Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Car Question Questions1
Car Question Questions1
7. It is the responsibility of operator to inform what authority when aircraft suffer major
damage or defect:
1. DGCA. 2. RAO/Sub-RAO
3. Q.C.M. 4. All above are correct..
8. The information to RAO by operator about major damage will contains information:
1. Extent of damage. 2. Nature of defect.
3. Circumstances which caused the damage. 4. All the above.
9. The suspended C. of A.:
1. Will be revalidated up to the date of the previous currency of C of A had remain valid,
if it had not been suspended. 2. Will be revalidated for another year.
3. Can not revalidated 4. None of the above,
10. As condition for revalidation of C. of A., the Airworthiness Officer requires aircraft/aircraft component
modified, repaired, replaced under supervision of:
I. R.A.O. 2. A.M.E./Authorized Person
3. Quality Control Manager 4. Inspector Incharge.
11. The owner/operator submit aircraft for Inspection, during Repair, Modification & Overhaul to:
1. DGCA 2. Approved Organisation
3. Airworthiness Officer, 4. Q.C.M.
12. Suspended C of A can revalidated for One year after completion of Modification, Repair,
Maintenance:
1. When Modification, repair carried out by an AMO under supervision of DGCA
2. Only if additional work is carried pout with renewal of C. of A. referred ion CAR
series F Part IV.
3. 1 & 2 both are correct. 4. None of the above.
13. CAR Sec .II Series F Part. VI deals with:
I. Continuous Airworthiness Maintenance programme.
2. Airworthiness of Ageing Aircraft. 3. Inspection of Wooden aircraft.
4. Rebuilding of Aircraft.
14. The requirement regarding use of materials to be used during manufacturing of aircraft
are prescribed in Rule:
1. 50 and 50 A. 2. 51 &51 A.
3. 52and52A. 4. 53&53A.
15. Which Rule empower DGCA to issue/renew or revalidate C of A:
1. 50. 2. 51, 3. 52. 4. 54.
16. CAR Series F Part VI laid down requirements for rebuilding of Aircraft:
1. Which was damaged 2. Purchased as wreckage from Insurance companies.
3. Purchased Parts/Spares from abroad. 4. All the above.
17. What type of aircraft will permit to rebuilt:
I. Which were earlier type certified & flown with C of A.
2. Have sufficient data regarding maintenance, performance standard.
3. 1 & 2 both are correct. 4. Have special permission from DGCA.
18. CAR Series F covers the aircraft for rebuilding:
1. Unpressurised with AUW 3000 kgs. & below.
2. Unpressurised with AUW more than 3000 kgs.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Unpressurised aircraft having AUW less than 5700 kgs.
19. The owner/person apply to DGCA through RAO for registration of Rebuild the aircraft
will submit:
1. Survey report indicating detail of parts 2. Fees.
3. Details of source of procurement of parts. 4. All the above.
20. Upon receipt pf application & all documents for registration of Rebuilt the aircraft.
The RAO will issue a:
1. Certificate of Registration for One year. 2. Temporary C of R. for one year.
3. Special Registration for One year. 4. None of the above.
21. The temporary C. of R. can be extended, in some exceptional cases, for a period of:
1. 18 months. 2. Two years,
3. Three years 4. an not extended.
22. Permanent registration of rebuilt aircraft will allowed only when constructor forwards a
certificate duly certified by:
I. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. C.
2. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. D.
3. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. B.
4. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. X.
23. Each rebuilt aircraft will have to be assigned a serial number by Constructor which is
normally assigned on:
I. Wings. 2. Fuselage.
3. Identification Plate. 4. None of the above.
24. The constructor, before assembling, the aircraft must ensure that:
I. Parts purchased are genuine 2. Proper history of the parts.
3. The fuselage has dc-registered from the country in which it was previously registered.
4. All the above.
25. The aircraft parts used for rebuilding should be strip inspected/overhauled which
are stored:
1. More than 5 years. 2. More than 6 years
3. More than 7 years. 4. More than 8 years.
26. The Fuselage imported from outside the country used for rebuilding of aircraft should have:
1. Proper history. 2. Export C of A.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Certificate given by RAO.
27. The Test Flight of Rebuild aircraft carried out b y:
1. Pilot having PPL. 2. Pilot having CPL
3. Pilot in Command 4. Chief Instructor of Flight.
28. In case original aircraft was issued with an approved Flight Manual, the constructor will produce a copy
of the same & procedure evidence of that, it is updated to:
1. DGCA 2. Q.C.M.
3. R A O. 4. Pilot in Command.
29. The DGCA will refuse to issue of C. of A. & C opfR, if owner/constructor not able to
produce:
1. Sufficient evidence regarding genuineness of Parts.
2. Use of correct assembling Techniques.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Approved Flight Manual.
30. CAR Series F Part VII deals with:
1. Special Flight Permits. 2. Inspection of wooden Aircraft.
3. Approval of flight Manual & their Amendments
4. Continue Airworthiness Maintenance Programme.
31. No person can not operate the aircraft possessing suspended C. of A., stated by Rule:
1. 59 Sub Rule 3. 2. 57 Sub Rule 3
3. 56 Sub Rule III 4. 55 Sub Rule III.
32. Issue of a Special Flight permit to an Aircraft with a suspended C. of A. in light of:
1. Sub Rule IV of 55. 2. Sub Rule 3 of 55
3. Sub Rule II of 55. 4. Sub Rule 1 of 55.
33. Special Flight Permit are given when:
1. It is essential for aircraft top dispatch to base for Mod./Inspection/AD are to be performed.
2. When aircraft have to flown for experimental/Test Flight.
3. If aircraft is otherwise safe to conduct intended operation.
4. All the above.
34. Special permits are not required in case of Test Flight for Renewal of C. of A. & if C. of A. is expired, AME
after appropriate maintenance task & test Release a:
1. Certificate of Maintenance for Test Flight.
2. Temporary C. of A. for Test Flight.
3. Certificate of Fitness for Test Flight.
4. None of the above.
35. For what purpose the special Flight permits are given:
1. Test Flying a production aircraft. 2. Flight for special purpose
3. Evacuation of aircraft opr passengers from area impending danger. 4. All the above.
36. For special Flight permit the owner/operator shall have to sub mit:
1. An applicatyion as per Annexure A. 2. An application as per Annexure B.
3. An application as per Annexure C. 4. An application as per Annexure D.
37. The Application of Special Flight permit shall concurred & signed by:
1. Engineering & Operational deptt. of operator.
2. Engineering & operational Deptt. of A.M.O.
3. Engineering & Operational deptt. of ICAO.
4. Engineering & Operational deptt. of Airworthiness Office.
38. The Report sent along with an application for Special Flight Perm it to RAO will consists
information:
I. Detailed condition of aircraft. 2. Steps taken for its safety.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Age of aircraft.
39. In case aircraft sustains damage/defect outside of country the application for ferry flight shall be submit
to:
I. Office of main station. 2. Office where aircraft is based.
3. l&2both 4. DGCA.
40. As for as possible the initial; climb should not be over:
1. Sea 2. Thickly populated area.
3. Outside country 4. Poles.
41. A copy of special flight permit must be carried:
1. On board the aircraft. 2. In maintenance system.
3. In Flight manual. 4. In organisation.
42. Who is responsible to ensure the safe flight for intended operation:
I. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. Owner/Operator 4. A.M.O.
43. Special flight permit is valid till:
I. For One year 2. Six months
3. Arrival of aircraft at destination or specific date 4. One day.
44. After reaching aircraft at base the operator shall submit a copy of report, to authority who had
issued Special Flight Permit, will contains information:
I. Any abnormality encountered during flight.
2. Action taken at base to render aircraft airworthy.
3. Result of Test Flight & any other information deemed necessary.
4. All the above.
45. The application of Special Flight Permit will be signed by:
I. D.G.C.A. 2 .A.M.E
3. Manufacturer 4 QCM
57. From approved schedule
1. No item can be deleted with prior approval of D.G.C.A
2. But addition to schedule may effected
3. Both a & b
4. The schedule once approved there will no change in that
58. The maintenance work carried out on a/c shall be certified
I. In relevant log book 2. In a/c register
3. In A/C manual 4. In maintenance system manual
59. The maintenance work recorded and signed and dated in relevant log book with in
1. 24 Hours 2. 48 Hours
3. 72 Hours 4. 96 Hours
60. If the log book not available one copy of log book entry should be kept in
1. Aircraft log book 2. MEL
3. Journey log book 4. Radio log book
61. Certificate of flight release is given by
1. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. D.G.C.A. 4. AMO
62. The issuance of FRC will implies that al maintenance work is concerned out in approved
manner and alc is safe for flight provided
1. All approved lower inspection schedule carried out
2. A/C is satisfactory loaded
3. Both a & b
4. A/C have sufficient crew
63. The FRC in respect of a/c categorized as passenger! mail cargo operating schedule Air
transport service
1. The validity of FRC shall approved by D.G.C.A.
2. Certification of inspection shall be carried out by AME/ attendant person
3. Both a & b
4. Specially inspected by AMO
64. For a/c seating configuration up to 19 when away from base with maximum payload capacity
2 tones inspected without snag rectification by
I. Basic licensed holder approved 2. An approved Pilot
3. AMO 4. Both a & b
65. The transmit inspection of a1c having passenger seating capacity more than 19 and with
payload capacity more than two tons away from base by
1. An AME! approved person 2. Basic licence holder
3. Approved pilot 4. All of above
66. The transmit inspection without snag rectification of turbo prop a/c having passenger seating
capacity up to 75 with maximum payload 5 tons by when a/c away from base
I. Approved licensed person 2. Approved Pilot
3. l3otha&b 4. AMO
67. A/C having MTOW more than 5700 Kg a/c categories in mail/cargo non scheduled Category with more
91. A damage caused to a metal structure characterized by initiation of the crack subsequent
propagation and as a result of continuous process whose effect is cumulative with respect
of aircraft usage is term as:
1. Accidental damage 2. Environmental damage
3. Fatigue damage 4. Multiple site damage.
92. Test flight of aged aircraft is carried out every/any:
1. Any time as required by DGCA 2. Six months
3. Both 1 and 2 4. One year.
93. All major defects should be reported to DGCA:
I. Every month 2. With in 12 Hrs.
3. Promptly 4. After rectification.
94. Design economic life for airbus is:
1. 25 Years 2. 15 Years.
