SBI Bank PO Guide Free E Book

Online Coaching for IBPS, SBI Bank Exams
http://www.bankexamportal.com/elearning
:: Content ::
How to prepare for SBI PO Exam with New Pattern
How to crack SBI PO Exam in 30 days
Strategies For English Descriptive Paper
SBI PO Exam Papers - 2015 (Held on: 27-06-2015)
SBI PO Exam Paper - "held on 30-11-2014"
Page 1
www.bankexamportal.com/study-kit/sbi-po
How to prepare for SBI PO Exam with New Pattern

State Bank of India has recently notified the posts of Probationary officers. Government has made some changes
in the selection process for this years recruitment. Like previous years exam will be conducted in two phases.
Candidates who will qualify in preliminary examination and short listed will have to appear for main examination
and short listed candidates in the main examination will subsequently be called for a Group Discussion & Interview.
Preliminary examination process is still the same, there are no changes in the preliminary examination
process. Preliminary exam would be online and marks optained in preliminary exam will not be counted in final
selection. Scheme of the preliminary examination is given below.
Phase-I: Preliminary Examination:

Preliminary Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. Each question in
the paper would consist of one mark. This test would be of 1 hour duration consisting of 3 sections as follows:
S. L. Name of Test No. of Questions Marks Duration

1 English Language 30 30
2 Quantitative Aptitude 35 35
Composite Time of 1 hour
3 Reasoning Ability 35 35
Total 100 100
Candidates have to qualify in each of the three tests by securing passing marks to be decided by the Bank.
Adequate number of candidates in each category as decided by the Bank (approximately 20 times the numbers
of vacancies subject to availability) will be shortlisted for the Main Examination.
Many changes has been introduced in the examination pattern of the Main examination for SBI PO. This
year main exam duration is extended to three hours. There is also section wise time limit. Main
examination will be computer based examination. Detailed plan for this years main examination is given
below:
Phase II: Main Examination:

Main Examination will consist of Objective Tests for 200 marks and Descriptive Test for 50 marks. Both the
Objective and Descriptive Tests will be online. Candidates will have to answer Descriptive Test by typing on
the computer.
Page 2
The Objective Test of 3 hours duration consists of 4 sections for total 200 marks. The Objective Test will
have separate timing for every section. The candidates are required to qualify in each of the tests by
securing passing marks.
Test Name of test No. of Questions Max. Marks Duration
I Reasoning & Computer Aptitude 45 60 60 minutes
II Data Analysis & Interpretation 35 60 45 minutes
III General/Economy/ Banking Awareness 40 40 35 minutes
IV English Language 35 40 40 minutes
Total 155 200 3 hours
Immediately after completion of Objective Test, Descriptive Test of 30 minutes duration with 50 marks will be
administered. It will be a Test of English Language judging candidates letter writing as well as essay writing
skills. This year descriptive test will also be computer based examination.
The candidates are required to qualify in the Descriptive Test by securing passing marks. Descriptive Test paper
of only those candidates will be evaluated who have scored qualifying marks in the Objective Tests and are placed
adequately high as per total marks in Objective Test.
Phase III: Group Discussion (20 marks) & Interview (30

marks)
After calculating the aggregate marks of candidates in mains Objective Tests as well as the descriptive Test,
adequate number of candidates in each category will be called for Group Discussion and Interview. Candidates
will have to participate in Group discussion which will be of 20 marks and also give a personal interview which
carries the value of 30 marks.
The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination (Phase-I) will not be added for the selection and only the marks
obtained in Main Examination (Phase-II), both in Objective Test and Descriptive Test, will be added to the marks
obtained in GD & Interview (Phase-III) for preparation of the final merit list. The candidates will have to qualify both
in Phase-II and Phase-III separately. Marks secured by the candidates in the Written Test (out of 250 marks) are
converted to out of 75 and marks secured in Group Discussion & Interview (out of 50 marks) are converted to out
of 25. The final merit list is arrived at after aggregating converted marks of Written Test and Group Discussion
&Interview out of 100 for each category.
Page 3
How to crack SBI PO Exam in 30 days

State Bank of India has recently notified the posts of Probationary officers. It will be conducted in two phases.
Candidates who will qualify in preliminary examination and shortlisted will have to appear for main examination
and shortlisted candidates in the main examination will subsequently be called for a Group Discussion & Interview.
Preliminary exam would be online and marks obtained in preliminary exam will not be counted in final selection.
Scheme of the preliminary examination is given below.
SBI PO Preliminary Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. Each
question in the paper would consist of one mark. This test would be of 1 hour duration consisting of 3 sections as
follows:
Sr. No. Name of Tests No. of Qs Maximum Marks Duration
1 English Language 30 30
2 Quantitative Aptitude 35 35
Composite time of 1 hour
3 Reasoning 35 35
100 100
Total
Candidates have to qualify in each of the three tests by securing passing marks to be decided by the Bank.
Adequate number of candidates in each category as decided by the Bank (approximately 20 times the numbers
of vacancies subject to availability) will be shortlisted for the Main Examination.
SBI PO Main Examination will consist of Objective Tests for 200 marks and Descriptive Test for 50 marks. Both
the Objective and Descriptive Tests will be online. Candidates will have to answer Descriptive Test by typing on
the computer. The Objective Test of 3 hours duration consists of 4 sections for total 200 marks. The Objective
Test will have separate timing for every section. The candidates are required to qualify in each of the tests by
securing passing marks.
Sr. No Name of test No. of Questions Marks Duration
1 Reasoning & Computer Aptitude 45 60 60 minutes
Page 4
2 Data Analysis & Interpretation 35 60 45 minutes
3 General/Economy/Banking Awareness 40 40 35 minutes
4 English Language 35 40 40 minutes
Total 155 200 3 hours
Immediately after completion of Objective Test, Descriptive Test of 30 minutes duration with 50 marks will be
administered. It will be a Test of English Language judging candidates letter writing as well as essay writing skills.
This year descriptive test will also be computer based examination. The candidates are required to qualify in the
Descriptive Test by securing passing marks. Descriptive Test paper of only those candidates will be evaluated
who have scored qualifying marks in the Objective Tests and are placed adequately high as per total marks in
Objective Test.
Candidates in each category will be called for Group Discussion and Interview. Candidates will have to participate
in Group discussion which will be of 20 marks and also give a personal interview which carries the value of 30
marks. Only the marks obtained in Main Examination (Phase-II), both in Objective Test and Descriptive Test, will
be added to the marks obtained in GD & Interview (Phase-III) for preparation of the final merit list. The candidates
will have to qualify both in Phase-II and Phase-III separately.
After looking at the pattern of the SBI PO exam lets device a 30 day study plan for cracking the exam. As this is a
30 day plan candidates should be ready to put in really good hard work to get selected. Ten to twelve hours of
daily study should be enough for candidate to complete the syllabus in 30 days. Hours of study changes with
student to student. Time should be equally distributed between Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning and English,
which would mean around 3 to 4 hours should be given to all the three. The time is devoted for both studying the
topics and practice. A SWOT analysisshould be done of your preparation based upon the previous years papers
and more and more work should be done upon the weaker sections.
After learning about the exam pattern and number of hours you need to put for study, we will provide you a detailed
study plan for the four weeks. In this plan whole of the last week will be fully dedicated towards the practice of
mock tests. During the week each of the topics Logical reasoning, English Language and Quantitative
aptitude should be given equal attention. However as told earlier more emphasis should be given to your weak
areas, this will wary from student to student.
If you will follow this process there is a very good chances of your success. However we should tell you that there
are few more things which should be kept in mind while preparing for SBI PO.
Page 5
Accuracy is very very important in this exam. So practice in a way which will improve your accuracy.
Other than accuracy candidates should also take care of time management. For that always do your practice
tests within the time limit only.
Never get stuck to a single question and waste too much time.
Evaluate your tests to see how you are performing and where you can improve.
All Important Topics & core syllabus are covered in the BANK EXAM PORTAL Study Materials for SBI PO
Exam. You can consider it for your preparation.
Page 6
Strategies For English Descriptive Paper

