Gcse in Physics: For Teaching From 2011

GCSE in PHYSICS Specimen Assessment Materials 1
For teaching from 2011
GCSE in PHYSICS
SPECIMEN ASSESSMENT MATERIALS
Contents
Page
Unit 1
Question Paper (Foundation Tier)
Question Paper (Higher Tier)
23
Mark Schemes
41
Assessment Grids
55
Unit 2
59
75
Mark Schemes
89
Assessment Grids
101
Unit 3
105
123
Mark Schemes
137
Assessment Grids
151
Controlled Assessment
155
Candidate Name
Centre Number
Candidate Number
0
GCSE
PHYSICS
FOUNDATION TIER (Grades G-C)
PHYSICS 1: Energy, radiation and the Universe
SPECIMEN PAPER
(1 hour)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this
page.
Answer all questions.
Write your answers in the spaces provided in this booklet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The number of marks is given in brackets at the end of each question or part-question.
You are reminded that assessment will take into account the quality of written
communication used in your answer to question 10(c).
Equations and Units

power = current voltage
P = IV
energy transfer = power time
E = Pt
units used (kWh) = power (kW) time (h)

cost = units used cost per unit
useful energy [or power] transfer
100
% efficiency =
total energy [or power] input
density =
mass
volume
wave speed = wavelength frequency

speed =
m
V
c = f
distance
time
acceleration [or deceleration] =
resistance =
change in velocity
time
voltage
current
v
t
v = u + at where
x = 12 (u + v)
a=
R=
V
I
momentum = mass velocity
p = mv
resultant force = mass acceleration
F = ma
force =
change in momentum
time
F=
p
t
work = force distance
W = Fd
primary coil voltage

primary coil turns
=
secondary coil voltage secondary coil turns
V1 N1
=
V2 N 2
pressure =
force
area
p=
F
A
u = initial velocity
v = final velocity
a = acceleration
t = time
x = displacement
Units
1 kWh = 3.6 MJ
T / K = / C + 273
SI multipliers
Prefix
p
Multiplier
Prefix
k
Multiplier
103
109
106
106
109
103
1012
10
12
Answer all questions

1.
(a)
List A gives three energy sources used to generate electricity.

List B gives environmental problems that may be caused by using different energy
sources.
Draw a line from each energy source in list A to an environmental problem it might
cause in list B. Draw 3 lines only.
[3]
List B
List A
Produces noise
Nuclear
Produces large amounts of
polluting gases
Tides
Requires large amounts of
water for cooling purposes
Wind farm
Affects river estuaries and

wildlife using the river
(b)
The energy flow diagram for a coal-fired power station is shown below.
10% lost as heat in

waste gases
8% lost as heat in
the moving parts in
the power station
100% input
Electrical
energy to the
National Grid
from burning
coal
50% lost as heat in the
water used for cooling
(i)
Calculate the percentage of electrical energy fed into the National Grid.
.....................%
[1]
(ii)
Coal-fired power stations produce more carbon dioxide than other power
stations. Give a reason why many people want to reduce the amount of
carbon dioxide pollution.
[1]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
2.
(a)
Background radiation is all around us.
Some rocks on earth are radioactive.

Particles shower down upon us from space.
Nuclear power stations add a small amount to nature's radioactivity.
Explain, giving a clear reason for your answer, which of the following statements
below contains the most truth.
[2]
(i)
Background radiation is completely harmless.
(ii)
Background radiation can cause harm but very few people are affected by it.
(iii)
Background radiation will kill us.

............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(b)
The table shows readings of background radiation, taken using a Geiger counter. The
readings are all taken in the same place.
Counts in one
minute
27
20
28
18
15
Why do you think the numbers are different?

Put a tick (9) in the box next to the statement which best explains why the numbers
are different.
[1]
Experimental error
Different numbers of radioactive particles
are being produced each minute
The readings were taken at different times
of day.
3.
(a)
Electrical appliances often carry a 'rating plate' (as shown below) which gives
information about the appliance.
Model No.
A7620
Serial No.
1277993
230 V ~ 50 Hz
2 kW
Use the information on the rating plate to complete the sentences that follow.
This appliance should be connected to a mains supply voltage of
with a frequency of ............................. The appliance transfers ........................
joules of energy every second.
(b)
[3]
The table gives information from the rating plate for several domestic appliances,
together with the time for which they are switched on in 1 week.
Appliance
Power
Time switched on
Vacuum cleaner
1.5 kW
1 hour
Toaster
1.2 kW
1 hour
Kettle
3.0 kW
4 hours
TV
0.5 kW
30 hours
0.005 kW
70 hours
Nightlight
Identify the appliance which uses the most energy in the week and state why.
[2]
4.
The diagram shows part of the National Grid.

Electricity is generated at power station A.
Not to scale
(a)
Use a word from the box to complete the sentences that follow.
Each word may be used once, more than once or not at all.
transformer
pylon
generator
power
current
(i)
At B, a . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . increases the voltage.
[1]
(ii)
Increasing the voltage makes the . at C smaller.
[1]
(iii)
At D, the voltage is decreased using a . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
[1]
(b) (i) Explain why the electricity distribution system is designed so that the voltage is
boosted at B.
[2]
.........
.........
.........
(ii) Why is the voltage reduced at D for use in homes?
[1]
5.
Two similar cans contain equal amounts of paraffin.

Each can holds a thermometer, is covered by a lid and stands on a cork base, the same
distance (d) away from a radiant heater.
One of the cans has a dull black surface and the other has a shiny silver surface.
dull black
shiny silver
d
d
radiant
heater
The graphs show how the temperature of the paraffin changes for the two cans.
Temperature (C)
40
dull black
30
shiny silver
20
10
(a)
10
12
Time (minutes)
Describe how the temperature changes for the two cans, making clear the difference
between the two cans.
[2]
(b)
A student wrote the following conclusion for this experiment.

"The dull black can received more heat energy from the heater."
Explain why the students statement is not correct.
[2]
6.
(a)
The statements below are about microwaves.

Only three of them are correct.
Tick (9) the correct statements.
[3]
Microwaves are not as fast as sound.

Microwaves are used for mobile phone communications.
Microwaves travel at the same speed as gamma rays in a vacuum.
Microwaves are used for medical scans, such as during pregnancy.
Microwaves are used for satellite communication.
(b)
In 1888 Heinrich Hertz made an observation. The observation led him to think that
microwaves existed. Other scientists did not fully accept their existence until 1894
when they were used to ring a bell remotely.
The list gives some of the steps in making scientific discoveries. They are not in the
correct order.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The scientist makes an observation.

The scientist evaluates the experiment.
The scientist carries out an experiment to test the hypothesis.
The scientist designs an experiment to test the hypothesis.
The scientist makes a hypothesis.
Complete the boxes to show the steps in the correct order. Two have been done for
you.
[2]
....................
....................
....................
7.
The table gives data on four planets in the Solar System.

Planet
Distance from the Sun

(million km)
Time for one orbit

(years)
Average surface
temperature
Earth
150
1.0
15 C
Mars
228
1.9
- 23 C
Jupiter
778
11.9
- 120 C
Saturn
1427
29.5
- 180 C
Ceres is a dwarf planet. It orbits the Sun at a distance of 410 million km.
(i)
(ii)
Suggest values for its orbit time and its surface temperature.
Orbit time
Surface temperature
Explain your answers.
[1]
[2]
8.
The graph shows how the frequency of deep ocean waves depends upon the wavelength of the
waves.
Frequency (Hz)
06
05
04
03
02
01
00
(a)
10
20
30
40
50
Wavelength (m)
Use information from the graph and the equation

to calculate the speed of waves with a wavelength of 40 m.
[2]
wave speed = .............................m/s
(b)
A large meteorite falls into the ocean and produces waves with a range of
wavelengths.
(i)
Use the equation
time =
distance
speed
to calculate how long it would take 40 m waves to arrive at an island 5600 m away.
[1]
time = ................................ s
(ii)
Would 10 m waves arrive before or after the 40 m waves?

Use information from the graph to explain your answer.
[2]
In Europe, car drivers compare the amount of fuel they use in "litres per hundred kilometres"
rather than miles per gallon.
The driver of a BMW 318ti and the driver of an energy saving Prius measured their fuel
consumption when driving at steady speeds. These are their results:
Fuel consumption ( l / 100 km)
9.
8.0
Key:
BMW 318ti
Prius
6.0
4.0
2.0
0.0
(a)
20
40
60
80
100
120
140 160
Speed (km/h)
Suggest how other car drivers could make similar measurements for their own car. [2]
.
.
.
.
(b)
Describe how the fuel consumption varies with speed for these two cars.
[3]
Prius: ...
.
.
BMW318ti: .
.
.
(c)
State carefully what you can conclude about the most economical driving speed for
the BMW318ti.
[2]
.
.
.
(d)
What would the BMW318ti driver need to do to give an improved answer to (c)? [1]
.
.
10.
Some radioactive elements emit more than one type of radiation. The apparatus below was
used to investigate the radiation emitted from a particular source which was placed close to
the detector.
counter
detector
source
1000
The table shows the average number of counts per minute when different absorbers were
placed between the source and detector. All figures have been corrected for background
radiation.
(a)
Original
count / min
with no
absorber
Count / min
with a paper
absorber
Count / min
with 3 mm
aluminium
absorber
Count / min
with 1 cm lead
absorber
Count / min
with 2 cm lead
absorber
1000
900
900
200
40
(i)
By how much does the 1 cm of lead change the original count rate?
[1]
............................................................................................................................
(b)
(ii)
What type of radiation passes through 1 cm of lead? ............................
[1]
(i)
State how much of the original count rate was produced by gamma
radiation.
[1]
. count / min.
(ii)
Explain your answer.
[2]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(c)
The figures in this experiment are all corrected for background radiation.
State clearly what this means, explain why it is done, and include in your account
what background radiation is and give its sources.
[6 QWC]
11.
A gas customer wants to reduce her household energy costs in winter. She decides to turn
down the thermostat in her rooms from 20C to 18C.
(a)
Explain why turning down the thermostat should reduce her energy costs.
[2]
(b)
The customer turns down the thermostat on 1st February.

The table shows the gas meter readings on 1st November, 1st February and 1st May.
Date
Readings (units)
1st November
1st February
1st May
6500
7610
8525
The customer works out that she used 1110 units in the 3 months before turning down
the thermostat.
Calculate the number of units she used in the three months after turning down the
thermostat.
Number of units = ....................

[1]
(c)
The gas customer claimed that she used less gas because she lowered the temperature
inside the house.
A friend pointed out that this was not a valid claim. Explain this.
[2]
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
Candidate Name
Centre Number
Candidate Number
0
GCSE
PHYSICS
HIGHER TIER (Grades D-A*)
PHYSICS 1: Energy, radiation and the Universe
SPECIMEN PAPER
(1 hour)
page.
communication used in your answers to questions 3(c) and 6(b).
Equations and Units

P = IV
E = Pt

100
% efficiency =
density =
mass
volume
c = f

speed =
m
V
distance
time
change in velocity
time
v
t
v = u + at where
v 2 = u 2 + 2ax
x = ut + 12 at 2
a=
x = 12 (u + v)t
resistance =
voltage
current
R=
V
I
power = current2 resistance
P = I 2R
p = mv
F = ma
force =
change in momentum
time
F=

kinetic energy =
= mass
KE = 12 mv 2
gravitational
field strength

primary coil turns
=
pressure =
force
area
p
t
W = Fd
massspeed 2
2
change in potential
energy
v = final velocity
a = acceleration
t = time
x = displacement
height
PE = mgh
V1 N1
=
V2 N 2
p=
F
A
pV
= constant
T
E = mc2
p = pressure
V = volume
T = kelvin temperature
Units
1 kWh = 3.6 MJ
T / K = / C + 273
SI multipliers
Prefix
p
Multiplier
Prefix
k
Multiplier
103
109
106
106
109
103
1012
10
12

1.
A gas customer wants to reduce her household energy costs in winter. She decides to turn
down the thermostat in her rooms from 20C to 18C.
(a)
Explain why turning down the thermostat should reduce her energy costs.
[2]
(b)
The customer turns down the thermostat on 1st February.

The table shows the gas meter readings on 1st November, 1st February and 1st May.
Date
1st November
1st February
1st May
Readings (units)
6500
7610
8525
The customer works out that she used 1110 units in the 3 months before turning down
the thermostat.
Calculate the number of units used in the three months after turning down the
thermostat.
Number of units = ....................