3. 20 Years 4. None of the above.
95. In duplicate inspection, first inspection is carried out on the aircraft for flying controls by:
1. Any person 2. Trainee technician
3. AME in category A/B 4. None of the above.
96. The subject inspection of wooden aircraft is resisted with:
1. Series D, Part-Ill 2. Series D, Part IV
3. Series F, Part-XII 4. Series F, Part-XIII.
Series F Part-IX, X, XI, XII
97. Schedule maintenance includes the following work:
1. Replacement of life limited items
2. Heavy landing schedule
3. Lighting strike schedule
4. All are correct.
98. Unscheduled maintenance includes the following work
1. Special inspections such as X-rays.
2. Replacement of lifed components
3. Heavy landing schedule
4. All are correct.
99. Ageing aircraft require more frequent inspection of structural components for damage
due to:
1. Environmental deterioration. 2. Accidental damage
3. Fatigue 4. All are correct.
100. To ensure structural integrity of ageing aircraft, manufactures have issued:
1. SSIP 2. CPCP
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct 4. None of the above.
101. The owner/operator shall inform RAO/sub-RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance
about the commencement of the entire inspection schedule:
1. Of 100 Hrs. and above 2. Of over elOO Hrs.
3. Of over 300 Hrs. 4. All are correct.
102. Regional airworthiness officer may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection
schedules and TBOs of components up to a maximum of or
1. 10%, 50 Hrs. 2. 3%, 3 Months
3. 3%, 50 Hrs. 4. None of the above.
103. All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of
years:
1. One 2. two 3. Five 4. Ten.
104. Damage due to environment in the form of corrosion and stress corrosion is:
1. Environment damage 2. Corrosion damage
3. Fatigue damage 4. Accidental damage.
105. Ageing aircraft are these, which have completed there:
1. Technical life 2. Service life
3. Designed service life 4. Designed economic life.
106. Multiple site damage is:
1. Five or more dents on one site.
2. Five or more crakes on one site which lick up into a longer crack.
3. Fatigue crack at number of fasteners, which stand to link up into longer cracks.
4. All are correct.
107. Damage to an aircraft can be termed as accident damage if it is caused due to:
1. Environmental factors like corrosion
2. One aircraft hitting another aircraft
3. Wrong handling of ground equipment during routing inspection
4. None of the above.
108. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
1. Any CPL holder
2. Flight engineer whose Licence is endorsed for the aircraft
3. Specially authorized person
4. Both l and 2 are correct.
109. If control systems are disturbed after the second check, but before first flight.
I. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again
2. Distorted portion should be checked by second person only
3. Complete portion should be checked by second
4. Complete portion should be checked in duplicate again.
110. Series F Part-XII deals with:
1. Inspection of wooden aircraft
2. Duplicate inspection of flying controls
3. Duplicate inspection of engine controls
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
111. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation
of C of A and thereafter every year
1. One 2. Two 3. Five 4. Ten.
112. Factor causing wood deterioration is:
1. Chemical action of glue due to ageing
2. Mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage
3. Growth of fungus
4. All are correct.
113. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
especially prone to:
1. Timber shrinkage 2. Glue deterioration
3. Both A and B are correct 4. None of the above.
114. Weather proofing quality of fabric covering is affected by:
1. Long exposure to inclement weather conditions.
2. Exposure to strong sunlight
3. Atmosphere air
4. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
115. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
2. Identical length but one gauge larger
3. Slightly longer length
4. Slightly longer length and one gauge larger.
116. Compression failure of wooden structures generally occurs due to:
1. Over tightening 2. Shock loads
3. Rupture across the wood fibers 4. All are correct.
117. At present SSID have been issued for:
1. B 200 C, C 90 A, B737 2. A35, B55, C90 A.
3. B737, B747, HS 748 4. J 3C, PA 12, FA 152.
118. Design economic life of airbus is years.
1. Ten 2. Twenty years
3. Thirty 4. fifty.
119. Design economic life of Douglas F-27 and HS-748 is years:
1. Twenty 2. Thirty
3. Fourty 4. Fifty
127. RAO can authorized a person to carried out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person was at least 3
years general maintenance experience and months experience
on the type of aircraft involved.
I. Three 2. Six
3. Nine 4. None of the above.
128. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is at base, is carried out by:
1. Approved person in an approved organization.
2. Flight engineer
3. Quality control manager
4. Aircraft maintenance engineer.
129. If control system is distributed after the second check, before first flight:
1. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again 2. Disturbed portion should be checked by second
person
3. Complete portion should be checked by second person only
4. Complete portion should be checked induplicate again.
130. F-XII deals with:
1. Inspection of wooden aircraft
2. Duplicate inspection of flying controls
3. Duplicate inspection of engine controls
4. None of the above.
131. Factor causing wood deterioration is:
1. Growth of fougue
2. Mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage
3. Chemical action of give due to ageing
4. All are correct.
132. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A and
the thereafter every years:
1. One 2. Two
3. Five 4. Ten.
133. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
especially prone to:
1. Timber shrinkage 2. Glue deterioration
3. Both 1 and 2. 4. None of the above.
134. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A and
thereafter every years:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Ten.
135. Weather proofing quality of fabric covering is affected by:
1. Long exposure to inclement whether condition
2. Exposure to stooge sunlight
3. Atmosphere air
4. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
136. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
2. Identical length but one gauge larger
3. Slightly longer length
4. Slightly longer length and one gauge longer.
137. Compression failure of wooden structure generally occurs due to:
1. Over tightening 2. Shock loads
3. Rupture across the wood fibers 4. All are correct.
138. F-XIII deals with
1. Construction of gliders and their maintenance
2. Inspection of wooden aircraft
3. Rebuilding of aircraft
4. Registration making on aircraft.
139. All gliders must process:
1. Type certificate 2. As in A plus C of A
3. As in B plus peaty to fly 4. None of the above.
140. If loop test is not carried out during test flight of a glider, then its C of A:
1. Will not be renewal 2. Will not be renewed in any case
3. Will not be renewed temporarily 4. Will be renewed provided the
Glider is suitably pay carded that
Loop maneuvers are prohibited
141. C of A for glider is not renewed if following that are not carried out:
1. Stall/spin 2. Loop
3. Both land2. 4. Either lor2.
142. Application for issue/renewal of C of A glider is made on:
1. Prescribed form 2. Appropriate form
3. Either lor2 4. CA25.
143. All gliders shall be equipped with:
1. Vorimeter 2. RPM indicator
I. Triplicate 2. Duplicate
3. A copies 4. None of the above.
185. The load /trim contain:
1. Weight schedule 2. C.G.
3. AVW 4. All of the above.
1 86. A group of characters affixed on aircraft surface to identify the country to which the
aircraft belongs is called:
1. Nationality mark 2. Common mark
3. Registration mark 4. Both I and 2.
187. Disputes with regard to the legal ownership of aircraft is decided by:
1. DGCA Head Qtr. 2. RAWO
3. AWO 4. court of law.
188. Detailed requirements for registration of aircraft are as per:
1. Aircraft rule 1937 2. ICAO Annex 7
3. CAR Series F Part-IV 4. Both 1 and 2.
189. Legislation with regard to registration of aircraft is described in:
I. Rule 30 of 1937 2. Rule 25 to 30 of 1937
3. Rule 30 to 37A of 1937 4. Rule 38 to4l of 1937.
190. Any aircraft supported chiefly by buoyancy in the air is:
1. Lighter than air aircraft 2. Heavier than air aircraft
3. l3oth I and 2 4. None of the above.
191. Application for registration of aircraft is put on:
1. CA 28 2. CA 25
3. CA 3O 4. CA 23.
192. If an aircraft is sold to another person or company it should he notified to DGCA as per:
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 32 A
3. Rule 33 4. Rule 37 A.
193. Until the certificate of registration is not granted to the new owner, aircraft:
1. Shall not be law full to fly
2. Assist in flying by any person
3. Can fly with written permission of DGCA
4. All above are correct.
194. An aircraft brought from out side by air, temporary certificate of registration:
I. Valid only up to first reaching at custom aerodrome in India.
2. Should he surrendered to DGCA.
3. Should have the aero mobile station Licence.
4. All above are correct.
195. The following registration marking can be granted to an aircraft:
1. VT-SOS 2. VT-XXX
3. VT-TTT 4. None of the above.
196. Certificate of registration is valid up to:
I. One year 2. Two years.
200. The registered owner may apply for cancellation of registration under the clause of:
1. Rule 30 of 1937 2. Rule 33A of 1937
3. Rule 37 A o f1937 4. None of the above.
201 . [)GCA may cancel the registration of aircraft if:
1. Aircraft has been destroyed 2. Permanently with drawn
3. Registration is due to false statement 4. All above are correct.
202. A register of all aircraft registered in India is to be maintenance by DGCA as required
by rule:
1 31 of 1937 2. 33 of 1937
3. 36 of 1937 4. 37 A OF 1937.
