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CONTENT
Derived units- The units of all other physical quantities are derived from those of above basic
quantities. The units thus obtained are called the derived units. Some common physical quantities
and their derived units are shown in table.
Prefixes used with units the S.I. system recommends the multiples such as 103, 106, 109 etc and
fraction such as10–3, 10–6, 10–9 etc, i.e. the powers are the multiples of 3. These are indicated by
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special prefixes. These along with some other fractions or multiples in common use, along with their
prefixes are given below in table and illustrated for length (m)
centi c 10 -2
1 centimetre (cm)=10 m -2
milli m 10 -3
1 millimetre (mm) = 10 m -3
micro 10 -6
1 micrometre ( m)=10 m -6
nano n 10 -9
1 nanometre (nm)=10 m -9
pico p 10 -12
1 picometre (pm)=10 m -12
femto f 10 -15
1 femtometre (fm)=10 m -15
atto a 10 -18
1 attometre (am)=10 m -18
deka da 10 1
1 decametre (dam)=10 m 1
hector h 10 2
1 hectometre (hm)=10 m 2
kilo k 10 3
1 kilometre (km)=10 m 3
mega M 10 6
1 megametre (Mm) = 10 m 6
giga G 10 9
1 gigametre (Gm)=10 m 9
tera T 10 12
1 teramerte ™=10 m12
peta P 10 15
1 petametre (Pm)=10 m 15
exa E 10 18
1 exametre (Em)=10 m 18
As volume is very often expressed in litres, it is important to note that the equivalence in S.I. units for
volume is as under
1 litre (1L) = 1 dm = 1000 cm
3 3
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Johann Berzelius, a swiss chemist suggested that the initial capital letter should represent a particular
element such as ‘O’ for oxygen, ‘H’ for the hydrogen and ‘C’ for Carbon and so on.
Symbols: A symbol is defined as an abbreviation or short hand sign for the full name of an element.
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Lecture 2 : Basic of Chemistry
Ions Name
–
H Hydride ion
Cl– Chloride ion
–
Br Bromide ion
I– Iodide ion
–2
O Oxide ion
Monoatomic anion
S–2 Sulfide ion
–3
N Nitride ion
P–3 Phosphide ion
–4
C Carbide ion
OH– Hydroxide ion
–
CN Cyanide ion
H+ Hydrogen ion
+
Na Sodium ion
Li+ Lithium ion
K+ Potassium ion
2+
Mg Magnesium ion
Be2+ Beryllium ion
2+
Cations with fixed valency Ca Calcium ion
Rb+ Rubidium ion
+
Cs Caesium ion
Sr2+ Strontium ion
2+
Ba Barium ion
Al3+ Aluminium ion
2+
Zn Zinc ion
Ions Name
Fe+2 Ferrous ion
Fe+3 Ferric ion
Cu+ Cuprous ion
Cu+2 Cupric
Hg+ Mercurous ion
Cations with variable valency Hg+2 Mercuric ion
Pb+2 Plumbous ion
Pb+4 Plumbic ion
Sn+2 Stannous ion
Sn+4 Stannic ion
Pt+2 Platinous ion
Pt+4 Platinic ion
SO24 Sulfate ion
SO32 Sulfite ion
Ions Name
HPO24 Biphosphate ion
HPO32 Biphophite ion
CO32 Carbonate ion
HCO3 Bicarbonate ion
Ions Name
ClO Hypochlorite ion
ClO2 Chlorite ion
ClO4 Perchlorate
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Nomenclature of ions:
for Anions:
1. Monoatomic anions are named by ending with suffix__ide ion.
2. Polyatomic anions with fixed no. of O-atoms are named with suffix__ate ion
3. Polyatomic anions with variable no. of O- atoms are named with suffix __ ate ion(higher no. O-
atoms) and with suffix ___ite ion( lower no. pf O-atoms). If more than two variable no. of O-atoms
are possible, then polyatomic anions with extreme lowest no. of O-atom are named with prefix
“hypo” and highest no. of O-atoms are named with prefix “per”.
For Cations:
1. Cations with fixed valency are named by their elemental name followed by word ion.
2. Cations with variable valency are named by ending with suffix __ic ion( higher valency) and with
suffix __ous ion(lower valency).
Rules:
1. Elements with a maximum appearance in many reactants and products are recognized as having the
highest frequency number( frequently appeared in the chemical equation) in the equation., such
elements are balanced at the last.
2. If two are more elements are having same frequency number, then metallic element is balanced first.
3. If elements which have maximum frequency are metallic elements then metallic element with the
highest atomic number is balanced first. same goes for non-metals.
OXIDATION NUMBER
It represent the number of electron gained or lost by atom when it changes into compound
from a free state.
It is the charge developed on an atom when atom is in combination.
It electron are gained by an atom in the formation of compound, oxidation number is given
(+)ve sign.
It represents the real charge in case of ionic compounds and represents the imaginary charge in
case of covalent compounds.
Maximum oxidation number of an element is equal to group number which belongs in the
periodic table.
Minimum oxidation number of an element is equal to (group number – 8)
I group elements always shows +1 as oxidation number
II Group elements always shows +2 as oxidation number
III Group elements always shows +3 oxidation number
IV Group shows – 4 to + 4 oxidation number
V Group shows – 3 to +5 oxidation number
VI Group shows – 2 to + 6 oxidation number
VII Group shows – 1 to + 7 oxidation number (except F)
Inert gases always shows zero oxidation number
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OXIDATION STATE
Oxidation state of an atom is defined as oxidation number per atom for all practical purposes. Oxidation
state is often expressed as oxidation number.
The rules to derive oxidation number or oxidation state
(a) The oxidation state of an element in its free state is zero. Example, oxidation state of Na, Cu, I,
CI, O etc. are zero.
(b) Sum of oxidation state of all the atoms in a neutral molecule is zero.
(c) Sum of oxidation state of all the atoms in a complex ion is equal to number of charge present
on it.
(d) In complex compounds, oxidation state of some neutral molecules (ligands) is zero. Example
CO, NO, NH3 , H2 O .
(e) Generally oxidation state of Oxygen is –2 but in H2O2 it is –1 and in OF2 it is +2.
(f) Generally oxidation state of Hydrogen is +1 but in metallic hydrides it is –1.
(g) Generally oxidation state of Halogen atoms is –1 but on interhalogen compounds it changes.
(h) Generally oxidation state of alkali metals is +1 and that of alkaline earth metals is +2.
(i) Oxidation state of transition elements varies from compound to compound. Mn has oxidation
state from +1 to +7.
Mn 2O 1 MnO 2 Mn 3O4 8 / 3 MnO2 4 Mn 2 O5 5
MnO 4 2 6 MnO 4 7
(i) Oxidation state of an atom may be fractional, negative, zero as well as positive.
Special note: Sometimes same atom in a compound has different oxidation state for example,
structures of Na 2S2O3 is
S2
Na O S1 O Na
O
Here S1 and S2 both are sulphur atoms but they have different oxidation state
Oxidation state of S1 6
Oxidation state of S2 2 (it is accepting two electrons form S1 )
62
Average oxidation state of S 2
2
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The equivalent weight of an oxidizing agent is that weight which accepts one mole electron in a
chemical reaction.
(a) Equivalent weight of an oxidant (get reduced)
Molecular weight
Number of electrons gained by one mole
Ex. In acidic medium
6e Cr2 O 72 14H
2Cr 3 7H 2O
Here atoms which undergoes reduction is Cr its oxidation state is decreasing from +6 to +3
Molecular weight of K 2 Cr2 O7 Molecular weight
Equivalent weight of K 2Cr2 O7
3 2 6
Note: [6 in denominator indicates that 6 electrons were gained by Cr2 O 72 as it is clear from
the given balanced equation]
(c) In different condition a compound may have different equivalent wts. Because, it
depends upon the number of electrons gained or lost by that compound in that reaction.
MnO 4 Mn 2 acidic medium
Ex. (i)
7 2
Here 5 electrons are taken so equivalent weight
Molecular weight of KMnO4 158
31.6
5 5
MnO 4 Mn 2 (neutral medium)
(ii)
7 2
Here, only 3 electrons are gained, so equivalent weight
Molecular weight of KMnO4 158
52.7
3 3
MnO 4 MnO4 2 alkaline Medium
(iii)
7 6
Here, only one electron is gained, so equivalent weight
Molecular weigh of KMnO4
158
1
Note: It is important to note that KMnO4 acts as an oxidant in every medium although with
different strength which follows the order –
acidic medium > neutral medium > alkaline medium
while, K 2Cr2O7 acts as an oxidant only in acidic medium as follows
Cr2 O 72
2Cr 3
2 6
2 3
Here, 6 electrons are gained so equivalent weight
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CI 2 O
Acid anhydride
Oxy acid 3 2
N O
H 1 CIO
N2O3
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Following is the list of metals in the order of their decreasing chemical reactivities:
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > [H] > Cu > Hg > Ag (F > Cl > Br > I)
ACID-BASE REACTION:
An acid-base reaction is a type of double displacement reaction that occurs between an acid and a base. The
H+ ion in the acid reacts with the OH- ion in the base to form water and an ionic salt:
HA + BOH → H2O + BA
The reaction between hydrobromic acid (HBr) and sodium hydroxide is an example of an acid-base reaction:
HBr + NaOH → NaBr + H2O
COMBUSTION:
A combustion reaction is a type of redox reaction in which a combustible material combines with an
oxidizer to form oxidized products and generate heat (exothermic reaction). Usually, in a combustion
reaction oxygen combines with another compound to form carbon dioxide and water. An example of a
combustion reaction is the burning of naphthalene:
C10H8 + 12 O2 → 10 CO2 + 4 H2O.
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Many chemical reactions involved in transfer in transfer of electrons from one chemical substance to
another. These electron – transfer reaction are termed as Oxidation – Reduction of Redox reactions.
Or
Those reactions which involves oxidation and reduction both simultaneously are known as oxidation
and reduction or Redox Reaction.
Or
Those reaction which involves increase in oxidation number and decrease in oxidation number
simultaneously are known as Oxidation and Reduction or Redox Reaction.
(A) Classical concept:According to this concept, oxidation and reduction can be explained as
(a) Oxidation: Oxidation is a process which involves
(i) Addition of oxygen
Ex. 2Mg O 2 2MgO (Oxidation of Magnesium)
(ii) Removal of hydrogen
Ex. H 2S CI 2 2HCI S (Oxidation of Hydrogen sulphide)
(iii) Addition of electronegative element
Ex. Fe + S FeS (Oxidation of iron)
(iv) Removal of electropositive element
Ex. 2Nal H 2 O 2 2NaOH I 2 (Oxidation of Nal)
(v) Increment in oxidation state of electropositive element
SnCl2 Cl2 SnCl4 Oxidation of Nal
Ex.
Cn 2 Sn 4
(b) Reduction: Reduction is a process which involves
(i) Removal of oxygen
Ex. CuO + C Cu + CO (Reduction of cupric oxide)
(ii) Addition of hydrogen
Ex. N 2 3H 2 2NH 3 (Reduction of Nitrogen)
(iii) Removal of electronegative element
Ex. 2HgCl2 SnCl 2 Hg 2Cl SnCl 4
(iv) Addition of electropositive element
Ex. HgCl 2 Hg Hg 2 Cl 2 (Reduction of mercuric chloride)
(v) Decrement in oxidation state of electropositive element
CuSO 4 Fe FeSO 4 Cu Reduction of CuSO 4
Ex.
Cu 2 Cu 0
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Ex. M n ne
M
Mg Mg 2e
(ii) Reduction: According to this concept, the process which involves gain of one or more
electrons by an atom or ion or molecule is called reduction (electro nation).
Ex. M n 2 n 2 n1 e
M n1
(C) Valency concept of oxidation and reduction
(i) Oxidation: According to this concept, it is the process in which increase in (+) ve
valency or decrease in (-) ve valency of a substance takes place.
2Mg O 2 2MgO
Ex.
0 2
(ii) Reduction: According to this concept, the process in which (+)ve valency decreases
whereas (-) ve valency increases
2HgCl2 SnCl2 Hg 2Cl2 SnCl4
Ex.
2 1
(D) Oxidation number concept
(i) Oxidation: According to this concept, the oxidation no. of an element in a reaction
increases.
(ii) Reduction: According to this concept, the oxidation no. of an element in a reaction
decreases.
Example:
6H 2MnO 4 5H 2S 2Mn 2 5S 8H 2O
Mn 2 S2 Mn 2 S0
Redox reaction involves two half reactions, one involving loss of electron called half oxidation
reaction and the other involving gain of electron called half reduction reaction.
Ex.
Special points
Some important compound which can acts as oxidant and reductant both.
HNO2 , SO2 , H2O2 , O3 , AI 2O3 , CrO 2 , MnO2 , ZnO, CuO, AI2O3 , CrO2 , MnO2 , ZnO, CuO are
called as amphoteric oxide.
Oxidant Reductant
S. No. Reaction
(Getting Reduced) (Getting Oxidised)
1. C O 2
CO 2 O[0 -2] C[0 +4]
2. PbS 4H 2 O 2
PbSO 4 4H 2O O[-1
-2] S[-2
+6]
3. Sn 2F2
SnF4 F[0
-1] Sn[0
+4]
4. SO 2 2H 2 O Cl2
2HCI H 2SO 4 Cl[0
-1] S[+4
+6]
5. I 2 10HNO 3
2HIO 3 10NO 2 4H 2O N[+5
+4] I[0
+5]
6. CuO H 2
Cu H 2 O Cu[+2
0] H[0
+1]
7. 2KMnO 4 3H 2SO 4 5H 2S
Mn[+7
+2] S[-2
0]
K 2SO4 2MnSO4 8H2O 5S
8. H 2 O 2 Ag 2 O
2Ag H 2 O O 2 Ag[+1
0] O[-1
0]
Oxygen of H 2O 2
9. H 2SO 4 2HI
SO 2 I 2 2H 2 O S[+6
+4] 1[-1
0]
(b) Intra molecular redox reaction: During the chemical reaction, if oxidation and reduction take
place in single compound ten reaction is called intramolecular redox reaction.
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Oxidation
Reduction
(c) Disproportionation reaction: When reduction and oxidation takes place on same element of a
compound is called disproportionation reaction.
H2 O2 H2O 1 / 2 O2
O1 O2 O0
Reduction
Oxidation
BASICS OF CHEMISTRY
EXERCISE-1
1. The scientist who suggested a method of representing elements using English Capital Letters
__________.
(1) J J Thomson (2) J J Berzelius (3) John Dalton (4) Neils Bohr
4. Germanium symbol is
(1) Ge (2) Ga (3) G (4) Gr
6. Symbol of Iron
(1) Fe (2) F (3) FE (4) I
9. The name of the planet after which the element is named as Neptunium
(1) Uranus (2) Neptune (3) Pluto (4) Mars
10. The element named after the name of Ernico Fermi is _________.
(1) Neptunium (2) Plutonium (3) Fermium (4) Radium
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14. The name of the planet after which the element is named as plutonium?
(1) Uranus (2) Neptune (3) Pluto (4) Mars
16. The symbol of an element is Hg. Identify the name of the element.
(1) Gold (2) Mercury (3) Hafnium (4) Holmium
18. The latin names for iron, copper and tin are:
(1) Cuprum, Ferrum and Stannum (2) Ferrum, Cuprum and Stannum
(3) Stannum, Ferrum and Cuprum (4) Plumbum, Ferrum and Cuprum
Level - 1
1. Symbol of Curium is
(1) Cm (2) Cu (3) Cr (4) Ci
7. The Latin names for the elements Tungsten, Potassium and Sodium are:
(1) Wolfram, Kalium and Argentum (2) Kalium, Wolfram and Natrium
(3) Wolfram, Stannum and Natrium (4) Wolfram, Kalium and Natrium
Level – 2 & 3
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Level – 4 & 5
15. The element Nobelium named after the name of the scientist is:
(1) Madam Curie (2) Mendeleev (3) Alfred Nobel (4) Enrico Fermi
Matrix Match
17.
Column - I Column - II
At. No. Symbol
1 107 (a) Rf
2 105 (b) Db
3 103 (c) Lr
4 104 (d) Bh
EXERCISE-2
4. Ferric ion is
(1) Fe+ (2) Fe+2 (3) Fe+3 (4) Fe
5. Cuprous ion is
(1) Cu+2 (2) Cu+3 (3) Cu+1 (4) Cu
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Level – 1
Single correct choice type
Level – 2 & 3
9. Radicals are formed by the loss of electron (or) electrons, such radicals are called _________.
(1) Anions (2) Cations (3) Compounds (4) Molecules
10. Radicals are formed by the gain of electrons, such radicals are called
(1) Anions (2) Cations (3) Compounds (4) Molecules
Comprehension Type:
The combining capacity of an element is called its valency. It is given by the number of hydrogen or
chlorine atoms that combine atoms that combine with or displaced from a compound by one atom of the
element. If an element exhibits two different positive valencies, the suffix-ous is attached at the end of the
name of the metal for higher valency.
13. (i) The name of the element with lower valency in a compound ends with suffix __________.
(ii) The name of the element with higher valency ends with suffix ___________.
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(i) (ii)
(1) ous ous
(2) ic ous
(3) ous ic
(4) ic ic
Level – 4 & 5
EXERCISE-3
2. The positive or negative valencies of ions or radicals present in a compound add upto _________
(1) One (2) Three (3) Zero (4) None
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12. The chemical formula of washing soda (sodium carbonate deca hydrate) is:
(1) Na2CO3.7H2O (2) Na2CO3.H2O (3) Na2CO3.10H2O (4) Na2CO3
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Statement type:
27.
Column - I Column - II
(1) HSO i Oxide
4
(2) CO32 ii Peroxide
(3) O–2 iii Bisulphate
(4) P–3 iv Phosphide
v Carbonate
28.
Column - I Column - II
(1) MnO i Manganate
4
(2) Cr2O72 ii Chromate
(3) O21 iii Oxide
(4) O22 iv Peroxide
v Superoxide
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Comprehension Type:
The representation of a molecule of a substance (element or compound in terms of symbols and subscript
numbers is known as the formula
31. A metal M forms a compound MPO4. What will be the formula of the metal oxide?
(1) M2O4 (2) M2O3 (3) M2O5 (4) MO
32. Chemical formula for sodium sulphate is Na2SO4. The formula of sodium oxide
(1) Na2O2 (2) Na2O (3) NaO2 (4) NaO
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Level – 1
12. Chemical formula for calcium sulphate is CaSO4. The formula for ferric sulphate will be:
(1) Fe2(P2O7)3 (2) Fe4P3O14 (c) Fe2(SO4)3 (d) Fe3PO4
15. Choose the correct order of formulae for the given radicals:
(1) Permanganate (2) Chlorite (3) Phosphite
Statement Type:
3
16. Statement I: PO3 is a trivalent electronegative ion.
Statement II: An ion or a radical formed by the acceptance of one electron is called monovalent
electronegative ion.
(a) Both statements I and II are correct
(b) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
Level – 2 & 3
Multi correct choice type:
17. The formula of Nitrite ion
1 1
(1) NO3 (2) NO2 (3) N 3 (4) NO2
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Comprehension type:
An ion or radical formed by the acceptance of 2 electrons is called bivalent electronegative ion or radical.
Level – 4 & 5
A B
(1) 2 4
(2) 4 2
(3) 1 1
(4) 2 2
24. The metal ‘M’ forms a chloride MCl2 then what will be the formula of metal sulphate
(1) M 2SO 4 (2) MSO 4 (3) M SO4 3 (4) M 3 SO 4 2
25.
Column-I Column-II
(1) Ferric chloride I FeCl3
(2) Cuprous chloride ii Cu2Cl2
(3) Cupric chloride iii CuCl2
(4) Mercurous chloride iv Hg2Cl2
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26. Select the correct formula for each of the following compounds:
(i) Calcium carbonate (ii) Calcium hydrogen carbonate
(i) (ii)
(1) Ca(OH)2 CaCO3
(2) CaCO3 Ca(HCO3)2
(3) CaCO3 Ca(OH)2
(4) Ca(HCO3)2 Ca(OH)2
EXERCISE-4
4. H2SO4 is:
(1) Sulphuric acid (2) Dihydrogen sulphate
(3) Hydrogen sulphide (4) Sulphurous acid
11. The _______ present in a compound are named in order of symbols appearing in formula.
(1) Compounds (2) Elements (3) Mixtures (4) Both a and c
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15. The prefix and suffix in binary acids containing hydrogen and non metal like halogen respectively
are:
(1) Hydro and ic (2) ic and hydro (3) ate, ite (4) ite, ate
Level – 1
Single correct choice type:
4. The chemical formula of Sodium Nitrate is NaNO3 then chemical formula of sodium Nitrite
(1) NaNO2 (2) NaNO4 (3) NaNO3 (4) NaNO
Comprehension Type:
Usually the elements present in a compound are named in order of symbols appearing in formula.
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Level-2 & 3
12. What is the prefix if two oxygen is less than the oxygen present in a compound?
(1) Per (2) Hypo (3) Hyper (4) All
13. What is the prefix, if oxygen is less than the oxygen present in a compound?
(1) Per (2) Hypo (3) Hyper (4) All
16.
Column-I Column-II
(1) H2SO3 i Sulphurous acid
(2) H2SO4 ii Sulpuric acid
(3) H3SO4 iii Phosphoric acid
(4) H3SO3 iv Phosphorous acid
18. How many molecules of Magnesium chloride is formed when 1 volume of Magnesium reacts with
two volumes of hydrogen chloride?
Level-4 & 5
19. If oxygen present in a compound ending with-ate, contains more oxygen than is:
(1) Hypo (2) Hyper (3) Per (4) None
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Comprehension type:
There are certain names of compounds which do not follow any systematic rule. Such names are called
trivial names or common names.
EXERCISE-5
1. A combination reaction in which a compound is formed from the combination of it’s constituent
element is known as
(1) Chemical combination (2) Chemical displacement
(3) Chemical synthesis (4) Chemical double displacement
4. A chemical reaction in which a single chemical compound decomposes into two or more simpler
substances
(1) Chemical combination (2) Chemical displacement
(3) Chemical decomposition (4) Chemical double displacement
Heat
6. 2NaNO3 l 2NaNO2 O2 g ; This is an example of:
(1) Chemical decomposition (2) Chemical combination
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction
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7. When more reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from its aqueous salt solution, is
(1) Chemical decomposition (2) Chemical combination
(3) Chemical displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction
9. A chemical reaction, in which two compounds in their aqueous solution react by exchanging their
radicals, is
(1) Chemical decomposition (2) Chemical combination
(3) Chemical double displacement (4) Chemical replacement reaction
10. A
B C D A D C B represents
(1) Chemical combination (2) Chemical decomposition
(3) Chemical double displacement (4) All the above
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Statement Type:
17. Statement I: C s O2 g
CO2 g is an example of analysis
Statement II: When a compound decomposes into two elements, the reaction is called analysis.
(1) Both statement I and II are correct
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
2. Which of the following statements is/are true for the given chemical reaction?
2H2 g O2 g 2H2O g
(1) Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form water
(2) Two elements combine to form a single compound
(3) The formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen is a combination reaction
(4) All the above
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Level – 2 & 3
Single correct choice type:
10. Choose the decreasing order of the metals pertaining to their chemical reactivity
(1) Na > Ca > K > Pb > Al > Zn > Fe > Mg > [H] > Cu > Hg > Ag
(2) K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > [H] > Cu > Hg > Ag
(3) Fe > K > Pb > Al > Fe > Zn > Hg> Ag > [H] > Ca > Cu > Hg
(4) Cu > Hg > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb> [H] > K> Ag
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Level – 4 & 5
Single correct choice type:
Heat
12. (i) AgNO3 aq NaCl aq P Q (ii) PCl5 s
Cool
R S
P Q R S
(1) AgCl NaNO3 PCl3 Cl2
(2) NaNO3 PCl3 Cl2 AgCl
(3) AgCl PCl3 NaNO3 Cl2
13. A teacher performed the following experiment. He took a strip of lead metal and placed in a solution
of copper chloride. Which of the following is the correct equation for the above reaction?
(1) Cu2Cl Pb PbCl2 2Cu (2) CuSO4 Pb PbSO4 Cu
(3) CuCl2 Pb PbCl2 Cu (4) Cu2Cl2 2Pb PbCl2 Cu
14. The decreasing order of the reactivity of metals
(1) Na > Cu > Ag (2) Cu > Na > Zn (3) Na > K > Al (4) K > Au > Al
EXERCISE – 6
1. A chemical equation in which number of atoms of each element is same on the side of reactants and
products in called:
(1) Balanced equation (2) Unbalanced equation (3) Both (4) Neither (1) or (2)
10. Sn HCl NO
SnCl2 NH2OH
………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. S8 Cl2
S2Cl2
………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. C6H12O6 O2
CO2 H2O
………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. C6H6 O2
CO2 H2O
………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. 2Mg O2
2MgO Identify true statements for the above reaction
(1) The above reaction is balanced equation
(2) 2 moles of mg. combines with 1 mole O2 to form 2 moles of MgO
(3) 2 moles of mg. combines with 2 mole O2 to form 2 moles of MgO
(4) None of the above
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Statement Type:
20.
Column - I Column - II
1 KNO3 i Aluminium sulphate
2 Al2(SO4)3 ii Washing soda
3 Na2CO3.10H2O iii Baking soda
4 NaHCO3 iv Potassium nitrite
5 v Potassium nitrate
21.
Column - I Column - II
Element Atomic number
1 Iodine i 53
2 Gold ii 79
3 Silver iii 47
4 Mercury iv 80
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30. Identify the correct set of f numbers of different elements in the given equation
2KNO3 2KNO2 + O2
K N O
(1) 2 2 3
(2) 3 2 2
(3) 2 3 2
(4) 3 3 2
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6. CaCO3 CaO CO2 Identity true statements for the above reaction
(1) It is an example for decomposition
(2) It is balanced equation
(3) It is unbalanced equation
(4) It is an example for thermal decomposition reaction
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Comprehension type:
A equation in which the no of atoms of reactants is equal to the no of atom of product is called balanced
equation
Level – 4 & 5
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following:
EXERCISE – 7
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11. Oxidation numbers of A, B and C are +2, +5 and –2 respectively. Possible formula of the compound
is
(a) A 2 BC2 2 (b) A3 BC 4 2 (c) A 2 BC3 2 (d) A3 B2 C 2
14. The oxidation states of sulphur states of sulphur in the anions SO32 ,S2SO 42 and S2 O62 follow the
order
(a) S2 O 42 SO32 S2 O 62 (b) SO32 S2 O4 S2 O 62
(c) S2 O 42 S2 O 62 SO32 (d) S2 O 62 S2 O 42 SO32
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16. Which is the best description of the behavior of bromine in the react ion given below?
H 2 O Br2 HOBr HBr
(a) Both oxidized and reduced (b) Oxidized only
(c) Reduced only (d) Proton acceptor only
23. How many electrons have been transferred in the process 2Fe 3 2Hg Hg 2 2 3Fe 2
(a) 2 electron (b) 3 electron (c) 4 electron (d) 6 electron
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29. On which of the following case, metal is reduced [These are not balanced equations]
4 3
(a) Fe CN 6 Fe CN 6 (b) MnO 4 MnO 2
2 2
(c) MnO 4 2 MnO 4 1 (d) Cr2O 7 CrO 4
30. Check whether the reaction H 2S SO 2 H 2 O S is a redox reaction or not? If yes, what will be the
oxidant
(a) Yes, SO 2 (b) Yes, S (c) Yes, H 2S (d) No, this is not redox
34. x MnO 4 y H 2O 2 z H 2Mn 2 8H 2O 5O z In this reaction, value of (x), (y) and (z) are
(a) 2, 5, 6 (b) 5, 2, 9 (c) 3, 5, 6 (d) 2, 6, 6
37. In the conversion Br2 BrO3 . Oxidation state of bromine changes from
(a) 0 to 5 (b) 1 to 3 (c) 2 to 4 (d) 5 to 1
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42. MnO 2 4H e Mn 3 2H 2O
In the above reaction oxidation number of Mn changes from
(a) +2 to –3 (b) +4 to –3 (c) +2 to +3 (d) +4 to +3
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53. In acidic medium the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO 4 shows the following change
(a) 7 4 (b) 7 2 (c) 7 3 (d) 7 5
55. Manganese achieves its highest oxidation state in which of the following compounds
(a) MnO 3 (b) Mn 3O 4 (c) KMnO 4 (d) K 2 MnO 4
60. KMnO 4 acts as an oxidant in neutral, basic and acidic medium. Its final product under these
conditions would be respectively.
(a) MnO 2 , MnO 2 , Mn 2 (b) MnO 4 2 , Mn 3 , Mn 2
(c) MnO 2 , MnO42 , Mn 2 (d) MnO, MnO 2 , Mn 2
61. In acidic medium potassium dichromate acts as an oxidant according to the equation
Cr2 O 7 2 14H 6e 2Cr 3 7H 2O . What is the equivalent weight of K 2 Cr2 O 7 ?
(molecular weight = M)
(a) M (b) M/2 (c) M/3 (d) M/6
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69. What will be coefficient of the oxalate ion after balancing the following reaction?
MnO 4 C2 O42 H Mn 2 CO 2 H 2 O
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
71. Among the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state:
3
(a) MnO 4 (b) Cr CN 6 (c) NiF62 (d) CrO 2 Cl2
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ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE – 1
CUQ:
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20.(4)
8. (2) 9. (1, 2, 3, 4) 10. (3, 4) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3, 4) 14. (1, 2, 3, 4)
EXERCISE – 2
CUQ
8. (1, 2, 3, 4) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (1, 4) 19. 1 – iv, 2 – iii, 3- i, 4 – ii
EXERCISE – 3
CUQ
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1)
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15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (1,2,3,4) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. 1 – iii; 2 – v; 3 – i; 4 – iv
8. (1) 9. (1, 2, 3, 4) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2)
14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. 1 – iii, 2 – v, 3- ii, 4 – iv
19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2)
EXERCISE – 4
CUQ
8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (1)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (1, 2,3,4) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. 1 – ii, 2 – i, 3- iii, 4 – iv 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (3)
20. (4) 21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (4)
EXERCISE – 5
CUQ
8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (1)
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EXERCISE – 6
CUQ
8. (1) 9. (2)
12. S8 + 4Cl2
4S2Cl2
18. 1, 2
19. 1
20. a – 5; b – 1; c – 2; d –3
21. a – 1; b – 2; c – 3; d – 4
22. NH 4 3 PO 4
3NH 3 H 2 O HPO 3
23. 3CaOCl2 NH 3
3CaCl 2 3H 2 O N 2
24. 2CuSO 4 KI
Cu 2 I 2 2I 2 2K 2SO 4
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25. 2CuCl2 2H 2 O SO 2
2CuCl 2HCl H 2SO 4
26. (2)
27. (4)
28. C 2 H 2 3O 2
2CO 2 2H 2 O
29. CH 4 2O 2
CO 2 2H 2 O
30. (1)
31. Al 2 SO 4 3 NaOH
2Al OH 3 3Na 2SO 4
33. Cu 2S CuSO 4
3Cu 2SO 2
34. 2Cu 2 O Cu 2S
6Cu SO 2
35. (1)
8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)
EXERCISE – 7
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (c)
71. (d)
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1. INTRODUCTION
There are a large number of objects around us which we can see and feel. Anything that occupies
space and has mass is called matter. Ancient Indian and Greek philosopher’s believed that the wide variety
of object around us are made from combination of five basic elements: Earth, Fire, Water, Air and Sky. The
Indian philosopher Kanad (600 BC) was of the view that matter was composed of very small, indivisible
particle called “parmanus”. Ancient Greek philosopher also believed that all matter was composed of tiny
building blocks which were hard and indivisible. The Greek philosopher Domocritus named these building
blocks as atoms, meaning indivisible. All these people had their philosophical views about matter, these
views were never put to experimental test.
It was John Dalton who firstly developed a theory on the structure of matter, latter on which was known as
Dalton’s atomic theory.
Classification of matter
The combination of elements to form compounds is governed by the following five basic laws.
This law was put forth by Antoine Lavoisier in 1789. He performed careful experimental studies for
combustion reactions for reaching to the above conclusion. This law formed the basis for several later
developments in chemistry.
Lavoisier stated that “during any physical or chemical change the total mass of the products produced
is equal to the total mass of the reactants reacted”. He showed that when mercuric oxide was heated the
total mass of mercury and oxygen produced was equal to the total mass of mercuric oxide.
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Ex. 1: When 20 g of NaHCO3 is heated, 12.62 g of Na2CO3 and 5.24g of CO2 is produced. How many
grams of H2O is produced?
Solution: Total mass of NaHCO3 heated = 20 gms ;
Total mass Na2CO3 produced = 12.62 gms
Total mass of CO2 produced = 5.24 gms
Mass of H2O produced = 20–12.62 –5.24 = 2.14 gms
This law was given by, a French chemist, Joseph Proust. He stated that a given compound always
contains exactly the same proportion of elements by weight.
Irrespective of the source, a given compound always contains same elements in the same proportion. The
validity of this law has been confirmed by various experiments. It is sometimes also referred to as Law of
definite composition.
This law implies that irrespective of how a compound is prepared or from where the compound originates, it
is always made up of the same elements combined in the same proportion by the weight.
For example, if water is taken from difference sources, such as rivers, oceans, wells etc. they all contain
hydrogen and oxygen, combined in the same proportion by weight in it.
This law was proposed by Dalton in 1803. According to this law, if two elements can combine to form
more than one compound, the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other
element, are in the ratio of small whole numbers.
For example, carbon and oxygen combine to form CO and CO2. In CO, 12 parts by mass of carbon
combines with 16 parts by mass of oxygen while in CO2 12 parts by mass of carbon combines with 32 parts
by mass of oxygen. Therefore the ratio of the masses of oxygen that combines with a fixed mass of carbon is
16:32 that is 1:2.
Ex. 3: Sodium and oxygen combine to form two compounds of which one is Na2O. The percentage of
sodium in the other compound is 59%. Find the formula of this compound.
2 23
Solution : Percentage of sodium in Na2O is 100 = 74.2% and percentage of oxygen is
62
25.8%.Percentage of sodium in other compound is 59% while that of oxygen is 41%. This means
that in the first compound (Na2O) if we take 100 gm then 25.8 gm of oxygen will be present
74.2
therefore the mass of sodium combining with 1g of oxygen would be = 2.87 g. Similarly in
25.8
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59
the second compound the mass of sodium combining with one gm of oxygen is = 1.44g.The
41
ratio of masses of sodium combining with the fixed mass of oxygen is 2.87: 1.44 = 2:1. Therefore
formula of the other compound is Na2O2.
FOR EXAMPLE:
Carbon, Sulphur and Oxygen form CO2, SO2 and CS2. In CO2 12 parts by mass of carbon combine with 32
parts by mass of oxygen while in SO2 32 parts by mass of Sulphur combine with 32 parts by mass of oxygen.
Ratio of masses of carbon and sulphur which combine with fixed mass of oxygen is 12:32 or 3:8.In CS2 12
parts by mass of carbon combines with 64 parts by mass of sulphur therefore
the ratio of mass of carbon to sulphur in carbon disulphide is 12:64 i.e. 3:16.
3 3
Therefore, the ratio is : or 2:1
8 16
GAY - LUSSAC LAW OF COMBINING VOLUMES:
This law which was proposed by Gay – Lussac states that, the volumes of gaseous reactants reacted and
the volumes of gaseous products formed, all measured at the same temperature and pressure bear a
simple ratio.
FOR EXAMPLE:
The reaction involved in Haber’s Process(Nitrogen and hydrogen gases react to form ammonia)
N 2 g 3H 2 g 2NH 3 g
1vol 3 vol 2 vol
It is observed that the ratio of the volumes of N2 and H2 reacted and volume of NH3 produced is equal to
1:3:2 which is a simple ratio.
This law is applicable only for gaseous reactions and should not be used fornon–gaseous reactants
and products.
Analysis of water shows that it contains 88.89% oxygen and 11.11% of hydrogen by mass. Thus the
ratio of masses of hydrogen and oxygen in water is 11.11: 88.89 or 1:8. Moreover the ratio of number of
hydrogen and oxygen atoms in water molecule can be shown to be 2:1.
Therefore oxygen is 16 times heavier than hydrogen. Therefore relative atomic mass of oxygen is 16 units if
we take mass of hydrogen atom as 1 unit.In 1961 International Union of Pure and Applied Chemists(IUPAC)
selected the most stable isotope of carbon, C–12 as the standard for comparison of atomic masses of
elements. The mass of C–12 atom is taken as 12 atomic mass unit.
The scale in which the relative atomic masses of different elements are expressed is called atomic mass unit
or amu.
1
Atomic mass Unit (amu) = the mass of a C - 12 atom = 1.660539 x10-24 gm
12
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MOLECULAR MASS:
Molecular Mass is the sum of atomic masses of the elements present in a molecule. It is obtained by
multiplying the atomic mass of each element by the number of its atoms and adding them together. For
example, molecular mass of methane which contains one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms can be
obtained as follows:
4. MOLE CONCEPT
One mole is an amount of substance containing Avogadro's number of particles. Avogadro's number is equal
to 602,214,199,000,000,000,000,000 or more simply, 6.02214199 × 1023.
A mole (symbol mol) is defined as the amount of substance that contains as many atoms, molecules,
ions, electrons or any other elementary entities as there are carbon atoms in exactly 12 gm of 12C. The
number of atoms in 12 gm of 12C is called Avogadro’s number (NA).
NA = 6.022 1023
From mass spectrometer we found that there are 6.022 x 1023 atoms present in 12 gm of C – 12 isotope. The
number of entities in 1 mol is so important that it is given a separate name and symbol known as Avogadro
constant denoted by NA. i.e. on the whole we can say that 1 mole is the collection of6.022 x 1023 entities.
Here entities may represent atoms, ions, molecules or even pens, chairs , paper etc also include in this but as
this number (NA) is very large therefore it is used only for very small things.
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Ex.5: The molecular mass of H2SO4 is 98 amu. Calculate the number of moles of each element in 294 g
of H2SO4.
Sol. Gram molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 gm
294
Moles of H2SO4 = 3 moles
98
H2SO4 H S O
one molecule 2 atoms one atom 4 atoms
1 NA 2 NA atoms 1 NA atoms 4 NA atoms
one mole 2 mole one mole 4 mole
3 mole 6 mole 3 mole 12 mole
AVOGADRO’S HYPOTHESIS:
Equal volume of the gases have equal number of molecules (not atoms) at same temperature and pressure
condition.
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x NA x22.4 lt
Number of entities Mole Volume at STP
NA 22.4 lt
mol. wt x mol. wt
At. wt x At. wt
Mass
IMPORTANT NOTES:
1. STP and NTP conditions : STP means that temperature is 0C or 273K and pressure is one bar.
NTP means that temperature is 0C or 273K and pressure is one atm.
2. 1 gm -atom is same as 1 mole of an atom & hence will have wt equal to atomic wt expressed in gms.
3. 1 gm – molecule is same as 1 mole of the molecule & hence will have wt equal to molecular wt
expressed in gms.
4. 1 gm – Ion is same as 1 mole of an ion & hence will have wt equal to ionic wt
Remember 1 gm of atom & 1gm– atom are two different phrases. Former is mentioning wt (equal to
1gm) & latter is mentioning moles.
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Ex.7: How many g atom and no. of atoms are there in (a) 60 g carbon (b) 224.4 g Cu?
Given : At. Weight of C and Cu are 12 and 63.6 respectively. Avogadro’s no. = 6.02 x 1023.
wt wt . Av.No.
Solution : g atom and No. of atoms
at .wt at.wt
60
(a) For 60 g C : g atom 5
12
60 6.02 1023
No. of atoms 30.11023
12
224.4
(b) For 224.4 g Cu : g atom 3.53
63.6
224.4 6.02 1023
No. of atoms 21.24 1023
63.6
23
Ex. 8: Find the number of g atoms and weight of an element having 2 × 10 atoms. At. Weight of
element is 32.
Solution NA atoms have 1 g atom
2 1023
2 1023 atoms have 0.33g atom
6.022 1023
NA atoms of elements weigh 32 g
2 1023 32
2 1023 atoms of element weigh 10.628g
6.022 1023
Ex.9: How many mole and molecules of O2 are there in 64g O2? What is the mass of one molecule of
O2?
Solution: moles of O2 in 32 g O2 = 1
64 1
In 64 g O2 moles 2 mole
32
23
32 g O2 contains 6.022 × 10 molecules
6.022 1023 64
64 g O2 contains 12.044 1023 molecules
32
NA molecules of O2 weigh 32 gm
32
1 molecule of O2 weighs 23
5.3138 10 23 gm .
6.022 10
Ex.10: From 200 mg of CO2 , 1021 molecules are removed. How many g and mole of CO2 are left?
Solution : 6.022 × 1023 molecules of CO2 = 44 g
44 1021
1021 molecules of CO2 g
6.022 1023
= 7.31 × 10 – 2 = 73. 1 mg
CO2 left = 200 – 73.1 = 126.9 mg
wt. 126.9 103
Also Mole of CO2 left 2.88 103
M .wt 44
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5. AVERAGE WEIGHT
For elements, which have atoms with different relative masses (isotopes) the atomic mass is taken as
weighted mean of the atomic masses.
Average atomic weight = ∑ % of Isotope X Atomic Wt. of Isotope
For example, chlorine contains two isotopes of atomic masses 35 amu and 37 amu. The relative abundance
of these two is in the ratio of 3:1. Thus the atomic mass of chlorine is the average of different relative
35 3 37 1
masses. Therefore atomic mass of chlorine is equal to = 35.5 amu.
4
Ex. 11: Calculate average atomic wt. of siliconif relative abundance is 92.23% Si28, 4.77%Si29,
3% Si30
92.23 28 4.77 29 3 30
Solution : Av at wt = 28.1 amu
100
Ex. 12: Calculate % abundance of Ag109 if it is known that silver exist in only two isotopesAg107&
Ag109having average atomic weight = 108.5
Solution : Let the % abundance of Ag109 be x
x 109 100 x 107
108.5
100
10850 10700 2x x 75%
Shortcut to calculate % abundance when an element X is having only two isotopes XA& XB & average
atomic wt is Xavg
A
X avg wt of X B
% of X 100
wt of X A wt of X b
% obtained above is mole %.
For homogenous mixture of several substances having number of moles, ni& molecular mass M(i) for ith
species, the average molecular weight is given as
n M1 n 2 M 2 ....
Average Molecular wt. = 1
n1 n 2 .........
T o ta l w eig h t
n Mi i
T o ta l n o .o f m o le s . n i
Ex.13: Dry air has a molar composition as 20% O2& 80% N2. Calculate average molecular wt. of dry
air.
20 32 80 28
Solution :. Average Molecular wt 28.8
100
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e.g. Insulin contains 3.4% of Sulphur, Find its Minimum Molecular Weight.
100g insulin contains 3.4g S (sulphur). Assuming it to be monomer [as nothing specified] one sulphur atom
32 amu (atomic mass),We can write ,3.4 g S is contained by 100g insulin
100
32g S is contained by 32 = Minimum Molecular Weight
3 .4
The molecular formula of a compound may be defined as the formula which gives the actual number of
atoms of various elements present in the molecule of the compound. For example, the molecular formula of
the compound glucose can be represented as C6H12O6. A molecule of glucose contains six atoms of carbon,
twelve atoms of hydrogen and six atoms of oxygen.
In order to find out molecular formula of a compound, the first step is to determine its empirical formula
from the percentage composition.
EMPIRICAL FORMULA:
The empirical formula of a compound may be defined as the formula which gives the simplest whole number
ratio of atoms of the various elements present in the molecule of the compound. The empirical formula of the
compound glucose (C6H12O6) is CH2O which shows that C,H and O are present in the simplest ratio of 1:2:1
Empirical formula mass of substance is equal to the sum of atomic masses of all the atoms in the empirical
formula of the substance. Molecular formula is a whole number multiple of empirical formula.
Thus Molecular formula = (Empirical formula) n where n = 1,2,3…
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DENSITY:
Density is of two types,
Absolute Density
Relative Density
VAPOUR DENSITY:
Vapour density is defined as the density of the gas with respect to hydrogen gas at the same temperature and
pressure.
PMgas
d gas M M
Vapour density = RT => V. D. = gas gas
d H2 PM H 2 M H2 2
RT
Mgas = 2 (V.D.)
MW SO 64
Solution: V.D. = 2
V.D. = 4
MW CH 4
16
Ex. 15: 11.2 litre of the particular gas at N.T.P. weighs 16 gram. What is the V. D. of gas.
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Ex.16: A substance, on analysis, gave the following percentage composition: Na = 43. 4%,
C = 11.3%, O = 45.3%. Calculate its empirical formula. {Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16]
Solution:
Simplest
Atomic Relative number of Simple ratio
Element SYMBOL % age whole no.
Mass moles of moles
ratio
43.4 1.88
Sodium Na 43.4 23 1.88 2 2
23 0 .94
11.3 0.94
Carbon C 11.3 12 0.94 1 1
12 0.94
45.3 2.83
Oxygen O 45.3 16 2.83 3 3
16 0.94
Therefore, the empirical formula is Na2CO3.
9.76 0.406
Magnesium Mg 9.76 24 0.406 1 1
24 0.406
13.01 0.406
Sulphur S 13.01 32 0.406 1 1
32 0.406
26.01 1.625
Oxygen O 26.01 16 1.625 4 4
16 0.406
51.22 2.846
Water H2O 51.22 18 2.846 7 7
18 0.406
Hence, the empirical formula is MgSO4. 7H2O.
Ex.18: What is the simplest formula of the compound which has the following percentage
composition. Carbon 80%, Hydrogen 20%. If the molecular mass is 30, calculate its
molecular formula.
Solution:
Relative number Simple ratio Simples whole
Element % age At. Mass
of moles of moles no. ratio
80 6.66
C 80 12 6.66 1 1
12 6.66
20 20
H 20 1 20 3 3
1 6.66
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Ex. 20: An organic compound on analysis gave the following data: C = 57.82%, H = 3.6%, and the
rest is oxygen. Its vapour density is 83. Find its empirical and molecular formula.
Simplest
Relative number of Simple ratio of
Element % age At. Mass whole no.
moles moles
ratio
57.82 4. 8
C 57.82 12 4.80 2 4
12 2. 4
3.60 3.6
H 3.60 1 3.60 1.5 3
1 2.3
38 .58 2.4
O 38.58 16 2.40 1 2
16 2.4
Ex.21: 2.746 gm of a compound gave on analysis 1.94 gm of silver, 0.268 gm of sulphur and 0.538
gm of oxygen. Find the empirical formula of the compound. (At masses : Ag = 108, S = 32,
O = 16)
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7. STOICHIOMETRY
The word ‘Stoichiometry’ is derived from two Greek words - Stoicheion (meaning element) and metron
(meaning measure). Stoichiometry, thus, deals with the calculation of masses (sometimes volumes also) of
the reactants and the products involved in a chemical reaction. Before understanding how to calculate the
amounts of reactants required or those produced in a chemical reaction, let us study what information is
available from the balanced chemical equation of a given reaction. Let us consider the combustion of
methane. A balanced equation for this reaction is as given below:
Once we get a balanced chemical equation then we can interpret a chemical equation by following ways
1. Mass – mass analysis
2. Mass – volume analysis
3. Volume – volume analysis
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Ex.22: 367.5 gram KClO3 ( M = 122.5) is heated. How many gram KCl and oxygen is produced.
Solution: Balanced chemical equation for heating of KClO3 is
2 KClO3 2 KCl 3O2
Mass – mass ratio: 2 x 122.5 gm 2 x 74.5 gm : 3 x 32 gm
Mass of KClO3 2 122.5 367.5 122.5
Mass of KCl 2 74.5 W 74.5
WKCl = 3 x 74.5 = 223.5 gm
Mass of KClO3 2 122.5 367.5 2 122.5
Mass of O2 3 32 W 3 32
Woxygen = 144 gm
Ex. 23: How many grams of oxygen (O2) are required to completely react with 0.200 g of hydrogen
(H2) to yield water (H2O)? Also calculate the amount of water formed. (At. Mass H = 1; O =
16).
Ex.24: Calculate the volume of O 2 and volume of air needed for combustion of 1 kg carbon at
NTP.(Assume air contains 20% oxygen)
Solution: C + O 2 CO 2
12 g C requires O 2 = 22.4 litre of O 2 = 1 mole of O 2 = 32 g of O 2
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22.4 1000
1000 g C requires O 2 litre
12
= 1866.67 litre O 2
Vair 5 VO 5 1866.67 9333.35litre
2
Ex. 25: What volume of oxygen at N.T.P. can be produced by 6.125 g of potassium chlorate
according to the reaction 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2.
Solution: The given chemical equation is :
2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
2 mol 2 mol 3 mol
2 122.5 g 3 22.4L at N.T.P
Now 245 g of KClO3 produce oxygen at N.T.P. = 3 22.4 L
3 22.4
6.125 g of KClO3 produce oxygen = 6.125 = 1.68 L at N.T.P.
245
VOLUME – VOLUME RELATIONSHIP:
It relates the volume of gaseous species (reactants or product) with the volume of another gaseous species
(reactant or product) involved in a chemical reaction.
Ex. 26: What volume of oxygen gas at NTP is necessary for complete combustion of 20 litre of
propane measured at 0oC and 760 mm pressure.
Solution: The balanced equation is
C3 H 8 5O2 3CO2 4 H 2 O
1vol 5 vol
1litre 5litre
1 litre of propane requires = 5 litre of oxygen
20 litre of propane will require = 5 20 = 100 litre of oxygen at 760 mm pressure and 0oC.
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The best method to identify limiting reagent is by dividing given moles of each reactant by their
stoichiometric coefficient, the one with least ratio is limiting reagent. It is particularly useful when
number of reactants are more than two.