As part of its PO Selection Test, SBI has an offline pen & paper Descriptive Test paper on English Language
comprising of (a) comprehension, (b) short prcis, ((c) letter writing and (d) essay writing. This Test is of one-hour
duration and carries 50 marks.
Effective Communication is an essential quality of any Leader or Executive. Mere knowledge of Grammar (Tested
during the objective Tests) will not suffice. Hence, in addition to the objective Test on Grammar, a Descriptive
paper on English Language is also included - Comprehension tests your ability to grasp and understand the given
passage; Short Precise tests your ability to prepare short summaries for your superiors; Letter Writing tests your
ability to precisely and effectively communicate a matter to the addressee and, Essay writing reveals how
systematic your thought process is, and tests your ability to present your thoughts in a coherent manner.
A) The paper consisted of five questions:
1) To write a Letter chosen from three options one informal and two formal / official.
2) To write an essay on any one of the three given topics; the topics were socially relevant issues.
3) To write a Paragraph on any one of the three given topics; again social issues.
4) To read the given passage and to answer the five questions based on it.
5) To read the given passage and make a precise of it with a suitable title.
B) No question-wise maximum marks were allotted; presumably, all the five questions carry equal
marks.
C) Minimum number of words were not stipulated for the answers.
With this knowledge in hand, let us see how to go about preparing ourselves for the Test.
Since Minimum number of words were not stipulated for the answers, our attempt should be to write in respect
of each answer, only so much words, so that we will be able to attempt all the five questions.
Having to answer five questions in one hour or sixty minutes, we may prudentially allot ten minutes per question,
thus taking fifty minutes for the five questions, and leaving the final ten minutes as a cushion and for a final
checking of the answers.
Preparing for the Test item-wise
A) General
Keep a good English Dictionary always on your study desk Oxford Advanced Learners Dictionary is a good
one for students.
Page 7
Also keep a good grammar book at hand Wren & Martin is suggested and refer to it when you are in doubt
about any unknown usage.
Whenever you come across a new word, learn from your Dictionary its different meanings, synonyms,
antonyms, and different usages depending on the context.
Practise making several sentences using the new word you just learnt, its synonyms and antonyms.
Read a good English newspaper every day, thoroughly.
Read every day, the Editorials and other analyses and reports on the centre-spread of the newspaper. This will,
help you in your language and to form critical views about current and social issues.
Regularly listen to, every day, a few good TV news broadcasts DD, BBC this too will help you look critically
at current and social issues.
Learn to use simple words effectively, rather than high-sounding ones. If correctly used, simple words can be
more effective.
Avoid repeating the same word or phrase in your writing; learn to use alternatives.
Read some good English novels to improve usage of the language. R K Narayanan, Nirad Choudhuri, Ruskin
Bond etc. are advised.
Read quotes of famous people, whenever you have an opportunity Reproducing one in the Essay / Paragraph
will be impressive. But ensure to use it only at the correct juncture. An inappropriate quote may be counter-
productive.
Before closing your writing, check for spelling, punctuation and grammatical mistakes.
Practise using as many model test papers as possible. Regularly pick them up from
http://bankpoclerk.com/community/
B) Letter Writing
Decide the format or layout of the letter salutation, closing greeting, signing off etc. depending on whether
the letter is formal or informal and the assumed status of the addressee.
Familiarise yourself with different formats of formal and informal letters regarding (a) placing your name, (b)
placing your address, (c) placing name / Designation and address of the addressee (d) placing date (e) Subject
in case of formal letter (f) Appropriate ending depending on the subject of the letter (g) Appropriate salutations
& closings etc.
Page 8
While all letters must be polite and decent in language, words in a formal letter have to be chosen more
carefully than in an informal letter.
Use simple and clear language.
Short sentences are better than long ones.
C) Essay Writing & Paragraph-writing
1) Practice, everyday, pick out from the newspaper or the novels, a couple of passages. Read the passage,
close it, and reproduce on a piece of paper, whatever you can recollect / remember. This will help in putting
ideas on paper, and the flow of your language.
2) Ensure to break the Essay / Paragraph into three parts Introduction, Subject proper and Conclusion.
3) Keep in mind the four stages of the thought process of the writer
Madman (where the thoughts and ideas are unorganised and are at a random),
Architect (When he author decides which idea / concept should be placed where and the sequence / order in
which they should appear.),
Mason who presents the ideas in the order decided upon by the Architect
Judge who proofreads and reviews the final product and makes the necessary corrections to make it a better
more appealing product.
4) Practise writing for ten minutes. Over a period of time, you will develop the ability to determine the number of
words required in your essay.
5) Where a title / caption is to be given, keep it simple in tune with the content matter.
D) Comprehension
Everyday, pick out from the newspaper or the novels, a couple of passages for comprehension. Read the
passage once and only once, close it, and note down on a piece of paper, its summary / main points. Check this
summary with the passage. This will help in developing memory and your retention power. Practise this several
times. It is from this memory, that you will have to answer the five questions based on the passage. By such
practice, you should not have to go back to read the passage again, to answer the questions. The memory you
develop thus, should come to your aid. Reading the passage more than once, is a waste of time.
Follow the tips given below under Precise Writing also.
Some people also adopt the strategy of first reading the questions given below the passage, and then
identifying / choosing the answers as you read the passage.
Page 9
Whatever strategy you use, it should be the least time-consuming and most effective. Practise on it well and
perfect it.
E) Precise Writing
As you read the given passage, do so carefully, taking in the key information and ideas.
While reading, also learn to omit details such as examples, quotations, repetitions, statistics, explanations /
elaborations etc.
Mark / underline important ideas & information.
Before you begin to write, take a minute or so to organise the thoughts in your mind, condensing them as much
as possible.
Once you start to write, present the ideas in your own words logically, avoiding repetitions and unimportant
issues.
Our character is basically a composite of our habits. ~ Stephen Covey
Page 10
Printed Study Material for SBI PO Exam
What you will get:

100% Syllabus Covered
6 Booklets
3000+ MCQs
1100+ Pages
Guidance & Support from Our Experts
Implementation Aspects:
You will Get 6 booklets.
Study Kit will be delivered to your postal Address after payment confirmation.
After dispatching your kit we will provide you a courier tracking details.
For any help we will provide Telephonic & Email Support to the candidates.
http://www.bankexamportal.com/study-kit/sbi-po
SBI PO Previous (Pre.) Exam Paper 2015
:: English Language ::
Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following six sentences A, 8, C, 0, E, and F in the proper sequence to form
a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.
A. When these millennium development goals were first formulated in 1990, 53.5% of all Indian children
were malnourished.
B. This would stilt be below the target of reducing malnourishment to 28.6%.
C. India has been moderately successful in reducing poverty.
D. Since then, progress has been slow.
D. Today, it is estimated that malnourishment could decline to 40% by the end of 2015.
E. However, eradicating hunger, along with malnourishment still remains a key (challenge, according to the
Millennium Development Goals.
1. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E
e. D
2. Which of the, following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(C) F
(d) D
(e) E
3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. F
Page 11
4. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
5. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
a. A
b. F
c. D
d. C
e. B
Directions (6-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
Words/Phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
From a technical and economic perspective, many assessments have highlighted the presence of cost-effective
opportunities to reduce energy use in buildings. However-several bodies-note the significance of multiple
barriers that prevent the take-up of energy efficiency measures in buildings, These include lack of awareness
and concern, limited access to reliable information from trusted sources, fears about risk, disruption and other
transaction costs, concerns about up-front costs and. inadequate access to suitably priced finance; a lack of
confidence in suppliers and technologies and the presence of split incentives between landlords and tenants.
The widespread presence of these barriers led experts to predict that without a concerted push from policy,
two-thirds of the economically viable potential to improve energy efficiency will remain unexploited by 2035.
These barriers are albatross around the neck that represent a classic market failure and a basis for
governmental intervention.
While these measurements focus on the technical, financial or economic barriers preventing the take-up of
eerier efficiency options in buildings, others emphasise the significance of the often deeply embedded social
practices that shape energy use in buildings. These analyses focus hot on the preferences and rationalities that
might shape individual behaviours but on the entangled cultural practices, norms, values and routines that
underpin domestic energy use. Focusing on the prartice-related aspects of consumption generates very
different conceptual framings and policy prescriptions than those that emerge from more traditional or
mainstream perspectives. But the underlying case for government intervention to help to promote retrofit
and the diffusion of more energy efficient particles is still apparent, even though the forms of intervention
advocated are often very different to those that emerge from a moretechnical or economic perspective.
Based on the recognition of the multiple barriers to change and the social, economic and environmental
benefits that could be realised if they were overcome, government support for retrofit (renovating existing
infrastructure to make it more energy efficient) has been widespread. Retrofit prograrnmes have been
Page 12
supported and adopted in diverse forms in many settings arid their ability to recruit householders and then to
impact their energy use has been discussed quite extensively. Frequently, these discussions have criticised the
extent to which retrofit schemes rely on incentives and the provision of new technologies to change behaviour
whilst ignoring the many other factors that might limit either participation in the schemes or their impact on
the behaviours and practices that shape domestic energy use. These factors are obviously central to the success
of retrofit schemes, but evaluations of different schemes have found that despite these they still have
significant impacts. New experts suggest that the best estimate of the gap between the technical potential and
the actual in-situ performance of energy efficiency measures is 50%, with 35% coming from performance
gaps and 15% coming from comfort taking or direct rebound effects. They further suggest that the direct
rebound effect of energy efficiency measures related to household heating is likely to be less than 30% while
rebound effects for various domestic energy efficiency measures vary from 5 to 15% and arise mostly from
indirect rebound effects (i.e. where savings from energy efficiency lead to increased demand for other goods
and service). Other analyses also note that the gap between technical potential and actual performance is likely
to vary by measure, with the range extending from 0% for measures such as solar water heating to 50% for
measures such as improved heating controls. And others note that levels of comfort taking are likely to vary
according to the levels of consumption and fuel poverty in the sarnple of homes where insulation is installed,
with the range extending from 30% when considering homes across all income groups to around 60% when
considering only lower income homes. the scale of these gaps is significant because it materially affects the
impacts of retrofit schemes and expectations and perceptions of these impacts go on to influence levels of
political, financial and public support for these schemes. The literature on retrofit highlights the presence of
multiple barriers to change and the need for government support, if these are to be overcome. Although much
has been written on the extent to which different forms of support enable the wider take-up of domestic: energy
efficiency measures, behaviours and practices, various areas of contestation remain and there is still an
absence of robust ex-post evidence on the extent to which these schemes actually do lead to the social,
economic and environmental benefits that are widely claimed.
6. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word Concerted as used in
the passage?
(a) Collaborative
(b) Piled
(c) Subtracting
(d) Necessary
(e) Weak
7. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the world Robust as used in the
passage?
(a) Manual
(b) Loose
(c) Vogue
(d) Flimsy
(e) Flexible
Page 13
8. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word Unexploited as used in the
passage?
(a) Untapped
(b) Unanswered
(c) Explored
(d) Developed
(e) Vacant
9. The little for the given passage could be
(a) How to measure the impact of retrofit programmes of energy conservation

