PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY

Class

II Medical Excel 2016-17

Solution to NEET - 2

Test date

19-06-2016

PART I - PHYSICS
1. A constant force acts on a body of mass 0.9 kg at rest for 10 s. If the body moves a distance of 250 m,
the magnitude of the force is
(A) 3 N
(B) 5 N
(C) 4.0 N
(D) 4.5 N
Ans (D)
1
Using S ut at 2
2
Here u = 0, S = 250 m, t = 10 s
Calculate a
We know F = ma
Here
m = 0.9 kg
1
2
distance with speed 20 km/hr and with 60 km/h. Average speed is
3
3
(A) 40 km/h
(B) 50 2 km/h
(C) 36 km/h
(D) 80 km/h
Ans (C)
In I case
1
Distance covered by car, x1 km
3
Speed, v1 = 20 km/h
x
1
Hence, time taken, t1 1 h
v1 60

2. A car covers

In II case
Distance covered by car, x 2

2
km
3

Speed, v2 = 60 km/h
1
h
90
Total distance covered x1 x 2
Therefore, average speed

Total time taken

t1 t 2

Hence, time taken, t 2

Substituting the respective values, we get

Average speed = 36 km/h
then the value of c is
3. If a unit vector is represented by 0.5i 0.8j ck,

(A) 1

(B)

(C)

0.11

Ans (B)
Magnitude of unit vector = 1 (0.5) 2 (0.8) 2 c 2 1
By solving we get c 0.11
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0.01

(D)

0.39

4. If A 4i 3j and B 6i 8j then magnitude and direction of A B will be

3
1
(A) 5, tan 1
(B) 5 5, tan 1
4
2
Ans (B)

A B 4i 3j 6i 8j 10i 5j

| A B | (10) 2 (5)2 5 5

tan

(C) 10, tan1(5)

3
(D) 25, tan 1
4

5 1
1
tan 1
10 2
2

5. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m with a velocity of 36km/hr The centripetal force is
(A) 250 N
(B) 750 N
(C) 1000 N
(D) 1200 N
Ans (C)
km
m
v 36
10
h
s
mv 2 500 100
F

1000 N
r
50
6. A simple pendulum oscillates in a vertical plane. When it passes through the mean position, the tension
in the string is 3 times the weight of the pendulum bob. What is the maximum displacement of the
pendulum with respect to the vertical
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) 90
Ans (D)
mv 2
Tension at mean position, mg
3mg
l
v 2gl
(i)
and if the body displaces by angle with the vertical
Then v 2gl (1 cos )
(ii)
Comparing (i) and (ii), cos = 0 = 90
7. A boy can throw a stone up to a maximum height of 10 m. The maximum horizontal distance that the
boy can throw the same stone up to will be
(A) 20 2 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 10 2 m
(D) 20 m
Ans (D)
u2
h max
10
2g

[ = 90]

u2 = 200
u2
R max
20 m
g
8. The average force necessary to stop a bullet of mass 20 g moving with a speed of 250 m/s, as it
penetrates into the wood for a distance of 12 cm is
(A) 2.2 103 N
(B) 3.2 103 N
(C) 4.2 103 N
(D) 5.2 103 N
Ans (D)
u = 250 m/s, v = 0, s = 0.12 metre
u 2 v 2 20 103 (250) 2
F ma m
F = 5.2 103 N

2 0.12
2s
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9. A plumb line is suspended from a ceiling of a car moving with horizontal acceleration of a. What will be
the angle of inclination with vertical?
a
a
g
g
(A) tan 1
(B) tan 1
(C) cos 1
(D) cos 1
a
a
g
g
Ans (A)
T cos = mg
T sin = ma
a
a
tan 1
tan
g
g
10. Ten one-rupee coins are on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass m, which of the following
statements is not true?
(A) The force on the 6th coins (counted from the bottom) due to all the coins on its top is equal to 4 mg
(downwards)
(B) The force on 6th coin due to 7th coin is 4 mg (downwards)
(C) The reaction of the 6th coin on the 7th coin is 4 mg (upwards)
(D) The total force on the 10th coin is 9 mg (downwards)
Ans (D)
(A) Is correct 6th coin has four coins on its top which exert a force 4 mg on it.
(B) Is correct. 7th coin has three coins, placed over it. Thus 7th coin exerts a force 4 mg
on 6th coin (downwards)
(C) Is correct. As what is explained in (B), the reaction of 6th coin on the 7th coin is
4mg (upwards)
(D) Is wrong 10th coin, which is the topmost coin, experiences a reaction force of mg (upwards) from all
the coins below it.
11. The unit of Plancks constant is
(A) Joule
(B) Joule/s
Ans (D)