Ex.28: How much magnesium sulphide can be obtained from 2.00 g of magnesium and 2.00 g of
sulphur by the reaction Mg + S MgS? Which is the limiting reagent? Calculate the
amount of the reactants which remains unreacted.
Solution: First of all each of this masses are converted into moles:
2.00
2.00 g of Mg = = 0.0824 moles of Mg
24.3
2.00
2.00 g of S = = 0.0624 moles of S
32.1
From the equation, Mg + S MgS, it follows that one mole of Mg reacts with one mole of S.
We are given more moles of Mg than of S. Therefore, Mg is in excess and some of it will remain
unreacted when the reaction is over. S is the limiting reagent and will control the amount of
product. From the equation we note that one mole of S gives one mole of MgS, so 0.0624 mole of S
will react with 0.0624 mole of Mg to form 0.0624 mole of MgS.
Molar mass of MgS = 56.4 g
Mass of MgS formed = 0.0624 56.4 g = 3.52 g of MgS
Moles of Mg left unreacted = 0.0824 –0.0624 moles of Mg
= 0.0200 moles of Mg
Mass of Mg left unreacted = moles of Mg molar mass of Mg
= 0.0200 24.3 g of Mg = 0.486 g of Mg
Ex. 29:4 mole of MgCO 3 is reacted with 6 moles of HCl solution. Find the volume of CO 2 gas produced at
NTP. The reaction is MgCO3 2HCl MgCl 2 CO2 H 2 O
Solution: From the reaction MgCO3 2HCl MgCl 2 CO2 H 2 O
Given moles 4 mole 6 mole
Given mole ratio 2 : 3
Stoichiometric
Coefficient ratio 1 : 2
There should be one limiting reagent.
To find the limiting reagent, divide the given moles by stoichiometric coefficient.
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MgCO3 HCl
4 6
4 3
1 2
HCl is limiting reagent.
moles of HCl moles of CO 2 produced
=
2 1
moles of CO 2 produced = 3 moles
volumes of CO 2 produced at N.T.P, = 3 22.4 67.2L
Ex.30: What weight of AgCl will be precipitated when a solution containing 4.77 g NaCl is added to a solution of
5.77g of AgNO3 ?
Solution: AgN O 3 + N aC l AgC l + N aN O 3
5.77 4.77
mmoles. mixed 1000 1000
170 58.5
= 33.94 = 81.54 0 0
mmoles. left 0 47.60 33.94 33.94
mmoles of AgCl formed = 33.94
w
1000 33.94 W AgC l 4.87 g
143.5
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Please note that the balanced reaction is essential in Mole method of solving .Only while using
POAC (which would be applicable only in certain cases), balanced reaction is not required.
You can use POAC for all atoms in the compound only if all the reactants and products are known.
Ex.31: A sample of KClO3 on decomposition yielded 448 mL of oxygen gas at NTP Calculate :
(i) weight of oxygen produced ,
(ii) weight of KClO3 originally taken
(iii) weight of KCl produced
(K = 39 , Cl = 35.5 and O = 16)
448
Solution: (i) Mole of oxygen = 0.02
22400
Wt. of oxygen = 0.02 × 32 = 0.64gm
Ex.32: 27.6 g of K2CO3 was treated by a series of reagents so as to convert all of its carbon to
K2Zn3[ Fe(CN)6]2. Calculate the weight of the product.
Several
Solution: K2CO3
steps
K2 Zn3[ Fe(CN )6 ]2
Since C atoms are conserved, applying POAC for C atoms,
Moles of C in K2CO3 = moles of C in K2Zn3 [ Fe(CN)6 ]2
1 x mole of K2CO3 = 12 x moles of K2Zn3 [ Fe(CN)6]2
1 mole of K 2CO3 contains 1 mole C & 1 mole of K 2 Zn3[ Fe(CN )6 ] 2
contains 12 mole of C
wt. of K 2 CO 3 wt. of the product
= 12 ×
mol. wt. of K 2 CO 3 mol. wt. of product
27.6 698
Wt. of K 2 Zn 3 Fe CN 6 = × = 11.6 g.
2 138 12
[mol. wt. of K 2CO3 138 and mol. wt. of K 2 Zn 3 Fe CN 6 = 698 ]
2
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Ex.34: What weight of CO is required to form Re 2 CO 10 from 2.50 g of Re 2 O 7 according to the
unbalanced reaction:
Re 2 O 7 CO Re 2 CO 10 CO 2
(Re = 186.2, C = 12 and O = 16 )
Solution: Suppose the relative moles of each reactant and product are as follows (just for convenience)
Re2 O7 CO Re2 CO 10 CO2
a moles b moles d moles
cmoles
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Ex.35: 1.84 g of a mixture of CaCO3 and MgCO3 was heated to a constant weight. The constant
weight of the residue was found to be 0.96 g. Calculate the percentage composition of the
mixture. (Ca = 40, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16)
Solution : On heating CaCO3 and MgCO3 , one of the products, CO2 , escapes out.
We have,
CaCO 3 MgCO 3 CaO MgO CO 2
yg 0.96 y g
xg 1.84 x g
Applying POAC for Ca atoms,
Moles of Ca atoms in CaCO3 = moles of Ca atoms in CaO
1 × moles of CaCO3 = 1 × moles of CaO
x y CaCO3 100
CaO 56 … (i)
100 56
Again applying POAC for Mg atoms,
Moles of Mg in MgCO3 = moles of Mg in MgO
1 × moles of MgCO3 = 1 × moles of MgO
1.84 x 0.96 y MgCO3 84
…. (ii)
84 40 MgO 40
From eqns. (i) and (ii), we get x = 1 g, y = 0.84 g
1
% of CaCO3 = × 100 = 54.34 %
1.84
% of MgCO3 = 45.66 %
Ex.36: What mass of zinc is required to produce hydrogen by reaction with HCl which is enough to
produce 4 mol of ammonia according to the reactions.
Zn + 2HCl ZnCl2 + H2
3H2 + N2 2NH3
8. CONCENTRATION TERMS
Many chemical reactions occur in the solution state and hence stoichiometric problems may sometimes
involve different concentration terms of solutions to give an idea of amount of solute and solvent present in
the solution. There are various ways to represent concentration of the solution as mentioned below.
In a solution the designation of solute and solvent is often a matter of convenience, however many a
times the one present in smaller quantity is termed as solute. Also, a solution may have more than one
solute but solvent cannot be more than one.
All the concentration terms given below are applicable only when there is a homogenous solution or
when solute completely dissolves in the solvent.
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The following concentrations terms are used to expressed the concentration of a solution. These are:
1. Molarity (M)
2. Molality (m)
3. Mole fraction (X)
4. % calculation
5. Normality (N) (will be discussed in volumetric analysis)
6. ppm
Please remember that all these concentration terms are related to one another. By knowing one concentration
term you can also find the other concentration terms. Let us discuss all of them one by one.
If a solution having volume V1 and molarity M1 is mixed with another solution of same solute
having volume V2 mL & molarity M2
M1V1 M 2 V2
M R = Resultant molarity =
V1 V2
Molarity is a unit that depends upon temperature. It varies inversely with temperature.
Mathematically : Molarity decreases as temperature increases.
1
Molarity
temperature volume
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Ex. 37: 149 gm of potassium chloride (KCl) is dissolved in 10 L of an aqueous solution. Determine
the molarity of the solution (K = 39, Cl = 35.5)
Ex.38: What volume of a 3.0 M HCl solution be mixed with 500 mL of a 7 M HCl solution to
prepare a HCl solution whose molarity will be 4.0?
Ex.39: Determine molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL of a 0.26 M H 2SO 4 solution with
another 150 mL 0.48 M H 4SO 4 solution.
Solution: It is a case of mixing of two solutions of different molarities. Applying the mixing formula:
M V M 2 V2 50 0.26 150 0.48
M3 1 1 = 0.425 M
V3 50 150
Ex.40: What volume of a 5.00 M H 2SO 4 solution should be added to a 150 mL 1.0 M H 2SO 4
solution to obtain a solution of sulphuric acid of molarity 2.5?
Solution: It is again a case of mixing of two solutions. Let us assume that V mL of the stock solution of
H 2SO 4 is added.
5V + 150 × 1.0 = 2.5 × 150 + V
2.5 V = 225
225
V 90 mL
2.5
Ex.41: A 150 mL 0.25 M NaCl solution, 250 mL 0.45 M CaCl2 solution and a 100 mL 0.60 M AlCl3
solution are mixed together and diluted to a final volume of 750 mL by adding enough water.
Determine molarity of chloride ion Cl in solution assuming that all three salts are
completely soluble as well as completely dissociated.
Solution: First we need to calculate total mmoles of Cl from the three salt solutions:
mmoles of Cl ion from NaCl = 37.5
mmoles of Cl ion from CaCl2 = 2 × mmoles of CaCl2
= 2 × 112.5 = 225
mmoles of Cl ion from AlCl3 = 3 × mmoles of AlCl3
3 60 180
Total mmoles of Cl in final solution
= 37.5 + 225 + 180 = 442.5
mmoles of Cl – 442.5
Molarity of Cl – = = = 0.59 M
mL of solution 750
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w solute × 1000
m =
Molecular Mass of solute × w solvent gm
Molality is independent of temperature changes.
Ex.42: 255 gm of an aqueous solution contains 5 gm of urea. What is the concentration of the
solution in terms of molality. (Mol. wt. of urea = 60)
Solution: Mass of urea = 5 gm
Molecular mass of urea = 60
5
Number of moles of urea = 0.083
60
Mass of solvent = (255 – 5) = 250 gm
Number of moles of solute
Molality of the solution = × 1000
Mass of solvent in gram
0.083
= 1000 0.333
250
Ex.43: The molarity and molality of a solution are M and m respectively. If the molecular weight of
the solute is M , calculate the density of the solution interms of M, m and M .
Solution: Let weight of solute be wg and weight of solvent is Wg and volume of solution is V mL.
w 1000
M … (1)
M V
w 1000
m … (2)
M W
wW
D … (3)
V
MMV
By Eq. (1) w … (4)
1000
w 1000 MMV 1000
By Eq. (2) W by Eq. (4)
M m 1000 M m
MV
W … (5)
m
MV MMV
1 M
By Eq. (3) D m 1000 D M
V m 1000
MOLARITY(M) AND MOLALITY(m) FOR PURE SUBSTANCES:
1. Water:
Let the sample of water has 1000 ml
Mass of water = 1000 gm [density of water = 1gm/mL.]
Moles of water 1000 mol
18
1000 1000
mol
Molarity
18 55.55M & molality = 18 55.55 m
1 1 kg
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2. Pure ethanol :
d gm/ml (density of ethanol)
(C2H5OH) let volume of ethanol taken be 1000 ml.
wt of ethanol in 1000 ml = 1000 d gm
1000d 1000d
Mol of ethanol = Molarity =
46 46
1000d
mol 1000
46
& molality of ethanol =
1000d 46
kg
1000
The ratio of number of moles of the solute or solvent present in the solution and the total number of moles
present in the solution is known as the mole fraction of substance concerned.
Let number of moles of solute in solution = n
Number of moles of solvent in solution = N
n
Mole fraction of solute X1
nN
N
Mole fraction of solvent X 2
nN
Also X1 X2 1
Mole fraction is a pure number. It will remain independent of temperature changes.
The concentration of a solution may also be expressed in terms of percentage in the following way.
Ex. 44:0.5 g of a substance is dissolved in 25 g of a solvent. Calculate the percentage amount of the
substance in the solution.
Solution: Mass of substance = 0.5 g Mass of solvent = 25 g
0.5
Percentage of the substance (w/w) 100 1.96
0.5 25
Ex. 45: 20cm3 of an alcohol is dissolved in 80cm3 of water. Calculate the percentage of alcohol in
solution.
Solution: Volume of alcohol = 20cm3 Volume of water = 80cm3
20
percentage of alcohol 100 20 %
20 80
EXERCISE
LEVEL-1
1. Potassium combines with two isotopes of chlorine (35Cl and 37Cl) respectively to form two samples
of KCl. Their formation follows the law of:
(A) constant proportions (B) multiple proportions
(C) reciprocal proportions (D) none of these
2. H2S contains 5.88% hydrogen, H2O contains 11.11% hydrogen while SO2 contains 50% sulphur.
These figures illustrate the law of:
(A) conservation of mass (B) constant proportions
(C) multiple proportions (D) reciprocal proportions
3. Irrespective of the source, pure sample of water always yields 88.89% mass of oxygen and 11.11%
mass of hydrogen. This is explained by the law of:
(A) conservation of mass (B) constant composition
(C) multiple proportion (D) constant volume
MOLE CONCEPT
6. Two containers P and Q of equal volume (1 litre each) contain O2 and SO2 respectively at 300 K and
1 atmosphere. Then
(A) Number of molecules in P is less than that in Q
(B) Number of molecules in Q is less than that in P
(C) Number of molecules in P and Q are same
(D) Either (A) or (B)
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7. 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is
(A) NO (B) N2O (C) CO (D) CO2
14. 19.7 kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. The atoms of gold recovered are: (Au = 197)
(A) 10 (B) 6.02 × 1023 (C) 6.02 × 1024 (D) 6.02 × 1025
15. The molecular mass of CO2 is 44 amu and Avogadro’s number is 6.02 × 1023. Therefore, the mass of
one molecule of CO2 is:
(A) 7.31 × 10–23 (B) 3.65 × 10–23 (C) 1.01 × 10–23 (D) 2.01 × 10–23
16. The number of moles of H2 in 0.224 litre of hydrogen gas at NTP is:
(A) 1 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.01 (D) 0.001
20. In which of the following pairs both members have same no. of atoms
(A) 1 gm O2, 1 gm O3 (B) 1 gm N2, 2 gm N
(C) Both (D) None
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21. The molecular wt. of green vitriol is M0. The wt. of 103 NA molecules of it is
(A) M0 gm (B) M0 mg (C) 103 M0 gm (D) 103 M0 mg
23. Which one of the following samples contains the largest number of atoms.
(A) 2.5 mole CH4 (B) 10 mole He (C) 4 mole SO2 (D) 1.8 mole S8
29. How many molecules of H2O are contained in 2.48 g of Na2S2O3.5H2O (at.wt. of Na=23,S=32)
(A) 31020 (B) 31021 (C) 31022 (D) 31023
30. The no. of silver atoms present in a 90% pure silver wire weighing 10 g. is (at.wt. of Ag=108)
(A) 8x1022 (B) 0.62x1023 (C) 5x1022 (D) 6.2x1029
32. The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018 g is
(A) 6.021026 (B) 6.021023 (C) 6.021020 (D) 6.021019
33. If NA is Avogadro’s number, then the number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of nitride ion ( N3 ) is
(Given One atom of Nhas 5 valence electrons)
(A) 2.4 NA (B) 4.2 NA (C) 1.6 NA (D) 3.2 NA
34. A person adds 3.42 of sucrose (C12H22O11) in his cup of tea to sweeten it. How many atoms of carbon
does he add?
(A) 132.44 1021 atoms (B) 66.22 1021 atoms
(C) 0.1 atoms (D) 72.27 1021 atoms
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36. 4.4g of CO 2 and 2.24litre of H 2 at NTP are mixed in a container. The total number of molecules
present in the container will be
(A) 6.022 1023 (B) 1.2044 10 23 (C) 2 mole (D) 6.023 1024
38. The atomic weight of a triatomic gas is a. The correct formula for the number of moles of gas in its
w gram is:
3w w a
(A) (B) (C) 3wa (D)
a 3a 3w
40. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3 PO 4 2 will contain 0.25mole of oxygen atoms?
(A) 0.02 (B) 3.125 102 (C) 1.25 10 2 (D) 2.5 102
41. The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% by mass of element X (at. wt. 10) and 50% by
mass of element Y (at. wt. 20) is ;
(A) XY (B) X2Y (C) XY2 (D) X2Y3
42. The hydrated salt Na2SO410H2O undergoes X% loss in weight on heating and becomes anhydrous.
The value of X will be
(A) 10 (B) 45 (C) 56 (D) 70
43. An oxide of iodine (I =127) contains 25.4 g of iodine and 8 g of oxygen. Its formula could be
(A) I 2 O3 (B) I 2 O (C) I 2 O5 (D) I 2 O 7
44. The chloride of a metal contains 71% chlorine by weight and the vapour density of it is 50. The
atomic weight of the metal will be
(A) 29 (B) 58 (C) 35.5 (D) 71
STOICHIOMETRY
46. 2 mol of H2S and 11.2 L SO2 at N.T.P. reacts to form x mol of sulphur; x is
SO2 + 2H2S 3S + 2H2O
(A) 1.5 (B) 3 (C) 11.2 (D) 6
47. How many grams of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) would be needed to neutralise 100 g of magnesium
hydroxide (Mg(OH)2).
(A) 66.7 g (B) 252 (C) 112.6 g (D) 168 g
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48. If two mole of methanol (CH3OH) completely burns to carbon dioxide and water, the weight of water
formed is about
(A) 22 g (B) 18 g (C) 36 g (D) 72 g
49. In an experiment, it is found that 2.0769 g of Pure X produces 3.6769 g of pure X2O5. The number of
moles of X is
(A) 0.04 (B) 0.06 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.02
51. If 1 mole of ethanol (C2H5OH) completely burns to CO2 and H2O, the weight of CO2 formed is
about.
(A) 22 g (B) 45 g (C) 66 g (D) 88 g
52. The percent loss in weight after heating a pure sample of KClO3 (molecular weight = 122.5) will be
(A) 12.25 (B) 24.50 (C) 39.18 (D) 49.0
53. Calculate the weight of iron which will be converted into its oxide by the action of 18g of steam on it.
2Fe 3H 2 O Fe 2O 3 3H 2 .
(A) 37.3 gm (B) 3.73 gm (C) 56 gm (D) 5.6 gm
54. A 10.0 g sample of a mixture of calcium chloride and sodium chloride is treated with Na2CO3 to
precipitate the calcium as calcium carbonate. This CaCO3 is heated to convert all the calcium to CaO
and the final mass of CaO is 1.62 gms. The % by mass of CaCl2 in the original mixture is :
(A) 15.2% (B) 32.1% (C) 21.8% (D) 11.07%
55. If 0.5 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of Na3PO4, the maximum number of mol of Ba3(PO4)2 that
can be formed is
(A) 0.7 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
56. 0.5 mole of H2SO4 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Ca(OH)2. The maximum number of mole of CaSO4
formed is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 1.5
57. For the reaction A + 2B C + 3D, 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce
(A) 5 moles of C (B) 4 moles of C (C) 8 moles of C (D) None of these
58. 2.4 kg of carbon is made to react with 1.35 kg of aluminium to form Al4C3. The maximum amount in
kg of aluminium carbide formed is
(A) 5.4 (B) 3.75 (C) 1.05 (D) 1.8
59. Consider the reaction 2A 2B, B 2C, 3C 4D. The no. of moles of D formed starting 4
moles of A, are
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 4 (D) 10.67
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62. A gaseous oxide contains 30.4% of nitrogen, one molecule of which contains one nitrogen atom. The
density of the oxide relative to oxygen gas is
(A) 0.9 (B) 1.44 (C) 1.50 (D) 3.0
CONCENTRATION TERMS
63. An aqueous solution of urea containing 18 g urea in 1500 cc of solution has a density of 1.052 g/cc. If
the mol.wt. of urea is 60, then the molality of solution is
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.192 (C) 0.064 (D) 1.2
65. 20 ml of 0.2 M Al2(SO4)3 is mixed with 20 ml of 0.6 M BaCl2. Concentration of Al3+ ion in the
solution will be
(A) 0.2 M (B) 10.3 M (C) 0.1 M (D) 0.25 M
66. 50 ml of 0.01 M FeSO4 will react with what volume of 0.01 M KMnO4 solution in acid medium?
(1 mole KMnO4 requires 5 mole of FeSO4 for complete reaction)
(A) 50 ml (B) 25 ml (C) 100 ml (D) 10 ml
67. The number of H+ ions present in 100 ml of 0.001M H2SO4 solution will be
(A) 120.4 1019 (B) 1.20 1020 (C) 6.023 1020 (D) 6.023 1021
68. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.11 g ml . The molarity of the solution is
(A) 2.97 (B) 3.05 (C) 3.64 (D) 3.050
69. 250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na2CO3. If 10 ml of this solution is
diluted to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultant solution? (mol wt. of Na2CO3 = 106)
(A) 0.1 M (B) 0.001M (C) 0.01 M (D) 104 M
70. The mole fraction of NaCl in a solution containing 1 mole of NaCl in 1000g of water is:
(A) 0.0177 (B) 0.001 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.5
LEVEL-2
1. One mole of potassium chlorate is thermally decomposed and excess of aluminium is burnt in the
gaseous product. How many mole of aluminium oxide are formed:
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 2 (D) 3
2. The density of a 3.60M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% H 2SO 4 (molar mass 98 g mol 1 ) by
mass will be:
(A) 1.22 (B) 1.45 (C) 1.64 (D) 1.88
3. 10 moles N 2 and 15 moles of H 2 were allowed to react over a suitable catalyst. 10 moles of NH3
were formed. The remaining moles of N 2 and H 2 respectively are:
(A) 5 moles, 0 mole (B) 0 moles, 5 mole
(C) 9 moles, 12 mole (D) 0 moles, 0 mole
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7. 2.5moles of a hydrocarbon C10 H x requires 32.5 moles of O2 for complete combustion. Calculate
value of x ?
(A) 24 (B) 32 (C) 12 (D) 22
8. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl to give CaCl2 according to the reaction,
CaCO3 s 2 HCl aq CaCl2 aq CO2 g H 2O l . The mass of CaCO 3 required to react
completely with 25mL of 0.75M HCl is
(A) 0.1 g (B) 0.84 g (C) 8.4 g (D) 0.94 g
9. 25.0 ml of HCl solution gave, on reaction with excess AgNO3 solution 2.125 g of AgCl . The
molarity of HCl solution is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.6 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.75
10. Element X reacts with oxygen to produce a pure sample of X 2O3 . In an experiment it is found that
1.00g of X produces 1.16g of X 2O3 . Calculate the atomic weight of X .
Given: atomic weight of oxygen, 16.0g mol1 .
(A) 67 (B) 100.2 (C) 125 (D) 150
11. If half mole of oxygen gas combine with Al to form Al2O3 , the weight of Al used in the reaction is:
(A) 27 g (B) 40.5 g (C) 54 g (D) 18 g
12. 8 g of sulphur is burnt to form SO2 which is oxidised by Cl2 water. The solution is treated with BaCl2
solution. The amount of BaSO4 precipitated is
(A) 1 mole (B) 0.5 mole (C) 0.24 mole (D) 0.25 mole
13. A mixture of KBr and NaBr weighing 0.560 gm was treated with aqueous Ag+ and all the bromide
ion was recovered as 0.970 gm of pure AgBr. The weight of KBr in the sample is
(A) 0.25 gm (B) 0.212 (C) 0.36 (D) 0.285
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15. A sample contains 200 atoms of hydrogen, 0.05 gm atom of nitrogen, 1020 gm atom of oxygen.
What is the approximate no. of total atoms
(A) 200 (B) 6223 (C) 31022 (D) none of these
16. The element A at wt.=75 and B at wt. =32 combine to form a compound X. If 3 mol of B combine
with 2 mol of A to give 1 mol of X, the weight of 5 mol of X is
(A) 246 gm (B) 1230 amu (C) 1.23 kg (D) None of these
18. Which of the following substances contains the greatest mass of chlorine
(A) 5 gm Cl2 (B) 60 gm NaClO3
(C) 0.10 mole of KCl (D) 0.5 mole of Cl2
19. Which of the following samples contains the smallest no. of atoms?
(A) 1 g of CO2 (g) (B) 1 g of C8H18 (l) (C) 1 g of C2H6 (g) (D) 1 g of LiF (s)
20. The wt. of NO having the same no. of oxygen atom present in 9.2 gm of NO2 is
(A) 9.2 gm (B) 6 gm (C) 12 gm (D) 24 gm
24. A mixture contains n moles of H2 and 2n moles of CH4.The ratio of no. of C:H atoms in the mixture
is:
(A) 1/5 (B) 2/3 (C) 4/5 (D) 1/3
25. The charge on 1 gram ion of Al3+ is (e represents magnitude of charge on 1 electron)
(A) 1/27 NAe coulomb (B) 1/3 NAe coulomb
(C) 1/9 NAe coulomb (D) 3 NAe coulomb
26. Cortisone is a molecular substance containing 21 atoms of carbon per molecule. The weight
percentage of carbon in cortisone is 69.98%. What is the molecular weight of cortisone?
(A) 176.5 (B) 252.2 (C) 287.6 (D) 360.1
27. A partially dried clay mineral contains 8% water. The original sample contained 12% water and 45%
silica. % of Silica in the partially dried sample is nearly
(A) 50% (B) 49% (C) 55% (D) 47%
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28. A compound contains 28% nitrogen and 72% metal by mass 3 atoms of the metal combine with 2
atoms of nitrogen. The atomic mass of metal is
(A) 36 (B) 20 (C) 24 (D) 36
29. An organic compound on analysis was found to contain 0.014% of nitrogen. If its molecule contains
two N atoms, then the molecular mass of the compound
(A) 200 (B) 2000 (C) 20,000 (D) 200000
30. An element, X, have three isotopes X 20, X 21 and X 22. The percentage abundance of X 20 is 90% and
its average atomic mass of the element is 20.11. The percentage abundance of X 21 should be
(A) 9% (B) 8% (C) 10% (D) 0%
31. The O18/O16 ratio in some meteorites is greater than that used to calculate the average atomic mass of
oxygen on earth. The average mass of an atom of oxygen in these meteorites is ………. that of a
terrestrial oxygen atom.
(A) equal to (B) greater than (C) less than (D) None of these
32. 6.023 ×1023 molecules of Ca (OH)2 react with 3.01×1022 molecules of HCl, number of moles of
CaCl2 obtained are
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.10 (C) 0.025 (D) 3.01
33. A copper sulphate solution contains 1.595% of CuSO4 by weight. Its density is 1.2 g / ml, Its
molarity will be
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.06 (C) 1.20 (D) 1.595
35. Simplest formulae of a compound containing 20% of element X (atomic weight 10) and 80% of
element Y (atomic weight 20) is
(A) XY (B) X2Y (C) XY2 (D) X2Y3
36. At room temperature and pressure two flask of equal volumes are filled with H2 and SO2
respectively. Particles which are equal in number in two flasks are
(A) Atoms (B) Electrons (C) Molecules (D) Neutrons
37. Chlorophyll contains 2.68% of magnesium by mass. Calculate the number of magnesium atoms in
3.00 gms of chlorophyll.
(A) 2.01 1021 atoms (B) 6.023 1023 atoms
(C) 1.7 1020 atoms (D) 2.8 1022 atoms
38. What is the total number of atoms present in 25.0 mg of camphor C10H16O?
(A) 9.89 1019 (B) 6.02 1020 (C) 9.89 1020 (D) 2.67
1021
40. An ore contains 1.34% of the mineral argentite, Ag2S, by weight. How many grams of this ore would
have to be processed in order to obtain 1.00 g of pure solid silver, Ag?
(A) 74.6 g (B) 85.7 g (C) 134.0 g (D) 171.4 g
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41. Hydrogen evolved at NTP on complete reaction of 27 gm of Al with excess of aq NaOH would be
(Chemical reaction: 2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O 2NaAlO2 + 3H2)
(A) 22.4 lit (B) 44.8 lit (C) 67.2 lit (D) 33.6 lit
42. The formula of metal oxide is Z 2 O 3 . If 6 mg of hydrogen is required for complete reduction of
0.1596 g metal oxide, then the atomic weight of metals is
(a) 227.9 (b) 159.6 (c) 79.8 (d) 55.8
45. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2 the volume occupied by 11.2 g of this has at NTP is
(a) 1 litre (b) 11.2 litre (c) 22.4 litre (d) 20 litre
50. How much amount of zinc is required to react with dilute H 2SO 4 for obtaining 224 mL hydrogen at
STP
(a) 0.65 g (b) 6.5 g (c) 65 g (d) 0.065 g
51. At normal temperature and pressure 0.24 g volatile substances produces 43 mL vapour. Then the
vapour density of substances will be- (Density of hydrogen = 0.000089 g/mL)
(a) 95.39 (b) 5.993 (c) 95.93 (d) 62.7
52. Percentage of C, H and N are given as follows C = 40%, H = 13.33%, N = 46.67% The empirical
formula will be
(a) CH 2 N (b) C 2 G 4 N (c) CH 4 N (d) CH 3 N
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55. An organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen contains 52.20% carbon and 13.04%
hydrogen. Vapour density of the compound is 23. Its molecular formula will be:
(a) C2 H6 O (b) C3 H 8 O (c) C4 H8 O (d) C5 H10 O
56. The empirical formula of a compound is CH 2 . One mole of this compound has a mass of 42 g. Its
molecular formula is
(a) CH 2 (b) C2 H2 (c) C3 H 6 (d) C3 H8
57. In Victor Mayer’s method 0.2 g of an organic substances displaced 56 mL of air at S.T.P. The
molecular weight of compounds
(a) 56 (b) 112 (c) 80 (d) 28
58. The empirical formula of a compound is CH 2 O and its molecular weight is 120. The molecular
formula of the compound is
(a) C 2 H 4 O 2 (b) C3 H6 O3 (c) C4 H8 O4 (d) CH 2 O
61. Different proportions of oxygen in the various oxides of nitrogen prove the law of
(a) Equivalent proportion (b) Multiple proportion
(c) Constant proportion (d) Conservation of matter
62. One part of an element A combines with two parts of another element B. Six parts of the element C
combines with four parts of the element B. If A and C combine together the ratio of their weights
will be governed by
(a) Law of definite proportion (b) Law of multiple proportion
(c) Law of reciprocal proportion (d) Law of conservation of mass
63. Oxygen combines with two isotopes of carbon 12 C and 14 C to form sample of carbon dioxide. The
data illustrates
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Law of multiple proportions
(c) Law of multiple reciprocal proportions (d) None of these
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65. The law of conservation of mass holds good for all of the following except
(a) All chemical reactions (b) Nuclear reactions
(c) Endothermic reactions (d) Exothermic reactions
69. Molecular weight of tribasic acid is W. Its equivalent weight will be:
W W
(a) (b) (c) W (d) 3W
2 3
73. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of carbon. Then its molecular formula is
(a) SO2 (b) SO 3 (c) SO (d) S2 O
75. A compound is found to contain 80% of carbon and 20% of hydrogen, then the molecular formula of
the compound is
(a) C6 H6 (b) C 2 H 5 OH (c) C2 H6 (d) C2 H4
76. The number of atoms of Cr and O are 4.8 1010 and 9.6 1010 respectively. Its empirical formula is
(a) Cr2 O 3 (b) CrO 2 (c) Cr2O 4 (d) None
77. The empirical formula of an organic compound containing carbon and hydrogen is CH 2 . The mass
of one litre of this organic gas is exactly equal to that of one litre of N 2 . Therefore, the molecular
formula of the organic gas is
(a) C2 H4 (b) C3 H 6 (c) C6 H12 (d) C4 H8
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79. Vapour density of volatile substance w.r.t. CH 4 is 4. Its molecular weight would be
(a) 8 (b) 32 (c) 64 (d) 128
80. If 1.2 g of a metal displaces 1.12 litre of hydrogen at NTP, equivalent mass of the metal would be
(a) 1.2 11.2 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 1.2 11.2
81. 2.8 g of iron displaces 3.2 g of copper from a solution of copper sulphate solution. If the equivalent
mass of iron is 28, then equivalent mass of copper will be
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 48 (d) 64
83. The weight of substance that displace 22.4 litre air at NTP is
(a) Molecular weight (b) Atomic weight (c) Equivalent weight (d) All
84. Density of a gas at STP is 1.43 g/L what is its molecular weight?
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 48 (d) 64
85. Hydrogen combines with chlorine to form HCl. It also combines with sodium to form NaH. If
sodium and chlorine also combine with each other, they will do so in the ration of their masses as
(a) 23 : 35.5 (b) 35.5 : 23 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 23 : 1
86. If 32 g of O 2 contains 6.022 1023 molecules at NTP. Then 32 g of S. under the same conditions,
will contains
(a) 6.022 1023 S (b) 3.0111021S (c) 11023 S (d) 12.044 1023 S
87. 4.4 g of an unknown gas occuples 2.24 litres of volume at STP. The gas may be
(a) N 2 O (b) CO (c) CO 2 (d) (a) & (c) both
88. Simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic weight = 10) and 50% of
element Y (atomic weight = 20) is
(a) XY (b) X 2 Y (c) XY2 (d) X3 Y
91. The weights of two elements which combine with one another are in the ratio of their
(a) Atomic weight (b) Molecular weight (c) Equivalent weight (d) None
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92. Element ‘A’ reacts with oxygen to form a compound A 2O3 .If 0.359 gram of ‘A’ react to give 0.559
gram of the compound, atomic weight of ‘A’ in amu will be
(a) 51 amu (b) 43.08 amu (c) 49.7 amu (d) 47.9 amu
94. If law of conservation of mass was to hold true, then 20.8 g of BaCl2 on reaction with 9.8 g of
H 2SO 4 will produce 7.3 g of HCl and BaSP4 equal to
(a) 11.65 g (b) 23.3 g (c) 25.5 g (d) 30.6 g
99. 1.6 g of Ca and 2.60 g of Zn when treated with an acid in excess separately, produced the same
amount of hydrogen. If the equivalent weight of Zn is 32.6, what is the equivalent weight of Ca
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 5
102. The oxide of an element posses the molecular formula M 2 O3 . If the equivalent of mass of the metal
is 9, the molecular mass of the oxide will be
(a) 27 (b) 75 (c) 102 (d) 18
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104. Among the following pairs of compounds, the one that illustrates the law of multiple proportion is
(a) NH3 and NCl3 (b) H 2 O and D2 O (c) CuO 2 and Cu 2 O (d) CS2 and FeSO 4
105. Sulphur forms two chlorides S2 Cl2 and SCl2 . The equivalent mass of sulphur in SCl2 is 16. The
equivalent weight of sulphur in S2 Cl2 is
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64
111. Given that one mole of N 2 at NTP occupies 22.4 litre the density of N 2 is
(a) 1.25 g/L (b) 0.80 g/L (c) 2.5 g/L (d) 1.60 g/L
112. A compound of X and Y has equal mass of them. If their atomic weights are 30 and 20 respectively.
Molecular formula of that compound. (Its mole. wt is 120) could be
(a) X 2 Y2 (b) X3 Y3 (c) X 2 Y3 (d) X3 Y2
113. An oxide of metal M has 40% by mass of oxygen. Metal M has atomic mass of 24. The empirical
formula of the oxide
(a) M 2 O (b) M 2 O3 (c) MO (d) M 3 O 4
116. How many moles of potassium chloride to be heated to produce 11.2 litre oxygen at NTP?
1 1 1 2
(a) mol (b) mol (c) mol (d) mol
2 3 4 3
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117. Oxygen combines with two isotopes of carbon 12 C and 14 C form two sample of carbon dioxide. The
data illustrates
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Law of multiple proportions
(c) Law of reciprocal proportions (d) None of these
119. Which of the following is the best example of law of conservation of mass?
(a) 12 g of carbon combines with 32 g of oxygen to form 44 g of CO 2
(b) When 12 g of carbon is heated in a vaccum there is no charge in mass
(c) A sample of air increases in volume when heated at constant pressure but its mass remains
unaltered
(d) The weight of a piece of platinum is the same before and after heating in air
120. The law of definite proportions is not applicable to nitrogen oxide because
(a) Nitrogen atomic weight is not constant (b) Nitrogen molecular weight is variable
(c) Nitrogen equivalent weight is variable (d) Oxygen atomic weight is variable
121. 1.0 g a metal combines with 8.89 g of Bromine. Equivalent weight of metal is nearly
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 7
122. The equivalent weight of an element us 4. It’s chloride has a V.D.59.25. Then the element is
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
124. The atomic mass of an element is 27. If valency is 3, the vapour density of the volatile chloride will
be
(a) 66.75 (b) 6.675 (c) 667.5 (d) 81
125. A gas is found to have the formula CO x . It’s VD is 70 the value of x must be
(a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
126. If V ml of the vapours of substance at NTP weights W gm. Then mol. wt. of substance is
V W 1
(a) W / V 22400 (b) 22.4 (c) W V 22400 (d)
W V 22400
127. The oxide of a metal gas 32% oxygen. It’s equivalent weight would be
(a) 34 (b) 32 (c) 17 (d) 16
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132. A person adds 1.71 gram of sugar C12 H 22 O11 in order to sweeten his tea. The number of carbon
atoms added are (mol. mass of sugar = 342)
(a) 3.6 1021 (b) 7.2 1021 (c) 0.05 (d) 6.6 1022
133. 500 ml. of a gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in excess of O 2 gave 2.5 lt. of CO 2 and 3.0 lt. of water
vapours under same conditions. Molecular formula of the hydrogen is
(a) C4 H8 (b) C4 H10 (c) C 5 H10 (d) C 5 H12
134. On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the weight ratio of
254:80. The formula of the compounds is: (At mass I = 127, O = 16)
(a) IO (b) I 2 O (c) I5 O 2 (d) I 2 O5
135. A compound contains 38.8% C, 16.0% H and 45.2% N. the empirical formula of the compound
would be
(a) CH 3 NH 2 (b) CH3CN (c) C 2 H 5 CN (d) CH 2 NH 2
138. The volume of gas at NTP produced by 100 g of CaCl2 with water
(a) 70 litre (b) 35 litre (c) 17.5 litre (d) 22.4 litre
139. 26 cc of CO 2 are passes over red hot coke. The volume of CO evolved is
(a) 15 cc (b) 10 cc (c) 32 cc (d) 52 cc
140. H 2 evolved at STP on complete reaction of 27 g of Aluminium with excess of aqueous NaOH would
be
(a) 22.4 litres (b) 44.8 litres (c) 67.2 litres (d) 33.6 litres
141. What is the concentrating of nitrate ions if, equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.1 M NaCl are
mixed together
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.2 M (c) 0.05 M (d) 0.25 M
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142. If 5.85 gms of NaCl are dissolved in 90 gms of water, the mole fraction of NaCl is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.019
144. What will be the molarity of solution containing 5g of sodium hydroxide in 250 ml solution.
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 0.1
147. How much of NaOH is required to neutralize 1500 cm3 of 0.1N HCl (At wt. of Na = 23)
(a) 4g (b) 6g (c) 40 g (d) 60 g
148. A mixture has 18g water and 414g ethanol. The mole fraction of water in mixture is (assume ideal
behavior of the mixture)
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.9
150. 171g of cane sugar C12 H 22 O11 is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The molarity of the solution is
(a) 2.0 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 0.5 M (d) 0.25 M
152. The amount of K 2 Cr2 O 7 (eq. wt. 49.04) required to prepare 100ml of its 0.05N solution
(a) 2.4924 g (b) 0.4904 g (c) 1.4712 g (d) 0.2452 g
153. 2.0 molar solution is obtained, when 0.5 mole solute is dissolved in
(a) 250 ml solvent (b) 250 g solvent (c) 250 ml solution (d) 1000 ml solvent
154. How many gram of HCl will be present in 150ml of its 0.52 M solution?
(a) 2.84 gm (b) 5.70 gm (c) 8.50 gm (d) 6.65 gm
156. 36 g water and 828 g ethyl alcohol form an ideal solution. The mole fraction of water in it, is
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.1
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159. What volume of 0.8 M solution contains 0.1 mole of the solute?
(a) 100 ml (b) 125 ml (c) 500 ml (d) 62.5 ml
166. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1N solution is
(a) 4g (b) 1g (c) 2g (d) 10g
168. The molality of 90% weight/volume H 2SO 4 solution is [density = 1.8 gm/ml]
(a) 1.8 (b) 48.4 (c) 9.18 (d) 91.8
170. NaClO solution reacts with H 2SO3 as, NaClO H 2SO 3 NaCl H 2SO 4 . A solution of NaClO used
in the above reaction contained 15g of NaClO per litre. The normality of the solution would be
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.33
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171. Molecular weight of urea is 60. A solution contain 6 gram of urea in one litre is
(a) 1 molar (b) 1.5 molar (c) 0.1 molar (d) 0.01 molar
173. 15 ml of N/10 NaOH solution completely neutralizes 12 ml of H 2SO 4 solution. The normality of
H 2SO 4 solution will be
(a) N/5 (b) N/10 (c) N/8 (d) N
N
174. 8 ml of HCl are required to neutralize 20 ml solution of Na 2 CO3 in water. Normality of Na 2 CO3
10
solution is
(a) 0.40 N (b) 0.040N (c) 4.0 N (d) 1.4 N
175. 5 N H 2SO 4 was diluted from 1 litre to 10 litres. Normality of the solution obtained is
(a) 10 N (b) 5 N (c) 1 N (d) 0.5 N
176. The volume of 0.05M H 2SO 4 required to neutralize 80 ml of 0.13N NaOH will be
(a) 104 ml (b) 52 ml (c) 10.4 ml (d) 26 ml
177. How many grams of H 2SO 4 are needed to neutralize completely 10 litres of ammonia gas (at NTP)?
(a) 21.87 g (b) 49.0 g (c) 24.5 g (d) 98.0 g
178. How many g of copper (at weight = 64) would be displaced from at the copper sulphate solution by
adding 27g of aluminium (at weight = 27)?
(a) 32 (b) 64 (c) 96 (d) 160
179. What is the mole fraction of a solute in its one molal aqueous solution?
(a) 1 (b) 1.8 (c) 18 (d) 0.018
180. 20 g solute is present in 200 mL solvent. The density of solvent is 0.9 g/mL. What is the weight
fraction and weight percent of the solute?
(a) 0.1 and 10 (b) 0.2 and 20 (c) 0.3 and 10 (d) 0.2 and 30
181. To neutralize 200 mL of Na OH 2 solution, we have to add 100 mL of 0.1 M H 2SO 4 solution.
What is the normality of Ba OH 2 ?
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.01 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.1
182. 1 g metal carbonate required 200 mL. of 0.1 HCl for complete neutralization. What is the equivalent
weight of metal carbonate?
(a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 100
184. Calculate the volume of N/100 oxalic acid solution obtained by dissolving 126 g of oxalic acid
(a) 100 litres (b) 300 litres (c) 200 litres (d) 250 litres
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185. 100 cc of 1.2 N add should be dilute to ……in order to prepare its one normal solution
(a) 120 cc (b) 200 cc (c) 240 cc (d) 360 cc
N
186. What is the volume of water that should be added to 150 mL of oxalic acid to prepare a solution
2
N
of oxalic acid?
10
(a) 750 c.c. (b) 400 c.c. (c) 800 c.c. (d) 60 c.c.
187. A sample of calcium carbonate is 80% pure. 25 g of this sample is treated with excess of HCl. How
much volume of CO 2 will be obtained at N.T.P
(a) 4.48 litre (b) 5.6 litre (c) 11.2 litre (d) 2.24 litre
188. When axcess of CaCO3 is treated with 100 mL of HCl solution, the CO 2 gas obtained was found to
be 1.12 litre, (at N.T.P.). What is the normality of HCl?
(a) 0.2 N (b) 1N (c) 0.1N (d) 2N
189. How many g of copper (at weight = 64) would be displaced from at the copper suphate solution by
adding 27 g of aluminium (at weight = 27)?
(a) Sulphate (b) Nitrate
(c) Hydrogen phosphate (d) Carbonate
192. At the same temperature and pressure which sample contains the same number of moles of particles
as 1 litre of O2 (g) ?
(a) 1 L Ne (g) (b) 2L N 2 (g) (c) 0.5 L SO2 (g) (d) 1 L H 2 O(g)
193. Which compounds has the empirical formula with the greatest mass?
(a) C2 H6 (b) C4 H10 (c) C 5 H10 (d) C6 H6
194. Which of the following combinations of elements of given atomic numbers can lead to a compound
with a chemical formula of XY3 ?
(a) 2 and 6 (b) 5 and 15 (c) 3 and 18 (d) 13 and 17
196. Which sample at STP has the same number of molecules as 5 litres of NO 2 (g) at STP?
(a) 5 gram of H 2 (g) (b) 5 litres of CH 4 (g)
(c) 5 moles of O2 (g) (d) 5 1023 molecules of CO 2 (g)
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198. A solution of H 2SO 4 is 80% be weight, having specific gravity 1.73 its normality is
(a) 18.0 (b) 28.2 (c) 1.0 (d) 10.0
199. Given 1 dm3 of 0.15 MHCl and 1 dm3 of 0.40 MHCl. What is the maximum volume of 0.25 MHCl
which can be made by directly mixing the two solutions without adding water.
(a) 1 dm3 (b) 2 dm3 (c) 0.667 dm3 (d) 1.667 dm3
200. Calculate the mass of Litium that contains same number of atoms as present in 8g of Magnesium.
Atomic masses of lithium and magnesium are 7 and 24 respectively.
(a) 8g (b) 3g (c) 7g (d) 2.3 g
201. A solution containing Na 2 CO3 NaOH required 300 ml of 0.1 NHCl using phenolphthalein
indicator. Methyl orange is than added to the above titrated solution and a further 25 ml of 0.2 N HCl
is required. What is the amount of NaOH present in the solution.
(a) 0.8 g (b) 1.0 g (c) 1.5 g (d) 2.0 g
203. A certain quantity of gas occupied a volume of 0.1L, when collected over water at 10o C and a
pressure 0.90 atm. The same gas occupied a volume of 0.080 L at STP in dry conditions. Calculate
the aqueous tension at 10o C
(a) 0.061 (b) 0.051 (c) 0.071 (d) 0.081
204. A certain sample of concentrated hydrochloric acid contains 50% HCl by mass and gas density 1.20
gcm 3 . What is the molarity of this sample?
(a) 16.4 M (b) 8.2 M (c) 32.8 M (d) 13.4 M
205. 6.02 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution
is
(a) 0.001 M (b) 0.01 M (c) 0.02 M (d) 0.1 M
206. Three contains A, B and C of equal volume contain N 2 , NO 2 and CO 2 respectively at the same
temperature and pressure, The ascending order of their masses is
(a) A, C, B (b) C, A, B (c) B, C, A (d) C, B, A
LEVEL-3
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2. Two flasks of equal volumes are evacuated, then one is filled with gas A and other with gas B at the
same temperature and pressure. The weight of B was found to be 0.80 gm while the weight of gas A
is found to be 1.40 gm. What is the weight of one molecule of B in compared to one molecule of A
(A) 1.40 times as heavy as A (B) 0.40 times as heavy as A
(C) 0.57 times as heavy as A (D) 0.80 times as heavy as A
3. On reduction with hydrogen, 3.6 g of an oxide of metal left 3.2 g of the metal. If the atomic weight of
the metal is 64, the simplest formula of the oxide would be
(A) M2O3 (B) M2O (C) MO (D) MO2
4. A certain compound has the molecular formula X4 O6. if 10 g of X4O6 has 5.72 g of X, atomic mass of
X is :
(A) 32 amu (B) 37 amu (C) 42amu (D) 98 amu
5. If 224 ml of a triatomic gas has a mass of 1 g at 273 K and 1 atm pressure, then the mass of one atom
is
(A) 55.31023 g (B) 0.5531023 g (C) 5.531023 g (D) 5531023 g
6. The weight of 350mL of a diatomic gas at 00C and 2 atm pressure is 1g. The wt of one atom is
16 32
(A)16 NA (B) 32 NA (C) (D)
NA NA
7. 25.4 g of iodine and 14.2g of chlorine are made to react completely to yield a mixture of ICl and ICl3.
Calculate the ratio of moles of ICl and ICl3.
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:3 (D) 2:3
8. A mixture contains FeSO4 and Fe 2 SO 4 3 . If both FeSO4 and Fe 2 SO 4 3 provide equal number of
sulphate ions then, the ratio of Fe2 and Fe3 ions in mixture is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 :3 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 2
9. In what volume ratio a 0.36 M HNO 3 solution should be mixed with another 0.15 M HNO 3 solution
to obtain a 0.24 M HNO 3 solution?
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 4 : 9 (D) 3 : 4
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15. The volume of 3M HCl required to completely react with 1.431g of sodium carbonate
(A) 10 ml (B) 9 ml (C) 8 ml (D) 4.5 ml
16. In which of the following pairs do 1 g of each have an equal number of molecules?
(A) N2O and CO (B) N2 and C3O2 (C) N2 and CO (D) NO2 and CO2
0
17. How many spherical colloidal oil particles 20 A in radius can be made from a spherical oil drop
whose radius is 2 microns?
(A) 109 (B) 106 (C) 104 (D) 102
18. A 10 g sample of KClO 3 , gave on complete decomposition , 2.24 L of oxygen at NTP. What is the
percentage purity of the sample of potassium chlorate?
(A) 61.2 (B) 81.6 (C) 96.6 (D) 24.6
19. A 0.65 M BaCl2 solution is prepared by dissolving pure solid BaCl2 .2H 2 O in water. Determine the
mass of hydrated salt dissolved per milliliter of solution and mass of anhydrous BaCl2 present per
milliliter of solution. Molar masses are : Ba = 137, Cl = 35.5.
(A) 0.158 g, 0.135 g (B) 0.226 g, 0.135 g (C) 0.248 g, 0.163 g (D) 1.1 g, 2.2 g
20. What volume of a 1.36 M HCl solution should be added to a 200 mL 2.4 M HCl solution and finally
diluted to 500 mL so that molarity of final HCl solution becomes 1.24 M.
(A) 29.2 mL (B) 102.94 mL (C) 46.34 mL (D) 9.4 mL
21. Potassium salt of benzoic acid C6 H 5 COOK can be made by the action of potassium permanganate
on toluene as follows:
C 6 H 5 C H 3 K M nO 4
C 6 H 5 C O O K M nO 2 K O H H 2 O
If the yield of potassium benzonate can’t realistically be expected to be more than 71%, what is the
minimum number of grams of toluene needed to achieve this yield while producing 11.5 g of
C6 H 5 COOK ?