(b) Barriers to effective usage of energy
(c) Views of stalwarts on disadvantages of retrofit programmes
(d) Existing practices of conserving energy
(e) How much energy is to be consumed
10. According to the author, to make programmes for conserving energy more successful
(a) only latest technology must be employed

(b) the authors country must adhere to norms followed in countries have been successful
(c) change must be brought in the attitudes of people with respect of efficient usage of energy
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) A and B
(e) B and C
11. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word Underpin as used in the
passage?
(a) Undermine
(b) Determine
(c) Criticize
(d) Abandon
(e) Dispose
12. Which of the following is true in context of the passage?
(a) Employing retrofit programmes is relatively new concept and is yet to become popular.
(b) The government so far has been latest supportive of retrofit programmes.
(c) Lack of trust on landlords has been cited as one of the year major barriers to employing energy efficiency
Page 14
schemes.
(d) Retrofit schemes are dependent on incentives to bring about attitudinal change towards energy efficiency
schemes.
(e) All the given statements are true.
13. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase albatross around the neck as used in the
passage?
(a) As light as a bird

(b) Prevent from achieving success
(c) Are worthless
(d) Act as controllers
(e) Always provide adequate guidance
14. The author in the given passage is\
(a) of the view that no amount is efforts can bring about changes in employing energy efficiency schemes in
his country
(b) positive that more evidence on retrofit schemes is essential to make people .more aware and sensitive
towards them
C. cynical about the present state of energy efficiency measures taken in his country
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Only C
d . A and B
e. B and C
15. As mentioned in this passage and according to the experts, in order to exploit existing potential to
better energy efficiency measures
a. availability of sufficient funding is a must

b. availability of reliable information from dependable source must be ensured
c. adequate and trustworthy suppliers of energy must be made available
d. governmental support by implementing adequate policies is essential
e. All those given as options are true.
Directions (16-20): The following questions have two blanks, each blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
16. Owners of private hostels located in residential areas are not only taxes but are also functioning
whimsically in the ......... of any regulatory body
Page 15
a. avoiding; front
b. paying; presence
c. checking; dearth
d. evading; absence
e. destroying; life
17. Contractors across the State have ......... to stop work on the scheme after the Minister failed to
give them concrete ......... of timely payment.
a. thought; prove
b. decided; assurance
c. wished; demand
d. started; guarantee
e. determined; promise
18. Every third person visiting a doctor happens to . from a clinical or psychological disorder
......... with temblors.
a. ail; regarding
b. sick; related
c. suffer; associated
d. agonise; respect
e. experience; connected
19. makes the actress trip to the country different this year is that she is . to raise funds for the
biopic of a literary icon.
a. It; aiming
b. Which; tryirg
c. This; attempting
d. What; looking
e. How; waiting
20. it out in vehicles while remaining stuck in a traffic snarl for hours, has become a .. matter for
commuters.
a. Sweating; routine
b. Waiting; everyday
c. Thinking: regular
d. Harrowing; habitual
e. Fretting; practice
Page 16
Directions (21-25): Read these sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in
them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If
there is no error, mark No error as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
21. He identified the most important machines required/ for modern life and worked in making a
prototype/do it yourself version of each because he believed that if people/could build these
themselves, it would improve their way of life.
a. He identified the most important machines required

b. for modern life and worked in making a prototype
c. do it yourself version of each because he believed that if people
d. could build these themselves, it would improve their way of life
e. No error
22. Natural disasters will not turn into a catastrophe/if we invest in building infrastructure that/can
withstand the devastating impacts of storms/which have became more severe.
a. Natural disasters will not turn into a catastrophe

b. if we invest in building infrastructure that
c. can withstand the devastating impacts of storms
d. which have became more severe
e. No error
23. Many goods are being manufactured quickly without/ any regard for quality and as consumers we
must be/aware, of our rights and the government/should penalise them who indulge in unscrupulous
business practices.
a. Many goods are being manufactured quickly without

b. any regard for quality and as consumers we must be
c. aware of our rights and the government
d. should penalise them who indulge in unscrupulous business practices
e. No error
24. The European Central Bank has said that if all/Euro-zone nation continue to carry out/economic
reforms as Portugal arid Ireland have/then the Central Bank will guarantee future bailouts.
a. The European Central Bank has said that if all

b. Euro-zone nation continue to carry out
c. economic reforms as Portugal and Ireland have
d. then the Central Bank will guarantee future bailouts
e. No error
Page 17
25. While farmers are struggling/to cope with severe drought/crop companies are researched/ways to
breed crops that thrive in drought.
a. While farmers are struggling

