Module 7 Maintenace Practices PDF

1
Module 7
Maintenance
Practices
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Safety Precautions Aircraft and Workshop
1.
A CO2 extinguisher is used on

solid, liquid, hot metal and electrical fires
solid, liquid and electrical fires
Hot metal fires would be extinguished with foam
solid and liquid fires

2.
Fire on landing gear brake should be extinguished with

carbon dioxide extinguisher
water extinguisher
dry powder extinguisher
3.
Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with

tin and silver
tin and copper
copper and silver
4.
Neither oil nor grease should be used as a lubricant on couplings or pipelines carrying
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Kerosene
5.
The colour of CO2 type fire extinguisher is

red
green
black
6.
Before 1997 CO2 was colour coded black. Now the cylinders are red with
black top. It is unlikely (but possible) that the question has been updated.
Risk assessments should only be carried out on

all tasks and processes that are performed
tasks using hazardous chemicals
tasks carried out above the height of 6 foot
7.
Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire?

Water
BCF
CO2
8.
In an oxygen system, if the pressure drops to 500 PSI, it
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causes anoxia
begins to overheat
blocks the oxygen system regulator
At low pressure, air can mix with the oxygen. The

moisture in the air freezes as the gas expands on
exit of the system and blocks the regulator
9.
You are involved with a fire caused by titanium swarf. What type of extinguishant should
you use to deal with the fire?
CO2
Dry asbestos wool and chalk powder
Chemical foam
10.
What is the colour of a powder extinguisher?

Red
Blue
Green
11.
If an oxygen cylinder pressure falls below 500 PSI

the diluter stick will stick
the oxygen will degrade and cause anoxia
condensation will cause corrosion
12.
Which type of fire extinguishers can be used in the cabin?

C.T.C.
water or B.C.F.
M.B.
13.
After working with epoxy resins, how is natural oil returned to the skin?
Acetone/lanolin mixture
Epoxy removing cream
Acetone is used to remove epoxy resin, but it dries the skin, so it is mixed
with lanolin to prevent this (same mixture as nail varnish remover).
Refatting cream
14.
The minimum 'no smoking' zone around an aircraft when refuelling is

15m
10m
6m
15.
Once a person has been disconnected from the source of an electrical shock the next step
should be
check for pulse and start cardiac massage if necessary
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seek assistance immediately
check for breathing and start AR if necessary
16.
What can cause dermatitis?

Not wearing eye protection when using solvents
Washing hands in solvents
Inhalation of paint fumes
17.
If there is an electrical fire, what are the safe procedures?

Fight the fire
Call fire service and fight the fire (if possible)
Evacuate
18.
When mixing acid and water

it does not matter which way the two are mixed
the acid should always be added to the water
the water should always be added to the acid
19.
An aircraft should not be refueled when

the APU is running
within 10 metres (30 feet) of radar operating
within 30 metres (100 feet) of radar operating
20.
What is the colour of a BCF fire extinguisher?

Green
Blue
Red
21.
The most appropriate fire extinguisher for an aircraft wheel and brake fire would be
water
carbon dioxide
dry powder
22.
Which type of extinguisher can be used for an electric fire?

Foam
CO2
Water
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23.
A dry powder extinguisher is coloured

green
blue
red
Workshop Practices
1. One quart is how much in millilitres?

946 ml
952 ml
1000 ml
2. On a hollow tube where would a small indentation normally be unacceptable?
In the mid 1/3 section
Nowhere on the tube is an indentation acceptable
In either of the outer 1/3 portion of the tube
3. What type of grinding wheel would you sharpen an HSS drill bit on?
A fine wheel
A coarse wheel
A Green Grit (Silicon Carbide) wheel is used for Tungsten Carbide bit tools
(Non-steel). For HSS you need a fine Grey Aluminium Oxide wheel.
A green wheel
4. When using a reamer
use no lubricant
use the same lubricant as was used on the drill bit
use lard oil
5. How many teeth per inch are used on a hacksaw blade for cutting hard metal?
36
26
Blades are available 18 - 32 TPI. Greatest TPI is for hard metals.
54
6. How many strokes per minute are used on a hacksaw when cutting thick metal?
60
50
30
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7. When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component can be protected from
damage by the sling by
using a suitably shaped sling
using spreader bars and packing
fabricating alternative lifting points
8. Gas bottles for CO2, air and acetylene are coloured
green, grey, maroon
grey, maroon, green
black, grey, maroon
9. To drill a 1/4 inch hole in titanium, the correct starting procedure would be
to centre drill
to centre punch
to drill 1/4 inch hole direct
10. In a torque wrench of handle length, L = 12 in. and an extension E = 3 in, the desired torque
value is 300 lbs.in. the dial should read
240 lb.ins.
Requried torque =12x300/12+3 =240.
280 lb.ins.
375 lb.ins.
11. When a torque loading is specified for a castellated or slotted nut on an undrilled new bolt
the torque should be applied and the bolt suitably drilled for the split pin
the bolt should be pre-drilled and the torque increased if necessary to allow the split pin to
be fitted
the bolt should be pre-drilled, the torque applied and the nut eased back, if necessary, to
allow the split pin to be fitted
12. A reamer with spiral flutes is removed
clockwise
straight
anticlockwise
13. The difference between high and low limits of a size for a dimension is known as the
deviation
fit
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tolerance
14. Rubber components should be stored
in a well lit room
in warm and humid conditions
in a cool dark area
15. When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those for
aluminium alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a
higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill
lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill
lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill
16. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of
90 and turn at a low speed
118 and turn at a high speed
140 and turn at a low speed
17. When stop drilling a crack, what is the typical drill size used?
0.025 inch
0.250 inch
0.125 inch
18. When degreasing aluminium alloys, and no trichloroethylene is available, a suitable alternative
is
M.E.K.
dilute sulphuric acid
white spirit and naphtha
19. A grinding wheel is normally refaced by
holding a hard wood scraper against the rotating wheel
dressing with a special tool
grinding through using another grinding wheel
20. When checking a torque wrench 15 inches long, the load required to give torque of 120 lbs.in.
is
6 lbs
8 lbs
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10 lbs
21. How would you check the setting of an adjustable reamer?
External calipers
Ring gauge
Dial test indicator and 'V' blocks
22. What is the specified lubricant for drilling brass?
None
Paraffin
Lard oil
23. In the Limit System, the term 'allowance' is the
hole diameter variation
shaft diameter variation
difference between shaft and hole diameters
24. Which is correct concerning the use of a file?
The terms `double-cut` and `second-cut` have the same meaning in reference to files
A smoother finish can be obtained by using a double-cut file than by using a single-cut file
Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except when filing very soft metals such as lead
or aluminium
25. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in the opposite
direction to remove from the hole
Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and reduce the pressure
when finishing the cut
Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction
26. Of what tolerance is the following an example? 1 in. + 0.002 - 0.001
Bilateral
Multilateral
Unilateral
27. How should a scraper be finally sharpened?
By draw filing
On an oil-stone
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On a grindstone
28. How is a D.T.I. initially set up?
The needle zeroed, then the plunger fully extended
The gauge plunger should be partly depressed and the needle zeroed
The gauge plunger should be fully extended and the needle zeroed
29. Nickel alloy chisels should be sharpened
on a grindstone
on an oilstone
by filing
30. What type of lubricant should be used when drilling aluminium?
Paraffin
None
Vegetable oil
31. How are spring dividers sharpened?
By filing the outside of the points
By grinding the inside of the points
By stoning the outside of the points
32. What would be the result of an insufficient clearance angle on a twist drill?
It would tend to pull through the hole
It would produce an oversize hole
It would cut slowly, if at all
33. A tolerance given on a dimension is indicated
by the prefix TOL with the permitted tolerance
by a plus and minus sign preceding the permitted tolerance
by enclosing the permitted tolerance within a triangle
34. How much material should be allowed for reaming?
0.001 in.
0.003 in.
0.010 in.
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35. After cutting a 3/8 inch BSF internal thread and stud, it is found that the stud is too large. How
is a fit achieved?
Remove the male thread crests with a fine emery cloth
Grind a taper on the end of the bolt
Re-adjust the die and re-cut the male thread
36. You have reamed out a hole in a piece of titanium. How should you remove the reamer safely
to prevent unnecessary damage?
Remove it, but in the same rotation as if cutting
Allow the reamer to pass right through the hole
Anti-clockwise
37. Why are some components torque loaded?
To ensure that their elastic limit is not exceeded
To ensure that they are tightened to their yield point
To ensure they do not vibrate loose
38. When using a reamer, in which direction should it be turned?
Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise when removing
Anti-clockwise when Cutting and removing
Clockwise when cutting and removing
39. Draw filing produces
a fine finish
a coarse finish
a mottled finish
40. A safe edge of a file is used
against a finished surface
against a rough unfinished surface
to give a fine polished finish to a smooth surface
41. What is the minimum number of hacksaw blade teeth that should be in contact with the
material being cut?
4
3
2
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42. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches + 0.005 - 0.002. Which
statement is true?
The minimum acceptable size is 4.385 inches
The maximum acceptable size is 4.385 inches
The maximum acceptable size is 4.389 inches
43. Chalk when used with a fine file produces
a finer finish
a milled type surface
a ground type surface
44. When using a hand file correctly, the downward pressure should be used only
on the forward and return stroke
on the forward stroke
on a return stroke
45. The size of the nibs of vernier calipers can be ascertained by
using the standard of 0.693 inches
noting the dimension engraved on the instrument
measuring the steel rule
46. A shaft dimension given as 1.225 inches +/- 0.003 inches followed by 'MMC' should be
manufactured to what size?
1.225 inches
1.228 inches
1.222 inches
47. 2 microns is
0.002 inch
0.000 002 inch
0.002 mm
48. The edge or surface of a part from which dimensions are measured from is called the
water line
reference plane
datum
49. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables
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the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart
avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant
distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected
50. If a test or inspection instrument has no calibration data supplied by the manufacturer, you
would use the calibration data provided by
the British Standards Quality Assurance documentation referring to calibration of
instrumentation and test equipment
CAAIPs
the Maintenance Manual
51. Why are test or inspection instruments regularly calibrated and certified?
To ensure they are being used regularly
To ensure they will perform within the required limits of operation
To ensure they can handle the range of measurements required of them
52. Who is responsible for ensuring that weight and balance instrumentation is serviceable before
use?
The manufacturer of the equipment
The person responsible for carrying out the weight and balance procedure
An engineer holding a license in the instrument category
53. At which frequency is the calibration of frequently used crimping tools carried out?
Annually
Every 1000 crimps
Bi-annually
54. When using the trepanning tool, the hole to be drilled should be
1/32 inch larger than the guide pin
same diameter as the guide pin
1/32 inch smaller than the guide pin
55. When using a strip-board, the tracks on a PCB are etched
after fitment and soldering of components
before component fitment
after fitment but before soldering the components
56. A 'light drive' fit for a 3/8 inch diameter bolt has a maximum allowance of
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0.005 inch
0.0025 inch
0.0006 inch
57. The intervals for calibration of test equipment
are as specified in EASA Part-145
are every year
are different from one appliance to another
58. What drill angle is used to drill titanium?
105-120 degrees
90-100 degrees
130-140 degrees
59. When tightening a nut on a bolt the torque loading applied is
independent of whether the threads are wet or dry
the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular distance from the point of
application to the centre of the bolt
inversely proportional to the force applied to the spanner
60. The UK standard of limits and fits is
BS308
BS4500
BS8888
61. When using a Pacific tensiometer the correct tension is found by
reading dial, provided the correct riser is used for the cable diameter
comparing reading to chart provided
The Pacific Tensiometer is NOT a direct reading type.
adding reading to riser number

62. What temperature should the heat gun be set for shrinking heat shrink sleeve?
At the rated temperature
100C above rated temperature
100C below rated temperature
Rated temperature is the normal working

temperature of the heat-shrink material. The
shrink at approximately 100C above that
63. Calibration of aircraft hydrostatic weighing equipment is

not required
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done once a year
carried out every time before an aircraft is weighed and adjusted by operator
64. When drilling light alloy
no lubricant is required
use the specified lubricant
lard oil should be used
65. The picture shows a torque wrench with an extension. To apply a torque of 350 lb.in. the
reading on the dial should be
245 lb.in.
350 lb.in.
280 lb.in.
66. Reaming light alloy tube is done with
hard base lubricant
the same oil and lubrication as used for cutting
no lubricant
67. Tolerance is the
allowable error due to faulty workmanship and tools
difference between worn and new tools
the difference between a hole and shaft size
68. What should be done if a tool is found not to be working to its calibrated requirements?
It should be removed from service, marked as unserviceable and sent away for overhaul
A mechanic should adjust it to restore it to the correct operation
It should be placed back into stores and kept in service until the next calibration is due
69. When carrying out soldering to an end termination and a wire, you should tin
neither the wire or the termination as tinning is not required
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both the end of the wire and the termination
only the end of the wire
70. Run-out of a rod is measured using
DTI, surface plate and V-blocks
vernier and V-blocks
micrometer and V-blocks
71. How would you mark a defect on an exhaust system?
Chalk
Pencil
Special zinc/copper tipped marking tool
72. Which of the following is the most appropriate filing technique?
Even pressure forward and backwards
Pressure backwards, relieve pressure forwards
Pressure forwards, relieve pressure backwards
73. Stubborn pins in file teeth should be removed by
using file card
pricking out with sharp point
tapping file gently on workbench
74. When using low tungsten hacksaw blades it is recommended to use
60 strokes per minute
50 stroke per minute
40 strokes per minute
75. Units of torque are
lbs.ft and lbs.in
Lbs and Kg
lbs/ft2 and lbs/in2
76. The calibration of a piece of test equipment is suspect. Your actions would be
remove from service and annotate accordingly
note and rectify later
calibrate/rectify immediately
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77. What should you check before using a set of V blocks?
It doesn't matter
That both blocks have the same identification stamps
The calibration date
Tools
1. A drill and wire size gauge has how many pre drilled holes?
1 - 50
10 - 60
10 - 50
2. How many strokes per minute should generally be used with a hacksaw?
55
30
60
3. What type of drill would you use on carbon fibre?
Tungsten carbide
Diamond tipped
Carborundum
4. A micro-shaver is used to
mill the rivet head after forming
cut rivets to length prior to forming
trim the shank diameter prior to forming
5. How many teeth per inch are there on a fine hacksaw blade?
64
32
16
6. What is the normal cutting angle of a drill?
12
130
59
7. When using a moving coil as an ammeter the greatest amount of current flows through the
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bushes
shunt
coil
8. When using the old style vernier caliper for taking internal measurements
add the nib measurements
subtract the nib measurements
the nib size has no relevance and can be ignored
9. To carry out an insulation test on a wire rated at 115 volts you would use
a 500 volt megger
a 250 volt megger
the megger should be twice the voltage of the system under test
a 115 volt megger

