64 min (c) 8 min (d) 32 min

203
176. The densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1:16. The ratio of their rates of diffusion is
(a) 16:1 (b) 4:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:16

177. The rate of diffusion of a gas having weight just double of nitrogen gas is 56 mL per second the ratio
if diffusion of nitrogen gas will be
(a) 79.19 mL s 1 (b) 112 mL ss 1 (c) 56 mL s 1 (d) 90 mL s 1

178. Under identical conditions of temperature and pressure the ratio of the rates of effusion of O2 and
CO 2 gases is given by
rate of effusion of oxygen rate of effusion of oxygen
(a)  0.87 (b)  7.17
rate of effusion of CO2 rate of effusion of CO2
rate of effusion of oxygen rate of effusion of oxygen
(c)  8.7 (d)  0.117
rate of effusion of CO2 rate of effusion of CO2

179. The total pressure exerted by a number nonreacting gases is equal to the sum of partial pressure of
the gases under the same conditions is known as
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law (c) Avogadro’s law (d) Dalton’s law

180. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 25o C . The fraction of total
pressure exerted by oxygen is
1 273
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 2/3 (d) 
3 298
181. Equal masses of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25o C . The fraction of
the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
1 8 1 16
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 9 9 17
182. 3.2 g of oxygen (Atomic weight = 16) and 0.2 g of hydrogen (Atomic weight = 1) are placed in a
1.12 L flask at 0o C . The total pressure of the gas mixture will be
(a) 1 atm (b) 4 atm (c) 3 atm (d) 2 atm

183. According to kinetic theory of gases there are


(a) Intermolecular attractions
(b) Molecules which have considerable volume
(c) No intermolecular forced of attraction
(d) The velocity of molecules decreases of each collosion

184. According to kinetic theory of gases


(a) The pressure exerted by a gas is proportional to mean square velocity of the molecules
(b) The pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the root mean square velocity of the molecules
(c) The root mean square velocity is inversely proportional to the temperature
(d) The mean translational kinetic energy of the molecule is directly proportional to the absolute
temperature

185. The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27 o C is 0.3 ms 1 . The average velocity at 927 o C
will be
(a) 0.6 ms 1 (b) 0.3 ms 1 (c) 0.9 ms 1 (d) 3.0 ms 1

186. The temperature of the gas is raised from 27 o C to 927 o C , the root mean square velocity is
927
(a) times the earlier value (b) Same as before
27
(c) Halved (d) Doubled

204
187. The rms velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the rms velocity if nitrogen. It T is the temperature of the
gas
(a) T  H 2   T  N 2  (b) T  H 2   T  N 2  (c) T  H 2   T  N 2  (d) T  H 2   7T  N 2 

188. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at constant pressure varies with density (d) as
1
(a) d 2 (b) d (c) d (d)
d

189. Density ratio of O2 and H 2 is 16:1. The ratio of their rms velocities will be
(a) 4:1 (b) 1:16 (c) 1:4 (d) 16:1

190. The rms velocity of CO 2 at a temperature T(in Kelvin) is x cm s 1 . At what temperature (in kelvin)
the rms velocity of nitrous oxide would be 4x cm s 1
(a) 16 T (b) 2T (c) 4T (d) 32T

191. If the average velocity of N 2 molecules is 0.3 ms 1 at 27 o C , then the velocity of 0.6 ms 1 will take
place at
(a) 273 K (b) 927 K (c) 1000 K (d) 1200 K

192. Which of the following has maximum root mean square velocity at the same temperature?
(a) SO2 (b) CO 2 (c) O2 (d) H 2

193. The kinetic theory of gases predicts that total kinetic energy of a gaseous assembly depends on:
(a) Pressure of the gas (b) Temperature of the gas
(c) Volume of the gas (d) Pressure, temperature and volume of the gas

194. If a gas expands at constant temperature


(a) The pressure decreases
(b) The kinetic energy of the molecules remains the same
(c) The kinetic energy of the molecules decreases
(d) The number of molecules of the increases

195. The total kinetic energy of an ideal monoatomic gas at 27 o C is


(a) 900 cal (b) 1800 cal (c) 300 cal (d) None

196. Which out of the following statements is false?


(a) Avogadro number  6.02  1021
(b) The relationship between average velocity   and root mean square velocity u  is
  0.9213u
(c) The mean kinetic energy of an ideal gas is independent of the pressure of the gas
1
 3RT  2
(d) The root mean square velocity of the gas can be calculated by the formula  
 Mw 
197. The internal energy of one mole of ideal gas is
3 1 1 3
(a) RT (b) KT (c) RT (d) KT
2 2 2 2

198. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI units at 25o C will be
(a) 6.17  10 21 kJ (b) 6.17  10 21 J (c) 6.17  10 20 J (d) 7.16  10 20 J

205
199. A real gas most closely approached the behavior of an ideal gas at
(a) 15 atm and 200 K (b) 1 atm and 273 K (c) 0.5 atm and 500 K (d) 15 atm and 500 K

200. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is


(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4

201. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at STP therefore


(a) Vm  22.4 lit (b) Vm  22.4lit (c) Vm  22.4 lit (d) Vm  44.8lit

202. The values of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for the gases O2 , N 2 , NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390,
1.170 and 2.253 L2 atm mol2 respectively. The gas which can most easily be liquefied is:
(a) O2 (b) N 2 (c) NH3 (d) CH4

203. Van der waall’s gas, act as idea gas at which conditions
(a) High temperature, Low pressure (b) Low temperature, High pressure
(c) High temperature, high pressire (d) Low temperature, low pressure

QUESTION ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMS

204. Fixed mass of an ideal gas a volume of 800 cm4 under certain conditions. The pressure (in kPa) and
temperature (in K) are both doubled. What is the volume of the gas after these changes with other
condition remaining the same?
(a) 200 cm3 (b) 800 cm3 (c) 1600 cm3 (d) 3200 cm3

205. What amount of oxygen, O2 , (in moles) contains 1.8 1022 molecules?
(a) 0.0030 (b) 0.030 (c) 0.30 (d) 3.0
206. When a compressed gas is allowed to expand through a small office effect is caused if
(a) The temperature of the gas is less than the inversion temperature  T1 
(b) The temperature of the gas is greater than the inversion temperature  T2 
(c) The temperature of the gas is equal to the critical temperature.
(d) The temperature of the gas is 273 K

207. If the product of the gas constant R and NTP temperature (in Kelvin) is 22.4. The comprehensibility
factor of the gas at 1 atmospheric pressure is
(a) Greater than one (b) One (c) Less than one (d) Zero

208. The fragrance of burning incense stick spreads all around due to
(a) The sublimation of incense stick
(b) The vapourization of incense stick
(c) The sublimation of fragrance matter into the air
(d) The diffusion of its smoke into the air

209. If the pressure of a given mass of a gas is reduced to half and temperature is doubled simultaneously,
the volume will be
(a) The same as before (b) Twice as before
(c) Four times as before (d) One fourth as before

210. 0.5755 of g of a compound containing sulphur and fluorine only, has a volume of 255.0 mL at 288.0
K and 50.01 kPa. What is the molecular formula of this compound?
(a) S2 F2 (b) SF2 (c) SF4 (d) SF6

206
Answer key

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (b ) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (c)
101. (c) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (b)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (d) 115. (c) 116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (a) 119. (d) 120. (a)
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (b) 127. (c) 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (a)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (d) 135. (b) 136. (b) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (a)
141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (c) 145. (d) 146. (c) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (d) 150. (c)
151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (c) 154. (b) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (c) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (c)
161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (a) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (a)
171. (a) 172. (d) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (b) 176. (b) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (b) 182. (b) 183. (c) 184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (d) 187. (c) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (a)
191. (d) 192. (d) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (a) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (b) 199. (c) 200. (b)
201. (b) 202. (c) 203. (a) 204. (b) 205. (b) 206. (a) 207. (b) 208. (d) 209. (c) 210. (c)

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PERIODIC PROPERTIES IJSO

1. Evolution of Modern Periodic Table


a) Dobereiner's Triads, 1829: Although atomic weights were not available for all elements, John
Wolfgang Dobereiner in 1829 tried to classify the elements with similar properties in the groups of
three elements (Triads). He could succeed in making only a few triads. In the triads of elements the
atomic weight of the middle element was the arithmetic mean of the atomic weights of the other two.
Some of the triads are as under.

Li Na K Ca Sr Ba

7 23 39 40 88 137

P As Sb Cl Br I

31 75 120 35.5 80 123

 In some of triads the at.wt. of all the three elements were approximately same.

b) Telluric Helix: It was in 1862, that a periodic classification of the elements was developed that
approached the idea we have today. At that time A.E. de Chancourtois,a professor of Geology at
the Ecole des Mines in Paris presented an account of his telluric helix in which he indicated the
relative properties of elements and their atomic weights.

He used a vertical cylinder with 16 equidistant lines on its surface, the lines lying parallel to the
axes. Then he drew a helix at 45 degree to the axis and arranged the elements on the spiral in the
order of their increasing atomic weights. In this manner, elements that differed from each other in
atomic weight by 16 or multiples of 16 fell very nearly on the same vertical line. In addition to the 16
vertical lines, de Chancourtois felt that other connecting lines could be drawn, and that all elements
lying on such lines were related in some manner.

c) Newland’s Octet Law, 1864: Very shortly after the discovery of telluric helix. John Alexander Reina
Newland in England made the first attempt to correlate the chemical properties of the elements with
their atomic weights. If the elements are arranged in order of their increasing atomic weights, every
eighth element had similar properties to first one like the first and eighth note in music. For example,

sa re ga ma pa dha ni

Li Be B C N O F

Na Mg Al Si P S Cl

K Ca Cr Ti Mn Fe

The system worked quite well for the lighter elements. For example, H, F and Cl show similar
properties and Li, Na and K exhibit same characteristics. The system, however, fails in the case of
heavier elements as manganese has been placed along with nitrogen and phosphorus or iron has
been placed along with oxygen and sulphur i.e. dissimilar elements have been grouped which is
against the aim of classification. Also note that no space was left for the elements which were
unknown at that time and many elements were provided wrong positions on account of wrong
values of atomic masses in this classification.

 Can you guess whether noble gases were discovered by that time?
 All the elements could not be classified on this basis.

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PERIODIC PROPERTIES IJSO

d) Mendeleev’s Periodic law: In spite of the importance of the earlier contributions the major portion
of the credit for the development of the periodic table must go to the Russian Chemist,
DmitriiIvanovich Mendeleev, who proposed

i) The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights.

ii) If the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic weights, after a regular
interval elements with similar properties are repeated.

2. Mendeleev's Periodic Table


The table is divided into nine vertical columns called groups and seven horizontal rows called periods.

2.1 Characteristics of Periods

i) First period is called shortest period and contains only two elements. Second and third periods are
called short periods containing eight elements each. Fourth and fifth periods are long periods
containing eighteen elements each. Sixth period is longest period with thirty-two elements. Seventh
period is an incomplete period containing nineteen elements. Numbers 2, 8, 18, 32 are called magic
numbers.

ii) Lanthanide and actinide series containing 14 elements each are placed separately under the main
periodic table. These are related to sixth and seventh periods of group III respectively.

iii) Elements of third period from sodium (Na) to Chlorine (Cl) are called representative or typical
elements.

iv) Valency of an element in a period increases from 1 to 7 with respect to oxygen.

Na2O MgO Al2O3 SiO2 P2O5 SO3 Cl2O7


1 2 3 4 5 6 7

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v) From left to right in a period generally

a) Atomic weight, effective nuclear charge, ionization potential, electronegativity and electron
affinity of an element increases.

b) Atomic radius, electropositive character and metallic character of an element decreases.

2.2 Characteristics of groups

i) Mendeleev's periodic table contains nine groups. These are represented by Roman numerals I, II,
III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII and zero. Groups I to VII are divided into two subgroups A and B, Group VIII
consists of three sets, each one containing three elements.
ii) Inert gases are present in zero group. These were not discovered till that time.
iii) The valency of an element in a group is equal to the group number.
iv) There is no resemblance in the elements of subgroups A and B of same group, except valency.
v) The elements of the groups, which resemble with typical elements are called normal elements. For
example IA, IIA, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA group elements are normal elements

vi) Those elements of the groups, which do not resemble with typical elements are called transition
elements. For example- IB, IIB, IIIB, IVB, VB, VIB, VIIB, and VIII group elements are transition
elements.
vii) Hydrogen can be placed in both IA and VIIA groups.
viii) In a group, from top to bottom in general
a) Atomic weight, atomic size, electropositive character and metallic character of an element
increases.
b) Ionization potential, electron affinity and electronegativity of an element decreases

2.3 Defects of Mendeleev's periodic table


i) Position of hydrogen is uncertain. It has been placed in IA and VIIA groups because of its
resemblance with both the groups.
ii) No separate positions were given to isotopes.
iii) It is not clear whether the lanthanides and actinides are related to IIA or IIIB group.
iv) Although there is no resemblance except valency of subgroups A and B, they have been put in the
same group.
v) Order of increasing atomic weights is not strictly followed in the arrangement of elements in the
periodic table. For e.g. – Co (At. Wt. = 58.9) is placed before Ni(At. Wt. = 58) and Ar (At. Wt. = 39.9)
before K (At. Wt. = 39).

3. Long form of Periodic Table or Moseley's Periodic Table


i) Moseley (1909) studied the frequency of X-rays produced by the bombardment of a strong beam of
 
electrons on a metal target. He found that the square root of the frequency of X-rays  is directly
proportional to the total nuclear charge (Z) of metal. The relation between them was found to be

  a Z  b 

where a and b are constants. Nuclear charge of metal is equal to the atomic number. So Moseley
related the properties of elements with their atomic number and gave the new periodic law.

ii) Moseley's Periodic Law or Modern Periodic Law: Physical and chemical properties of elements are
the periodic functions of their atomic number. If the elements are arranged in order of their
increasing atomic number, after a regular interval, element with similar properties are repeated.

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3.1 Long form of the Periodic Table and Electronic Configuration of elements
Many different forms of a periodic classification of the elements have appeared since the 1871 table by
Mendeleev. Each table was designed to point up the various trends and relationship, which its author
considered most significant. From the literally hundreds of tables which have been proposed, perhaps the
most popular and easily reproduced periodic table is the conventional extended or long form, which is
shown in table.

i) Each period starts with an alkali metal whose outermost electronic configuration is ns1.

ii) Each period ends with a noble gas of outermost electronic configuration ns2np6 except He. The
electronic configuration of He is 1s2.

iii) The number of elements in a period is equal to the number of necessary electrons to acquire ns2np6
configuration in the outermost shell of first element (alkali metal) of the period. First period contains
two elements.

v) The number of elements in each period may be determined by the number of electrons in a stable
configuration as under
Stable electronic Total elements in the
Periods
configuration period
2
First 1s 2
2 6
Second 2s 2p 8
2 6
Third 3s 3p 8
Fourth 4s23d104p6 18
Fifth 5s24d105p6 18
2 14 10 6
Sixth 6s 4f 5d 6p 32
Seventh 7s25f146d107p6 32

3.2 Electronic basis for the periodic classification

With a better understanding of the part that the electron plays great role in the properties of the elements, a
corresponding understanding of the periodic system came about.

On the basis of electronic configuration, the elements may be divided into four groups.
i) s-Block elements
a) These are present in the left part of the periodic table.
b) These are group IA and IIA elements.
c) In these elements last electron is filled in the s subshell.
d) Electronic configuration of valence shell is ns1-2 (n = 1 to 7).
ii) p-block elements
a) These are present in right part of the periodic table.
b) These constitute the groups IIIA to VIIA and zero group i.e. group 13 to 18 of the periodic table.
c) The last electron is filled in p subshell of valence shell.
d) The electronic configuration of valence shell is ns2np1-6 (n = 2 to 7).
e) ns2np6is stable noble gas configuration. The electronic configuration of He 1s2.
f) Prior to noble gas group, there are two chemically important groups of non-metals.

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These are halogens (group 17) and chalcogens (group 16).

iii) d-Block elements


a) These are present in the middle part of the periodic table (between s & p block elements.
b) These constitute IIIB to VIIB, VIII, IB and IIB i.e, 3 to 12 groups of the periodic table.
c) All are metals.
d) The last electrons fill in (n – 1)d subshell.
e) The outermost electronic configuration is  n  1 d110 ns 0,1,2 (n = 4 to 7).

f) There are three series of d-block elements as under:


3d series – Sc(21) to Zn (30)
4d series – Y (39) to Cd (48)
5d series – La (57), Hf (72) to Hg (80)
iv) -Block elements

a) These are placed separately below the main periodic table.


b) These are mainly related to IIIB i.e. group 3 of the periodic table.
c) There are two series of -block elements as under:
4 series – Lanthanides – 14 Elements from Ce (58) to Lu (71)
5 series – Actinides – 14 Elements from Th (90) to Lr (103)
d) The last electron fills in (n – 2)  subshell.
e) Their outermost electronic configuration is (n-2)1-14 (n-1)s2 (n-1)p6 (n-1)d0-1ns2
(n = 6 and 7).

3.3 Nomenclature of the Elements with atomic number > 100 (IUPAC)
According to IUPAC, elements with atomic number > 100 are represented by three letter symbols.
 These symbols are based on first letter of numbers from 0 to 9. The names of these number are
derived from Greek and Latin languages.
 The latin words for various digits of the atomic number are written together in the order of which
makes the atomic number and suffix ‘ium’ is added at the end. In case of bi and tri one ‘i’ is
omitted.
Digit Name Abbreviation
0 Nil n
1 Un u
2 Bi b
3 Tri t
4 Quad q
5 Pent p
6 Hex h
7 Sept s
8 Oct o
9 Enn e

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Nomenclature of elements
Atomic Name Symbol IUPAC Official IUPAC
Name Symbol
101 Unnilunium Unu Mendelevium Md
102 Unnilbium Unb Nobelium No
103 Unniltrium Unt Lawrencium Lr
104 Unnilquadium Unq Rutherfordium Rf
105 Unnilpentium Unp Dubnium Db
106 Unnilhexium Unh Seaborgium Sg
107 Unnilseptium Uns Bohrium Bh
108 Unniloctium Uno Hassnium Hs
109 Unnilennium Une Meitnerium Mt
110 Unnnillium Uun Darmstadtium Ds
111 Unununnium Uuu Rontgenium Rg
112 Ununbium Uub Copernicium Cn
113 Ununtrium Uut Nihonium Nh
114 Ununquadium Uuq Flerovium Fl
115 Ununpentium Uup Moscovium Mc
116 Ununhexium Uuh Livermorium Lv
117 Ununseptium Uus Tennessine Ts
118 Ununoctium Uuo Oganesson Og

3.4 Prediction Of Period, Group And Block:

 Period of an element corresponds to the principal quantum number of the valence shell
 The block of an element corresponds to the type of subshell which receives the last electron
 The group is predicted from the number of electrons in the valence shell or/and penultimate shell as
follows.
(a) For s-block elements
Group number = the no. of valence electrons
(b) For p-block elements
Group number = 10+no. of valence electrons
(c) For d-block elements
Group number =no. of electrons in (n-1) d sub shell + no. of electrons in valence shell.

3.5 Diagonal Relationship:-

Some elements of certain groups of 2nd period resemble much in properties with the elements of
third period of next group i.e. elements of second and third period are diagonally related in
properties. This phenomenon is known as diagonal relationship.
2 nd period Li Be B C

3rd period Na Mg Al Si
Diagonal relationship arises because of
(i) similar size of atom and ions
0 0 0 0
( Li  1.23 A& Mg  1.36 A; Li   0.60 A& Mg 2   0.65 A )
(ii) similar polarizing powers (charge to radius ratio)
(iii) similarity in electronegativity values
( Li  1.0 & Mg  1.2; Be  1.5 & Al  1.5 )

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4. The Types of Elements


Using electronic configuration as the criterion, we ordinarily recognize four general type of elements; the
inert gas elements, the representative elements, the transition elements, and the inner transition elements.
The classification of the elements into these groups is dependent on the extent to which the s, p, d and f
orbitals are filled.

i) Inert gases

a) In the atoms of these elements, the s and p subshells of the outer most shell are completely
filled. The outermost electronic configuration is ns2np6.

b) Helium is also inert gas but its electronic configuration is 1s2.

c) Because of stable configuration, these elements do not showchemical activity under


normal conditions.

d) These are all gases under normal conditions and thus, termed as inert gases.

ii) Representative or Normal Elements

a) Outermost shell of these elements is incomplete. The number of electrons in the outermost shell
is less than eight. The configuration of the outermost shell varies from ns1 to ns2np5.

b) Inner shells are complete.

c) s and p-block elements except inert gases are called normal or representative elements. These
consist of some metals, all non-metals and metalloids.

iii) Transition Elements

a) Last two shells of these elements namely outermost and penultimate shells are incomplete.

b) The last shell contains one or two electrons and the penultimate shell may contain more than
eight up to eighteen electrons.

c) Their outermost electronic configuration is similar to d-block elements i.e. (n-1)d1-10 ns0 or1 or 2.

d) According to latest definition of transition elements those elements, which have partly filled d-
orbitals in neutral state or in any stable oxidation state, are called transition elements. According
to this definition Zn, Cd and Hg (IIB group) are d-block elements but not transition elements
because these elements have d10 configuration in neutral as well as in stable +2 oxidation
state.

e) Because of the extra stability, which is associated with empty, half-filled, and filled subshells,
there are some apparent anomalies in electronic arrangements in the transition series. This
empirical rule is illustrated by the chromium and copper configuration in the first d series of
elements:

Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn

3d 1 2 3 5 5 6 7 8 10 10

4s 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 2

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v) Inner Transition Elements

a) In these elements last three shells i.e. last, penultimate and pre-penultimate shells are
incomplete.

b) There are two series of elements, (i) Lanthanides or rare-earths from Ce (58) to Lu (71) (ii)
Actinides from Th (90) to Lr (103)

c) The last shell contains two electrons. Penultimate shell may contain eight or nine electrons and
pre-penultimate shell contains more than 18 up to32 electrons.

d) Their outermost electronic configuration is similar to -block element


i.e. (n-2)1-14(n-1)s2 (n-1)p6 (n-1)d0-1ns2

v) Elements of the seventh period after atomic number 93 (i.e. actinides) are synthetic elements and
are called transuranium elements.

5. Periodic Properties
From the discussion of the periodic table, it is evident that those properties, which depend upon the
electron configuration of an atom, will vary periodically with atomic number.The real meaning of the word
periodic in any classification of elements is that when the elements are arranged in order of their increasing
atomic numbers in the same period or a group, there is a gradual change, (i.e. increase or decrease) in a
particular property. Some of the more common properties, which depend upon electronic configurations,
are:

5.1 Shielding Effect


In a multielectron atom, the electrons of the valency shell (outermost shell) are attracted towards the
nucleus and also these electrons are repelled by the electrons present in the inner shells.On account of
this, the actual force of attraction between the nucleus and the valency electrons is somewhat decreased
by the repulsive forces acting in opposite direction.This decrease in the force of attraction exerted by
the nucleus on the valency electrons due to the presence of electrons in the inner shells, is called
screening effect or shielding effect.The magnitude of the screening effect depends upon the number of
inner electrons i.e. higher the number of inner electrons, greater shall be the value of screening effect. The
screening effect constant is represented by the symbol . The magnitude of ‘’ is determined by the
Slater’s rules. The contribution of inner electrons to the magnitude of ‘’ is calculated in the following
ways.

For ns or np orbital Electrons

(i) Write the electronic configuration of the element in the following order and group them as,

(1s), (2s 2p), (3s 3p), (3d), (4s 4p), (4d), (4f), (5s 5p), (5d), (5f), (6s 6p), etc.

(ii) Electrons to the right of the (ns, np) group are not effective in shielding the ns or np

electrons and contribute nothing to .

(iii)All other electrons in the (ns, np) group contribute to the extent of 0.35 each to the

Screening constant (except for 1s for which the value is 0.30)

(iv) All the electrons in the (n-1)th shell contribute 0.85 each to the screening constant.

(v) All the electrons in the (n-2)th shell or lower contribute 1.0 each to the screening constant.

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For d- or f- electron,

rules (i) to (iii) remain the same but rules (iv) and (v) get replaced by the rule (vi).

(vi) All the electrons in the groups lying left to (nd), (nf) group contribute 1.0 each to the screening
effect.

 per electron of the orbit


Electron in orbitals  N (n – 1) (n – 2) or (n – 3), etc
(Shell) 
S or P orbital 0.35 0.85 1.00
d or f orbital 0.35 1.00 1.00

For is electron   0.3 for a He like atom which has 2 electrons

 Zeff = Z – 0.3 = 1.7

For hydrogen atom,   0  Zeff = z

As we move left to right in a period table the value of Zeff increases by 0.65.

5.2 Effective Nuclear Charge


Due to screening effect the valency electron experiences less attraction towards nucleus. This brings
decrease in the nuclear charge (Z) actually present on the nucleus. The reduced nuclear charge is termed
effective nuclear charge and is represented by Z*. It is related to actual nuclear charge (Z) by the following
formula:

Z* = (Z - ), where  is screening constant

It is observed that magnitude of effective nuclear charge increases in a period when we move from left to
right.

2nd Period Li Be B C N O F Ne

Z 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

 1.7 2.05 2.42 2.75 3.1 3.45 3.8 4.15

Z* = Z -  1.3 1.95 2.6 3.25 3.9 4.55 5.2 5.85

In a subgroup of normal elements the magnitude of effective nuclear charge remains almost the same.

Alkali group Li Na K Rb Cs

Z 3 11 19 37 55

 1.7 8.8 16.8 34.8 52.8

Z* = Z -  1.3 2.2 2.2 2.2 2.2

5.3 Atomic Radius


i) The radius of an atom may be taken as the distance between atomic nucleus and the outermost
shell containing electrons of the atom.

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ii) According to the Heisenberg's uncertainty principle the position of a moving electron can not be
accurately determined. So the distance between the nucleus and the outermost electron is
uncertain.

iii) Atomic radius can be determined indirectly from the inter-nuclear distance between the two atoms in
a gaseous diatomic molecule. This inter-nuclear distance between the two atoms is called bond
length.

iv) The inter-nuclear distance between the two atoms can be measured by X – ray diffraction or
spectroscopic studies.
v) Covalent radius – One half of the distance between the nuclei (inter-nuclear distance) of two
covalently bonded atoms in a homodiatomic molecule is called the covalent radius of that atom. The
covalent bond must be single covalent bond. The covalent radius (rA) of atom A in a molecule A2
may be given as:
d
rA  A  A
2
i.e. the distance between nuclei of two single covalently bonded atoms in a homodiatomic molecule
is equal to the sum of covalent radii of both the atoms.
dA-A = rA+ rA

5.4 Metallic Radius


Metal atoms are assumed to be closely packed spheres in the metallic crystal. These metal atom spheres
are considered to touch one another in the crystal. One half of the internuclear distance between the two
closest metal atoms in the metallic crystal is called metallic radius.
Metallic radius > Covalent radius
For example – Metallic radius and covalent radius of potassium are 2.3 Å and 2.03Å respectively.

5.5 Van der Waal's Radius or Collision radius


The molecules of non-metal atoms are generally gases. On cooling, the gaseous state changes to solid
state.
In the solid state, the non-metallic elements usually exist as aggregations of molecules and are held
together by Van der Waal forces. One half of the distance between the nuclei of two adjacent atoms
belonging to two neighbouring molecules of a compound in the solid state is called Van der Waal's
radius.
It may also be defined as half of the inter nuclear distance of two non-bonded neighbouring atoms of two
adjacent molecules.
bonded non bonded
internuclear 1.99Å 3.60Å internuclear
distance
distance

1.8Å
covalent values 0.99Å
Vander Waal's radius

Vander Waal's radius > Metallic radius> Covalent radius

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A A
B B

(x)

van der waals


radii of B = x/2

B A A B

y / 2 = vander
y
waals radii of A
The Vander Waal's radius and Covalent radius of Chlorine atom are 1.80Å and 0.99Å respectively

5.6 Ionic Radius

A neutral atom changes to a cation by the loss of one or more electrons and to an anion by the gain of one
or more electrons. The number of charge on cation and anion is equal to the number of electrons lost or
gained respectively. The ionic radii of the ions present in an ionic crystal may be calculated from the inter-
nuclear distance between the two ions.

i)Radius of a Cation: Radius of a cation is invariably smaller than that of the corresponding neutral
atom
Na Na+
_
Number of e = 11 10
Number of p = 11 11
1s22s22p63s1 1s22s22p6
Reasons
a) The effective nuclear charge increases. For example in Na atom 11 electrons are attracted by
11 protons and in Na+,10 electrons are attracted by 11 protons. Thus in the formation of cation
number of electrons decreases and nuclear charge remains the same.
b) Generally the formation of cation results in the removal of the whole outer shell.

c) Interelectronic repulsion decreases. The interelectronic repulsion in Na is among 11e and in

Na+ among 10e .
ii) Radius of an anion: Radius of an anion is invariably bigger than that of the corresponding atom.
Cl Cl–


Number of e = 17 18

Number of p = 17 17

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Reasons

a) The effective nuclear charge decrease in the formation of anion. Thus the electrostatic force of
attraction between the nucleus and the outer electrons decreases and the size of the anion
increases.

b) Interelectronic repulsion increases.

iii) Iso-electronic series: A series of atoms, ions and molecules in which each species contains same
number of electrons but different nuclear charge is called iso-electronic series
N3- O2- F– Ne Na+ Mg2+

Number of e 10 10 10 10 10 10
Number of p 7 8 9 10 11 12


a) Number of electrons is same.

b) Number of protons is increasing

c) So the effective nuclear charge is increasing and atomic size is decreasing. In an iso-electronic
series atomic size decreases with the increase of charge.

Some of the examples of iso-electronic series are as under

i) S 2, Cl- , K, Ca2 , Sc3


ii) SO2, NO3 ,

CO 23
iii) N2, CO, CN

iv) NH3, H3O+

Periodicity in atomic radius and ionic radius

1. For normal elements

a) In a period from left to right effective nuclear charge increases because the next electron fills in
the same shell. So the atomic size decreases. For example the covalent radii of second period
elements in Å are as follows –

Li Be B C N O F
1.23 0.89 0.80 0.77 0.74 0.73 0.72

b) In a group moving from top to bottom the number of shells increases. So the atomic size
increases. Although the effective nuclear charge increases but its effect is negligible in
comparison to the effect of increasing number of shells. For example the covalent radii of IA
group elements in Å are as follows –

Li Na K Rb Cs
1.23 1.57 2.03 2.16 2.35

2. For inert gases: The atomic radius of inert gas (zero group) is shown largest in a period because of
its Vander Waal's radius which is generally larger than the covalent radius. The Vander Waal's
radius of inert gases also increases in moving from top to bottom in a group.

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3. For transition elements: There are three series of transition elements –

3d – Sc (21) to Zn (30)

4d – Y (39) to Cd (48)

5d – La (57), Hf (72) to Hg (80)

a) From left to right in a period

i) The atomic size decreases due to the increase in effective nuclear charge.

ii) In transition elements, electrons are filled in the (n-1)d orbitals. These (n-1)d electrons
screen the ns electrons from the nucleus. So the force of attraction between the ns electrons
and the nucleus decreases.

This effect of (n-1)d electrons over ns electrons is called shielding effect or screening effect.
The atomic size increases due to shielding effect and balance the decrease in size due to
increase in nuclear charge to about 80%.

iii) Thus moving from left to right in a period, there is a very small decrease in size and it may
be considered that size almost remains the same.

iv) In the first transition series the atomic size slightly decreases from Sc to Mn because effect
of effective nuclear charge is stronger than the shielding effect. The atomic size from the Fe
to Ni almost remains the same because both the effects balance each other. The atomic size
from Cu to Zn slightly increases because shielding effect is more than effective nuclear
charge due to d10 structure of Cu and Zn. The atomic radii of the elements of 3d transition
series are as under.
Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn
1.44 1.32 1.22 1.18 1.17 1.17 1.16 1.15 1.17 1.25

4. Inner transition elements: As we move along the lanthanide series, there is a decrease in
atomic as well as ionic radius. The decrease in size is regular in ions but not so regular in
atoms. There is a significant drop in atomic size after III B group as we move from left to right in
periods 6 & 7. This is called lanthanide contraction. The metallic radii in Å are as under:
La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd
1.88 1.82 1.83 1.82 1.81 1.80 2.04 1.80
Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
1.78 1.77 1.76 1.75 1.74 1.94 1.73

There are two peaks one at Eu (63) and other at Yb (70). This is due to the difference in metallic
bonding. Except Eu and Yb other lanthanides contribute three electrons in metallic bond
formation. These two atoms contribute two electrons in the bond formation leaving behind half
filled and completely filled 4-orbitals respectively.

Cause of Lanthanide contraction – In lanthanides the additional electron enters into (n-2)
orbital. The mutual shielding effect of (n-2) electrons is very little because the shape of -
subshell is very much diffused. Thus the effective nuclear charge increases in comparison to the
mutual shielding effect of (n-2)  electrons. The outer electrons are attracted more by the
nucleus. Consequently the atomic and ionic radii decreases from La (57) to Lu (71).