203. The registration marks on the un-manned free balloons shall be affixed on:
I. Left side 2. Right side
3. Right and left side 4. Identification plate.
204. On multi vertical tail surfaces aircraft the registration marks shall appear on:
1. Both the sides of tail surfaces
2. On inner sides of tail surfaces
3. On the out board sides of the outer surfaces
4. Not required any where as per series.X
PREPRATORY A M E EXAMS
C A R Series H, PART I III
1. CAR Series H Part I deals with:
1. Unusable fuel supply. 2. Calibration of fuel quantity gauge of A/c.
3. Calibration of fuel quantity gauge of helicopter 4. All are correct.
2. The quantity of unusable fuel in most cases, is included in the appropriate:
1. Flying manual 2. Quality Control Manual
3. Cockpit Checklist. 4. Emergency checklist.
3. Certain quantity of fuel in an aircraft will not be available for use because of:
1. Shape of the tank. 2. Location of tank.
3. Both 1 & 2 are correct. 4. None of the above.
4. Unusable fuel is the quantity of fuel supply remaining in each tank and not available is the
engine under the most adverse feed condition in
1. Intended flight maneuvers. 2. Any flight condition.
3. Stabilized cruise condition. 4. Both I & 3 are correct.
5. The unusable fuel quantity for each tank must be established:
1. Every overhaul 2. Every C of A.
3. Certificate of Aircraft. 4. All are correct.
6. Fuel gauges shall be calibrated at Zero-datum with:
1. 5 liters fuel 2. 10 liters fuel
3. Nil fuel 4. Unusable fuel
7. A fuel quantity gauge is calibrated on the following occasions:
1. Every C of A. 2. Time of Installation
3. Near Major Check 4. All are current.
8. The quantity of unusable fuel shall be deemed to be part of:
1. Empty weight of aircraft 2. Total weight of aircraft
1. Payload weight of aircraft 4. None of the above.
9. Properly calibrated dipstick has to be carried on board with:
1. Every helicopter 2. Every light aircraft.
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
10. Aircraft fueling procedure is laid down in:
1. CAR series H Part I 2. CAR Series H Part III
3. IAR25A 4. Noneoftheabove.
11. Fueling means dispensation into an aircraft of:
1. Aviation Fuel 2. Fuel & Power boost fluids
3. Fuel & Oils 4. Both 1 & 2
12. Fueling Zone is regarded as the area extending meters radially from the aircraft fuelling
point:
1. 25 2. 15
3. 10 4. 6
13. Fueling of an aircraft shall be done under the supervision of a person:
1. Nominated by operator 2. Specifiel in Q C M
3. Approved by DGCA 4. Both! & 2
14. While placing the refueling equipment near aircraft, the approach followed shall be:
1. Oblique 2. Perpendicular to fuselage.
3. Straight 4. Both 1 & 2
3. 20 meters. 4. 30 meters.
17. Whenever wing fueling is employed, the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded to:
1. Fuelling equipment 2. Fuelling equipment before filling cap is removed.
3. Aircraft structure before filling cap is removed. 4. None of the above.
18. Before transfer of fuel into aircraft begins, it must be ensured that Fire Extinguisher are availabk
of:
1. Adequate capacity & approved type. 2. Adequate capacity & in n umbers.
3. Adequate type & in numbers. 4. All of the above.
19. Fuelling operation shall cease when a Turboprop Jet aircraft maneuvers, so as to bring the rear
jet outlets within:
1. 30 meters of aircraft. 2. 43 meters of aircraft.
3. 43 meters of fuelling equipment 4. 30 meters of fuelling equipment.
20. Vehicles moving in the danger Zone shall be fitted with:
1. Spark arrestor 2. Flame traps
3. Fire extinguisher 4. Both 1 & 2
21. No photographic flashbulb & electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used in the
vicinity of fueling equipment within a distance of:
1. 5 meters. 2. 6 meters.
3. 25 meters. 4. 30 meters.
22. Aircraft shall not be fuelled whenever radar equipment is in use within a distance of:
1. 30 meters. 2. 25 meters
3. 120 meters. 4. 15 meters.
23. While refueling is in progress, it is prohibited to start:
1. Main engines. 2. Aux. power units.
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
24. Fuelling operation shall be stop, when the spillage covers an area greater than:
1. 2 Sq. meters. 2. 5 Sq. meters.
3. 15 Sq. meters. 4. 20 Sq. meters.
25. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation, covering an area greater than 5 Sq. meten all
persons shall be evacuated from the affected area to a place away from the spillage by minimum
distance of:
1. 6 meters. 2. 15 meters.
3. 30 meters. 4. 43 meters.
26. CAR Series H Part III deal with:
1. Quality Control of fuel. 2. Sample testing of fuel
3. Inspection of installation 4. All are correct.
27. While delivering aviation fuel, the supplier will normally present:
1. Release Note. 2. Delivery receipt Certificate
3. Both ! & 2 4. None of the above.
28. An aviation fuel delivery vehicle shall be cleaned internally every:
1. One year 2. Two years.
3. Three years 4. Five years.
29. The minimum setting for fuel in tanks fitted with floating suction valves in respect of horizontal
tank is:
1. One hour 2. Two hours.
3. One hour! Foot depth of fuel 4. Two hour/foot depth of fuel
30. Setting time for ATF, without floating suction device is:
1. Half an hour/foot depth., 2. One hour/foot depth
3. Total one hour 4. None of the above.
3 1. Floating sections of bulk fuel tanks should be inspected for satisfactory performance
once in:
1. Three months; 2. One month
3. Fifteen days. 4. None of the above.
32. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for Microbiological growth once in:
1. One year 2. Two years.
3. Three years. 4. None of the above.
33. Overall dimension of fuel Grade Label shall be:
1. 15cm x 10cm 2. 30cm x 10cm
3. Not less than 15 cm x 10 cm 4. None of the above.
34. Color code of AVGAS Pipelines & grade label is:
1. Black & White 2. Red & Blue
3. Red & White 4. Black & Red.
36. Fuel specification tests are to be carried out on AVGAS fuel, when no fuel has been added to the static
bulk store during the last:
1. Three months 2. Six months
3. One year. 4. None of the above.
37. Delivery of AVGAS from the vehicles to aircraft should be made through a Micro filter with a normal
rating of:
1. 100 mesh gauges. 2. 180 mesh gauge
3. 5 Microns 4. None of the above.
39. Pressure differential checks on refuller filters, at the maximum possible flow rate. Should be carried out:
1. Every day 2. Every week
3. Every month 4. Once in a year
40. Checks should be carried out on de-hydrant system to verify the correct operation of shut-off valves &
grade selection device:
1. Every month 2. Every six months
3. Every two months 4. Every year.
41 As a matter of routine, elements of filler separators for the refuller & hydrant system should be replaced
after every:
I. One year 2. Two years
3. Three years 4. None of the above.
42. Barrels should be stored on their sides with the bungs at:
1. 3 Oclock position 2. 9 Oclock position
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
43. Suction stand pipe to be fitted to barrel should be such that fuel can not drain from the bottom:
1. 3 inches. 2. 6 inches.
3. 4 inches. 4. None of the above.
44. Laboratory tests are required before using barrel fuel when 6 months have elapsed since the filling of
barrels in respect of:
I. AVGAS 2. ATF
3. Both 1 & 2 4. The statement is incorrect.
45. Suspended water in fuel can be detected by water finding:
I. Paste. 2. Paper.
3. Capsule 4. All are correct.
46. Aircraft should be defuelled into:
I. Empty fuelling vehicle. 2.Directly into another aircraft.
3. Refueling vehicle having spare capacity 4. Any one of the above.
47. When changing fuel grades, extra precautions are to be observed from:
1. AVGAS to ATF 2. ATF to AVGAS
3. One grade of AVGAS to another 4. None of the above
48. Single tank composite sample means, mixing of fuel in equal quantity from samples taken: 1. During
morning, afternoon & evening 2. Upper, Middle & lower level
3. Top & Bottom 4. All are correct
1. CAR Series A partIdeals with:
a) Responsibilities of owner / operator
b) Supervision of Airworthiness standards. By airworthiness Directorate
c) BothA&B
d) None of the above.
2. Aircraft flown for the test thr renewal of C of A can
a) Vicinity of aerodrome b) With in the area of 200 Km. c) BothA&Barewrong d) Both A & B are correct
3. Who is responsible to ensure that aircraft has current and valid C of A: a) QCM b) AME
c) Owner/operator d) RAO.
4. Airworthiness can be achieved by;
a) Periodical inspections b)Replace held components. c) carry out repair / modifications d) All the above
5. Owner/operator is responsible for:
a) Requiring his pilots to operate as per operating limitations
d) Both A & B.
28. A parameter to be obtained from no. of emergency landings and total no. of Hrs. flown is:
a) Incidents /1000 Hrs. b) Accidents/I 000 Hrs.
c) Dispatch reliability d) None of the above.
29. No. of notifiable accidents along with no. of lirs. flown gives:
a) Emergency landing /1000 I-Irs. b) Accidents /I000Hrs.
c) Dispatch reliability d) Accident/I00 departures.
30. Total number of engine hours flown is given by product of no. of airframe hours
a) any one engine Hrs. of aircraft b) Total no. of engines installed
c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
41. Maintenance process requiring assembly, inspection of aircraft/components at fixed periods is:
a) On condition maintenance b) Condition monitoring
c) Hard time maintenance d) Schedule maintenance.
42. Achieving the maximum measures of safety the operator/owner should submit the
regional or sub regional office the:
a) The no. of emergency landing and Hours flown
b) The no. of engine hours! in flight
c) No. of accidents /No. of 15 minutes delays
d) All above are correct.
43. The frequency, scope, and contant of periodical inspection:
a) Should be altered only after three months
b) Should be altered only after six months
e) Should be altered only after 12 months
d) Chair not be altered with out the approval of DGCA.
44. Technic& officers of airworthiness directorate may ask the operator to submit for
inspection the:
a) Aircraft b) Aircraft components
c) Aircraft documents d) Both B and C
45. Revision notes:
a) Need not to field
b) Should be filed in a special file
c) Should be filed along with the affected CAR folder
d) Both A and B are correct.
46. When ever a new CARl/Revision is issued, operator/owner should be provided with the
a) Check list by DGCA
b) Amendment list by DGCA
c) Revision by DOCA
d) Issue by DOCA.
47. The parameters mentioned in CAR series A Part-Ill will be recorded in graphical form
and compared by:
a) Regional airworthiness office b) Sub regional airworthiness office
c) QCM of organization d) Both A & B.
48. Airworthiness office after investigating the parameter will can recommend:
a) Varying the process of maintenance
b) Suggesting in corporation of modification
c) Increasing monitoring checks by airworthiness office
d) All above.
49. The assessment of performance of operator will be provided as Birds eye view by:
a) Maintenance schedule
c) Monitoring parameters
b) Modification status
d) On condition and hard time maint
50. The operator shall him self take corrective action by observing:
a) Qualification of AME b) Qualification of mechanics
c) Adverse trends in serviability d) Both A & B.
51. The aircraft rule of aircraft rules 1937 that lays the maintenance and certification standard of civil
registered aircraft is:
a) Rule 5 b) Rule 59
c) Rule 50 d) Rule 60
52. The rule that lays that a major defect or major damage to aircraft shall be reported to
DGCA is:
a) Rule 60 b) Rule 50
c) Rule 59 d) Rule 15.
53. Aircraft component means a part filled on aircraft, the soundness and correct functioning of which is
essential for:
a) Its continuous airworthiness b) Safety of aircraft
c) Safety of occupants d) All the above.