b. to cope with severe drought
c. crop companies are researched
d. ways to breed crops that thrive in drought
e. No error
Directions (26-30): In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each
five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each
case.
One World Trade Centre is viewed as a statement of hope, a marvel of persistence and a miracle of logistics.
As, years passed after the tragedy at the site at which it was since constructed and the delays kept mounting.
Americans began to (26)-Whats taking so long? Have we lost the capacity to rebuild? The answer in part
was the sheer (27) of the project-10000 workers attempting one of the most difficult construction projects
ever in one of the most densely populated cities on Earth. (28) the funds allotted for the project were
estimated as $ 1.5 billion when the design was unveiled but the price tag just kept going up.
Other (29) included the weather-in the harsh sun of summer the steel beams could reach temperatures that
were not enough to singe skin added to which a hurricane (30) the construction site.
The monument may not be all things to all people, but its completion signifies that ambition coupled with
determination of people in the face of odds is intact and will always win the day.
26.
a. understand
b. anger
c. wonder
d. sense
e. questions
27.
a. complexity
b. delight
c. knowing
d. drop
e. obsession
Page 18
28.
a. When
b. Despite
c. Instead
d. Exclusive
e. Moreover
29.
a. advantages
b. information
c. challenges
d. attempts
e. crisis
30.
a. formed
b. affected
c. predicted
d. hazard
e. flooded
Page 19
:: Quantitative Aptitude ::
Directions (31-35): Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
Data Related to Number of Books Purchased for Two Libraries (A and B) during 6 yeas
31. What is the respective ratio between total number of books purchased for libraries A and B together
in 2003 and total number of books purchased for the same libraries together in 2007?
(a) 22 : 31
(b) 22 : 31
(c) 11 : 17
(d) 11 : 19
(e) 22 : 35
32. What is the average number of books purchased for library A during 2004, 2005, 2007 and 2008?
(a) 465
(b) 455
(c) 460
(d) 445
(e) 450
33. Out of the total number of books purchased by libraries A and B together in 2008, ony 20% are
graphic novels. What isthe total number of trapic novels purchased for libraries A and B together in
2008?
Page 20
(a) 324
(b) 312
(c) 272
(d) 336
(e) 288
34. Number of books purchased for library B increased by what percent from 2003 to 2006?
35. Number of books pruchased for library B is what percent of the number of books purchased for
library A in 2006?
(a) 30%
(b) 35%
(c) 55%
(d) 85%
(e) 45%
Directions (36-40): In the following quetions, two equations numbered I and II have been given. You hae to
solve both the equation and mark the correct answer.
Give answer
36. I. 2x 2 + 23x + 63 = 0
II. 4y2 + 19y + 21 = 0
37. I. 3x2 + 29x + 56 = 0
II. 2y 2 + 15y + 25 = 0
38. I. 3x 2 + 23x + 44 = 0
II. 3y2 + 20y + 33 = 0
39. I. 4x 2 + 29x + 45 = 0
II. 3y 2 + 19y + 28 = 0
Page 21
40. I. 2x 2 + 13x + 21 = 0
II. 5y 2 + 22y + 21 = 0
41. A, B and C start a small business. A contributes one-fifth of the total capital invested in the business.
B contributes as much as A and C together. Total profit at the end of the year was Rs. 5200. What was
C's profit share?
(a) Rs. 1510
(b) Rs. 2510
(c) Rs. 1500
(d) Rs. 2560
(e) Rs. 1560
Directions (42-46): What will cone in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?
42. 17 19 25 37 ? 87
(a) 63
(b) 52
(c) 55
(d) 67
(e) 57
43. 61 82 124 187 ? 376
(a) 271
(b) 263
(c) 257
(d) 287
(e) 249
44. 23 30 46 80 141 ?
(a) 144
(b) 112
(c) 136
(d) 220
(e) 238
45. 179 180 172 199 135 ?
(a) 236
(b) 272
(c) 240
Page 22
(d) 256
(e) 260
46. 14 6 5 6.5 12 ?
(a) 29
(b) 27
(c) 23
(d) 33
(e) 35
47. A project manager hired 16 men to complete a project in 38 days. However, after 30 days, he realised
that only th of the work is complete. How many more men does he need to hire to complete the project
on time?
(a) 48
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 16
(e) 36
48. A took a certain sum as loan from bank at a rate of 8% simple interest per annum. A lends the same
amount to B at 12% simple interest per annum. If at the end of five years, A made profit of Rs. 800 from
the deal, how much was the original sum?
(a) Rs.s 6500
(b) Rs. 4000
(c) Rs. 6200
(d) Rs. 6000
(e) Rs. 4500
49. A wholesaler blends two varieties of tea, one costing Rs. 60 per kg and another costing Rs. 105 per
kg. The respective ratio of quantities they wre mixed in was 7 : 2. If he sold the mixed variety at Rs. 100
per kg. how much was his profit percentage?
Page 23
50. Joe's persent age is 2/7 th of his father's percent age. Joe's brother is 3 years older to Joe. The
respective ratio between present age of Joe's father and Joe's brother is 14 : 5. What is Joe's present
age?
(a) 6 yr
(b) 15 yr
(c) 12 yr
(d) 18 yr
(e) 20 yr
51. In a 90 L mixture of milk and water, percentage of water is only 30%. The milkman gave 18 L of this
mixture to a customer and then added 19 L of water to the remaining mixture. What is the percentage of
milk in the final mixture?
(a) 64%
(b) 48%
(c) 52%
(d) 68%
(e) 56%
52. A bag contains 4 red bals, 6 green balls and 5 blue balls. If three balls are picked at random, what is
the probability that two of them are green and one of them is blue in colour?
53. A rectangular plot of 55 m long and 45 m broad, has two concrete crossroads (of equal width)
running in the middle of it. One parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. The rest of the
pilot is used as a lawn. If the ara of the lawn is 1911m2, what is the width of each of hte crossroads?
Page 24
(a) 5 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 4 m
(e) 4.5 m
54. Two stations, A and B are 827 km apart from each other. One train starts from station A at 5 am and
travel towars station B at 62 km/h. Another train starts from Station B aat 7 am and travel towards
stations A at 59 km/h. At what time will they meet?
(a) 1 : 00 pm
(b) 11 : 45 am
(c) 12 : 48 : 35 pm
(d) 11 : 20 am
(e) 1 : 37 : 45 pm
55. Abha gave 30% of his money to Vijay. Vijay gave 2/3rd of what he receive to this mother Vijay's
mother gave 5/8th of the money she receive from Vijay, to the grocer. Vijay's mother is now left with Rs.
600. How much money did Abhay have intitally?
(a) Rs. 6200
(b) Rs. 8000
(c) Rs. 6000
(d) Rs. 8200
(e) Rs. 10200
Directions (56-60): Study the table to answer the given questions?
Data Regarding number of chandidates appearing for civil services (CS) and engineering services (ES)
examinations in the yers 2007, 2008, 2009, 2010 in the country XYZ
Page 25
(Note: Figures with regard to total number of candidates appeared are given in thousands)
56. Total number of candidates who appeared for CS and ES together in 2011 was 25% more than the
total number of candidates who appeared for the same together in 2010. How many female candidates
appeared for both the exams together in 2011 if they formed th of the total number of candidates
appearing for both CS and ES that year?
(a) 52000
(b) 58000
(c) 60000
(d) 62000
(e) 64000
57. What is the respective ratio between the number of graduates who had appeared for ES in 2010 and
the number of graduates who appared for CS in 2010?
(a) 13 : 21
(b) 12 : 17
(c) 12 : 19
(d) 11 : 17
(e) 11 : 19
58. Toal number of graduates who appeard for ES in 2008 in what percent of the total number of
graduates who appeared for CS in the same year?
(a) 75%
(b) 40%
(c) 55%
(d) 60%
(e) 50%
59. What is the difference between th average number of candidates who appeared for CS in the year
2007 and 2008 and average number of candidates who appeared for ES in the same years together?
(a) 38400
(b) 24400
(c) 23000
(d) 26400
(e) 24000
60. What is the total number of graduates who appeared for both CS and ES together in the year 2009?
Page 26
(a) 66300
(b) 64200
(c) 60800
(d) 62800
(e) 66800
Directions (61-65): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given questions?
62. (11.92) 2 + (16.01) 2 = ?2 (3.85) 2

(a) 15
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 12
63. (19.97% of 781) + ? + (30% of 87) = 252
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 70
(e) 80
64. 82.11 - 21 2.99 + ? = 240
(a) 105
(b) 173
(c) 123
(d) 234
(e) 221
65. 399.15 - 12 13.95 + ? = (27.02)2
(a) 285
(b) 225
(c) 345
Page 27
(d) 150
(e) 185
Page 28
Online Crash Course for SBI PO Exam
What candidate will get:

All the relevant and required materials of subjects mentioned in the SBI PO NEW Syllabus (Worth
Rs.699):
100% SBI PO Exam Syllabus Covered with MCQs.
General Awareness Magazine for IBPS, SBI, & All Bank Exams
Descriptive test
10 Practice Tests Series with Ans (Worth Rs.499)
Current Affairs Subscription (1 Year Subscription - 12 Pdf Copy)

Special Current Affairs for SBI PO Exam (6 Months - Pdf Copy)
Previous Year Solved Papers
http://www.bankexamportal.com/online-coaching/sbi-po-crash-course
:: Reasoning ::
Directions (Nos. 66-70): In the fallowing questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II hove been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
a. if only conclusion I is true
b. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
c. if only conclusion II is true
d. if both conclusions are true
e. if either conclusion I or II is true
66. Statements
No factory is an industry.
All workshops are industries.
Some plants are workshops.
Conclusions
I. No workshop is a factory.
II. At least some plants are industries.
67. Statements
Some sands are particles.
Some particles are glasses.
Conclusions
I. Some glasses are definitely not particles.
II. Some glasses being sands is a possibility.
68. Statements
Some movies are films.
No film is a show.
All shows are pictures.
Conclusions
I. At least some pictures are films,
II. No show is a movie.
69. Statements
Page 29
Some actors are singers.

All singers are dancers.
Some dancers are players.
Conclusions
I. All actors being dancers is a possibility.
II. All dancers are singers.
70. Statements
Some actors are singers.
All singers are dancers,
Some dancers are players.
Conclusions
I. At least some dancers are actors.
II. No player is an actor.
Directions (71-75): Study the lowing. information to answer then the questions.
Eight friends G, H, I, J, N, O, P and Q are seated in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same order sits
second to right of O.O sits at one of extreme ends of the line. Only three people sit between Hand N. its third to
the left of J. Only two people between J and G.
71. Who amongst the following represents the person seated at the extreme right end of the line?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) O
(d) I
(e) G
72. Who amongst the following sit exactly between J and G?
(a) O, Q
(b) H, O
(c) O, P
(d) N, Q
(e) H, N
73. What is the position of P with respect to N?
(a) Third to the left
(b) Second to the right
Page 30
(c) Fourth to the rigt

(d) Third to the right
(e) Second to the left
74. Based on the given arrangement; which of the following is true with resepct to Q?
(a) Only two persons sit between Q and N.
(b) Only two persons sit to the right of Q.
(c) none of the given options is true.
(d) Both I and G ae immediate neighbours of Q.
(e) P sits to immediate right of Q.
75. How many persons are seated between P and G ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Four
(e) Three
Directions (76-80): Study the information carefully and answer the questions.
N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular area at equal distances between each other, but not
necessary in the same order. Some of the people are facing thecentre while some face outside (i.e. in a direction
oppostie to the centre).
R sits second to the right of T. T face the centre. O sits third to the left of R, R and O face opposite directions.
Immediate neighbours of O face the centre. P sits second to the right of O. U sits to teh immediate left of P. N
sits secondto the left of Q. Q faces the same directions as O. Q is not an immedate neighbour of T. Immediate
neighbours of R face opposite directions. (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre the othe neighbour faces outside
and vice-versa.)
76. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based on the given seating arrangement and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) U
(b) S
(c) P
(d) N
(e) Q
77. Who sits second to the left of U?
Page 31
(a) T
(b) O
(c) S
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) Q
78. As per the given seating arrangement, wich of the following is true regarding S?
(a) U is one of the immediate neighbours of S.
(b) S sits third to the right of R.
(c) S faces the centre.
(d) Only two people sit between S and T
(e) Only oen person sits between S and N.
79. What is the P's position with respect to N?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Second to the right
(c) Third to the right
(d) Third to the left
(e) Fourth to the left
80. How many people in the given arrangement face outside?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) One
Directions (81-85): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
J, K, L, M, N, O and P live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The
lowermsot floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numberd 2 and so on till the topmost floor is
numbered 7. Each one of them also like a different subject namelyEnglish, History, Commerce, Biology,
Accounts, Geography and Computer. (but not necessarily in same order.)
J lives on an odd numbered floor but not on the floor numbered 3. The one who like Accounts lives immediately
above J. Onl two people live between M and the one who likes Accounts.
The one who likes History lives on one of the odd umbered floors above M. Only three people live between L
and the one who likes History. The one who likes Commerce lives immediately above L.
Page 32
The one who likes English lives immediately above the one who likes Computer. P lives on an odd numbered
floor.
Only one person lives between K and N. K lives on one of the floors above N. J does not like Biology. N does not
like Commerce.
81. Which of the following subjects does J like?
(a) Geography
(b) Computer
(c) Commerce
(d) History
(e) English
82. Which of the following combinations is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) Geography-L
(b) History-O
(c) Compter-P
(d) Accounts-M
(e) Commerce-K
83. If all teh people are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the positions of how many
people will remain unchanged?
(a) Four
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) Three
84. Which of the folowing statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) The one who likes Computer lives immediately below J.
(b) O likes History.
(c) None of the given options is true.
(d) Only four people live between M and P.
(e) P lives immediately below N.
85. Who amonst the following lives on the floor numbered 6?
(a) K
(b) The one who likes English.
Page 33
(c) The one who likes Computer.