[1]
(c)
The gas customer claimed that she used less gas because she lowered the temperature
inside the house.
A friend pointed out that this was not a valid claim. Explain this.
[2]
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
In Europe, car drivers compare the amount of fuel they use in "litres per hundred kilometres"
rather than miles per gallon.
The driver of a BMW 318ti and the driver of an energy saving Prius measured their fuel
consumption when driving at steady speeds. These are their results:
Fuel consumption ( l / 100 km)
2.
8.0
Key:
BMW 318ti
Prius
6.0
4.0
2.0
0.0
(a)
20
40
60
80
100
120
140 160
Speed (km/h)
Suggest how other car drivers could make similar measurements for their own cars. [2]
..
..
..
..
(b)
Describe how the fuel consumption varies with speed for these two cars.
[3]
Prius: ..
BMW318ti:
(c)
State carefully what you can conclude about the most economical driving speed for
the BMW318ti.
[2]
.
.
.
(d)
What would the BMW318ti driver need to do to give an improved answer to (c)? [1]
.
.
3.
Some radioactive elements emit more than one type of radiation. The apparatus below was
used to investigate the radiation emitted from a particular source which was placed close to
the detector.
counter
detector
source
1000
The table shows the average number of counts per minute when different absorbers were
placed between the source and detector. All figures have been corrected for background
radiation.
(a)
Original
count / min
with no
absorber
Count / min
with a paper
absorber
Count / min
with 3 mm
aluminium
absorber
Count / min
with 1 cm lead
absorber
Count / min
with 2 cm lead
absorber
1000
900
900
200
40
(i)
By how much does the 1 cm of lead change the original count rate?
[1]
............................................................................................................................
(b)
(ii)
What type of radiation passes through 1 cm of lead? ............................
[1]
(i)
State how much of the original count rate was produced by gamma
radiation.
[1]
. count / min.
(ii)
[2]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(c)
The figures in this experiment are all corrected for background radiation.
State clearly what this means, explain why it is done, and include in your account
what background radiation is and give its sources.
[6 QWC]
4.
(a)
State how double glazing reduces the heat lost through the windows of a house.
[2]
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
(b)
The graph shows the results of an investigation to see how the rate of loss of energy
through a double glazed window was affected by the width of the air gap between the
two panes of glass. The investigation used a window of area 1 m2 and kept a
temperature difference of 20C between the inside and the outside.
Rate of loss of energy (W)
120
100
80
60
40
20
(i)
10
15
20
25
Air gap (mm)
Use the graph to estimate the rate of loss of energy for an air gap of 0 mm.
Show on the graph how you obtained your answer.
[2]
Rate of energy loss = .. W
(ii)
Give two reasons why most manufacturers of double glazed windows are
unlikely to use an air gap any larger than 20 mm.
[2]
.
.
.
.
(c)
A house with a window area of 30 m2 is fitted with double glazed windows with an
air gap of 10 mm.
On a particular day, there is a 20C temperature difference between the inside and
outside of the house. Calculate the rate of loss of energy through the windows of the
house.
[2]
Rate of loss of energy = W
5.
In 1842, the philosopher August Comte commented that we could measure the distance and
motion of planets and stars but we could never know anything about their composition.
28 years earlier, the German scientist Fraunhofer had noticed dark lines in the spectrum of the
Sun. Astronomers would later use these lines to prove the philosopher incorrect.
The diagram shows (in grey) the spectrum of the Sun with these 'Fraunhofer lines' and a
wavelength scale.
(a)
Explain how the Fraunhofer lines are formed and how they tell us about the
composition of the Sun.
[2]
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
(b)
An astronomer observed the spectra of two newly discovered galaxies. It was seen
that the lines in the spectra from both galaxies were 'red-shifted' when compared with
the spectrum of a laboratory light source.
The diagram shows the same part of the spectrum from the three sources described
above.
Spectrum
from
laboratory
Violet
Red
Spectrum
from galaxy 1
Violet
Red
Spectrum
from galaxy 2
Violet
Red
What could the scientists deduce about the distance of these two galaxies from our
own? Explain your answer.
[3]
..
..
..
..
..
..
6.
The diagram shows a solar panel made up of a collection of photo-cells, installed on the roof
of a house. The solar panel converts the Sun's radiant energy directly into electrical energy.
The electrical energy charges up a battery where it is stored for later use.
solar panel of photo-cells
storage
battery
(a)
The graph shows how the power which falls on this solar panel varies during a typical
summer day.
The efficiency of the solar panel is 20%.
Solar power input (kW)
10
10am
12
2pm
6
8
Time of day
Use the graph to estimate the useful electrical energy produced, in kilowatt hours on a
summer day. Show your working clearly.
[4]
[Hint: You could start by estimating the average power input between 8 am and 6 pm]
Electrical energy produced = ....................kWh
(b)
A photovoltaic panel on a different house produces about 12 kWh on a typical

summer day. The household in this case uses an average of 10 kWh of electrical
energy per day.
Discuss how useful this solar panel is in providing for the electrical energy needs of
the household.
[6 QWC]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
7.
The diagram shows a communications satellite in a geostationary orbit around the Earth.
Not to scale
Earth
(a)
A microwave signal travelling at a speed of 3 108 m/s carries TV pictures from a

studio at A to a geostationary satellite 36 107 m above the equator. The satellite
receives the signal and retransmits it to Earth where it is received by homes with
'satellite dishes.'
Calculate the time delay for the TV pictures to travel from the studio to the homes of
the viewers.
[3]
time = .................... s
(b)
(i)
As part of a television programme, a presenter in the studio at A talks to a

reporter in a studio at B (see diagram). State how the signals are sent between
the two studios using geostationary satellites. You may add to the diagram to
help your answer.
[2]
(ii)
In this interview, viewers notice a time delay before the reporter answers
questions. State what difference the viewers would notice if an optical fibre
link between A and B were used instead of the geostationary satellite link.
[2]
8.
A power station delivers an output of 2 106 Watts of electricity at 50 kV for the National
Grid. The voltage is transformed from 50 kV to 400 kV before the electrical energy is sent
through the National Grid cables.
(a)
Calculate the current that flows through the National Grid lines.
[3]
Current = ....................A
(b)
No transformer is 100% efficient. Explain clearly how the use of the two transformers
is more energy efficient than transmitting the electricity at 50 kV along the National
Grid.
[3]
MARK SCHEMES
General marking instructions

1.
Over-rigidity in the interpretation of the mark scheme is not intended and it is accepted
that points may be made in a variety of different ways including converse and
counterpoints.
2.
Phonetic spelling is accepted except where there is a possibility that scientific terms
might be confused.
3.
When candidates list alternative answers to short answer questions, the general
principle to be followed is: right + wrong = no mark. In a question requiring a set
number of responses, where a candidate has supplied extra responses above the
required number each error/contradiction negates one correct response, however
responses considered neutral are not penalised.
4.
The principle of error carried forward is generally applied where an incorrect value
calculated in one part of a question is treated as being correct for the purposes of
subsequent parts.
5.
When marking calculations, substitution into an incorrect equation is not credited and
hence subsequent calculations within that section will score zero.
6.
Alternative answers are accepted even if not noted on the marking scheme as long as
they are appropriate, correct and valid in the context of the science. Note that, in many
cases, specific terms are a requirement. Any uncertainty about the acceptability of an
answer is clarified by consulting with a Principal Examiner or Team Leader.
7.
Marking Quality of Written Communications. The marking scheme for these questions
includes indicative content. This statement gives the outline of a good answer.
Candidates should generally cover most, if not quite all, of the points in the indicative
content to achieve the highest mark band on these questions and if candidates present
alternative valid approaches these are equally acceptable. The tests to be applied are
coherence, which is expressed well scientifically, as well as completeness and correct
science at an appropriate level.
8.
Abbreviations used in mark schemes.

/
= alternatives
e.c.f.
= error carried forward
not
= unacceptable answer(s)
allow
= not an ideal answer but just accepted on this occasion
if qual(ified) = only acceptable as (part of) an answer if additional detail is given
or equiv
= or equivalent point
reference to... = these general ideas are required although they may be expressed
differently or made using different terminology and in a different
sequence
[..]
= material in square brackets is either clarification or further material
that would be required for a full answer but is not required on this
occasion
Physics 1 Marking Scheme

Foundation Tier
Question
Details
Marks
1.
(a)
List A
List B
Box 1 Box 3 (1)
Box 2 Box 4 (1)
Box 3 Box 1 (1)
[Additional lines 1 each, minimum = 0]
(b)
(i) 10068 (1) [=32%]

(ii) reference to greenhouse effect/global warming
1
1
Total marks for question

2.
(a)
(b)
One mark is awarded for correct identification:

Statement (ii) [is most true] (1)
The second mark can only be awarded if the candidate coherently
and correctly links the explanation to the above:
.because it is a [very] low level of radiation [or equiv.] / our cells
usually repair the damage caused by background radiation / we have
evolved to cope with this level of radiation (1)
[Accept argument against (i) and (iii) e.g. background radiation can
cause damage to cells, so (i) is untrue, but that our bodies can repair
this low level of damage]
[Additional statement that some places have high levels of
background radiation [and are more dangerous] does not get extra
credit]
Box 2 ticked [more than 1 box ticked 0]
1
3
(a)
230 V (1).50 Hz..(1) .2000 [or 2 kilo] (1)
(b)
The TV identified (1)

It uses most energy/units/kWh (1)
2
4.
(a)
(i) transformer
(ii) current
(iii) transformer
1
1
1
(b)
(i) One mark is awarded for a correct relevant statement the second
mark can only be awarded if the candidate correctly and coherently
links a second relevant statement to the first, e.g.[Smaller current in
C means] less heat produced [or equiv.] (1) resulting in energy loss
in C [or in the grid or equiv.] (1)
Alternative answer: Smaller current in C allows for thinner
conductors (1) which require less material / are cheaper [or easier to
support, or other sensible answer]
(ii) Lower voltage at D for safety reasons however expressed
2
1
Question
Details
5.
The temperature of one [or both] can(s) increases until it reaches a

steady level [or but it increases more slowly as it gets hotter, or
equiv.] (1). The temperature of the [dull] black can rises faster [or
more] than the shiny [silver] can. (1)
One mark is awarded for a correct relevant statement the second

mark can only be awarded if the candidate correctly and coherently
links a second relevant statement with the first to the question , e.g
The cans are the same size (1) and are placed the same distance away
[from the heater] and so the cans receive the same amount of energy
from the heater (1).
[Comments relating to the amount of paraffin, the cork bases or the
lids are irrelevant in this context but are not penalised.]
(a)
(b)
6.
(a)
(b)
Marks
Boxes 2, 3 & 5 ticked 3 (1)

[4 boxes ticked 1; all boxes ticked 0 marks]
1 (5) 4 3 (2): 3 correct (2); 1 correct (1)

7.
(i)
(ii)
Time given in range 3 9 [years] and temperature given in range

40 C to 100 C
The first mark is given for correct identification of the position of
Ceres in relation to Mars and Jupiter. The second mark is only given
if the candidate correctly and coherently links the figures for orbit
time and [accept or] temperature to this.
The distance to the sun is between that of Mars and Jupiter [or equiv,
accept: between 228 and 778 million km] (1) so the figures for orbit
time and [accept or] temperature are between those for Mars and
Jupiter [or equiv in figures]. (1)
8.
(a)
(b)
Frequency of 0.2[0] Hz used [i.e. reading from graph] (1)

Wave speed [= 40 0.2]= 8 m/s (1 answer)
[e.c.f. from incorrect reading of frequency allowed]
(i)
5600
Time = =
= 700 s (answer)
8 [ e.c.f.]
(ii) No mark for just before or after.
The first mark is given for identifying a reasonable strategy. The
second mark is given for correctly using the strategy to form a
conclusion:
e.g. strategy of calculating speed using the graph (1) leading to a
lower speed [of 4 m/s] and hence it would take longer (1)
5
1
2
3
2
1
2
5
Question
Details
9.
Realistic method of maintaining [roughly] steady speed over a

measured distance, e.g. on motorway in low use period, using the
car's distance meter (1)
Realistic method of measuring fuel use, e.g. fill up drive [a long
distance] fill up (1)
[For 1 mark, allow any suggestion of measuring the distance and fuel
consumption at [approximately] a steady speed]
Prius: increase in consumption with speed (1)

BMW318ti: Low speeds high, reduces at intermediate speeds (1),
higher again at higher speeds (1)
The most economical driving speed is around 60 km/h [accept 55

70 or figure in this range](1) but there are too few data points to be
sure [and graph goes down and up] [or equiv.](1);
Measure consumption at more different speeds around 60 km /h [or ,

e.g. measure consumption at 55, 65, 75 [and 85] km/h] or equiv.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Marks
Question
10.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Details
Marks
(i) [1000 200 =] 800 counts per minute (1) [ans]

(ii) Gamma (1)
(i) 900
(ii) One mark is given for a correct relevant statement, e.g.
[3 mm of] aluminium blocks alpha and beta radiation but has no [or
very little] effect on gamma radiation (1).
The second mark can only be awarded if the candidate correctly and
coherently links a second point to the first, e.g.
. so the radiation which penetrates the aluminium is the gamma
radiation (1).
2
1
Indicative content: Background radiation is radiation from the

environment in the absence of the source under investigation. Its sources
include cosmic rays, which originate in space, radon, rocks and other
materials in our environment. To investigate the quantity of radiation
received from a given source the contribution from background radiation
needs to be subtracted this is "corrected for background" leaving that
from the source alone.
5 6 marks The candidate constructs an articulate, integrated account
correctly linking relevant points, such as those in the
indicative content, which shows sequential reasoning. The
answer fully addresses the question with no irrelevant
inclusions or significant omissions. The candidate uses
appropriate scientific terminology and accurate spelling,
punctuation and grammar.
3 4 marks The candidate constructs an account correctly linking some
relevant points, such as those in the indicative content,
showing some reasoning. The answer addresses the
question with some omissions. The candidate uses mainly
appropriate scientific terminology and some accurate
spelling, punctuation and grammar.
1 2 marks The candidate makes some relevant points, such as those
in the indicative content, showing limited reasoning. The
answer addresses the question with significant omissions.
The candidate uses limited scientific terminology and
inaccuracies in spelling, punctuation and grammar.
0 marks
The candidate does not make any attempt or give a

relevant answer worthy of credit.
6
11
Question
Details
11.
One mark is given for a correct relevant statement about heat

transfer:
e.g. thermal [accept "heat"] transfer is driven by temperature
differences [however expressed] / houses lose energy by thermal
transfer [however expressed] because they are at a higher temperature
than the outside (1)
coherently links a second point to the first
e.g. Lowering the thermostat / temperature reduces the temperature
difference [with the outside] and so less energy would be lost [and so
less heating would be required] (1).
(b)
[8525 7610 =] 915 units
(c)
One mark is given for a correct relevant statement, e.g.

To be a valid comparison the [average] outside temperature needs to
be the same [for the two periods] (1).
e.g. the 3 months after 1 February is in spring and so the [outside]
temperature is [likely to be] higher. (1)
[NB The first marking point is for a generally applicable comment
about a controlled variable and the second is for pointing out how it
applies to this situation.]
2
5
(a)
Marks

Higher Tier
Question
Details
1.
One mark is given for a correct relevant statement about heat

transfer:
e.g. thermal [accept "heat"] transfer is driven by temperature
differences [however expressed] / houses lose energy by thermal
transfer [however expressed] because they are at a higher temperature
than the outside (1)
e.g. Lowering the thermostat / temperature reduces the temperature
difference [with the outside] and so less energy would be lost [and so
less heating would be required] (1).
(b)
[8525 7610 =] 915 units
(c)
One mark is given for a correct relevant statement, e.g.