10. The normal drill angles are
cutting angle 12, web angle 130 and clearance angle 130
11. The abbreviation 'A/F' means
Associated Fine
American Fine
Across Flats
12. A rivet shaver is used to
mill the tail after setting
mill the tail after cutting
mill the head flush
13. A drill and wire gauge has holes numbered
1 to 80
10 to 60
1 to 50
14. A 250 volt megger should not be used
on electronic equipment
in fuel tanks
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on radio aerials
15. If the leads of a megger are held apart
the spring will return the needle to infinity
the spring will return the needle to the zero stop
if the handle was turned the meter would read infinity
16. One megohm is equal to
1,000 ohms
100,000 ohms
1,000,000 ohms
17. Reamers are used to
drill accurate holes
to make holes oversize
enlarge holes to accurate dimensions
18. The pitch of a hacksaw blade is
the number of teeth on the blade
its length
the number of teeth per inch
19. The web angle of a normal twist drill is
130
5
12
20. The leads of a bonding tester
have critical lengths and the resistance of the leads is accounted for
are interchangeable, one 60 foot long having two prongs and a 6 foot one with a single
prong
are supplied in 60 foot and 6 foot lengths but can be varied due to wear
21. Expanding reamers are used to
ream tapered holes
ream holes of different diameters by adjusting the position of the blades
ream holes in metal that has been heated
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22. The main scale on a 24/25 vernier caliper is divided into
inches, tenths and twentieths
inches, tenths and thousandths
inches, tenths and fortieths
23. The vernier height gauge uses the same principle as the
vernier caliper
micrometer
bevel protractor
24. One revolution of the thimble of the English micrometer produces a linear movement of the
spindle of
0.001 inch
0.040 inch
0.025 inch
25. The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread is
0.02 mm
1.0 mm
0.5 mm
26. When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where the required value falls
in the middle of the range
at the top end of the range
at the bottom end of the range
27. The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable is
an ammeter
a high tension circuit tester
a low reading ohmmeter
28. If all three prongs on a bonding tester were shorted together, the metre would read
zero
FSD
off-scale high
29. The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is
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0.025 inches
0.050 inches
0.0001 inches
30. The vernier scale on an English 49/50 caliper is divided into
50 equal divisions
49 equal divisions
40 equal divisions
31. The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into
40 equal divisions
25 equal divisions
50 equal divisions
32. The measuring capacity of a Vernier Caliper is
the length of the graduated scale
the length of the graduated scale less the length of the vernier scale
the length of the graduated scale plus the width of the nibs
33. Vee-blocks are manufactured
in sets of three and identified for use as a set
as single items and may be paired with any other vee-block
in sets of two and identified for use as a set
34. The metric micrometer reading shown is
13.37 mm
13.87 mm
10.337 mm
35. A ketts saw is used because
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its low torque allows single handed use
it is available both pneumatic and electric
it can cut thicker metal than is required by most repair schemes
36. The gears used in a pistol windy are
gears in a gearbox
gyrator type gears
spur gears
37. What type of gear is used in a pneumatic gun drill?
vane type gears used for toughness
spur gears
helical gears
38. Cross cut files
cut in both directions
cut on the forward stroke only
cut on the backward stroke only
39. The correct size spanner for use on a unified 5/16 in. threaded hexagon headed bolt is
5/16 in A/F
1/4 in A/F
1/2 in A/F
40. The length of the Vernier Scale in a 24/25 Vernier Caliper is
0.6 in
1.2 in
2.45 in
41. What is used to measure the depth of a blend after a corrosion repair?
Dial Test Indicator
Straight edge and slip gauges
Vernier caliper
42. Vacu-blast beads re-used on an aluminium-alloy component, after being used on an steel
component will
be ineffective in abrasion
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cause clogging of the vacu-blast machine
cause corrosion to the component
43. The main scale on a 49/50 Vernier caliper is divided into
inches, tenths and fortieths
inches, tenths and twentieths
inches, tenths and thousandths
44. Centre punches are made of
high carbon steel with the tip hardened and tempered
case hardened mild steel
high carbon steel hardened and tempered
45. What type of flutes should be used in a reamer for cutting titanium?
Tapered flutes
Straight flutes
Spiral flutes
46. The depth micrometer reading shown is
0.336 ins.
0.361 ins.
0.261 ins.
47. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?
90 degrees
118 degrees
65 degrees
48. What should the point angle of a drill be if it is to be used for drilling titanium (drill size below
1/4 inch diameter)?
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90 to 105
105 to 120
90
49. How are pin punches classified?
By type and diameter of the small end
By overall length and type
By length and diameter of the small end
50. How are spring dividers classified?
The diameter of a circle scribed with the legs at 600
The diameter of the largest circle that can be scribed
The length of the legs
51. The purpose of a taper tap is to
produce a fine thread
form a tapered thread
start a thread
52. Why is the Vee cut in the base of a scribing block?
to allow the scribing block to be used on the edge of the marking off table
to trap any dirt that may be adhering to the surface of the marking off table
to reduce the contact area with the marking off table and reduce friction
53. An inside micrometers normal measurement range is
in. to 10in
2in. to 10in
2in. to 12in
54. What is the purpose of Target Points on a Vernier caliper?
To enable spring dividers to be accurately set
For scribing lines inside tubes
To zero the caliper
55. Die Nuts are used to
form external threads
clean up damaged threads
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form internal threads
56. A Dial Test Indicator may be used for
checking dimensions to within 0.125''
checking a round bar for bow
checking any known depth
57. Which cut of a file should be used on mild steel?
Second cut
Single cut
Double cut
Material removal is greater with Double Cut, and should NOT be used with soft metals
58. Which of the following statements is correct?

To cut an aluminium block use a fine hacksaw blade
To cut thin mild steel plate use a coarse blade
To cut thin sheet metal use a fine blade
59. A power meter indicates that a circuit has a power of 4 kW. Separate readings of the voltage
and current are 400 V and 20 A respectively. The Power factor is
20
PF = TP/AP TP = 4,000 AP = 20 x 400 = 8000 4000/8000 = 1/2
2
60. What is a key-seat rule used for?
Marking lines which are parallel to a true edge
Providing a positive driving force
Marking lines parallel to an axis of a round bar
61. When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed
in series with the shunt
in series with the circuit
in parallel with the circuit
62. A 3 bit multimeter will indicate readings up-to
9999
1999
999
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63. The resolution a bevel protractor can be read to is
50'
5'
1
64. If an English micrometer is showing 4 main divisions, 3 sub-divisions and the 25th thimble
division was in line, what would the reading be?
0.475 in.
0.175 in.
0.555 in.
65. An open circuit on an ohmmeter would be indicated by a reading of
zero resistance
a negative resistance
infinite resistance
66. The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance is greater than
1 ohm
0.05 ohms
0.5 ohms
67. Torque loading is determined by multiplying the tangent force applied at the free end of the
spanner
by the distance moved by the point of application
by its distance of application from the axis of the bolt
by the dia. of the bolt and the distance of its point of application
68. Which electrical measuring device needs a power source?
An ammeter
A voltmeter
An ohmmeter
69. When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the indication is
RMS values
peak values
Average values
70. On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the Common socket?
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Black
Green
Red
71. The Vernier scale of a Bevel Protractor is shown below. What is the reading?
63 15'
86 15'
38 45'
72. Three point micrometers are for measuring
external dimensions
linear dimensions
internal dimensions
73. When is a coarse hacksaw blade used?
When cutting ferrous metals only
When cutting material of thick cross section
When cutting material of thin cross section
74. A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing the meter in
series with the power source
parallel with the component
series with the component
75. Which of the following reamers would you use in a hole having a keyway?
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Spiral fluted reamer
Expanding reamer
Parallel reamer
76. What is the purpose of a Morse taper on large sizes of twist drills?
To give a positive drive when fitted into a tapered chuck
To ensure that the drill is fitted correctly
To allow the drills to be fitted to a drilling machine
77. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard metal?
90 degrees
118 degrees
100 degrees
78. The threads per inch on the spindle of an English micrometer are
40 t.p.i.
50 t.p.i.
25 t.p.i
79. The spring loaded ratchet attached to the spindle of a standard external micrometer produces
a pre-set feel during use
a smooth free run during use
a means for controlling thread binding
80. The purpose of the land on a twist drill is to
to allow clearance for swarf
present the cutting edge at the required angle
reduce friction
81. The name given to the moving scale on the Vernier caliper is
the main scale
the vernier scale
the curso
82. What is the reading of the Vernier caliper scale in inches shown below?
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1.8016
1.816
0.1816
83. What does the cut of a file refer to?
Grade
Number of teeth per inch
Arrangement of the teeth
84. Why are teeth of hacksaw blades off-set?
To provide clearance for non-cutting part of the blade
To allow a quick cutting positive action
To provide greater strength
85. How are files classified?
By length, grade and material
By length, grade, cut and section
By length, grade, cut, section and material
86. Hammers are classified by
shape of head and length of shaft
weight and type of head
weight and length of shaft
87. What does the term 'second cut' indicate as applied to hand files?
The section of the file
The grade of the file
A reconditioned file
88. What comprises a full set of BA taps?
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A taper, second and plug tap
A taper and plug tap
A taper and second tap
89. The teeth on a hacksaw blade
should point away from the handle
should point towards the handle
does not matter which way they point
90. What is the clearance angle on a normal twist drill?
12 degrees
130 degrees
59 degrees
91. When tapping blind holes
a set of three taps is used
a single tap is used
a set of two taps is used
92. On a torque wrench the torque loading is
the tangential application of the force plus the perpendicular distance to the centre of the
bolt
the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular distance to the centre of the
bolt
the tangential application of the force divided by the perpendicular distance to the centre of
the bolt
93. Surface Plates are used
only on surface tables
for filing flat surfaces
for marking out work and testing flat surfaces
94. The main scale of a Metric Vernier Caliper is calibrated in
millimetres
micro-meters
millimetres and half millimetres
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95. For a drill to cut properly it is essential that the point angle be the same on each side, for
general use the angle is
130
12
59
96. When using a bench grinding machine the wheel rotates
from the top down towards the work piece
from the bottom upwards past the work piece
either direction as selected on starting the machine
97. The thimble of an English micrometer is divided into
40 equal divisions
50 equal divisions
25 equal divisions
98. The reading on the inch micrometer scale shown is
0.483 ins
4.758 ins
0.488 ins
99. The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is
0.050 in
0.001 in
0.025 in
100. An avometer can measure alternating current because it has a
bridge rectifier circuit
moving iron
moving coil
101. Taper reamers are classified by
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the diameter of the small end
a type number (1 to 10)
the diameter of the large end
102. A crimped electrical connection is suspected to be high resistance. How would you verify this
without disconnecting the circuit?
Measure the millivolt drop across the connection with a millivolt meter
Measure the resistance with an ohmmeter
Measure the resistance with a 250 volt megger
103. How would you measure continuity of a coaxial cable?
With a safety ohmmeter
With a reflectometer
With a 250 volt megger
104. On a long coaxial cable how would you check for discontinuities and shorts in situ?
Safety ohmmeter
Time Domain Reflectometer
Continuity tester
105. If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the procedure?
The damaged leads and the tester should be returned to the manufacturer for repair and
calibration
Provided that the damage is situated close to the end of the leads the cable may be
shortened
A new lead may be manufactured using the correct current rated cable
106. When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known resistance exists, what
instrument would you use?
A multimeter
A high resistance insulation tester
A lamp and battery
107. Taper pins are classified by
length and taper
length and diameter of small end
length and diameter of large end
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108. Live AC circuits are to be checked for open circuits by the use of
multimeter set to AC volts
ammeter set to amps
ohmmeter set to megohms
109. A multiplier resistance is used to extend the working range of the
voltmeter
ammeter
ohmmeter
110. On twist drill chart, small drills have
their sizes in fractions, in inches
largest numbers
smallest numbers
111. The Sine Bar is used to
produce angles using slip gauges
check accuracy of slip gauges
by itself to calculate angles
112. On a vernier micrometer, what will three turns of the barrel represent?
0.075 inch
0.100 inch
0.050 inch
113. How does a windy drill get its power?
Spur gears
Bevel gears
Impeller
114. How are taper reamers classified?
Length and diameter of large end
Taper and diameter of small end
Length, diameter of large end, and diameter of small end
115. An AC voltmeter reads
peak to peak value
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peak value
average value
116. A hydrometer is used to
check battery electrolyte density
check battery electrolyte specific gravity
take humidity reading
117. A pyrometer is a
thermometer for use at high temperature
foam/granule fire extinguisher
pyramid shaped altimeter
118. A hygrometer is used to
check battery electrolyte relative density
check battery electrolyte specific gravity
take humidity reading
119. A 0.625 inch diameter drill is identified by
Letter E
5/8
Letter A
120. To measure AC with a moving coil, it
is rectified and measures average value
is rectified and measures peak value
can be directly connected
121. What is a countersink tool used for?
To adjust the depth of a countersink
To prevent damage to pipework in a blind hole
To adjust the angle of a countersink
122. PIDG crimp tools are marked by
coloured handles and wire crimp size on tool
wire crimp size on tool only
coloured handles only
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123. When measuring a square waveform with a multimeter, what voltage does it display?
Equal to RMS value
More than RMS value
Less than RMS value
124. If an ammeter reads 0 - 1mA FSD, what would you be required to do to enable it to read
10mA FSD?
Place a 9.9 ohm resistor across the coils
Place a 9 ohm resistor in series with the meter
Place a 5.8 ohm resistor as a shunt in parallel with the meter
125. The internal resistance of a voltmeter is
high
low
no more than 0.05 ohms
126. The internal resistance of an ammeter is
high
1 ohm
low
127. A drill bit of 0.250 inch would be
7/32 and letter G
8/32 and letter E
6/32 and letter F
128. Needle grease points are used on
large pivoted joints
items with gland seals
small pivoted joints
129. A flat chisel being used for aluminium should have a point angle of
55 degrees
30 degrees
65 degrees
130. A mill file can be used for
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general purpose
corners less than 60 degrees
saw sharpening
131. A rawhide mallet is
available with copper inserts
less expensive than bossing mallet
used for giving softer blows than boxwood mallet
132. Tension files
can be used to cut in one direction only
clog easily
can cut in either direction
133. The scale on an ohmmeter is
cramped at high resistance
cramped at low resistance
linear across the range
134. Three revolutions of a 40 T.P.l. micrometer will show
0.03 inch
0.003 inch
0.075 inch
135. To carry out a continuity test you would use
an HT circuit tester
a low reading ohmmeter
ammeter
136. What is the resolution of a standard DTI?
0.020 mm
0.010 mm
0.050 mm
137. In a moving coil meter the deflecting force is provided by
a current carrying coil pivoted in a permanent magnet field
a soft iron permanent magnet
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hairsprings which move the pointer towards full scale
138. The force acting on a meter which returns the pointer to zero is called the
turning force
controlling force
deflecting force
139. The forces acting on a meter which moves the pointer over the scale is called
the deflecting force
the controlling force
the turning force
140. The resistance of an ammeter must be
low to prevent volts drop across it
low because the ammeter is in parallel with the circuit
high to create a large volts drop across it
141. The resistance of a voltmeter must be
low to prevent overloading the circuit
high so that little current passes through it
low to provide a parallel path for the circuit current
142. When operating a grease gun, you
clean grease fitting with clean dry cloth beforehand
apply a pressure of 50 - 80 psi.
verify grease fitting can accept grease by hand feel
143. What is the lip clearance of a normal twist drill?
125-135 degrees
135-145 degrees
105-115 degrees
144. What is the included angle of a drill to be used on soft metals?
40 degrees
90 degrees
118 degrees
145. Which is preferred for filing with a double-cut file?
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All metals
Soft metals
Hardened metals
Avionic General Test Equipment
1.
When an anodised surface coating is damaged in service, it can be partially restored by

a chemical surface treatment
a suitable mild cleaner
applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer
2.
During an insulation test

recorded with aircraft power supplied to the circuit being tested
depend on the ambient conditions during the test
always be infinity if the wires have been installed correctly
3.
When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester - short together the three
prongs of both probes and ensure which of the following?
The meter reads 0.1 ohm
A zero reading
A full scale reading is obtained
4.
The damping force in a meter

assists the pointer to move over the scale
prevents oscillation of the pointer
returns the pointer to zero
5.
When turning the handle on a megger with the probes kept apart
the needle moves to zero
the needle stays at infinity
the needle deflects to infinity
6.
How do you prime a dead weight tester?

wind handle fully out and pour fluid in the reservoir
wind handle fully in and pour fluid in the reservoir
Remove the weights and pour fluid into the hole
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7.
When using a digital meter to test a diode, a correct operation of the diode is indicated by
a volt drop of
0.3V to 0.7V
1.5V to 2V
2.5V to 2.8V
8.
Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is tested with a

light source and optometer
calibrated light generator and opto-power meter
multimeter
9.
What is the problem with using a megger on a piece of equipment containing capacitors
Feedback from the capacitors will blow the megger up
Impedance in the capacitors will give a false high reading
Fluctuating readings will occur while the capacitors charge up
10.
If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended in free air, what
will the meter read?
Zero
Infinity
Mid scale - it is a ratiometer movement and there is no current flowing in the external circuit
11.
What is the primary purpose of bonding aircraft components?