54. Major defects means defect of such nature that will:
a) Take at least 72 Hrs. for rectification
b) Necessarily involve change of component
c) Result in emergency
d) Reduce the safety of aircraft occupants.
55. CAR section II series C Part I classifies major defects in:
a) One group b) Two group
c) Three group d) Four group.
56. Failure of a component that result in taking emergency action:
a) Defect b) Major defect
c) Minor defect d) Repetitive defect.
57. The aircraft operator that operator it fleet as per published schedule is called:
a) Normal operator b) Private operator
c) Scheduled operator d) Non-scheduled operator.
58. All major defect will be reported to:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c) DAW d) QCM.
9. All major defect will be reported to RAO concerned:
a) Within 48 Hrs. b) Within 24 Hrs.
c) Within 12 Hrs. d) Immediately on telephone.
60. Investigation of major defect will be completed within:
a) One moths b) two months
c) six months d) three months
61. The final defect investigate report shall be sent to:
a) DGCA in duplicate b) DGCA in triplicate
c) RAO in duplicate d) RAO In triplicate.
62. The main purpose of investigation is to:
a) Find the cause of defect
b) Find the person who caused the defect
c) Avodrecurcuce of defect
d) Both A and C.
63. Mech. Delay is a delay of:
a) 15 Minute or more b) 30 Minute or more
c) 15 Minutes or more to scheduled services
d) 30 Minute or more to scheduled services.
64. for computing statics for the purpose of determining components reliability one has to
take into account:
a) Major defects b) Minor defect
c) Repetitive defect d) all the above.
65. All faults malfunctioning defect or any other occurrence such may cause service
difficulties or adverse effect on continuing airworthiness shall be reported by
operator/approved maintenance organization with in:
a) 10 days b) 5 days
c) 7 days d) 15 days.
66. Records associated with defect shall be preserved for:
a) Two weeks b) Six weeks
c) One weeks d) Two years.
67. Component associated with major defect will be preserved for a period of:
a) One week b) 15 days
c) 3 Weeks d) 2 weeks)
68. Which of the following is called major defect:
a) Significant fuel contamination
b) Fuel starvation in flight
c) None of the above
d) Both A and B.
69. Operator other than scheduled operator will forward fleet performance:
a) After one months b) After two months
c) After four months d) after three months.
70. Scheduled operator shall forward fleet performance:
a) After two months b) After fifteen months c) After one month d) After six months.
71. a fleet is constituted by:
a) At least 25 aircraft b) At least 5 aircraft
c) At least 3 aircraft d) None of the above.
72. Minor defects are classified:
a) Group A and B b) Group I and II c) Emergency and Non-Emergency type d) None of the above.
73. CAR sec.-II series C part-Il (Recording of in flight instruments is) Applicable to:
a) Scheduled operator b) Non-scheduled operator
c) Public transport aircraft d) All the above.
74. Group I type major defect includes:
a) Fires during flight b) false five warning during flight
c) Both A & B d) None of the above.
75. Occurrence of major defect falling into group-I will require:
a) renewal of C of A b) Registration of FRC
c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
86. Alert notice will be issued to all concerned and sent to RAO in duplicate: a) By 251h of every month b)
By 30th of every month
c) On 25th of every month d) On 7th of every month.
87. Roughly graphic display about reliability should summarize operating experience for at least the last:
a) Three months b) two months c) six months d) One year.
92. Reliability displays for any reported failure or non-routine, removals are to be impressed in terms:
a) 1000 Aircraft Hours. b) 1000 Aircraft Hrs. or 100 Landings
c) 1000 aircraft Hrs. or 3 months elapsed time
d) 1000 aircraft hrs. or after appropriate devolutions.
93. Reliability displays for all reported removals are to be preserved for a period:
a) Six months b) One year
c) Two years d) five years.
94. Regarding defects occurring on the aircraft system the role of RAO is to:
a) Carry out speed checks on the records maintained
b) Ensure that defect are classified properly
c) Associate themselves seas to get the defects rectified
d) All the above.
95. CAR series D Part I deals with the reliability of aircraft engine operated by:
a) Schedule operator b) Unscheduled operator
c) Schedule and un-operator d) All operator
96. The reliability of engines is measured BY:
a) Number of IFSD b) Number of IFSD in relation to engine flight hrs.
c) Number of nature of 112S1) d) No. of nature of IFSD in relation to engine flight hrs.
97. How many categories in flight shut dawns are recognized:
a) 1 Categories b) 2 Categories
c) 3 Categories.
98. Shut downs deals with the aircraft structural damage and adversely affect is called:
a) Critical shut-down b) Non critical shut down
c) Both d) None of the above.
99. If Cannot be shut down or feathered than it is:
c) On condition
112. This process has got direct relationship between reliability and the age:
a) Hard time maintenance process b) Condition monitoring maint. Process.
c) On condition monitoring maintenance process.
113. If Reliability could be measured without stripping by physical measurement is:
a) On Condition b) Condition monitoring
c) Hard time.
114. Replacement of condition monitoring item is:
a) Scheduled maintenance b) Unscheduled maintenance
c) Hard time maintenance.
115. For older aircraft, manufacturers would issue a document called:
a) Supplemental structural inspection document
b) Log Book
c) Register
d) Both I and III.
116. Restoring an aircraft part or component to its original design performance level after
replacing reworking the parts is termed as:
a) Overhaul b) Top overhaul
c) Modification d) Both A and C are correct.
117. Am items is considered damage tolerant if:
a) It can sustain damage and the remaining structural can withstand reasonable load
b) It can sustain damage and the structure can bear excessive load.
c) Both A and B are correct.
d) None of the above.
118. Maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but with in the allowable operating range.
a) alert valve b)
c) Both d) None of the above.
119. Occurrence of malfunction in-flight are recorded in the:
a) Technical log book b) Journey log book
c) Both I and II d) None of the above.
120. The entry in technical logbook is filled by:
a) Flight crew b) Cabin crew
c) AME d) Pilot
121. The operator shall establish an alert level:
a) In the pressure b) Based on experience
c) With concern to AME.
122. Alert level can be continuously up-dated by means of rolling average either:
a) Quarterly or 6 monthly b) 8 Monthly
c) 2 year d) 1 year.
123. Corrosion prevention schedule is included by the operators in:
a) Maintenance system manual b) Technical log book
c) Register d) Journey log book.
124. If in any programme approved by the airworthiness is deviated, it should be brought to
the notice of:
a) QCM b) RAO
c) Operator d) AME.
125. The details of the any programme approved by AWO, it should be reflected in the:
a) Inspection schedule b) COSL
c) Special inspection schedule d) All of the above.
126. Hidden function components must have some form of:
a) Scheduled maintenance b) Unscheduled maintenance
c) Both d) None of the above.
127. Who maintain a continuous record of the parameters in a graphical form or a tabulated form:
a) AME b) Every operator
c) QCM d) I and III.
128. It shall be the responsibility to mention the fatigue lives of the components in the engine log book.
a) By QCM b) By overhauling agency
c) By organization d) All of the above.
129. It shall be the responsibility to report to RAO/sub RAO in writing all life limiting features:
a) BY QCM b) By overhauling agency
c) By organization d) All of the above.
130. The parameters shall be recorded/plotted after:
a) 24 Hrs. B) 60 Hrs.
c) 5OHrs. d) 12 Hrs.
131. The operators shall inform in writing whenever alert values are reached or abnormal
conditions.
a) RAO/Sub RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) DGCA.
132. The corrective maintenance action shall be spell out in:
a) Journey logbook b) maintenance system manual
c) CAR d) I and III.
133. Failed engines shall be preserved at least for:
a) 1 Year b) 2 years
c) 5 Years d) All of the above.
134. Engine overhaul records shall be preserved by:
a) RAO b) Organization
c) Overhauling agencies d) QCM
135. The average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in the engine log book by:
a) RAO b) QCM
c) Licence AME d) Operator.
136. When ever alert value exceeds who would initiate necessary corrective action:
a) RAO b) Operator
c) QCM d) AME.
137. Primary maintenance process has been recognized by the:
a) QCM b) Airworthiness authorities
c) RAO.
138. Which aircraft require regular assessment of their structure?
2. By a company or corporation registered in India and the chairman and atleast 2/3w of the directors of
which are citizens of India
3. By central government or any state government
4. All above
6. An a/c owned by a company registered elsewhere than in India provided that company has given the a/c
on lease to any person who is a citizen of India or to another company or to state or central government
that that a/c will be registered in
I. Cat. A 2. Cat. B
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
7. An ale in India is registered in category B when the ale is wholly owned
I. By persons resident in or carrying on business in India, who are not citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered elsewhere than in India and carrying on business in India
3. Both a& b are correct
4. None of the above
8.
1.
2.
3.
4.
9. If an application is made for the registration of an ale before it is imported in India a temporary C of R
may be granted under the provision of
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 31
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
10. Registration marking shall not 1 : allotted which might be confused with international code of
signals like
I. Registration beginning with the letter Q
2. Registration SOS , XXX . PAN, and TTT
3. Both a & b are correct
4. None of the above
11. Where a certificate has been lost the owner may apply to DGCA for the issue ola duplicate
certificate with
1. An affidavit, a copy of FIR lodged with the police 2. Prescribed fee
3. Both a & h are correct 4. None of the above
12. Where a certificate has been mutilated the owner may apply for issue of a Duplicate
certificate to DGCA with
1. Mutilated certificate & prescribed fee 2. Mutilated certificate
3. Only prescribed fee 4. None of the above
13. The registration of an ale registered in India may be cancelled at any time by DGCA of its
satisfied that
I. The registration has been obtained by furnishing false information
2. The a/c has been destroyed or permanently
3. The lease in respect of the a/c registered has expired
4. All above
14. The nationality mark of all Indian Registered ale is
1. EI 2. JO
3. AVU 4. VT
26. DGCA revalidation the type certificate in respect of engine /propeller under the purview of
aircraft rule:
1. 49 2. 49A
3. 49B 4. 49C.
27. Before revalidation of type certificate, DGCA may discuss specific design/manufacturing
issues with:
1. Representatives of the manufacturer
2. Airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
28. DGCA has to revalidation the type certificate of an imported aircraft:
1. Just as it is 2. It can be modified
3. After importing special condition for safe operation 4. It cannot modify it.
29. For revalidation of type certificate of aircraft imported into India which of the following
documents is not required:
1. Type certificate 2. Type design data-sheet
3. The basis on ETOPS certification if applicable 4. Quality control and maintenance system manual.
30. The certification of aircraft /aircraft components manufactured in India shall he done by
approved/authorized person as per aircraft rule:
1. 53 2. 53A
3. 53B 4. 53 C.
31. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of an aircraft shall be preserved for a
period of:
I. two years 2. Four years
3. Five years 4. Ten years.
32. Test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out in accordance with:
1. Manufactures test flight schedule
2. Test flight schedule approved by DGCA
3. Both I and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
33. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to
DGCA:
1. Test flight report of the aircraft
2. Test flight schedule or scouting and approval 3. Test schedule of scouting and approval 4. None of the
above.
34. Manuals that should be submitted in respect of a type component/item of equipment for
approval are:
1. Type service manual and flight manual
2. Maintenance manual and structural repair manual
3. Both I and 2 are correct
4. None of the above.
35. A minor modification is one which has appreciable effect on:
1. Weight and balance 2. Structural strength
3. Flight characteristics 4. None of the above.
36. A major modification is one that shall be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
53. Aircraft with MTOW greater that 5700 Kg. And categorized as passenger/mail /good shall
have at least engines:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. None of the above.
54. For issuance of C of A for an aircraft type which is imported for the first time. the
owner/operator shall supply, free of cost to DGCA:
I. Airplane flight manual
2. Type certification
3. MMEL
4. All above are correct.
55. The set of documents that shall be submitted to RAO/Sub-RAO of DGCA where the aircraft is bused with
up to date amendments will he:
Aircraft maintenance manual, engine maintenance manual
2. Overhaul manual, structural repair manual
3. Service bulletins, SSID, CPCP.
4. All of the above.
56. For issuance of C of A partially filled Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA:
1. To the manufacturer for completion
2. To the owner/operator for completion
3. To the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion
4. All above are correct.
57. RAO/Sub-RAO may issue/validate the C of A on the basis of:
1. ExportCofA
2. Physical inspection of the aircraft
3. Scrutiny of other related documents
4. All of the above.
58. The airworthiness officer is required to:
Inspect the aircraft to the extent possible
2. To establish that all instruments and equipment have been installed and are in
serviceable condition.
3. Aircraft is airworthy
4. All of the above. a
59. The validity of C of A is:
I. for one year
2. For six months
3. Not exceeding one year
4. 1 and 3 are correct.
102. Aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above are required to be maintained by:
1. Individual AMEs 2. Airlines
3. Approved organizations 4. All are correct.
103. Certificate of maintenance review in cases of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above is
issued by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. All are correct.
104. Aircraft with AUW more than 15,000 Kg. Can maintained by:
1. Individual AMEs 2. Authorized personnel
3. Approved organizations 4. All are correct.
105. Certificate of maintenance review of case of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And below is
issued by:
1. Individual AMEs
2. AME having his Licence endorsed in category B to cover the type of aircraft in lv ed
3. AME having his Licence endorsed in category D to cover the type of engine involved
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
106. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document
after the expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A will start from:
1. The date of inspection 2. The expiry of last C of A
3. The date of submitting the application 4. All are correct.
107. Application for renewal of C of A is submitted on form:
1. CA25 2. CA 28
3. CA23 4. AS PER GIVEN FORMAT.
18. Release Notes and other necessary documents are preserved for a period of:
1. Two years. 2. Five years.
3. Eight years. 4. Ten years.
19. CAR Series E Part VIII deals with:
1. Training Schools 2. Manufacturer
3. None of the above 4. All are correct.
20. Which Rule stipulated the grant of AME Licence to an Applicant, who have course from
DGCA approved, will be granted one year relaxation in total Aeronautical Maintenance
Experience:
1. Rule 61. 2. Rule 62.
3. Rule 16 4. Rule 61 A
21. Which Form shall be submitted to local Airworthiness for Approval of Institute:
1. CA182 2. CA182C
3. CA182A 4. CA182D.
22. On receipt of an Application, the Institute will be inspected by:
1. Quality Control Manager 2. R.A.O. and DGCA.
3. Both 1&2 4. None of the above.
23. Chief Instructor shall be nominated by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. Chairman of an Organisation 4. Any of the above.
24. For AME Chief Instructor,---------------- years of Aeronautical Experience, out which------------- years in
of actual Maintenance of Aircraft is required:
1. 10,3 2. 10,6
3. 5,2 4. 5,4
25. How many Airframe Instructor are required by a Training School:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four
26. In one year the maximum and minimum no. of hours in a class should be:
1. 30,10 2. 40,20
3. 20,5 4. 50,20.
27. For AME training course, the candidates should have passed 10+2 with minimum aggregate
PCM:
1. 50% 2. 60%,
3. 33% 4. 70%
28. During any Semester the practical training shall not be less than:
1. 20% 2. 25%
3. 50% 4. 61%
29. Minimum presence during training period shall not be less than:
1. 80% 2. 75%
3. 70% 4. 93%
30. To be declared successful in course, the candidate must obtain minimum of:
1. 33% of marks. 2. 50% of marks
4. What is the full form of AlC? 1. Aeronautical In formation Circulars. 2. Airworthiness Inspection Circular.
3. Aeronautical Information Publication 4. None of the above.
5.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which rules say that an operator shall have access to an adequate maintenance organization?
Rule 155 A of the aircraft Rules, 1937
Rule 55 of the Aircraft Rules, 1937
Rule 7 of the aircraft Rules, 1937
Rule 19 of the Aircraft Rules, 1937.
6. Whose responsibility is it to ensure the DGCA that their maintenance facility is satisfactory?
1. Operator 2. Q.C.M.
3. P.l.C. 4. Manufacturer
7. Before operation of maintenance what should be approved?
1. Maintenance Programme of the aircraft 2. M.E.L.
3. C D L 4. C of R.
8. On what document should an operator base his maintenance programme:
1. M P D. 2. S Bs 3. Q.C.Manual 4. Flight Manual
9. Who is the head of Quality Control Department?
1. Quality Control Manager 2. Operator
3. Chief Instructor 4. R.A.W.O.
10. Who should ensure that compliance of SBs / Mods and Airworthiness Directives:
1. The Quality Control Manager 2. A.M.E.
3. Operator 4. None of the above.
11. Which of these is a Negative Tend?
1. Premature Removal Rate 2. Aircraft Delays
3. Bothl&2 4. None of the above
12. What is ASC?
1. Air Security Service 2. Airworthiness Safety Committee
3. Air Safety Circular 4. None of the above.
13. Series B deals with:
1. Fuelling Equipments. 2. Instruments.
3. Approval; of CCL, MEL, CDL 4. None of the above
14. What is CCL? 1. Cockpit Check Law 2. Cockpit Configuration List
3. Cockpit Check List 4. None of the above.
15. MEL need not include:
1. Wings 2. Landing Gears
3. Flight Controls 4. All of the above.
16. Who should be responsible for seeing that no aircraft is dispatched with multiple
items in operative?
1. AME 2. R A W O
3. Operator 4. PIC
17. What is DDG?
1. Dispatch Determination Guide 2. Dispatch Deviation Guide
3. Dispatch Decreasing Guide 4. None of the above.
18. Who compiles or make MEL?
1. Q C M 2. AME
3. P I C 4. Operator
19. Where is MEL submitted?
1. To R A W O 2. To QCM
3. To Chief Inspection of Explosives 4. To DGCA.
20. What is attached to MEL?
1. Revision Notice 2. Preamble
3. PDR 4. Q>C. Manual
3. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilots check the loss in height shall not
exceed
1. 500ft 2. l000ft
3. 1500 ft 4. 2000 ft
4. All pilots before flying as pilot in command of multi engined aircraft shall demonstrate
to a check pilot , let down procedure during which variation in speed during descent
shall not exceed
1. 5 mph above stipulated speed 2. 5mph below stipulated speed
3. 5 mph above or below stipulated speed 4. None of the above
5. The pilot in command of every aircraft before commencing any flight shIl satisfy
himself of
I. Valid flight release certificate 2. Engine developing correct power
3. Availability of sufficient length 4. All are correct
6. The responsibility of briefing passengers of smoking limitation lies with
1. Pilot in command 2. Co pilot
3. QCM 4. Air Hostess
7. Critical phase of flight includes
1. Taxiing 2. Take off and landing
3. Operation below 1000 ft 4. All are correct
8. Duties not required for safe operation of aircraft include company required calls for
1. Ordering galley supplies 2. Promoting airlines
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
9. Aerobatic manoeuvres are not to be carried out unless the pilot wears
I. Crash helmet 2. Flying goggles
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
10. Instruments and equipments are fitted on aircraft to enable the flight crew to
I. Control the flight path 2. Carry out procedure manouvre
3. Observe operating limitation of aircraft 4. All are correct
11. Aerodrome operating minima is the limits of usability expressed in terms of
1. Runway visual range 2. Decision altitude height
3. Minimum DA/H 4. All are correct
12. An alternate aerodrome
1. - May be aerodrome of departure
2. Is always the aerodrome of departure
3. Is where aeroplane force lande 4 All are correct
13. Decision altitude DA is reffered to
1. Mean sea level 2. Average sea level
3. Tower elevation 4. Threshold elevation
14. Minimum descent altitude / height is specified altitude I height in a non precision
approach below which
1. Descent may be made without visual reference
2. Descent may not be made without visual reference
3. Descent may be made with visual reference
26. Marking at break in pilot for emergency escape shall be in colour 1. Yellow 2. Red
3. Both a & b 4. none of the above
27. Rafts to be carried in helicopters should either be deployable by remote control or with
some mean of mechanical assistance if their weight is more than
1. 30Kg 2. 40Kg
3. 50Kg 4. 60Kg
28. Radio communication equipment must have emergency frequency of
1. 121.5 K}Iz 2. 121.5 MHz
3. 161.5MHz 4. None of the above
29. Maintenance records in respect of privately owned helicopter are to be maintained by
1. Owner 2. Lessee
3. Maintenance organization manual 4. Any one of them
30. The number and composition of air crew must be specified in
1. Operations manual 2. Flight manual
3. Certificate of airworthiness 4. Any one of the above
31. Maximum take off weight for an aircraft must be specified in
1. Certificate of airworthiness 2. Flight manual
3. Either a & b 4. None of the above
32. Prior to flight , pilot in command must ensure that
1. Minimum radio equipment required unserviceable
2. Aircraft has a valid flight release certificate
3. All passengers who have bought the ticket have boarded the flight
4. None of the above
33. AUW for an unpowered homs gliders should be less than
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
carried out by
I. AME Category A 2. Pilot in charge
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
65. Inspection of higher than 50 hours and overhaul of powered hang glider are to be
carried out by
1. AME cat A 2. Pilot in command
3. Person authorized by DGCA 4. Both a & b
66. A glider log book keeps a complete record of flying modification and repair work All
columns of log book are to be fitted by
1. AME cat A 2. Pilot
3. Person authorized by DGCA 4. Both a & b
67 Hang glider shall not be flown over
I. The territory of Delhi 2. An assembly of persons
3. Area with 50 Km of international border 4. All are correct
68. The examiner for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have done at leasthours an hang glider and hours on dual machine
1. 25,10 2. 25,25
3. 10,10 4. 10,25
69. Hang glider must be equipped with
I. ASI and ELT 2. Altimeter and ASI
3. Altimeter, ASI and ELT 4. Altimeter , ASI and RPM gauge
70. ATC is required if a glider is to be operated with in ---- of controlled airport
I. 5Km. 2. 5miles
3. 5NM 4. None of above
71. The requirement of CAR series 0 part VII regarding exit row seating are applicable to
aircraft with passenger seats exceeding
1. 10 2. 20
3. 30 4. None of above
72. Each operator should ensure that exit seat is allotted to a person who is
1. Not in valid 2. Literate
3. Not less than 10 years of age 4. All are correct
73. The person allotted the exit seat should not be less than years of age
1. 15 - 2. 18
3. 21 4. 25
74. Instructions relating to emergency evacuation in passenger information card
I. Must be printed 2. Can be hand written
3. Can be in the form of graphics 4. All are correct
75. To check that no exit seat is occupied by a person who is unable to perform the
applicable function in an emergency is the duty of
1. Air Hostess 2. Co pilot
3. Crew member 4. None of above
76 Extended twin engine operation (ETOP) is applicable with
1. Any type of engine 2. Turbo prop only
3. Turbo prop & turbo jet only 4. Turbo prop, turbo jet & turbo fan
5.
1.
3.
6.
1.
2.
3.
4.
10. Possessions of RTR (Aero) Licence issued by the ministry of communication is essential for
issue of AME Licence in:
1. Category R 2. Category V(Avionics)
3. Category X (Radio) 4. None of the above.
I1. An AME desirous of extension in category A (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will
have to show an additional experience of Months.
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
3. 12 Months 4. Two years.
12. An applicant for Licence of helicopter of AUW below 3000 Kg. In category A and C will have
to show a total experience of four year both on airframe and engine simultaneously Out of
which, type experience should be month with Month recent experience
1. 12,3 2. l2 6
3. 24,6 4. 24,12
13. AME Licence in category B is given to helicopter with AUW below:
1. 2000Kg. 2. 3000Kg.
3. 5700Kg. 4. 15,000 Kg.
14. A person having valid AME Licence covering aircraft below 5700 Kg. And desirous of having an extension
of gliders will have to show recent experience of month
I. One month 2. Three months
3. Six months 4. Twelve months
15. Aeronautical engineering experience required for gliders category A is year.
1. One year 2. Two years
3. Three years 4. Four years.
16. For extension on turbine engine is category C in candidate should have experience on type of
engine for months out of which months should be recent:
1. 12,3 2. 12,6
3. 24,6 4. 24,3.
17. AME Licence in category D is issued for all piston engines below:
1. 250 BHP 2. 300 BHP
3. 450 BHP 4. 500 BHP.
18. For issue of Licence in category V, the candidate must posses:
1. Valid RTR (Aero) Licence 2. Licence in category E,1,R,
3. Training certificate on integrated avionics system 4. All are correct.
19. Licence in category X is issued for overhaul of:
1. UP propeller 2. Radio equipment
3. Electrical system 4. All are correct.
20. After passing all the papers, the applicant should submit an applicant in to DGCA for issue of
Licence along with the following certificate:
I. Medical/color vision 2. Licence exam passed
3. Proof of age 4. All are correct.
21. AME Licence in the following categories will be endorsed according to the type of aircraft /
engines:
1. A,B,C,D 2. A,B,C,D,E,I
I. Not exceeding
0 Kg. 2. 2000 Kg.
3. 5700 Kg. 4. 4000 Kg.
65. helicopters with AUW above required separate endorsement in category A and C:
1. 3000 Kg. 2. 5700 Kg.
3. 2000 Kg. 4. 10,000 Kg.
66. Helicopter AME in category A certify:
1. all engine parts 2. All parts except engine
3. None of the above 4. Both I and 2
67. AME in category C certify ( 1-lehicopter):
1. All engine parts 2. All parts except engine
3. Airframe 4. Both I and 2
68. Power check of engine is the responsibility of: (Helicopter)
1. QCM 2. AME
3. flight crew 4. DAW.
69. Power check procedure defined in:
1. Flight manual 2. QCM
3. I3oth I and 2 4. None of the above.
70. CAR Section-H Series L Part Ill deals with:
I. Issue of AME Licence 2. Cancel of AME Licence
3. Endorsement of AME Licence 4. Renewal of AME Licence.
71. Engineer submit their application to for endorsement of Licence:
1. RAO 2. Sub-RAO
3. DGCA 4. Either 1 and 2.
72. AME category A and C is exempted from appearing in paper-Ill if he holds Licence in cat.
I. BandD 2. B
3. D 4. None of the above.
85. For grant of authorization application of AME will be forwarded to RAO/Sub-RAO by:
I. QCM 2. Chief ME
3. RAO 4. Executive head of operators organization
86. In certain cases, when AME even does not fulfill the stipulated experience requirements for
authorization may be allowed to undertake examination. In such cases experience requirements
must be satisfied with in:
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 18 Months.
87. Validity of authorization is of:
1. 6 Months 2. 12 Months
3. 3 Months 4. Limited period
88. Authorization may be extended up to a maximum period of months by RAO in
circumstances:
1. 3 months 2. 6 Months
3. 2 Months 4. Limited period.
89. Which aircraft Rules states that all work on aircraft is to be certified by licensed
engineers/authorized person?
1. 61 2. 60
3. 54 4. None of the above.
90. The guideline for refresher course for grant of approval is given in:
I. Series L part-IX 2. Rule 61
3. Rule 54 4. AAC and of 2000.
91. For issue/extension of approvals, the applicant will be examined by a board consisting of:
1. QCM or DY.QCM
2. Head of particular section/shop
3. Representative of director of airworthiness
4. All of the above.
92. The approval granted will he valid for:
1. 1 Year 2. 2 Year
3. 6 Months 4. None of the above.
93. Approval of flight engineer examiners and check flight engineers is given in:
I. L Part-IX 2. L Part-X
3. L Part-XI 4. None of the above.
94. Consideration for approval as a check flight engineer shall be:
1. Seniority 2. Position in airline
3. Remuneration received 4. None of the above.
95. The names of approval of the flight engineers for such approvals are recommended by:
1. QCM 2. Chief Engineer
3. Operator 4. PIC.
96. Flight engineer approved as check flight engineer/Flight engineer examiner should have:
1. Obtained flight engineer Licence in second attempt
2. Obtained flight engineer Licence in any attempt
102. The air transport operator is required to submit the application for renewal of check flight
engineer/flight engineer examiner to DGCA 1-lead Qtr:
1. On 30TH November every year
2. By 30th November every year
3. On 31ST December every year
4. By 31ST December every year.
103. Some of the aircraft requires flight engineer as part of flight crew as laid down in:
1. C of A / Aircraft flight manual
2. Aircraft/flight log book
3. Operations manual
4. All of the above.
104. FE shall be licensed in a manner prescribed in of the aircraft rules, 1937:
I. Section Wand X of the schedule III
2. Section W and X of the schedule II
3. Section V and X of the schedule 11
4. Section V and X of the schedule III
105. The requirements in this CAR section II, SeriesL Part-XV are complimentary to the provision of:
1. JARJFAR part-14 2. ICAO Annex lo, Vol-I
3. Rule 61 of aircraft rules 1937 4. ICAO Annex-I.
106. SFE applying for issue of SFE Licence shall have passed ten plus two with:
1. Physics and maths 2. Physics and chemistry
3. Physics or maths 4. Physics or chemistry.
107. SFE ground course of Instructions as per the syllabus shall be approved by:
1. RAO
2. DGCA(Attn.-Director of airworthiness)
3. QCM of the training institute in the organization
4. DGCA.
108. The duration of the courses shall be decided by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. CI 4. QCM
109. Normally the duration of FE course should not be less than for Basic course and type
course
1. 3 Months each 2. 8 Weeks each
3. 4 Weeks each 4. 1 Month each.
110. At the end of the ground course will conduct the examination to determine the
knowledge of applicant applying for SFE Licence:
1, CEO 2. DGCA
3. Operator 4. RAO.
111. SFE written examination, paper-iii is based on the subjects related to:
1. Airline 2. Specific paper for engine or airframe
3. Rules and regulations 4. Definitions and performance-Airplane/Helicopter.
112. An actual route check of aircraft in case the simulator is not there for the purpose of renewal of
FE Licence, is valid for the period of:
1. 40Days 2. 45 Days
3. 35 Days 4. 30 Days.
113. A technical and performance refresher course of FE to renew of their Licence is conducted by:
1. Operator 2. RAO
3. DGCA 4. None of the above.
114. For extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence, he should have 50 Hrs. off lying experience of
which not more than should be on approved simulator with in the proceeding period, from the date of
submission of application:
1. 30 Hrs., 6 Months 2. 30 Hrs., l2Months
115. for extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence. FE should have completed the skill test (oral
cum practical) within the period of proceeding the date of application:
1. 6 Months 2. 3 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 4 Months.