To be a valid comparison the [average] outside temperature needs to
be the same [for the two periods] (1).
e.g. the 3 months after 1 February is in spring and so the [outside]
temperature is [likely to be] higher. (1)
[NB The first marking point is for a generally applicable comment
about a controlled variable and the second is for pointing out how it
applies to this situation.]
2
5
Realistic method of maintaining [roughly] steady speed over a

measured distance, e.g. on motorway in low use period, using the
car's distance meter (1)
Realistic method of measuring fuel use, e.g. fill up drive [a long
distance] fill up (1)
[For 1 mark, allow any suggestion of measuring the distance and fuel
consumption at [approximately] a steady speed]
Prius: increase in consumption with speed (1)

BMW318ti: Low speeds high, reduces at intermediate speeds (1),
higher again at higher speeds (1)
The most economical driving speed is around 60 km/h [accept 55

70 or figure in this range](1) but there are too few data points to be
sure [and graph goes down and up][or equiv.] (1).
Measure consumption at more different speeds around 60 km /h [or ,

e.g. measure consumption at 55, 65, 75 [and 85] km/h] or equiv.
2.
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Marks
Question
3.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Details
Marks
(i) [1000 200 =] 800 counts per minute (1)

(ii) Gamma (1)
(i) 900
(ii) One mark is given for a correct relevant statement, e.g.
[3 mm of] aluminium blocks alpha and beta radiation but has no [or
very little] effect on gamma radiation (1).
. so the radiation which penetrates the aluminium is the gamma
radiation (1).
Indicative content: Background radiation is [radiation] from the

environment in the absence of the source under investigation. Its sources
include cosmic rays, which originate from space, radon, rocks and other
materials in our environment. To investigate the quantity of radiation
received from a given source, the contribution from background
radiation needs to be subtracted this is "corrected for background"
leaving that from the source alone.
0 marks

6
11
Question
Details
4.
Heat is lost through the window by conduction [accept a description

of the mechanism] (1). The double glazed window has [trapped] air,
which is a poor conductor [accept: insulator] (1).
(a)
(b)
(c)
Marks
(i) Line [reasonable curve] extrapolated to vertical axis (1) giving a

reading of 106 W / m2 [answer in range 106 108](1)
(ii) Reason given in terms of declining effectiveness at greater gap size
[however expressed](1)
Suggestion of increased cost or size of window if gap increased
further (1)
Use of 60 W/m2 (1)
Rate of energy loss = 30 60 = 1800 W (1)
5.
(a)
(b)
2
2
2
2
8
One mark is given for a correct and relevant statement, e.g.

light from Sun/star passes through atmosphere of Sun/star (1)
The second mark is only given if the candidate correctly and
atoms of the gas in the atmosphere absorb light at specific
wavelengths (1)
Galaxy 2 further away than galaxy 1 (1)

Explanation: One mark is given for a correct relevant statement: e.g.
the universe has expanded since the light has been sent out [so the
waves are "stretched"] [accept equivalent statement in terms of
Doppler shift] .. (1)
and light from galaxy 2 is red-shifted more than that from galaxy
1 [or equiv] (1).
Question
Details
6.
Average power 6 8 kW [if using 8 am 6 pm] or 5 6 kW [if using

7 am 7 pm] (1)
Use of equation: Units (kWh) = Power (kW) time (h) (1)
Energy input = 60 75 kWh [e.c.f. on estimate of power] (1)
Electrical energy produced = 12 15 kWh [e.c.f.] (1)
[Alternative approach: Total energy input = area under graph (1)
Each square = 1 kWh (1)
Energy input = 68 72 kWh (1)
4th mark as above (1)]
(a)
(b)
Marks
Indicative content: 12 kWh is more than the mean household usage but
the latter will vary throughout the day, from day to day and seasonally.
Energy requirements for lighting and heating are greater in winter,
whereas energy input is less in winter because of shorter daylight and
sun being lower in the sky. Households have electricity requirements at
night, when the photo-voltaic panel will not be producing electricity.
Because of this the panel cannot provide all the electricity needs of the
household, but electricity can be exported to grid in times of surplus
[with generous feed-in tariffs] and used to offset the need to import
energy from the grid.
[NB Mention of export to grid is not a requirement for full marks as not
strictly implied by the question but can be used to offset deficiencies in
other areas of the answer]
0 marks

6
10
Question
7.
(a)
Details
Marks
Time delay =
2(1) 3.6 107

(1) = 0.24 s (1)
3 108
Use of single distance 0.12 s allow e.c.f.

(b)
(i) Second ground station and second satellite indicated either in
words or on diagram (1)

Indication that signal passes from A shown satellite 2nd
ground station 2nd satellite B either in words or on
diagram (1)
[Allow alternative using more than one additional ground
station and satellite]
(ii) One mark is given for a correct, relevant statement, e.g.
[with an optical fibre link] the time delay is much less / not
noticeable (1)
because the distance travelled is around surface of earth
which is much less than the [4] space links (1)
[NB Comments about the speed of travel of the signals are
neutral responses.]
8.
(a)
Current =
2 106
(1) = 5 A (1)
400000(1)
[Substitution into rearranged equation 3

Unit conversion from 400 kV to 400 000 V or equiv, e.g.
400 103 V 3 Answer 3]
(b)
Two marks [2 (1)] can be awarded for making statements of

fact, e.g.:
Transmission at 50 kV would involve a higher current
(3)
The higher current would result in a greater energy /
heat loss [accept: would require greater investment in
power lines to carry the greater current, or equiv.] (3)
Energy losses in the two transformers are less than
additional energy losses when transmitting at 50 kV
[accept a clear implication if not explicit] (3)
The third mark can only be awarded if the candidate correctly and
coherently links a third point to the first two (1).
3
6
ASSESSMENT GRIDS
MARK SPECIFICATION GRID

Physics 1
Specimen unit examination
FOUNDATION TIER
P1 Energy, radiation and the
Universe
Question
Number
1. (a)
(b) (i)
(ii)
2. (a)
Target Totals for

Paper
Syllabus Reference
1(c)
4(a), (d)
Assessment Objective
AO1
AO2
AO3
24
21
15
2(c), 3(a), 5(a)
(b)
2(b), (c)
5. (a)
1
3
6
2
(b)
4(e)/5(f)
6. (a)
5(a), (h)
HSW
4
5
7.
7(a)/HSW
8.
5(a), (b)
9. (a)
3(c)/HSW
(c), (d)
(ii)
11. (a), (b)

(c)
1
6(f)
(b)
(c)
10. (a) (i)
(b)
4(e)
(b)
QWC
9
2
3(b)
4.
HSW
6(e)/HSW
3. (a)
60
6(g)
(b)
Total
Mark
3
6(d)
3
2
25
9
9
3(c), 4(e), (f)

Raw Totals:
11
19
16
5
60

Physics 1
HIGHER TIER
P1 Energy, radiation and the
Universe
Question
Number
1. (a), (b)
(c)
Target Totals for

Paper
Syllabus Reference
AO1
AO2
AO3
24
21
15
3(c), 4(e), (f)
2. (a)
3(c)/HSW
(c), (d)
(ii)
6(f)
1
3
(c)
6(d)
4. (a)
(ii)
9
9
8
9
11
9
9
6
2
4(e), (f)
(c)
9
9
5. (a)
7(b), (c)
(b)
7(d), (e)
6. (a)
1(d), 4(c)
(b)
QWC
(b) (i)
8. (a)
HSW
(b)
(b)
3. (a) (i)
7. (a)
60
(b)
(b)
Total
Mark
1(d)
2
3
4
5(h)
2(c), (e)
Raw Totals:
10
5(a), (b)
3
3
3
20
9
9
24
16
60
Candidate Name
Centre Number
Candidate Number
0
GCSE
PHYSICS
PHYSICS 2: Electricity, forces and nuclear physics
SPECIMEN PAPER
(1 hour)
page.
communication used in your answer to question 8(a).
Equations and Units

P = IV
E = Pt

100
% efficiency =
density =
mass
volume

speed =
m
V
c = f
distance
time
change in velocity
time
a=
v
t
v = u + at where
x = 12 (u + v)t
resistance =
voltage
current
R=
V
I
p= mv
F = ma
force =
change in momentum
time
F=
p
t
W = Fd

primary coil turns
=
V1 N1
=
V2 N 2
pressure =
force
area
p=
F
A
v = final velocity
a = acceleration
t = time
x = displacement
Units
1 kWh = 3.6 MJ
T / K = / C + 273
SI multipliers
Prefix
p
Multiplier
Prefix
k
Multiplier
103
109
106
106
109
103
1012
10
12

1.
List A gives three statements about forces acting on a skydiver when falling through the air.
List B gives 5 possible effects on the motion of the skydiver.
Draw one line from each statement in list A to the correct effect it would have in list B. [3]
List A
List B
The skydiver moves upwards.
The weight and air resistance

are equal.
The skydiver speeds up.
The weight is greater than the

air resistance.
The skydiver stops.
The air resistance is greater

than the weight.
The skydiver slows down.
The skydiver falls at constant

speed.
2.
Radon is a radioactive gas. It occurs naturally and rises through small cracks in the Earth's
rocks. It enters buildings through the floor.
The graph below shows the Health Protection Agency's assessment of risk of a person getting
lung cancer from radon gas and how it depends on the radon level in the home.
Percentage risk of getting lung cancer
3%
2%
1%
(a)
(b)
20
70
130
180
Radon level in the home (Bq/m3)
Use only the information in the graph to find:

(i)
the percentage risk to health from a radon level of 20 Bq per m3, ..% [1]
(ii)
the radon level that gives a 2% risk of getting lung cancer........... Bq/m3
[1]
The average radon level in British homes is 20 Bq/ m3. The government's Action
Level, where householders should take steps to reduce the radon in their homes, is 10
times the average level.
(i)
How many Bq/m3 is the Action Level? Action level = .Bq/m3
(ii)
What information can you get from the graph about the lung cancer risk if a
person lives in a home at the Action Level of radon?
[2]
[1]
.
.
.
3.
A group of car engineers tests the braking distance for a new design of car tyre at different
speeds.
Their results are plotted on the grid below.
Braking distance (m)
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
(a)
5
(i)
10
15
20
25
30
Speed (m/s)
The engineers think that their result for 15 m/s is incorrect.

Look at all the points and suggest why.
[2]
.
.
(ii)
Estimate the correct value of the braking distance at 15 m/s and show on the
graph grid how you obtained your answer.
[2]
Breaking distance at 15 m/s =
(iii)
Suggest two things the engineers would need to do before their results are
accepted by other car engineers.
[2]
1.
...
2.
...
(b)
In a second test, the engineers compared the car moving at 10 m/s with a heavier lorry
also moving at 10 m/s.
They both stopped in a distance of 7m.
Tick (9) three things from this list which are bigger for the lorry than the car.
[3]
Its speed
Its kinetic energy
Its momentum
Its stopping time
Its braking force
(a)
In 2003, over 3000 people were killed and 33,000 seriously injured in collisions on
Britain's roads.
The chances of a pedestrian surviving a collision depends upon how fast the vehicle is
travelling. This is shown on the graph.
100
chance of survival (%)
4.
80
60
40
20
0
10
20
30
40
50
Speed (mph)
Use the information in the graph to suggest why many people think that there should
be a 20 mph speed limit outside schools instead of the present limit of 30 mph.
[2]
(b)
Speed cameras have been placed around Britain to encourage drivers to stay within
the speed limit.
The photograph shows a car passing a camera in a 30 mph speed limit area.
When the camera detects a speeding car, it takes two photographs.

The white road markings are painted 1.5 m apart.
From the first photograph to the second the car moved forward 5 spaces.
(i)
Calculate the distance travelled by the car between the two photographs.
[1]
Distance = m
(ii)
The second photograph is taken 0.5 seconds after the first one.
Calculate the speed of the car.
[2]
Speed = m/s
5.
The following equation shows a nuclear reaction.

2
3
1H + 1H
42 He + 10 n
This reaction only takes place if the particles on the left hand side of the equation move
very quickly towards each other. This needs a very high temperature.
(a)
(b)
Underline the correct word or words in the brackets of each sentence below.
[3]
(i)
The particles that collide together in this reaction are nuclei of

atoms of (hydrogen, helium, oxygen).
(ii)
The particle 01 n that is released in the reaction is (a neutron, a nucleus,

nitrogen).
(iii)
This is an example of a (fission reaction, chain reaction, fusion reaction).
Give two reasons why this reaction is very difficult to control.
[2]
1. .
.......
2. ..
...
(c)
Give one reason why this reaction is likely to be very important during the next
100 years.
[1]
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
6.
The graph shows the first 20 s of the motion of a van already moving at a constant speed.
Speed (m/s)
40
30
20
10
10
20
30
40
50
60
Time (s)
At 20 s the van accelerates with constant acceleration for 20 s to reach a new constant speed
of 30 m/s. The van continues at this new constant speed for a further 20 s.
(a)
Complete the graph to show the motion of the van between 20 s and 60 s.
[2]
(b)
Calculate the acceleration of the van during the period when it is accelerating.
[3]
Acceleration = .. m/s2
7.
The diagram shows the forces on a small test rocket as it takes off.
Total thrust from engines
Weight of rocket plus fuel

(a)
(b)
Underline the phrase in the bracket which completes each of the following sentences
correctly. [The rocket thrust doesn't change.]
[3]
(i)
As the rocket takes off, the thrust from the engines is (less than, the same as,
greater than) the weight of the rocket and fuel.
(ii)
As the rocket gets higher, the weight of the rocket and fuel (become less,
stays the same, becomes greater).
(iii)
As the rocket gets higher, the resultant force on it (becomes less, stays the
same, becomes greater).
The test rocket is powered by 3 engines each of which produces a thrust of 2 000 N.
The mass of the rocket and its fuel is 500 kg.
(i)
Use the information above to fill in the details in the following table for the
time when the engines are first fired.
[3]
[On the Earth a 1 kg body has a weight of 10 N].
Quantity
(ii)
Size
Weight of rocket & fuel
. N
Total thrust produced by the engines
. N
Resultant force on rocket
. N
Calculate the take-off acceleration of the rocket.
[3]
8.
Nuclear medicine uses radioactive isotopes as tracers and for the treatment of cancers within
the body.
A working thyroid gland rapidly gathers the element iodine from the bloodstream.
Radioactive isotopes of iodine can be produced in hospitals ready for use. Radiation from
radioactive iodine can be detected outside the body and can also be used to kill cancers within
the thyroid gland.
The table shows four radioactive isotopes of iodine.
Isotope of
Iodine
(a)
Radiation
emitted
Half life
Iodine-123
gamma
13.2 hours
Iodine-128
beta
25 minutes
Iodine-129
beta
16 000 000 years
Iodine-131
beta and
gamma
84 days
Use your knowledge of the properties of beta and gamma radiation and information
from above to discuss which of these isotopes of iodine are suitable for use as a
radioactive tracer for the thyroid gland or for treating thyroid cancer.
[6 QWC]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
(b)
Iodine-131 has a mass number of 131 and an atomic number of 53.