To prevent lightning strike damage
To provide a circuit return path
To ensure all components are of the same electrical potential
12.
If the two prongs of a bonding tester are shorted and the single prong lead is in free space,
what will be the reading on the scale?
1 ohm
Zero
Full scale
13.
A fuel quantity test set has an externally adjustable

capacitor
resistor
inductor
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14.
When connecting or disconnecting an electrical appliance

the wall socket switch must be off
the wall socket switch can be on
the appliance must be off
15.
When testing an anodised component with an insulation tester

take the anodised coating into account when reading results
the anodised coating is too thin to make any difference
ensure probes penetrate the anodised layer
16.
When using a bonding tester

ensure prongs do not penetrate anodising layer
an anodised component cannot be tested
ensure prongs penetrate anodised layer
17.
When testing a circuit with suppressors, with a megger, you should disconnect the
suppressors because
condensers will cause inaccurate readings because of the chokes
charging/discharging of capacitors causes fluctuating readings
they will cause the megger to burn-out
18.
The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is

1 megohm
1 ohm
1 kilohm
19.
Primary structure bonding should be no more than

1.0 ohm
50 milliohms
0.5 ohms
20.
On a Bonding Tester the number of probes on the 60 ft and 6ft leads respectively are
1 and 2
2 and 1
2 and 2
21.
Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried out in the following order:
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continuity, bonding, functional, insulation
bonding, continuity, insulation, functional
functional, bonding, continuity, insulation
22.
On a static leak tester, pressure is released by

slowly opening the release knob for 3 minutes
an internal balance valve in the tester
a bleed valve in the tester
23.
When testing thermocouples using a test set the ambient temperature

is considered every time
is only considered when temperatures of 20C or above
never needs to be considered
24.
A pressure gauge is fitted to a Dead Weight Tester. The piston area is 0.25 sq.in. and the
total mass of the mass carrier and masses is 5lb. If the pressure gauge is accurate what pressure in
pounds per square inch (PSI) will it read?
20psi
200psi
1.25psi
25.
When insulation testing a circuit with suppressors, what should you do?
Disconnect the suppressors as they will obscure the readings
Bridge the suppressor terminals as you may damage them
Nothing, the suppressors will not affect the results
26.
Bonding lead testers are attached with

either of the leads can be connected anywhere
a 60 feet lead is connected to the main earth and a 6 foot test lead is connected to check the
resistance between selected points
a 6 feet test lead is connected to the main earth and a 60 feet lead is connected to check the
resistance between selected points
27.
Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two prongs shorted together with a
piece of metal. What would the indicator read?
Zero at the centre
Full scale right
Full scale left
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28.
The maximum resistance between isolated conducting parts which may be subject to
appreciable electrostatic charging and the main earth system should be
1 ohm
0.5 ohm
0.5 megohms or 100,000 ohms per square meter or foot
Engineering Drawings, Diagrams and Standards
1. What is third angle projection?
each view represents the side of the object furthest from the adjacent view
each view represents the side of the object nearest to it in the adjacent view
each view is at an angle of 30 degrees to the plane of projection
2. Sketches are usually made easier by the use of
plain white paper
graph paper
artists paper
3. What type of diagram shows the wire size required for a particular installation
a block diagram
a wiring diagram
a schematic diagram
4. For sketching purposes, almost all objects are composed of one or some combination of six
basic shapes; these include the
triangle, cylinder, cube, sphere, cone and circle
triangle, plane, circle, line, square and sphere
angle, arc, line, plane, square and circle
5. This drawing indicates
a blind tapped hole

a countersunk hole
a counterbored hole
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6. The width of a visible outline on a drawing is
0.5 mm
0.3 mm
0.7 mm
7. What does GA stand for on a drawing?
Gradient Axis
General assembly
General arrangement
8. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organizations approved by
CAA in accordance with the BCARs
British Standards Institute
SBAC
9. This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean
concentricity
angularity
cylindricity
10. Which pictorial projection shows one face in true elevation and line of depth normally draw at
30 or 45 to the horizontal?
Perspective
Isometric
Oblique
11. If a design amendment is made on a drawing
the old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added
no change in issue number or date is necessary
a new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing
12. The British Standard for Engineering Drawings is
BS 308
BS 307
BS 8888
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13. P.C.D. is an abbreviation for
Precision Circle Dimension
Pitch Cord Diameter
Pitch Circle Diameter
14. This represents
relief valve
squared shaft
bearing on shaft
15. This represents
an external thread
an internal thread
a counterbored hole
16. Drawing numbers are
unique to each drawing
changed after each drawing amended after May 28, 1999
the same as serial numbers
17. Hatching lines are usually drawn at:
45
30
60
18. The scale of an engineering drawing is shown as 1:4. This indicates it is
drawn four times larger
drawn to a quarter
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drawn to scale
19. An orthographic projection usually shows
a pictorial view of the object
one, three-dimensional view of an object
three, two-dimensional views of an object
20. When dimensioning a drawing, the dimension lines should be
only size dimensions
the minimum number of dimensions necessary to enable the component to be
manufactured
as many dimensions as possible
21. 'PFD' on an engineering drawing would indicate
repair and recondition
dye penetrant check
ultra-sonic test
22. S.W.G. is an abbreviation for
Standard Water Gauge
Screw Width Gauge
Standard Wire Gauge
23. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either primary or secondary, what
action should you adopt?
Upgrade it to 'primary'
Grade it as 'secondary'
Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary'
24. What colour is used to indicate a tertiary structure on a diagram or drawing?
Green
Yellow
Red
25. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?
Highly stressed parts but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
Lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc
Highly stressed parts and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life
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26. This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean
concentricity
angularity
cylindricity
27. This symbol means
first angle projection

second angle projection
third angle projection
28. The abbreviation B.A. means
British Arrangement
British Assembly
British Association
29. This tolerance symbol means
angularity
diameter
position
30. Where are correct layout, dimensioning, numbering and reference procedures for engineering
drawing are to be found?
BS 1916
BS 308
BS 8888
31. 10:1 on an engineering drawing indicates
the drawing is full size
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the drawing is ten times full size
the drawing is one tenth full size
32. When reading an engineering drawing, this symbol means
profile of a surface
profile of a position
profile of a line
33. Lines known as short dashes (thin) are used on drawings to indicate
hidden detail
cutting revolved
visible outlines
flatness
perpendicularity
position
35. Any change to a drawing
must be accompanied by the new issue number and date
requires a new drawing number
must be notified to the S.B.A.C.
36. This symbol on a drawing means
washed and packed

solution treated and requiring precipitation
solution treated and precipitated
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concentricity
dimensionality
diameter
38. Break lines are used
in sectional drawing
where it would be inconvenient (because of limited space) to draw long lengths of the same
section
to show where components are expected to break
39. An oblique projection
has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing depth drawn at 90
is the same as an isometric projection
has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing depth drawn at a
constant angle
40. A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought together on the aircraft is
called
a detail drawing
an installation drawing
a sectional drawing
41. A thread on a drawing is labeled - 20 UNF - 1B. The thread is
internal
either external or internal, depending on the application
external
42. NTS on a drawing stands for
Not To Scale
No Tolerance System
Not True Scale
43. A hydraulic system schematic drawing would indicate the
direction of fluid flow through the system
type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid
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specific location of the individual components within the aircraft
44. Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection?
It could have as many as eight views
One-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common
There are always at least two views
45. A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a
phantom line
hidden line
break line
46. One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the
size and shape of components within a system
physical location of components within a system
functional location of components within a system
47. This type of break line represents
round bar
square tube
round tube
48. What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge
or object not visible to the viewer?
Alternate short and long light dashes
Light solid line
Medium-weight dashed line
49. A specific measured distance from the datum or some other point identified by the
manufacturer, to a point in or on the aircraft is called a
specification number
zone number
station number
50. This electrical symbol represents a
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double pole - single throw switch

double pole - double throw switch
single pole - double throw switch
iron core inductor

variable inductor
air core inductor
Zener diode
NPN transistor
PNP transistor
53. In a first angle orthographic projection the plan view is placed
above the front elevation
below the front elevation
below the side elevation
54. When a cutting plane on a drawing cuts a web longitudinally, the web is
sectioned with different direction of hatch
not sectioned
sectioned the same as the rest of the view
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push-pull circuit breaker

push to reset circuit breaker
toggle switch circuit breaker
fuse
light bulb
flexible coupling
57. Water Lines are
front to rear measurements on the fuselage
left and right measurements on the fuselage
vertical measurements on the fuselage
58. When a cutting plane goes through a bush and bolt assembly, on the sectioned view
both the bush and the bolt will be hatched
the bush will be hatched but the bolt will not
neither the bush nor the bolt will be hatched
59. This symbol indicates that
machining is required on a particular surface

chisels must not be used
machining is required on all surfaces
60. This is a diagram of
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a voltage divider
a potentiometer
a voltage regulator
61. Which of the following lines indicate hidden detail on a drawing?
A broken line as shown in 3

A continuous line as shown in 1
A broken line as shown in 2
62. The letter A.F.D. in a circle stamped on a material indicates that it has
an across flats diameter bolt
been annealed fired and doped
been anodic flaw detected
63. Where would Zone 324 be found in ATA 100?
Between rear spar of wing and trailing edge of wing
Tip of horizontal stabilizer
Fwd of the wing rear spar
64. This is a diagram of a
variable resistor
rheostat
potentiometer
65. The latest drawing is identified by the
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amendment number
date
issue number
66. A geometric tolerance symbol indicating that one edge must be parallel to a datum edge would
be shown in which of the following conventions?
Convention A
Convention B
Convention C
Fits and Clearances
1.
A press fit requires

some sort of driving force
the shaft to be shrunk by cooling
the hole to be expanded by heat
2.
Which of the following shafts would you use to obtain a clearance fit in a bush 0.750 inch
diameter?
0.752 inch
0.748 inch
750 inch
3.
After mechanical removal of corrosion on an aluminium alloy casting, the length of the
blended recess should be
no more than twenty times the depth
no less than ten times the depth
no less than twenty times the depth
4.
Which of the following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge?

Allowance
Tolerance
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Clearance
5.
If there is a positive allowance between the smallest possible hole and the largest possible
shaft, the fit is known as
a clearance fit
an interference fit
a transition fit
6.
A tolerance is
a permitted variation on a dimension to allow for inaccuracy of equipment
a permitted difference between new and worn dimensions
a required difference in dimension between mating parts to obtain a certain class of fit
7.
The length of a blended repair of corrosion should be no less than

10 times its depth
5 times its depth
20 times its depth
8.
A transition fit is one in which the shaft is

smaller than the hole
larger than the hole
the same size as the hole
9.
The equipment required to carry out a run-out check on a shaft would be

a surface plate and a three leg trammel
a DTI and 'V' blocks
a ball bearing and a micrometer
10.
Which of the following is a 'Bilateral Tolerance'?

2 inches + 0.002
2 inches - 0.002
2 inches 0.002
11.
What is the maximum bow allowed in a strut?

1 in 500
1 in 600
1 in 200
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12.
Tolerances are classified in two ways, these are

Upper and lower
Dimensional and isometric
Dimensional and geometric
13.
What is the typical acceptable limit of a dent on a frame member?

Twice the skin gauge and 0.75 inch diameter
One gauge depth and 0.75 inch diameter
One and a half times the skin thickness
14.
A light drive clearance between 3/4 inch diameter bolt and hole, on a drawing would be
shown as
0.005 inches
0.0015 inches
0.0025 inches
15.
The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is

1:400
1:200
1:600
Electrical Cables and Connectors
1. Radio interference between co-axial cables can be reduced by

connecting the earths of the cables together at a common bonding point
provide shielding to the earthing connectors
connecting the earths of the cables to separate bonding points
2. When a co-axial cable is placed in a wire bundle, the loom
should have the co-axial cable on the outside for ease of inspection
carefully tied with lacing tape so as not to deform the dielectric.
should be tied together tightly using plastic ties (tie-wraps)
3. In a front release connector the pin will be
released from rear and extracted from the front
released from the front and extracted from the front
released from the front and extracted from the rear
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4. A diode is commonly used to protect a relay from spikes in the supply. Which of the following
would be suitable for this?
a Gunn diode
a Schottky diode
a Zener diode
5. When you change an EGT gauge, you should
do test letting new gauge 'soak' for 30 minutes then do test taking ambient temperature
into consideration
do a test immediately, taking ambient temperature into consideration
do a test without considering ambient temperature, as it is already accounted for by the
instrument
6. The maximum number of wire splice repairs in a single cable is
four
three
five
7. The crimping tool handle ratchet ensures
the jaws fully bottom before handles can be opened
the correct crimping tool force is used
the jaws fully open before crimping can take place
8. A new contactor has been crimped onto a high amperage wire that you suspect has a high
resistance.
Use a millivoltmeter across after contacts are closed and it is under steady load
Use a millivoltmeter across it before contacts are closed
Use a millivoltmeter across it as the contacts are closed
9. An in-line crimp is suspected of having high resistance. How do you check it?
Use a safety ohmmeter
Use a millivoltmeter with current flowing in the circuit
Do a continuity check
10. When checking the earth terminal with a millivolt drop test, typically it is 5 millivolts per 10
amps of current. What is the resistance value?
5 milliohm
50 milliohm
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0.5 milliohm
11. When inserting connector pins, they should be
inserted first by hand, then fully inserted by the contact inserter tool
inserted by hand
fully inserted by the contact inserter tool
12. During an insulation test, the minimum resistance in high temperature areas is
10 megohm
0.5 megohm
2 megohm
13. When testing co-axial cable in-situ, to find the location of short circuits, use a
continuity tester
time delay reflectometer
multimeter
14. When testing a 'live' AC circuit, use a
shunt AC multimeter
galvanometer
multimeter set to AC volts
15. A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a bend
radius of no less than
3 times the diameter of the wire
16. Glycol deicer fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause
corrosion
disintegration of the cable insulation
a fire
17. With a rear release connector, the pin will be
released from the rear and extracted from the front
released from the front and extracted from the rear
released from the rear and extracted from the rear
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18. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector is
260C
135C
200C
19. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert/extract tool be used on?
16 - 14
22 - 18
12 - 10
20. Can the insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool?
No
Yes by adjusting the pins
Yes by turning a knob
21. What gauge of pin would a red plastic insert/extract tool be used on?
22 - 18
16 - 14
12 - 10
22. What cable would you use where temperatures are going to exceed 200C?
Tinned copper or aluminium
Silver plated copper or aluminium
Nickel plated copper or aluminium
23. How long should a fireproof cable last in a fire?
15 minutes
5 minutes
50 minutes
24. What gauge of pin would a blue plastic insert / extract tool be used on?
16 - 14
22 - 18
12 - 10
25. The insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel-wells should normally be not less
than
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10 megohms
2 megohms
5 megohms
26. What causes knuckling on older type electrical cables?
Excessive pull through forces
Applying cable ties too tightly
Over-temperature soldering
27. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out
a bonding check
a continuity check
a milli-volt drop test
28. The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft primary structure should be
0.001 ohms
0.01 ohms
0.05 ohms
29. Before effecting a crimp, the bare ends of a cable should be
straightened out
tightly twisted
twisted lightly in the direction of the lay
30. The number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors during
crimping indicates that
the crimp is properly formed
the correct connector has been used
the correct tool was used to effect the connection
31. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by
varying the torque applied to the handles
changing the position of the pins
using different coloured crimping pliers and terminations
32. When referring to fuses, HRC means
high rupture capacity
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hot running capacity
high running current
33. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloured
blue
brown
green and yellow
34. A hole is placed in the lowest point of electrical cable conduit
to allow for drainage of moisture
to allow for pull-through of the cables
to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft structure
35. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is
12 inches
500 mm
3 feet
36. A fire resistant cable is proof tested by exposure to a standard fire for
5 minutes
15 minutes
30 minutes
37. When fitting coaxial cable connectors it is important to
not damage any seals fitted
fit the correct lock nuts
make sure the outer cup is fitted the correct way round
38. When inserting pins into a front release connector the inserting tool should be used with the
gap facing which direction?
Either direction
The centre of the connector
The outside of the connector
39. When using a hydraulic crimping tool, after completing the crimping operation, the crimp is
formed when
the foot pedal force is at maximum
the bypass valve opens and the ram returns to neutral
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the bypass valve closes and the ram returns to neutral
40. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 260C is which of the
following?
Teflon
Nylon
Nomex
41. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures which may reach 360C is which of
the following?
Teflon
Nomex
Nylon
42. What is the minimum bend radius of a loom adequately supported at a terminal block?
3 x diameter
10 x diameter
8 x diameter
43. How are front release pins removed?
The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the rear
The tool is inserted from the rear and the pin Is removed from the front
The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the front
44. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the dielectric, how will the
capacitance change?
Stay the same
Decrease
Increase
45. What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable?
8 x diameter
6 x diameter
10 x diameter
46. What is wet arc tracking?
A fault caused by insulation damage
A fault caused by 'knuckling through'
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A fault caused by hot stamp printing
47. When using a heat shrink gun, what should the temperature of the gun be set to?
100 below the heat shrink temperature
15 below the heat shrink temperature
100 above the heat shrink temperature
48. In an electrical cable 1EF6B22NMS, what does the letter E represent?
Cable size
Circuit function
Segment letter
49. On a coaxial cable, cable impedance is
not effected by length
inversely proportional to length
proportional to length
50. A secondary earth is
22 AWG
not less than 0.5mm cross sectional area
18 AWG
51. 'E' on a wire, under ATA 100 is a
system ID code
phase indication
cable size
52. To prevent wet arc tracking
cable grips should be tight
cables should not be stretched
ensure hot stamp printing is controlled
53. When splicing a cable with a soldered joint, the operation is finished when
the solder sleeve disappears
the solder and insulation have formed
the solder has melted
54. When manufacturing an electrical connector the unused holes are
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filled with connectors
covered with blanks
filled with connectors and blanked
55. Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe cable in which application?
Where the diameter of cable is not important
Low frequency interference
High frequency interference
56. Forward release electrical connectors are removed by the wire being
twisted to the right
pulled backwards
pushed forwards
57. When crimping wires, the wires should be
straight
twisted
lightly twisted
58. Why are copper wires used in electrical systems?
They have a low resistance to current
They do not give off a magnetic field
They have high permeability
59. When crimping wires, the wire should
be beneath the crimp
be flush with the crimp
extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp
60. 1EF6B22 NMSV, What does the B mean?
Segment letter
Circuit function
Cable number
61. A white/blue insertion-extraction tool would be used on a cable of what size?
22
10
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16
62. The value of the insulation resistance of an electric motor compared to its supply leads is
smaller
greater
same
63. According to ATA 100, a symbol code 'X' on a wiring number denotes
AC power
a ground circuit
a warning circuit
64. When securing wire after it leaves an LRU, cable bundle bends should be not less than?
minimum radius of five times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle
minimum radius of eight times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle
minimum radius of three times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle
65. When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations would be carried out before
crimping?
Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide
Just terminate
Degrease stripped cable
66. When splicing a cable with a soldered joint (heat gun), the operation is complete when
the solder has melted
the rings on the sleeve have shrunk
the coloured rings on the sleeve go colourless
67. An in-line splice should be positioned on the
outer surface of the loom for easy inspection
outside of the loom
terminal of the loom
68. A conductor after being crimped. The maximum amount of conductor which protrudes from
the terminal end should be
1/32 inch
1/16 inch
1/8 inch
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69. Why is a copper conductor often covered with an alloy coating?
To aid joining to dissimilar metals
To reduce electrical resistance
To increase corrosion resistance
70. Two or more operations should be performed to strip wire with hand operated wire stripper if
the total stripping length exceeds
0.75 inch
0.25 in
0.50 in
71. A cable loom should be protected by conduit when fed through the
main equipment centre
cargo compartment ceiling
wheelwell door
72. The size of proper conduit for electrical wires must be
100% larger than the average diameter of wires
75% larger than the maximum diameter of wires
25% larger than the maximum diameter of wires
73. The inspection hole in an electrical pin connector is to
check in service connector condition
check conductor correctly positioned
check insulator correctly positioned
74. The pin removal/insertion tool coloured end is used for
both removal/insertion
insertion
removal
75. An insulation check on a removed cable loom is done by
check all wires separately against adjacent wire
connecting all other wires together except one being tested
connect all wires together and test against aircraft structure
76. Blue metal extract tool would be used with contacts sized
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16
12
22
77. During a continuity check
ensure all parallel paths are disconnected
close all switches in circuit to be tested
open all circuit breakers and remove fuses
78. Conduit drain holes in a looped areas are positioned at the
top of loop
bottom of loop
mid position of loop
79. Continuity check
is carried out with circuit power energised
is carried out with circuit power de-energised
can be done with power energised and de-energised
80. After an insulation check
close circuit breakers and refit fuses and carry out functional check
carry out continuity check
carry out bonding check
81. A Silver coated conductor in an unpresurised area is subject to moisture and has a damaged
coating would be likely to cause
Knuckling Through
Wet Arc Tracking
Red Plague
82. If bonding strips are found damaged
a solder repair can be carried out
replace the damaged conductor
broken end can be repaired with an in-line splice
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Riveting
1.
Avdel rivets are closed by

a broaching process
a tapered mandrel
a squeezing process
2.
What is the purpose of the Avdel pin tester?