(d) M (e) O
86. Point A is 30 m to the South of point B. Point C is 20 m to the East of point A. Point D is 15 m to the
South of point C. Point D is exactly midway between points E and F in such a manner that point E, D and
F form a horizontal straight line of 40 m. Point E is to West of point D. How far and in which direction is
point E from point B?
a. 45 m towards South
b. 25 m towards South
c. 30 m towards. West
d. 35 m towards North
e. 45 m towards North
Directions (87-89): Study the following information and answer the given questions. \
T is the sister of D. D is married to P. P is the son of M. T is the mother of J. Y is the father of U. Y has only one
son and only one daughter. U is the daughter of T. Q is the son of D.
87. How is P related to T?

a. Brother
b. Cannot be determined
c. Brother-in-law
d. Cousin brother
e. Uncle
88. How is J related to D?
a. Son b. Niece
c. Son-in-law d. Nephew
e. Daughter.
89. How is Q related to M?
a. Son-in-law b. Grandson
c. Nephew d. Son
e. Cannot be determined
90. A person starts walking from his home towards his friends place. He walks for 25 m towards West.
He takes a 90 right turn and walks for 20 m. He again takes a 90 right turn, and walks for 10 m. He then
walks for another 10 m after taking a 90 left turn. Turning 90 towards his right, he walks for 15 m to
reach his friends peace. How far and in which direction is the friends place from his home?
Page 34
a. 30 m towards East
b. 30 m towards North
c. 40 m towards South
d. 30 m towards South
e. 40 m towards North
Directions (91-95): In this questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the Statements. The
statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the
appropriate answer.
Give answer
a. if only conclusion I is true
b. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
c. if only conclusion II is true
d. if both conclusions are true
e. if either conclusion I or II is true
Page 35
Directions: (96-100): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language,
Cinderella shouted for rescue is written as pr co Iy bu

rescue all the bugs is written as ke mt co rx bugs ate all carrots is written as vg rx ke sh
carrots for pretty Cinderella is written as Iy pr vg as (All codes are two-letter codes only)
96. In the given code language, what does the code pr stand for?
a. Either bugs or shouted
b. rescue
c. Either Cinderella or for
d. for
e. pretty
Page 36
97. What will be the code for the pretty in the given code language?
a. bu rx
b. ke as
c. Other than those given as options
d. mt bu
e. as mt
98. What is the code for bugs in the given code language?
a. Other than those given as options
b. co
c. sh
d. Either co or vq
e. Either ke or rx
99. What may be the possible code for pretty in the given code language?
a. ly b. pr
c. vg d. as
e. vg or as
100. What may be the possible code for shouted and ate in the given code language?
a. bu sh mt
b. rx co gy
c. Iy rx vg
d. gy sh as
e. sh gy bu
Page 37
SBI PO Previous (Pre.) Exam Paper 2014

:: Reasoning ::
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) Study the given information and answer the questions. When a word and
number arrangement machine is given an input line or words and numbers, its arranges them following
a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
(All the numbers are two-digit numbers)

Input 14 36 methodology 21 of research
59 crucial 98 very 62 is
Step I 98 14 38 methodology 21 of research
59 crucial very is 62
Step II 98 very 14 36 methodology 21 of
59 crucial is research 62
Step III 59 98 very 14 methodology 21 of
crucial is research 62 36
Step IV 59 98 very of 14 21 crucial is
methodology research 62 36
Step V 21 59 98 very of crucial is
methodology research 62 36 14
Step VI 21 59 98 very of is crucial
methodology research 62 36 14
Step VI is the of the above arrangement as the intended arrangements is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given, steps find out appropriate steps for the given input. Input 65 work in 23 to
be 13 89 managed 48 97 load 34 healthy 55 style
1. Which element is exactly between style and be in second

last steps of the given arrangements?
(1) Work
(2) Healthy
(3) 23
Page 38
(4) Load
(5) Be
2. What is the position of 46 from the right end in the third

steps?
(1) Sixth
(2) Seventh
(3) Fifth
(4) Eight
(5) Ninth
3. Which of the following is fifth step of the arrangement based

on the given input?
(1) 46 65 97 to managed in 23 be 13 load healthy style work 89 55 34
(2) 46 work 65 style 97 in 23 be 13 load healthy 89 managed 55 to 34
(3) 46 65 97 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 89 55 34
(4) 34 46 55 65 89 97 work syle in 23 be, 13 load healthy managed to
(5) 89 55 34 work style in 23 be 13 load healthy managed to 46 65 97
4. In which, step are the elements be 13 healthy in found in

the same order?
(1) Third
(2) Sixth
(3) Fourth
(4) The given order of elements is not found in any stop
(5) Fifth
5. How many steps will be required to complete the given

arrangement based on the given input?
(1) Eight
(2) Ten
Page 39
(3) Seven
(4) Nine
(5) Six
6. Which elements is eight to left of the elements which is

twelfth from the end of the third last step?
(1) 97
(2) 23
(3) Work
(4) Style
(5) To
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-11) The following questions consisting of a question and two statements I and II
given below. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the
questions. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
7. All are the five friends F, G, H, I and J, situated in a straight

line facing North?
I. F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line only two people sit between F and H. J sits to immediate left of H.
G and I are immediate neighbours of each other.
II. J faces North and sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two peoples sit between J and I. H sits
second to the right of I. H sits to immediate left of G.
(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Which the data one alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
(2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient, to the answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficent to answer the question.
(4) The data is even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together unnecessary to answer the question.
8. How never will be written in a code language?

I. In that code language never ever go there is written as an ja ni ho.
II. In that code language go there and come back is written as ma ho sa ni da.
(1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data one alone are not
Page 40

not sufficient to the answer the question.
(3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) The data in both statements I and II together unncessary to answer the question.
9. Is C the mother of B?
I. P is the father of A and B. R has only the one brother P. C is sister in law of R. R is unmarried F is the mother
of R. F has only two childrens.
II. H has only two childrens P and R. P is father of A. B is the only brother of A. R is unmarried. H is the father-in-
law of C.
10. Five movies P, Q, R, S and T are scheduled to be screened

from Monday to Friday of the same week. Which movie will be
screened on Friday?
I. Movies P will be screened on Tuesday. Only two movies will be screened between movies R and S. R will be
screened before S.
II. Movie Q will be screened on Wednesday. Only one movie will be screened between movies Q and R. S will
be screened immediate before movie T.
Page 41
(5) The data in both statement I and II together unnecessary to answer the question.
11. How far is point R from point P?

I. A person starts from point P, walks 15 m to the South takes right turn and walks 4 m. He then takes left turn
and walks 7 m. He takes left turn again, walks for 4 m and reaches point Q. If the percent takes left turn and
walks 7 m, he will reach point R.
II. A person starts from point P, walks 14 m towards the East, takes a left turn and walks 3 m. He than takes a
left turn again and walks for 14 m to reach point N. If a takes a right turn from point N and walks 5 m, he will be
27 m away from point R.
Directions (Q. Nos. 12-17) Study the information carefully and answer the questions.
M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular area of equal distances between each other, but not
necessarily in the same order some of the people are facing the center while some face outside. (i.e., in a
direction opposite to the centre).
Note : Facing the same direction means one faces the centre then the other also faces the centre and vice-
versas. Facing opposite direction means if one person faces centre then the other faces outside and vice-versa.
S sits second to the right of P. P faces the centre. T sits second the left of S. T is an immediate neighbour of
both O and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. M sits seconds to the left of R. T sits second to the left of N. M sits
second to the left of O. T faces the same direction as Q. N sits third to the right of M.
12. Who sits exactly between S and T. When counted from the
left of S?
(1) M
(2) Q
(3) P
Page 42
(4) O
(5) N
13. How many people in the given arrangement face the

centre?
(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two
(5) Four
14. Who sits second to the right of N?