State the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in a neutral atom of Iodine-131.
Number of protons = ..
Number of neutrons = ..
Number of electrons = ..
[3]
9.
A student investigates how the current through a 12 V filament lamp varies with voltage
between 0 and 12 V.
(a)
Draw a labelled diagram of a circuit that can be used to obtain the readings.
(b)
The student obtained the following readings of current against voltage for the lamp.
Voltage (V)
(i)
[2]
Current (A)
0.0
0.0
1.0
0.5
2.0
1.0
3.4
1.5
4.5
2.0
8.1
2.5
11.8
3.0
Use the grid on the next page to draw a graph of current against voltage for
the lamp. The scale of the voltage axis is given for you.
[3]
Current (A)
2
(ii)
10
12 Voltage (V)
Another student suggested that each reading should be repeated at least twice
to see how repeatable the results are.
Use the graph to discuss whether this is necessary.
[2]
(iii)
Describe carefully how the current in the lamp changes as the voltage
increases from 0 V to 11.8 V.
[2]
Candidate Name
Centre Number
Candidate Number
0
GCSE
PHYSICS
HIGHER TIER (Grades D A*)
PHYSICS 2: Electricity, forces and nuclear physics
SPECIMEN PAPER
(1 hour)
page.
communication used in your answers to questions 4 and 7(a).
Equations and Units

P = IV
E = Pt

100
% efficiency =
density =
mass
volume
c = f

speed =
m
V
distance
time
change in velocity
time
v
t
v = u + at where
v 2 = u 2 + 2ax
x = ut + 12 at 2
a=
x = 12 (u + v)t
resistance =
voltage
current
R=
V
I
P = I 2R
p = mv
F = ma
force =
change in momentum
time
F=

kinetic energy =
= mass
KE = 12 mv 2
gravitational
field strength

primary coil turns
=
pressure =
force
area
p
t
W = Fd
massspeed 2
2
change in potential
energy
v = final velocity
a = acceleration
t = time
x = displacement
height
PE = mgh
V1 N1
=
V2 N 2
p=
F
A
pV
= constant
T
E = mc2
p = pressure
V = volume
Units
1 kWh = 3.6 MJ
T / K = / C + 273
SI multipliers
Prefix
p
Multiplier
Prefix
k
Multiplier
103
109
106
106
109
103
1012
10
12

1.
During take-off, astronauts experience the largest force from the acceleration, the
"g force", just before the rocket engines shut down. This question explores why.
The diagram shows a small test rocket on its launch pad.
Total thrust from engines
Weight of rocket plus fuel

The test rocket is powered by 3 engines, each of which produces a constant thrust of 2 000 N.
The mass of the rocket and its fuel is 500 kg.
(a)
(i)
Use the information above to fill in the details in the following table for the
time when the engines are first fired.
[3]
[On the Earth a 1 kg body has a weight of 10 N].
Quantity
(ii)
Size
Weight of rocket & fuel
. N
Total thrust produced by the engines
. N
Resultant force on rocket
. N
Calculate the take-off acceleration of the rocket.
[3]
Acceleration = m/s2
(b)
The rocket engines together burn up 10 kg of fuel per second. Assuming that the
thrust of the engines is constant, calculate the acceleration of the rocket 10 seconds
into the take-off. Show your working clearly.
[3]
Acceleration = . m/s2
(c)
Explain clearly why astronauts experience the largest acceleration just before the
engines shut down.
[2]
.............
.............
.............
.............
2.
A student investigates how the current through a 12 V filament lamp varies with voltage
between 0 and 12 V.
(a)
Draw a labelled diagram of a circuit that can be used to obtain the readings.
(b)
The student obtained the following readings of current against voltage for the lamp.
Voltage (V)
(i)
[2]
Current (A)
0.0
0.0
1.0
0.5
2.0
1.0
3.4
1.5
4.5
2.0
8.1
2.5
11.8
3.0
Use the grid on the next page to draw a graph of current against voltage for
the lamp. The scale of the voltage axis is given for you.
[3]
Current (A)
0
(ii)
10
12 Voltage (V)
Another student suggested that each reading should be repeated at least twice more to
assess the repeatability of the results.
Use the graph to discuss whether this is necessary.
[2]
(iii)
Describe carefully how the resistance of the lamp changes as the voltage increases
from 0 V to 11.8 V.
[2]
(c)
The student is making a 40 W light source for a model theatre and decides to use a
pair of these identical lamps in parallel, as shown below. She adjusts the power
supply so that that the ammeter reads 5.0 A.
5.0 A
A
Use data from the graph to show clearly by calculation how close this arrangement is
to 40 W.
[3]
Total power = . W
3.
The graph shows the first 20 s of the motion of a van already moving at a constant speed.
Speed (m/s)
40
30
20
10
10
20
30
40
50
60
Time (s)
At 20 s the van accelerates with constant acceleration for 20 s to reach a new constant speed of
30 m/s. The van continues at this new constant speed for a further 20 s.
(a)
Complete the graph to show the motion of the van between 20 s and 60 s.
[2]
(b)
Calculate the acceleration of the van during the period when it is accelerating.
[3]
(c)
Use your graph to calculate how far the van travels when it is accelerating, i.e. between
20 and 40 seconds. Show your working clearly.
[3]
Distance travelled = .. m
4.
Nuclear medicine uses radioactive isotopes as tracers and for the treatment of cancers within
the body.
A working thyroid gland rapidly gathers the element iodine from the bloodstream.
Radioactive isotopes of iodine can be produced in hospitals ready for use. Radiation from
radioactive iodine can be detected outside the body and can also be used to kill cancers within
the thyroid gland.
The table shows four of the isotopes of radioactive iodine.
Form of
Iodine
Radiation
emitted
Half life
Iodine-123
gamma
13.2 hours
Iodine-128
beta
25 minutes
Iodine-129
beta
16 000 000 years
Iodine-131
beta and
gamma
84 days
Use your knowledge of the properties of beta and gamma radiation and information from
above to discuss which of these isotopes of iodine are suitable for use as a radioactive tracer
for the thyroid gland or for treating thyroid cancer.
[6 QWC]
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................
5.
The diagram shows an uncontrolled nuclear fission reaction.

When a neutron strikes a nucleus of 235
92 U , the nucleus splits, releasing two fast neutrons
together with the fission fragments of barium (Ba) and krypton (Kr).
1
0
krypton
235
92
1
0
1
0
neutron n
235
92
1
0
U
1
0
n
235
92
1
0
barium
1
0
(a)
Complete the nuclear equation for this reaction.

235
92
(b)
[2]
U + 01n 90
Kr +
36
A nuclear reactor makes use of boron steel control rods and a graphite moderator.
Explain how the control rods and moderator are important in maintaining a safe
sustainable fission reaction.
[4]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
6.
Read the following passage about carbon-14 dating.

Carbon-14 (C-14) is a emitter. One of the problems scientists face when undertaking C-14
dating is that the sample will almost certainly have other radioactive isotopes in it, such as
potassium-40. This will result in false readings.
A common technique is to react the carbon from a very small sample typically 1 milligram
to produce benzene, which is a liquid. This procedure removes the impurities. They detect
the carbon-14 by counting the small flashes of light produced in the benzene by the beta
decay.
The process of producing the benzene introduces another impurity, radon-222, which decays
by emission with a half life of 5 days. Because of this the scientists leave the benzene
sample for several weeks before making measurements.
(a)
How does leaving the benzene sample for several weeks improve the results?
[2]
(b)
The activity of C-14 in a 1 mg sample of modern carbon is 1200 counts per week. The
grid on the next page shows the decay curve over a period of 12500 years.
Determine the half life of C-14 and label relevant quantities on the graph.
[3]
Half life = .. years
Decay graph for C-14 in 1 mg of carbon
Activity (counts / week)
1200
1000
800
600
400
200
0
(c)
5000
10000
15000
20000
25000
Time (years)
A group of archaeologists took a 1 mg sample of carbon from a wooden bowl. They

measured the activity over a 1 week period. Their measurement was 200 counts but
they said the true activity could lie anywhere between 160 and 240 counts per week.
What could the scientists say about the age of the bowl?
Use the graph and your answer to (b). Show your working clearly.
[4]
7.
A car-safety engineer is checking the design for a crumple zone in a car. According to the
computer models, the crumple zone produces a force of 480 000 N when it is being
compressed in a front collision.
The car has a mass of 1200 kg, including passengers. The design requirement for the
maximum crumple distance of the crumple zone is 0.6 m.
(a)
The engineer uses ideas of kinetic energy and work to show that the crumple distance
at 25 m/s is almost 0.8 m.
Explain clearly and use calculations to show how she could arrive at this figure.
[6 QWC]
(b)
The figure of 0.8 m is too long, so she suggests 2 possible changes to the design of the
car:
make the crumple zone stiffer, i.e. it exerts a bigger force;

make the car lighter.
Underline one of these suggestions and explain how it would result in a shorter
stopping distance.
[2]
MARK SCHEMES

1.
Over-rigidity in the interpretation of the mark scheme is not intended and it is accepted that
points may be made in a variety of different ways including converse and counterpoints.
2.
Phonetic spelling is accepted except where there is a possibility that scientific terms might be
confused.
3.
When candidates list alternative answers to short answer questions, the general principle to be
followed is: right + wrong = no mark. In a question requiring a set number of responses, where
a candidate has supplied extra responses above the required number each error/contradiction
negates one correct response, however responses considered neutral are not penalised.
4.
The principle of error carried forward is generally applied where an incorrect value calculated
in one part of a question is treated as being correct for the purposes of subsequent parts.
5.
Marking calculations: unless the marking scheme specifies otherwise, a fully correct answer,
without working scores all the available marks. The marks for the initial steps of a calculation
shown in the mark scheme are available whether or not the final solution is correct. Substitution
into an incorrect equation is not credited and subsequent calculations based upon the incorrect
initial step within that section will score zero. The result of the calculation may be used to
obtain marks in a subsequent section on the principle of error carried forward.
6.
Alternative answers are accepted even if not noted on the marking scheme as long as they are
appropriate, correct and valid in the context of the science. Note that, in many cases, specific
terms are a requirement. Any uncertainty about the acceptability of an answer is clarified by
consulting with a Principal Examiner or Team Leader.
7.
includes indicative content. This statement gives the outline of a good answer. Candidates
should generally cover most, if not quite all, of the points in the indicative content to achieve
the highest mark band on these questions and if candidates present alternative valid
approaches these are equally acceptable. The tests to be applied are coherence, which
is expressed well scientifically, as well as completeness and correct science at an appropriate
level.
8.

/
=
alternatives
e.c.f.
=
error carried forward
not
=
unacceptable answer(s)
allow
=
not an ideal answer but just accepted on this occasion
if qual(ified)
=
only acceptable as (part of) an answer if additional detail is given
or equiv
=
or equivalent point
reference to... =
these general ideas are required although they may be expressed
sequence
[..]
=
material in square brackets is either clarification or further material that
would be required for a full answer but is not required on this occasion
b.o.d
=
benefit of the doubt

Foundation Tier
Question
Details
List A
List B
Box 1 Box 5 (1)
Box 2 Box 2 (1)
Box 3 Box 4 (1)
[ 1 per extra line, minimum 0]
Marks
3
(a)
(i) 0.2 %
(ii) 130 Bq / m3
1
1
(b)
(i) 200 Bq / m3
(ii) Cannot get an accurate answer stated or implied (1)
greater than 3% stated / number about 3.5% [accept 3.1 4.0%] (1)

3
(a)
(b)
(i) Others points lie on smooth curve / curve with no (or little) scatter
(1) this point out [or equiv] (1)
[1st marking point difficult; 2nd marking point easier]
(ii) 16 1 m/s (1)
Indication on graph linked to trend of other points, e.g. by an
appropriate interpolation between neighbouring points(1) [NB a
straight line interpolation between the 10 and 20 m/s points will give
an answer of 18.5 m 1 mark only can be awarded for this]
(iii) Any 2 (1)
Repeat all readings [to assess repeatability] 3
Repeat and correct [or verify]15 m/s point3
Get others to repeat experiment 3
Other sensible suggestion 3
kinetic energy 3(1)
momentum 3 (1)
braking force 3 (1)
[additional tick 1; all boxes ticked 0]
(a)
(b)
2
5
3
4.
Statement on increasing chance of survival at low speeds (1) [or by

impl.] backed up by survival figures at 30 mph [80%] and 20%
[96 2 %] (1)
[Statement on the potential victims being children is neutral]
(i) [5 1.5 =] 7.5 m (answer)
7.5
(e.c.f.) (1) = 15 m/s (1)
(ii) Speed =
0.5
2
1
2
Question
5.
(a)
(b)
(c)
6.
(a)
(b)
Details
Marks
(i) hydrogen [more than one underlined no credit] (1)

(ii) a neutron [more than one underlined no credit] (1)
(iii) fusion reaction [more than one underlined no credit] (1)
Reference made to the high temperature [i.e. selection of this
information from the question stem] or pressure (1). Appropriate
comment about the difficulty of maintaining this temperature [or high
pressure] or the need for strong magnetic fields to [keep the gas away
from the container walls] (1)
[NB Both marks obtainable if candidate bases answer on either
magnetic or inertial confinement].
Reference to need to generate from low carbon sources or to replace
[diminishing] fossil fuels.
["Global warming" by itself is insufficient]
(a)
(b)
2
1
Correct shape of v-t graph, i.e. sloping upwards in a straight line from
(20,20) and becoming a straight horizontal line (1)
Graph becomes horizontal at (40,30) and the graph extends to (60,
30) (1) [ignore extensions beyond (60,30)]
change in velocit y
[or by implication] (1)
time taken
30 20
10
Acceleration =
or
(1) = 0.5 [m/s2] (1)
20
20
Use of acceleration =

7.
(i) greater than (1)

(ii) becomes less (1)
(iii) becomes greater (1)
(i) 5000 N (1)

6000 N (1)
1000 N (ecf) (1)
(ii)
Resultant force
Statement / use of Acceleration =
(1) [or by impl.]
mass
1000(e.c.f.)
Acceleration =
(1) = 2 [m/s2] (1)
500
3
9
Question
Details
8.
Indicative content: Beta radiation is easily absorbed in the body. It can

kill cells, including cancer cells and can also induce cancers in healthy
tissue. Gamma radiation penetrates tissue, so can be detected outside the
body; it is much less effective at killing cells and also produces less
damage to healthy ones. The isotopes used need to have a short half life
to avoid long-term exposure to radiation. This is especially the case for
tracers. Iodine-123 is the only one which only emits gamma radiation
and it has a short half life, so it is useful as a tracer. The other three
isotopes could be used in thyroid cancer treatment but iodine-129 has a
very long half life [and iodine-125 has too short a half life] so that
iodine-131 is the most appropriate in radiotherapy for thyroid cancer
because it is a beta emitter with a short half life. [NB. No penalty for
suggesting I-128 is the most appropriate for the same reason].
(a)
Marks

0 marks
(b)

53 (1)
78 (1)
53 (1)
3
Question
Details
9.
Circuit with power supply and lamp and ammeter and voltmeter
correctly connected Means of varying voltage / current indicated (1)
(a)
(b)
Marks
(i) Current scale: linear + whole vertical axis used (1)