(C) Joule/m

(D) Joule-s

12. Which of the following is false for interference of light?

(A) Coherence of the sources is an essential condition for interference
(B) The minima of the interference pattern need not be of zero intensity
(C) Interference simply redistributes light energy, without destroying any of it
(D) The minima of the interference pattern must always be of zero intensity
Ans (D)
13. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and
minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are
(A) 5I and I
(B) 5I and 3I
(C) 9I and I
(D) 9I and 3I
Ans (C)
2

I max

I1 I2

I min

I1 I2

I 4I 9I

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I 4I

14. Two identical light waves, propagating in the same direction have a phase difference . After they
superpose, the intensity of the resulting wave will be proportional to
(A) cos
(B) cos (/2)
(C) cos2 (/2)
(D) cos2
Ans (C)
Here A 2 a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos
a1 a 2 a

A 2 2a 2 (1 cos ) 2a 2 1 2cos 2 1
2

A 2 cos 2
2

Now, I A2 I A 2 cos 2
I cos 2
2
2

15. S1 and S2 are the two coherent point sources of light located in the xy-plane at points (0, 0) and (0, 3)
respectively. Here is the wavelength of light. At which one of the following point (given as
coordinates), the intensity of interference will be maximum
(A) (3, 0)
(B) (4, 0)
(C) (5/4, 0)
(D) (2/3, 0)
Ans (B)

x = n(n = 1) I = Imax
16. Soap bubble appears coloured due to the phenomenon of
(A) Interference
(B) Diffraction
(C) Dispersion
Ans (A)
Phenomenon of interference of light takes place.

(D) Reflection

17. Two sources of same intensity interfere at a point and produced resultant I. When one source is removed,
the intensity at that point will be
I
I
I
(A) I
(B)
(C)
(D)
2
4
3
Ans (C)
18. Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz
(A) 2 106
(B) 3 106 m
Ans (B)
c 3 108

3 106 m
v
100

(C) 4 106 m

(D) 5 106 m

19. Interference was observed in interference chamber when air was present, now the chamber is evacuated
and if the same light is used, a careful observer will see
(A) no interference
(B) interference with bright bands
(C) interference with dark bands
(D) interference in which width of the fringe will be slightly increased
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Ans (D)
The refractive index of air is slightly more than 1. When chamber is evacuated, refractive index
decreases and hence the wavelength increases and fringe width also increases.

20. If two waves represented by y1 = 4 sin t and y 2 3sin t interference at a point, the amplitude
3

of the resulting wave will be about

(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 3.5
Ans (B)

, a1 4, a 2 3
3
21. Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5 10

m illuminates a pair of slits 1 mm apart. The

separation of bright lines on the interference pattern formed on a screen 2 m away is
(A) 0.25 mm
(B) 0.1 mm
(C) 1.0 mm
(D) 0.01 mm
Ans (C)
D 5 107 2

m 103 m 1.0 mm.

d
103

22. In a certain double slit experimental arrangement interference fringes of width 1.0 mm each are observed
when light of wavelength 5000 is used. Keeping the set up unaltered, if the source is replaced by
another source of wavelength 6000 , the fringe width will be
(A) 0.5 mm
(B) 1.0 mm
(C) 1.2 mm
(D) 1.5 mm
Ans (C)
1 1 1.0 6000
or

1.2 mm.
2 2 2 5000
23. The figure shows a double slit experiment where P and Q are the slits. The path lengths PX and QX are
n and (n + 2) respectively, where n is a whole n is a whole number and is the wavelength. Taking
the central fringe as zero, what is formed at X
(A) first bright
(B) first dark
(C) second bright
(D) second dark
Ans (C)
For brightness, path difference = n = 2
So second is bright.
24. In Youngs double slit experiment, fringes of width are produced on a screen kept at a distance of 1 m
from the slit. When the screen is moved away by 5 102 m, fringe width changes by 3 105 m. The
separation between the slits is 1 103 m. The wavelength of the light used is ____ nm
(A) 500
(B) 600
(C) 700
(D) 400
Ans (B)
D

d
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D
d
Substituting the given values, we get
5 102 m
3 103 m
1 103 m
3 108

m 0.6 106 m 600 109 m 600nm.