To test the tightness of the pin in the rivet
To test the tightness of the rivet in the hole
To test the shear strength of the pin
3.
The standard minimum rivet row spacing is

3D
4D
2 1/4 D
4.
The riveting defect in the figure shown is
the dolly was not square

the snap was not square
too much hammering
5.
When countersinking rivet holes in a material

a plain countersinking bit should be used
the rivet head should stand 1/32 of an inch above the surface
a special countersinking bit with a pad to prevent drilling too deep should be used
6.
The stems of an Avdel rivet are

removed with the riveting tool
removed with a taper punch
nipped off and milled flush with the head
7.
The riveting defect in the figure shown is
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an incorrect snap has been used

the hole was too small
the snap was not square
8.
When riveting, the distance from the edge to the rivet (land) should not be less than
2D
1D
4D
9.
Regarding riveting, which of the following is correct?

Both of the above are correct
The length of a round head or flat head is measured from the end of the rivet to underside
of rivet head
The length of a countersunk rivet (flush head) is measured from the end of the rivet to the
top of the countersunk head
10.
What is the allowable reaction on a rivet?

2D
1.5D
1D
11.
Rivet allowance is
the distance the rivet is positioned from the edge of the repair plate
the distance between rivets in the same row
the amount of material required to form the rivet on installation
12.
If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed time they can be re-treated.
What is the maximum number of times that they can be heat-treated?
Three times
If no more in Stores, as many times as required
Twice only
13.
If the bearing strength of a metal is greater than the shear strength of the rivet, what will
occur?
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Rivet will show incorrectly installed
Rivet will joggle
Rivet will pull through the metal
14.
The strength of a riveted joint is determined by

pitch and tensile strength of rivet
shear strength and pitch of rivet
shear strength of rivet and material it is made of
15.
In British rivets (solid) what is the length grading unit?

1/10
1/32
1/16
16.
What is the normal spacing between rivets?

3D
2D
4D
17.
To replace one 1/8 inch rivet

four 1/16 inch rivets would be required
three 1/16 inch rivets would be required
two 1/16 inch rivets would be required
18.
What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter Type F?

20 to 60 lbs per sq. in
19.
If the thickness of a single sheet of material, about to be joined by riveting was 1/16 of an
inch thick what would be the approximate diameter of the rivets to be used?
1/16 inch
1/8 inch
3/16 inch
20.
What is the approximate distance of the sphere of influence of a rivet?

2D
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5D
4D
21.
The minimum rivet pitch is

2 x the rivet diameter
3 x the rivet diameter
2 1/2 x the rivet diameter
22.
A repair has a double riveted joint. The shear strength would be

75%
100%
125%
23.
Solution treated rivets kept at a temperature of between -15C and -20C are usable for
150 hours
150 minutes
150 days
24.
Rivet clearance is
the distance between rows of rivets
the distance between rivets in the same row
the amount that the rivet hole diameter exceeds the rivet diameter
25.
The 'grip' of a rivet is

the length of rivet left to form the head
the thickness of plates which can be fastened
the area of the plates held firmly together
26.
The strength of a riveted joint compared to that of the original metal is

125%
75%
100%
27.
When riveting, a certain clearance must exist between the rivet and the hole in which it is
fitted, to allow for shank expansion. If the clearance is too large, what could be the result?
Separation of the sheets may occur
Sheet may tend to buckle
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Indentations by rivet head on the material
Pipes and Hoses
1.
To prevent corrosion where aluminium alloy pipelines are supported by rubber cleats, the
pipe should be treated over the area of contact with
petroleum jelly
varnish
french chalk
2.
To allow for shrinkage, vibration and whip all straight hoses must be
3% longer than the distance between the fittings
3.
A flexible hose that cannot be internally inspected by eye or introscope can be ball tested
by suspending from one end at a time to check
ball of 90% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight
a ball of 98% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight
a ball of 95% of bore of hose can be pushed through with a metal rod
4.
The international marking for a water injection pipeline is a series of

dots
chevrons
squares
5.
Repair to aluminium pipe can be done using burnishing

if damage is no more than 5%
if damage is no more than 10%
if damage is surface only
6.
When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be

1.5 times the working pressure
three times the working pressure for five minutes
twice the working pressure for two minutes
7.
The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be
connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length should be
51 inches
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3 inches
51 inches
8.
The international marking for an instrument air pipe line is a

zig zag line
wavy band
series of dots
9.
The international marking for a fire protection pipe line is a series of

circles
squares
diamonds
10.
The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipe line is a series of

diamonds
rectangles
dots
11.
Hoses are normally pressure tested to

maximum working pressure
2 times maximum working pressure
1 times maximum working pressure
12.
The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not exceed
0.5 ohm
1 ohm
0.05 ohm
13.
Pipe flaring is carried out

in the annealed state
after normalizing
as supplied
14.
The length of a hose assembly with elbowed end fittings is taken from
the centre of the bore at the nipple extremity
the maximum length of the straight portion of hose
the extreme overall length
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15.
Bonding connections between flexible and rigid pipes are achieved by

tucking the bonding leads between the flexible and rigid pipes
ti-wrapping the bonding lead to the pipes
using a corrugated strip
16.
A fluid line marker with a skull & crossbones is

warning symbol
fluid line carries toilet waste
radioactive symbol
17.
If the outer cover of a flexible hose is found to be cracked

it may still be serviceable
it is unserviceable since it may have a restricted flow
it is unserviceable since it may leak
18.
A rigid hydraulic pipe requires shaping. It should be carried out

as supplied
after annealing
after age hardening
19.
Rigid pipes are designed with bends to

allow for expansion and contraction due to heat and absorb vibration
fit to the aircraft structure
absorb vibration
20.
The 'Lay Line' on a flexible hose is

a white line painted the full length of the hose to indicate any twist in the hose
a white line painted the full length of the hose to indicate any stretch in the hose
an arrow painted on the hose to show the direction of fluid flow
21.
When checking a hose after installation it should be checked for freedom of movement
by flexing through the normal operating range plus 15
by flexing +/-15 either side of the neutral position
by flexing through the normal operating range only
22.
Aluminium alloy pipe used for hydraulics systems is flared

as supplied
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annealed
normalized
23.
to?
You find a pipe with a flare end fitting of 74. What specification has it been manufactured
A.N.
A.G.S.
S.A.E.
24.
The flare angle on an AGS pipe is

32 degrees
90 degrees
45 degrees
25.
What would be the results if the tubing is bent without using a tube bender?
The inside of the bend will crack
Wrinkles will occur on the inside of the bend
The outside of the bend will crack
26.
Bore tests of flexible hoses are carried out using a suitable ball or bobbin of
85% of the diameter of the end fittings
27.
Fretting corrosion on a braided pipe would mean it was

only unserviceable if the corrosion penetrates the braids
not necessarily unserviceable
unserviceable and should be replaced
28.
Identify the parts required to make up a flared-tube fitting?

Sleeve and nut
Ferrule and nut
Body, sleeve and nut
Springs
1.
What are high-compression springs made of?

Hard drawn wire
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Forge drawn wire
Piano wire
2.
The free height of a helical compression spring is affected by

change in spring rate
wear on the coils
loss of elasticity
3.
Material used for springs is

Low carbon steel or alloy steel with low working stresses
Low carbon steel or alloy steel with high working stresses
High carbon or alloy steel with low working stresses
4.
A wear check on a cylinder head valve spring should include

length under load
diameter and length
length off-load
5.
Discolouration of a leaf spring indicates

overheating
wear
no defect, this is normal appearance
6.
Springs are manufactured from

high carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements
high carbon alloy steel with low strength requirements
low carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements
7.
Springs are made of

forged wire
hard drawn wire
piano wire
8.
The load/deflection graph for a constant rate spring is a

hyperbola
straight line
curve
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Bearings
1.
Thrust bearings transmit

thrust loads, thus limiting radial movement
thrust loads, thus limiting axial movement
radial loads, thus limiting axial movement
2.
On inspection a bearing is found to show signs of overheating, what action should be
taken?
Reject bearing
clean up bearing and repack with grease
No action required. Some overheating is normal
3.
Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be caused by

rotation of the outer race in the wheel housing
overheating of the brakes
heavy landing
4.
When rotating a ball bearing by hand, a regular click indicates

damage to the balls
a cracked ring
intergranular corrosion in the outer ring
5.
A Hardy Spicer coupling has what type of bearings?

Plain bearings
Needle bearings
Ball Bearings
6.
Brinelling of a bearing is
indentations in the race surface caused by continual static vibration
bluing of the bearing due to overheating
shallow smooth depressions caused by the rollers being forced against the cup, due to
overtorquing
7.
How do you treat a corroded bearing?

Re-grease
Remove the corroded bearing and replace it
No action required as the corrosion will not affect the raceways
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8.
False Brinelling of a bearing is

a scoring of the race-way surfaces due to ball or roller skidding
movement of the outer ring relative to its housing
indentations on the race-way due to load transferred through the bearing when static
9.
What type of load is a journal load?

Centrifugal
Radial
Axial
10.
When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully positioned using

a soft steel or brass tube drift
a copper or aluminium tube drift
a steel drift with light blows
11.
When checking a ball bearing for corrosion and foreign matter

make a strip down inspection
oscillate and rotate slowly to listen for roughness
rotate at operational speed and check for roughness
12.
After cleaning a bearing should be dried with

lint free rags
left in free air to dry naturally
clean, warm, dry compressed air
13.
When a bearing has 2 parts and the inner ring and outer ring is installed
the inner ring can be removed from its inner shaft for cleaning
neither of the practices are allowed
the outer ring can be removed from its housing for inspection
14.
Needle roller bearings

can accept a small amount of misalignment
are designed to carry axial loads
are susceptible to brinelling.
15.
Bearings to be cleaned for further examination should be wiped free of all grease on outer
surfaces with the aid of dry compressed air for cages and rolling parts. The bearings should then
be soaked in
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white spirit
M.E.K.
lead free gasoline
16.
Graphite greases are used for

medium temperature applications
low temperature applications
high temperature applications
17.
Chipping of a ball bearing indicates

chattering
spalling
brinelling
18.
If during an engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to have magnetised but
otherwise have no defects, they
cannot be used again
are in an acceptable service condition
must be degaussed before use
19.
On completion of assembly the bearing housing

packed fully with grease
lightly packed with grease
should be examined for end float
20.
Graphite prevents seizure and conducts heat. It is normally used in

copper based greases
sodium based greases
lithium based greases
21.
Water marks on bearings are indications of

bearing insufficiently lubricated
intergranular corrosion
bearing been run dry
22.
Small indentations in the race of a ball bearing indicate

brinelling
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overtorquing
corrosion
23.
of
Ball and roller bearings are made from a combination of low carbon steel and a percentage
Nickel chrome
Chromium
Nickel
24.
A tapered roller bearing is designed to take

both radial and axial loads
axial loads only
radial loads only
25.
Which type of bearing cannot be re-greased?

Sealed bearing
Shielded bearing
Sealed bearing and shielded bearing
26.
On inspection a bearing is found to have distortion, what action should be taken?

Reject bearing
Blend out distortion and re-grease bearing
No action required. Some distortion is normal
Transmissions
1.
Control chains should be fitted in an aircraft

with the minimum of slack in the chain
so that the chain can be removed easily
with as much slack as possible to allow for contraction
2.
Backlash is a type of wear associated with

rivets
bearings
gears
3.
What tools are used to check for bow in the push-pull control rods?
Three point trammel
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Three point trammel and straight edge and feeler gauge
Straight edge and feeler gauge
4.
If a control chain can be lifted away from a tooth, it should be

cleaned, re-tensioned and inspected after a period of time
rejected as unserviceable
removed and an elongation check carried out
5.
A chain is removed by
removing chain links on an endless chain
spring clips
nuts and bolts
6.
How do you check a chain for elongation?

Adjust the end fittings
Hang chain up, check sight line and measure
Lay flat on a table, apply tensile load and measure
7.
The initial lubricant on a new chain

should not be removed
should be removed and replaced with the approved oil
must be replaced with grade altitude grease
8.
The three principle dimensions specified for a chain is the diameter of the rollers and
the pitch and width across the outside of the plates
pitch and chain length
the pitch and width between the inner plates
9.
Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate the percentage extension of
an aircraft control chain?
Note: M = Measured length under load in inches X = Number of pitches measured P = Pitch of
chain in inches
M - (X x P) x 100 / X x P
M + (X x X) x 100 / P x M
X - (M x P) x 100 / M x P
10.
If corrosion is found on a chain

clean off the corrosion and if acceptable re-fit the chain
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lubricate the chain
replace the chain
11.
A chain removed for routine inspection, it

must be proof loaded to 150%
must be proof loaded to 50%
does not need proof loading
12.
The distance between the centres of the rollers of a chain is called

pitch
length
crest
13.
How do you remove a tight link from a chain which is to be used on an aircraft control
system?
Dismantle, inspect, rectify and re-assemble the chain
If the chain has a tight link, the chain has to be removed from service
You may be able to remove the tight link by applying a light tap with a hammer
14.
The maximum allowable extension of a chain assembly over a nominal length is

3%
2%
5%
15.
After a chain has been cleaned in paraffin it should be

hung up to drip dry
dried in hot air
washed in soapy water then hung to drip dry
16.
What fraction of the minimum breaking load should be the proof load for a chain?
1/3
0.1%.
0.1
17.
With a serviceable chain not required for use, how should you store it?
Carefully coil, lubricate, lay flat and wrap in grease proof paper
Lay the chain flat in full length , lubricate and wrap in brown paper to exclude all dirt and
moisture
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Clean, lubricate, wrap the chain in grease proof paper and suspend
18.
An aircraft control chain is connected using

nuts and bolts
quick release pins
a split link and spring clip
19.
To check a chain for articulation

it should be run over the finger through 180 and checked for smoothness and kinks
move each link individually and check for tightness
lay on a flat surface and check for kinks
20.
The box unit in a Teleflex control run which is not suitable for heavily loaded controls is
called
Straight lead
Single entry
Double entry
21.
A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permits

a positive drive and axial movement
a positive and strong drive transmission
a positive drive with the gear firmly locked
Control Cables
1.
When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable can be cut by

using a chisel on a flat metal surface
using a hacksaw with the cable under tension
using an oxy-acetylene torch
2.
HTS aircraft control cables are protected from corrosion by

Galvanising
cadmium coating
zinc plating
3.
What is the purpose of an aileron balance cable?

Equalizes control cable tension
Relieves pilot loads
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Allows for hands off flying
4.
In aircraft control cables, when a lock is fitted to the control surface

it will prevent the control surface and the control column movement
it will not prevent the control surface movement but will lock the control column
it will prevent the control surface movement but not the control column movement
5.
What is the proof loading for cables after swaging?

2/3 minimum breaking strain
50% minimum breaking strain
1/3 minimum breaking strain
6.
A flight control cable is replaced if

single wires are blended together
the protective fluid coating is missing
a wire is 20% worn
7.
A control cable that has been contaminated with acid should be

rejected
cleaned, inspected, and reinspected after a period of time
cleaned
8.
A cable is replaced
when each strand is worn to limits
if a chemical spillage is suspected
when a shiny portion is found
9.
The inspection hole in a turnbuckle is

to allow the locking wire to pass through for the purpose of locking
to ensure that the locknuts are adequately tightened
to ensure that the turnbuckle is in safety
10.
A balance cable is installed in a control system to

correct for wing heaviness
allow the aircraft to be flown 'hands off'
enable the cable to be tensioned
11.
A control cable is proof loaded to ensure that
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the end fittings on the cable are secure
it will not stretch after fitting in an aircraft
it will not break after fitting in an aircraft
12.
To correctly tension cables it can help

to use a cable with turnbuckles at least every eight feet
to have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally
to take up initial slack by additional pulleys
13.
Which flexible control cable is designed for a push-pull action?

