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There is no such rule. Each verb has its own rules for what sorts of complement clause it
'licenses', and it has little or nothing to do with semantics.
This is in fact a question which has had a lot of attention from linguists in the last fifteen or
twenty years. Some general tendencies have been observed, such as the Great Complement
Shift, the tendency over the past five or six hundred years for gerund complements to replace
infinitive complements, or that gerunds tend to be preferred in Backward-looking contexts and
infinitives in Forward-looking contexts.
But these are no more than statistical tendencies: they have no predictive value and cannot be
relied on to determine what form should be used in any particular instance with any particular
verb. I'm afraid the only sure guide is to consult actual contemporary usage for each verb.
http://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/23999/when-to-use-gerund-or-infinitive/24086