(1) R
(2) P
(3) T
(4) S
(5) O
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based
on the given sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) R
(2) S
(3) Q
(4) O
(5) M
16. Which of the following is true regarding T as per the given

sitting arrangements?
(1) T faces the centre.
(2) Only two people sit between N and T.
Page 43
(3) Only three people sit between T and P.

(4) S sits second to the left of T.
(5) Only one persons sits between T and R.
17. What is Ms position with respect to T?

(1) Second to the left
(2) Fifth to the right
(3) Third to the right
(4) Third to the left
(5) Fourth to the right
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-23) In these questions two/three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows the statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements
Some prices are costs.
Some costs are amounts.
All amounts are expenses.
Conclusions
I. At least some amounts are prices.
II. All amounts being prices is a possibility.
(1) Either conclusion I or II is true
(2) Both conclusion I and II are true
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true
(5) Only conclusion I is true
19. Statements
All invitations are rejections.
Some invitations are celebrations.
No rejection is an attraction.
Conclusions
Page 44
I. Some celebrations are rejections.

II. All celebrations are rejections.
20. Statements
All grades are scales.
All scales are categories.
Conclusions
I. All grades are categories.
II. All categories are scales.
21. Statements
Some metals are papers.
All papers are alloys.
No alloy is a wood.
Conclusions
I. All woods being metals is a possibility
II. All metals being woods is a possibility.
Page 45
22. Statements
Some metals are papers.
All papers are alloys.
No alloy is a wood.
Conclusions
I. No paper is a wood.
II. At least some meals are alloys.
23. Statements
Some prices are costs.
Some costs are amounts.
All amounts are expenses.
Conclusions
I. No expense is a cost.
II. At least some expenses are prices.
24. This question consist of a statements followed by two

course of actions numbered I and II given below it. A course of
action is an administrative decision to be taken for
improvements, follow-up or further action in the regard to the
problems, policy etc. You have to assumed everything in the
Page 46
statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested

courses of actions logically follows from the given statements.
Statements
There have been structural shifts from agriculture to industry in country Z. While industries contribute to 67% of
the countrys GDP. It is leading to a study and undesirable declined in the participation of labour force in
agriculture.
I. The government should curtail number of industries borrowing up in the country in order to promote the
agricultures.
II. Incentives for working in agriculture should be made competitive with that of other sectors.
Directions (Q. Nos. 25-27) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Each of the six people U, V, W, X, Y and Z stayed for a different number of day in India. X stayed for less
number of days then only V, Y stayed for more number of days then only two people. U and did not stay less
than Y. W did not stay for the minimum number of days. The one who stayed for the second lowest number of
days stayed for eight days. U stayed for 17 days in India.
25. Which of the following is possibly the number of days for

which it stayed in India?
(1) 5
(2) 32
(3) 23
(4) 20
(5) 17
26. Which of the following is true with respect to Z as per the

given information?
Page 47
(1) The possible number of days for which Z stayed in India is 14 days
(2) Z stayed for the minimum number of days
(3) None of the given options is true
(4) Only two peoples stayed for more number of days than Z
(5) Z definitely stayed for more number of days than Y
27. Which of the following may be the possible number of days

for which Y stayed in India?
(1) 11
(2) 8
(3) 19
(4) 5
(5) 25
Directions (Q. Nos. 28-32) Study the information carefully and answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such a way that there is an equal
distance between adjacent persons in row- I J, K, L, M and N are seated and all of them are facing North and in
row-II P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all facing South (but not necessarily in the same order). Each person also
likes different flowers namely Gazania, Plumeria, Tulip, Orchids, Lily, Rose, Daffodil, Daisy Peony and Dahila
(but not necessarily in the same order).
N sits exactly in the centre of the row and faces the one who likes orchids. Only one person sits between N and
the one who likes Lily. S faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one who likes Lily. Only one person sits
between P and the one who likes Orchids. P is not an immediate neighbour of S. P faces one of the immediate
neighbour of L. M is neither an immediate neighbours of L nor faces S. Q is not an immeidate neighbour of A
and faces the one who likes Plumeria. M does not face R. M faces one of the immediate neighbour of the one
who likes rose. Only one person sits between the one who likes Rose and the one who likes Gazania. The one
who likes Peony and the one who likes Daisy face each other. Only two people sit between the one who likes
Daisy and the One who likes Daffodil. J does not like Daffodil. The one who likes Dahlia sits fourth to the right of
the one who likes Peony.
28. Who amongst the following is a immediate neighbour of

the one who likes Peony?
Page 48
Study Materials for IBPS-PO (Probationary Officer) Exam
What you will get:

6 Booklets
1100+ Pages
5000+ MCQs
Implementation Aspects:
You will Get 6 booklets.
Study Kit will be delivered to your postal Address after payment confirmation.
After dispatching your kit we will provide you a courier tracking details.
For any help we will provide Telephonic & Email Support to the candidates.
For More Information Click Given below link:

http://www.bankexamportal.com/study-kit/ibps-po
(1) Who likes Rose

(2) Who likes Lily
(3) Who likes Gazania
(4) K
(5) T
29. Which of the following is definitely true as per the given

arrangements?
(1) Lily
(2) Gazania
(3) Rose
(4) Orchids
(5) Daffodil
30. Which of the following flowers does S like?

(1) L face R
(2) Q is an immediate neighbour of P
(3) The one who likes Daisy is an immediate neighbour of P
(4) Q likes Daffodil
(5) The one who likes Dahlia faces N
31. Which of the following pairs represent the people sitting at

the extreme end of the two rows?
(1) P, J
(2) Q, L
(3) R, K
(4) S, K
(5) S, L
32. Who amongst the following likes Tulip?

(1) N
(2) P
Page 49
(3) S
(4) Q
(5) J
33. Read the following information carefully and answer the

question which follows :
As per a recent survey 85% of the world force today is either
actively looking for a job or open to talking to recruiters and
relevant opportunities, the ones who are satisfied with their
job.
Which of the following may be a reason for the above
mentioned results of the survey?
(1) As there is the wide array of opportunity today and head hunters are always seeking for professionals,
people are not willing to let go of an opportunity to do something new and challenging.
(2) As per a recent survey more than 40% people today are dissatisfied with their jobs as there is the wide gap
between what they study in the class room as compared to the actual work they do
(3) Some people in the country take education loan for completing higher education and are expected to repay
the loans themselves after they start working
(4) As employees today are of different age group and back grounds it becomes difficult for the HR department
to organise employment engagement activities to improve the job satisfaction of employees
(5) Only a few people study for high specialised coursed in the country and they are always in demand as there
is high scale gap in many organisations
Directions (Q. Nos. 34-35) The following questions consist of a statements followed by two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements numbered I and II
weakens or strengthens the statement and mark the appropriate answer.
34. Statement
The world should move towards using bio-fuels in the future as these are more environment friendly as
compared to regular fossil-fuels.
I. While bio-fuels cleaner to burn, the processed to produce the fuel, including the necessary machinery leads to
Page 50
very high carbon emission.

II. As two-fuels are manufactured from materials such as crop waste, manure and other by products, these,
unlike fossil-fuels, are easily renewable.
(1) Statement I weakens the information while statements II is a natural statement.
(2) Both statement I and II weakens the information.
(3) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the statement.
(4) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengths the statement.
(5) Both statements I and II strengthens the information.
35. Statement
Always remain in an air conditioned environment for better health and well-being.
I. Filters in the air-conditioners lower exposure to allergy creating pollen and other outdoor allergies.
II. Spending two much times in an air-conditioned environment result in gradual intolerance of body towards
natural temperatures.
(1) Statement I weakens the information while statements II is a natural statement.
(2) Both statement I and II weakens the information.
(3) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the statement.
(4) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengths the statement.
(5) Both statements I and II strengthens the information.
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-14) The following questions have a statement followed by two conclusions (I and II).
Assuming the given statements to be true, find which conclusion is definitely true.
36. Statement
BA=N>KS
Conclusions
I. A > S II. B K
37. Statement
Page 51
BA=N>KS
Conclusions
I. B N II. S < N
38. Statement
K<=MN=OP
Conclusions
I. L > O
II. L = O
39. Statement
KL= MN=OP
Conclusions
I. K < P II. M O
40. Statement
Page 52
X<YZ=W
KJ>Z
Conclusions
I. Z < K II. Y W
41. Statement
X<YZ=W
KJ>Z
Conclusions
I. X J II. K > Y
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-44) Study the following information and answer the given questions. A and Y are
brothers of K. Y is the son of P and S. P is the daughter of X. M is the father in law of S. Q is the son of X.
42. If J is brother of X, then how is J related to Q?

(1) Uncle
(2) Nephew
(3) Cannot be determined
(4) Brother-in-law
(5) Son-in-law
43. How is Y related to M?
Page 53
(1) Nephews
(2) Father
(3) Brother-in-law
(4) Grandson
(5) Brother
44. How is K related to Q?