(A) 6.23 (B) 9.3 (C) 4.23 (D) 5.63
22. A mixture of CuSO 4 .5H 2 O and MgSO 4 .7H 2 O is heated until all the water is driven-off. If 5.0 gm
of a mixture gives 3g of anhydrous salts, what is the percentage by mass of CuSO 4 .5H 2 O in the
original mixture?
(A) 44% (B) 64% (C) 74% (D) 94%
23. Aspirin C9 H 8O 4 , is prepared by heating salicylic acid, C7 H 6 O3 with acetic anhydride, C4 H 6 O3 . The
other product is acetic acid, C 2 H 4 O 2 , C 7 H 6 O 3 C 4 H 6 O 3
C 9 H 8 O 4 C 2 H 4 O 2 , when 2.00 g of
salicylic acid is heated with 4.00 g of acetic anhydride? If the actual yield of aspirin is 2.1 g, what is
the percentage yield?
(A) 80.7% (B) 40.7% (C) 25.2 % (D) 43.9%
24. An element X forms an iodide XI3 and a chloride XCl3 . The iodide is quantitatively converted to the
chloride when it is heated in a stream of chlorine
2X I 3 3C l 2
2 XC l 3 3l 2
If 0.5000 g of Xl3 is treated, 0.2360 g of XCl3 is obtained. Calculate the atomic weight of the
element X.
(A) 246 (B) 139 (C) 180 (D) 196
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25. A solution of palmitic acid in benzene contains 4.24 g of acid per litre. When this solution is dropped
on a surface, benzene gets evaporated and palmitic acid forms a unimolecular film on the surface. If
we wish to cover an area of 500cm 2 with unimolecular film, what volume of solution should be
used? The area covered by one palmitic acid molecule may be taken as 0.21nm 2 .
Mol. Wt. of palmitic acid = 256.
(A) 4.38 10 5 (B) 2.4 105 (C) 4 10 41 (D) 5.6 105
26. 6.0 g of a sample containing CuCl2 and CuBr2 is dissolved in 100 mL water. A 10 mL portion of this
solution on treatment with AgNO3 solution results in complete precipitation of Cl and Br giving
0.9065 gram of precipitate. The precipitate thus obtained was shaken with dilute solution of NaBr
where all AgCl gets converted into AgBr. Mass of the new precipitate was found to be 1.005 g.
Determine % mass of CuCl2 and CuBr2 in the original sample.
(A) 25 %, 58% (B) 50%, 50% (C) 75%, 25% (D) 20%, 80%
27. An element (X) reacts with hydrogen leading to formation of a class of compounds that is analogous
to hydrocarbons. 5.00 g of X forms 5.625 g of a mixture of two compounds of X XH 4 and X 2 H 6
in the molar ratio of 2:1. Determine the molar mass of X.
(A) 28 (B) 58 (C) 72 (D) 83
28. A 2.00 g portion of a sample containing NaBr and Na 2SO 4 was dissolved and diluted to 250 mL.
One fifth aliquot portions were titrated by silver nitrate, an average of 42.5 mL solution being
required for the aliquot portion. In standardization 1.00 mL AgNO3 is found to be equimolar to
0.0125 g KBr. Calculate percentage of Br in sample.
(A) 42% (B) 52% (C) 33% (D) 12%
29. The molecular mass of an organic acid was determined by the study of its barium salt. 4.290 g of salt
was quantitatively converted to free acid by the reaction with 21.64 mL of 0.477 M H 2SO 4 . The
barium salt was found to have two mole of water of hydration per Ba 2 ion and acid is mono basic.
What is molecular weight of anhydrous acid?
(A) 122 (B) 142 (C) 108 (D) 110
30. What volume of 0.010 M NaOH aq is required to react completely with 30 g of an aqueous acetic
acid solution in which mole fraction of acetic acid is 0.15?
(A) 108.55 lt (B) 18.55 lt (C) 34.66 lt (D) 42 lt
31. A mixture of ethane C 2 H 6 and ethene C 2 H 4 occupies 40 litre at 1.00 atm and at 400 K. The
mixture reacts completely with 130 g of O 2 to produce CO 2 and H 2 O . Assuming ideal gas behavior,
calculate the mole fraction of C 2 H 4 and C 2 H 6 in the mixture.
(A) 0.34, 0.66 (B) 0.66, 0.34 (C) 0.50, 0.50 (D) 0.20, 0.80
32. A crystalline hydrated salt on being rendered anhydrous, looses 45.6% of its weight. The percentage
composition of anhydrous salt is: Al = 10.5% , K = 15.1% , S = 24.8% and O = 49.6%. The
empirical formula of the crystalline salt.
(A) KAlS2 O8 .12H 2 O (B) K 2 Al2S2 O8 .12H 2 O
(C) KAl2S2 O8 .12H 2 O (D) None of these
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COMPREHENSIVE TYPE
PASSAGE-1
The terms mole first used by Ostwald in 1896 refers to the ratio of molecular weight of molecule to mass of
one molecule of substance in gm. Also, 1 mole of gaseous compound occupies 22.4 litre at NTP and contains
6.022 x 1023 molecules of gas.
3. A substance contains 3.4% sulphur. If it contains two atoms of sulphur per molecule the molecular
weight of substance will be:
(A) 941 (B) 1882 (C) 470.5 (D) 1411.5
4. The volume of air at NTP required for burning 12 g carbon completely is: (Assuming air contains
20% oxygen).
(A) 22.4 litre (B) 112 litre (C) 44.8 litre (D) 50 litre
PASSAGE-2
The concentration of solutions can be expressed in number of ways such as Molarity, Molality, Mole
fraction, % weight, % by volume % by strength and many others. All these are inter-convertible if certain
data like density of solution, molecular mass of solute and solvent are known. Also, addition of water to a
solution changes all these terms, though a change in temperature does not change molality, mole fraction and
% by weight terms.
1. A 6.90 M KOH solution in water has 30% by weight of KOH. The density of KOH solution is:
(A) 1.288 g/mL (B) 12.88 g/mL (C) 0.1288 g/ml (D) None of these
2. Two litres of NH3 at 30o C and 0.20 atm is neutralized by 134 mL of acid H2SO4. The molarity of
H2SO4 is:
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.24 (C) 0.06 (D) 0.03
3. The volume of water required to make 0.20M solution from 1600 ml of 0.2050 M solution
(A) 40 ml (B) 80 ml (C) 120 ml (D) 180 ml
PASSAGE-3
The term mole was introduced by Ostwald in 1896. In Latin word ‘moles’ meaning heap or pile. A mole is
defined as the number of atoms in 12.00 g of carbon – 12. The number of atoms in 12 g of carbon -12 has
been found experimentally to be 6.022 1023 . This number is also known as Avogadro’s number named in
honour of Amedeo Avogadro (1776 - 1856).
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The mass of one mole atoms of any element is exactly equal to the atomic mass in gram (gram atomic mass)
of that element. One mole of a gas occupies 22.4 litre at S.T.P. Atomic mass unit is the unit of atomic mass.
1amu 1.66 1024 g
3. If Avogadro’s number is 1 1023 mol 1 then the mass of one atom of oxygen would be:
16
(A) amu (B) 16 6.02amu (C) 16 amu (D) 16 10 23 amu
6.02
PASSAGE-4
The concentration of solutions can be expressed in number of ways such that Normality, Molarity, Molality,
Mole fractions, Strength , % by weight , % by volume and % by strength. The molarity of ionic compound is
usually expressed as formality because we use formula weight of ionic compound. Addition of water to a
solution changes all these terms, however increase in temperature does not change molality, mole fraction
and % by weight terms.
1. The weight of AgCl precipitated by adding 5.77 g AgNO3 to 4.77g NaCl in a solution is:
(A) 4.88g (B) 5.77 g (C) 4.77 g (D) None of these
INTEGER TYPE
3. A sample of metal chloride weighing 0.22 g required 0.51g of AgNO3 to precipitate the chloride
completely. The specific heat of the metal is 0.057. Find out the valency of metal, if the symbol of
the metal is ‘M’. (Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16, Cl = 35.5) [Dulong petit’s law says approximate atomic
weight specific heat 6.4 ]
4. A complex compound of iron has molar mass = 2800 and it contain 8 % iron by weight. The number
of iron atoms in one formula unit of complex compound is
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7. The number of moles of fullerene C 60 (a soccer ball structure molecule discovered in 1980) in
1.44 kg fullerene are
9. Haemoglobin contains 0.25% iron by weight, the molecular weight of Haemoglobin is 89600.
calculate the number of Iron atoms per molecule of Haemoglobin.
10. 1g of dry green algae absorbs 4.7 103 mole of CO2 per hour by photosynthesis. If the fixed carbon
atoms were all stored after photosynthesis as starch, C6 H10O5 n , how long would it take for the
algae to double their own weight assuming photosynthesis takes place at a constant rate?
Answer should be reported to the nearest integer value.
1. Which of the following concentration factor is affected by change in temperature ? [AIEEE 2002]
(A) Molarity (B) Molality (C) Mole fraction (D) Weight
3. In an organic compound of molar mass 108 g/mol C, H and N atoms are present in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by
weight. Molecular formula can be : [AIEEE 2002]
(A) C6H8N2 (B) C7H10N (C) C5H6N3 (D) C4H18N3
4. What volume of hydrogen gas at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 gm of
elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen?
[AIEEE 2003]
(A) 44.8 lit. (B) 22.4 lit. (C) 89.6 lit. (D) 67.2 lit.
5. 6.02 ×1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution
is
[AIEEE 2004]
(A) 0.001 M (B) 0.01 M (C) 0.02 M (D) 0.1 M
6. If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass
unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will [AIEEE 2005]
(A) decrease twice (B) increase two fold
(C) remain unchanged (D) be a function of the molecular mass of the substance
7. Density of a 2.05M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/ml. The molality of the solution is :
[AIEEE-2006]
(A) 1.14 mol/kg (B) 3.28 mol/kg (C) 2.28 mol/kg (D) 0.44 mol/kg
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8. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will contains 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?
(A) 0.02 (B) 3.125 × 10 -2 (C) 1.25 × 10 -2 (D) 2.5 × 10 – 2 [AIEEE-2006]
9. The density (in g/mL) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% by mass will be
[AIEEE-2007]
(A) 1.22 (B) 1.45 (C) 1.64 (D) 1.88
11. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol, CH3OH is supplied. What is the mole fraction of
methyl alcohol in the solution
(A) 0.86 (B) 0.086 (C) 0.043 (D) 1.0 [AIEEE-2007]
12. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea ( Mol.Mass = 60u ) in 1000 g of water
is 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution is
(A) 1.02 M (B) 0.50 M (C) 2.05 M (D) 1.78 M [AIEEE-2007]
13. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 mL of 0.5 M HCl with 250 mL of 2M HCl will be
(A) 1.75 M (B) 0.975 M (C) 0.875 M (D) 1.78 M [AIEEE-2013]
14. Number of atoms in the following samples of substances is the largest in [JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) 4.0 g of hydrogen (b) 70.0g of chlorine
(c) 127.0 g of iodine (d) 48.0 g of magnesium
15. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in a molecule of heavy water are respectively
[JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) 8, 10, 11 (b) 10, 10, 10 (c) 10, 11, 10 (d) 11, 10, 10
16. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion 0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO2. The empirical
formula of the hydrocarbon is [JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) C2H4 (b) C3H4 (c) C6H5 (d) C7H8
17. The density of 3M solution of sodium chloride is 1.252 g mL–1. The molality of the solution will be
(molar mass, NaCl = 58.5 g mol–1) [JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) 2.60 m (b) 2.18 m (c) 2.79 m (d) 3.00 m
18. 10 mL of 2M NaOH solution is added to 200 mL of 0.5 M of NaOH solution. What is the final
concentration? [JEE Main Online 2013]
(a) 0.57 M (b) 5.7 M (c) 11.4 M (d) 1.14 M
19. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of
number of their molecule is [JEE Main Offline 2014]
(a) 1:4 (b) 7:32 (c) 1:8 (d) 3:16
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20. The amount of BaSO4 formed upon mixing 100ml of 20.8% BaCl2 solution with 50 ml of 9.8%
H2SO4 solution will be
(Ba = 137, Cl = 35.5, S = 32, H = 1 and 0 = 16) [JEE Main Online 2014]
(a) 23.3 g (b) 11.65 g (c) 30.6 g (d) 33.2 g
21. Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (Mol. Wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density 1.12
g/ml. The molarity of the solution is [JEE Main Online 2014]
(a) 1.00M (b) 2.00 M (c) 2.50 M (d) 4.00 M
22. A gaseous compound of nitrogen and hydrogen contains 12.5% (by mass) of hydrogen. The density
of the compound relative to hydrogen is 16. The molecular formula of the compound is
[JEE Main Online 20014]
(a) NH2 (b) N3H (c) NH3 (d) N2H4
23. 3g of activated charcoal was added to 50 ml of acetic acid solution (0.06M) in a flask. After an hour
it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 M. The amount of acetic acid
adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is [JEE Main Offline 2015]
(a) 18 mg (b) 36 mg (c) 42 mg (d) 54 mg
24. A 2B 3C AB2C3
Reaction of 6.0g of A, 6 1023 atoms of B and 0.036 mol of C yields 4.8 g of compound AB2C3 . If
the atomic mass of A & C are 60 and 80 amu respectively the atomic mass of B is (Avogadro No
6 1023 ) [JEE Main Online 2015]
(a) 70 amu (b) 60 amu (c) 50 amu (d) 40 amu
25. A sample of a hydrate of barium chloride weighing 61g was heated until the water of hydration is
removed. The dried sample weighed 52g. The formula of the hydrated salt is (atomic mass of
Ba 137 amu, Cl = 35.5 amu) [JEE Main Online 2015]
(a) BaCl2 .H 2O (b) BaCl2.2H2O (c) BaCl2. 3H2O (d) BaCl2.4H2O
26. An organic compound contains C, H and S. The minimum molecular weight of the compound
containing 8% sulphur is: (atomic weight of S = 32 amu) [JEE Main Online 2016]
(a) 200 g mol-1 (b) 400 g mol-1 (c) 600 g mol-1 (d) 300 g mol-1
27. 5 L of an alkane requires 25 L of oxygen for its complete combustion. If all volumes are measured at
constant temperature and pressure, the alkane is: [JEE Main Online 2016]
(a) Ethane (b) Propane (c) Butane (d) Isobutane
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ANSWER KEY
LEVEL-1
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (D)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (A)
16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B)
26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (B)
36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (D)
46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (A)
51. (D) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (D)
56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (A)
66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (A)
LEVEL-2
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41.(d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (d)
101. (d) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (d)
111. (a) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (c)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (b) 129. (b) 130. (a)
131. (a) 132. (a) 133. (d) 134. (d) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (a) 138. (b) 139. (d) 140. (d)
141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (c)
151. (d) 152. (d) 153. (c) 154. (a) 155. (c) 156. (d) 157. (c) 158. (c) 159. (b) 160. (d)
161. (b) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (a) 165. (d) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (d) 169. (b) 170. (b)
171. (c) 172. (c) 173. (c) 174. (b) 175. (d) 176. (a) 177. (a) 178. (c) 179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (d) 182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (c) 185. (a) 186. (d) 187. (a) 188. (b) 189. (b) 190. (d)
191. (b) 192. (c) 193. (b) 194. (d) 195. (a) 196. (b) 197. (b) 198. (b) 199. (d) 200. (d)
201. (b) 202. (c) 203. (c) 204. (a) 205. (b) 206. (a)
103 PACE IIT & MEDICAL: Mumbai / Delhi & NCR / Goa / Akola / Kolkata / Nashik / Pune / Bokaro / Dubai
IJSO CHEMISTRY
LEVEL-3
SINGLE ANSWER CORRECT
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (B)
16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (B)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B)
COMPREHENSIVE TYPE
PASSAGE – I 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B
PASSAGE – II 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A
PASSAGE – III 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. A
PASSAGE – IV 1. A 2. A
104 PACE IIT & MEDICAL: Mumbai / Delhi & NCR / Goa / Akola / Kolkata / Nashik / Pune / Bokaro / Dubai
The existence of atoms has been proposed since the time of early Indian and Greek philosophers
(400 B.C.) who were of the view that atoms are the fundamental building blocks of matter. According to
them, the continued subdivisions of matter would ultimately yield atoms which would not be further divisible.
The word ‘atom’ has been derived from the Greek word ‘a-tomio’ which means ‘uncutable’ or ‘non-divisible’.
These earlier ideas were mere speculations and there was no way to test them experimentally. These ideas
remained dormant for a very long time and were revived again by scientists in the nineteenth century.
In this unit we start with the experimental observations made by scientists towards the end of nineteenth
and beginning of twentieth century.
All the objects around you, this book, your pen or pencil and things of nature such as rocks, water
and plant constitute the matter of the universe. Matter is any substance which occupies space and has
mass.
Dalton, in 1808, proposed that matter was made up of extremely small, indivisible particles called atoms.
(In Greek atom means which cannot be cut). This concept was accepted for many years.
Drawbacks:
1. The discovery of isotopes and isobars showed that atom of same element may have different
atomic mass (isotopes) and atom of different kinds may have same atomic masses (isobars).
2. Atoms can be split into more fundamental particles: electrons, protons and neutrons.
Dalton’s atomic theory was able to explain the law of conservation of mass, law of constant
composition and law of multiple proportions very successfully. However, it failed to explain the results of
many experiments; for example, it was known that substances like glass or ebonite when rubbed with silk
or fur generate electricity. Many different kinds of sub-atomic particles were discovered in the twentieth
century. However, in this section we will talk about three particles, namely electron, proton and neutron.
Michael Faraday showed that chemical changes occur when electricity is passed though an
electrolyte. He stated that electricity is made up of particles called atoms of electricity. G.J Stoney
suggested the name of electron for the atoms of electricity. However, the real credit for the discovery of
electrons goes to J.J. Thomson. In mid 1850s many scientists mainly Faraday began to study electrical
discharge in partially evacuated tubes, known as cathode ray discharge tubes. A cathode ray tube is
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made of glass containing two thin pieces of metal, called electrodes, sealed in it. The electrical discharge
through the gases could be observed only at very low pressures and at very high voltages. The pressure of
different gases could be adjusted by evacuation.
When sufficiently high voltage is applied across the electrodes, current starts flowing as a stream of
particles moving in the tube from the negative electrode (cathode) to the positive electrode (anode). These
were called cathode rays or cathode ray particles. The flow of current from cathode to anode was further
checked by making a hole in the anode and coating the tube behind anode with phosphorescent material
zinc sulphide. When these rays, after passing through anode, strike the zinc sulphide coating, a bright spot
on the coating is developed (same thing happens in a television set)
(i) The cathode rays start from cathode and move towards the anode.
(ii) These rays themselves are not visible but their behaviour can be observed with the help of certain
kind of materials (fluorescent or phosphorescent) which glow when hit by them. Television picture
tubes are cathode ray tubes and television pictures result due to fluorescence on the television
screen coated with certain fluorescent or phosphorescent materials.
(iii) In the absence of electrical or magnetic field, these rays travel in straight lines
(iv) In the presence of electric or magnetic field, the behaviour of cathode rays is similar to that
expected from negatively charged particles, suggesting that the cathode rays consist of negatively
charged particles, called electrons.
(v) The characteristics of cathode rays (electrons) do not depend upon the material of electrodes and
the nature of the gas present in the cathode ray tube. Thus, we can conclude that electrons are
basic constituent of all the atoms.
(vi) Cathode rays produce heating effect. When these rays are made to strike on a metal foil, the latter
gets heated.
(vii) Cathode rays produce X-rays when they strike on surface of hard metals such as tungsten, copper
molybdenum etc.
(viii) Cathode rays can pass through thin foils of metals like aluminium. However, these are stopped if
the foil is quite thick.
(ix) Cathode rays ionize the gas through which they pass.
J. J. Thomson (1856–1940):
Sir J.J. Thomson confirmed these findings in 1897. Thomson performed a series of
e
experiments in which he was able to determine the charge/mass ratio of the particles that make up
m
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the cathode ray by measuring the deflection of the rays with varying magnetic and electric fields. Thomson
performed the same experiments using different metals for the cathode and anode as well as different
gases inside the tube.
e
This value is found to be 1.76 1011 coulomb per kg.
m
The e/m ratio for electron was found to be same irrespective of the nature of cathode and nature of
gas taken in discharge tube. This shows that the electrons are universal constituent of all matter.
R.A. Millikan (1868-1953) devised a method known as oil drop experiment (1906-14), to determine
the charge on the electrons. Millikan concluded that the magnitude of electrical charge, q, on the droplets is
always an integral multiple of the electrical charge, e,
That is, q = n e, where n = 1, 2, 3............... That means charge is quantised.
–19
He found that the value of e is –1.6 ×10 C. The present accepted value of electrical charge is
–19
– 1.6022 ×10 C.
The mass of the electron (me) was determined by combining these results with Thomson’s value of e/m
ratio.
Calculation of mass of an electron: With the help of the experiments discussed above, it is possible to
calculate the values of e/m ratio and also the charge (e) on the electron. The mass (m) of the electron can
be calculated as follows.
e (1.60 10 19 C ) 28 31
Mass of electron (m) 9.10 10 g 9.10 10 kg .
e/m (1.76 108 Cg 1 )
An electron may be defined as: A fundamental particle present in an atom, which carries one unit
negative charge (1.60 10 19 C ) and negligible mass (9.1 10 28 g ) which is 1/1837 of the mass of an
atom of hydrogen.
We know that an atom is electrically neutral, if it contains negatively charged electrons it must also
contain some positively charged particles. This was confirmed by Goldstein in his discharge tube
experiment with perforated cathode. On passing high voltage between the electrodes of a discharge tube it
was found that some rays were coming from the side of the anode which passed through the holes in the
cathode. These anode rays (canal rays) consisted of positively charged particles formed by ionization of
gas molecules by the cathode rays. The charge to mass ratio (e/m value) of positively charge particles was
found to be maximum when the discharge tube was filled with hydrogen gas as hydrogen is the lightest
element. e/m varies with the nature of gas taken in the discharge tube. The positive particles are positive
residues of the gas left when the gas is ionized.
The neutral charge particle, neutron was discovered by James Chadwick by bombarding boron or
beryllium with –particles.
9 4
4 Be 2 6 C12 0 n1
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Characteristics of the three fundamental particles are:
The electron and proton have equal, but opposite, electric charges while the neutron is uncharged.
We know the fundamental particles of the atom. Now let us see, how these particles are arranged in
an atom to suggest a model of the atom.
J.J. Thomson, in 1904, proposed that there was an equal and opposite positive charge enveloping
the electrons in a matrix. This model is called the plum – pudding model after a type of Victorian dessert in
which bits of plums were surrounded by matrix of pudding.
electron
Positive sphere
This model could not satisfactorily explain the results of scattering experiment carried out by Rutherford
who worked with Thomson.
– Particles emitted by radioactive substance were shown to be dipositive Helium ions (He ++)
having a mass of 4 units and 2 units of positive charge.
Rutherford allowed a narrow beam of –particles to fall on a very thin gold foil of thickness of the order of
0.0004 cm and determined the subsequent path of these particles with the help of a zinc sulphide
fluorescent screen. The zinc sulphide screen gives off a visible flash of light when struck by an particle,
as ZnS has the remarkable property of converting kinetic energy of particle into visible light.
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i) Majority of the –particles pass straight through the gold strip with little or no deflection.
ii) Some –particles are deflected from their path and diverge.
iii) Very few –particles are deflected backwards through angles greater than 90 .
iv) Some were even scattered in the opposite direction at an angle of 180 [ Rutherford was very
much surprised by it and remarked that “It was as incredible as if you fired a 15–inch shell at a
piece of tissue paper and it came back and hit you”]. There is far less difference between air and
bullet than there is between gold atoms and -particles assuming of course that density of a gold
atom is evenly distributed.
1. The fact that most of the - particles passed straight through the metal foil indicates the most part
of the atom is empty.
2. The fact that few - particles are deflected at large angles indicates the presence of a heavy
positively charge body , for such large deflections to occur - particles must have come closer to or
collided with a massive positively charged body.
3. The fact that one in 20,000 have deflected at 180° backwards indicates that volume occupied by
this heavy positively charged body is very small in comparison to total volume of the atom.
On the basis of the above observation, and having realized that the rebounding -particles had met
something even more massive than themselves inside the gold atom, Rutherford proposed an
atomic model as follows.
i) All the protons (+ve charge) and the neutrons (neutral charge) i.e nearly the total mass of an atom
is present in a very small region at the centre of the atom. The atom’s central core is called nucleus.
ii) The size of the nucleus is very small in comparison to the size of the atom. Diameter of the nucleus
is about 10–13cm while the atom has a diameter of the order of 10–8 cm. So, the size of atom is 105
times more than that of nucleus.
iii) Most of the space outside the nucleus is empty.
iv) The electrons, equal in number to the net nuclear positive charge, revolve around the nucleus with
fast speed in various circular orbits.
v) The centrifugal force arising due to the fast speed of an electron balances the coulombic force of
attraction of the nucleus and the electron remains stable in its path. Thus according to him atom
consists of two parts (A) nucleus and (B) extra nuclear part.
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:
1. Position of electrons: The exact positions of the electrons from the nucleus are not mentioned.
2. Stability of the atom: Neils Bohr pointed out that Rutherford’s atom
should be highly unstable. According to the law of electro–dynamics,
any charged particle under acceleration should continuously lose
energy. The electron should therefore, continuously emit radiation
and lose energy. As a result of this a moving electron will come
closer and closer to the nucleus and after passing through a spiral
path, it should ultimately fall into the nucleus.
It was calculated that the electron should fall into the nucleus in less than 10 –8 sec. But it is known
that electrons keep moving outside the nucleus. To solve this problem Neils Bohr proposed an improved
form of Rutherford’s atomic model. Before going into the details of Neils Bohr model we would like to
introduce you some important atomic terms.
(a) Atomic Number (Z): The atomic number of an element is the number of protons contained in the
nucleus of the atom of that element.
(b) Nucleons: Protons and neutrons are present in a nucleus. So, these fundamental particles are
collectively known as nucleons.
(c) Mass Number (A): The total number of protons and neutrons i.e, the number of nucleons present
in the nucleus is called the mass number of the element.
(d) Nuclide: Various species of atoms in general. A nuclide has specific value of atomic number and
mass number.
(e) Isotopes: Atoms of the element with same atomic number but different mass number e.g. 1H1, 1H2,
3
1H . There are three isotopes of hydrogen.
32 32
(f) Isobars: Atoms having the same mass number but different atomic numbers, e.g. 15P and 16S
are called isobars.
(g) Isotones: Atoms having the same number of neutrons but different number of protons or mass
number, e.g. 6C14, 8O16, 7N15 are called isotones.
(h) Isoelectronic: Atoms, molecules or ions having same number of electrons are isoelectronic e.g.
N2,CO, CN–.
(i) Isosters : Molecules having same number of atoms and also same number of electrons are called
isosters.
e.g., (i) N2 and CO ii) CO2 and N2O iii) HCl and F2
1
(j) Atomic mass unit: Exactly equal to of the mass of 6C12 atom
12
1 amu = 1.66 10–27 kg, If it is converted to energy then E= 931.5 MeV
(k) Isodiapheres: Atoms having same difference between neutrons & protons are called isodiapheres.
They have same value of N - Z or A - 2Z
238 234
Example: i) 92 U & 90Th ii) 13 H & 7
3 Li
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A wave is a sort of disturbance which originates from some vibrating source and travels outward as
a continuous sequence of alternating crests and troughs. Every wave has five important characteristics,
namely, wavelength ( ), frequency ( ), velocity (C), wave number and amplitude (A).
Crest Crest
Ordinary light rays, X–rays, –rays, etc. are called electromagnetic radiations because similar waves can
be produced by moving a charged body in a magnetic field or a magnet in an electric field. These
radiations have wave characteristics and do not require any medium for their propagation.
i) Wave length ( ): The distance between two neighbouring troughs or crests is known as
wavelength. It is denoted by and is expressed in cm, m, nanometers (1nm=10–9m) or Angstrom
(1Å=10–10m); 1 micron ( ) 10 6 m, 1 milli micron ( m ) 10 9 m 1 pm 10 12 m.
ii) Frequency ( ): The frequency of a wave is the number of times a wave passes through a given
point in a medium in one second. It is denoted by (nu) and is expressed in cycles per second (cps)
or hertz (Hz) 1Hz = 1cps.
1 c
The frequency of a wave is inversely proportional to its wave length ( ) or =
iii) Velocity: The distance travelled by the wave in one second is called its velocity. It is denoted by c
c
and is expressed in cm sec–1. c= or =
iv) Wave number : It is defined as number of wavelengths per cm. It is denoted by and is
1
expressed in cm–1. = (or) =
c
v) Amplitude: It is the height of the crest or depth of the trough of a wave and is denoted by a. It
determines the intensity or brightness of the beam of light & is also expressed in the unit of length
Ex.1 A source of sound velocity 330 m s produces waves in the frequency range 500 Hz to
6600 Hz . Find the wavelength range of sound produced
Ans: V . 330 m s
V 330 V 330
max 0.66 m min 0.05m
min 500 max 6600
Ex.2 Find the distance traveled by a wave of frequency 20 KHz in 2 minutes if its wavelength is 1.5 cm
Ans: V . 1.5 10 2 m 20 10 3 Hz 300 m s distance v t 300 120 s 36 km
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When a black body is heated, it emits thermal radiations of different wavelengths or frequency. To
explain these radiations, Max Planck put forward a theory known as Planck’s quantum theory. The main
points of quantum theory are
i) Substances radiate or absorb energy discontinuously in the form of small packets or bundles of
energy.
ii) The smallest packet of energy is called quantum. In case of light the quantum is known as photon.
iii) The energy of a quantum is directly proportional to the frequency of the radiation .E (or) E = h
were is the frequency of radiation and h is Planck’s constant having the value 6.626 10–27
nhc
v) Energy of photons can also be represented by Joules . Where,
n : number of photons
34
h : 6.626 10 J s.
C 3 108 m s
In eV units,
12400 19
E photon eV where, 1eV 1.6 10 Joules
in A
Wave theory was given by C. Huygens. In 1856, James Clark Maxwell stated that light, X-rays,
-rays and heat etc. emit energy continuously in the form of radiations or waves and the energy is called
radiant energy. These waves are associated with electric and magnetic fields and are, therefore, known
as electromagnetic waves (or radiations). A few important characteristics of these waves are listed:
(ii) The radiations consist of electric and magnetic fields which oscillate perpendicular to each other
and also perpendicular to the direction in which the radiations propagate.
(iii) All the electromagnetic waves travel with the velocity of light (3.0 108 ms 1 ) .
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The complete range of the electromagnetic waves is known as electromagnetic spectrum. It may be
defined as: The arrangement of different electromagnetic radiations in order of increasing wavelength or
decreasing frequency.
Ex.3 Find the energy range of photons belonging to the visible region Given:
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C C
(i) 15
6000 A (ii) 1200 A
0.5 10 2.5 1015
Ex.5 Find the number of photons required to raise the temperature of 5 g of water from 20 C to 22 C ,
given that water has a specific heat capacity of 4.2 J g C and that 5000 A . It is also given that
photon energy is 80% utilized to heat the water
1.32 10 20 photons
Bohr developed a model for hydrogen atom and hydrogen like one–electron species (hydrogenic
species). He applied quantum theory in considering the energy of an electron bound to the nucleus.
Important postulates
An atom consists of a dense stationary nucleus situated at the centre with the electron revolving
around it in circular orbits without emitting any energy. The force of attraction between the nucleus
and an electron is equal to the centrifugal force on the moving electron.
Out of many circular orbits around the nucleus, an electron can revolve only in those orbits whose
angular momentum (mvr) is an integral multiple of factor h 2
nh
mvr = ; where, m = mass of the electron
2
v = velocity of the electron ; n = orbit number in which electron is present ; r = radius of the orbit
As long as an electron is revolving in such an orbit it neither loses nor gains energy. Hence these
orbits are called stationary states. Each stationary state is associated with a definite amount of
energy and it is also known as energy levels. The greater the distance of the energy level from the
nucleus, the more is the energy associated with it. The different energy levels are numbered as
1,2,3,4, (from nucleus onwards) or K,L,M,N etc.
Ordinarily an electron continues to move in a particular least possible energy stationary state
without losing energy. Such a stable state of the atom is called as ground state or normal state.
If energy is supplied to an electron, it may jump (excite) instantaneously from lower energy (say 1)
to higher energy level (say 2,3,4, etc.) by absorbing one photon. This new state of electron is called
as excited state. The quantum of energy absorbed is equal to the difference in energies of the two
concerned levels.
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Since the excited state is less stable, atom will lose its energy and come back to the ground state.
Where E 2 and E1 are the energies of the electron in the first and second energy levels, and is the
frequency of radiation absorbed or emitted.
[Note: If the energy supplied to hydrogen atom is less than 13.6 eV, it will accept or absorb only
those quanta which can take it to a certain higher energy level i.e., all those photons having energy
different from what is required for a particular transition will not be absorbed by hydrogen atom. But
if energy supplied to hydrogen atom is more than 13.6 eV then all photons are absorbed and
excess energy appears as kinetic energy of emitted photo electron].
Consider an electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ revolving around a nucleus of charge Ze (where,
Z = atomic number and e is the charge of the proton) with a tangential velocity v. r is the radius of
the orbit in which electron is revolving.
By Coulomb’s Law, the electrostatic force of attraction between the moving electron and nucleus is
KZe 2
Coulombic force =
r2
1
K= (where o is permittivity of free space) ; K = 9 109 Nm2 C–2
4 o
Hence only certain orbits whose radii are given by the above equation are available for the electron.
The greater the value of n, i.e., farther the energy level from the nucleus, the greater is the radius.
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The radius of the smallest orbit (n=1) for hydrogen atom (Z=1) is ro.
34 2
n2h2 12 6.626 10
ro = = = 5.29 10–11 m = 0.529 Å
4 2
me 2 K 2 31 19 2 9
4 3.14 9 10 1.6 10 9 10
Radius of nth orbit for an atom with atomic number Z is simply written as
n2
rn = 0.529 Å
Z
Calculation of velocity :
nh nh
We know that ; mvr = ;v =
2 2 mr
2 KZe 2
By substituting for r we are getting ; v=
nh
Z
Where excepting n and z all are constants ; v = 2.18 108 cm/sec.
n
This expression shows that only certain energies are allowed to the electron. Since this energy
expression consist of so many fundamental constant, we are giving you the following simplified
expressions.
Z2 Z2 Z2
E = –21.8 10–12 erg per atom = –21.8 10–19 J per atom = –13.6 eV per atom
n2 n2 n2
(1eV = 3.83 10–23 kcal, 1eV = 1.602 10–12 erg, 1eV = 1.602 10–19J)
Z2
E = –313.6 kcal / mole (1 cal = 4.18 J)
n2
The energies are negative since the energy of the electron in the atom is less than the energy of a
free electron (i.e., the electron is at infinite distance from the nucleus) which is taken as zero. The
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lowest energy level of the atom corresponds to n=1, and as the quantum number increases, E
becomes less negative.
When n = , E = 0, which corresponds to an ionized atom i.e., the electron and nucleus are
infinitely separated.
H H++ e– (ionisation).
Ex.7 Find the time taken for half a revolution by electron in 3rd orbit of Li 2
distance circumference
time = 12
speed velocity
1 2 r3 , Li 2
2 V3 , Li 2
0.529 32
r3 , Li 2 1.587 A
3
Z
V3 , Li 2 2.18 106 2.18 106 m s
n
1.587 A 16
Time 6
2.287 10 s
2.18 10 m s
Ex.8 Find the wavelength of photon absorbed upon transition of an electron from 4th orbit to 6th orbit in
He
Ans: E photon E6, He E4,He
Z2
But, En,Z 13.6 eV
n2
1 1
E photon 13.6 4 2
1.89 eV
4 62
12400
A 6560 A
1.89
Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom was no doubt an improvement over Rutherford’s nuclear
model, as it could account for the stability and line spectra of hydrogen atom and hydrogen like ions (for
+ 2+ 3+
example, He , Li , Be and so on).
i) The experimental value of radii and energies in hydrogen atom are in good agreement with that
calculated on the basis of Bohr’s theory.
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ii) Bohr’s concept of stationary state of electron explains the emission and absorption spectra of
hydrogen like atoms.
iii) The experimental values of the spectral lines of the hydrogen spectrum are in close agreement with
that calculated by Bohr’s theory.
i) It does not explain the spectra of atoms having more than one electron.
ii) Bohr’s atomic model failed to account for the effect of magnetic field (Zeeman Effect) or electric
field (Stark effect) on the spectra of atoms or ions. It was observed that when the source of a
spectrum is placed in a strong magnetic or electric field, each spectral line further splits into a
number of lines. This observation could not be explained on the basis of Bohr’s model.
iii) De Broglie suggested that electrons like light have dual character. It has particle and wave
character. Bohr treated the electron only as particle.
iv) Another objection to Bohr’s theory came from Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle. According to
this principle “It is impossible to determine simultaneously the exact position and momentum
of a small moving particle like an electron”. The postulate of Bohr, that electrons revolve in well
defined orbits around the nucleus with well defined velocities is thus not tenable.
When light coming from a source is dispersed by a prism, light of different wavelength are deviated
through different angles and get separated. This phenomenon is called dispersion and such a dispersed
light may be received on a photo graphic plate or it may be viewed directly by eye. A collection of dispersed
light giving its wave length composition is called a spectrum.
Energy
Red VIBGYOR
Angle of dispersion Frequency
1 Violet
Wavelength
If the atom loses energy, the electron passes from higher to a lower energy level, energy is
released and a spectral line of specific wavelength is emitted. This line constitutes the emission
spectrum. There are two types of emission spectrum.
(i) Continuous Spectrum: When white light is dispersed a bright spectrum continuously distributed
on the dark back ground is obtained. The colours are continuous during change and there are no
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sharp boundaries in between various colours. Colours appear to be merging into each other. Such
a spectrum is known as a continuous spectrum.
VIBGYOR
Red
orange
Indigo
Violet
(a) Line Spectrum (For atoms) : When an electron in excited state makes a transition to lower energy
states, light of certain fixed wave lengths are emitted. When such a light is dispersed we get sharp
bright lines in dark back ground, such a spectrum is line emission spectrum:
+ Energy (Heat)
Transition
+
Photon of
Specturm wavelength
Band
Gas
Transmitted
absorbed wave length
wave length
The missing wavelengths are same as the ones observed in the corresponding emission
spectrum.
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We have seen earlier that when electromagnetic radiation interacts with matter, atoms and
molecules may absorb energy and reach to a higher energy state. With higher energy, these are in an
unstable state. For returning to their normal state (more stable, lower energy states), the atoms and
molecules emit radiations in various regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. These lines constitute the
atomic spectrum of the elements. The atomic spectrum of the elements is a “characteristic property” of the
elements and is often termed as “finger prints” of the elements.
If an electric discharge is passed through hydrogen gas taken in a discharge tube under low
pressure, and the emitted radiation is analysed with the help of spectrograph, it is found to consist of a
series of sharp lines in the UV, visible and IR regions. This series of lines is known as line or atomic
spectrum of hydrogen. The lines in the visible region can be directly seen on the photographic film.
Each line of the spectrum corresponds to a light of definite wavelength. The entire spectrum consists of six
series of lines, each series known after their discoverer as Lyman, Balmer, Paschen, Brackett, Pfund and
Humphrey series. The wavelength of all these series can be expressed by a single formula which is
attributed to Rydberg.
1 1 1
=R Where, = wave number ; = wave length
n12 n22
n=
n=6 Humphery
n=5 (Infrared)
Pfund
n=4 (Infrared)
Bracket
(Infrared)
n=3
Paschen
(Infrared)
n=2
Balmer
(visible)
n=1
Lyman(ultraviolet region)
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n 2 n1
n n 1
Total possible transitions for jump from n 2 to n1 i , where n n 2 n 1 . This
1 2
also gives us the number of spectral lines observed under the given circumstances
As discussed earlier, the above pattern of lines in atomic spectrum is characteristic of hydrogen.
During each jump, energy is emitted in the form of a photon of light of definite wavelength or frequency.
The frequency of the photon of light thus emitted depends upon the energy difference of the two energy
levels concerned (n1, n2) and is given by
2
2 mZ 2 e 4 K 2 1 1 2 2
mZ 2 e 4 K 2 1 1
h = En En1 = 2
; =
n 22 n12 3
n12 n 22
2
h h
The frequencies of the spectral lines calculated with the help of above equation are found to be in good
agreement with the experimental values. Thus, Bohr’s theory elegantly explains the line spectrum of
hydrogen and hydrogenic species.
2 2me 4K 2
Where = 1.0967 107m–1 or 109678 cm–1 i.e., Rydberg constant (R)
h3c
Further application of Bohr’s work was made, to other one electron species (Hydrogenic ion) such as He+
and Li2+. In each case of this kind, Bohr’s prediction of the spectrum was correct.
Now after obtaining the explanation of Rydberg‛s equation from Bohr‛s theory, can you
derive what could be the equation for other uni-electronic species? What would be the
value of Rydberg‛s constant for He+1 , Li+2 ?
Ex.9 Find out the longest wavelength of absorption line for hydrogen gas containing atoms in
ground state.
1 1 1
Solution: RZ 2
n12 n 22
for longest wavelength E should be smallest i.e. transition occurs from
n = 1 to n = 2
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n=7
n=6
n=5
n=4
n=3
n=2
n=1
1 1 1
i.e. = 109678 cm–1 12
1 22
1 3
= 109678 cm–1
4
4
= = 1.2157 10–5 cm = 121.6 nm
3 109678cm 1
Ex.10: The series limit for the Paschen series of hydrogen spectrum occurs at 8205.8Å. Calculate.
(A) Ionization energy of hydrogen atom
(B) Wave length of the photon that would remove the electron in the ground state of the
hydrogen atom.
34
6.626 10 3 10 8
Solution: (A) Energy corresponding to 8205.8 A o = 10
8205.8 10
1240 1 1
= 2.422 × 10-19 J = =1.512 eV ; E E1, H Z2
820.58 n12 n22
1 1 E 1H
1.512 eV = E 1,H × (1)2 × ; 1.512 eV =
32 2
9
E 1, H = 13.608 eV
Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV
34
hc 6.626 10 3 10 8 1240
(B) 19
= in nm = 91.6 nm
E 13.6 1.602 10 13.6
Ex.11 Calculate frequency of the spectral line when an electron from 5th Bohr orbit jumps to
the second Bohr orbit in a hydrogen atom
1 1 1 1 1
Solution: =R = 109673 = 2.304 106 m–1
n 12 n 22 22 52
C
= = 2.304 106 m–1 2.998 108 m/s = 6.906 1014 Hz
13.6 13.6
Solution: En = eV = = – 1.51 eV = – 2.42 10–19 J
n2 32
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Ex.13: Calculate the energy in kJ per mole of electronic charge accelerated by a potential of
1 volt.
Ex.14: What is highest frequency photon that can be emitted from hydrogen atom? What is
wavelength of this photon?
Solution: Highest frequency photon is emitted when electron comes from infinity to 1st energy level.
13.6Z 2
E= = – 13.6eV
12
or 13.6 1.6 10–19 Joule = 2.176 10–18 Joule
E 2.176 10 18 J C
E=h = = = 0.328 1016 Hz ; =
h 6.626 10 34 Js
3 10 8
= = 9.146 10–8 m
0.328 10 16
Ex.15: Calculate the longest wavelength transition in the Paschen series of He+.
1 1
Solution: RH Z2 ; For He; Z = 2; For Paschen series n1 = 3
n12 n 22
For longest wavelength n2 = 4
1 2 1 1 1 1 7
109678 2 2 2
= 109678×4× = 109678 × 4 ×
3 4 9 16 144
= 4689 Ao
Ex.16: Calculate the ratio of the wavelength of first and the ultimate line of Balmer series of
Li2+?
1 1 5 9R 5R
Solution: wave number of first line of Balmer, 1 = RZ 2 2 2
2 3 36 4
4
wave length of first line of Balmer =
5R
1 1 9R
wave number of ultimate line of Balmer, 2= RZ 2 =
22 4
4 9
wave length of ultimate line of Balmer = Ratio =
9R 5
Sir J.J. Thomson observed that when a light of certain frequency strikes the surface of a metal,
electrons are ejected from the metal. This phenomenon is known as photoelectric effect and the ejected
electrons are called photoelectrons. A few metals, which are having low ionisation energy like Cesium,
show this effect under the action of visible light but many more show it under the action of more energetic
ultraviolet light.
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11. Particle-Wave duality of Matter and Radiation
Particle-Wave duality of Matter and Radiation
In case of light some phenomenon like diffraction and interference can be explained on the basis of its
wave character. However, the certain other phenomenon such as black body radiation and photoelectric effect
can be explained only on the basis of its particle nature. Thus, light is said to have a dual character. Such
studies on light were made by Einstein in 1905.
Louis de Broglie, in 1924 extended the idea of photons to material particles such as electrons and he proposed
that matter also has a dual character-as wave and as particle.
124
Where R(r), Radial Wave function is dependent only on distance from the nucleus and A( , ),
Angular Wave function depends only on the two angles.
Significance of The wave function may be regarded as the amplitude function expressed in
terms of coordinates x, y and z. The wave function may have positive or negative values depending
upon the value of coordinates. The main aim of Schrödinger equation is to give solution for
probability approach. When the equation is solved, it is observed that for some regions of space the
value of is negative. But the probability must be always positive and cannot be negative, it is
thus, proper to use 2 instead of .
2 2
Significance of : gives us probability density. It describes the probability of finding an electron within
a small space. The space in which there is maximum probability of finding an
electron is termed as orbital. The important point of the solution of the wave equation
is that it provides a set of numbers called quantum numbers which describe energies
of the electron in atoms, information about the shapes and orientations of the most
probable distribution of electrons around nucleus.
An atom contains large number of shells and subshells. These are distinguished from one
another on the basis of their size, shape and orientation (direction) in space. The parameters are
expressed in terms of different numbers called quantum numbers.
Quantum numbers may be defined as a set of four numbers with the help of which we can get
complete information about all the electrons in an atom. It tells us the address of the electron i.e.,
location, energy, the type of orbital occupied and orientation of that orbital.
i) Principal quantum number (n): It tells the main shell in which the electron resides and the
approximate distance of the electron from the nucleus. This value determines to a large extent
energy of the orbital. It also tells the maximum number of electrons a shell can accommodate is
2n2, where n is the principal quantum number.
Shell K L M N
Principal quantum number (n) 1 2 3 4
Maximum number of electrons 2 8 18 32
Permissible values of n: all positive integers.
ii) Azimuthal or angular momentum quantum number ( ): This represents the number of subshells
present in the main shell. These subsidiary orbits within a shell will be denoted as s,p,d,f… This tells
the shape of the sub shells. The orbital angular momentum of the electron is given as:
h
1 h (or) 1 for a particular value of ' ' where .
2 2
For a given value of n, possible values of vary from 0 to n – 1. This means that there
th
are 'n ' possible shapes in the n shell.
iii) The magnetic quantum number (m): An electron due to its angular motion around the nucleus
generates an electric field. This electric field is expected to produce a magnetic field. Under the
influence of external magnetic field, the electrons of a subshell can orient themselves in certain
preferred regions of space around the nucleus called orbitals. The magnetic quantum number
determines the number of preferred orientations of the electron present in a subshell. The values
allowed depends on the value of , the angular momentum quantum number, m can, assume all
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integral values between – to + including zero. Thus m can be –1, 0, +1 for = 1. Total values
of m associated with a particular value of are given by 2 + 1.
iv) The spin quantum number (s): Just like earth not only revolves around the sun but also spins
about its own axis, an electron in an atom not only revolves around the nucleus but also spins about
its own axis. Since an electron can spin either in clockwise direction or in anticlockwise direction,
therefore, for any particular value of magnetic quantum number, spin quantum number can have
two values, i.e., +1/2 and –1/2 or these are represented by two arrows pointing in the opposite
directions, i.e., and . When an electron goes to a vacant orbital, it can have a clockwise or
anticlockwise spin. This quantum number helps to explain the magnetic properties of the
substances.
h
Spin angular momentum s s(s 1) where s = ½.
2
Another term, defined as multiplicity is given as 2|S|+1 where |S| is total spin
Nodes : The region where the probability of finding an electron is zero or the probability density function
reduces to zero is called a nodal surface or simply nodes. Nodes are classified as radial nodes
and angular nodes. In general, an orbital with principal quantum number = n and azimuthal
quantum number = l, has
2
Total nodes = n – 1 ; Radial nodes = n – – 1 ;Angular nodes = ; At Nodes, =0, =0
An orbital is the region of space around the nucleus within which the probability of finding an
electron of given energy is maximum (B > 90%). The shape of this region (electron cloud) gives the
shape of the orbital. It is basically determined by the azimuthal quantum number , while the
orientation of orbital depends on the magnetic quantum number (m). Let us now see the shapes of
orbitals in the various subshells.
The size of the orbital depends upon the value of principal quantum number (n). Greater the value
of n, larger is the size of the orbital. Therefore, 2s– orbital is larger than 1s orbital but both of them
are non-directional and spherically symmetrical in shape.
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p–orbitals ( =1): The probability of finding the p–electron is
Y
maximum in two lobes on the opposite sides of the
nucleus. This gives rise to a dumb–bell shape for the p–
orbital. For p–orbital = 1. Hence, m = –1, 0, +1. Thus,
p–orbital have three different orientations. These are X py pz
designated as px , py & pz depending upon whether the px
Z
density of electron is maximum along the y and z axis
respectively. As they are not spherically symmetrical,
they have directional character. The two lobes of p–orbitals are separated by a nodal plane, where
the probability of finding electron is zero.