Points correctly plotted minor division (1)
Smooth curve drawn [straight line for lowest 3 readings] (1)
(ii) Comment that points lie v close to [on] a smooth curve (1)
Suggestion that this implies repeatable results / less repeatability would
probably have more scatter / other appropriate comment. (1)
(iii) Current increases with voltage (1)
Rate of increase of current with voltage decreases with increasing
voltage [however expressed but meaning must be clear] (1)
[Note: 9(b)(iii) is not common to the 2 tiers the F-tier refers to current
and the H-tier equivalent refers to resistance]
3
2
2
9

Higher Tier
Question
1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Details
Marks
(i) 5000 N (1)

6000 N (1)
1000 N (ecf) (1)
(ii)
Resultant force
Statement or use of Acceleration =
(1)
mass
1000(e.c.f.)
Acceleration =
(1) = 2 m/s2 (1)
500
(a)
(b)
(c)
Attempt to work out mass loss (1)

Total mass = 400 kg (1)
Resultant force = 2000 N or acceleration = 5 m/s2 (1)
One mark is awarded for a correct and relevant statement of fact,

e.g. resultant force increases with time (1)..
Second mark can only be awarded if the candidate correctly and
coherently links a second fact with the observation, e.g.
and the mass decreases, so the acceleration increases [until the
engines shut down] (1)

2.
Circuit with power supply and lamp and ammeter and voltmeter
connected correctly (1)
Means of varying voltage / current indicated (1)
(i) Current scale: linear + whole vertical axis used (1)
Points correctly plotted square (1)
Smooth curve drawn [straight line for lowest 3 readings] (1)
(ii) Comment that points lie v close to [on] a smooth curve (1)
Suggestion that this implies repeatable results / less repeatability would
probably have more scatter / other appropriate comment. (1)
(iii) For low voltages the resistance is ~ constant (1)
[for higher voltages] the resistance increases with voltage.
[Note: 2(b)(iii) is not common to the two tiers the H-tier refers to
resistance and the F-tier equivalent refers to current.]
Attempt to use 2.5 A (1)
Use of P = VI with correct voltage (1)
Total power ~ 41 W (1)
11
3
2
3
12
Question
Details
3.
Correct shape of v-t graph, i.e. sloping upwards in a straight line from
(20,20) and becoming a straight horizontal line (1)
Graph becomes horizontal at (40,30) and the graph extends to (60,
30) (1) [ignore extensions beyond (60,30)]
change in velocit y
time taken
30 20
10
Acceleration =
or
(1) = 0.5 [m/s2] (1)
20
20
Area under graph approach:

Clear identification of area involved, i.e. the trapezium between 20
and 40 s in words or on graph (1)
Substitution into equation for area of triangle and area of rectangle
[or area of trapezium], i.e. 12 10 20 + 20 20 [or 12 (20 + 30) 20 ]
(1)
Distance travelled = 500 m. (1)
Alternative equation of motion approach:
(u + v )
Identification of relevant EoM, e.g. x =
t (1)
2
20 + 30
Substitution, e.g. x =
20 (1)
2
Distance travelled = 500 m (1)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Marks
Use of acceleration =
Question
Details
Marks
4.
Indicative content: Beta radiation is easily absorbed in the body. It can

kill cells, including cancer cells and can also induce cancers in healthy
tissue. Gamma radiation penetrates tissue, so can be detected outside the
body; it is much less effective at killing cells and also produces less
damage to healthy ones. The isotopes used need to have a short half life
to avoid long-term exposure to radiation. This is especially the case for
tracers. Iodine-123 is the only one which only emits gamma radiation
and it has a short half life, so it is useful as a tracer. The other three
isotopes could be used in thyroid cancer treatment but iodine-129 has a
very long half life [and iodine-125 has too short a half life] so that
iodine-131 is the most appropriate in radiotherapy for thyroid cancer
because it is a beta emitter with a short half life. [NB. No penalty for
suggesting I-128 is the most appropriate for the same reason].
0 marks

6
6
Question
Details
5.
235 U +
92
(a)
(b)
6.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(i)
Marks
1
0
n 9036 Kr + 14356 Ba + 2 01 n
or
1
0
n + 01 n
Ba and 2n [or n + n] shown (1)

Values of Z and A all corrct (1)
One mark is awarded for a correct and relevant statement of fact for each
of control rods and moderator [i.e. 2(1)].
2nd mark for each of control rods and moderator awarded only if the
candidate correctly and coherently links a second fact [2 (1)].
e.g. Control rods linked to absorption of excess neutrons (3) to keep the
energy output / temperature constant [however expressed as long as the
purpose is clear] (3).
Moderator linked to slowing down / thermalising neutrons emitted from
fission reactions (3) [when they collide with the moderator nuclei]
because slow neutrons are more efficient at initiating fission (3).
One mark is awarded for a correct and relevant statement of fact, e.g.
Counts from Rn-222 halve every 5 days (1) . . .
The second mark is only awarded if the candidate correctly and
coherently links a second point, e.g.
. . . so after a few weeks hardly any Rn-222 left [but count from C-14
unaffected] (1)
Activity of 600 [or 300] indicated on graph (1) with the time reading
indicated (1)
Half life in range 5600 5800 years (1)
Sensible method communicated of handling the decays beyond the

end of the graph (2), e.g. Reasonable attempt at continuing the decay
curve (3); smooth extrapolation passing through (17 100, 150) [and
(22 800, 75)] e.c.f. on half life (3)
[Alternatively: Communicating of looking on the existing graph at a
time of one half life before 160 (3) and 240 (3), i.e. 320 and 480
counts per week].
Range of ages: 13 200 200 (1) to 16 600 200 (1) [e.c.f. on half
life].
[If one answer given based upon 200 counts [14 700 200] then 2
max is awarded.]
Question
Details
7.
Indicative content: The equation, Kinetic energy = mv 2 , is stated

and used to show that the initial kinetic energy is 375 000 J*. The
relationship Word done = energy transfer is stated and applied to the
force exerted by the crumple zone and the energy transfer of 375 000 J
(e.c.f.). The equation: Work = Force distance
is used with the force of 480 000 N and 375 000 J (e.c.f) and
manipulated to show that the crumple distance is 0.78 m.
*NB 1. The initial kinetic energy does not need to be evaluated explicitly
for full marks the expression 1200 252 can be used throughout.
NB 2. The question implies but does not explicitly require this approach,
so candidates who proceed by calculating the deceleration, using F=ma
and then the distance travelled, e.g. using v 2 = u 2 + 2ax, will be assessed
in the same way as those applying work and energy concepts.
(a)
Marks

0 marks
(b)

One mark is awarded for a correct and relevant statement of fact .

The second mark is only awarded if the candidate correctly and
coherently links a second point., eg.
For crumple zone response: Work done is the same (1) so if F is
larger d would be smaller (1) [or accept calculation of F needed for
0.6 m crumple zone]
For car mass response: Less work needs to be done (1) ..because
kinetic energy is less (1)
ASSESSMENT GRIDS

Physics 2
FOUNDATION TIER
P2 Electricity, Forces and
Nuclear Physics
Question
Number
1
2. (a)
Target Totals for

Paper
Syllabus
Reference
3(b), (d)
AO1
AO2
AO3
24
24
12
(b)
3. (a)
HSW / 4(g)
(b)
4. (a)
(b) (i)
(ii)
5. (a)
3(b), 4(d), (g)
HSW
2(b)/HSW
1
1
6(b), (e)
6(g)
(c)
6(f)/HSW
2(a)
2(b), (c)
(b)
7. (a)
HSW
QWC
5
9
3
3
1
3
(b)
6. (a)
60
3
2
5(c), (d)
Total
Mark
6
3
5
(b) (i)
3(d),(e)
(ii)
8. (a)
5(e)
(b)
6(a)
9. (a)
(b) (i)
1(d)/HSW
(ii),(iii)
9
4
Raw Totals:
22
25
13
60

Physics 2
HIGHER TIER
P2 Electricity, Forces and
Nuclear Physics
Question
Number
1. (a) (i)
(ii)
(b)
Target Totals for

Paper
Syllabus
Reference
AO1
AO2
AO3
24
24
12
3(d), (e)
4
1(b), (g)
2(a)
2(b), (c)
4. (a)
5(e)
5. (a)
6(b)
(b)
6(d)
6. (a)
5(b)
(c)
5(a)/HSW
(b)
4 (c), (e), (g)

Raw Totals:
12
3
2
1
6
2
5(b)/HSW
(b)
7. (a)
11
1(d)/HSW
(ii)(iii)
(c)
QWC
(b) (i)
(b)
HSW
2. (a)
3. (a)
60
(c)
(c)
Total
Mark
2
3
9
9
4
2
2
22
26
12
60
Candidate Name
Centre Number
Candidate Number
0
GCSE
PHYSICS
PHYSICS 3: Electromagnetism, waves, kinetic theory and
nucleosynthesis
SPECIMEN PAPER
(1 hour)
page.

communication used in your answer to question 12(b).
Equations and Units

P = IV

E = Pt
% efficiency =
density =
mass
volume
frequency =
speed =

100
wavespeed
wavelength
f=
m
V
c
distance
time
change in velocity
time
a=
v
t
v = u + at where
x = 12 (u + v)t
resistance =
voltage
current
R=
V
I
p = mv
F = ma
force =
change in momentum
time

pressure =
force
area
F=
p
t
W = Fd
p=
F
A
v = final velocity
a = acceleration
t = time
x = displacement
Units
1 kWh = 3.6 MJ
T / K = / C + 273
SI multipliers
Prefix
p
Multiplier
1012
Prefix
k
Multiplier
103
109
106
106
109
103
1012

1.
The diagram shows the apparatus used for investigating the current produced when a wire
moves between the poles of a magnet.
When the wire moves down, the meter needle moves (deflects) to the left.
(a)
(b)
Complete the sentences by underlining the correct choice in the brackets.

(i)
The needle moves because a (voltage/current/resistance) flows through the

wire.
[1]
(ii)
The needle moves because as the wire moves down it cuts through (the air/a
magnetic field/an electric field).
[1]
(i)
State what happens if the wire moves down faster.
[1]
............................................................................................................................
(ii)
State what happens if the wire moves up between the poles.
[1]
............................................................................................................................
(iii)
State what happens if the wire is not moving between the poles.
[1]
............................................................................................................................
2.
(a)
When light is shone onto a glass block, some light will be reflected off the surface
and some will enter the block.
light ray
A
glass block
B
D
(i)
As light enters the glass block it changes direction. State the name of this
effect.
[1]
............................................................................................................................
(ii)
State which ray A, B, C or D, shows the correct path of the light inside the
block.
[1]
...........................................................................................................................
(b)
The diagrams below show what could happen to a ray of light as it travels from glass
towards air.
glass
block
glass
block
X
(i)
glass
block
In which diagram, X, Y or Z, does light hit the glass at the critical angle? [1]
..................................................................................................................
(ii)
In which diagram, X, Y or Z, does total internal reflection occur?

..................................................................................................................
[1]
3.
The diagram shows a model transformer.
In an experiment, the number of turns on the primary coil stays constant and it is connected to
12 V ac.
The number of turns on the secondary coil is changed and the output voltage is measured each
time.
The results are shown in the table.
Number of turns
in secondary coil
Output voltage
(V)
10
20
16
25
20
30
24
(a)
(i)
Use the results to plot a graph on the grid below.
[2]
Output voltage (V)
25
20
15
10
0
0
10
15
20
25
30
Number of turns on the secondary coil
(ii)
Use the graph to find the number of turns on the secondary coil that are
needed to produce an output voltage of 12 V.
[1]
Number of turns = ....................

(iii)
(b)
State the number of turns on the primary coil. .......................................... [1]
Give a reason why a 12 V dc supply would not give an output voltage.
[1]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
4.
Scientists work by making hypotheses and testing them.

Here is a list of some of the things they do. The list is not in the correct order.
Scientists evaluate their experiments.
Scientists analyse the results of their experiments.
Scientists make hypotheses about what goes on around them.
Scientists design and undertake experiments to test their hypotheses.
Scientists change their ideas when they get unexpected results.
Scientists notice what goes on around them.
Put this list of letters into the correct order in the boxes below.
Two boxes have been completed for you.
[3]
5.
The table below shows how the volume of a balloon depends on its temperature and pressure.
(a)
Volume (cm3)
Temperature (C)
Temperature (K)
Pressure (kPa)
360
27
300
100
600
227
500
100
300
227
500
200
Use the information in the table to answer the following questions.

(i) How is temperature converted from C into in K (kelvins)?
.........................................................................................................................................
(ii) State what happens to the volume when the temperature increases but the pressure
does not change.
.........................................................................................................................................
[2]
(b)
Give a reason why the pressure of a gas increases when the volume decreases and the
temperature stays the same.
[1]
.........
.........................................................................................................................................
6.
A car on a test track was brought to rest under a constant braking force. This was repeated at
different speeds.
The graph shows how the braking distance depends on the speed of the car.
Braking distance (m)
60
50
40
30
20
10
(a)
Use the equation t =
10
2x
u+v
15
20
25
30
Speed (m/s)
where x = braking distance

u = initial speed
v = final speed
t = time
together with data in the question to find the braking time for the car when travelling
at 15 m/s.
[3]
Braking time = . s
(b)
(i)
By looking at the braking distances for two different speeds find out what
effect doubling the speed has on braking distance.
[3]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(ii)
Give two variables which need to be kept the same to make this a valid test.
Explain your answers.
[3]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
7.
The universe contains many yellow and blue stars.

The blue stars are more massive than yellow stars. Our Sun is a yellow star.
List A below gives 5 other types of star found in the universe.
List B gives a description of how the 5 types were formed.
Draw a straight line from each star type to a correct description of how the star was formed.
One line has been drawn for you.
Draw 3 lines only.
[3]
List A
List B
This star is the first stage in the death of a yellow
star.
black dwarf star

This star is the final stage in the death of a blue
star.
red super giant star
This star is the second stage in the death of a
yellow star.
white dwarf star
This star is the first stage in the death of a blue
star.
red giant star
This star is the final stage in the death of a yellow
star.
8.
When a marksman fires a gun, the bullet is forced forward.
(a)
(b)
Underline the phrase in each bracket that correctly completes the sentence.
(i)
The force on the gun is (smaller than/the same as/larger than) the force on the
bullet.
[1]
(ii)
The gun (moves forwards / does not move / moves backwards).

The marksman notices that the gun moves much more slowly than the bullet.
Use the idea of momentum to explain why.
[1]
[2]
9.
The diagram shows the crests, A, B, C and D, of water waves travelling from shallow
to deeper water. At the boundary, the waves change direction.
The diagram is actual size.
A
shallow
water
D
boundary
wave
direction
deeper
water
(a)
Draw an arrow on the diagram to show the direction that the waves travel in the
deeper water.
[1]
(b)
(i)
Explain why the waves change direction at the boundary.
[2]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(ii)
By taking measurements on the diagram, state fully what happens to the

wavelength of the waves as they pass from shallow water into deeper water.
[2]
(c)
The speed of the waves in the deeper water is 5 cm / s. Calculate the frequency of the
waves.
[3]
Frequency = ..Hz
10.
The diagram shows the coil of a simple d.c. electric motor which is positioned between two
magnetic pole pieces.
rotation
M
South
North
L
(a)
Draw an arrow, labelled B, on the diagram to show the direction of the magnetic
field between the poles.
[1]
(b)
The coil is linked to the power supply via the commutator, C.

(i)
Add arrows to the coil to show the directions of the current in the wires LM
and NO.
[1]
(ii)
Explain how the arrangement makes the wire turn and keeps it turning in the
same direction.
[2]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
11.
(a)
P and S waves are two types of seismic waves produced by earthquakes. P waves are
longitudinal waves and S waves are transverse waves.
State the difference between longitudinal and transverse waves.
[2]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
(b)
The diagram shows the first seismic signals received from an earthquake at two
monitoring stations A and B.
(i)
How does the seismic data suggest that A is nearer the epicentre than B? [1]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(ii)
What evidence suggests P and S waves have travelled with different speeds
from the earthquake?
[1]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
12.
The diagram shows some soup being heated in a wooden-handled, copper-based saucepan.
(a)
In terms of heat transfer, explain why the labelled materials have been used in the
construction of the saucepan.
[2]
(b)
Explain, in terms of particles, how heat is conducted through the base of the saucepan
and it eventually heats up all the soup.
[6 QWC]
Candidate Name
Centre Number
Candidate Number
0
GCSE
PHYSICS
HIGHER TIER (Grades D-A*)
PHYSICS 3: Electromagnetism, waves, kinetic theory and
nucleosynthesis
SPECIMEN PAPER
(1 hour )
page.
communication used in your answer to questions 4(b) and 6(b).
Equations and Units

P = IV
E = Pt
Units used (kWh) = power (kW) time (h)

100
% efficiency =
density =
mass
volume
c = f

speed =
m
V
distance
time
v
t
v = u + at where
v 2 = u 2 + 2ax
x = ut + 12 at 2
change in velocity
time
a=
x = 12 (u + v)t
resistance =
voltage
current
R=
V
I
P = I 2R
p = mv
F = ma
force =
change in momentum
time
F=

kinetic energy =
= mass
KE = 12 mv 2
gravitational
field strength

primary coil turns
=
pressure =
force
area
p
t
W = Fd
massspeed 2
2
change in potential
energy
v = final velocity
a = acceleration
t = time
x = displacement
height
PE = mgh
V1 N1
=
V2 N 2
p=
F
A
pV
= constant
T
E = mc2
p = pressure
V = volume
Units
1 kWh = 3.6 MJ
T / K = / C + 273
SI multipliers
Prefix
p
Multiplier
Prefix
k
Multiplier
103
109
106
106
109
103
1012
10
12

1.
The diagram shows the crests, A, B, C and D, of water waves travelling from shallow to
deeper water. At the boundary, the waves change direction.
The diagram is actual size.
A
shallow
water
D
boundary
wave
direction
deeper
water
(a)
Draw an arrow on the diagram to show the direction that the waves travel, in the
deeper water.
[1]
(b)
(i)
Explain why the waves change direction at the boundary.
[2]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(ii)
By taking measurements on the diagram, state fully what happens to the

wavelength of the waves as they pass from shallow water into deeper water.
[2]
(c)
The speed of the waves in the deeper water is 5 cm / s. Calculate the frequency of the
waves.
[3]
Frequency = ..Hz
2.
The diagram shows the coil of a simple d.c. electric motor which is positioned between two
magnetic pole pieces.
rotation
M
South
North
L
(a)
Draw an arrow, labelled B, on the diagram to show the direction of the magnetic
field between the poles.
[1]
(b)
The coil is linked to the power supply via the commutator, C.

(i)
(ii)
Add arrows to the coil the show the directions of the current in the wires
LM and NO.
[1]
Explain how the arrangement makes the wire turn and keeps it turning in the
same direction.
[2]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
3.
(a)
P and S waves are two types of seismic waves produced by earthquakes. P waves are
longitudinal waves and S waves are transverse waves.
State the difference between longitudinal and transverse waves.
[2]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
(b)
The diagram shows the first seismic signals received from an earthquake at two
monitoring stations A and B.
(i)
What evidence is shown by the seismic data that suggests A is nearer the
epicentre than B?
[1]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(ii)
What evidence suggests P and S waves have travelled with different speeds
from the earthquake?
[1]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(iii)
The lag time between the arrival of the P and S waves for a seismic station
which is 100 km from the epicentre of an earthquake is 12 s.
Calculate the distance of monitoring station A from the epicentre of this
earthquake.
[2]
Distance = .................... km
4.
The diagram shows some soup being heated in a wooden-handled, copper-based saucepan.
(a)
In terms of heat transfer, explain why the labelled materials have been used in the
construction of the saucepan.
[2]
..
..
..
..
..
..
(b)
Explain, in terms of particles, how heat is conducted through the base of the saucepan
and it eventually heats up all the soup.
[6 QWC]
..
..
..
..
..
..
..
..
..
..
..
5.
A mobile phone charger has a transformer in its plug. It changes a 230 V input to a 5 V
output.
Iron core
Output
Input
230 V a.c.
from mains
(a)
Coil A
Coil B
5V
to mobile phone
Complete the explanation of how the transformer produces an output voltage from an
alternating voltage applied to Coil A.
[2]
The alternating input voltage produces an alternating current in Coil A. .
(b)
Coil A has 9200 turns.

Calculate the number of turns needed on Coil B.
[3]
Coil B = turns
6.
Our Sun is currently a Main Sequence star. Main Sequence stars produce energy by the
fusion of hydrogen into helium.
brighter
Red
Supergiants
X
B
Red Giants
larger
A
Sun
Main
Sequence
smaller
dimmer
White
dwarfs
C
BLUE
WHITE
YELLOW
RED
cooler
hotter
Temperature (C)
The bold line ABC shows the changes the Sun will undergo when it comes to the end of its
life.
(a)
Use the data in the diagram to state how the Main Sequence star X, on the diagram,
differs from our Sun.
[2]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
(b)
Describe the changes which will occur to the sun as it moves from the Main Sequence
to become a Red Giant. Your account should include changes to the size,
appearance and composition of the Sun and the causes of these changes.
[6 QWC]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................
(c)
Because it is radiating energy into space, the sun currently loses mass at the rate of
4 million tonnes every second.
Calculate the energy output of the Sun every second.
[3]
[1 tonne = 103 kg; speed of light = 3.0 108 m/s]
Energy output every second = ..J
7.
(a)
In an experiment to find the velocity with which a gun fires a bullet (the 'muzzle
velocity') a technician fires a bullet into a stationary target which is free to move. He
measures the speed of the target and the mass of the target before and after it has been
hit by the bullet.
before impact
after impact
bullet
1.80 m/s
bullet
target
mass = 2.000 kg
bullet + target
mass = 2.010 kg
Use the data on the diagram and the principle of conservation of momentum to show
that the velocity of the bullet before it hits the target is approximately 360 m /s. [3]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
(b)
The total kinetic energy of the bullet and target after the impact is approximately 3 J.
(i)
Calculate the kinetic energy of the bullet before it hits the target.
[3]
Kinetic energy = .................... J

(ii)
How do you account for the fact that the kinetic energy figures are not the
same?
[1]
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................
(c)
Suggest how the target can be made free to move and have its speed measured.
[2]
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
8.
(a)
Explain in terms of molecular motion, how a gas exerts a pressure on the walls of its
container.
[2]
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
(b)
The rear tyre of a mountain bike has a volume 1600 cm3. It needs to be pumped up to
a pressure of 4.0 105 Pa. The air to do this comes from the atmosphere which has a
pressure of 1.0 105 Pa.
A mountain biker uses a hand pump to pump up the tyre after repairing a puncture.
Every stroke of the pump takes 80 cm3 of air from the atmosphere and pushes it into
the tyre.
Assuming that the temperature of the air doesn't change, calculate how many strokes
of the pump are needed.
[4]
Number of strokes = ..
(c)
A cyclist makes two observations when pumping up a tyre:

(i)
The tyre becomes hot.
(ii)
It takes fewer strokes than calculated.
How does the first observation explain the second?
Answer as fully as you can.
[3]
.............
.............
.............
.............
.............
.............
.............
MARK SCHEMES

1.
Over-rigidity in the interpretation of the mark scheme is not intended and it is accepted that
points may be made in a variety of different ways including converse and counterpoints.
2.
Phonetic spelling is allowed except where there is a possibility that scientific terms might be
confused.
3.
When candidates list alternative answers to short answer questions, the general principle to be
followed is: right + wrong = no mark. In a question requiring a set number of responses, where
a candidate has supplied extra responses above the required number each error/contradiction
negates one correct response, however responses considered neutral are not penalised.
4.
The principle of error carried forward is generally applied where an incorrect value calculated
in one part of a question is treated as being correct for the purposes of subsequent parts.
5.
When marking calculations, substitution into an incorrect equation is not credited and hence
subsequent calculations within that section will score zero.
6.
Alternative answers are accepted even if not noted on the marking scheme as long as they are
appropriate, correct and valid in the context of the science. Note that, in many cases, specific
terms are a requirement. Any uncertainty about the acceptability of an answer is clarified by
consulting with a Principal Examiner or Team Leader.
7.
includes indicative content. This statement gives the outline of a good answer. Candidates
should generally cover most, if not quite all, of the points in the indicative content to achieve
the highest mark band on these questions and if candidates present alternative valid
approaches these are equally acceptable. The tests to be applied are coherence, which
is expressed well scientifically, as well as completeness and correct science at an appropriate
level.
8.

/
=
alternatives
e.c.f.
=
error carried forward
not
=
unacceptable answer(s)
allow
=
not an ideal answer but just accepted on this occasion
if qual(ified)
=
only acceptable as (part of) an answer if additional detail is given
or equiv
=
or equivalent point
reference to... =
these general ideas are required although they may be expressed
sequence
[..]
=
material in square brackets is either clarification or further material that
would be required for a full answer but is not required on this occasion

Foundation Tier
Question
1.
Details
Marks
(a)
(i) current
(ii) a magnetic field
1
1
(b)
(i) greater [left] deflection / bigger current

(ii) right deflection / reversed current
(iii) no deflection / no current
1
1
1
2.
(a)
(i) refraction [accept phonetic spelling not defraction or diffraction]

(ii) C
1
1
(b)
(i) Y
(ii) Z
1
1
3.
(a)
(b)
(i) plots division (1); line (1)

(ii) 15
(iii) 15
4.
DC does not produce a changing field [or equiv.]
F (1) [C] D(1) B(1) [A] E (1) [maximum mark = 3]

(a)
(b)
4
2
1
1
5.
1
5
3
3
(i) Add 273 [or equiv.] (1)

(ii) volume increases (1)
The number of collisions [with the container walls] per second goes
up because the molecules are closer together. (1)
3
3
Question
Details
6.
distance = 15 m [reading from graph] (1) [or by impl.]

Subst u, v, x into equation (1) [or by impl.]
t = 2 s (1)
(a)
(b)
Marks
(i) One braking distance found at a stated speed (1)

A second braking distance found at double (or half) the speed (1)
Doubling speed quadruples (accept: more than doubles) the braking
distance (1)
(ii) One mark can be awarded for giving one sensible control variable,
e.g. road surface, road condition (wet/dry), pressure on brake pedal
(1)
A second mark can be given if the candidate correctly and coherently
links to the given control variable, e.g.
Appropriate explanation of need to control, e.g. different surfaces,
produce different friction [between tyre and road] (1)
A third mark can be given if the second mark has been given and the
candidate gives a 2nd valid control (1).
7.
LHS
RHS
Box 1 Box 5 (1)
Box 2 Box 4 (1)
Box 4 Box 1 (1)
[Additional lines 1 per line; minimum mark 0]
8.
(a)
(b)
(i) the same as

(ii) moves backwards
3
9
3
3
1
1
The mass of the bullet is [much] less than the mass of the gun [or gun
and person] (1)
The second mark is given if the candidate correctly and coherently
links the mass difference to the velocity either by referring to the
principle of conservation of momentum or by referring to
momentum = mv [and applying conservation of momentum by
implication] (1)
Question
Details
9.
Arrow drawn sloping upwards to right at 90 (by eye) to the wave

crests (1)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Marks
(i) The first mark is given for stating that the waves speed up [when
entering the deeper water][or equiv.](1).
The second mark is awarded if the candidate correctly and coherently
links the statement that the lower end of the waves [or equiv.] speeds
up first/reaches the deep water first [and hence overtakes the top
end](1)
(ii) The wavelength increases [as the waves pass from shallow to deeper
water] (1) from 1 cm [0.05] [depends on printed size]
1.2 - 1.3 cm [depends on printed size] (1)
frequency =
=
(a)
(b)
11.
(a)
(b)
2
2
wavespeed
wavelength
5
(1) = 4 cm/s (1)
1.25 [e.c.f.]
3
10.
Direction indicated / field lines drawn from north to south poles (i.e.
indicated to the left)
(i) Current indicated LM and NO [Accept arrow heads on wires or
arrows next to wires]
(ii) The first mark is given for making a correct and relevant statement,
e.g.
currents in LM and NO opposite [and magnetic field in same
direction] so forces opposite / at 90 to coil [which makes the coil
turn].(1)
links a second statement, e.g
the current is always in same direction / away from observer in l-h
side of coil [and/or towards observer in r-h side of coil] or equiv. (1)
Longitudinal waves: medium / particles oscillate [accept move] in the
same direction as the wave travels *(1)
Transverse: medium / particles oscillate [accept move] at right angles
to the direction in which the wave travels *(1)
[*Statement about direction of travel of wave required at least once to
obtain both marks]
(i) The seismic waves [or P waves or S waves] arrive at A before they
arrive at B (1)
(ii) P & S waves do not arrive at the same time
8
1
1
2
4
2
1
1
4
Question
Details
12.
The first mark is given for making a correct statement about the
conducting properties of copper and wood, i.e.
Copper is a [very] good conductor and wood is a poor conductor (1)
links the properties of copper and wood to their use, e.g.
Copper base allows a rapid [accept: even] heat flow into pan [or
equiv.] (1)
Wooden handle [allows only poor heat flow so] protects the user [or
equiv.] (1)
(a)
(b)
Marks
Indicative content: Particles in the base pass on energy by collision.