Push control
Pull control
Teleflex control
14.
A cable should be replaced when individual wires are worn greater than
60%
20%
40%
15.
British turnbuckles are checked for safety by

looking through the hole and checking for threads showing
attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole
attempting to push locking wire through the hole
16.
The check for a cable pulling out of a swaged fitting is by

seeing that there are no broken wires near the fitting
seeing that the cable is still past the safety holes in the swage
looking for a shiny surface on the cable near the fitting
17.
Large control cables (45 to 120 cwt) may have tension loads that can break the locking
wire or lease lock nuts. How is this overcome?
Duplicating the number of cables to cut down on individual tensile loads
A tube is fitted over the turnbuckle assembly and drilled to take up to 3 bolts, to prevent
independent rotation of any part
The cable is kept slightly slack
18.
A suspected chemical spillage on a cable, you should

replace the cable
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clean the cable and inspect 24 hours later
clean, inspect and refit immediately
19.
A crimping tool is checked

using a go/no-go gauge
with a crimped tensile test piece
by condition
20.
If the turnbuckles in a control system are tightened excessively the result will be
the cables will vibrate excessively and cause failure of controls
the aircraft will be heavy on controls
the cable will break
21.
When checking cable tensions you are looking for

full and free movement
artificial feel
free movement only
22.
How would you use a Pacific T5 tensiometer?

Use a load meter to apply the correct load
Use correct chart and correct riser
Use a standard riser and use the chart to correct for different sized cables
23.
How would you inspect a cable for fraying?

Operate the controls and feel for stiffness
Run your fingers the full length of the cable
Run a rag the full length of the cable
24.
The best way to check control cables for broken wires is to

examine them visually
increase the tension and check with a magnifying glass
run a rag along the cable in both directions
25.
A 'Reel' used to hold an aircraft cable in storage should have a minimum diameter of
at least 25 times that of the cable diameter
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26.
What is the purpose of the hole in the swaged end fitting on a swaged cable?
To allow a split pin to be inserted
To ensure the cable end passes the inspection hole on drilled through type fittings but leaves
the locking wire hole clear
To allow trapped air to escape
27.
Swaging of a cable end fitting is checked by

using a go / no-go gauge on the barrel
measuring the length of the barrel before and after swaging
looking for cracks on the swage indicating poor swaging
28.
Proof testing after cable installation is

not required
always required
sometimes required
Material Handling - Sheet metal
1. How are new metal sheets stored?

Horizontally above floor level
Horizontally
Vertically
2. The purpose of a joggle is
to make the holes for a rivet line up
to act as a tear stopper
to produce a flush fit at a metal joint
3. Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black. This would indicate the metal is
magnesium alloy
aluminium
duralumin
4. Removal of a scratch from a sheet of metal requires
polishing
blending
burnishing
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5. When dimpling a sheet of metal you would require
a male and female die
an oversized rivet and special reaction block
a male die only
6. The skin on an aircraft is normally manufactured from
7075 aluminium alloy
7. The mold point is
the mid point in the thickness of a sheet of metal to which the radius dimension is calculated
the centre of curvature of a radiused corner in a metal fabricated component
an imaginary point from which real base measurements are provided
8. Relief holes are
holes drilled in a battery container to provide drainage
holes drilled to stop a crack
holes drilled in the corner of a metal box to prevent cracking
9. The 'setback' is
the distance from the mold point to the bend tangent line
the distance from the edge of the metal to the bend tangent line
the distance from the bend tangent line to the setback line
10. Faying surfaces are
surfaces that are stressed
surfaces that are in contact with each other
surfaces that have been treated with anti-corrosion compound
11. In sheet metal bending, how would you measure the bend radius to calculate the bend
allowance?
Measure to the inside of the bend radius plus half the metal thickness
Measure to the outside of the bend radius
Measure to the inside of the bend radius
12. When dimpling sheet with a squeeze dimpling tool
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adjust the jaws to accommodate different material gauges
use a lubricant
the jaws are not adjustable
13. Bend radius on sheet metal is
outside radius
inside radius + thickness
inside radius
14. Aircraft skin is joggled to
Conform with the 'Area Rule'
Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces
Make a frame lighter but stronger
15. Zinc Chromate applied between faying surfaces will
improve adhesion thus relieving the amount of riveting necessary
inhibit dissimilar metal (electrolytic) corrosion
improve bonding between them
16. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by chemical test turns black when caustic soda is
applied to the surface, the metal is
aluminium
duralumin
alclad
17. To aid marking out on Fe metals use
graphite grease
engineer's blue
copper sulphate solution
18. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and
marked
one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake
one-half radius from either bend tangent line
one radius from either bend tangent line
19. If copper sulphate is used on magnesium alloy it will
effervesce to a copper colour
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effervesce to a black colour
have no effect
20. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend allowance tables are not
available, the neutral axis of the bend can be
represented by the actual length of the required material for the bend
found by subtracting the stock thickness from the bend radius
found by adding approximately one-half of the stock thickness to the bend radius
21. The formula for setback for a 90 bend is
(R + T)
(R + T)
(R + T)
22. Caustic soda placed on the edge of alclad will turn
black - white - black
white - black - white
all white
23. In marking a light alloy
a pencil is used to mark the material and all marks removed after bending
the scriber must be held at an angle to give a smooth line where bending is required
caustic soda is used
24. When assembling metals of different potential, corrosion may be inhibited by application of
zinc or chromic acid & assemble while wet
nothing - assemble bare
zinc or barium chromate & assemble while wet
25. Steel wire brushes or steel wool should
be used to clean aluminium sheet
be used to clean magnesium alloys
never be used on light alloys
26. When a piece of metal is bent, the surface of the metal on the outside of the bend is
neither in tension or in compression
in tension
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in compression
27. The sight line of a bend is
at the tangent line
half a radius from the tangent line
one radius from the tangent line
28. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without critically weakening the part
is called the
bend allowance
minimum radius of bend
maximum radius of bend
29. Scribers are used to
make centre pop marks for drilling
mark guide lines on material
produce an accurate finish
30. A hole drilled at the intersection of two bends in a fabricated sheet metal component is called
a relief hole
a crack stopper
a drain hole
31. Dissimilar metal diffusion bonding gives
high strength and stiffness
high strength and ductility
high strength and brittleness
32. Marking out on stainless steel can be clarified by application of
sal ammoniac
ammonia
copper sulphate
33. When drawing lines on aluminium alloy sheet prior to bending
a wax pencil should be used
a thin coat of zinc chromate primer should be used, ready for pencil lines
a scriber should be used
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34. After solution treatment of aluminium alloy, the effect of immediate refrigeration at a
temperature with the range -15C to - 20C is
to increase the rate of artificial ageing
to suspend natural ageing for a limited period
to permanently soften the metal to retard the onset of fatigue
35. Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides
high stiffness and high ductility
high strength and high ductility
high strength and high stiffness
Material Handling - Composite and non-metallic

1.
it?
In a composite repair lay-up, how much should each layer extend beyond the layer below
3 - 4 inches
2 - 3 inches
1 - 2 inches
2.
A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for inspecting for delamination in
Redux bonded structure of light aluminium alloys is
eddy-current
ultrasonic
magnetic flow
3.
A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair
technique. What non-destructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair
after the repair has cured?
Metallic ring test
Eddy current test
Ultrasonic test
4.
In a composite aircraft the bonding is

supplied by a metal cage assembly inside the aircraft
supplied by a metal strap which runs the length of the aircraft
not required because the aircraft is a good insulator
5.
What solvents could you use to clean tools used for fibreglass repairs?
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Lead free petrol/kerosene
Trichloroethylene or acetone
acetone or MEK
6.
Glass reinforced panels are bonded by

wire mesh
bonding strips to conductors
special conductive paint
7.
Chopped strand mat is a good general purpose mat because

it is a stiffer than woven cloth
it gives equal properties in all directions
it has short fibres
8.
How do you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up on fibreglass
surfaces?
No special treatment is necessary because fibre glass is an insulator
The surface is impregnated with copper strips
The surface is treated with a special conductive paint
9.
To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be sprayed with

ferrous paint
polyurethane paint
aluminium paint
10.
Prior to aluminium alloy bonding we use

solvent wipe
alkaline etch
acid etch
11.
Why is an extra layer of fibreglass added to a composite repair?

To provide additional flexibility
For sacrificial sanding
To increase the strength of the repair
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Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding
1.
What elements is solder made from?

Tin and lead only
Tin, lead and silver
Tin, lead and copper
2.
The materials most commonly soldered in soft soldering are

stainless steel and titanium
aluminium and magnesium
brass and mild steel
3.
Silver solder melts within the range

600C - 850C
400C - 550C
200C - 400C
4.
A dry joint when soldering is caused by

too much flux
too large an iron
too little heat
5.
Plumbers solder is grade

B
C
D
6.
The type of flux to be used when soft soldering on aircraft is

either active or non-active
active
non-active
7.
Solders are available in two forms:

stick solder needing a separate flux and solder in wire form having a rosin core
stick solder with a rosin core and solder in a wire form having a rosin core
Solder in a wire form needing a separate flux and stick solder needing no flux at all
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8.
What action is taken when soldering flux residue may have lodged in deep crevices of an
assembly?
It must be thoroughly rinsed with a weak solution of sulphuric acid and washed in cold water
It must be immersed in a weak solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsed thoroughly in
running water
It must be immersed in a weak solution of phosphoric acid and rinsed in water
9.
A flux is used in soldering to

dissolve oxides
etch the metal surface for more adhesion
prevent solder spikes
10.
What solder should be used to solder aluminium?

D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder
90% tin and 10% zinc
wire flux cored solder
11.
Before soldering stainless steel it must be

cleaned with emery cloth
pickled
sand papered
12.
A dry joint in soldering is most likely to be caused by

wrong solder used
components not hot enough
flux not used
13.
The term 'dry joint' is usually applied to

a defect associated with a soldered joint
a water tight joint
a metal being lightly heated
14.
On completion of soldering a non-activated flux

must be cleaned off with a selected solvent
need not be cleaned off
must be cleaned off with an acid solution
15.
The operational temperature of soldering irons is
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just above the melting point of solder
below the melting point of the base metal
60C above the melting point of solder
16.
Solder can be used to join

some dissimilar metals
only copper based metals
similar metals only
17.
The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be

carbonising
neutral
oxidizing
18.
A phosphate based flux paste is for soldering

stainless steel
brass
aluminium
19.
The soldering method where molten solder is pumped from the bottom of a bath through
a slot so that a stationary wave of solder appears on the surface is known as the
standing wave bath method
stationary wave method
rotary bath method
20.
High temperature solder is used where the operating temperature is high. It is an alloy of
tin / zinc / antimony / silver
lead / copper / antimony
tin / lead / antimony / silver
21.
Soft solder is suited for joints, which are

subjected to fatigue
subjected to small forces
subjected to strong forces
22.
Silver solder is made from

tin, copper and zinc
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copper, tin and silver
copper, zinc and silver
23.
been
A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has
polished
tinned
fluxed
24.
When making a small soldered electrical connection, using flux-cored solder

the soldering iron should be loaded with solder and then applied to the connection
the soldering iron and solder should be applied simultaneously to the connection
the connection should be heated first and then solder applied
25.
Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?

To increase heat conductivity
To prevent overheating of the base metal
To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film
26.
A flux is used in soldering to

to prevent solder spikes
to dissolve oxides
etch the metals surface for more adhesion
27.
Insufficient heat used in soldering will cause

contamination of the joint
the joint to oxidize
a high resistance joint potential
28.
General purpose solders are graded by

a numerical coding
a letter coding
a colour coding
29.
Silver soldering is suited for

electronic component soldering
general soldering work
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high temperature applications
Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding
1.
Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when
welding aluminium to use a
solvent
filler
flux
2.
What is a good weld?

Sides sloping to the base metals
An oxide coating on the base metals
Build up by 1/8 inch in the middle of the weld
3.
When inspecting a butt-welded joint by visual means

the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal
the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal
look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead
4.
In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the
melting point of the filler metal
amount of heat applied to the work
temperature of the flame
5.
In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to

concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation
prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle
lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal
6.
The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and

borax powder
zinc chloride
hydrochloric acid
7.
What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminium?

Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod
Removes dirt, grease, and oil
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Minimises or prevents oxidation
8.
Filing or grinding a weld bead

may be performed to achieve a smoother surface
may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve uniform material thickness
reduces the strength of the joint
9.
The shielding gases generally used in the Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding of aluminium
consist of
helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon
nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen
a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide
10.
Which statement concerning a welding process is true?
In the metallic-arc welding process, filler material, if needed, is provided by a separate metal
rod of the proper material held in the arc
In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler rod used for steel is covered with a thin
coating of flux
The inert-arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the
atmosphere
11.
The primary reason for using flux when welding aluminium is to

promote better fusion of the base metal at a lower temperature
prevent molten metal from flowing too widely
prevent oxides from forming ahead of the weld
12.
After welding you would normalise to

release the stresses from the material
remove carbon build up from the welded joint
remove oxidation from the welded joint
13.
The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is/are

current setting or flame temperature
ambient conditions
material compatibility
14.
rod?
Which items listed below is the most important consideration when selecting a welding
Thickness of the metal to be welded only
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Type and thickness of the metal to be welded
Type of torch
15.
When inspecting a weld, you should make sure that

the parent (or basis) materials are fully fused together
the weld has inclusions inside the bead
there are voids either side of the weld
16.
What is undesirable in a good weld?

100% penetration by filler material
fusing the edges of materials to be joined
oxides mixed in with the filler material
17.
Brazing material is made from

copper, silver and tin
copper zinc and silver
copper and tin and lead
Aircraft Weight and Balance
1.
The term 'reaction' used in weighing an aircraft refers to

the sum of the loads on all of the landing gear
the individual loads on each landing gear
the sum of the loads on the main landing gear only
2.
Previous weighing records are

are kept with aircraft records
destroyed after 5 yrs
retained for 2 yrs only
3.
Aircraft measurements aft of the datum are

negative
either positive or negative
positive
4.
What is meant by empty weight?

Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus oil
Basic weight only
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Basic weight minus unusable fuel plus oil
5.
An aircraft which has its C of G forward of the Forward Limit

will have a shorter take-off run
the take-off run will not be affected
will have a longer take-off run
6.
Fore and aft limits of the CG

are specified by the manufacturer
are determined by the licensed engineer after a major check and weighing
are determined by the pilot when calculating the loading data
7.
The basic equipment of an aircraft is

the crew equipment, and other equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular
flight
that equipment which is required for every role of the aircraft for which the aircraft is
operated plus unusable fuel.
all equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular flight
8.
The Datum point on an aircraft, for measuring C of G position could be

the nose of the aircraft
anywhere on the aircraft
the front bulkhead
9.
If the C of G of an aircraft with a full complement of fuel is calculated. Then

the C of G will always be within limits if it was within limits with full fuel tanks
the C of G must be recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will still be within limits
the C of G will only need to be recalculated if the fuel weight is behind the aircraft C of G
position
10.
Where would you find documented, the fore and aft limits of the C of G position?
In the technical log
In the Flight Manual (or the documentation associated with the C of A)
In the aircraft Maintenance Manual
11.
In aeronautical weighing terms
all arms for forward of the reference datum are positive (+) and all arms aft of the reference
datum are negative (-)
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all reference datum are as per company procedures
all arms for forward of the reference datum are negative (-) and all arms aft of the reference
datum are positive (+)
12.
When an aircraft has been reweighed under JAR OPS, what should be done to the old
Weight and Balance Report?
Kept in the weight and balance schedule
Kept in the aircraft logbook
Destroyed after 3 months
13.
A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is to be raised

once only, for the CAA
in triplicate, for the CAA, the operator and the maintenance organisation
in duplicate, for the CAA and the operator
14.
Aircraft below 5700kg not used for commercial air transport purposes are required to be
reweighed
as required by the CAA
every 5 years
every 2 years
15.
For purposes of calculating weight and C of G position, an adult male (with baggage) is
considered to have a mass of
75 kg
85 kg
65 kg
16.
A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is required by

all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA
all aircraft regardless of weight
all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg MTWA
17.
If a new Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is issued, the old one must be retained for
two years
six months
one year
18.
Cargo placed aft of the datum will produce a
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negative moment
neutral moment
positive moment
19.
The basic weight of an aircraft is

the pilot, flight crew and their luggage
the passengers, baggage and fuel
the aircraft, minimum equipment, unusable fuel and oil
20.
Aircraft must be reweighed

at periods not exceeding five years
after two years from manufacture only
after two years from manufacture then at periods not exceeding five years
21.
Points forward of the datum point are

negative
positive
neutral
22.
Details on recording of weight and C of G position can be found in

Airworthiness Notices
Air Navigation Order
BCAR section A
23.
A load sheet
is never carried on the aircraft
need not be carried on the aircraft if one remains at base
is always carried on the aircraft
24.
A load Sheet must be signed by

the Commander of the aircraft
a licensed aircraft engineer
the Loading Officer
25.
Increasing the weight of an aircraft

has no affect on the glide range
increases the glide range
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decreases the glide range
26.
Variable load is weight of

crew, their baggage and equipment relevant to role
fuel, oil and non-expendable equipment relevant to role
basic weight plus operating weight
27.
A Load Sheet is compiled in the order of

Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load, Basic Weight
Basic Weight, Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load
Basic Weight, Variable Load, Disposable Load, Fuel Load
28.
What angle of turn will double the weight of the aircraft?