The three p-orbitals belonging to a particular energy shell have equal energies and are called
degenerate orbitals.
d–orbitals ( =2): For d–orbitals, =2. Hence m= – 2,–1,0,+1,+2. Thus there are 5 d orbitals. They
have relatively complex geometry. Out of the five orbitals, the three (d , dyz,dzx) project in between
the axis and the other two dz 2 and d 2 y 2 lie along the axis.
Z X
Y
d z2 d x2 2
y
Do u g h – n ut sh a p e o r Ba b y C lo ve r le a f sh a p e
so othe r sha p e
X X Y
Y Z Z
dxz dyz
dxy
It is found that wave functions ( ) can be expressed as the product of two functions, one of which
the radial part R(r) depends only on the distance from the nucleus, the other being the angular part
f( , ) depends only on the angles & . (r, , ) R(r) f( , )
Hence, Probability distribution curves which give the variation of probability of finding the electron
can also be classified into two types (i) one which give the variation of probability of finding the
electron with radial distance (r), termed as radial probability distribution curves, and (ii) and
one which give the variation of probability of finding the electron with angle keeping the radial
distance same & ). Let us understand each of them separately.
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Can you guess where will be the two angular nodes for dz2 located ?
The electron configuration of an atom is the particular distribution of electrons among available
shells. It is described by a notation that lists the subshell symbols, one after another. Each symbol has a
superscript on the right giving the number of electrons in that subshell. For example, a configuration of the
lithium atom (atomic number 3) with two electrons in the 1s subshell and one electron in the 2s subshell is
written 1s22s 1. The notation for electron configuration gives the number of electrons in each subshell.
The atom is built up by filling electrons in various orbitals according to the following rules.
Aufbau Principle: This principle states that the electrons are added one by one to the various orbitals in
order of their increasing energy starting with the orbital of lowest energy. The increasing order of
energy of various orbital is
1s,2s,2p,3s,3p,4s,3d,4p,5s,4d,5p,6s,4f,5d,6p,5f,6d,7p……………………
How to remember such a big sequence? To make it simple we are giving you the method to write
the increasing order of the orbitals. Starting from the top, the direction of the arrows gives the order of
filling of orbitals.
1s
2s 2p
3s 3p 3d
4s 4p 4d 4f
5s 5p 5d
6s 6p
7s
Alternatively, the order of increasing energies of the various orbitals can be calculated on the basis
of (n+) rule.
The energy of an orbital depends upon the sum of values of the principal quantum number (n) and
the azimuthal quantum number (). This is called (n+) rule. According to this rule,
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“In neutral isolated atom, the lower the value of (n+ ) for an orbital, lower is its energy.
However, if the two different types of orbitals have the same value of (n+), the orbitals with
lower value of n has lower energy’’.
Values of
Type of orbitals Value of n Values of l Relative energy
(n+)
1s 1 0 1+0=1 Lowest energy
2s 2 0 2+0=2 Higher energy than 1s orbital
2p 2 1 2+1=3 2p orbital (n=2) have lower
3s 3 0 3+1=3 energy than 3s orbital (n=3)
(n + ) rule is applicable for multi electronic systems only. For uni-electronic system like
H, order of energy of orbitals is not “significantly influenced” by . Now can you write
the order of energy of orbitals for uni-electronic system?
According to this principle, an orbital can contain a maximum number of two electrons and these
two electrons must be of opposite spin.
This rule deals with the filling of electrons in the equal energy (degenerate) orbitals of the same sub
shell (p,d and f). According to this rule,
“Electron pairing in p,d and f orbitals cannot occur until each orbital of a given subshell contains one
electron each or is singly occupied & that too with the same spin.
This is due to the fact that electrons being identical in charge, repel each other when present in the
same orbital. This repulsion can, however, be minimized if two electrons move as far apart as
possible by occupying different degenerate orbitals. All the electrons in a degenerate set of orbitals
will have same spin.
Multiplicity is given by 2|S| + 1. Can you now comment why the rule is called Hund‛s rule
of maximum multiplicity.
Electronic configuration is the distribution of electrons into different shells, subshells and
orbitals of an atom.
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Alternatively
Orbital can be represented by a box and an electron with its direction of spin by arrow. To write the
electronic configuration, we need to know (i) the atomic number (ii) the order in which orbitals are to
be filled (iii) maximum number of electrons in a shell, sub–shell or orbital.
(C) The maximum number of electron in each shell (K,L,M,N…) is given by 2n2. Where n is the principal
quantum number.
(D) The maximum number of orbitals in a shell is given by n2 where n is the principal quantum number.
Solution:
The electronic configuration of most of the atoms follow the Aufbau’s rule. However, in certain elements
such a Cr, Cu etc. electron fills in 3d in preference to 4s provided the subshell become either half-filled or
fully filled.
24Cr [Ar] 3d5, 4s1 and not [Ar] 3d4, 4s2 ; 29Cu [Ar] 3d10 4s 1 and not [Ar] 3d9, 4s2
It has been found that there is extra stability associated with these electronic configurations. This
stabilization is due to the following two factors
2. Exchange Energy:
This stabilizing effect arises whenever two or more electrons with the same spin are present in the
degenerate orbitals of a subshell. These electrons tend to exchange their positions and the energy
released due to this exchange is called exchange energy. The number of exchanges that can take
place is maximum when the subshell is either half-filled or full filled. As a result the exchange energy
is maximum and so is the stability.
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(1) (2) (3) (4)
The stabilation due to exchange energy will compensate for the energy required for
excitation from 4s to 3d.
The stabilation due to exchange energy will not be able to compensate for the energy required for
excitation from 2s to 2p.
Electronic configuration of ions :
Note that while filling electrons in various orbitals they are filled according to the three laws –
Aufbau, Pauli and Hund’s. For removing electrons to form cations, electrons are removed from
outermost shell as they are bound to the nucleus by lesser forces of attraction because of
shielding effect.
For example for iron,
26 Fe 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d6, 4s2 & the configuration of ions would be
2+
Fe 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d6 & Fe3+ 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d5
Similarly for copper 29Cu 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p6 3d10, 4s1 & for its ions
2 2 6 2
Cu+ 1s 2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10 & Cu2+ 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d9
The anions are formed by adding electrons to the vacant orbital of lowest energy [follow (n +l) rule]
For example 9F 1s 2, 2s2 2p5 & that of its ion F- 1s2, 2s2 2p6
Similarly for Chlorine 17Cl 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p & that of its ion Cl-
2 2 6 2 5
1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6
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2. The increasing order (lowest first) for the magnitude of e/m (charge/mass) for electron (e), proton
(p), neutron (n) and alpha particle ( ) is
(A) e,p,n, (B) n,p,e, (C) n,p, ,e (D) n, ,p,e,
6. During Muliken’s oil drop experiment, out of the following, which is not a possible charge on oil
droplet?
(A) 1.6×10 C (B) 2.4×10 C (C) 3.2×10 C (D) 4.8×10 C
9. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of -particles showed for the first time that the atom has
(A) electrons (B) protons (C) nucleus (D) neutrons
11. The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000Å wavelength radiation to that of 4000Å radiation is
(A) ¼ (B) ½ (C) 2 (D)4
12. Radio city broadcasts on a frequency of 5,090 KHz. What is the wavelength of electromagnetic
radiation emitted by the transmitter?
(A)10.3 m (B) 58.9 m (C) 60.5 m (D) 75.5 m
13. A 1000 watt radio transmitter operates at a frequency of 880 kilocycle/sec. How many photons per
sec does it emit?
(A) 2.01×1029 (B) 1.72×1030 (C) 1.51×1029 (D) 1.77×1031
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14. The eyes of certain members of reptile family pass a visual signal to the brain when the visual
receptors are struck by photons of wavelength 890 nm. If a total energy of 3.15×10 J is required
to trip signal, what is the minimum number of photons that must strike the receptor?
(A) 3.05×1019 (B) 1.72×109 (C) 1.41×105 (D) 2.75×1010
15. A certain dye absorbs light of wavelength 4500 Ao and then emits fluorescence light of 5000 Ao.
Assuming that, under given conditions 50% of the absorbed energy is re-emitted out as
fluorescence. Calculate the ratio of quanta emitted to the number of quanta absorbed?
(A) 0.55 (B) 2.1 (C) 1.8 (D) 0.75
x
16. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from x to . The
4
change in potential energy will be:
(A) 3 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D) 3
x x x x
2 8 4 4
17. The potential energy of an electron in the Hydrogen atom is – 6.8 eV. Indicate in which excited
state, the electron is present?
(A) first (B) second (C) third (D) fourth
18. What is the potential energy of an electron present in N-shell of the Be3+ ion?
(A) – 3.4 eV (B) – 6.8 eV (C) – 13.6 eV (D) – 27.2 eV
19. The kinetic and potential energy (in eV) of electron present in third Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom
are respectively:
(A) – 1.51, – 3.02 (B) 1.51, – 3.02 (C) – 3.02, 1.51 (D) 1.51, – 1.51
20. The distance between 4th and 3rd Bohr orbits of He+ is:
10 10 10
(A) 2.645 10 m (B) 1.322 10 m (C) 1.851 10 m (D) None
21. What is the atomic number (Z) correspond to which 4th orbit would fit inside the 1st Bohr orbit of H-
atom?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 25
22. The ratio of velocity of the electron in the third and fifth orbit of Li2+ would be:
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 5 : 3 (C) 25 : 9 (D) 9 : 25
23. If radius of second stationary orbit (in Bohr’s atom) is R. Then radius of third orbit will be:
(A) R/3 (B) 9R (C) R/9 (D) 2.25 R
24. Which state of Be3+ has the same orbit radius as that of the ground state of hydrogen atom?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
1
25. Select the incorrect graph for velocity of e in an orbit Vs. Z , and n:
n
v
v v v
(A) (B) (C) (D)
n 1/n Z n
26. What is the frequency of revolution of electron present in 2nd Bohr’s orbit of H-atom?
(A) 1.016 1016 s 1 (B) 4.065 1016 s 1
(C) 1.626 1015 s 1
(D) 8.2 1014 s 1
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27. The number of photons of light having wave number ‘x’ in 10 J of energy source is:
(A) 10hcx (B) hc (C) 10 (D) None of these
10 x hcx
28. The ionization potential for an electron in ground state of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. What would
be the ionization potential for the electron in the first excited state of H atom?
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 6.8 eV (C) 3.4eV (D) 27.2 eV
29. According to Bohr’s theory, angular momentum of electron in any orbit of Hydrogen is directly
proportional to
(A) 1 (B) 1
2
(C) rn (D) rn
rn rn
30. If the revolutions per second by the electron in 3rd orbit of H is , then the revolutions per second by
the electron in 2nd orbit of He+ is
(A) (B) 13.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.07
31. If the kinetic energy of electron moving in 4 th orbit of hydrogen is €, then the total energy in 1st orbit
of Li2+ is
(A) –144 € (B) –0.0069 € (C) –(27/9) € (D) – €
32. If same energy is supplied to electron in ground state of Hydrogen as well as He+, electron jump to
5th main shell in Hydrogen, then final orbit of electron in He+ is
(A) 2nd (B) 1st (C) 3rd (D) 4th
33. If force of attraction between the electron and nucleus in 2 nd orbit of Li2+ is , force of attraction if
electron present in 1st orbit of H is
(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 16
49 25 81 27
34. If acceleration of electron in 1st orbit of He+ is , acceleration of electron 2rd orbit of Be3+ is
(A) (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 1
2 4
35. The spacing between the orbits in terms of distance is maximum in the case of
(A) 1st and 2nd (B) 2nd and 3rd (C) 3rd and 4th (D) 4th and 5th
36. The spacing between the orbits in terms of energy is maximum in the case of
(A) 1st and 2nd (B) 2nd and 3rd (C) 3rd and 4th (D) 4th and 5th
38 The emission spectrum of He+ ion is the consequence of transition of electrons from orbit n2 to orbit
n1. Given that 2n2 + 3n1 = 18 and 2n2 – 3n1 = 6, then what will be the maximum number of spectral
lines in atomic spectrum when electrons transit from n2 to orbit n1?
(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 21
39. Find the value of wave number in terms of Rydberg’s constant, when transition of electron takes
place between two levels of He+ ion whose sum is 4 and difference is 2.
8R 32 R 3R
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
9 9 4
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135
136
137
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
138
139
140
ANSWER KEY
FOUNDATION BUILDER (OBJECTIVE)
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. C
15. A 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. D 26. D 27. C 28. C
29. D 30. B 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. D 36. A 37. B 38. A 39. B 40. A 41. C 42. B
61. A 62. A 63. A 64. C 65. D 66. B 67. B 68. A 69. D 70. D 71. C 72. D 73. B 74. C
90. C 91. D 92. A 93. A 94. C 95. A 96. D 97. C 98. B 99. C 100. D 101. B
15. A 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. D
29. D 30. B 31. C 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. D
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ATOMIC STRUCTURE
7. The energy of H-atom in nth orbit is E n then energy in nth orbit of singly ionised helium atom will be
(a) 4En (b) En/4 (c) 2 En (d) En/2
9. If change in energy
(E) = 3 10–8 J, h = 6.64 10–34 J–s and c = 3 108 m/s, then wavelength of the light is
o o o o
(a) 6.64 103 A (b) 6.64 10 5 A (c) 6.64 10 –8 A (d) 6.64 1018 A
10. The following quantum number are possible for how many orbitals n = 3, 2 , m = +2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
11. The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 10–34Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 108ms–1. Which value
is closest to the wavelength in metres of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 10 15 s–1
(a) 3 10 7 (b) 2 10 –25 (c) 5 10–18 (d) 3.75 10–8
12. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n =4 to n = 1in a hydrogen atom will
be (Given ionization energy of H = 2.18 10 –18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 10 –34 Js)
(a) 1.03 1015 s–1 (b) 3.08 10 15 s–1 (c) 2.00 10 15 s–1 (d) 1.54 1015 s–1
13. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is –328 kJ/mol. Hence the energy of fourth
Bohr orbit should be
(a) –41 kJ/mol (b) –1312 kJ/mol (c) –164 kJ/mol (d) – 82 kJ/mol
14. Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 10–31 kg Planck constant is 6.626 10–34 Js, the uncertainty
o
involved in the measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 A is
(a) 5.79 106 ms–1 (b) 5.79 10 7 ms–1 (c) 5.79 10 8 ms–1 (d) 5.79 105 ms–1
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15. With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy
(a) 1s22s22p6 (b) 1s22s22p 5 (c) 1s22s22p 3 (d) 1s22s22p 63s1
18. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass 10–6 kg moving with a velocity of
10ms–1 is
(a) 6.63 10–22 m (b) 6.63 10 –29 m (c) 6.63 10 –31 m (d) 6.63 10–34 m
21. For principle quantum number n =4 the total number of orbitals having = 3 is
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 9
22. The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He+ is
(a) 0.0 (b) 52.9 (c) 26.5 (d) 105. 8
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23. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is
o
(a) 6.626 10 –34 m (b) 13.20 10–34 m (c) 10.38 10–21 m (d) 6.626 10–34 A
24. The electron should be filled in the orbiral in accordance with the increasing order of their energy.
This statement is related with
(a) Aufbau principle (b) Paul’s principle (c) Hund’s rule (d) Planck’s rule
27. For magnetic quantum no. m = 0, 1, 2 the value of the principle shell is
(a) n = 2 (b) n = 4 (c) n = 3 (d) n = 5
(a) Hund’s rule (b) Aufbau rule (c) Pauli’s rule (d) n rule
31. Element having electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p 6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p 4 is similar to which
element in property
(a) C (b) N (c) O (d) F
34. 1s2, 2s2, 2p 6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p 5 the element having this electronic configuration is
(a) Cu (b) Hb (c) Mn (d) Br
35. n = 3, 1 , m = 0 represent
(a) 3p-orbital (b) 3s-orbital (c) 3d-orbital (d) 4s-orbital
37. If the wave number of emitted light is 2 10 6 m–1 then its wave length will be
(a) 500 m (b) 200 nm (c) 0.5 10 7 m (d) 500 nm
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JSO IX- CHEMISTRY
(a) 2 and 1 (b) 2 and 0 (c) 2 and +1 (d) 2 and – 1
40. A and B are two elements which have same mass number and are having atomic number 27 and 30
respectively. If the mass number of A is 57 then number of neutron in B is
(a) 27 (b) 33 (c) 30 (d) 40
42. In ground state of Cr24 number of orbitals with paired and unpaired electron
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 18
43. Atomic number of element which are 4s2 4p 6 as electronic configuration of valence shell is
(a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38
44. Boron have two isotopes having mass number 10.01 (I) and 11.01 (II) respectively. The weight of
natural boron is 10.81, then % availability of I and II isotopes will be
(a) 20 and 80 (b) 10 and 90 (c) 15 and 75 (d) 30 and 70
45. Energy required to remove an e– from M shell of H-atom is 1.51 eV, then energy of 1st excited state
will be
(a) –1.51 eV (b) +1.51 eV (c) –3.4 eV (d) –13.6 eV
76
47. Which of the following is isotone of 32 Ge ?
77 78 77 78
(a) 32 Ge (b) 33 As (c) 34 Se (d) 34 Se
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54. The nitrogen atom has 7 proton, so the nitride ion will have
(a) 7e– and 7p (b) 7e– and 4p (c) 10e– and 7p (d) 10e– and 4p
55. Pair of which of the following have equal number of electrons in their outer most shell
(a) Mg, Fe+2 (b) Na, Ca (c) Pb, Sb (d) As, Bi
60. 1st shell energy of He+ is –54.4 eV. Then energy of its 2nd shell is
(a) –54.4 eV (b) –13.6 eV (c) –27.2 eV (d) +27.2 eV
64. For any anion X–3, the mass number is 14, if anion have 10 electrons, then number of neutron in X2
nucleus
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 7 (d) 5
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68. The ratio of radii of 3rd and 2nd Bohr’s orbits of hydrogen atom is
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 4 : 6 (c) 9 : 4 (d) 9 : 1
73. A metal in its dipositive state has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 14 and has the mass number equal
to 56. Number of neutrons in its nucleus would be
(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 34 (d) 28
74. Sub-shell designated by azimuthal quantum number 3 can have maxiumum number of electrons
(a) 14 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 0
75. The minimum real charge on any particle which can exist
(a) 1.6 10–19 C (b) 1.6 10–10 C (c) 4.8 10 –10 C (d) Zero
76. Which of the following pair of orbitals possess two nodal planes ?
(a) pxy , d x1 y 2 (b) d xy , d zx (c) p yz , d z 2 (d) d x2 , d x2 y2
77. Highest energy will be absorbed to eject out the electron in the configuration
(a) 1s22s22p1 (b) 1s22s22p 3 (c) 1s22s22p 2 (d) 1s22s22p 4
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80. An electron has kinetic energy 2.8 10 –23J, de-Broglie wavelength will be nearly
(a) 9.28 10–24m (b) 9.28 10 –2m (c) 9.28 10 –8m (d) 9.28 10–10m
81. What will be de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity of 1.2 105 ms–1 ?
(a) 6.0622 10–9m (b) 3.133 10–37m (c) 6.626 10–9m (d) 6.018 10–7m
82. What is the maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in an atom in which the
highest principal quantum number value is 4 ?
(a) 10 (b) 18 (c) 32 (d) 54
86. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2, 2s2, 2p 6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s1. This represents its
(a) Excited state (b) Ground state (c) Cationic form (d) Anionic form
o
87. The radius of first Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen is 0.53 A . The radius of third Bohr’s orbit would be
o o o o
(a) 0.79 A (b) 1.59 A (c) 3.18 A (d) 4.77 A
88. The third line in Balmer series corresponds to an electronic transition between which Bohr’s orbits in
hydrogen
(a) 5 3 (b) 5 2 (c) 4 3 (d) 4 2
89. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electron (atomic number of Fe26) ?
(a) Fe (b) Fe(II) (c) Fe(III) (d) Fe(IV)
91. The atomic number of an element is 17. The number of orbitals containing electron pairs in its
valence shell is
(a) Eight (b) Six (c) Three (d) Two
93. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom was made by
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(a) Bohr (b) Planck (c) Einstein (d) Heisenberg
94. The quantum numbers +1/2 and –1/2 for the electron spin represent
(a) Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anti-clockwise direction respectively
(b) Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively
(c) Magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively
(d) Two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogue
95. Which of the following set of quantum number is connect for the 19th electron of chromium ?
n m s
(a) 3 0 0 1/2
(b) 3 2 –2 1/2
(c) 4 0 0 1/2
(d) 4 1 –1 1/2
96. When the value of azimuthal quantum number is 3, magnetic quantum number can have values
(a) +1, 0, – 1 (b) +2, +1, 0, –1, –2
(c) –3, –2, –1, 0, –1, +2, +3 (d) +1, –1
97. The atomic number of an element is 35 and mass number is 81. The number of electrons in the outer
most shell is
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 3
98. An element have mass number 40 and its electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p 6. Then its
atomic number and number of neutrons will be respectively
(a) 18 & 22 (b) 22 & 18 (c) 20 & 20 (d) 40 & 18
100. The charge of an electron is –1.6 10–19 Cl. The value of free charge on Li+ ion will be
(a) 3.6 10 –19 Cl (b) 1 10 –19 Cl (c) 1.6 10–19 Cl (d) 2. 6 10–19 Cl
102. How many unpaired electrons are present in cobalt [Co] metal ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7
106. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in dz2 orbital is
(a) 10 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 2
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108. In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in ground state is –13.6eV, then energy in the 2nd
excited state is
(a) –1.51 eV (b) –3.4 eV (c) –6.04 eV (d) –13.6 eV
109. Uncertainty in position of a 0.25 g particle is 10–5 m. Then uncertainty in its velocity will be
(h = 6.6 10–34 Js)
(a) 1.2 10 34 (b) 2.1 10–29 (c) 1.6 10–20 (d) 1.7 10–9
110. The Ratio between kinetic energy and the total energy of the electrons of hydrogen atom according
to Bohr’s model is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : – 1 (d) 1 : 2
115. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the hydrogen electron in its third orbit
(a) 9.96 10–10 cm (b) 9.96 10 –15 cm (c) 9.96 10 4 cm (d) 9.96 108 cm
116. In Bohr atomic model radius of 1st orbit of Hydrogen is 0.053 nm then radius of 3 rd orbit of Li+2 is
(a) 0.159 (b) 0.053 (c) 0.023 (d) 0.026
117. Wave length of some radiation is 500 nm. What is its wave number?
(a) 2 10 6 m (b) 5 106 m (c) 2 10–3 m–1 (d) 2 10–6 m–1
118. Which one of the following group represents a collection of isoelectronic species ?
(a) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+ (b) N3–, F–, Na+ (c) Be, Al3+, Cl– (d) Ca2+. Cs+, Br
119. The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres per
second is approximately
(a) 10–33 metres (b) 10–31 metres (c) 10–16 metres (d) 10–25 metres
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120. Ratio of radii of second and first Bohr orbits of H atom will be
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
122. The total number of electrons prevent in all the s-orbitals all the p-orbitals and all the d-orbitals of
cesium ion are respectively
(a) 8, 26, 10 (b) 10, 24, 20 (c) 8, 22, 24 (d) 12, 20, 22
127. The wavelength of radiation emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an
1312
energy level with n = 3 to a level with n = 2 is [Given that En kJ mol 1 ]
n2
(a) 6.56 10 7 m (b) 65.6 nm (c) 65.6 107 m (d) any of the above
129. Which one of the following electron transitions between energy levels in the hydrogen atom
produces the line of shortest wavelength in hydrogen spectrum ?
(a) n2 n1 (b) n3 n1 (c) n4 n1 (d) n4 n3
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3
(a) Infinite (b) 1.8 10 (c) 1 : 8 (d) None of these
136. According to Bohr’s model, the exact relation of energy of 3s, 3p and 3d. For hydrogen is
(a) 3s < 3p < 3d (b) 3p < 3d < 3s (c) 3d < 3p < 3s (d) 3s = 3p = 3d
137. Difference of radius of 3rd Bohr orbit to 2nd in terms of r1 for H-atom
3 2
(a) r1 (b) r1 (c) r1 (d) 5r1
2 3
138. How many electron in an atom can have the quantum number n = 3, 2 , m = 2 ?
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 14
139. Which quantum numbers are same for 2px, 2p y, 2pz electrons ?
(a) n, (b) n, s (c) n, , m (d) n, , s
140. The energy of e– in first orbit of H is –1312 kJ/mol, then ionization energy will be (in kJ/mol) ?
1312 1312
(a) –1312 (b) +1312 (c) (d)
4 4
PREVIOUSLY ASKED QUESTIONS
141. Which conclusion was a direct result of the gold foil experiment ?
(a) An atom is mostly empty space with a dense, positively charged nucleus
(b) An atom is composed of at least three types of subatomic particles
(c) An electron has a positive charge and is located inside the nucleus
(d) An electron has properties of both waves and particles
142. The ratio of the size of the atom to the size of the nucleus is typically
(a) 10 (b) 102 (c) 104 (d) 105
143. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and I can be placed in order of increasing energy,
from the lowest to highest as
(i) n = 4 & l = 1 (ii) n = 4 & l = 0 (ii) n = 3 & l = 2 (iv) n = 3 & l = 1
(a) iv < ii < iii < i (b) ii < iv < i < iii (c) i < iii < ii < iv (d) iii < i < iv < i
144. How many unpaired electrons does a gaseous atom of phosphorus P, have in its ground state ?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
145. How do the energy gaps between successive electron energy levels in an atom vary from low to high
n values ?
(a) All energy gaps are the same
(b) The energy gap decreases as n increases
(c) The energy gap increases as n increases
(d) The energy gap changes unpredictably as n increases
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Answer Key :
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (c)
101. (d) 102. (b) 103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (b)
121. (d) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (d) 125. (b) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (d) 129. (c) 130. (a)
131. (a) 132. (c) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (a) 140. (b)
141. (a) 142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (b) 145. (b)
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1. INTRODUCTION
The various kinds of substance that make up matter can be divided roughly into three categories, namely,
gases, liquids and solids. These are called as three states of matter. These states can be considered to arise as
a result of competition between two opposing molecular forces, namely, the force of attraction which tends
to hold the molecules together, and the disruptive force due to the thermal energy of molecules. If the
disruptive forces due to thermal energy are much greater than the forces of attraction, then we have matter in
its gaseous state. Molecules in the gaseous state move with very large speeds and the forces of attraction
amongst them are not sufficient to bind the molecules at one place, with the result that the molecules move
practically independent of one another. Because of this feature, gases are characterized by marked sensitivity
of volume change with change of temperature and pressure. There exists no boundary surface and, therefore,
gases tend to fill completely any available space, i.e. they do not possess a fixed volume. If the forces of
attraction are greater than the disruptive forces due to thermal energy, we have matter in the liquid state.
Molecules in the liquid state too have kinetic energy but they cannot go very far away because of the larger
forces of attraction amongst them. Due to this feature, liquids have definite volume, but they do not have
definite shape. They take the shape of the vessel in which they are placed. In general, liquids are denser and
less compressible than gases. If the forces of attraction between molecules are much greater than the
disruptive forces due to thermal energy, the positions of the molecules remain fixed and we have the solid
state of matter. The molecules in the solid state, therefore, do not possess any translational energy, but have
only vibrational energy since they can vibrate about their mean positions. Extremely large forces of
attraction exist amongst them. That is why solids differ markedly from liquids and gases in respect of size,
shape and volume. Solids, in general, have definite size, shape and volume.
Gaseous state is the simplest state of matter. Throughout our life we remain immersed in the ocean of air
which is a mixture of gases. We spend our life in the lowermost layer of the atmosphere called troposphere,
which is held to the surface of the earth by gravitational force. The thin layer of atmosphere is vital to our
life. It shields us from harmful radiations and contains substances like dioxygen, dinitrogen, carbon dioxide,
water vapour, etc. Let us now focus our attention on the behavior of substances which exist in the gaseous
state under normal conditions of temperature and pressure.
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(i) Pressure:- It is exerted by gas due to collision of randomly moving gas molecules with the walls of the
container. Pressure can be measured in following units:
Pascal: - It is SI unit for pressure; Pascal is very small amount of pressure
2
o (10mg weight on 1cm area)
2
o 1 Pa = 1 N/m
Atm: - atm is pressure exerted by mass of the atmosphere on the earth’s surface
Various units of pressure can be interrelated as follows
1 atm = 76 cm of Hg = 760 torr = 101325 Pa = 1.01325 bar
(ii) Volume :- It represents free volume available for motion of gas particles
Various units of volume are interrelated as follows
1 L = 1000 ml = 10-3 m3 = 1000 cc
Simplicity of gases is due to the fact that the forces of interaction between their molecules are
negligible. Their behavior is governed by same general laws, which were discovered as a result of their
experimental studies. These laws are relationships between measurable properties of gases. Some of
these properties like pressure, volume, temperature and mass are very important because relationships
between these variables describe state of the gas. Inter-dependence of these variables leads to the
formulation of gas laws.
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Temperature-constant Temperature-constant
T = constant
Mass-constant Mass-constant
Mass = constant
P V PV
V 1/P P
T1 T1
T2 T2
(T1 > T2 > T3)
T3 log P
T3
P P
(T1 > T2 > T3) T1 PV
T2 (T 1>T 2 > T 3 )
T3 log V
1/V
V P
Experiments have shown that when 273 ml sample of a gas at 0 oC is heated to 1oC, its volume increases by 1
ml, i.e., it becomes 274 ml. At 10 oC, the volume increases to 283 ml if the pressure remains constant in both
cases. Similarly, when 273 ml sample of gas at 0 oC is cooled to oC, its volume decreases to 272 ml while
o
at C the volume decreases to 263 ml if the pressure remains constant.
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Thus, all gases expand or contract by the same fraction of their volumes at 0oC per degree change of
temperature, i.e., for each degree change of temperature, the volume of a sample of a gas changes by the
1
fraction of its volume at 0oC.
273
Let the volume of a given amount of a gas be V o at 0 oC. The temperature is increased by toC and the new
volume becomes Vt.
V0 t
Thus, Vt V0 t = V0 1+
273 273
273 + t
or Vt = V0 (since K = oC + 273) … Eq(i)
273
by substituting T for 273 + t and To for 273 in Eq. (i),
V0 T Vt V0 V
Vt or or = constant (if pressure is kept constant)
T0 T T0 T
This is Charles law. It can be stated as follows:
The volume of a given amount of a gas at constant pressure varies directly as its absolute
temperature.
V T (if pressure is kept constant)
P1
P2 > P1
P2
Since volume is directly proportional to Kelvin temperature, the volume of a gas should theoretically be zero
at Kelvin zero. However, gases liquefy and then solidify before this low temperature is reached. In fact, no
substance exists as a gas at a temperature near Kelvin zero, through the straight-line plots can be
o
extrapolated to zero volume. The temperature that corresponds to zero volume is C.
Can you guess how the graph of volume vs Temperature (0C) will look like
Example2: A flask is of a capacity of 1 liter. What volume of air will escape from the flask if it is
heated from 270C to 370C? Assume pressure is constant.
Solution Since pressure is constant
1/300=V1/310
V1 = 1.0333 litres
Since capacity is 1 liter
Thus Volume escaped = 1.0333-1 = 0.0333 L
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At constant volume, the pressure of a given amount of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute
temperature.
Example 3: A certain amount of ethane is confined in a bulb of 1 liter capacity. The bulb is so weak that it
will burst if pressure exceeds 10 atm. Initially gas exerts 8 atm pressure at 27 0 C.
Find temperature at which the bulb will burst?
Solution: Considering limiting condition
P1 P
Since volume remain constant = 2
T1 T2
Thus 8/300=10/T2
T2 = 375 K
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The value of K depends on the amount of gas in the system. Since V is an extensive property (which is
mass dependent), its value at constant p and T is proportional to the amount of the gas present in the
system. Then K must also be proportional to the amount of gas because p and T are intensive
properties (which have no mass dependence). We can express this by writing K = nR, in which n is the
amount of gas in a given volume of gas and R is independent of all variables and is, therefore, a
universal constant. We thus have the general gas law
pV = nRT
The universal gas constant R = pV/nT. Thus, it has the unit of (pressure volume) divided by (amount
of gas temperature). Now the dimensions of pressure and volume are,
Pressure = (force/area) = (force/length2) = force length
Volume = length3
(force length ) (length 3 ) (force length) work (or energy)
Thus R=
(amount of gas) (kelvin) (amount of gas) (kelvin) (amount of gas) (kelvin)
Thus, the dimensions of R are energy per mole per kelvin and hence it represents the amount of
work (or energy) that can be obtained from one mole of a gas when its temperature is raised by one
kelvin.
Numerical Values of R
i) In liter atmosphere = 0.0821 litre atm deg–1 mole–1 ii) In ergs = 8.314 107 erg deg–1 mole–1
iii) In calories = 1.987 cal deg–1 mole–1 iv) In Joules = 8.314 J deg–1 mole–1
Use the value of R depending on the units in which value of pressure and volume has been used in
ideal gas equation.
Example 4 : What mass of ammonia will exert same pressure as 12 g of H2S(g) in the same container
under the similar conditions of temperature?
Solution: Under identical conditions of T and V, p n
equal moles of ammonia as that of H2S(g) will exert same pressure, when confined in
the same container
Moles of H2S = 12/34 = moles of ammonia
Mass of ammonia = (12/34) 17 = 6g
Example 5: 4 g of an ideal gas was confined in a 1.0 L flask at 1.0 atm. Increasing temperature of
flask by 30 oC increases gas pressure by 8%. Determine molar mass of gas.
Solution: Let the initial temperature be, TK.
1 T
Since, n and V are constants P1/T1= P2/T2 T 375K
1.08 T 30
Since pV = nRT and n = w/M
4 1 1
M 123
M 0.082 375
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nRT w dRT d
P= RT M= RT
V M V M P
Vapour Density
For gases another term which is often used is vapour-density. Vapour density of a gas is
defined as the ratio of the mass of the gas occupying a certain volume at a certain temperature and
pressure to the mass of hydrogen occupying the same volume at the same temperature and pressure
i.e.
PVM
W(gas) = and
RT
PV 2
WH 2 ( mol. wt.of Hydrogen is 2)
RT
Wgas M
= Vapour density of gas
WH2 2
Vapour Density × 2 = Molecular wt.
Example 6: Determine the density of carbon dioxide gas at the sublimation temperature of 78 oC
and 1.0 atm, assuming ideal behaviour of the gas.
pM 1 44 1
Solution: 2.75 g L
RT 0.082 195
Example 7: Determine payload of a 1000,000 L balloon filled with He gas at 27oC and 1.0 atm.
Composition of air can be considered to be 79% N2 and 21% O2 by volume and balloon is
massless.
Solution: Moles of gas present in balloon
pV 1000,000
40650.4
RT 0.082 300
Payload = Wair Wgas = 40650.4 (Mair MHe) g
40650.4
= ( 28.84 4) kg 1009.75 kg
1000
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The pressure exerted by a gas depends on the force exerted by each molecular collision with the walls of the
container and on the number of such collisions in a unit area per unit time. If a gas contains two types of
molecules, each species will engage in such collisions and thus, make a contribution to the total pressure, in
exact proportion to its abundance in the mixture. The contribution that each species makes to the total
pressure of gas is known as the “partial pressure” of the species. Therefore, in other words, “partial pressure
of a component gas, in a gaseous mixture, is the pressure that would have been exerted, had the said
component occupied the entire volume alone under identical conditions of temperature.”
The statement of Dalton’s Law is “The total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the
sum of their partial pressures”.
Let a mixture of gases have amount n1 of the first gas, n2 of the second gas, and so on. Let the corresponding
partial pressures be p1, p2, …… The total pressure is given by
ptotal = p1 + p2 + ….
If the gases present in the mixture behave ideally, then, it is possible to write separately for each gas,
p1V = n1 RT (a)
p2V = n2RT (b)
Hence (p1 + p2 + …) V = (n1 + n2 + …) RT
i.e., ptotal V = ntotalRT (c)
where ntotal is the total moles of gases in the mixture. Dividing Eqs (a) and (b) by Eq. (c), We get
n1
p1 = ptotal = x1p total
n total
n2
p2 = p total = x 2 p total
n total
x1 , x2, and so on are the mole fraction of each gas respectively
Partial Pressure of a gas = Mole fraction of the gas × Total Pressure of the gaseous mixture
Dalton’s Law of Partial pressure is applicable only for non – reacting gases.
Example 8: Calculate partial pressure of nitrogen and oxygen in air assuming it to be composed of mostly
nitrogen and oxygen. Volume percentage of oxygen and nitrogen in air are 20 and 80
respectively, and atmospheric pressure to be 1.0.
Solution: Mole fraction of N2(g) = 0.8 and Mole fraction of O2(g) = 0.2
Partial pressure of N2(g) = 0.8 1 = 0.8 atm
Partial pressure of O2(g) = 0.2 1 = 0.2 atm
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Example 9: 0.1 mol of ethane gas and 0.3 mol of oxygen gas are taken in a flask at 27 oC and 1.0 atm
pressure and sealed. Now the flask is heated to 1000 K where the following reaction
occurs quantitatively:
5
C2H6 + O2 2CO + 3H2O
2
Calculate partial pressure of each component at the end of reaction.
Solution: The balanced chemical reaction (with states specified) is
5
C2H6(g) + O2(g) 2CO(g) + 3H2O(g) at 1000 K
2
Moles at start: 0.10 0.3 0 0
Moles at end: 0 0.05 0.2 0.3
Total moles ng = 0.55
Now, applying gas laws at constant volume
p nT n T 0.55 1000
1 11 p2 p1 2 2 1.0 4.58 atm
p n T nT 0.4 300
2 2 2 11
0.05
p 4.58 0.416 atm
O 0.55
2
0.2
p CO 2 4.58 1.664 atm and
0.55
0.30
p 4.58 2.5 atm
H O 0.55
2
Dalton’s law is used to calculate the pressure of a dry gas when it is (Gas + Water vapour)
collected over water at atmospheric pressure. By Dalton’s law.
Diffusion is the tendency of any substance to spread throughout the space available to it. Diffusion will take
place in all direction and even against gravity. So gases diffuse through firm substances and through small
holes. The streaming of gas molecules through a small hole is called effusion
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Schottish physical chemist, Thomas Graham’s research on the diffusion of gases was triggered by his
reading about the observation of Germen chemist Johan Dobereiner that Hydrogen gas effused out of a small
crack in a glass bottle faster than the surrounding air diffused in to replace it. Graham measured the rate of
effusion of different gases experimentally through very fine tube. In this way he slowed down the process,
so that it could be studied quantitatively.
He plotted the following graph for complete effusion of 100 ml of different gases at 25oC.
According to Graham the rate of diffusion (effusion) of a gas at constant P&T is inversely proportional to
square root of its molecular mass.
1 r M
r at constant P & T 1= 2 at constant P & T
M r M
2 1
The above Equation is applicable only if two said gases are at same temperature
and pressure, effusing through openings of identical geometry. The two gases
may be in the combined system if they are non-reacting and at the same partial
pressure.
If a gaseous mixture consists of several components of different molar masses and at different partial
pressure as well, initial rate of effusion of a component will depend on both molar mass and their partial
pressure as
1
ri pi and r
i M
i
p
r i , if rate of effusion is linearly related to its partial pressure.
i M
i
r p M2
Under the above conditions, 1 1
r p M1
2 2
Rate can be expressed in following terms
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Example 10: Rate of effusion of ethane is 1.53 times faster than rate of a hydrocarbon containing 14.27%
hydrogen by weight, under identical conditions. Deduce the molecular formula of
hydrocarbon.
r (ethane) M
Solution: 1.53 M 70.23
r (hydrocarbon) 30
Empirical formula C H
Wt.% 85.73 14.27
Mol % 85.73 / 12 14.27
SR 1 2
Empirical formula = CH2 ;
Example 11: Ammonia gas and HCl gas from the two flasks, at same temperature and pressure were
injected simultaneously through pinholes of similar geometry, attached at the two ends of a
1.0 m long glass tube. At what distance from the ammonia end, the first flash of white fume
would be observed?
Solution: Since, the two gases are injected at same pressure, their rate of effusion will depend only on
molar mass and ammonia being the lighter than HCl, will move at faster rate as illustrated
in the following diagrams:
100 cm
NH3 HCl
x cm
r NH 3 x 36.5
x 59.43 cm
r HCl 100 x 17
Example12 : Diffusion of a certain volume of N2(g) at 1.0 atm and 300 K, takes 25s, while same volume of
an unknown gas of Xenon and Fluorine at 2.0 atm and 300 K takes 34 s for diffusion through
the same pinhole. Deduce the molecular formula of the unknown gas.
1 r N2 34 PN 2 M 1 M
Solution: Rate M = 207.15
time r gas 25 Pgas 28 2 28
Since atomic mass of Xe = 131, the gas cannot contain more than one Xe atom per
molecule.Hence, the molecular formula of unknown gas could be XeF n.
207.15 = 131 + 19 n x = 4 and gas is XeF4.
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Instantaneous rate of effusion will depend on the instantaneous partial pressure of that component, which
decreases continuously with progress of effusion. Considering, instantaneous rate of decrease of partial
pressure (
dp Kp
square root of molar mass, instantaneous pressure at any time can be solved as
dt M
where K is constant of proportionality,
p2 t
dp K p1 Kt Kt
= dt ln = or p 2 = p1 exp
p1
p M 0
p2 M M
p ln p
t t
Example13: Pressure of nitrogen gas falls from 4000 mm to 2000 mm in 30 min, when allowed to effuse
through a pinhole in the cylinder. If the same cylinder is filled with an equimolar mixture of
N2 and He gas at 4000 mm of Hg, what would be the molar ratio of gases (N2 / He) in the
cylinder after 1.0 hour? Assume rate of decrease of pressure as linear function of gas
pressure.
Solution: Since, initially equal moles of gases are present, initial partial pressure of both N2 and He is
2000 mm of Hg. Also
dP KP p1 K1t
ln
dt M p2 M
4000 30K
For N2(g): ln … (i)
2000 28
In mixture: For N2 :
2000 60 K
ln … (ii)
p N2 28
2000 60 K
For He: ln … (iii)
p Hg 4
Solving Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), pN2 = 500 mm : pHe = 51 mm of Hg
Molar ratio after 1.0 hour (N2 : He) = p N2 : p He = 500 : 51
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Example 19: A two litre bulb contains 3 1023 gas molecules and exert 106 Pa pressure. Calculate
translational energy per molecule and total translational energy.
pV 10 6 2 10 3 6.022 1023
Solution: pV = nRT T 483K
nR 3 1023 8.314
3 3 23 20
E trans k bT 1.38 10 483 10 J / moleule
2 2
3
Etrans (Total ) kb TN 3000.25 J
2
4. REAL GASES
The ideal gas laws are derived from the kinetic theory of gases which is based on the following two
important assumptions:
(i) The volume occupied by the molecules is negligible in comparison to the total volume of the gas.
(ii) The molecules exert no forces of attraction upon one another.
It is because neither of these assumptions can be regarded as applicable to real gases that the real
gases show departure from the ideal behaviour.
Volume Correction
V in the ideal gas equation represents an volume where the molecules can
2r
move freely. In real gases, a part of the total volume is, however, occupied excluded
by the molecules of the gas.. If b represents the effective volume occupied volume
by the molecules of 1 mole of a gas, then for the amount n moles of the
gas Vi is given by V = V container nb
where b is called the excluded volume or co-volume. The numerical value
of b is four times the actual volume occupied by the gas molecules. This
can be shown as follows. If we consider only bimolecular collisions, then
the volume occupied by the sphere of radius 2r represents the excluded
volume per pair of molecules as shown in Fig
4 3 4 3
Thus excluded volume per pair of molecules
3 3
1 4 3 4 3
Excluded volume per molecule = 8
2 3 3
4 3
Since b represents excluded volume per mole of the gas, it is obvious that b = N A 4
3
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Pressure Correction
Consider a molecule A in the bulk of a vessel as shown in fig. This molecule
is surrounded by other molecules in symmetrical manner, with the result that
this molecule on the whole experiences no net force of attraction.
Now, consider a molecule B near the side of the vessel, which is about to
strike one of its sides, thus contributing towards the total pressure of the gas.
There are gas molecules only on one side of the vessel, i.e. towards its centre,
with the result that this molecule experiences a net force of attraction towards
the centre of the vessel. This results in decreasing the velocity of the molecule, and hence its
momentum. Thus, the molecule does not contribute as much force as it would have, had there been no
force of attraction. Thus, the pressure of a real gas would be smaller than the corresponding pressure of
an ideal gas, i.e. pi = pr + correction term
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The constants a & b: Van der Waals constant for attraction (a) and excluded volume (b) are
characteristic for a given gas. Some salient features of a & b are:
i) For a given gas Vander Waal’s constant of attraction ‘a’ is always greater than Vander Waals
constant of excluded volume (b).
ii) The gas having higher value of ‘a’ can be liquefied easily and therefore H2 & He are not
liquefied easily.
iii) The units of a = litre2 atm mole–2 & that of b = litre mole –1
iv) The numerical values of a & b are in the order of 10–1 to 10–2 & 10–2 to 10–4 respectively.
v) Volume correction factor, depends on molecular size and larger molecule will have larger b.
For example, size of He, CH4, CF4, C4H10 are in order of He < CH4 < CF4 < C4H10 and same
will be the order of b.
n 2a
vi) Pressure correction factor ( ) depends on intermolecular force of attraction. Hence, larger the
V2
intermolecular force of attraction larger the value of ‘a’, for same n and V. For example,
intermolecular force of attraction among the molecules H2, CO2, NH3 are in order of
H2 < CO2 < NH3 (H-bonding) thus same is the order of a.
For an ideal gas Z=1 and is independent of pressure and temperature. For a real gas,
Z = (T, p), is a function of both temperature and pressure.
i) At low pressures: ‘V’ is large and ‘b’ is negligible in comparison with V. The Vander Waals equation
reduces to:
a a
P+ 2
V=RT ; PV + = RT
V V
a
PV = RT - or PV RT
V
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a
iii) At very low pressures: V becomes so large that both b andbecome negligible and the Vander
V2
Waals equation reduces to PV = RT. This shows why gases approach ideal behaviour at very low
pressures.
iv) Hydrogen and Helium: These are two lightest gases known. Their molecules have very small masses.
a
The attractive forces between such molecules will be extensively small. So 2 is negligible even at
V
ordinary temperatures. Thus PV RT.
0°C
2 CO2 50° C
100°C
N2
100°C
H2 Z
He
Ideal gas
1.0
Z 1 50°C
0°C
0 P
P (atm)
(Deviation of gases from ideal The plot of Z vs P for N2 gas at different temperature is
behaviour with pressure.) shown here.
Example20: The density of steam at 100oC and 1.0 atm pressure is 0.5974 kg m 3. Determine
compressibility factor for steam in the given condition.
Solution Since Z=Vm,real/Vm,ideal ideal real
pM 1 18
Z 0.985
RT 0.5974 0.082 373
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Example 21: Calculate the pressure exerted by a mole of CO 2 gas confined in a 0.095 L container at
100oC. The 1st and 2nd coefficients Bv RT and Cv RT are -2.26 (l2 atm mol 1) and 0.161
(L3 atm mol 1) respectively.
Solution: Virial equation in volume is:
pVm Bv Cv
1 ....
RT Vm Vm2
RT RT Cv RT
p Bv
Vm Vm2 Vm3
0.0821 373 2.26 0.161
= = 259.32 atm
0.095 (0.095) 2 (0.095) 3
V log V
(C) P (D) P
1
V V
C 1
Solution: P= Where C is a constant. We can see that (c) is true as the graph of P vs would be a
V V
straight line.
(B) is true because log P = log C – log V.
dP C
(A) is true because
dV V2
which means that as V increases the slope decreases and is always negative (D)
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Example 3 A commercial gas cylinder contains 75 L of He at 15 bar (Gauge pressure). Assuming ideal
gas behavior for the isothermal expansion, how many 3.0 L balloons at 1.1 bar pressure can
be filled by the gas in the cylinder?
(A) 338 (B) 430 (C) 403 (D) 304
Solution: Assuming atmospheric pressure to be one bar, initial pressure and final pressure
of He gas present in cylinder will be:
pi = 15 + 1 = 16 bar and pf = 1.1 bar
75 16
Volume of He gas when expanded isothermally to 1.1 bar = 1090.9L
1.1
Out of 1090.9L, 75 L of gas will remain in cylinder since this point pressure
equilibrium will be established.
1090.9 75
Numbers of balloons = 338 Thus (A)
3
Example 4 A vessel has N2 gas saturated with water vapor at a total pressure of 1 atm. The partial
pressure of water vapour is 0.3 atm. The contents of this vessel are transferred to another
vessel having one third of the capacity of original volume, at the same temperature the total
pressure of this system in the new vessel is
(A) 3.0 atm (B) 1 atm (C) 3.33 atm (D) 2.4 atm
Solution: PN' 2 PH' 2 O 1atm PH' 2O 0.3 atm PN' 2 0.7 atm
Now new pressure of N2 in another vessel of volume V/3 at same temperature T is given by
V1
PN" 2 0. 7V PN" 2 2.1 atm
3
since aqueous tension remains constant, and thus total pressure in new vessel
PN" 2 PH' 2 O = 2.1 + 0.3 = 2.4 atm (D)
Example 5 X ml of H2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the
effusion of the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is :
(A) 10 seconds : He (B) 20 seconds : O2
(C) 25 seconds : CO (D) 35 seconds : CO2
rH 2 4 rH 2 32
Solution: 2 (A) is incorrect ; 4 (B) is correct
rHe 2 rO2 2
rH 2 28 rH 2 2 1
14 (C) is incorrect ; = (D)is incorrect (B)
rCO 2 rCO2 44 12
Example 6 In what molar ratio He and CH4 should be mixed so that when the mixture is allowed to
effuse through a pinhole, initially both gases come out at equal rate?