116. If the FE does not exercise his privilege for more than l year , he has to undergo-:
1. Extended technical refresher
2. As in (a) plus simulator check by FE
3. As in (b) plus complete simulator approval profiles
4. As in (c) plus 3 route checks (minimum 4 Landings)
117. Application for issue of SFE Licence shall contain:
I. R/T Licence No.
2. As in a plus signature of applicant
3. As in a plus signature of chief of operations
154. The CG position for take off and landing configuration has to be calculated before
commencement of flight for:
1. Aerial work aircraft 2. Public transport aircraft
3. Private aircraft 4. All are correct.
155. The second copy of the load sheet shall be preserved for a period of at least:
I. Four months 2. 2 Years
3. 12 Months 4. 5 Years.
156. Standard weight of crew for load calculation is taken as:
1. 65Kg. 2. 75Kg.
3. 85 Kg. 4. 95 Kg..
157. Standard weight for adult passenger for load calculation is taken as:
1. 85Kg. 2. 80Kg.
3. 75Kg. 4. 70Kg.
158. Standard weight for children for load calculation is taken as:
1. 30Kg. 2. 40Kg.
3. 50 Kg. 4. None of the above.
159. Standard weight for children infants for load calculation is taken as:
1. 10Kg. 2. 15Kg.
3. 20Kg. 4. 25Kg.
160. Mark the wrong statement:
1. Load is cabin must be placed behind passengers
2. Load must be lashed properly
3. Lashing roper must have sufficient strength
4. Cabin floor loading limitation should not be exceeded.
161. An aircraft with passengers carrying capacity of 160 shall be equipped with first aid
kit:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four.
162. Physicians kit is a must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of mote than:
1. 20 2. 40
3. 100 4. 120.
163. First-aid kit container shall bear a white cross whose size should be at least:
1. 1 Inch X 1 Inch 2. 2 Inch X 2 Inch.
3. 3lnchX3lnch 4. None of the above.
164. The first-aid kit container shall be of:
1. White background with red cross
2. White back ground with green cross
3. Green back ground with white cross
4. Green background with Red Cross.
166. 1he drugs containers in the physician s kit are intended to be administered by:
1. Pilot in-command 2. Co-pilot
3. Any passengers 4. Medical practitioner
167. To ensure that the firstaid kit seal is in intact condition before every flight is the duty of:
1. QCM 2. AME
3. Pilot-in-command 4. A designated person.
168. The contents of first-aid-kit of an aircraft shall be examined once in months:
1. 6 2. 12
3. 24 4. None of the above.
169. The contents of first-aid-kit after use are to be replenished by:
1. AN MBBS Doctor 2. An authorized person
3. A medical practitioner 4. Any one of the about.
170. The training of aircrew member of Public transport aircraft in application of first-aid-is
undertaken by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Owner/operator 4. All are correct.
171. Details of furnishing material used in aircraft are contained in:
1. Series F Part-IV 2. Series X Part-IV
3. FAR Part XXV 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
172. Furnishing material used on private aircraft shall be:
I. Self extinguishing 2. Flame resistant
3. Either 1 or 2 4. None of the above.
173. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and having AUW
of 15,000 Kg. And above shall be:
1. Flame resistant 2. Inflammable
3. Self extinguishing 4. Both I and 2.
174. Concessions are contained in:
1. Series X Part 1 2. Series X part V
3. Series X part VII 4. Series X part IX
175. Request for the grant of concession must be applied in:
1. Duplicate 2. Quadruplicate
2. Carried on board
3. Either I or 2
4. Both 1 and 2.
198. Each logbook have (Engine, propeller, radio):
1. Two section 2. Three section
3. Four section 4. Dont have any section.
199. All aircraft registered in India shall carry valid document in accordance with:
I. Rule 9 B of aircraft rules 1937
2. Rule 7 of aircraft rules 1937
3. Rules 5 of aircraft rules 1937
4. None of the above.
200. Documents to he carried on board by Indian registered aircraft is contained in:
1. Series B part 11 2. Series B part-I
3. Series X part VI 4. None of the above.
201. The list of dangerous goods carried on aircraft shall be brought under the notice of:
1. Pilot in command by ok flight
2. Flight crew before flight
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above.
202. The manuals includes in documents to be carried on board by Indian registered aircraft are:
1. Operation manual 2. Cabin crew manual
3. Flight manual 4. All of the above.
203. Taxying operation of aircraft involves:
1. Starting of aircraft engine
2. Maneuvering of aircraft on ground
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above.
204. Series X Part VII deals with:
1. Issue of taxying permit
2. Issue of operator permit
3. Grant of concessions
4. None of the above.
205. Taxi permit is issued by:
1. QCM 2. Regional airworthiness office
3. DGCA 4. None of the above.
206, For issue of taxi permit AME should hold a valid Licence in:
1. Category D 2. Category A
3. Category C, 4. Category B.
207. Taxying ability of a person for issue of taxy permit should be assessed by:
1. Pilot of the operator
2. Regional airworthiness officer
3. Representative DGCA
4. None of the above.
210. QUM shall renew the taxy permit provided the holder of it has:
1. Taxied the aircraft at least thrice during the preceding one year
2. Taxied the aircraft at least twice during the preceding one year
3. Taxied the aircraft at least once during two preceding one year.
4. None of the above.
211. QCM shall renew the taxy permit subject to the following conditions:
I. AME Licence is valid
2. Hold a valid RT Licence if it is held by permit holder
3. Both I and 2.
4. None of the above.
212. The privileges of taxy permit shall be:
1. Restricted to airport specified in permit
2. Valid for all airports
3. Restricted to a particular airport
4. None of the above.
213. Any damage caused to aircraft during taxying operations shall be informed to:
1. Regional /sub regional airworthiness office
2. Owner /operator of aircraft
3. Both of the above.
4. None of the above.
214. Procedure for issue of type approval for aircraft components and equipments is defined in:
1. Ru1e57 2. Rule48
3. Rule 49 4. None of these.
215. application for type approval is to be submitted in:
I. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
3. Quadruplicate 4. None of the above.
216. Type record to ensure compliance of design of aircraft component with the relevant
specification and airworthiness requirements is approved by:
1. Chief Inspector 2. AME
3. Chief designer 4. QCM.
217. The inspection records of the type aircraft component or the item of equipment during
construction shall be retained for period of:
1. 10 Years 2. 5 Years
3. 2 Years 4. 8 years.
218. Procedure of issue of type approval of aircraft component and item of equipment is in
accordance with:
1. Series X Part-V 2. Series X Part VII
3. Series X Part VIII 4. Series F Part II.
219. The manual in respect of type component/item of equipment that must he submitted for
approval
1. Type instruction manual 2. Type service manual
3. Roth I and 2 4. None of the above.
220. The approval for a modification, which has not been previously investigated and approved,
shall he given by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Local airworthiness officer 4. All the above.
221. Each design drawing shall hear a:
1. Description title 2. Drawing number
3. Issue number and date of issue 4. All the above.
222. The flight test schedules for flight trial of the equipment to confirm their compliance with the relevant
airworthiness requirements is approved by:
I. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. Chief Engineer.
223 The manufacture of all aircraft component shall be certified only by approved organization, by
licensed engineer or by authorized persons in accordance with rule:
1. Rule 53A 2. Rule 53B
3. Rule 53 Sub rule 2 4. None of these
Rule 57 of IAR
A/c shall fitted
A/c shall fitted
A/c shall fitted
A/c shall fitted
deals with:
& equipped
& equipped
& equipped
& equipped
with
with
with
with
Electrical System,
Instruments,
Radio apparatus.
Engine only.
56. To carry the fuel tank dipstick on hoard on light aircraft is the responsibility of:
1. QCM 2. AME
3. Pilot in command 4. All above.
57. When ever funnels are used for refueling the aircraft, they shall be bonded to the:
1. Nozzle of the hose 2. Nozzle of the can
3. Aircraft 4. All above.
58. Position indicators and ammeters are:
1. Over hauled every two years
2. Overhauled every three years
3. Bench check every two years
4. Bench checks every three years.
59. The self-Life of each type of instrument must be reflected in:
1. quality control manual
2. Maintenance system manual 3. Engineering manual
4. Both l and 2.
60. No person shall operate piston engine aircraft with out GPSW:
1. If AUW is in excess of 5700 Kg.
2. Type certificated to carry less than nine passenger
3. Type certificated to carry mote-than six passenger
4. Both 1 and 2.
SERIES - I
Series I part 1 deals with
1. Aircraft Fuelling operation
2. Aircraft maintenance programs
3. Cleans rooms
25. All aeroplanes on all flight shall be equipped with a seat / berth for each
passenger over the age of
1. 2 Months 2. 1 Year
3. 2 Years 4. 5 Years
26. ELT should be operated at a frequency of
1. 1030MHz 2. 1090MHz
3. 121.5MHz 4. 121.5KHz
27. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate rating are to be carried on board. The
number carried (for each rating ) should be
1. 5 2. one
3. two 4. three
28. CHT gauge is mandatory on all air cooled engines with BHP
1. More than 250 2. Less than 250
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
29. Each flight crew members seat has
1. Safety harness 2. Seat belt
3. Briefing card 4. All above
30. All aircraft operated as VFR flight shall have during day
1. ASI 2. Magnetic compass
3. Adequate source of electrical energy for electrical equipment
4. Both a & b
31. CHT indicator and oil temperature gauge should be present in each engine
1. Power above 250 BHP 2. Air cooled engine
3. In VFR flight 4. All are correct
32. Before use of personal watch worn by pilot the facts should be rewarded in
1. Operation manual 2. Technical log
3. Aircraft log book 4. Pilot acceptance certificate
33. All aircraft issued with C of A after year 2000 shall have during night
1. Directional gyroscope 2. Instrument for fore & after
3. Anti collision light 4. All are correct
34. Aircraft on extended flights over water away from emergency landing area
shall have life saving
1. When 1 85 km away 2. When 100 Nm away
3. When 100 Nm (185 km) intht engine aircraft
4. All above
35. ELT fitted on aircraft shall be
1. Operating on 121.5 MHz frequency
2. Requirement relating TSO C 90a
3. Shall have a load meter
4. Operatable with in a/c for 40 Hrs
43. Apart from maintenance the test equipment have to be calibrated with
reference to
1. Master gauges 2. Primary standard
3. Both a & b
44. The maintenance schedule of the test equipment as and when performed will leave to be certified by
person approved by the RAO in consultation with
1. QCM 2. DGCA
3. DGCA (attendent)
45. The calibration period of the various instruments / equipment are mentioned in
I. QCM 2. Inspection manual
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
46. Validation of software of computers used as test equipment is documented in
1. Operation manual 2. QCM
3. Both a & b
51. Class 3 clean room permits a specified number of particles per cubic meter
of air of sizes
1. 0.5 10 micron m 2. 1 25 micron m
3. 5 25 micron m 4. None of the above
52. Standards of guidelines for clean rooms are given in
1. BS 5295 2. BS 9255
3. IS 5295 4. None of the above
53. Suitable working temperature in a clean room should be
1. 15 degree C 2. 20 degree C
3. 20+2 degree C 4. 5 25 degree C
54. Air velocity for horizontal flow clean rooms is normally
1. 0.45 + 0.1 rn/s 2. 0.30 + 0.05 m/sec
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
55. Construction of clean rooms should be as per specification laid down in
I. 1S 5295 2. BS 5295
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
56. Garments for clean rooms should be made from materials which possess
1. Non flammability 2. Limited linting
3. Negligible electrostatic generation capability
4. All are correct
57. It is prohibited to use certain items in clean rooms including
1. Conventional paper 2. Pencils & erasers
3. Tools 4. Both a & b
58. Monitoring of clean rooms refers to the procedures adopted for checking the factors influencing the
environment. These are
I. Pressure and Temperature 2. Level of contamination
3. Humidity 4. All are correct
59. Pressure in a clean room , compared to outside surrounding pressure should
always be
I. Equal 2. More
3. Less 4. None of the above
60. Series I part V deals with
1. Maintenance of equipment 2. Flight data recorder
3. Cockpit voice recorder 4. None of the above
61. Every a/c shall be fitted with equipment & Radio apparatus is in light of rule
1. 55 2. 56
3. 57 3. 59
62. Series I part V deals with 1. Scheduled airlines 2. Non scheduled
3. Every A/C registered in India 4. None of the above
63. Type I FDR shall record
1. Flight path 2. Speed
3. Attitude 4. All are correct
64. The type of FDR shall not be use
1. Engraving metal foil FDRs 2. Photographic film FDRs
3. Analogue FDRs using frequency modulation (FM)
4. All are correct
65. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1Jan.05 which utilize data
link communication are required to carry
1. FDR 2. CVR
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
66. For flight data recorders the minimum time duration is
1. Equal to total time 2. Total engine hour
3. Duration of CVR 4. Both a & b
67. ADS stands for
1. Aircraft direction system 2. Automatic defect surveillance
3. Automatic direction surveillance 4. None of the above
68.AOC stands for
I. Automatic oxygen control 2. Aircraft operation control
3. Auxiliary operational control 4. Aeronautical operational control
69. MOPS stands for
1. Minimum operational performance specification
2. Maximum operational performance specification
3. Minimum oxygen performance specification
4. None of the above
70. EUROCAE stands for
1. European organization for civil aviation equipment
2. European organization for civil aviation environment
3. Both a &b
4. None of the above
71.HUMS stands for
1. Helicopter health & usage monitor system
2. Helicopter utilization memory status
registered in India and a/c leased and imported into the country
1. Series! part IX 2. Series I part V
3. Series I part VI 4. Series I part VII
84. CVR stands for
1. Cockpit video recorder 2. Cockpit visual Radio
3. Cockpit Voice recorder 4. None of the above
85. CVR is an equipment installed in the a/c for the purpose of
1. Recording the aural environment on the flight dech during flight time
2. Accident/incedent prevention and investigation
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
86. No person shall operate a piston engine aeroplane or maximum take-off mass of over for which C of A
was first issued on or after unless it is fitted with an approved CVR
1. 3000Kg;1.1.87 2. 5700Kg;1.1.89
it
90. Helicopter imported after and not required to be equipped with shall record atleast main rotor speed on
recording channel of the CVR
1. 1.1.87; CVR ; two 2. 1.1.1997; FDR; three
3. 1.1.87 ; CVR; four 4. 1.1.1997 ; FDR ; one
91. Helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over are required to be equipped with
I. 5700Kg;FDR 2. 3000KgCVR
3. 7000 Kg; FDR 4. None of the above
93. Any a/c including helicopter issued with C of A after 1 July 2000 shall be fitted with capable of retaining
the information recorded during atleast the last of its operation
1. CVR; 1 hour 2. FDR ; 2 hours
3. CVR; 2 hours 4. FDR; 1 hour
94. CVR shall be of approved type and shall meet the specification
1. Of TSO C-84 2. Acceptable to DGCA
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
97. In order to preserve the recorded information the CVR shall be deactivated
upon completion of flight following an
1. Accident 2. Incedent
3. Accident or incident 4. None of the above
100 All A/C including helicopters equipped to utilize Digital communication and required to carry CVR shall
record on CVR or FDR the digital communication with ATC from
1. 1 Jan 1987 2. 1 Jan 1997
3. 1 Jan 2005 4. None of the above
101. All aeroplane of a maximum certified take off mass of over required to be equipped with and may
alternatively be equipped with two combination recorders (CVR?FDR)
1. 3000 Kg ; FDR; CVR 2. 2700 Kg; CVR; FDR
3. 7000 Kg ; FDR; CVR 4. 5700 Kg ; FDR ; CVR
102. CVR container shall
1. Be painted bright orange or bright yellow
2. Have reflective tape affixed to its external surface
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
121. Flight crew action w.r.t warning provided by GPWS equipment is given in
1. Flight Manual 2. Operation Manual
3. Crew operation manual 4. Aeroplane Mainte. Manual
125. ACAS1
1. Provides information as an aid to see and avoid action
2. Is dependent on group based equipment
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
128. ACAS II has to be fitted on all aircraft operation in Indian airspace having
131. MEL contains provisions for unserviceability ACAS However in no case shall the ACAS unserviceable for
more than
1. 5days 2. 7days
3. 10 days 4. 15 days
SERIES-O
3. Aircraft rule 140 requires that all aircraft owners / operators shall comply
with the requirements of
1. Engineering 2. Safety
3. Maintenance 4. All are correct
6. Single engined aircraft with retractable under carriage shall not be used in 1. Scheduled VFR operation 2.
Non scheduled night operation
3. Scheduled VFR operation 4. None of the above
7. A multi engined aircraft, when loaded to the maximum weight shall be maintaining level flight with one
engine inoperative at an attitude of not less than
1. 2000ft above the valley level (highest point)
2. l000ft above the valley level (highest point)
3. 2000ft above water 4. Both a & c
9. Maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members are
contained in
1. QCM 2. Operation manual
3. MS manual 4. Organisation manual
10. Minimum flight attitude for each route required for scheduled not operator
forms a pert of
1. Operations manual 2. Flight manual
3. Route guide 4. None of the above
11. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be continued
should any instrument become inoperative is contained in 1. Flight manual 2. Emergency check list
3. Operations manual 4. None of the above
13. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operations
manual and aircraft flight manual preference will be given to
1. Flight manual 2. Any one can be accepted
3. Operation manual 4. Approach DGCA
15. When an aircraft is landing under INE it shall be provided with a radio
equipment capable of receiving signals
1. From VOR station 2. From ILS system
3. From ATC transponder
4. Providing guidance to a point which visual landing can be effected
3. C of A 4. Both a & b
17. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by DGCA that they are familiar with
1. Landing of an aircraft 2. ATC system
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
18. Minimum number of flight , a first pilot should have made along the route over which he is required to
fly in VFR condition in
1. One 2. Three
3. Two 4. None of the above
19 All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check
1. Once a year 2. Once in two year
3. Twice ayear 4. None of the above
21. Ensuring that aeroplane loading & the centre of gravity are with in the prescribed limits is the
responsibility of
1. AME 2. QCM
3. Co Pilot 4. Pilot in command
22. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provide with one approved life jacket for each person on
board when it is flown away from land at a distance of
1. 20 NM 2. 50 NM
3. 100 NM 4. None of the above
23. An independent emergency power supply system installed on a heavy aircraft should be able to
illuminate the artifical horizon for a minimum period of
1. 10mm 2. 20mm
3. 30 mm 4. None of the above
24. A totally independent emergency power supply is required for operating & illuminating at least for 30
mm
1. Artifical horizon 2. Turn & Slip indicator
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
25. Equipment to measure & indicate rate of total cosmic radiation shall be installed on all aeroplanes
operating
1. Below 49000ft 2. Above 49000ft
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
26. The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds 1. Radio equipment license 2. Flight
navigator license
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
27. Each cabin crew member assigned in emergency evacuation duties shall occupy a seat
1. During take off& landing 2. During emergency condition
3. Whenever pilot in command directs 4. Both a & c
28. General Aviation aeroplanes mean
1. All aeroplanes excluding these engaged in air transport
2. a) plus aerial work
3. All aeroplanes that carry passengers
4. Aeroplanes certified in private category for state government
29. Ensuring that passengers are made familiar with the location & use of emergency equipment on board is
the duty of
1. Pilot in command 2. Air hostess
3. Flight crew 4. Cabin crew
30. During flight when capacity to perform duty by a flight crew is significantly reduced due to impairment of
faculty as a result of sickness the pilot in command should
1. Carry on with the flight to the planned destination
2. Assign the duties of sick crew member to another crew member
3. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
31. A helicopter of performance that in case of critical power unit failure is able to land on the rejected take
off or safely, continue the flight to an appropriatel landing area depending upon the failure occurred is of
performance class
1. one 2. Three
3. Two 4. Four
32. A helicopter with performance such that power unit failure at any point in the flight profile demands a
forced landing is of performance class
1. 2. 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
35. Helicopter operating in IFR condition shall have (in addition to instrument in VFR flying)
1. Slip indicator 2. Landing light
3. Position light 4. None of the above
36. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio
equipment capable of receiving signals providing guidance to
1. A point from visual landing can be effected
2. A point from which instrument landing can be effected
3. ATC transponder 4. None of the above
37. All helicopter of class 1 or 2 intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly
mean of flotation if distance from I and at normal cruise speed corresponds to more than
1. 10 2. 30
3. 20 4. 45
39. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to fly to helicopter to which the flight
is planned
1. Only
2. Plus for an additional 15 mm + 10% of planned flight time
3. Plus for an additional 20 mm + 10% of planned flight time
4. None of the above