(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Niece
(3) Daughter (4) Nephew
(5) Son in law
45. Read the given information carefully and answer the

question.
Five fisherman from country X were sentenced to
imprisonment by the High Court of country Y on charges of
smuggling narcotics from country X to country Y. Which of the
following supports the legal action taken by country Y?
A. Country X had given details of a new fisherman that had no record of involvement in drug related activities.
B. The navel authorities of both the country X and Y have found traces of narcotics in the fish boxes that were
shipped from country X to country Y by these fisherman.
C. All the fish boxes that are shipped between countries undergo a strict process of checking.
D. It was found that two of the five fisherman who were sentenced to death penalty were earlier imprisoned for
the same reason a few years back.
(1) B and C
(2) B and E
(3) Only D
(4) None of these
(5) Only B
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Read the given information and answer the given questions.
Page 54
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on separate floors of an 8-floor building. Ground floor is numbered H,
first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the top most floor is numbered 8.
C lives on floor number 3. Only one person lives between C and F. Only one person lives between C and G. E
lives immediately above B
H lives immediately above F. H lives on any of the floors below D.
Only one person lives between D and A. D lives above A.
46. Who lives on the floor immediately below D?

(1) Other than those given as options
(2) H
(3) A
(4) D
(5) C
47. Which of the following is true with respect to the given

information?
(1) Only one person lives between E and G
(2) A lives on an even numbered floor
(3) A lives immediately below C
(4) F lives on floor number 5
(5) A lives immediately above H
48. How many people live between the floors on which D and
C, live?
(1) One
(2) More than three
(3) Three (4) Two
(5) No more
49. Who amongst the following lives between B and G?
Page 55
(1) No one
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) D
50. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 5?

(1) A
(2) G
(3) F
(4) D
(5) H
Page 56
:: English ::
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) In the following questions, the sentences have two blank, each blank indicates
that something has been confined. Choose the word that best fits in the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
51. .............. Dinosaurs live to be the ancestors of modern

birds, the discovery of soft tissue in Dinosaurs fossils
containing proteins found only in birds is very ...........
(1) Though, unfortunate
(2) Recently, common
(3) Since, exciting
(4) Perhaps, remarkable
(5) Moreover, welcome
52. The van Allen belts which are ............ between 13000 to
60000 km above the Earths surface were discovered in 1958
and contain electrons which play ............ with electronic
systems on satellites.
(1) Somewhere, damages
(2) located, havoc
(3) Position, mayhem
(4) Situated, part
(5) Vicinity, confusion
53. Rice farmers use ........... methods of farming and old

equipment making the cost of price ......... twice as much as it
is in other countries.
(1) Obsolete, economical
(2) Modern, expensive
(3) Future, virtuality
Page 57
(4) Antiquated, almost

(5) Sustainable, approximate
54. Some experts believe that the best .......... to reduce the
number of accidents caused by drivers using their mobile
phones to create an app/ ......... communications when the
vehicle in is motion and unblocking them when the vehicle
reaches its destination.
(1) Tactic, block
(2) Strategy, disabiling
(3) Part, facilitating
(4) Decision, expediting
(5) Method, further
55. Services provided by money transfer companies are

............... for people who dont use bank account or who are
working for from home and are helpful to ........... trade and
dispersion wealth.
(1) Fundamental, compute
(2) Prerequisite, invigorating
(3) Vitally, strengthen
(4) Essentally, boester
(5) inherent, foster
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so
as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
A. She follows the foot steps of other renowned female politicians like Chiles Michelle Bachelet and Germanys
Angela Merkel.
B. Women are also rein to the fore front in other parts of the government.
C. And this leadership can be seen in the growing number of women who are becoming political leaders and the
most recent being Dilma Rouseff who looks over as Brazils first women President.
D. It is defined as the ability to influence or lead through persuasion or attraction by co-opting people rather than
Page 58
coercing them.
E. The leadership of women in politics business and society is becoming evident across the globe.
F. These trends represent the growing needs for soft power in todays world.
56. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence

after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) F
(5) E
57. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence

after the rearrangement?
(1) C
(2) B
(3) F
(4) D
(5) E
58. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST)

sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) B
(4) A
(5) F
59. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after

the rearrangement?
Page 59
(1) E
(2) D
(3) B
(4) F
(5) C
60. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after

the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) C
(3) B
(4) F
(5) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-70) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain
words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Infrastructure projects take a long time to built but then deliver cash flows over an extended period, precision funds
have liabilities thats stretch our several decades. Why not get the letter to finance the former? A new report from
the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) estimates that global pension funds have
just point 9% of their portfolios in pure infrastructure in part i.e., due to the OECDs decision to define infrastructure
assets as untrusted debt and equity.
But pension funds has significant exposure to tested shares and bonds of power companies and the due from the
point of view public policy however, the OECDs definition is the correct one. The utility shares owned by pension
funds are those of power companies that were privatised in the 1980s and 1990s and the infrastructure they
operate is a result of government spending in previous decade. Governments would rather not see more
infrastructure get built, thought at the moment public financial are very tight. They would rather not bear the whole
burden. The difficult bit about infrastructure projects apart from the original decision to commission them is the
cost of construction i.e., where governments would like pension funds and the rest of the private sectors to open
their wallets.
Risk is clearly one important factor. Pension funds want reliable cash flows that can be used to pay retres, not the
uncertains that are associated with projects. As the OECD points out there is a lack of objective high quality data
on infrastructure investments. These make this difficults for funds to calculate how infrasture would fit in to there
portfolio. Another problems is that pension funds may lack the expertise to get involved in such large projects, they
Page 60
have to invest via and infrastructure funds and pay a management fee for the previlege. The biggest infrastructure
investors so far have been the joined Australian and Canadian pension funds which can benefits from economics
of scale. Britain is trying to achieve the same effect by setting up pension investment platform which will pool
infrastructure investment. However, the scheme is slow to get going and not be sufficient fund brattish highest
profile projects, a proposed high speed rail line additional problems include the lack of political certainty. Capital
spending is often the first item to be cut when governments run into budget difficulties and tough decision and put
of to suit electoral cycles. One possible solution is for governments to borrow separate sum to finance infrastructure
spending with the stated intension of the selling assets to the likes of pension funds over a number of years such
are debt would be recorded separately in the National Accounts. An ultimative option could be a National
Investment Bank among the lines of European investment bank. It would borrow from the market and used its
capital to guarantee the equity portion of the infrastructure project. They would allow pension funds to buy the
more secure debt elements of project findings the needs is clear among the G-7 countries. Only Italy is recorded
as having worlds infrastructure. There is no shortage of protection funding-Britains pension assets are equal to
112% of GDP. Clearly to can be put together. The Olympics showed that Britain can built projects on time when
the country puts its mind to it.
61. Which of the following is the role of pensions investment

platform?
(1) To create guidelines regarding infrastructure investment in retain.
(2) To provide services only to small pension funds to invest in infrastructure.
(3) To monitor prestigious infrastructure projects and public private partnership
(4) To provide guidance to authorities in Europe regarding infrastructure development.
(5) To garner funding for infrastructure projects.
62. What is the authors view of OECD report on

infrastructure?
(1) He feels that the report unnecessarily focusses on the negative aspects of investing in government projects.
(2) He is an agreement with the data and contentions cited in the report.
(3) He is in favour of the OECDs view of governments keeping investment in infrastructure on hold.
(4) He opposes the OECDs restrictions on diverting funds to infrastructure development.
(5) He recommends that investments levels prescribed by the report beared opted by Britain Accordingly
Page 61
63. According to the passage, why is there a need for Britain

to invest in infrastructure?
(1) Britains desire to surpass Italy in infrastructure development
(2) Surplus pension funds need to be gainfully diverted to avoid misuse
(3) Infrastructure is deficient and in need of an overhaul
(4) Britains prestige as host of the Olympics is at stake
(5) Not clearly mentioned in the passage
64. Which of the following factor(s) impact(s) investment

decisions of the pension funds?
A. Political uncertainty and financial risk.
B. Requisite expertise in infrastructure projects.
C. Returns on investment.
(1) Only B
(2) A and B
(3) Only A
(4) All of these
(5) B and C
65. Which of the following is the main objective of the author

in writing the passage?
(1) To examine the misappropriation of Britains pension funds
(2) To estimate how unprofitable it is for the country if pension funds are used to create infrastructure
(3) To urge the government to reduce risky exposure of pension funds and bonds an invest in safe options
(4) To analyse the claims made by the OECD report and point out inconsistencies
(5) To suggest that pension funds can and should more in infrastructure
66. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word

Extended given in bold as used in the passage.
(1) Absolute
(2) Fleeting
Page 62
(3) Equitable
(4) Steady
(5) Regular
67. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in

meaning to the word Commission given in bold as used in the
passage.
(1) Agency
(2) Committee
(3) Contract
(4) Payment
(5) Expense
68. Which of the following can be inferred in the content of the

passage?
(1) Britain is making efforts to reform its infrastructure sector
(2) Britains GDP is abysmal and prestigious infrastructure projects should be kept on hold till the pension and
infrastructure projects are reformed
(3) Investments banks are risky as they are governed by political powers
(4) Britains national accounts data lacks crucial parameters
(5) All the given statements can be inferred in the context of the passage
69. What does the author want to convey through the phrase
They would rather not bear the whole burden?
(1) Government would prefer to privatise utilities like power etc
(2) Government are vary about the public takeout of pension funds going bust
(3) Governments short on capital, are cautious about society financing infrastructure as it is costly
(4) The private-sector is unwilling to continue their monetary support of loss making public facilities
70. According to the passage, which of the following can be

said about infrastructure investment?
Page 63
A. It provides tremendous opportunities to investors as there is a huge need for infrastructure.