(A) 2:1 (B) 1:1
(C) 2:3 (D) 4:1
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n
Solution: Since, rate of effusion (r) from a mixture.
M
r ( He) n( He) 16
1. 0 n CH 4 : n He 2 :1 (A)
r (CH 4 ) n(CH 4 ) 4
Example 7 Dalton’s law of partial pressure is not applicable to, at normal conditions
(A) H2 and N2 mixture (B) H2 and Cl2 mixture
(C) H2 and CO2 mixture (D) H2 and O2 mixture
Solution: H2 and Cl2 reacts to form HCl; Dalton’s law of partial pressure is valid only for the gases
which don’t react at ordinary conditions (B)
Example 8 For two gases A and B with molecular weights MA and MB, it is observed that at a certain
temperature T1 the mean velocity of A is equal to the root mean square velocity of B. thus the
mean velocity of A can be made equal to the mean velocity of B if
(A) A is at temperature T and B at T , T > T
(B) A is lowered to a temperature T2 , T2 < T while B is at T
(C) Both A and B are raised to a higher temperature
(D) Both A and B are placed at lower temperature
8RT 3RT 8 MA
Solution: (UAV)A = and (Urms)B =
MA MB 3 MB
8RT2 8RT T2 MA 8 8
for A (UAV) = for B (UAV) = T2 = T or
MA MB T MB 3 3
T2 < T (B)
Example 9 The K.E. of N molecule of O2 is x Joules at –123°C. Another sample of O2 at 27°C has a KE
of 2x Joules. The latter sample contains.
(A) N molecules of O2 (B) 2N molecules of O2
(C) N/2 molecules of O2 (D) N/4 molecule of O2
3 3
Solution: Total KE = nRT ; T = – 123 + 273 = + 150 K ; nR 150 xJ
2 2
=> 225 8.314 n = x
At 27°C = 27+ 273 = 300K
3
Total KE = 2x Joule = n1 8.314 300 n1 n (A)
2
Example 10 If for two gases of molecular weights MA and MB at temperature TA and TB,
TAMB = TBMA, then which property has the same magnitude for both the gases.
(A) density (B) pressure (C) KE per mol (D) Vrms
PM
Solution: i) density of a gas ( ) =
RT
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MB MA
Since , at the same pressure A = B . But if pressure is different
TB TA
then A B .
ii) Pressure of the gases would be equal if their densities are equal otherwise not.
3
iii) KE per mol = RT
2
It will be different for the two gases.
3RT T TB
iv) Vrms = , since A ; Vrms of A = Vrms of B (D)
M MA MB
Example 11 Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule. At 298 K, the average kinetic
energy of a Helium atom is
(A) two times that of hydrogen molecule (B) same as that of a hydrogen molecule
(C) four times that of a hydrogen molecule (D) half that of a hydrogen molecule
3
Solution: The average kinetic energy of an atom is given as kT.
2
It does not depend on mass of the atom. (B)
Example 12 The ratio between the rms velocity of H2 at 50 K and that of O2 at 800 K is
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 1/4 [IIT–JEE ’96]
3R 50 3R 800
Solution: Vrms (H2 at 50 K) = ; Vrms (O2 at 800K) =
2 10 3 32 10 3
3R 50
Vrms (H2 ) 2 10 3 25 103
1 (C)
Vrms (O 2 ) 3R 800 25 103
32 10 3
Example 13 The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 140 K to 560 K. If at 140 K the root mean
square velocity of the gas molecule is V, at 560 K it becomes
(A) 5V (B) 2V (C) V/2 (D) V/4
Solution: The Vrms at 140K is V
3R 140
V=
M
3R 560 3R 140 4 3R 140
At 540 K, V = = =2 = 2V
M M M
(B)
Example 14 At 100oC and 1 atm, if the density of liquid water is 1.0 g/cc and that of water vapour is
0.0006 g/cc, then the volume occupied by water molecule in one litre of steam at that
temperature is
(A) 6 cc (B) 60 cc (C) 0.6 cc (D) 0.06 cc
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Example 18 Using van der waal’s equation, calculate the constant, ‘a’ (atm Ltr2 mole-2)when
two moles of a gas confined in a four litre flask exerts a pressure of 11 atm at a
temperature of 300 K. The value of ‘b’ is 0.05 Litre mole-1
(A) 6.5 (B) 2.23 (C) 23.2 (D) .85
Solution Vander waal’s gas equation is
( P + n2a/V2) (V-nb) = nRT
Since V =4 litre, P = 11 atm, T = 300K, b = 0.05 litre mol-1, n = 2
Thus (11+22a/42) (4-2 ×0.05) = 2× 0.082× 300
=> a = 6.5 atm litre2 mol-2 (A)
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Example 2 A flask containing some He gas at 1.5 atm and 300 K is connected to another flask, four
times larger in volume containing nitrogen gas at same temperature and pressure by means of
a narrow tube of negligible volume. The bigger flask was then kept in a thermostat bath
maintained at 500 K, while other flask was maintained at constant 300 K. Determine the final
pressures.
Solution: Since, initially gases are at same temperature and pressure, if there is x mol of He gas, mole
of N2(g) = 4x (Avogadro’s law)
V 4V
He N2
Final conditions:
n1, 300 K, p n2, 500 K, p
Applying ideal gas laws
V V V 4V
nT I nT II n1 300 I
n2 500 II
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12n1 17 n1 25 x
Also, n1 + n2 = x + 4x = 5x = n1 + n1
5 5 17
Now, applying ideal gas law on flask I, before and after heating.
1.5 x x 17 1.5 25
p n 17 p 2.2
p n1 25 x 25 17
Thus p =2.2 atm
Example 3 Two flasks of equal volume, connected by a narrow tube of negligible volume contain 1.0
mol of H2 gas at 300 K and 0.5 atmosphere. Now one of the flasks is immersed into a
thermostat maintained at 400 K and other was maintained at constant 300 K temperature.
Determine final pressure and amount of H2 gas in each flask.
Solution: Initially, both the flasks contained Initial conditions: 0.5 mol. 0.5 atm 0.5 mol. 0.5 atm
300 K 300 K
equal moles of H2(g) i.e., 0.5 mol each
(Avogadro’s law). A B
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The three different situations are described diagrammatically in the following figures:
Example 5 A vertical hollow cylinder of height 1.52m is fitted with a movable piston of negligible mass
and thickness. The lower half of the cylinder contains an ideal gas and the upper half is filled
with mercury. The cylinder is initially at 300 K. When the temperature is raised half of the
mercury comes out of the cylinder. Find the temperature assuming the thermal expansion of
mercury to be negligible?
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3 V1
= 114 cm, T = ?, V =
4
P1V1 P2 V2
T1 T2
152 V1 114 3 V1
T = 337.5 K
2 300 4 T
Example 6 A spherical glass bulb of radius 1.0 m contains a concentric rubber balloon that contains
some N2 gas and the remaining space in the flask contains 50 g H2. In the given conditions,
radius of the rubber balloon was found to be 40 cm. Now the seal of glass bulb was opened
and 25 g H2(g) was further added and resealed. Determine radius of the rubber balloon in the
new conditions. Assume constant temperature throughout.
Solution:
50 g H2(g) 75 g H2(g)
p p
40 cm +25 g H2(g) r cm
N2 N2
p p
I II
From the above illustration, it is obvious that pressure inside and outside the balloon is same
in both the cases. Applying the gas law on I to N2(g) and H2(g); p and T are same:
4 4
V( H 2 ) V( N 2 ) 1003 403 403
3 3
n( H 2 ) n( N 2 ) 25 n( N 2 )
25 (40)3
n( N 2 ) 1.7 mol
[(100) 3 (40) 3 ]
Applying the gas law on II to N2(g):
4 3
r 3
4 [(100) 3 r 3 ] 3 37.5 (100)3 r3 100
1
3 37.5 1.7 1.7 r3 r
3
100 37.5 392
1 r = 35.13 cm
r 1.7 17
Example 7 A 100 mL flask containing oxygen gas at 1.2 atm and 300 K is connected to a 250 mL flask
containing NO(g) at 0.6 atm and 300 K, by means of a narrow tube of negligible volume,
where they combine quantitatively to form NO2. Finally NO2(g) dimerized partially into
N2O4 and pressure inside the flask was found to be 0.41 atm at the same temperature.
Determine the percentage dimerization of NO2 as
2NO2(g) N2O4(g)
Solution: Before reaction Partial pressure of O2 in the combined system
100
= 1.2 0.3428 atm
350
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O2(g)
NO(g)
1.2 atm 0.6 atm
Also, in the combined system P1 n1; partial pressure can directly be used to
solve the stoichiometry of reaction as
l
2NO + O2 2NO2 N2O4
Initial partial p: 0.4285 0.3428 0 0
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1. I, II, III are three iso-therm respectively at T1, T2 & T3 temperatures will be in order
(A) T1 = T2 = T3 (B) T1 T2 T3 P
(C) T1 T2 T3 (D) T1 T2 = T3 II
I
III
V
2. The volume of a large irregularly shaped tank is determined as follows. The tank is
first evacuated, and then it is connected to a 50 L cylinder of compressed helium gas. The gas
pressure in the cylinder, originally at 21atm, falls to 7.0atm without a change in temperature. What is
the volume of the tank?
(A) 100L (B) 150L (C) 200L (D) 300L
3. At a constant temperature what should be the percentage increase in pressure for a 5% decrease in
the volume of gas:
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 5.26% (D) 4.26%
4. At a constant pressure, what should be the percentage increase in the temperature in Kelvin for a
10% increase in volume
(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 5% (D) 50%
6. The volume of gas is 100ml at 100 oC. If pressure remains same then at what temperature it will be
200ml?
(A) 200oC (B) 473oC (C) 746oC (D) 50oC
7. A gas cylinder containing cooking gas can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atm. The pressure gauge of
cylinder indicates 12 atm at 27°C. Due to sudden fire in building the temperature starts rising. The
temperature at which the cylinder will explode is.
(A) 42.5°C (B) 67.8°C (C) 99.5°C (D) 25.7°C
9. 3.2g S on heating if occupy a volume of 780 ml at 450°C and 723 mm pressure. Formula of sulphur
is:
(A) S2 (B) S (C) S4 (D) S8
10. The volume of balloon filled with 4.0g He at 22oC and 720 mm of Hg is
(A)25.565 L (B) 20 L (C) 15 L (D) 30 L
11. Two containers A and B contain the same gas. If the pressure, volume and absolute temperature of
the gas in A are twice as compared to that of gas in B, and if the mass of the gas B is x g, the mass of
gas in A is
(A) x g (B) 4x g (C) 2/x g (D) 2x g
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12. What is the final temperature if a sample of ammonia gas, initially at a pressure of 3.00 atm, a
temperature of 500K, and a volume of 275L is changed to a volume of 200L and a pressure of
2.50atm?
(A) 303K (B) 436K (C) 573K (D) 825K
13. 5.40 gm of an unknown gas at 27 C occupies the same volume as 0.14 gm of hydrogen at 17 C and
same pressure. The molecular weight of unknown gas is
(A) 79.8 (B) 81 (C) 79.2 (D) 83
14. Which of the following gases would have the largest density at 25 C and 1.00 atm pressure?
(A) Methane, CH4 (B) Acetylene, C2H2 (C) Ethylene, C2H4 (D) Propane, C3H8
15. To expel half the mass of air from a large flask at 27oC, it must be heated to:
(A) 54oC (B) 177oC (C) 277oC (D) 327oC
16. An open vessel containing air is heated from 300 K to 400 K. The fraction of air originally present
which goes out of it is:
(A) 3/4 (B) 1/4 (C) 2/3 (D) 1/8
17. 0.2 mole sample of hydrocarbon CxHy yields after complete combustion with excess O2 gas, 0.8
mole of CO2, 1.0 mole of H2O. Hence hydrocarbon is
(A) C4H10 (B) C4H8 (C) C4H5 (D) C8H16
18. If the pressure of a given mass of gas is reduced to half and temperature is doubled simultaneously
then the volume will be
(A) Same as before (B) Twice as before (C) ¼ the as before (D) None
19. The 1 mol of an Ideal gas A with 300 mm of Hg is separated by 2 mol of another ideal gas B with
300 mm of Hg in closed container at the same temperature. If the separation is removed than total
pressure is
(A) 200 mm of Hg (B) 300 mm of Hg (C) 500 mm of Hg (D) 600 mm of Hg
20. Assume centre of sun to consist of gases whose average molecular weight is 2. The density and
pressure of the gas are 1.3 g cc–1 and 1.12 109 atm respectively. The temperature of sun is
(A) 2 103 K (B) 2 105 K (C) 2 107 K (D) 2 109 K
21. 6 g each of the following gases at 87oC and 750 mm pressure are taken. Which of them will have the
least volume
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI
22. The density of O2 gas at 25oC is 1.458 mg/lt at one atm pressure. At what pressure will O2 have the
density twice the value?
(A) 0.5 atm/250C (B) 2atm/25oC (C) 4atm/25oC (D) none
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24. Figure shows graphs of pressure versus density for an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 and T2.
Which is correct? T 1
T2
Pressure
Density
25. Equal masses of three ideal gases X, Y and Z are mixed in a sealed rigid container. If the
temperature of the system remains constant, which of the following statements about the partial
pressure of gas X is correct?
(A) It is equal to 1/3 the total pressure
(B) It depends on the intermolecular forces of attraction between molecule of X, Y and Z.
(C) It depends on the relative molecular masses of X, Y and Z.
(D) It depends on the average distance travelled between molecular collisions.
26. When 2g gas A is introduced into an evacuated flask kept at 25°C, the pressure is found to be 1 atm.
If 3g of another gas B is further added to same flask, the total pressure becomes 1.5 atm. The ratio of
molecular weights is
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:3 (D) 1:4
27. Air contains 79 % N2 and 21 % O2 by volume. If the barometric pressure is 750 mm Hg. The partial
pressure of oxygen is
(A) 157.5 mmHg (B) 175.5 mmHg (C) 315.0 mmHg (D) none
28. A gaseous mixture contains 1g of H2, 4g of He, 7g of N2 and 8g of O2. The gas having the highest
partial pressure is
(A) H2 (B) O2 (C) He (D) N2
29. A mixture consisting of 0.10 moles of N2, 0.05 moles of O2 and 0.20 moles of CH4 and an unknown
amount of CO2 occupied a volume of 9.6 L at 27 C and 1.0 atm pressure. How many moles of CO2
are there in this sample ?
(A) 0.04 mol (B) 0.39 mol (C) 0.05 mol (D) 0.10 mol
Graham’s Law
30. X ml of H2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 secs. The time taken for effusion of same
volume of gas specified below under identical condition is
(A) 10 secs : He (B) 20 secs : O2 (C) 25 secs : CO (D) 55 secs : CO2
31. Which of the following pair will diffuse at the same rate?
(A) CO2 and N2O (B) CO2 and NO (C) CO2 and CO (D) N2O and NO
32. A mixture of H2 and O2 in 2:1 volume is allowed to diffuse through a porous partition what is the
composition of gas coming out initially
(A) 1:2 (B) 4:1 (C) 8:1 (D) 1:4
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34. The pair of gases which can be most easily separated from effusion technique
(A) D2 and H2 (B) CH4 and CD4 (C) C12H4 and C14H4 (D) U235F6 and U238F6
35. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of gas X. The molecular weight
of X is:
(A) 64.0 (B) 32.0 (C) 4.0 (D) 8.0
36. Which of the following mixture of gases cannot be separated by diffusion method
(A) NO + C2 H6 (B) NO + NO2
(C) CO + CO2 (D) C2H4 + C2 H6
37. Bromine vapour at a given temperature is roughly 5 times denser than oxygen gas. Calculate the
relative rates at which Br2(g) and O2(g) diffuse.
(A) O2 should diffuse roughly 2.2 times faster.
(B) Br2 should diffuse roughly 2.2times faster.
(C) O2 should diffuse roughly 5.0 times faster.
(D) Br2 should diffuse roughly 5 times faster.
38. A balloon filled with moist air has developed a pinhole. It is quickly plunged into a tank of dry air at
the same pressure. In a short while
(A) It will collapse (B) It will enlarge
(C) No change will take place (D) can’t be predicted
39. Some moles of SO2 diffuse through a small opening in 20 seconds. Same number of moles of an
unknown gas diffuses through the same opening in 60 seconds. Molecular mass of the unknown gas
is
2 60 2 20
(A) 64 (B) 64
20 60
2 2
60 20
(C) 64 (D) 64
20 60
40. Vegetables are canned, while they are steaming hot because
(A) the heat inside will seal the jars
(B) the heat increases the atmospheric pressure
(C) the heat creates more pressure inside the jars
(D) when the jars cool, a vacuum inside will help to seal the jars
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Compressibility Factor
72. The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is
(A) 1.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D)
X
(A) Hydrogen and Helium (B) Helium and Hydrogen Y
Z 1
(C) Hydrogen and Neon (D) Helium and Neon
0 P
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P (atm)
Van der Waal’s gas equation
77. For non-zero value of force of attraction between gas molecules gas equation will be
n 2a nRT
(A) PV = nRT – (B) PV = nRT + nbP (C) PV = nRT (D) P =
V V b
78. Out of the following gases, which one has least value of Vander Waals constant ‘a’
(A) CO2 (B) NH3 (C) CH4 (D) H2
80. Which of the following statement is true for Van der waals gas constant ‘a’ and ‘b’?
(A) ‘a’ depends on size and shape, ‘b’ depends only on size of molecule.
(B) ‘b’ depends on size and shape, ‘a’ depends only on size of molecule.
(C) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ depends on shape and size of molecule.
(D) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ depends only on size of molecule.
82. Identify the conditions of pressure and temperature at which a real gas shows maximum deviation
from ideal behavior:
(A)10 atm, 273 K (B) 5 atm, 273 K (C) 10 atm, 373 K (D) 5 atm, 373 K
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2. a) How large a balloon could you fill with 4.0 g of He gas at 22 oC and 720 mm of Hg?
b) Calculate the density of CO2 at 100 0C and 800 mm Hg pressure.
3. a) A container has 3.2 g of a certain gas at NTP. What would be the mass of the same gas contained
in the same vessel at 200 C and 16 atm pressure?
b) A certain quantity of a gas measured 500 mL at a temperature of 15°C and 750 mm Hg. What
pressure is required to compress this quantity of gas into a 400 mL vessel at a temperature of 50°C?
4. An open vessel at 27 C is heated until three-fifths of the air in it has been expelled. Assuming the
volume of the vessel remains constant, find the temperature to which the vessel has to be heated.
5. At 60°C the vapour density of N2O4 gas was found to be 30.2. Calculate the percentage of NO2
molecules by moles.
6. 100 mL of gas is collected at 750 mm pressure. What volume will it occupy at 745 mm pressure?
7. A toy balloon originally held 1.0 gm of He gas and had a radius 10 cm. During the night, 0.25 gm of
the gas effused from the balloon. Assuming ideal gas behaivour, under these constant P and T
conditions, what was the radius of the balloon the next morning?
9. Three hollow metallic boxes A,B and C are connected through a narrow tube of negligible volume
and filled with He gas. If the internal volumes of these boxes are in the ratio of 1:2:4, (i) Find the
molar ratio of He in these boxes (ii) How the molar ratio of He would change if the boxes A,B and
C are immersed in different temperature baths having temperature 270C,1270C,&3270C,
respectively?
10. The temperature of a given mass of air was changed from 150C to – 150C. If the pressure remains
unchanged and the initial volume was 100 mL, what should be the final volume?
11. The density of a gas at 270C and 760 mm pressure is 24. Calculate the temperature at which it will be
18, the pressure remaining constant.
13. 1.0×10–2 kg of hydrogen and 6.4×10–2 kg of oxygen are contained in a 10×10–3 m3 flask at 473 K.
Calculate the total pressure of the mixture. If a spark ignites the mixture. What will be the final
pressure?
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14. Exactly 100 mL of oxygen is collected over water of 23 0C and 800 mm pressure. Calculate the
volume of dry oxygen at NTP. (Vapour pressure of water at 230C is 21 mm.)
15. 250 ml of nitrogen gas maintained at 650 mm pressure and 380 mL of oxygen gas maintained at 650
mm pressure are put together in 1 L flask. If temperature is kept constant, what will be the final
pressure of the mixture?
16. At 627 oC and 1.0 atm, SO3 partially dissociates into SO2 and O2. One liter of the equilibrium mixture
weighs 0.94 g under the above conditions. Determine the partial pressure of the constituent gases in
the mixture.
Graham’s Law
17. At room temp , NH3 gas at one atm & HCl gas at “P” atm are allowed to effuse through identical
pin holes to the opposite ends of a glass tube 1m long & uniform cross-section. A white deposit is
observed at a distance of 60 cm from the HCl end. What is “P”.
18. The relative of diffusion of ozone as compared to chlorine is 6:5. If the density of Cl2 is 35.5, find
out the density of ozone.
19. 127 mL of a certain gas diffusion of the same time as 100 mL of chlorine under the same conditions.
Calculate the molecular weight of the gas.
20. The ratio of rates of effusion of two gases A and B is 1:4. If the ratio of their masses present in the
mixture is 2:3. What is the ratio of their mole fraction in mixture?
21. A gaseous mixture consists of CH4, O2 and SO2 in the weight ratio of 4:2:1. The mixture was then
allowed to effuse through a small hole at a definite temperature. What will be the mole composition
of the mixture leaving the hole initially?
22. Calculate the molecular weight of a gas X which diffuses four times as fast as another gas Y, which in
turn diffuses twice as fast as another gas Z. Molecular weight of the gas Z is 128.
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ANSWER KEY
Foundation Builders (objective)
1. C 17. A C B B
2. A 18. D A C A
3. C 19. B A B B
4. A 20. C A A A
5. A 21. D A C
6. B 22. B A A
7. C 23. B C D
8. C 24. A D D
9. D 25. C A
10. A 26. C
11. D 27. A
12. A 28. C
13. A 29. A
14. D 30. B
15. D 31. A
16. B 32. C
1. Will burst 1
1 3
2 a) 25.5 litre, b)1.5124 g/litre 20
24
3 a) 29.55g, b) 1051.4 mm of Hg
4 750 K 21 32 : 4 2 :1
5 68.7 % 22 M=2
6 100.67ml
7 9.08 cm
8 4.93atm
9 1 : 2 : 4, 2 : 3 : 4
10 89.58ml
11 400K
12 66.7 atm
13 Ptotal = 27.54×105 N/m2 , Pfinal =
19.66×105N/m2
14 94.5ml
15 P= 409.5mm,
16 SO3 =0.6, SO2 =0.265 and O2 =0.135 atm
17 2.19 atm
18 24.65
19 44
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EXERCISE
1. Substances whose solutions can readily diffuse through animal membranes are called:
(a) Colloids (b) Crystalloids (c) Electrolytes (d) Non-electrolytes
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17. Brownian motion shown by colloidal particle is its _________ property
(a) Optical (b) Electrical (c) Kinetic (d) Chemical
28. When dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3 (excess) is added to Kl solution, positively sol particles of
Agl are formed due to adsorption of ion
(a) K (b) Ag (c) I (d) NO3
29. Which one of the following substance is not used for preparing lyophilic sols
(a) Starch (b) Gum (c) Gelatin (d) Metal sulphide
31. A freshly prepared Fe OH 3 , precipitate is peptized by adding FeCl3 solution. The charge on the
colloidal particle is due to preferential adsorption of
(a) Clions (b) Feions (c) OHions (d) None
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32. Which of the following sol is formed due to following Rxn: SnO2 HCl (Excess)
(a) SnCl4 Cl (b) SnCl4 O2 (c) SnCl 4 H (d) None
33. Isoelectric point refers to the Hion concentration at which the colloidal particles
(a) Peptization takes place
(b) Become electricity neutral
(c) Can move to either electrode when subjected to an electric field
(d) Reverse their electrical charge
34. The volumes of gases H2 , CH4 , CO2 and NH3 adsorbed by 1 g of charcoal at 288K are in the order
(a) H2 CH 4 CO2 NH3 (b) CH4 CO2 NH3 H 2
(c) CO2 NH3 H 2 CH 4 (d) NH3 CO2 CH 4 H 2
35. Following are various types of colloids. Match column X with column Y.
X [Colloids] Y [Classification]
I. Smoke A. Sol
II. Gelatin B. Aerosol
III. Soap lather C. Emulsion
IV. Milk D. Foam
Correct matching is
I II III IV
(a) A B C D
(b) A C B D
(c) B A D C
(d) B A C D
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41. If dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion inedium is solid, the colloid is known as
(a) A sol (b) A gel (c) An emulsion (d) A foam
48. A liquid is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves no residue when passed through the filter
paper. The liquid can be described as
(a) A suspension (b) Oil (c) A colloidal sol (d) True solution
53. When some special substance like protein particles, blood corpuscles etc. are separated by a
permeable, the process is called
(a) Dialysis (b) Diffusion (c) Exosmosis (d) Endosmosis
55. Which one of the following method is commonly used for destruction colloid
(a) Dialysis (b) Condensation
(c) Filteration by animal membrane (d) By adding electrolyte
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56. Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of gas on surface of solid.
(a) On increasing temp. adsorption increases continuously
(b) Enthalpy & entropy charge is negative
(c) Adsorption is more for some specific substances
(d) Reversible
60. Who was awarded Noble Prize for the study of catalytic reactions:
(a) Ostwald (b) Berzelius (c) Vant-Hoff (d) Werner
63. When dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3 (excess) is added to KI solution, positively charged sol
particles of Aglare formed due to adsorption of ion?
(a) K (b) Ag (c) I (d) NO3
65. A liquid which markedly scatters a beam of light (visible in dark room) but leaves no residue when
passed through a filter paper is best described as
(a) A suspension (b) Sol (c) True solution (d) None
194
69. Which of the following is not a colloidal system?
(a) Bread (b) Muddy water (c) Concrete (d) Sugar in water
72. Which of the following forms cationic micelles above certain concentration
(a) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide (b) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
(c) Sodium acetate (d) Urea
73. Which one of the following forms micelles in aqueous solution above certain concentration
(a) Glucose
(b) Urea
(c) Dodecyltrimethyl ammonium chloride
(d) Pyridinium
195
82. Brownian motion shown by colloidal particle is its _______ property
(a) Optical (b) Electrical (c) Kinetic (d) Chemical
87. If the density of a gas A is 1.5 times that of B then the molecular mass of A is M. The molecular
mass of B will be
M M
(a) 1.5 M (b) (c) 3M (d)
1.5 3
89. A certain mass of a gas occupies a volume of 2 litre at STP. Keeping the pressure constant at what
temperature would the gas occupy a volume of 4 litre.
(a) 546o C (b) 273o C (c) 100o C (d) 50o C
90. In the gas equation PV nRT the value of universal gas constant depends upon
(a) The nature of the gas (b) The pressure of the gas
(c) The temperature of the gas (d) The units of measurement
91. 8.2L of an ideal gas weighs 9.0g at 300K and 1 atm pressure. The molecular mass of gas is
(a) 9 (b) 27 (c) 54 (d) 81
92. At similar temperature and pressure condition. The equal volume of different gases contain equal
number of
(a) Atoms (b) Molecules (c) Radicals (d) Compounds
93. Two flasks A and B of 500 mL each are respectively with O 2 and SO2 at 300K and 1 atm pressure.
The flasks contain
(a) The same number of atoms
(b) The same number of molecules
(c) More number of moles in flask A as compared to flask B
(d) The same amount of gases
94. The density of a gas is equal to (P = pressure V = volume, T = temperature, R = gas constant, n =
number of moles and M = molecular weight)
PM w P Mw
(a) nP (b) (c) (d)
RT RT V
196
95. A 0.5 dm3 flask contains gas A and 1 dm3 flask contains gas B at the same temperature. If density
1
of A 3.0g dm3 and that of B 1.5g dm3 and the molar mass of A of B , then the ratio of
2
pressure exerted by gases is
P P P P
(a) A 2 (b) A 1 (c) A 4 (d) A 3
PB PB PB PB
96. When the pressure of 5L of N 2 is doubled and its temperature is raised from 300K to 600K, the final
volume of the gas would be
(a) 10 L (b) 5L (c) 15 L (d) 20L
97. One litre of an unknown gas weighs 1.25g at N.T.P. which of the following gas pertains to the above
data
(a) CO 2 (b) NO 2 (c) N 2 (d) O 2
98. When gases are heated from 20o C to 40o C at constant pressure, the volumes
(a) Increase by the same magnitude
(b) Become double
(c) Increase in the ration of their molecular masses
(d) Increase but to different extent
99. A vessel has two equal compartments A and B containing H 2 and O 2 respectively, each at 1 atm
pressure. If the wall separating the compartment is removed, the pressure
(a) Will remain unchanged in A and B (b) Will increase in A and increase in B
(c) Will decrease in A and increase in B (d) Will increase in both A and B
100. A flask of methane CH 4 was weighed. Methane was then pushed out and the flask again weighed
when filled with oxygen at the same temperature and pressure. The mass of oxygen would be
(a) The same as the methane
(b) Half of the methane
(c) Double of that of methane
(d) Negaligible in comparison to that of methane
103. A box of 1L capacity is divided into two equal compartments by a thin partition which are filled with
2g H 2 and 16g CH4 respectively. The pressure in each compartment is recorded as P atm. The total
pressure when partition is removed will be
(a) 9 (b) 2P (c) P/2 (d) P/4
104. A 2.24L cylinder of oxygen at N.T.P. is found to develop a leakage. When the leakage was plugged
the pressure dropped to 570mm of Hg. The number of mole of gas that escaped will be
(a) 0.025 (b) 0.050 (c) 0.075 (d) 0.09
105. 10 g of a gas at NTP occupies 5 litres. The temperature at which the volume become double for the
same mass of gas at the same pressure is?
(a) 273 K (b) 273o C (c) 273o C (d) 546o C
197
106. An open vessel containing air is heated from 27o C to 127o C . The fraction of air originally present
which goes out of it is
(a) 3/4 (b) 1/4 (c) 2/3 (d) 1/8
107. At 740 mm pressure in a closed vessel. Number of oxygen and hydrogen molecule is same. If
oxygen is removed from system than pressure become
(a) Half of 740 mm (b) Unchanged
1
(c) th of 740 mm (d) double than 740 mm
9
108. When pressure is changed from 1 atm to 0.5 atm then number. of molecule in 1 mole ammonia
changes to:
(a) 75% of its initial volume (b) 50% of its initial volume
(c) 25% of its initial volume (d) None
109. In a closed flask of 5 litre, 1.0 g of H 2 is heated from 300 to 600K. which statement is not correct
(a) Pressure of the gas increases
(b) The rate of collision inctrases
(c) The number of moles of gas increases
(d) The energy of gaseous molecules increases
110. V versus T curves at constant pressure P1 and P2 for an ideal gas are shown in figure which is
corrected
(a) P1 P2 (b) P1 P2
(c) P1 P2 (d) Cannot be interpreted by graph
111. In pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased 0.5% when heated by 1o C its initial
temperature
(a) 250 K (b) 250o C (c) 2500 K (d) 25o C
112. There is 10 litre of a gas at STP. Which of the following changes keeps the volume constant
(a) 273 K and 2 atm (b) 273o C and 2 atm (c) 546o C and 0.5 atm (d) 0o C and 0 atm
113. The density of oxygen gas at 25o C is 1.458 mg/kitre at one atmosphere. At what pressure will
oxygen have the density twice the value
(a) 0.5 atm/ 25o C (b) 1atm/ 25o C (c) 4 atm/ 25o C (d) None
114. Figure shows graphs of pressure versus density for an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 and T2 .
Which is correct
198
115. The molecular weight O 2 and SO2 are 32 and 64 respectively. If one of O 2 at 15o C and 759 mm
pressure contains N molecules, the number of molecules in two litre of SO2 under the same
conditions of temperature and pressure will be
(a) N/2 (b) N (c) 2N (d) 4N
116. At a constant pressure, what should be the percent age increase in the temperature in Kelvin for a
10% increase in volume
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 5% (d) 50%
117. Which pair of the gaseous species diffuse through a small jet with the same rate of diffusion at same
P and T
(a) NO, CO (b) NO, CO2 (c) NH 3 , PH3 (d) NO, C2 H 6
118. The rate if diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular weight
of X is
(a) 64 (b) 32 (c) 4.0 (d) 8.0
120. Gas a having molecular weight 4 diffuses thrice as fast as the gas B at a given T. The molecular
weight of gas B is
(a) 36 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 24
121. Four rubber tubes are respectively filled with H2 , O2 , N 2 and CO 2 . The tube which will be reinflated
first is
(a) H 2 filled tube (b) O 2 filled tube (c) N 2 filled tube (d) CO 2 filled tube
123. If the densities of methane & oxygen are in the ratio 1 : 2, the ratio of rate of diffusion of O 2 %
CH4 is
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:1.414 (c) 2:1 (d) 1.414:1
125. Equal masses of SO2 , CH 4 and O 2 are mixed in empty container at 298K, when total pressure is 2.1
atm. The partial pressures of CH4 in the mixture.
(a) 0.5 atm (b) 0.75 atm (c) 1.2 atm (d) 0.6 atm
126. If 500 mL of a gas A at 1000 torr, and 1000 mL of gas B 800 torr. are placed in a 2L container, the
final pressure will be
(a) 100 torr (b) 650 torr (c) 1800 torr (d) 2400 torr
127. If saturated vapours are compressed slowly (temperature remaining constant) to half the initial
volume, the vapour pressure will
(a) Become four times (b) Become doubled
(c) Remain unchanged (d) Become half
199
128. The partial pressure of hydrogen in a flask containing 2g of H 2 & 32g of SO2 is
1 1
(a) of total pressure (b) of total pressure
16 2
2 1
(c) of total pressure (d) of total pressure
3 8
129. At constant temperature 200 cm3 of N 2 at 720 mm and 400 cm3 of O 2 at 750 mm pressure are put
together in a one litre flask. The final pressure of mixture is
(a) 111 mm (b) 222 mm (c) 333 mm (d) 444 mm
130. Air contains 79% N 2 and 21% O 2 be volume. If the barometric pressure is 750 mm Hg partial
pressure of oxygen is
(a) 157.5 mm of Hg (b) 175.5 mm of Hg (c) 315.0 mm of Hg (d) None
131. Among the following gases which one has the lowest mean square speed at 25o C
(a) SO2 (b) N 2 (c) O 2 (d) Cl 2
132.
The ratio of most probable velocity average velocity v root mean square velocity u is
8
(a) 2: : 3 (b) 1: 2 : 3 (c) 2: 3: 8 (d) 1 : 8 : 3
133. At STP, the order of root mean square speed of molecules H2 , N 2 , O 2 and HBr is
(a) H2 N2 O2 HBr (b) HBr O2 N 2 H2
(c) HBr H 2 O2 N2 (d) N 2 O2 H2 HBr
134. The RMS speed at NTP of the gas can be calculated from the expression
3P 3PV 3RT
(a) (b) (c) (d) All are correct
d Mw Mw
135. Which of the following expression does not give root mean square velocity
1 1 1 1
2
3RT 3P 2 3P 2 PV 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Mw DM w D Mw
136. A gas X diffuses three times faster than another gas Y the ratio of their densities i.e., Dx : D y is
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/9 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/12
137. Four particles have speed 2, 3, 4 and 5 cm/s respectively. Their rms speed is
27 54
(a) 3.5 cm/s (b) cm / s (c) 54cm / s (d) cm / s
2 2
200
140. Average kinetic energy of CO 2 at 27o C is E. The average kinetic of NO 2 at the same temperature
will be
(a) E (b) (c) (d)
141. At what temperature will be total kinetic energy (KE) of 0.30 mole of He be the same as the total
kinetic energy of 0.40 mole of Ar at 400 K
(a) 400 K (b) 373 K (c) 533 K (d) 300 K
143. The correct expression for the vander waal’s equation of states is
a an 2
(a) p 2 2 V nb nRT (b) p 2 V nb nRT
nV V
an 2 an 2
(c) p 2 V b nRT (d) p 2 V nb nRT
V V
144. The term that accounts for intermolecular force in van der Waal’s equation for non ideal gas is
a 1
(a) RT (b) V b (c) P 2 (d) RT
V
145. Pressure of real gas is less than the pressure of ideal gas because
(a) Number of collisions increases
(b) Difinite shape of molecule
(c) Kinetic energy of molecule increases
(d) Inter molecular forces
146. Which gas can be easily liquefied? Given ‘a’ for NH3 4.17, CO2 3.59,SO2 6.71, Cl 2 6.49
(a) NH3 (b) Cl 2 (c) SO2 (d) CO 2
151. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by11.2 g of this gat at N.T.P. g of this gas
at N.T.P. is
(a) 22.4 litres (b) 11.2 litres (c) 1 litre (d) 2.24 litres
201
152. In the equation PV nRT which one can not be numerically equal to R
(a) 8.31 107 ergs K 1mol1 (b) 8.31107 dynes Cm K 1 mol1
(c) 8.31JK 1 mol1 (d) 8.31L atm K 1 mol1
153. If P.V.T represents pressure, volume and temperature of the gas, the correct representation of
Boyle’s law is
1
(a) V (P is constant) (b) PV RT
P
1
(c) V (at constant T) (d) PV nRT
P
155. A sample of a given mass of gas at a constant temperature occupies 95 cm3 under a pressure of
9.962 104 Nm3 . At the sane temperature its volume at a pressure of 10.13 104 Nm2 is
(a) 190 cm3 (b) 93.42 cm3 (c) 46.5 cm3 (d) 47.5 cm3
156. One time of a gas weighs 2g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is mase 0.75 atm at which
of the following temperatures will one litre of the same gas, weigh one gram?
(a) 450 K (b) 600 K (c) 800 K (d) 900 K
157. The density of a gas at 27 o C and 1 atm is d. pressure remaining constant, at which of the following
temperatures will its density become 0.75 d?
(a) 20o C (b) 30 o C (c) 400 K (d) 300 K
159. Two separate bulbs contain ideal gases A and B. The density of A is twice as that of gas B. The
molecular mass of gas A is half as that of B. If two gases are at same temperature, the ratio of the
pressure of A to that of B is
(a) 2 (b) 1/2 (c) 4 (d) 1/4
161. The number of moles of H 2 in 0.224 L of hydrogen gas at STP (273 K, 1 atm) assuming ideal gas
behavour is
(a) 1 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.001
162. The pressure of 1 moles of ideal gas at 546 K having volume 44.8 L is
(a) 2 atm (b) 3 atm (c) 4 atm (d) 1 atm
163. If the volume of 1 moles of an ideal gas at 540 K is 44.8 litre then its pressure will be
(a) 1 atmosphere (b) 2 atmosphere (c) 3 atmosphere (d) 4 atmosphere
202
164. Densities of two gases are in the ratio 1:2 and their temperature are in the ration 2:1 then the ratio of
their respective pressure is
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 4:1
(a) Dalton’s Law (b) Charles Law (c) Boyles Law (d) Gay Lussac Law
167. 4.4 g of gas at STP occuples a volume of 2.24 litre the gas can be
(a) O2 (b) CO (c) NO 2 (d) CO 2
168. For an ideal gas number of moles per lit in terms of its pressure P gas constant R and temperature T
is
PT P RT
(a) (b) PRT (c) (d)
R RT P
170. The relative rate of diffusion of a gas (Molecular weight = 98) as compared to hydrogen will be
(a) 1/7 (b) 1/5 (c) 1/4 (d) 1
171. The relative rate of diffusion of a gas (molecular weight = 128) as compared to oxygen is
(a) 2 times (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/2
172. Since the atomic weights of carbon, nitrogen and oxygen are 12, 14 and 16 respectively, among the
following pairs of gases, the pair that will diffuse at the same rate is
(a) Carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide (b) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen peroxide
(c) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide (d) Carbon dioxide and nitric oxide
173. 50 mL of a gas A diffuse through a membrane in the same time as for the diffusion of 40 mL of a gas
B under identical pressure temperature conditions. If the Molecular weight of A = 64, that of B
would be
(a) 100 (b) 250 (c) 200 (d) 80
174. If rate of diffusion of A is 5 times that of B, what will be the density ratio of A and B
(a) 1/25 (b) 1/5 (c) 25 (d) 5
175. 50 mL of hydrogen diffuses through a small hole from vessel in 20 minutes time. Time taken for 40
mL of oxygen of diffuse out diffuse out under similar conditions will be
(a) 12 min (b) 64 min (c) 8 min (d) 32 min
203
176. The densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1:16. The ratio of their rates of diffusion is
(a) 16:1 (b) 4:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:16
177. The rate of diffusion of a gas having weight just double of nitrogen gas is 56 mL per second the ratio
if diffusion of nitrogen gas will be
(a) 79.19 mL s 1 (b) 112 mL ss 1 (c) 56 mL s 1 (d) 90 mL s 1
178. Under identical conditions of temperature and pressure the ratio of the rates of effusion of O2 and
CO 2 gases is given by
rate of effusion of oxygen rate of effusion of oxygen
(a) 0.87 (b) 7.17
rate of effusion of CO2 rate of effusion of CO2
rate of effusion of oxygen rate of effusion of oxygen
(c) 8.7 (d) 0.117
rate of effusion of CO2 rate of effusion of CO2
179. The total pressure exerted by a number nonreacting gases is equal to the sum of partial pressure of
the gases under the same conditions is known as
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law (c) Avogadro’s law (d) Dalton’s law
180. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 25o C . The fraction of total
pressure exerted by oxygen is
1 273
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 2/3 (d)
3 298
181. Equal masses of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25o C . The fraction of
the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
1 8 1 16
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 9 9 17
182. 3.2 g of oxygen (Atomic weight = 16) and 0.2 g of hydrogen (Atomic weight = 1) are placed in a
1.12 L flask at 0o C . The total pressure of the gas mixture will be
(a) 1 atm (b) 4 atm (c) 3 atm (d) 2 atm
185. The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27 o C is 0.3 ms 1 . The average velocity at 927 o C
will be
(a) 0.6 ms 1 (b) 0.3 ms 1 (c) 0.9 ms 1 (d) 3.0 ms 1
186. The temperature of the gas is raised from 27 o C to 927 o C , the root mean square velocity is
927
(a) times the earlier value (b) Same as before
27
(c) Halved (d) Doubled
204
187. The rms velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the rms velocity if nitrogen. It T is the temperature of the
gas
(a) T H 2 T N 2 (b) T H 2 T N 2 (c) T H 2 T N 2 (d) T H 2 7T N 2
188. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at constant pressure varies with density (d) as
1
(a) d 2 (b) d (c) d (d)
d
189. Density ratio of O2 and H 2 is 16:1. The ratio of their rms velocities will be
(a) 4:1 (b) 1:16 (c) 1:4 (d) 16:1
190. The rms velocity of CO 2 at a temperature T(in Kelvin) is x cm s 1 . At what temperature (in kelvin)
the rms velocity of nitrous oxide would be 4x cm s 1
(a) 16 T (b) 2T (c) 4T (d) 32T
191. If the average velocity of N 2 molecules is 0.3 ms 1 at 27 o C , then the velocity of 0.6 ms 1 will take
place at
(a) 273 K (b) 927 K (c) 1000 K (d) 1200 K
192. Which of the following has maximum root mean square velocity at the same temperature?
(a) SO2 (b) CO 2 (c) O2 (d) H 2
193. The kinetic theory of gases predicts that total kinetic energy of a gaseous assembly depends on:
(a) Pressure of the gas (b) Temperature of the gas
(c) Volume of the gas (d) Pressure, temperature and volume of the gas
198. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI units at 25o C will be
(a) 6.17 10 21 kJ (b) 6.17 10 21 J (c) 6.17 10 20 J (d) 7.16 10 20 J
205
199. A real gas most closely approached the behavior of an ideal gas at
(a) 15 atm and 200 K (b) 1 atm and 273 K (c) 0.5 atm and 500 K (d) 15 atm and 500 K
202. The values of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for the gases O2 , N 2 , NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390,
1.170 and 2.253 L2 atm mol2 respectively. The gas which can most easily be liquefied is:
(a) O2 (b) N 2 (c) NH3 (d) CH4
203. Van der waall’s gas, act as idea gas at which conditions
(a) High temperature, Low pressure (b) Low temperature, High pressure
(c) High temperature, high pressire (d) Low temperature, low pressure
204. Fixed mass of an ideal gas a volume of 800 cm4 under certain conditions. The pressure (in kPa) and
temperature (in K) are both doubled. What is the volume of the gas after these changes with other
condition remaining the same?
(a) 200 cm3 (b) 800 cm3 (c) 1600 cm3 (d) 3200 cm3
205. What amount of oxygen, O2 , (in moles) contains 1.8 1022 molecules?
(a) 0.0030 (b) 0.030 (c) 0.30 (d) 3.0
206. When a compressed gas is allowed to expand through a small office effect is caused if
(a) The temperature of the gas is less than the inversion temperature T1
(b) The temperature of the gas is greater than the inversion temperature T2
(c) The temperature of the gas is equal to the critical temperature.
(d) The temperature of the gas is 273 K
207. If the product of the gas constant R and NTP temperature (in Kelvin) is 22.4. The comprehensibility
factor of the gas at 1 atmospheric pressure is
(a) Greater than one (b) One (c) Less than one (d) Zero
208. The fragrance of burning incense stick spreads all around due to
(a) The sublimation of incense stick
(b) The vapourization of incense stick
(c) The sublimation of fragrance matter into the air
(d) The diffusion of its smoke into the air
209. If the pressure of a given mass of a gas is reduced to half and temperature is doubled simultaneously,
the volume will be
(a) The same as before (b) Twice as before
(c) Four times as before (d) One fourth as before
210. 0.5755 of g of a compound containing sulphur and fluorine only, has a volume of 255.0 mL at 288.0
K and 50.01 kPa. What is the molecular formula of this compound?
(a) S2 F2 (b) SF2 (c) SF4 (d) SF6
206
Answer key
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (b ) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (c)
101. (c) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (b)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (d) 115. (c) 116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (a) 119. (d) 120. (a)
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (b) 127. (c) 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (a)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (d) 135. (b) 136. (b) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (a)
141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (c) 145. (d) 146. (c) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (d) 150. (c)
151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (c) 154. (b) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (c) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (c)
161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (a) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (a)
171. (a) 172. (d) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (b) 176. (b) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (b) 182. (b) 183. (c) 184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (d) 187. (c) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (a)
191. (d) 192. (d) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (a) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (b) 199. (c) 200. (b)
201. (b) 202. (c) 203. (a) 204. (b) 205. (b) 206. (a) 207. (b) 208. (d) 209. (c) 210. (c)
207
PERIODIC PROPERTIES IJSO
Li Na K Ca Sr Ba
7 23 39 40 88 137
P As Sb Cl Br I
In some of triads the at.wt. of all the three elements were approximately same.
b) Telluric Helix: It was in 1862, that a periodic classification of the elements was developed that
approached the idea we have today. At that time A.E. de Chancourtois,a professor of Geology at
the Ecole des Mines in Paris presented an account of his telluric helix in which he indicated the
relative properties of elements and their atomic weights.
He used a vertical cylinder with 16 equidistant lines on its surface, the lines lying parallel to the
axes. Then he drew a helix at 45 degree to the axis and arranged the elements on the spiral in the
order of their increasing atomic weights. In this manner, elements that differed from each other in
atomic weight by 16 or multiples of 16 fell very nearly on the same vertical line. In addition to the 16
vertical lines, de Chancourtois felt that other connecting lines could be drawn, and that all elements
lying on such lines were related in some manner.
c) Newland’s Octet Law, 1864: Very shortly after the discovery of telluric helix. John Alexander Reina
Newland in England made the first attempt to correlate the chemical properties of the elements with
their atomic weights. If the elements are arranged in order of their increasing atomic weights, every
eighth element had similar properties to first one like the first and eighth note in music. For example,
sa re ga ma pa dha ni
Li Be B C N O F
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl
K Ca Cr Ti Mn Fe
The system worked quite well for the lighter elements. For example, H, F and Cl show similar
properties and Li, Na and K exhibit same characteristics. The system, however, fails in the case of
heavier elements as manganese has been placed along with nitrogen and phosphorus or iron has
been placed along with oxygen and sulphur i.e. dissimilar elements have been grouped which is
against the aim of classification. Also note that no space was left for the elements which were
unknown at that time and many elements were provided wrong positions on account of wrong
values of atomic masses in this classification.
Can you guess whether noble gases were discovered by that time?
All the elements could not be classified on this basis.
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d) Mendeleev’s Periodic law: In spite of the importance of the earlier contributions the major portion
of the credit for the development of the periodic table must go to the Russian Chemist,
DmitriiIvanovich Mendeleev, who proposed
i) The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights.
ii) If the elements are arranged in the order of their increasing atomic weights, after a regular
interval elements with similar properties are repeated.
i) First period is called shortest period and contains only two elements. Second and third periods are
called short periods containing eight elements each. Fourth and fifth periods are long periods
containing eighteen elements each. Sixth period is longest period with thirty-two elements. Seventh
period is an incomplete period containing nineteen elements. Numbers 2, 8, 18, 32 are called magic
numbers.
ii) Lanthanide and actinide series containing 14 elements each are placed separately under the main
periodic table. These are related to sixth and seventh periods of group III respectively.
iii) Elements of third period from sodium (Na) to Chlorine (Cl) are called representative or typical
elements.
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a) Atomic weight, effective nuclear charge, ionization potential, electronegativity and electron
affinity of an element increases.
i) Mendeleev's periodic table contains nine groups. These are represented by Roman numerals I, II,
III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII and zero. Groups I to VII are divided into two subgroups A and B, Group VIII
consists of three sets, each one containing three elements.
ii) Inert gases are present in zero group. These were not discovered till that time.
iii) The valency of an element in a group is equal to the group number.
iv) There is no resemblance in the elements of subgroups A and B of same group, except valency.
v) The elements of the groups, which resemble with typical elements are called normal elements. For
example IA, IIA, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA group elements are normal elements
vi) Those elements of the groups, which do not resemble with typical elements are called transition
elements. For example- IB, IIB, IIIB, IVB, VB, VIB, VIIB, and VIII group elements are transition
elements.
vii) Hydrogen can be placed in both IA and VIIA groups.
viii) In a group, from top to bottom in general
a) Atomic weight, atomic size, electropositive character and metallic character of an element
increases.
b) Ionization potential, electron affinity and electronegativity of an element decreases
a Z b
where a and b are constants. Nuclear charge of metal is equal to the atomic number. So Moseley
related the properties of elements with their atomic number and gave the new periodic law.
ii) Moseley's Periodic Law or Modern Periodic Law: Physical and chemical properties of elements are
the periodic functions of their atomic number. If the elements are arranged in order of their
increasing atomic number, after a regular interval, element with similar properties are repeated.
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3.1 Long form of the Periodic Table and Electronic Configuration of elements
Many different forms of a periodic classification of the elements have appeared since the 1871 table by
Mendeleev. Each table was designed to point up the various trends and relationship, which its author
considered most significant. From the literally hundreds of tables which have been proposed, perhaps the
most popular and easily reproduced periodic table is the conventional extended or long form, which is
shown in table.
i) Each period starts with an alkali metal whose outermost electronic configuration is ns1.
ii) Each period ends with a noble gas of outermost electronic configuration ns2np6 except He. The
electronic configuration of He is 1s2.
iii) The number of elements in a period is equal to the number of necessary electrons to acquire ns2np6
configuration in the outermost shell of first element (alkali metal) of the period. First period contains
two elements.
v) The number of elements in each period may be determined by the number of electrons in a stable
configuration as under
Stable electronic Total elements in the
Periods
configuration period
2
First 1s 2
2 6
Second 2s 2p 8
2 6
Third 3s 3p 8
Fourth 4s23d104p6 18
Fifth 5s24d105p6 18
2 14 10 6
Sixth 6s 4f 5d 6p 32
Seventh 7s25f146d107p6 32
With a better understanding of the part that the electron plays great role in the properties of the elements, a
corresponding understanding of the periodic system came about.
On the basis of electronic configuration, the elements may be divided into four groups.
i) s-Block elements
a) These are present in the left part of the periodic table.
b) These are group IA and IIA elements.
c) In these elements last electron is filled in the s subshell.
d) Electronic configuration of valence shell is ns1-2 (n = 1 to 7).
ii) p-block elements
a) These are present in right part of the periodic table.
b) These constitute the groups IIIA to VIIA and zero group i.e. group 13 to 18 of the periodic table.
c) The last electron is filled in p subshell of valence shell.
d) The electronic configuration of valence shell is ns2np1-6 (n = 2 to 7).
e) ns2np6is stable noble gas configuration. The electronic configuration of He 1s2.
f) Prior to noble gas group, there are two chemically important groups of non-metals.
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3.3 Nomenclature of the Elements with atomic number > 100 (IUPAC)
According to IUPAC, elements with atomic number > 100 are represented by three letter symbols.
These symbols are based on first letter of numbers from 0 to 9. The names of these number are
derived from Greek and Latin languages.
The latin words for various digits of the atomic number are written together in the order of which
makes the atomic number and suffix ‘ium’ is added at the end. In case of bi and tri one ‘i’ is
omitted.
Digit Name Abbreviation
0 Nil n
1 Un u
2 Bi b
3 Tri t
4 Quad q
5 Pent p
6 Hex h
7 Sept s
8 Oct o
9 Enn e
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Nomenclature of elements
Atomic Name Symbol IUPAC Official IUPAC
Name Symbol
101 Unnilunium Unu Mendelevium Md
102 Unnilbium Unb Nobelium No
103 Unniltrium Unt Lawrencium Lr
104 Unnilquadium Unq Rutherfordium Rf
105 Unnilpentium Unp Dubnium Db
106 Unnilhexium Unh Seaborgium Sg
107 Unnilseptium Uns Bohrium Bh
108 Unniloctium Uno Hassnium Hs
109 Unnilennium Une Meitnerium Mt
110 Unnnillium Uun Darmstadtium Ds
111 Unununnium Uuu Rontgenium Rg
112 Ununbium Uub Copernicium Cn
113 Ununtrium Uut Nihonium Nh
114 Ununquadium Uuq Flerovium Fl
115 Ununpentium Uup Moscovium Mc
116 Ununhexium Uuh Livermorium Lv
117 Ununseptium Uus Tennessine Ts
118 Ununoctium Uuo Oganesson Og
Period of an element corresponds to the principal quantum number of the valence shell
The block of an element corresponds to the type of subshell which receives the last electron
The group is predicted from the number of electrons in the valence shell or/and penultimate shell as
follows.
(a) For s-block elements
Group number = the no. of valence electrons
(b) For p-block elements
Group number = 10+no. of valence electrons
(c) For d-block elements
Group number =no. of electrons in (n-1) d sub shell + no. of electrons in valence shell.
Some elements of certain groups of 2nd period resemble much in properties with the elements of
third period of next group i.e. elements of second and third period are diagonally related in
properties. This phenomenon is known as diagonal relationship.
2 nd period Li Be B C
3rd period Na Mg Al Si
Diagonal relationship arises because of
(i) similar size of atom and ions
0 0 0 0
( Li 1.23 A& Mg 1.36 A; Li 0.60 A& Mg 2 0.65 A )
(ii) similar polarizing powers (charge to radius ratio)
(iii) similarity in electronegativity values
( Li 1.0 & Mg 1.2; Be 1.5 & Al 1.5 )
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i) Inert gases
a) In the atoms of these elements, the s and p subshells of the outer most shell are completely
filled. The outermost electronic configuration is ns2np6.
d) These are all gases under normal conditions and thus, termed as inert gases.
a) Outermost shell of these elements is incomplete. The number of electrons in the outermost shell
is less than eight. The configuration of the outermost shell varies from ns1 to ns2np5.
c) s and p-block elements except inert gases are called normal or representative elements. These
consist of some metals, all non-metals and metalloids.
a) Last two shells of these elements namely outermost and penultimate shells are incomplete.
b) The last shell contains one or two electrons and the penultimate shell may contain more than
eight up to eighteen electrons.
c) Their outermost electronic configuration is similar to d-block elements i.e. (n-1)d1-10 ns0 or1 or 2.
d) According to latest definition of transition elements those elements, which have partly filled d-
orbitals in neutral state or in any stable oxidation state, are called transition elements. According
to this definition Zn, Cd and Hg (IIB group) are d-block elements but not transition elements
because these elements have d10 configuration in neutral as well as in stable +2 oxidation
state.
e) Because of the extra stability, which is associated with empty, half-filled, and filled subshells,
there are some apparent anomalies in electronic arrangements in the transition series. This
empirical rule is illustrated by the chromium and copper configuration in the first d series of
elements:
Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn
3d 1 2 3 5 5 6 7 8 10 10
4s 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 2
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a) In these elements last three shells i.e. last, penultimate and pre-penultimate shells are
incomplete.
b) There are two series of elements, (i) Lanthanides or rare-earths from Ce (58) to Lu (71) (ii)
Actinides from Th (90) to Lr (103)
c) The last shell contains two electrons. Penultimate shell may contain eight or nine electrons and
pre-penultimate shell contains more than 18 up to32 electrons.
v) Elements of the seventh period after atomic number 93 (i.e. actinides) are synthetic elements and
are called transuranium elements.
5. Periodic Properties
From the discussion of the periodic table, it is evident that those properties, which depend upon the
electron configuration of an atom, will vary periodically with atomic number.The real meaning of the word
periodic in any classification of elements is that when the elements are arranged in order of their increasing
atomic numbers in the same period or a group, there is a gradual change, (i.e. increase or decrease) in a
particular property. Some of the more common properties, which depend upon electronic configurations,
are:
(i) Write the electronic configuration of the element in the following order and group them as,
(1s), (2s 2p), (3s 3p), (3d), (4s 4p), (4d), (4f), (5s 5p), (5d), (5f), (6s 6p), etc.
(ii) Electrons to the right of the (ns, np) group are not effective in shielding the ns or np
(iii)All other electrons in the (ns, np) group contribute to the extent of 0.35 each to the
(iv) All the electrons in the (n-1)th shell contribute 0.85 each to the screening constant.
(v) All the electrons in the (n-2)th shell or lower contribute 1.0 each to the screening constant.
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For d- or f- electron,
rules (i) to (iii) remain the same but rules (iv) and (v) get replaced by the rule (vi).
(vi) All the electrons in the groups lying left to (nd), (nf) group contribute 1.0 each to the screening
effect.
As we move left to right in a period table the value of Zeff increases by 0.65.
It is observed that magnitude of effective nuclear charge increases in a period when we move from left to
right.
2nd Period Li Be B C N O F Ne
Z 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
In a subgroup of normal elements the magnitude of effective nuclear charge remains almost the same.
Alkali group Li Na K Rb Cs
Z 3 11 19 37 55
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ii) According to the Heisenberg's uncertainty principle the position of a moving electron can not be
accurately determined. So the distance between the nucleus and the outermost electron is
uncertain.
iii) Atomic radius can be determined indirectly from the inter-nuclear distance between the two atoms in
a gaseous diatomic molecule. This inter-nuclear distance between the two atoms is called bond
length.
iv) The inter-nuclear distance between the two atoms can be measured by X – ray diffraction or
spectroscopic studies.
v) Covalent radius – One half of the distance between the nuclei (inter-nuclear distance) of two
covalently bonded atoms in a homodiatomic molecule is called the covalent radius of that atom. The
covalent bond must be single covalent bond. The covalent radius (rA) of atom A in a molecule A2
may be given as:
d
rA A A
2
i.e. the distance between nuclei of two single covalently bonded atoms in a homodiatomic molecule
is equal to the sum of covalent radii of both the atoms.
dA-A = rA+ rA
1.8Å
covalent values 0.99Å
Vander Waal's radius
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A A
B B
(x)
B A A B
y / 2 = vander
y
waals radii of A
The Vander Waal's radius and Covalent radius of Chlorine atom are 1.80Å and 0.99Å respectively
A neutral atom changes to a cation by the loss of one or more electrons and to an anion by the gain of one
or more electrons. The number of charge on cation and anion is equal to the number of electrons lost or
gained respectively. The ionic radii of the ions present in an ionic crystal may be calculated from the inter-
nuclear distance between the two ions.
i)Radius of a Cation: Radius of a cation is invariably smaller than that of the corresponding neutral
atom
Na Na+
_
Number of e = 11 10
Number of p = 11 11
1s22s22p63s1 1s22s22p6
Reasons
a) The effective nuclear charge increases. For example in Na atom 11 electrons are attracted by
11 protons and in Na+,10 electrons are attracted by 11 protons. Thus in the formation of cation
number of electrons decreases and nuclear charge remains the same.
b) Generally the formation of cation results in the removal of the whole outer shell.
c) Interelectronic repulsion decreases. The interelectronic repulsion in Na is among 11e and in
Na+ among 10e .
ii) Radius of an anion: Radius of an anion is invariably bigger than that of the corresponding atom.
Cl Cl–
Number of e = 17 18
Number of p = 17 17
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Reasons
a) The effective nuclear charge decrease in the formation of anion. Thus the electrostatic force of
attraction between the nucleus and the outer electrons decreases and the size of the anion
increases.
iii) Iso-electronic series: A series of atoms, ions and molecules in which each species contains same
number of electrons but different nuclear charge is called iso-electronic series
N3- O2- F– Ne Na+ Mg2+
Number of e 10 10 10 10 10 10
Number of p 7 8 9 10 11 12
c) So the effective nuclear charge is increasing and atomic size is decreasing. In an iso-electronic
series atomic size decreases with the increase of charge.
a) In a period from left to right effective nuclear charge increases because the next electron fills in
the same shell. So the atomic size decreases. For example the covalent radii of second period
elements in Å are as follows –
Li Be B C N O F
1.23 0.89 0.80 0.77 0.74 0.73 0.72
b) In a group moving from top to bottom the number of shells increases. So the atomic size
increases. Although the effective nuclear charge increases but its effect is negligible in
comparison to the effect of increasing number of shells. For example the covalent radii of IA
group elements in Å are as follows –
Li Na K Rb Cs
1.23 1.57 2.03 2.16 2.35
2. For inert gases: The atomic radius of inert gas (zero group) is shown largest in a period because of
its Vander Waal's radius which is generally larger than the covalent radius. The Vander Waal's
radius of inert gases also increases in moving from top to bottom in a group.
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3d – Sc (21) to Zn (30)
4d – Y (39) to Cd (48)
i) The atomic size decreases due to the increase in effective nuclear charge.
ii) In transition elements, electrons are filled in the (n-1)d orbitals. These (n-1)d electrons
screen the ns electrons from the nucleus. So the force of attraction between the ns electrons
and the nucleus decreases.
This effect of (n-1)d electrons over ns electrons is called shielding effect or screening effect.
The atomic size increases due to shielding effect and balance the decrease in size due to
increase in nuclear charge to about 80%.
iii) Thus moving from left to right in a period, there is a very small decrease in size and it may
be considered that size almost remains the same.
iv) In the first transition series the atomic size slightly decreases from Sc to Mn because effect
of effective nuclear charge is stronger than the shielding effect. The atomic size from the Fe
to Ni almost remains the same because both the effects balance each other. The atomic size
from Cu to Zn slightly increases because shielding effect is more than effective nuclear
charge due to d10 structure of Cu and Zn. The atomic radii of the elements of 3d transition
series are as under.
Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn
1.44 1.32 1.22 1.18 1.17 1.17 1.16 1.15 1.17 1.25
4. Inner transition elements: As we move along the lanthanide series, there is a decrease in
atomic as well as ionic radius. The decrease in size is regular in ions but not so regular in
atoms. There is a significant drop in atomic size after III B group as we move from left to right in
periods 6 & 7. This is called lanthanide contraction. The metallic radii in Å are as under:
La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd
1.88 1.82 1.83 1.82 1.81 1.80 2.04 1.80
Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
1.78 1.77 1.76 1.75 1.74 1.94 1.73
There are two peaks one at Eu (63) and other at Yb (70). This is due to the difference in metallic
bonding. Except Eu and Yb other lanthanides contribute three electrons in metallic bond
formation. These two atoms contribute two electrons in the bond formation leaving behind half
filled and completely filled 4-orbitals respectively.
Cause of Lanthanide contraction – In lanthanides the additional electron enters into (n-2)
orbital. The mutual shielding effect of (n-2) electrons is very little because the shape of -
subshell is very much diffused. Thus the effective nuclear charge increases in comparison to the
mutual shielding effect of (n-2) electrons. The outer electrons are attracted more by the
nucleus. Consequently the atomic and ionic radii decreases from La (57) to Lu (71).
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This type of contraction also occurs in actinides. The jump in contraction between the
consecutive elements in the actinides is greater than lanthanides. This is due to the lesser
shielding of 5-electrons which are therefore pulled more strongly by the nucleus.
In a group
i) The atomic radius of elements increases moving from first transition series (3d) to second transition
series (4d). This is due to the increase in number of shells with the increase in atomic number.
ii) The atomic radii of second (4d) and third (5d) transition series in a group is almost same except
Y(39) and La (57)
In third transition series, there are fourteen lanthanides in between La (57) of III B and Hf (72) of IV
B groups, so the atomic radius of Hf(72) decreases much due to lanthanide contraction in
lanthanides. The difference in the nuclear charge in the elements of a group in first and second
transition series is + 18 units while this difference in second and third transition series is + 32 units
except Y (39) La(57). Due to the increase of + 32 units in the nuclear charge there is a sizable
decrease in the atomic radius which balances the increase in size due to the increase in number of
shells.
So in a group moving from second to third transition series, the atomic radii of the elements almost
remain the same except IIIB. The difference is about 0.02Å.
Solution: In chlorine, the radii means the atomic or covalent radii which is actually half the
intermolecular distance between 2 atoms whereas in Argon the radii means the
Vander Waal’s radii as Argon is not a diatomic molecule. Vander Waal’s radiiis
actually half the distance between adjacent molecule. So Vander Waal’s radii being
larger than atomic radii, Argon,has got a larger radii than chlorine.
Illustration 2: Beryllium(Be) and Aluminium(Al) are placed in different periods and groups but they
show the similar properties.
Solution: On moving across a period the charge on the ions increases and the size decreases,
causing the polarising power to increase. On moving down a group the size
increases and polarising power decreases. On moving diagonally i.e., from Be to Al
these two effects partly cancel each other and so there is no marked change in
properties.
i) The amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron of the outermost shell
(i.e. the outermost electron) from one mole of an isolated gaseous atom of an element in its ground
state to produce a cation is known as ionisation energy of that element.
ii) Because ionisation energy is generally expressed in electron volts, so it is also known as ionisation
potential.
iii) Energy required for the removal of first, second and third electron from the gaseous atom is called
first, second and third ionisation energy respectively.
A(g)+I1 A(g)+ + e
A+(g)+I2 A(g)2+ + e
A(g)2+ + I3 A(g)3+ + e
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iv)The order of first, second and third ionisation energies may be given as I1<I2<I3
This is because second and third electron is removed from monopositive and dipositivecations respectively.
Effective nuclear charge increase with the increase of positive charge. So the attraction between the
nucleus and the outermost electron increases and more energy is required for the removal of electron.
ii) Effective nuclear charge: The greater the effective charge on the nucleus of an atom, the more
difficult it would be to remove an electron from the atom because electrostatic force of attraction
between the nucleus and the outermost electron increases. So greater energy will be required to
remove the electron.
Ionisation potential Effective nuclear charge (Zeff)
iii) Penetration effect of orbitals: The order of energy required to remove electron from s,p,d-
and-orbitals of a shell is s>p>d> because the distance of the electron from the nucleus
increases. For example – The value of ionisation potential of Be(Z=4, Is22s2) and Mg(Z=12,
1s22s22p63s2) are more than the I.P. of B (Z=5, 1s22s22p1x) and Al (Z= 13, 1s22s22p63s23p1x)
because the penetration power of 2s and 3s electrons is more than 2p and 3p orbitals
respectively. More energy will be required to separate the electrons from 2s and 3s orbitals.
iv) Shielding or screening effect: The shielding or screening effect increases if the number of
electrons in the inner shells between the nucleus and the outermost electrons increases. This
results in decrease of force of attraction between the nucleus and the outermost electron and
lesser energy is required to separate the electron. Thus the value of I.P. decreases.
1
Ionisation potential
Shielding effect
v) Stability of half-filled and fully-filled orbitals: According to Hund's rule the stability of half
filled or completely filled degenerate orbitals is comparatively high. So comparatively more
energy is required to separate the electron from such atoms.
For example
a) Removal of electron is comparatively difficult from the half filled configuration of N (Z=7, Is22s2
2p1xp1yp1z ).
b) The ionisation potential of inert gases is very high due to most stable s2p6 electronic
configurations.
i) For normal elements: On moving from left to right in a period, value of ionisation potential of
elements increases because effective nuclear charge also increases.
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Exceptions
a) In a period, the ionization energy of IIA group elements is more than the elements of IIIA
because penetration power of s-orbitals electrons. The value of ionization energy of Be(1s22s2)
2 2 1
is more than B 1s 2s 2p x because the penetration power of 2s-electrons of Be is more than
the 2px electrons of B.
b) In a period, the ionization energy of VA elements is more than the elements of VIA because the
half filled p3 configuration of VA elements is comparatively of higher stability. VIA group
elements (p4) have the tendency to acquire comparatively more stable (p3) configuration by the
loss of one electron. Ionization energy N(Is22s22p1xpy1pz1) O Is 2s 2pxpypz
2 2 2 1 1
But the value of I.P. of Sb (VA) &Te (VIA) and Bi (VA) &Po(VIA) are according to general rule
i.e.
On moving from top to bottom in a group the value of I.P. decreases because the atomic size
increases.
Exceptions
a) In group IIIA the ionization potential of Al (13) is equal to the ionization potential of Ga(31).
Before Ga (31) the electrons are filled in 3d – orbitals of ten transition elements. These 3d orbital
electrons do not completely shield the 4p electron. So the increase of +18 units in nuclear
charge results in the greater increase of effective nuclear charge. Due to increase in nuclear
charge the I.P. increases which counter balance the decrease in I.P. due to the increase in
number of shells.
b) The values of I.P. of Tl (81) and Pb (82) of sixth period is more than the I.P. values of In (49)
and Sn (50) of same groups in period fifth. This is because of the electrons are filled in 4-
orbitals before Tl (81) and Pb (82) which do not completely shield the outer electrons. Thus
increase in + 32 units in nuclear charge results in the increase of ionisation potential values.
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ii) For transition elements: On moving from left to right in a transition series
a) As the atomic number increases the effective nuclear charge also increases. Hence the I.P.
increases.
b) The shielding effect of (n-1)d electrons over ns electrons increases with the addition of electron
in (n-1)d orbitals. Hence the I.P. decreases.
c) The increased values of I.P. due to the increase of effective nuclear charge almost balances the
decreased value of I.P. due to increase in shielding effect. There is a very small increase in the
values of I.P. or it may be said that I.P. almost remains the same.
d) In first transition series from Sc to Cr the value of I.P. increases because effect of increase in
effective nuclear charge is more than the shielding effect I.P. values of Fe, Co, Ni and Cu are
almost same. Due to d10s2 configuration of Zn, the first I.P. increases.
a) In a group on moving from first to second transition series, the values of I.P. decreases because
atomic size increases.
b) In moving from second to third transition series the value of I.P. somewhat increases except IIIB
group [Y(39) La(57)]. This is because of 14 electrons are filled in 4-orbitals of lanthanides
which do not shield the 5d electrons effectively. Thus the increase in +32 units in nuclear charge
results in the increase of I.P., on moving from left to right this effect decreases and becomes
negligible in the later part.
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ii) The relative reactivity of the metals increases with the decrease in I.P. values. The I.P. values of
IA and IIA metals are comparatively low. So they are comparatively more reactive. The I.P.
values of inert gases are very high. So they are almost unreactive.
In a group moving from top to bottom the reactivity of metal atoms increases because their I.P.
value decreases.
iii) The reducing power of elements increases as the values of I.P. decreases because tendency to
lose the electron increases. The reducing power increases going down a group because the I.P.
value decreases. Li is exception in IA group. The reducing power of Li is highest in its own
group. The order of reducing Power of IA elements is as under
a) If the difference of two consecutive I.P.'s of an element is 16 eV or more, the lower oxidation
state is stable. For e.g. the difference of first and second I.P. of Na is 42.4 eV, which is, more
than 16 eV. So Na+ will be stable. It can also be explained from its electronic configuration
Na (11) = 1s22s22p63s1
Na+ = 1s22s22p6
Neutral Na atom has the tendency to acquire the stable s2p6 configuration by the loss of one
electron. Due to s2p6 configuration of Na+, the further separation of electron is difficult. So IA
group metals form mono-positive ions.
b) If the difference of two consecutive I.P.s. of an element is 11.0 eV or less, the higher
oxidation state is stable. For e.g. the difference of first and second I.P. of Mg is 7.4 eV which
is less than 11.0 eV. So Mg2+ will be stable. It can also be explained on the basis of its
electronic configuration.
Mg2+ = 1s22s22p6
c) The difference of first and third I.P. of Al is 12.8 eVwhich is more than 11eV. Therefore first
oxidation state of Al i.e. Al + must be stable. In gaseous state Al+ is stable. This is due to the
proportionate distribution of lattice energy and the difference of second and third I.P.s
9.6eV<11 eV.
Illustration 3: The first I.P. of nitrogen is greater than oxygen while the reverse is true for their
second I.P. values.
Solution: The first I.P corresponds to the removal of first electron. Since nitrogen is already half
filled,So more energy is required to remove the electron. But once the electron is
removed from oxygen it gains half-filled stability and therefore the 2nd I.P. becomes
high.
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Illustration 4: The ionisation energy of the coinage metals fall in the order Cu Ag Au.
Solution: In all the 3 cases an s-electron in the unpaired state is to be removed. In the case of
Cu a 4s electron is to be removed which is closer to the nucleus than the 5s electron
of Ag. So I.P. decreases from Cu to Ag. However from Ag to Au the 14 f electrons
are added which provide very poor shielding effect. The nuclear charge is thus
enhanced and therefore the outer electron of Au is more tightly held and so the IP is
high.
i) The amount of energy released when an electron is added to the outermost shell of one mole of an
isolated gaseous atom in its lower energy state.
ii) Electron affinity just defined is actually first electron affinity since it corresponds to the addition of
one electron only. In the process of adding further electron, the second electron will be added to
gaseous anion against the electrostatic repulsion between the electron being added and the
gaseous anion. Sometimes energy instead of being released is supplied for the addition of an
electron to an anion.
A g e A g E1
2
A g e Energy supplied A g
i) Atomic size: In general electron affinity value decreases with the increasing atomic radius
because electrostatic force of attraction decreases between the electron being added and the
atomic nucleus due to increase of distance between them.
1
Electron affinity
Atomic size
ii) Effective nuclear charge:Electron affinity value of the element increase as the effective nuclear
charge on the atomic nucleus increases because electrostatic force of attraction between the
electron being added and the nucleus increases. As the electrostatic force of attraction
increases, amount of energy released is more.
iii) Screening or Shielding effect: Electron affinity value of the elements decreases with the
increasing shielding or screening effect. The shielding effect between the outer electrons and
the nucleus increases as the number of electrons increases in the inner shells.
1
Electron affinity
Shielding effect
iv)Stability of half filled and completely filled orbitals: The stability of half filled and completely
filled degenerate orbitals of a sub shell is comparatively more, so it is difficult to add electron in
such orbitals and lesser energy is released on addition of electron hence the electron affinity
value will decrease.
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i) In general electron affinity value increases in moving from left to right in a period because
effective nuclear charge increases.
Exceptions
a) The electron affinity value of alkaline earth metals of IIA group is zero.
b) Electron affinity value of alkali metals of IA group is also approximately zero because these
elements have the tendency of losing the electron instead of gaining the electron.
c) Electron affinity values of nitrogen and phosphorous (VA) are lesser than the electron affinity
values of carbon and silicon respectively. It is due to the comparatively stable half filled
configuration (np3) of nitrogen and phosphorus and the tendency to acquire the stable np3
configuration by the gain of one electron in carbon and silicon (np2).
d) The theoretical value of the electron affinity of zero group inert gas elements is zero due to
stable s2p6 configuration.
ii) In a group moving from top to bottom the electron affinity value of elements decreases
because the atomic size increases
Exceptions
a) Electron affinity values of second period elements are smaller than the electron affinity
values of third period elements. This unexpected behaviour can be explained by the very
much high value of charge densities, of second period elements due to much smaller size.
The electron being added experiences comparatively more repulsion and the electron affinity
value decreases.
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b) The electron affinity of fluorine (Second period) is less than the electron affinity of chlorine
(third period). 2p-orbitals in fluorine are much more compact than 3p- orbitals of chlorine. So
the electron being added in 2p-orbitals experiences comparatively more repulsion and the
electron affinity value decreases.
5.9 Electronegativity
i) It may be defined as the tendency of an atom to attract shared pair of electrons towards itself in a
covalently bonded molecules.
ii) The numerical value of the electronegativity of an element depends upon its ionisation potential and
electron affinity values. Higher ionization potential and higher electron affinity values implies higher
electronegativity value.
i) Pauling's scale: Pauling related the resonance energy(AB) of a molecule AB with the
electronegativities of the atoms A and B. If xA and xB are the electronegativities of atoms A and
B respectively then
Where,
Pauling assumed the electronegativity value of fluorine 4 and calculated the electronegativity values
of other elements from this value.
Electronaffinity Ionisationpotential
(on Pauling’s scale)
5.6
Then
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i) Atomic radius: As the atomic radius of the element increases the electronegativity value
1
decrease. Electronegativity
Atomic radius
iii) Effective nuclear charge: The electronegativity value increases as the effective nuclear
charge on the atomic nucleus increases.
iii) Oxidation state of the atom: The electronegativity value increases as the oxidation state (i.e.
the number of positive charge) of the atom increases.
3. Periodicity in Electronegativity
i) In a period moving from left to right, the electronegativity increases due to the increase in
effective nuclear charge.
ii) In a period the electronegativity value of IA alkali metal is minimum and that of VIIA halogen is
maximum.
iii) In a group moving from top to bottom, the electronegativity decreases because atomic radius
increases.
iv) Theelectronegativity value of F is maximum and that of Cs is minimum in the periodic table.
v) On moving from second to third transition series in a group [except Y(39) La (57)]
electronegativity increases due to the increase of +18 units in nuclear charge.
vi) The variation of electronegativity along any period or row of the periodic table may be understood
with reference to the following table:
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Electronegativity increases form left to right of the periodic table, while it decreases down any group.
These observations are consistent with other periodic properties of the atom. The alkali metals
possess very feeble attraction for electrons, as it is to be expected from their electronic
configurations. The halogens, on the other hand, have highest electronegativity in each row owing
to their ns2 np5 configuration. The decrease of the electronegativity down any vertical group in the
periodic table is consistent with the variation of effective nuclear charge.
4. Applications of electronegativity
i) Partial ionic character in covalent Bond: The ionic character of a covalent bond increases as
the electronegativity difference of bonded atoms increases. According to Haney and Smith if the
electronegativity difference of bonded atoms is x then percentage ionic character of the bond
= 16x+3.5x2
If the value of x is 2.1 then ionic character percentage is about 50. For example the order of
ionic character in H–X bond is as follows–
H–F>H–Cl>H–Br>H–I
Because the electronegativity difference of bonded atoms (x) decreases.
ii) Bond strength: If the electronegativity difference of covalently bonded atoms (x) increases,
the bond energy of the covalent bond also increases. For example – the order of the H–X bond
strength is –
As the bond strength is decreasing the acid strength is increasing. So order of increasing acid
strength is
HF <HCl<HBr< HI
iii) Acidic and basic nature of oxides of normal elements in a period: The acidic nature of the
oxides of normal elements increases as we move from left to right in a period. In a period from
left to right the electronegativity of the elements increases. So the difference of the
electronegativities of oxygen and the elements (xO –xE) decreases. If the (xO – xE) values is
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about 2.3 or more then oxide will be basic. If (xO – xE) values is less than 2.3 the oxide will be
acidic. The oxides of the IIIA elements are amphoteric.
The order of acidic or basic nature of the oxides of third period elements may be given as under:
b) On moving from left to right in a period, the electronegativity of the elements increases. So
the metallic character decreases.
c) On moving down a group, the electronegativity of the elements decreases. So the metallic
character increases.
v) Basic nature of the hydroxides of elements: A hydroxide MOH of an element M may ionize
in two ways in water.
If the ionisation is according to eqn(1) then it is acidic. It is possible when ionic character of O–H
bonds is more than the ionic character of M-O bond i.e. (xO – xH) > (xO–xM) where xO, xH and xM
are the electronegativities of oxygen, hydrogen and element respectively.
If the ionisation is according to eqn. (2) then it is basic. This is only possible when ionic
character of O –H bond is less than M–O bond i.e. (xO –xH) < (xO – xM)
6. Hydration Energy
When a gaseous cation or gaseous anion interacts with water hydrated cation or hydrated anion is
produced and in this process (called hydration process), the energy released is called as hydration energy
M g H 2O l M aq Hydration energy
Hydrated
cation
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Hydration energy is the enthalpy change that accompanies when one mole of the gaseous ion is
dissolved in water.
For example, reaction of the hydration of Li ion is shown as: H H
Li+(g) + nH2O [Li(H2O)n]+(aq) ; H = 531 kJ mol1.
O
Cs+280
Factors affecting Hydration energy :
1. Size of gaseous ion: As the size of gaseous ion will increase the hydration energy will decrease.
This is because more concentrated charge means more hydration energy.
2. Charge on ion: As the charge increases there would be more attraction for water molecules &
hence hydration energy will increase, provided size does not increase significantly.
charge on the ion
Hydration enegy α
size of the ion
3 Ionization potential values of ‘d’ – block elements as compared to I.P. value of ‘f’ block elements are
(a) higher (b) lower (c) equal (d) all of these
(a) Removal of electron is easier in f – block elements due to more shielding
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9 The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14 .3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The
element is likely to be
(a) Na (b) Si (c) F (d) Ca
(b) The jump in IP values exist in IP5 and thus, removal of 5th electron occurs from inner
shell. Thus element contains 4 electrons in its valence shell.
13 The first ionization potential in electron volts of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are respectively given by
(a) 14.6, 13.6 (b) 13.6, 14.6 (c) 13.6, 13.6 (d) 14.6, 14.6
(a) Half filled orbital has higher stability.
14 The electronic configuration of element ‘A’ is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 while of the element ‘B’ is 1s2 2s2 2p5.
The formula of the compound containing A and B will be:
(a) AB (b) A2B (c) AB2 (d) A2B6
(c) A will lose two electrons and two B will gain two electrons ( one each ) to gets their octet
complete.
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15 An element is having the electronic configuration ns2np5, a relatively high jump in I.E. values is
associated with
(a) IP1 IP2 (b) IP2 IP3 (c) IP3 IP4 (d) IP4 IP5
(b) From IP2 to IP3 electrons will be ejected from half filled p ( stable ) orbitals.
(d) High amount of energy would be necessary to put to eject one electron from dipositive
gaseous ion.
Problem 5: The electron affinity of chlorine is 3.7eV / atom. How much energy is kcal is released
when 2 g of chlorine is completely converted to Cl- ion in a gaseous state? (1eV /atom
= 23.06 kcal mol-1)
Solution: Cl + e Cl − + 3.7 eV
3.7 23.06 2
Energy released for conversion of 2g gas chlorine into Cl− ions = = 4.8
35.5
Problem 6: The ionization energy of the coinage metals fall in the order Cu > Ag < Au.
Solution: In Cu, Ag and Au the unpaired electron which will be removed from s – orbital. In case of Cu
, 4s electron has to be removed which is closer to the nucleus than the 5s electron in Ag.
Hence I.P. decreases from Cu to Ag. However from Ag to Au the f electrons are added
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which provide very poor shielding effect. The nuclear charge is thus unchanged and
therefore the outer electron of Au is tightly held and so the IP is high.
Problem 7: Electron affinity of zinc is negative but that of copper is positive? Explain
Solution: Zinc is having the electronic configuration as [Ar]3d104s2. Thus addition of an electron
to filled 4s orbitals will be very much unfavorable; hence electron affinity of zinc is
negative. The electronic configuration of copper is [Ar] 3d10 4s1. If an electron is
added it will get a stable electronic configuration of zinc. Thus the electron affinity of
copper is positive.
Problem 8: What is the significance of the large increase in 3rd ionization energy of Caand fifth
ionization energy of Si?
Solution: In case of Calcium the electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d10 4s2 after releasing two electrons
successively. (1st I.E and 2nd I.E.)it will have stable electronic configuration of Ar. Hence
there occurs a large increase in 3rd ionization of Ca. Si is having the electronic configuration [
Ne ] 3s2 3p2. After losing 4 electrons successively it will have stable electronic configuration
of [Ne].
Problem 10: Why are the electron affinities of alkaline earth metals either negative or small
positive values?
Solution: Alkaline earth metals have stable ns2 configuration and are, reluctant to accept electrons.
Thus, their electron affinity values are either small positive or negative.
Problem 11: The 1st and 2nd I.E. of K are 419 kJ/mol and 3052 kJ/mol and Ca are 590 kJ/mol and
1145 kJ/mol respectively. Compare their values and explain the differences.
Solution: Removal of 2nd electron from K is extremely difficult because K acquired stable noble gas
configuration after removing one electron while removal of both the electron for Ca is
comparatively easy, as it acquires stable configuration after removal of both the electrons.
Problem 12: Explain why the 2nd ionization energy of Cr is higher than that of Mn.
Solution: After losing one electron Cr will get converted into Cr+ which will have stable half filled
electronic configuration ( d5 ) with respect to configuration Mn+
Problem 13: Why the 1st ionization energy of phosphorus is greater than that of sulphur.
Solution: Phosphorus has got a stable half filled electronic configuration hence the 1st I.E. of P is
higher than that of S.
Problem 14: Two atoms A1 and A2 have the electronic configurations [Ne]3s23p6 and [Ne] 3s2 3p6
4s1. The first ionization energy of one is 2762 Kj/mole and that of the other is 692
kJ/mole. Match each ionization energy with one of the electronic configuration. Justify
your choice.
Solution: [Ne] 3s2 3p6: 2762 kJ/mole,
[Ne] 3s2 3p64s1 : 692 kJ/mole
Completely filled configurations have higher ionization energy than other configurations due
to their extra stability.
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3. An element having electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 is:
(A) An inert gas (B) A transition element
(C) A inner transition element (D) A representative element
4. For the element (X), student (A) measured its radius as 102 nm, student (B) as 109 nm and (C)
as 100 nm using sameapparatus. Their teacher explained that measurements were correct by
saying that recorded values by (A), (B) and (C) are:
(A) crystal, van der Waal and covalent radii
(B) covalent, crystal and van der Waal radii
(C) van der Waal, ionic and covalentradii
(D) none is correct
5. As per Mendeleev’s table which main group elements have a different number of outermost
electrons than their group number
(A) Alkali metals (B) Noble gases (C) Halogens (D) None
7. How many elements are present in the fourth period of the modern periodic table?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 18 (D) 32
8. In the fourth period of the periodic table, how many elements have one or more 4d electrons?
(A) 2 (B) 18 (C) 0 (D) 6
12. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species?
(A) C 2- -
2 , O 2 , CO, NO (B) NO+, C 2- −
2 , CN , N2
(C) CN−, N2 , O 2- 2-
2 , C2 (D) N2 , O -2 , NO+, CO
ATOMIC RADIUS
13. The correct order of radii is
(A) N < Be < B (B) F−< O2−< N3− (C) Na < Li < K (D) Fe3+< Fe2+< Fe4+
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14. The ionic radii of N3–, O2–and F– are respectively given by:
(A) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 (B) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(C) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 (D) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40
25. Consider the cations; Li+, Be2+, Mg2+, K+ and Al3+. The largest and the smallest ions from this
list are respectively
(A) K+ and Li+ (B) Al3+ and Be2+ (C) Mg2+ and Li + (D) K+ and Be2+
IONIZATION ENERGY
26. The ionisation energy of Al is smaller than that of Mg because
(A) Atomic size of Al > Mg.
(B) Atomic size of Al < Mg.
(C) Ionisation energy in Al pertains to the removal of pelectron which is relatively easy.
(D) Unpredictable.
27. IP1 and IP2 of Mg are 178 and 348 kcal mole–1. The energy required for the reaction
Mg Mg2+ + 2e– is
(A) +170 kcal/mol (B) +526 kcal/mol
(C) –170 kcal/mol (D) –526 kcal/mol
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28. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The
element is likely to be
(A) Na (B)Si (C) F (D) Ca
30. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic configuration are given below) the one having
highest ionization energy is
(A)[Ne] 3s2 3p1 (B)[Ne] 3s2 3p3 (C)[Ne] 3s2 3p2 (D) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p3
33. The ionization energy of boron is less than that of beryllium because:
(A) beryllium has a higher nuclear charge that boron
(B) beryllium has a lower nuclear charge than boron
(C) the outermost electron in boron occupies a 2p-orbital
(D) the 2s and 2porbital of boron are degenerate
34. Sodium generally does not shown oxidation state of +2, because of its:
(A) High first ionization potential (B) High second ionization potential
(C) Large ionic radius (D) High electronegativity
35. Which of the following isoelectronic ion has the lowest ionization energy?
(A) K+ (B)Cl (C) Ca2+ (D) S2-
36. The ionization potentials of Li and K are 5.4 and 4.3 eV respectively. The ionization potential of
Na will be:
(A) 9.7 eV (B) 1.1 eV (C) 4.9 eV (D)5.8 eV
1
37. The first four I.E. values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ mol . The number of
valence electrons in the element are:
(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four
ELECTRON AFFINITY
38. Ionization potential of Na would be numerically the same as
(A) Electron affinity of Na+ (B) Electronegativity of Na+
(C) Electron affinity of He (D) Ionization potential of Mg
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44. For which of the following transitions will the electron affinity positive?
(A) formation of O- from O (B) formation of O2- from O-
(C) formation of O+ from O (D) None
46. Which of the following represent(s) the correct order of electron affinities ?
(A) F > Cl > Br = (B) C < N = Cl < F (C) N < C < O < F (D) C < Si > P < N
ELECTRONEGATIVITY
47. Fluorine is a better oxidising agent than bromine. It is due to
(A) small size of fluorine (B) non-metallic character of fluorine
(C) more electronegativity of fluorine (D) more electron repulsion in fluorine
48. For which pair of atoms is the electronegativity difference the greatest?
(A) B, C (B) Li, I (C) K, Cl (D) Se, S
49. If ionisation energy of an atom is 10 eV & EA is 6.8 eV electronegativity of the species onpauling
scale.
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
50. Electronegativity of F on Mulliken’s scale is 11.2, what is the electronegativity on the Pauling’s
scale?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
53. A bond with maximum covalent character between non – metallic elements is formed
(A) Between identical atoms
(B) Between chemically similar atoms
(C) Between atoms of widely different electronegativites
(D) Between atoms of the same size
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MISCELLANEOUS
54. Among the following, which has the maximum hydration energy?
(A) OH (B) NH 4 (C) F (D) H+
55. The hydration energy of Mg2+ ions is lesser than that of:
(A) Al 3+ (B) Ba2+ (C) Na+ (D) none of these
56. The order in which the following oxides are arranged according to decreasing basic nature is:
(A)Na2O , Al2O3 ,MgO (B) Al2O3 , MgO , Na2O
(C)MgO , Al2O3 , Na2O (D) Na2O , MgO , Al 2O3
57. An element X occurs in short period having configuration ns2 np1. The formula and nature of its
oxide is
(A) XO3, basic (B) XO3, acidic (C) X2O3, Amphoteric (D) X2O3, basic
3. The formation of F−(g) from F(g) is exothermic whereas that of O2- from O(g) is endothermic. Why?
5. While Tl shows monovalency significantly whereas B and Al are trivalent compounds. Why?
ATOMIC RADIUS
7. The decreasing order of ionic radii of O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+ is rO2 rF rNa rMg 2 . Explain.
8. Compare the Vander Waal’s radius (I),Covalent radius (II), ionic radius of Br (III)
9. Why is the decrease in size from Li to Be is greater than that from K to Ca.
IONIZTION ENERGY
11. The first I.P. of Na is the same as electron affinity of Na+ ion
12. The second I.P. for alkali metals shows a jump while the third I.P. for alkaline earth metal shows
a jump.
13. I.E. of magnesium is greater than that of Na and also Al. Explain?
14. I.P. values of post lanthanides (Ag, Au) have higher values down the group. Explain.
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15. You are given Avogadro’s no. of atoms of X. If half of the atoms of X transfer one electron to the
other half of ‘X’ atoms, 409 kJ must be added. If these X– ions are subsequently converted to X+,
an additional 733 kJ energy must be added. Calculate IE and EA of X in eV. Use
(1 eV = 1.603 10–19 J and N = 6.023 1023).
16. The 1st ionization energy of carbon atom is greater than that of B atom whereas. 2 nd IE of B is
much greater is than that of C.
17. There is a big jump from 1.8 MJ to 15.3 MJ for the second and third ionization energy of
beryllium as compared with a change from 2.45 MJ to 3.7 MJ for B.Explain.
ELECTRON AFFINITY
18. What do you think as the origin of electron affinity.
ELECTRONEGATIVITY
19. Be and N have extremely low value of EA against the trend. Explain.
MISCELLANEOUS
20. 1gm of Mg atoms (atomic Mass 24 amu) in vapour phase absorbs 50 kJ of Energy. Find the
percentage of Mg2+ in final mixture of Mg2+ and Mg+. (Assuming all Mg atoms will ionize). 1st and
2nd I.E of Mg is 740 and 1450 kJ/Mol respectively.
21. The 1st ionization potential of Na = 5.4 eV and EA of F = 3.4 eV. Calculate H in kcal mol-1 for
the reaction: Na(g) + F(g) Na+ + F–
22. How many Fluorine atoms will be ionized by the energy released from the process
Cl + e Cl−for NA of Cl atoms. (I.P. for F = 1681 mol-1)
E.A. of Cl = - 328 kJ mol -1 [NA = 6.02 1023]
23. Both transition as well as non – transition elements show variable valencies. Explain
9.1 EXERCISE-1
1. Element with valence shell-electronic configuration as d5s1 is placed in:
(A)IA, s-block (B)VIA, s-block (C)VIB, s-block (D)VIB, d-block
4. M3+ has electronic configuration aas [Ar] 3d10 4s2, hence it lies in:
(A)s-block (B)p-block (C)d-block (D)f-block
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6. The atoms of the elements belonging to the same group of the periodic table will have :
(A)the same number of protons
(B)the same number of electrons in the valence-shell
(C)the same number of neutrons
(D)the same number of electrons
9. Valence electrons in the element A are 3 and that in element B are 6. Most probable compound
formed from A
(A)A2B (B)AB2 (C)A6B3 (D)A2B3
10. Among the following elements which has the highest ionization energy?
(A) P (B) Si (C) Cl (D) S
13. The second ionization energy is always higher than the first ionization energy because the :
(A)ion becomes more stable attaining an octet or duplet configurations
(B)electron is more tightly bound to the nucleus in an ion
(C)electron is attracted more by the core electrons
(D)none is the correct explanation
14. Which represents alkali metals based on (IE)1 and (IE)2 values ?
(IE)1 (IE)2
(A) X 100 110
(B) Y 95 120
(C) Z 195 500
(D) M 200 250
15. The dominant factor in determining the IE of the elements on moving down the groups is its :
(A) atomic radius (B)effective nuclear charge
(C)both (a) and (b) (D)none of the above
16. Higher values of ionization energies of the 5d-transition elements are consistent with the:
(Arelatively smaller effective nuclear charge
(B)relatively smaller size of their atoms
(C)relatively smaller penetration
(D)all are correct
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18. An oxide behaves as an acid or a base depending on properties of central atom as its:
(A) size and charge (B) size only (C) charge only (D) none of these
19. Which of the following metal is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy ?
(A)Cr (Z = 24) (B)V (Z = 23) (C)Mn (Z = 25) (D)Fe (Z = 26)
20. Which of the following arrangements shows the correct order of decreasing paramagnetism ?
(A)N > Al > O >Ca (B)N > O > Al >Ca
(C)O > N > Al >Ca (D)O > N >Ca> Al
22. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers corresponds to elements of group 16?
(A)8, 16, 32, 54 (B)16, 34, 54, 86 (C)8, 16, 34, 52 (D)10. 16, 32, 50
25. An element has successive ionization enthalpies as 940 (first), 2080, 3090, 4140, 7030, 7870,
16000 and 19500 kJ mol–1. To which group of the periodic table does this elements belong ?
(A)14 (B)15 (C)16 (D)17
26. The increasing order of electron affinity of the electronic configurations of elements is :
(i) 1s22s22p63s23p5 (ii) 1s22s22p3 (iii) 1s22s22p5 (iv)1s22s22p63s1
(A)II < IV < III < I (B) I < II < III < IV (C)I < III < II < IV (D)IV < III < II < I
28. Among the following elements which has the lowest electronegativity?
(A) Br (B) Cl (C) P (D) S
29. Assuming that elements are formed to complete the seventh period, what would be the atomic
number of alkaline earth metal of the eighth period.
(A)113 (B)120 (C)119 (D)106
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35. Following the transition elements, (IE)1 drops abruptly in Ga, In and TI. This is due to :
(A)decrease in effective nuclear charge
(B)increases in atomic radius
(C)removal of an electron from the singly occupied np orbitals of higher energy than the ns-orbitals
of Zn, Cd and Hg
(D)none is correct
37. Fluorine is more electronegative than nitrogen. The best explanation is that :
(A)the valence electrons in F are on the average, a little closer to the nucleus than in N
(B)the charge on a F nucleus is +9, while that on N nucleus is +7
(C)the valence electrons in F and N are in different shells and thus their energy are greatly different
(D)electronegativity increases from left to right in each of the periods
38. The electronegativities of elements A and B are 1.2 and 3.4 units respectively. The type of bond
connecting A and B in compound AB is:
(A) covalent (B) ionic (C)coordinate covalent (D) polar covalent
39. Electronegativity and electron affinity of an element A are X and Y respectively. Hence, ionization
potential of A is:
X Y
(A) (B)2 X – Y (C)2Y – X (D)2 X + Y
2
40. Oxidation energy of Li(s) to Li+(aq) is least in group IA elements. This is because of :
(A)maximum heat of sublimation of Li(s) (B)maximum heat of hydration of Li+
(C)less negative heat of hydration of Li+ (D)maximum ionization energy of Li
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41. Which of the series of elements listed below would have nearly the same atomic radii?
(A) F,Cl,Br,I (B) Na,K,Rb,Cs (C) Li,Be,B,C (D) Fe,Co,Ni,Cu
46. The 1st ionization energy of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order :
(A) Na < Mg > Al < Si (B) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(C) Na < Mg < Al > Si (D) Na > Mg > Al < Si
47. Higher values of ionization energies of the 5d-transition elements are consistent with the:
(A) Relatively smaller effective nuclear charge
(B) Relatively smaller size of their atoms
(C) Relatively smaller penetration
(D) All are correct
9.2 EXERCISE-2
Multiple choice questions
1. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct ?
(A) The electron affinity for sulphur is more negative than that for oxygen.
(B) Successive ionization energies of an atom always increase.
(C) Chlorine has larger atomic size as well as electron affinity than that of fluorine
(D) First ionization energy of As is greater than that of Se.