30
60
45
29.
Where would you find the information on the conditions for weighing the aircraft?
Technical Log
Maintenance Manual
Flight Manual in conjunction with the documents associated with the CofA
30.
A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule must be signed by

a Licensed aircraft engineer
the CAA
the pilot
Aircraft Weight and Balance
1.
When weighing an aircraft using elastic load cells, the load cells go
between undercarriage and aircraft
between top of jack and the aircraft
as a single unit or combination of units under the aircraft wheels
2.
When using weighing jacks, you should

ensure they have been calibrated within the last year
not worry about calibration, as that is the tool store-keeper's responsibility
calibrate them before use
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3.
A weighing cell is based on the variation of

resistance with strain
induced voltage with displacement
differential currents with stress
4.
When weighing an aircraft, the hydrostatic weighing units are positioned

either under or on top of each jack
one under each jack
one on top of each jack
5.
When weighing an aircraft with load cells

the aircraft is jacked
only the main wheels are weighed
a load cell should be placed under each set of wheels
6.
When weighing an aircraft by the weighbridge method, the aircraft is

only levelled laterally
jacked and levelled
resting on the wheels
7.
When weighing an aircraft, the hydraulic system should be

filled to 'maximum level' mark
empty
completely full
Aircraft Handling and Storage
1.
How would you position an aircraft when picketing during a strong wind condition?
Position the aircraft side-on to the wind
Position the tail into the wind
Head the aircraft into the wind
2.
An aircraft should be cleared of snow

using air blast
using cold fluid
using hot fluid
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3.
When a helicopter lands, how does the pilot signal to ground staff when it is safe to
approach the aircraft?
Flash the Nav lights
Turn the anti collision lights off
Flash the landing lights
4.
When an aircraft is pulled out of soft ground, the equipment should be attached to
the main gear
the tail cone
the nose gear
5.
When picketing a helicopter you

fit sleeves and tie off all blades
fit sleeves to the blades to protect them if they strike the ground
tie down one blade
6.
When Ground Power is connected to aircraft, the generators are

paralleled to supply
never paralleled
paralleled to supply for ground starting only
7.
Why is the last part of towing an aircraft, done in a straight line?

To relieve side pressure from the main wheels
To relieve hydraulic pressure from the steering mechanism.
To allow nose wheel chocks to be placed at 90 degrees to the aircraft
8.
What is the towing speed when towing an aircraft?

6 mph
5 mph
7 mph
9.
De-icing fluid Type 1 is used

where holdover times are long
for short holdover times
where the ambient temperature is below -10degrees Centigrade
10.
When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and tanker bonded
together?
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To maintain the aircraft and tanker at the same electrical potential
To discharge static electricity from the aircraft to the tanker
To enable the aircraft re-fuel pumps to be operated from the tanker electrical supply
11.
Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be polished with mechanical buffing wheels as this
will cause large static charges to build up
may remove the aluminium coating
may remove the alloy coating
12.
What are types of jacks used for aircraft jacking?

Quadrapod jack, Single base jack
Quadrapod jack, Single base jack and Tripod jack
Quadrapod jack
13.
When turning and towing an aircraft, why should sharp radiuses be avoided?
Scrubbing of main-wheel tyres could occur
Scrubbing of nose-wheel tyres could occur
Power steering leaks could occur
14.
What type of meter is used to test a fire extinguisher cartridge?

Megger
Safety ohmmeter
Time delay reflectometer
15.
Which of the following is bad practice for removing the ice and snow in cold weather?
Remove deep ice by de-icing fluid
Dry snow with hot air
Use brush to remove deep wet snow
16.
Name the two methods used for aircraft refueling.

Open line refueling and gravity refueling
Pressure refueling and gravity refueling
Underwing refueling and pressure refueling
17.
There is ice and snow on a helicopter blade. You

remove all traces of ice and snow
leave a layer of ice
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wipe off excess snow and leave ice
18.
Removal of ice by the use of deicing fluid on the aircraft, before flight
may remove ice for a period of time depending on the airfield conditions
must be 1 hour before flight to enable fluid to be cleaned from aircraft
will provide sufficient prevention of ice formation until take off
19.
When deicing an aircraft with pressure deicing fluid, the sensors on the outside of the
aircraft should
not be blanked
be fitted with blanks or bungs
have their heating switched on
20.
When mooring an aircraft what type of rope should be used?

Fibre, with some slack due to shrinkage when wet
Fibre, tied tight due to stretch when wet
Nylon
21.
If ice and snow is found on the wings of an aircraft. Before flight the
all snow and ice must be removed
snow should be removed but ice can remain because it has no appreciable affect on the
airflow
ice should be removed but snow can remain because the airflow will remove it
22.
Flight controls, when externally locked

will also lock the control column
will not lock the control column
will also lock the steering
23.
When the park brake has been applied on an aircraft which has a pressurized hydraulic
system and is reading maximum system pressure, the brake gauges to the left and right main
wheels will read
full scale deflection
full system pressure
no indication
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Disassembly, Inspection, repair and Assembly Techniques
1. Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces, which have been affected by electrolyte,
should be neutralized with a solution of
Potassium hydroxide
Boric acid
Sodium bicarbonate
2. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused
by the pressure of corrosion residual product build-up is called
Brinelling
Exfoliation
Granulation
3. Taper pins resist what loads
tension
shear
compression
4. What test do you do on a bonded join?
Shear
Tension
Peel
5. What would you use to check the run-out on a control rod?
Micrometer + ball bearing
DTI + V blocks
3 leg trammel + feeler gauge
6. Taper pins are used in which of the following applications?
To take shear loads
To take compression and shear loads
To take compression loads
7. When using a D.T.I. to check the run-out of a shaft, readings of -15 to +25 would indicate a runout of
0.020 inches
0.040 inches
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0.025 inches
8. A dent is measured in a tubular push-pull rod by
passing a ball down its bore
a steel ball and micrometer
callipers and feeler gauges
9. What is used on Magnesium to re-protect it?
Deoxidine
Chromic Acid
Selenious Acid
10. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing is carried out
by applying a coating of Vaseline
by washing with distilled water
with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate
11. After carrying out an identification test of aluminium alloy with caustic soda, the caustic soda
should be neutralized with
Chromic anhydride solution
Phosphoric acid
Copper sulphate solution
12. To neutralize spilled battery acid on aluminium alloy, use
sulphuric acid
bicarbonate of soda
caustic soda
13. Hydrogen embrittlement of high tensile steel is caused if it is treated with
Zinc Chromate
Phosphoric acid
Nitric acid
14. Dents in a tubular push-pull rod are not allowed
anywhere on the rod
in the end thirds of the rod
in the middle third of the rod
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15. When checking a diode forward bias function, the positive lead of the ohmmeter should be
placed on the
anode and the negative lead to the cathode
cathode and the negative lead to the anode
cathode and the negative lead the earth
16. The bonding resistance of primary structure must not exceed
0.05 ohms
0.005 ohms
0.5 ohms
17. What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a metal plate on which
the earthing device (tyre) is resting?
10 megohms
100 megohms
1 megohm
18. The three electrical checks carried out on aircraft are (1) continuity (2) bonding (3) insulation.
What is the order in which they are executed?
1-2-3
2-1-3
2-3-1
19. When an earth-return terminal assembly has to be replaced which of the following checks
must be carried out?
Bonding and insulation resistance tests
Bonding and continuity tests
Bonding and millivolt drop tests
20. When carrying out millivolt drop checks on a circuit, what is an approximate guide for a correct
reading?
10 millivolts for every 5 amps flowing
21. Effective continuity is not possible unless which of the following conditions exists?
The portion of the circuit under test must constitute a simple series circuit with no parallel
paths
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All circuit earths are disconnected
All manually operated switches must be off
22. Why is a low voltage supply used for continuity testing?
To avoid breaking down a high resistance film that might exist between contacting surfaces
To avoid damage to the wiring
To prevent fuses 'blowing' and lamps burning out
23. When replacing a bonding connection and the original conductor cannot be matched exactly,
which of the following replacements would you use?
One manufactured from the same type of material, but of greater cross sectional area
should be selected
One manufactured from any conducting material of the same cross sectional area be used
One manufactured from any piece of Nyvin cable having the correct current capacity may be
used
24. What is a typical minimum insulation resistance value for an aircraft undercarriage bay?
10 megohms
5 megohms
2 megohms
25. The recommended insulation resistance of a DC motor is
5 megohms
2 megohms
0.5 megohms
26. Bonding value for secondary structure is a maximum of
0.05 ohms
1 ohm
0.5 ohms
27. Wrinkling of an aircraft skin will
weaken the skin
increase drag on the aircraft
cause rivets to pull
28. You have removed a bolt from a critical bolted joint for inspection and rectification. What
action should you take prior to inspection?
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A preliminary inspection should be made before the hole is cleaned
Clean the bolt shank and thread and re-grease and replace bolt and check for side-play.
Before any inspection is carried out, the nut/bolt and hole must be cleaned with a solvent
such as trichloroethylene
29. On inspection of a critical bolted joint you witness black or grey dust or paste. What type of
corrosion has taken place and what type of material is involved?
Fretting corrosion in aluminium alloys
Galvanic corrosion in magnesium alloys
Exfoliation corrosion in magnesium alloys
30. What is indicated by the wrinkling of the underside of an aircraft skin?
Hogging
Hogging produces wrinkling on the underside of the aircraft.

Sagging produces wrinkling on the upper side of the aircraft
Sagging
Fretting
31. What is used on magnesium to remove corrosion?
Selenious acid
Chromic acid / sulphuric acid solution
Strontium chromate
32. Galvanic corrosion refers to a type of
corrosion between two pieces of material
surface corrosion
plating process
33. Chromating used on magnesium alloys produces
a chromate film surface
metal chromates on the surface electrochemically
chromium surface electrochemically
34. Chromating used on magnesium alloys
uses chromates and converts the surface chemically
uses chromium and converts the surface electrochemically
uses chromium, which is deposited on the surface
35. When carrying out a bonding test in the presence of an anodic coating, what should you do?
Take account of the resistance of the coating
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Penetrate the coating so a good electrical contact is made
Disregard the resistance of the coating
36. Maximum value of resistance between all isolated parts which may be subjected to
appreciable electrostatic charging and the main earth
1 ohm
0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm per sq.ft. of surface area whichever is less
0.05 ohm
37. Removal of corrosion from aluminium clad alloy is best done
chemically by trichloroethylene
chemically by sulphuric acid solution
mechanically by buffing
38. Control methods for galvanic corrosion include
ensuring correct heat treatments and correct alloying
reducing cyclic stressing and increasing cross sectional area
joining similar metals and using jointing compounds
39. The treatment for stress corrosion is
the same as for surface corrosion or surface cracks in sheet metal
not the same as fatigue corrosion
always the replacement of the part
40. Very light corrosion on aluminium alloy can be removed by
rubbing with wire wool
using a solvent
using Alocrom 1200
41. To remove corrosion on Fe metals use
sulphuric acid rust remover
selenious acid rust remover
phosphoric acid rust remover
42. The usual manufacturer's anti corrosive process to be applied to Fe aircraft parts is
cadmium plating
metal spraying
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anodising
43. An intervention defect is one where
there is a requirement for the maintenance engineer to intervene
the engineer has the discretion on whether to intervene
the defect occurred because of some previous maintenance action
44. Vapour phase inhibitor should be used
when re-protecting after corrosion
when painting an aircraft
when degreasing a component
45. When carrying out insulation resistance checks
the measurement will also show cable continuity
the measurement varies depending upon the ambient conditions of the aircraft under test
the measurement is always infinity if the cable is installed correctly
46. How is damage classified on an aircraft skin?
Negligible, allowable, repairable
Negligible, allowable, replacement
Negligible, repairable, replacement
47. When carrying out a millivolt drop test on a terminal, the maximum value should be
5mV/10A
10mV/10A
50mV/10A
48. A jury strut is used
to support the structure during repairs
as a datum when placing the aircraft in a rigging position
as a reference when checking the C of G position
49. 'Run out' on a control rod is measured by
dial test indicator, surface plate and vee-blocks
micrometer, surface plate and vee-blocks
surface plate, vernier callipers and vee-blocks
50. How do you check the resistance of a fire bottle cartridge?
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Use a light and bulb
Use a multimeter
Use an insulation tester
51. If after forming a crimp in an electrical condutor a high resistance is suspected, how would you
carry out a check without disturbing the connection?
Use a multimeter set to millivolts and carry out a millivolts drop test .
Use a multimeter set to ohms to check the resistance
Carry out an insulation check

1.
When inserting a helicoil insert, which way does the tang face?
Towards the mandrel
Towards the hole
Away from the hole
2.
What tap do you use when fitting a Helicoil?

The same as the original thread size
The tap supplied with the Helicoil kit
The next size up from the original tap size
3.
A thread insert is made from

aluminium alloy
stainless steel
white metal
4.
What are the 3 stages of a fatigue crack?

stress, nucleation, fracture
nucleation, stress, deformation
nucleation, stress, yield
5.
On a composite repair the vacuum should be

at the required level
above required level
below required level
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6.
If bridging strips or bonding cords are fractured, what action may be taken?
The broken ends can be repaired with an 'in-line' splice
A new conductor should be fitted
The broken ends can be soldered
7.
On a patch repair you should use

material one gauge thicker than the original structure
the same rivet spacing as the original structure
only aluminium alloy rivets
8.
In a fayed rivet repair with double rivets used, the strength of the material will be
100%
same as the new material
75%
9.
What does the grow-out on a hi-tigue fastener do?

Transfers radial loads to the material
prevents slip of the fastener
Work-hardens the local hole area
10.
When fitting a thread insert

the insert should be tapped in using a hammer
the hole should be expanded using a tap supplied by the insert manufacturer
a thread the next size up from the original should be tapped
11.
'Stop Drilling' is the process of

drilling holes to stop a crack at the crack ends
drilling holes in a metal prior to riveting
drilling a rivet head to remove it from the metal
12.
A stud broken off below the surface is removed by

a stud remover tool fitted into a drilled hole
cutting a slot in it and removing with a screwdriver
using a stud box
13.
A UNF threaded wire thread insert may be identified

by an unpainted tang
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by a red painted tang
by a black painted tang
14.
Damaged chromate film should be repaired by using

selenious acid 10% by weight in water
phosphoric acid 10% by weight in water
selenious acid 20% by weight in water
1. Which NDT detection method would be used to check for water ingress in the vertical stabilizer
honeycomb structure?
Gamma-ray
X-ray
Thermology
Thermology would detect the cool patches in the honeycomb

structure, especially after landing when the water ingress may still
be frozen. Light blue on the image would show water ingress.
2. Transducers used in ultrasonic testing exhibit which of the following effects?