5 102

25. In Youngs double slit experiment, the phase difference between the light waves reaching third bright
fringe from the central fringe will be ( = 6000 )
(A) Zero
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
Ans (D)
n 3, 2n
26. A thin mica sheet of thickness 2 106 m and refractive index ( = 1.5) is introduced in the path of the
first wave. The wavelength of the wave used is 5000 . The central bright maximum will shift
(A) 2 fringes upward
(B) 5 fringes downward
(C) 10 fringes upward
(D) None of these
Ans (A)

Shift 1 t
1.5 1 2 106
10

5000

10

= 2 i.e., 2 fringes upwards.

27. In a Youngs double slit experiment the intensity at a point where the path difference is
wavelength of the light used) is I. If I0 denotes the maximum intensity,
(A)

1
2

(B)

3
2

(C)

1
2

( being the
6

I
is equal to
I0

(D)

3
4

Ans (D)
I
2

cos 2 ; .x.
I0

2
28. In youngs double slit experiment, the distance between the slits is 1 mm and that between slit and
screen is 1 meter and 10th fringe is 5 mm always from the central bright fringe, then wavelength of light
used will be
(A) 5000
(B) 6000
(C) 7000
(D) 8000
Ans (A)
n D
10 1
By using x n
5 103
5 107 m 5000
3
d
1 10
29. Assume that each atom of copper contributes one electron. If the current flowing through a copper wire
of 1 mm diameter is 1.1 A, the drift velocity of electrons will be (density of Cu = 9 g cm3, atomic wt. of
Cu = 63, Avogadro number is 6 1023 atoms per mole)
(A) 0.3 mm s1
(B) 0.5 mm s1
(C) 0.1 mm s1
(D) 0.2 mm s1
Ans (C)
Number of atoms in 63 g of copper = 6 1023
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Volume of 63 g of copper
Mass
63 g

Density 9 gcm 3
= 7 cm3 = 7 106 m3
6 1023
6
n
1029 m 3
6
3
7 10 m
7
2
A = r = (0.5 103)2 m2
Drift velocity,
I
1.1 7
vd

19
enA 1.6 10 6 1029 (0.5 103 ) 2
= 0.1 103 ms1 = 0.1 mm s1
30. I-V characteristics of a copper wire of length L and area of cross-section A is shown in figure. The slope
of the curve becomes
(A) more if the experiment is performed at higher temperature
(B) more if a wire of steel of same dimension is used
(C) more if the length of the wire is increased
(D) less if the length of the wire is increased
Ans (D)
I 1
Slope of I-V graph

V R
If the experiment is performed at a higher temperature, the resistance R of copper increases and hence
slope decreases, so the option (A) is wrong.
In options (B) and (C), the resistances and so slope becomes less.
In option (D), the resistance R increases and so slope decreases.
Hence only option (D) is correct.
31. Find the equivalent resistance across AB
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans (A)

R AB

2 2
1
22

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32. A parallel plate Capacitor has plates of area 200 cm2 and separation 0.05 cm. The space between plates
have been filled with a dielectric having k = 8 and then charged to 300 volts. The stored energy is
(A) 1.6 105 J
(B) 2 106 J
(C) 12.4 105 J
(D) 6.2 105 J
Ans (C)
1
1 A
U KC V 2 K 0 V 2
2
2
d
12
1 8 8.85 10 2 102

9 104
4
2
5 10
5
U = 12.4 10 J
33. A capacitor of capacity 16 mF charged to a potential of 20 V is connected to a capacitor of capacity C
charged to a potential of 10 V as shown in the figure. If the common potential is 14 V, the capacity C is
equal to
(A) 18 mF
(B) 24 mF
(C) 8 mF
(D) 4 mF
Ans (D)
320 10C
14
16 C
320 10 C = 224 + 14 C
320 224 = 24 C
96
C
4 mF
24
34. A capacitor of 21 F is charged to 100V and then discharged through a wire of mass 0.25 g and specific
heat 0.1 cal g1 C1. The rise in temperature of the wire is
(A) 0.5 C
(B) 1 C
(C) 1.5 C
(D) 2 C
Ans (B)
1
CV 2 ms
2
CV 2