B. Creative solutions are required to generate the necessary investment.
C. It is crucial for governments to invest in infrastructure to win elections.
(1) None
(2) A and B
(3) Only A
(4) Only B
(5) A and C
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) Which of the phrase given against the sentence should replace the word/
phrase given in bold in sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is given as it is given
and no correction is required, mark No correction required as the answer.
71. Getting tax refunds is a problematic not only for the

common man but also sensor officials.
(1) are problems (2) is a problem
(3) are a problem (4) is problem
(5) no correction required
72. The World Bank represents a particularly difficult case of

organisation cultural changes.
(1) Represent (2) Representing
(3) Representation
(4) Have representing
(5) No correction required
73. Big companies are hiking stipends for summer internships

by 40%, sending out a strong signal. That they expects the
economy to new up.
(1) Them expecting
(2) They expect
(3) These expectation
Page 64
(4) Expect these

74. Declining crude prices have raise hopes of interest of rate

cuts.
(1) Have rise
(2) Have rising
(3) Have raised
(4) Has risen
75. India continues to be on the top of the global consumer

confidence under this year as well.
(1) Continue to being
(2) Continuing to be
(3) Continuing too be
(4) Continue to be
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Read this sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistakes/
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your
answer. If there is no error, mark No error as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
76. After the cash-strapped corporation/expressed its inability

to provide funds/for various devlop- mental works, the office
bearers of the civic body started/lobbying at special financial
and from State government.
(1) After the cash-strapped corporation
(2) Expressed its inability to provide funds
(3) For various development works, the office bearers of the civic body started
(4) Lobbying for special financial and from State government
(5) No error
Page 65
77. Three things are/essential for a start up to succeed,/a

product that is in demand,/a good team and as well as a
minimum expenditure.
(1) Three things are
(2) Essential for a start up to succeed
(3) A product that is in demand
(4) A good team as well as a minimum expenditure
(5) No error
78. We all have at/some point in our lives/wondered if we are

actually/being too nice to someone.
(1) We all have at
(2) Some point in our lives
(3) Wondered if we are actually
(4) Being too nice to someone
(5) No error
79. Anticipating a foggy winter,/the railway authorities

has/decided to/cancel thirty trains.
(1) Anticipating a foggy winter
(2) The railway authorities have
(3) Decided to
(4) Cancel thirty trains
(5) No error
80. New businesses today/are increasing by focusing

on/introducing various perks and motivation programmes/to
help retain employees.
(1) New businesses today
(2) Are increasing focusing on
(3) Introducing various perks and motivation programmes
Page 66
(4) To help retain employees

(5) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain
words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
In our day and age, technology is omnipresent and integral part of our lives. However, although, the main purpose
of technology is to make our lives easier, the reactions on opinions and technology are very diverse. This year,
various sessions at the Womens Forum covered the influence of new technologies in our daily life. It is worthwhile
analysing two contrasting perspectives in depth, to understand how broad this debate is. On the one hand,
technology and digital media can be a great help to reach out to other people and spread your message to a very
large platform. The session How to be a digital influencer was analysing exactly this question, and introduced
various platforms and strategies on how too use the digital world to your advantage. Social media removes all
distances : Geographic, social and hierarchical. You cna reach, at any time, and communication in real time. Thus,
a permanent link for communication has been created. Today; everyone has the ability to transmit knowledge and
thus credibility of the creator of knowledge is more important than even before. Technology has taken the universal
communication method of storytelling and transformed it, in a way that now more stories can reach more people
through social media platforms than ever before. People should find their digital media voice, tell sharable stories
and drive engagement. Also, it is very important to be authentic and truly about the message you are trying to
convey through the digital media. Another session, the very same day, analysed how exactly the opposite is true
and how new technologies actually cause stress and suffering, because of a concept referred to as infobesity,
we have changed the way we consume and generate information. People are trying to live ten lives at once and
a lot of stress and anxiety occurs from that. Thus, we are suffering from digital bulimia, meaning that we take in a
lot of information at once, without really processing if for ourselves, and in turn create a lot of new information. We
are at the same time creators and victims of information overload. Thus, it is obvious that technological
advancement has failed at its mission of making everybodys life easier, as many people are reacting negatively
to it.
81. According to the passage, which of the following is not

true about the characteristics of infobestiy?
(1) The pace of our lives has increased significantly due to technology
(2) With the help of technology, people try to domultiple things at the same time, leading to stress
(3) Technology makes our lives sedentary and leads to health problems
Page 67
Study Kit for India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) Exam
What you will get:

6 Booklets (Reasoning, Aptitude, Computer Knowledge, English Language,

Descriptive Essay)
General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry) with

500+ Multiple Choice Questions "PDF Copy"
1100+ Pages
5000+ MCQs
5 Online Practice Test Access Free (Worth Rs. 499)


http://www.bankexamportal.com/study-kit/india-post-payments-bank
(4) Due to technology, each individual is bombarded with excess information

(5) All the options are true according to the passage
82. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the

word given as bold as used in the passage?
(1) Similar
(2) Separate
(3) Interwoven
(4) Simultaneous
(5) Together
83. Which of the following can be said about the invention of

the car?
A. More than being a boon, this invention has become an inconvenience to us.
B. It has invoked in us the desire to travel to places that we would not have otherwise gone to
C. It has enabled us to have more time for ourselves
(1) A and C
(2) B and C
(3) A and B
(4) All of these
(5) Only B
84. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the
passage?
(1) The paradox of technological advance
(2) The different types of technology available
(3) Technology propagation-the road to nowhere
(4) Technology and gainful insight
(5) Technological progress across the continents
85. According to the author, which of the following can be said

about reaching to people through the medium of technology?
Page 68
A. Todays digital age has made it essential for an individual to send a message that is genuine in nature.
B. The ability to impact many people through a message is solely dependent on the number of times the same
message goes out, regardless of its authenticity.
C. Technology has made it easier to reach out to masses of people at the same time.
(1) Only C
(2) All of these
(3) A and C
(4) A and B
(5) Only B
86. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. It is in our own interest that we keep check on the amount of digital information that we generate.
B. The promise on which technology was designed was that it should make our lives simpler.
C. It is best that we learn to survive without any technological intervention in our lives.
(1) A and B
(2) All of these
(3) B and C
(4) Only A
(5) Only B
87. According to the passage, which of the following is

authors opinion/statement about technology?
(1) Beware! Technology can only bring doom if allowed to proliferate.
(2) Take responsibility for how you let technology impact your life.
(3) Go head and invest in the latest technology, it is worth it.
(4) What the future of technology holds for us is unknown, wait and watch
(5) Other than those given as options.
88. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning

to the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Engagement
Page 69
(1) Appointment
(2) Involvement
(3) Meeting
(4) Rendezvous
(5) Date
89. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning

to the word given in bold as used in the passage?Credibility
(1) Calculated
(2) Deliberated
(3) Believed
(4) Created
(5) Patterned
90. Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning to

the word given in bold as used in the passage? Spread
(1) Collect
(2) Take
(3) Restrict
(4) Join
(5) Multiply
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate
word in each case.
Changing an organisations culture is one of the most difficult leadership challenges. Thats because an
organisations culture (91) interlocking set of goals, roles, processes, values communications parctices, attitudes
and assumptions. These elements (92) together as a mutually reinforcing system and combine to prevent any (93)
to change it. That is why single-fix challenges, such as the introduction of teams. Of lean, or agile, or scrum or
knowledge management or some new process, may (94) to make progress for a while, but (95) the interlocking
elements of the organisational culture (96) over and the change is inexorably drawn (97) into the existing
organisational culture. Changing a culture is large scale undertaking and eventually all of the organisational focus
Page 70
for changing minds will need to be put in play. However, the (98) in which they are deployed has a Critical (99) on
the (100) of success.
91.
(1) Less
(2) Embraces
(3) Comprises
(4) Makes
(5) Composes
92.
(1) Amalgamate
(2) Conjoin
(3) Fill
(4) Stand (5) Attach
93.
(1) Attempt
(2) Energy
(3) Ways
(4) Power
(5) Tries
94.
(1) Look
(2) Appear
(3) Perform
(4) Suspect
(5) Seek
95.
Page 71
(1) Especially
(2) Presently
(3) Likely
(4) Eventually
(5) Lately
96.
(1) Bounce
(2) Throw
(3) Seize
(4) Jump
(5) Take
97.
(1) Forth
(2) Ahead
(3) Gain
(4) Set
(5) Back
98
(1) Order
(2) