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CV Exam - Question Bank-2
CV Exam - Question Bank-2
CAD CAM
a) each tool movement is made with reference to the last tool position
d) No tool Movement
c) precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes
b) machine and tool movements are precisely controlled at all times and in all planes
c) tool movement from one point to the next does not have to follow a specific path
d) No movement of tool
1
c) tool movement from one position to the next does not have to follow a specific path
a) Design
b) Drafting
c) Manufacturing
7. The screen is scanned from left to right, top to bottom all the time to generate graphics by
a) Raster scan
b) Random scan
c) Vector scan
8. The method which used either delta x or delta y, whichever is larger, is chosen as one
raster unit to draw the line -the algorithm is called?
2
9. Which of the following line algorithms used integer only arithmetic to rasterize lines
10. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45 counterclockwise with the X-axis.
The coordinates of the transformed point will be
a) (7.5, 5)
b) (10, 5)
c) (7.5, -5)
d) (10, -5)
11. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the
type of tool motion will be
c) Linear Interpolation
d) Rapid feed
a) Control points
b) Knots
c) End points
3
13. The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors:
c) Remains constant
14. Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tools in APT
language?
1. only capital letters are used 2. A period is placed at the end of each statement 3. Insertion
of space does not affect the APT word
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1and 3
d) 1 alone
15. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4).
The correct G and M code for this motion is
a) spindle position
b) table velocity
c) spindle speed
4
d) coolant flow
17. In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill with
10mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30),
(50,30), and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter
will be
a) (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55, -5), (-5, -5)
b) (0, -5), (55, -5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5, -5)
1. Single machine tool 2. Manual materials handling system 3. Computer control 4. Random
sequencing of parts to machines
Which of the above characteristics are associated with flexible manufacturing system?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
19. Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS) are reported to have a number of benefits. Which
is NOT a reported benefit of FMS?
b) Increased quality
d) Increased utilisation
20. Which materials-processing technology gives the advantage of precision, accuracy and
optimum use of cutting tools, which maximise their life and higher labour productivity?
5
a) Industrial robots
6
CAD CAM
c) precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes
c) tool movement from one position to the next does not have to follow a specific path
a) cutter size and other variables must be considered when the program is prepared
7
5. In a typical manufacturing environment, CAD modeling finds its role in:
a) Design
b) Drafting
c) Manufacturing
6. The method which used either delta x or delta y, whichever is larger, is chosen as one
raster unit to draw the line -the algorithm is called?
a) Back-Face Culling
b) Depth Buffer
c) Painters Algorithm
8. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45 counterclockwise with the X-axis.
The coordinates of the transformed point will be
a) (7.5, 5)
b) (10, 5)
c) (7.5, -5)
d) (10, -5)
8
9. Which of the following hidden surface removal algorithms potentially causes a bottleneck
in the Graphics Pipeline?
a) Back-Face Culling
b) Depth Buffer
c) Painters Algorithm
10. For the following question, consider the line which starts at location (5, 14) and ends at
position (21, 2).How many pixels will there be in this line?
a) 12
b) 16
c) 20
d) 24
11. For the following question, consider the line which starts at location (5, 14) and ends at
position (21, 2).Which is the primary direction?
a) X
b) Y
c) Z
12. With the DDA algorithm, what will be the amount (amt in notes) added to the secondary
component each time through the loop
a) 1/2
b) -3/4
c) 3/4
d) -4/3
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13. The computerized technology that is used to design parts is known as:
a) CIM
b) CAD
c) CAM
d) Flexible manufacturing
a) Solid modeling
b) Surface modeling
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c) Wire frame modeling
d) 2D modeling
18. A system permitting the manufacture of large quantities of identical goods using
repetitive actions by people or machines is called:
a) manufacturing.
b) operations.
c) mass production.
d) assembly line.
19. An approach that tries to match the output of manufacturing with market demand, in
order to minimize inventories is called:
a) JIT.
b) MRP.
c) CAD.
d) CAM.
a) CNC machining
b) NC machining
c) DNC machining
d) FMS machining
21. The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10,10)
whileperforming an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following
NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
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c) N010G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
23. Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tools in APT
language?
1. only capital letters are used 2. A period is placed at the end of each statement 3. Insertion
of space does not affect the APT word
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1and 3
d) 1 alone
24. Which of the following are valid statements for point to point motion of the tool in APT
language?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
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d) 1, 2 and 3
25. In APT language, the cutter motion in incremental coordinate mode is addressed as
a) GO/TO/.....
b) GO/TO.....
c) GO DLTA/....
d) GO FWD/ ...
26. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4).
The correct G and M code for this motion is
27. In a point to point control NC machine, the slides are positioned by an integrally mounted
stepper motor drive. If the specification of the motor is 1degree/pulse, and the pitch of the
lead screw is 3.6 mm, what is the expected positioning accuracy?
a) 1m
b) 10m
c) 50m
d) 100m
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d) neither position nor velocity need be controlled
a) spindle position
b) table velocity
c) spindle speed
d) coolant flow
31. Interpolation in the controller refers to control of which one of the following in a CNC
machine?
a) synchronous motors
b) induction motors
c) stepper motors
d) servo-motors.
14
33. Which type of motor is NOT used in axis or spindle drives of CNC machine tools?
a) induction motor
b) dc servo motor
c) stepper motor
34. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the
type of tool motion will be
c) linear Interpolation
d) rapid feed
35. In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill with
10mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30),
(50,30), and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter
will be
a) (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55, -5), (-5, -5)
b) (0, -5), (55, -5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5, -5)
b) automated design
d) quality control
15
37. Consider the following characteristics:
1. Single machine tool 2. Manual materials handling system 3. Computer control 4. Random
sequencing of parts to machines
Which of the above characteristics are associated with flexible manufacturing system?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
39. Which one of the following is the third basic component of robots besides power supply
and control (memory) console?
a) Software
b) Coaxial cable
d) Microcomputer
40. Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS) are reported to have a number of benefits. Which
is NOT a reported benefit of FMS?
b) Increased quality
d) Increased utilisation
16
41. Which materials-processing technology gives the advantage of precision, accuracy and
optimum use of cutting tools, which maximise their life and higher labour productivity?
a) Industrial robots
43. Technology that is peripheral to the actual creation of goods and services is sometimes
called:
44. Which of the following is not true of computer numerically controlled (CNC) machines?
17
45. What is the name of a system which brings together several technologies into a coherent
system?
46. Which of the following process technologies is associated with low volume and high
variety?
b) Dedicated systems
47. The use of Internet-based technology, either to support existing business processes or to
create entirely new business opportunities, has become known as what?
a) E-process management
b) E-business
c) E-globalisation
d) E-value creation
48. Which type of model is likely to be created with a rapid prototyping system?
a) Mathematical model
b) Wireframe model
c) Surface model
d) Scale model
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49. An industrial robot's end effector can be changed to perform different tasks, including
which of the following?
a) Spot welding
b) Materials handling
c) Spray painting
50. By using CIM to control all phases of manufacturing, firms hope to reap what benefits?
a) Increased productivity
b) Improved quality
c) Enhanced flexibility
CAD/CAM
a) Resolution
b) Pixel
c) Persistence
d) Dot Pitch
2. The distance from one pixel to the next pixel is called ...........
a) Resolution
b) Random scan
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c) Pixmap
d) Dot Pitch
a) 1111
b) 0000
c) 1000
d) 0001
4. Which of the following line algorithms used integer only arithmetic to rasterize lines?
5. Which of the following hidden surface removal algorithms potentially causes a bottleneck
in the Graphics Pipeline?
a) Back-Face Culling
b) Depth Buffer
c) Painters Algorithm
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Medium
d) None of these
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7. The purpose of refreshing a CRT is ..........................
a) To avoid flickering
8. The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where the image will actually
appear are called
a) Transformation viewing
b) View port
c) Clipping window
a) Back-Face Culling
b) Depth Buffer
c) Painters Algorithm
10. The .............. combines the volumes occupied by overlapping 3D objects using set
operations
a) Beam penetration
b) CSG Method
c) Sweep representation
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a) Accelerating anode
b) Control grid
c) Electron gun
d) Focusing anode
12. Memory area holding the intensity information of an image is called ..............
a) Refresh buffer
b) Font cache
c) Picture definition
d) Video controller
a) Vector display
c) Calligraphic display
d) Stroke-writing display
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
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d) 3
a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Scaling
17. The transformation in which an object is moved in a minimum distance path from one
position to another is called
a) Rotation
b) Replacement
c) Translation
d) Scaling
18. The transformation in which an object is moved from one position to another in circular
path around a specified pivot point is called
a) Rotation
b) Shearing
c) Translation
d) Scaling
19. The transformation that produces a parallel mirror image of an object are called
a) Rotation
b) Reflection
c) Translation
d) Scaling
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20. Forming products of transformation matrices is often referred as
a) Concatenation
b) Composition
c) both a&b
d) only a
21. The .............. combines the volumes occupied by overlapping 3D objects using set
operations
a) CSG method
b) B-rep method
c) Sweep representation
22. ................... is created by revolution of a circle about an axis lying in its plane.
a) Sphere
b) Ellipsoid
c) Torus
d) Cylinder
a) Fixed point
b) Central point
c) Pivot point
d) None
a) Translational sweep
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b) Rotational sweep
c) union
d) intersection
b) Liang-Barsky clipping
c) Nicholl-Lee-Nicholl clipping
26. The transformation in which the dimension of an object are changed relative to a
specified fixed point is called
a) Rotation
b) Reflection
c) Translation
d) Scaling
27. The amount of light emitted by the phosphor coating depends on the?
a) Electron gun
b) Focusing anode
c) Control grid
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d) All the answer
a) 25
b) 30
c) 26
d) 50
30. The maximum number of points that can be displayed without overlap on a CRT
a) Aspect Ratio
b) Resolution
c) Brightness
d) Pixel
1. If a client of yours is having difficulty visualizing a design, what type of drawing would be
the easiest to understand?
a) Axonometric
b) three-view orthographic
c) one-view orthographic
d) bimetric
a) isometric
b) multiview
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c) perspective
d) axonometric
3. Which of the following projection methods does not use projectors perpendicular to the
projection plane?
a) isometric
b) orthographic
c) oblique
d) axonometric
a) ellipse
b) cycloid
c) circle
d) parabola
5. An axonometric drawing which has two axes divided by equal angles is:
a) dimetric
b) trimetric
c) orthographic
d) isometric
6. An axonometric drawing which has all three axes divided by equal angles is:
a) bimetric
b) trimetric
c) orthographic
d) isometric
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7. In a trimetric drawing, the relationship of the angle between axes to each other is:
9. In isometric drawings:
b) True measurements can be made only along or parallel to the isometric axes
10. In an axonometric drawing, the projection rays are drawn _________ to each other and
_______ to the plane of projection.
a) parallel.....oblique
b) oblique.....parallel
c) parallel.....perpendicular
d) parallel....parallel
11. One method of drawing an ellipse that represents an isometric pictorial circle is known as:
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a) the box construction method
14. In an oblique drawing, all of the following angles are commonly used for drawing the
depth axis, except:
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) 90
15. All of the following are processes (as opposed to input or output) in a manufacturing
business except:
a) Material
b) Planning
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c) Documenting
d) Designing
16. following operations can make use of the CAD database, except:
a) Designing
b) Marketing
c) Producing
17. What type of sketches are typically used in the refinement stage of the design process?
a) isometric
b) document
c) oblique
d) ideation
a) isometric
b) perspective
c) oblique
d) multiview
a) isometric
b) perspective
c) oblique
d) axonometric
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20. What is the major difference(s) between perspective and parallel projection?
a) Parallel projection can only be used with objects containing parallel edges.
d) Perspective projection and Parallel projection where the viewer is standing infinitely far
away gives a more realistic representation of an object.
22. Which of the following is typically represented in a drawing but does not have a true
physical counterpart on the object?
c) corner of a rectangle
23. A cutting plane normal to a face of a cube has to be ___________ in order to cut an
oblique face.
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24. The difference between the removed and revolved sections is
c) in removed section a view is made outside in main view but incase of revolved,the view is
made in between the main view
a) In full section quarter portion is removed and in half section half portion is removed
b) In half section quarter portion is removed and in quarter section half portion is removed
c) not specified
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a) external and internal details for entire length
a) ANSI 31
b) ANSI 32
c) ANSI 33
d) ANSI 34
31. Value of an angle equal to zero for ANSI 31 pattern will draw lines at
a) 0 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 90 degrees
d) 135 degrees
a) an inclined surface
b) complicated surfaces
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d) big parts
a) twisted
a) XLINE
b) LINE
c) PARLINE
d) ALINE
a) semi-circle
b) full circle
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a) tapered
b) parallel
c) square
d) knukle
a) exploded assembly
b) part details
c) parts list
a) 60 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 75 degrees
d) 55 degrees
40. In isometric projection the three edges of an object are inclined to eachother at
a) 60 degrees
b) 120 degrees
c) 100 degrees
d) 90 degrees
41. the number of cotters used in an assembly of cotter and sleeve joint are
a) 1
b) 5
c) 4
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d) 2
a) rhombus
b) rectangle
c) trapezium
d) parallelogram
a) Nut
b) Rivet
c) Screw
d) Bolt
44. the convexity provided on the rim of the solid web cast iron is called
a) Bending
b) Curving
c) Crowning
d) Riveting
a) a circle
b) an ellipse
c) a parabola
d) a semicircle
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a) an ellipse
b) a square
c) a rectangle
d) a triangle
a) journal bearing
b) thrust bearing
c) pivot bearing
d) pedestal bearing
a) parabola
b) involute
c) spiral
d) helix
49. The curve generated by a point on the circumference of a circle,which rolls without
slipping along outside of another circle is
a) Hypocycloid
b) epicycloid
c) cycloid
d) trochoid
50. If an object lies in the third quardant , its position with respect to reference planes will be
37
c) behind V.P,below H.P
1. The Press-Pull tool will ________ the face of a solid model in the direction it faces.
a) taper
b) extrude
c) spiral
d) circular
a) mass
b) volume
c) bounding box
3. CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the
dimensions control the ________.
d) colouring
a) Visual Styles
b) Modify
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c) 3D-Modelling
d) optimize
5. The default position of the UCS icon is positioned at ________ on the AutoCAD grid.
a) 0,0,0
b) 10,10,10
c) 20,20,20
d) -10,-10,-10
6. In perspective drawings this is placed between the observer and the object:
b) station point
c) ground line
7. If a designer is developing a plan for a project in which the entire part is made out of "
thick plywood and he only wants to use one view, he should use the ________ view.
a) front
b) top
c) right
d) back
8. Architectural drawings used to construct a house are often plotted with a scale of " = 1'-
0". What scale is this?
a) Quarter
b) Half
c) Full
d) Double
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9. In multi-view drawing it is common practice to include three views, the front, the top and
the right side. If no dimensions are required on the right side view the drafter can ________.
10. A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ________.
a) 1:1
b) 1:2
c) 2:1
d) 1:4
a) break lines
b) phantom lines
c) extension lines
13. Which of the following operating systems is used with CAD systems?
40
a) DOS
b) UNIX
c) LINUX
14. What type of sketches are typically used in the refinement stage of the design process?
a) isometric
b) document
c) oblique
d) ideation
15. This allows the performance of structures to be analyzed and tested efficiently,
accurately, and quickly:
a) Computer-aided manufacturing
b) computer-aided designm
c) computer-aided engineering
d) computer-aided prototyping
a) increase productivity
a) Documentation
b) Manufacturing
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c) curing
d) marketing
18. the ultimate solution for the computer aided design and manufacturing problem will be
a) LANs
b) the microprocessor
c) turnkey systems
a) control system
b) axis of movement
c) payload
c) increase productivity
d) improve communication
1. A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld carries a steady load of 15 kN along the weld.
The shear strength of the weld material is equal to 200 MPa. The factor of safety is
42
a) 2.4
b) 3.4
c) 4.8
d) 6.8
2. A threaded nut of M16, ISO metric type, having 2 mm pitch with a pitch diameter of
14.701 mm is to be checked for its pitch diameter using two or three numbers of balls or
rollers of the following sizes
a) Rollers of 2 mm
b) Balls of 2 mm
c) Rollers of 1.155 mm
d) Balls of 1.155 mm
3. Square key of side "d/4" each and length l is used to transmit torque "T" from the shaft of
diameter "d" to the hub of a pulley. Assuming the length of the key to be equal to the
thickness of the pulley, the average shear stress developed in the key is given by
a) 4T/ ld
b) 16 T/ ld 2
c) 8T / ld 2
d) 16 T / d 3
a) Shear
b) Tension
c) Torsion
d) Bending
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a) 10 3 cycles
b) 10 4 cycles
c) 10 6 cycles
d) 10 9 cycles
a) 1071 cycles
b) 15000 cycles
c) 281914 cycles
d) 928643 cycles
7. A forged steel link with uniform diameter of 30 mm at the centre is subjected to an axial
force that varies from 40 kN in compression to 160 kN in tension. The tensile (Su), yield
(Sy,) and corrected endurance (Se) strength of the steel material are 600 MPa, 420 MPa and
240 MPa respectively. The factor of safety against fatigue endurance as per Soderbergs
criterion is
a) 1.26
b) 1.37
c) 1.45
d) 2.00
8. The yield strength of a steel shaft is twice its endurance limit. Which of the following
torque fluctuation represent the most critical situationaccording to Soderberg criterion?
a) -T/2 to +T
b) -T to +T
c) 0 to +T
d) +T/2 to +T
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9. A thin supercritical pressure vessel of 200 mm diameter and 1 mm thickness is subjected to
an internal pressure varying from 4 to 8 MPa. Assume that the yield, ultimate, and endurance
strength of material are 600, 800 and 400 MPa respectively. The factor of safety as per
Goodmans relation is
a) 2.0
b) 1.6
c) 1.4
d) 1.2
10. A large uniform plate containing a rivet-hole is subjected to uniform uniaxial tension of
95 MPa. width of the plate 10 cm and diameter of the hole =5 mm.The maximum stress in the
plate is
a) 100 MPa
b) 190 Mpa
c) 285 Mpa
1. A special case of ductility which permits materials to be rolled or hammered into thin
sheets, is called
a) plasticity
b) elasticity
c) ductility
d) malleability
a) cast iron
b) wrought iron
c) mild steel
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d) aluminium
3. The effect of key ways on a shaft is to reduce its load carrying capacity and to increase its
torsional rigidity.
a) True
b) False
a) Pt/P
b) Ps/P
c) Pc/P
d) all of these
6.
In designing a connecting rod, it is considered like __________ for buckling about X-axis.
46
7. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a
a) dun cylinder
b) thick cylinder
c) solid shaft
d) hollow shaft
a) Low efficiency
b) high efficiency
d) strong teeth
a) increases
b) decreases
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
c) equal to 50%
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d) none of these
12. Soderberg relation is based on __________ of the material whereas all other failure
relation for dynamic loading are based on ultimate strength of the material.
a) elastic strength
b) yield strength
c) shear strength
b) studs
d) none of these
a) counter shaft
b) line shaft
d) all of these
15. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the tip of
the locking set screw, is called
a) castle nut
b) jam nut
c) ring nut
d) sawn nut
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a) maximum size of column to minimum size of column
a) transmission
b) machine
18. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between the diameter of rivet hole (d) and the
thickness of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm)
a) d = t
b) d = 1.6 t
c) d = 2 t
d) d = 6 t
19. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre line of the
rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate should be equal to (where d = Diameter of rivet
hole)
a) d
b) 1.5 d
c) 2 d
d) 2.5 d
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d) none of these
a) Mild steel
b) Copper
c) Zinc
d) Aluminium
22. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be considered
in order to prevent breakage at the
a) head
b) shank
c) thread
d) middle
23. In order to obtain the bolts of uniform strength, an axial hole is drilled through the head as
far as the threaded portion such that the area of shank becomes equal to the root area of the
thread.
a) True
b) False
c) shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction
d) driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interferring with the
driving shaft
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25. The pipe joint mostly used for pipes carrying water at low pressures is
a) socket joint
b) nipple joint
c) union joint
26. According to Guest's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member when the maximum
shear stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at elastic limit in simple
tension test.
a) True
b) False
27. A flanged pipe joint will be a leak-proof joint, if the circumferential pitch of the bolts is
(where d = Diameter of bolt hole)
a) less than 20 d
b) greater than 30 d
c) between 20 d and 30 d
d) all of these
a) elastic limit
b) Young's modulus
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c) ultimate tensile strength
d) endurance limit
30. Two shafts A and B under pure torsion are of identical length and identical weight and are
made of the same material. The shaft A is solid and the shaft B is hollow. We can say that
31. In a flange coupling, the thickness of flanges is taken as one-half the diameter of shaft.
a) Agree
b) Disagree
32. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads?
a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Brittleness
d) Toughness
33. Oldham coupling is used to transmit power between two parallel shafts which are slightly
offset.
a) True
b) False
34. A shaft is subjected to fluctuating loads for which the normal torque (T) and bending
moment (M) are 1000 N-m and 500 N-m respectively. If the combined shock and fatigue
factor for bending is 1.5 and combined shock and fatigue factor for torsion is 2, then the
equivalent twisting moment for the shaft is
a) 2000 N-m
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b) 2050 N-m
c) 2100 N-m
d) 2136 N-m
35. When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the
member is
a) zero at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member
b) maximum at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member
c) zero at the centroidal axis and maximum at the outer surface of the member
d) maximum at the centroidal axis and zero at the outer surface of the member
a) major diameter
b) minor diameter
c) pitch diameter
d) pitch
a) transmission of power
b) locking devices
53
d) absorbing shocks and vibrations
39. The endurance or fatigue limit is defined as the maximum value of the stress which a
polished standard specimen can withstand without failure, for infinite number of cycles, when
subjected to
a) static load
b) dynamic load
a) when the maximum shear stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at
elastic limit in a simple tension test
b) when the maximum principal stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the elastic limit of
the material in a simple tension test
c) when the strain energy per unit volume in a bi-axial stress system reaches the strain energy
at the elastic limit per unit volume as determined from a simple tension test
d) when the maximum principal strain in a bi-axial stress system reaches the strain at the
elastic limit as determined from a simple tension test
41. In a steam engine, the valve rod is connected to an eccentric rod by means of
a) cotter joint
b) knuckle joint
c) universal joint
d) flange coupling
a) Euler's formula
b) Rankine's formula
54
c) Johnson's straight line formula
43. When a material is subjected to fatigue loading, the ratio of the endurance limit to the
ultimate tensile strength is
a) 0.20
b) 0.35
c) 0.50
d) 0.65
a) Correct
b) Incorrect
45. The strength of the un-riveted plate (P) per pitch length is equal to
a) p.d.t
b) p.t.t
c) (p - d)t
d) (p - d)tt
46. Two shafts of the same length and material are joined in series. If the ratio of their
diameters is 2, then the ratio of their angles of twist will be
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
47. Wahl's stress factor __________ very rapidly as the spring index decreases.
55
a) increases
b) decreases
a) brittle materials
b) ductile materials
d) elastic materials
50. For a square key made of mild steel, the shear and crushing strength are related as
51. In a bolt, the plane of shear should be across the threaded portion of the shank.
a) Correct
b) Incorrect
a) to apply forces
56
b) to measure forces
c) to absorb shocks
53. Two rigid plates are clamped by means of bolt and nut with an initial force F. After
tightening, a separating force P (P < F) is applied to the lower plate, which in turn acts on the
nut. The tension in the both after this is
a) F + P
b) F - P
c) P
d) F
d) all of these
55. The usual proportion for the width of key is (where d = Diameter of shaft or diameter of
hole in the hub)
a) d/8
b) d/6
c) d/4
d) d/2
a) directly proportional to the polar moment of inertia and to the distance of the point from
the axis
57
b) directly proportional to the applied torque and inversely proportional to the polar moment
of inertia
c) directly proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia
d) inversely proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia
57. Two concentric helical springs used to provide greater spring force are wound is opposite
direction.
a) True
b) False
58. In a transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of weld.
a) 0.5 times
b) equal to
c) 2 times
d) double
60. Which of the following coupling is used to connect two shafts which have both lateral
and angular misalignment ?
b) Universal coupling
c) Oldham coupling
d) all of these
58
61. The ends of the leaves of a semi-elliptical leaf spring are made triangular in order to
62. An open coiled helical compression spring 'A' of mean diameter 50 mm is subjected to an
axial load W. Another spring 'B' of mean diameter 25 mm is similar to spring 'A' in all
respects. The deflection of spring 'B' will be __________ as compared to spring 'A'.
a) one-eighth
b) one-fourth
c) one-half
d) double
63. When the bolt is very yielding as compared to the connected members, then the resultant
load on the bolt will be equal to the
a) initial tension
a) shank diameter
b) length of rivet
c) type of head
d) length of tail
59
65. A saddle key __________ power through frictional resistance only.
a) transmits
a) The solid length of a spring is the product of total number of coils and the diameter of the
wire
b) The spring index is the ratio of mean diameter of the coil to the diameter of the wire
c) The spring stiffness is the load required per unit deflection of the spring
d) The pitch of the coil is the axial distance between adjacent coils in the compressed state
67. A bolt is designed on the basis of __________ with a large factor of safety.
69. In designing a sleeve coupling, outer diameter of the sleeve is taken as (where d =
Diameter of the shaft)
a) d + 17 mm
b) 2 d + 13 mm
c) 2 d + 20 mm
60
d) 3.5 d
70. When a closely coiled helical spring is subjected to a couple about its axis, the stress
induced in the wire material of the spring is
71. In a marine flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is taken as
a) 1.2 d
b) 1.6 d
c) 2 d
d) 2.5 d
72. In the calculation of induced shear stress in helical springs, the Wahl's stress factor is
used to take care of
a) combined effect of transverse shear stress and bending stress in the wire
d) combined effect of torsional shear stress and transverse shear stress in the wire
73. Which of the following key is preferred for the condition when a large amount of impact
type torque is to be transmitted in both direction of rotation?
a) Woodruff key
b) Feather key
c) Gib-head key
d) Tangent key
61
74. Which of the following statement is wrong for a connecting rod ?
a) The connecting rod will be equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, if Ixx= 4
Iyy
76. In a flange coupling, the keys are staggered at __________ along the circumference of the
shafts in order to divide the weakening effect caused by key ways.
a) 90
b) 135
c) 160
d) 180
77. Which one of the following loading is considered for the design of axles?
62
78. When the connected members are very yielding (soft gasket) as compared to the bolt,
then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal to the
a) initial tension
80. The diameter of the rivet hole is usually __________ the nominal diameter of the rivet.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) more than
81. According to Indian standards, the diameter of rivet hole is made larger than the basic
size of rivet by
b) Spiral spring
63
c) Torsion spring
d) Bellevile spring
83. For a shaft diameter of 100 mm, the number of bolts in a flange coupling should be
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
a) bearing failure
b) shearing failure
c) bending failure
d) all of these
a) tensile strength
b) compressive strength
c) bending strength
d) shear strength
64
87. When a helical compression spring is cut into halves, the stiffness of the resulting spring
will be
a) same
b) double
c) one-half
d) one-fourth
a) rigid
b) flexible
89. A triple riveted butt joint with double straps of unequal width is to be designed for a
boiler shell. The pitch of the rivets in the outer row is double the pitch in the inner row and
zig-zag riveting is proposed. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) There are four rivets per pitch length, all in double shear
b) There are four rivets per pitch length, out of which two are in single shear and two are in
double shear
c) There are five rivets per pitch length, all in double shear
d) There are five rivets per pitch length, out of which four are in double shear and one is in
single shear
90. The centre to centre distance between two consecutive rivets in a row, is called
a) margin
b) pitch
c) back pitch
d) diagonal pitch
91. The tension on the slack side of the belt is __________ the tension on the tight side of the
belt.
65
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
a) square threads
b) acme threads
c) knuckle threads
d) buttress threads
93. The diameter of knuckle pin in a knuckle joint is usually taken as (where d = Diameter of
the rod)
a) 0.5 d
b) 0.8 d
c) d
d) 1.2 d
94. A spring of stiffness 1000 N/m is streteched initially by 100 mm from the undeformed
position. The work required to stretch it by another 100 mm is
a) 5 N-m
b) 7 N-m
c) 10 N-m
d) 15 N-m
a) measure forces
b) apply forces
c) store energy
66
d) all of these
96. In order to have a connecting rod equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, the
moment of inertia about X-axis should be __________ the moment of inertia about Y-axis.
a) equal to
b) twice
c) three times
d) four times
98. The taper on cotter and slot is made on both the sides.
a) Agree
b) Disagree
a) co-axial
b) perpendicular
c) parallel
100. The permissible stress in the fillet weld is 100 N/mm2. The fillet weld has equal leg
lengths of 15 mm each. The allowable shearing load on the weldment per cm length of the
weld is
a) 7.5 kN
67
b) 10.6 kN
c) 15 kN
d) 22.5 kN
a) Breaking point
b) Yield point
c) Elastic limit
d) Plastic limit
2. A stud bolt is
3. Which of the following key is under compression rather than in being shear when under
load?
a) Saddle
b) Barth
c) Feather
d) Kennedy
68
4. Tangent key transmits force in
b) Two directions
c) Both A and B
a) Shearing
b) Crushing
a) Bending
b) Torsional
c) Both A and B
a) Partial
b) Fitted
c) Full
d) Linear
69
c) At the yield point
a) Elastic limit
b) youngs modulus
c) Endurance limit
a) Bulk modulus
b) Poisons ratio
c) Modulus of rigidity
d) Modulus of elasticity
a) 207000 N/mm 2
b) 100000 N/mm2
c) 50000 N/mm2
d) 80000 N/mm2
70
13. The modulus of elasticity of grey cast iron is
a) 207000 N/mm 2
b) 100000 N/mm2
c) 50000 N/mm2
d) 80000 N/mm2
a) 207000 N/mm 2
b) 100000 N/mm2
c) 50000 N/mm2
d) 80000 N/mm2
a) 207000 N/mm 2
b) 100000 N/mm2
c) 40000 N/mm2
d) 80000 N/mm2
a) 0.4
b) 0.29
c) 0.21
d) 0.75
17. When the diameter of shaft is doubled, its torque transmitting capacity will increased by
a) 8 times
b) 2 times
71
c) 4 times
d) 16 times
b) Yield strength
c) Modulus of elasticity
d) Modulus of rigidity
a) Variation in teperature
b) High temperature
c) Specific heat
d) Latent heat
20. The factor of safety for cast iron component, subjected to static force is usually
a) 1.2 to 4
b) 3 to 5
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 5 to 10
21. The factor of safety for carbon steel component, subjected to static force is usually
a) 1.2 to 4
b) 3 to 5
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 5 to 10
72
22. A cotter joint is used to transmit
a) 1 in 24
b) 1 in 8
c) 1 in 100
d) 1 in 48
a) Tightness in operation
b) wedge action
c) easy disassembly
25. The joint between the piston and cross head of steam engine is
a) knuckle joint
b) Universal joint
c) Cotter joint
d) Key loint
a) knuckle joint
b) Universal joint
73
c) Cotter joint
d) Key loint
a) Twisting moment
b) tensile force
c) Bending moment
d) Bearing pressure
a) Ductile materials
b) Brittle materials
c) elastic materials
d) plastic material
a) Ductile materials
b) Brittle materials
c) elastic materials
d) plastic material
74
31. Tresca theory of failure is applicable to
a) Brittle materials
b) Ductile materials
c) elastic materials
d) plastic material
a) Brittle materials
b) plastic material
c) elastic materials
d) Ductile materials
b) composites
c) cast iron
d) non - metals
b) Discontinuity in material
75
c) Balls and races
36. The maximum stress concentration factor for a rectangular plate with a transverse hole in
tension or compression is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 2.5
d) 1
37. In cyclic loading, the effect of stress concentration is more serious in case of
a) Brittle material
b) Ductile material
38. A stress that varies sinusoidal manner with respect to time from zero to maximum valus
and which hes same values for mean as well as amplitude is called
a) Reversed stress
b) Fluctuating stress
c) Repeated stress
d) Varrying stress
39. A stress that varies sinusoidal manner with respect to time from minimum value to
maximum value and which has same values for mean as well as amplitude is called
a) Reversed stress
b) Fluctuating stress
c) Repeated stress
76
d) Varrying stress
40. As the size of the componenet increases, the endurance limit of the component
a) Inceases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Increases up to 50 times
77
DESIGN OF TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS
2. The dynamic load capacity of a 6306 bearing is 22 kN. The maximum radial load it can
sustain to operate at 600 rpm for 2000 hours is
a) 4.16 kN
b) 3.6 kN
c) 6.25 kN
d) 5.29 kN
3. A band brake having band-width of 80 mm, drum diameter of 250 mm, coefficient of
friction of 0.25 and angle of wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a friction torque of 1000
Nm. The maximum tension (in kN) developed in the band
a) 1.88
b) 3.56
c) 6.12
d) 11.56
78
a) Decreasing center distance between gear pair
b) Decreasing module
5. A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm and a centre distance of 450 mm is used for a
speed reduction of 5:1. The number of teeth on pinion is _____
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 40
6. Which one of the following is used to convert a rotational motion into a translational
motion?
a) Bevel gears
c) Worm gears
7. It is desired to avoid interference in a pair of spur gears having a 20 degree pressure angle.
With increase in pinion to gear speed ratio, the minimum number of teeth on the pinion
a) Increases
b) decreases
d) remains unchanged
79
8. Which of the bearings given below SHOULD NOT be subjected to a thrust load?
9. A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a
uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of friction of liner material is 0.4, the torque
carrying capacity of the clutch is
a) 148 N-m
b) 196 N-m
c) 372 N-m
d) 490 N-m
10. A spur gear has a module of 3 mm, number of teeth 16, a face width of 36 mm and a
pressure angle of 20 degree. It is transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/sec. taking a velocity
facor of 1.5, and a form factor of 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is about
a) 32 MPa
b) 46 MPa
c) 58 MPa
d) 70 MPa
11. Match the type of gears with their most appropriate description.
Q. Spiral Bevel 2. Axes parallel and teeth are inclined to the axis
80
S. Rack and pinion 4. Axes are perpendicular and intersecting, and teeth are
12. A ball bearing operating at a load F has 8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing, in
hours, when the load is doubled to 2F is
a) 8000
b) 6000
c) 4000
d) 1000
a) 0.062
b) 0.125
c) 0.250
d) 0.785
14. A disc clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at 2000 rpm. The disc has a friction lining with
coefficient of friction equal to 0.25. Bore radius of friction lining is equal to 25 mm. Assume
uniform contact pressure of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction lining is
81
a) 39.4 mm
b) 49.5 mm
c) 97.9 mm
d) 142.9 mm
15. Twenty degree full depth involute profiled 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gear are in mesh.
If the module is 5 mm, the center distance between the gear pair will be
a) 140 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 280 mm
d) 300 mm
82
Design of Transmission Systems
1. A sliding bearing which can support steady loads without any relative motion between the
journal and the bearing is called
2. In a boundary lubricated bearing, there is a ................ of lubricant between the journal and
the bearing.
a) Thick film
b) Thin film
c) Zero film
d) Solid film
4. When the bearing is subjected to large fluctuations of load and heavy impacts, the bearing
characteristic number should be ............... the bearing modulus.
a) 5 times
b) 10 times
c) 15 times
d) 20 times
83
5. When the length of the journal is equal to the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is
said to be a
a) Short bearing
b) Long bearing
c) Medium bearing
d) Square bearing
6. If Z = Absolute viscosity of the lubricant in kg/m-s, N = Speed of the journal in r.p.m., and
p =Bearing pressure in N/mm2, then the bearing characteristic number is
a) Zp/n
b) Zn/p
c) Z/pn
d) pn/Z
d) in any direction
84
9. When the length of the journal is less than the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is
said to be a
a) short bearing
b) long bearing
c) medium bearing
d) square bearing
85
13. When the length of the journal is greater than the diameter of the journal, then the bearing
is said to be a
a) short bearing
b) long bearing
c) medium bearing
d) square bearing
15. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is increased, then the
pressure angle
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unchanged
d) none of these
86
d) to weaker of the pinion or gear
17. In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the
pitch cylinders normal to the teeth, is called
a) normal pitch
b) axial pitch
c) diametral pitch
d) module
a) zero
d) none of these
20. The allowable static stress for steel gears is approximately __________of the ultimate
tensile stress.
a) one-fourth
b) one-third
c) one-half
87
d) double
21. When bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch angles connect two shafts whose
axes intersect at right angle, then they are known as
d) mitre gears
22. When the spiral angle of a bevel gear is zero, it is called as_________
a) crown gear
c) meter gear
24. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accommodate small particles
of dust, grit etc., without scoring the material of the journal, is called
a) bondability
88
b) embeddability
c) comformability
d) fatigue strength
25. The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have ............
coefficient of friction.
a) low
b) high
c) medium
d) zero
26. In case of a multiple disc clutch, if n1 are the number of discs on the driving shaft and n2
are the number of the discs on the driven shaft, then the number of pairs of contact surfaces
will be
a) n1 + n2
b) n1 + n2 1
c) n1 + n2 + 1
d) none of these
b) cone clutch
c) friction clutch
d) disc clutch
89
28. The cone clutches have become obsolete because of
c) difficulty in disengaging
d) all of these
a) centre distance
c) number of starts
d) reduction ratio
90
a) the maximum static radial load that can be applied without causing any plastic deformation
of bearing components.
b) the radial load at which 90% of the group of apparently identical bearings run for one
million revolutions before the first evidence of failure.
c) the maximum radial load that can be applied during operation without any plastic
deformation of bearing components.
d) a combination of radial and axial loads that can be applied without any plastic
deformation
33. The difference between tensions on the tight and slack sides of a belt drive is 3000 N. if
the belt speed is 15 m/s, the transmitted power in kW is
a) 45
b) 22.5
c) 90
d) 100
34. With regard to belt drives with given pulley diameters, centre distance and coefficient of
friction between the pulley and the belt materials, which of the statement below are FALSE?
a) a crossed flat belt configuration can transmit more power than an open flat belt
configuration
b) a V-belt has greater power transmission capacity than an open flat belt
c) power transmission is greater when belt tension is higher due to centrifugal effects than the
same belt drive when centrifugal affects are absent.
d) power transmission is the greatest just before the point of slipping is reached.
35. the ratio of tension on the tight side to that on the slack side in a flat belt drive is
91
d) proportional to the coefficient of friction
a) Differential gear
b) helical gear
c) bevel gear
d) worm gear
37. For transmission of the power between the shafts which are parallel to each other. The
gearing arrangement suitable for this application is
a) Differential gear
b) helical gear
c) bevel gear
d) worm gear
38. For transmission of the power between the shafts which are intersecting each other. The
gearing arrangement suitable for this application is
a) spur gear
b) helical gear
c) bevel gear
d) worm gear
39. For transmission of the power between the shafts which are nonintersecting and
nonparallel to each other. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is
a) Differential gear
b) helical gear
c) bevel gear
92
d) worm gear
40. The life of a ball bearing at a load of 10 kN is 8000 hours. Its life in hours, if the load is
increased to 20 kN, keeping all other conditions the same, is
a) 4000
b) 2000
c) 1000
d) 500
41. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to operate without interference in standard
full height involute teeth gear mechanism with 20 degree pressure angle is
a) 14
b) 12
c) 18
d) 32
42. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to operate without interference in standard
stub involute teeth gear mechanism with 20 degree pressure angle is
a) 14
b) 12
c) 18
d) 32
43. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to operate without interference in standard
full height involute teeth gear mechanism with 14.5 degree pressure angle is
a) 14
b) 12
c) 18
93
d) 32
44. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to operate without interference in standard
composite teeth gear mechanism with 14.5 degree pressure angle is
a) 14
b) 12
c) 18
d) 32
45. Large speed reductions (greater than 20) in one stage of a gear train are possible through
a) spur gearing
b) worm gearing
c) bevel gearing
d) helical gearing
47. In a band brake the ratio of tight side band tension to the tension on slack side is 3. If the
angle of overlap of band on the drum is 1800 the coefficient of friction required between
drum and the band is
a) 0.20
b) 0.25
c) 0.30
d) 0.35
94
48. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200
rpm and transmits a torque of 20 N-m. The torque transmitted by the gear is
a) 6.6 N-m
b) 20 N-m
c) 40 N-m
d) 60 N-m
50. Which of the following is a criterion in the design of hydrodynamic journal bearings?
a) Rotation factor
b) rating life
d) Sommerfeld number
95
51. A disc clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at 2000 rpm. The disc has a friction lining with
coefficient of friction equal to 0.25. Bore radius of friction lining is equal to 25 mm. Assume
uniform contact pressure of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction lining is
a) 39.4 mm
b) 49.5 mm
c) 97.9 mm
d) 142.9 mm
52. Twenty degree full depth involute profiled 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gear are in mesh.
If the module is 5 mm, the center distance between the gear pair will be
a) 140 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 280 mm
d) 300 mm
53. A ball bearing operating at a load F has 8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing, in
hours, when the load is doubled to 2F is
a) 8000
b) 6000
c) 4000
d) 1000
a) 0.062
b) 0.125
c) 0.250
d) 0.785
96
55. A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a
uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of friction of liner material is 0.4, the torque
carrying capacity of the clutch is
a) 148 N-m
b) 196 N-m
c) 372 N-m
d) 490 N-m
56. A spur gear has a module of 3 mm, number of teeth 16, a face width of 36 mm and a
pressure angle of 20 degree. It is transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/sec. taking a velocity
facor of 1.5, and a form factor of 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is about
a) 32 MPa
b) 46 MPa
c) 58 MPa
d) 70 MPa
57. Match the type of gears with their most appropriate description.
Q. Spiral Bevel 2. Axes parallel and teeth are inclined to the axis
S. Rack and pinion 4. Axes are perpendicular and intersecting, and teeth are
97
a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-6
58. A band brake having band-width of 80 mm, drum diameter of 250 mm, coefficient of
friction of 0.25 and angle of wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a friction torque of 1000
N-m. the maximum tension (in kN) developed in the band is
a) 1.88
b) 3.56
c) 6.12
d) 11.56
59. A lightly loaded full journal bearing has journal diameter of 50 mm, bush bore of 50.05
mm and bush length of 20 mm. If rotational speed of journal is 1200 rpm and average
viscosity of liquid lubricant is 0.03 Pa-sec, the power loss(in W) will be
a) 37
b) 74
c) 118
d) 237
c) always constant
d) always variable
98
99
DESIGN OF TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS
a) Hydrostatic lubrication
b) Hydrodynamic lubrication
c) Semi-fluid lubrication
d) Boundary lubrication
2. The most suitable bearing for resisting heavy loads under slow speed is
a) Hydrodynamic bearing
b) ball bearing
c) Roller bearing
d) Hydrostatic bearing
b) uniform wear
4. In the design of connecting rod small end bearing, the value of permissible bearing
pressure to be used is
100
d) none of the above
5. Removal of metal particles from the race-way of a rolling contact bearing is a king of
failure of bearing, known as
a) Pitting
b) wearing
c) spalling
d) scuffing
a) Pedestal bearing
b) Collar bearing
c) Hydrostatic bearing
d) Needle bearing
a) Life expectancy
b) axial thrust
c) stress
d) size
101
c) Uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension
d) expansion of belt
c) crossed belting
d) idler in-between
a) Inside length
b) outside length
12. In a multiple V-belt drive; when a single belt is damaged, it is preferable to change the
complete set, to
102
a) Reduce vibration
b) reduce slip
13. In the design of cast pulleys; curved arms, joining rim to the hub are used, in order to
b) improve strength
c) improve aesthetics
15. In the designation 6 x 19 for the wire rope; 6 and 19 stand for
103
16. In order to have smooth operation, the minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket
should be
a) 15
b) 17
c) 21
d) 25
c) always constant
d) always variable
19. In which type of teeth, variation in centre distance, within certain limits, does not affect
the velocity ratio of the mating gears
a) Cycloidal
b) involute
c) hypoid
104
d) epicycloid
a) Involute
b) Stub
c) cycloidal
d) Epi-cycloid
21. If both the pinion and gear are made of the same material, then the power transmitting
capacity is decided by
a) Gear
b) Pinion
c) pinion or gear
105
a) Increases efficiency of transmission
c) reduces vibration
a) Bevel gear
b) spur gear
c) worm gear
25. In helical gears, the right hand helix will mesh with
a) Helical gears
b) bevel gears
c) spiral gears
d) herringbone gears
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27. Helical gears are used for
28. Angular bevel gears are the gears mounted on intersecting shafts which make an angle
______ degree
a) 90
b) less than 90
c) more than 90
d) other than 90
a) 90
b) 45
c) 180
d) 0
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d) A kind of worm and worm gear
32. The gear reduction of a worm gear set, with worm gear of 50 teeth and worm of double
start threads, would be
a) 50:1
b) 100:1
c) 25:1
33. If the lead angle of a worm is 20 degree, then the helix angle will be_____ degree.
a) 20
b) 70
c) 80
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a) Worm only can act as a driver
a) Positive clutch
b) friction clutch
c) centrifugal clutch
d) cone clutch
36. The friction torque, with the assumption of uniform pressure, compared to uniform wear
is
a) Same
b) greater
c) lower
d) could be anything
37. A multi-disc clutch has three discs on the driving shaft and two discs on the driven shaft.
Number of pairs of contact surfaces is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
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a) Heat energy to kinetic energy
c) shoe brake
d) band brake
b) band brake
110
1. Critical damping is afunction of
a) linearly
b) arithmetically
c) geometrically
d) exponenially
a) constant
b) linear
c) logarithmic
d) exponential
4. Critical or whirling speed is the speed at which the shaft tends to vibrate violently in
a) transverse direction
b) longitudinal direction
c) linear direction
111
a) the shafts are rotating at vary speeds
6. The natural frequency of an undamped vibrating system is 100 rad/s. A damper with a
damping factor of 0.8 is introduced into the system. The frequency of vibration of the
damped system, in rad/s is
a) 60
b) 75
c) 80
d) 100
7. The un-damped natural frequency oscillations of the bar about the hinge point is
a) 42.43 rad/s
b) 30 rad/s
c) 17.32 rad/s
d) 14.14 rad/s
8. The earth can be assumed as a uniform sphere. Suppose the earth shrinks by 1% in
diameter, then new day period
b) reduce by about 2%
c) reduce by about 1%
d) increase by about 1%
a) longitudinal vibration
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b) transverse vibration
c) torsional vibration
a) 500 Nms/rad
b) 500 N/(m/s)
c) 80 Nms/rad
d) 80 N/(m/s)
Dynamics of Machinery
1. When the ratio of excitation freuency to natural frequency is 1.414 ,then transmissibility
ratio will be
a) infinite
b) 1
c) <1
d) >1
2. Critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural frequency
of the system in
a) Torsional vibrations
b) Longitudinal vibrations
c) Transverse vibration
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3. If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel
whose mean radius is half the mean radius of the former, then energy stored in the later at the
same speed will be
4. The deflection of a spring with 20 active turns under a load of 1000N is 10 mm.The
springs is made into two pieces each of 10 active coils and places in parallel under the same
load. The deflection of this system is
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 2.5 mm
5. In a four cylinder 4 stroke inline IC engine, the angle between two successive crank should
be 180 degree.But this rule is violated for cranks 2 and 3 (i.e. inner cranks) and the angle is
made 0 degree.This is done to achieve primary force
6. If the speed of the engine varies between 390 and 410 rpm in a cycle of operation, the
coefficient of fluctuation of speed will be
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.05
d) 0.07
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7. In a flywheel, the safe stress is 25.2 MN/m2 and the density is 7 g/cm3.Then what is the
maximum peripheral velocity (in m/s)?
a) 30
b) 60
c) 45
d) 120
a) 100 rad/s
b) 120 rad/s
c) 80 rad/s
d) 90 rad/s
9. The static deflection of a shaft under a flywheel is 4 mm. Take g=10m/s2.What is the
critical speed in rad/s?
a) 20
b) 50
c) 40
d) 2.5
a) is the maximum horizontal unbalanced force caused by the mass provided to balance the
reciprocating masses.
b) is the maximum vertical unbalanced force caused by the mass added to balance the
reciprocating masses
115
d) varies inversely with the square of the speed
11. The balancing weights are introduced in planes parallel to the plane of rotation of the
disturbing mass. To obtain complete dynamic balance, the minimum number of balancing
weights to be introduced in different planes is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
14. In a system subjected to damped forced vibrations, the ratio of maximum displacement to
the static deflection is known as
b) Damping factor
c) Logarithmic decrement
d) Magnification factor
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15. For steady state forced vibrations, the phase lag at resonance is
a) 0
b) 45
c) 90
d) 180
d) cannot be balanced
17. A governor is said to be isochronous when the equilibrium speed for all radii of rotation
of the balls within the working range
a) is not constant
b) is constant
c) varies uniformly
18. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves upwards, the governor speed
a) increases
c) decreases
d) remains unaffected
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19. When the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed,
the governor is said to be
a) hunt
b) unstable
c) isochronous
d) stable
20. In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is
b) negative throughout
c) positive throughout
21. when a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous
a) steering
b) pitching
c) rolling
22. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and
the aeroplane
takes a turn to the left. The effect of the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be
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a) to raise the nose and dip the tail
23. The air screw of an aeroplane is rotating clockwise when looking from the front. If it
makes a left turn,
24. In an automobile, if the vehicle makes a left turn, the gyroscopic torque
25. A motor car moving at a certain speed takes a left turn in a curved path. If the engine
rotates in the
a) the reaction on the inner wheels increases and on the outer wheels decreases
b) the reaction on the outer wheels increases and on the inner wheels decreases
c) the reaction on the front wheels increases and on the rear wheels decreases
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d) the reaction on the rear wheels increases and on the front wheels decreases
26. A rigid body, under the action of external forces, can be replaced by two masses placed at
a fixed
a) the sum of two masses is equal to the total mass of the body
b) the centre of gravity of the two masses coincides with that of the body
c) the sum of mass moment of inertia of the masses about their centre of gravity is equal to
the mass
d) all of these
a) positive
b) zero
c) negative
d) infinite
d) ratio of the mean resisting torque to the work done per cycle
120
29. In a turning moment diagram, the variations of energy above and below the mean
resisting torque line
is called
a) fluctuation of energy
30. The equation of motion for a viscous damped vibration is 3 d2x/dt2 + 9dx/dt + 27x = 0.
The damping factor will be
a) 0.25
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1
31. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed is called
a) fluctuation of speed
32. The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of the crank
with the line
of stroke is
a) 0
121
b) 90
c) 180
d) 360
d) complete balancing
34. A flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8 kgm2 fluctuates by 30 rpm for a fluctuation in
energy of 1936 Joules. The mean speed of the flywheel is (in rpm)
a) 600
b) 900
c) 968
d) 2940
35. In order to facilitate the starting of locomotive in any position, the cranks of a locomotive,
with two
a) 45
b) 90
c) 120
d) 180
122
36. In a locomotive, the ratio of the connecting rod length to the crank radius is kept very
large in order to
37. The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclina
of stroke ( ) is equal to
a) 45 and 135
b) 90 and 135
d) 45 and 225
38. The tractive force is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination of the crank to
the line of
stroke ( ) is equal to
a) 90 and 225
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b) secondary unbalanced force
d) partial balancing
40. In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force along the
perpendicular to the
a) tractive force
b) swaying couple
c) hammer blow
d) pullout
b) In the case of balancing of multicylinder engine, the value of secondary force is higher
than
c) In the case of balancing of multimass rotating systems, dynamic balancing can be directly
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d) In the case of balancing of multicylinder engine, the value of secondary force is lower than
b) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero
d) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to infinite
b) the net couple due to dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero
d) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to infinite
45. In order to have a complete balance of the several revolving masses in different planes
125
c) centripetal acceleration
47.
In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40 N/m/s and critical damping
coefficient is 420 N/m/s, then logarithmic decrement is equal to
a) 0.2
c) centripetal acceleration
48. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and
frequency is equal to
a) 1
c) centripetal acceleration
a) diameter of disc
b) span of shaft
c) eccentricity
50.
126
If the ratio of frequency of excitation to the natural frequency of vibrations is 1.414, then the
transmissibility of vibration will the
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 0
a) movement of a complete ship up and down in vertical plane about transverse axis
b) turning of a complete ship in a curve towards right or left, while it moves forward
d) inertia governor
127
54. A shaft carrying three rotors will have
a) no node
b) one node
c) two nodes
d) three nodes
55. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under
the action of the force of gravity, the body is known as
a) torsional pendulum
b) simple pendulum
c) second's pendulum
d) compound pendulum
56. The secondary unbalanced force is maximum __________ in one revolution of the crank.
a) four times
b) two times
c) eight times
d) sixteen times
57. For two governors A and B, the lift of sleeve of governor A is more than that of governor
B, for a given fractional change in speed. It indicates that
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58. In order to double the period of a simple pendulum, the length of the string should be
a) halved
59. Which of the following is used to control the speed variations of the engine caused by the
fluctuations of the engine turning moment?
a) Governor
b) flywheel
c) connecting rod
d) piston
a) 45
b) 135
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c) 90
d) 180
62. In a spring mass vibrating system, the natural frequency of vibration is reduced to half the
value when a second spring is added to the first spring in series. Determine the stiffness of the
second in terms of that of the first spring.
63. What is the minimum damping ratio for an underdamped system such that its overshoot is
limited
to 10 percent.
a) 0.59
b) 0.69
c) 1
d) 1.59
a) The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is maximum at the
mean position
b) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is directly
proportional to its angular velocity
c) The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zero at the mean
position
d) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken by a
particle for one complete oscillation
130
65. Typewriter constitutes
a) machine
b) structure
c) mechanism
d) inversion
69. If the circular bar gets resonanace with its longitudinal frequency
131
b) bar will get angular deformation
a) Transverse
b) longitudinal
c) torsional
d) random
1. Which of the following disciplines provides study of inertia forces arising from the
combined effect of the mass and the
a) theory of machines
b) Applied mechanics
c) mechanisms
d) kinetics
2. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to
turn or revolve about a fixed axis of another element is known as
a) turning pair
b) rolling pair
c) sliding pair
d) spherical pair
132
a) gear drive
d) belt drive
5. In elliptical trammels
a) less
b) more
c) equal
133
7. Inertia force acts
c) moment of inertia
d) centripetal acceleration
9. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous
centers lie on
a) a triangle
b) a point
c) two lines
d) a straight line
10. Which of the following conditions should be satisfied for static balancing?
134
1. Dynamic forces acting on the system should be zero
11. In which type of vibrations, amplitude of free vibration goes on decreasing every cycle?
13. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
maximum potential energy at extreme position?
a) Energy method
b) Rayleigh's method
135
c) Equilibrium method
d) Newtonian method
14. Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000
N/m and mass of 20 kg?
a) 12.32 Hz
b) 6.16 Hz
c) 4.10 Hz
d) 8.10 Hz
b) Angle in which displacement vector leads 90 degree force vector by (F0 sint)
c) Angle in which displacement vector (xp) lags force vector (F0 sint)
136
4. Magnification factor is maximum at resonance
1. Torsional vibrations do not occur in a three rotor system, if rotors rotate in same direction
2. Shaft vibrates with maximum frequency when rotors rotate in same direction
a) Statement 1
b) Statement 2
c) Statement 3
d) Statement 2 and 3
20. Seismometer can be used to measure acceleration of any instrument only if _____
137
b) it generates output signal which is proportional to relative acceleration of the vibrating
object
c) It's natural frequency is high and it generates output signal which is proportional to relative
acceleration of the vibrating object
21. Which type of monitoring system uses stroboscope to measure speed of the machine?
22. Which of the following vibrometers have frequency ratio (/n) << 1?
a) Accelerometers
b) Velometers
c) displacement meter
d) optical sensor
23. Which of the following conditions is/are to be satisfied by the seismometer for it to be
used as velometer?
c) It's output signal should be proportional to relative acceleration of the vibrating body
d) It's output signal should be proportional to relative velocity of the vibrating body
24. Which of the following methods can be used to reduce excitation level at the source?
a) Lubrication of joints
138
c) Lubrication of joints and Balancing inertia forces
d) providing dampers
a) Houdaille damper
d) viscous damper
26. Which basic document describes general requirements for measurement and evaluation of
machine vibrations using shaft measurements?
a) ISO 10816-1
b) ISO 7919-1
d) ISO 7901
27. In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40 N/m/s and critical damping
coefficient is 420 N/m/s, then logarithmic decrement is equal to
a) 0.2
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.8
139
a) sliding pair
b) rolling pair
c) lower pair
d) higher pair
29. The balancing of a rigid rotor can be achieved by appropriately placing balancing masses
in
a) a single plane
b) two planes
c) three planes
d) four planes
30. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and
frequency is equal to
a) Zero
b) One
c) /2
d)
31. In a spring controlled governor, when the controlling force ________ as the radius of
rotation increases, it is said to be a stable governor.
a) Remains constant
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) logrithmically decreases
32. If the radius of gyration of a compound pendulum about an axis through e.g. is more, then
its frequency of oscillation will be
140
a) Less
b) More
c) Same
d) infinite
a) Constant
b) In arithmetic progression
c) In geometric progression
d) In logarithmic progression
34. A spring controlled governor is said to be stable if the controlling force line when
produced intersects the Y-axis
a) At the origin
d) zero
35. The dynamic friction is the friction experienced by a body, when the body
a) Is in motion
b) Is at rest
36. When the relation between the controlling force (Fc) and radius of rotation (r) for a spring
controlled governor is Fc = ar + b, then the governor will be
a) Stable
b) Unstable
141
c) Isochronous
d) Equilibrium
a) 60 to 80 rpm.
b) 80 to 100 rpm.
c) Difference of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to the mean speed
d) Sum of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to the mean speed
a) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken by a
particle for one complete oscillation.
b) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is directly
proportional to its angular velocity.
c) The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zero at the mean
position.
142
d) The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is maximum at the
mean position.
Engineering Mechanics
1. A mass m1 of 100 kg travelling with a uniform velocity of 5 m/s along a line collides with
a stationary mass m2 of 1000 kg. After the collision, both the masses travel together with the
a) 0.6
b) 0.1
c) 0.01
d) 0
2. An annular disc has a mass m, inner radius R and outer radius 2R. The disc rolls on a flat
surface without slipping. If the velocity of the centre of mass is v, the kinetic energy of the
disc is
a) 9/16 mv^2
b) 11/16 mv^2
c) 13/16 mv^2
d) 15/16 mv^2
3. A tourist covers half of his journey by train at 60 km/h, half of the remainder by bus at 30
km/h and the rest by cycle at 10 km/h. The average of the tourist in km/h during his entire
journey is
a) 36
b) 30
c) 24
d) 18
143
4. A circular disc of uniform thickness 20 mm, radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg is used as a
flywheel. If it rotates at 600 rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel in Joules is
a) 395
b) 790
c) 1580
d) 3160
5. A solid disc of radius r rolls without slipping on the horizontal floor with angular velocity
angular acceleration . The magnitude of the acceleration of the point of contact on the disc
is
a) Zero
b) r
c) ((r)^2+(r^2)^2 )
d) r^2
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) infinity
1. Two forces of 6 and 8 act at right angles to each other, the resultant force will be
a) 10
b) 28
144
c) 41
d) 14
2. The angle of projection when the range is equal to the distance through which the particle
would have fallen in order to acquire a velocity equal to the velocity of projection will be
a) 22.5 degree
b) 30 degree
c) 45 degree
d) 15 degree
a) 0
b) 0.372
c) 0.5
d) 1
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Spring energy
145
6. A ball weighing 250 gm is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 980 cm/sec. The
time that the ball will take to return back to earth would be
a) 1 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 3 sec
d) 4 sec
7. A ball weighing 250 gm is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 980 cm/sec. The
maximum height attained by the ball would be
a) 100 cm
b) 49 cm
c) 490 cm
d) 980 cm
a) 22.5 deg
b) 30 deg
c) 45 deg
d) 60 deg
9. A stone is thrown up from the foot of tower 50 m high with a velocity of 25 m/s and at the
same time another stone is dropped from the top of tower, the two stones will cross each
other after
a) 2 sec
b) 3 sec
c) 4 sec
d) 4.5 sec
146
10. Identify the incorrect statement if any
11. The C.G. of a hemisphere is from its base measured along the vertical radius r s at a
distance from the base
a) 3R/8
b) 3R/4
c) 3Pi/4R
d) 4Pi/3R
12. The C.G. of a right circular cone lies on the axis at a height (h is total height of cone)
from base
a) h/4
b) h/3
c) 3/4 h
d) 3/5 h
a) A circular motion
b) A rotary motion
c) A translatory motion
d) A swinging motion
147
14. A ball of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 2 m/s collides directly with a stationary
ball of mass 2 kg. If the first ball comes to rest after the impact the veocity of second ball
after the impact will be
a) Zero
b) 0.5 m/sec
c) 1.0 m/sec
d) 1.5 m/sec
15. A flywheel weighs 400 kg and has a radius of gyration of 30 cm about its axis of rotation.
It is mounted on a shaft subjected to a moment of 40 kgm.If the flywheel starts from rest its
speed after 3 seconds will be
a) 10.9 rad/sec
b) 19 rad/sec
c) 16.35 rad/sec
d) 3.33 rad/sec
16. A crate weighing 40 kg rests on a cart moving with an acceleration W. The coefficient of
friction between the cart and the crate is 0.25. The maximum acceleration so that the crate
does not slip along the cart will be
a) 0.25 m/sec2
b) 2.45 m/sec2
c) 1.25 m/sec2
d) 4.00 m/sec2
a) Linear
b) Rotary
c) Translatory
148
18. A body weighing 500 kg falls 8 cm and strikes a 500 kg/cm spring. The deformation of
the spring will be
a) 8 cm
b) 0.8 cm
c) 2 cm
d) 4 cm
19. A body of weight W is resting at a plane inclined at 30 deg to the horizontal. It is attached
to a string making an angle of 60 deg with horizontal. If the angle of friction be 30 deg the
tension in the string would be
a) Zero
b) W
c) W/2
d) 2W
a) Involute
b) Cycloid
c) Epicycloid
d) Centrode
21. The resultant of a force acting on a body will be zero, if the body
a) Rotates
149
22. The tension in the wire rope supporting a lift moving with a uniform velocity
23. A particle is of weight 8 kg. When it is allowed to fall under the force of gravity its
momentum at the time t = 2 sec would be
a) 2 kg sec
b) 8 kg sec
c) 16 kg sec
d) 32 kg sec
24. A car travelling at a speed of 60 km/hr is brakedand comes to rest 6 seconds after the
brakes are applied. The minimum coefficient of friction between the wheels and the road
would be
a) 0.107
b) 0.283
c) 0.3
d) 0.417
25. If g1 and g2 are gravitational accelerations at two mountains A and B respectively, the
weight of the body when transported from A to B will be multiplied by
a) g1
b) g2
c) g2/g1
d) g1/g2
150
26. The work done in sliding a block of weight of 50 kg up a plane inclined at an angle of 30
deg to the horizontal so that the block is lifted through 1 m (coefficient of friction is 0.3)
would be
a) More than 50 kg m
b) 50 kg m
c) less than 50 kg m
d) 15 kg m
27. If the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled the weight W of a body will
become
a) W/2
b) 2W
c) 0.77W
d) W/0.77
28. A stone of weight 100 kg is thrown vertically upwards by a man of height y = 1.8 m with
an initial velocity of 20 m/sec. The maximum height to which it will rise would be
a) 10 m
b) 15.1 m
c) 20.2 m
d) 22.2 m
29. A train starts from rest on a curved track of radius 800. Its speed increases uniformly and
after 3 minutes it is 72 km/hr. The tangential acceleration after 2 minute would be
a) 1/9 m/s2
b) 2/9 m/s2
c) 1/2m/s2
d) 1 m/s2
151
30. A wedge is used to split logs. If is the angle of friction between the wedge and the log,
the maximum angle of the wedge so that it will remain embedded in the log would be
a)
b) 1.414
c) 1.5
d) 2
a) n-3
b) n-2
c) 2n-3
d) 2n-2
33. The moment of inertia of a thin ring about an axis perpendicular to plane of ring is
a) Mr
b) Mr^2
c) Mr^2/2
d) Mr^3/3
34. The moment of inertia of a hollow circular section whose external diameter is 8 cm and
internal diameter is 6 cm about the axis passing through its centre is
152
a) 33.4 cm4
b) 66.8 cm4
c) 137.5 cm4
d) 275 cm4
a) Infinite friction
b) Zero friction
36. A rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of these forces when
37. The roattion of a pulley is defined by the relation =2t^4-30t^(2 )+6 where is measured
in radians and t in seconds. The values of angular velocity in radians per second after 4
seconds would be
a) 246
b) 272
c) 324
d) 446
38. The angular acceleration of a flywheel decreases uniformly from 8 rad/sec2 to 2 rad/sec2
in 6 sec at which time its angular velocity is 42 rad/sec. The initial angular velocity was
a) 3 rad/sec
153
b) 6 rad/sec
c) 12 rad/sec
d) 24 rad/sec
a) Displacement of a particle
b) Area of a triangle
c) Acceleration of car
d) Velocity of a gear
40. In the impact problems the following conditions must always be satisfied:
c) The magnitude of the total linear momentum is multiplied by the coefficient of restitution
d) The kinetic energy of the system is reduced by a factor proportional to the coefficient of
restitution
154
Engineering Mechanics
a) do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
b) meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
c) meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane
d) do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane
b) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is equal to the kinetic energy of a body after
impact.
c) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is less than the kinetic energy of a body after
impact.
d) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is more than the kinetic energy of a body after
impact.
3. The principle of transmissibility of forces states that, when a force acts upon a body, its
effect is
a) less than
b) none of these
c) greater than
155
d) equal to
c) none of these
6. The angular velocity (in rad / s) of a body rotating at N revolutions per minute is
a) N/180
b) N/60
c) 2N/60
d) 2N/180
7. According to the law of moments, if a number of coplaner forces acting on a particle are in
equilibrium, then
a) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their
resultant force about the same point.
b) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
a) ideal machine
b) non-reversible machine
c) reversible machine
156
9. The centre of gravity of a semi-circle lies at a distance of __________ from its base
measured along the vertical radius.
a) 3r/4
b) 4r/ 3
c) 3r/ 8
d) 8r/3
a) rotary
b) translatory
c) circular
11. A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose angle of
inclination with the horizontal is . The effort applied parallel to the plane is given by(where
= tan = Coefficient of friction between the plane and the body.)
a) P = W tan( + )
b) P = W tan
c) P = W (sin + cos)
d) P = W (cos + sin)
12. If a number of forces are acting at a point, theirresultant will be inclined at an angle
with the horizontal, such that
a) tan = H/V
b) tan = VxV
c) tan = VxH
d) tan = V/H
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13. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
a) Speed
b) Velocity
c) Force
d) Acceleration
14. The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and
takes place in the same direction in which the force acts. This statement is known as
d) none of these
15. The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts, irrespective of its position, is
known as
a) moment of inertia
b) centre of percussion
c) centre of gravity
d) centre of mass
a) dyne
b) kg-m
c) joule
d) watt
a) translatory motion
158
b) none of the above
d) rotational motion
18. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is no loss of velocity after
rebounding, the ball will rise to a height of
a) 1m
b) 4m
c) 3m
d) 2m
19. The angle of inclination of the plane at which the body begins to move down the plane, is
called
a) angle of repose
b) angle of projection
c) angle of friction
d) none of these
20. Varingons theorem of moments states that if a number of coplaner forces acting on a
particle, then
c) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
d) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their
resultant force about the same point.
21. Whenever a force acts on a body and the body undergoes a displacement, then
a) none of these
159
b) body has kinetic energy of translation
a) power
b) potential energy
c) kinetic energy
d) none of these
a) 0.1 N-m
b) 1 N-m
c) 10 N-m
d) 100 N-m
24. The resultant of the two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is
perpendicular to P. Then
a) Q = 2R
b) Q = R
c) P = Q
d) none of these
a) kinetic energy
b) heat energy
c) electrical energy
160
d) strain energy
b) bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surfaces
c) always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends to move
28. The forces, which meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane,
are known as
a) all of these
b) Angular acceleration
c) Angular displacement
d) Angular velocity
161
30. The term centroid is
b) the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate
about a certain axis
31. The centre of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius (r) at a distance
of
a) 0.5r
b) 0.7r
c) 0.6r
d) 0.8r
32. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing
through its vertex and parallel to the base, is __________ than that passing through its C.G.
and parallel to the base.
a) seven times
b) five times
c) nine times
d) six times
d) if the three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, then each force is proportional to the
sine of the angle between the other two
162
34. The matter contained in a body, is called
a) momentum
b) impulsive force
c) mass
d) weight
d) all of these
36. If P is the force acting on the body, m is the mass of the body and a is the acceleration of
the body, then according to Newtons second law of motion,
a) P - m.a = 0
b) P + m.a = 0
c) P x m.a = 0
d) P/m.a = 0
b) one
d) zero
38. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position, is called
a) potential energy
163
b) chemical energy
c) kinetic energy
d) electrical energy
39. A lead ball with a certain velocity is made to strike a wall, it falls down, but rubber ball of
same mass and with same velocity strikes the same wall, it rebounds. Select the correct
reason from the following:
b) the change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is more than the lead ball
c) the change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is less than the lead ball
40. A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and leaning against a rough vertical wall. The
force of friction will act
a) The angle, with the horizontal, at which a projectile is projected is known as angle of
projection.
c) The velocity with which a projectile is projected, is known as the velocity of projection.
42. The forces, whose lines of action are parallel to each other and act in the same directions,
are known as
164
b) like parallel forces
a) second's pendulum
b) compound pendulum
c) simple pendulum
a) g sin
b) g cos
c) g tan
d) none of these
d) all of these
46. Two forces are acting at an angle of 120. The bigger force is 40N and the resultant is
perpendicular to the smaller one. The smaller force is
a) 40 N
b) 30 N
c) 20 N
165
d) none of these
47. The centre of gravity a T-section 100 mm x 150 mm x 50 mm from its bottom is
a) 87.5mm
b) 75mm
c) 50mm
d) 125mm
a) be completely at rest
d) all of these
d) none of these
166
a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sidesof a polygon taken
in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
b) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
c) if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
a particle, it is possible
55.
167
Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the
ball with velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move
with a velocity
a) v
b) v/2
c) v/4
d) v/8
56. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is __________ the range on upward
inclined plane for the same velocity of projection and angle of projection.
a) less than
b) more than
c) equal to
d) All of these
57.
If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the
angle between the two forces is
a) 30
b) 60
c) 90
d) 120
58. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis perpendicular to the section is
a) d3/16
b) d3/32
c) d4/32
168
d) d4/64
59. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing
through its C.G. and parallel to the base, is
a) bh3/4
b) bh3/8
c) bh3/12
d) bh3/36
60. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal
to the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
a) forces
b) independence of forces
c) balance of force
d) resolution of forces.
a) coplanar force
b) non-coplanar forces
c) moment
d) couple
c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions are both zero
169
63. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction
b) constitute a moment
c) constitute a couple
64. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
66. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
170
c) are equivalent
68. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
a) resultant couple
69. Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
a) area of contact
b) nature of surface
c) strength of surfaces
a) coefficient of friction
b) angle of friction
c) angle of repose
d) friction resistance.
171
72. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
a) same
b) more
c) less
76. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide
over another surface is called
172
a) limiting friction
b) sliding friction
c) rolling friction
d) kinematic friction
77. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance
covered in 5 sec is most nearly
a) 38 m
b) 62.5 m
c) 96 m
d) kinematic friction
78. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions
made is nearly equal to
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 250
79. A boat is traveling along a circular path having a radius of 20 m. Determine the
magnitude of the boat's acceleration if at a given instant the boat's speed is v = 5 m/s and the
rate of increase in speed is v = 2 m/s2.
a) a = 2.00 m/s2
b) a = 2.36 m/s2
c) a = 1.25 m/s2
d) a = 12.50 m/s2
173
80. A train travels along a horizontal circular curve that has a radius of 200 m. If the speed of
the train is uniformly increased from 30 km/h to 45 km/h in 5 s, determine the magnitude of
the acceleration at the instant the speed of the train is 40 km/h.
a) a = 0.617 m/s2
b) a = 1.037 m/s2
c) a = 1.451 m/s2
d) a = 0.833 m/s2
174
Engineering Thermodynamics
a) 29.7
b) 19.9
c) 13.3
d) zero
2. An irreversible heat engine extracts heat from a high temperature source at a rate of 100
kW and rejects heat to a sink at a rate of 50 kW. The entire work output of the heat engine is
used to drive a reversible heat pump operating between a set of independent isothermal heat
reservoirs at 17C and 75C. The rate (in kW) at which the heat pump delivers heat to its high
temperature sink is
a) 5o
b) 250
c) 300
d) 360
a) zero
b) 1 kJ
c) 2 kJ
d) 3 kJ
175
a) 321C
b) 338C
c) 450C
d) 470C
5. A reversible thermodynamic cycle containing only three processes and producing work is
to be constructed. The constrains are (a) there must be one isothermal process, (b) there must
be one isentropic process, (c) the maximum and minimum cycle pressures and clearance
volume are fixed and (d) polytropic processes are not allowed. Then the number of possible
cycles is/are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) 200 kJ
b) 138.6 kJ
c) 2 kJ
d) -200 kJ
7. For a giveb set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, the highest efficiency
occurs for
a) saturated cycle
b) superheated cycle
c) reheat cycle
d) regenerative cycle
176
8. An Otto cycle operates with volumes of 40 cm3 and 400 cm3 at Top Dead Centre and
Bottom Dead Centre respectively. If the power output is 100 kW, what is the heat input in
kJ/s?
a) 166
b) 145
c) 110
d) 93
9. A football was inflated to a gauge pressure of 1 bar when the ambient temperature was
15C. When the game started next day, the air temperature at the stadium was 5C. Assume
that the volume of the football remains constant at 2500 cm3,the amount of heat lost by the
air in the football and the gauge pressure of air in the football at the stadium respectively
equal to
10. A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 kW/m2 transforms it to the
internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is used to
run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power,
the minimum area of the solar collector required would be
a) 8.33 m2
b) 16.66 m2
c) 39.68 m2
d) 79.36 m2
177
Engineering Thermodynamics
a) Celsius
b) Kelvin
c) Fahrenheit
d) Galileo
a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) Maximum
3. Which of the following could NOT be used to indicate a temperature change? A change
in:
c) electrical resistance
4. An electric fan in a closed room is switched on. The room will get
178
a) Cooler
b) warmer
5. The property of a system that does not change when the system is undergoing adiabatic
process
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Quantity of Heat
6. If the system undergoes contraction in volume then work done by the system is
a) Positive
b) Negative
7. For the expression pdv to represent the work, which of the following conditions should
apply?
a) The system is closed one and process takes place in non-flow system
c) The boundary of the system should not move in order that work may be transferred
a) Closed system
b) Isolated systems
179
c) Open system
d) Equilibrium system
9. A heat engine takes in some amount of thermal energy and performs 50 J of work in each
cycle and rejects 150 J of energy. What is its efficiency?
a) 500 %
b) 400 %
c) 25 %
d) 20 %
10. A rigid container holds an ideal gas (Cv = 0.75 kJ/(kgK) ). The container is cooled from
110 to 20. Find the specific heat transfer (kJ/kg) for the process
a) 67.5 kJ/ kg
b) 67.5 kJ / kg
c) -96 kJ/kg
d) 96 kJ/kg
11. A thermally insulating container has a membrane separating the container into two equal
parts. In one part is a vacuum. In the other part is an ideal gas of temperature T and internal
energy U. The membrane is punctured and the gas rushes into the region which was a
vacuum. After the system has returned to equilibrium, which of the following is NOT true for
the gas?
12. Match items in List-I (Process) with those in List-II (Characteristic) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
180
List-I List-II
a) A B C D
4 2 1 3
b) A B C D
1 2 4 3
c) A B C D
4 3 1 2
d) A B C D
1 3 4 2
c) It is a closed system
14. Think about how a refrigerator works and the system of the refrigerator and the area
outside of the refrigerator at ambient temperature. Is the high temperature the body
refrigerator or the ambient air around the refrigerator?
b) Provided the refrigerator is working, the refrigerator is the higher temperature body
181
c) Provided the refrigerator is working, the area around the refrigerator is the higher
temperature body
d) Provided the refrigerator is working, the bodies are of the same temperature
a) 273 K
b) 273C
c) 100C
d) 100 K
16. A rigid vessel contains a pure substance and it passes through the critical state on heating
only if the initial state is
a) subcooled water
b) wet
c) dry
d) superheated
17. When saturation pressure of vapour increases which one of the following statements is
correct?
b) increase in temperature
c) decrease in pressure
182
d) degradation of energy
19. The temperature of water flowing through the turbine increases from 25C to 27C due to
friction. If there is no heat transfer, determine the change of entropy of water.
a) 2.8 J/kgK
b) 28J/kgK
c) -2.8kJ/kgK
d) -28kJ/kgK
20. A paddle wheel fitted with a 300 W motor is used to stir water in a large container. The
water in the container is maintained at 300 K and if the motor runs for 2 hours, determine the
change in entropy of water.
a) 7200 J/K
b) -7200 J/K
c) 0
d) 72 J/K
21. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from
0.3 kJ/kgK to 0.4 kJ/kgK. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from
80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. Determine the process.
b) Irreversible
c) Reversible
d) Impossible
22. When pressure is raised in an isentropic process, the enthalpy of the substance
a) Remains same
b) Increases
c) decreases
183
d) First increases and then decreases
23. The dryness fraction at the end of expansion of a Reheat cycle operating under the same
temperature limits has
a) T.dS = du + p.dv
b) T.dS = dh + v.dp
c) dH = T.dS + v.dp
d) dG = Vdp S.dT
25. Which one of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?
a) Volume
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Density
26. The sequence of events that eventually returns the working fluid to its original state is
known as
a) process
b) cycle
c) path
d) property
184
27. If C is the number of components and is the number of phases in a system, the number
of independent intensive properties required to specify the state of the system
a) F=C--2
b) F=C++2
c) F=C-+2
d) F=C+-2
28. Does a heat engine that has a thermal efficiency of 100 percent necessarily violate?
29. Specific internal energy of an ideal gas depends on ________________ of the gas.
a) pressure
b) volume
c) mass
d) temperature
a) open
b) closed
c) isolated
d) adiabatic
31. Which one of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?
a) Enthalpy
185
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Density
32. In a reversible heat engine operating between source and sink temperatures T1 and T2
respectively and surrounded by ambient temperature (T0), the maximum work done is
obtained when T2 is equal to
a) T2 = T1
b) T2 = T1/2
c) T2 = T0
d) T2=2T0
b) When it is reversible
d) All of these
a) Entropy generation
b) Increase in energy
186
d) efficiency
36. The effect of increase in mean temperature of heat addition in an ideal Rankine cycle
leads to
37. A saturation state is a state from which a change of phase may occur without
a) change in temperature
b) change in pressure
d) volume
38. Which of the following curve has a negative slope for water as working fluid in the P-T
phase diagram
a) Fusion curve
b) evaporation curve
d) sublimation curve.
39. The work output of a Reheat cycle operating under the same temperature limits is:
187
40. Which of the following statements about absolute zero temperature is true?
41. What mass of He gas occupies 8.5 liters at 0C and 1 atmosphere? (The molar mass of He
= 4.00 g/mol.)
a) 10.5 g
b) 1.52 g
c) 0.38 g
d) 2.6 g
42. A gas has a density X at standard temperature and pressure. What is the new density
when the absolute temperature is doubled and the pressure increased by a factor of 3?
a) (2/3)X
b) (4/3)X
c) (3/2)X
d) (3/4)X
43. A rigid container of air is at atmospheric pressure and 27C. To double the pressure in the
container, heat it to
a) 54C
b) 300C
c) 327C
d) 600C
188
44. If a mass of oxygen gas occupies a volume of 8 L at standard temperature and pressure,
what is the change in the volume if the temperature is reduced by one half and the
pressure is doubled?
a) It increases to 12 L.
b) It decreases to 6 L.
c) It decreases to 2 L.
d) It increases to 24 L.
45. If the pressure and volume of an ideal gas are both reduced to half their original value, the
absolute temperature of the gas is
a) unchanged.
b) increased by a factor of 4.
c) doubled.
d) decreased by a factor of 4.
46. The relationship between the pressure and the volume of a gas expressed by Boyle's law
holds true
47. The air around us has 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen. If the pressure is 1 atm, the
a) 0.21 atm
b) 0.78 atm
c) 1 atm
d) 0.67 atm
189
48. An ideal gas whose original temperature and volume are 27C and 0.283 m3 undergoes an
isobaric expansion. If the final temperature is 87C, then the final volume is approximately
a) 0.0340 m3
b) 0.0552 m3
c) 0.170 m3
d) 0.340 m3
49. To raise the temperature of a 2.0-kg piece of metal from 20 to 100C, 61.8 kJ of heat is
added. What is the specific heat of this metal?
a) 0.39 kJ/kgK
b) 1.2 kJ/kgK
c) 0.31 kJ/kgK
d) 0.77 kJ/kgK
50. A 2.0-kg mass of iron (specific heat = 0.12 kcal/kgC) at a temperature of 430C is
dropped into 0.4 kg of ice and 0.4 kg of water both at 0C. With no heat losses to the
surroundings, the equilibrium temperature of the mixture is approximately
a) 0C
b) 100C
c) 23C
d) 69C
51. On a hot summer day, water collects on the outside of a glass of ice lemonade. The water
comes from
b) the condensation of the water vapor due the fact that the glass is much colder than
the air.
190
d) the mixture of water and lemonade.
52. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process in which total (positive) work W is done by the
gas. What total heat is added to the gas in one cycle?
a) W
b) - W
c) zero
d) 2W
53. The pressure of a gas in an isobaric expansion remains constant. In such an expansion,
a) no work is done.
d) work is or is not done depending on whether the temperature of the gas changes.
54. The change in the entropy of the universe due to an operating Carnot engine
a) is zero.
b) must be positive
c) must be negative
55. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a reversible isothermal expansion from a volume of 1
L to a volume of 2 L. The change in entropy of the gas in terms of the universal gas constant
R is
a) R/2
b) 2R
c) R ln(2)
d) R ln()
191
56. The thermal efficiency of theoretical Otto cycle
57. With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine plant with
fixed turbine inlet temperature
a) decreases
b) increases
60. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
192
a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
62. If the thermal efficiency of a Carnot heat engine working between two temperature
reservoirs is 1/3, then COP of a Carnot refrigerator is given by
a) 3
b) 1/2
c) 2
d) 4
63. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of diesel cycle as compared to otto cycle is
a) less
b) more
c) same
d) equal
64. A cycle consisting of two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric
processes is known as
a) Otto cycle
b) Ericsson cycle
193
c) Stirling cycle
d) Brayton cycle
65. A cycle consisting of two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isochoric
processes is known as
a) Otto cycle
b) Ericsson cycle
c) Stirling cycle
d) Brayton cycle
a) chemical energy
b) heat energy
c) sound energy
d) magnetic energy.
67. For each mole of oxygen, number of moles of nitrogen required for complete combustion
of carbon are
a) 20/21
b) 2/21
c) 77/21
d) 79/21
a) dry analysis
b) wet analysis
194
69. The Orsat apparatus gives
70. Bomb calorimeter is used to find the calorific value of ___________ fuels.
a) solid
b) gaseous
71. When the fuel is burned and the water appears in the vapour phase, the heating value of
fuel is called
a) enthalpy of formation
d) enthalpy of fusion
72. When the fuel is burned and water is released in the liquid phase, the heating value of fuel
is called
c) enthalpy of formation
d) enthalpy of fusion
195
a) carbon monoxide
b) carbon dioxide
c) oxygen
d) nitrogen
c) 0C and 1 atmosphere
75. Moisture, ash content, volatile matter and fixed carbon are measured for coal as part of
a) Proximate analysis
b) Ultimate analysis
d) wet analysis
76. For the same compression ratio and heat input, the cycles in decreasing order of thermal
efficiency are
c) Dual,Diesel, Otto
a) 54.35 K
b) 13.84 K
196
c) 216.55 K
d) 273.16 K
78. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Mollier diagram
b) the constant pressure lines bend slightly downward in the heated region
c) the expansion process through a turbine is represented by a vertical line parallel to the
ordinate
d) the diagram helps to readly find out the total heat content of a steam of specified pressure
and quality
79. In which process, a solid changes directly to the gaseous form without ever being a liquid
a) condensation
b) evaporation
c) sublimation
d) crystalisation
80. which of the following parameters remains constant during superheating of steam?
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) enthalpy
d) internal energy
a) absolute zero
b) 373.16 K
c) critical temperature
d) triple point
197
82. The heat absorbed by water at its saturation temperature to get converted into dry steam at
the same temperture is called as
a) sensible heat
b) specific heat
c) latent heat
d) total heat
83. Which form of the vapour has a behaviour close to that of a gas?
a) wet vapour
d) superheated vapour
84. The internal energy of a perfect gas does not change during
a) adiabatic process
b) isibaric process
c) isothermal process
d) isochoric process
a) real gas
b) perfect gas
c) monoatomic gas
d) mixture of gases
198
a) zero
b) positive
c) negative
d) unpredictable
87. For obtaining maximum work in the act of a gas expanding in a closed system, the
expansion process must takes place at
a) constant temperature
b) constant pressure
c) constant entropy
d) constant enthalpy
88. Which of the following is not a feature of the free expansion process?
a) irreversible process
b) non-quasistatic process
d) pressure and volume are not related through the equation of state
89. Work output from a system is at the expense of internal energy in a non flow process
carried out
a) at constant pressure
b) at constant volume
c) adiabatically
d) polytropically
90. All of the following statements are true for a quasi-static process except
199
c) need not be a reversible process
a) pressure
b) heat exchange
c) temperature
d) work
92. Which does not constitute the theoritical cycle for the working of a practical I.C engine?
a) Otto cycle
b) Diesel cycle
c) Dual cycle
d) Ericsson cycle
93. Steam coming out of the whistle of a pressure cooker is most likely to be
a) wet vapour
c) superheated vapour
d) supercritical
94. Which of the following processes is not associated with Diesel cycle?
a) constant volume
b) constant pressure
c) isothermal
d) adiabatic
200
95. For successful working of throttling calorimeter to determine the value of dryness fraction
of steam, the steam after throttling must be in
a) wet steam
c) superheated steam
d) saturated liquid
a) isochoric process
b) isobaric process
c) isentropic process
d) isenthalpic process
97. When wet steam flows through a throttle valve and remains wet at exit, its
a) quality increases
b) quality decreases
98. Three moles of an ideal gas are compressed to half the initial volume at a constant
temperature of 300k. The work done in the process is
a) 5188 J
b) 2500 J
c) -2500 J
d) -5188 J
201
99. In a reversible isothermal expansion process, the fluid expands from 10 bar and 2 m3 to 2
bar and 10 m3. During the process the heat supplied is at the rate of 100 kW. What is the rate
of work done during the process?
a) 20 kW
b) 80 kW
c) 100 kW
d) 35 kW
100. The entropy of a mixture of pure gases is the sum of the entropies of constituents
evaluated at
101. Which one of the following relationships defines Gibb's free energy G?
a) G=H + TS
b) G=H-TS
c) G= U+ TS
d) G= U-TS
b) always increases.
d) always decreases.
202
103. The throttling of certain gasses may be used for getting the refrigeration effect. What is
the value of Joule Thomson coefficient () for such a throttling process?
a) = 0
b) = 1
c) < 1
d) > 1
104. A gas having a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient (< 0), when throttled, will
a) become cooler
b) become warmer
105. For a reversible power cycle, the operating temperature limits are 800 K and 300 K. It
takes 400kJ of heat. The unavailable work will be
a) 250 kJ
b) 150 kJ
c) 120 kJ
d) 100 kJ
106. In which one of the following situations the entropy change will be negative
c) Heat is supplied to air at constant volume till the pressure becomes three folds
203
107. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases
from 0.35 kJ/kg-K to 0.45 kJ/kg-K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings
decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
b) Irreversible
c) Reversible
d) Impossible
108. In the T-S diagram shown in the figure, which one of the following is represented by the
area under the curve? <img src="New Picture (4).png" alt="New Picture (4).png"
title="New Picture (4)" width="215" height="207"></img>
d) Degree of irreversibility
109. Two ideal heat engine cycles are represented in the given figure.<img src="pv.png"
alt="pv.png" title="pv" width="210" height="142"></img> Assume VQ =QR, PQ = QS and
UP =PR =RT. If the work interaction for the rectangular cycle (WVUR) is
cycle PST is
a) 12Nm
b) 18 Nm
c) 24 Nm
d) 36 Nm
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1. The available energy is
2. To improve the work capacity of energy transfer as heat from high temperature to low
temperature,
a) all process
b) a closed system
d) an open system
205
a) work done/stroke volume
a) Polytropic compression
a) Polytropic compression
206
d) Isochoric and isobaric heat addition
10. Which one of the following is part of air standard Braytion cycle?
a) Polytropic compression
11. Which one of the following is part of air standard Stirling cycle?
b) Polytropic expansion
12. Which one of the following is part of air standard Ericsson cycle?
b) Polytropic expansion
c) Locomotive engine
d) Aircraft engine
207
14. Which one of the following has the maximum thermal efficiency for a given range of
temperatures?
a) Carnot cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Joule cycle
d) Binary cycle
a) isohermally
b) at constant volume
c) at constant pressure
d) adiabatically
a) superheating
208
b) reheating
c) regeneration
d) condensation
19. Rankine cycle efficiency of well maintained steam power plant is in the range of
b) 10% to 20%
c) 35% to 45%
d) 50% to 60%
d) Otto cycle
a) exhaust steam
b) condensed steam
c) bled-off steam
d) fresh steam
209
23. A house hold refrigerator with a COP of 1.8 removes heat from a refrigerated space at a
rate of 90 kJ/min. Then the electrical power consumed is
a) 0.633 kW
b) 0.733 kW
c) 0.833 kW
d) 0.933 kW
24. A house hold refrigerator with a COP of 1.8 removes heat from a refrigerated space at a
rate of 90 kJ/min. Then the heat rejected to the surroundings are
a) 130 kJ/min
b) 140 kJ/min
c) 150 kJ/min
d) 160 kJ/min
25. In an internal combustion engine, during the compression stroke the heat rejected to the
cooling water is 50 kJ/kg and the work input is 100 kJ/kg. The change in internal energy of
the working fluid is
a) 0
b) 50 kJ/kg, gain
c) 50 kJ/kg, loss
26. A reversible heat engine rejects 50% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If
this engine is reversed and operates as a heat pump, then what is its coefficient of
performance?
a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
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d) 2.5
27. A ballon which is initially collapsed and flat is slowly filled with a gas at 100 kPa, so as
to form it into a sphere of 1m radius. The work done by the gas in tha ballon during the filling
process is
a) 428.9 kJ
b) 418.9 kJ
c) 420.9 kJ
d) 416.9 kJ
28. 2 kg of water at 80C are mixed with adiabatically with 3 kg of water at 30C in a
constant pressure process of 1 atm. The increase in the entropy of the total mass of water due
to mixing process is
a) -0.05915 kJ/K
b) 0.05915 kJ/K
c) 0
d) 5.915 kJ/K
29. 0.1 cubic metres of hydrogen initially at 1.2 MPa, 200C undergoes a reversible
isothermal expansion to 0.1 MPa. The change in entropy of the gas is (gamma = 1.4)
a) -0.4889 kJ/kgK
b) 0.4886 kJ/kgK
c) -0.6294 kJ/kgK
d) 0.6294 kJ/kgK
30. 80 kg of water at 100C are mixed with 50 kg of water at 60C while the temperature of
the surroundings is 15C. Determine the decrese in available enrgy due to mixing
a) 234.8 kJ
b) 130.04 kJ
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c) 307.25 kJ
d) 406.09 kJ
31. Which one of the following phenomena occurs when gas in a piston-in-cylinder assembly
expands reversibiliy at constant pressure?
32. In which one of the following processes, in a closed system the thermal energy
transferred to a gas is completely converted to internal energy resulting in an increase in gas
temperature
a) Isochoric process
b) Adiabatic process
c) Isothermal process
d) free expansion
33. Determine the entropy of 1 kg of wet steam at a pressure of 6 bar and 0.8 dry, reckoned
from freezing point (0C). Given at p = 6 bar, Ts = 158.8C, hfg = 2085 kJ/kg
a) 5.7 kJ/kgK
b) 3.4 kJ/kgK
c) 2.9 kJ/kgK
d) 7.2 kJ/kgK
34. A Carnot engine rejects 30% of absorbed heat to a sink at 30C. The temperature of the
heat source is
a) 100C
b) 433C
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c) 737C
d) 1010C
35. An engine operates between temperature limits of 900 K, T2 and another between T2 and
400 K. For both to be equally efficient, the value of T2 will be
a) 700 K
b) 600 K
c) 750 K
d) 650 K
36. A Carnot engine operates between 27C and 327C. If the engine produces 300 kJ of
work, what is the entropy change during heat addition?
a) 0.5 kJ/K
b) 1.0 kJ/K
c) 1.5 kJ/K
d) 2.0 kJ/K
37. The entropy of a mixture of ideal gases is the sum of the entropies of constituents
evaluted at
38. An inventor states that his new engine rejects to the sink 40% of heat absorbed from the
source while the source and sink temperatures are 327C and 27C respectively. Therfore, his
engine is equivalent to
a) Joule engine
b) Stirling engine
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c) impossible engine
d) Carnot engine
39. An ideal gas at 27C is heated at constant pressure till its volume becomes three times.
Then, what would be the temperature of gas?
a) 81C
b) 627C
c) 543C
d) 327C
40. 0.7 kg/s of air enters with a spefic enthalpy of 290 kJ and leaves it with 450 kJ of specific
enthalpy. Velocities at inlet and exit are 6 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. Assuming adiabatic
process, what is power input to the compressor?
a) 120 kW
b) 118 kW
c) 115 kW
d) 112 kW
FLUID MECHANICS
2. A circular pipe has a diameter of 1m, bed slope of 1in 1000, and Mannings roughness
coefficient equal to 0.01. It may be treated as an open channel flow when it is flowing just
214
full, i.e., the water level just touches the crest. The discharge in this condition is dented by
Q(full). Similarly, the discharge when the pipe is flowing half-full, i.e. with a flow depth of
0.5m, is denoted by Q(half). The ratio of Q(full)/ Q(half)
a) 1
b) 1.414
c) 2
d) 4
3. A triangular gate with a base width of 2m and a height of 1.5 m lies in a vertical plane.
The top vertex of the gate is 1.5m below the surface of a tank which contains oil of specific
gravity 0.8. Considering the density of water and acceleration due to gravity to be 1000
kg/cu.m and 9.81 m/s2 respectively, the hydrostatic force (in KN) exerted by the oil on the
gate is
a) 2.5
b) 1.4
c) 3.4
d) 4.5
4. A pipe of 0.7m diameter has a length of 6 km and connects two reservoirs A and B. The
water level in reservoir A is at an elevation 30m above the water level in reservoir B.
Halfway along the pipe line. There is a branch through which water can be supplied to a third
reservoir C. The friction factor of the pipe is 0.024. The quantity of water discharged into
reservoir C is 0.15 cumecs. Considering the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2 and
neglecting minor losses, the discharge (in cumes) in to the reservoir B is,
a) 1.56
b) 0.9
c) 2.25
d) 0.56
a) equal temperature
215
b) equal humidity
d) equal evaporation
FLUID MECHANICS
a) a real fluid
a) liquid
b) solid
c) gas
d) fluid
3. The viscosity of
216
b) has zero shear stress
d) has density
a) Water
b) Air
c) Blood
d) Printing ink
a) 1.8
b) 180
c) 1800
d) 0.18
8. If a capillary rise of water is a 2mm diameter tube is 1.5cm, the height of capillary rise in a
0.5mm diameter tube, in cm, will be
a) 10.0
b) 1.5
c) 6.0
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d) 24.0
9. If the surface tension of water-air interface is 0.073 N/m, the guage pressure inside a rain
drop of 1mm diameter is,
a) 146.0 N/m2
b) 0.146 N/m2
c) 73.0 N/m2
d) 292.0 N/m2
10. The excess pressure (above atmospheric ) inside a soap bubble of diameter 1cm, by
assuming the surface tension of soap solution to be 0.04 N/m, is
a) 32.0 N/m2
b) 16.0 N/m2
c) 160.0 N/m2
d) 0.32 N/m2
11. The capillary rise in a 3 mm tube immersed in a liquid is 15 mm. If another tube of
diameter 4mm is immersed in the same liquid the capillary rise would be
a) 11.25mm
b) 20.00mm
c) 8.4 mm
d) 26.67 mm
a) 1.65 mm
b) 3.33 cm
c) 1.65 cm
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d) 1.40 cm
13. At a liquid-air-
The liquid is,
a) Wetting
b) Non-wetting
c) Ideal
14. At 20 deg. Centigragde, pure water will have a vapour pressure, in kPa, of about
a) 0.5
b) 2.34
c) 101.3
d) 8.67
15. At 100 deg. Centigrade, at sea level, pure water will have a vapour pressure, in kPa, of
about
a) 0.50
b) 2.3
c) 10.1
d) 101.3
219
17. Normal stresses are of the same magnitude in all directions at a point in a fluid
a) Hydrometer
b) Barometer
c) Hygrometer
d) Altimeter
a) Local atmospheric pressure is always less than the standard atmospheric pressure
c) A barometer reads the difference between the local and standard atmospheric pressure
a) absolute pressure
b) gauge pressure
21. When the barometer reads 740.00mm of mercury, a pressure of 10kPa suction at that
location is equivalent to
220
b) 9.87 m of water (abs)
22. The standard atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. At a certain location the
barometer reads 710 mm of mercury. At this place an absolute pressure of 360mm of mercury
corresponds to a gauge pressure, in mm of mercury
a) 400 mm of vaccum
b) 350 mm of vaccum
c) 760 mm of vaccum
d) 710 mm
b) always shows the local atmospheric pressure which may change with time
25. A U-tube open at both ends and made of 8mm diameter glass tube has mercury in the
bottom to a height of 10 cm above the horizontal limb. If 19 cc of water is added to one the
limbs, the difference in mercury levels at equilibrium is
a) 3.0 cm
221
b) 2.8 cm
c) 1.0 cm
d) zero
26. A cylindrical tank of 2m diameter is laid with its axis horizontal and is filled with water
just to its top. The force on one of its end plates is kN, is
a) 123.0
b) 61.51
c) 30.76
d) 19.58
28. An object weighing 100N in air was found to weigh 75 N when fully submerged in water.
The relative density of the object is
a) 4.0
b) 4.5
c) 2.5
d) 1.25
29. An iceberg has 12% of its volume projecting above the surface of the sea. If the density of
sea water is 1025 kg/cu.m, the density of the iceberg is
a) 875 kg/cu.m
b) 1000 kg/cu.m
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c) 1148 kg/cu.m
d) 902 kg/cu.m
30. A metal block is thrown into a deep lake. As it sinks deeper in water, the buoyant force
acting on it
a) increases
c) decreases
31. When a block of ice floating on water in a container melts, the level of water in the
container
a) rises
d) falls
32. When a ship enters sea from a river one can expect it
a) to rise a little
b) to sink a little
223
34. If B=centre of buoyancy, G=is the centre of gravity and M=metacentre of a floating body,
the body will be in stable equilibrium if
a) MG=0
b) M is below G
c) BG=0
d) M is above G
a) circulatory flow
b) circulation
36. The Flow of a liquid at a constant rate in a conically tapered pipe is classified as
b) instantaneous picture of positions of all particles in the flow which passed a given point
224
a) which is normal to the velocity vector at every point
a) streamlines and pathlines are identical but are different from streakline
b) streakline and pathlines are identical but are different from streamlines
c) streamline, streakline and pathline can all be different from each other
40. In a rectangular channel 3m wide the depth of flow is 1.3m and the velocity is 1.6m/s. At
a hydraulic structure 1.24 m3/s of discharge is withdrawn and the canal width is reduced to
2.5m. The depth of flow in this section at a velocity of 1.5 m/s is
a) 1.21m
b) 1.00m
c) 1.33m
d) 1.66m
41. A flow has diverging straight streamlines. If the flow is steady, the flow
42. A flow has parallel curved streamlines and is steady. This flow has
b) local acceleration
225
c) normal convective as well as local acceleration
A flow net
b) for a given boundary is the same whether the flow is in one direction or the other
c) for a given boundary is applicable to one chosen direction of flow; if the flow is reversed
the flow net will change
d) will be so constructed that the size of the mesh is inversely proportional to the local
velocity
226
b) in any type of irrotational flow of a fluid
d) the sum of the velocity head, pressure head and datum head
a) the energy line will be horizontal or sloping upward in the direction of the flow
b) the energy line can never be horizontal or sloping upward in the direction of the flow
c) the piezometric line can never be horizontal or sloping downward in the direction of the
flow
d) the centre line of the pipe can never be above the energy line
50. The difference between the total head line and the hydraulic grade line represents
227
d) the elevation head
51. In a pipeline the hydraulic grade line is above the pipe centre line is the longitudinal
section at point A and below the pipe centre line at another point B. From this it can be
inferred that
52. In a two-dimensional duct flow air flows in the bottom half of the duct with uniform
velocity and there is no flow in the upper half. The value of the kinetic energy correction
factor for this flow is
a) 2.0
b) 2.25
c) 4.0
d) 3.0
a) 0.648
b) 0.728
c) 0.557
d) 0.637
54. A nozzle direct a liquid jet at an angle of elevation 45 deg. The hydraulic grade line for
the jet
228
c) will be horizontal at the level of the energy line
55. A pump delivers 50 L/s of water and delivers 7.5 kW of power to the system. The head
developed by the pump is
a) 7.5m
b) 5.0m
c) 1.53m
d) 15.32m
a) scalar relation
d) a vector relation
229
59. The linear momentum equation applied to a control volume in a flow through a nozzle
yielded the resultant reaction force R, on the fluid in the control volume. The force required
to keep the nozzle in position is
60. A jet of oil (R=0.8) has an area of 0.02 sq.m and a velocity of 10 m/s. If it strikes a plate
normally, the force exerted on the plate is
a) 1597 N
b) 1996 N
c) 15665 N
d) 19581 N
61. A water jet has an area of 0.03 sq.m and impinges normally on a plate. If a force of 1 kN
is produced as a result of this impact, the velocity of the jet, in m/s, is
a) 15
b) 33.4
c) 3.4
d) 5.78
62. A water jet 0.015 sq.m in area has a velocity of 15 m/s. If this jet impinges normally on a
plate which is moving at a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction of the jet, the force on the plate
due to this impact is
a) 3368 N
b) 2246 N
c) 14907 N
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d) 14686 N
63. A fire hose has a nozzle attached to it and the nozzle discharges a jet of water into the
atmosphere at 20 m/s. This places the joint of the nozzle
a) in compression
b) in tension
d) in bending stresses
64. A two-dimensional jet strikes a fixed two-dimensional plane at 45 deg. To the normal to
the plane. This causes the jet to split into two streams whose discharges are in the ratio
a) 1.0
b) 2.41
c) 5.83
d) 1.414
65. The velocity distribution over one half of a cross section is uniform and is zero over the
remaining half. The momentum correction factor for this cross section is
a) 2.0
b) 4.0
c) 1.0
d) 3.0
231
67. The minor loss due to sudden contraction is due to
a) flow contraction
c) boundary friction
d) cavitation
69. Two identical pipes of length L, diameter D and friction factor f, are connected in series
between two reservoirs. The size of a pipe of length L and of the same friction factor f,
equivalent to the above pipes, is
a) 0.5D
b) 0.87D
c) 1.15D
d) 1.40D
70. Two identical pipes of length L, diameter D and friction factor f, are connected in parallel
between two reservoirs. The size of a pipe of length L and of the same friction factor f,
equivalent to the above pipes, is
a) 0.5D
b) 0.87D
c) 1.40D
d) 2.0D
232
71. In using Darcy-Weisbach equation for flow in a pipe, the friction factor is misjudged by
+25%. The resulting error in the estimated discharge Q is
a) +25%
b) -16.67%
c) -5%
d) -12.5%
72. A pipeline connecting two reservoirs has its diameter reduced by 10% over a length of
time due to chemical deposit action. If the friction factor remains unaltered, for a given head
difference in the reservoirs this would reflect in a reduction in discharge of
a) 10%
b) 14.6%
c) 23.2%
d) 31.6%
b) the total discharge is the sum of the discharges in the individual pipes
74. The discharge Q in a pipe of know f is estimated by using the head loss hf in a length L
and diameter D. If an error of 1% is involved in the measurement of D, the corresponding
error in the estimation of Q is
a) 2.5%
b) 1.0%
c) 0.4%
d) 5%
233
75. In a pipe network
a) the algebraic sum of discharges around each elementary circuit must be zero
c) the algebraic sum of the piezometric head drops around each elementary circuit is zero
76. The equations of motion for laminar flow of a real fluid are known as
a) Eulers equation
b) Bernoulli equation
c) Navier-Stokes equation
d) Hagen-Poiseuille equation
c) In laminar flow the friction factor f is directly proportional to the Reynolds number
d) In laminar flow in a conduit the shear stress varies linearly across the pipe
78. In a two-dimensional, steady, horizontal, uniform laminar flow the shear gradient in the
normal direction is equal to
79. An oil of kinematic viscosity 0.25 stokes flows through a pipe of diameter 10cm. The
flow is critical at a velocity of
234
a) 7.2 m/s
b) 5.0 m/s
c) 0.5 m/s
d) 0.72 m/s
80. In a steady flow of an oil in a pipe in laminar regime the shear stress is
81. Oil of viscosity 1.5 Pa.s and relative density 0.9 flows through a circular pipe of diameter
5cm with a mean velocity of 1.2 m/s. The shear stress at the wall in Pa is
a) 360
b) 288
c) 180
d) 144
82. In a circular pipe of certain length carrying oil at a Reynolds number 100, it is proposed
to triple the discharge. If the viscosity remains unchanged, the power input will have to be
b) increased by 100%
83. The minimum value of friction factor f that can occur in laminar flow through a circular
pipe is
a) 0.025
235
b) zero
c) . 0.064
d) 0.032
84. A 20cm diameter pipe carries a fluid of relative density 0.9. If the boundary shear stress
in the pipe is 0.50 Pa, the head loss in a length of 100m of the pipe line is
a) 11.35m
b) 4.54m
c) 0.36m
d) 9.08m
85. The friction factor f in a laminar pipe flow was found to be 0.04.The Reynolds number of
the flow was
a) 2000
b) 1000
c) 800
d) 1600
d) The total energy line either rises or falls depending upon the Froude number
87. Uniform flow in an open channel exists when the flow is steady and the
a) channel is frictionless
b) channel is non-prismatic
c) channel is prismatic
236
d) channel is prismatic and the depth of flow is constant along the channel
88. In defining a Froude number applicable to channels of any shape, the length parameter
used is the
a) depth of flow
b) hydraulic radius
d) wetted perimeter
a) a non-prismatic channel
90. The term alternate depths in open channel flow is used to designate the depths
b) Coefficient of drag Cd
c) Mannings coefficient n
d) coefficient of velocity Cv
237
92. Which of the following is a dimensionless number:
a) Mannings coefficient n
c) Chezy coefficient C
d) Hazen-William coefficient CH
93. Dynamic similarity is said to exist between two fluids flows when at corresponding points
there are
94. In hydraulic modelling of flow pattern around a body submerged in a fluid the non-
dimensional number which has to be kept the same in the model and prototype is
a) Weber number
b) Froude number
c) Reynolds number
d) Strouhal number
95. The fall velocity of a sand grain in water is to be modelled by using particles of the same
relative density as sand and a liquid whose kinematic viscosity is 100 times larger than that of
water. The diameters of the particles in the model that will have the same fall velocity as the
prototype will be
a) 10 times smaller
b) 10 times larger
238
96. The drag force on a body
c) is the component of the resultant force in the direction of the relative velocity
a) formation of wake
100. A streamlined body with a round nose and a tapering back is generally best suited for
a) creeping motion
239
b) turbulent sub-sonic flow
c) supersonic flow
240
FLUID MECHANICS
d) is a constant
a) Surface tension
b) Vapour pressure
c) Mass density
3. A rectangular plate 0.75mx2.4m is immersed in a liquid of relative density 0.85 with its
0.75m side horizontal and just at the water surface. If the plane of the plate makes an angle of
60 deg. With the horizontal, the pressure force on one side of the plate in kN is,
a) 15.6
b) 7.8
c) 24.0
d) 18.0
4. An object weights 50N in water and 80N in an oil of relative density 0.80. Its volume in
litres is
a) 15.3
b) 60.0
c) 30.6
d) 50.0
241
5. Lines of constant stream function
7. In a siphon the summit is 4m above the water level in the reservoir from which the flow is
being discharged out. If the head loss from the inlet of the siphon to the summit is 2m and the
velocity head at the summit is 0.5n the pressure at the summit is
a) -63.64 kPa
b) -9.0m of water
d) -39.16 kPa
8. Two pipelines of equal length and diameter of 20 cm and 30 cm respectively are connected
in parallel between two reservoirs. If the friction actor f is the same for both the pipes, the
ration of the discharges in the smaller to the larger size of the pipe is
a) 0.363
b) 0.444
c) 0.667
d) 0.137
242
9. In a pipeline design the usual practice is to assume that due to aging
10. The pressure drop in an 8 cm horizontal pipe is 75 kPa in a distance of 15m. The shear
stress at the pipe wall, in kPa is
a) 0.2
b) 2.0
c) 5.0
d) 0.4
11. The Reynolds number for the flow of oil in a certain pipe is 640. The Darcy-Weisbach
friction factor f for the flow is
a) 0.02
b) 0.01
c) 0.1
d) 0.064
12. The sequent depths in a hydraulic jump formed in a 4.0m wide rectangular channel are
0.2m and 1.0m. The discharge in the channel in cumecs is
a) 5.00
b) 1.12
c) 2.17
d) 4.34
243
13. In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel the sequent depths are
0.25m and 1.25m. The energy loss in this jump is
a) 0.8m
b) 1.0m
c) 1.25m
d) 1.50m
a) 2.25
b) 3.38
c) 5.06
d) 7.59
b) the pressure drag forms considerably large portion of the total drag
c) total drag is considerably smaller than that for a corresponding streamlined body
16. In a fluid flow, point A is at a higher elevation than point B. The head loss between these
points is HL. The total heads at A and B are Ha and Hb respectively. The flow will takes
place
a) from A to B if Ha+HL=Hb
b) from B to A if Ha+HL=Hb
c) from B to A if Ha+HL=Hb
d) always from A to B
244
17. In a siphon the summit is 4m above the water level in the reservoir from which the flow is
being discharged out. If the head loss from the inlet of the siphon to the summit is 2m and the
velocity head at the summit is 0.5m the pressure at the summit is
a) -63.64 kPa
b) -9.0m of water
d) -39.16 kPa
18. In a turbulent pipe flow, inside the laminar boundary layer the velocity distribution is
a) parabolic
b) linear
c) logarithmic
19. In a turbulent flow through a pipe the centreline velocity is 3.61 m/s and the friction
factor f=0.002. The mean velocity of the flow in m/s is
a) 4.80
b) 3.00
c) 2.21
d) 0.96
20. The head loss in 100m length of a 0.1m diameter pipe (f=0.02) carrying water is 10m.
The boundary shear stress, in kPa, is
a) 9.79
b) 0.298
c) 0.1958
d) 0.0245
245
Fundamentals of Manufacturing Processes
1. A cube shaped casting solidifies in 5 minutes. The solidificaiton time of the cube of same
material which is 8 times heavier than the original casting, will be,
a) 10 min
b) 20 min
c) 24 min
d) 40 min
2. Two cubes of same material and size are cast using the sand casting process. The top face
of one cube is completely insulated. The ratio of the solidification time of the cube with top
face insulated to the other cube is,
a) 25/36
b) 36/25
c) 1
d) 6/5
3. While cooling, a cubical casting of side 40mm undergoes 3%, 4% and 5% volume
shrinkage during liquid state, phase transition state and solid state, respectively. The volume
of metal compensation from the riser is
a) 2%
b) 7%
c) 8%
d) 9%
246
4. Two streams of liquid metal which are not hot enough to fuse properly result in to a casting
defect known as
a) cold shut
b) swell
c) sand wash
d) scab
6. A solid cylinder of diameter 100mm and height 50mm is forged between two frictionless
flat dies to a height of 25mm. The percentage change in diameter is
a) 0
b) 2.01
c) 20.7
d) 41.4
c) Electroslag welding
d) Thermit welding
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a) Expanded polystyrene
b) Wax
c) Epoxy
d) Plaster of paris
9. A strip with a cross section of 150mm x 4.5 mm is being rolled with 20% reduction of area
using 450mm diameter rolls. The angle subtended by the deformation zone at the roll center
in radians, is,
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.03
d) 0.06
10. In deep drawing of sheets, the values of limiting draw ratio depends on
d) Thickness of sheet
1. When a metal is specified as tough in the part drawing, the manufacturing engineer
should understand that this metal:
a) resists grinding
b) does not deform plastically but breaks into pieces when stressed
248
2. This process recognizes the inherent interrelationships between design and manufacturing:
3. This is a solid shape that fits inside the mold and forms a hole in a cooled cast metal or
molten plastic object:
a) Core
b) Cavity
c) Prototype
d) Hole mold
4. When a metal is specified as hard, then the manufacturing engineer should understand
that :
5. Which of the following is the best engineering plastics material that has high tensile
strength, high compressive strength, with minimal elongation to use for a product that will be
injection molded?
a) polycarbonate
b) polystyrene
c) phenolic
d) epoxy
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6. The best process for making a kitchen drawer divider tray out of plastic sheets is:
a) pultrusion
b) thermoforming
c) compression forming
d) blow molding
7. A turning operation is to be done on a piece of alloy steel that has a diameter of 90mm. If
the depth of cut is set at 3.175 mm, the feed is set at 0.30 mm per revolution, and the
recommended cutting speed using a carbide tool is 90 meters per minute, what rotational
speed you will set on the machine, from the following available speeds on machine, in rpm?
a) 118
b) 218
c) 318
d) 418
a) to help raise the mold from the floor while preparing the mold
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10. Chills are used in moulds to
a) channel in the mold leading from the downsprue to the main mold cavity
b) foundryman who moves the hot molten metal from the furnace to the mold
c) vertical channel into which the metal is poured into the mold from a laddle
complete solidification
13. Chvorinov's rule states that total solidification time is proportional to which one of the
following quantities? ( where A = surface area of casting, Hf = heat of fusion, Tm = melting
temperature, and V = volume of casting, X^y means X raised to power y)
a) (A / V)^n
b) Hf
c) Tm
d) V
e) V/A
f) (V/A)^2
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14. In a sand-casting mold, the V/A ratio of the riser should be
16. Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the
core, the buoyancy force is which one of the following?
a) downward force = Wm + Wc
c) upward force = Wm + Wc
d) upward force = Wm - Wc
17. Which of the following materials require largest shrinkage allowance while making a
pattern for a casting?
b) Aluminum
c) Brass
d) Cast Iron
a) wood
b) rubber
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c) polystyrene
d) metal
d) temperature of liquid metal drops from pouring to freezing temperature of the metal
a) provide venting
a) casting
b) cavity
c) pattern
a) Wooden patterns
253
b) Sand patterns
c) Metal patterns
d) Polystyrene patterns
a) melting temperature
b) tapping temperature
c) pouring temperature
d) solidification temperature
a) gate
b) runner
c) riser
d) vertical passage
26. In sand molding there is no need to provide one of the following allowance, it is
a) Shrinkage allowance
b) draft allowance
c) distortion allowance
d) machining allowance
a) a round sieve
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28. The purpose of sprue is to
a) stainless steel
255
b) copper
c) bronze
d) mild steel
a) aluminum
b) stainless steel
c) pure titanium
34. Main advantage of MIG welding (GMAW) over TIG welding is that
256
37. In gas welding, maximum temperature occurs at
a) 1000 deg C
b) 5000 deg C
c) 10000 deg C
d) 30000 deg C
a) electrode holder is connected to negative polarity and the work to the positive poloarity
b) electrode holder is connected to positive polarity and the work to the negative polarity
a) work thickness
b) arc gap
a) TIG
b) MIG(GMAW)
c) Thermit
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d) LBM
a) 1:1
b) 1.5:1
c) 2:1
d) 2.5:1
43. If two pieces of different metals are to be welded by projection welding, then the
projection should be done on the metal piece having
a) higher conductivity
b) lower conductivity
c) same conductivity
a) seam welding
b) projection welding
c) thermit welding
d) percussion welding
a) stainless steel
b) copper
c) mild steel
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b) low welding speed
47. Voltage during the arc-striking compared to the voltage during welding in electric arc
welding is
a) same
b) more
c) less
d) unpredictable
c) MIG(GMAW)
c) projection welding
259
51. Arc length in an arc welding should be equal to
a) gas welding
b) spot welding
c) seam welding
a) gas welding
b) arc welding
c) TIG welding
d) MIG welding
54. Copper is
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c) both voltage and current are high
a) arc welding
b) gas welding
c) forge welding
57. In sintering stage of powder metallurgy, which of the following process take place?
58. In production of precision components, the use of powder metallurgy technique mainly
reduces
a) material cost
b) machining cost
c) equipment cost
d) tool-related costs
59. Widely used metal powder production method for powder metallurgy is
c) electrolytic deposition
261
a) cold heading
b) casting
d) investment casting
a) cold heading
b) casting
d) investment casting
a) cold heading
b) casting
d) investment casting
63. Extrusion process can effectively reduce the cost of production through
b) material saving
a) design of punch
b) design of die
d) wear of punch
262
65. An extrusion process is not the process where
a) rolling process
b) extrusion process
c) bending process
d) forging process
a) stainless steel
b) brass casting
c) piercing
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b) solid backward extrusion
a) a T section bar
d) an I-section bar
71. Bottom side of the sheet (tension side) do not have any contact with the die in
a) V-bending
b) air bending
c) wipe bending
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74. Close dimensional tolerances are maintained in cold formed parts because
b) no shrinkage occurs
c) strength increases
75. Effect associated with the parts that are cold formed is
a) shrinkage
b) strain hardening
c) surface decoloring
d) surface roughness
a) Food container
c) crankshaft
d) heating duct
77. In sheet metal press operation, the size of the blanked part is dependent on the size of the
a) punch
b) die
78. Which of the following processes start with a material that is in a fluid or semifluid state
and solidifies the material in a cavity (two best answers):
a) casting
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b) forging
c) machining
d) molding
e) pressing
79. Which one of the following engineering materials is defined as a compound containing
metallic and nonmetallic elements:
a) ceramic
b) composite
c) metal
d) polymer
80. Deformation processes include which of the following (two correct answers):
a) casting
b) drilling
c) extrusion
d) forging
e) milling
a) forge hammer
b) milling machine
c) rolling mill
d) press
e) torch
82. Which of the following metals are used as the matrix material in fiber-reinforced MMCs
(two best answers):
266
a) aluminum
b) copper
c) iron
d) magnesium
e) zinc
83. Ceramic matrix composites are designed to overcome which of the following weaknesses
of ceramics (two best answers):
a) compressive strength
b) hardness
c) hot hardness
d) modulus of elasticity
e) tensile strength
f) toughness
84. Which one of the following polymer types are most commonly used in polymer matrix
composites:
a) elastomers
b) thermoplastics
c) thermosets
a) a lion's den
b) a melting furnace
c) a sintering furnace
d) an annealing furnace
267
86. Which of the following are sections of a conventional extruder barrel for thermoplastics?
(three best answers):
a) compression section
b) die section
c) feed section
d) heating section
e) metering section
f) shaping section
87. Which two of the following are the principal components of an injection molding
machine?
a) clamping unit
b) hopper
c) injection unit
d) mold
88. In rotational molding, centrifugal force is used to force the polymer melt against the
surfaces of the mold cavity where solidification occurs:
a) true
b) false
89. Hand lay-up is classified in which of the following general categories of PMC shaping
processes (two best answers)?:
b) compression molding
c) contact molding
d) filament winding
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e) open mold process
90. Copper is a relatively easy metal to weld because its thermal conductivity is high:
a) true
b) false
91. Metals that are easiest to weld in resistance welding are ones that have low resistivities
since low
a) true
b) false
92. Which one of the following arc-welding processes produces the highest temperatures?
a) CAW
b) PAW
c) SAW
d) TIG
93. MIG welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following
processes?
a) SMAW
b) GMAW
c) GTAW
d) SAW
94. Which of the following processes are classified as fusion welding (three correct
answers)?:
a) electrogas welding
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b) electron-beam welding
c) explosion welding
d) forge welding
e) laserbeam welding
f) ultrasonic welding
95. Welding can only be performed on metals that have the same melting point; otherwise,
the metal
with the lower melting temperature always melts while the other metal remains solid:
a) true
b) false
97. Which of the following processes are classified as high-energy-rate forming processes
(two best answers):
a) electrochemical machining
b) electromagnetic forming
d) explosive forming
e) Guerin process
f) hydroforming
g) redrawing
h) shear spinning
270
98. Which of the following are variations of sheet-metal-bending operations (two best
answers):
a) flanging
b) hemming
c) ironing
d) notching
e) shear spinning
f) trimming
g) tube bending
c) overbending
d) overstraining
100. Which one of the following is the best definition of bend allowance?:
271
a) chills and chaplets
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
4. If the melting ratio of a cupola is 10:1, then the coke requirement for one ton melt will be
a) 0.1 ton
b) 10 tons
c) 1 ton
d) 11 tons
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1.The molten metal should enter the mould cavity with maximum possible velocity.
3. It should be able to prevent the flowing molten metal from absorbing the air or gases from
surroundings
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
a) 14.14 seconds
b) 20 seconds
c) 18.3 seconds
d) 40 seconds
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9. Which one of the following processes produce a casting where the pressure forces the
molten metal into the mould cavity?
a) Shell moulding
b) Investment casting
c) Die casting
d) Continuous casting
a) gas sheilded zone, fusion zone, and unaffected original base metal zone
d) fusion zone, heat affected unmelted zone and unaffected original base metal zone
274
b) It helps in checking of distortion of work piece
c) Large number of metals and alloys, both similar and / or dissimilar can be joined
d) Heat produced during the welding does not produce metallurgical changes
d) Rod diameter
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Helium or Argon
d) Krypton
275
18. Good example for the application of friction welding can be
c) Gas welding
d) Arc welding
22. In hot die forging, thin layer of material all around the forging is
276
b) flash, the width of ti is an indicator of the pressure developed in the cavity
23. Extrusion process can effectively reduce the cost of product through
a) Material saving
a) Roll forming
b) Electrohydraulic forming
c) Rotary forging
d) Forward extrusion
a) Compressive only
b) Tensile only
26. Which one of the following is NOT a high energy rate forming process?
a) Electro-magnetic
b) Roll-forming
c) Explosive forming
d) Electro-hydraulic forming
277
27. Which of the following metal forming process is used for manufacture of long steel wire?
a) Deep drawing
b) Drawing
c) Forging
d) Extrusion
28. Which of the following properties do the hydrostatic pressure in extrusion process
improve
a) Ductility
b) Compressive strength
c) Brittleness
d) Tensile strength
29. The process of removing burrs or flash from a forged component in drop forging is called
a) Swaging
b) Peroforating
c) Trimming
d) Fettling
278
a) reducing the roll diameter
33. Which of the following is the correct temperature range for hot extrusion of aluminium?
a) 300-400 deg C
b) 350-400 deg C
c) 430-480 deg C
d) 550-600 deg C
34. Which of the following metal forming process is associated with the term 'camber'?
a) Drawing
b) Rolling
c) Wire drawing
35. Which of the following metal forming process has the associated term 'Pilots'?
a) Drawing
b) Rolling
c) wire drawing
279
d) Sheet metal forming
36. Which one of the following metal forming process has the associated term 'soap
solutions'?
a) Drawing
b) Rolling
c) Wire drawing
c) Close tolerance
38. In the wire drawing process, a bright shining surface on the output wire is obtained if one
b) is using a lubricant
39. The defect 'chevron cracks' is associated with the following metal forming process,
a) Drawing
b) Extrusion
d) forging
280
40. Metal surfaces having higher hardness & fatigue strength can best be obtained by
a) Roll forming
b) Shot peening
c) Forging
d) Cold forming
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Heat and Mass Transfer
d) temperature only
2. Consider one-dimensional steady state heat conduction, without heat generation, in a plane
wall; with boundary conditions as shown in the figure below. The conductivity of the wall is
given by k = k0 + bT ; where k0 and b are positive constants, and T is temperature.
a) remain constant
b) be zero
c) increase
d) decrease
3. Consider one-dimensional steady state heat conduction along x-axis (0 x L), through a
plane wall with the boundary surfaces (x=0 and x=L) maintained at temperatures of 0C and
100C. Heat is generated uniformly throughout the wall. Choose the CORRECT statement.
a) The direction of heat transfer will be from the surface at 100C to the surface at 0C.
b) The maximum temperature inside the wall must be greater than 100C.
282
a) 519
b) 931
c) 1195
d) 2144
5. Two large diffuse gray parallel plates, separated by a small distance, have surface
temperatures of 400 K and 300 K. If the emissivities of the surfaces are 0.8 and the Stefan-
Boltzmann constant is 5.67 10-8W/m2K4, the net radiation heat exchange rate in kW/m2
between the two plates is
a) 0.66
b) 0.79
c) 0.99
d) 0.87
6. Which one of the following configurations has the highest fin effectiveness?
7. Water (Cp = 4.18 kJ/kg.K) at 80C enters a counterflow heat exchanger with a mass flow
rate of 0.5 kg/s. Air (Cp = 1kJ/kg.K) enters at 30C with a mass flow rate of 2.09 kg/s. If the
effectiveness of the heat exchanger is 0.8, the LMTD (in C) is
a) 7
b) 4
c) 10
d) 8
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8. In a condenser of a power plant, the steam condenses at a temperature of 60oC. The
cooling water enters at 30C and leaves at 45C. The logarithmic mean temperature
difference (LMTD) of the condenser is
a) 16.2 C
b) 21.6 C
c) 30 C
d) 37.5 C
9. A pipe of 25 mm outer diameter carries steam. The heat transfer coefficient between the
cylinder and surroundings is 5 W/m2 K. It is proposed to reduce the heat loss from the pipe
by adding insulation having a thermal conductivity of 0.05 W/mK. Which one of the
following statements is TRUE?
b) The outer radius of the pipe is less than the critical radius
a) large because conduction resistance is far higher than the convective resistance
b) large because conduction resistance is far less than the convective resistance
c) small because conduction resistance is far higher than the convective resistance
d) small because conduction resistance is far less than the convective resistance
284
Heat and Mass Transfer - MEE303
1. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and size are heated to the same
temperature and allowed to cool in the same surroundings. If the temperature difference
between the body and that of the surrounding is T, then
a) The hollow sphere will cool at a faster rate for all the values of T
b) Both the spheres will cool at the same rate for small values of T
c) Both the spheres will cool at the same rate for all values of T
d) The solid sphere will cool at a faster rate for all the values of T
2. A furnace is made of a red brick wall of thickness 0.5 m and conductivity 0.7 W/mK. For
the same heat loss and the temperature drop, this can be replaced by a layer of diatomite earth
of conductivity of 0.14 W/mK and thickness should be
a) 0.5 m
b) 0.1 m
c) 0.2 m
d) 0.4 m
4. In a long cylindrical rod of radius R and a surface heat flux of Q, the uniform internal heat
generation rate is
a) Q/R
b) 2Q/R
c) 3Q/R
285
d) 4Q/R
5. For a current carrying metallic ball of 20 mm diameter exposed to air (h=25 W/m2K),
maximum heat distribution occurs when the thickness of the insulation (K=0.5 W/mK) is
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 30 mm
d) 40 mm
1. Under certain conditions, an increase in thickness of insulation may increase the heat loss
from a heated pipe.
2. The heat loss from an insulated pipe reaches a maximum when the outside radius
insulation is equal to the ratio of thermal conductivity to surface coefficient.
4. For a steam pipe economic insulation is based on minimum heat loss from pipe.
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2
286
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
8. Two insulating materials of thermal conductivity k and 2k are available for lagging a pipe
carrying a hot fluid. If the radial thickness of each material is the same
a) Material with higher thermal conductivity should be used for inner layer and one with
lower thermal conductivity for the outer.
d) Material with lower thermal conductivity should be used for inner layer and one with
higher thermal conductivity for the outer.
9. A solid wall conducts 45 W of heat. It is desired to reduce the heat transfer rate to 15W by
changing only the wall thickness. Then the thickness of the wall, now should be
10. Heat is lost through a brick wall (k=0.72W/mK), which is 4m long, 3m wide, and 25cm
thick at a rate of 500W. If the inner surface of the wall is at 22 oC, the temperature at the
midplane of the wall is
a) 0.8 oC
b) 11.3 oC
c) 14.8 oC
d) 22.1 oC
287
11. Consider two different materials A and B. The ratio of thermal conductivities of A and B
is 13, the ratios of densities of A and B is 0.045 and the ratio of specific heats of A and B is
16.90. Then the ratio of thermal diffusivities of A to B is
a) 17.1
b) 16.1
c) 13.3
d) 10.6
12. A gas filled tube has 2 mm inside diameter and 25 cm length. The gas is heated by an
electrical wire of diameter 50 m located along the axis of the tube. Current and voltage drop
across the heating element are 0.5 amps and 4 volts, respectively. If the measured wire and
inside tube wall temperatures are 175 oC and 150 oC respectively, find the thermal
conductivity of the gas filling tube
a) 0.12 W/m.K
b) 0.15 W/m.K
c) 0.16 W/m.K
d) 0.19 W/m.K
13. Electric current is passed through a copper ball 1 mm in diameter. The ball is submerged
in liquid water at atmospheric pressure, and the current is increased until the water boils. For
this situation h = 5000 W/m2.K. How much electric power must be supplied to the wire to
maintain the ball at 114 oC?
a) 0.2199 W
b) 21.99 W
c) 25.64 W
d) 0.2564 W
a) Thermal conductivity
b) kinematic viscosity
288
c) dynamic viscosity
d) heat capacity
a) 30
b) kinematic viscosity
c) dynamic viscosity
d) heat capacity
16. Which of the following materials have low temperature gradient for same thickness of the
slab
a) silver
b) copper
c) alumnum
d) carbon steel
17. Radial heat transfer rate through hollow cylinder decreases as the ratio of outer to inner
radius
a) decreases
b) increases
c) constant
18. From a metallic wall at 100 oC, a metallic rod protrudes to the ambient air. The
temperature at the tip will be minimum when the rod is made of
a) aluminum
b) gold
289
c) diamond
d) silver
19. Which of the following is correct with respect to thermal conductivity (k) of material
c) both a & b
d) kgases<Kinsulators<Kliquids
20. A steel ball of mass 1kg and specific heat 0.4 kJ/kg is at a temperature of 60C. It is
dropped into 1kg water at 20C. The final steady state temperature of water is
a) 23.5C
b) 32.3C
c) 13.5C
d) 42.1C
21. In current carrying conductors, if the radius of the conductor is less than the critical
radius, then addition of electrical insulation is desirable, as
a) It reduces the heat loss from the conductor and thereby enables the
b) It increases the heat loss from the conductor and thereby enables the
c) It increases the thermal resistance of the insulation and thereby enables the
d) It reduces the thermal resistance of the insulation and thereby enables the
290
22. A steam pipe is to be lined with two layers of insulating materials of different thermal
conductivities. For minimum heat transfer
d) One should take into account the steam temperature before deciding as to which insulation
is put where.
23. In order to substantially reduce leakage of heat from atmosphere into cold refrigerant
flowing in small diameter copper tubes in a refrigerant system, the radial thickness of
insulation, cylindrically wrapped
24. From a metallic wall at 100C, a metallic rod protrudes to the ambient air. The
temperatures at the tip will be minimum when the rod is made of:
a) Aluminum
b) Steel
c) Copper
d) Silver
25. Provision of fins on a given heat transfer surface will be more it there are:
291
26. In order to achieve maximum heat dissipation, the fin should be designed in such a way
that:
a) It should have maximum lateral surface at the root side of the fin
b) It should have maximum lateral surface towards the tip side of the fin
c) It should have maximum lateral surface near the centre of the fin
d) It should have minimum lateral surface near the centre of the fin
27. Consider the following statements pertaining to large heat transfer rate using fins:
1. Fins should be used on the side where heat transfer coefficient is small
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
28. Consider the following statements pertaining to heat transfer through fins:
1. Fins are equally effective irrespective of whether they are on the hot side or cold side of
the fluid.
2. The temperature along the fin is variable and hence the rate of heat transfer varies along
the elements of the fin.
3. The fins may be made of materials that have a higher thermal conductivity than the
material of the wall.
4. Fins must be arranged at right angles to the direction of flow of the working fluid.
Of these statements:
292
a) 1 and 2 are correct
29. The value of Biot number is very small (less than 0.01) when
d) None of these
a) 2.35 s
b) 4.9 s
c) 14.7 s
d) 29.4 s
31. A small copper ball of 5 mm diameter at 500 K is dropped into an oil bath whose
temperature is 300 K. The thermal conductivity of copper is 400 W/mK, its density 9000
kg/m3 and its
specific heat 385 J/kg.K.1f the heat transfer coefficient is 250 W/m2K. What will be the
value of Biot number?
a) 0.0005208
b) 0.00123
293
c) 0.004923
d) 0.0093234
32. Which one of the following statements is correct? The curve for unsteady state cooling or
heating of bodies
33. A thermocouple in a thermo-well measures the temperature of hot gas flowing through
the pipe. For the most accurate measurement of temperature, the thermo-well should be made
of:
a) Steel
b) Brass
c) Copper
d) Aluminum
34. Heisler charts are used to determine transient heat flow rate and temperature distribution
when:
35. Assertion (A): During the temperature measurement of hot gas in a duct that has
relatively cool walls, the temperature indicated by the thermometer will be lower than the
true hot gas
temperature. Reason(R): The sensing tip of thermometer receives energy from the hot gas and
loses heat to the duct walls.
294
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) none of these
38. Choose the correct statement, Semi infinite model can be adopted when
d) all of these
39. A 320 cm high vertical pipe at 15 oC wall temperature is in a room with still air at 10 oC.
This pipe supplies heat at the rate of 8 kW into room air by natural convection. Assuming
laminar flow, the height of the pipe needed to supply 1 kW only is
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
295
c) 40 cm
d) 80 cm
a) Density
b) Coefficient of viscosity
c) Gravity
d) Velocity
41. Peclet number is the product of _______________ number and ______________ number.
a) Reynolds, Nusselt
b) Reynolds, Prandtl
c) Nusselt, Reynolds
d) Nusselt, Grasshoff
b) Prandtl Number = 1
c) Nusselt Number = 1
d) Grashoff Number = 1
296
44. If velocity of water inside a smooth tube is doubled, then turbulent flow heat transfer
coefficient between the water and the tube will:
a) Remain unchanged
45. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all made of same material and having same
mass are initially heated to a temperature of 250 oC and then left in air at room temperature
for
d) Cube will be cooled faster than sphere but slower than circular plate
46. A thin flat plate 2 m by 2 m is hanging freely in air. The temperature of the surroundings
is 25C. Solar radiation is falling on one side of the rate at the rate of 500 W/m2. The
temperature
of the plate will remain constant at 30C, if the convective heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2
C) is:
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 200
47. Air at 20C blows over a hot plate of 50 60 cm made of carbon steel maintained at
220C. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 25 W/m2K. What will be the heat loss
from the plate?
a) 1500 W
297
b) 2500 W
c) 3000 W
d) 4000 W
48. For calculation of heat transfer by natural convection from a horizontal cylinder, what is
the characteristic length in Grashof Number?
49. Assertion (A): For the similar conditions the values of convection heat transfer
coefficients are more in forced convection than in free convection.
Reason (R): In case of forced convection system the movement of fluid is by means of
external agency.
50. The properties of mercury at 300 K are: density = 13529 kg/m3, specific heat at constant
pressure = 0.1393 kJ/kg-K, dynamic viscosity = 0.001523 N.s/m2 and thermal conductivity =
a) 0.0248
b) 2.48
c) 24.8
d) 248
298
51. Assertion (A): A slab of finite thickness heated on one side and held horizontal will lose
more heat per unit time to the cooler air if the hot surface faces upwards when compared with
the
Reason (R): When the hot surface faces upwards, convection takes place easily whereas when
the hot surface faces downwards, heat transfer is mainly by conduction through air.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
52. Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient at 30C.
If the Nusselt number is 25 and thermal conductivity of air is 0.03 W/mK, then the heat
transfer co-efficient in W/m2.K will be:
a) 7.5
b) 16.2
c) 25.2
d) 30
53. Which one of the following non-dimensional numbers is used for transition from laminar
to turbulent flow in free convection?
a) Reynolds number
b) Grashoff number
c) Peclet number
d) Rayleigh number
54. Which one of the following numbers represents the ratio of kinematic viscosity to the
thermal diffusivity?
a) Gashoff number
b) Prandtl number
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c) Mach number
d) Nusselt number
55. Nusselt number for a pipe flow heat transfer coefficient is given by the equation NuD =
4.36. Which one of the following combinations of conditions does exactly apply for use of
this equation?
56. A 320 cm high vertical pipe at 150C wall temperature is in a room with still air at 10C.
This pipe supplies heat at the rate of 8 kW into the room air by natural convection. Assuming
laminar flow, the height of the pipe needed to supply 1 kW only is:
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 80 cm
57. Natural convection heat transfer coefficients over surface of a vertical pipe and vertical
flat plate for same height and fluid are equal. What is/are the possible reasons for this?
1. Same height
2. Both vertical
3. Same fluid
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
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c) 3 and 4
d) 4 only
58. The average Nusselt number in laminar natural convection from a vertical wall at 180C
with still air at 20C is found to be 48. If the wall temperature becomes 30C, all other
parameters
a) 8
b) 16
c) 24
d) 32
a) Stanton number
b) Nusselt number
c) Biot number
d) Peclet number
1. Boiling
3. Forced convection
4. Conduction in air
a) 4, 2, 3, 1
b) 4, 1, 3, 2
c) 4, 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 4, 1, 2
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61. Consider the following statements regarding condensation heat transfer:
1. For a single tube, horizontal position is preferred over vertical position for better heat
transfer.
2. Heat transfer coefficient decreases if the vapour stream moves at high velocity.
Of these statements
62. When all the conditions are identical, in the case of flow through pipes with heat transfer,
the velocity profiles will be identical for:
a) Glazed surface
b) Smooth surface
c) Oily surface
d) Coated surface
1. The temperature of the surface is greater than the saturation temperature of the liquid.
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2. Bubbles are created by the expansion of entrapped gas or vapour at small cavities in the
surface.
4. The heat transfer from the surface to the liquid is greater than that in film boiling.
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
65. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, fins are used advantageously
when the entire surface is exposed to:
a) Nucleate boiling
b) Film boiling
c) Transition boiling
66. When a liquid flows through a tube with sub-cooled or saturated boiling, what is the
process known?
a) Pool boiling
b) Bulk boiling
c) Convection boiling
67. For film-wise condensation on a vertical plane, the film thickness and heat transfer
coefficient h vary with distance x from the leading edge as
a) decreases, h increases
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c) increases, h decreases
68. Saturated steam is allowed to condense over a vertical flat surface and the condensate
film flows down the surface. The local heat transfer coefficient for condensation
vapour
1. If a condensing liquid does not wet a surface drop wise, then condensation will take place
on it.
2. Drop wise condensation gives a higher heat transfer rate than filmwise condensation.
Of these statements:
c) 4 alone is correct
70. A hollow encloser is formed between two infinitely long concentric cylinders of radii 1 m
ans 2 m, respectively. Radiative heat exchange takes place between the inner surface of the
larger cylinder (surface-2) and the outer surface of the smaller cylinder (surface- I). The
radiating surfaces are diffuse and the medium in the enclosure is non-participating. The
fraction of
the thermal radiation leaving the larger surface and striking itself is:
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a) 0.25
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1
71. The shape factors with themselves of two infinity long black body concentric cylinders
with a diameter ratio of 3 are ___________ for the inner and ________________ for the
outer.
a) 0, 2/3
b) 0, 1/3
c) 1, 1/9
d) 1, 1/3
72. The radiative heat transfer rate per unit area (W/m2) between two plane parallel grey
surfaces (emissivity = 0.9) maintained at 400 K and 300 K is:
a) 992
b) 812
c) 464
d) 567
73. Fraction of radiative energy leaving one surface that strikes the other surface is called
a) Radiative flux
c) View factor
d) Re-radiation flux
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74. Assertion (A): Heat transfer at high temperature is dominated by radiation rather than
convection.
Reason (R): Radiation depends on fourth power of temperature while convection depends on
unit power relationship.
The parameter(s) responsible for loss of heat from a hot pipe surface in a room without fans
would include
a) 1 alone
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) = 1, = 0, = 0
b) = 0, = 1, = 0
c) = 0, = 0, = 1
d) + = 1, = 0
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77. If the temperature of a solid state changes from 27C to 627C, then emissive power
changes which rate
a) 6 : 1
b) 9 : 1
c) 27 : 1
d) 81 : 1
78. An enclosure consists of the four surfaces 1, 2, 3 and 4. The view factors for radiation
heat transfer (where the subscripts 1, 2, 3, 4 refer to the respective surfaces) are F11 = 0.1,
F12 =
0.4 and F13 = 0.25. The surface areas A1 and A4 are 4 m2 and 2 m2 respectively. The view
factor F41 is:
a) 0.75
b) 0.5
c) 0.25
d) 0.1
79. Two long parallel surfaces, each of emissivity 0.7 are maintained at different
temperatures and accordingly have radiation exchange between them. It is desired to reduce
75% of this
radiant heat transfer by inserting thin parallel shields of equal emissivity (0.7) on both sides.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
80. For an opaque plane surface the irradiation, radiosity and emissive power are respectively
20, 12 and 10 W/m2.What is the emissivity of the surface?
a) 0.2
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b) 0.4
c) 0.8
d) 1.0
81. In a counter flow heat exchanger, for the hot fluid the heat capacity = 2 kJ/kg K, mass
flow rate = 5 kg/s, inlet temperature = 150C, outlet temperature = 100C. For the cold fluid,
heat
capacity = 4 kJ/kg K, mass flow rate = 10 kg/s, inlet temperature = 20C. Neglecting heat
transfer to the surroundings, the outlet temperature of the cold fluid in C is:
a) 7.5
b) 32.5
c) 45.5
d) 70.0
82. In a condenser, water enters at 30C and flows at the rate 1500 kg/hr. The condensing
steam is at a temperature of 120C and cooling water leaves the condenser at 80C. Specific
heat
of water is 4.187 kJ/kg K. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 2000 W/m2K, then heat
transfer area is:
a) 0.707 m2
b) 7.07 m2
c) 70.7 m2
d) 141.4 m2
83. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD) of a counterflow heat exchanger is
20C. The cold fluid enters at 20C and the hot fluid enters at 100C. Mass fl0w rate of the
cold
fluid is twice that of the hot fluid. Specific heat at constant pressure of the hot fluid is twice
that of the cold fluid. The exit temperature of the cold fluid is
a) 40C
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b) 60C
c) 80C
84. In a counter flow heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 60C and cold fluid leaves at 30C.
Mass flow rate of the hot fluid is 1 kg/s and that of the cold fluid is 2 kg/s. Specific heat of
the hot
fluid is 10 kJ/kgK and that of the cold fluid is 5 kJ/kgK. The Log Mean Temperature
Difference (LMTD) for the heat exchanger in C is:
a) 15
b) 30
c) 35
d) 45
85. For the same inlet and outlet temperatures of hot and cold fluids, the Log Mean
Temperature Difference (LMTD) is:
a) Greater for parallel flow heat exchanger than for counter flow heat
exchanger.
b) Greater for counter flow heat exchanger than for parallel flow heat
exchanger.
86. Hot oil is cooled from 80 to 50C in an oil cooler which uses air as the coolant. The air
temperature rises from 30 to 40C. The designer uses a LMTD value of 26C. The type of
heat exchanger is:
a) Parallel flow
b) Double pipe
c) Counter flow
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d) Cross flow
a) Plate type
steam side
88. Which one of the following heat exchangers gives parallel straight line pattern of
temperature distribution for both cold and hot fluid?
89. For a balanced counter-flow heat exchanger, the temperature profiles of the two fluids
are:
The flow configuration in a heat exchanger, whether counterflow or otherwise, will NOT
matter if:
1. A liquid is evaporating
2. A vapour is condensing
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3. Mass flow rate of one of the fluids is far greater
Of these statements:
In a shell and tube heat exchanger, baffles are provided on the shell side to:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
92. In a heat exchanger, the hot liquid enters with a temperature of 180 C and leaves at 160
C. The cooling fluid enters at 30 C and leaves at 110 C. The capacity ratio of the heat
exchanger is:
a) 0.25
b) 0.4
c) 0.5
d) 0.55
93. Assertion (A): It is not possible to determine LMTD in a counter flow heat exchanger
with equal heat capacity rates of hot and cold fluids.
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Reason (R): Because the temperature difference is invariant along the length of the heat
exchanger.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Inside heat transfer coefficient = 25 W/m2K, Outside heat transfer coefficient = 25 W/m2K,
Thermal conductivity of bricks (15 cm thick) = 0.15 W/mK,
The overall heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2K) will be closer to the
alone
95. In a heat exchanger with one fluid evaporating or condensing the surface area required is
least in
a) Parallel flow
b) Counter flow
c) Cross flow
96. After expansion from a gas turbine, the hot exhaust gases are used to heat the compressed
air from a compressor with the help of a cross flow compact heat exchanger of 0.8
a) 2
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b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
97. In a counter flow heat exchanger, the product of specific heat and mass flow rate is same
for the hot and cold fluids. If NTU is equal to 0.5, then the effectiveness of the heat
exchanger is:
a) 1.0
b) 0.5
c) 0.33
d) 0.2
98. -NTU method is particularly useful in thermal design of heat exchangers when
c) The outlet temperature of the hot fluid streams is known but that of the cold
99. A cross-flow type air-heater has an area of 50 m2. The overall heat transfer coefficient is
100 W/m2K and heat capacity of both hot and cold stream is 1000 W/K. The value of NTU
is:
a) 1000
b) 500
c) 5
d) 0.2
100. A counter flow shell - and - tube exchanger is used to heat water with hot exhaust gases.
The water (Cp = 4180 J/kgC) flows at a rate of 2 kg/s while the exhaust gas (1030 J/kgC)
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flows at the rate of 5.25 kg/s. If the heat transfer surface area is 32.5 m2 and the overall heat
transfer coefficient is 200 W/m2C, what is the NTU for the heat exchanger?
a) 1.2
b) 2.4
c) 4,5
d) 8.6
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
a) The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to convection.
b) The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon the material of the body.
d) Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the arithmetic mean temperature
difference.
2. Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the arithmetic mean temperature
difference.
a) Reynold's number
b) Grashoff's number
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
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d) none of the options
4. Thermal diffusivity is a
a) function of temperature
c) dimensionless parameter
d) all of these
5. The total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is __________ fourth power
of the absolute temperature. This statement is known as Stefan-Boltzmann law.
a) equal to
b) directly proportional to
c) inversely proportional to
d) all of these
a) iron
b) lead
c) concrete
d) wood
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8. The heat transfer takes place according to
d) Kirchhoff's law
a) remains same
b) decreases
c) increases
10. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layer is equal if Prandtl number is
a) equal to one
a) is black in colour
12. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the resistance to heat flow is
a) maximum
b) minimum
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c) zero
d) none of these
a) m/hr
b) m/hr C
c) kcal/m hr
d) kcal/m. hr C
a) Stanton number
b) Nusselt number
c) Biot number
d) Peclet number
a) Moisture
b) Density
c) Temperature
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17. A designer chooses the values of fluid flow rates and specific heats in such a manner that
the heat capacities of the two fluids are equal. A hot fluid enters the counter flow heat
exchanger at 100C and leaves at 60C. A cold fluid enters the heat exchanger at 40C. The
mean temperature difference between the two fluids is
a) 20C
b) 40C
c) 60C
d) 66.7C
18. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared to parallel flow heat
exchanger is
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) same
19. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference between temperatures
of
20. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, baffles are provided on the shell side to
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21. Fourier's law of heat conduction gives the heat flow for
a) Irregular surfaces
a) 0.1
b) 0.3
c) 0.7
d) 1.7
a) Stanton number
b) Biot number
c) Peclet number
d) Grashoff number
24. An electric cable of aluminium conductor (k = 240 W/mK) is to be insulated with rubber
(k = 0.15 W/mK). The cable is to be located in air (h = 6 W/m). The critical thickness of
insulation will be
a) 25 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 160 mm
d) 800 mm
a) Conduction
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b) Convection
c) Radiation
27. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the body to another is called conduction,
when the particles of the body
a) Move actually
28. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by a black
body per unit
a) Temperature
b) Thickness
c) Area
d) Time
29. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy falling on it is called
a) Absorptive power
b) Emissive power
c) Absorptivity
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d) Emissivity
30. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally transparent body is reflected
back. If the transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the emissivity of surface is
a) 0.45
b) 0.55
c) 0.40
d) 0.75
a) Nature of body
b) Temperature of body
a) P = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
b) P=1, x = 0 and a = 0
c) P = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
d) X = 0, a + p = 1
a) Temperature
b) Wave length
c) Physical nature
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34. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity
a) At all temperatures
d) At critical temperature
35. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000C and 70C. The heat transfer
will take place mainly by
a) Convection
b) Radiation
c) Forced convection
d) Free convection
a) Is black in colour
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a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain constant
39. In free convection heat transfer transition from laminar to turbulent flow is governed by
the critical value of the
a) Reynold's number
b) Grashoff's number
a) The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to convection
b) The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon the material of the body
d) Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the arithmetic mean temperature
difference
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a) Process layout
b) Product layout
d) Production scheduling
a) Material price
b) Bill of material
c) Inventory level
d) Production Schedule
4. As per the principles of motion economy which one of the following is NOT a PIVOT for
a classified movement of a human body
a) Knee
b) Wrist
c) Torso
d) Elbow
5. Which one of the following is NOT in the scope of Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
system?
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a) 7
b) 6
c) 5
d) 8
7. A manufacturing line requires 7.2 minutes to make a product. The line has six work-
stations.Total production required is 300 products in 7.5 hours. At steady state, the line
efficiency is
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 83%
d) 84%
8. A single facility is to be located to meet the demand at coordinates (1,2), (2,3), (3,5), and
(4,1). the demand at these points is 700, 100, 300, and 500 respectively. Using the rectilinear
distance and weighted distance minimization criterion, the facility should be located
9. In a time study experiment, the observed time is 15 minutes, operator rating is 90%,
personal need allowance is 4%, fatigue allowance is 3%, contingency allowance for work is
3%, contingency allowance for delay is 2%. The total work content in minutes is
a) 15.34
b) 14
c) 16
d) 13.5
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10. For a canteen, the actual demand for disposable cup was 500 units in January, 600 units in
February. The forecast for the month of January was 400 units. the forecast for the month of
March considering smoothing coefficient as 0.75 is
a) 568.75
b) 571
c) 567
d) 555
11. Annual demand of a product is 50000 units, and the ordering cost is Rs. 7000 per order.
Considering the basic EOQ model, the economic order quantity is 10000 units. The annual
inventory holding cost is
a) Rs.3.8/unit/year
b) Rs.3.6/unit/year
c) Rs.3.5/unit/year
d) Rs.3.9/unit/year
12. Number of units sold in January, February, March, April and May are 10, 11, 16, 19, and
25 respectively. Regarding forecast for the month of June, which of the following statements
is TRUE?
b) Higher the value of order N, the greater will be the forecast value by moving average.
13. Amanufacturer has the following data regarding a product. Fixed cost Rs.50000; Variable
cost Rs.200; Selling price per unit Rs.300; Production capacity 1500 units per month; If the
production is carried out at 80% of the rated capacity, then the monthly profit is
a) 65000
b) 70000
c) 66000
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d) 71000
14. The annual demand for an item is 10000 units. The unit cost is Rs.100 and the carrying
cost is 14.4% of the unit cost per annum. The cost of one procurement is Rs.2000. The time
between two consecutive orders to meet the above demand is
a) 1.41 months
b) 1.53 months
c) 1.6 months
d) 1.7 months
15. The demand for two wheeler was 900 units and 1030 units in april 2015 and May 2015
respectively. The forecast for the month April was 850, considering smoothing constant of
0.6, forecast for the month of June 2015 is
a) 850 units
b) 927 units
c) 965 units
d) 970 units
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Industrial Engineering and Management
a) Market research
b) Executive opinion
c) Delphi method
d) Nave method
3. Which forecasting method is particular good for predicting technological changes and
scientific advances?
a) Market research
b) Executive opinion
c) Delphi method
d) Nave approach
4. Which forecasting method assumes that next periods forecast is equal to this periods
actual value?
a) Simple mean
b) exponential smoothing
c) Basic
d) Nave
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5. Suppose that you are using the nave forecasting method with trend to forecast sales. If
sales have been declining by 20% per week, and this weeks sales amounted to $200, what
would your forecast be for next week?
a) $200
b) $ 40
c) $240
d) $160
6. Suppose that you are using the simple mean to make a forecast. This periods forecast was
equal to 100 units, and it was based on 6 periods of demand. This periods actual demand
was 86 units. What is your forecast for next period?
a) 98
b) 100
c) 93
d) 86
7. Suppose that you are using the four-period simple moving average method to forecast
sales, and sales have been decreasing by 10% every period. How will your forecasts
perform?
a) [-1, 1]
b) [1, 100]
c) [0, -1]
d) [0, 1]
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9. In linear regression, what are we trying to forecast?
a) Beta parameter
b) Dependent variable
c) Independent variable
11. What value of the correlation coefficient implies that there is a perfect positive linear
relationship between the two variables of a linear regression model?
a) 100
b) 0
c) 0.5
d) 1
12. In a linear regression analysis, coefficient of determination value 0.984 implies what?
a) 98.4% of the variability of the independent variable is explained by the dependent variable
b) 98.4% of the variability of the dependent variable is explained by the independent variable
c) 1.6% of the variability of the independent variable is explained by the dependent variable
d) 1.6% of the variability of the dependent variable is explained by the independent variable
13. What value of the correlation coefficient implies that there is no relationship between the
two variables of a linear regression model?
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a) 1
b) 0
c) 0.5
d) 1
14. What is the statistic that measures the direction and strength of the linear relationship
between two variables?
a) Coefficient of determination
b) Coefficient of variation
c) Variance
d) Correlation coefficient
15. Which of the following values of the correlation coefficient implies that the value of the
dependent variable decreases as the value of the independent variable increases?
a) -0.2
b) 0
c) 0.2
d) 1
16. The following correlation coefficient values come from five different linear regression
models. Which model fits the data the best?
a) 0.99
b) 0.5
c) -1
d) 0
17. Suppose that Sallys company uses exponential smoothing to make forecasts. Further
suppose that last periods demand forecast was for 20,000 units, and last periods actual
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demand was 21,000 units. Sallys company uses a smoothing constant () equal to 40%.
What should be the forecast for this period?
a) 20,000
b) 21,000
c) 20,600
d) 20,400
18. Suppose that you are using the four-period simple moving average method to forecast
sales, and sales have been increasing by 20% every period. How will your forecasts
perform?
19. Suppose that you are using the four-period simple moving average method to forecast
sales, and sales have been increasing by 40% every period. How will your forecasts
perform?
c) Substitute goods
d) Essential goods
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21. The coefficient of determination for an independent variable in a linear regression model
is 0.81. The correlation coefficient is
a) 0.8175
b) 0.6561
c) 0.9
d) 0.6
22. Economics indicates that the world economy fluctuates over the long term. What type of
data pattern would this be?
a) cycles
b) linear
c) seasonal
d) level
23. Price elasticity is equal to 1 for a product, which of the following is true?
24. The variation in the actual sales of a product can be described using a single independent
variable if the
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25. A hospital wants to improve its existing layout. Which algorithm would you suggest
a) ALDEP
b) CRAFT
c) CORELAP
27. While using the ALDEP algorithm for layout design, the algorithm starts with the
randomly selected department to be positioned in the top left corner of the layout. The
adjacent department is selected based on
a) Closeness rating
b) Placement rating
28. Ship building and construction of dams are the typical examples of
b) Functional layout
c) Product layout
a) SIMO
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b) Flow process chart (Material)
a) Time study
b) Method study
d) Work sampling
31. The challenge in process layouts is to arrange resources to maximize _____ and minimize
____
a) movement, effectiveness
b) effectiveness, efficiency
d) efficiency, effectiveness
32. A company with a pure continuous processing system is most likely to use which layout
type?
a) inverted
b) hybrid
c) process
d) product
a) less automation
b) more automation
c) fewer employees
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d) more cycle time
a) inverted
b) hybrid
c) process
d) fixed position
35. A grocery store is most like which of the following layout types?
a) inverted
b) circular
c) process
d) fixed position
36. A company with a pure intermittent processing system is most likely to use which layout
type?
a) Product
b) Process
c) Cellular
d) Fixed position
a) product
b) process
c) cellular
d) hybrid
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38. A car wash is an example of which layout type?
a) product
b) process
c) cellular
d) fixed position
a) process
b) product
c) hybrid
d) cellular
b) automobile plant
c) hospital
d) car wash
a) Ford
b) Timex
c) Gateway
d) Toyota
2. What are the two primary tools used to identify closeness measures during the layout
design process?
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a) REL chart and from-to matrix
a) 7
b) 720
c) 28
d) 5040
4. How many pairs of departments you have to swap if the given layout has 5 departments
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
5. What is the term for the maximum amount of time each workstation has to complete its
assigned task?
a) output rate
b) task time
c) station time
d) cycle time
a) product cost
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c) similar processing requirements
d) operating characteristics
7. What technique eliminates unnecessary tasks and improves the process for completing
tasks?
a) method study
b) time study
c) work sampling
d) ergonomics
9. The steps involved in a time study include all except which of the following?
a) Time each element, record the times, and rate the workers performance.
d) Determine the probability distribution that best fits the observed times.
10. Typically the job chosen for the time study will be
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11. The formula for determining the number of observations needed depends upon all except
which of the following values?
12. How many standard deviations is required for a 98% confidence level?
a) 2
b) 2.05
c) 2.17
d) 2.33
13. What is the effect of an increase in the desired confidence level on the number of
observations necessary in a time study?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
14. When performing a time study, the analyst converts the observed time into the time an
"average" worker would require working at an acceptable pace by using which of the
following?
a) allowance factor
c) methods analysis
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15. Which of the following values for performance rating factor would be for an above-
average work pace?
a) 90%
b) 100%
c) 65%
d) 140%
16. In a time study, personal time, fatigue, and unavoidable delays (PFD) during the typical
work day are accounted for in what?
b) an allowance factor
17. If OT = the mean observed time, PRF = the performance rating factor, F = the frequency
of occurrence, and PFD = the percentage allowance based on time worked, what is the
formula to compute the standard time?
a) (OT)(PRF)(F)
b) (OT)(PRF)(F)(1 + PFD)
c) (OT)(PRF)(F) / (1 PFD)
d) (OT)(PRF)(F) / (1 + PFD)
18. If OT = the mean observed time, PRF = the performance rating factor, F = the frequency
of occurrence, and PFD = the percentage allowance adjustment based on job time, what is the
formula to compute the standard time?
a) (OT)(PRF)(F)
b) (OT)(PRF)(F)(1 + PFD)
c) (OT)(PRF)(F) / (1 PFD)
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d) (OT)(PRF) / (F)
19. Which of the following would not be a basic element into which a job would be split
when using predetermined time data?
a) reach
b) sort
c) grasp
d) insert
20. Which of the following is a basic difference of work sampling compared to a time study?
a) normal time
b) standatrd time
d) allowances
a) positive
b) negative
c) exponential
d) cannot be estimated
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23. Cross price elasticity of demand for compliments
a) positive
b) negative
c) unity
d) zero
a) vanity bags
b) budget cars
c) movie ticket
d) petrol
b) cheap goods
d) rare items
b) cheap goods
d) substitutes
a) substitte goods
b) complement goods
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c) essential goods
d) luxary goods
a) prime cost
b) factory cost
c) cost of production
d) total cost
b) method study
c) safety
d) time study
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32. JIT aims at
a) maximum inventory
33. KANBAN is a
a) push system
b) pull system
a) voids
b) exceptional elements
c) unproductive activity
d) non-critical activity
35. The number of zeros inside the machine-part cells are called as
a) voids
b) exceptional elements
d) critical elements
36.
In the CORELAP algorithm for layout design, the department with maximum TCR is placed
in the
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a) top left corener
c) center
c) deciding the position of the third department and the subsequent departments
a) voids
b) exceptional elements
39. Total number of 1s in the machine-part incidence matrix is 40. The number of exceptional
elements and voids are 5 and 4 respectively. The grouping efficacy is
a) 0.6534
b) 0.7954
c) 0.7132
d) 0.8345
40. Total number of 1s in the machine-part incidence matrix is 100. The number of
exceptional elements and voids are 15 and 13 respectively. The grouping efficacy is
a) 0.7522
b) 0.6522
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c) 0.5522
d) 0.8522
41. The Mean observed time of an activity is 90 seconds. If the rating factor is 110%, what is
the normal time?
a) 109 seconds
b) 99 seconds
c) 103 seconds
d) 89 seconds
42. The Mean observed time of an activity is 90 seconds. If the rating factor is 110%, 13%
PFD allowance is given. What is the Standard time based on the time worked?
a) 112.79
b) 111.79
c) 114.79
d) 113.79
43. The standard deviation and the mean of a time study experiment based on 10 observations
are 0.010 and 0.12 respectively. How many observations are required to deicde the standard
time to be within 5% of the true mean with 95% confidence (z = 1.96).
a) 15
b) 10
c) 23
d) 11
44. For all the goods except the veblen and giffin goods, the price elacticity of demand is
a) negative
b) positive
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c) infinity
d) between 2 and 3
c) flow of material
d) flow of operator
Kinematics of Machinery
2. The legnths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with revolute pairs only are p, q, r and s units.
Given that p < q < r < s. Which of these links should be the fixed one, for obtaining a
"double crank" mechanism?
a) links of length p
b) links of length q
c) links of length r
d) links of length s
3. The number of degrees of reedom of a planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute
joint is
a) 1
b) 2
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c) 3
d) 4
4. In a four- bar linkage, S denotes the shortest link length, L is the longest link length, P and
Q are the lengths of other two links. At least one of the three moving links will rotate by 360
degree if
b) S + L > to P + Q
d) S + P > to L + Q
b) 0
c) 1
6. For a four bar linkage in toggle position, the value of mechanical advantage is?
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) infinite
a) differential gear
b) helical gear
c) spur gear
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d) spur gear
d) roller follower
a) kinematic chain
b) pair
c) structure
d) redundant chain
Kinematics of Machinery
1. When particle moves with a uifrom velocity along a circular path, then the particle has
d) coriolis only
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2. The connection between the piston and cylinder in reciprocating corresponding to
d) single link
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2,3 and 4
d) 1,2,3 and 4
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
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d) 1,2 and 4
5. A linkage is shown below in the figure in which ABC and DEF are ternary links where as
AF, BE and CD are binary links.
The degree of freedom of the linkage when link ABC is fixed are
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
experience
a) No acceleration
b) slider-crank mechanism
d) pantograph
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8. In a mechanism, the fixed instataneous centres are those centres which
d) fixed
10. The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with respect to another point on the
same link is
d) at 30 degree
a) turning pair
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b) rolling pair
c) sliding pair
d) spherical pair
a) turning pair
b) rolling pair
c) screw pair
14. when the element of the pair are kept in contact by the action of external forces, the pairs
are said to be
a) lower pair
b) higher pair
15. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relative motion between
link is completly constrained, is called as
a) structure
b) mechanism
c) kinematic chain
d) inversion
16. The relation between number of pairs (p) forming a kinematic chain and number of links
(l) is
a) l = 2p - 2
b) l = 2p - 3
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c) l = 2p - 4
d) l = 2p - 5
a) beam engine
b) watt indicator
c) elliptical trammel
a) coupling of a locomotive
b) pendulum pump
c) elliptical trammel
20. When relative motion between two element is completely or successfully constrained, the
these two elements from a
a) mechanism
b) machine
c) kinematic pair
d) kinematic chain
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21. Ball bearing and roller bearing form a
a) turning pair
b) rolling pair
c) sliding pair
d) spherical pair
24. The motion of a shaft with collars at each endin a circular hole is an example of
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b) completely constrained motion
d) force closed
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
29. any point on a link connecting double slider chain will trace a
a) straight line
b) circle
c) ellipse
d) parabola
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30. a mechanism is assemblage of
a) two links
b) three linnks
d) five link
31. a sliding crank chain consists of following number of turning and sliding pairs
a) 1, 3
b) 2,2
c) 3,1
d) 4,1
32. The tendency of body to resist change from rest or motion is known as
a) resisting torque
b) friction
c) inertia
d) resisting force
a) Machine
b) structure
c) mechansim
d) pair
a) rotating
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b) ocsillating
c) reciprocating
b) surface contact
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) velocity
b) displacement
d) stroke
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39. For a SHM motion of the follower, a cosine curve represents
a) displacement
b) velocity
c) acceleration
d) jerk
40. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a reciprocating engine mechanism are
a) 4,6
b) 4,5
c) 5,4
d) 6,4
41. According to kennndys theorem, if three bodies have plane motion, their instantaneous
centers lie on
a) triangle
b) a point
c) two lines
d) a straight line
d) velocity
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a) velocity of various parts
44. A circle passing through the pitch point with its center at the center of cam axis is known
as
a) pitch circle
b) base circle
c) prime circle
d) cam circle
45. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the
axis of the shaft. This arrangement is called
a) Spur gearing
b) helical gearing
c) Bevel Gear
d) Spiral gear
a) Addendum circle
b) Dedendum
c) pitch circle
d) clearance circle
47. The radial distance of tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth is called
a) Dedendum
b) addendum
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c) clearance
d) working depth
a) 1
b) 1/
c)
d) 2
c) all of above
a) 0
b) 1
c) more than 1
d) 1.5
a) base circle
b) pitch circle
c) prime circle
d) outer circle
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52. The maximum value of pressure angle in case of cam is kept as
a) 10 degree
b) 14 degree
c) 20 degree
d) 30 degree
53. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller base circle will give
d) something else
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
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c) Hand pump
d) Reciprocating engine
57. The Kutzbach criterion for determining the number of degrees of freedom (n) is (where l
= number of links, j = number of joints and h = number of higher pairs)
a) n = 3(l-1)-2j-h
b) n = 2(l-1)-2j-h
c) n = 3(l-1)-3j-h
d) n = 2(l-1)-3j-h
58. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having 50 teeth. The two gears
are connected by an arm. The number of turns made by the smaller gear for one revolution of
arm about the centre of bigger gear is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
59. Which gear is used for connecting two coplanar and intersecting shafts?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) worm gear
a) D/T
b) T/D
c) 2D/T
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d) 2T/D
62. The type of gears used to connect two non parallel and non intersecting shafts is
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Spiral gear
63. In which of the following type of gear train the first gear and the last gear are co-axial.
d) epicyclic
64. Which gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in a small space?
65. Which type of gear train is used in clock mechanism to join hour hand and minute hand?
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a) Simple gear train
c) Spiral gears
67. Which one of the following is an exact straight line mechanism using lower pairs?
a) Watts mechanism
b) Grasshopper mechanism
c) Roberts mechanism
d) Paucelliers mechanism
2.Toggle mechanism
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
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d) 1, 3 and 4
a) journal bearing
70. which of the gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in small space?
71. The component of acceleration,parallel to the veloity of the particle, at the given instant is
called
a) radial component
b) tangential componnent
c) coriolis component
d) resultant
72. The radial distance of a tooth from pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is called
a) dedundum
b) addendum
c) clearance
d) working depth
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73. The module is reciprocal of
a) diametral pitch
b) circular pitch
c) pitch diameter
d) pressure angle
b) equal speed
d) minimum backlash
c) common normal to the pitch surface cuts the line of centres at a fixed point
c) the rack has straight line profile and hence can be cut accurately
d) smoother operation
77. Interfernece can be avoided in involute gears with 20 degree pressure angle by
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c) using more than 20 teeth
78. In simple gear train, if the number of idle gears is odd, then the motion of driven gear will
80. In a gear train, when the axes of the shafts, over which the gears are mounted, move
relative to a fixed axis is called
b) epicyclic
d) compound gear
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82. A differential gear in automobile is used to
d) help in turning
83. The angle between the direction of the follower motion and a normal to the pitch curve is
called
a) pitch angle
b) prime angle
c) base angle
d) pressure angle
d) roller follwer
d) roller follwer
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a) in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
b) that ocillates
c) in which the follower translates along an axis passing throgh the cam centre of rotation
d) translates
b) accelerate
c) avoid jerk
89. For a low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should move with
a) uniform velocity
d) cycloidal motion
90. For high speed engines, the cam and follwer should move with
a) uniform velocity
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d) cycloidal motion
91. which of the following displacement diagrams should be chosen for better dynamic
perforamance of cam follower motion
b) parabolic motion
c) cycloidal motion
d) tangent
92. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relaitve motion between
the linkage is compltly constrained is called as
a) structure
b) mechanism
c) kinematic chain
d) inversion
93. The mechanism forms a structure, when the number of degree of freedom is equal to
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) -1
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95. The total number of instantaneous centers for a mechanism consiting of n links are
a) n/2
b) n
c) (n-1)/2
d) [n(n-1)]/2
96. The instantaneous centers which vary with the configuration of the mechanism are called
97. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having parallel teeth to the
axis of the shaft. the arrangement is called
a) spur gearing
b) helical gearing
c) bevel gearing
d) spiral gearing
98. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action gives the same motion as the actual gear
is called
a) addendum circle
b) dedundum circle
c) pitch circle
d) clearance circle
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b) module = pcd/No of teeth
c) >1
d) <1
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1. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion which will mesh with any gear without
interference for 20 full depth involute teeth will be
a) 12
b) 14
c) 18
d) 24
a) 45 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 135 degree
d) 180 degree
a) x AB
b) (AB)2
c) (AB)2
d) (AB)2
4. The mechanism in which two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs, is called a
b) crank slider
c) four bar
d) beam engine
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5. Which of the following is an inversion of a double slider crank chain?
a) Oldham's coupling
b) beam engine
c) engine mechanism
d) elliptical trammel
c) lead screw
a) structure
b) machine
c) inversion
d) compound mecahnism
a) crank mechanism
b) slider mechanism
d) circular mechanism
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a) slider crank mechanism
10. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies move relatively to each other, their
instantaneous centres will lie on a
a) straight line
b) parabolic curve
c) triangle
d) triangle
11. The relation l = (j + 2) apply only to kinematic chains in which lower pairs are used. This
may be used to kinematic chains in which higher pairs are used, but each higher pair may be
taken as equivalent to
12. The relation between number of links (l) and number of joints (j) in a kinematic chain is
a) l = (j + 2)
b) l = 2/3 (j + 2)
c) l = (j + 2)
d) l = j + 4
a) turning pairs
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b) sliding pairs
c) spherical pairs
d) self-closed pairs
14. The velocity of a body moving with simple harmonic motion is __________ at the mean
position
a) zero
b) unity
c) minimum
d) maximim
a) directly proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
parallel to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
b) directly proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
perpendicular to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
c) inversely proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
parallel to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
d) inversely proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
perpendicular to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
16. The mechanism consisting of three turning pairs and one sliding pair, is called a
d) all above
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17. When the nature of contact between the elements of a pair is such that one element can
turn about the other by screw threads, the pair is known as a
a) screw pair
b) spherical pair
c) turning pair
d) sliding pair
18. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to the difference between a machine
and a structure?
a) The parts of a machine move relative to one another, whereas the members of a structure
do not move relative to one another
b) The links of a machine may transmit both power and motion, whereas the members of a
structure transmit forces only
c) A machine transforms the available energy into some useful work, whereas in a structure
no energy is transformed into useful work
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d) any point on the prime circle
21. Which of the following mechanism is an approximate straight line motion mechanism?
a) Watt's mechanism
b) Watt's mechanism
c) Robert's mechanism
d) all of above
22. The maximum velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
a)
b) r
c) 2r
d) /r
a) the tip of a tooth of a mating gear digs into the portion between base and root circles
24. The two links OA and OB are connected by a pin joint at O. If the link OA turns with
angular velocity 1 rad/s in the clockwise direction and the link OB turns with angular
velocity 2 rad/s in the anti-clockwise direction, then the rubbing velocity at the pin joint O
is (where r = Radius of the pin at O)
a) 1.2.r
b) ( 1 - 2)r
c) ( 1 + 2)r
d) ( 1 - 2)2r
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25. The size of cam depends upon
a) base circle
b) base circle
c) prime circle
d) pitch curve
26. The acceleration of a flat-faced follower when it has contact with the flank of a circular
arc cam, is given by
a) 2R cos
b) 2(R - r1)cos
c) 2(R - r1)sin
d) 2r1 sin
27. The sense of coriolis component 2 v is same as that of the relative velocity vector v
rotated at
d) 180 in the direction opposite to the rotation of the link containing the path
28. A point B on a rigid link AB moves with respect to A with angular velocity rad/s. The
total acceleration of B with respect to A will be equal to
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29. The Ackerman steering gear mechanism is preferred to the Davis steering gear
mechanism, because
a) whole of the mechanism in the Ackerman steering gear is on the back of the front wheels
30. In a gear having involute teeth, the normal to the involute is a tangent to the
a) pitch circle
b) base circle
c) addendum circle
d) dedendum circle
31. The component of the acceleration, parallel to the velocity of the particle, at the given
instant is called
a) radial component
b) tangential component
c) coriolis component
d) resultant
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b) flat faced follower
d) roller follower
34. The following are the data for two crossed helical gears used for speed reduction
Gear I : Pitch circle diameter in the plane of rotation 80 mm and helix angle 300
GEAR II : Pitch circle diameter in the plane of rotation 120 mm and helix angle 22.50
a) 1200
b) 900
c) 875
d) 720
35. In a circular arc cam with roller follower, the acceleration in any position of the lift will
depend only upon
a) total lift, total angle of lift, minimum radius of cam and cam speed
b) radius of circular arc, cam speed, location of centre of circular arc and roller diameter
36. When the connection between the two elements is such that only required kind of relative
motion occurs, it is known as
a) force closed
b) self-closed pair.
c) open
d) both a and b
37. The Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is formed in a slider crank chain when
the
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a) coupler link is fixed
a) sliding pair
b) rolling pair
c) lower pair
d) higher pair
d) differential gear
40. The working depth of a gear is the radial distance from the
384
Machining Processes and Metrology
1. Built-up edge formation decreases under the conditions listed below EXCEPT
2. During turning of mild steel work material, the maximum temperature is observed at
d) machined sub-surface
3. Which of the following DO NOT influence the material removal rate in Electrical
Discharge Machining process
(i) Hardness of the work piece material (ii) Melting temperature of the work piece material
(iii) Hardness of tool material (iv) Discharge current and frequency
c) helix angle
d) point angle
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5. Which one of the following statements related to grinding process is INCORRECT
a) Grinding wheels made up of finer abrasive grains produce better surface finish
d) cutting speed in grinding process is much lower than that in face milling
6. Two cuttng tools are been compared for a machining operation. The tool life equations are
(i) Carbide tool: VT^1.6 = 3000 (ii) HSS tool: VT^0.6 = 200. In these equations, V is the
cutting speed in m/min and T is the tool life in min. The carbide tool will provide higher tool
life if the cutting speed in m/min exceeds
a) 15.0
b) 39.4
c) 49.3
d) 60.0
7. In water jet machining, the water jet is issued through a 0.3mm diameter orifice at a
pressure of 400 MPa. THe density of water is 1000 kg/cubic meter. The coefficient of
discharge is 1.0. Neglecting all loses during water jet formation through the orifice, the
power of the water in kW is _________
a) 25.3
b) 50.6
c) 75.9
d) 101.2
8. In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100mm diameter with a feed of 0.25mm/rev, depth of cut
of 4mm and cutting velocity of 90 m/min, it is observed that the main (tangential) cutting
force is perpendicular to the friction force acting at the chip-tool interface. If the main
(tangential) cutting force is 1500 N, the orthogonal rake angle of the cutting tool is
___________
a) ZERO Degrees
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b) 3.58 Degrees
c) 5.0 Degrees
d) 7.16 Degrees
9. In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100mm diameter with a feed of 0.25mm/rev, depth of cut
of 4mm and cutting velocity of 90 m/min, it is observed that the main (tangential) cutting
force is perpendicular to the friction force acting at the chip-tool interface. If the main
(tangential) cutting force is 1500 N, the normal force acting at the chip-tool interface is
________
a) 1000 N
b) 1500 N
c) 2000 N
d) 2500 N
10. A disc of 200mm outer and 80mm inner diameter is faced at a feed of 0.1 mm/rev with a
depth of cut of 1mm. The facing operation is undertaken at a constant cutting speed of
90m/min in a CNC lathe. The main (tangential) cutting force is 200 N. Neglecting the
contribution of feed force towards cutting power, the specific cutting energy is _________
a) 0.2 Joules/cubic mm
b) 2.0 Joules/cubic mm
c) 200 Joules/cubic mm
d) 2000 Joules/cubic mm
11. A disc of 200mm outer and 80mm inner diameter is faced at a feed of 0.1 mm/rev with a
depth of cut of 1mm. The facing operation is undertaken at a constant cutting speed of
90m/min in a CNC lathe. The main (tangential) cutting force is 200 N. Assuming approach
and over-travel of the cutting tool to be Zero, the machining time is __________
a) 2.93 minutes
b) 5.86 minutes
c) 6.66 minutes
d) 13.33 minutes
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Machining Processes and Metrology
a) cast iron
c) mild steel
a) point angle
a) discontinuous chips
b) continuous chips
d) none of these
4. When the cutting edge of the tool is dull, then during machining
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5. The tool made of cemented carbide wear out faster at
a) fast speeds
b) slow speeds
c) medium speeds
a) ceramic
b) cast iron
c) cemented carbide
d) all of these
a) between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from the
point perpendicular to the base
d) between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right angles to
the centre line of the point of the tool
a) spindle
b) column
c) knee
d) arbor
9. Drilling is an example of
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a) orthogonal cutting
b) uniform cutting
c) oblique cutting
d) simple cutting
b) face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only
c) nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
a) 40 to 60
b) 20 to 40
c) 60 to 80
d) none of these
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d) none of these
d) capastan lathe
15. The method of grinding used to produce a straight or tapered surface on a workpiece, is
a) surface grinding
c) form grinding
d) none of these
a) minimum at the beginning of the cut and maximum at the end of the cut
b) maximum at the beginning of the cut and minimum at the end of the cut
d) none of these
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a) bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece
d) machining the ends of a workpiece to produce a flat surface square with the axis
19. The lathe spindles are usually made hollow and provided with
a) internal taper
c) external taper
d) no taper
20. Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference of lathe cutting tools?
a) The base is that surface of the shank which bears against the support and takes tangent
pressure of the cut
b) The flank of the tool is the surface or surfaces below and adjacent to the cutting edges
c) The nose is the corner, arc or chamfer joining the side cutting and the end cutting edges
d) The heel is that part of the tool which is shaped to produce the cutting edges and face
a) work hardening
b) toughness
c) elasticity
d) ductility
a) multi-start square
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c) single start square
d) producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool
24. Which of the following parameters influence the axial feed rate in centreless grinding?
d) none of these
26. High speed steel drills can be operated at about __________ the speed of high carbon
steel drills.
a) four times
b) one-fourth
c) one-half
d) double
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27. The rear teeth of a broach
d) remove no metal
a) stainless steel
b) tungsten carbide
c) brass or copper
d) diamond
d) occasionally
c) maintaining an electrolyte between the work and tool in a very small gap between the two
d) erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges between the tool and work
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b) increasing the length of the arm
32. In metal machining, the work-tool contact zone is a zone where heat is generated due to
b) burnishing friction
b) infeed grinding
c) endfeed grinding
34. The angle made by the face of the tool and the plane parallel to the base of cutting tool is
called
a) cutting angle
b) rake angle
c) clearance angle
d) lip angle
35. Which of the following statement is correct for orthogonal cutting system?
a) The cutting edge clears the width of the workpiece on either ends.
b) The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel.
c) The chip flows over the tool face and the direction of the chip flow velocity is normal to
the cutting edge.
395
d) all of the above
36. The abrasive recommended for grinding materials of high tensile strength is
a) silicon carbide
b) aluminium oxide
c) sand stone
d) diamond
d) ceramic tools
38. The factor responsible for the formation of continuous chips with built up edge is
40. The cutting speed is minimum while machining __________ with a high speed steel tool.
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a) cast iron
b) brass
c) mild steel
d) aluminium
a) 5 to 15 m/min
b) 60 to 90 m/min
c) 15 to 60 m/min
d) 90 to 120 m/min
a) up milling
b) down milling
c) forming
d) broaching
43. An important geometrical quantity in the cutting of metals which can be used as a
criterion for machinability of metals is
a) feed rate
b) shear angle
c) cutting speed
d) tool geometry
44. In metal cutting, use of low feeds and high cutting speeds is desired when the objective is
a) surface finish
b) dry machining
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c) high metal removal rate
a) cutting angle
b) lip angle
c) rake angle
d) clearance angle
47. The swing diameter over the bed is __________ the height of the centre measured from
the bed of the lathe
a) twice
b) thrice
c) equal to
48. Which of the following operations can be performed with milling cutters?
d) all of these
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49. In grinding irregular, curved, tapered, convex and concave surfaces, the grinder used is
b) cylindrical grinder
c) internal grinder
d) surface grinder
a) end milling
b) climb milling
c) conventional milling
d) face milling
d) letter of alphabet
a) simple indexing
b) differential indexing
c) direct indexing
d) compound indexing
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b) multi-point cutting tool
55. The type of reamer used for reaming operation in a blind hole, is
a) one-half
b) equal to
c) one-fourth
d) double
57. In a single point tool, the angle between the surface of the flank immediately below the
point and a line drawn from the point perpendicular to the base, is known as
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d) back rake angle
58. A set of eight form relieved milling cutters for each module is provided to enable cutting
of gears of different
a) width of gears
b) number of teeth
c) types of gears
d) materials
b) facilitate interchangeability
d) all of these
60. The trade name of a non-ferrous cast alloy composed of cobalt, chromium and tungsten is
called
a) diamond
b) ceramic
c) cemented carbide
d) stellite
a) chip velocity
b) shear velocity
c) cutting velocity
d) mean velocity
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62. The grinding operaion is a
a) forming operation
b) shaping operation
d) dressing operation
a) flat type
b) dovetail type
c) V-type
a) Can't predict
b) False
c) Always True
a) True
b) Always False
d) can't predict
66. Which one of the following methods produces gear by generating process
a) Hobbing
b) Casting
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c) Punching
d) Milling
e) Broaching
a) Radius
b) Screw pitch
c) Surface roughness
d) Thickness of clearance
68. In surface roughness measurements, the term "secondary texture" represents ______
a) roughness
b) Flaw
c) Lay direction
d) Waviness
69. Tomlinson's surface meter and Taylor Hobson Talysurf are _______ instruments
a) wave length
b) secondary
c) Line
d) end
403
71. Dial gauge is a ________
d) None of these
72. Among the various terminologies related to surface roughness, 'Ra' represents _______
a) Roughness average
d) sampling length
73. The least measurement that can be detected by a measuring instrument is _______
a) accuracy
b) Sensitivity
c) calibration
d) Precision
74. The closeness of the measured value to the actual value is ________
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Repeatability
d) Sensitivity
a) Measuring time
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c) surface roughness
d) sourface waviness
a) Sine bar
b) Comparators
c) Slip gauges
d) Surface table
77. Primary standards are kept at all leading industries across the globe
a) True
b) False
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Repeatability
d) Calibration
a) pitch circle
b) Addendum circle
c) Dedendum circle
a) Top land
b) Face
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c) Bottom land
d) clearance
a) Addendum
b) dedundum
c) Pitch
d) Clearance
b) Diamond tool
d) Drill bit
83. If the milling cutter axis is parallel to the surface generated, it comes under the category
of _________
a) face milling
b) peripheral milling
c) end milling
d) straddle miling
84. _____________milling refers to the use of two or more milling cutters mounted on the
same arbor
a) Profile milling
b) gang milling
c) End milling
d) form milling
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85. The measured forces/force in Merchant Circle diagram are/is _______
a) Friction force
d) Normal force
86. In grinding wheel designation, the structure of the grinding wheel is represented by
________
a) an alphabet
b) a number
c) a special character
a) Form cutters
b) Index plates
a) taper turning
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b) Step turning
d) Thread cutting
90. In lathe turning parameters, another name for depth of cut is __________
a) longtitudinal feed
b) facing
c) cross feed
d) speed
91. In a lathe, the best possible way to hold irregular work piece is by using a ___________
d) Magnetic chuck
93. While a drill bit drills a hole, the chips are removed through _________
b) the flutes
c) the shank
d) land
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94. A boring tool __________ a hole
a) generates
b) super finishes
c) enlarges
95. Choose the most appropriate option to match the terminology "rise per teeth".
a) Broach tool
d) Milling cutter
a) an analytical approach find the friction force, Normal friction force, Shear force and
Normal shear force.
d) a graphical approach to find the friction force, Normal friction force, Shear force and
Normal shear force.
409
a) feed movement to the tool
a) Herringbone gears
d) Conical gears
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a) Conical
b) Spur
c) Bevel
d) helical
a) copper material
b) Electrolyte
c) brass material
d) water bath
4. The energy domain in water jet machining ang abrasive jet machining is different
a) True
b) False
a) gear pump
b) gears
c) Nozzle
d) oxygen cylinder
a) speed
b) depth of cut
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d) feed
7. In conventional machining process, the tool is ______ than the work piece.
a) softer
b) Smaller
c) Longer
d) Harder
8. Gear honing is a collective name for both gear finishing and gear forming operations.
a) False
b) Cannot judge
d) Always true
a) turning
b) grinding
c) lapping
d) drilling
11. In laser beam machining, the work piece comes as a part of the electrical circuit
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a) True
b) Partially true
c) partially false
d) always False
b) glazed surface
14. In a milling machine, the position of _________ determines the type of milling machine
a) work table
b) radial arm
c) column
d) Arbor
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d) Never
16. In shaper, the maximum pssible one side travel of the ram is temed as ____________
a) Stroke length
b) Skew length
c) Indexing length
b) infinite
c) 60mm
d) 60.55mm
19. Which of the following is added to the cutting fluids so that soapy film is produced
between the workpiece and tool and chip and tool face?
a) Sulphur
b) Chlorine
414
20. Usually no cutting oil is used in
a) Broaching
c) Thread rolling
d) Honing
a) Planing
b) Boring
c) Turning
d) Forging
23. Which one of the following is NOT a guideline for the designing of the machined parts?
b) Sharp corners and sharp points in the cutting tool should be avoided.
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c) Hand tool
a) Plastic deformation
c) Shearing
d) Elastic deformation
27. In the drilling process, the drill bit should be always _____________to the drilling
surface.
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
a) Boring
b) Reaming
c) Drilling
d) Perforatting
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29. Accuracy of the drilled holes depends on_____________
c) Drill bushing
30. In reamed holes, what is the recommended tolerance for the hole diameter over 50 mm?
a) 0.025
b) 0.05
c) 0.08
31. In milling operation, materials having higher hardness require the cutting speed and
feed
feed
32. Which type cutters are more prone to vibration, chatter, and deflection of tool and
machine components?
a) Small size
b) Large size
c) Both
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d) None of the answers
34. Which one milling process is an economical approach if product design permits
a) Plain milling
b) Face milling
c) Form milling
d) Spot facing
a) Ferrous
b) Nonferrous
a) Work piece
b) Tool
c) Cross slide
d) Arbor
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37. Inaccessible surfaces those cannot be machined with other types of equipment can be
produced by __________.
a) Turning
b) Broaching
c) Grinding
d) Shaping
b) The forged parts should be kept as close dimension as possible, allowing only minimum
stock for finishing
d) If similar broaching operation is to be carried out for a group of parts, then it is advisable
to design the parts in such a way that same broaching tool is used
a) Broaching is the cutting of a machinable material using single point cutting tool by moving
the tool linearly relative to the work in the direction of tool axis
b) Broaching is the cutting of a machinable material using multiple tooth cutting tools
by moving the tool linearly relative to the work in the direction of tool axis
c) Broaching is the cutting of a machinable material using multiple tooth cutting tools
by moving the tool perpendicularly relative to the work in the direction of tool axis
c) Cam forms
419
d) None of the answers
420
Materials Engineering & Technology
1. Which one of the following metals is commonly alloyed with iron to improve its corrosion
resistance?
a) Co
b) Cr
c) Ti
d) Nb
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
3. The material property which depends only on the basic crystal structure is
a) Fatigue strength
b) Work hardening
c) Fracture strength
d) Elastic constant
a) Edge dislocation
b) Stacking fault
c) Grain boundary
d) Screw dislocation
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5. The B.C.C. and H.C.P. metals undergo plastic deformation by:
a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Edge dislocation
a) Alpha iron
b) Beta iron
c) Gamma iron
d) Delta iron
7. Which one of the following cast irons consists of carbon in rosette form?
9. Cutting tool material 18-4-1 HSS has which one of the following compositions?
a) 18% W, 4% Cr, 1% V
b) 18% Cr, 4% W, 1% V
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c) 18% W, 4% Ni, 1% V
1. The number of atoms present in the unit cell of face centered cubic (FCC) structure is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
2. Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of packing density for the given
crystal structures of metals?
3. The number of atoms present on (100) plane in the unit cell of face centered cubic (FCC)
structure is:
423
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
4. Which one of the following factors is more relevant to represent complete solubility of two
metals in each other?
a) Chemical affinity
b) Valency factor
6. The reaction that yields two solid phases on cooling a single solid phase is called
a) eutectic
b) peritectoid
c) peritectic
d) eutectoid
a) Coarse Pearlite
b) Fine Pearlite
424
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
11. -iron has BCC structure. In a unit cell of -iron, the iron atoms occupy
425
12. Consider the following temperature ranges: (a) Room temperature (b) 0 to 910
degree C (c) 910 degree C to 1400 degree C (d) 1400 degree C to below melting point
In which of the above temperature ranges ferrite with body centered cubic (BCC) structure is
a) a, b, d
b) b, c, d
c) a, c
d) b, c
d) height of rebound
14. Consider the following statements about FCC and HCP crystal structure: (a) Both have
same coordination number and atomic packing fraction, (b) Both represent closely packed
crystal structures, (c) Both structures are generated by stacking of close packed plants on top
of one another, but only the stacking sequence is different. Which of the statements given
above are correct?
a) a, b
b) b, c
c) a, b, c
d) a, c
15. Chemicals attack atoms within grain boundaries preferentially because they have
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c) higher number of atoms than in the grains
16. What is the movement of block of atoms along certain crystallographic planes and
directions, termed as?
a) Glide
b) Twinning
c) Slip
d) Jog
17. The B.C.C. and H.C.P. metals undergo plastic deformation by:
a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Edge dislocation
18. Consider the following statements about medium carbon steel: (a) It can be quench-
hardened but not case-hardened, (b) It cannot be quench-hardened but case-hardening can be
done,(c) It exhibits distinct yield point under tension test. Which of the following statements
given above are correct?
a) a & b
b) b & c
c) a & c
d) a, b & c
19. Which of the following factors influence in a plain carbon steel? (a) Percentage carbon,
(b) Quenching media, (c) Work size.
a) a & b
427
b) a & c
c) b & c
d) a, b & c
20. According to Gibbs' phase rule, the number of degrees of freedom of an eutectic point in
a binary system is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
a) 600C
b) 723C
c) 1150C
d) 1493C
a) Strength
b) Hardness
c) Ductility
428
d) Brittleness
25. Which one of the following sets of constituents is expected in equilibrium cooling of a
hypereutectoid steel from austenitic state?
26. Which one of the following sets of constituents is expected in equilibrium cooling of a
hypoeutectoid steel from austenitic state?
a) alpha iron
b) beta iron
c) gamma iron
d) delta iron
429
28. Nodular grey cast iron is obtained from the grey cast iron by adding a small amount of
a) Manganese
b) Phosphorus
c) Magnesium
d) Chromium
29. An iron-carbon binary alloy has 0.5% C by weight. What is this alloy called?
a) Eutectoid alloy
b) Eutectic alloy
c) Hypo-eutectoid alloy
d) Hypereutectoid alloy
c) 3 to 4 percent
d) 8 to 10 percent
a) Cementite
b) Pearlite
430
c) Ferrite
d) Austenite
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) unpredictable
431
37. Tempering of quenched martensitic steel is necessary to improve the
38. On completion of heat treatment, the resulting structure will have retained Austenite if
39. The complete phase recrystallization and fine grain structure is obtained in casting,
forging and rolled parts by:
a) Process annealing
b) Normalizing
c) Spheroidizing
d) Austenising
40. Heating the hypo eutectoid steels to 30 degC above the upper critical temperature line,
soaking at that temperature and then cooling slowly to room temperature to form a coarse
pearlite and ferrite structure, is known as
a) Full Annealing
b) Process Annealing
c) Spherodizing
d) Normalizing
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a) Normalizing
b) Malleabilising
c) Spheroidizing
d) Carbonizing
42. During heat treatment of steel, the hardness of various structures in increasing order is
43. In case carburising Carbon is introduced to form a high carbon layer at the surface. The
carbon is introduce in the form of
a) graphite flakes
b) pearlite
c) cementite
d) free carbon
a) carburising process
c) core-hardening process
45. Carburized machine components have high endurance limit because carburization
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c) introduces a compressive layer on the surface
47. Which one of the following is the correct definition of ultimate tensile strength, as
derived from the results of a tensile test on a metal specimen:
a) the stress encountered when the stress strain curve transforms from elastic to plastic
behavior
49. With melting points given in brackets, tick the material which will creep significantly at
180 degC
a) Pb (327 degC)
b) Fe (1538 degC)
434
c) Cu (1084 degC)
d) W (3410 degC)
50. The treatment in which the brittleness of martensite is reduced is called which one of the
following
a) annealing
b) austenitizing
c) normalizing
d) tempering
51. Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following:
a) 01XX
b) 10XX
c) 11XX
d) 12XX
52. Glass products are based primarily on which one of the following minerals:
a) alumina
b) corundum
c) kaolinite
d) silica
53. What are the materials which show direction dependent properties, called?
a) Homogeneous materials
b) Viscoelastic materials
c) Isotropic materials
d) Anisotropic materials
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54. Quartz is a
a) ferroelectric material
b) ferromagnetic material
c) piezoelectric material
d) diamagnetic material
a) thermosets alone
b) thermoplastics alone
57. Which one among the following is the most effective strengthening mechanism of non-
ferrous metal?
b) Strain hardening
d) Precipitation hardening
58. The Jominy end-quench test is designed to indicate which one of the following:
436
a) cooling rate
b) ductility
c) hardenability
d) hardness
59. The correct order of coordination number in BCC, FCC and HCP unit cells is
a) 12, 8, 6
b) 8, 12, 12
c) 6, 8, 12
d) 12, 8, 24
60. Magnesium crystallizes in HCP structure. If the lattice constant is 0.32 nm, the nearest
neighbour distance in magnesium is
a) 0.64 nm
b) 0.32 nm
c) 0.16nm
d) 0.8 nm
61. In Hume Rothery rules for extensive solid solubility, the atomic diameter of the solute
and the solvent atoms should not differ by more than
a) 15 %
b) 50 %
c) 2 %
d) 0 %
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c) Upper yield stress
a) Wear
b) Fracture
c) Scratch
d) Indentation
a) Knoop
b) Brinel
c) Vicker
d) Rockwell
66. The reaction that on heating one solid phase yields another solid phase together with one
liquid phase is termed
a) peritectic
b) peritectoid
c) eutectic
d) eutectoid
438
67. Burgers vector of an edge dislocation is
a) carbon atom occupy the vacancy line just below the dislocation and anchor dislocation by
reducing
its energy.
b) slip is promoted by carbon atoms to take place in several parallel plans simultaneously
69. The metals which do not form adherent oxide film on surface are
70. The highest percentage of chromium that can be added to steel is usually
a) 25
b) 18
c) 15
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71. Whiskers are
a) it is a perfect crystal.
73. The ASTM grain size number of a material which has 64 grains per sq. in. at a
magnification 50 X is about
a) 14
b) 7
c) 5
d) 6
d) the cracks are sharp and propagate as soon as Griffith condition is met
75. Liberty ships in world war II failed by brittle fracture due to:
440
b) going below the ductile-brittle transition temperature
c) glass superstructure
d) defective reveting
a) a metal only
b) a polymer only
c) a ceramic only
a) Matrix
b) Fiber
c) Both
d) Cant define
a) Twin boundary
b) Dislocation
c) Surface
d) Grain boundary
441
80. Thermodynamically stable defects
a) Point defects
b) Line defects
c) Surface defects
d) Volume defects
d) All
a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Both
d) None
83. Minimum number of slip systems that must be operative during plastic deformation
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
84. If ASTM grain size number is 1, approximate grain diameter (in mm)
a) 0.1
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b) 0.2
c) 0.25
d) 10
85. Usually materials with following crystal structure fail in ductile mode
a) FCC
b) BCC
c) HCP
d) None
a) No warning sign
d) All
c) low elongation
d) low hardness
a) Properties of constituents
b) Interface strength
443
89. Kevlar is commercial name for
a) Glass fibers
b) Carbon fibers
c) Aramid fibers
d) Cermets
90. Which of the following material can elongate the most in room temperature?
a) Metal
b) Polymer
c) Ceramic
d) Composite
91. Which one of the following is not the purpose of full annealing
a) refines grains
b) induces softness
a) (200)
b) (111)
c) (110)
d) (100)
93. Find out the degree of freedom when BCC and FCC iron coexist in equilibrium.
a) 0
444
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
b) It can be forged
96. Which one of the following processes or processing steps is not applicable in
glassworking:
a) annealing
b) pressing
c) quenching
d) sintering
97. Which one of the following processes for the new ceramic materials accomplishes
shaping and sintering simultaneously:
a) doctor-blade process
b) freeze drying
c) hot pressing
445
d) injection molding
98. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be roughly predicted from following
hardness test
a) Brinell
b) Rockwell
c) Vicker
a) Nickel
b) Chromium
c) Vanadium
d) Tungsten
a) 11 %
b) 18 %
c) 6 %
d) 3 %
a) covalent bond
c) high stiffness
d) high hardness
446
2. What class of material might be useful at temperatures 1100C?
a) pure metals
b) polymer-polymer composites
c) ceramic-cermic composites
b) Cu-Zn alloy
c) Fe-Ni alloy
a) Pig iron
d) Wrought iron
a) Silicon Carbide
b) Aluminium Oxide
c) Titanium Nitride
a) Alumina
447
b) Porcelain
c) Whisker
d) Pyrosil
8. The iron-carbon diagram and the TTT curves are determined under
a) Cementite
b) Pearlite
c) Ferrite
d) Austenite
10. The correct composition of austenitic stainless steel used for domestic utensils is
448
11. Which of the following composites are 'dispersion-strengthened composites?
a) Particulate composites
b) Laminar composites
a) Wood
b) Concrete
c) Plywood
d) Sialon
a) resistance to scratching
d) resistance to indentation
449
b) Brittle
c) Ductile
16. One close packed direction in an FCC unit cell can be described as
a) [100]
b) [010]
c) [110]
d) [111]
a) metal
b) ceramic
c) thermoplastic polymer
d) thermoset polymer
18. Which one of the following crystal structures has the fewest slip directions and therefore
the metals with this structure are generally more difficult to deform at room temperature?
a) FCC
b) BCC
c) HCP
d) None
e) None
19. Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat?
a) aluminum
b) concrete
450
c) polyethylene
d) water
20. Of the following quenching media, which one produces the most rapid cooling rate?
a) air
b) brine
c) oil
d) pure water
21. In precipitation hardening, the hardening and strengthening of the metal occurs in which
one of the following steps (one answer only)?
a) aging
b) quenching
c) solution treatment
d) annealing
a) (hkl)
b) <uvw>
c) {hkl}
d) [uvw]
23. Which one of the following does NOT improve fatigue life of a steel component?
a) Nitriding
b) Decarburization
d) Shot-peening
451
24. Binary phase diagrams of two component systems are usually
a) ferrite
b) pearlite
c) cementite
d) bainite
a) Creep
b) fatigue
c) endurance
a) 0.55
452
b) 0.31
c) 0.69
d) 0
29. Heat treatment that requires heating a part below A1 temperature, i.e. between 550C and
650C is called as
a) hardening
b) normalizing
c) process annealing
d) full annealing
453
d) Strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases
33. Which one of the following factors is more relevant to represent complete solubility of
two metals in each other?
a) Chemical affinity
b) Valency factor
34. Assertion (A): Elements are classified into metals and non-metals on the basis of their
atomic weights.
Reason (R): The valence electron structures contribute to the primary bonding between the
atoms to form aggregates.
b) Many metal with HCP crystal structure commonly show brittle fracture
36. Assertion (A): Cast iron is generally hard, brittle and wear resistant.
Reason (R): Cast iron contains more than 2% carbon and as such the percentage cementite in
it is higher.
454
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
37. Assertion (A): The notch sensitivity of cast iron component is zero.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
a) Hardness
c) Corrosion resistance
d) Creep strength
39. Assertion (A): Machine tool beds are generally made of grey cast iron.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
40. Assertion (A): Austenitic stainless steel contains 18% chromium and 8% nickel. Since it
retains its austenitic structure at room temperature, it is called austenitic stainless steel.
Reason (R): Chromium present in the steel improves its corrosion resistance by forming a
thin film of chromium oxide on the surface.
455
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
456
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
1. Customers arrive at a ticket counter at a rate of 50 per hr and tickets are issued in the order
of their arrival. The average time taken for issuing a ticket is 1 min. Assuming that customer
arrivals form a Poisson process and service times are exponentially distributed, the average
waiting time in queue in min is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Maximize 3x + 7y
Subject to 3x + 7y 10
4x + 6y 8
x, y 0
It has
3. Cars arrive at a service station according to Poissons distribution with a mean rate of 5 per
hour. The service time per car is exponential with a mean of 10 minutes. At steady state, the
average waiting time in the queue is
a) 10 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 25 minutes
d) 50 minutes
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4. Littles law is relationship between
6. The project activities, precedence relationships and durations are described in the table.
The critical path of the project is
P - 3
Q - 4
R P 5
S Q 5
T R,S 7
U R,S 5
V T 2
W U 10
a) P-R-T-V
b) Q-S-T-V
c) P-R-U-W
458
d) Q-S-U-W
7. Four jobs are to be processed on a machine as per data listed in the table.
1 4 6
2 7 9
3 2 19
4 8 17
If the Earliest Due Date (EDD) rule is used to sequence the jobs, the number of jobs delayed
is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Maximize z = 3x + 2y
Subject to x 4
y6
3x + 2y 18
x 0, y 0
459
9. Jobs arrive at a facility at an average rate of 5 in an 8 hour shift. The arrival of the jobs
follows Poisson distribution. The average service time of a job on the facility is 40 minutes.
The service time follows exponential distribution. Idle time (in hours) at the facility per shift
will be
a) 5/7
b) 14/3
c) 7/5
d) 10/3
10. The total number of decision variables in the objective function of an assignment problem
of size n n (n jobs and n machines) is
a) n x n
b) 2n
c) 2n1
d) n
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
a) Production management
b) Project implementation
d) Energy management
2. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limiteed resourcees in an optimum
manner is called
a) Operations research
b) Linear programming
460
c) Network analysis
d) Queuing theory
b) Food processing
a) Value analysis
b) Operation research
c) Linear programming
d) Model analysis
6. Graphical method, simplex method and transportation method are concerned with
a) Value analysis
b) Linear programming
d) Queuing theory
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7. In simplex method of linear programming, the objective row of the matrix consists of
a) Basic variables
b) Coefficient of the objective function, which is the profit contribution per unit of each of
the products
c) Slack variables
9. In the graphical method of linear programming problem, the optimum solution would lie in
the feasible polygon at
b) Its center
10. In the simplex method, the variables which have not been assigned the value zero, during
an iteration, are called
a) Basic variable
b) Artificial variable
c) Actual variable
462
11. In the simplex method, the existence of more than one optimum solution is indicated,
when
a) Values of the index row, Cj-Zj under one or more of the non-base decision variables is are
zero
c) All the replacement ratio, bi/ais (s is the key column) are negative
d) the values of index row, cj-zj, indicate optimality, with artificial variable in the base
a) 2 or 4
b) 1 or 0
c) 1 or 2
d) 0 or 4
13. The initial simplex table corresponds to what aspect of a graphical solution in a two
variable maximization problem?
14. A basic feasible solution in simplex method is one, when all the
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a) determine the initial basic feasible solution, when surplus variable is present
b) convert the inequation with the sign greater than or equal to, in the form of an equation
a) proportionality
b) additivity
c) divisibility
17. The artificial variables are made to leave the base and never to enter in the further
iteration by the application of
a) Big M method
c) Simplex method
b) values of the decision variable (Wi) in the dual problem indicates the contribition per unit
of the ith resource, to the value of the objective
c) Value of the objective is same for the optimal and dual and the values of the decision
variable (Wi) in the dual problem indicates the contribition per unit of the ith resource, to the
value of the objective
19. If the primal contains 'n' decision variables and 'm' constraints, its dual would contain
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a) 'n' decision variables and 'm' constraints
a) dual
b) primal
21. If all the variables are unrestricted in sign and in the normal canonical form, then its dual
would have all the constraaints in the form of equations and the dual variable would be
a) negative
b) non-negative
c) positive
22. The performance of a system, as expressed in the form of linear programming model can
be improved by
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c) Vogel's approximation method
24. In a transportation problem, there are four supply centers and five demand centers. The
total quantity of supply available is greater than the total demand.The number of allocations,
without degeneracy during an iteration is
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 0
c) queuing theory
d) Game theory
26. In a linear programming model, there are n variables and m constraints. The condition of
degeneracy is that during an iteration, the total number of allocated base calls should be
a) equal to (m+n-1)
d) equal to (m+n)
a) zero
b) negative
c) positive
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d) none of the options given
c) only one unit from the ith source can be assigned to any one of its destination
29. In a n X n matrix of an assignment problem, the optimality is reached when the minimum
number of straight line scoring all the zeros is
a) square of n
b) one divided by n
c) n
d) n+3
30. In a M/M/1 queue, with utilization factor of 0.5, the probability of only one person
waiting in the queue is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.125
d) 1.25
31. The city corporation is having a computer to record birthes in a locality, where it is
estimated that, on an average there is birth in every two hours. The probability that no-birth
takes place in a day, in this locality will be
a) 0.000006
b) 0.00006
c) 0.0006
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d) 0.006
a) Poisson
b) Log normal
c) Linear
d) Non Linear
33. In a M/M/1 queue, the mean service rate as compared to mean arrival rate is
a) more
b) less
c) same
34. The ratio of mean arrival time to mean service time is found as 1.2. It indicates that the
queue would
a) become explosive
c) uncertain
35. In a single channel que, if mean waiting time in the system is 50 mins, the mean waiting
time in the queue is 30 min, then mean rate of service will be
a) 3/hour
b) 2/hour
c) 1/hour
d) 5/hour
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36. The utilization factor of a break down maintenance system with a single crew is 80%. The
expected number of machines down at any time will be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
37. As the ratio of mean arrival to mean service rate is increased, it is likely that,
a) Customer move through the system in less time, because utilization is increased
38. A single server tool crib, with poisson arrival and exponential service, has an utilization
factor of 75%.Application of work study had doubled the mean service rate. The expected
time a worker spend in the system is
a) decreased by 20%
b) increased by 20%
c) decreased by 80%
d) increased by 80%
a) Optimization
b) Testing alternatives
c) Cost minimization
d) Computerization
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a) to analyze and evaluate a system performance
41. The Pseudo random number generated should produce the sequence which is
a) uniformly distributed
b) statistically independent
c) reproducible
a) Mid-square method
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
44. A set of two or more vertices which belong to the network and may represent event,
place, stage or a storage point is called
a) node
b) vertice
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c) points
45. For any network, value of the maximum flow from the source to sink is equal to the
capacity of
a) Maximal cut
b) minimal cut
46. A collection of oriented branches such that every oriented path from source to sink
contains at least one branch in it, is
a) a cut in a network
c) minimal cut
47. In a flow network, arcs A and B only are directly connected with the source and arcs P,
Q, R are directly connected with the sink. The capacities of the arcs A, B, P, Q, R are as 70,
50, 30, 40, and 20 respectively. The maximum flow through the network cannot exceed
a) 30
b) 50
c) 70
d) 90
48. The target date of completion of a project is the length of the critical path. The earliest
occurance of the events of the tail node (i) and head node (j) of an activity, i-j, in the critical
path are 10 days and 15 days respectively. The free float of this activity is
a) 5 days
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b) 0 days
c) 2.5 days
49. The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an activity is called
a) Normal time
b) slow time
c) crash time
d) standard time
50. In the PERT network, distribution of the project completion time is assumed to follow
a) Beta distribution
b) Poisson distribution
c) Normal distribution
d) Binomial distribution
51. The estimated duration of times for an activity, in the PERT network under the worst and
best environment are as 9 and 3 days. The variance of this activity is
a) 6 days
b) 1 day
c) 2 days
d) 9 days
52. CPM is
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d) work oriented technique
b) would increase project completion time, if the amount of delay is greater than free slack
c) increase the project cpmpletion time, if amount of delay exceeds total slack
55. A PERT activity has an optimistic time of three days, pessimistic time of 15 days and
expected time is 7 days. The most likely time of the activity is
a) 5 days
b) 6 days
c) 7 days
d) 9 days
56. In the PERT network, duration of activities only are considered so as to follow
a) Normal distribution
b) Beta distribution
c) Linear distribution
d) Gamma distribution
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57. In the PERT network, thee project completion time is considered to follow
a) Normal distribution
b) Beta distribution
c) Linear distribution
d) Gamma distribution
a) It is continuous
b) It is unimodal
a) Normal distribution
b) Beta distribution
c) Bionomial distribution
d) Gamma distribution
60. While crashing an activity in the critical path, the project cost would
a) PERT/CPM
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c) Game theory
d) LPP
d) The mean arrival rate is less than the mean service rate for each channel
63. At a certain petrol pump customers arrive according to a poisson distribution with an
average time of 5 minutes between arrivals. The service time is exponentially distributes with
mean time 2 min. Service is first come first served. What is the probability of no units in the
queue?
a) 4/3
b) 3/5
c) 2/3
d) 3/2
64. Which of the following replacement policy is used for replacement of items that fail
suddenly?
65. Customer arrival before a saving bank window follows poisson distribution with average
12 customers per hour. The service time follows exponential distribution with average service
time 4 minutes. Assuming M/M/1 model, what is the fraction of time the service is busy?
a) 80%
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b) 75%
c) 125%
d) 90%
a) Safety stock
b) EOQ
b) Procurement price
c) Penalty cost
d) Transportation cost
a) MODI method
b) Hungarian method
c) Johnsons Algorithm
d) Simplex method
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70. Which of the following one is correct in relation to Sequencing Problems?
d) Both minimization of total elapsed time and minimization of total idle time of machines
71. Which of the following one is not correct in relation to game theory?
a) Saddle point is identified as that element where the minimax and maximin strategies of the
players intersect.
b) Game value is the expected loss to a player if he and his opponent use their best strategies.
c) In game theory, best strategies are determined on the basis of minimax and maximin
criterion of optimality.
d) Dominance method consists of eliminating certain strategies whose removal will not affect
the final solution.
a) LS = EF
b) LF = LS
c) ES = LS
d) EF = ES
a) Is any path that goes from the starting node to the completion node
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74. Which of these is not correct?
d) CPM and PERT use similar terminology but were developed independently
d) Each critical activity has identical earliest and the latest start times
c) The standard deviation of activity completion time is one-sixth of the excess of pessimistic
over optimistic time
d) The sum total of variances of critical activity times gives the variance of the overall project
completion time
77. In the simplex method, variables with non-zero values are called----
a) Non-basic variables
b) Basic solutions
c) Slack variables
d) Basic variables
78. Which of the following one is used in assigning crews to commercial airline flights?
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a) Linear programming Problem
b) Assignment problem
c) Transportation Problem
d) Sequencing Problem
79. In LPP having only greater than or equal to constraints the initial basic feasible was
provided by using
a) Slack variables
b) Surplus variables
c) Artificial variables
b) Linear in nature
c) Curvilinear in nature
d) Quadratic in nature
81. A basic feasible solution in transportation problem with m sources and n destinations
have non zero basic variable is less than m+n-1
a) Optimum
b) Degenerate
c) In feasible
d) Non-degenerate
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c) x1 and x2 should be greater to or equal to zero
83. Which of the following one is a degenerate form of the transportation problem?
b) Assignment problem
c) Transportation Problem
d) Sequencing Problem
d) Both earliest activities are done late and later activities are done early
a) float = 0
b) float =1
c) float < 1
d) float >1
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87. An acievement of one more activiities in a project is called
a) event
b) result
c) outcome
a) activity
b) event
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
a) J.F. McCloskey
b) F.N. Trefethen
c) P.F. Adams
a) 1950
b) 1940
c) 1978
d) 1960
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a) Civil War
b) World War I
c) World War II
d) Industrial Revolution
a) Scientists
b) Mathematicians
c) Academics
6. Operations Research simply helps in improving the of the solution but does
not result in a perfect solution.
a) Quality
b) Clarity
c) Look
a) Scientific
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b) Systematic
d) Statistical
a) Two or more
b) One or more
c) Three or more
d) Only One
a) Conducting experiments on it
b) Mathematical analysis
d) Diversified Techniques
10. What have been constructed for Operations Research problems and methods for solving
the models that are available in many cases?
a) Scientific Models
b) Algorithms
c) Mathematical Models
11. Which technique is used in finding a solution for optimizing a given objective, such as
profit maximization or cost minimization under certain constraints?
a) Quailing Theory
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b) Waiting Line
d) Linear Programming
12. What can be defined as a useful idle resource which has economic value eg; raw
materials, spare parts, finished items, etc?
a) Inventory Control
b) Inventory
c) Inventory Planning
13. Key concept under which technique are network of events and activities , resource
allocation, time and cost considerations, network paths and critical paths ?
a) Game Theory
b) Network Analysis
c) Decision Theory
a) Simulation
c) Inventory Control
d) Game Theory
15. What is concerned with the prediction of replacement costs and determination of the most
economic replacement policy ?
a) Search Theory
b) Theory of replacement
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c) Probabilistic Programming
16. What refers to Linear Programming that includes an evaluation of relative risks and
uncertainties in various alternatives of choice for management decisions ?
a) Probabilistic Programming
b) Stochastic Programming
d) Linear Programming
17. What enables us to determine the earliest and the latest times for each of the events and
activities and thereby helps in the identification of the critical path?
a) Programme Evaluation
d) Deployment of resources
18. Linear Programming technique is used to allocate scarce resources in an optimum manner
in problems of ?
a) Schedule
b) Product Mix
d) Servicing Cost
a) Sequencing
b) Allocation Models
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c) Queuing Theory
d) Decision Theory
a) Deterministic Models
b) Probabilistic Models
21. The operations Research technique, specially used to determine the optimum strategy is
a) Decision Theory
b) Simulation
c) Game Theory
a) Iconic Models
b) Analogue Models
c) Symbolic Models
a) Static Models
b) Dynamic Models
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24. may be defined as a method of determining an optimum programme inter
dependent activities in view of available resources
a) Goal Programming
b) Linear Programming
c) Decision Making
25. The objective functions and constraints are linear relationship between
a) Variables
b) Constraints
c) Functions
26. Assignment problem helps to find a maximum weight identical in nature in a weighted
a) Tripartite graph
b) Bipartite graph
c) Partite graph
a) Prime Number
b) Whole Number
c) Complex Number
28. Graphic method can be applied to solve a LPP when there are only variable
a) One
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b) More than One
c) Two
d) Three
29. The variables whose coefficient vectors are unit vectors are called
a) Unit Variables
b) Basic Variables
30. A minimization problem can be converted into a maximization problem by changing the
sign of coefficients in the
a) Constraints
b) Objective Functions
a) +m
b) m
c) 0
a) Solution
b) Profit Matrix
c) Profit
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d) None of the options given
33. If the total supply is less than the total demand, a dummy source (row) is included in the
cost matrix with
a) Dummy Demand
b) Dummy Supply
c) Zero Cost
a) a) Equivalent
b) b) Greater
c) c) Less
35. Once the initial basic feasible solution has been computed , what is the next step in the
problem
a) VAM
c) Optimality test
(i) the cells in the transportation table can be classified in to occupied cells and
unoccupied cells
(ii) optimal solution is a feasible solution (not necessarily basic ) which maximizes the
total cost
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a) both (i) and (ii) are correct
b) Two only
c) One only
37. Optimal solution is a feasible solution (not necessarily basic ) which minimizes the
a) Time taken
b) Partial cost
c) Total cost
a) Negligent costs
b) Advanced costs
c) Reduced costs
39. A path formed by allowing horizontal and vertical lines and the entire corner cells of
which are occupied is called a
a) Occupied path
b) Open path
c) Closed path
40. Any set of nonnegative allocations (Xij>0) which satisfies the raw and column sum (rim
requirement )is called a
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a) Linear programming
c) Feasible solution
41. Which of the following is a valid objective function for a linear programming problem?
a) Max 5xy
b) Min 4x + 3y + (2/3)z
c) Max 5xy + 6y
42. To find the optimal solution to a linear programming problem using the graphical method
a) find the feasible point that is the farthest away from the origin.
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Strength of Materials
1. Two identical circular rods of same diameter and same length are subjected to same
magnitude of axial tensile force. One of the rods is made out of mild steel having the modulus
of elasticity of 206 GPa. The other rod is made out of cast iron having the modulus of
elasticity of 100 GPa. Assume both the materials to be homogeneous and isotropic and the
axial force causes the same amount of uniform stress in both the rods. The stresses developed
are within the proportional limit of the respective materials. Which of the following
observations is correct?
b) Mild steel rod elongates more than the cast iron rod
c) Cast iron rod elongates more than the mild steel rod
d) As the stresses are equal strains are also equal in both the rods
2. A long thin walled cylindrical shell, closed at both ends, is subjected to an internal
pressure. The ratio of the hoop stress (circumferential stress) to longitudinal stress developed
in the shell is
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
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4. A column has a rectangular cross-section of 10mm x 20mm and a length of 1m. The
slenderness ratio of the column is close to
a) 200
b) 346
c) 477
d) 1000
5. A thin cylinder of inner radius 500mm and thickness 10mm is subjected to an internal
pressure of 5MPa. The average circumferential (hoop) stress in MPa is
a) 250
b) 500
c) 750
d) 1000
a) P/A
b) [P(E1-E2)]/[A(E1+E2)]
c) PE2/AE1
d) PE1/AE2
7. The threaded bolts A and B of same material and length are subjected to identical tensile
load. If the elastic strain energy stored in bolt A is 4 times that of the bolt B and the mean
diameter of bolt A is 12mm, the mean diameter of bolt B in mm is
a) 16
b) 24
c) 36
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d) 48
8. If the principal stresses in a plane stress problem, are 100MPa, and 40MPa, the magnitude
of the maximum shear stress (in MPa) will be
a) 10 MPa
b) 20 MPa
c) 30 MPa
d) 40 MPa
9. Plane stress for a point in a body are 10 MPa and 100 MPA. The design is to be done on
the basis of the maximum shear stress theory for yielding. Then, yielding will just begin if the
designer chooses a ductile material whose yield strength is
a) 45 MPa
b) 50 MPa
c) 55 MPa
d) 0
10. The Young's modulus of elasticity of a material is 2.5 times its modulus of rigidity. The
Posson's ratio for the material will be:
a) 0.25
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
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1. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to
buckle in the direction of the
a) axis of load
2. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is
a) zero
b) minimum
c) maximum
d) infinity
a) short columns
b) long columns
d) weak columns
b) stronger in tension
d) leak-proof
5. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15 C to 40 C and it is free to expand. The bar Will
induce
a) no stress
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b) shear stress
c) tensile stress
d) compressive stress
6. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress
of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of
400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be
a) 400 MPa
b) 500 MPa
c) 900 MPa
d) 1400 MPa
7. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' transmit the same power. The speed of shaft 'A' is 250 r.p.m. and
that of shaft 'B' is 300 r.p.m. The shaft 'B' has the greater diameter.
a) True
b) False
c) Can't be dermined
d) None
8. A thick cylindrical shell having R and r as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is
c) [2pr^2]/[R^2 - r^2]
d) [R^2 - r^2]/[2pr^2]
9. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the stress induced
when the same load is applied gradually.
a) equal to
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b) one-half
c) twice
d) four times
a) axis of load
11. If the slenderness ratio for a column is 100, then it is said to be a __________ column.
a) long
b) medium
c) short
d) all
12. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be punched from a plate of maximum shear
stress 1/4th of its maximum crushing stress of punch, is equal to (where t = Thickness of the
plate)
a) t
b) 2t
c) 4t
d) 8t
13. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all respects but the number of
turns of spring 'A' is half that of spring 'B' The ratio of deflections in spring 'A' to spring 'B' is
a) 2
b) 1/2
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c) 1/4
d) 1/8
14. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is
a) (m-1)/(2m-1)
b) (2m-1)/(m-1)
c) (m-2)/(3m-4)
d) (m-2)/(5m-4)
a) shear modulus
b) section modulus
c) polar modulus
d) Young's modulus
d) relative strain
17. When a rectangular cantilever beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive
stress is developed on the
a) top layer
b) bottom layer
c) middle layer
d) every cross-section
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18. The point of contraflexure is a point where
19. The simply supported beam 'A' of length l carries a central point load W. Another beam
'B' is loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is W. The
ratio of maximum deflections between beams A and B is
a) 5/8
b) 8/5
c) 5/4
d) 4/5
a) smaller end
b) larger end
c) middle
d) anywhere
21. The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is known as
a) resilience
b) proof resilience
c) strain energy
d) impact energy
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22. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along
b) an oblique plane
a) directly proportional to
c) inversely proportional to
24. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is __________ at that point.
a) zero
b) minimum
c) maximum
d) infinity
a) no stress
b) shear stress
c) tensile stress
d) compressive stress
26. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring constants k1 and k2 is
held between two rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent spring constant is
a) (k1+k2)/2
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b) (k1+k2)/(k1*k2)
c) (k1*k2)/(k1+k2)
d) k1*k2
b) energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of the specimen
28. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then its width will vary in
proportional to (where M = Bending moment)
a) M^(1/2)
b) M
c) M^2
d) M^3
30. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the
pitch of rivets is
a) 0.2
b) 0.3
c) 0.5
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d) 0.8
31. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the
same length and depth but width is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam 'B' will be
__________ as compared to beam A.
a) same
b) double
c) four times
d) six times
a) linearly
b) parabolically
c) hyperbolically
d) elliptically
33. The stress at which the extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to
the increase in load, is called
a) elastic limit
b) yield point
c) ultimate point
d) breaking point
34. When two main plates are kept in alignment butting each other and riveted with cover
plate on both sides of the main plates with two rows of rivets in each main plate, the joint is
known as __________ double cover butt joint.
a) single riveted
b) double riveted
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c) quarter riveted
d) four riveted
35. Whenever a material is loaded within elastic limit, stress is __________ strain
a) equal to
b) directly proportional to
c) inversely proportional to
d) none
a) The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.
b) The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.
c) The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
37. The maximum tangential stress in a thick cylindrical shell is always __________ the
internal pressure acting on the shell.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) none
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) any value
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39. When a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure, there will be
a) more
b) less
c) same
d) can't say
a) cantilever beams
c) overhanging beams
d) fixed beams
42. For a 25 mm hole drilled in plates, the diameter of rivet shank should be
a) 23mm
b) 25mm
c) 25.01mm
d) 26mm
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b) same bending stress at every section
44. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumption is that the material of the beam is
isotropic. This assumption means that the
a) principal stresses
a) 0.23 to 0.27
b) 0.25 to 0.33
c) 0.31 to 0.34
d) 0.32 to 0.42
47. The Rankine's theory for active earth pressure is based on the assumption that
b) the frictional resistance between the retaining wall and the retained material is neglected
c) the failure of the retained material takes place along a plane called rupture plane
505
d) all of the above
48. The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without suffering
permanent distortion, is known as
a) impact energy
b) proof resilience
c) proof stress
d) modulus of resilience
49. The resultant stress on an inclined plane which is inclined at an angle to the normal
cross-section of a body which is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane, is
a) sin
b) cos
c) sin 2
d) cos 2
a) linear strain
b) lateral strain
c) volumetric strain
d) Poisson's ratio
51. In a beam where shear force changes sign, the bending moment will be
a) zero
b) minimum
c) maximum
d) infinity
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52. The ductility of a material __________ with the increase in percentage reduction in area
of a specimen under tensile test.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) can't be determined
53. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the
same length and width but depth is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam B will be
__________ as compared to beam A.
a) same
b) double
c) four times
d) six times
54. When a closely-coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load, it is said to be under
a) bending
b) shear
c) torsion
d) crushing
55. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) with one
end fixed and the other end free is __________ the crippling load for a similar column hinged
at both the ends.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) more than
d) half
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56. If percentage reduction in area of a certain specimen made of material 'A' under tensile
test is 60% and the percentage reduction in area of a specimen with same dimensions made of
material 'B' is 40%, then
57. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length, consists of
58. A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN/m^2 (tensile) and 10 kN/m^2
(compressive) acting perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear stress is
a) 5 kN/m^2
b) 10 kN/m^2
c) 15 kN/m^2
d) 20 kN/m^2
59. When a simply supported beam is loaded at its mid point, the maximum compressive
stress shall develop at
a) bottom fibrer
b) top fibre
c) neutral axis
d) centre of gravity
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60. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is __________ that of prismatic bar
of the same length.
a) equal to
b) half
c) one-third
d) two-third
61. When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that
there is a
63. When two shafts of same length, one of which is hollow, transmit equal torques and have
equal maximum stress, then they should have equal
b) polar modulus
c) diameter
d) angle of twist
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64. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) fixed at
both ends is __________ the crippling load for a similar column hinged at both ends.
a) equal to
b) two times
c) four times
d) eight times
65. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it
carries a
66. A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the
assembly is subjected to a compressive load, then
67. A bar of length L metres extends by l mm under a tensile force of P. The strain produced
in the bar is
a) 1/L
b) 0.1 l/L
c) 0.01 l/L
d) 0.001 l/L
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68. A shaft revolving at rad / s transmits torque (T) in N-m. The power developed is
a) T. watts
b) 2 T watts
c) 2 T/75 watts
d) 2 T/4500 watts
70. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a pull of P, its
72. A column of length (L) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column
of length __________ with both ends hinged.
a) L/8
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b) L/4
c) L/2
d) L
73. The product of the tangential force acting on the shaft and its distance from the axis of the
shaft (i.e. radius of shaft) is known as
a) bending moment
b) twisting moment
c) torsional rigidity
d) flexural rigidity
74. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane, the maximum shear
stress is __________ the maximum normal stress.
a) equal to
b) one-half
c) two-third
d) twice
75. A simply supported beam 'A' of length l, breadth b and depth d carries a central load W.
Another beam 'B' of the same dimensions carries a central load equal to 2 W. The deflection
of beam 'B' will be __________ as that of beam 'A'.
a) one-fourth
b) one-half
c) double
d) four times
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b) A uniformly distributed load spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam.
d) The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of length l with a central
point load W is WL/8.
77. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is
called
a) elastic limit
b) yield stress
c) ultimate stress
d) breaking stress
78. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p = ^2
EI/CL^2. In the Euler's formula, the value of C for a column with one end fixed and the other
end free, is
a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
a) In the theory of simple bending, the assumption is that the plane sections before bending
remains plane after bending.
b) In a beam subjected to bending moment, the strain is directly proportional to the distance
from the neutral axis.
80. A beam of T-section is subjected to a shear force of F. The maximum shear force will
occur at the
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a) top of the section
81. Two bars of different materials and same size are subjected to the same tensile force. If
the bars have unit elongation in the ratio of 2:5, then the ratio of modulus of elasticity of the
two materials will be
a) 2:5
b) 5:2
c) 4:3
d) 3:4
a) to apply forces
b) to measure forces
d) to absorb shocks
84. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam (Length = L) carrying a central point load lies
at
a) fixed ends
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b) L/2 of beam
d) none of these
86. A bolt is made to pass through a tube and both of them are tightly fitted with the help of
washers and nuts. If the nut is tightened, then
87. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress
of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of
400 MPa on the same planes. The minimum normal stress will be
a) 400 MPa
b) 500 MPa
c) 900 MPa
d) 1400 MPa
88. The shear force diagram fora cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying
load from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is a
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b) vertical straight line
c) inclined line
d) parabolic curve
a) increase in temperature
b) modulus of elasticity
d) all of these
90. When a column is subjected to an eccentric load, the stress induced in the column will be
91. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be
under
a) tensile stress
b) compressive stress
c) shear stress
d) bending stress
c) the ratio of its length to the least radhis of gyration is less than 80.
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d) the ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than 80.
93. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the radial stress across the
thickness of the cylinder is
94. Two closely-coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' of the same matenal, same number of turns
and made from same wire are subjected to an axial load W. The mean diameter of spring 'A'
is double the mean diameter of spring 'B'. The ratio of deflections in spring 'B' to spring 'A'
will be
a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 2
d) 4
95. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' have the same material. The shaft 'A' is solid of diameter 100 mm.
The shaft 'B' is hollow with outer diameter 100 mm and inner diameter 50 mm. The torque
transmitted by shaft 'B' is __________ as that of shaft 'A'.
a) 1/6
b) 1/8
c) 1/4
d) 15/16
96. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the maximum radial stress
at the inner surface of the shell is
a) zero
b) p (tensile)
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c) -p (compressive)
d) 2p (tensile)
a) short column
b) long column
c) weak column
d) medium column
98. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a
simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum shear stress will be
a) -100 MPa
b) 250 MPa
c) 300 MPa
d) 400 MPa
99. For long columns, thevalue of buckling load is __________ crushing load.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) more than
1. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is _________ the stress induced when
the same load is applied gradually.
a) Equal to
b) One-half
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c) Twice
d) Four times
2. If Th is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ts is that of a solid shaft, of the
same material, length and weight. Then,
a) Th > Ts
b) Th < Ts
c) Th = Ts
d) Th/Ts = 0.5
a) Same torque
b) Less torque
c) More torque
d) Unpredictable
4. The product of Young's modulus (E) and moment of inertia (I) is known as
a) Modulus of rigidity
b) Bulk modulus
c) Flexural rigidity
d) Torsional rigidity
a) Unit mass
b) Modulus of rigidity
c) Bulk modulus
d) Modulus of Elasticity
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6. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to
buckle in the direction of the
a) Axis of load
7. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all respects but the number of
turns of spring 'A' is half that of spring 'B' The ratio of deflections in spring 'A' to spring 'B' is
a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) 2
8. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress
of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of
400 MPa on the same planes. The minimum normal stress will be
a) 400 MPa
b) 500 MPa
c) 900 MPa
d) 1400 MPa
9. A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut coil will be
a) Same
b) Double
c) Half
d) Thrice
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10. The bending stress in a beam is _________ section modulus.
b) Directly proportional to
c) Inversely proportional to
d) Equal to
11. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know its
b) Factor of safety
d) Slenderness ratio
13. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic limit is known as
a) Young's modulus
b) Bulk modulus
c) Modulus of rigidity
d) Poisson's ratio
14. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length, consists of
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a) One right angled triangle
16. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due to the applied couple varies
c) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is less than 80
d) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than 80
a) Thermal stresses
b) Tensile stress
c) Bending
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d) No stress
19. The shear force diagram of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly
distributed load of w per unit length will be
b) An isosceles triangle
c) An equilateral triangle
d) A rectangle
20. When a bar is subjected to a change of temperature and its deformation is prevented, the
stress induced in the bar is
a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Thermal stress
a) T/J = /R = C/l
b) M/I = /y = E/R
d) T/l= /J = R/C
22. When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that
there is a
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23. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is called linear
strain.
b) The Poisson's ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain.
c) The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called volumetric strain.
d) The bulk modulus is the ratio of linear stress to the linear strain.
c) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is less than 1/10.
d) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is greater than 1/10.
25. The deformation of a bar under its own weight compared to the deformation of same
body subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the body is
a) Same
b) Double
c) Half
d) Four times
a) The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.
b) The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.
c) The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
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a) Equal to the hoop stress
a) Kinematic viscosity
b) Surface tension
c) Bulk modulus
d) Strain
30. Two closely-coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' of the same material, same number of turns
and made from same wire are subjected to an axial load W. The mean diameter of spring 'A'
is double the mean diameter of spring 'B'. The ratio of deflections in spring 'B' to spring 'A'
will be
a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 2
d) 4
31. The force acting along the circumference will cause stress in the walls in a direction
normal to the longitudinal axis of cylinder; This stress is called
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a) Longitudinal stress
b) Hoop stress
c) Yield stress
d) Ultimate stress
32. The change in length due to a tensile or compressive force acting on a body is given by
(where P = Tensile or compressive force acting on the body, L = Original length of the body,
A = Cross-sectional area of the body, and E = Young's modulus for the material of the body)
a) PLA/E
b) PL/AE
c) E/PLA
d) AE/PL
33. The hoop stress in a riveted cylindrical shell of diameter (d), thickness (t) and subjected to
an internal pressure (p) is (where = Efficiency of the riveted joint)
a) pd/ t
b) pd/ 2t
c) pd/ 4t
d) pd/ 8t
34. A thin spherical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure
(p). The stress in the shell material is
a) pd/t
b) pd/2t
c) pd/4t
d) pd/8t
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35. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the
same length and width but depth is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam B will be
__________ as compared to beam A.
a) Same
b) Double
c) Four times
d) Six times
36. The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually
varying load from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is a
c) Inclined line
d) Parabolic curve
37. In a tensile test, when the material is stressed beyond elastic limit, the tensile strain
__________ as compared to the stress.
a) Decreases slowly
b) Increases slowly
38. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w
per unit length is _________ at the free end.
a) Zero
b) wl/4
c) wl/2
d) wl
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39. When a cantilever beam is loaded at its free end, the maximum compressive stress shall
develop at
a) Bottom fibre
b) Top fibre
c) Neutral axis
d) Center of gravity
40. The assumption made in the theory of the reinforced cement concrete beam is that
a) All the tensile stresses are taken up by the steel reinforcement only
c) The steel and concrete are stressed within its elastic limit
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Thermal Engineering Systems
1. The enthalphies at the beginning of compression, at the end of compression and at the end
of the condensation are 185 kJ/kg, 210 kJ/kg and 85 kJ/kg respectively. The COP of the
vapour compression refrigeration is
a) 0.25
b) 5.4
c) 4
d) 1.35
2. A two satge compressor takes in air at 1.1. bar and discharges at 20 bar. for minimum
compression work, the intermediate pressure is
a) 10.55 bar
b) 7.33 bar
c) 5.5 bar
d) 4.7 bar
3. Air ( Cp = 1.0 kJ/kg ratio of specific heat = 1.4) enter a compressor at a temperature of 27
deg.C. The compressor ratio is 4. Asuuming an mechanical efficiency of 80%, the
compressor work required in kJ/kg is
a) 160
b) 172
c) 182
d) 225
4. The latent heat load in an auditoriam is 25% of sensible heat load. The value of sensible
heat factor(SHF) is equal to
a) 0.25
b) 0.5
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c) 0.8
d) 1.0
5. A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of heat from a reservoir at 1000 K and a certain
amount of
heat from a reservoir at 800 K. It rejects 1 kJ of heat to a reservoir at 400 K. The net work
output (in kJ) of the cycle is
a) 0.8
b) 1.0
c) 1.4
d) 2.0
6. On a mollier chart, the free expansion from high pressure to low pressure is expressed by
c) curved line
a) speed
b) brake power
c) indicated power
d) volumetric efficiency
b) time in seconds
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d) piston displacement from TDC
a) engine crankshft
b) engine flywheel
c) distributor
d) induction coil
a) specific humidity
b) degree of saturation
c) relative humidity
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THERMAL ENGINEERING SYSTEMS
1. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
2. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of
revolutions of crankshaft
a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
a) supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the
surrounding atmosphere
4. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency
is called
a) net efficiency
b) efficiency ratio
c) relative efficiency
d) overall efficiency
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5. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given
compression ratio is
a) same
b) less
c) more
6. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) unpredictable
7. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the
%age increase in efficiency will be
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 8%
d) 14%
a) homogeneous
b) heterogeneous
d) laminar
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a) 5-10 bar
b) 20-25 bar
c) 60-70 bar
d) 150-300 bar
10. The specific fuel consumption per kW hour for diesel engine is approximately
a) 0.15 kg
b) 0.2 kg
c) 0.25 kg
d) 0.3 kg
11. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for nearly
a) 180
b) 125
c) 235
d) 200
b) gas turbine
c) diesel engine
d) steam turbine.
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d) S.I. engines are quality-governed engines
14. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine revolution or
size in following way
d) supercharging
a) fuel pump
b) governor
c) injector
d) carburettor
d) highly ignitable
17. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rpm will run at
a) 1500 rpm
b) 750 rpm
c) 3000 rpm
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18. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to diesel engine of same brake
power is
a) same
b) more
c) less
19. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the
b) minimum pressure
c) average pressure
20. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately
a) 1 : 1
b) 8:1
c) 15 : 1
d) 20 : 1.
21. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol engine for vehicles, is of the
order of
a) 9 : 1
b) 12 : 1
c) 15 : 1
d) 18 : 1
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b) instantaneous auto iginition of last part of charge
a) SAE 40
b) SAE 50
c) SAE 80.
d) SAE 70
a) octane number
b) cetane number
c) calorific value
d) distillation temperature
25. Iso-octane
26. Cetane number is determined by comparing the performance of diesel oil with the
following hydrocarbons
a) cetane
c) ethylene dibromide
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d) mixture of cetane with tetra-ethyl lead
27. In order to prevent knock in the S.I. engines, the charge away from the spark plug should
have
a) low temperature
c) rich mixture
28. To reduce the possibility of knock in the C.I. engines, the first elements of fuel and air
should have
a) high temperature
b) high density
c) short delay
29. The detonation tendency in petrol engines for specified conditions of fuel rating,
compression ratio, speed etc. can be controlled by having
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31. The ignition of charge by some hot surface in the engine cylinder before operation of
spark plug is known as
a) auto ignition
b) preignition
c) retarded ignition
d) detonation
a) octane number
b) cetane number
c) calorific value
d) carbon content
a) 1
b) 0.7
c) 0.85
d) 0.5
a) 0.65
b) 0.75
c) 0.85
d) 0.95
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a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain unaffected
36. For same power and same speed, the flywheel of a four stroke engine as compared to
two-stroke I.C. engine will be
a) smaller
b) bigger
c) same size
a) bigger flywheel
b) smaller flywheel
d) no flywheel
38. Thermal efficiency of high speed diesel engine at design load may be of the order of
a) 20%
b) 35%
c) 50%
d) 70%
39. In carburettors, the top of the fuel jet with reference to the level in the float chamber is
kept at
a) same level
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c) slightly lower level
d) may be anywhere
41. The ignition coil in diesel engines produces voltage of the order of
a) 6 to 12 volts
b) 240 volts
c) 1000 volts
d) 20,000 volts
42. In petrol engine using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, super
charging will
d) unpredictable.
a) clearance volume
b) swept volume
c) compression ratio
d) volumetric efficiency
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44. If petrol is used in a diesel engine, then
45. For the same size and weight, a two stroke engine as compared to four stroke engine will
generate power
a) about twice
c) nearly equal
d) about 5 times
a) when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
b) when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
c) when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then
increases from its throat to exit
a) isothermally
b) adiabatically
c) isentropically
d) isochronically
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a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
50. Ratio of indicated power and brake power of air compressor is known as
a) mechanical efficiency
b) volumetric efficiency
c) isothermal efficiency
d) relative efficiency
51. The ratio of work doen per cycle to the swept volume in case of compressor is called
a) compression index
b) compression ratio
d) compressor effectiveness
a) as large as possible
b) as small as possible
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d) none of the options
a) the ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston displacement
a) more power
b) less power
c) same power
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57. For minimum work in multistage compression, assuming same index of compression in
all stages
58. The volumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
a) throat
b) venturi
c) convergent
d) divergent
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b) throat and exit
a) 0.58
b) 0.546
c) 0.56
d) 0.601
a) isothermal flow
d) isentropic flow
64. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the
available heat drop
a) is unpredictable
b) increases
c) decreases
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d) low pressure and a high velocity
a) hyperbolic
b) polytropic
c) isothermal
d) isentropic
68. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure
in steam nozzle is called
a) degree of undercooling
b) degree of supersaturation
c) degree of superheat
a) velocity of steam
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70. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called
a) nozzle efficiency
b) condenser efficiency
c) boiler efficiency
d) vacuum efficiency
71. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
a) 0.58
b) 0.546
c) 0.59
d) 0.601
72. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of the ordinary saturated
vapour at the corresponding pressure.
a) 4 times
b) same as
c) 2 times
d) 8 times
a) Ericsson
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b) Stirling
c) Carnot
d) Bell-coleman
78. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to formation
a) in 1 hour
b) in 1 minute
c) in 24 hours
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d) in 12 hours
a) is less than 1
b) is more than 1
c) is equal to 1
a) Carnot cycle
c) Rankine cycle
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83. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27C and evaporator
temperature of- 23C. The Cannot coefficient of performance of cycle will be
a) 0.2
b) 1.2
c) 5
d) 10
84. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid and vapour
between
a) compressor
b) condenser
c) evaporator
d) expansion valve
86. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?
a) condenser
b) evaporator
c) compressor
d) expansion valve
a) increases COP
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b) decreases COP
d) unpredictable.
a) increases COP
b) decreases COP
d) unpredictable
89. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called
a) degree of saturation
90. In aqua-ammonia and Lithium bromide - water vapour absorption refrigeration systems,
the refrigerants are
91. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains constant.
a) relative humidity
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d) wet bulb temperature
92. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is
20 kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the process will be
a) 0.37
b) 0.3
c) 0.6
d) 0.67
a) condenser
b) compressor
c) evaporator
d) expansion valve
c) specific humidity
d) relative humidity
d) relative humidity
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96. During sensible cooling of air __________ decreases.
b) relative humidity
c) specific humidity
b) The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature lines
c) The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation condition.
98. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is
a) 420 kJ/min
b) 210 kJ/min
c) 21 kJ/min
d) 620 kJ/min
a) dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
a) 50%
b) zero %
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c) 75%
d) 100%
101. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb temperature,
and RH = Relative humidity)
103. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are
d) curved lines
a) low
b) high
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105. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the maximum amount
of water vapour into it, is called
a) dry air
b) moist air
c) saturated air
d) specific humidity
1. Ratio of work done per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is know as
a) compression ratio
b) compressor capacity
d) compressor efficiency
2. Find the volumetric efficiency of the compressor if air is compressed from 1 bar to 7 bar.
The expansion and compression are isentropic (n=1.3)and the clearance volume is 3% of
stroke volume.
a) 76.2%
b) 85.1%
c) 89.6 %
d) 91.5%
3. The ratio of high temperature to low temperature in reversed carnot cycle refrigerator is
1.1. The COP of the refrigerator will be
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a) 10
b) 4
c) 3.5
d) 4.5
4. The most suitable method for increasing the COP of vapour compression system is
a) sub cooling
6. The work input to air compressor is minimum if the compression law followed is
a) PV1.35= C
b) PV = C
c) PV = C
a) 68.2 kW
b) 88.9 kW
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c) 78.8 kW
d) 58.8 kW
8. In a single stage air-compressor, the clearance volume is 1/19th of the swept volume. It
delivers 7.6 m3 of free air per minute from 100 kpa to 900 kpa. Assume the index of
compression and expansion as 1.2. Find the volumetric efficiency of compressor
a) 72.4 %
b) 82.4 %
c) 62.4 %
d) 90.4 %
a) 618 m/s
b) 718 m/s
c) 918 m/s
d) 818 m/s
10. Dry saturated steam enters into steam nozzle at 12 bar and discharges at 1.5 bar. The
dryness fraction of exit steam is 0.95. Find the exit velocity if, initial velocity is 135 m/s.
a) 847.5 m/s
b) 747.7 m/s
c) 647.7 m/s
d) 452 m/s
11. In three stage reciprocating air-compressor how will the diameter of the cylinder when
the air is moving from L.P cylinder to H.P cylinder via I.P. cylinder. (D = diameter of
cylinder)
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a) D L.p= D I.P= D H.P
a) Amyl nitrate
c) Lead ethide
d) Napthane
a) Ethylene glycol
b) Normal heptane
c) Iso-octane
d) Lead ethyl
15. A lubrication system in which a scoop connected at the lowest part of the connecting rod
is used to spread the lubricating oil on the cylinder wall is called
a) petroil system
b) splash system
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c) pressure system
16. The time duration for which both the intake and exhaust valves are remain in open
position is ___________
a) Turbo lag
b) Valve overlap
c) Scavenging
d) Tappet clearance
the approximate value of the mechanical efficiency at 50% of the rated load?
a) 47%
b) 57%
c) 67%
d) 77%
18. During Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power
were taken at constant speed. The The mechanical efficiency of the engine is ___________
a) 81.07%
b) 78.23%
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c) 61.22%
d) 91.53%
19. ____________ valve is the bypass valve which will control the turbine speed in
turbocharger
a) Inlet valve
c) Exhaust valve
d) Check valve
20. The pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the throat pressure is called
as _________
a) Carburettor depression
b) Injection pressure
c) Volatility of fuel
21. In computing the engine performance, the heating value of fuel used is _______________
22. Friction power of the IC engine will _________ if the engine speed is increased.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) no effect
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23. Effectiveness of an engines induction process is called as _______________
a) volumetric efficiency
b) thermal efficiency
c) mechanical efficiency
d) relative efficiency
a) Stroke x rpm
b) (stroke x rpm)/ 2
c) 2 x stroke x rpm
d) 4 x stroke x rpm
25. The thermostat in IC engines permitting hot water to go to radiator is set around
a) 70 - 80C
b) 80-85 C
c) Above 100 C
d) below 50 C
a) flywheel
b) engine crankshaft
c) cam shaft
d) generator
27. The component of the water cooling system which exchanges heat with the outside air is
called
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a) radiator
b) thermostat
c) pump
d) fan
28. The commercial refrigeration system which is closer to reversed carnot cycle in terms of
performance is
d) cryogenic system
b) carnot cycle
c) driving cycle
d) VCR cycle
30. The amount of heat removed from 1 ton (1000 kg) of pure water supplied at 00C to form
ice at 00C in 24 hours is known as _______________
a) One TR
b) 3.5 kW
c) 14000 kJ/hr
a) First
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b) second
c) third
32. The main function of ___________ is to collapse the primary circuit for EMF generation
in battery ignition system.
a) Battery
c) Ignition coil
d) rocker arm
a) boiling point
b) To accommodate valves
35. The temperature recorded by a thermometer when its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth
exposed to air.
a) Dry-bulb temperature
b) Wet-bulb temperature
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d) None of the answers
36. It is the temperature recorded by a thermometer when water vapour in air begins to
condense or dew is formed.
b) Wet-bulb temperature
37. The mass of water vapour present in 1kg of dry air and is expressed as g/kg of air
a) Humidity ratio
b) Absolute humidity
c) Degree of Saturation
d) Relative humidity
38. ___________gives the fraction of air which does not come into contact with heating coil
surface
a) By pass factor
a) latent heat
b) sensible heat
c) total heat
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40. Humidification or Dehumidification process is also called as
a) Evaporative cooling
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Turbomachines
1. Specific enthalpy and velocity of steam at inlet and exit of a steam turbine, running under
steady
                       
          Specific enthalpy (kJ/kg)      
  Velocity (m/s)
Inlet steam condition                3250
                       
        180
Exit steam condition                 2360
                       
        5
The rate of heat loss from the turbine per kg of steam flow rate is 5 kW. Neglecting changes
in
potential energy of steam, the power developed in kW by the steam turbine per kg of steam
flow rate, is
a) 901.2
b) 911.2
c) 17072.5
d) 17082.5
2. Steam at a velocity of 10 m/s enters the impulse turbine stage with symmetrical blading
having blade angle 30<sup>0</sup>. The enthalpy drop in the stage is 100 kJ. The nozzle
angle is 20<sup>0</sup>. The maximum blade efficiency (in percent) is
a) 88.3
b) 85.2
c) 81.3
d) 84.7
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3. In a pelton Wheel the bucket peripheral speed is 10 m/s, the water jet velocity is 25 m/s
and volumetric flow rate of the jet is 0.1m<sup>3</sup>/s. If the jet defection angle is
120<sup>0</sup> and the flow is ideal, the power developed is
a) 7.5 kW
b) 15 kW
c) 22.5 kW
d) 37.5 kW
a) 30 to 60
b) 60 to 300
c) 300 to 600
d) 600 to 1000
a) entry
b) exit
c) stator exit
d) rotor exit
6. For a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor diameter of 2 m and a speed of 3000 rpm
when the
a) 334
b) 356
c) 668
d) 711
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7. A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a 50% reaction stage in a steam turbine are examples of
c) a simple impulse stage, a velocity compounded impulse stage and reaction stage
d) velocity compounded impulse stage, a simple impulse stage and a reaction stage
8. The isentropic heat drop in the nozzle of an impulse steam turbine with a nozzle efficiency
0.9, blade
velocity ratio 0.5, and mean blade velocity 150 m/s in kJ/kg is
a) 50
b) 40
c) 60
d) 75
9. Considering the variation of static pressure and absolute velocity in an impulse stream
turbine,
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TURBOMACHINES
1. In a reaction turbine the enthalpy drop in a stage is 60 units. The enthalpy drop in the fixed
blades is 28 units. What is the degree of reaction?
a) 0.284
b) 0.533
c) 0.466
d) 1.875
c) the pressure at the inlet of the pump is above the atmospheric pressure
d) the pressure at the inlet of the pump is equal to the atmospheric pressure
4. A centrifugal pump delivers water at the rate of 50 litres/s against a total head of 40
metres. Then the power required to drive the pump is
a) 2 kW
b) 15.2 kW
c) 19.6 kW
d) 25.8 kW
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5. Match list 1 with list 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List 1 List 2
A. Head race 1. Channel, tunnel or pipes through which water is carried from reservoir to
the turbine
C. Penstock 3. Diverging tube discharging water from the turbine to the atmosphere
Codes:
6. Considering the variation of static pressure and absolute velocity in an impulse steam
turbine, across one row of moving blades
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a) larger blades at gas entry and smaller blades at exit
c) An impulse turbine
b) power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
c) workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the turbine
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3. Development of a low head
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
13. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar,
then the delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
a) 256 bar
b) 64 bar
c) 1 bar
d) 16 bar
14. Do self priming pumps require priming ever? Assume the pipings are perfect and leak
proof.
c) Yes, always
d) Cannot say
15. While flowing through the rotor blades in an axial flow air compressor, the relative
velocity of air:
a) Continuously increases
b) Continuously decreases
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16. A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the pressure rise in the impeller
is equal to the
a) velocity head
b) manometric head
c) static head
d) kinetic head
18. Which of the followings are the demerits of single impulse stage
3. More boundary layer associated losses in comparison with single reaction stage
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
19. The isentropic heat drop in the nozzle of an impulse steam turbine with a nozzle
efficiency 0.9, blade velocity ratio 0.5, and mean blade velocity 150 m/s in kJ/kg is
a) 50
b) 40
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c) 60
d) 75
20. Steam enters the rotor of a reaction turbine with an absolute velocity of 236 m/s and the
relative velocity of 132 m/s. It leaves the rotor with a relative velocity of 232 m/s absolute
velocity of 126 m/s. The specific work output is
a) 38.1 kJ/kg
b) 40.1 kJ/kg
c) 43.8 kJ/kg
d) 47.4 kJ/kg
22. At the inlet of a steam nozzle, stagnation enthalpy of steam is 787.07 kcal/kg at exit, the
static enthalpy of steam is 738.0 kcal/kg. For a frictionless adiabatic flow, the velocity of
steam at the exit will be (assume 1kcal = 4.18kJ)
a) 620 m/s
b) 582.2 m/s
c) 600.6 m/s
d) 640.5 m/s
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b) vapour pressure
c) surface tension
d) viscosity
a) For the same overall size and rotational speed, pressure rise obtained with radial impeller is
lower than that of forward
swept impeller
b) For the same overall size and rotational speed Backward swept impeller generates
minimum pressure rise
c) For the same overall size and rotational speed, all three types of impellers generate same
pressure rise
d) For the same overall size and rotational speed forward swept impeller generates maximum
pressure rise
25. The static temperature and Mach number at the inlet of a centrifugal compressor are
30<sup>0</sup>C and 0.5 respectively. The stagnation
26. An impulse turbine produces 50 kW of power when the blade mean speed is 400 m/s.
What is the rate of change of momentum tangential to the rotor?
a) 150 N
b) 200 N
c) 125 N
d) 175 N
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27. Euler equation for turbomachines is derived on the basis of
b) Conservation of mass
Of these statement
30. The total and static pressures at the inlet of a steam nozzle are 186 kPa and 178 kPa
respectively. If the total pressure at the exit is 180 kPa and static pressure is 100 kPa, then the
loss of energy per unit mass in the nozzle will be:
a) 2 kPa
b) 6 kPa
c) 8 kPa
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d) 78 kPa
32. Which one of the following is used to bring down the speed of an impulse steam turbine
to practical limits?
a) A centrifugal governor
c) A large flywheel
d) A gear box
33. In aircraft gas turbines, the axial flow compressor is preferred because
c) it is stall free
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35. Impulse turbine requires
36. A Pelton wheel develops 1750 kW under a head of 100 metres while running at 200
r.p.m. and discharging 2500 litres of water per second. The unit power of the wheel is
a) 1.75 kW
b) 0.75 kW
c) 3.75 kW
d) 0.25 kW
37. In centrifugal compressor terminology, vane-less space refers to the space between
38. In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 600 kJ/kg, the compressor work is 400 kJ/kg
and the heat supplied is
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 20%
d) 80%
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39. An axial flow compressor stage is suitable for
40. Consider the following statements about modification in a gas turbine power plant
working on a simple Brayton cycle:
2. Incorporation of regeneration process increases thermal efficiency but specific work output
remains unchanged.
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 4
41. In a turbojet engine, subsequent to heat addition to compressed air, to get the power
output, the working substance
is expanded in
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42. A Francis turbine is used when the available head of water is
a) 0 to 25 m
b) 25 m to 250 m
c) 250 m to 500 m
d) Above 500 m
43. Steam enters De Laval steam turbine with an inlet velocity of 30 m/s and leaves with an
outlet velocity of 10 /s. the work done by one kg of steam is
a) 400 Nm
b) 600 Nm
c) 800 Nm
d) 1200 Nm
44. At a particular section of a reaction turbine, the diameter of the blade is 1.8m, the velocity
of flow of steam is
49m/s and the quantity of steam flow is 5.4m<sup>3</sup>/s. The blade height at this section
will be approximately:
a) 2 cm
b) 1 cm
c) 0.5 cm
d) 4 cm
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46. The main aim of compounding of steam turbine is to
d) improve efficiency
a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
d) Propeller turbine
48. A multistage compressor is to be designed for a given flow rate and pressure ratio. If the
compressor consists of axial
flow stages followed by centrifugal instead of only axial flow stages, then the
49. In a 50% reaction stage, absolute velocity angle at inlet is 45<sup>0</sup>, mean
peripheral speed is 75 m/s and the absolute velocity at the exit is axial. The stage specific
work is
a) 2500 J/kg
b) 3270 J/kg
c) 4375 J/kg
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d) 5625 J/kg
b) reaction turbine
TURBOMACHINES
1. In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first completely converted into kinetic
energy by means of nozzle kept close to the runner?
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
3. In the case of pelton turbine installed in a hydraulic power plant, the grossnhead available
is the vertical distance between
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c) forebay and turbine inlet
1. Almost all flow losses take place in the diverging part of a nozzle.
Of these statements
a) Propeller turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton wheel
a) Reciprocating pump
c) Centrifugal pump
d) Vane pump
7. What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in hydro-electric power plant called?
a) head race
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b) tail race
c) gross head
d) net head
8. Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases the head on the turbine
by an amount equal to the height of runner outlet above the tail race?
a) Scroll casing
b) Guide vanes
c) Moving vanes
d) Draft tube
9. Which pump is more suitable for an application where very high pressure is required to be
developed at moderate discharge?
a) Reciprocating pump
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Turbine
d) Gear pump
10. The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the centrifugal compressor
is called as
a) velocity factor
b) slip factor
c) work factor
d) flow coefficient
11. In a steady, reversible adiabatic, compressible flow process; in the abscence of work
transfer
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b) Total pressure and total temperature decrease
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
c) Yes, always
d) Cannot say
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15. While flowing through the rotor blades in an axial flow air compressor, the relative
velocity of air:
a) Continuously increases
b) Continuously decreases
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b) scaling of steam turbines
a) reheating
b) intercooling
d) regenerator
a) Rankine
b) Otto
c) Brayton
d) Stirling
22. Consider the following statements with regard to the specific speeds of differentvtypes of
turbine:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
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23. The maximum blade efficiency of single stage impulse turbine in terms of nozzle
a) cos α
b) sin α
c) sin<sup>2</sup>α
d) cos<sup>2</sup>α
24. If in an impulse turbine designed for free vortex flow, tangential velocity of stem
at the root radius of 250 mm is 430 m/s and the blade height is 100 mm, then the
a) 602 m/s
b) 504 m/s
c) 409 m/s
d) 307 m/s
25. If in a steam turbine stage, heat drop in moving blade ring is 40 kJ/kg and that in the fixed
blade ring is 60 kJlkg, then the degree of reaction is
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 70%
26. Which one of the following is not correct regarding both Kaplan and propeller turbines?
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27. Based on the direction of flow, which one of the following turbines is different from the
other three?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Parson's turbine
c) De Laval turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
1. Relative velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.
2. Absolute velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.
Of these statements:
29. In hydraulic power-generation systems, sugre tanks are provided to prevent immediate
damage to
a) draft tube
b) turbine
c) tail race
d) penstrocks
a) discharge is minimum.
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b) throat velocity is sonic.
d) discharge is zero.
31. If the enthalpy drops of moving blade and fixed blade of a stage in a reaction turbine are 9
and 11 kJ/kg respectively,
a) 0.1
b) 0.45
c) 0.55
d) 1.0
32. A centrifugal pump delivers water at the rate of 50 litres/s against a total head of 40
metres. Then the power required to drive the pump is
a) 2 kW
b) 15.2 kW
c) 19.6 kW
d) 25.8 kW
be vertical
energy
the turbine
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d) to transform a large part of kinetic
pressure energy
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