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This type of contraction also occurs in actinides. The jump in contraction between the
consecutive elements in the actinides is greater than lanthanides. This is due to the lesser
shielding of 5-electrons which are therefore pulled more strongly by the nucleus.
In a group

i) The atomic radius of elements increases moving from first transition series (3d) to second transition
series (4d). This is due to the increase in number of shells with the increase in atomic number.
ii) The atomic radii of second (4d) and third (5d) transition series in a group is almost same except
Y(39) and La (57)

In third transition series, there are fourteen lanthanides in between La (57) of III B and Hf (72) of IV
B groups, so the atomic radius of Hf(72) decreases much due to lanthanide contraction in
lanthanides. The difference in the nuclear charge in the elements of a group in first and second
transition series is + 18 units while this difference in second and third transition series is + 32 units
except Y (39) La(57). Due to the increase of + 32 units in the nuclear charge there is a sizable
decrease in the atomic radius which balances the increase in size due to the increase in number of
shells.

So in a group moving from second to third transition series, the atomic radii of the elements almost
remain the same except IIIB. The difference is about 0.02Å.

Illustration 1: The radii of Ar is greater than the radii of chlorine

Solution: In chlorine, the radii means the atomic or covalent radii which is actually half the
intermolecular distance between 2 atoms whereas in Argon the radii means the
Vander Waal’s radii as Argon is not a diatomic molecule. Vander Waal’s radiiis
actually half the distance between adjacent molecule. So Vander Waal’s radii being
larger than atomic radii, Argon,has got a larger radii than chlorine.

Illustration 2: Beryllium(Be) and Aluminium(Al) are placed in different periods and groups but they
show the similar properties.

Solution: On moving across a period the charge on the ions increases and the size decreases,
causing the polarising power to increase. On moving down a group the size
increases and polarising power decreases. On moving diagonally i.e., from Be to Al
these two effects partly cancel each other and so there is no marked change in
properties.

5.7 Ionisation potential or Ionisation Energy

i) The amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron of the outermost shell
(i.e. the outermost electron) from one mole of an isolated gaseous atom of an element in its ground
state to produce a cation is known as ionisation energy of that element.

ii) Because ionisation energy is generally expressed in electron volts, so it is also known as ionisation
potential.

iii) Energy required for the removal of first, second and third electron from the gaseous atom is called
first, second and third ionisation energy respectively.

A(g)+I1 A(g)+ + e

A+(g)+I2 A(g)2+ + e

A(g)2+ + I3 A(g)3+ + e

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iv)The order of first, second and third ionisation energies may be given as I1<I2<I3

This is because second and third electron is removed from monopositive and dipositivecations respectively.
Effective nuclear charge increase with the increase of positive charge. So the attraction between the
nucleus and the outermost electron increases and more energy is required for the removal of electron.

1. Factors affecting ionisation potential


i) Atomic radius: The values of ionisation potential of an element decreases as its atomic radius
increases. This is because the electrostatic force of attraction between the nucleus and the
outermost electron decreases as the distance between them increases. So the energy required
for the removal of electron will comparatively be less
1
Ionisation potential 
Atomic radius

ii) Effective nuclear charge: The greater the effective charge on the nucleus of an atom, the more
difficult it would be to remove an electron from the atom because electrostatic force of attraction
between the nucleus and the outermost electron increases. So greater energy will be required to
remove the electron.
Ionisation potential  Effective nuclear charge (Zeff)

iii) Penetration effect of orbitals: The order of energy required to remove electron from s,p,d-
and-orbitals of a shell is s>p>d> because the distance of the electron from the nucleus
increases. For example – The value of ionisation potential of Be(Z=4, Is22s2) and Mg(Z=12,
1s22s22p63s2) are more than the I.P. of B (Z=5, 1s22s22p1x) and Al (Z= 13, 1s22s22p63s23p1x)
because the penetration power of 2s and 3s electrons is more than 2p and 3p orbitals
respectively. More energy will be required to separate the electrons from 2s and 3s orbitals.

iv) Shielding or screening effect: The shielding or screening effect increases if the number of
electrons in the inner shells between the nucleus and the outermost electrons increases. This
results in decrease of force of attraction between the nucleus and the outermost electron and
lesser energy is required to separate the electron. Thus the value of I.P. decreases.

1
Ionisation potential 
Shielding effect

v) Stability of half-filled and fully-filled orbitals: According to Hund's rule the stability of half
filled or completely filled degenerate orbitals is comparatively high. So comparatively more
energy is required to separate the electron from such atoms.

For example

a) Removal of electron is comparatively difficult from the half filled configuration of N (Z=7, Is22s2
2p1xp1yp1z ).

b) The ionisation potential of inert gases is very high due to most stable s2p6 electronic
configurations.

2. Periodicity in ionisation potential

i) For normal elements: On moving from left to right in a period, value of ionisation potential of
elements increases because effective nuclear charge also increases.

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Exceptions

a) In a period, the ionization energy of IIA group elements is more than the elements of IIIA
because penetration power of s-orbitals electrons. The value of ionization energy of Be(1s22s2)

 2 2 1

is more than B 1s 2s 2p x because the penetration power of 2s-electrons of Be is more than
the 2px electrons of B.

b) In a period, the ionization energy of VA elements is more than the elements of VIA because the
half filled p3 configuration of VA elements is comparatively of higher stability. VIA group
elements (p4) have the tendency to acquire comparatively more stable (p3) configuration by the
loss of one electron. Ionization energy N(Is22s22p1xpy1pz1) O Is 2s 2pxpypz
2 2 2 1 1

Thus P>S, As>Se.

But the value of I.P. of Sb (VA) &Te (VIA) and Bi (VA) &Po(VIA) are according to general rule
i.e.

Sb (VA) <Te (VIA)

Bi (VA) < Po (VIA)

On moving from top to bottom in a group the value of I.P. decreases because the atomic size
increases.

Exceptions

a) In group IIIA the ionization potential of Al (13) is equal to the ionization potential of Ga(31).
Before Ga (31) the electrons are filled in 3d – orbitals of ten transition elements. These 3d orbital
electrons do not completely shield the 4p electron. So the increase of +18 units in nuclear
charge results in the greater increase of effective nuclear charge. Due to increase in nuclear
charge the I.P. increases which counter balance the decrease in I.P. due to the increase in
number of shells.

b) The values of I.P. of Tl (81) and Pb (82) of sixth period is more than the I.P. values of In (49)
and Sn (50) of same groups in period fifth. This is because of the electrons are filled in 4-
orbitals before Tl (81) and Pb (82) which do not completely shield the outer electrons. Thus
increase in + 32 units in nuclear charge results in the increase of ionisation potential values.

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ii) For transition elements: On moving from left to right in a transition series

a) As the atomic number increases the effective nuclear charge also increases. Hence the I.P.
increases.

b) The shielding effect of (n-1)d electrons over ns electrons increases with the addition of electron
in (n-1)d orbitals. Hence the I.P. decreases.

c) The increased values of I.P. due to the increase of effective nuclear charge almost balances the
decreased value of I.P. due to increase in shielding effect. There is a very small increase in the
values of I.P. or it may be said that I.P. almost remains the same.

d) In first transition series from Sc to Cr the value of I.P. increases because effect of increase in
effective nuclear charge is more than the shielding effect I.P. values of Fe, Co, Ni and Cu are
almost same. Due to d10s2 configuration of Zn, the first I.P. increases.

On moving from top to bottom in a group in transition series

a) In a group on moving from first to second transition series, the values of I.P. decreases because
atomic size increases.

b) In moving from second to third transition series the value of I.P. somewhat increases except IIIB
group [Y(39)  La(57)]. This is because of 14 electrons are filled in 4-orbitals of lanthanides
which do not shield the 5d electrons effectively. Thus the increase in +32 units in nuclear charge
results in the increase of I.P., on moving from left to right this effect decreases and becomes
negligible in the later part.

IONIZATION ENERGY DATA

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3. Applications of ionisation potential

i) Metallic or electropositive character of elements increases as the value of ionisation potential


decreases. So in a group moving from top to bottom metallic or electropositive character
increases because I.P. value decreases. In a period moving from left to right the values of I.P.
increases so metallic or electropositive character decreases. Non-metallic character increases.

ii) The relative reactivity of the metals increases with the decrease in I.P. values. The I.P. values of
IA and IIA metals are comparatively low. So they are comparatively more reactive. The I.P.
values of inert gases are very high. So they are almost unreactive.

In a group moving from top to bottom the reactivity of metal atoms increases because their I.P.
value decreases.

iii) The reducing power of elements increases as the values of I.P. decreases because tendency to
lose the electron increases. The reducing power increases going down a group because the I.P.
value decreases. Li is exception in IA group. The reducing power of Li is highest in its own
group. The order of reducing Power of IA elements is as under

Li > Cs >Rb> K > Na

iv) Determination of oxidation state or valency electrons of an element –

a) If the difference of two consecutive I.P.'s of an element is 16 eV or more, the lower oxidation
state is stable. For e.g. the difference of first and second I.P. of Na is 42.4 eV, which is, more
than 16 eV. So Na+ will be stable. It can also be explained from its electronic configuration

Na (11) = 1s22s22p63s1

Na+ = 1s22s22p6

Neutral Na atom has the tendency to acquire the stable s2p6 configuration by the loss of one
electron. Due to s2p6 configuration of Na+, the further separation of electron is difficult. So IA
group metals form mono-positive ions.

b) If the difference of two consecutive I.P.s. of an element is 11.0 eV or less, the higher
oxidation state is stable. For e.g. the difference of first and second I.P. of Mg is 7.4 eV which
is less than 11.0 eV. So Mg2+ will be stable. It can also be explained on the basis of its
electronic configuration.

The electronic configuration of Mg2+ is stable s2p6 configuration

Mg2+ = 1s22s22p6

So IIA group elements form dipositive ions.

c) The difference of first and third I.P. of Al is 12.8 eVwhich is more than 11eV. Therefore first
oxidation state of Al i.e. Al + must be stable. In gaseous state Al+ is stable. This is due to the
proportionate distribution of lattice energy and the difference of second and third I.P.s
9.6eV<11 eV.
Illustration 3: The first I.P. of nitrogen is greater than oxygen while the reverse is true for their
second I.P. values.
Solution: The first I.P corresponds to the removal of first electron. Since nitrogen is already half
filled,So more energy is required to remove the electron. But once the electron is
removed from oxygen it gains half-filled stability and therefore the 2nd I.P. becomes
high.

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Illustration 4: The ionisation energy of the coinage metals fall in the order Cu  Ag  Au.

Solution: In all the 3 cases an s-electron in the unpaired state is to be removed. In the case of
Cu a 4s electron is to be removed which is closer to the nucleus than the 5s electron
of Ag. So I.P. decreases from Cu to Ag. However from Ag to Au the 14 f electrons
are added which provide very poor shielding effect. The nuclear charge is thus
enhanced and therefore the outer electron of Au is more tightly held and so the IP is
high.

5.8 Electron affinity

i) The amount of energy released when an electron is added to the outermost shell of one mole of an
isolated gaseous atom in its lower energy state.

ii) Electron affinity just defined is actually first electron affinity since it corresponds to the addition of
one electron only. In the process of adding further electron, the second electron will be added to
gaseous anion against the electrostatic repulsion between the electron being added and the
gaseous anion. Sometimes energy instead of being released is supplied for the addition of an
electron to an anion.

A g   e   A g   E1

 2
A  g   e   Energy supplied  A  g 

1. Factors affecting the magnitude of electron affinity

i) Atomic size: In general electron affinity value decreases with the increasing atomic radius
because electrostatic force of attraction decreases between the electron being added and the
atomic nucleus due to increase of distance between them.

1
Electron affinity 
Atomic size

ii) Effective nuclear charge:Electron affinity value of the element increase as the effective nuclear
charge on the atomic nucleus increases because electrostatic force of attraction between the
electron being added and the nucleus increases. As the electrostatic force of attraction
increases, amount of energy released is more.

Electron affinity  Effective nuclear charge (Zeff)

iii) Screening or Shielding effect: Electron affinity value of the elements decreases with the
increasing shielding or screening effect. The shielding effect between the outer electrons and
the nucleus increases as the number of electrons increases in the inner shells.

1
Electron affinity 
Shielding effect

iv)Stability of half filled and completely filled orbitals: The stability of half filled and completely
filled degenerate orbitals of a sub shell is comparatively more, so it is difficult to add electron in
such orbitals and lesser energy is released on addition of electron hence the electron affinity
value will decrease.

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ELECTRON GAIN ENTHALPY

2. Periodicity in electron affinity

i) In general electron affinity value increases in moving from left to right in a period because
effective nuclear charge increases.

Exceptions
a) The electron affinity value of alkaline earth metals of IIA group is zero.
b) Electron affinity value of alkali metals of IA group is also approximately zero because these
elements have the tendency of losing the electron instead of gaining the electron.

c) Electron affinity values of nitrogen and phosphorous (VA) are lesser than the electron affinity
values of carbon and silicon respectively. It is due to the comparatively stable half filled
configuration (np3) of nitrogen and phosphorus and the tendency to acquire the stable np3
configuration by the gain of one electron in carbon and silicon (np2).

d) The theoretical value of the electron affinity of zero group inert gas elements is zero due to
stable s2p6 configuration.

ii) In a group moving from top to bottom the electron affinity value of elements decreases
because the atomic size increases

Exceptions

a) Electron affinity values of second period elements are smaller than the electron affinity
values of third period elements. This unexpected behaviour can be explained by the very
much high value of charge densities, of second period elements due to much smaller size.
The electron being added experiences comparatively more repulsion and the electron affinity
value decreases.

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b) The electron affinity of fluorine (Second period) is less than the electron affinity of chlorine
(third period). 2p-orbitals in fluorine are much more compact than 3p- orbitals of chlorine. So
the electron being added in 2p-orbitals experiences comparatively more repulsion and the
electron affinity value decreases.

5.9 Electronegativity

i) It may be defined as the tendency of an atom to attract shared pair of electrons towards itself in a
covalently bonded molecules.

ii) The numerical value of the electronegativity of an element depends upon its ionisation potential and
electron affinity values. Higher ionization potential and higher electron affinity values implies higher
electronegativity value.

1. Electronegativity scale: Some arbitrary scales for the quantitative measurement of


electronegativities are as under

i) Pauling's scale: Pauling related the resonance energy(AB) of a molecule AB with the
electronegativities of the atoms A and B. If xA and xB are the electronegativities of atoms A and
B respectively then

0.208  AB = xA – xB if xA>xB or AB = 23.06 (xA – xB)2

AB  BE AB  BEAA  BEBB

Where,

BE AB is bond energy of AB in kcal per mole.

BE AA is bond energy of AA in kcal per mole

BE BB is bond energy of BB in kcal per mole

Pauling assumed the electronegativity value of fluorine 4 and calculated the electronegativity values
of other elements from this value.

(ii) Mulliken's electronegativity: According to Mulliken, the electronegativity of an element is the


average value of its ionisation potential and electron affinity.

Electron affinity  Ionisation potential


Electro-negativity  (on Mullikan’s scale)
2

Electronaffinity  Ionisationpotential
 (on Pauling’s scale)
5.6

When both are expressed in electron volt per atom

Incase EA and IE data is in KJ/ mole

Then

Electron affinity  Ionisation potential


Electro-negativity  (on Pauling’s scale)
540

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(iii) Allerd – Rochow Electronegativity


On Pauling’s scale, the empirical relationship is
0.359Zeffective
  0.744 
r2
0
Where, r is covalent radius in A

2. Factors affecting the magnitude of electronegativity

i) Atomic radius: As the atomic radius of the element increases the electronegativity value
1
decrease. Electronegativity
Atomic radius

iii) Effective nuclear charge: The electronegativity value increases as the effective nuclear
charge on the atomic nucleus increases.

Electronegativity  Effective nuclear charge (Zeff)

iii) Oxidation state of the atom: The electronegativity value increases as the oxidation state (i.e.
the number of positive charge) of the atom increases.

iv) Hybridisation state of an atom in a molecule: (Reference : Chemical Bonding) If the s-


character in the hybridisation state of the atom increases electronegativity increases because s-
electrons are comparatively nearer to the nucleus. For example the electronegativity values of
C-atom in various hybridisation states are as under:

Hybridisation states sp3 sp2 sp


s-Character 25% 33.33% 50%
Electronegativity 2.48 2.75 3.25

s-character is increasing
So the electronegativity value is increasing

3. Periodicity in Electronegativity
i) In a period moving from left to right, the electronegativity increases due to the increase in
effective nuclear charge.
ii) In a period the electronegativity value of IA alkali metal is minimum and that of VIIA halogen is
maximum.
iii) In a group moving from top to bottom, the electronegativity decreases because atomic radius
increases.
iv) Theelectronegativity value of F is maximum and that of Cs is minimum in the periodic table.
v) On moving from second to third transition series in a group [except Y(39)  La (57)]
electronegativity increases due to the increase of +18 units in nuclear charge.
vi) The variation of electronegativity along any period or row of the periodic table may be understood
with reference to the following table:

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Electronegativity values of some elements in Pauling scale:

Electronegativity increases form left to right of the periodic table, while it decreases down any group.
These observations are consistent with other periodic properties of the atom. The alkali metals
possess very feeble attraction for electrons, as it is to be expected from their electronic
configurations. The halogens, on the other hand, have highest electronegativity in each row owing
to their ns2 np5 configuration. The decrease of the electronegativity down any vertical group in the
periodic table is consistent with the variation of effective nuclear charge.

4. Applications of electronegativity

i) Partial ionic character in covalent Bond: The ionic character of a covalent bond increases as
the electronegativity difference of bonded atoms increases. According to Haney and Smith if the
electronegativity difference of bonded atoms is x then percentage ionic character of the bond
= 16x+3.5x2
If the value of x is 2.1 then ionic character percentage is about 50. For example the order of
ionic character in H–X bond is as follows–
H–F>H–Cl>H–Br>H–I
Because the electronegativity difference of bonded atoms (x) decreases.

ii) Bond strength: If the electronegativity difference of covalently bonded atoms (x) increases,
the bond energy of the covalent bond also increases. For example – the order of the H–X bond
strength is –

H – F > H – Cl> H – Br > H – I

As the bond strength is decreasing the acid strength is increasing. So order of increasing acid
strength is

HF <HCl<HBr< HI

iii) Acidic and basic nature of oxides of normal elements in a period: The acidic nature of the
oxides of normal elements increases as we move from left to right in a period. In a period from
left to right the electronegativity of the elements increases. So the difference of the
electronegativities of oxygen and the elements (xO –xE) decreases. If the (xO – xE) values is

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about 2.3 or more then oxide will be basic. If (xO – xE) values is less than 2.3 the oxide will be
acidic. The oxides of the IIIA elements are amphoteric.

The order of acidic or basic nature of the oxides of third period elements may be given as under:

Na2O MgO SiO2 P2O5 SO3 Cl2O7


––––––
The value of xO – xE is decreasing
Basic nature is decreasing
Acidic nature is increasing
Some examples of amphoteric oxides are BeO, Al2O3, ZnO, GaO2, PbO, PbO2, SnO2.
iv)Metallic and non metallic properties of elements:

a) The metallic character decreases as the electronegativity of the element increases.

b) On moving from left to right in a period, the electronegativity of the elements increases. So
the metallic character decreases.

c) On moving down a group, the electronegativity of the elements decreases. So the metallic
character increases.

v) Basic nature of the hydroxides of elements: A hydroxide MOH of an element M may ionize
in two ways in water.

M–O–H + H2O MO– + H3O+ …(1)


M–O–H +H2O MOH2+ + OH– …(2)

If the ionisation is according to eqn(1) then it is acidic. It is possible when ionic character of O–H
bonds is more than the ionic character of M-O bond i.e. (xO – xH) > (xO–xM) where xO, xH and xM
are the electronegativities of oxygen, hydrogen and element respectively.

If the ionisation is according to eqn. (2) then it is basic. This is only possible when ionic
character of O –H bond is less than M–O bond i.e. (xO –xH) < (xO – xM)

6. Hydration Energy
When a gaseous cation or gaseous anion interacts with water hydrated cation or hydrated anion is
produced and in this process (called hydration process), the energy released is called as hydration energy
M g   H 2O l   M aq   Hydration energy
Hydrated
cation

X g   H 2Ol   X aq   Hydration energy


Hydrated
anion

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Hydration energy is the enthalpy change that accompanies when one mole of the gaseous ion is
dissolved in water.
 
For example, reaction of the hydration of Li ion is shown as: H H
Li+(g) + nH2O  [Li(H2O)n]+(aq) ; H =  531 kJ mol1. 
O

The process by which polar water molecules clings (sticks) to Na 



H


Na+ and Cl- is called hydration. Ions are converted to O
H 
hydrated form.

O H Cl- H

O

 Hydration energies (heat of hydration) of some ions:


(KJ/mol) H

NaCl added in water (Polar solvent )


H+1091 Be2+2494 F-515
Mg2+1954 Cl-381
Li+531
Ca2+1577 Br-347
Na+ 422
Sr2+1443 I-305
K+339
Ba2+1352
Rb+ 319

Cs+280
Factors affecting Hydration energy :
1. Size of gaseous ion: As the size of gaseous ion will increase the hydration energy will decrease.
This is because more concentrated charge means more hydration energy.
2. Charge on ion: As the charge increases there would be more attraction for water molecules &
hence hydration energy will increase, provided size does not increase significantly.
charge on the ion
Hydration enegy α
size of the ion

7.1 Solved Problems (Objective)


1 Among the following elements which has highest IE
(a) He (b) Ne (c) Ar (d) Kr
(a) As we move down the group IE decreases

2 K+, Ar , Ca2+ and S2- have


(a) same electronic configuration and atomic value
(b) different electronic configuration but same I.P.
(c) same electronic configuration but different atomic value
(d) none of the above
(c) All have different number of charge but same 18 electrons

3 Ionization potential values of ‘d’ – block elements as compared to I.P. value of ‘f’ block elements are
(a) higher (b) lower (c) equal (d) all of these
(a) Removal of electron is easier in f – block elements due to more shielding
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4 An element having electronic configuration ( Ar ) 3d2 4s2 belongs to


(a) s – block elements (b) p – block elements
(c) d – block elements (d) f – block elements
(c) The last electron enters in 3d

5 Which of the following does not involve covalent bond?


(a) PH3 (b) CsF (c) HCl (d) H2S
(b)CsF is the ionic compound

6 Which has minimum ionic radius?


(a) N3- (b) K+ (c) Na+ (d) F–
(c) Cations are smaller than anions and Na is smaller than K+ as it has only 2 shells
+

7 Identify the least stable ion amongst the following


(a) Li − (b) Be− (c) B− (d) C−
(b) Addition of the electron Be− is unfavorable since it is having its 2s filled. As a result,
Bewill be least stable.

8 In which of the following there is a drop in I.P.


(a) Be  B (b) O  N (c) Si  C (d) Na  Ne
(a) Greater amount of energies is required to remove an electron from filled 2s orbital (stable
) of Be as compared with B where the electron to be removed from 2p1 orbital.

9 The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14 .3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The
element is likely to be
(a) Na (b) Si (c) F (d) Ca
(b) The jump in IP values exist in IP5 and thus, removal of 5th electron occurs from inner
shell. Thus element contains 4 electrons in its valence shell.

10 In which of the following process energy is liberated?


(a) ClCl+ + e– (b) HCl H+ + Cl– (c) Cl + e Cl – (d) O– + e  O2–
st
(c) 1 electron affinity is energy releasing process

11 Which is the most acidic oxide?


(a) Cl2O (b) Cl2O3 (c) Cl2O5 (d) Cl2O7
(d) Higher the oxidation state of the central atom higher is the Lewis acidic character.

12 The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is


(a) ns2 np3 (b) ns2 np4 (c) ns2 np5 (d) ns2 np6
(c)

13 The first ionization potential in electron volts of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are respectively given by
(a) 14.6, 13.6 (b) 13.6, 14.6 (c) 13.6, 13.6 (d) 14.6, 14.6
(a) Half filled orbital has higher stability.

14 The electronic configuration of element ‘A’ is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 while of the element ‘B’ is 1s2 2s2 2p5.
The formula of the compound containing A and B will be:
(a) AB (b) A2B (c) AB2 (d) A2B6
(c) A will lose two electrons and two B will gain two electrons ( one each ) to gets their octet
complete.

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15 An element is having the electronic configuration ns2np5, a relatively high jump in I.E. values is
associated with
(a) IP1 IP2 (b) IP2 IP3 (c) IP3 IP4 (d) IP4 IP5
(b) From IP2 to IP3 electrons will be ejected from half filled p ( stable ) orbitals.

16 Which transition involves maximum amount of energy


+
(a) X−(g) X(g) + e (b) X−(g) X + 2e
+ 2+
(c) X (g) X (g) + e (d) X (g) X3+(g) + e
2+

(d) High amount of energy would be necessary to put to eject one electron from dipositive
gaseous ion.

17 Ionization potential of Li+ is


(a) Lesser than He (b) Greater than He
(c) Greater than He2+ (d) Equal to He
(b) High amount of energy always would be necessary to remove an electron from a cation.

18 Oxidation states of Nitrogen varies from


(a) -3 to + 5 (b) +3 to – 5 (c) -1 to – 5 (d) – 3 to – 5
(a) Nitrogen is having compounds from hydride (NH3) to oxide ( N2O5).

7.2 Solved Problems (Subjective)


Problem 1: The electronegativity of H, N are 2.1, 3.0 respectively. Calculate percentage ionic character of
H – N bond.
Solution: % Ionic character = 16 (xA – xB) + 3.5 (xA – xB)2
xA = 3.0, xB = 2.1
 % IC = 16  0.9 + 3.5  0.81
= 17.24
Problem 2: The electron affinity of sulfur is greater than oxygen. Why?
Solution: This is because of smaller size of oxygen due to which it has got higher change density and
thus electronic repulsion increases as it takes electron. So its E.A. is less than sulphur.

Problem 3: Why Be and Mg atoms do not impart colour in flame?


Solution: Be and Mg atoms are comparatively small and their ionization energies are very high.
Hence, their electrons are not excited by the energy of the flame to higher energy level.
Therefore, these elements do not give any colour in the flame.
nd
Problem 4: Why always the 2 ionization energy of an element is higher than the 1st.
Solution: The electrostatic attraction increases in unipositive ion than in neutral atom.

Problem 5: The electron affinity of chlorine is 3.7eV / atom. How much energy is kcal is released
when 2 g of chlorine is completely converted to Cl- ion in a gaseous state? (1eV /atom
= 23.06 kcal mol-1)
Solution: Cl + e Cl − + 3.7 eV
3.7  23.06  2
Energy released for conversion of 2g gas chlorine into Cl− ions = = 4.8
35.5
Problem 6: The ionization energy of the coinage metals fall in the order Cu > Ag < Au.
Solution: In Cu, Ag and Au the unpaired electron which will be removed from s – orbital. In case of Cu
, 4s electron has to be removed which is closer to the nucleus than the 5s electron in Ag.
Hence I.P. decreases from Cu to Ag. However from Ag to Au the f electrons are added

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which provide very poor shielding effect. The nuclear charge is thus unchanged and
therefore the outer electron of Au is tightly held and so the IP is high.

Problem 7: Electron affinity of zinc is negative but that of copper is positive? Explain
Solution: Zinc is having the electronic configuration as [Ar]3d104s2. Thus addition of an electron
to filled 4s orbitals will be very much unfavorable; hence electron affinity of zinc is
negative. The electronic configuration of copper is [Ar] 3d10 4s1. If an electron is
added it will get a stable electronic configuration of zinc. Thus the electron affinity of
copper is positive.

Problem 8: What is the significance of the large increase in 3rd ionization energy of Caand fifth
ionization energy of Si?
Solution: In case of Calcium the electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d10 4s2 after releasing two electrons
successively. (1st I.E and 2nd I.E.)it will have stable electronic configuration of Ar. Hence
there occurs a large increase in 3rd ionization of Ca. Si is having the electronic configuration [
Ne ] 3s2 3p2. After losing 4 electrons successively it will have stable electronic configuration
of [Ne].

Problem 9: Why is the 1st I.E. of transition element reasonably constant?


Solution: As we go along a transitional series the size of the atom of the element increases but
decreases in effective nuclear charge is counter balanced by very less shielding effect of d
and f electrons. Hence effective nuclear charge remains almost constant thus the 1 st I.E. of
transition elements remain reasonably constant.

Problem 10: Why are the electron affinities of alkaline earth metals either negative or small
positive values?
Solution: Alkaline earth metals have stable ns2 configuration and are, reluctant to accept electrons.
Thus, their electron affinity values are either small positive or negative.

Problem 11: The 1st and 2nd I.E. of K are 419 kJ/mol and 3052 kJ/mol and Ca are 590 kJ/mol and
1145 kJ/mol respectively. Compare their values and explain the differences.
Solution: Removal of 2nd electron from K is extremely difficult because K acquired stable noble gas
configuration after removing one electron while removal of both the electron for Ca is
comparatively easy, as it acquires stable configuration after removal of both the electrons.

Problem 12: Explain why the 2nd ionization energy of Cr is higher than that of Mn.
Solution: After losing one electron Cr will get converted into Cr+ which will have stable half filled
electronic configuration ( d5 ) with respect to configuration Mn+

Problem 13: Why the 1st ionization energy of phosphorus is greater than that of sulphur.
Solution: Phosphorus has got a stable half filled electronic configuration hence the 1st I.E. of P is
higher than that of S.

Problem 14: Two atoms A1 and A2 have the electronic configurations [Ne]3s23p6 and [Ne] 3s2 3p6
4s1. The first ionization energy of one is 2762 Kj/mole and that of the other is 692
kJ/mole. Match each ionization energy with one of the electronic configuration. Justify
your choice.
Solution: [Ne] 3s2 3p6: 2762 kJ/mole,
[Ne] 3s2 3p64s1 : 692 kJ/mole
Completely filled configurations have higher ionization energy than other configurations due
to their extra stability.

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8.1 Foundation Builders (Objective)


BASIC CONCEPTS

1. The law of triads is applicable to


(A) Hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen (B) Chlorine, bromine, iodine
(C) Sodium, neon, calcium (D) None

2. Which electronic configurations represent to a transition element?


(A) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2 4p6 (B) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2 4p1
(C) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d2, 4s2 (D) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2

3. An element having electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 is:
(A) An inert gas (B) A transition element
(C) A inner transition element (D) A representative element

4. For the element (X), student (A) measured its radius as 102 nm, student (B) as 109 nm and (C)
as 100 nm using sameapparatus. Their teacher explained that measurements were correct by
saying that recorded values by (A), (B) and (C) are:
(A) crystal, van der Waal and covalent radii
(B) covalent, crystal and van der Waal radii
(C) van der Waal, ionic and covalentradii
(D) none is correct

5. As per Mendeleev’s table which main group elements have a different number of outermost
electrons than their group number
(A) Alkali metals (B) Noble gases (C) Halogens (D) None

6. Isoelectronic species are


(A) CO and NO (B) N2 and CO (C) O2 and N2 (D) CO2 and CO

7. How many elements are present in the fourth period of the modern periodic table?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 18 (D) 32

8. In the fourth period of the periodic table, how many elements have one or more 4d electrons?
(A) 2 (B) 18 (C) 0 (D) 6

9. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?


(A) Mg2+ (B) Ti3+ (C) V3+ (D) Fe2+

10. Which one of the following shows paramagnetic character?


(A) Sc3 (b) Fe2+ (C) Mn7+ (D) Ti4+

11. Which of the following is iso – electronic with carbon atom?


(A) Na+ (B) Al3+ (C) O2− (D) N+

12. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species?
(A) C 2- -
2 , O 2 , CO, NO (B) NO+, C 2- −
2 , CN , N2

(C) CN−, N2 , O 2- 2-
2 , C2 (D) N2 , O -2 , NO+, CO

ATOMIC RADIUS
13. The correct order of radii is
(A) N < Be < B (B) F−< O2−< N3− (C) Na < Li < K (D) Fe3+< Fe2+< Fe4+

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14. The ionic radii of N3–, O2–and F– are respectively given by:
(A) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 (B) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(C) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 (D) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

15. The correct order of radii is


(A) P<Mg<Al (B) Cl–<S2–<P3- (C) Br–<F–<Cl – (D) Mg+<Mg2+<Mg

16. Ionic radii of


(A) Ti4+<Mn7+ (B) 35Cl-<37Cl - (C) K+>Cl- (D) P3+> P5+

17. Cl and K+ are isoelectronic then


(A) their sizes are same. (B) Cl ion is relatively bigger than K+ ion.
(C) K+ ion is bigger than Cl ion. (D) their sizes depend on other cation and anion.

18. Which possesses the largest radius?


(A) Fe (B) Fe2+ (C) Fe+ (D)Fe3+

19. Which of the following is largest


(A) Cl– (B)S2– (C) Na+ (D) F-

20. Which is correct in the following


(A) Radius of Cl– ion is 0.99 Å, while that of Na+ ion is 1.54 Å
(B) Radius of Cl atom is 0.99 Å while that of Na atom is 1.54 Å
(C) The radius of Cl atom is 0.95 Å while that of Cl– ion is 0.81 Å
(D) Radius of Na atom is 0.95 Å, while that of Na+ ion is 1.54 Å
21. Which one of the following is smallest in size?
(A) Na+ (B) O2− (C) N3− (D) F-

22. The sizes of X, X+ and X(−) follow the order


(A) X+> X−> X (B) X− > X+> X (C) X−> X > X+ (D) X > X−> X+

23. Which of the following has largest size?


(A) Na (B) Na+ (C) Mg (D) Mg2+

24. Which of the following is arranged in decreasing order of size?


(A) Mg2+> Al3+> O2- (B)O2-> Mg2+> Al 3+
3+ 2+ 2-
(C) Al > Mg > O (D)Al 3+> O2- > Mg2+

25. Consider the cations; Li+, Be2+, Mg2+, K+ and Al3+. The largest and the smallest ions from this
list are respectively
(A) K+ and Li+ (B) Al3+ and Be2+ (C) Mg2+ and Li + (D) K+ and Be2+
IONIZATION ENERGY
26. The ionisation energy of Al is smaller than that of Mg because
(A) Atomic size of Al > Mg.
(B) Atomic size of Al < Mg.
(C) Ionisation energy in Al pertains to the removal of pelectron which is relatively easy.
(D) Unpredictable.

27. IP1 and IP2 of Mg are 178 and 348 kcal mole–1. The energy required for the reaction
Mg  Mg2+ + 2e– is
(A) +170 kcal/mol (B) +526 kcal/mol
(C) –170 kcal/mol (D) –526 kcal/mol

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28. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The
element is likely to be
(A) Na (B)Si (C) F (D) Ca

29. Which of the following transitions involves maximum energy?


(A) M–M(g) (B) M2+(g) M3+(g) (C) M+(g) M2+(g) (D) M(g) M+(g)

30. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic configuration are given below) the one having
highest ionization energy is
(A)[Ne] 3s2 3p1 (B)[Ne] 3s2 3p3 (C)[Ne] 3s2 3p2 (D) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p3

31. The incorrect statement among the following is


(A) The 1st ionization potential of Al is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
(B) The 2nd ionization potential of Mg is greater than the 2nd ionization potential of Na
(C) The 1st ionization potential of Na is less than the 1st ionization potential of Mg
(D) The 3rd ionization potential of Mg is greater than 3rd ionization potential of Al.

32. Select correct statement:


(A)More active metals are on the left side of the periodic table
(B)Less active metals are on the left side of the periodic table
(C)Reducing power decreases moving down the group
(D)All are correct statements

33. The ionization energy of boron is less than that of beryllium because:
(A) beryllium has a higher nuclear charge that boron
(B) beryllium has a lower nuclear charge than boron
(C) the outermost electron in boron occupies a 2p-orbital
(D) the 2s and 2porbital of boron are degenerate

34. Sodium generally does not shown oxidation state of +2, because of its:
(A) High first ionization potential (B) High second ionization potential
(C) Large ionic radius (D) High electronegativity

35. Which of the following isoelectronic ion has the lowest ionization energy?

(A) K+ (B)Cl (C) Ca2+ (D) S2-

36. The ionization potentials of Li and K are 5.4 and 4.3 eV respectively. The ionization potential of
Na will be:
(A) 9.7 eV (B) 1.1 eV (C) 4.9 eV (D)5.8 eV

1
37. The first four I.E. values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ mol . The number of
valence electrons in the element are:
(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four

ELECTRON AFFINITY
38. Ionization potential of Na would be numerically the same as
(A) Electron affinity of Na+ (B) Electronegativity of Na+
(C) Electron affinity of He (D) Ionization potential of Mg

39. The process which requires absorption of energy is


(A) F F− (B)ClCl– (C) O O2− (D) HH–

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40. Arrange N, O and S in order of decreasing electron affinity.


(A) S > O > N (B) O > S > N (C) N > O > S (D) S > N > O

41. Which of the following gains electrons more easily


(A) X– (Cl–, Br–, I–) (B)O– (C) H– (D) Na

42. Identify the least stable amongst the following:


(A) Li– (B) Be– (C) B– (D) C–

43. Which of the following has the maximum electron affinity?


(A) Bromine (B) Iodine (C) Chlorine (D) Fluorine

44. For which of the following transitions will the electron affinity positive?
(A) formation of O- from O (B) formation of O2- from O-
(C) formation of O+ from O (D) None

45. The order of first electron affinity of O, S and Se is :


(A) S > O > Se (B) S > Se > O (C) Se = O > S (D) S > O = Se

46. Which of the following represent(s) the correct order of electron affinities ?
(A) F > Cl > Br =  (B) C < N = Cl < F (C) N < C < O < F (D) C < Si > P < N

ELECTRONEGATIVITY
47. Fluorine is a better oxidising agent than bromine. It is due to
(A) small size of fluorine (B) non-metallic character of fluorine
(C) more electronegativity of fluorine (D) more electron repulsion in fluorine

48. For which pair of atoms is the electronegativity difference the greatest?
(A) B, C (B) Li, I (C) K, Cl (D) Se, S

49. If ionisation energy of an atom is 10 eV & EA is 6.8 eV electronegativity of the species onpauling
scale.
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6

50. Electronegativity of F on Mulliken’s scale is 11.2, what is the electronegativity on the Pauling’s
scale?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

51. Arrange the following in increasing order of their electronegativities –


(A) P<Si<C<F (B) Si<P<F<C (C) Si<P<C<F (D) P<Si<F<C

52. Muliken’s electronegativity is dependent upon


(A) I.P., E.A. (B) Only I.P. (C) Only E.A. (D) None of these

53. A bond with maximum covalent character between non – metallic elements is formed
(A) Between identical atoms
(B) Between chemically similar atoms
(C) Between atoms of widely different electronegativites
(D) Between atoms of the same size

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MISCELLANEOUS
54. Among the following, which has the maximum hydration energy?
 
(A) OH (B) NH 4 (C) F (D) H+

55. The hydration energy of Mg2+ ions is lesser than that of:
(A) Al 3+ (B) Ba2+ (C) Na+ (D) none of these

56. The order in which the following oxides are arranged according to decreasing basic nature is:
(A)Na2O , Al2O3 ,MgO (B) Al2O3 , MgO , Na2O
(C)MgO , Al2O3 , Na2O (D) Na2O , MgO , Al 2O3

57. An element X occurs in short period having configuration ns2 np1. The formula and nature of its
oxide is
(A) XO3, basic (B) XO3, acidic (C) X2O3, Amphoteric (D) X2O3, basic

8.2 Foundation Builders (Subjective)


BASIC CONCEPTS

1 Mn2O7 is an acidic oxide. Why?

2. Why is Ag a noble metal and K is a highly reactive metal?

3. The formation of F−(g) from F(g) is exothermic whereas that of O2- from O(g) is endothermic. Why?

4. Explain the similarities between Li & Mg.

5. While Tl shows monovalency significantly whereas B and Al are trivalent compounds. Why?

6. In general, univalent ions of transition metals do not exist. Why?

ATOMIC RADIUS

7. The decreasing order of ionic radii of O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+ is rO2  rF  rNa  rMg 2 . Explain.

8. Compare the Vander Waal’s radius (I),Covalent radius (II), ionic radius of Br (III)

9. Why is the decrease in size from Li to Be is greater than that from K to Ca.

10. Which one has the larger radius?


(A) Ni2+, Cu2+ or Zn2+ (B) F−, Ne or Na+

IONIZTION ENERGY

11. The first I.P. of Na is the same as electron affinity of Na+ ion

12. The second I.P. for alkali metals shows a jump while the third I.P. for alkaline earth metal shows
a jump.

13. I.E. of magnesium is greater than that of Na and also Al. Explain?

14. I.P. values of post lanthanides (Ag, Au) have higher values down the group. Explain.

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15. You are given Avogadro’s no. of atoms of X. If half of the atoms of X transfer one electron to the
other half of ‘X’ atoms, 409 kJ must be added. If these X– ions are subsequently converted to X+,
an additional 733 kJ energy must be added. Calculate IE and EA of X in eV. Use
(1 eV = 1.603  10–19 J and N = 6.023  1023).

16. The 1st ionization energy of carbon atom is greater than that of B atom whereas. 2 nd IE of B is
much greater is than that of C.

17. There is a big jump from 1.8 MJ to 15.3 MJ for the second and third ionization energy of
beryllium as compared with a change from 2.45 MJ to 3.7 MJ for B.Explain.

ELECTRON AFFINITY
18. What do you think as the origin of electron affinity.

ELECTRONEGATIVITY
19. Be and N have extremely low value of EA against the trend. Explain.

MISCELLANEOUS
20. 1gm of Mg atoms (atomic Mass 24 amu) in vapour phase absorbs 50 kJ of Energy. Find the
percentage of Mg2+ in final mixture of Mg2+ and Mg+. (Assuming all Mg atoms will ionize). 1st and
2nd I.E of Mg is 740 and 1450 kJ/Mol respectively.

21. The 1st ionization potential of Na = 5.4 eV and EA of F = 3.4 eV. Calculate  H in kcal mol-1 for
the reaction: Na(g) + F(g) Na+ + F–

22. How many Fluorine atoms will be ionized by the energy released from the process
Cl + e Cl−for NA of Cl atoms. (I.P. for F = 1681 mol-1)
E.A. of Cl = - 328 kJ mol -1 [NA = 6.02  1023]

23. Both transition as well as non – transition elements show variable valencies. Explain

9.1 EXERCISE-1
1. Element with valence shell-electronic configuration as d5s1 is placed in:
(A)IA, s-block (B)VIA, s-block (C)VIB, s-block (D)VIB, d-block

2. Element X and Y have valence shell electron configuration as:


X :ns2np5; Y : ns2np3
Which compound is likely formed from X and Y ?
(A)X3Y5 (B)Y3X5 (C)XY (D)YX3

3. Chalcogens are elements of:


(A)group 16 (B)p-block
(C)ns2np4 configuration (D)all are correct

4. M3+ has electronic configuration aas [Ar] 3d10 4s2, hence it lies in:
(A)s-block (B)p-block (C)d-block (D)f-block

5. Which of the following has the electronic configuration [Ar] 3d5?


(A)Cr (B)Fe3+ (C) Mn (D)V

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6. The atoms of the elements belonging to the same group of the periodic table will have :
(A)the same number of protons
(B)the same number of electrons in the valence-shell
(C)the same number of neutrons
(D)the same number of electrons

7. Which has maximum stability ?


(A)AsCl3 (B)SbCl3 (C)BiCl3 (D)Equal

8. With respect to oxygen maximum valency is shown by:


(A)halogen family (B)oxygen family (C)nitrogen family (D)boron family

9. Valence electrons in the element A are 3 and that in element B are 6. Most probable compound
formed from A
(A)A2B (B)AB2 (C)A6B3 (D)A2B3

10. Among the following elements which has the highest ionization energy?
(A) P (B) Si (C) Cl (D) S

11. Select correct statement (s):


(A)Across a transition series, there is only a small decrease in atomic radius from one element to
another due to very small increase in effective nuclear charge
(B)The rate of decrease in the size across the lanthanide series is less than across the first
transition series
(C)Bothe are correct statements
(D)None of the statement is correct

12. Select correct alternate based on size :


(A) I+< I < I- (B) Fe = Co = Ni (C) Ni < Cu < Zn (D) none is incorrect

13. The second ionization energy is always higher than the first ionization energy because the :
(A)ion becomes more stable attaining an octet or duplet configurations
(B)electron is more tightly bound to the nucleus in an ion
(C)electron is attracted more by the core electrons
(D)none is the correct explanation

14. Which represents alkali metals based on (IE)1 and (IE)2 values ?
(IE)1 (IE)2
(A) X 100 110
(B) Y 95 120
(C) Z 195 500
(D) M 200 250

15. The dominant factor in determining the IE of the elements on moving down the groups is its :
(A) atomic radius (B)effective nuclear charge
(C)both (a) and (b) (D)none of the above

16. Higher values of ionization energies of the 5d-transition elements are consistent with the:
(Arelatively smaller effective nuclear charge
(B)relatively smaller size of their atoms
(C)relatively smaller penetration
(D)all are correct

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17. Extent of hydration of Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ is in order :


(A)Na+< AI3+< Mg2+ (B)Na+< Mg2+< AI3+
3+ 2+ +
(C)Al < Mg <Na (D)equal

18. An oxide behaves as an acid or a base depending on properties of central atom as its:
(A) size and charge (B) size only (C) charge only (D) none of these

19. Which of the following metal is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy ?
(A)Cr (Z = 24) (B)V (Z = 23) (C)Mn (Z = 25) (D)Fe (Z = 26)

20. Which of the following arrangements shows the correct order of decreasing paramagnetism ?
(A)N > Al > O >Ca (B)N > O > Al >Ca
(C)O > N > Al >Ca (D)O > N >Ca> Al

21. The outer electronic structure of lawrencium (atomic number 103) is :


(A)Rn 5f 137s 27p 2 (B)Rn 5f136d17s17p2 (C)Rn 5f 147s 17p 2 (D)Rn 5f 146d 17s 2

22. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers corresponds to elements of group 16?
(A)8, 16, 32, 54 (B)16, 34, 54, 86 (C)8, 16, 34, 52 (D)10. 16, 32, 50

23. Which of the following is arranged in decreasing order of size ?


(A)Mg2+> Al 3+> O2- (B)O2-> Mg2+> Al 3+ (C)Al 3+> Mg2+> O2- (D)Al 3+> O2-> Mg2+

24. Second ionization potential of Li, Be and B is in the order :


(A)Li > Be > B (B)Li > B > Be (C)Be > Li > B (D)B > Be > Li

25. An element has successive ionization enthalpies as 940 (first), 2080, 3090, 4140, 7030, 7870,
16000 and 19500 kJ mol–1. To which group of the periodic table does this elements belong ?
(A)14 (B)15 (C)16 (D)17
26. The increasing order of electron affinity of the electronic configurations of elements is :
(i) 1s22s22p63s23p5 (ii) 1s22s22p3 (iii) 1s22s22p5 (iv)1s22s22p63s1
(A)II < IV < III < I (B) I < II < III < IV (C)I < III < II < IV (D)IV < III < II < I

27. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing radius ?


(A)K+ (aq) < Na+ (aq) < Li+(aq) (B) Na+ (aq) < K+ (aq) < Li+(aq)
+ + +
(C)K (aq) < Li (aq) < Na (aq) (D)Li+ (aq) < Na+ (aq) < K+(aq)

28. Among the following elements which has the lowest electronegativity?
(A) Br (B) Cl (C) P (D) S

29. Assuming that elements are formed to complete the seventh period, what would be the atomic
number of alkaline earth metal of the eighth period.
(A)113 (B)120 (C)119 (D)106

30. In the compound M – O – H, the M – O bond will be broken if :


(A) (E. N.) of M and O < (E.N.) of O and H
(B) (E. N.) of M and O =  (E.N.) of O and H
(C) (E. N.) of M and O > (E.N.) of O and H
(D)Cannot be predicated according  (E. N.) data

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31. X (g) X+ (g) + e- , H = +720kJ mol–1.


Calculate the amount of energy required to convert 110 mg of ‘X’ atom in gaseous state into X+ion.
(Atomic wt. for X = 7 g/mol)
(A)10.4 kJ (B)12.3 kJ (C)11.3 kJ (D)14.5 kJ

32. Which of the following statement is correct regarding following process ?


E. A I .E . I .E.
(i) Cl 

Cl (ii) Cl  I .E .
  Cl (iii) Cl 
Cl 
(iv) Cl

 Cl2
(A)|I.E. of process (ii)|=|E.A. of process (i)|
(B)|I.E. of process (iii)|=|I.E. of process (ii)|
(C)|I.E. of process (iv)|=|E.A. of process (i)|
(D)|I.E. of process (iv)|=|I.E. of process (iii)|

33. Which is the correct order of ionization energies ?


(A)F-> F >Cl->Cl (B)F >Cl>Cl->F- (C)F->Cl ->Cl> F (D)F->Cl ->F >Cl

34. The incorrect statement among the following is :


(A)The first ionization potential of Al is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
(B)The second ionization potential of Mg is greater than the second ionization potential of Na
(C)The first ionization potential of Na is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
(D)The third ionization potential of Mg is greater than the third ionization potential of Al

35. Following the transition elements, (IE)1 drops abruptly in Ga, In and TI. This is due to :
(A)decrease in effective nuclear charge
(B)increases in atomic radius
(C)removal of an electron from the singly occupied np orbitals of higher energy than the ns-orbitals
of Zn, Cd and Hg
(D)none is correct

36. Which element has the highest electron affinity ?


(A)F (B)Cl (C)Br (D)I

37. Fluorine is more electronegative than nitrogen. The best explanation is that :
(A)the valence electrons in F are on the average, a little closer to the nucleus than in N
(B)the charge on a F nucleus is +9, while that on N nucleus is +7
(C)the valence electrons in F and N are in different shells and thus their energy are greatly different
(D)electronegativity increases from left to right in each of the periods

38. The electronegativities of elements A and B are 1.2 and 3.4 units respectively. The type of bond
connecting A and B in compound AB is:
(A) covalent (B) ionic (C)coordinate covalent (D) polar covalent

39. Electronegativity and electron affinity of an element A are X and Y respectively. Hence, ionization
potential of A is:
X Y
(A) (B)2 X – Y (C)2Y – X (D)2 X + Y
2

40. Oxidation energy of Li(s) to Li+(aq) is least in group IA elements. This is because of :
(A)maximum heat of sublimation of Li(s) (B)maximum heat of hydration of Li+
(C)less negative heat of hydration of Li+ (D)maximum ionization energy of Li

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41. Which of the series of elements listed below would have nearly the same atomic radii?
(A) F,Cl,Br,I (B) Na,K,Rb,Cs (C) Li,Be,B,C (D) Fe,Co,Ni,Cu

42. The radii of F, F−, O and O2− are in the order of


(A) O2−> F−> F>O (B) F−> O2−>F >O (C) O2−>O > F−>F (D) O2−>F−>O > F

43. The increasing order of charge/size ratio of the cations


(A) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ (B) Mg2+< Be2+< K+< Ca2+
2+ + 2+ 2+
(C) Be < K < Ca < Mg (D) K+< Ca2+< Mg2+< Be2+

44. Ionization energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen because


(A)Nucleus has more attraction for electrons
(B)Half-filled p-orbital configuration is more stable
(C)nitrogen atom is bigger than oxygen atom
(D)none

45. The element with the highest first ionization potential is


(A)Boron (B) Carbon (C)Nitrogen (D)Oxygen

46. The 1st ionization energy of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order :
(A) Na < Mg > Al < Si (B) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(C) Na < Mg < Al > Si (D) Na > Mg > Al < Si

47. Higher values of ionization energies of the 5d-transition elements are consistent with the:
(A) Relatively smaller effective nuclear charge
(B) Relatively smaller size of their atoms
(C) Relatively smaller penetration
(D) All are correct

48. O–2 or S–2 formation is endothermic because


(A) more stability of O–2 or S–2
(B) more energy release due to pairing
(C) electrostatic repulsion outweighs the energy release due to pairing
(D) (a, b) both are correct

49. Which of the following processes involves absorption of energy?


(A) S( g )  e   S ( g ) (B) S  e  S2  ( g )
(C) Cl( g )  e   Cl ( g ) (D) none

9.2 EXERCISE-2
Multiple choice questions
1. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct ?
(A) The electron affinity for sulphur is more negative than that for oxygen.
(B) Successive ionization energies of an atom always increase.
(C) Chlorine has larger atomic size as well as electron affinity than that of fluorine
(D) First ionization energy of As is greater than that of Se.

2. The process(es) requiring the absorption of energy is(are) :


(A) Cl Cl- (B) O O2– (C) Fe3+Fe2+ (D) Ar Ar-

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3. Which of the following statements is/are true about the modern form of periodic table ?
(A) Properties of the elements are the periodic functions of their atomic number.
(B) There are 7 periods.
(C) There are 18 groups
(D) It has no separate positions for the isotopes.

4. Which of the following order(s) is/are correct ?


(A) O2– < F–< Na+ < Mg2+ increasing Zeffective.
(B) Mg2+> Na+> O2– > F– increasing size.
(C) O2–< F– < Na+< Mg2+ increasing ionisation energy.
(D) O2–< F–< Na+ < Mg2+ increasing electron affinity.

5. Which of the following is/are correct order(s) of arrangements ?


(A) I+ > I > I– Size (B) I < Br < Cl < F Electron affinity
2- - +
(C) O < O < O Zeffective (D) Na < Al < Mg < Si Ionisation potential

6. If the same element is forming oxides in different oxidation states then which of the following
statement are correct:
(A) that oxide will be neutral in nature in which element will be in its highest oxidation state.
(B) that oxide will be highest acidic in nature in which element will be in its highest oxidation state.
(C) that oxide will be amphoteric in nature in which element will be in its highest oxidation state.
(D) that oxide will be less acidic in nature in which element will be in its lowest oxidation state.

7. Select the correct statements:


(a) Ionisation energy increases for each successive electron removal
(b) He has the highest IE in the periodic table
(c) End of valence electrons is marked by a big jump in next ionization enthalpy
(d) Removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n values is easier than from orbital having higher
n value.

8. The successive ionization energies of an element (M) are 170, 345 and 1840 kCal/mol. Formula of
its bromide is :
(A) MBr (B) MBr2 (C)MBr3 (D)Unpredictable

9. The electron affinity of the following elements can be arranged:


(A) Cl > O > N > C (B) Cl > O > C > N (C) Cl > N > F > C (D) Cl > F > N > C

10. The electronic configuration of an element X is 1s2 2s2 2p6. What is the atomic number of the element
which is just above the element X in the periodic table?
(a)2 (b)6 (c)16 (d)8

11. The correct order of acidic strength is


(a) Cl2O7> SO2> P4O10 (b) CO2> N2O4> SO3
(c) Na2O > CaO > Al2O3 (d) K2O > CaO > BeO

12. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?


1
(a) ionisation energy 
Screening effect
(b) The first ionisation energies of Be and Mg are more than ionisation energies of B and Al
respectively
(c) Atomic and ionic radii of Niobium and Tantalum are almost same
(d) Electron affinity of S > O

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13. There are four elements 'M', 'N', 'O' and 'P' having atomic numbers Z – 1, Z, Z+1 and Z+2
respectively. If the element 'N' is an inert gas, select the correct answers from the following
statements.
(A) 'M' has most negative electron gain enthalpy in the respective period.
(B) 'O' is an alkali metal
(C) 'P' exists in +2 oxidation state.
(D) None of the above

14. Which of the following orders are correct for the ionization energies ?
(A) Ba < Sr < Ca (B) S2-< S < S2+
(C) C < O < N (D) Ba < Al < Si

15. In which of the following compound Mn shows minimum radius?


(A) MnO2 (B) KMnO4 (C)MnO (D) None of these

16 Which of the following statements is CORRECT ?


(A) Generally the radius trend and the ionization energy trend across a period are opposites.
(B) Metallic and covalent radii of potassium are 2.29 Å and 2.04Å respectively.
(C) Amongst Li +, Be+, B+ and C+, Li + has highest IE
(D) Atomic size of Al & Ga are almost same

17. The most stable oxidation state of thallium & bismuth are respectively.
(A) + 3, + 5 (B) + 5, + 3 (C) + 1, + 3 (D) + 2, + 3

18. Which metal exhibits variable oxidation state?


(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Fe (D) Al

19. Which of the following statements are correct?


(A)Cs+ ion is least hydrated as compared to other alkali metal ions.
(B)Among the alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb, Lithium has the highest melting point.
(C)Among transition elements, group 3 (IIIB) elements have highest densities.
(D)Group 14(IVA) elements are metals, metalloids as well as nonmetals.

20. The graph shows the variation of ionization potential with atomic number in II period ionization
potential of Na will not be
Ionisation potential

N Ne
F
Be C
Li O
B
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Atomic number
(a)above Ne (b)below Ne but above F
(c)between O and N (d)below Li

21. The decreasing order of ionic mobility of the following ion is


(a)Cs+ >Rb+> Na+> Li+ >K+ (b) Na+> K+> Rb+> Cs+> Li+
+ + + + +
(c)K > Rb > Cs > Na > Li (d)Cs+> Rb+> K+> Na+> Li +

22. Stability of the ions of Pb, Sn and Ge is in order of –


(A) Pb2+>Sn2+>Ge2+ (B) Ge4+>Sn4+>Pb4+
4+ +2
(C) Sn >Sn (D) Pb+2>Pb4+

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23. Select the correct statements among the following –


(A) Pr, Nd and Dy are f-block elements.
(B) Electronic configuration of copper is [Ar] 3d94s2 and Cr is [Ar] 3d44s2
(C) Electronic configuration of copper is [Ar] 3d104s1 and Cr is [Ar] 3d54s1
(D) Si, Ge and As are metalloids.

For Questions 24 to 26
The singly bonded radii of an element X is 150 pm. Assuming that the difference between radii of
different magnitudes is 50 pm, answer the following –

24. The covalent radii of X is


(A) 150 pm (B) 100 pm (C) 200 pm (D) 260 pm

25. Ionic radii of X+ is


(A) 150 pm (B) 100 pm (C) 200 pm (D) 260 pm

26. Ionic radius of X— is


(A) 150 pm (B) 100 pm (C) 200 pm (D) 260 pm

27. The second I.P. of an element is 280 kcal mol 1. Then the equation that represents this ionization is
written as
(A) M+(s)  M2+(s) + e280 kcal (B) M+(g)  M2+(g) + e280 kcal
(C) M+(s)  M2+(g) + e +280 kcal (D) M+(g)  M2+(s) + e280 kcal

28. Select correct order of the size of the atoms/ions –


(A) I-- > I > I+ (B) Fe = Co = Ni (C) Ni < Cu < Zn (D) Co>Ni>Cu

Comprehension Type
PASSAGE- I

Following data is given of Ionization Energies and Electron Affinity for different elements
Elements IE1(kJ/mole) IE2(kJ/mole) EA(kJ/mole)
A 50 65 10
B 18 30 -20
C 30 45 -45
D 12 16 -33
E 5 25 -5
F 35 50 -150
Q1. Out of the following, which one is most reactive metal?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) E

Q2. Out of the following, which one is most reactive non-metal?


(A) B (B) C (C) E (D) F

Q3. Out of the following, which one is least reactive element?


(A) C (B) D (C) E (D) A
+
Q4. Out of the following, which one can form most stable unipositivecation, M ?
(A) D (B) B (C) C (D) E

Q5. Out of the following, which one can form most stable bivalent ionic chloride, MCl 2?
(A) D (B) B (C) C (D) E

Q6. Out of the following, which one is possible as a Noble gas?


(A) D (B) B (C) A (D) E
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PASSAGE- II

The f-block elements are known as inner transition elements because they involve the filling for inner sub-
shells (4f or 5f).Because lanthanum closely resembles the Lathanides, it is usually included in any
discussion of the Lathanides.

There is fairly regular decrease in the sizes with increasing atomic number. The Continuous decrease in
radii is known as Lanthanides Contraction. Lathanides exhibit the oxidation state of +3. Some of them also
exhibit the oxidation state of +2 and +4.

Q7. The general electronic configuration of outermost shell of f-block elements is


(A) (n-2)f1-14(n-1)d0-1ns2 (B) (n-1)f1-14(n-1)d1-2ns1-2
1-14 1-2 1-2
(C) (n-2)f nd ns (D) None of these

Q8. Out of the following, which one is strongest base?


(A) Eu(OH)3 (B) La(OH)3 (C) Lu(OH)3 (D)Dy(OH)3

Q9. Out of the following, which one is strongest oxidising agent in aqueous medium?
(A) Yb2+ (B) Sm2+ (C) Pm3+ (D) Ce4+

PASSAGE- III

From Q10 to Q13, the seven periods and eighteen groups are given in Modern Periodic Table
From Q10 to Q13, the seven periods and eighteen groups are given in Modern Periodic Table
st
1 2 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
nd
2
rd
3
th
4
5th
6th
th
7

Q10. If same structure will maintain for further discovery of new elements, then what is the maximum
number of elements that can be accommodated by 10th period of periodic table?

(A)18 (B) 36 (C) 72 (D) 90

Q11. If each orbital can hold a maximum of 3 electrons. The number of elements in 4th period of periodic
table is
(A) 48 (B) 57 (C) 27 (D) 36

Q12. Element with electronic configuration [Kr] 4d10 4f14, 5s2 5p6 5d1, 6s2belongs to the ............. group of
the periodic table:
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block

Q13. If the elements of quantum number greater than n were not allowed, the number of possible
elements in nature would have been
2
(A) 1 n(n  1) (B)  n( n  1)  (C) 1 n(n  1)(2n 1) (D) 1 n(n  1)(2n  1)
2  2  3 2
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PASSAGE- IV

Moseley (1909) studied the frequency of X-rays produced by the bombardment of a strong beam of
 
electrons on a metal target. He found that the square root of the frequency of X-rays  is directly
proportional to the total nuclear charge (Z) of metal.   a Z  b  , where a andb are constants. Nuclear
charge of metal is equal to the atomic number. So Moseley related the properties of elements with their
atomic number and gave the new periodic law

Q14. Which graph best represent the plot of  vs Z

Q15. If the frequency of characteristic X-rays for Li and Na is 9×1016Hz and 16×1016 Hz. The frequency of
characteristic X-rays for K is
(A) 35×1016Hz (B) 30×1016Hz (C) 41.3×1016Hz (D) 25×1016Hz

Q16. If the frequency of X-rays used in medical scanning is 12×1016Hz, energy per photon is
(A) 9.9×10-17J (B) 7.92×10-17J (C) 8.95×10-19J (D) 12.5×10-20J

PASSAGE- V
Oxide of elements can be divided into four categories as acidic, basic, neutral and amphoteric. Oxyacid or
hydroxide of any element looks like M-O-H, if O-H bond is more polar than M-O bond it will be acid otherwise
base. It all depends on either electro negativity of central atom. Generally down the group in periodic table,
basic nature increases, and on increasing the oxidation state of element acidic nature of oxide increases

Q17. Out of the following, which one is most acidic?


(A)Na2O (B)MgO (C)Al 2O3 (D)Cl 2O7

Q18. Out of the following, which one is most basic?


(A)B2O3 (B)Al 2O3 (C)Ga2O3 (D)In2O3

Q19. Amphoteric oxide out of the following:


I. Al2O3 II.PbO2 III. BeO IV. SnO2
(A)Only I (B)I, II, III (C)I, II (D)I, II, III, IV

Q20. Out of the following, which one is not a neutral oxide?


(A) CO (B) N2O (C) NO (D) SO2

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Matrix Match
Column -I (atomic number or symbol of elements) with Column- II (position and properties of elements in
periodic table) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

1. Column - I Column - II
A. 19 p. p-block
B. 22 q. f-block
C. 32 r. d-block
D. 64 s. s-block

2. Column - I Column - II
A. 3 p. s-block
B. 37 q. ns1-2
C. 56 r. Alkali metals
D. 88 s. Radioactive

3. Column - I Column - II
A. 15 p. p-block
B. 31 q. Liquid at room temperature
C. 35 r. Halogen
D. 85 s. Metal

4. Column - I Column - II
A. Mn3+ p. Paramagnetic
B. Cr2+ q. Diamagnetic
C. Ag2+ r. 1.732 BM
D. Hg22+ s. 26 BM

5. Column - I Column - II
A. 60 p.Inner transition elements
B. U-238 q.4f-block
C. Th r.Lanthanides
D. 100 s.Actinides

6. Match atomic number of electrons with position of elements in the following table
Column – I Column – II
A. 20 (1) p – block
B. 23 (2) f – block
C. 31 (3) d – block
D. 64 (4) s - block
(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2 (b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3
(c) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2 (d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

7. Match the following elements with the correct electronic configuration:


Column – I Column – II
A. Inert gas element (1) ns or ns2 np0-6
1-2

B. Main group elements (2)1s2 or ns2 np6


C. Transition elements (3)(n – 2)f14 (n –1) d10, ns2
D. Inner transition elements (4)(n –1)d1 – 9 ns2

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(a) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2 (b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
(c) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3 (d) A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3

8. Match the elements in the following list will their classification:


A. Alkaline earth metals (1)Cs
B. Radioactive element (2) As
C. Alkali metal (3) Ca
D. Metalloid (4) Ru
(a) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2 (b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
(c) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3 (d) A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3

INTEGER TYPE
1. Magnetic moment of an element is 1.732, Thus, the number of unpaired electron is/are

2. Maximum oxidation state shown by Pb is

3. Maximum oxidation state shown by chalcogens is

4. No of amphoteric oxides out of Na2O, MgO, Al 2O3, PbO2, SnO2, BeO, CaO, BaO are

10.1 JEE MAIN QUESTIONS


Classification of Elements & Periodicity in properties Question

1. Which block 106th element belongs to? (DCE 2000)


(a) f–block (b) d–block (c) p–block (d) s-block

2. A metal M having electronic configuration M  1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p6 3d10 4s1 (DCE 2002)


(a) p–block element (b) s–block element (c) d–block element (d) None of these

3. Which of the following pairs show reverse properties on moving along a period from left to right and
from top to down in a group?
(a) Atomic radius and electron affinity (b)Nuclear charge and electron affinity
(c) Nuclear charge and electronegative character (d)None of these (DCE 2003)

4. Which element exists as a solid at 25oC and 1 atmospheric pressure among the following?
(a) P (b) Hg (c) Cl (d) Br (DCE 2003)

5. Which among the following species have the same number of electrons in its outermost well as
penultimate shell?
(a) F (b) O2 (c) Mg 2  (d) Ca2 (DCE 2004)

6. The sizes of the following species increase in the order


(a) Mg 2  Na   F  Al (b) F  Al  Na   Mg 2
(c) Al  Mg 2   F  Na  (d) Na   Al  F  Mg 2  (DCE 2006)

7. Which of the following species has the highest electron affinity?


(a) F (b) O (c) O (d) Na (DCE 2006)

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8. Which electronic configuration of an element has abnormally high difference between second and
third ionization energy?
(a) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 ,3s1 (b) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 ,3s 2 , 3p1 (c) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 (d) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p6 ,3s 2
(DCE 2006)
9. The incorrect statement among the following is
(a) The first ionisation enthalpy of Al is less than the first ionization enthalpy of Mg.
(b) The second ionisation enthalpy of Mg is greater than the second ionization enthalpy of Na.
(c) The first ionisation enthalpy of Na is less than the first ionsiation enthalpy of Mg.
(d) The third ionization enthalpy of Mg is greater than the third ionsiation enthalpy of Al.

10. Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
(a) K  , Cl , Ca 2 ,Sc3 (b) Ba 2  ,Sr 2  , K  ,S2  (c) N3 , O2  , F ,S2  (d) Li  , Na  , Mg 2  , Ca 2 
(AIEEE 2006)

11. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P, S and F (lowest first) is
(a) F < S < P < B (b) P < S < B < F (c) B < P < S < F (d) B < S < P < F
(AIEEE 2006)

12. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity if the alkali metals and the
halogens are given. Which of these statements gives the correct picture?
(a) The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in
atomicnumber down the group
(b) In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increases in
atomic number down the group
(c) Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both the alkali
metals and halogens
(d) In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic
number down the group. (AIEEE 2006)

13. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property
against it?
(a) CO2  SiO2  SnO 2  PbO2 : increasing oxidising power
(b) HF  HCl  HBr  HI : increasing acid strength
(c) NH3  PH3  AsH3  SbH3 ; increasing basic strength
(d) B < C < O <N : increasing first ionization enthalpy
(AIEEE 2009)
14. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is
(a) Li   Be 2  Na   Mg 2  (b) Na   Li   Mg 2   Be 2 
(c) Li   Na   Mg 2  Be 2  (d) Mg 2   Be2   Li   Na 
(AIEEE 2009)

15. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order Ionic radii of element is
(a) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (b) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2- > F–
+ – 2+ 2- 3+
(c) Na > F > Mg > O > Al (d) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
(2010)

16. The outer electronic configuration of Gd (At. No. 64)


(a) 4f 8 5d6 6s2 (b) 4f4 5d4 6s2 (c) 4f7 5d1 6s2 (d) None
(2011)

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17. The increasing order of Ionic radii of given isoelectronic species


(a) Cl–, Ca2+, K+, S2– (b) S2–, Cl –, Ca2+, K+ (c) Ca2+, K+, Cl–, S2– (d) K+, S2–, Ca2+,Cl –
(2012)

18. Which of the following represent correct order of increasing first I.E for Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar?
(a) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar (b) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
(c) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar (d) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar
(2013)

19. The Ionic radii (in A0) of N3–, O2– and F– are respectively
(a) 1.36, 1.77 and 1.40 (b) 1.77, 1.40 and 1.36
(c) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40 (d) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
(2015)
20. Which of the following atom has the highest first ionization energy?
(a) Na (b) K (c) Sc (d) Rb
(2016)

10.2 JEE ADVANCED QUESTIONS


Objective Questions I

1. The correct order of second ionization potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
(JEE 1981)
(A) C > N > O > F (B) O> N > F >C (C) O > F > N > C (D) F > O > N> C

2. The element with the highest first ionization potential is (JEE 1982)
(A) Boron (B) carbon (C) Nitrogen (D) oxygen

3. The hydration energy of Mg2+ is larger than that of (JEE 1984)


(A) Al3+ (B) Na+ (C) Be2+ (D) Mg2+

4. The first ionization potential in electron volts of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are respectively given by
(JEE 1987)
(A) 14.6, 13.6 (B) 13.6, 14.6 (C) 13.6, 13.6 (D) 14.6, 14.6

5. Atomic radii of fluorine and neon in Angstrom units are respectively given by (JEE 1987)
(A) 0.72, 1.60 (B) 1.60, 1.60 (C) 0.72, 0.72 (D) None of these

6. The electro negativity of the following elements increases in the order (JEE 1987)
(A) C, N, Si, P (B) N, Si, C, P (C) Si , P, C, N (D) P, Si, N, C

7. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order (JEE 1988)
(A) Na < Mg > Al < Si (B) Na< Mg < Al > Si
(C) Na> Mg > Al > Si (D) Na > Mg > Al < Si
8. Which one of the following is the smallest in size? (JEE 1989)
(A) N3− (B) O2− (C) F− (D) Na+
9. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic configurations are given below), the one having
the highest ionization energy is (JEE 1990)
(A) [Ne]3s2 3p1 (B) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 (C) [Ne]3s23p2 (D) [Ar]3d10 4s2 4p3

10. The statement that is not correct for the periodic classification of elements, is (JEE 1992)
(A) The properties of elements are the periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
(B) Non-metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic elements.
(C)The first ionization energies of elements along a period do not vary in a regular manner with
increases in atomic number.
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(D)For transition elements the d-subshells are filled with electrons monotonically with increase in
atomic number.

11. Which has most stable +2 oxidation state? (JEE 1995)


(A) Sn (B)Pb (C) Fe (D) Ag

12. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons? (JEE 1996)
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ti3+ (C) V3+ (D) Fe2+

13. The incorrect statement among the following is (JEE 1997)


(A) The first ionization potential of Al is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
(B) The second ionization potential of Mg is greater than the second ionization potential of Na
(C) The first ionization potential of Na is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
(D) The third ionization potential of Mg is greater than third ionization potential of Na

14. The correct order of radii is (JEE 2000)


(A) N < Be < B (B) F-< O2-< N3-
(C) Na < Li < K (D) Fe3+< Fe2+< Fe4+

15. The sets representing the correct order of first ionization potential is (JEE 2001)
(A) K > Na < Li (B) Be> Mg >Ca
(C) B > C > N (D) Ge> Si > C

16. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following (JEE 2002)
(A) Li+ (B) Be− (C) B− (D) C−

17. The increasing order of atomic radii of the following Group 13 elements is
(A) Al  Ga  In  Tl (B) Ga  Al  In  Tl
(C) Al  In  Ga  Tl (D) Al  Ga  Tl  In

Objective Questions II [One or more than one correct option]


1. The statements that is/are true for the long form of the Periodic Table is/are (JEE 1988)
(A) It reflects the sequence of filling the electrons in the order of sub – energy level s, p ,d and f
(B) It helps to predict the stable valency states of the elements
(C) It reflects trends in physical and chemical properties of the elements
(D) It helps to predict the relative ionicity of the bond between any two elements

2. The first ionization potential of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are related as follows (JEE 1989)
(A) The ionization potential of oxygen is less than the ionization potential of nitrogen.
(B) The ionization potential of nitrogen is greater than the ionization potential of oxygen.
(C) The two ionization potential values are comparable.
(D) The difference between the ionization potential of O and N is too large.

3. Ionic radii of (JEE 1991)


(A) Ti4+< Mn7+ (B)35Cl -<37Cl- (C)K+>Cl- (D)P3+> P5+

Assertion and Reason


Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below:
(A) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(B) Statements I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(C) Statement I is true; Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.

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1. Statement I : F atom has a less negative electron affinity than Cl atom.


Statement II : Additional electrons are repelled more effectively by 3p electrons in Cl atom than by 2p
electrons in F atom. (JEE 1998)

2. Statement I : The first ionization energy of Be is greater than that of B.


Statement II: 2p orbital is lower in energy than 2s. (JEE 2000)

3. Statement I : Pb4+ compounds are stronger oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds.
Statement II: The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier
members of the group due to ‘inert pair effect’. (JEE 2008)

Fill in the Blanks:


1. The energy released when an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom is called ____
(JEE 1982)
2. On Mulliken scale, the average of ionization potential and electron affinity is known as ______
(JEE 1985)
3. Ca2+ has a smaller ionic radius than K+ because it has (JEE 1993)
4. Compounds that formally contain Pb4+ are easily reduced to Pb2+. The stability of the lower oxidation
state is due to (JEE 1997)

True / False
1. The softness of group IA metals increase down the group with increasing atomic number.
(JEE 1986)
2. In group IA of alkali metals, the ionization potential decreases down the group. Therefore, lithium is a
poor reducing agent. (JEE 1987)

3. The decreasing order of electron affinity of F, Cl, Br is F>Cl> Br. (JEE 1993)

4. The basic nature of the hydroxides of group 13 (IIIB) decreases progressively down the group.
(JEE 1993)
Subjective Questions

1. Arrange the following in order of their


(i) decreasing ionic size Mg2+, O2-, Na+, F-
(ii) increasing first ionization energy Mg, Al, Si, Na
(iii) increasing bond length F2, N2, Cl 2, O2 (JEE 1985)

2. Arrange the following in the order of their increasing size:


Cl-, S2-, Ca2+, Ar (JEE 1986)

3. Explain the following :


“The first ionization energy of carbon atom is greater than that of boron atom whereas, the reverse is
true for the second ionization energy.” (JEE 1989)

4. Arrange the following as stated:


“Increasing order of ionic size”
N3- , Na+, F-, O2-, Mg2+ (JEE 1991)

5. Compare qualitatively the first and second ionization potentials of copper and zinc. Explain the
observation. (JEE 1996)

6. Arrange the following ions in order of their increasing radii


Li+, Mg2+, K+, Al 3+ (JEE 1997)

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12. ANSWER KEY & SOLUTIONS


Foundation Builders (Objective)

1.B 2.C 3.D 4.A 5.B 6.B 7.C 8.C 9.D 10.B

11.D 12.B 13.B 14.C 15.B 16.D 17.B 18.A 19.B 20.B

21.A 22.C 23.A 24.B 25.D 26.C 27.B 28.B 29.B 30.B

31.B 32.A 33.C 34.B 35.D 36.C 37.C 38.A 39.C 40.A

41.D 42.B 43.C 44.B 45.B 46.C 47.C 48.C 49.B 50.D

51.C 52.A 53.A 54.D 55.A 56.D 57.C

Foundation Builders (Subjective)

1. due to high electronegativity

5. due to inert pair effect.

8. II  I (1.14Å)  III (1.95Å)

10. Ni2+, F−

15. IE = 11.835 eV and EA = 3.358 eV

20. 31.7%

21. 41.508 Kcal mol-1

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22. n =  6.023  1023
1681

EXERCISE-1

1. D 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. D

10.C 11.C 12.D 13.B 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.B 18.A

19.C 20.B 21.D 22.C 23.B 24.B 25.C 26.A 27.A

28.C 29.B 30.C 31.C 32.A 33.B 34.B 35.C 36.B

37.A 38.B 39.B 40.B 41.D 42. D 43.D 44.B 45.C

46.A 47.B 48.C 49.B

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EXERCISE-2
Multiple Choice questions

1. (A,B,C,D) 2. (B,D) 3. (A,B,C,D) 4. (A, C,D) 5. (C,D)


6. (B,D) 7. (A,B,C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (A,B,C,D) 13. (A,B,C) 14. (A,B,C) 15. (B)
16. (A,B,C,D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A,B,D) 20. (A,B,C)
21. (A) 22. (A,B,C,D) 23. (A,B,D) 24. (A) 25. (B)
26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A,B,C)

Comprehension Type
1.D 2.D 3.D 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.D 10.C
11.C 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.D 19.D 20.D
Matrix Match
1. A−s, B−r, C−p, D−q 2. A−p,q,r, B−p,q,r, C−p,q, D−p,q,s

3. A−p, B−p,q,s, C−p,q,r, D−p,r 4. A−p,s, B−p,s, C−p,r, D−q

5. A−p,q,r, B−p,s, C−p,s, D−p,s 6. (a), 7. (b), 8. (a)

Integer type
1. 1 2. 4 3. 6 4. 4

JEE MAIN QUESTIONS


1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b)
8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b)
15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)

JEE ADVANCED QUESTIONS


Objective Questions I
1.(C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (B)
Objective Questions II
1.(B,C,D) 2. (A,B,C) 3. (D)

Assertion and Reason


1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C)

Fill in the Blanks


1. electron affinity 2. Electronegativity 3. higher effective nuclear charge
4. inert pair effect
True / False
1. T 2. F 3.F 4. F

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EXERCISE-3
1. Which of the following statement is incorrect for an atom having electronic configuration 2, 8, 7
(a) It forms diatomic molecules (b) It is a non metal element
(c) It valency is 1 (d) It forms basic oxide

2. Electronegativity is the measurement of capacity of an atom by which


(a) Electrons get repelled
(b) Electrons get attracted
(c) Point with proton
(d) Co-exist electronegativity with another atom

3. Pauling electronegativity values of elements are useful in predicting


(a) Polarity of the bond (b) Position in the E.M.F series
(c) Coordination numbers (d) Dipole moments

4. The electrons configuration of four elements are given below. Which element does not belong to the
same block as others?
(a)  Xe 4f 14 5d10 6s 2 (b)  Kr  4d10 5s 2 (c)  Ne  3s 2 3p5 (d)  Ar  3d10 4s 2

5. Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 19, 37 and 55 respectively. Which of the following
statements is true about them?
(a) Their ionization potential would increase with increasing atomic number
(b) ‘Y’ would have an ionization potential between those of ‘X’ and ‘Z’
(d) ‘Y’ would have the highest ionization potential

6. Which one of the following ions has the smallest radius?


(a) Cl– (b) S2– (c) K+ (d) Ca2+

7. Na+, Mg+, Al3+ and Si4+ are isoelectronic. The order of their ionic size is
(a) Na   Mg   Al3  Si 4 (b) Na   Mg  Al3  Si 4
(c) Na   Mg   Al3  Si4 (d) Na   Mg  Al3  Si 4

8. Atomic number of N is 7, atomic number of the third element of the nitrogen family is
(a) 23 (b) 15 (c) 33 (d) 43

9. A transition element X has the configuration  Ar  3d 4 in its +3 oxidation state. Its atomic number is
(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 22 (d) 19

10. The electronic configuration of gadoliniiun (At. No. 64) is


(a)  Xe 5d8 6s 2 (b)  Xe 4f 8 6s 2 (c)  Xe  4f 7 5d1 6s 2 (d)  Xe  4f 7 5d 0 6s 2

11. Which one of the following is correct order of the size of iodine species?
(a) I  I  I (b) I  I  I  (c) I  I  I (d) I  I  I

12. Which of the following does not represent the correct order of the property indicated
(a) Sc3  Cr 3  Fe3  Mn 3 ionic radii (b) Sc  Ti  Cr  Mn Density
3 3 3
(c) Sc  Y  La ionic radii (d) FeO  CaO  MnO  CuO Basic nature

13. Fluorine has low electron affinity than chlorine because of


(a) Smaller radius of fluorine high e– density (b) Smaller radius of chlorine high e– density
(c) Bigger radius of fluorine less e– density (d) Smaller radius of chlorine less e– density

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14. Which of the following is most electronegative?
(a) Lead (b) Silicon (c) Carbon (d) Tin

15. The ions O2 , F , Na  , Mg 2 and Al3 are isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show
(a) An increase from O2 to F and then decrease from Na  to Al3
(b) A decrease from O2 to F and the increase from Na  to Al3
(c) A significant increase from O2 to Al3
(d) A significant decrease from O2 to Al3

16. Lanthanoids are


(a) 14 elements in the seventh period (Atomic no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sub level
(b) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublevel
(c) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic no.= 90 to 103) that are filling 5f sublevel
(d) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sublevel

17. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with
negative sign) of the given atomic species
(a) F < Cl < O < S (b) S < O < Cl < F (c) O < S< F < Cl (d) Cl < F < S < S

18. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic
numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy
(a) Vanadium (Z = 23) (b) Manganese (Z = 25)
(c) Chromium (Z = 24) (d) Iron (Z = 26)

19. Which of the following is the most basic oxide?


(a) SeO 2 (b) Al 2O3 (c) Sb2 O3 (d) Bl2 O3

20. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hydrid orbital of carbon is
(a) sp  sp2  sp3 (b) sp  sp2  sp3 (c) sp  sp2  sp3 (d) sp  sp2  sp3

21. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it?
(a) F2  Cl2  Br2  I : bond dissociation energy
(b) F2  Cl2  Br2  I : oxidizing power
(c) HI > HBr > HCI > HF : acidic property in water
(d) F > Cl > Br > I : electro negativity

22. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main
reason for this is
(a) More active nature of the actinoids
(b) More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(c) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbtials
(d) Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids

23. Which one of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive
element
(a)  He 2s1 (b)  Xe 6s1 (c)  He  2s 2 (d)  Xe 6s 2

24. The liquidified metal expanding on solidification is


(a) Ga (b) Al (c) Zn (d) Cu

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25. The pair of amphoteric hydroxide is
(a) Al  OH 3 , LiOH (b) Be  OH 2 , Mg  OH 2
(c) B  OH 3 , Be  OH 2 (d) Be  OH 2 , Zn  OH 2

26. Identify the correct order of the size of the following


(a) Ca 2  K   Ar  Cl  S2 (b) Ar  Ca 2  K   Cl   S2
(c) Ca 2  Ar  K   Cl   S2 (d) Ca 2  K   Ar  S2  Cl 

27. Which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy?
(a) 1s 2 2s2 2p3 (b) 1s 2 2s2 2p5 3s1 (c) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 (d) 1s 2 2s2 2p5

28. Exothermic process is


(a) Na  Na   e (b) O  e  O (c) O  e  O2 (d) Cl  Cl  e

29. The percent ionic character in the molecule A-B is calculated by the formula
2
100  0.16  X A  X B   0.035  X A  X B  
 
Where X A & X B are the electronegativities of A & B respectively. Thus, the maximum ionic
character is associated with
(a) H–F (b) H – Cl (c) H – Br (d) H – I

30. Element of 33 atomic no. would be of this family


(a) Halogen (b) Carbon (c) Boron (d) Nitrogen

31. Considering hydrides how the valency of elements change from group I to group VII of the periodic
table
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 1, 3, 5, 7, 5, 3, 1 (d) 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

32. Zinc does not show the variable valency as elements of d-block because
(a) This is soft metal (b) d-orbital is full
(c) Its melting point is low (d) Volatile metal

33. Which is transition element in the following


(a) Al (b) As (c) Ni (d) Pb

34. The correct order of electronegativity for the element P, S, N and O is


(a) P < S < N < O (b) P < S < O < N (c) O < N < S < P (d) P < O < S < N

35. The right order of ionization potential of Li, Be, B & C is


(a) C > Be > B > Li (b) C > B > Be > Li (c) C > B > Li > Be (d) B > C > Be > Li

36. Chemical properties of atom depends on


(a) Mass number (b) Atomic number
(c) Atomic number and atomic mass (d) Number of neutrons

37. Increasing order of metallic characteristic of C, Sb, As, Bi, Si is shown by


(a) C, Si, As, Sb, Bi (b) C, Si, Bi, Sb, A (c) C, Si, Sb, Bi, As (d) C, Si, As, Bi, Sb

38. The electronic configuration of an element 1s 2 ,2s2 , 2p6 ,3s 2 3p4 . In this group the atomic no. of
element which will come below this
(a) 30 (b) 34 (c) 24 (d) 36

262
39. The reason of more reactivity of fluorine is
(a) Less energy of F – F bond (b) F2 is a gas at normal temperature
(c) Its bonding electron are maximum (d) More energy of F – F bond

40. The correct sequence of the electron affinity of C, N, O and F is


(a) C > N < O < F (b) O > N > C > F (c) C < N > O < F (d) C > N > O > F

41. The correct order of ionization potential of N, O, P & S is


(a) N > O > P > S (b) N > P > O > S (c) S > O > P > N (d) N > P < O < S

42. Which of the following has the maximum size Li, Be, C and N
(a) Li (b) Be (c) C (d) N

43. When the atomic no. of halogen increases then


(a) They lose outer electrons with difficulty (b) Their colour will be lighter
(c) They gain electron less easily (d) Their condensation is less

44. Element having electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1 shows similarity in properties with the
element
(a) Cr (b) Ca (c) Rb (d) Mo

45. Transuranium elements are those which are


(a) Heavier than uranium (b) Lighter than uranium
(c) Lower atomic no. than uranium (d) Same atomic no. than uranium

46. Which of the following elements is the strongest oxidizing agent?


(a) F (b) Cl (c) I (d) Br

47. What is the atomic number of the element having the outer configuration as 5s2 5p3
(a) 33 (b) 34 (c) 51 (d) 52

48. The correct order of ionization energies of F–, Cl–, F and Cl is


(a) Cl  F  Cl   F (b) Cl   F  Cl  F
(c) F  Cl  Cl  F (d) Cl   Cl  F  F

49. Out of Na, Mg, K and Ca, which element has the maximum electronegativity?
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) K (d) Ca

50. Element with electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 belongs to which of the following
(a) Metal (b) Non-metal (c) Metalloid (d) Inert gas

51. Which of the following sets of elements has maximum electronegativity


(a) N, O, F (b) P, S, Cl (c) As, Se, Br (d) Sb, Te, I

52. In the following pairs which are not matched


(a) Halogen which is in liquid state at normal temperature-Bromine
(b) Most electronegative element-Fluorine
(c) Most reactive Halogen – Fluorine
(d) Most oxidant halogen-Iodine

53. Which one of the following is the biggest ion


(a) Al+3 (b) Ba+2 (c) Mg+2 (d) Na+

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54. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than that of oxygen because
(a) Nitrogen has half filled p-orbitals
(b) Nitrogen is left to the oxygen in the same period of periodic table
(c) Nitrogen contains less number of electros
(d) Nitrogen is less electronegative

55. Californium is present in which of the following


(a) Alkali metals (b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Lanthanide series (d) Actinide series

56. Element of atomic no. 34 is related from periodic table


(a) Third period & VI A group (c) Fourth period & V A group
(c) Third period & V A group (d) Fourth period & VI A group

57. In which of the following element has maximum electron affinity


(a) Li (b) Be (c) B (d) C

58. Due to screening effect of internal electrons of atom


(a) Ionization potential decreases (b) Ionization potential increases
(c) Ionization potential is not affected (d) Attraction on outer electrons increases

59. In the following smallest ionic radius of Cr would be in


(a) K2CrO4 (b) CrO2 (c) CrF3 (d) CrCl3

60. An atom of an element has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 1. Which of the following statement is
correct
(a) The valency of element is 7
(b) The element exists as a diatomic molecule
(c) The element is of non-metallic nature
(d) The element forms a basic oxide

61. Referring carbon family (group 14) which of the following statement is true while moving down the
group
(a) Metallic character decreases (b) Stability of +2 oxidation state increases
(c) Ionization energy increases (d) Atomic size decreases

62. Elements of the same group are


(a) H, Be (b) C, S (c) As, Se (d) Mg, Ba

63. Alkali metal due to lower ionization potential is


(a) Strong oxidant (b) Weak reductant
(c) Strong reductant (d) Represents both properties

64. Moving down in group which property is increased


(a) Ionization potential(b) Electron affinity (c) Electronegativity (d) Atomic radius

65. The radii of iso-electronic species (a) atom (b) cation & (c) anion following the order
(a) c > a > b (b) b > c > a (c) c > b > a (d) None

66. Alkali metals in each period have


(a) Smallest size (b) Lowest ionization potential
(c) Highest ionization potential (d) Highest electronegativity

67. Which of the alkaline earth metal is strongest reducing agent


(a) Ca (b) Sr (c) Ba (d) Mg

264
68. The order of size is
(a) S2  Cl  O2  F (b) Cl   S2  O2  F
(c) S2  O2  Cl  F (d) S2  O2  F  Cl
69. The pair showing diagonal relationship is
(a) Li-Mg (b) Be-Al (c) B-Si (d) All the above

70. The first ionization energies of alkaline earth metals are higher than those of the alkali metals. This is
because
(a) There is increase in the effective nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metal
(b) There is decreases in the effective nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metals
(c) There is no change in the effective nuclear change
(d) None of the above

71. Elements in which 4f orbitals are progressively filled are called as


(a) Transition element (b) Lanthanides
(c) Actinides (d) Inert gases

72. The property of hydrogen which distinguishes it from other alkali metals is
(a) Its electropositive character (b) Its affinity for non-metals
(c) Its reducing character (d) Its non-metallic character

73. Arrange the following in order of increasing atomic radii Na, Si, Al, Ar
(a) Na, SI, Al, Ar (b) SI, Al, Na, Ar (c) Ar, Al, SI, Na (d) Na, Al, SI, Ar

74. The outer most electronic configuration of alkaline earth metal would be
(a) ns2 (b) ns1 (c) np6 (d) nd10

75. The pair showing atomic no. of the elements of the same group is
(a) 11 &37 (b) 19 & 15 (c) 39 & 88 (d) None

76. Atomic radii of alkali metals (M) follow the order Li < Na < K < Rb but ionic radii in aqueous
solution follow the reverse order Li+ > Na + > K + > Rb+. The reason of the reverse order is
(a) Increase in the ionization energy (b) Decrease in the metallic bond character
(c) Increase in the electropositive character (d) Decrease in the amount of hydration

77. Be (II-A) shows different behavior as compared to other elements of the same group the reason being
(a) Small size and high electronegativity (b) Small size and low electronegativity
(c) Bigger size and low ionization energy (d) Bigger size and large ionic radius

78. The electronic configuration 1s 2 2s 2 2p1x 2p1y 2p1z represents which of the following elements
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Fluorine

79. Which is having maximum capacity to form cation


(a) Li (b) Sr (c) Ca (d) Mg

80. Most reactive metal is


(a) Li (b) F (c) Pt (d) Cu

81. Which is different in following?


(a) Ni (b) Co (c) Pd (d) Rb

82. Elements with outer electronic configuration ns2 np6 are


(a) Alkaline earth metals (b) Transition elements
(c) Chalcogens (d) Noble gases

265
83. In the following the elements with the highest electropositivity is
(a) Cu (b) Cs (c) Ba (d) Cr

84. The compounds of alkaline earth metals have the following magnetic nature
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic (c) Ferromagnetic (d)Antiferromagnetic

85. The long form of the periodic table has ______ periods and vertical columns
(a) 7 : 18 (b) 8 : 12 (c) 6 : 18 (d) 6 : 8

86. Which of the following is a metalloid


(a) Gallium (b) Indium (c) Boron (d) Aluminium

87. Highest ionization energy is required in which of the following reaction


(a) Cu  Cu  (b) Br  Br  (c) I  I  (d) Li  Li 

88. Which of the following metals has highest density


(a) Ir (b) Os (c) Pb (d) Hg

89. Which of the following group contains all the metallic elements
(a) IIIA (b) IVA (c) VIIA (d) IIA

90. Incorrect order of ionization enthalpy is


(a) Cl  Ar  K  (b) Au  Ag  Cu (c) K  Ca  Sc (d) Cs  Rb  K

91. An element has following properties


(1) Atomic no. –13
(2) With HNO3-no effect
(3) On reaction with O2-no effect
(4) On heating layer of oxide is formed
(a) Al (b) In (c) Br (d) Mg

92. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement?


(a) The ionization potential of nitrogen is greater than that of oxygen
(b) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater than that of chlorine
(c) The ionization potential of beryllium is greater than that of boron
(d) The electronegativity of fluorine is greater than that of chlorine

93. Which of the following does not exhibit periodicity in properties of the elements?
(a) Ionization energy (b) n/p ratio (c) Electronegativity (d) Atomic radius

94. The decreasing order of the ionization potential of the following elements is
(a) Ne > Cl > P > S > Al > Mg (b) Ne > Cl > P>S > Mg > Al
(c) Ne > Cl > S> P > Mg> Al (d) Ne > Cl > S > P > Al > Mg

95. Which is chemically most active non-metal


(a) F2 (b) He (c) N2 (d) O2

96. The lightest metal in the periodic table is


(a) Na (b) Hg (c) Ca (d) Li

97. Arrange in the increasing order of atomic radii of following element O, C, F, Cl, Br
(a) F, O, C, Cl, Br (b) F, C, O, Cl, Br (c) F, Cl, Br, O, C (d) C, O, F, Cl, Br

98. The most common lanthanide is


(a) Lanthanum (b) Cerium (c) Thorium (d) Plutonium

266
99. The element with highest electron affinity among halogens is
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I

100. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers belong to that of alkali metals?
(a) 1, 12, 30, 4, 61 (b) 37, 19, 3, 55 (c) 9, 17, 35, 53 (d) 12, 20, 56,88

101. Element with atomic number 58 belongs to which block?


(a) s (b) p (c) d (d) f

102. Which element will have maximum ionization energy out of the following electronic configurations?
(a)  Ne  3s 2 3p1 (b)  Ne  3s 2 3p 4 (c)  Ne  3s 2 3p 3 (d)  Ar  3d10 4s 2 4p3

103. The outermost electronic configuration of most electronegative elements is


(a) ns 2 np3 (b) ns 2 np4 (c) ns 2 np5 (d) ns 2 np6

104. Highest size will be of


(a) Br  (b) I (c) I (d) I

105. Element Hg has two oxidation states Hg 1 & Hg 2 . The right order or radii of these ions
(a) Hg 1  Hg 2 (b) Hg 2  Hg 1 (c) Hg 1  Hg 2 (d) Hg 2  Hg 1

106. The ionization energy will be maximum for the process


(a) Ba  Ba  (b) Be  Be (c) Cs  Cs  (d) Li  Li 

107. One element has atomic weight 39. Its electronic configuration is 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 ,3s 2 3p6 4s1 . The true
statement for that element is
(a) It has high I.E. (b) It is a transition element
36
(c) It is an isotone with 18 Ar (d) If forms stable oxide M2O

108. The incorrect statement among the following is


(a) The first ionization potential of Al is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
(b) The second ionization potential of Mg is greater that the second ionization potential Na
(c) The first ionization potential of Na is less than first ionization potential of Mg
(d) The third ionization of Mg is greater than the third ionization potential of Al

109. Ionic radii of


(a) Ti 4  Mn 7 (b) Cl  Cl (c) K   Cl  (d) P3  P5

110. The correct order of radii is


(a) N < Be < B (b) F  O 2  N3 (c) Na   Li  K (d) Fe3  Fe2  Fe4

111. The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is
(a) K > Na > LI (b) Be > Mg > Ca (c) B > C> N (d) Ge > Si > C

112. Identify the least stable ion among the following


(a) LI (b) Be (c) B (d) C
113. Which one of the following is an example of non-typical transition elements?
(a) Li, K, Na (b) Be, Al, Pb (c) Zn, Cd, Hg (d) Ba, Ca, Sr

114. Which of the following electronic configurations is that of a transition element?


(a) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d10 4s 2 4p6 (b) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d10 4s 2 4p2
(c) 1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d 2 4s2 (d) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 2

267
115. Which one of the following ions has the highest value of ionic radius
(a) O2 (b) B3 (c) Li  (d) F

116. The formation of the oxide ion O2g requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as
shown below
Og   e   Og  H o  142kJ mol1
Og   e   O2g H o  844 kJ mol 1
This is because
(a) O  ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron
(b) Oxygen has high electron affinity
(c) Oxygen is more electronegative
(d) O  ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom

117. Which among the following factors is the most important in making fluorine the strongest oxidizing
halogen?
(a) Hydration enthalpy (b) Ionization enthalpy
(c) Electron affinity (d) Bond dissociation energy

118. In a given shell the order of screening effect is


(a) s > p > d > f (b) f > d > p > s (c) p < d < s < f (d) d > f > s > p

119. Mg & Li are similar in their properties due to


(a) Same e/m ratio (b) Same electron affinity
(c) Same group (d) Same charge/volume ratio

120. Which of the following do not found in nature


(a) Y (b) Zr (c) Tc (d) Pt

121. Which of the following conjugate base has maximum charge density
(a) O2 (b) S2 (c) Te2 (d) Se2

122. Which of the following has positive electron gain enthalpy


(a) O2 (b) S2 (c) a & b both (d) O 

123. Nature of H atom in acetylene is


(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Neutral (d) None of this

124. The compound with 3d 2 4s2 configuration is related to which block


(a) s-block (b) p-block (c) d-block (d) f-block

125. Total elements in fifth period are


(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 18 (d) 32

126. Element having highest I.P. is


(a) H (b) Li (c) B (d) Na

127. Which of the following is non-polar bond


(a) C–H (b) N–H (c) F–F (d) O–H

128. Transition elements are


(a) All metals (b) Some metals & some nonmetals
(c) All solids (d) All very high reactive

268
129. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides (H – X) is
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) HCl < HF > HBr < HI (d) HI > HCl < HF > HBr

130. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that


(a) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

131. Which of the following statements is true?


(a) HCIO4 is a weaker acid than HCIO3
(b) HNO3 is a stronger acid than HNO2
(c) H3PO3 is a stronger acid than H2SO4
(d) In aqueous medium HF is a stronger acid than HCl

132. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P, S and F (lowest first) is
(a) B < P < S < F (b) B < S < P < F (c) F < S < P < B (d) P < S < B < F

133. Alkaline earth metal elements are


(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic (c) Antiferromagnetic (d) Ferromagnetic

134. Name given to gallium by Mendeleev if


(a) Eka aluminium (b) Eka silicon (c) Eka zinc (d) Eka gemanium

135. Which of the following aqueous acid is most acidic


(a) HCl (b) HF (c) HI (d) HBr

136. Which of the following is the strongest acid


(a) HCIO (b) HCIO2 (c) HCIO3 (d) HCIO4

137. The correct order of first ionization enthalpy of B, C, O & N is


(a) B < C < N < O (b) B < C < O < N (c) O < N < B < C (d) N < O < C < B

138. The correct order of increasing first ionization energy is


(a) Ca < K < Ne < P < F (b) F < Ca < Ne < P < K
(c) K < Ca < P < F < Ne (d) Ne < F < P < Ca < K

139. The highest magnetic moment is shown by a transition metal ion with the outer electronic
configuration
(a) 3d2 (b) 3d5 (c) 3d7 (d) 3d9

140. Consider the isoelectronic species Na  , Mg 2 ,F ,O2 . The correct order of increasing length of their
radii is
(a) F  O2 , Mg 2  Na  (b) Mg 2  Na   F  O2
(c) O2 F  Na   Mg 2 (d) O2  F  Mg 2  Na 

141. The number of electron is an atom with atomic number 105 having  n     8 are
(a) 30 (b) 17 (c) 15 (d) Unpredictable

269
142. Match list –I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

List-I List-II
2
(A) 1s ,2s 2p ,3s2 6 2 (i) In
(B) 1s 2 ,2s 2 2p6 ,3s 2 3p6 3d10 , 4s1 (ii) Pd
(C) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 ,3s 2 3p6 3d10 ,4s1 4s2 4p6 4d8 ,5s2 (iii) Mg
(D) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 ,3s 2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 4d10 ,5s 2 5p1 (iv) Cu
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

143. Which of the following order is wrong?


(a) NH3  PH3  AsH3 –acidic strength
(b) Li  Be  B  C  1st ionization energies
(c) Al2O3  MgO  Na 2O  K 2O –basic strength
(d) LI   g   Na   g   K   g   Cs   g  –ionic radius

144. Which relationship between the radii of these species is correct?


(a) Na  Na  , F  F (b) Na  Na   F  F
(c) Na  Na  , F  F (d) Na  Na  , F  F

145. 37
Cl2 can be obtained by
37 35
(a) Successive ionization of Cl  g  (b) Protonating Cl  aq  with two protons
35
(c) Ionization 35
Cl  g  (d) Fusion of Cl nucleus with a particles

146. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1 e.v. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be
(a) 5.1eV (b) 10.2eV (c) 2.55eV (d) 10.2eV

147. Which of the element has zero electron affinity?


(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) Argon (d) Hydrogen

148. The first four ionization energy values for an element are 176, 356, 1842 and 2344 kcal mol–1
respectively. The number o valence electrons in the elements is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

149. When these oxides are arranged in order of increasing strength (weakest acid first), what is the
correct order?
(a) NO  N 2 O  N 2 O4  N 2O5 (b) CO2  CO
(c) MnO  Mn 2O7  Mn 2 O3 (d) Cl 2O  Cl 2O3  Cl2O5  Cl2O7

150. Choose the s-block element from the following


(a) 1s 2 ,2s2 , 2p6 ,3s 2 ,3p6 ,3d5 , 4s1 (b) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p6 ,3s2 ,3p6 ,3d10 , 4s1
(c) 1s 2 ,2s2 , 2p6 ,3s2 ,3p6 , 4s1 (d) All of the above

151. The correct order of acidic strength of oxides of nitrogen is


(a) NO  NO2  N 2O  N2 O3  N3O5 (b) N 2O  NO  N2 O3  N2 O4  N 2O5
(c) NO  N 2O  N2 O3  N2 O5  N 2O4 (d) NO  N 2O  N2 O6  N 2O3  N2 O4

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QUESTIONS ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMS

152. As the elements of Group 17 are considered in order of increasing atomic number there is an increase
in

(a) Atomic radius (b) Eletronegativity


(c) First ionization energy (d) Number of electrons in the first shell

153. In the ground state each atom of an element has two valence electrons. This element has lower first
ionization energy than calcium. Where is the element located in the Periodic Table?
(a) Group 1, Period 4 (b) Group 2, Period 5
(c) Group 2, Period 3 (d) Group 3, period 4

154. The element most likely to conduct electricity are the ones where electrons are not tightly bound to
nucleus. The trend for electrical conductivity in the following is
(a) Li > Na > S > Ne (b) S> Li > Na > Ne (c) Ne > Na > Li > S (d) Na > Li > S< Ne

155. Which of the following has the smallest size?


(a) Ne (b) O2– (c) F– (d) Na+

156. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than that of oxygen because of
(a) Greater attraction of nucleus
(b) Extra stability of half-filled p-orbitals
(c) Smaller size of nitrogen atom
(d) Poor shielding effect

157. When unequal number of unpaired electrons are aligned in opposite direction the net magnetic
moment is not zero. Such substances are termed as
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Ferromagnetic (c) Ferromagnetic (d) Ant ferromagnetic

158. Which element has the lowest first ionization energy?


(a) B (b) C (c) Al (d) Si

159. Which of these elements has the greatest electronegativity?


(a) Br (b) N (c) O (d) S

160. Which list includes elements in order of increasing metallic character?


(a) Si, P, S (b) As, P, N (c) Al, Ge, Sb (d) Br, Se, As

271
ANSWER KEY

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)

21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)

31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (a)

41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a)

51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (d)

61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (a)

71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (b)
101. (d) 102. (c) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (d) 120. (c)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (a) 129. (b) 130. (c)
131. (b) 132. (b) 133. (a) 134. (a) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (c) 139. (b) 140. (b)
141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (d) 150. (c)
151. (b) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (d) 155. (d) 156. (b) 157. (c) 158. (c) 159. (c) 160. (d)

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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO

1. INTRODUCTION
Chemical Bond is the physical process responsible for the attractive interactions between atoms and
molecules, and that which confers stability to diatomic and polyatomic chemical compounds. The
explanation of the attractive forces is a complex area that is described by the laws of quantum
electrodynamics. In general, strong chemical bonding is associated with the sharing or transfer of electrons
between the participating atoms.
The study on the “nature of forces that hold or bind atoms together to form a molecule” is required to gain
knowledge of the following
 To know about how atoms of same element form different compounds combining with different
elements.
 To know why particular shapes are adopted by molecules.
 To understand the specific properties of molecules or ions and the relation between the specific type of
bonding in the molecules.

2. LEWIS THEORY
The Lewis theory gave the first explanation of a covalent bond in terms of electrons that was generally
accepted. If two electrons are shared between two atoms, this constitutes a bond and binds the atoms
together. For many light atoms, a stable arrangement is attained when the atom is surrounded by eight
electrons.

The octet can be made up from some electrons which are totally owned and some electrons which are
‘shared’. Thus atoms continue to form bonds until they have made up an octet of electrons. This is called the
‘octet rule’. The octet rule explains the observed valences in a large number of cases. There are exceptions to
the octet rule; for example, hydrogen is stable with only two electrons.

The conventional Lewis structure representation of a pair of bonded electrons is by means of a ‘dash’ (-)
usually called a ‘bond’. Lone pairs or ‘non-bonded’ electrons are represented by ‘dots’. Some structures are
represented below:

.. H
(NH3) H : N : H
or H N H
..
..
H

H H
.. .. ..
(CO2) : O C O : (CH3CHO) H C C O :

H
Such representations of organic molecules are not usually problematic. However, ‘hit-and-trial’ is generally
the method (obviously not very efficient) used by most students in figuring out the structures of inorganic
molecules.

3. LEWIS DOT STRUCTURES


The formula of a molecule shows the number of atoms of each element but does not show the bonding
arrangement of the atoms. To represent the bonding pattern in a molecule, the electron dot symbols of the
elements are arranged such that the shared pairs and unshared pairs (called lone pairs) are shown and the

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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO

.. ..
octet rule (or duet for hydrogen) is satisfied. For example, a molecule of fluorine is shown as : F.. : F
.. : or
.. .. .. ..
F
: .. F
.. : and a molecule of hydrogen fluoride is shown as H : F.. : or H F.. : .

Arrangement of dot symbols used to represent molecules are called Lewis structures. Lewis structures do
not convey any information regarding the shape of the molecule. Usually, the shared pairs of electrons are
represented by lines between atoms and any unshared pairs are shown as dot pairs.

Lewis structures are written by fitting the element dot symbols together to show shared electron pairs and
to satisfy the octet rule. For example,
..
. .. :O H
(i) In water (H2O), one H and two . O. : complete their duet and octet respectively
H

. .. ..
(ii) In ammonia (NH3), three H and one . N. . fit together and satisfy their duet and octet H N H
respectively as H
..
:Cl:
.. .
. . . .. ..
(iii) .. and one C
In carbon tetrachloride (CCl4), four : Cl . complete their octet as : Cl
.. C Cl
.. :

:Cl
.. :

For the given molecules, we have adopted hit & trial method to fit the dot symbols together and satisfy the
octet rule. But remember that hydrogen form one bond, oxygen forms two bonds, nitrogen three bonds and
carbon forms four bonds. For simpler molecules, the hit & trial method works perfectly but for slightly
complicated polyatomic species, this may give us more than one possible structure. Thus, a systematic
approach is needed to design the Lewis structures of such polyatomic species. But before proceeding
further, let us understand the limitation of this approach.

LIMITATIONS OF LEWIS THEORY OF DRAWING STRUCTURE

This method would be applicable to only those molecules/species, which follow octet rule except hydrogen.
There are three kinds of molecules/species, which do not follow octet rule.
(a) Molecules, which have contraction of octet. Such molecules are electron deficient. For example,
BH3, BF3, BCl3, AlCl 3, GaCl3 etc.
(b) Molecules, which have expansion of octet. Such species have more than eight electrons in their
outermost shell. This is possible in those molecules, which have vacant dorbitals, thus they can
expand their octet. For example, PCl5, SF6 etc.
(c) Molecules containing odd number of electrons (in total) cannot satisfy octet rule. Such species are
called odd electron species and are paramagnetic in nature due to presence of unpaired electron.
For example, NO, NO2 and ClO2.

METHOD OF DRAWING LEWIS STRCUTURES


To draw the Lewis structures of polyatomic species, follow the given sequence.

(i) First calculate n1.

n1 = Sum of valence electron of all the atoms of the species  net charge on the species.

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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO

For a negatively charged species, electrons are added while for positively charged species, the
electrons are subtracted. For anuninegatively charged species, add 1 to the sum of valence
electrons and for a dinegatively charged species, add 2 and so on.
(ii) Then calculate n2.
n2 =( 8 number of atoms other than H) + (2  number of H atoms)

(iii) Subtract n1 from n2, which gives n3.


n3 = n2 n1 = number of electrons shared between atoms = number of bonding electrons.
n 3 n 2  n1
 = number of shared (bonding) electron pairs = number of bonds.
2 2
(iv) Subtracting n3 from n1 gives n4.
n4 = n1 n3 = number of unshared electrons or nonbonding electrons.
n4 n  n3
= 1 = number of unshared electron pairs = number of lone pairs.
2 2

(v) Identify the central atom. Generally, the central atom is the one, which is least electronegative of all
the atoms, when the other atoms do not contain hydrogen. When the other atoms are hydrogen
only, then the central atom would be the more electronegative atom. Here, you are required to know
a bit of chemistry, physics or mathematics won’t help.

(vi) Now around the central atom, place the other atoms and distribute the required number of bonds
(as calculated in step (iii))& required number of lone pairs (as calculated in step (iv) ), keeping in
mind that every atom gets an octet of electrons except hydrogen.

(vii) Then calculate the formal charge on each atom of the species.Formal charge is the difference
between the valence electrons in an isolated atom and the number of electrons assigned to that
atom in a Lewis Structure.
Formal charge on an atom = number of valence electrons of the atom  (number of shared electrons
of that atom + number of unshared electrons of that atom).
Formal charge on an atom = number of valence electrons of the atom  number of bonds formed by
that atom  number of unshared electrons (2  lone pairs) of that atom.
For every electron of an atom that is shared in a bond, the “number of bonds formed by the atom” is
one. Therefore if an atom forms only one bond (AB), one electron of the bond is that of A and other
is that of B. So the “number of bonds” of A and B each is one. But if the bond were a coordinate
bond (AB), then two electrons of A are involved in it. This makes the number of bonds of A to be 2
and that of B to be zero.

(viii) When two adjacent atoms get opposite formal charges, then charges can be removed by replacing
the covalent bond between the atoms by a dative (coordinate) bond. This bond will have the
arrowhead pointing towards the atom with positive formal charge. It is not mandatory to show the
dative bonds unless required to do so.

(ix) The given Lewis structure should account for the factual aspects of the molecule like resonance
(delocalization), bond length, pd back bonding etc.
Sometimes, there are more than one acceptable Lewis structure for a given species. In such cases,
we select the most plausible Lewis structure by using formal charges and the following guidelines:
 For neutral molecules, a Lewis structure in which there are no formal charges is preferable to one in
which formal charges are present.

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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO

 Lewis structures with large formal charges (+2, +3 and/ or 2, 3 and so on) are less plausible than
those with small formal charges.
 Among Lewis structures having similar distributions of formal charges, the most plausible structure
is the one in which negative formal charges are placed on the more electronegative atoms.

Question: Determine Lewis structure of NO 3 ion.


Solution:
(i) n1 = 5 + (6  3) + 1 = 24
(ii) n2 = ( 4  8) = 32
(iii) n3 = n2  n1 = 32  24 = 8
8
 Number of bonds = =4
2
(iv) n4 = n1 n3 = 24  8 = 16
16
 Number of lone pairs = =8
2
(v) Nitrogen is the central atom (as it is less electronegative than O). Arranging three O atoms
around it and distributing 4 bonds and 8 lone pairs as
.. ..
:O N O
.. :
(a)
(b)
:O
.. : (c)
(vi) Calculating formal change on each atom.
Formal charge on N = 5  4  0 = + 1
Formal charge on O (a) = 6  2  4 = 0
Formal charge on O (b) = 6  1  6 = 1
Formal charge on O (c) = 6  1  6 = 1

Thus, the structures can now be shown as


1 1 0
0.. +1 .. 1
.. +1 .. 1
.. +1 ..
:O N O
.. : :O
.. N O
.. : :O
.. N O:

:O
.. : 1 :O: 0 :O
.. : 1

Final structure of NO 3 is therefore shown as


.. ..
:O N O
.. :

:O
.. :
which even accounts for resonance in NO 3 ion.

4. IONIC BOND (OR ELECTROVALENT LINKAGE)


An ion is an atom or group of atoms which has acquired charge due to the loss or gain of one or more
electrons. When an atom gains an electron to form a negative ion (anion), it will increase in size. On the
other hand, when an atom loses an electron to give positive ion (cation), it will contract. The electron lost or
gained is always from the outermost shell.

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When two atoms, one of which can lose one or more electrons to attain a noble gas configuration and the
other can receive these electrons and thereby acquire a noble gas configuration, they are said to be
bonded by an ionic bond. Since the loss and gain of electrons by atoms results in the formation of ions,
ionic bond is formed when two ions interact with each other and are thus held together by electrostatic
attraction.
The formation of an ionic compound is obviously related to the ease of formation of the cations and anions
from the neutral atom, which depends on two main factors:

Ionization energy: Lower the value of ionization energy of an atom, greater will be the ease of formation
of the cation from it.
Electron affinity: Higher the electron affinity of an atom, greater the ease of formation of the anion from
it.
The formation of an ionic compound is favoured by:
 low ionization energy (IE) of the metal.
 high electron affinity (EA) of the other element.
 higher lattice energy (U) of the resulting compound.

PROPERTIES OF IONIC COMPOUNDS


 Ionic compounds cannot show electrical conductivity as solids but conduct electricity quite well when
molten.
 Ionic compounds tend to have high melting points.
 Ionic compounds usually are very hard but brittle substances
 Ionic compounds are often soluble in polar solvents with high dielectric constants.

LATTICE ENERGY
“Lattice energy is the amount of energy released when one mole of an ionic solid is formed from its
constituent gaseous ions”. This amount of energy released is due to electrostatic force of attraction
produced by the 3 D rearrangement of the constituent ions.

Na+(g) + Cl-(g) Na+Cl-(s) + U; where U is the lattice energy.

The electrostatic attraction in the ionic bond is always follows coulomb’s law, which is given by
q q
F  12 2 where r is the interionic distance and q1& q2 are magnitude of charges.
r

Hence, the magnitude of lattice energy depends on two factors:

5. COVALENT BOND
A covalent bond is formed by the sharing of a pair of electrons between two atoms, each atom contributing
one electron to the shared pair. The shared pair of electrons should have opposite spins and they are
localized between the two nuclei concerned. A covalent bond is usually represented by a short line (i.e., a
dash) between the two atoms. Note that the covalent bond consists of a pair of electrons shared between
two atoms, and occupying a combination of two stable orbitals, one of each atom; the shared electrons of
each covalent bond are counted for each of the two atoms connected by the covalent bond.

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Properties of covalent compounds


a) Under normal conditions of temperature and pressure, these exist as gases (or) liquid of low boiling
points. This is due to the fact that very weak forces of attraction (Vander Waal's forces) exist
between discrete molecules. Some exist as soft solids if their molecular masses are high.

b) With the exception of few, which have giant three-dimensional structure such as diamond,
carborundum (SiC), silica (SiO2), others have relatively low melting and boiling points. This is due to
the presence of weak attractive forces between the molecules. On supplying heat energy, the
molecules are readily pulled out from these forces and move freely having high kinetic energy.

c) In general, covalent substances are bad conductors of electricity. Substances, which have polar
character like HCl in solution, can conduct electricity. Covalent solids having giant molecules are
bad conductors since they do not contain charged particles or free electrons.

d) In general, covalent substances are insoluble in polar solvents like H2O, but soluble in non-polar
solvents like benzene, CCl 4, ether etc. This is based on the principle, like dissolves like. Some of
the covalent compounds like alcohols; amines dissolve in water due to hydrogen bonding. Covalent
solids having giant molecules are practically insoluble in all solvents.

e) Covalent substances show molecular reactions. The reaction rates are usually low as it involves
breaking and establishing of covalent bonds.

6. CO-ORDINATE OR DATIVE BOND


It is a special type of covalent bond in which both the shared electrons are contributed by one atom only. It
may be defined as “a covalent bond in which both electrons of the shared pair are contributed by
one of the two atoms”. Such a bond is also called as dative bond. A coordinate or a dative bond is
established between two such atoms, one of which has a complete octet and possesses a pair of valence
electrons while the other is short of a pair of electrons.

The atom, which contributes electron pair is called the donor while the atom, which accepts, is called
acceptor. Co-ordinate bond after formation is indistinguishable from a covalent bond. This bond is
represented by an arrow ( → ) pointing towards acceptor atom.

For Example : Ammonium ion


The ammonia molecule has a lone pair of electrons i.e., an unshared pair. The hydrogen ion H+, has an
empty s orbital. The lone pair comes to be shared between the nitrogen and hydrogen atoms:

H  H   H 
.. 
 ..   | 
H : N :  H  H : N : H or H  N  H
..  ..   | 
H  H   H 
   

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Nitrogen atom is called the donor and H+, the acceptor. The arrowhead in N  H shows the acceptor.
NH is a neutral molecule. H+ carries a unit positive charge; so
3

ion carries a unit positive charge. Once
NH 4
the NH ion is formed, all the NH bonds become identical to each other.

4

CHARACTERISTICS OF COORDINATE COMPOUNDS:


 They exist as gases, liquids and solids under ordinary conditions
 Their melting and boiling points are higher than purely covalent compounds and lower than purely ionic
compounds
 They are sparingly soluble in polar solvents like water but readily soluble in non-polar solvents
 They are as stable as the covalent compounds. The addition compounds are however not very stable.
It is also a strong bond because the paired electrons cannot be separated easily.
 Like covalent compounds, these are also bad conductors of electricity. The solutions or fused mass do
not allow the passage of electricity.
 They undergo molecular reactions. The reactions are slow
 The bond is rigid and directional. Thus co-ordinate compounds show isomerism.
 The compounds containing co-ordinate bond possess high values of dielectric constants.

7. VALENCE BOND THEORY


According to this theory proposed by Heitler and London and developed by Linus Pauling and Slater.
 For the formation of a covalent bond, a half – filled atomic orbital of one atom overlaps with the half
– filled atomic orbitals of another atom. These atomic orbitals belong to the outermost shell of the
atoms.
 A covalent bond is formed by the overlapping of atomic orbitals having electrons with opposite
spins.
 The atomic orbitals containing paired electrons do not participate in the processes of overlapping.
These electrons are called non – bonding electrons.
 Due to the directional nature of most of the orbitals, overlapping is possible only when orbitals are
properly oriented.

7.1 Sigma and Pi Bonding

When two hydrogen atoms form a bond, their atomic orbitals overlap to produce a greater density of
electron cloud along the line connecting the two nuclei. In the simplified representations of the
formation of H2O and NH3 molecules, the O—H and N—H bonds are also formed in a similar
manner, the bonding electron cloud having its maximum density on the lines connecting the two
nuclei. Such bonds are called sigma bonds (-bond).

A covalent bond established between two atoms having the maximum density of the electron cloud
on the line connecting the centre of the bonded atoms is called a -bond. A -bond is thus said to
possess a cylindrical symmetry along the inter-nuclear axis.

Let us now consider the combination of two nitrogen atoms. Of the three singly occupied p-orbitals
in each, only one p-orbital from each nitrogen (say, the px may undergo “head–on” overlap to form a
-bond. The other two p-orbitals on each can no longer enter into a direct overlap. But each p-
orbital may undergo lateral overlap with the corresponding p-orbital on the neighbour atom. Thus we
have two additional overlaps, one by the two py orbitals, and the other by the two pz orbitals. These
overlaps are different from the type of overlap in a -bond. For each set of p-orbitals, the overlap
results in accumulation of charge cloud on two sides of the inter-nuclear axis. The bonding electron
cloud does no more posses an axial symmetry as with the -bond; instead, it possesses a plane of
symmetry. For the overlap of the pz atomic orbital, the xy plane provides this plane of symmetry; for
the overlap of the py atomic orbitals, the zx plane serves the purpose. Bonds arising out of such

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orientation of the bonding electron cloud are designated as -bonds. The bond formed by lateral
overlap of two atomic orbitals having maximum overlapping on both sides of the line connecting the
centres of the atoms is called a -bond. A -bond possesses a plane of symmetry, often referred to
as the nodal plane.

+ + +  + +

s s s-s  bond

+ + + -  + + -

s px s-px  bond

- + + + -  - + + -
px px px–px  - bond

+ + + +
+ 
- - - -
p  - p  bond

7.2 Limitation of Valance Bond Theory


Limitation1:
When the bonding scheme of certain polyatomic molecules is discussed, our simple valence bond theory
fails to accurately describe what is going on. Methane is one of these molecules where we must expand
upon our valence bond theory. The 2s orbital is filled with two electrons and the 2py orbital has no electrons
for use in bonding. This leaves only the 2px and the2pz orbitals as the orbitals that can participate in
bonding. We know however, that in CH4, four hydrogen atoms must make four bonds with the central
carbon atom.
What happens is that the carbon atom promotes one of its 2s electrons to the 2pyoribital. This leaves one
electron in the 2s orbital and one electron in the 2py orbital. All together, the central carbon now has four
unpaired valence electrons to bond to each of the four hydrogen atoms. Thus out of four C-H bonds one
should be different from remaining three C-H bonds. But experimentally it is found that all four C – H in
methane are identical in all aspect.

Limitation 2:
Another one of the shortcomings of the Valence Bond Theory is the inability to predict molecular
geometries. If we take a look at the bonding orbitals of H2O, only two of the p orbitals of sulphur bond with
a 1s orbital from H. The molecular geometry predicted by these two bonding orbitals is 90o. This is
obviously incorrect because the valence bond theory does not take into account the lone pair electrons on
the central O atom. The two lone pair electrons create a angle of 104.5o between the two hydrogen atoms.

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8. VSEPR THEORY
In 1957 Gillespie and Nyhom gave this theory to predict and explain molecular shapes and bond angles
more exactly. The theory was developed extensively by Gillespie as the Valence Shell Electron Pair
Repulsion (VSEPR) theory. This may be summarized as:

 The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all of the electron pairs present in the
valence shell.
 A lone pair of electrons takes up more space round the central atom than a bond pair, since the lone
pair is attracted to one nucleus whilst the bond pair is shared by two nuclei. It follows that repulsion
between two lone pairs is greater than repulsion between a lone pair and a bond pair, which in turn is
greater than the repulsion between two bond pairs. Thus the presence of lone pairs on the central
atom causes slight distortion of the bond angles from the ideal shape. If the angle between a lone pair,
the central atom and a bond pair is increased, it follows that the actual bond angles between the atoms
must be decreased. The order of repulsion between lone pairs and bond pairs of electrons follows the
order as:
Lone pair - lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair
 The magnitude of repulsions between bonding pairs of electrons depends on the electronegativity
difference between the central atom and the other atoms.
 Double bonds cause more repulsion than single bonds, and triple bonds cause more repulsion than a
double bond.

8.1 Geometry of Molecules

For the prediction of geometrical shapes of molecules with the help of VSEPR theory, it is convenient to
divide molecules into two categories as
(i) Molecules in which the central atom has no lone pair and
(ii) Molecules in which the central atom has one or more lone pairs.

Two Charge Clouds: When there are only two charge clouds, as occurs on the carbon atoms of (two
double bonds) and HCN (one single bond and one triple bond), the clouds are farthest apart when they
point in opposite directions. Thus, CO2 and HCN are linear molecules with bond angles of 180°.

Three Charge Clouds: When there are three charge clouds, as occurs on the carbon atom of
formaldehyde (two single bonds and one double bond) and the sulfur atom of SO2(one single bond, one
double bond, and one lone pair), the clouds are farthest apartwhen they lie in the same plane and point to
the corners of an equilateral triangle. Thus, a formaldehyde molecule has a trigonal planar shape, with H–
C–H and H-C=O bond angles near 120°. Similarly, an SO2 molecule has a trigonal planar arrangement of
its three charge clouds on sulfur, but one point of the triangle is occupied by a lone pair and two points by
oxygen atoms. The molecule therefore has a bent rather than linear shape, with an O–S–O bond angle of
approximately120° rather than 180°.
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Four Charge Clouds: When there are four charge clouds, as occurs on the central atoms in CH4 (four
single bonds), NH3 (three single bonds and one lone pair), and H2O (two single bonds and two lone pairs),
the clouds are farthest apart if they extend toward the corners of a regular tetrahedron. The central atom
lies in the center of the tetrahedron, the charge clouds point toward the four corners, and the angle
between two lines drawn from thecenter to any two corners is 109.5°.

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Five Charge Clouds: Five charge clouds, such as are found on the central atoms in PCl5, SF4 and ClF3
are oriented toward the corners of a geometric figure called a trigonalbipyramid. Three clouds lie in a plane
and point toward the corners of an equilateral triangle, the fourth cloud points directly up, and the fifth cloud
points down:

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Six Charge Clouds: Six charge clouds around an atom orient toward the six corners of a regular
octahedron, a geometric solid whose eight faces are equilateral triangles. All six positions are equivalent,
and the angle between any two adjacent positions is 90°.

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SF6 has six bond pairs in the outer shell and is a regular octahedron with bond angles of exactly 90°. In
BrF5, the Br also has six outer pairs of electrons, made up of five bond pairs and one lone pair. The lone
pair reduces the bond angles to 84°30’.

8.2 Geometry of Molecules

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9. HYBRIDIZATION
The intermixing of two or more pure atomic orbitals of an atom with almost same energy to give same
number of identical and degenerate new type of orbitals is known as hybridization. The new orbitals formed
are also known as hybrid orbitals. The intermixing or hybridization of atomic orbitals is a mathematical
concept based on quantum mechanics. During this process, the wavefunctions, Ψ of atomic orbitals of
same atom are combined to give new wavefunctions corresponding to hybrid orbitals.
Requirements for atomic orbitals to undergo hybridization:
 The atomic orbitals of same atom with almost same energy can only participate in the hybridization.
 The fully filled or half filled or even empty orbitals can undergo hybridization provided they have almost
equal energy.
 The hybridization is the mixing of orbitals of same atom only. The combination of orbitals belonging to
different atoms is called bonding.
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9.1 Hybrid Orbitals


The new orbitals that are formed due to intermixing of atomic orbitals are also known as hybrid orbitals,
which have mixed characteristics of atomic orbitals. The shapes of hybrid orbitals are identical. Usually they
have one big lobe associated with a small lobe on the other side. The hybrid orbitals are degenerate i.e.,
they are associated with same energy. The hybrid orbitals participate in the σ bond formation with other
atoms.

+
+ + +  
p sp
The number of hybrid orbitals formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals undergoing
hybridization. E.g. If three atomic orbitals intermix with each other, the number of hybrid orbitals formed will
be equal to 3.The hybrid orbitals are filled with those electrons which were present in the pure atomic
orbitals forming them. The filling up of electrons in them follows Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule.

Why atomic orbitals in a given atom undergo hybridization?


The hybrid orbitals are oriented in space so as to minimize repulsions between them. This explains why the
atomic orbitals undergo hybridization before bond formation. The reason for hybridization is to minimize the
repulsions between the bonds that are going to be formed by the atoms by using hybrid orbitals.
Remember that the hybridization is the process that occurs before bond formation.
The bond angles in the molecule are equal to or almost equal to the angles between the hybrid orbitals
forming the σ bonds. The shape of the molecule is determined by the type of hybridization, number of
bonds formed by them and the number of lone pairs.

9.2 Types of Hybridisation

There are many different types of hybridisation depending upon the type of orbitals involved in mixing such
as sp3, sp2, sp, sp3d, sp3d2, etc.

Let us now discuss various types of hybridisation along with some examples with reference to the
compounds of carbon, boron and beryllium.

(i)sp3 hybridisation. The type of hybridisation involves the mixing of one orbital of s-sub-level and three
orbitals of p-sub-level of the valence shell to form four sp3 hybrid orbitals of equivalent energies and shape.
Each sp3 hybrid orbital has 25% s-character and 75% p-character. These hybridised orbitals tend to lie as
far apart in space as possible so that the repulsive interactions between them are minimum. The four sp3
hybrid orbitals are directed towards the four corners of a tetrahedron. The angle between the sp3 hybrid
orbitals is 109.5° (Figure below).

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sp3 hybridisation is also known as tetrahedral hybridisation. The molecules in which central atom is sp3
hybridised and is linked to four other atoms directly, have tetrahedral shape. Let us study some examples
of molecules where the atoms assume sp3 hybrid state.

Formation of methane (CH4). In methane carbon atom acquires sp3 hybrid states as described below :

Here, one orbital of 2s-sub-shell and three orbitals of 2p-sub-shell of excited carbon atom undergo
hybridisation to form four sp3 hybrid orbitals. The process involving promotion of 2s-electron followed by
hybridisation is shown in figure below.

As pointed out earlier the sp3 hybrid orbitals of carbon atom are directed towards the corners of regular
tetrahedron. Each of the sp3 hybrid orbitals overlaps axially with half-filled 1s-orbital of hydrogen atom
constituting a sigma bond figure below.

Because of sp3hybridisation of carbon atom, CH4 molecule has tetrahedral shape.

Formation of ethane (CH3—CH3). In ethane both the carbon atoms assume sp3 hybrid state as shown in
figure below. One of the hybrid orbitals of carbon atom overlaps axially with similar orbitals of the other
carbon atom to form sp3-sp3 sigma bond. The other three hybrid orbitals of each carbon atom are used in
forming sp3-s sigma bonds with hydrogen atoms as described below :

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(ii) sp2 hybridisation. This type of hybridisation involves the mixing of one orbital of s-sub-level and two
orbitals of p-sub-level of the valence shell to form three sp2 hybrid orbitals. These sp2 hybrid orbitals lie in a
plane and are directed towards the corners of equilateral triangle (Figure below). Each sp2 hybrid orbital has
one-third s-character and two-third p-character. sp2 hybridisation is also called trigonal hybridisation. The
molecules in which central is sp2 hybridised and is linked to three other atoms directly have triangular planar
shape.

Let us study some examples of the molecules which involve sp2 hybridisation.

1. Formation of boron trifluoride (BF3). Boron (5B) atom has ground state configuration as 1s2 2s2, 2p1.
But in the excited state its configuration is 1s2, 2s1, 2px1, 2py1. One 2s-orbital of boron intermixes with two 2p-
orbitals of excited boron atom to form three sp2 hybrid orbitals as shown in figure below.

The sp2 hybrid orbitals of boron are directed towards the corners of equilateral triangle and lie in a plane.
Each of the sp2 hybrid orbitals of boron overlaps axially with half-filled orbital of fluorine atom to form three
B-F sigma bonds as shown in figure below.

Because of sp2 hybridisation of boron, BF3 molecule has triangular planar shape.
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2. Formation of ethylene (C2H4). Both the carbon atoms in ethylene assume sp2 hybrid state. In acquiring
sp2 hybrid state, one 2s-orbital and two 2p-orbitals of excited carbon atom get hybridised to form three sp2
hybridised orbitals. However, one orbital of 2p-sub-shell of the excited carbon atom does not take part in
hybridisation. The promotion of electron and hybridisation in carbon atom is shown in figure below.

As already indicated, the three sp2 hybrid orbitals lie in one plane and are oriented in space at an angle of
120° to one another. The unhybridised 2p-orbital is perpendicular to the plane of sp2 hybrid orbitals as
shown in figure below.

In the formation of ethylene, one of the sp2 hybrid orbital of carbon atom overlaps axially with similar orbital
of the other carbon atom to form C—C sigma bond. The other two sp2 hybrid orbitals of each carbon atom
are utilised for forming sp2-s sigma bond with two hydrogen atoms.

The unhybridisedp-orbitals of the two carbon atoms overlap sidewise each other to form two p clouds
distributed above and below the plane of carbon and hydrogen atoms figure below.

Thus, in ethylene, the six atoms (bonded by sigma bonds) lie in one plane while the p bond is projected
perpendicular to the plane of six atoms (two C atoms and four H atoms). In ethylene molecule, the C = C
bond consists of one sp2-sp2 sigma bond and one p bond. Its bond length is134 pm.C—Hbond is sp2-ssigma bond
with bond length108 pm.The H—C—H angle is117.5°while H—C—C angle is121°.

(iii) sp-hybridisation. This type of hybridisation involves the mixing of one orbital of s-sub-level and one
orbital of p-sub-level of the valence shell of the atom to form two sp-hybridised orbitals of equivalent shapes

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and energies. These sp-hybridised orbitals are oriented in space at an angle of 180° figure below. This
hybridisation is also called diagonal hybridisation.

Each sp hybrid orbital has equal s and p character, i.e., 50% s-character and 50% p-character. The
molecules in which the central atom is sp-hybridised and is linked to two other atoms directly have linear
shape.

Let us study some examples of molecules involving sp hybridisation.

Formation of beryllium fluoride (BeF2). Beryllium (4Be) atom has a ground state configuration as 1s2, 2s2.
In the excited state one of the 2s-electron is promoted to 2p-orbitals. One 2s-orbital and one 2p-orbitals of
excited beryllium atom undergo hybridisation to form two sp-hybridised orbitals as described in figure below.

(iv) sp3d -hybridisation


In this type of hybridization, one ‘s’, three ‘p’ and one ‘d’ orbitals of the same shell mix to give five
sp3d hybrid orbitals. These five sp3d hybrid orbitals orient themselves towards the corners of a
trigonalbipyramidal.
Cl Cl

P
Cl
Cl
Cl

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(iv) sp3d2-hybridisation
In this type of hybridization, one ‘s’, three ‘p’ and two ‘d’ orbitals of the same/different shell mix to
give six sp3d2 hybrid orbitals. These six sp3d2 hybrid orbitals orient themselves towards the corners
of an octahedron. This type of hybridization is exhibited by SF6, SCl6 etc.
F

F F

F F
F

9.3 Method of Predicting the hybridization state


The hybrid state of the central atom in simple covalent molecule or polyatomic ion can be predicted by
using the generalized formula as described below:

Simple Molecule Polyatomic Anion Poyatomic Cation


1 1 1
X  [V  G] X  [V  G  a ] X  [ V  G  c]
2 2 2

In the above formulae,


V = Number of monovalent atoms or groups attached to the central atom
G = Number of outer shell electrons in ground state of the central atom
a = Magnitude of charge on anion
c = Magnitude of charge on cation
Calculate the value of X and decide the hybrid state of central atom as follows :

X 2 3 4 5 6 7
Hybrid state sp sp2 Sp3 sp3d sp3d2 sp3d3

For Example:

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9.4HYBRIDISATION AND SHAPE OF DIFFERENT MOLECULES:


Types of No. of No. of
Shape of Molecule/
Molecule bond lone Hybrid Orbitals Examples
Ion
/ Ion pairs pairs

2 0 sp Linear BeCl 2, HgCl2

2 1 sp2 bent (V-shape) SnCl 2, PbCl2


AX2
2 2 sp3 bent (V-shape) H2O, OF2

2 3 sp3d Linear I3–, XeF2

3 0 sp2 Trigonal planar BF3, BCl3

AX3 3 1 sp3 Pyramidal NH3, H3O+

3 2 sp3d T-shape ClF3, BrF3

4 0 sp3 Tetrahedral CH4, NH4+

Distorted tetrahedral
AX4 4 1 sp3d SF4
(See Saw)

4 2 sp3d2 Square planar XeF4

5 0 sp3d Trigonalbipyramidal PCl5


AX5
5 1 sp3d2 Square pyramidal IF5

6 0 sp3d2 Octahedral SF6


AX6
6 1 sp3d3 Distorted Octahedral XeF6

AX7 7 0 sp3d3 Pentagonal bipyramidal IF7

10.BONDING PARAMETERS
10.1 Bond Energy
It has already been pointed out that the formation of a bond occurs as a result of decrease of energy.
Therefore, same amount of energy is required to break the bond between the two atoms. For example, the
energy released during the formation of bonds between the gaseous hydrogen atoms to form one mole of
hydrogen molecules is 433 kJmol -1. This energy involved in making or breaking of bonds is referred to as
bond energy. Thus, bondenergy may be defined as the amount of energy required to break one mole of
bonds of same kind so as to separate the bonded atoms in the gaseous state.
The magnitude of bond energy reflects the strength of the bond. Its magnitude depends upon the following
factors:

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1. Size of the participating atoms:


Larger the size of the atoms involved in bond formation, lesser is the extent of overlapping and
consequently, smaller is the value of bond energy.
For example, bond energy of Cl—Cl bond is 237 kJmol-1 whereas that of H—H bond is 433 kJmol-1.

2. Multiplicity of bonds:
The magnitude of bond energy increases with the multiplicity of bonds even though the atoms involved
in the bond formation are same. It is because of the fact that with the multiplicity of bonds the number of
shared electrons between the atoms increases. As a result, the attractive force between nuclei and
electrons also increases and consequently, the magnitude of bond energy increases. For example, bond
energy of C — C bond is 348 kJ/mol-1 but that of C = C bond is 619 kJ mol-1. The average bond
energies of some bonds are given in Table below.
Bond Energies of Some Common Bonds

3. Number of lone pairs of electrons:


Greater the number of lone pair of electrons present on the bonded atoms, greater is the repulsive
interactions between them and smaller is the bond energy

10.2 BOND LENGTH


It has already been discussed that two bonded atoms in a molecule remain held up at a certain distance
from each other. They cannot approach too close because it leads to repulsive interactions and potential
energy of system increases. This minimum distance between the bonded atoms is referred to as bond
length. Thus, bond length may be defined as the average distance between the centers of nuclei of the two
bonded atoms in a molecule. Bond length is usually expressed in Angstrom units (Å) or Pico meters (pm)
and it can be determined experimentally by X-ray diffraction and other spectroscopic techniques.

1. Bond length increases with the increase in the size of the atoms:
Bond length between hydrogen and chlorine atoms in HCl molecule is 127 pm whereas bond length
between carbon and chlorine atoms is C—Cl bond 177 pm.

2. Bond length decreases with the multiplicity of bonds:


It is because of the fact that larger the number of electrons shared by the two atoms greater will be
attractive force between electrons and the nuclei and consequently, lesser is the bond length. For
example, bond length of C—C bond is 154 pm whereas that of C = C bond is 134 pm. Bond lengths of
some common bonds are given in Table below.
Table below. Bond Lengths of Some Common Bonds

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10.3BOND ANGLE
We know that overlapping of atomic orbitals forms covalent bonds. Due to directional character of atomic
orbitals, the covalent bonds in a molecule are oriented in specified directions. The bond angle is defined as
the average angle between the lines representing the orbitals containing the bonding electrons.
Bond angle is expressed in degree/minute/seconds. For example, H—C—H bond angle in CH4 molecule is
109° 28'. Similarly, F—B—F bond angle in BF3 is 120° and H—N—H bond angle in NH3 molecule is 107°.
The bond angles in CH4, NH3, H2O and BF3 molecules are shown below in Figure below.

Following factors can affect bond angle:

1.Hybridisation of central atom:


sp 180°
sp2 120°
sp3 109.5°
sp3d 90°, 120°, 180°
sp3d2 90°, 180°
sp3d3 72°, 90°, 144°, 180°
2. Presence of lone pair: lp─bp repulsion is more than bp─bp

3. Electronegativity of central atom: Due to more electronegativity of central atom bond pair get shifted
toward it and distance between them decrease thus further bp─bprepulsion increases.

4. Multiple bonds: Due to more electron density for double bond than that of single bond, repulsion due to
double bond is more than single bond.

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15. HYDROGEN BONDING


A hydrogen bond is a type of attractive intermolecular force that exists between two partial electric charges
of opposite polarity. Although stronger than most other intermolecular forces, the hydrogen bond is much
weaker than both the ionic bond and the covalent bond. Within macromolecules such as proteins and
nucleic acids, it can exist between two parts of the same molecule, and figures as an important constraint
on such molecules' overall shape.
As the name "hydrogen bond" implies, one part of the bond involves a hydrogen atom. The hydrogen must
be attached to a strongly electronegative heteroatom, such as oxygen, nitrogen or fluorine, which is called
the hydrogen-bond donor. This electronegative element attracts the electron cloud from around the
hydrogen nucleus and, by decentralizing the cloud, leaves the atom with a positive partial charge. Because
of the small size of hydrogen relative to other atoms and molecules, the resulting charge, though only
partial, nevertheless represents a large charge density. A hydrogen bond results when this strong positive
charge density attracts a lone pair of electrons on another heteroatom, which becomes the hydrogen-
bond acceptor.

The hydrogen bond is not like a simple attraction between point charges, however. It possesses some
degree of orientational preference, and can be shown to have some of the characteristics of a covalent
bond. This covalency tends to be more extreme when acceptors bind hydrogens from more electronegative
donors.

In the species X—H----X, as the electronegativity of X increases the strength of hydrogen bond (H- - - X)
also increases. Thus the order of increases of the and (F—H- - - - F) is shown below
N — H - - - - N O — H - - - - O  F — H - - - - F
[The electronegativity of N = 3.0, O = 3.5, F = 4.0 in Pauling scale]

CONDITIONS FOR HYDROGEN BONDING


 Hydrogen should be linked to a highly electronegative element.
 The size of the electronegative element must be small.

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These two criteria’s are fulfilled by F, O, and N in the periodic table. Greater the electronegativity and
smaller the size, the stronger is the hydrogen bond which is evident from the relative order of energies of
hydrogen bonds.
Although the electronegativities of nitrogen and chlorine are same (3.0) , nitrogen can form hydrogen bond
but Cl does not form effective hydrogen bond due to its larger size.

TYPES OF HYDROGEN BONDING

1. INTERMOLECULAR HYDROGEN BONDING:


This type of bonding takes place between two molecules of the same or different types. For example,
H H H
O—H----- O — H ------ O — H ------

Inter molecular hydrogen bonding leads to molecular association in liquids like water etc. Thus in water
only a few percent of the water molecules appear not to be hydrogen bonded even at 90°C. Breaking of
those hydrogen bonds throughout the entire liquid requires appreciable heat energy. This is indicated in the
relatively higher boiling points of hydrogen bonded liquids.
Crystalline hydrogen fluoride consists of the polymer (HF)n. This has a zig-zag chain structure involving H-
bond.
F F

H H
H H H

F F F

2. INTRAMOLECULAR HYDROGEN BONDING:


This type of bonding occurs between atoms of the same molecule present on different sites. Intramolecular
hydrogen bonding gives rise to a closed ring structure for which the term chelation is sometimes used.
Examples are, o-nitrophenol, salicylaldehyde.
H H
O O O
O
N C
O H

o-nitrophenol Salicaldehyde

Ex: o-hydroxybenzaldehyde is less soluble in water than p-hydroxybenzaldehyde. Explain.


Sol: A substance is said to be soluble in water if it is capable of forming H-bonding with water molecule.
In o-hydroxybenzaldehyde due to intra-molecular chelation the –OH group is not available to form
hydrogen bond with water hence it is sparingly soluble in water. On the other hand the –OH group is
available in p-hydroxybenzaldehyde to form H-bond with water and hence it is more soluble
compared to the o-isomer.
O H O H O H
H

O
C

H
o-Isomer H C O p-isomer
Ex: HF forms stronger H-bonds than H2O, still Hvap of HF is lower than that of pure water.
Explain?

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Sol: The number of H–bonds broken per mole of HF on vaporization is much less than in the case of
H2O. Each HF forms two bonds, while each H2O molecule forms 4 bonds. In case of water vapour
at boiling pt. contains essentially monomers while HF contains polymers i.e., all H–bonds are not
broken on vaporization whereas all 4-H bonds are broken per molecule of water.

Importance of Hydrogen Bonding in Biological Systems


Hydrogen bonding plays a vital role in physiological systems. Proteins contain chains of amino acids. The
amino acid units are arranged in a spiral form somewhat like a stretched coil spring (forming a helix). The
N-H group of each amino acid unit and the fourth C=O group following it along the chain, establishes the
N–H---O hydrogen bonds. These bonds are partly responsible for the stability of the spiral structure.

16. INTERMOLECULAR FORCES


Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction or repulsion which act between neighboring particles: atoms,
molecules or ions. They are weak compared to the intramolecular forces, the forces which keep a molecule
together. For example, the covalent bond present within HCl molecules is much stronger than the forces
present between the neighbouring molecules, which exist when the molecules are sufficiently close to each
other. These forces are also known as Vander Waal’s Forces.
Attractive intermolecular forces consist of four types:
1. Dipole–dipole forces
Dipole–dipole interactions are electrostatic interactions of permanent dipoles in molecules. These
interactions tend to align the molecules to increase the attraction (reducing potential energy). An
example of a dipole–dipole interaction can be seen in hydrogen chloride (HCl): The positive end of a
polar molecule will attract the negative end of the other molecule and cause them to be arranged in a
specific arrangement. Polar molecules have a net attraction between them. For example HCl and
chloroform (CHCl3)

2. Ion–dipole forces
Ion-dipole and induced-dipole forces operate much like dipole-dipole and induced-dipole interactions.
However, instead of only polar and non-polar molecules being involved, ion interactions involve ions (as
the name suggests). Ion-dipole and ion-induced dipole forces are stronger than dipole interactions
because the charge of any ion is much greater than the charge of a dipole moment. Ion-dipole is
greater than Hydrogen bonding.
An ion-dipole force consists of an ion and a polar molecule interacting. They align so that the positive
and negative forces are next to one another, allowing for maximum attraction. An ion-induced dipole
force consists of an ion and a non-polar molecule interacting. Like a dipole-induced dipole force, the
charge of the ion causes a distortion of the electron cloud on the non-polar molecule.
3. Dipole-induced dipole force or Debye forces
The induced dipole forces appear from the induction (also known as polarization), which is the attractive
interaction between a permanent multipole on one molecule with an induced (by the former di/multi-
pole) multipole on another molecule. This interaction is called Debye force after Peter J.W. Debye.
The example of an induction-interaction between permanent dipole and induced dipole is HCl and Ar. In
this system, Ar experiences a dipole as its electrons are attracted (to H side) or repelled (from Cl side)
by HCl. This kind of interaction can be expected between any polar molecule and non-
polar/symmetrical molecule. The induction-interaction force is far weaker than dipole-dipole interaction,
but stronger than the London dispersion force.

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4. Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces or London dispersion forces.


Otherwise known as quantum-induced instantaneous polarization or instantaneous dipole-induced
dipole forces, the London dispersion force is caused by correlated movements of the electrons in
interacting molecules. The electrons, which belong to different molecules, start "fleeing" and avoiding
each other at the short intermolecular distances, which is frequently described as formation of
"instantaneous dipoles" that attract each other.

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18. SOLVED PROBLEMS


18.1 Subjective
Problem 1:The bond angle of NF3 is less than that of NH3. Explain.
Solution: Both NH3 and NF3 have a lone pair of electrons. But fluorine being highly electronegative, the
bond pair electrons are drawn more towards F in NF3, whereas in NH3 it is drawn towards N. So in
NF3 the bond pairs being displaced away from the central atom has very little tendency to open up
the angle. But in NH3 this opening up is more as the bond pair electrons are closer to each other.
So bond angle of NF3 is less than NH3.

N N
Repulsion more
H
H H F F F
Repulsion less

Problem 2:Why is that Lithium salts have a greater degree of covalent character than other halides
of the group?

Solution: The small size of Li+ gives it a large polarising power, hence covalent nature of its compound
increases. It can be viewed in terms of Fajan's rule

 Smaller the cation

 Larger the anion

 Greater the charge density as the surface causes greater polarising power of Li +

Hence, greater the covalent nature.

Problem3:The solubility of the hydroxides of the alkaline earth metals increases i.e. Ba(OH)2 has
got a higher solubility in water compared to Mg(OH)2-. Why?

Solution: Here both the cations Ba2+ and Mg2+ have the same charge, but as the radius of Ba 2+ is more
therefore  of Ba2+ is less which implies that Ba(OH)2 having higher degree of ionic character is
more soluble in polar solvents like water.

But now if I ask to predict the solubility of MgSO4& BaSO4. The answer seems to be quite
similar to the earlier one and BaSO4 turns out to be the one having higher solubility. But
contrary to our expectation the trend is reversed here. BaSO4 is sparingly soluble in water. The
question comes why? In case of hydroxide it is something. In case of sulfate it’s the other way
around. Is there any way by which we can a predict the solubility trend? The answer is yes.
When a lattice is dissolved in water, the ions became solvated and the solvated ions are more
stable than a free ion and due to this stability energy is released. This energy released is called
solvation energy and if this overcomes the lattice energy then it is soluble. The lattice energy of
NaCl is 778 kJ mol–1 and the heats of hydration of Na+ and Cl– is –787 kJ mol –1. As it is more
than the lattice energy of NaCl therefore it is soluble.
Now we should focus our attention to the solubility trend in a given series. For a comparison of
the solubility both the lattice energy and hydration energy factors have to be taken into account.

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If in a series the decrease of lattice energy is more compared to the decrease in hydration
energy then the substance becomes soluble.
Now the hydration enthalpy of a salt is given by

k1 k 2
Hhydration  
r r where k1 and k2 are constants

k3
& lattice energy U  k3 = constant
r  r

Case (i): When r+<< r– the contribution of the anion to the hydration enthalpy is small so the
total Hhydration would be dominated by the cation alone. In a series of salts of a large anion, the
hydrational enthalpy will decrease in magnitude with increasing cation size. Now how does the
lattice energy respond to this changing cation radius? The lattice energy is inversely proportional to
(r+ + r–). Since r–>> r+, the sum will not change significantly as r+ increases. Consequently the lattice
energy will not decrease as fast as the hydration energy with increasing cationic size. The more
quickly diminishing hydration energy results in a decrease in solubility.

E.g. Solubility of LiI>NaI> KI…

MgSO4> CaSO4> SrSo4> BaSO4

Case (ii): r+  r–
Here the lattice energy decreases with increasing cationic size more rapidly than the hydration
energy which therefore results in an enhanced solubility in a series.

E.g. Solubility of LiF<NaF< KF

Mg(OH)2<Ca(OH)2< Ba(OH)2

Problem 4:The melting point of NaCl is higher than that of AgCl. Explain
Solution: Now whenever any comparison is asked about the melting point of the compounds which are
fully ionic from the electron transfer concept it means that the compound having lower melting point
has got lesser amount of ionic character than the other one. To analyse such a question first find
out the difference between the 2 given compounds. Here in both the compounds the anion is the
same. So the deciding factor would be the cation. Now if the anion is different, then the answer
should be from the variation of the anion. Now in the above example, the difference of the cation is
their electronic configuration. Na+ = [Ne]; Ag+ = [Kr] 4d10. This is now a comparison between a noble
gas core and pseudo noble gas core, the analysis of which we have already done. So try to finish
off this answer.

Problem 5:Which of the following molecules are polar: H2O, NH3,CO2,SO2,CHCl3,BF3?


Solution: Cl F

O C B
O N O F
S H H F
H H H O=C=O
H H H
Non-polar (Polar) Polar Non-polar
(Polar) (Polar)
 = 1.84D  = 1.86D =0  = 1.60D  = 1.86D =0

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Problem 6:CH4 has zero dipole moment but CH2Cl2 has an appreciable dipole moment. Why?
Solution: Both CH4& CH2Cl 2 have tetrahedral structure but CH4 is symmetrical while CH2Cl2 is
unsymmetrical.
H H

C
C
H H
H Cl
H Cl
S ym m e tri c a l Unsymmetrical
Due to the symmetrical structure of CCl4 the resultant of bond dipoles comes out to be zero.
But in case of CH2Cl2 it is not possible as the presence of hydrogen introduces some
dissymmetry.

Problem 7:Compare the dipole moment of Cis 1,2dichloroethylene and trans 1,2 dichloroethylene.
Solution: Cl Cl Cl H

C C C C

H H Cl
H
Cis Trans

In the trans compound the C-Cl bond dipoles are equal and at the same time acting in
opposition cancel each other while Cis compound the dipoles do not cancel each other
resulting in a higher value.
Generally all trans compounds have a lower dipole moment compared to the corresponding
cis isomers, when both the substituents attached to carbon atom are either electron
releasing or electron withdrawing.

Problem 8: Explain why ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) has got a higher boiling point than dimethyl ether
(CH3-O-CH3) although the molecular weight of both are same?
Solution: Though ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether have the same molecular weight but in ethyl
alcohol the hydrogen of the O-H groups forms intermolecular hydrogen bonding with the OH
group in another molecule. But in case of ether the hydrogen is linked to C is not so
electronegative to encourage the hydrogen to from hydrogen bonding.

C2H5 C2H5

O H O H
Due to intermolecular H-bonding, ethyl alcohol remains in the associated form and
therefore boils at a higher temperature compared to dimethyl ether.

Problem 9: Explain why O-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol?


Solution: More volatility means it has got lower boiling point. Now p-nitrophenol remains associated
through intermolecular hydrogen bonding. But in o-nitrophenol only intramolecular H-
bonding formation takes places, as a result of which there is no association. So p-
nitrophenol which remains as an associated species has got higher boiling point and so less
volatile.

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O H O H O H
H

O
N

O
o-Isomer O N O
p-isomer

Problem 10: Draw the structure of the following

(i) SOF4 (ii) XeO3 (iii) POCl3

Solution: F ii) i ii) O


F
Xe
i) O S P
O O
F F O Cl
Cl Cl

Problem 11: In o-dichlorobenzene the observed value of dipole moment is 6.00 D while it
theoretical value is 6.30 D why?

Solution: o-dichlorobenzene due to dipole-dipole repulsion Cl


bond angle increase. Therefore dipole moment
Cl
decreases.

Problem 12: Dipole moment of o-chlorphenol is less than o-fluoro-phenol. Explain

Solution: Cl F H
OH O

no H-bonding

Due to H-bonding on o-fluorophenol bond angle decrease ( 60°) hence dipole moment is
increased.

Problem 13: BiCl5 does not exist. Explain


Solution: Due to inert pair effect, stability of Bi3+ Sb3+ As3+ and Bi 5+ Sb5+ As5+
Hence Bi 5+ salts are least stable; so BiCl5 does not exist.

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Problem 15: Carbon has a co-ordination number of four while other elements of this group have
co-ordination number of six. Why?
Solution: The normal valency of the elements is four, but apart from carbon, the elements can make
more than four bonds. This because they make use of a set of d-orbitals in bonding. The
availability of d-orbitals empty but electrons of ns2 and np2 can be excited into this is
responsible for the ability of the elements, except carbon, to make complex ions such as
SiF62

Example16: KHF2 exists but KHCl2 does not explain


Solution: Due to inability of H – Cl to from H – bond with Cl- , the formation of HCl2 is not possible.
-
On the other hand , H – F can easily form H – bond with F resulting in the formation of
HF2 .

Example17: ClF3 exists but FCl3 does not. Explain


Solution: Chlorine can expand its octet due to the presence of vacant d – orbitals which are not
available in fluorine.

Example18: N (CH3)3 is pyramidal whereas N (SiH)3 is planar. Explain


Solution: Lone pair of electron is localized on nitrogen in N (CH3)3 lone pair delocalised in vacant d –
orbitals of silicon.

Example19: Water has maximum density at 4°C. Explain:


Solution: At 0° there is sufficient H – bonding in water molecules and thus open cage – like structure
exists which has larger volume and makes the density low. On heating, to increases in
density. This is the case up to 4°C . After this, the increase in volume due to expansion of
the liquid water dominates over the decrease in volume due to cleavage of H – bonds.

Example20: Discuss the shape of XeF5 ion. How many different F—Xe—F bond angles are there in
the ion?
Solution: The Lewis dot formula of this ion is:

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Geometry:

Bond angle: Due to presence of one lone pair, the ion is slightly distorted. Due to greater lp – bp
repulsion, four Xe—F bonds will be pushed slightly away from lp giving axial – equatorial bond
angle slightly less than 900. However, the bond angles between the adjacent bonds in the plane of
square are all identical.

18.2 Objective
Problem 1 Which of the following molecules has the smallest bond angle between its atoms?
(A) H2O (B) NH3 (C) SO3 (D) XeF4
Solution: XeF4: All bonds angles are 900. In others, bond angles are close to 1200 and 1090.
 (D)

Problem 2: In which of the following molecules the Vander Waal’s forces is likely to be most
important in determining the melting and boiling point?
(A)CO (B)H2S (C)Br2 (D)HCl
Solution: Br2 is non-polar molecules and hence its melting and boiling points depend only on Vander
Waal’s forces while all other molecules are having dipole moments hence their melting and
boiling points depends upon dipole-dipole interactions.
 (C)

Problem 3: Which of the following has highest viscosity?


(A)Glycerol (B)Glycol (C)Ethanol (D)Water
Solution: Due to 3 O–H groups, glycerol shows extensive intramolecular H-bonding and hence it has
highviscosity.
 (A)

Problem 4: Which of the statement are correct?


(1) The N atoms are close together in N2 than in N 22 
(2) It would be easier to separate the atoms in N 22  than in N2.
(3) There is a triple bond between the nitrogen atoms in N2.
(4) There is a single bond between the nitrogen atoms in N 22  .
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 4 only
2
Solution: Bond order of N2 is 3 while bond order of N 2 is 2. Hence, N2 has shorter bonds (closer N
atoms) than N 22  . Therefore, bond energy of N 22  is smaller than N2.
 (A)
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Problem 5: Indicate the type of bond angles present in IF5


(A) 90° (B) 90°,120° (C) 90°, 180° (D) 90°, 120°, 180°
Solution: Iodine undergoes sp3d2hybridisation with 5 bond pairs and one lone pair having square
pyramidal structure. (C)

Problem 6: The compound in which all carbon atoms make use of sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond
formation is
(A)HCOOH (B)(H2N)2CO (C)(CH3)3COH (D)CH3CHO

C O
Solution: (A), (B), (D) contains group where carbon is sp2hybridised
 (C)

Problem 7: The correct increasing bond angle among BF3, PF3 and ClF3 follow the order
(A)BF3 PF3 ClF3 (B)PF3 BF3 ClF3
(C)ClF3 PF3 BF3 (D)All have equal bond angle
Solution: In BF3, B is sp2hybridised with bond angle 120°C. In PF3, P is sp3hybridised but bond angle
is less than 109°28 due to lone pair bond pair repulsion. In ClF3, Cl is sp3d hybridised having
T-shape with bond angle 90°C.
(C)

Problem 8: The molecular size of ICl and Br2 is approximately same, but boiling point of ICl is
about 40° higher than that of Br2. It is because
(A) ICl bond is stronger than Br – Br bond
(B) I.E. of I  I.E. of Br
(C) ICl is polar while Br2 is non-polar
(D) I has larger size than Br
Solution: Polar molecule also have dipole-dipole interactions which increase the boiling point
 (C)

Problem 9: Which of the following has highest percentage of ionic character?


(A)HF (B)HCl (C)HBr (D)HI
Solution: The electronegativity difference in HF is highest and hence HF has high percentage of ionic
character.
 (A)

Problem 10: On the basis of VSEPR theory, the best description of the structure of H 3S  is
(A) The hydrogen atoms are at the corners of an equilateral triangle with the sulphur
at the centre of the triangle
(B) the hydrogen atoms are at the corners of an equilateral triangle with sulphur
above the plane of the H atoms at the top of the trigonal pyramid, the ion forms
(C) The H atoms are at corners of triangle with sulphur at the tetrahedral centre that
the molecule forms
(D) the H atoms are at the corners of a triangle with the sulphur placed so that the
molecule forms a “T” shape
Solution: Hybridization of S in H3S+ in sp3 with one lone pair, hence trigonal pyramidal shape like
ammonia.
 (B)

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Problem 13: H2O has higher boiling point than H2S because
(A) H2S is a smaller molecule and hence more closely packed
(B) the bond angle of H2O is more than H2S and hence H2O molecule are more tightly
packed
(C) the intermolecular hydrogen bonding in liquid H2O
(D) the latent heat of vapourisation is higher for H2O than for H2S.
Solution: (C)

Problem 14: Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs
NF3, NO3–, BF3, H3O+, HN3
(A) [NF3, NO3–] and [BF3, H3+O] (B) [NF3, HN3], [NO3–, BF3]
+ –
(C) [NF3, H3 O] and [NO3 , BF3] (D) [NF3, H3+O] and [HN3, BF3]
+ –
Solution: [NF3 and H3 O] are pyramidal while [NO3 and BF3] are trigonal planar
 (C)

Problem 15: Among the following compounds, the one that is polar and has central atom with
sp2hybridisation is
(A)H2CO3 (B)SiF4 (C)BF3 (D)HClO2
Solution: H2CO3 and BF3have sp2 hybridisation while SiF4 and HClO2 have sp3hybridisation. But in
BF3 it is symmetrical so dipole moment is zero while in H2CO3 resultant dipole is not zero so
it is also polar.
 (A)

Problem 17: The correct order of increasing C–O bond length of CO, CO32– and CO2
(A)CO32– CO2 CO (B)CO2 CO32– CO
2–
(C)CO  CO3  CO2 (D)CO CO2 CO32–
Solution: B.O. of C - O in CO is 3, that of O = C = O is 2 while that of CO32– ion is 1.33. Since the
bond length increases as the bond order decreases i.e.
CO  CO2 CO32– order is correct  (D)

Problem 18: A diatomic molecule has dipole moment of 1.2 D. If the bond distance is 1Å what
percentage of electronic charge exists on each atom?
(A) 12% of e (B) 19% of e
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(C) 25% of e (D) 29% of e


Dipole moment 1.2D
Solution: Fraction charge of electron = 
Dis tan ce 1A
18
1.2 10 esu cm
= 8
= 1.2  10–10esu
110 cm
1.2 1010
% of electronic charge =  100 = 25%
4.8 10 10
 (C)

Problem 19: The true statements from the following are


1. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist 2.p – d bond is present in SO2
3. Electrons travel at the speed of light 4.SeF4 and CH4 have same shape
5. I3+ has bent geometry
(A) 1, 3 (B) 1, 2, 5
(C) 1, 3, 5 (D) 1, 2, 4
Solution: The statement 3 i.e. electron travel at the speed of light and statement 4, i.e. SeF4 and CH4
have same shape are incorrect. SeF4 has distorted tetrahedral shape (sp3d hybridisation)
while methane tetrahedral shape (sp3hybridisation)
 (B)

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Foundation Builder (Objective)


BASIC CONCEPTS

IONIC BONDING

1. An ionic compound A+ B is most likely to be formed when.3


(A) The ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity of B is low
(B) The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is high
(C) Both, the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are high
(D) Both, the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are low
2. Which of the following is an ionic compound?
(A) SO3 (B) ICl (C) KI (D) CHCl3

3. The compound which does not contain ionic bond is


(A) NaOH (B) HCl (C) K2S (D) LiH

4. The magnitude of the lattice energy of a solid increase if


(A) the ions are large (B) the ions are small
(C) the ions are of equal size (D) charges on the ions are small

5. In which of the following species the bonds are nondirectional?


(A) NCl3 (B) RbCl (C) BeCl2 (D) BCl3

COVALENT BONDING
6. Which of the following compound does not follow octet rule?
(A) CO2 (B) PCl3 (C) ICl (D) ClF3

7. In NO 3 ion, the number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons on nitrogen atom are
(A) 2, 2 (B) 3 , 1 (C) 1 , 3 (D) 4 , 0
8. Which of the following statements concerning a covalent bond is false?
(A) The electrons are shared between atoms
(B) The bond is nondirectional
(C) The strength of the bond depends upon the extent of overlapping
(D) The bond formed may be polar or nonpolar.
9. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Sodium hydride is ionic
(B) Beryllium chloride is covalent
(C) CCl4 gives a white ppt. with AgNO3 solution
(D) Bonds in NaCl are nondirectional
10. The compound which contains ionic as well as covalent bonds is
(A) C2H4Cl2 (B) CH3l (C) KCN (D) H2O2
11. In the electronic structure of acetic acid, there are
(A) 16 shared and 8 unshared electrons (B) 8 shared and 16 unshared electrons
(C) 12 shared and 12 unshared electrons (D) 18 shared and 6 unshared electrons
12. Which of the following is an example of super octet molecule?
(A) ClF3 (B) PCl5 (C) IF7 (D) all the three
13. Which of the following has one lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
(A) H2 (B) CH4 (C) NH 4 (D) NCl3

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VALENCE BOND THEORY

14. A covalent bond may be formed by


(A) ssoverlap (B) spoverlap (C) ppoverlap (D) all these three

15. Lateral overlap of porbitals leads to the formation of


(A)  bond (B) metallic bond (C)  bond (D) Ionic bond

16. The number of sigma  and pi   bonds present in a molecule of tetracyanoethylene
CN2 C  CCN2 are
(A) 5 and 9  (B) 5 and 8 (C) 9 and 9  (D) 9 and 7 

17. If Zaxis is the molecular axis, then  molecular orbitals are formed by the overlap of
(A) s + pz (B) px + py (C) pz + pz (D) px + px

18. Which of the following combinations is not allowed (assumed Zaxis is internuclear axis)?
(A) 2s and 2s (B) 2px and 2px (C) 2s and 2pz (D) 2px and 2py

COORDINATE BONDING

19. Which of the following is best explained by co-ordinate bond?


1
(A)H2 + I2 (B) Mg + O2 (C)H+ + H2O (D) Cl + Cl
2

20. NH3 and BF3 form an adduct readily because they form
(A) An ionic bond (B) A covalent bond
(C) A coordinate bond (D) A hydrogen bond

21. The dative bond is present in


(A) NH3 (B) NH4Cl (C) PCl5 (D) BF3

VSEPR THEORY

1. Which of the following pair does not have same shape?


(A)NH4+, CH4 (B) H3O+, NH3 (C) I3–, XeF2 (D) PF5, BrF5

2. Which of the following does not have a tetrahedral structure?


(A) SO24 (B) SF4 (C) SO2Cl2 (D) SeO24


3. The geometrical arrangement and shape of I3 are respectively
(A)Trigonal bipyramidal, T-shape (B)Octahedral, linear
(C)Trigonal planar, Angular (D)Trigonal bipyramidal, linear

4. Which of the following is octahedral?


(A) PCl6- (B) SF4 (C) BO33  (D) BF4

5. Which of the following have linear shape?


(A)SnCl2 (B) NO2 (C) FNO (D) SO2

6. A molecule XY2 contains two , two  bonds and one lone pair of electrons in the valence shell
of X. The arrangement of lone pair as well as bond pairs is
(A)Square pyramidal (B)Linear
(C)Trigonal planar (D)Unpredictable
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7. If the atomic number of M is 50. The shape of gaseous MCl2 is


Cl

M
M M
Cl
(A) Cl (B) Cl Cl (C) Cl (D) Cl M Cl

8. The shape of ClF3 molecules is


(A) Triangular planar (B) Pyramidal
(C) Tshape (D) Trigonal bipyramidal

9. C2 – C3 sigma single bond in vinyl acetylene CH2 = CH – C  CH is due to overlapping of


(A)sp – sp (B) sp2 – sp2 (C) sp – sp2 (D) sp2 – sp

10. Decreasing order of size of various orbitals is


(A) sp > sp2> sp3 (B) sp3> sp2> sp (C) sp2> sp > sp3 (D) sp > sp3> sp2

11. Atomic orbitals of carbon in carbon dioxide are


(A) sp – hybridised (B) sp3d – hybridised
2
(C) sp – hybridised (D) sp3 – hybridised

12. Which one is not tetrahedral?


(A) BF 4 (B) NH 4 (C) CO 23  (D) SO 24 

13. On hybridization of one s and p – orbitals , we get


(A) two mutually perpendicular orbitals (B) two orbitals at 180°
(C) four orbitals directed tetrahedrally (D) three orbitals in a plane.

14. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbitals present about the central atom in BF3 is
(A) linear, sp (B) trigonal planar , sp2
3
(C) tetrahedral , sp (D) pyramidal , sp3

15. Which of the following are isoelectonic and isostructural ?


NO 3 , CO 23 , SO3,ClO 3
(A)NO 3 , CO 23  (B) SO3 , NO 3 (C) ClO 3 , CO 23  (D) CO 23  , SO3

16. CO2 is isostructural with



(A) HgI 4 (B) SnCl 2 (C) NCO (D) NO2

17. The linear structure is assumed by


(A) SnCl 2 (B) C2H2 (C) NO2 (D) SO2

18. The fluorine molecule is formed by


(A) pp orbitals (sideways overlap) (B) pp orbitals (endtoend overlap)
(C) spsp orbitals (D) ss orbitals

19. Two hybrid orbitals have a bond angle of 120ºC. The percentage of s character in the hybrid
orbital is nearly
(A) 25% (B) 33% (C) 50% (D) 66%

20. Which carbon is more electronegative?


(A) sp3 hybridised carbon (B) sp hybridised carbon
(C) sp3 hybridised carbon
(D) the electron attracting power of C is always same irrespective is its hybrid state.

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21. Compound in which central atom assumes sp3d hybridisation is


(A) SO3 (B) PCl5 (C) SO2 (D) PCl3

22. In OF2, oxygen has hybridisation of


(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) none of these

23. C2H2 is isostructural with


(A) H2O2 (B) NO2 (C) SnCl2 (D) CO2

24. Pair of molecules having identical geometry is


(A) BF3, NH3 (B) BF3, AlF3 (C) BeF2, H2O (D) BCl3, PCl3

25. The pair of species with similar shape is


(A) PCl3, NH3 (B) CF4, SF4 (C) PbCl2, CO2 (D) PF5, IF5

26. The hybrid state of B in BF 4 is


(A) sp2 (B) sp (C) sp3 (D) no specific

27. The hybridization of phosphorus in POCl 3 is the same as in


(A) P in PCl 3 (B) S in SF4 (C) Cl in ClF3 (D) B in BCl3

28. The hybridization of the central atom in ICl 2 is


(A)sp3d (B) sp (C) sp2 (D) sp3

29. Out of CHCl3, CH4 and SF4 the molecules having regular geometry are
(A) CHCl3 only (B) CHCl3 and SF4 (C) CH4 only (D) CH4 and SF4

30. The molecule MLx is planar with six pairs of electrons around M in the valence shell. The value of x
is
(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 3

BOND PARAMETERS & FAJAN’S RULE


1. The strongest bond is
(A) C—C (B) C—H (C) C—N (D) C—O
2. Which of the following is least soluble in H2O?
(A) BaF2 (B) SrF2 (C) CaF2 (D) MgF2
3. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl 2 and MgCl2, the compounds with the greatest and least ionic
character respectively are
(A)LiCl and RbCl (B)RbCl and BeCl2
(C)RbCl and MgCl2 (D)MgCl 2 and BeCl 2

4. Which of the following is insoluble in water?


(A) AgF (B) AgI (C) KBr (D) CaCl2

5. Which of the following is least ionic?


(A) AgCl (B) KCl (C) BaCl2 (D) CaCl2

6. In which of the following, bond angle is maximum?


(A) NH3 (B) NH 4 (C) PCl3 (D) SCl2

7. Maximum bond angle is present in case of


(A) BBr3 (B) BCl3 (C) BF3 (D) Same in all

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8. The correct order of increasing C – O bond length of CO, CO 23  , CO2 is


(A) CO 23 < CO2< CO (B) CO2< CO 23 < CO
(C) CO < CO 23  < CO2 (D) CO < CO2< CO 23 

9. Which one is the highest melting point?


(A) NaCl (B) NaF (C) NaBr (D) NaI.

10. Which of the following statements about LiCl and NaCl is wrong?
(A) LiCl has lower melting point that NaCl
(B) LiCl dissolves more in organic solvents whereas NaCl does not
(C) LiCl is more soluble in water than NaCl
(D) Fused LiCl would be less conducting than fused NaCl

11. Which of the following has highest ionic character?


(A) MgCl2 (B) CaCl2 (C) BaCl2 (D) BeCl2

12. Covalent character is maximum in


(A) NaF (B) Na2O
(C) Na3N (D) all have equal covalent character

13. The bond angles of NH3, NH 4 and NH 2 are in the order


(A) NH 2 > NH3> NH 4 (B) NH 4 > NH3> NH 2
(C) NH3> NH 2 > NH 4 (D) NH3> NH 4 > NH 2

14. The correct order of bond angles is


(A) NO 2 > NO 2 > NO 2 (B) NO 2 > NO 2 > NO 2
(C) NO 2 > NO 2 > NO 2 (D) NO 2 > NO 2 > NO 2

15. The bond angle in H2S is


(A) > NH3 (B) Same as in BeCl2
(C) > H2Se &< H2O (D) Same as in CH4
16. Which of the following set contains species having same angle around the central atom?
(A) SF4, CH4, NH3 (B) NF3, BCl3, NH3
(C) BF3, NF3, AlCl3 (D) BF3, BCl3, BBr3

17. Which one of the following compounds has bond angle as nearly 90º?
(A) NH3 (B) H2S (C) H2O (D) CH4

18. The correct increasing bond angle among BF3, PF3 and ClF3 follows the order
(A) BF3< PF3< ClF3 (B) PF3< BF3< ClF3
(C) ClF3< PF3< BF3 (D) BF3 = PF3 = ClF3

19. The correct order of increasing covalent character of the following is


(A) SiCl4< AlCl3< CaCl 2< KCl (B) KCl < CaCl2< AlCl 3< SiCl4
(C) AlCl3< CaCl2< KCl < SiCl4 (D) none of these

20. Indicate the type of bond angles present in IF5


(A) 90° (B) 90°,120° (C) 90°, 180° (D) 90°, 120°, 180°

21. If Na+ is larger than Mg2+ ions and S2- ion is larger than Cl - ion, which of the following will be least
soluble in water.
(A) NaCl (B) Na2S (C) MgCl (D) MgS

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22. The most covalent aluminium halide is


(A)AlF3 (B) AlCl3 (C) AlBr3 (D) AlI3

23. The threedimensional representation of H2N is


.. ..
H .. H . H .
(A) .. N (B) HNH (C) N (D) N
H .. .. H . .
H

24. The bond angle is minimum in


(A) NH 4 (B) NOCl (C)H2Se (D) SO3

25. F — Xe — F bond angle in XeO2F2 is approximately


(A)90º (B) 120º (C) 180º (D) 109º28

POLAR COVALENT BONDS & DIPOLE MOMENT

1. Which bond angle () would result in the maximum dipole moment for the triatomic molecule
XY2?
(A)  = 90° (B)  = 120° (C)  = 150° (D)  = 180°

2. Which of the following pair one which contains both polar and non – polar bonds?
(A) NH4Cl (B) HCN (C) H2O2 (D) CH4

3. Among the following bonds which has the most polar character?
(A) C – O (B) C – Br (C) C – F (D) C – S
4. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is
(A) CH2Cl2 (B) BF3 (C) NH3 (D) ClO2
5. Which one of the following arrangement of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole
moments ?
(A) BF3> NF3> NH3 (B) NF3> BF3> NH3
(C) NH3> BF3> NF3 (D) NH3> NF3> BF3
6. Among the following compounds, the one that is polar and has the central atom with
sp2hybridization is
(A) H2CO3 (B) SiF4 (C) BF3 (D) HClO2

7. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment. Toluene (I), m –
dichlorobenzene (II), o – dichlorobenzene (III), p – dichlorobenzene (IV).
(A) I < IV < II < III (B) IV < I < II < III (C) IV < I < III < II (D) IV < II < I < III

8. Which one of the following has zero dipole moment ?


(A) ClF (B) PCl3 (C) SiF4 (D) CFCl3

9. Among the following, the molecule with highest dipole moment is


(A) CH3Cl (B) CH2Cl2 (C) CHCl3 (D) CCl4

10. Which of the following pair of molecules will have permanent dipole moment for both members
(A) NO2 and CO2 (B) NO2 and O3 (C) SiF4 and CO2 (D) SiF4 and NO2

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11. Which of the following statements is correct?


(A) A  bond is weaker than a  bond
(B) There are four coordinate bonds in the NH 4 ion
(C) The covalent bond is directional in nature
(D) HF is less polar than HCl

12. Which of the following compounds is nonpolar?


(A) CH3Cl (B) CH2Cl2 (C) CHCl3 (D) CCl4

13. Which of the following will be least polar?


(A) NH (B) CH (C) OH (D) HF

14. Which of the following has zero value of dipole moment?


(A) Benzene (B) Naphthalene (C) pDichlorobenzene (D) All the three

15. Which of the following molecules has highest dipole moment?


(A) H2S (B) CO2 (C) CCl4 (D) BF3

16. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?


(A) NH3 (B) CHCl3 (C) H2O (D) BF3

17. Which of the following molecules has a high dipole moment?


(A) CO2 (B) CCl4 (C) NH3 (D) BF3

18. Which of the following molecules has highest dipole moment?


(A) BF3 (B) NH3 (C) NF3 (D) B2H6

19. Which of the following molecules has nonzero dipole moment?


(A) PCl5 (B) BF3 (C) SO2 (D) CO2

20. The molecule that does not possess a permanent dipole moment is
(A) NF3 (B) BF3 (C) CH2Cl2 (D) NO2

21. Dipole moment of NF3 is smaller than


(A) NH3 (B) CO2 (C) BF3 (D) CCl4

22. The dipole moment of o, p and mdichlorobenzene will be in the order


(A) o>p>m (B) p>o>m (C) m>o>p (D) o>m>p

23. BF3 and NF3 both are covalent compounds but NF3 is polar whereas BF3 is non-polar. This is
because
(A) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(B) NF bond is more polar than BF bond
(C) NF3 is pyramidal whereas BF3 is planar triangular
(D) BF3 is electron deficient whereas NF3 is not

24. Which of the following hydrogen halides has a high percentage of ionic character?
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI

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HYDROGEN BONDING
1. Among HF, CH4, CH3OH and N2O4, intermolecular hydrogen bonding is expected
(A) in all (B) in all expect one (C) in two (D) in none

2. The high boiling point of water is due to


(A) Weak dissociation of water
(B) Hydrogen bonding among water molecules
(C) Its high specific heat
(D) Its high dielectric constant

3. Hydrogen bonding is absent in


(A) H2O (B) NH3 (C) C2H5OH (D) C2H5OC2H5

4. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which a water molecule can participate
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

5. Which of the following hydrogen halides is most volatile?


(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI

6. Amongst H2O, H2S , H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is
(A) H2O because of hydrogen bonding (B) H2 Te because of higher molecular weight
(C) H2S because of hydrogen bonding (D) H2Se because of lower molecular weight
7. The boiling point is not affected due to hydrogen bonding in
(A) Water (B) ammonia (C) methyl alcohol (D) hydrogen chloride
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8. The correct order of the strength of Hbonds is


(A) H…..F > H…..O > H…..N (B) H…..N > H…..O > H…..F
(C) H…..O > H…..N > H…..F (D) H…..F > H…..N > H…..O

9. In ice, the length of Hbonds


(A) is less than that of covalent bonds
(B) is greater than that of covalent bonds
(C) is same as that of covalent bonds
(D) can be less, greater or same as that of covalent bonds

10. The boiling points of methanol, water and dimethyl ether are respectively 65ºC, 100ºC and 34.5ºC.
Which of the following best explains these wide variations in b.p.
(A) the molecular mass increases from water (18) to methanol (32) to diethyl ether (74)
(B) the extent of Hbonding decreases from water to methanol while it is absent in ether
(C) the extent of intramolecular Hbonding decreases from ether to methanol to water
(D) the density of water is 1.00g ml1, methanol 0.7914g ml1 and that of diethyl ether is0.7137g ml 1

11. Intramolecular Hbonding is present in


(A) oNitrophenol (B) Salicylaldehyde (C) mNitrophenol (D) both (A) and (B)

12. Which of the following compounds has the least tendency to form hydrogen bonds between
molecules?
(A) NH3 (B) NH2OH (C) HF (D) CH3F

13. The weakest bond among the following is


(A) ionic (B) covalent (C) metallic (D) hydrogen bond

14. Incorrect order of decreasing boiling points is


(A) HF > HI > HBr > HCl (B) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
(C) Br2> Cl 2> F2 (D) CH4> GeH4> SiH4
15. Which of the following does not contain any coordinate bond?
(A) H3O+ (B) BF 4 (C) HF 2 (D) NH 4

16. Which of the following has highest viscosity?


(A) Glycerol (B) Glycol (C) Ethanol (D) Water
17. Which of the following has a 3 centered 2 electron bond?
(A) BF3 (B) NH3 (C) CO2 (D) B2H6
18. Out of the following which has highest dipole moment?
(A)2,2-dimethyl propane (B)trans-2-pentene
(C)cis-3-hexene (D)2,2,3,3-tetramethyl butane
19. Identify the false statement
(A) Anhyd. FeCl3 cannot exist in dimeric form
(B) Maximum polarisation is brought about by a cation of high charge
(C) The bond dissociation energy of a metallic bond is greater than that of a hydrogen bond.
(D) The conversion of Na to Na+ is an endothermic process

20. In which of the following set of molecules is the order of boiling points incorrect?
(A) Xe > Ar > He (B) HF > HCl > HBr
(C) H2O > H2Se > H2S (D) C3H8> C2H6> CH4

21. Among KO2, AlO2–, BaO2 and NO2+ unpaired electron is present in
(A)NO2+ and BaO2 (B)KO2 and AlO2– (C)KO2 only (D)BaO2 only

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22. The electronegativity difference between two atoms A and B is 2 then percentage of covalent
character in the molecule is
(A) 54% (B) 46% (C) 23% (D) 72%

23. For resonance structure a molecule may not have


(A)Identical arrangement of atoms (B)Nearly same energy contents
(C)The same number of paired electrons (D) Identical bonding

24. Which is paramagnetic?


(A) Cl2O6 (B) Cl2O7 (C) Cl 2O (D) ClO2

25. Which of the following statements concerning elements with atomic number 10 is true?
(A) it forms a covalent net work of solids
(B) its molecules are monoatomic
(C) it has a very high value of electron affinity
(D) it has extremely low value of ionisation energy.
26. Which of the following is solid with highest melting point?
(A) CO2 (B) H2O (C) SiO2 (D) He
27. Which one has least O-O bond length?
(A) O2 (B) Na2O2 (C) KO2 (D) O3

EXERCISE-1

1. Which ion below has a noble gas electron configuration?


(A) Li2  (B) Be 2 (C) B2 (D) C2

2. Of the ions below, only __________ has a noble gas electron configuration.
(A) S3 (B) O 2  (C) I (D) Cl
3. Which of the following has eight valence electrons?
(A) Ti 4 (B) Kr (C) Cl (D) all of the above

4. Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons?


(A) Ca  (B) Rb  (C) Xe (D) Br 

5. The chloride of which of the following metals should have the greatest lattice energy?
(A) potassium (B) rubidium (C) sodium (D) lithium

6. Lattice energy is __________.


(A) the energy required to convert a mole of ionic solid into its constituent ions in the gas phase
(B) the energy given off when gaseous ions combine to form one mole of an ionic solid
(C) the energy required to produce one mole of an ionic compound from its constituent elements in
their standard states
(D) the sum of ionization energies of the components in an ionic solid

7. In ionic bond formation, the lattice energy of ions ________ as the magnitude of the ion charges
_______ and the radii __________.
(A) increases, decrease, increase (B) increases, increase, increase

(C) decreases, increase, increase (D) increases, increase, decrease

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The diagram below is the Born-Haber cycle for the formation of crystalline potassium fluoride.

8. Which energy change corresponds to the electron affinity of fluorine?


(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 1

9. Which energy change corresponds to the first ionization energy of potassium?


(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3

10. The electron configuration [Kr]4d10 represents __________.


(A) Sr+2 (B) Sn+2 (C) Te+2 (D) Ag+1

11. Fe+2 ions are represented by __________.


(A) [Ar]3d1 (B) [Ar]3d4 (C) [Ar]3d6 (D) [Ar]3d104s1

12. Using the Born-Haber cycle, the  H f  of KBr is equal to __________.


(A) H f °[K (g)]  H f °[Br (g)]  I1 (K)  E(Br)  H
lattice
(B) H f °[K (g)]  H f °[Br (g)]  I1 (K)  E(Br)  H
lattice
(C) H f °[K (g)]  H f °[Br (g)]  I1 (K)  E(Br)  H
lattice
(D) H f °[K (g)]  H f °[Br (g)]  I1  E(Br)  H
lattice
13. The type of compound that is most likely to contain a covalent bond is __________.
(A) one that is composed of a metal from the far left of the periodic table and a nonmetal from the far
right of the periodic table
(B) a solid metal
(C) one that is composed of only nonmetals
(D) held together by the electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions

14. In which of the molecules below is the carbon-carbon distance the shortest?
(A) H 2 C  CH 2 (B) C 2 H 2 (C) H 3C  CH 3 (D) H 2C  C  CH 2

15. Of the atoms below, __________ is the most electronegative.


(A) Si (B) Cl (C) Rb (D) Ca

16. Of the atoms below, __________ is the least electronegative.


(A) Rb (B) F (C) Si (D) Cl

17. Which of the elements below has the largest electronegativity?


(A) Si (B) Mg (C) P (D) S

18. Of the molecules below, the bond in __________ is the most polar.
(A) HBr (B) HI (C) HCl (D) HF
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19. Of the bonds below, __________ is the least polar.


(A) Na, S (B) P, S (C) C, F (D) Na, Cl

20. Which of the following has the bonds correctly arranged in order of increasing polarity?
(A) Be  F, Mg  F, N  F, O  F (B) O  F, N  F, Be  F, Mg  F
(C) O  F, Be  F, Mg  F, N  F (D) N  F, Be  F, Mg  F, O  F

21. Which two bonds are most similar in polarity?


(A) O  F and Cl  F (B) B  F and Cl  F
(C) Al  Cl and I  Br (D) I  Br and Si  Cl
22. The bond length in an HI molecule is 1.61 Å and the measured dipole moment is 0.44 D. What is the
magnitude (in units of e) of the negative charge on I in HI?
( 1 debye = 3.34  1030 coulomb-meters ; e=1.6  10 19 coulombs )
(A) 1.6  10 19 (B) 0.057 (C) 9.1 (D) 1

23. Which of the following names is/are correct for the compound TiO 2 ?
(A) titanium dioxide and titanium (IV) oxide (B) titanium (IV) dioxide
(C) titanium oxide (D) titanium oxide and titanium (IV) dioxide

24. Which of the following names is/are correct for the compound SnCl4 ?
(A) tin (II) chloride and tin (IV) chloride (B) tin tetrachloride and tin (IV) chloride
(C) tin (IV) tetrachloride (D) tin chloride

25. The structure of N 2 H 2 shows __________.


(A) a nitrogen-nitrogen triple bond
(B) a nitrogen-nitrogen single bond
(C) each nitrogen has one nonbonding electron pair
(D) each nitrogen has two nonbonding electron pairs
26. There are __________ valence electrons in CH3 CH2Cl.
(A) 14 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 20

27. In the Lewis symbol for a sulfur atom, there are __________ paired and __________ unpaired
electrons.
(A) 2, 2 (B) 4, 2 (C) 2, 4 (D) 0, 6

28. Compare C–O bond strength amongst


(A) CO > CO2 > CO32– (B)CO > CO32–>CO2
(C) CO32–> CO2> CO (D) CO < CO32–< CO2

29. In the nitrite ion (NO 2- ) , __________.


(A) both bonds are single bonds
(B) both bonds are double bonds
(C) one bond is a double bond and the other is a single bond
(D) both bonds are the same

30. Resonance structures differ by __________.


(A) placement of electrons only (B) number of electrons only
(C) placement of atoms only (D) number of atoms only

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31. The oxidation number of phosphorus in PF3 is __________.


(A) -2 (B) +1 (C) +3 (D) +2
32. To convert from one resonance structure to another, __________.
(A) only atoms can be moved (B) electrons and atoms can both be moved
(C) only electrons can be moved (D) neither electrons nor atoms can be moved
33. For resonance forms of a molecule or ion, __________.
(A) one always corresponds to the observed structure
(B) all the resonance structures are observed in various proportions
(C) the observed structure is an average of the resonance forms
(D) the same atoms need not be bonded to each other in all resonance forms
For the questions that follow, consider following oxyanions:
(i) NO 2  (ii) NO 3  (iii) SO 32  (iv) SO 4 2  (v) BrO 3

34. There can be four equivalent best resonance structures of __________.


(A) (ii) (B) (iii) (C) (i) (D) (iv)

35. In which of the ions do all X-O bonds (X indicates the central atom) have the same length?
(A) none (B) all (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (iii) and (v)

36. Of the following, __________ cannot accommodate more than an octet of electrons.
(A) P (B) As (C) O (D) S

37. Based on the octet rule, boron will most likely form a __________ ion.
(A) B3- (B) B1+ (C) B3+ (D) B2+

38. Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons?
(A)Xe (B) Ti+4 (C) Rb +1 (D) Sr+1

39. A valid Lewis structure of __________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
(A) PO 4 3 (B) SiF4 (C) CF4 (D) SeF4

40. The central atom in __________ does not violate the octet rule.
(A) SF4 (B) KrF2 (C) CF4 (D) XeF4

41. The central atom in __________ violates the octet rule.


(A) NH3 (B) SeF2 (C) BF3 (D) AsF3

42. A valid Lewis structure of __________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
(A) ClF3 (B) PCl3 (C) SO3 (D) CCl4

43. A valid Lewis structure of __________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
(A) NI3 (B) SO 2 (C) ICl5 (D) SiF4

44. A valid Lewis structure of __________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
(A) NF3 (B) BeH 2 (C) SO 2 (D) CF4

45. Which atom can form compounds having incomplete octet according to Lewis theory?
(A) N (B) C (C) B (D) H

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46. Bond enthalpy is __________.


(A) always positive (B) always negative
(C) sometimes positive, sometimes negative (D) always zero

47. Given that the average bond energies for C-H and C-Br bonds are 413 and 276 kJ/mol, respectively,
the heat of atomization of bromoform (CHBr3 ) is __________ kJ/mol.
(A) 1241 (B) 689 (C) -689 (D) 1378
48. Of the bonds C-N,C  N , and C  N , the C-N bond is __________.
(A) strongest/shortest (B) strongest/longest
(C) weakest/shortest (D) weakest/longest

49. As the number of covalent bonds between two atoms increases, the distance between the atoms
__________ and the strength of the bond between them __________.
(A) increases, increases (B) decreases, decreases
(C) increases, decreases (D) decreases, increases
50. Of the possible bonds between carbon atoms (single, double, and triple), __________.
(A) a triple bond is longer than a single bond
(B) a double bond is stronger than a triple bond
(C) a single bond is stronger than a triple bond
(D) a double bond is longer than a triple bond
51. The molecule which possesses both sp3 and sp3d2 hybridisation is
(A) solid PCl5 (B) gaseous PCl5 (C) PCl4 (D) PCl6

EXERCISE-2

Only one option correct

1. Out of the three molecules XeF4, SF4, SiF4 one which has tetrahedral structures is
(A) all the three (B)only SiF4
(C) both SF4 and XeF4 (D)only SF4 and XeF4

2. Which of the following molecules or ions is not linear?


(A)BeCl2 (B)ICl2– (C)CS2 (D)ICl2+

3. Which of the following is non–polar but contains polar bonds?


(A)HCl (B)H2O (C)SO3 (D)NO2

4. The number of 90° angles between bond pairbond pair of electrons in BrF5 is
(A)4 (B)5 (C)6 (D) 8

5. The shape of ClO4– is


(A)Square planar (B)Square pyramidal (C)Tetrahedral (D)Trigonal bipyramidal

6. The 2s orbital has a higher energy than *1s orbital, 2s , orbital is bonding while 1*s orbital is
antibonding because
(A)2s is planar while 1*s is nonplanar.
(B)2s is symmetrical while 1*s is unsymmetrical.
(C)2s is nearer to the nuclei than 1*s .
(D)none of these
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7. A molecule of chloral hydrate contains two OH groups attached to a single carbon atom as shown
below
Cl OH
ClC CH
Cl OH
Its extra stability is due to the presence of
(A)intramolecular hydrogen bonding. (B)its planar structure.
(C)its symmetrical structure. (D)none of these.

8. The stability of O2, O 22  , O 2 and O 2 in their respective dissociation reaction is in the order
(A) O 2 < O2< O 2 < O 22  (B) O 22  < O 2 < O2< O 2
(C) O 2 < O 2 < O2< O 22  (D) O 2 < O 22  > O2< O 22 

9. Homolytic fission of CC bonding ethane (CH3CH3) gives an intermediate in which carbon atom is
(A)sp3 hybridised (B)sp2 hybridised (C)sp hybridised (D)sp2d hybridised

10. Which of the following is paramagnetic O 22  and BN?


(A)Both (B)None (C) O 22  (D)BN

11. Pick out the incorrect statement?


(A)N2 has greater dissociation energy than N 2 .
(B)O2 has lower dissociation energy than O 2 .
(C)Bond length in N 2 is less than in N2.
(D)Bond length in NO+ is less than in NO.

12. KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound contains the species
(A)K+, F and H+ (B)K+, F and HF (C)K+ and [HF2] (D)[KHF]+ and F2

13. The hybridisation of P in PO 34  is same as in


(A)I in ICl 4 (B)S in SO3 (C)N in NO 3 (D)S in SO 24 

14. The most acidic among the following oxide


(A)MnO (B)MnO2 (C)MnO2 (D)Mn2O7

15. Which of the following molecule involves sp2 hybridisation?


(A)CO2 (B)SO2 (C)N2O (D)CO

16. Which of the following have identical bond order :


(i)CN– (ii) O 2 (iii) NO+ (iv) CN+
(A)(i) and (iii) (B)(ii) and (iv) (C)(i) and (iv) (D)(ii) and (iii)

17. The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO 2 , NO 3 and NH 4 are


(A)sp2, sp3 and sp2 respectively. (B)sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively.
2 3
(C)sp , sp and sp respectively. (D)sp2, sp3 and sp respectively.

18. The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species, NH3, [PtCl4]2, PCl5
and BCl3 is respectively
(A)dsp2, sp3d, sp2, sp3 (B)sp3, dsp2, sp3d, sp2
2 2 3 3
(C)dsp , sp , sp , sp d (D)dsp2, sp3, sp2, sp3d

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19. The common features among the species CN, CO and NO+ are
(A)Bond order three and isoelectronic. (B)Bond order three and weak field ligands.
(C)Bond order three and acceptors. (D)Isoelectronic and weak filed ligands.

20. The nodal plane in the bond of ethene is located in


(A)the molecular plane
(B)a plane parallel to the molecular plane
(C)a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carboncarbon sigma bond at
right angles.
(D)a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carboncarbon bond.

21. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment?
H3C CH3
(A) C (B)CH3CC.CH3
H H
(C)CH3CH2CCH (D)CH2=CHCCH

22. Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electron(s)?


(A)N2 (B)F2 (C) O 2 (D) O 22 

23. Arrange the following in the increasing order of melting points


(A)NH3 (B)CH3NH2 (C)(CH3)2NH (D)(CH3)3N

(A)(A)<(B)<(C)<(D) (B)(D)<(C)<(B)<(A)
(C)(A)<(D)<(C)<(B) (D)None of these

24. The species that does not contain peroxide ions are
(A) PbO2 (B)H2O2 (C)SrO2 (D)BaO2

25. The number of sp2 – sp2 sigma bonds in the compound given below is:
H3C CH3
H3C OH N
OH

NH2
OH
OH O OH O O
(A)8 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12

26. The H bond in solid HF can be best represented as:


H H H H
(A) H  F ....H  F ....H  F (B) F F F

F F H H
H H H H F F F F
(C) F (D) H

27. The dipole moment of


Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl

Cl Cl is 1.5 D. The dipole moment of Cl is


(A) Zero (B) 1.5 D (C) 2.60 D (D) 2.12 D

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28. Consider the following sets of H─bonds

O H N
O H O
P: Q:

N H N N H O
R: S:

The correct order of H─bond strength is


(A) Q  P  S  R (B) R  Q  S  P
(C) R  S  P  Q (D) P  Q  R  S

29. In hydrocarbon C3Hm, X-ray diffraction (which does not “see” H’s) finds a C─C─C bond angle of
about 120o. The value of m must be__________
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

More than one option correct


1. Among the following, the diamagnetic compounds is/are
(A) Na2O2 (B) O3 (C) N2O (D) KO2

2. The species having same bond order as in CO


(A) NO (B) NO (C) CN (D) N2

3. The molecule(s) with some finite positive dipole moment is(are):


(A) OH (B) Cl

OH Cl
(C) PF3Cl2 (D) PCl 3F2

4. The molecule(s) with zero dipole moment is(are):


OH CN Cl NH2

OH CN Cl NH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. Compound which do have sp3d hybridization
(A)ICl2 (B) ClF3 (C) XeO2F2 (D) XeF4

6. The molecules that will have dipole moment:


(A) 2, 2-dimethylpropane (B) Trans-2-pentene
(C) Cis-3-hexene (D) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethylbutane
7. Species having same bond order are:
(A) N2 (B) N 2 (C) N 2 (D) N 22

8. Which of the following species are paramagnetic?


(A) O2 (B) N 22 (C) N2 (D) O22

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JEE MAIN QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not paramagnetic (DCE 2000)


(a) O 2 (b) O 22  (c) O 2 (d) O 2

2. The pair of molecules forming strongest intermolecular hydrogen bonding are (DCE 2000)
(a) H 2 O and H 2 (b) HCOOH and Ch 3COOH
(b) CH 3COCH 3 and CHCl3 (d) SiH 4 and SiF6

3. The hybridisation state of central atom in PCl5 is (DCE 2000)


(a) dsp 3 (b) sp3 (c) sp 3 d 2 (d) sp 3 d .

4. Which of the following has sp 3  hybridization? (DCE 2001)


(a) BBr3 (b) XeF4 (c) BCl3 (d) XeO 3 .

5. Which of the following is not linear? (DCE 2001)


(a) I 3 (b) CO 2 (c) ClO 2 (d) None of these.

6. Which of the following compounds, shows ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds?
(a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) CuSO 4 ; 5H 2O (d) CaSO 4 ; 5H 2O.
(DCE 2001)
7. Which of the following is polar? (DCE 2002)
(a) IF7 (b) SF6 (c) PCl3 (d) PCl5

8. Which of the following has no dipole moment? (DCE 2002)


(a) H 2 O (b) O 3 (c) SO2 (d) CO 2

9. Which of the following is non-linear molecule? (DCE 2003)


(a) BeCl2 (b) CS2 (c) CO 2 (d) SO3

10. Which one of the following is highest melting halide? (DCE 2003)
(a) Agl (b) AgF (c) AgBr (d) AgCl

11. The polarising ability of which one of the following is highest? (DCE 2003)
(a) large –ve ion (b) small, highly –ve ion(c) large +ve ion (d) small, highly +ve ion

12. In O 2 , O 2 and O 22  molecular species, the total number of antibonding electrons respectively are
(DCE 2003)
(a) 8, 6, 8 (b) 6, 6, 6 (c) 1, 0, 2 (d) 7, 6, 8

13. Maximum number of hydrogen bonding in H 2 O is (DCE 2004)


(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4

14. Which of the following molecules has pyramidal shape? (DCE 2004)
(a) CO 32  (b) SO3 (c) PCl3 (d) NO 3 .

15. Which of the following has covalent bond? (DCE 2004)


(a) NaH (b) AlCl3 (c) Na 2S (d) MgCl2

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16. Increasing order of electronegativity of the hybrid orbitals is (DCE 2005)


(a) sp < sp 2  sp 3 (b) sp 2  sp < sp 3 (c) sp 3  sp 2  sp 2 3
(d) sp  sp  sp .

17. Among the following, shortest bond length is in (DCE 2005)


(a) N 2 (b) O 2 (c) F2 (d) Cl2

18. How many C - C bonds are there in ? (DCE 2005)

(a) 14,8 (b) 18,8 (c) 9, 4 (d) 14, 2

19. Pair of species having identical shapes for molecules is (DCE 2005)
(a) CF4 ,SF4 (b) BF3 , PCl3 (c) XeF2 , CO 2 (d) PF5 , IF5

20. Metalliclustre is explained by


(a) Diffusion of metal ions (b) Oscillation of loose electrons
(c) Excitation of free protons (c) Existence of bec lattice.

21. Which of the following represents isostructural pairs? (DCE 2006)


(a)  NF3 , NO3  and  BF3 , H 3O   (b)  NF3 , HN 3  and  NO3 , BF3 
(c)  NF3 , H 3O   and  NO3 , BF3  (d)  NF3 , H 3O   and  HN 3 , BF3 

22. Among the following, the pair in which the two species are notisostructural is (DCE 2007)
   
(a) IO 3 and XeO 3 (b) BH 4 and NH 4 (c) PF6 and SF6 (d) SiF4 and SF4

23. Which of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule ? [AIEEE-2003]
(a) SO2 (b) H2O (c) H2S (d) NH3

24. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to:
[AIEEE-2003]
(a) dipolar character of ethers.
(b) alcohols having resonance structures.
(c) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers.
(d) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols.

25. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3. Which of the following statements is true for
these two species? [AIEEE-2004]
(a) bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO (b) bond length in NO is greater than in NO+
(c) bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO (d) bond length is unpredictable

26. The states of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are respectively :
[AIEEE-2004]
2
(a) sp and sp 2 2
(b) sp and sp 3 3
(c) sp and sp 2 3
(d) sp and sp3

27. Based on lattice energy and other considerations, which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is
expected to have the highest melting point ? [AIEEE-2005]
(a) LiCI (b) NaCl (c) KCl (d) RbCl

28. The molecular shapes of SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 are (AIEEE 2005)
(a) The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms respectively
(b) The same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms respectively

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(c) Different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms respectively.
(d) Different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms respectively.

29. Which of the following molecules/ions does not contain unpaired electrons? (AIEEE 2006)
(a) O 22  (b) B 2 (c) N 2 (d) O 2

30. In which of the molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal? (AIEEE 2006)

(a) SF4 (b) Si F4 (c) XeF4 (d) BF 4

31. Which of the following species exhibits the diamagnetic behavior? (AIEEE 2007)
(a) NO (b) O 22  (c) O 2 (d) O 2 .

32. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following
sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species,
K  ,Ca 2 , Mg 2 , Be 2 ? (AIEEE 2007)
(a) Ca 2   Mg 2   Be   K  (b) Mg 2   Be 2   K   Ca 2 
(c) Be 2  K   Ca 2  Mg 2 (d) K   Ca 2  Mg 2  Be2

33. In which of the following ionization processers, the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behaviour has changed? (AIEEE 2007)

(a) N 2  N 2 (b) C 2  C 2 (c) NO  NO (d) O 2  O 2

34. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest? (AIEEE 2007)
(a) O  H    F (b) O  H    H (c) F  H    F (d)

35. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species? (AIEEE 2008)
  2 
(a) N 2 , O 2 , NO , CO (b) C 2 , O 2 , CO, NO
 2   2 2
(c) NO , C 2 , CN , N 2 (d) CN , N 2 , O 2 , C 2 .

36. Using MO theory predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length?
2   2
(a) O 2 (b) O 2 (c) O 2 (d) O 2 (AIEEE 2009)

37. Which of the following species is not paramagnetic?


(a) B2 (b) NO (c) CO (d) O 2 (JEE 2016)

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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO

ANSWER KEY

Foundation Builder (Objective)

BASIC CONCEPTS

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. B
6. D 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. A 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. A
16. C 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. B

VSEPR THEORY

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. B
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. A
16. C 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. B
21. B 22. C 23. D 24. B 25. A
26. C 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. C

BOND PARAMETERS & FAJAN’S RULE

1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. C
11. C 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. C
16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. C
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. C

POLAR COVALENT BONDS & DIPOLE MOMENT

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B
11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. A
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. B
21. A 22. D 23. C 24. A

HYDROGEN BONDING

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B
6. A 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. B
11. D 12. D 13. D 14. D 15 C
16. A 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. D 24. D 25. B
26. C 27. A

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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO

EXERCISE-1

1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. D
6. A 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. D
11. C 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. B
16. A 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. B
21. A 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C
26. D 27. B 28. A 29. D 30. A
31. C 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. B
36. C 37. C 38. D 39. D 40. C
41. C 42. A 43. C 44. B 45. C
46. A 47. A 48. D 49. D 50. D
51. A

EXERCISE-2

ONLY ONE OPTION CORRECT

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. B
11. C 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. B
16. A 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. B 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. D
26. C 27. C 28. D 29. C

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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO

JEE MAIN

1. b 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. c 7. c
8. d 9. d 10. b 11. d 12. d 13. d 14. c
15. b 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. b 21. c
22. d 23. c 24. d 25. b 26. b 27. b 28.d
29. a 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. c
36. a 37. c WINDOW

JEE ADVANCED

A. 1.CO2 2. HCOOH and CH3COOH


3. 2 4. sp3
5.planar 6. three centred two electrons bond or banana bond
7. Increases, decreases 8. N2O, I 3

B. 1T 2F 3T 4F 5F 6F 7F

C. 1 C 2 A 3 A 4 B 5 B 6 D
7 A 8 C 9 C 10 A 11 C 12 A
13 B 14 A 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 C
19 D 20 C 21 B 22 C 23 A 24 C
25 D 26 B 27 A 28 C 29 D 30 A
31 D 32 B 33 A 34 B 35 A 36 C
37 B 38 D

D. 1 A,C 2 B,C,D 3 A,C 4 B,C


5 B,D 6 B 7. A,C 8. B, D
9. B, D 10. B,C,D 11. A,B,D 12. A,B,C
13. A,C,D 14. B,D 15. A,D 16. A,B,C
17. A,B,C,D 18. A,B,C 19. A,C 20. A,C,D
21. A,C 22. C,D 23. A,C 24. A,B
25. A,C,D 26. A,B,C,D 27. A,C,D

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EXERCISE-3
1. Among the following electron deficient compound is
(a) CCl4 (b) PCl3 (c) BeCl2 (d) BCl3

2. Which of the following is planar ?


(a) XeO4 (b) XeOF4 (c) XEO2F2 (d) XeF4

3. The bond length in LiF will be


(a) Less than that of NaF (b) Equal to that of KF
(c) More than that of KF (d) Equal to that of NaF

4. Which of the following has a tendency for covalent compound formation ?


(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) Ba

5. Which of the following two are isostructural ?


(a) XeF2, IF2 (b) NH3, BF3
(c) CO 32 , SO 32 (d) PCl5, ICl5

6. In which of the following bond angle is maximum


(a) NH3 (b) NH4 (c) PCl3 (d) SCl2

7. Which of the following statement is true


(a) Silicon exhibits maximum 4 coordination number in its compound
(b) Bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2
(c) Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable than Mn(II) in aqueous state
(d) Elements of 15th group shows only +3 and +5 oxidation states

8. Which of the following is isoelectronic ?


(a) CO2, NO2 (b) NO 2 , CO 2 (c) CN–, CO (d) SO2, CO2

9. In NO3 ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom are
(a) 2, 2 (b) 3, 1 (c) 1, 3 (d) 4, 0

10. Which of the following molecule has highest bond energy ?


(a) F – F (b) N – N (c) C – C (d) O – O

11. Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi bond formed between two carbon
atoms ?
(a) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond
(b) Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect
in this regard
(c) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
(d) Bond energies of sigma-and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol an d347 kJ/mol. respectively

12. Which of the following are arranged in the decreasing order of dipole moment exceptional?
(a) CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3F (b) CH3Cl, CH3F, CH3Br,
(c) CH3Br, CH3Cl, CH3F (d) CH3Br, CH3F, CH3Cl

13. In BrF3 molecule, the line pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize
(a) Lone pair-lone pair repulsion only
(b) Lone pair-bond pair repulsion only
(c) Bond pair-bond pair repulsion only
(d) Lone pair-lone repulsion and lone pair-bond pair repulsion

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14. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not because
(a) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
(b) The electronegativity of F is greater than that of O
(c) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas BeF2 is a discrete molecule
(d) H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular

15. Among the following pair which of the two species are not isostructural
(a) PF6 and SF6 (b) SiF4 and SF4 (c) IO3 and XeO3 (d) BH 4 and NH4

16. In a regular octahedral molecule, MX6 the pair of X – M – X bonds at 180o is


(a) Four (b) Three (c) Two (d) Six

17. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can form more than one binary compound with chlorine is
(a) Ca (b) Fe (c) Zn (d) K

18. The true statement for N 3 is


(a) It has a non-linear structure
(b) It is called pseudohalide
(c) The oxidation state of nitrogen in this anion is –
(d) It is isoelectronic with NO2

19. Shape of O2F2 is similar to that of


(a) C2F2 (b) H2O2 (c) H2F2 (d) C2H2

20. The compound insoluble in water is


(a) Mercuric nitrate (b) Mercurous chloride (c) Mercurous chloride (d) Mercurous perchlorate

21. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planar geometry?


(a) NH3 (b) BF3 (c) PCl3 (d) IF3

22. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment ?


(a) BF3 (b) SF4 (c) SiF4 (d) XeF4

23. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by


(a) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl (b) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
(c) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl (d) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2

24. Which of the following is the electron deficient molecule


(a) C2H6 (b) SiH4 (c) PH3 (d) BH3

25. Among the following molecules


(i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4 (iii) XeF6
Those having same number of lone pairs of Xe are
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only (c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

26. The isoelectronic pair is


(a) Cl2O, ICl 2 (b) ICl 2 , Cl2O (c) IF2 , I 3 (d) ICl 2 , ClF2

27. Which of the following species has a linear shape ?


(a) O3 (b) NO 2 (c) SO2 (d) NO2

28. Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl4 ?


(a) NH 4 (b) SCl4 (c) SO 24  (d) PO34

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29. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole
moment of NH3(1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D). This is beacuse
(a) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3 these are
in the same direction
(b) In NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
(c) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in
opposite directions
(d) In NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions

30. In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal ?
(a) NF3 (b) CIF3 (c) BF3 (d) AIF3

31. The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K2CO3, MgCO3 CaCO3 and BeCO3 is
(a) BeCO3 < MgCO3< CaCO3< K2CO3 (b) MgCO3< BeCO3 < CaCO3< K2CO3
(c) K2CO3< MgCO3< CaCO3< BeCO3 (d) BeCO3 < MgCO3< K2CO3< CaCO3

32. In which of the following pairs the two species are iso-structural ?
(a) SO 32 and NO 3 (b) BF2 and NH3 (c) BrO 3 and XeO 3 (d) SF4 and XeF4

33. The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO32 , CO2 is
(a) CO < CO32 < CO2 (b) CO32 < CO2< CO (c) CO < CO2< CO32 (d) CO2 < CO < CO32
o
34. The dipole moment of HBr is 0.78  10–18 esu cm and interatomic spacing is 1.41 A . The % ionic
character of HBr is
(a) 7.5 (b) 11.7 (c) 15 (d) 27

35. Which one of the following should be most stable ?


(a) H 2 (b) H+ (c) H (d) H–

36. The correct order of increasing ionic character is


(a) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2 (b) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < BaCl2 < CaCl2
(c) BeCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 (d) BaCl2 < CaCl2 < MgCl2 < BeCl2

37. The correct sequence of decrease in the bond angles of the following hydrides is
(a) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (b) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(c) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (d) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3

38. Which of the following has zero dipole moment ?


(a) ClF (b) PCl3 (c) SiF3 (d) CFCl3

39. Which of the following is weakest bond ?


(a) Ionic (b) Covalent (c) Metallic (d) Vander Waal

40. The bond angle of water is104.5o due to


(a) Repulsion between lp and lp (b) sp3 hybridization of O
(c) H2-bonding (d) Repulsion between bp and bp

41. Correct for N2 triple bond is


(a) 3 (b) 1 , 3 (c) 2  ,1 (d) 3

42. If in hybrid orbital s orbital character increases, then bond angle


(a) increases (b) decreases (c) zero (d) does not change

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43. Which compound shows dipole moment ?
(a) 1, 4 di-chloro benzene (b) 1, 2 di-chloro benzene
(c) Trans-1, 2 di-chloro ethene (d) Trans-2-butene

44. Hybridisation of ‘O’ atom in ether is


(a) sp3 (b) sp2 (c) sp (d) dsp2

45. How many -bonds are present in Napthalene molecule ?


(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

46. Hybridisaiton state of C in diamond is


(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d

47. Co-ordinate bond is absent in


1 
(a) BH 4 (b) CO32 (c) H 3 O  (d) N H 4

48. What causes nitrogen to be chemically inert ?


(a) Absence of polarity (b) High bond energy
(c) short internuclear distance (d) All

49. At room temperature HCl is a gas while HF is a low boiling liquid. This is because
(a) H – F bond is covalent (b) H – F bond is ionic
(c) H – F has metallic bond (d) H – F has hydrogen bond

50. Which of the following compounds will not undergo decomposition on passing electricity through
aqueous solution ?
(a) Sugar (b) Sodium chloride (c) Sodium bromide (d) Sodium acetate

51. An aqueous solution of ammonia consists of


(a) H+ (b) OH– (c) NH 4 (d) NH 4 and OH–

52. Which of the following species contain non-directional bond ?


(a) NH3 (b) CsCl (c) NH 4 (d) BeF2

53. Which of the following does not apply to metallic bond ?


(a) Electrostatic in nature (b) Mobile valence electrons
(c) Delocalized electrons (d) Highly directed bonds

54. Intermolecular forces in solid hydrogen are


(a) Vander Walls forces (b) Covalent forces (c) Hydrogen bonds (d) None of these

55. A metallic bond is


(a) Ionic (b) Polar covalent (c) Non-polar covalent (d) electrostatic in nature

56. The molecule having non-zero dipole moment is


(a) H2O2 (b) CH4 (c) C2H6 (d) BF4

57. Two ice cubes are pressed over each other until they unite to form one block. Which one of the
following forces dominates for holding them together ?
(a) Dipole-dipole interaction (b) Vander Walls forces
(c) Hydrogen bond formation (d) Covalent attraction

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58. The shape of gaseous SnCl2 is
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Linear (c) Angular (d) T-shaped

59. Which of the following substances has the least ionic character ?
(a) FeCl2 (b) ZnCl2 (c) CaCl2 (d) MgCl2

60. Which one of the following molecules will have unequal bond lengths ?
(a) NH3 (b) PF3 (c) PF5 (d) SF6

61. Which one of the following arrangements of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole
moments ?
(a) BF3 > NF3 > NH3 (b) NF3 > BF3 > NH3 (c) NH3 > BF3 > NF3 (d) NH3 > NF3 > BF3

62. Fluorine molecule is formed by


(a) The axial p–p orbital overlap (b) The sideways p–p orbital overlap
(c) The s–s orbital overlap (d) The s–p orbital overlap

63. In sulphuric acid as per Lewis structure __________ are present.


(a) Co-ordinate and covalent bond (b) Non-covalent bond
(c) covalent bond (d) No-covalent ion

64. The compound MX4 is tetrahedral. The number of XMX formed in the compound is
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six

65. The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of
ionic character of A–B bond is
(a) 50% (b) 72.24% (c) 55.3% (d) 43%

66. In OF2, number of bond pairs and lone airs of electrons of central ‘O’ re respectively:
(a) 2, 6 (b) 2, 2 (c) 2, 10 (d) 2, 9

67. In which of the following species is the underlined carbon having sp- - hybridisation
(a) CH3COOH (b) CH3CH2OH (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH2 = CH – CH3

68. Which of the following statements is true ?


(a) HF is less polar than HBr
(b) Water does not contain any ions
(c) Chemical bond formation takes place when forces of attraction overcome the forces of repulsion
(d) In covalent bond, transfer of electrons takes place

69. Consider the following statements :


I. A sigma (  ) bond is formed when two s-orbitals overlap
II. A pi() bond is formed when two p-orbitals axially overlap
III. A  -bond us weaker than -bond
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I alone (d) II alone

70. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in


(a) Ethyl chloride (b) Triethylamine (c) Ethanol (d) Diephyl ether

71. Covalent compounds have low melting point because


(a) covalent molecules have definite shape
(b) covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond
(c) covalent bond it less exothermic
(d) covalent molecules are held by weak Vander Wall’s forces of attraction

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72. A lone pair of electron in an atom implies
(a) A pair of valence electrons
(b) A pair of electrons
(c) A pair of electrons involved in bonding
(d) A pair of valence electron not involved in bonding

73. The geometric form of crystals is the result of orderly arrangement of


(a) Molecules only (b) Ions only (c) Atoms only (d) Molecules, atom or ions

74. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment ?
H3C Cl
C
(a) H H (b) CH3C  CCH3 (c) CH3CH 2C  CH (d) CH 2  CH  C  CH

75. Which of the following bonds require the largest amount of bond energy to dissociate the atoms
condensed ?
(a) H–H bond in H2 (b) C–H bond n CH4 (c) N  N bond in N2 (d) O =O bond in O2

76. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behavior
is that graphite
(a) is an allotropic form of diamond
(b) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers
(c) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak
interpolate bounds.
(d) is a non crystalline substance

77. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of :


(a) Dipole-dipole interaction (b) Hydrogen bonding
(c) Electrostatic attractions (d) Vander Wall’s forces

78. Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both
members
(a) NO2 and CO2 (b) NO2 and O3 (c) SiF4 and CO2 (d) SiF4 and NO2

79. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is
(a) XeF2, CO2 (b) BF3, PCl3 (c) PF5, IF5 (d) CF4, SF4

80. Which of the following exhibits the weakest intermolecular forces ?


(a)He (b) HCl (c) NH3 (d) H2O

81. Co-ordinate bond is present in


(a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) CH3NO2 (d) CCl4

82. Ionic compound do not show which of the following property


(a) High melting point (b) High boiling point
(c) High solubility in benzene (d) High lattice energy

83. Hydroxide of which metal has maximum solubility of


(a) Cs (b) Li (c) K (d) Rb

84. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural NO 3 , CO 32 , ClO 3 ,SO 3 ?
(a) NO3 , CO32 (b) SO 3 , NO 3 (c) ClO 3 , CO32 (d) ClO3 ,SO 3

85. Total number of lone pair of electrons in XeOF4 is


(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
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86. The states of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are respectively
(a) sp3 and sp2 (b) sp2 and sp3 (c) sp2 and sp2 (d) sp3 and sp3

87. Beryllium and aluminum exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in
(a) Forming covalent halides
(b) Forming polymeric hydrides
(c) Exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds
(d) Exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides

88. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in solid state as well as in solution of non-polar solvents
such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives
3 3
(a)  Al  OH  6   3HCl (b)  Al  H2O 6   3Cl 
(c) Al3+ + 3Cl– (d) Al2O3 + 6HCl

89. Bond angle in CH3  O  CH3 is


(a) 105o (b) 109o, 25o (c) 95o (d) 110o

90. Number of  and  bond in SO 4 2 are


(a) 4, 2 (b) 4, 3 (c) 4, 4 (d) 2, 3

91. Which of the following has three bond pair and two lone pair of e– ?
(a) PF3 (b) NH3 (c) ClF3 (d) None of these

92. Which has maximum bond energy of C–H bond ?


H H
H H
C C H C C H
(a) H– C  C – H (b) H H (c) H H (d) CH3 radical

93. Which has square planar structure ?


2
(a) BH 4 (b)  PtCl4  (c) SO 4 2 (d) SiCl4

94. Colour of AgBr is light yellow because it is


(a) Covalent (b) Non polar (c) More ionic (d) None

95. Which of the following statement is not correct for ionic compound ?
(a) Bad conductor in solid state (b) High melting point but low boiling point
(c) These are brittle (d) Mostly soluble in water

96. The molecule of CO2 has angle 180o because it has


(a) sp3 hybridisation (b) sp2 hybridisation (c) sp hybridisation (d) d2sp3 hybridisation

97. Which of the following metal has thermally stable carbonates ?


(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Si

98. Structure of H2O2 is


(a) Planar (b) Non-planar (c) Linear (d) None

99. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is solid ?


(a) NO2 (b) N2O (c) N2O3 (d) N2O5

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100. Among the compounds, BF3, NCl3, H2S, SF4 and BeCl2.Identify the one in which the central atom
has the same type of hybridization?
(a) BF3 and NCl3 (b) H2S and BeCl2 (c) BF3, NCl3 and H2S (d) NCl3 and H2S

101. Which of the hydrogen halides forms salts like KHX2 (where X is a halogen atom)?
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HI (d) HBr

102. The hardest substance amongst the following is


(a) Be2C (b) Graphite (c) Titanium (d) B4C

103. The boiling point of methanol is greater than that of methyl thiol because
(a) There is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in methanol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding in
methyl thiol
(b) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methylthiol
(c) There is no hydrogen bonding in methanol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methylthiol
(d) There is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methyithiol

104. Bond angle in CH4 is


(a) 180o (b) 109o, 28o (c) 107o (d) 110o

105. Structure of acetylene molecule is


(a) Linear (b) Triangular planar (c) Square planar (d) Tetrahedral

106. Hybridization of C atom in carbonyl C = O group is


(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) All

107. Coordinate bond is present in


(a) NH4Cl (b) AlCl3 (c) NaCl (d) Cl2

108. Hydrogen bonding is absent in


(a) CH3COOH (b) H2O (c) CH4 (d) C2H5OH

109. Nature of hybridization in NH3 molecule is


(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d

110. Which has electrovalent bonding?


(a) MgCl2 (b) CH4 (c) SiCl4 (d) BF3

111. Formation of Co-valent bond is due to


(a) Transfer of e– (b) Sharing of e–
(c) When the sharing e– pair is given by an atom (d) None of them

112. Due to the presence of an unpaired electron, free radicals are


(a) chemically reactive (b) chemically inactive (c) anions (d) cations

113. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon


(a) change on the ion only (b) size of the ion only
(c) packing of the ion only (d) charge and size of the ion

114. The molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are


(a) The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atom, respectively
(b) The same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons of the central atoms, respectively
(c) Different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms, respectively
(d) Different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms, respectively

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115. In silicon dioxide
(a) Each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two
silicon atoms
(b) Each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two
silicon atoms
(c) Silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms
(d) There are double bond between silicon and oxygen atoms

116. Of the following sets which one does not contain isoelectronic species ?
(a) PO 34 ,SO 24  , ClO 4 (b) CN  , N 2 , C 22  (c) SO 32  , CO 32  , NO 3 (d) BO 33 , CO 32  , NO 3

117. The number and type of bond between two carbon atom in calcium carbide are
(a) One sigma, one pi (b) One sigma, two pi (c) Two sigma, one pi (d) Two sigma, two pi

118. What will be the number of  and  bonds in CH3COOH ?


(a) 1,7 (b) 5, 2 (c) 7, 1 (d) 3, 2

119. Which of the following has maximum (C–C) bond length ?


(a) C2H2 (b) C2H4 (c) C2H6 (d) C2H2Br2

120. Hybridization of Cl in ClO 2 is


(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) None of these

121. Which of the following Alkaline earth metal sulphate is least soluble in water ?
(a) BaSO4 (b) CaSO4 (c) BeSO4 (d) SrSO4

122. Which of the following has maximum dipole moment ?


(a) NH3 (b) H2O (c) HI (d) SO3

123. Which has no S-S-bond ?


(a) S2 O 42 (b) S2 O 52 (c) S2 O 32 (d) S2 O 72

124. CO2 is iso structural with ?


(a) HgCl2 (b) SnCl2 (c) HC  CH (d) NO2

125. Which of the following will make electro-valent bond ?


(a) 1s2 (b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p2 (c) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5 (d) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6

126. Which of the following do not have linear shape ?


(a) SnCl2 (b) NCO– (c) CS2 (d) NO 2

127. In aqueous solution, the largest ion is


(a) K+(aq.) (b) Cs+(aq.) (c) Rb+(aq.) (d) Li+(aq.)

128. Co-ordinate bond is absent in


(a) BH 4 (b) NH 2 (c) NH 4 (d) H 2 O 

129. What is the hybridization of oxygen atom in an alcohol molecule ?


(a) sp3 (b) sp (c) sp2 (d) p2

130. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction is present in
(a) KCl and water (b) Benzene and carbon tetrachloride
(c) Benzeme and ethanol (d) Acetonitrile and acetone

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131. A metal, M forms chlorides in its +2 and +4 oxidation states. Which of the following statements
about these chlorides is correct ?
(a) MCl2 is more ionic than MCl4
(b) MCl2 is more easily hydrolyzed than MCl4
(c) MCl2 is more volatile than MCl4
(d) MCl2 is more soluble in anhydrous ethanol than MCl4

132. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest ?


(a) F–H ___ F (b) O–H ___O (c) O–H ___F (d) O–H ___N

133. The hybridization of the atomic orbials of sulphur in SO3, SO 4 and SF4 are respectively
(a) sp, sp3, sp2 (b) sp, sp2, sp3d (c) sp2, sp, sp3 (d) sp2, sp3 sp3d

134. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds a water molecule can form is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1

135. Which of the following compounds has least tendency to form hydrogen bonds between molecules.
(a) NH3 (b) N2NOH (c) HF (d) CH3F

136. Which of the following has maximum dipole moment ?


(a) CCl4 (b) CH3Cl (c) CH2Cl2 (d) CHCl3

137. Most favourable conditions of electrovalent bonding are


(a) Low I.O. of one atom and high electron affinity of the other atom
(b) High E.A. and height I.P. of both the atoms
(c) Low E.A. and low I.P. of both the atoms
(d) High I.P. of one atom and low E.A. of the other atom.

138. Which of the following species are expected to be planar ?


(i) NH3 (ii) NH 32  (iii) CH 3 (iv) PCl3
The correct answer is
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

139. Which order of decreasing bond angle is correct ?


(a) CCl4 > BF3 > NO 2 (b) NH3 > NCl3 > NBr3 (c) Br2O > Cl2O > OF2 (d) PCl3 > PBr3 > Pl3

140. In dry ice the bond present between two molecules is


(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Hydrogen bond (d) Vander Waal

141. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H-yet the dipole
moment of NH3(1.5D) is larger than that of NH3(0.2D). This is because
(a) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3 these are
in the same direction
(b) In NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
(c) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in
opposite directions
(d) In NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions.

142. Polarizability of halide ions increases in the order


(a) F–, I–, Br–, Cl– (b) Cl–, Br–, I–, F– (c) I–, Br–, Cl–, F– (d) F–, Cl–, Br–, I–

143. Which of the following is/are linear ?


(a) I3 (b) I3 (c) PbCl2 (d) XeF3

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144. Which of the following have same shape as NH 2 ?
(a) CO2 (b) SnCl2 (c) SO2 (d) BeCl2

145. There is change in the type of hybridization when


(a) NH3 combines with H+ (b) AlH3 combines with H–
(c) NH3 forms NH 2 (d) None of these

146. Which of the following cannot function as Lewis acid ?


(a) BF4 (b) Ag+ (c) SiF4 (d) AlCl3

147. A pi-bond may be formed between two pa orbitals containing the unpaired electron each when they
approach each other appropriately along
(a) x-axis (b) y- axis (c) z-axis (d) both (b) and (c)

148. Among the following species identify the isostructural pairs : NF3 ; NO 3 ; BF3 ; H 3O  , HN 3
(a)  NF3 , HN 3  &  NO3 , BF3  (b)  NF3 ,H 3O   &  NO3 , BF3 
(c)  NF3 , H 3O   &  HN 3 , BF3  (d)  NF3 , NO3  &  BF3 , H 3O  

149. In which species the actual shape of molecule is the same as the molecular geometry?
(a) BeF2 (b) PF3 (c) SF4 (d) IF5

150. According to fajan’s rule covalent bond formation is favoured when there is a
(a) large cation and a small anion (b) large cation and a large anion
(c) small cation and a small anion (d) small cation and a large anion

QUESTIONS ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMS

151. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which hydrogen fluoride molecule can participate.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

152. Which of the following sequence is correct in terms of the polarity of bond ?
(a) N–F>C–F>B–F (b) B–F>C–F>N–F (c) C–F>N–F>B–F (d) B–F>C–F>N–F

153. If HCl molecules completely ionic the H+ and Cl– ions would bear a unit charge equal to 4.80  10–10
o
esu and the bond distance between H and Cl atom is 1.27 A then the dipole moment of HCl is
(a) 3.779 D (b) 7.742 D (c) 6.096 D (d) 2.976 D

154. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction is present in
(a) benzene and ethanol (b) acetonitrile and acetone
(c) KCl and water (d) benzene and carbon tetrachloride

155. O 2  ion is represented as


(a)  O 2  (b)  O 2  (c)  O 2  (d)  O 

156. The valencies of two elements A and B are + 2 and +3 respectively. Then, the formulae of sulphate
of B and chloride of A respectively are
(a) B3(SO4)2 and ACl2 (b) B3(SO4)3 and ACl2 (c) BSO4 and ACl2 (d) B3SO4 and ACl

157. Which species below has the same genera shape as NH3 ?
(a) SO 32  (b) CO 32  (c) NO3 (d) SO3

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158. Which set contains only covalently bonded molecules ?
(a) BCl3, SiCl4, PCl3 (b) NH4Br, N2H4, HBr (c) I2, H2S, Nal (d) Al, O3, As4

159. Which bond is expected to be the least polar ?


(a) O–F (b) P–F (c) Si–N (d) B–Cl

160. Which species has a Lewis diagram and structure most like that of the carbonate ion, CO 32  ?
(a) NO3 (b) CH3+ (c) SO 32  (d) PO34

Answer Key :

1. (c,d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)

21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (b)

31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (a)

41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (a)

51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c)

61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (c)

71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (d) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (a)
111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (c) 117. (b) 118. (c) 119. (c) 120. (c)
124.
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (d) 125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (d)
(a,c)
131. (a) 132. (a) 133. (d) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b) 137. (a) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (d)
141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (c) 145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (d) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (d)
151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (c) 154. (d) 155. (a) 156. (b) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (a) 160. (a)

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