Free electrons in the base pass on energy by colliding with metal ions /
atoms and losing kinetic energy. The liquid / soup at bottom of
saucepan expands because, as the molecules gain energy, they vibrate
more strongly and push one another apart, causing the liquid / soup
becomes less dense and rises carrying energy upwards in the liquid. The
cooler, denser liquid at the top moves to the bottom where it is heated in
its turn and rises this movement is called convection.
0 marks

6
8

Higher Tier
Question
Details
1.
Arrow drawn sloping upwards to right at 90 (by eye) to the wave

crests (1)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Marks
(i) The first mark is given for stating that the waves speed up [when
entering the deeper water][or equiv.](1).
links the statement that the lower end of the waves [or equiv.] speeds
up first/reaches the deep water first [and hence overtakes the top
end](1)
(ii) The wavelength increases [as the waves pass from shallow to deeper
water] (1) from 1 cm [0.05] [depends on printed size] to
1.2 1.3 cm [depends on printed size] (1)
5
(1) = 4 cm/s (1)
1.25 [e.c.f.]
(b)

(a)
wavespeed
frequency =
wavelength
=
2.
Direction indicated / field lines drawn from north to south poles (i.e.
indicated to the left)
8
1
(i) Current indicated LM and NO [Accept arrow heads on wires or

arrows next to wires]
(ii) The first mark is given for making a correct and relevant statement,
e.g.
currents in LM and NO opposite [and magnetic field in same
direction] so forces opposite / at 90 to coil [which makes the coil
turn](1)
links a second statement, e.g
The current is always in same direction / away from observer in l-h
side of coil [and/or towards observer in r-h side of coil] or equiv. (1)
Question
Details
3.
Longitudinal waves: medium / particles oscillate [accept move] in the

same direction as the wave travels *(1)
Transverse: medium / particles oscillate at right angles to the
direction in which the wave travels *(1)
[*Statement about direction of travel of wave required at least once to
obtain both marks]
(a)
(b)
(i) The seismic waves [or P waves or S waves] arrive at A before they
arrive at B (1)
(ii) P & S waves do not arrive at the same time
(iii)
71(1) 100
Distance =
= 590 km (1) [e.c.f. on clearly expressed time
12
delay]
[correct time delay from diagram (1), answer (1)]
Marks
2
1
1
2
6
4.
(a)
(b)
The first mark is given for making a correct statement about the
conducting properties of copper and wood, i.e.
Copper is a [very] good conductor and wood is a poor conductor (1)
links the properties of copper and wood to their use, e.g.
Copper base allows a rapid [accept: even] heat flow into pan [or
equiv.]
Wooden handle [allows only poor heat flow so] protects the user [or
equiv.] (1)
Indicative content: Particles in the base pass on energy by collision.

Free electrons in the base pass on energy by colliding with metal ions /
atoms and losing kinetic energy. The liquid / soup at bottom of saucepan
expands because, as the molecules gain energy, they vibrate more
strongly and push one another apart, causing the liquid / soup becomes
less dense and rises carrying energy upwards in the liquid. The cooler,
denser liquid at the top moves to the bottom where it is heated in its turn
and rises this movement is called convection.
0 marks

6
8
Question
Details
5.
The first mark is given for making a correct and relevant statement,
e.g. [Alternating voltage produces an alternating current in coil A]
which produces an alternating magnetic field in the core (1)
links a second statement to the first, e.g.
[The changing] field / flux links to / passes through coil B/secondary
coil [thereby inducing an alternating output voltage] (1).
(a)
(b)
Marks
V1
N
= 1 (1) [or by impl.]
V2 N 2
N1
5
(1)
Correct substitution e.g.
=
230 9200
Use of
Manipulation and answer N1 = 200 turns (1)

3
5
Question
Details
6.
X is Larger, brighter, hotter / higher temperature / bluer [accept

converse statements about the Sun]
Any 3 (2); Any 1 or 2 (1).
Incorrect statement 1 minimum 0.
(a)
(b)
Marks
Indicative content: Depletion of hydrogen in the core, as a result of

hydrogen fusion, and the build up of helium cause the core to shrink and
heat up. When the density and temperature of the core are high enough,
the fusion of helium to carbon commences. The energy released causes
an increase of radiation pressure which produces swelling of the outer
parts of the star. The star becomes much larger so that its surface
becomes cooler, redder and brighter.
0 marks
(c)

Use of E = m c2 (1) [or by impl.]

E = 4 109 (3 108)2 J (1) [Correct subst. + unit change]
= 3.6 1026 J (1)
3
11
Question
Details
7.
Mass of bullet = 0.01[0] kg [or by impl.] (1)

Equation written equating mv terms [even if incorrect](1)
0.010 v = 2.010 1.80 [or equiv] (1)
[v = 362 or 360 m/s ]
NB. The second marking point is required for the 3rd marking point to
be awarded.
(a)
(b)
(c)
8.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Marks
(i) KE = mv2 [or by impl.](1)

KE = 0.010 3622 [e.c.f.] (1) = 660 J (1)
[Accept use of 360 m/s, even without its derivation in part (a), which
gives 648 J]
(ii) Bullet does work against friction entering block [accept "lost as
heat"!]
3
1
Any reasonable design for freedom of motion e.g. target on wheels

on tracks, target on air track, or freely suspended target (1)
Any reasonable method of measuring speed, e.g. light gates and
timer, motion sensor (1)
[NB The classic plan is to suspend the target as a pendulum bob and
measure the post-collision speed by the subsequent rise in the bob
(in this case the rise would be ~ 0.16 m)]
2
9
The first mark is awarded for a correct and relevant statement, e.g.
gas molecules collide with walls of container (1)
The second mark is awarded if a candidate correctly and coherently
links a second statement with the first to explain gas pressure, e.g.
[Change of momentum of molecules in] collisions force on walls
[by N3] (1)
Use of pV = constant in any form (1); correct substitution (1)

Volume of atmospheric air = 6400 cm3 (1)
6400 (ecf)
No. of strokes =
= 80. (1)
80
or
Volume delivered by pump at [final] tyre pressure = 20 cm3 (1)
1600
= 80
No. of strokes =
20 (ecf)
The first two marks [2 (1) are awarded for two correct and relevant
statements arising from the 1st observation.
The 3rd mark is awarded if a candidate correctly and coherently links
the first two points to the second observation.
Either Molecules moving more quickly (1)
More frequent [or violent] collisions (1)
So pressure increases faster (1) [and fewer strokes needed]
p[V ]
Or
Use of
= constant (1)
T
T increases so p increases (1)
So pressure reached sooner(1) [and fewer strokes needed]
NB. All three points must belong to the same explanatory thread.
3
9
ASSESSMENT GRIDS

Physics 3
FOUNDATION TIER
P3 Electromagnetism, waves,
kinetic theory and nucleosynthesis
Question
Number
1. (a)
(b)
2.
Target Totals for

Paper
Syllabus Reference
1(d)
2(b)
AO1
AO2
AO3
24
24
12
3. (a) (i)
(ii)
(iii)
5.
4(b), (d)
1
3
3(b)/HSW
5(b)
(b)
6
3
2
3(d)
11. (a)
(b)
12. (a)
(b)
2
1
2(d), (e)
(c)
10.
9. (a)
(b)
1
3
8. (a)
QWC
9
1
HSW
7.
HSW
1(g), (h)
4.
(b)
3
2
(b)
6. (a)
60
3
1
Total
Mark
4
1
1(a),(c)
2(a)
2(f), (i)
4(g)
Raw Totals:
8
4
2
6
23
26
11
60
9
9

Physics 3
HIGHER TIER
P3 Electromagnetism, waves,
kinetic theory and nucleosynthesis
Question
Number
1. (a)
(b) (i) (ii)
Target Totals for

Paper
Syllabus Reference
3. (a)
(b) (i), (ii)
(iii)
4. (a)
AO2
AO3
24
24
12
2(d), (e)
1
1(a), (c)
2(a)
(b)
1(h)
6. (a)
5(b)
5(d), (g), (j)
(c)
5(i)
7. (a)
3(d)
9
9
4(f)
(b)
4(e)
(c)
4(e)/(f)
9
3
25
8. (a)
9
9
3
1
11
HSW
Raw Totals
5
2
(b)
3(e)
6
2
(c)
QWC
1(g)
(ii)
HSW
5. (a)
(b) (i)
60
2(f), (i)
4(g)
(b)
AO1
Total
Mark
(c)
2.
24
11
60
CONTROLLED
ASSESSMENT
Assessment area
GCSE Physics: Investigation

Mark
Awarded
Hypothesising &
planning / 12
Collecting, reviewing
& processing data / 12
Analysing & reviewing
procedure / 12
Analysing data &
concluding / 12
TOTAL / 48
Candidate Name ...............................................................................

Centre Name ......................................................................
Centre Number .. ...............
Declaration by candidate
I have read and understood the Notice to Candidates (GCSE and Principal Learning:
Controlled Assessments). I have produced the attached work without assistance other
than that which is acceptable under the scheme of assessment.
Candidate's name: ........................................................................................................
Candidate's signature: ...................................................
Date .................................
Declaration by teacher or lecturer

I confirm that:
1.
the candidate's work was conducted under the conditions laid out by the
specification;
2.
I have authenticated the candidate's work and am satisfied that, to the best of my
knowledge, the work produced is solely that of the candidate.
Teacher's name: ........................................................................................................

Teacher's signature: ...................................................
Year - SPECIMEN
Date .................................
Physics: Controlled Assessment

Investigating terminal velocity
When objects (including people) fall through the air, they accelerate until they reach a
maximum speed known as the terminal velocity. For a human being falling without a
parachute this can be more than 100 m/s. On the other hand people claim that a mouse
dropped on to a flat surface will never reach a high enough speed for the impact to be
fatal.
There are all sorts of factors we can investigate, e.g.
y
y
y
How does the size of an object affect its terminal velocity?

How does the mass of an object affect its terminal velocity?
How far does an object fall before it reaches terminal velocity?
You'll be able to think of several more possibilities.

PART 1 this part is not assessed
Before you do the assessed part of this controlled assessment you will consider the
third bullet point how far does an object fall before it reaches terminal velocity. Rather
than drop a man or a mouse, you will use more easily replaced objects and ones which
are easier to handle, such as paper or aluminium cake cases. There are also fewer
ethical issues with this approach!
Your teacher will introduce the investigation and divide up the measurements among
different people.
When you have taken the measurements, you should produce a brief report containing:
y
y
your results and those of other people

an analysis of your results.
Investigating terminal velocity

PART 2 this part is assessed
Now you are going to move on to investigate another question about terminal velocity. It
could be one of the first 2 bullet points in PART 1 or a different question.
You should
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
decide what question you are going to investigate you can discuss this with other
people, including others taking the assessment,
research the topic, e.g. by looking for information on the internet,
produce a hypothesis and give some background information which supports it,
produce a plan for undertaking the investigation you should use information from the
work in PART 1,
consider any risks associated with this investigation you may use the Risk
Assessment sheet for this.
You will do parts (c), (d) and (e) under supervision and without discussing it with anyone
apart from your teacher.
You should now proceed to carry out the investigation and write it up. You will be able to cooperate with other people in obtaining data but the report must be your own work.
When carrying out your investigation, you should review your method and change it if
necessary in the light of experience.
Report
Your report should include:
y your hypothesis, plan and risk assessment
a suitable presentation of all your results
y evaluations of the results and discussion of your findings
y conclusions and review of the hypothesis
y an evaluation of the investigation.
Risks
Ways of reducing risks
Hazards
GCSE Physics Risk Assessment
Teacher Guidance Notes

This controlled assessment task is in the context of sections 3 and 4 of the Physics 2
content, especially section 3(e). The task, including the preliminary work, is structured as
follows:
1.
Preliminary work. The candidates collectively investigate how far an object falls
before reaching terminal velocity. This is not assessed, but the experience of the
preliminary work and the results they obtain will be used to inform their planning for
the remaining part of the controlled assessment.
A possible approach to this preliminary work is to time light objects, e.g. cake cases,
as they fall from a series of different heights and to plot a graph of drop height
against time the distance fallen before terminal velocity is reached can be read off
the graph.
height
The work can be split up, some groups of candidates investigating a different mass
of object, e.g. using, say, 3 nested cases. Candidates can be given the opportunity
to exchange results so that the repeatability and reproducibility of the measurements
can be investigated. During this preliminary part of the controlled assessment,
candidates may seek and be given detailed advice.
2.
Collection of secondary data. As part of the planning process, the candidates

need to collect secondary data. These data can be used by the candidates in two
ways: to inform themselves about the repeatability and reproducibility of the data
which could inform their decision about the number of repeats; to provide some
evidence which may be of use in their hypothesising. The secondary data may also
be useful in their analysis / evaluation. The results of other candidates in the
preliminary work could be used and supervisors could provide a data set for the
candidates to search. It is important that the candidates select appropriate data
for themselves. Centres having difficulty in obtaining appropriate data which may
be used should contact WJEC.
3.
Research. This stage of the controlled assessment is carried out under a limited
level of control. Candidates may carry out some work in conditions not under the
supervision of the teacher. The candidates should be given the opportunity to do
some research which can involve internet searches and text books into the factors
which affect the magnitude of the terminal velocity. They should be encouraged to
relate this to the work they have done on air resistance and weight and resultant
forces. Supervisors may prepare materials for candidates to use in this research
phase. Copies of these materials should be included with the candidates' work.
Entering the phrase terminal velocity into a search engine produces a plethora of
websites, several of which are very useful and at an accessible level.
4.
Planning an investigation. This stage of the controlled assessment is carried out

under a high level of control, i.e. the candidates work individually. The candidates
use the results of their research and their preliminary work to plan an investigation
into one of the factors which may affect the terminal velocity of a falling object. They
should
Identify the variables which they intend to investigate
Identify variables which need to be controlled
Suggest a relationship between the dependent and independent variables
Give reasons for suggesting this relationship coming from their research and /
or their scientific knowledge
Give details of their planned procedure drawing on their experience of the
preliminary work, including the repeatability of the data achieved in it
Include a risk assessment.
Note that the plan need not be complete at this stage it can be modified in the light
of experience, e.g. in the light of experience of the repeat results. It is not anticipated
that the plans occupy more than 2 or 3 sides of A4. This stage of the controlled
assessment may take up to 2 hours of formally supervised time.
5.
Data acquisition. This stage of the controlled assessment is carried out under a
limited level of control; candidates with similar plans are allowed to work in groups.
Credit is available in the next phase of the controlled assessment for reporting
decisions made during data acquisition, e.g. modifying the method of fixing the
controlled variables or checking suspect results. It is anticipated that this stage of the
controlled assessment will take up to approximately 2 hours. During this stage,
feedback should be limited to clarification of the requirements of the assessment.
6.
Report writing. This stage of the controlled assessment is carried out under a high
level of control, i.e. the candidates work individually. The candidates present their
data appropriately, e.g. using tables, charts and graphs, chosen to allow the
hypothesis to be tested as rigorously as possible. Any decisions made during data
acquisition, including modifications to the plan should be presented with justification.
The report should include suitable analysis of the data and a conclusion relating to
the hypothesis. The extent and quality of the data should be explored alongside a
discussion on the degree of confidence in the conclusion.
This stage of the controlled assessment may take up to 3 hours. The extent of the
report, including tables and graphs, should occupy not more than 4 sides of A4.
During this stage, feedback should be limited to clarification of the requirements of
the assessment.
7.
Assessment. This stage of the controlled assessment is carried out under a

medium level of control. Supervisors use the WJEC marking criteria to assess the
report using a "best fit" approach.
Physics: Investigation
Marking Criteria
1.
The work of each candidate should be assessed in each of the following fields
1.
2.
3.
4.
Hypothesising and planning

Collecting, reviewing and processing data
Analysing and reviewing procedure
Analysing data and concluding
2.
The maximum mark in each assessment field is 12 and is subdivided into the
following bands:
0 marks, 1 3 marks, 4 6 marks, 7 9 marks, 10 12 marks
3.
The bands are hierarchical; however, a "best fit" approach should be adopted, i.e.
minor shortcomings at one level can be overcome by a candidate clearly meeting the
additional demands of a higher level.
4.
The demands of quality of written communication are incorporated into the criteria in
fields 2 and 4.
5.
Centres are required to annotate work to show which level is achieved in each field
and to indicate the evidence for the achievement of the level and position within the
level.
6.
The marks for each of the fields should be entered into the table on the controlled
assessment cover sheet and the authenticating declarations by the candidate and
teacher / lecturer signed and dated.
7.
A single mark out of 48 is submitted.

Mark
range
0
1-3
4-6
Description
Exemplification indicative assessment points
No evidence of planning is
presented.
Candidates work from a given
hypothesis and make a plan to
collect some relevant data without
necessarily controlling variables.
They take some account of safety in
their plan.
Working perhaps from a given simple hypothesis, e.g. heavier objects take a shorter time
to reach the floor, the candidates plan to do some or all of:
time an object (e.g. 1 or more cake cases) to fall from a height to the floor
time a heavier object to fall from a height (not necessarily the same height) to the
floor
repeat a reading at least once
work safely, e.g. mention a normal laboratory rule
Candidates make a simple

hypothesis relating the independent
and dependent variables. Plan
identifies independent and
dependent variables without
necessarily identifying controlled
variables explicitly. They identify
any significant hazards relating to
the investigation.
Candidates make a simple qualitative hypothesis, e.g. the heavier the object the faster it
falls or the heavier the object the shorter the time it takes to reach the ground. The
following points for credit relate to these hypotheses but candidates may use other
independent variables e.g. surface area [size] of object
Candidates
identify by implication the mass / weight of an object and the time to reach the ground /
[terminal] speed of falling as the variables to investigate
plan to measure descent from the same height if hypothesis expressed in terms of time
or to allow object to reach terminal velocity
plan to make timings for different masses
plan to repeat timings at least once
identify a hazard or make a case that there are no significant hazards

Mark
range
7-9
10-12
Description
Candidates make a hypothesis

relating the variables to be
investigated and discuss it in terms
of scientific knowledge or the results
of their preliminary research. Plan
identifies the variables which need to
be controlled and includes ranges
and intervals of variables and
appropriate numbers of repeats.
They use the experience of previous
work to produce a simple risk
assessment for the investigation.
In addition to the above, candidates

identify explicitly all significant variables, mass of object, size / area of object, shape of
object, terminal velocity [NB the hypothesis should be framed in terms of the terminal
velocity and not the time to reach the ground]
identify clearly the variables which need to be controlled [size / area and shape for the
above hypothesis and drop height if time, rather than terminal velocity is the
dependent variable]
relate the hypothesis qualitatively to concepts of drag / air resistance, weight and
resultant force or justify it in terms of experience of the preliminary work or research,
including secondary data
plan a range and intervals of the independent variable which should lead to a test of
the hypothesis [maximum value at least 4 times the minimum value and at least 5
different and reasonably spaced values]
plan to allow the falling object to reach terminal velocity before making measurements
plan to take at least three readings at each value of the independent variable or
justify why fewer are sufficient, e.g. from the preliminary work
produce a simple risk assessment for the investigation
Candidates additionally justify the

need to control specific variables in
terms of a valid investigation or
discuss the limitations of the
investigation where variables cannot
be controlled. They use the results
of scientific knowledge, preliminary
work and research to make a
hypothesis. They use the results of
preliminary work to inform details of
the plan, e.g. in terms of ranges and
number of repeats.

use their scientific knowledge of forces and motion to explain why named variables
need to be controlled
use the results of research to make a quantitative hypothesis, e.g. within the model
that drag is given by kAv2, predict the relationship between terminal velocity and mass
or area
indicate how they will test the hypothesis, i.e. what graph they will plot and how they
will judge to what extent the hypothesis is supported by the data
use the details of the preliminary work, including secondary data, to justify the number
of repeat readings required [in terms of the expected scatter of the individual readings]
and the distance required to reach terminal velocity

Mark
range
0
1-3
4-6
Description
No evidence of data collection is

presented.
Candidates work safely, collect data Working with due regard for safety, candidates
relevant to the investigation and
make a single relevant measurement of the dependent variable for one value of the
display collected data.
independent variable
measure the dependent variable for at least two different values of the independent
variable, without necessarily controlling other variables
present the measured values of dependent and independent variables not
necessarily in systematic form or with correct use of units
Candidates collect sufficient
relevant data which enables an
initial assessment of the validity of
the hypothesis to inform the plan.
They select simple forms and styles
of presentation of the data including
a simple table, graph, chart or
diagram which enables data to be
interpreted; they process some
data mathematically, e.g. by
averaging.

make measurements of the dependent variable for at least 3 widely spread values of
the independent variable
repeat a measurement of the dependent variable for at least one value of the
make enough measurements of the dependent variable to enable the supervisor to
make an initial judgement of the validity of the hypothesis
determine the mean value of the dependent variable, which could be the time of
descent rather than terminal velocity, for at least 3 values of the independent variable
produce a table of results for at least 3 values of the independent variable, not
necessarily including repeated readings of the dependent variable for all values of the
produce of graph of the dependent against the independent variable, which could be
time of descent rather than terminal velocity

Mark
range
Description
7-9
Candidates collect sufficient valid

data which enables them to make a
judgement on a simple hypothesis
and review details of the plan in the
light of results. Using standard
forms and styles of presentation
appropriate to the task, they display
data systematically, including
detailed graph or chart; they use
judgement in the selection and
mathematical processing of data
which they display appropriately.
Candidates
control all relevant variables and ensure that terminal velocity is achieved
they determine the terminal velocity from their time measurement
collect data from at least 5 widely spread values of the independent variable sufficient
to allow a judgement on a qualitative hypothesis, which should be in terms of terminal
velocity
display data, with units, in appropriate sequence in a table or tables
average, ignoring suspect values if appropriate
produce of graph of the terminal velocity against the independent variable with good
choice of scales and well labelled axes
comment on any changes to the details of the plan, e.g. number of repeats, in the light
of experience
10-12
Candidates collect sufficient highquality valid data which enables

them to make a good judgement of
a detailed hypothesis and they
discuss the sufficiency of the data,
reflecting upon the plan. They select
and effectively use high level forms
and styles of presentation
appropriate to the task; they
process data appropriately and
accurately producing a high-level
display of the data.
Candidates
produce data that are sufficient [in terms of spread of independent variable values and
variability of dependent variable values] to test a quantitative hypothesis
produce a clear table or tables of results and appropriately manipulated values, e.g.
values of v2 or m , with appropriate units
produce a graph, with good choice of scales and clearly labelled axes, which can be
used to test quantitative hypothesis, e.g. v2 against m
consider the sufficiency of the data

Mark
range
0
1-3
4-6
7-9
Description
No evidence of analysis or
reviewing presented.
Candidates make simple comments
about techniques in the procedure
and on the quality of the evidence
produced. They make a simple
statement referring to other data,
e.g. in the preliminary work or
research.
To be awarded credit, candidates,
make a low level statement about how the procedure was carried out, e.g. the
difficulty of timing, e.g. it was difficult to time it accurately
make a low level statement about how accurate they think the data are
statements are brief and non-qualified
Candidates make detailed, relevant

comments about techniques in the
procedure and use the spread/trend
of their raw data to comment on the
repeatability of the data produced.
They make a detailed statement
referring to other data, e.g. in the
preliminary work or research.
Candidates
make more detailed statements, e.g. it was difficult to time it accurately because the
cake cases fell so fast
make a statement referring to control variables
make a statement which refers to how spread out the data were, either the plotted
mean points or the individual readings for a particular value of the dependent variable
comment on how close different groups' results were in the preliminary work or how
the relationship fits in with their research
Candidates suggest changes to the

techniques in the procedure.
They justify improvements in terms
of the repeatability of the
measurements or justify an
assertion that no improvement is
necessary. They comment on other
data, e.g. in the preliminary work or
research.
Candidates
suggest a way of improving the evidence or show why the evidence does not need
improvement, e.g. using light gates [to improve accuracy] or the pattern in the graph is
clear and all the points lie on a smooth line [more evidence not needed]
make a statement indicating the extent to which it was possible to control variables,
e.g. the surface area of the cake cases was controlled well but sometimes there were
air draughts which could have affected the results
comment on how this investigation supports or contradicts the preliminary work and /
or the research, referring to the results of different groups

Mark
range
10-12
Description
Candidates discuss the limitations
of the investigation. They relate the
outcome of the investigation with
information discovered in the
candidate's research, making a
detailed comparison.

Candidates, additionally,
examine the repeatability and/or reproducibility [from the preliminary work] and
discuss to what extent the data support the conclusion
justify in detail the control of variables, e.g. the confidence that terminal velocity had
been reached, or the difficulty of doing this.
discuss in detail to what extent the data are in line with the initial research

Mark
range
0
1-3
4-6
Description
No relevant analysis or conclusion

presented.
Candidates make a simple, relevant
statement about the data, possibly
identifying some trends or patterns
in the data. The presentation may
have major inaccuracies of spelling,
punctuation and grammar; little use
of scientific vocabulary
To be awarded credit, candidates,

may analyse data and review using unscientific terms, lack of units, in incomplete
sentences and in a way which requires the assessor to search for relevant points
make a correct statement referring to the data which may be about one value of the
dependent variable, e.g. one cake case took *** seconds to fall
make a correct statement referring to at least two values of the dependent variable
without necessarily referring to a trend
Candidates
Candidates give a detailed,
accurate description of the trends or analyse data and review using basic scientific terms, express quantities with their
patterns in the data relating the
units and write in simple sentences which may not be accurately constructed
trends to information discovered in
make a simple statement linking the variation of the dependent variable varies with
the candidate's research. The
that of the independent variable, e.g. the greater the mass [or the greater the number
presentation has inaccuracies in
of cake cases] the higher the terminal velocity [or the quicker (sic) it falls]
spelling, punctuation and grammar;
use of scientific vocabulary is
limited.

Mark
range
7-9
10-12
Description
Candidates identify the

relationship(s) between variables
revealed in the data, relating this to
the hypothesis. They make a
comparison of the outcome of the
investigation with information
discovered in the candidate's
research. The presentation has no
major inaccuracies in spelling,
punctuation and grammar; use of
scientific vocabulary is good.
Candidates
analyse data and review using basic scientific terms, express quantities with their
units and write in simple sentences with no major inaccuracies in construction
make a qualitative but detailed statement linking the variables, e.g. the heavier the
object, the greater the terminal velocity , but the velocity is not proportional to the
mass as the mass increases the increase in velocity becomes less
comment on the extent to which the relationship supports the hypothesis
comment on how this investigation supports or contradicts the research
Candidates produce a valid

conclusion from the data collected.
They discuss the extent to which the
data support the hypothesis
(including whether an alternative
hypothesis is supported). They
discuss the extent to which
more/improved quality of the data
would improve their confidence in
the conclusion. The presentation
has good spelling, punctuation and
grammar; use of scientific
vocabulary is appropriate and of a
high standard.
Candidates, additionally,
analyse data and review in scientific terms, express quantities with their units and
write accurately in clear sentences
make a quantitative conclusion relating the independent and dependent variable, or
show that the expected quantitative relationship is not supported by the data, e.g. I
expected the terminal velocity to be proportional to the square root of the mass but it
wasn't because..
consider whether a different conclusion is also supported by the data, e.g. it looks as
though the terminal velocity is proportional to the square root of the mass but the
scatter of the points means that the terminal velocity and mass might be proportional
[with backing up]
discuss in detail to what extent the data are in line with the initial research

GCSE Physics
As percentage of the controlled

assessment
Marks for the controlled
assessment
AO1
AO2
AO3
Total
Mark
HSW
QWC
18.75%
25%
56.25%
100%
12
27
48
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GCSE in PHYSICS Specimen Assessment Materials 5

GCSE in PHYSICS Specimen Assessment Materials 6

Equations and Units

energy transfer = power time

units used (kWh) = power (kW) time (h)

wave speed = wavelength frequency

acceleration [or deceleration] =

momentum = mass velocity

resultant force = mass acceleration

work = force distance

primary coil voltage

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Answer all questions

List A gives three energy sources used to generate electricity.

Affects river estuaries and

10% lost as heat in

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Background radiation is all around us.

Some rocks on earth are radioactive.

Background radiation is completely harmless.

Background radiation will kill us.

Why do you think the numbers are different?

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The diagram shows part of the National Grid.

At B, a . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . increases the voltage.

Increasing the voltage makes the . at C smaller.

At D, the voltage is decreased using a . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(ii) Why is the voltage reduced at D for use in homes?

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Two similar cans contain equal amounts of paraffin.

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A student wrote the following conclusion for this experiment.

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The statements below are about microwaves.

Microwaves are not as fast as sound.

The scientist makes an observation.

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The table gives data on four planets in the Solar System.

Distance from the Sun

Time for one orbit

Explain your answers.

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Use information from the graph and the equation

wave speed = .............................m/s

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Use the equation

Would 10 m waves arrive before or after the 40 m waves?

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Fuel consumption ( l / 100 km)

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What type of radiation passes through 1 cm of lead? ............................

Explain your answer.

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