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3. Which of the following statements is/are true about the modern form of periodic table ?
(A) Properties of the elements are the periodic functions of their atomic number.
(B) There are 7 periods.
(C) There are 18 groups
(D) It has no separate positions for the isotopes.
6. If the same element is forming oxides in different oxidation states then which of the following
statement are correct:
(A) that oxide will be neutral in nature in which element will be in its highest oxidation state.
(B) that oxide will be highest acidic in nature in which element will be in its highest oxidation state.
(C) that oxide will be amphoteric in nature in which element will be in its highest oxidation state.
(D) that oxide will be less acidic in nature in which element will be in its lowest oxidation state.
8. The successive ionization energies of an element (M) are 170, 345 and 1840 kCal/mol. Formula of
its bromide is :
(A) MBr (B) MBr2 (C)MBr3 (D)Unpredictable
10. The electronic configuration of an element X is 1s2 2s2 2p6. What is the atomic number of the element
which is just above the element X in the periodic table?
(a)2 (b)6 (c)16 (d)8
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13. There are four elements 'M', 'N', 'O' and 'P' having atomic numbers Z – 1, Z, Z+1 and Z+2
respectively. If the element 'N' is an inert gas, select the correct answers from the following
statements.
(A) 'M' has most negative electron gain enthalpy in the respective period.
(B) 'O' is an alkali metal
(C) 'P' exists in +2 oxidation state.
(D) None of the above
14. Which of the following orders are correct for the ionization energies ?
(A) Ba < Sr < Ca (B) S2-< S < S2+
(C) C < O < N (D) Ba < Al < Si
17. The most stable oxidation state of thallium & bismuth are respectively.
(A) + 3, + 5 (B) + 5, + 3 (C) + 1, + 3 (D) + 2, + 3
20. The graph shows the variation of ionization potential with atomic number in II period ionization
potential of Na will not be
Ionisation potential
N Ne
F
Be C
Li O
B
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Atomic number
(a)above Ne (b)below Ne but above F
(c)between O and N (d)below Li
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For Questions 24 to 26
The singly bonded radii of an element X is 150 pm. Assuming that the difference between radii of
different magnitudes is 50 pm, answer the following –
27. The second I.P. of an element is 280 kcal mol 1. Then the equation that represents this ionization is
written as
(A) M+(s) M2+(s) + e280 kcal (B) M+(g) M2+(g) + e280 kcal
(C) M+(s) M2+(g) + e +280 kcal (D) M+(g) M2+(s) + e280 kcal
Comprehension Type
PASSAGE- I
Following data is given of Ionization Energies and Electron Affinity for different elements
Elements IE1(kJ/mole) IE2(kJ/mole) EA(kJ/mole)
A 50 65 10
B 18 30 -20
C 30 45 -45
D 12 16 -33
E 5 25 -5
F 35 50 -150
Q1. Out of the following, which one is most reactive metal?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) E
Q5. Out of the following, which one can form most stable bivalent ionic chloride, MCl 2?
(A) D (B) B (C) C (D) E
PASSAGE- II
The f-block elements are known as inner transition elements because they involve the filling for inner sub-
shells (4f or 5f).Because lanthanum closely resembles the Lathanides, it is usually included in any
discussion of the Lathanides.
There is fairly regular decrease in the sizes with increasing atomic number. The Continuous decrease in
radii is known as Lanthanides Contraction. Lathanides exhibit the oxidation state of +3. Some of them also
exhibit the oxidation state of +2 and +4.
Q9. Out of the following, which one is strongest oxidising agent in aqueous medium?
(A) Yb2+ (B) Sm2+ (C) Pm3+ (D) Ce4+
PASSAGE- III
From Q10 to Q13, the seven periods and eighteen groups are given in Modern Periodic Table
From Q10 to Q13, the seven periods and eighteen groups are given in Modern Periodic Table
st
1 2 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
nd
2
rd
3
th
4
5th
6th
th
7
Q10. If same structure will maintain for further discovery of new elements, then what is the maximum
number of elements that can be accommodated by 10th period of periodic table?
Q11. If each orbital can hold a maximum of 3 electrons. The number of elements in 4th period of periodic
table is
(A) 48 (B) 57 (C) 27 (D) 36
Q12. Element with electronic configuration [Kr] 4d10 4f14, 5s2 5p6 5d1, 6s2belongs to the ............. group of
the periodic table:
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
Q13. If the elements of quantum number greater than n were not allowed, the number of possible
elements in nature would have been
2
(A) 1 n(n 1) (B) n( n 1) (C) 1 n(n 1)(2n 1) (D) 1 n(n 1)(2n 1)
2 2 3 2
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PASSAGE- IV
Moseley (1909) studied the frequency of X-rays produced by the bombardment of a strong beam of
electrons on a metal target. He found that the square root of the frequency of X-rays is directly
proportional to the total nuclear charge (Z) of metal. a Z b , where a andb are constants. Nuclear
charge of metal is equal to the atomic number. So Moseley related the properties of elements with their
atomic number and gave the new periodic law
Q15. If the frequency of characteristic X-rays for Li and Na is 9×1016Hz and 16×1016 Hz. The frequency of
characteristic X-rays for K is
(A) 35×1016Hz (B) 30×1016Hz (C) 41.3×1016Hz (D) 25×1016Hz
Q16. If the frequency of X-rays used in medical scanning is 12×1016Hz, energy per photon is
(A) 9.9×10-17J (B) 7.92×10-17J (C) 8.95×10-19J (D) 12.5×10-20J
PASSAGE- V
Oxide of elements can be divided into four categories as acidic, basic, neutral and amphoteric. Oxyacid or
hydroxide of any element looks like M-O-H, if O-H bond is more polar than M-O bond it will be acid otherwise
base. It all depends on either electro negativity of central atom. Generally down the group in periodic table,
basic nature increases, and on increasing the oxidation state of element acidic nature of oxide increases
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Matrix Match
Column -I (atomic number or symbol of elements) with Column- II (position and properties of elements in
periodic table) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
1. Column - I Column - II
A. 19 p. p-block
B. 22 q. f-block
C. 32 r. d-block
D. 64 s. s-block
2. Column - I Column - II
A. 3 p. s-block
B. 37 q. ns1-2
C. 56 r. Alkali metals
D. 88 s. Radioactive
3. Column - I Column - II
A. 15 p. p-block
B. 31 q. Liquid at room temperature
C. 35 r. Halogen
D. 85 s. Metal
4. Column - I Column - II
A. Mn3+ p. Paramagnetic
B. Cr2+ q. Diamagnetic
C. Ag2+ r. 1.732 BM
D. Hg22+ s. 26 BM
5. Column - I Column - II
A. 60 p.Inner transition elements
B. U-238 q.4f-block
C. Th r.Lanthanides
D. 100 s.Actinides
6. Match atomic number of electrons with position of elements in the following table
Column – I Column – II
A. 20 (1) p – block
B. 23 (2) f – block
C. 31 (3) d – block
D. 64 (4) s - block
(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2 (b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3
(c) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2 (d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4
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(a) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2 (b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
(c) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3 (d) A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3
INTEGER TYPE
1. Magnetic moment of an element is 1.732, Thus, the number of unpaired electron is/are
4. No of amphoteric oxides out of Na2O, MgO, Al 2O3, PbO2, SnO2, BeO, CaO, BaO are
3. Which of the following pairs show reverse properties on moving along a period from left to right and
from top to down in a group?
(a) Atomic radius and electron affinity (b)Nuclear charge and electron affinity
(c) Nuclear charge and electronegative character (d)None of these (DCE 2003)
4. Which element exists as a solid at 25oC and 1 atmospheric pressure among the following?
(a) P (b) Hg (c) Cl (d) Br (DCE 2003)
5. Which among the following species have the same number of electrons in its outermost well as
penultimate shell?
(a) F (b) O2 (c) Mg 2 (d) Ca2 (DCE 2004)
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8. Which electronic configuration of an element has abnormally high difference between second and
third ionization energy?
(a) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 ,3s1 (b) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 ,3s 2 , 3p1 (c) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 (d) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p6 ,3s 2
(DCE 2006)
9. The incorrect statement among the following is
(a) The first ionisation enthalpy of Al is less than the first ionization enthalpy of Mg.
(b) The second ionisation enthalpy of Mg is greater than the second ionization enthalpy of Na.
(c) The first ionisation enthalpy of Na is less than the first ionsiation enthalpy of Mg.
(d) The third ionization enthalpy of Mg is greater than the third ionsiation enthalpy of Al.
10. Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
(a) K , Cl , Ca 2 ,Sc3 (b) Ba 2 ,Sr 2 , K ,S2 (c) N3 , O2 , F ,S2 (d) Li , Na , Mg 2 , Ca 2
(AIEEE 2006)
11. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P, S and F (lowest first) is
(a) F < S < P < B (b) P < S < B < F (c) B < P < S < F (d) B < S < P < F
(AIEEE 2006)
12. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity if the alkali metals and the
halogens are given. Which of these statements gives the correct picture?
(a) The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in
atomicnumber down the group
(b) In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increases in
atomic number down the group
(c) Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both the alkali
metals and halogens
(d) In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic
number down the group. (AIEEE 2006)
13. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property
against it?
(a) CO2 SiO2 SnO 2 PbO2 : increasing oxidising power
(b) HF HCl HBr HI : increasing acid strength
(c) NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3 ; increasing basic strength
(d) B < C < O <N : increasing first ionization enthalpy
(AIEEE 2009)
14. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is
(a) Li Be 2 Na Mg 2 (b) Na Li Mg 2 Be 2
(c) Li Na Mg 2 Be 2 (d) Mg 2 Be2 Li Na
(AIEEE 2009)
15. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order Ionic radii of element is
(a) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2– (b) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2- > F–
+ – 2+ 2- 3+
(c) Na > F > Mg > O > Al (d) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
(2010)
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18. Which of the following represent correct order of increasing first I.E for Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar?
(a) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar (b) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
(c) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar (d) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar
(2013)
19. The Ionic radii (in A0) of N3–, O2– and F– are respectively
(a) 1.36, 1.77 and 1.40 (b) 1.77, 1.40 and 1.36
(c) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40 (d) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
(2015)
20. Which of the following atom has the highest first ionization energy?
(a) Na (b) K (c) Sc (d) Rb
(2016)
1. The correct order of second ionization potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
(JEE 1981)
(A) C > N > O > F (B) O> N > F >C (C) O > F > N > C (D) F > O > N> C
2. The element with the highest first ionization potential is (JEE 1982)
(A) Boron (B) carbon (C) Nitrogen (D) oxygen
4. The first ionization potential in electron volts of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are respectively given by
(JEE 1987)
(A) 14.6, 13.6 (B) 13.6, 14.6 (C) 13.6, 13.6 (D) 14.6, 14.6
5. Atomic radii of fluorine and neon in Angstrom units are respectively given by (JEE 1987)
(A) 0.72, 1.60 (B) 1.60, 1.60 (C) 0.72, 0.72 (D) None of these
6. The electro negativity of the following elements increases in the order (JEE 1987)
(A) C, N, Si, P (B) N, Si, C, P (C) Si , P, C, N (D) P, Si, N, C
7. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order (JEE 1988)
(A) Na < Mg > Al < Si (B) Na< Mg < Al > Si
(C) Na> Mg > Al > Si (D) Na > Mg > Al < Si
8. Which one of the following is the smallest in size? (JEE 1989)
(A) N3− (B) O2− (C) F− (D) Na+
9. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic configurations are given below), the one having
the highest ionization energy is (JEE 1990)
(A) [Ne]3s2 3p1 (B) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 (C) [Ne]3s23p2 (D) [Ar]3d10 4s2 4p3
10. The statement that is not correct for the periodic classification of elements, is (JEE 1992)
(A) The properties of elements are the periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
(B) Non-metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic elements.
(C)The first ionization energies of elements along a period do not vary in a regular manner with
increases in atomic number.
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(D)For transition elements the d-subshells are filled with electrons monotonically with increase in
atomic number.
12. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons? (JEE 1996)
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ti3+ (C) V3+ (D) Fe2+
15. The sets representing the correct order of first ionization potential is (JEE 2001)
(A) K > Na < Li (B) Be> Mg >Ca
(C) B > C > N (D) Ge> Si > C
16. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following (JEE 2002)
(A) Li+ (B) Be− (C) B− (D) C−
17. The increasing order of atomic radii of the following Group 13 elements is
(A) Al Ga In Tl (B) Ga Al In Tl
(C) Al In Ga Tl (D) Al Ga Tl In
2. The first ionization potential of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are related as follows (JEE 1989)
(A) The ionization potential of oxygen is less than the ionization potential of nitrogen.
(B) The ionization potential of nitrogen is greater than the ionization potential of oxygen.
(C) The two ionization potential values are comparable.
(D) The difference between the ionization potential of O and N is too large.
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3. Statement I : Pb4+ compounds are stronger oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds.
Statement II: The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier
members of the group due to ‘inert pair effect’. (JEE 2008)
True / False
1. The softness of group IA metals increase down the group with increasing atomic number.
(JEE 1986)
2. In group IA of alkali metals, the ionization potential decreases down the group. Therefore, lithium is a
poor reducing agent. (JEE 1987)
3. The decreasing order of electron affinity of F, Cl, Br is F>Cl> Br. (JEE 1993)
4. The basic nature of the hydroxides of group 13 (IIIB) decreases progressively down the group.
(JEE 1993)
Subjective Questions
5. Compare qualitatively the first and second ionization potentials of copper and zinc. Explain the
observation. (JEE 1996)
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1.B 2.C 3.D 4.A 5.B 6.B 7.C 8.C 9.D 10.B
11.D 12.B 13.B 14.C 15.B 16.D 17.B 18.A 19.B 20.B
21.A 22.C 23.A 24.B 25.D 26.C 27.B 28.B 29.B 30.B
31.B 32.A 33.C 34.B 35.D 36.C 37.C 38.A 39.C 40.A
41.D 42.B 43.C 44.B 45.B 46.C 47.C 48.C 49.B 50.D
10. Ni2+, F−
20. 31.7%
328
22. n = 6.023 1023
1681
EXERCISE-1
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. D
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EXERCISE-2
Multiple Choice questions
Comprehension Type
1.D 2.D 3.D 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.D 10.C
11.C 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.D 19.D 20.D
Matrix Match
1. A−s, B−r, C−p, D−q 2. A−p,q,r, B−p,q,r, C−p,q, D−p,q,s
Integer type
1. 1 2. 4 3. 6 4. 4
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EXERCISE-3
1. Which of the following statement is incorrect for an atom having electronic configuration 2, 8, 7
(a) It forms diatomic molecules (b) It is a non metal element
(c) It valency is 1 (d) It forms basic oxide
4. The electrons configuration of four elements are given below. Which element does not belong to the
same block as others?
(a) Xe 4f 14 5d10 6s 2 (b) Kr 4d10 5s 2 (c) Ne 3s 2 3p5 (d) Ar 3d10 4s 2
5. Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 19, 37 and 55 respectively. Which of the following
statements is true about them?
(a) Their ionization potential would increase with increasing atomic number
(b) ‘Y’ would have an ionization potential between those of ‘X’ and ‘Z’
(d) ‘Y’ would have the highest ionization potential
7. Na+, Mg+, Al3+ and Si4+ are isoelectronic. The order of their ionic size is
(a) Na Mg Al3 Si 4 (b) Na Mg Al3 Si 4
(c) Na Mg Al3 Si4 (d) Na Mg Al3 Si 4
8. Atomic number of N is 7, atomic number of the third element of the nitrogen family is
(a) 23 (b) 15 (c) 33 (d) 43
9. A transition element X has the configuration Ar 3d 4 in its +3 oxidation state. Its atomic number is
(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 22 (d) 19
11. Which one of the following is correct order of the size of iodine species?
(a) I I I (b) I I I (c) I I I (d) I I I
12. Which of the following does not represent the correct order of the property indicated
(a) Sc3 Cr 3 Fe3 Mn 3 ionic radii (b) Sc Ti Cr Mn Density
3 3 3
(c) Sc Y La ionic radii (d) FeO CaO MnO CuO Basic nature
260
14. Which of the following is most electronegative?
(a) Lead (b) Silicon (c) Carbon (d) Tin
15. The ions O2 , F , Na , Mg 2 and Al3 are isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show
(a) An increase from O2 to F and then decrease from Na to Al3
(b) A decrease from O2 to F and the increase from Na to Al3
(c) A significant increase from O2 to Al3
(d) A significant decrease from O2 to Al3
17. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with
negative sign) of the given atomic species
(a) F < Cl < O < S (b) S < O < Cl < F (c) O < S< F < Cl (d) Cl < F < S < S
18. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic
numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy
(a) Vanadium (Z = 23) (b) Manganese (Z = 25)
(c) Chromium (Z = 24) (d) Iron (Z = 26)
20. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hydrid orbital of carbon is
(a) sp sp2 sp3 (b) sp sp2 sp3 (c) sp sp2 sp3 (d) sp sp2 sp3
21. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it?
(a) F2 Cl2 Br2 I : bond dissociation energy
(b) F2 Cl2 Br2 I : oxidizing power
(c) HI > HBr > HCI > HF : acidic property in water
(d) F > Cl > Br > I : electro negativity
22. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main
reason for this is
(a) More active nature of the actinoids
(b) More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(c) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbtials
(d) Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids
23. Which one of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive
element
(a) He 2s1 (b) Xe 6s1 (c) He 2s 2 (d) Xe 6s 2
261
25. The pair of amphoteric hydroxide is
(a) Al OH 3 , LiOH (b) Be OH 2 , Mg OH 2
(c) B OH 3 , Be OH 2 (d) Be OH 2 , Zn OH 2
27. Which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy?
(a) 1s 2 2s2 2p3 (b) 1s 2 2s2 2p5 3s1 (c) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 (d) 1s 2 2s2 2p5
29. The percent ionic character in the molecule A-B is calculated by the formula
2
100 0.16 X A X B 0.035 X A X B
Where X A & X B are the electronegativities of A & B respectively. Thus, the maximum ionic
character is associated with
(a) H–F (b) H – Cl (c) H – Br (d) H – I
31. Considering hydrides how the valency of elements change from group I to group VII of the periodic
table
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 1, 3, 5, 7, 5, 3, 1 (d) 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
32. Zinc does not show the variable valency as elements of d-block because
(a) This is soft metal (b) d-orbital is full
(c) Its melting point is low (d) Volatile metal
38. The electronic configuration of an element 1s 2 ,2s2 , 2p6 ,3s 2 3p4 . In this group the atomic no. of
element which will come below this
(a) 30 (b) 34 (c) 24 (d) 36
262
39. The reason of more reactivity of fluorine is
(a) Less energy of F – F bond (b) F2 is a gas at normal temperature
(c) Its bonding electron are maximum (d) More energy of F – F bond
42. Which of the following has the maximum size Li, Be, C and N
(a) Li (b) Be (c) C (d) N
44. Element having electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1 shows similarity in properties with the
element
(a) Cr (b) Ca (c) Rb (d) Mo
47. What is the atomic number of the element having the outer configuration as 5s2 5p3
(a) 33 (b) 34 (c) 51 (d) 52
49. Out of Na, Mg, K and Ca, which element has the maximum electronegativity?
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) K (d) Ca
50. Element with electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 belongs to which of the following
(a) Metal (b) Non-metal (c) Metalloid (d) Inert gas
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54. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than that of oxygen because
(a) Nitrogen has half filled p-orbitals
(b) Nitrogen is left to the oxygen in the same period of periodic table
(c) Nitrogen contains less number of electros
(d) Nitrogen is less electronegative
60. An atom of an element has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 1. Which of the following statement is
correct
(a) The valency of element is 7
(b) The element exists as a diatomic molecule
(c) The element is of non-metallic nature
(d) The element forms a basic oxide
61. Referring carbon family (group 14) which of the following statement is true while moving down the
group
(a) Metallic character decreases (b) Stability of +2 oxidation state increases
(c) Ionization energy increases (d) Atomic size decreases
65. The radii of iso-electronic species (a) atom (b) cation & (c) anion following the order
(a) c > a > b (b) b > c > a (c) c > b > a (d) None
264
68. The order of size is
(a) S2 Cl O2 F (b) Cl S2 O2 F
(c) S2 O2 Cl F (d) S2 O2 F Cl
69. The pair showing diagonal relationship is
(a) Li-Mg (b) Be-Al (c) B-Si (d) All the above
70. The first ionization energies of alkaline earth metals are higher than those of the alkali metals. This is
because
(a) There is increase in the effective nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metal
(b) There is decreases in the effective nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metals
(c) There is no change in the effective nuclear change
(d) None of the above
72. The property of hydrogen which distinguishes it from other alkali metals is
(a) Its electropositive character (b) Its affinity for non-metals
(c) Its reducing character (d) Its non-metallic character
73. Arrange the following in order of increasing atomic radii Na, Si, Al, Ar
(a) Na, SI, Al, Ar (b) SI, Al, Na, Ar (c) Ar, Al, SI, Na (d) Na, Al, SI, Ar
74. The outer most electronic configuration of alkaline earth metal would be
(a) ns2 (b) ns1 (c) np6 (d) nd10
75. The pair showing atomic no. of the elements of the same group is
(a) 11 &37 (b) 19 & 15 (c) 39 & 88 (d) None
76. Atomic radii of alkali metals (M) follow the order Li < Na < K < Rb but ionic radii in aqueous
solution follow the reverse order Li+ > Na + > K + > Rb+. The reason of the reverse order is
(a) Increase in the ionization energy (b) Decrease in the metallic bond character
(c) Increase in the electropositive character (d) Decrease in the amount of hydration
77. Be (II-A) shows different behavior as compared to other elements of the same group the reason being
(a) Small size and high electronegativity (b) Small size and low electronegativity
(c) Bigger size and low ionization energy (d) Bigger size and large ionic radius
78. The electronic configuration 1s 2 2s 2 2p1x 2p1y 2p1z represents which of the following elements
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Fluorine
265
83. In the following the elements with the highest electropositivity is
(a) Cu (b) Cs (c) Ba (d) Cr
84. The compounds of alkaline earth metals have the following magnetic nature
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic (c) Ferromagnetic (d)Antiferromagnetic
85. The long form of the periodic table has ______ periods and vertical columns
(a) 7 : 18 (b) 8 : 12 (c) 6 : 18 (d) 6 : 8
89. Which of the following group contains all the metallic elements
(a) IIIA (b) IVA (c) VIIA (d) IIA
93. Which of the following does not exhibit periodicity in properties of the elements?
(a) Ionization energy (b) n/p ratio (c) Electronegativity (d) Atomic radius
94. The decreasing order of the ionization potential of the following elements is
(a) Ne > Cl > P > S > Al > Mg (b) Ne > Cl > P>S > Mg > Al
(c) Ne > Cl > S> P > Mg> Al (d) Ne > Cl > S > P > Al > Mg
97. Arrange in the increasing order of atomic radii of following element O, C, F, Cl, Br
(a) F, O, C, Cl, Br (b) F, C, O, Cl, Br (c) F, Cl, Br, O, C (d) C, O, F, Cl, Br
266
99. The element with highest electron affinity among halogens is
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
100. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers belong to that of alkali metals?
(a) 1, 12, 30, 4, 61 (b) 37, 19, 3, 55 (c) 9, 17, 35, 53 (d) 12, 20, 56,88
102. Which element will have maximum ionization energy out of the following electronic configurations?
(a) Ne 3s 2 3p1 (b) Ne 3s 2 3p 4 (c) Ne 3s 2 3p 3 (d) Ar 3d10 4s 2 4p3
105. Element Hg has two oxidation states Hg 1 & Hg 2 . The right order or radii of these ions
(a) Hg 1 Hg 2 (b) Hg 2 Hg 1 (c) Hg 1 Hg 2 (d) Hg 2 Hg 1
107. One element has atomic weight 39. Its electronic configuration is 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 ,3s 2 3p6 4s1 . The true
statement for that element is
(a) It has high I.E. (b) It is a transition element
36
(c) It is an isotone with 18 Ar (d) If forms stable oxide M2O
111. The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is
(a) K > Na > LI (b) Be > Mg > Ca (c) B > C> N (d) Ge > Si > C
267
115. Which one of the following ions has the highest value of ionic radius
(a) O2 (b) B3 (c) Li (d) F
116. The formation of the oxide ion O2g requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as
shown below
Og e Og H o 142kJ mol1
Og e O2g H o 844 kJ mol 1
This is because
(a) O ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron
(b) Oxygen has high electron affinity
(c) Oxygen is more electronegative
(d) O ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom
117. Which among the following factors is the most important in making fluorine the strongest oxidizing
halogen?
(a) Hydration enthalpy (b) Ionization enthalpy
(c) Electron affinity (d) Bond dissociation energy
121. Which of the following conjugate base has maximum charge density
(a) O2 (b) S2 (c) Te2 (d) Se2
268
129. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides (H – X) is
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) HCl < HF > HBr < HI (d) HI > HCl < HF > HBr
132. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P, S and F (lowest first) is
(a) B < P < S < F (b) B < S < P < F (c) F < S < P < B (d) P < S < B < F
139. The highest magnetic moment is shown by a transition metal ion with the outer electronic
configuration
(a) 3d2 (b) 3d5 (c) 3d7 (d) 3d9
140. Consider the isoelectronic species Na , Mg 2 ,F ,O2 . The correct order of increasing length of their
radii is
(a) F O2 , Mg 2 Na (b) Mg 2 Na F O2
(c) O2 F Na Mg 2 (d) O2 F Mg 2 Na
141. The number of electron is an atom with atomic number 105 having n 8 are
(a) 30 (b) 17 (c) 15 (d) Unpredictable
269
142. Match list –I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
2
(A) 1s ,2s 2p ,3s2 6 2 (i) In
(B) 1s 2 ,2s 2 2p6 ,3s 2 3p6 3d10 , 4s1 (ii) Pd
(C) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 ,3s 2 3p6 3d10 ,4s1 4s2 4p6 4d8 ,5s2 (iii) Mg
(D) 1s 2 , 2s 2 2p6 ,3s 2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 4d10 ,5s 2 5p1 (iv) Cu
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
145. 37
Cl2 can be obtained by
37 35
(a) Successive ionization of Cl g (b) Protonating Cl aq with two protons
35
(c) Ionization 35
Cl g (d) Fusion of Cl nucleus with a particles
146. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1 e.v. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be
(a) 5.1eV (b) 10.2eV (c) 2.55eV (d) 10.2eV
148. The first four ionization energy values for an element are 176, 356, 1842 and 2344 kcal mol–1
respectively. The number o valence electrons in the elements is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
149. When these oxides are arranged in order of increasing strength (weakest acid first), what is the
correct order?
(a) NO N 2 O N 2 O4 N 2O5 (b) CO2 CO
(c) MnO Mn 2O7 Mn 2 O3 (d) Cl 2O Cl 2O3 Cl2O5 Cl2O7
270
QUESTIONS ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMS
152. As the elements of Group 17 are considered in order of increasing atomic number there is an increase
in
153. In the ground state each atom of an element has two valence electrons. This element has lower first
ionization energy than calcium. Where is the element located in the Periodic Table?
(a) Group 1, Period 4 (b) Group 2, Period 5
(c) Group 2, Period 3 (d) Group 3, period 4
154. The element most likely to conduct electricity are the ones where electrons are not tightly bound to
nucleus. The trend for electrical conductivity in the following is
(a) Li > Na > S > Ne (b) S> Li > Na > Ne (c) Ne > Na > Li > S (d) Na > Li > S< Ne
156. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than that of oxygen because of
(a) Greater attraction of nucleus
(b) Extra stability of half-filled p-orbitals
(c) Smaller size of nitrogen atom
(d) Poor shielding effect
157. When unequal number of unpaired electrons are aligned in opposite direction the net magnetic
moment is not zero. Such substances are termed as
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Ferromagnetic (c) Ferromagnetic (d) Ant ferromagnetic
271
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (b)
101. (d) 102. (c) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (d) 120. (c)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (a) 129. (b) 130. (c)
131. (b) 132. (b) 133. (a) 134. (a) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (c) 139. (b) 140. (b)
141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (d) 150. (c)
151. (b) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (d) 155. (d) 156. (b) 157. (c) 158. (c) 159. (c) 160. (d)
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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO
1. INTRODUCTION
Chemical Bond is the physical process responsible for the attractive interactions between atoms and
molecules, and that which confers stability to diatomic and polyatomic chemical compounds. The
explanation of the attractive forces is a complex area that is described by the laws of quantum
electrodynamics. In general, strong chemical bonding is associated with the sharing or transfer of electrons
between the participating atoms.
The study on the “nature of forces that hold or bind atoms together to form a molecule” is required to gain
knowledge of the following
To know about how atoms of same element form different compounds combining with different
elements.
To know why particular shapes are adopted by molecules.
To understand the specific properties of molecules or ions and the relation between the specific type of
bonding in the molecules.
2. LEWIS THEORY
The Lewis theory gave the first explanation of a covalent bond in terms of electrons that was generally
accepted. If two electrons are shared between two atoms, this constitutes a bond and binds the atoms
together. For many light atoms, a stable arrangement is attained when the atom is surrounded by eight
electrons.
The octet can be made up from some electrons which are totally owned and some electrons which are
‘shared’. Thus atoms continue to form bonds until they have made up an octet of electrons. This is called the
‘octet rule’. The octet rule explains the observed valences in a large number of cases. There are exceptions to
the octet rule; for example, hydrogen is stable with only two electrons.
The conventional Lewis structure representation of a pair of bonded electrons is by means of a ‘dash’ (-)
usually called a ‘bond’. Lone pairs or ‘non-bonded’ electrons are represented by ‘dots’. Some structures are
represented below:
.. H
(NH3) H : N : H
or H N H
..
..
H
H H
.. .. ..
(CO2) : O C O : (CH3CHO) H C C O :
H
Such representations of organic molecules are not usually problematic. However, ‘hit-and-trial’ is generally
the method (obviously not very efficient) used by most students in figuring out the structures of inorganic
molecules.
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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO
.. ..
octet rule (or duet for hydrogen) is satisfied. For example, a molecule of fluorine is shown as : F.. : F
.. : or
.. .. .. ..
F
: .. F
.. : and a molecule of hydrogen fluoride is shown as H : F.. : or H F.. : .
Arrangement of dot symbols used to represent molecules are called Lewis structures. Lewis structures do
not convey any information regarding the shape of the molecule. Usually, the shared pairs of electrons are
represented by lines between atoms and any unshared pairs are shown as dot pairs.
Lewis structures are written by fitting the element dot symbols together to show shared electron pairs and
to satisfy the octet rule. For example,
..
. .. :O H
(i) In water (H2O), one H and two . O. : complete their duet and octet respectively
H
. .. ..
(ii) In ammonia (NH3), three H and one . N. . fit together and satisfy their duet and octet H N H
respectively as H
..
:Cl:
.. .
. . . .. ..
(iii) .. and one C
In carbon tetrachloride (CCl4), four : Cl . complete their octet as : Cl
.. C Cl
.. :
:Cl
.. :
For the given molecules, we have adopted hit & trial method to fit the dot symbols together and satisfy the
octet rule. But remember that hydrogen form one bond, oxygen forms two bonds, nitrogen three bonds and
carbon forms four bonds. For simpler molecules, the hit & trial method works perfectly but for slightly
complicated polyatomic species, this may give us more than one possible structure. Thus, a systematic
approach is needed to design the Lewis structures of such polyatomic species. But before proceeding
further, let us understand the limitation of this approach.
This method would be applicable to only those molecules/species, which follow octet rule except hydrogen.
There are three kinds of molecules/species, which do not follow octet rule.
(a) Molecules, which have contraction of octet. Such molecules are electron deficient. For example,
BH3, BF3, BCl3, AlCl 3, GaCl3 etc.
(b) Molecules, which have expansion of octet. Such species have more than eight electrons in their
outermost shell. This is possible in those molecules, which have vacant dorbitals, thus they can
expand their octet. For example, PCl5, SF6 etc.
(c) Molecules containing odd number of electrons (in total) cannot satisfy octet rule. Such species are
called odd electron species and are paramagnetic in nature due to presence of unpaired electron.
For example, NO, NO2 and ClO2.
n1 = Sum of valence electron of all the atoms of the species net charge on the species.
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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO
For a negatively charged species, electrons are added while for positively charged species, the
electrons are subtracted. For anuninegatively charged species, add 1 to the sum of valence
electrons and for a dinegatively charged species, add 2 and so on.
(ii) Then calculate n2.
n2 =( 8 number of atoms other than H) + (2 number of H atoms)
(v) Identify the central atom. Generally, the central atom is the one, which is least electronegative of all
the atoms, when the other atoms do not contain hydrogen. When the other atoms are hydrogen
only, then the central atom would be the more electronegative atom. Here, you are required to know
a bit of chemistry, physics or mathematics won’t help.
(vi) Now around the central atom, place the other atoms and distribute the required number of bonds
(as calculated in step (iii))& required number of lone pairs (as calculated in step (iv) ), keeping in
mind that every atom gets an octet of electrons except hydrogen.
(vii) Then calculate the formal charge on each atom of the species.Formal charge is the difference
between the valence electrons in an isolated atom and the number of electrons assigned to that
atom in a Lewis Structure.
Formal charge on an atom = number of valence electrons of the atom (number of shared electrons
of that atom + number of unshared electrons of that atom).
Formal charge on an atom = number of valence electrons of the atom number of bonds formed by
that atom number of unshared electrons (2 lone pairs) of that atom.
For every electron of an atom that is shared in a bond, the “number of bonds formed by the atom” is
one. Therefore if an atom forms only one bond (AB), one electron of the bond is that of A and other
is that of B. So the “number of bonds” of A and B each is one. But if the bond were a coordinate
bond (AB), then two electrons of A are involved in it. This makes the number of bonds of A to be 2
and that of B to be zero.
(viii) When two adjacent atoms get opposite formal charges, then charges can be removed by replacing
the covalent bond between the atoms by a dative (coordinate) bond. This bond will have the
arrowhead pointing towards the atom with positive formal charge. It is not mandatory to show the
dative bonds unless required to do so.
(ix) The given Lewis structure should account for the factual aspects of the molecule like resonance
(delocalization), bond length, pd back bonding etc.
Sometimes, there are more than one acceptable Lewis structure for a given species. In such cases,
we select the most plausible Lewis structure by using formal charges and the following guidelines:
For neutral molecules, a Lewis structure in which there are no formal charges is preferable to one in
which formal charges are present.
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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO
Lewis structures with large formal charges (+2, +3 and/ or 2, 3 and so on) are less plausible than
those with small formal charges.
Among Lewis structures having similar distributions of formal charges, the most plausible structure
is the one in which negative formal charges are placed on the more electronegative atoms.
:O
.. : 1 :O: 0 :O
.. : 1
:O
.. :
which even accounts for resonance in NO 3 ion.
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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO
When two atoms, one of which can lose one or more electrons to attain a noble gas configuration and the
other can receive these electrons and thereby acquire a noble gas configuration, they are said to be
bonded by an ionic bond. Since the loss and gain of electrons by atoms results in the formation of ions,
ionic bond is formed when two ions interact with each other and are thus held together by electrostatic
attraction.
The formation of an ionic compound is obviously related to the ease of formation of the cations and anions
from the neutral atom, which depends on two main factors:
Ionization energy: Lower the value of ionization energy of an atom, greater will be the ease of formation
of the cation from it.
Electron affinity: Higher the electron affinity of an atom, greater the ease of formation of the anion from
it.
The formation of an ionic compound is favoured by:
low ionization energy (IE) of the metal.
high electron affinity (EA) of the other element.
higher lattice energy (U) of the resulting compound.
LATTICE ENERGY
“Lattice energy is the amount of energy released when one mole of an ionic solid is formed from its
constituent gaseous ions”. This amount of energy released is due to electrostatic force of attraction
produced by the 3 D rearrangement of the constituent ions.
The electrostatic attraction in the ionic bond is always follows coulomb’s law, which is given by
q q
F 12 2 where r is the interionic distance and q1& q2 are magnitude of charges.
r
5. COVALENT BOND
A covalent bond is formed by the sharing of a pair of electrons between two atoms, each atom contributing
one electron to the shared pair. The shared pair of electrons should have opposite spins and they are
localized between the two nuclei concerned. A covalent bond is usually represented by a short line (i.e., a
dash) between the two atoms. Note that the covalent bond consists of a pair of electrons shared between
two atoms, and occupying a combination of two stable orbitals, one of each atom; the shared electrons of
each covalent bond are counted for each of the two atoms connected by the covalent bond.
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b) With the exception of few, which have giant three-dimensional structure such as diamond,
carborundum (SiC), silica (SiO2), others have relatively low melting and boiling points. This is due to
the presence of weak attractive forces between the molecules. On supplying heat energy, the
molecules are readily pulled out from these forces and move freely having high kinetic energy.
c) In general, covalent substances are bad conductors of electricity. Substances, which have polar
character like HCl in solution, can conduct electricity. Covalent solids having giant molecules are
bad conductors since they do not contain charged particles or free electrons.
d) In general, covalent substances are insoluble in polar solvents like H2O, but soluble in non-polar
solvents like benzene, CCl 4, ether etc. This is based on the principle, like dissolves like. Some of
the covalent compounds like alcohols; amines dissolve in water due to hydrogen bonding. Covalent
solids having giant molecules are practically insoluble in all solvents.
e) Covalent substances show molecular reactions. The reaction rates are usually low as it involves
breaking and establishing of covalent bonds.
The atom, which contributes electron pair is called the donor while the atom, which accepts, is called
acceptor. Co-ordinate bond after formation is indistinguishable from a covalent bond. This bond is
represented by an arrow ( → ) pointing towards acceptor atom.
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Nitrogen atom is called the donor and H+, the acceptor. The arrowhead in N H shows the acceptor.
NH is a neutral molecule. H+ carries a unit positive charge; so
3
ion carries a unit positive charge. Once
NH 4
the NH ion is formed, all the NH bonds become identical to each other.
4
When two hydrogen atoms form a bond, their atomic orbitals overlap to produce a greater density of
electron cloud along the line connecting the two nuclei. In the simplified representations of the
formation of H2O and NH3 molecules, the O—H and N—H bonds are also formed in a similar
manner, the bonding electron cloud having its maximum density on the lines connecting the two
nuclei. Such bonds are called sigma bonds (-bond).
A covalent bond established between two atoms having the maximum density of the electron cloud
on the line connecting the centre of the bonded atoms is called a -bond. A -bond is thus said to
possess a cylindrical symmetry along the inter-nuclear axis.
Let us now consider the combination of two nitrogen atoms. Of the three singly occupied p-orbitals
in each, only one p-orbital from each nitrogen (say, the px may undergo “head–on” overlap to form a
-bond. The other two p-orbitals on each can no longer enter into a direct overlap. But each p-
orbital may undergo lateral overlap with the corresponding p-orbital on the neighbour atom. Thus we
have two additional overlaps, one by the two py orbitals, and the other by the two pz orbitals. These
overlaps are different from the type of overlap in a -bond. For each set of p-orbitals, the overlap
results in accumulation of charge cloud on two sides of the inter-nuclear axis. The bonding electron
cloud does no more posses an axial symmetry as with the -bond; instead, it possesses a plane of
symmetry. For the overlap of the pz atomic orbital, the xy plane provides this plane of symmetry; for
the overlap of the py atomic orbitals, the zx plane serves the purpose. Bonds arising out of such
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orientation of the bonding electron cloud are designated as -bonds. The bond formed by lateral
overlap of two atomic orbitals having maximum overlapping on both sides of the line connecting the
centres of the atoms is called a -bond. A -bond possesses a plane of symmetry, often referred to
as the nodal plane.
+ + + + +
s s s-s bond
+ + + - + + -
s px s-px bond
- + + + - - + + -
px px px–px - bond
+ + + +
+
- - - -
p - p bond
Limitation 2:
Another one of the shortcomings of the Valence Bond Theory is the inability to predict molecular
geometries. If we take a look at the bonding orbitals of H2O, only two of the p orbitals of sulphur bond with
a 1s orbital from H. The molecular geometry predicted by these two bonding orbitals is 90o. This is
obviously incorrect because the valence bond theory does not take into account the lone pair electrons on
the central O atom. The two lone pair electrons create a angle of 104.5o between the two hydrogen atoms.
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8. VSEPR THEORY
In 1957 Gillespie and Nyhom gave this theory to predict and explain molecular shapes and bond angles
more exactly. The theory was developed extensively by Gillespie as the Valence Shell Electron Pair
Repulsion (VSEPR) theory. This may be summarized as:
The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all of the electron pairs present in the
valence shell.
A lone pair of electrons takes up more space round the central atom than a bond pair, since the lone
pair is attracted to one nucleus whilst the bond pair is shared by two nuclei. It follows that repulsion
between two lone pairs is greater than repulsion between a lone pair and a bond pair, which in turn is
greater than the repulsion between two bond pairs. Thus the presence of lone pairs on the central
atom causes slight distortion of the bond angles from the ideal shape. If the angle between a lone pair,
the central atom and a bond pair is increased, it follows that the actual bond angles between the atoms
must be decreased. The order of repulsion between lone pairs and bond pairs of electrons follows the
order as:
Lone pair - lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair
The magnitude of repulsions between bonding pairs of electrons depends on the electronegativity
difference between the central atom and the other atoms.
Double bonds cause more repulsion than single bonds, and triple bonds cause more repulsion than a
double bond.
For the prediction of geometrical shapes of molecules with the help of VSEPR theory, it is convenient to
divide molecules into two categories as
(i) Molecules in which the central atom has no lone pair and
(ii) Molecules in which the central atom has one or more lone pairs.
Two Charge Clouds: When there are only two charge clouds, as occurs on the carbon atoms of (two
double bonds) and HCN (one single bond and one triple bond), the clouds are farthest apart when they
point in opposite directions. Thus, CO2 and HCN are linear molecules with bond angles of 180°.
Three Charge Clouds: When there are three charge clouds, as occurs on the carbon atom of
formaldehyde (two single bonds and one double bond) and the sulfur atom of SO2(one single bond, one
double bond, and one lone pair), the clouds are farthest apartwhen they lie in the same plane and point to
the corners of an equilateral triangle. Thus, a formaldehyde molecule has a trigonal planar shape, with H–
C–H and H-C=O bond angles near 120°. Similarly, an SO2 molecule has a trigonal planar arrangement of
its three charge clouds on sulfur, but one point of the triangle is occupied by a lone pair and two points by
oxygen atoms. The molecule therefore has a bent rather than linear shape, with an O–S–O bond angle of
approximately120° rather than 180°.
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Four Charge Clouds: When there are four charge clouds, as occurs on the central atoms in CH4 (four
single bonds), NH3 (three single bonds and one lone pair), and H2O (two single bonds and two lone pairs),
the clouds are farthest apart if they extend toward the corners of a regular tetrahedron. The central atom
lies in the center of the tetrahedron, the charge clouds point toward the four corners, and the angle
between two lines drawn from thecenter to any two corners is 109.5°.
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Five Charge Clouds: Five charge clouds, such as are found on the central atoms in PCl5, SF4 and ClF3
are oriented toward the corners of a geometric figure called a trigonalbipyramid. Three clouds lie in a plane
and point toward the corners of an equilateral triangle, the fourth cloud points directly up, and the fifth cloud
points down:
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Six Charge Clouds: Six charge clouds around an atom orient toward the six corners of a regular
octahedron, a geometric solid whose eight faces are equilateral triangles. All six positions are equivalent,
and the angle between any two adjacent positions is 90°.
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SF6 has six bond pairs in the outer shell and is a regular octahedron with bond angles of exactly 90°. In
BrF5, the Br also has six outer pairs of electrons, made up of five bond pairs and one lone pair. The lone
pair reduces the bond angles to 84°30’.
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9. HYBRIDIZATION
The intermixing of two or more pure atomic orbitals of an atom with almost same energy to give same
number of identical and degenerate new type of orbitals is known as hybridization. The new orbitals formed
are also known as hybrid orbitals. The intermixing or hybridization of atomic orbitals is a mathematical
concept based on quantum mechanics. During this process, the wavefunctions, Ψ of atomic orbitals of
same atom are combined to give new wavefunctions corresponding to hybrid orbitals.
Requirements for atomic orbitals to undergo hybridization:
The atomic orbitals of same atom with almost same energy can only participate in the hybridization.
The fully filled or half filled or even empty orbitals can undergo hybridization provided they have almost
equal energy.
The hybridization is the mixing of orbitals of same atom only. The combination of orbitals belonging to
different atoms is called bonding.
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+
+ + +
p sp
The number of hybrid orbitals formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals undergoing
hybridization. E.g. If three atomic orbitals intermix with each other, the number of hybrid orbitals formed will
be equal to 3.The hybrid orbitals are filled with those electrons which were present in the pure atomic
orbitals forming them. The filling up of electrons in them follows Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule.
There are many different types of hybridisation depending upon the type of orbitals involved in mixing such
as sp3, sp2, sp, sp3d, sp3d2, etc.
Let us now discuss various types of hybridisation along with some examples with reference to the
compounds of carbon, boron and beryllium.
(i)sp3 hybridisation. The type of hybridisation involves the mixing of one orbital of s-sub-level and three
orbitals of p-sub-level of the valence shell to form four sp3 hybrid orbitals of equivalent energies and shape.
Each sp3 hybrid orbital has 25% s-character and 75% p-character. These hybridised orbitals tend to lie as
far apart in space as possible so that the repulsive interactions between them are minimum. The four sp3
hybrid orbitals are directed towards the four corners of a tetrahedron. The angle between the sp3 hybrid
orbitals is 109.5° (Figure below).
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sp3 hybridisation is also known as tetrahedral hybridisation. The molecules in which central atom is sp3
hybridised and is linked to four other atoms directly, have tetrahedral shape. Let us study some examples
of molecules where the atoms assume sp3 hybrid state.
Formation of methane (CH4). In methane carbon atom acquires sp3 hybrid states as described below :
Here, one orbital of 2s-sub-shell and three orbitals of 2p-sub-shell of excited carbon atom undergo
hybridisation to form four sp3 hybrid orbitals. The process involving promotion of 2s-electron followed by
hybridisation is shown in figure below.
As pointed out earlier the sp3 hybrid orbitals of carbon atom are directed towards the corners of regular
tetrahedron. Each of the sp3 hybrid orbitals overlaps axially with half-filled 1s-orbital of hydrogen atom
constituting a sigma bond figure below.
Formation of ethane (CH3—CH3). In ethane both the carbon atoms assume sp3 hybrid state as shown in
figure below. One of the hybrid orbitals of carbon atom overlaps axially with similar orbitals of the other
carbon atom to form sp3-sp3 sigma bond. The other three hybrid orbitals of each carbon atom are used in
forming sp3-s sigma bonds with hydrogen atoms as described below :
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(ii) sp2 hybridisation. This type of hybridisation involves the mixing of one orbital of s-sub-level and two
orbitals of p-sub-level of the valence shell to form three sp2 hybrid orbitals. These sp2 hybrid orbitals lie in a
plane and are directed towards the corners of equilateral triangle (Figure below). Each sp2 hybrid orbital has
one-third s-character and two-third p-character. sp2 hybridisation is also called trigonal hybridisation. The
molecules in which central is sp2 hybridised and is linked to three other atoms directly have triangular planar
shape.
Let us study some examples of the molecules which involve sp2 hybridisation.
1. Formation of boron trifluoride (BF3). Boron (5B) atom has ground state configuration as 1s2 2s2, 2p1.
But in the excited state its configuration is 1s2, 2s1, 2px1, 2py1. One 2s-orbital of boron intermixes with two 2p-
orbitals of excited boron atom to form three sp2 hybrid orbitals as shown in figure below.
The sp2 hybrid orbitals of boron are directed towards the corners of equilateral triangle and lie in a plane.
Each of the sp2 hybrid orbitals of boron overlaps axially with half-filled orbital of fluorine atom to form three
B-F sigma bonds as shown in figure below.
Because of sp2 hybridisation of boron, BF3 molecule has triangular planar shape.
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2. Formation of ethylene (C2H4). Both the carbon atoms in ethylene assume sp2 hybrid state. In acquiring
sp2 hybrid state, one 2s-orbital and two 2p-orbitals of excited carbon atom get hybridised to form three sp2
hybridised orbitals. However, one orbital of 2p-sub-shell of the excited carbon atom does not take part in
hybridisation. The promotion of electron and hybridisation in carbon atom is shown in figure below.
As already indicated, the three sp2 hybrid orbitals lie in one plane and are oriented in space at an angle of
120° to one another. The unhybridised 2p-orbital is perpendicular to the plane of sp2 hybrid orbitals as
shown in figure below.
In the formation of ethylene, one of the sp2 hybrid orbital of carbon atom overlaps axially with similar orbital
of the other carbon atom to form C—C sigma bond. The other two sp2 hybrid orbitals of each carbon atom
are utilised for forming sp2-s sigma bond with two hydrogen atoms.
The unhybridisedp-orbitals of the two carbon atoms overlap sidewise each other to form two p clouds
distributed above and below the plane of carbon and hydrogen atoms figure below.
Thus, in ethylene, the six atoms (bonded by sigma bonds) lie in one plane while the p bond is projected
perpendicular to the plane of six atoms (two C atoms and four H atoms). In ethylene molecule, the C = C
bond consists of one sp2-sp2 sigma bond and one p bond. Its bond length is134 pm.C—Hbond is sp2-ssigma bond
with bond length108 pm.The H—C—H angle is117.5°while H—C—C angle is121°.
(iii) sp-hybridisation. This type of hybridisation involves the mixing of one orbital of s-sub-level and one
orbital of p-sub-level of the valence shell of the atom to form two sp-hybridised orbitals of equivalent shapes
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and energies. These sp-hybridised orbitals are oriented in space at an angle of 180° figure below. This
hybridisation is also called diagonal hybridisation.
Each sp hybrid orbital has equal s and p character, i.e., 50% s-character and 50% p-character. The
molecules in which the central atom is sp-hybridised and is linked to two other atoms directly have linear
shape.
Formation of beryllium fluoride (BeF2). Beryllium (4Be) atom has a ground state configuration as 1s2, 2s2.
In the excited state one of the 2s-electron is promoted to 2p-orbitals. One 2s-orbital and one 2p-orbitals of
excited beryllium atom undergo hybridisation to form two sp-hybridised orbitals as described in figure below.
P
Cl
Cl
Cl
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(iv) sp3d2-hybridisation
In this type of hybridization, one ‘s’, three ‘p’ and two ‘d’ orbitals of the same/different shell mix to
give six sp3d2 hybrid orbitals. These six sp3d2 hybrid orbitals orient themselves towards the corners
of an octahedron. This type of hybridization is exhibited by SF6, SCl6 etc.
F
F F
F F
F
X 2 3 4 5 6 7
Hybrid state sp sp2 Sp3 sp3d sp3d2 sp3d3
For Example:
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Distorted tetrahedral
AX4 4 1 sp3d SF4
(See Saw)
10.BONDING PARAMETERS
10.1 Bond Energy
It has already been pointed out that the formation of a bond occurs as a result of decrease of energy.
Therefore, same amount of energy is required to break the bond between the two atoms. For example, the
energy released during the formation of bonds between the gaseous hydrogen atoms to form one mole of
hydrogen molecules is 433 kJmol -1. This energy involved in making or breaking of bonds is referred to as
bond energy. Thus, bondenergy may be defined as the amount of energy required to break one mole of
bonds of same kind so as to separate the bonded atoms in the gaseous state.
The magnitude of bond energy reflects the strength of the bond. Its magnitude depends upon the following
factors:
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2. Multiplicity of bonds:
The magnitude of bond energy increases with the multiplicity of bonds even though the atoms involved
in the bond formation are same. It is because of the fact that with the multiplicity of bonds the number of
shared electrons between the atoms increases. As a result, the attractive force between nuclei and
electrons also increases and consequently, the magnitude of bond energy increases. For example, bond
energy of C — C bond is 348 kJ/mol-1 but that of C = C bond is 619 kJ mol-1. The average bond
energies of some bonds are given in Table below.
Bond Energies of Some Common Bonds
1. Bond length increases with the increase in the size of the atoms:
Bond length between hydrogen and chlorine atoms in HCl molecule is 127 pm whereas bond length
between carbon and chlorine atoms is C—Cl bond 177 pm.
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10.3BOND ANGLE
We know that overlapping of atomic orbitals forms covalent bonds. Due to directional character of atomic
orbitals, the covalent bonds in a molecule are oriented in specified directions. The bond angle is defined as
the average angle between the lines representing the orbitals containing the bonding electrons.
Bond angle is expressed in degree/minute/seconds. For example, H—C—H bond angle in CH4 molecule is
109° 28'. Similarly, F—B—F bond angle in BF3 is 120° and H—N—H bond angle in NH3 molecule is 107°.
The bond angles in CH4, NH3, H2O and BF3 molecules are shown below in Figure below.
3. Electronegativity of central atom: Due to more electronegativity of central atom bond pair get shifted
toward it and distance between them decrease thus further bp─bprepulsion increases.
4. Multiple bonds: Due to more electron density for double bond than that of single bond, repulsion due to
double bond is more than single bond.
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The hydrogen bond is not like a simple attraction between point charges, however. It possesses some
degree of orientational preference, and can be shown to have some of the characteristics of a covalent
bond. This covalency tends to be more extreme when acceptors bind hydrogens from more electronegative
donors.
In the species X—H----X, as the electronegativity of X increases the strength of hydrogen bond (H- - - X)
also increases. Thus the order of increases of the and (F—H- - - - F) is shown below
N — H - - - - N O — H - - - - O F — H - - - - F
[The electronegativity of N = 3.0, O = 3.5, F = 4.0 in Pauling scale]
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These two criteria’s are fulfilled by F, O, and N in the periodic table. Greater the electronegativity and
smaller the size, the stronger is the hydrogen bond which is evident from the relative order of energies of
hydrogen bonds.
Although the electronegativities of nitrogen and chlorine are same (3.0) , nitrogen can form hydrogen bond
but Cl does not form effective hydrogen bond due to its larger size.
Inter molecular hydrogen bonding leads to molecular association in liquids like water etc. Thus in water
only a few percent of the water molecules appear not to be hydrogen bonded even at 90°C. Breaking of
those hydrogen bonds throughout the entire liquid requires appreciable heat energy. This is indicated in the
relatively higher boiling points of hydrogen bonded liquids.
Crystalline hydrogen fluoride consists of the polymer (HF)n. This has a zig-zag chain structure involving H-
bond.
F F
H H
H H H
F F F
o-nitrophenol Salicaldehyde
O
C
H
o-Isomer H C O p-isomer
Ex: HF forms stronger H-bonds than H2O, still Hvap of HF is lower than that of pure water.
Explain?
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Sol: The number of H–bonds broken per mole of HF on vaporization is much less than in the case of
H2O. Each HF forms two bonds, while each H2O molecule forms 4 bonds. In case of water vapour
at boiling pt. contains essentially monomers while HF contains polymers i.e., all H–bonds are not
broken on vaporization whereas all 4-H bonds are broken per molecule of water.
2. Ion–dipole forces
Ion-dipole and induced-dipole forces operate much like dipole-dipole and induced-dipole interactions.
However, instead of only polar and non-polar molecules being involved, ion interactions involve ions (as
the name suggests). Ion-dipole and ion-induced dipole forces are stronger than dipole interactions
because the charge of any ion is much greater than the charge of a dipole moment. Ion-dipole is
greater than Hydrogen bonding.
An ion-dipole force consists of an ion and a polar molecule interacting. They align so that the positive
and negative forces are next to one another, allowing for maximum attraction. An ion-induced dipole
force consists of an ion and a non-polar molecule interacting. Like a dipole-induced dipole force, the
charge of the ion causes a distortion of the electron cloud on the non-polar molecule.
3. Dipole-induced dipole force or Debye forces
The induced dipole forces appear from the induction (also known as polarization), which is the attractive
interaction between a permanent multipole on one molecule with an induced (by the former di/multi-
pole) multipole on another molecule. This interaction is called Debye force after Peter J.W. Debye.
The example of an induction-interaction between permanent dipole and induced dipole is HCl and Ar. In
this system, Ar experiences a dipole as its electrons are attracted (to H side) or repelled (from Cl side)
by HCl. This kind of interaction can be expected between any polar molecule and non-
polar/symmetrical molecule. The induction-interaction force is far weaker than dipole-dipole interaction,
but stronger than the London dispersion force.
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N N
Repulsion more
H
H H F F F
Repulsion less
Problem 2:Why is that Lithium salts have a greater degree of covalent character than other halides
of the group?
Solution: The small size of Li+ gives it a large polarising power, hence covalent nature of its compound
increases. It can be viewed in terms of Fajan's rule
Greater the charge density as the surface causes greater polarising power of Li +
Problem3:The solubility of the hydroxides of the alkaline earth metals increases i.e. Ba(OH)2 has
got a higher solubility in water compared to Mg(OH)2-. Why?
Solution: Here both the cations Ba2+ and Mg2+ have the same charge, but as the radius of Ba 2+ is more
therefore of Ba2+ is less which implies that Ba(OH)2 having higher degree of ionic character is
more soluble in polar solvents like water.
But now if I ask to predict the solubility of MgSO4& BaSO4. The answer seems to be quite
similar to the earlier one and BaSO4 turns out to be the one having higher solubility. But
contrary to our expectation the trend is reversed here. BaSO4 is sparingly soluble in water. The
question comes why? In case of hydroxide it is something. In case of sulfate it’s the other way
around. Is there any way by which we can a predict the solubility trend? The answer is yes.
When a lattice is dissolved in water, the ions became solvated and the solvated ions are more
stable than a free ion and due to this stability energy is released. This energy released is called
solvation energy and if this overcomes the lattice energy then it is soluble. The lattice energy of
NaCl is 778 kJ mol–1 and the heats of hydration of Na+ and Cl– is –787 kJ mol –1. As it is more
than the lattice energy of NaCl therefore it is soluble.
Now we should focus our attention to the solubility trend in a given series. For a comparison of
the solubility both the lattice energy and hydration energy factors have to be taken into account.
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If in a series the decrease of lattice energy is more compared to the decrease in hydration
energy then the substance becomes soluble.
Now the hydration enthalpy of a salt is given by
k1 k 2
Hhydration
r r where k1 and k2 are constants
k3
& lattice energy U k3 = constant
r r
Case (i): When r+<< r– the contribution of the anion to the hydration enthalpy is small so the
total Hhydration would be dominated by the cation alone. In a series of salts of a large anion, the
hydrational enthalpy will decrease in magnitude with increasing cation size. Now how does the
lattice energy respond to this changing cation radius? The lattice energy is inversely proportional to
(r+ + r–). Since r–>> r+, the sum will not change significantly as r+ increases. Consequently the lattice
energy will not decrease as fast as the hydration energy with increasing cationic size. The more
quickly diminishing hydration energy results in a decrease in solubility.
Case (ii): r+ r–
Here the lattice energy decreases with increasing cationic size more rapidly than the hydration
energy which therefore results in an enhanced solubility in a series.
Mg(OH)2<Ca(OH)2< Ba(OH)2
Problem 4:The melting point of NaCl is higher than that of AgCl. Explain
Solution: Now whenever any comparison is asked about the melting point of the compounds which are
fully ionic from the electron transfer concept it means that the compound having lower melting point
has got lesser amount of ionic character than the other one. To analyse such a question first find
out the difference between the 2 given compounds. Here in both the compounds the anion is the
same. So the deciding factor would be the cation. Now if the anion is different, then the answer
should be from the variation of the anion. Now in the above example, the difference of the cation is
their electronic configuration. Na+ = [Ne]; Ag+ = [Kr] 4d10. This is now a comparison between a noble
gas core and pseudo noble gas core, the analysis of which we have already done. So try to finish
off this answer.
O C B
O N O F
S H H F
H H H O=C=O
H H H
Non-polar (Polar) Polar Non-polar
(Polar) (Polar)
= 1.84D = 1.86D =0 = 1.60D = 1.86D =0
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Problem 6:CH4 has zero dipole moment but CH2Cl2 has an appreciable dipole moment. Why?
Solution: Both CH4& CH2Cl 2 have tetrahedral structure but CH4 is symmetrical while CH2Cl2 is
unsymmetrical.
H H
C
C
H H
H Cl
H Cl
S ym m e tri c a l Unsymmetrical
Due to the symmetrical structure of CCl4 the resultant of bond dipoles comes out to be zero.
But in case of CH2Cl2 it is not possible as the presence of hydrogen introduces some
dissymmetry.
Problem 7:Compare the dipole moment of Cis 1,2dichloroethylene and trans 1,2 dichloroethylene.
Solution: Cl Cl Cl H
C C C C
H H Cl
H
Cis Trans
In the trans compound the C-Cl bond dipoles are equal and at the same time acting in
opposition cancel each other while Cis compound the dipoles do not cancel each other
resulting in a higher value.
Generally all trans compounds have a lower dipole moment compared to the corresponding
cis isomers, when both the substituents attached to carbon atom are either electron
releasing or electron withdrawing.
Problem 8: Explain why ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) has got a higher boiling point than dimethyl ether
(CH3-O-CH3) although the molecular weight of both are same?
Solution: Though ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether have the same molecular weight but in ethyl
alcohol the hydrogen of the O-H groups forms intermolecular hydrogen bonding with the OH
group in another molecule. But in case of ether the hydrogen is linked to C is not so
electronegative to encourage the hydrogen to from hydrogen bonding.
C2H5 C2H5
O H O H
Due to intermolecular H-bonding, ethyl alcohol remains in the associated form and
therefore boils at a higher temperature compared to dimethyl ether.
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O H O H O H
H
O
N
O
o-Isomer O N O
p-isomer
Problem 11: In o-dichlorobenzene the observed value of dipole moment is 6.00 D while it
theoretical value is 6.30 D why?
Solution: Cl F H
OH O
no H-bonding
Due to H-bonding on o-fluorophenol bond angle decrease ( 60°) hence dipole moment is
increased.
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Problem 15: Carbon has a co-ordination number of four while other elements of this group have
co-ordination number of six. Why?
Solution: The normal valency of the elements is four, but apart from carbon, the elements can make
more than four bonds. This because they make use of a set of d-orbitals in bonding. The
availability of d-orbitals empty but electrons of ns2 and np2 can be excited into this is
responsible for the ability of the elements, except carbon, to make complex ions such as
SiF62
Example20: Discuss the shape of XeF5 ion. How many different F—Xe—F bond angles are there in
the ion?
Solution: The Lewis dot formula of this ion is:
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Geometry:
Bond angle: Due to presence of one lone pair, the ion is slightly distorted. Due to greater lp – bp
repulsion, four Xe—F bonds will be pushed slightly away from lp giving axial – equatorial bond
angle slightly less than 900. However, the bond angles between the adjacent bonds in the plane of
square are all identical.
18.2 Objective
Problem 1 Which of the following molecules has the smallest bond angle between its atoms?
(A) H2O (B) NH3 (C) SO3 (D) XeF4
Solution: XeF4: All bonds angles are 900. In others, bond angles are close to 1200 and 1090.
(D)
Problem 2: In which of the following molecules the Vander Waal’s forces is likely to be most
important in determining the melting and boiling point?
(A)CO (B)H2S (C)Br2 (D)HCl
Solution: Br2 is non-polar molecules and hence its melting and boiling points depend only on Vander
Waal’s forces while all other molecules are having dipole moments hence their melting and
boiling points depends upon dipole-dipole interactions.
(C)
Problem 6: The compound in which all carbon atoms make use of sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond
formation is
(A)HCOOH (B)(H2N)2CO (C)(CH3)3COH (D)CH3CHO
C O
Solution: (A), (B), (D) contains group where carbon is sp2hybridised
(C)
Problem 7: The correct increasing bond angle among BF3, PF3 and ClF3 follow the order
(A)BF3 PF3 ClF3 (B)PF3 BF3 ClF3
(C)ClF3 PF3 BF3 (D)All have equal bond angle
Solution: In BF3, B is sp2hybridised with bond angle 120°C. In PF3, P is sp3hybridised but bond angle
is less than 109°28 due to lone pair bond pair repulsion. In ClF3, Cl is sp3d hybridised having
T-shape with bond angle 90°C.
(C)
Problem 8: The molecular size of ICl and Br2 is approximately same, but boiling point of ICl is
about 40° higher than that of Br2. It is because
(A) ICl bond is stronger than Br – Br bond
(B) I.E. of I I.E. of Br
(C) ICl is polar while Br2 is non-polar
(D) I has larger size than Br
Solution: Polar molecule also have dipole-dipole interactions which increase the boiling point
(C)
Problem 10: On the basis of VSEPR theory, the best description of the structure of H 3S is
(A) The hydrogen atoms are at the corners of an equilateral triangle with the sulphur
at the centre of the triangle
(B) the hydrogen atoms are at the corners of an equilateral triangle with sulphur
above the plane of the H atoms at the top of the trigonal pyramid, the ion forms
(C) The H atoms are at corners of triangle with sulphur at the tetrahedral centre that
the molecule forms
(D) the H atoms are at the corners of a triangle with the sulphur placed so that the
molecule forms a “T” shape
Solution: Hybridization of S in H3S+ in sp3 with one lone pair, hence trigonal pyramidal shape like
ammonia.
(B)
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Problem 13: H2O has higher boiling point than H2S because
(A) H2S is a smaller molecule and hence more closely packed
(B) the bond angle of H2O is more than H2S and hence H2O molecule are more tightly
packed
(C) the intermolecular hydrogen bonding in liquid H2O
(D) the latent heat of vapourisation is higher for H2O than for H2S.
Solution: (C)
Problem 14: Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs
NF3, NO3–, BF3, H3O+, HN3
(A) [NF3, NO3–] and [BF3, H3+O] (B) [NF3, HN3], [NO3–, BF3]
+ –
(C) [NF3, H3 O] and [NO3 , BF3] (D) [NF3, H3+O] and [HN3, BF3]
+ –
Solution: [NF3 and H3 O] are pyramidal while [NO3 and BF3] are trigonal planar
(C)
Problem 15: Among the following compounds, the one that is polar and has central atom with
sp2hybridisation is
(A)H2CO3 (B)SiF4 (C)BF3 (D)HClO2
Solution: H2CO3 and BF3have sp2 hybridisation while SiF4 and HClO2 have sp3hybridisation. But in
BF3 it is symmetrical so dipole moment is zero while in H2CO3 resultant dipole is not zero so
it is also polar.
(A)
Problem 17: The correct order of increasing C–O bond length of CO, CO32– and CO2
(A)CO32– CO2 CO (B)CO2 CO32– CO
2–
(C)CO CO3 CO2 (D)CO CO2 CO32–
Solution: B.O. of C - O in CO is 3, that of O = C = O is 2 while that of CO32– ion is 1.33. Since the
bond length increases as the bond order decreases i.e.
CO CO2 CO32– order is correct (D)
Problem 18: A diatomic molecule has dipole moment of 1.2 D. If the bond distance is 1Å what
percentage of electronic charge exists on each atom?
(A) 12% of e (B) 19% of e
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IONIC BONDING
COVALENT BONDING
6. Which of the following compound does not follow octet rule?
(A) CO2 (B) PCl3 (C) ICl (D) ClF3
7. In NO 3 ion, the number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons on nitrogen atom are
(A) 2, 2 (B) 3 , 1 (C) 1 , 3 (D) 4 , 0
8. Which of the following statements concerning a covalent bond is false?
(A) The electrons are shared between atoms
(B) The bond is nondirectional
(C) The strength of the bond depends upon the extent of overlapping
(D) The bond formed may be polar or nonpolar.
9. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Sodium hydride is ionic
(B) Beryllium chloride is covalent
(C) CCl4 gives a white ppt. with AgNO3 solution
(D) Bonds in NaCl are nondirectional
10. The compound which contains ionic as well as covalent bonds is
(A) C2H4Cl2 (B) CH3l (C) KCN (D) H2O2
11. In the electronic structure of acetic acid, there are
(A) 16 shared and 8 unshared electrons (B) 8 shared and 16 unshared electrons
(C) 12 shared and 12 unshared electrons (D) 18 shared and 6 unshared electrons
12. Which of the following is an example of super octet molecule?
(A) ClF3 (B) PCl5 (C) IF7 (D) all the three
13. Which of the following has one lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
(A) H2 (B) CH4 (C) NH 4 (D) NCl3
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16. The number of sigma and pi bonds present in a molecule of tetracyanoethylene
CN2 C CCN2 are
(A) 5 and 9 (B) 5 and 8 (C) 9 and 9 (D) 9 and 7
17. If Zaxis is the molecular axis, then molecular orbitals are formed by the overlap of
(A) s + pz (B) px + py (C) pz + pz (D) px + px
18. Which of the following combinations is not allowed (assumed Zaxis is internuclear axis)?
(A) 2s and 2s (B) 2px and 2px (C) 2s and 2pz (D) 2px and 2py
COORDINATE BONDING
20. NH3 and BF3 form an adduct readily because they form
(A) An ionic bond (B) A covalent bond
(C) A coordinate bond (D) A hydrogen bond
VSEPR THEORY
3. The geometrical arrangement and shape of I3 are respectively
(A)Trigonal bipyramidal, T-shape (B)Octahedral, linear
(C)Trigonal planar, Angular (D)Trigonal bipyramidal, linear
6. A molecule XY2 contains two , two bonds and one lone pair of electrons in the valence shell
of X. The arrangement of lone pair as well as bond pairs is
(A)Square pyramidal (B)Linear
(C)Trigonal planar (D)Unpredictable
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M
M M
Cl
(A) Cl (B) Cl Cl (C) Cl (D) Cl M Cl
14. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbitals present about the central atom in BF3 is
(A) linear, sp (B) trigonal planar , sp2
3
(C) tetrahedral , sp (D) pyramidal , sp3
19. Two hybrid orbitals have a bond angle of 120ºC. The percentage of s character in the hybrid
orbital is nearly
(A) 25% (B) 33% (C) 50% (D) 66%
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29. Out of CHCl3, CH4 and SF4 the molecules having regular geometry are
(A) CHCl3 only (B) CHCl3 and SF4 (C) CH4 only (D) CH4 and SF4
30. The molecule MLx is planar with six pairs of electrons around M in the valence shell. The value of x
is
(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 3
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10. Which of the following statements about LiCl and NaCl is wrong?
(A) LiCl has lower melting point that NaCl
(B) LiCl dissolves more in organic solvents whereas NaCl does not
(C) LiCl is more soluble in water than NaCl
(D) Fused LiCl would be less conducting than fused NaCl
17. Which one of the following compounds has bond angle as nearly 90º?
(A) NH3 (B) H2S (C) H2O (D) CH4
18. The correct increasing bond angle among BF3, PF3 and ClF3 follows the order
(A) BF3< PF3< ClF3 (B) PF3< BF3< ClF3
(C) ClF3< PF3< BF3 (D) BF3 = PF3 = ClF3
21. If Na+ is larger than Mg2+ ions and S2- ion is larger than Cl - ion, which of the following will be least
soluble in water.
(A) NaCl (B) Na2S (C) MgCl (D) MgS
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1. Which bond angle () would result in the maximum dipole moment for the triatomic molecule
XY2?
(A) = 90° (B) = 120° (C) = 150° (D) = 180°
2. Which of the following pair one which contains both polar and non – polar bonds?
(A) NH4Cl (B) HCN (C) H2O2 (D) CH4
3. Among the following bonds which has the most polar character?
(A) C – O (B) C – Br (C) C – F (D) C – S
4. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is
(A) CH2Cl2 (B) BF3 (C) NH3 (D) ClO2
5. Which one of the following arrangement of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole
moments ?
(A) BF3> NF3> NH3 (B) NF3> BF3> NH3
(C) NH3> BF3> NF3 (D) NH3> NF3> BF3
6. Among the following compounds, the one that is polar and has the central atom with
sp2hybridization is
(A) H2CO3 (B) SiF4 (C) BF3 (D) HClO2
7. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment. Toluene (I), m –
dichlorobenzene (II), o – dichlorobenzene (III), p – dichlorobenzene (IV).
(A) I < IV < II < III (B) IV < I < II < III (C) IV < I < III < II (D) IV < II < I < III
10. Which of the following pair of molecules will have permanent dipole moment for both members
(A) NO2 and CO2 (B) NO2 and O3 (C) SiF4 and CO2 (D) SiF4 and NO2
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20. The molecule that does not possess a permanent dipole moment is
(A) NF3 (B) BF3 (C) CH2Cl2 (D) NO2
23. BF3 and NF3 both are covalent compounds but NF3 is polar whereas BF3 is non-polar. This is
because
(A) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(B) NF bond is more polar than BF bond
(C) NF3 is pyramidal whereas BF3 is planar triangular
(D) BF3 is electron deficient whereas NF3 is not
24. Which of the following hydrogen halides has a high percentage of ionic character?
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI
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HYDROGEN BONDING
1. Among HF, CH4, CH3OH and N2O4, intermolecular hydrogen bonding is expected
(A) in all (B) in all expect one (C) in two (D) in none
4. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which a water molecule can participate
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
6. Amongst H2O, H2S , H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is
(A) H2O because of hydrogen bonding (B) H2 Te because of higher molecular weight
(C) H2S because of hydrogen bonding (D) H2Se because of lower molecular weight
7. The boiling point is not affected due to hydrogen bonding in
(A) Water (B) ammonia (C) methyl alcohol (D) hydrogen chloride
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10. The boiling points of methanol, water and dimethyl ether are respectively 65ºC, 100ºC and 34.5ºC.
Which of the following best explains these wide variations in b.p.
(A) the molecular mass increases from water (18) to methanol (32) to diethyl ether (74)
(B) the extent of Hbonding decreases from water to methanol while it is absent in ether
(C) the extent of intramolecular Hbonding decreases from ether to methanol to water
(D) the density of water is 1.00g ml1, methanol 0.7914g ml1 and that of diethyl ether is0.7137g ml 1
12. Which of the following compounds has the least tendency to form hydrogen bonds between
molecules?
(A) NH3 (B) NH2OH (C) HF (D) CH3F
20. In which of the following set of molecules is the order of boiling points incorrect?
(A) Xe > Ar > He (B) HF > HCl > HBr
(C) H2O > H2Se > H2S (D) C3H8> C2H6> CH4
21. Among KO2, AlO2–, BaO2 and NO2+ unpaired electron is present in
(A)NO2+ and BaO2 (B)KO2 and AlO2– (C)KO2 only (D)BaO2 only
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22. The electronegativity difference between two atoms A and B is 2 then percentage of covalent
character in the molecule is
(A) 54% (B) 46% (C) 23% (D) 72%
25. Which of the following statements concerning elements with atomic number 10 is true?
(A) it forms a covalent net work of solids
(B) its molecules are monoatomic
(C) it has a very high value of electron affinity
(D) it has extremely low value of ionisation energy.
26. Which of the following is solid with highest melting point?
(A) CO2 (B) H2O (C) SiO2 (D) He
27. Which one has least O-O bond length?
(A) O2 (B) Na2O2 (C) KO2 (D) O3
EXERCISE-1
2. Of the ions below, only __________ has a noble gas electron configuration.
(A) S3 (B) O 2 (C) I (D) Cl
3. Which of the following has eight valence electrons?
(A) Ti 4 (B) Kr (C) Cl (D) all of the above
5. The chloride of which of the following metals should have the greatest lattice energy?
(A) potassium (B) rubidium (C) sodium (D) lithium
7. In ionic bond formation, the lattice energy of ions ________ as the magnitude of the ion charges
_______ and the radii __________.
(A) increases, decrease, increase (B) increases, increase, increase
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The diagram below is the Born-Haber cycle for the formation of crystalline potassium fluoride.
14. In which of the molecules below is the carbon-carbon distance the shortest?
(A) H 2 C CH 2 (B) C 2 H 2 (C) H 3C CH 3 (D) H 2C C CH 2
18. Of the molecules below, the bond in __________ is the most polar.
(A) HBr (B) HI (C) HCl (D) HF
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20. Which of the following has the bonds correctly arranged in order of increasing polarity?
(A) Be F, Mg F, N F, O F (B) O F, N F, Be F, Mg F
(C) O F, Be F, Mg F, N F (D) N F, Be F, Mg F, O F
23. Which of the following names is/are correct for the compound TiO 2 ?
(A) titanium dioxide and titanium (IV) oxide (B) titanium (IV) dioxide
(C) titanium oxide (D) titanium oxide and titanium (IV) dioxide
24. Which of the following names is/are correct for the compound SnCl4 ?
(A) tin (II) chloride and tin (IV) chloride (B) tin tetrachloride and tin (IV) chloride
(C) tin (IV) tetrachloride (D) tin chloride
27. In the Lewis symbol for a sulfur atom, there are __________ paired and __________ unpaired
electrons.
(A) 2, 2 (B) 4, 2 (C) 2, 4 (D) 0, 6
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35. In which of the ions do all X-O bonds (X indicates the central atom) have the same length?
(A) none (B) all (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (iii) and (v)
36. Of the following, __________ cannot accommodate more than an octet of electrons.
(A) P (B) As (C) O (D) S
37. Based on the octet rule, boron will most likely form a __________ ion.
(A) B3- (B) B1+ (C) B3+ (D) B2+
38. Which of the following does not have eight valence electrons?
(A)Xe (B) Ti+4 (C) Rb +1 (D) Sr+1
39. A valid Lewis structure of __________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
(A) PO 4 3 (B) SiF4 (C) CF4 (D) SeF4
40. The central atom in __________ does not violate the octet rule.
(A) SF4 (B) KrF2 (C) CF4 (D) XeF4
42. A valid Lewis structure of __________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
(A) ClF3 (B) PCl3 (C) SO3 (D) CCl4
43. A valid Lewis structure of __________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
(A) NI3 (B) SO 2 (C) ICl5 (D) SiF4
44. A valid Lewis structure of __________ cannot be drawn without violating the octet rule.
(A) NF3 (B) BeH 2 (C) SO 2 (D) CF4
45. Which atom can form compounds having incomplete octet according to Lewis theory?
(A) N (B) C (C) B (D) H
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47. Given that the average bond energies for C-H and C-Br bonds are 413 and 276 kJ/mol, respectively,
the heat of atomization of bromoform (CHBr3 ) is __________ kJ/mol.
(A) 1241 (B) 689 (C) -689 (D) 1378
48. Of the bonds C-N,C N , and C N , the C-N bond is __________.
(A) strongest/shortest (B) strongest/longest
(C) weakest/shortest (D) weakest/longest
49. As the number of covalent bonds between two atoms increases, the distance between the atoms
__________ and the strength of the bond between them __________.
(A) increases, increases (B) decreases, decreases
(C) increases, decreases (D) decreases, increases
50. Of the possible bonds between carbon atoms (single, double, and triple), __________.
(A) a triple bond is longer than a single bond
(B) a double bond is stronger than a triple bond
(C) a single bond is stronger than a triple bond
(D) a double bond is longer than a triple bond
51. The molecule which possesses both sp3 and sp3d2 hybridisation is
(A) solid PCl5 (B) gaseous PCl5 (C) PCl4 (D) PCl6
EXERCISE-2
1. Out of the three molecules XeF4, SF4, SiF4 one which has tetrahedral structures is
(A) all the three (B)only SiF4
(C) both SF4 and XeF4 (D)only SF4 and XeF4
4. The number of 90° angles between bond pairbond pair of electrons in BrF5 is
(A)4 (B)5 (C)6 (D) 8
6. The 2s orbital has a higher energy than *1s orbital, 2s , orbital is bonding while 1*s orbital is
antibonding because
(A)2s is planar while 1*s is nonplanar.
(B)2s is symmetrical while 1*s is unsymmetrical.
(C)2s is nearer to the nuclei than 1*s .
(D)none of these
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7. A molecule of chloral hydrate contains two OH groups attached to a single carbon atom as shown
below
Cl OH
ClC CH
Cl OH
Its extra stability is due to the presence of
(A)intramolecular hydrogen bonding. (B)its planar structure.
(C)its symmetrical structure. (D)none of these.
8. The stability of O2, O 22 , O 2 and O 2 in their respective dissociation reaction is in the order
(A) O 2 < O2< O 2 < O 22 (B) O 22 < O 2 < O2< O 2
(C) O 2 < O 2 < O2< O 22 (D) O 2 < O 22 > O2< O 22
9. Homolytic fission of CC bonding ethane (CH3CH3) gives an intermediate in which carbon atom is
(A)sp3 hybridised (B)sp2 hybridised (C)sp hybridised (D)sp2d hybridised
12. KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound contains the species
(A)K+, F and H+ (B)K+, F and HF (C)K+ and [HF2] (D)[KHF]+ and F2
18. The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species, NH3, [PtCl4]2, PCl5
and BCl3 is respectively
(A)dsp2, sp3d, sp2, sp3 (B)sp3, dsp2, sp3d, sp2
2 2 3 3
(C)dsp , sp , sp , sp d (D)dsp2, sp3, sp2, sp3d
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19. The common features among the species CN, CO and NO+ are
(A)Bond order three and isoelectronic. (B)Bond order three and weak field ligands.
(C)Bond order three and acceptors. (D)Isoelectronic and weak filed ligands.
21. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment?
H3C CH3
(A) C (B)CH3CC.CH3
H H
(C)CH3CH2CCH (D)CH2=CHCCH
(A)(A)<(B)<(C)<(D) (B)(D)<(C)<(B)<(A)
(C)(A)<(D)<(C)<(B) (D)None of these
24. The species that does not contain peroxide ions are
(A) PbO2 (B)H2O2 (C)SrO2 (D)BaO2
25. The number of sp2 – sp2 sigma bonds in the compound given below is:
H3C CH3
H3C OH N
OH
NH2
OH
OH O OH O O
(A)8 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12
F F H H
H H H H F F F F
(C) F (D) H
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O H N
O H O
P: Q:
N H N N H O
R: S:
29. In hydrocarbon C3Hm, X-ray diffraction (which does not “see” H’s) finds a C─C─C bond angle of
about 120o. The value of m must be__________
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
OH Cl
(C) PF3Cl2 (D) PCl 3F2
OH CN Cl NH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. Compound which do have sp3d hybridization
(A)ICl2 (B) ClF3 (C) XeO2F2 (D) XeF4
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2. The pair of molecules forming strongest intermolecular hydrogen bonding are (DCE 2000)
(a) H 2 O and H 2 (b) HCOOH and Ch 3COOH
(b) CH 3COCH 3 and CHCl3 (d) SiH 4 and SiF6
6. Which of the following compounds, shows ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds?
(a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) CuSO 4 ; 5H 2O (d) CaSO 4 ; 5H 2O.
(DCE 2001)
7. Which of the following is polar? (DCE 2002)
(a) IF7 (b) SF6 (c) PCl3 (d) PCl5
10. Which one of the following is highest melting halide? (DCE 2003)
(a) Agl (b) AgF (c) AgBr (d) AgCl
11. The polarising ability of which one of the following is highest? (DCE 2003)
(a) large –ve ion (b) small, highly –ve ion(c) large +ve ion (d) small, highly +ve ion
12. In O 2 , O 2 and O 22 molecular species, the total number of antibonding electrons respectively are
(DCE 2003)
(a) 8, 6, 8 (b) 6, 6, 6 (c) 1, 0, 2 (d) 7, 6, 8
14. Which of the following molecules has pyramidal shape? (DCE 2004)
(a) CO 32 (b) SO3 (c) PCl3 (d) NO 3 .
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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO
19. Pair of species having identical shapes for molecules is (DCE 2005)
(a) CF4 ,SF4 (b) BF3 , PCl3 (c) XeF2 , CO 2 (d) PF5 , IF5
22. Among the following, the pair in which the two species are notisostructural is (DCE 2007)
(a) IO 3 and XeO 3 (b) BH 4 and NH 4 (c) PF6 and SF6 (d) SiF4 and SF4
23. Which of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule ? [AIEEE-2003]
(a) SO2 (b) H2O (c) H2S (d) NH3
24. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to:
[AIEEE-2003]
(a) dipolar character of ethers.
(b) alcohols having resonance structures.
(c) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers.
(d) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols.
25. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3. Which of the following statements is true for
these two species? [AIEEE-2004]
(a) bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO (b) bond length in NO is greater than in NO+
(c) bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO (d) bond length is unpredictable
26. The states of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are respectively :
[AIEEE-2004]
2
(a) sp and sp 2 2
(b) sp and sp 3 3
(c) sp and sp 2 3
(d) sp and sp3
27. Based on lattice energy and other considerations, which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is
expected to have the highest melting point ? [AIEEE-2005]
(a) LiCI (b) NaCl (c) KCl (d) RbCl
28. The molecular shapes of SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 are (AIEEE 2005)
(a) The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms respectively
(b) The same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms respectively
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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO
(c) Different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms respectively.
(d) Different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms respectively.
29. Which of the following molecules/ions does not contain unpaired electrons? (AIEEE 2006)
(a) O 22 (b) B 2 (c) N 2 (d) O 2
30. In which of the molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal? (AIEEE 2006)
(a) SF4 (b) Si F4 (c) XeF4 (d) BF 4
31. Which of the following species exhibits the diamagnetic behavior? (AIEEE 2007)
(a) NO (b) O 22 (c) O 2 (d) O 2 .
32. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following
sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species,
K ,Ca 2 , Mg 2 , Be 2 ? (AIEEE 2007)
(a) Ca 2 Mg 2 Be K (b) Mg 2 Be 2 K Ca 2
(c) Be 2 K Ca 2 Mg 2 (d) K Ca 2 Mg 2 Be2
33. In which of the following ionization processers, the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behaviour has changed? (AIEEE 2007)
(a) N 2 N 2 (b) C 2 C 2 (c) NO NO (d) O 2 O 2
34. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest? (AIEEE 2007)
(a) O H F (b) O H H (c) F H F (d)
35. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species? (AIEEE 2008)
2
(a) N 2 , O 2 , NO , CO (b) C 2 , O 2 , CO, NO
2 2 2
(c) NO , C 2 , CN , N 2 (d) CN , N 2 , O 2 , C 2 .
36. Using MO theory predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length?
2 2
(a) O 2 (b) O 2 (c) O 2 (d) O 2 (AIEEE 2009)
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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO
ANSWER KEY
BASIC CONCEPTS
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. B
6. D 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. A 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. A
16. C 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. B
VSEPR THEORY
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. B
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. A
16. C 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. B
21. B 22. C 23. D 24. B 25. A
26. C 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. C
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. C
11. C 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. C
16. D 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. C
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. C
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B
11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. A
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. B
21. A 22. D 23. C 24. A
HYDROGEN BONDING
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B
6. A 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. B
11. D 12. D 13. D 14. D 15 C
16. A 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. D 24. D 25. B
26. C 27. A
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CHEMICAL BONDING IJSO
EXERCISE-1
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. D
6. A 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. D
11. C 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. B
16. A 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. B
21. A 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C
26. D 27. B 28. A 29. D 30. A
31. C 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. B
36. C 37. C 38. D 39. D 40. C
41. C 42. A 43. C 44. B 45. C
46. A 47. A 48. D 49. D 50. D
51. A
EXERCISE-2
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. B
11. C 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. B
16. A 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. B 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. D
26. C 27. C 28. D 29. C
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JEE MAIN
1. b 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. c 7. c
8. d 9. d 10. b 11. d 12. d 13. d 14. c
15. b 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. b 21. c
22. d 23. c 24. d 25. b 26. b 27. b 28.d
29. a 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. c
36. a 37. c WINDOW
JEE ADVANCED
B. 1T 2F 3T 4F 5F 6F 7F
C. 1 C 2 A 3 A 4 B 5 B 6 D
7 A 8 C 9 C 10 A 11 C 12 A
13 B 14 A 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 C
19 D 20 C 21 B 22 C 23 A 24 C
25 D 26 B 27 A 28 C 29 D 30 A
31 D 32 B 33 A 34 B 35 A 36 C
37 B 38 D
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EXERCISE-3
1. Among the following electron deficient compound is
(a) CCl4 (b) PCl3 (c) BeCl2 (d) BCl3
9. In NO3 ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom are
(a) 2, 2 (b) 3, 1 (c) 1, 3 (d) 4, 0
11. Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi bond formed between two carbon
atoms ?
(a) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond
(b) Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect
in this regard
(c) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
(d) Bond energies of sigma-and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol an d347 kJ/mol. respectively
12. Which of the following are arranged in the decreasing order of dipole moment exceptional?
(a) CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3F (b) CH3Cl, CH3F, CH3Br,
(c) CH3Br, CH3Cl, CH3F (d) CH3Br, CH3F, CH3Cl
13. In BrF3 molecule, the line pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize
(a) Lone pair-lone pair repulsion only
(b) Lone pair-bond pair repulsion only
(c) Bond pair-bond pair repulsion only
(d) Lone pair-lone repulsion and lone pair-bond pair repulsion
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14. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not because
(a) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
(b) The electronegativity of F is greater than that of O
(c) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas BeF2 is a discrete molecule
(d) H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular
15. Among the following pair which of the two species are not isostructural
(a) PF6 and SF6 (b) SiF4 and SF4 (c) IO3 and XeO3 (d) BH 4 and NH4
17. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can form more than one binary compound with chlorine is
(a) Ca (b) Fe (c) Zn (d) K
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29. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole
moment of NH3(1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D). This is beacuse
(a) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3 these are
in the same direction
(b) In NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
(c) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in
opposite directions
(d) In NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions
30. In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal ?
(a) NF3 (b) CIF3 (c) BF3 (d) AIF3
31. The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K2CO3, MgCO3 CaCO3 and BeCO3 is
(a) BeCO3 < MgCO3< CaCO3< K2CO3 (b) MgCO3< BeCO3 < CaCO3< K2CO3
(c) K2CO3< MgCO3< CaCO3< BeCO3 (d) BeCO3 < MgCO3< K2CO3< CaCO3
32. In which of the following pairs the two species are iso-structural ?
(a) SO 32 and NO 3 (b) BF2 and NH3 (c) BrO 3 and XeO 3 (d) SF4 and XeF4
33. The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO32 , CO2 is
(a) CO < CO32 < CO2 (b) CO32 < CO2< CO (c) CO < CO2< CO32 (d) CO2 < CO < CO32
o
34. The dipole moment of HBr is 0.78 10–18 esu cm and interatomic spacing is 1.41 A . The % ionic
character of HBr is
(a) 7.5 (b) 11.7 (c) 15 (d) 27
37. The correct sequence of decrease in the bond angles of the following hydrides is
(a) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (b) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(c) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (d) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
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43. Which compound shows dipole moment ?
(a) 1, 4 di-chloro benzene (b) 1, 2 di-chloro benzene
(c) Trans-1, 2 di-chloro ethene (d) Trans-2-butene
49. At room temperature HCl is a gas while HF is a low boiling liquid. This is because
(a) H – F bond is covalent (b) H – F bond is ionic
(c) H – F has metallic bond (d) H – F has hydrogen bond
50. Which of the following compounds will not undergo decomposition on passing electricity through
aqueous solution ?
(a) Sugar (b) Sodium chloride (c) Sodium bromide (d) Sodium acetate
57. Two ice cubes are pressed over each other until they unite to form one block. Which one of the
following forces dominates for holding them together ?
(a) Dipole-dipole interaction (b) Vander Walls forces
(c) Hydrogen bond formation (d) Covalent attraction
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58. The shape of gaseous SnCl2 is
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Linear (c) Angular (d) T-shaped
59. Which of the following substances has the least ionic character ?
(a) FeCl2 (b) ZnCl2 (c) CaCl2 (d) MgCl2
60. Which one of the following molecules will have unequal bond lengths ?
(a) NH3 (b) PF3 (c) PF5 (d) SF6
61. Which one of the following arrangements of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole
moments ?
(a) BF3 > NF3 > NH3 (b) NF3 > BF3 > NH3 (c) NH3 > BF3 > NF3 (d) NH3 > NF3 > BF3
64. The compound MX4 is tetrahedral. The number of XMX formed in the compound is
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six
65. The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of
ionic character of A–B bond is
(a) 50% (b) 72.24% (c) 55.3% (d) 43%
66. In OF2, number of bond pairs and lone airs of electrons of central ‘O’ re respectively:
(a) 2, 6 (b) 2, 2 (c) 2, 10 (d) 2, 9
67. In which of the following species is the underlined carbon having sp- - hybridisation
(a) CH3COOH (b) CH3CH2OH (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH2 = CH – CH3
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72. A lone pair of electron in an atom implies
(a) A pair of valence electrons
(b) A pair of electrons
(c) A pair of electrons involved in bonding
(d) A pair of valence electron not involved in bonding
74. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment ?
H3C Cl
C
(a) H H (b) CH3C CCH3 (c) CH3CH 2C CH (d) CH 2 CH C CH
75. Which of the following bonds require the largest amount of bond energy to dissociate the atoms
condensed ?
(a) H–H bond in H2 (b) C–H bond n CH4 (c) N N bond in N2 (d) O =O bond in O2
76. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behavior
is that graphite
(a) is an allotropic form of diamond
(b) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers
(c) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak
interpolate bounds.
(d) is a non crystalline substance
78. Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both
members
(a) NO2 and CO2 (b) NO2 and O3 (c) SiF4 and CO2 (d) SiF4 and NO2
79. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is
(a) XeF2, CO2 (b) BF3, PCl3 (c) PF5, IF5 (d) CF4, SF4
84. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural NO 3 , CO 32 , ClO 3 ,SO 3 ?
(a) NO3 , CO32 (b) SO 3 , NO 3 (c) ClO 3 , CO32 (d) ClO3 ,SO 3
87. Beryllium and aluminum exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in
(a) Forming covalent halides
(b) Forming polymeric hydrides
(c) Exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds
(d) Exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
88. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in solid state as well as in solution of non-polar solvents
such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives
3 3
(a) Al OH 6 3HCl (b) Al H2O 6 3Cl
(c) Al3+ + 3Cl– (d) Al2O3 + 6HCl
91. Which of the following has three bond pair and two lone pair of e– ?
(a) PF3 (b) NH3 (c) ClF3 (d) None of these
95. Which of the following statement is not correct for ionic compound ?
(a) Bad conductor in solid state (b) High melting point but low boiling point
(c) These are brittle (d) Mostly soluble in water
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100. Among the compounds, BF3, NCl3, H2S, SF4 and BeCl2.Identify the one in which the central atom
has the same type of hybridization?
(a) BF3 and NCl3 (b) H2S and BeCl2 (c) BF3, NCl3 and H2S (d) NCl3 and H2S
101. Which of the hydrogen halides forms salts like KHX2 (where X is a halogen atom)?
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HI (d) HBr
103. The boiling point of methanol is greater than that of methyl thiol because
(a) There is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in methanol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding in
methyl thiol
(b) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methylthiol
(c) There is no hydrogen bonding in methanol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methylthiol
(d) There is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methyithiol
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115. In silicon dioxide
(a) Each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two
silicon atoms
(b) Each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two
silicon atoms
(c) Silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms
(d) There are double bond between silicon and oxygen atoms
116. Of the following sets which one does not contain isoelectronic species ?
(a) PO 34 ,SO 24 , ClO 4 (b) CN , N 2 , C 22 (c) SO 32 , CO 32 , NO 3 (d) BO 33 , CO 32 , NO 3
117. The number and type of bond between two carbon atom in calcium carbide are
(a) One sigma, one pi (b) One sigma, two pi (c) Two sigma, one pi (d) Two sigma, two pi
121. Which of the following Alkaline earth metal sulphate is least soluble in water ?
(a) BaSO4 (b) CaSO4 (c) BeSO4 (d) SrSO4
130. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction is present in
(a) KCl and water (b) Benzene and carbon tetrachloride
(c) Benzeme and ethanol (d) Acetonitrile and acetone
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131. A metal, M forms chlorides in its +2 and +4 oxidation states. Which of the following statements
about these chlorides is correct ?
(a) MCl2 is more ionic than MCl4
(b) MCl2 is more easily hydrolyzed than MCl4
(c) MCl2 is more volatile than MCl4
(d) MCl2 is more soluble in anhydrous ethanol than MCl4
133. The hybridization of the atomic orbials of sulphur in SO3, SO 4 and SF4 are respectively
(a) sp, sp3, sp2 (b) sp, sp2, sp3d (c) sp2, sp, sp3 (d) sp2, sp3 sp3d
134. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds a water molecule can form is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1
135. Which of the following compounds has least tendency to form hydrogen bonds between molecules.
(a) NH3 (b) N2NOH (c) HF (d) CH3F
141. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H-yet the dipole
moment of NH3(1.5D) is larger than that of NH3(0.2D). This is because
(a) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3 these are
in the same direction
(b) In NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
(c) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in
opposite directions
(d) In NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions.
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144. Which of the following have same shape as NH 2 ?
(a) CO2 (b) SnCl2 (c) SO2 (d) BeCl2
147. A pi-bond may be formed between two pa orbitals containing the unpaired electron each when they
approach each other appropriately along
(a) x-axis (b) y- axis (c) z-axis (d) both (b) and (c)
148. Among the following species identify the isostructural pairs : NF3 ; NO 3 ; BF3 ; H 3O , HN 3
(a) NF3 , HN 3 & NO3 , BF3 (b) NF3 ,H 3O & NO3 , BF3
(c) NF3 , H 3O & HN 3 , BF3 (d) NF3 , NO3 & BF3 , H 3O
149. In which species the actual shape of molecule is the same as the molecular geometry?
(a) BeF2 (b) PF3 (c) SF4 (d) IF5
150. According to fajan’s rule covalent bond formation is favoured when there is a
(a) large cation and a small anion (b) large cation and a large anion
(c) small cation and a small anion (d) small cation and a large anion
151. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which hydrogen fluoride molecule can participate.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
152. Which of the following sequence is correct in terms of the polarity of bond ?
(a) N–F>C–F>B–F (b) B–F>C–F>N–F (c) C–F>N–F>B–F (d) B–F>C–F>N–F
153. If HCl molecules completely ionic the H+ and Cl– ions would bear a unit charge equal to 4.80 10–10
o
esu and the bond distance between H and Cl atom is 1.27 A then the dipole moment of HCl is
(a) 3.779 D (b) 7.742 D (c) 6.096 D (d) 2.976 D
154. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction is present in
(a) benzene and ethanol (b) acetonitrile and acetone
(c) KCl and water (d) benzene and carbon tetrachloride
156. The valencies of two elements A and B are + 2 and +3 respectively. Then, the formulae of sulphate
of B and chloride of A respectively are
(a) B3(SO4)2 and ACl2 (b) B3(SO4)3 and ACl2 (c) BSO4 and ACl2 (d) B3SO4 and ACl
157. Which species below has the same genera shape as NH3 ?
(a) SO 32 (b) CO 32 (c) NO3 (d) SO3
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158. Which set contains only covalently bonded molecules ?
(a) BCl3, SiCl4, PCl3 (b) NH4Br, N2H4, HBr (c) I2, H2S, Nal (d) Al, O3, As4
160. Which species has a Lewis diagram and structure most like that of the carbonate ion, CO 32 ?
(a) NO3 (b) CH3+ (c) SO 32 (d) PO34
Answer Key :
1. (c,d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (d) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (a)
111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (c) 117. (b) 118. (c) 119. (c) 120. (c)
124.
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (d) 125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (d)
(a,c)
131. (a) 132. (a) 133. (d) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b) 137. (a) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (d)
141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (c) 145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (d) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (d)
151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (c) 154. (d) 155. (a) 156. (b) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (a) 160. (a)
343