Piezoelectric
Hyper-acoustic
Ferromagnetic
3. In a dye penetrant test, small tightly spaced cracked will produce pattern of
small crack like chains
small dots
flakes like pattern
4. The eddy current method of N.D.T. uses
AC or DC
Alternating current
Direct current
5. To measure the thickness of a paint finish, what type of NDT inspection is used?
A woodpecker
Ultrasonic
Radiographic
6. When carrying out a dye penetrant test, after the developer has been applied it should be
inspected
after 1 hour
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as soon as the developer is dry and again after approximately 10 minutes
after 30 minutes
7. During a colour contrast test the penetrant time should be
shorter for a small crack
longer for a small crack
longer for a wide crack
8. How should a dye penetrant field kit be stored?
In direct sunlight
At room temperature away from direct sunlight
At a cold temperature in a darkened room
9. When carrying out a colour contrast test on a pressure vessel
the dye should be applied to the inside and the developer to the outside
both the dye and the developer should be applied to the outside
the dye should be applied to the outside and the developer to the inside
10. When leak testing with a colour contrast field kit, the soak time for a component less than 1/8
in. (3mm) thick would be
at least twice the normal soak time
at least 3 times the normal soak time
at least the normal soak time
11. When using a colour contrast dye penetrant kit, and a small crack is suspected in the material
a magnifying glass is recommended
less developer should be used
less inhibitor should be used
12. What NDT method would you use to detect delamination?
Eddy current
Colour contrast dye penetrant
Ultrasound
13. Magnetic particle testing detects faults
longitudinally
longitudinal and transverse
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transverse
14. Dye penetrant in a cold climate
works more quickly
takes longer to work
is not affected
15. If after spraying the developer, red blotches appear, the part
has sub-surface defects
was not cleaned properly
is porous
16. What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant inspection?
It seeps into the crack and makes it show up
It is drawn to the crack by electrostatic attraction
It acts as a blotter to draw out the penetrant that has seeped into the crack
17. The main advantage of dye penetrant inspection is
the part to be inspected does not require cleaning
the penetrant solution works on any non-porous material
the defect must be opened to the surface
18. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires
that the developer be applied to a flat surface
the surface to be highly polished
a longer than normal penetrating time
19. When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal
magnetization should be used to
reveal all possible defects
evenly magnetize the entire part
ensure uniform current flow
20. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or
longitudinal magnetisation?
45
transverse
longitudinal
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21. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and forgings may usually be detected by
submerging the part in a solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsing with clear water
gamma ray inspection
the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers
22. Which of these metals is inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method?
Magnesium alloys
Aluminium alloys
Iron alloys
23. One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by
slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength
slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength
subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage AC
24. The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilises a
ferromagnetic material that has
low permeability and high retentivity
high permeability and low retentivity
high permeability and high retentivity
25. The 'Dwell Time' of a dye-penetrant NDT inspection is the
time the penetrant is allowed to stand
time it takes for a defect to develop
amount of time the developer is allowed to act
26. What non-destructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect
surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys
and their heat-treat conditions?
Ultrasonic inspection
Eddy current inspection
Magnetic particle inspection
27. Gamma Ray Testing of combustion chambers will show up
light grey on black background
black on lighter background
grey on white background
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28. Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals,
plastics and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?
Magnetic particle inspection
Eddy current inspection
Ultrasonic inspection
29. Ultrasonic flaw detectors use
high frequency sound waves
a magnetic field
x-rays
30. Defects are indicated in the dye penetrant crack detection test by
red lines on a white background
yellowish green marks
green lines and dots
31. NDT using colour dye process at temperatures below 15C will
retard the penetrant action of the dye and penetration time is extended
not be affected by the temperature
mean choosing alternative NDT method
32. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the dye penetrant should be applied
on the inside with the developer on the inside
on the outside with developer on the outside
on the inside, with developer on the outside
33. In order for dye penetrant inspection to be effective, the material being checked must
be magnetic
have surface cracks
be non-magnetic
34. Which of the following metals can be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection
method?
Aluminium alloys
Iron alloys
Magnesium alloys
35. After completion of electromagnetic crack detection, the test piece must be
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de-magnetised before returning to service
allowed to lose any residual magnetism over as long a period possible
allowed to cool to room temperature as slowly as possible
36. Which of the following N.D.T. techniques cannot be used on a component manufactured from
austenitic stainless steel?
Penetrant dye
Hot oil and chalk
Magnetic - particle
37. Fluorescent penetrant processes for the detection of cracks or material defects are used with
an ultra-violet radiation source
an infra-red light source
a tungsten light source
38. What is an isotope the power source of?
X-Rays
Ultra Violet Rays
Gamma Rays
39. The fluid used in the 'Oil and Chalk' method of non-destructive testing is a mixture of
lubricating oil and lard oil
lubricating oil and paraffin
lubricating oil and petrol
40. Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under
which condition?
The discontinuity pattern is straight
The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part
The discontinuity is found in a non-stressed area of the part
41. When inspecting a component which is being subjected to the hot fluid chalk process, the
examination for defects should be carried out
whilst the item is still quite hot
immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet
when the item is quite cool
42. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect defects
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perpendicular to the long axis of the part
parallel to the long axis of the part
perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetisatio
43. An indication of porosity when using a penetrant dye crack detection method is
closely spaced dots of dye formed in a line
areas where dye is not showing
an area of scattered dots of dye
44. In a test for adequate demagnetization of a component after a magnetic particle test, the test
compass should not deflect
more than 1 when standing due east of the component
more than 1 when standing north-east of the component
more than 1 when standing due south of the component
45. If on application of developer it all turns to a pinkish hue, what has happened?
Thin porosity
The hue has pinked
Incorrect cleaning
46. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that
the part
was not thoroughly cleaned before developer was applied
was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied
is not damaged
47. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle build-up forming
a single line
a fern-like pattern
parallel lines
48. When carrying out a penetrant dye crack test, before the dye is applied the surface being
tested should be
etch primed
thoroughly degreased
painted with developer fluid
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49. When carrying out a dye penetrant inspection, what time should elapse after applying the
developer before inspecting the component?
After 10 minutes
After 15 minutes
Initial inspection after 30 seconds followed by a 2nd inspection after 10 minutes
50. When should the developer be applied to the component?
Before the penetrant dries
After excess penetrant has been removed and the area completely dried
Before applying penetrant
51. To check the structure of a wing
ultrasound NDT is used
low voltage X-rays are used
high voltage X-rays are used
52. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the orientation (or direction) of the defect
be known before the test can commence?
Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic
Ultrasonic and Dye Penetrant
X-Ray and Magnetic Particle
53. Which of the following defects could not be detected by Eddy Current NDT inspection?
A crack in a glass fibre reinforced plastic cowl
Heat damage of a Haynes Alloy turbine blade
A crack in a magnesium alloy wheel casting
54. Which of the following methods could be used to detect the presence of tiny drops of Mercury
in a large area of aircraft hull structure after an accident with a mercury thermometer?
X-Ray
Ultrasonic
Magnetic Particle
55. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the surface of the test piece is cleaned
down to bare metal?
Dye-penetrant
Eddy Current
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Magnetic Particle
56. When using the colour contrast NDT
the surface paint should be removed
the surface should be lightly scuffed
the surface should be bead blasted
57. When using dye penetrant field kit, removal of excess penetrant is done by applying the
solvent by
spraying once direct on the part
using a lint free cloth
spraying twice direct on the part
58. Liquid penetrant tests can be used to detect
corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes
fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy parts
internal porosity in castings
59. Water-washable liquid penetrants differ from Post-emulsification penetrants in that they
need not be removed from surfaces prior to development
do not need an emulsifier added
can only be used on aluminium alloys
60. When using a post-emulsification penetrant, the timing is most critical during
penetration
penetrant removal
emulsification
61. A liquid penetrant test cannot
be used on non-metallic surfaces
locate sub-surface discontinuities
be used on porous materials
62. Hot air drying of articles during liquid penetrant testing is carried out at a temperature of
130F
250F
75F
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63. To check the structure of a wing, which NDT is used?
Radiographic
Magnetic Flaw
Dye penetrant
64. Magnetic Flux detection will show defects which are
transverse to the flux direction only
longitudinal and transverse to the flux direction
longitudinal to the flux direction only
65. A hairline crack would show up on a dye penetrant inspection as
a continuous line of small dots
a group of dots spread over a wide area
a thin broken line or chain
66. When carrying out an ultrasonic inspection, what is the gel used for?
To prevent the test piece from becoming scratched by the probe
To reduce the friction between the probe and the test piece
To create a good sonic coupling between the the probe and the test piece
67. Fluorescent dye penetrant is suited for what materials?
Plastics and non magnetic materials
Ferrous magnetic materials
Non magnetic non-ferrous materials
68. In film radiography, image quality indicators (IQI) are usually placed
on the film side of the object
between the intensifying screen and the film
on the source side of the test object
69. Which type crack will probably cause the most build-up in the magnetic particle indicating
medium?
Shrink
Fatigue
Grinding
70. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the penetrant should be applied
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on the outside, with developer on the outside
on the inside, with developer on the inside
on the inside, with developer on the outside
71. To detect a fault with magnetic particle flaw detection, the test requires
one pass in any direction
two passes at 90 degrees to each other
two passes in any direction
72. The substance used in ultrasound inspection is
a developer
a couplant to allow sound waves to travel
a cleaning agent to keep the components clean
73. Dye penetrant defects are marked using
crayon, unless used in a highly stresses area
pencil
chalk
74. A pressure vessel of thickness 1/16 inch to 1/8 inch is being tested with dye penetrant. The
penetrant should be left for
less than normal
the same length of time as normal
3 times longer than normal
75. Which of the following NDT techniques cannot be used on a component manufactured from
austenitic stainless steel?
Hot oil and chalk
Penetrant dye
Magnetic particle
76. The dye penetrant field test kit consists of cans of
spray penetrant, spray cleaner and spray developer
penetrant, cleaner and developer
penetrant, cleaner, developer and a brush
77. The liquid applied to a component being checked by ultrasonic inspection is for
acting as a transmission medium for the test
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to prevent corrosion occurring from contact with the probe
to prevent scratching of the surface by the probe
78. Which is the preferred method of test for aluminium alloy?
Magnaflux
Electroflux
Ultrasonic
79. A composite flap panel has corrosion. What NDT method will you use to detect?
High voltage x-ray
Low voltage x-ray
Coin tap test
80. The eddy current method of flaw detection can detect
surface flaws only
surface flaws and those just beneath the surface
sub surface flaws only
81. With dye penetrant how is the developer applied?
At a distance of 10 to 12 inches with several passes
Using a tank
As an even layer of chalk applied over the area
82. When using the dye penetrant method crack detection, the indications on a short, deep crack
are
long chain
single dots
circles
83. A deep internal crack in a structural steel member is detected by
fluorescent penetrant method
magnetic flaw method
x-ray or ultrasonic process
84. The ultrasonic method of crack detection can be used on
subsurface defects on all metals
surface and subsurface defects on ferrous metals only
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surface and subsurface defects on all metals
85. Porosity in cast materials
is detectable as a surface or sub surface defect
only occurs on the surface
is only detectable on the surface
86. When using the fluorescent ink flaw detection method, the component should be inspected
using an
ordinary lamp and special glasses
infrared lamp
ultraviolet lamp
87. When using the dye penetrant method of crack detection, it should not normally be used at
temperatures
below 0C
above 15C
above 20C
88. When using the dye penetrant method, the part should be kept wet with the penetrant for
5 minutes
up to one hour
15 minutes
89. What NDT would you carry out on aluminium alloy?
Magnetic flaw
Ultrasonic
Electroflux
1. Where would you disconnect a chain?
At a spring clip joint
At an riveted joint
At a bolted joint
2. How many times can a locking plate be used?
indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked
once, then discarded
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3 times, then discarded
3. When removing a piece of equipment from an aircraft that supports the aircraft, what should
you do?
Go ahead and remove the part
Wait for the new part to arrive before replacing
Fit a jury strut in place of the removed part
4. A hi-lock collar should be
washed in solvent before fitting
lubricated before fitting
not lubed or washed because they are lubed at manufacture
5. When drilling out a rivet, use a drill
smaller than the hole
larger than the hole
same size as the hole
6. When riveting two dissimilar sheets of metal together the joint should be protected with
paint
jointing compound
grease
7. The maximum temperature for Nyloc nuts is
120C
160C
100C
8. What type of rivet would you use when there is access to only one side of the work?
Hilok
Pop
Blind
9. Torque loading is carried out to provide
as tight a joint as possible
flexibility
sufficient clamping without over-stressing
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10. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?
Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet
and remove the rivet with a punch
Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet
shank and remove the rivet with a punch
Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill and remove the rivet
with a punch
11. What action is taken with a common circlip removed from a component?
It is checked for springiness
It is examined for distortion
It is replaced with a new item on assembly
12. The maximum bolt diameter for which a 1/16 split pin may be used is
1/4
7/16
3/8
13. Why is a shouldered stud used?
As a replacement for a damaged stud
To decrease weight without loss of strength
To provide a rigid assembly
14. A thread insert is removed by
a special drill provided by the thread insert manufacturer
using a drill the major diameter of the thread insert
once fitted, a thread insert must not be removed
15. When fitting Rivnuts into position, how are they secured and prevented from rotating?
Locknut at the rear
A locating key
Peened
16. Hi-loks are installed with the
shank lubricated when fitting
thread lubricated when fitting
thread and shank not lubricated
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17. A jury strut is one giving
a part of the structure that takes only tensile loads
additional support to a stressed area
a temporary support
18. Which type of repair has to be used where the damage is large and lost strength of the area
has to be restored?
Insert and butt strap
Patch repair to the punctured skin
Filling plate and patch
19. Which of the following actions would be taken to fit a locking device to a nut or bolt, if the
correct torque has been reached but the locking device will not fit?
Tighten further until device fits
File the base of the nut
Change the nut or bolt for one that will achieve the desired condition
20. In the Push-pull tube linkage used in aircraft flying control systems, how is the length of the
tube adjusted?
It is fixed and does not require adjusting
By adjusting end fittings at each end of the tube
Fit anew push-pull tube
21. Spotfacing is done to
provide a flat area on a rough surface
provide a good surface for welding
compensate for height in lieu of a spring washer
22. When fitting a hydraulic component, the hydraulic seal should be lubricated with
the same fluid that is used in the hydraulic system (e.g. skydrol)
grease
with a specified hydraulic oil
23. A gap in a firewall can be plugged by
a plastic bung
an aluminium plate
a fireproof bung or bush
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24. In a critically bolted joint
a PLI washer can be used more than once only with self locking nuts
a PLI washer can only be used once
a PLI washer can be affected by thread lubricant
25. Which of the following jointing compounds should not be used in the vicinity of a joint where
the temperature may exceed 200C?
DTD 369
DTD 900
DTD 200
26. Why is jointing compound applied to the surfaces of material being joined together prior to
riveting?
To inhibit electrolytic action
To act as a sealant and prevent filiform corrosion
To prevent swarf damage
27. A metallic stiff nut
cannot be used in areas in excess of 250oC
is pre lubricated and does not need lubricating
cannot be torque loaded
28. How do you prevent earth loops forming on screened cables?
Earth both ends of the screen
Do not earth the screen
Earth one end of the screen
29. When fitting a shackle pin, fit with
0.020
a shake-proof washer under the head
head uppermost
30. The threads on a stud
are of opposite hand at each end of the plain of portion
are continuous throughout its length and there is no plain portion
are of the same hand at each end of the plain portion
31. The angle between starts on a double start thread is
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120 degrees
90 degrees
180 degrees
32. What does 18N and contiguous circles on the head of a bolt indicate?
1.8 inch threaded portion and plain shank 1/2 inch UNF
1.8 inch nominal length 1/2 inch BSF
1.8 inch plain shank 1/2 inch UNF
33. A UNF bolt is indicated by
green dye
2-3 rings on the head
a triangle on the head
1.
BITE systems to be used on the ground only are deactivated

by the parking break
on take off
by the undercarriage retraction
2.
Electrical cables installed on aircraft. What is used to indicate concealed breaks?

Continuity test
Resistance test
Bonding test
3.
When checking resistance of a cable to the starter motor what test is carried out?
Safety Ohmmeter
Time Domain Reflectometer
Millivolt drop test
4.
Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the following applies?
A continuity check must be carried out before switching on the circuit for the first time
The observed readings should be noted and an independent check carried out by another
engineer
The readings observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time should be noted and
compared to previous readings
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5.
A millivolt drop check is to be carried out on a heavy duty relay. The Millivoltmeter would
be connected to the relay
when contacts closed and power is on
when contacts are open and power is on
when contacts open and power off
6.
After the normal function test of an individual circuit has been completed and the circuit
switched off
the fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check the isolation of the
circuit concerned
a second function test must be carried out to verify the first
a duplicate check must be carried out in accordance with AWN 3
7.
An Insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a low reading obtained. What
action would you take?
Change or renew all the cables involved in the test
Break the circuit down and carry out further checks
A low reading would be expected because the cables are in parallel
Abnormal Events
1.
When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its mounting, how should it be
bonded?
With at least two primary conductors, one each side of the engine
With at least one primary conductor
With at least two primary conductors on one side of the engine
2.
In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical
components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS or dc should not exceed
1 M ohm
1 ohm
0.05 ohm
3.
What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of an aircraft?

To prevent lightening strikes
To prevent high potential differences between metallic parts from building up
To provide a return path for electrical two-wire system
4.
After a reported lightning strike
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the flight controls need to be checked for full and free movement only if a bonding lead to
one of the control surfaces is found to be burned or broken
the aircraft and its systems must have a major overhaul before the next flight
the flight controls should be checked for full and free movement before the next flight
5.
Whenever possible a functional test should be carried out on an aircraft using which
power supply?
The aircraft battery
An external supply
The aircraft generators
6.
What is the reason for a primary bonding connection's large cross-sectional area?
To carry lightening discharge current should the need arise
To carry the static discharge current to the conducting nose wheel
To maintain the airframe at the same potential throughout
7.
Non metallic parts of the aircraft

must be bonded by application of conductive paint
do not require to be bonded because they are non conductive
must be bonded by bonding leads
8.
Which of the following is a preventive process against HIRF?

Monitoring HIRF on the communication system
Periodically checking aircraft bonding
Visual inspections
9.
On a composite aircraft, large items are bonded

by use of large copper strips
Don't need to be bonded because they are made of an insulating material.
by primary bonding leads attached to a cage
10.
Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure?

Unserviceable radio filters
Broken or missing static wicks
Corrosion on bonding leads
11.
HIRF interference occurs when

in use on low frequencies
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in use on mid frequencies
in use on all frequencies
12.
How many primary bonding conductors are required on an engine?

2 on one side
1 on each side
1 only
13.
When an aircraft has been struck by lightning
control surface freedom of movement need not be checked provided skin punctures are less
than 3/16 inch diameter.
control surface bearings and hinges should be checked for stiffness in operation
control surface freedom of movement need not be checked providing the bonding is
undamaged.
14.
A lightning strike on an aircraft would show

the entry and exit point
the entry point only
the exit point only
15.
Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be
protected by
shielding each individual conductor
earthing each alternate conductor to separate points
connecting all conductors to a common earth
16.
When inspecting an aircraft after a lightning strike, you should observe

all signs of burning
entry and exit damage
entry damage
17.
To ensure protection against HIRF affecting audio and navigation aids

ensure that all audio and navigation equipment is adequately screened
ensure that the correct number of static wicks are fitted
inspect and check all bonding leads to ensure their serviceability and replace if defective
Abnormal Events
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1.
An aircraft with under-wing mounted engines has a heavy landing, where would you
expect to see wrinkling of the skins?
Bottom skin caused by engine inertia
On the top and bottom skins
Top skin only
2.
After a heavy landing you should check

engine module alignment
engine compressor shaft alignment
engine thrust alignment
3.
Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a wing is caused by

sagging
tension
hogging
4.
After a report of flight through heavy turbulence, you would

not carry out any checks
check the aircraft symmetry
carry out a major overhaul
5.
How do you prevent aquaplaning during landing?