2ms
21 106 104
102

1 C
2 25 105 0.1 4200 103 105
35. A series combination of n1 capacitors each of value C1, is charged by a source of potential difference 4V.
When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, is charged by a source of potential
difference V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first combination has, The value of C2, in
terms of C1, is then
16C1
2C1
n
n
(A)
(B)
(C) 16 2 C1
(D) 2 2 C1
n1 n 2
n1n 2
n1
n1
Ans (A)
1 C1
1
16C1
(4V) 2 (n 2C 2 )V 2 C 2
2 n1
2
n 1n 2

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36. An electric cell of e.m.f. E is connected across a copper wire of diameter d and length l. The drift
velocity of electrons in the wires vd. If the length of the wire is changed to 2l, the new drift velocity of
electrons in the copper wire will be
v
v
(A) vd
(B) 2vd
(C) d
(D) d
2
4
Ans (C)
i
vd
neA
E
EA
E

R neA
l n e A
l n e
v'
1
v
d v 'd d
vd 2
2
37. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its resistance will
(A) increase by 0.05%
(B) increase by 0.2%
(C) decrease by 0.2%
(D) decrease by 0.05%
Ans (B)
dR
dl
% 2 % 2 0.1%
R
l
dR
% 0.2%
R
38. Masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 1.
The ratio of their electrical resistances are
(A) 1 : 3 : 5
(B) 5 : 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 15 : 25
(D) 125 : 15 : 1
Ans (D)
l2
l2 l2 l2
R R1 : R 2 : R 3 1 : 2 : 3
m
m1 m 2 m 3

25 9 1
1
: : 25 : 3: 125 :15 :1
1 3 5
5

39. A block has dimensions 1 cm, 2 cm, 3 cm. Ratio of the maximum resistance to minimum resistance
between any point of opposite faces of this block is
(A) 9 : 1
(B) 1 : 9
(C) 18 : 1
(D) 1 : 6
Ans (A)
a = 1 b = 2, c = 3
L c
R max

A
a b
c
2
2
L' a
R max a b c c
c2 c 3 9
R min

2
A'
bc
R min a a a
a
a 1 1
bc
40. If 1, 2 and 3 are the conductances of three conductors, then their equivalent conductance, when they
are joined in series, will be
1 2 3
1
1
1
1 23
(A) 1 2 3
(B)
(C)
(D)

1 2 3
1 2 3
2 3 13 1 2
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Ans (D)
In series, effective resistance,
1
1
1
1 23 13 1 2
R eff R 1 R 2 R 3

eff 1 2 3
1 23
eff

1 23
23 13 1 2

41. Two wires of same material have length L and 2L and cross-sectional areas 4 A and A respectively. The
ratio of their specific resistances would be
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 8 : 1
(C) 1 : 8
(D) 1 : 1
Ans (D)
Specific resistance doesnt depend upon length and area.
42. If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 coulomb, the energy stored in it increase by 21%. The
original charge on the capacitor is
(A) 10 C
(B) 20 C
(C) 30 C
(D) 40 C
Ans (B)
1.21 (Q 2) 2
1.21 Q 2
1 Q2
1 (Q 2) 2
Since U
, 1.21U

2
2 C
2
C
1
Q
1
Q
1.1 Q = Q + 2 Q = 20 C
43. [M1L2T4A2] is dimensional formula of
(A) resistance
(B) conductance
Ans (C)
Q2
A 2T 2
C

M 1L2 T 4 A 2
2 2
W ML T

(C) capacitance

(D) conductivity

44. Two capacitors of capacitances 3 F and 6 F are charged to a potential of 12 V each. They are now
connected to each other, with the positive plate of each joined to the negative plate of the other. The
potential difference across each will be
(A) 6 volt
(B) 4 volt
(C) 3 volt
(D) 12 volt
Ans (B)
C V C 2 V2 6 12 3 12
V 1 1

4 volt
C1 C 2
3 6
45. A wire of length 4 m and cross sectional are 1 mm2 carrying a current of 2 A. If each cubic meter of the
material contains 1029 free electrons, the average time taken by an electron to cross the length of the
wire is
(A) 2 105 s
(B) 3 105 s
(C) 3.2 104 s
(D) 4.1 103 s
Ans (C)
l = 4m, A = 1mm2 = 106m2, i = 2A, n = 1029
l
l n eA
t

Vd
i
4 1029 1.6 1019 106
2
4
t = 3.2 10 s
t

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10

PART II - CHEMISTRY
46. Which one of the following reactions would give the best yield of t-butylmethyl ether?
H 2SO 4

heat
(B) (CH3 )3 CBr CH 3OH

(A) (CH 3 )3 COH

140 C

heat
(C) (CH3 )3 CBr CH 3O N a

heat
(D) (CH 3 )3 CO K CH3Br

Ans (D)
Cl
1) BH3.THF

47. The major product Y

O

Na/ether

2) H2O2 / OH

is

OH OH

(A)

Cl

(B)

ONa

(C)

ONa ONa

(D)

Ans (A)
Cl

Cl

(i) BH3.THF

OH NaOH

(ii) H2O2 / OH
X

48. One mole of an organic compound R with the formula C3H8O reacts completely with two moles of HI
to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it form product Z. The compound Z answers the
iodoform test. The reactant R is
(A) propan-2-ol
(B) propano-1-ol
(C) ethoxyethane
(D) methoxyethane
Ans (D)
CH3OC2H5 + 2HI

CH3I + C2H5I + H2O

X

C2H5I + NaOH
C2H5OH + NaOH + I2

C2H5OH
CHI3 + HCOONa
iodoform

49. Which of the following is major product X for the given reaction
OPh
OPh
OPh

(A)

HI
(excess)

OH

I
I

(B)

OH

(C)

(D)

OH

Ans (A)
50. Benzaldehyde is formed by the dry distillation of
(A) calcium benzoate + calcium formate
(C) calcium benzoate + sodium formate
Ans (A)
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(B) calcium benzoate + calcium acetate

(D) calcium benzoate

11

51. Consider the following reaction

+ CO + DCl

AlCl3

X + Y

heat

The products X and Y are

O

(A)

(B)

Cl

+ HCl

(C)

+ HCl

(D)

D
+ DCOCl

+ HCl

Ans (A)
52. Boiling points of carbonyl compounds are higher than those of alkane due to
(A) hydrogen bonding
(B) dipole-dipole interactions
(C) van der Waals forces
(D) all of these
Ans (B)
53. Since carbonyl group is common, aldehydes and ketones undergo addition reaction with sodium
bisulphite. An exception is
(A) CH3COCH3
(B) C6H5CHO
(C) CH3CHO
(D) C6H5COCH3
Ans (D)
Due to steric hindrance, aromatic ketones fail to undergo addition reactions.
54. Ethanal in the presence of alkali reacts to give 3-hydroxybutanal. The reaction is
(A) aldol condensation
(B) Claisen condensation
(C) Reimer - Tiemman reaction
(D) none of these
Ans (A)
55. The order of reactivity of carbonyl compounds towards nucleophilic addition reaction is
(A) CH3COCH3 > CH3CHO > HCHO > C6H5CHO
(B) C6H5CHO > CH3COCH3 > CH3CHO > HCHO
(C) HCHO > CH3CHO > CH3COCH3 > C6H5CHO
(D) CH3CHO > HCHO > CH3COCH3 > C6H5CHO
Ans (C)
With increase in number of +I groups, reactivity of carbonyl compounds towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction decreases and aromatic carbonyl compounds are less reactive due to +M effect of
benzene ring.
56. A cyanohydrin of a compound (X) on hydrolysis gives an -hydroxy acid which shows optical activity
after resolution. The compound (X) is
(A) acetone
(B) formaldehyde
(C) diethyl ketone
(D) acetaldehyde
Ans (D)
Acetaldehyde reacts with KCN in acidic medium to form cyanohydrin. It on acid hydrolysis yields lactic
acid which is optically active.

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12

57. In the reaction

CH3
OH +
C
CH3
H

[(CH3)3CO]3Al
heat

the major product formed is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans (D)
It is an example of Oppanuer oxidation.
58. The major product obtained from photochemical chlorination of ethylbenzene (in excess) is hydrolysed
with aqueous KOH and the product is then oxidised with PCC. The final product formed is
(A) PhCH2CHO
(B) PhCOCH3
(C) PhCHO
(D) PhCOOH
Ans (B)
Cl
Ph

Ph

HCl

Cl

Cl2

Cl2/h

HCl

Cl

Ph

HO (aq)

Ph

59. 1 : 1 ratio of acetaldehyde and ethanol react in the presence of dry HCl gas to give
(A) acetal
(B) acetaldoxime
(C) hemiacetal
(D) ethan-1,2-diol
Ans (C)
H
CH3

H
O + C2H5OH

dry HCl(g)

CH3

OCH3

OH

60. On oxidation of 2-propanol to 2-propanone, the oxidation state of carbinol carbon changes from
(A) +1 to +4
(B) 0 to +2
(C) 1 to +1
(D) 2 to +2
Ans (B)
OH
CH3

CH
x

O
CH3

[O]
H 2O

CH3

(x + 1 2 + 1) = 0; x = 0

C
x

CH3

(x 2) = 0; x = 2

61. A sample of a gas occupies 100 cm3 at 27 C and 740 mm pressure. When the volume changes to
80 cm3 at 740 mm pressure, the temperature of the gas will be
(A) 21.6 C
(B) 240 C
(C) 33 C
(D) 89.5 C
Ans (C)
100
80
=
300K
xK
x = 240

K = 33 C

62. Two identical cylinders contain helium at 2.5 atm and argon at 1 atm respectively. If both gases are filled
in one of the cylinders, the pressure would be
(A) 1.75 atm
(B) 3.5 atm
(C) 1.5 atm
(D) 1 atm
Ans (B)
Pm = p1 + p2 = 2.5 + 1.0 = 3.5 atm
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13

63. The rms velocity of oxygen at 300 K in ms1 is

(A) 4.835 102 m s1
(C) 2.340 102 m s1
Ans (A)
c

(B) 8.314 102 m s1

(D) 3.21 102 ms1

3RT
3 8.314 300

4.836 102 m s 1
M
32 103

64. How many balloons of 0.25 litre capacity at 1 atmospheric pressure can be filled from a hydrogen gas
cylinder of 5 litres capacity at 10 atmospheric pressure?
(A) 180
(B) 90
(C) 50
(D) 200
Ans (A)
P1V1 = P2V2
PV
510
Total volume of hydrogen at 1 atm pressure is V1 = 2 2 =
= 50 liters.
P1
1
5 litres of hydrogen will be left in the cylinder.
Hydrogen gas available for filling = 50 5 = 45 litres
Capacity of one balloon = 0. 25 liters
Number of balloons that can be filled =

45
= 180.
0.25

65. The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The energy of the level corresponding to
n = 5 is
(A) 0.54 eV
(B) 5.40 eV
(C) 0.85 eV
(D) 2.71 eV
Ans (A)
66. Which among the following particles will have the smallest de Broglie wavelength, assuming that they
have the same velocity?
(A) A positron
(B) A photon
(C) An alpha particle (D) A neutron
Ans (C)
67. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar]3d54s1 (Z = 24)
(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative sign
(C) In silver atom (Z = 47), 23 electrons have a spin of

1
2

(D) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN3 is 3

Ans (D)
68. H-line in Lyman series falls in
(A) visible region
(B) infrared region
Ans (C)

(C) UV region

69. Difference between Cp and Cv for an ideal gas is equal to

(A) 2 k cal K1 mol1
(B) 2.99 cal K1 mol1
(C) 8.314 J K1 mol1
(D) 8.314 erg K1 mol1
Ans (C)
CP CV = R
2ME1617PCBNEET2S

14

(D) microwave region

70. During an adiabatic process

(A) pressure is maintained constant
(B) gas is isothermally expanded
(C) there is perfect heat insulation
(D) the system changes heat with surroundings
Ans (C)
An adiabatic process is one in which exchange of heat is not taking place in between system and
surroundings. This can be made by putting insulation at the boundaries of system.
71. The enthalpy of vapourisation of benzene is 30.8 kJ mol1 at its boiling point (80.1C). The entropy
change for the condensation process is
(A) 240 kJ K1 mol1
(B) +87.3 J K1 mol1 (C) 87.3 J K1 mol1 (D) +240 kJ K1 mol1
Ans (C)
PCl3 (g) Cl 2 (g)
PCl5 (g)
72. For the gas phase reaction ;
, which of the following conditions is correct?
(A) H < 0, S < 0
(B) H > 0, S < 0
(C) H = 0, S < 0
(D) H > 0, S > 0
Ans (D)
G H T S

Since the reaction is spontaneous, G < 0, number of moles increase in forward reaction, S > 0.
Hence H > 0
73. Which of the following has the highest ionisation energy?
(A) Al2+
(B) Mg+
(C) Mg2+
Ans (C)
74. Alkali metals are most reducing because
(A) they are all monovalent
(C) of their lower ionisation energies
Ans (C)

(D) Na

(B) they have large atomic radii

(D) they are all metals.

75. The general electronic configuration of d-block elements is

(A) ns2np1 (n 1)d110
(B) ns2np6(n 1)d110
(C) ns1 or 2 (n 1)d110
(D) ns2(n 1)d110
Ans (C)
76. A solution containing 0.52 g of KCl in 100 g of water froze at 0.25 C. Calculate the per cent
ionization of the salt (Kf = 1.86 K molal1, At. masses: K = 39.1, Cl = 35.5)
(A) 93
(B) 83
(C) 73
(D) 63
Ans (A)
1000 K f W2 1000 1.86 0.52
Observed molecular mass of KCl

38.7
W1 T
100 0.25
True molecular mass of KCl = 39.1 + 35.5 = 74.6
M
74.6
vant Hoff factor = T
1.93
M O 38.7
i 1 1.93 1
Degree of dissociation,

0.93
n 1
2 1
Percent of dissociation = 93%

2ME1617PCBNEET2S

15

77. A solution containing 0.15 g of a substance dissolved in 15 g of a solvent boiled at a temperature higher
by 0.216 C than that of pure solvent. The molecular mass of the substance is, (Kb for solvent is 2.16 C)
(A) 1.01
(B) 10.1
(C) 1000
(D) 100
Ans (D)
K w 2 1000 2.16 0.15 1000
M2 b

100
Tb w 1
0.216 15
78. Freezing point of 0.018 m aqueous solution (Kf = 1.86) is
(A) 272.967 K
(B) 273 K
(C) 274
Ans (A)
Tf = Kf.m = 1.86 0.018 = 0.033
Freezing point of the solution is 273 0.033 = 272.967 K

(D) 273.15

79. 1.0 g of a non-electrolyte dissolved in 50.5 g of benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene by
0.40 K. The freezing point depression constant of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol1. The molar mass of the
solute is
(A) 100
(B) 253.5
(C) 512
(D) 40
Ans (B)
K w 2 1000 5.12 1.0 1000
M2 f

253.5
Tf w1
0.40 50.5
80. The osmotic pressure of a solution of 3.42 g of sugar (molar mass 342) in 500 mL at 300 K is
(A) 0.492 atm
(B) 0.246 atm
(C) 2.46 atm
(D) 4.92 atm
Ans (A)
500
w2 = 3.42 g; V
0.5 L , T = 300 K; R = 0.0821 L atm K1 mol1, M2 = 342
1000
w RT 3.42 0.0821 300
2

0.492 atm
M2V
342 0.5
81. The molal freezing point constant of water is 1.86 C. The depression in the freezing point of 0.01 molal
NaCl solution in water is
(A) 1.86 C
(B) 0.186 C
(C) 0.0186 C
(D) 0.0372 C
Ans (D)
T = Kf m where m is molality of the solution.
T = 1.86 0.01 = 0.0186
Since NaCl ionises giving double the number of particles, actual depression doubles.
i.e., 0.0186 2 = 0.0372 C.
82. The elevation in boiling point of a dilute solution is
(A) directly proportional to molality
(B) inversely proportional to molality
(C) directly proportional to square of molality
(D) directly proportional to normality
Ans (A)
Tb = Kb molality
83. Assume that 0.1 molal solutions of sodium chloride, barium chloride, sodium phosphate and aluminium
sulfate are all 100% dissociated. The solution having the highest boiling point is that of
(A) NaCl
(B) BaCl2
(C) Na3PO4
(D) Al2(SO4)3
2ME1617PCBNEET2S

16

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

Ans (D)
Aluminium sulfate produces the largest number (5 particles per molecule) of ions and has the highest
Tb.
A liquid mixture that boils to produce vapours having the same composition as that of the liquid mixture
is known as
(A) a zeotrope
(B) an azeotrope
(C) an ideal mixture
(D) supersaturated.
Ans (B)
This is the definition of an azeotropic mixture.
Kf of water is 1.86 K kg moll. The freezing point of a solution of 0.1 mol of a carbohydrate in 200 g of
water,
(A) is 0.93 C
(B) is 0.93 C
(C) cannot be determined since carbohydrate is not identified
(D) is 0.00093 C
Ans (B)
Tf = molality Kf. Since Tf is a colligative property it does not depend upon the nature of solute.
A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallises in the cubic structure when atoms A are at
the corners of the cube and atoms B are at the centre of the body. The simplest formula of the
compound is
(A) AB
(B) AB2
(C) A2B
(D) AB4
Ans (A)
Lowest heat of fusion is for?
(A) Covalent solid
(B) Ionic solid
(C) Metallic solid
(D) Molecular solid
Ans (D)
In the case of molecular solid weak van der Waals forces keep the molecules together in the crystal
lattice. Hence the lattice is easily broken. So small amount of heat is enough to melt the solid.
The contribution of a particle at the edge for the unit cell is
1
1
1
(A) 1
(B)
(C)
(D)
2
8
4
Ans (D)
The interionic distance for caesium chloride crystal will be
3a
3a
a
(A) a
(B)
(C)
(D)
4
2
2 2
Ans (C)

3a
2
90. The number of unit cells present in a cube-shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.0 g is
[Atomic mass : Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]
(A) 5.14 1021
(B) 1.28 1021
(C) 1.71 1021
(D) 2.57 1021
Ans (D)
4 58.5
One unit cell of NaCl contains 4 NaCl units, i.e., has mass
g
6.022 1023
6.02 1023
Number of unit cells in 1 g
= 2.57 1021
4 58.5

CsCl forms a BCC lattice d =

2ME1617PCBNEET2S

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PART III - BOTANY

Q.No.
91.
92.

Version 1
D
A

Version 2
D
A

Version 3
C
B

Version 4
D
D

93.
94.

D
B

A
A

A
D

B
B

95.
96.

C
D

A
B

C
A

C
B

97.
98.

D
D

D
B

A
D

B
D

99.
100.

B
D

B
B

A
D

D
B

101.
102.

A
B

A
B

D
B

B
A

103.
104.

B
C

D
D

C
D

A
C

105.
106.

B
B

B
D

A
C

A
B

107.
108.

D
A

B
B

B
A

D
C

109.
110.

C
D

D
C

B
D

C
D

111.
112.

A
C

A
A

D
A

A
A

113.
114.

B
C

B
C

C
D

D
A

115.
116.

B
D

A
B

B
B

B
A

117.
118.

A
C

C
C

B
D

C
B

119.
120.

B
D

D
D

A
B

D
B

121.
122.

A
B

A
B

B
C

A
B

123.
124.

B
B

C
B

A
C

D
D

125.
126.

D
A

D
A

B
B

C
B

127.
128.

A
A

D
B

B
B

B
B

129.
130.

B
C

D
B

D
A

D
B

2ME1617PCBNEET2S

18

Q.No.
131.

Version 1
A

Version 2
B

Version 3
B

Version 4
D

132.
133.

B
D

D
D

D
B

A
C

134.
135.

B
D

C
C

D
D

A
D

PART IV - ZOOLOGY
Q.No.
136.

Version 1
B

Version 2
D

Version 3
D

Version 4
C

137.
138.

B
B

C
B

B
B

B
D

139.
140.

B
C

C
C

D
C

D
B

141.
142.

A
B

B
B

B
B

A
C

143.
144.

B
B

C
B

B
B

B
D

145.
146.

C
D

B
D

D
C

C
C

147.
148.

C
B

D
C

C
A

D
B

149.
150.

B
C

B
D

B
D

B
A

151.
152.

B
C

B
B

B
B

C
B

153.
154.

B
B

B
A

B
B

B
C

155.
156.

B
D

D
C

D
B

B
B

157.
158.

D
C

C
C

C
C

B
C

159.
160.

D
B

A
B

B
C

D
B

161.
162.

D
C

C
C

B
B

B
C

163.
164.

B
B

B
B

C
C

B
C

165.
166.

C
C

C
B

D
A

B
B

167.
168.

B
C

B
B

C
B

D
B

2ME1617PCBNEET2S

19

Q.No.
169.

Version 1
C

Version 2
D

Version 3
B

Version 4
B

170.
171.

A
D

B
D

C
C

C
C

172.
173.

B
C

B
B

C
C

C
C

174.
175.

B
D

B
C

B
D

B
D

176.
177.

C
B

C
B

B
B

B
B

178.
179.

C
C

C
C

C
C

C
C

180.

***

2ME1617PCBNEET2S

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