Put flaps up
Use reverse thrust
Reduce flare
6.
On an aircraft which has had a heavy landing, on the lower wing you may see
sagging
wrinkling
hogging
Maintenance Procedures
1. A Category-A licenced engineer can sign a CRS for what?

An aircraft that he has sufficient type ratings for
A task he has been locally trained for
A task that someone else has completed
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2. How many signatories are there for a CRS for a Scheduled Maintenance Inspection?
Two
One
One for each category of aircraft systems
3. Mandatory Warning Plaques and symbols
need not be displayed if they are incorporated in the flight manual
must be displayed on all flights
must be displayed in the cabin only if they are legible
4. Following a major defect the C of A
will be invalidated and needs renewing.
is not affected, however may run out on a time basis.
will be suspended until the defect is rectified.
5. When storing parts you should use
monitor the temperature
place in a sealed container
silica gel
6. ATA specification 100 is
the procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can be given a Certificate of
Airworthiness in the Transport Category (Passenger)
the International standardization of maintenance manuals, illustrated parts catalogues,
overhaul and repair manuals, service bulletins and letters
the American FAA specification controlling the manufacture of aluminium and its alloys
7. An aircraft should carry at least the following number of spare fuses:
10
3
3 or 10%, whichever is greater
8. Maintenance Schedules are issued
in a folder with the operators name on the cover
with an approval certificate by the CAA
by the operator with CAA approval
9. After a mandatory inspection has been carried out by a Licensed Engineer, what is issued
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a Flight Release Certificate
Certificate of Release to Service
a Certificate of Maintenance Review
10. A hard time engine inspection involves
removal of an engine component, its inspection and refitting
replacement with a new or overhauled component
an in-situ function test
11. Who approves Maintenance Manuals?
The Board of Trade
The Department of Trade and Industry
The CAA
12. A Certificate of Release to Service must be issued after
a repair has been carried out in accordance with an approved repair scheme
engine runs
a re-fuel has been done
13. If the operator varies the content of the maintenance schedule, what action must be taken?
Amend the Maintenance Schedule and seek the CAA approval
Await CAA approval before amending the Maintenance Schedule
Amend the Maintenance Schedule
14. When is an EASA Permit to Fly conditions required?
After a Certificate of Maintenance Review has been signed
To allow an unregistered aircraft to fly for air test
To allow an aircraft to fly on air test to check out a modification
15. When there is an overlap of responsibility, how is the CRS signed?
Appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineers must each certify the parts appropriate
to their license coverage
Only one appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer may sign the CRS as he assumes
responsibility for the operation, the other engineers must sign the paperwork
An appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer and an ATPL holder sign the CRS when
the aircraft is away from base
16. Information contained in the ANO is
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written in compliance of the Civil Aviation Act of 1943 ratifying the ICAO Convention
of a mandatory nature where safety is concerned
of a legal nature in all sections and is therefore mandatory
17. An 'On Condition' Inspection involves
a program of inspections used to increase the life of lifed components
replacement of life expired components for new ones
an inspection of a component with a view to continued operation if its condition warrants
such action
18. Air Navigation General Regulations are to be found in
CAA Printed Manual CAP 393
British Civil Airworthiness Requirements Section A
Airworthiness Requirements CAP 455
19. The information in the ANO is given in the form of
Chapters, each one dealing with a different aspect of Civil Aviation, these chapters being
backed up by the schedules
Articles of Law, some of which are further clarified by Schedules
Regulations, each one covering a different aspect of Civil Aviation and as such is mandatory
20. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements
interpret the ANO and form the Technical requirements for the design
form the Technical requirements for the design and operation of aircraft and their
equipment
are printed by the CAA and are of an advisory nature
21. A CMR is raised after
major overhaul
defect rectification
scheduled servicing at specified intervals
22. Compliance with the ANO is restricted to
aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK Civil Register only
All civil aircraft and their equipment on the international Civil Register
aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK & Commonwealth Civil Registers
23. A Certificate of Release to service states that
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a task has been carried out in accordance with the ANO
an operator has satisfied the CAA of his competence
the aircraft has been maintained to an approved schedule
24. Technical and Administrative information is officially circulated to L.A.M.E.S. in
C.A.I.P.s
A.W.N.s
B.C.A.R.s
25. Vital point inspections are carried out
after an area is disturbed
on an 'A' Check
on a 'C' check
26. What colour is used to identify a 'primary structure' when using the aircraft Maintenance
Manual?
Red
Yellow
Green
27. Which of the following NDT methods can be carried out and certified by a mechanic not
approved specifically for NDT inspections
Ultrasonic
Neither of the above
Magnetic Particle
28. B.C.A.R.'s
are issued by Ministry of Trade and Industry
detail mandatory requirements for aircraft design and construction
contain minimum requirements to be met
29. The purpose of the CRS is
to ensure that the log book entry is complete
to comply with article 15 of the ANO which states that an aircraft must not fly unless it is
properly equipped for the intended flight
to turn a log book or job card entry into a legal document and to ensure that the signatory
takes full responsibility for the work done
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30. Duplicate inspections are
inspections certified by one approved signatory or LAE and then certified by a second
approved signatory or LAE
inspections signed by a mechanic and countersigned by an approved signatory or licensed
engineer
inspections which have to be duplicated but which can finally be certified by one LAE or
approved signatory
31. When related to aeronautical engineering, the term 'Inspection' is defined in the publication
Airworthiness Notice (AWN) 3
ANO article 11
BCAR Section L
32. The technical laws relating to Civil Aviation are contained in
the Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures
the Civil Aviation Act 1971
the Air Navigation Order
33. Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are constructed from parts that have been
manufactured to approved drawings
tested to destruction
manufactured by British Aerospace
34. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organisations approved by
S.B.A.C.
British Standards Institute
C.A.A. in accordance with BCAR
35. Civil Aircraft Airworthiness Information Procedures
contain information of a mandatory nature
contain approved inspection schedules
are a guide to the general maintenance of aircraft
36. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements
specify the minimum qualifications for aircrew and engineers
give General technical information
list the minimum design requirements for aircraft
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37. What work has to be recorded and signed for?
Only work involving replacements
Only work which entails a duplicate inspection
All work carried out
38. Are C.A.A.I.P. mandatory?
Yes, but only for six months at a time
Only selected parts which are in B.C.A.R.
No, nothing in C.A.A.I.P.s is mandatory
39. What is the licensed engineer responsible for when fitting a new component to an aircraft?
The correct part number, the modification state and the serviceability of the component
That the paperwork is signed by an approved signatory
That is has a green serviceable tag
40. If an aircraft exceeded the RVSM, when shall the crew report the incident in the appropriate
channels
24 hrs
72 hrs
48 hrs
41. If the aircraft is away from base who may certify the second part of the duplicate inspection?
a pilot with a licence for any similar aircraft type
a pilot with a licence for the aircraft type
any licensed engineer
42. Block cumulative maintenance means that
all the checks require the same man hour input except for the major inspections
all the maintenance is carried out in blocks
each check usually involves an increased aircraft down time
43. A separate modification record book is required for
passenger aircraft exceeding 3600 kgs MTWA
passenger aircraft exceeding 2730 kgs MTWA
all aircraft
44. Sector record pages from the Tech Logs, must be
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retained for four years from the last effective date
at least duplicated
retained for two years from the date of issue
45. Minimum equipment to be carried is listed in
JAR OPS
JAR 145
JAR 25
46. What should be checked before a licensed engineer signs a CRS?
That he/she has had continuation training within the previous 2 years
That he/she has worked for 4 months on the aircraft type within the previous 2 years
That he/she has worked for 6 months on the aircraft type within the previous 2 years
47. Rubber components should be stored
in warm and humid conditions
in a well lit room
in a cool dark area
48. Storage of components to prevent corrosion is helped
by wrapping in grease proof paper
by using silica gel
by placing them in a plastic box
49. Dye penetrant kits should be stored
in direct sunlight to keep it dry
out of sunlight in a dry place
in a dark damp cupboard
50. When receiving new parts it is the responsibility of the engineer to check
it has a green serviceable label attached
it is of the correct modification state and is serviceable
it was designed to acceptable standards
51. For airworthiness purposes, aircraft structural parts are graded as
class A, B and C
primary, secondary and tertiary
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1, 2 and 3
52. If an unauthorized repair is carried out
the Cof A is invalidated until an authorized repair has been done
the aircraft can fly with a Certificate of Fitness for Flight
the Cof A is not invalidated providing a CRS is issued
53. A C.of A. for export
gives authority for the aircraft to fly
is required before aircraft registration in a foriegn country
does not give authority by it self for the aircraft to fly
54. A fitness for flight is issued for an aircraft after a major modification by
the pilot, type rated on that particular aircraft
a CAA surveyor or person approved within the CAA
a appropriate licensed aircraft engineer
55. An unauthorised repair has been carried out
sign a CRS for the repair
carryout an approved repair
apply for it as a modification
56. A Part-66 licensed engineer, when signing a CRS for a non-Part-145 company would need to
have
an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months
maintenance experience for 6 months within the last 24 months
57. A National UK licensed engineer, when signing a CRS would need to have
an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months
58. Vital point inspections
are points which require special certifying LAEs
are components which involve duplicate inspections
are lifed components
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59. On a pre flight check you notice an instrument glass is cracked. You should
check MEL
tell oncoming captain
enter into technical log
Unverified
1.
Before carrying out a bonding test, remove any

cadmium plating
chromium plating
anodize coating
2.
A light-drive clearance is
clearance fit
a transition fit
an interference fit
3.
When testing an aircraft fuel contents indication system with fuel tanks partly filled, the
test set
replaces the aircraft system
is placed in series with the aircraft system
is placed in parallel with the aircraft system
4.
When using pressurised water to flush away water soluble penetrant, the spray nozzle
should be held about
45 degrees to the surface
5.
When measuring voltage with a multimeter, place the meter

in parallel with the shunt
in series with the circuit
in parallel with the circuit
6.
After any maintenance work, a CRS has to be raised

only for aircraft classified as commercial air transport
for all aircraft
only within a Part-145 organisation
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7.
Pin punches are made of

high carbon steel with tip hardened and tempered
high carbon steel hardened and tempered
case hardened mild steel
8.
What is the name of the moving jaw of a vernier caliper?

Main scale
Cursor
Vernier scale
9.
One revolution of a 40 TPI micrometer will move the spindle

0.5 inch
0.25 inch
0.025 inch
10.
A foam fire extinguisher is identified by being coloured (or has a label coloured)
cream
blue
red
11.
Where shielding against signal interference is necessary, the appropriate cables would be
carried by
moulded fibre-glass ducts for additional insulation
moulded metal ducts for additional insulation
resin-impregnated asbestos ducts for lightness and good conductivity
12.
The controlling force in a moving coil meter is provided by

the current in the coil
a permanent magnet
hairsprings - oppositely wound
13.
When zeroeing a multimeter it is zeroed

to the extreme left of scale
in the centre
to the extreme right of scale
14.
Dies in a hand squeezer
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are not exchangeable
are not adjustable
can be adjusted for different material thicknesses
15.
Who is reponsible for aircraft weighing equipment with respect to calibration and
adjustment?
The Competent Authority, at least every year
Whoever is carrying out the task
A licensed engineer with an instrument rating
16.
What does 'Second Cut' of a file refer to?

Arrangement of teeth
Number of teeth per inch
Grade
17.
To extend the range of an ammeter, use a

shunt
multiplier
variable resistor
18.
Whos responsibility is it that a part to be fitted to an aircraft is of the correct modification
standard?
The mechanic's
The certifying engineer's
The store's
19.
Which of the following bearings will; give the largest contact surface area on a shaft with
the same diameter?
Thrust bearing
Plain bearing
Roller bearing
20.
After a daily inspection, a CRS must be signed

if any rectification work has to be done on the aircraft
always
never
21.
When repairing a weld you should
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remove material from area to be welded and then use a larger welding rod
use a larger weld rod remov
remove all existing weld before rewelding
22.
What should the point angle of a twist drill be, for drilling stainless steel?
90 - 105 degrees
125 - 140 degrees
105 - 120 degrees
23.
When repairing a hole in an aircraft skin, what is the most important consideration?
The overall strength of the repair
What rivets to use
Matching the existing rivet pitch on the aircraft skin
24.
The instrument used to check internal structure is a

flexoscope
borescope
epidoscope
25.
When cleaning an area before applying dye penetrant you should

clean it with high pressure spray
wash the area with water
be careful not to push contaminants into the suspect crack
26.
Which of the following reduction gear ratios will give the maximum RPM of the propeller?
20:9
3:2
16:7
27.
Undamaged composite material will give a ______________ sound when a tap check is
done.
Hollow vibration
Solid ringing
Hollow thud
28.
A hydraulic pipe flaring machine will have an included angle of

32 degrees
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25 degrees
45 degrees
29.
Wire wrapping is a form of termination allowing up to a maximum of
3 terminations of 18 to 26 AWG solid single-strand cable per post

4 terminations of 18 to 26 AWG multi-strand cable per post
5 terminations of 18 to 26 AWG solid single-strand cable per post
30. When soldering, the use of active flux will

protect the joint
both clean and protect the joint
*
clean the joint
31. To reduce interference on a radio system you

reduce power and signal to zero
connect power and signal to a common earth
*
segregate power and signal earth
32. When fitting an inline splice to a heavy duty direct conductor, you suspect a large resistance.
You would
use a multimeter across the contact with the dial set to DC volts
*
use a multimeter across the contact with the dial set to millivolts
use a multimeter across the contact with the dial set to DC ohms
33. When carrying out an insulation check, the readings will

*
vary due to the humidity the test was carried out under
be infinity if the cable is installed correctly
be zero if the cable is installed correctly
34. During an NDT inspection, before removing developer, what would you use to mark the
defect?
*
Crayon
Lead pencil
Chalk
35. What is the best technique for internal wing structure inspections?
Magnetic particle
*
Radiographic
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ultrasonic In
36. In what ways does magnetic particle detection detect flaws?
Transverse direction
*
Both transverse and longitudinal direction

Longitudinal direction
37. A flexible hydraulic hose is proof tested to

2x normal pressure for 2 minutes
2x normal pressure for 5 minutes
*
1.5x normal pressure for 2 minutes
38. What is teh best de-icing method immediately prior to flight? C

Hot air blast from ground cart
Cold fluid de-icing
*
Hot fluid de-icing
39. You should not refuel aircraft whilst

the APU is running
*
within 30 m of operating radar equipment

position and strobe lighting is on
40. How are metric tapered reamers classified?

*
By small end diameter

By length
By large end diameter
Raju Poulose
Kuwait Airways
Module 7

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1

A CO2 extinguisher is used on

Hot metal fires would be extinguished with foam

solid and liquid fires

Fire on landing gear brake should be extinguished with

Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with

The colour of CO2 type fire extinguisher is

Risk assessments should only be carried out on

Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire?

In an oxygen system, if the pressure drops to 500 PSI, it

At low pressure, air can mix with the oxygen. The

What is the colour of a powder extinguisher?

If an oxygen cylinder pressure falls below 500 PSI

Which type of fire extinguishers can be used in the cabin?

The minimum 'no smoking' zone around an aircraft when refuelling is

What can cause dermatitis?

If there is an electrical fire, what are the safe procedures?

When mixing acid and water

An aircraft should not be refueled when

What is the colour of a BCF fire extinguisher?

Which type of extinguisher can be used for an electric fire?

A dry powder extinguisher is coloured

1. One quart is how much in millilitres?

Blades are available 18 - 32 TPI. Greatest TPI is for hard metals.

Requried torque =12x300/12+3 =240.

The Pacific Tensiometer is NOT a direct reading type.

adding reading to riser number

Rated temperature is the normal working

63. Calibration of aircraft hydrostatic weighing equipment is

a 115 volt megger

58. Which of the following statements is correct?

PF = TP/AP TP = 4,000 AP = 20 x 400 = 8000 4000/8000 = 1/2

When an anodised surface coating is damaged in service, it can be partially restored by

During an insulation test

The damping force in a meter

How do you prime a dead weight tester?

Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is tested with a

What is the primary purpose of bonding aircraft components?

A fuel quantity test set has an externally adjustable

When connecting or disconnecting an electrical appliance

When testing an anodised component with an insulation tester

When using a bonding tester

The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is

Primary structure bonding should be no more than

Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried out in the following order:

On a static leak tester, pressure is released by

When testing thermocouples using a test set the ambient temperature

Bonding lead testers are attached with

a blind tapped hole

first angle projection

washed and packed

double pole - single throw switch

iron core inductor

push-pull circuit breaker

machining is required on a particular surface

A broken line as shown in 3

A press fit requires

Which of the following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge?

The length of a blended repair of corrosion should be no less than

A transition fit is one in which the shaft is

The equipment required to carry out a run-out check on a shaft would be

Which of the following is a 'Bilateral Tolerance'?

What is the maximum bow allowed in a strut?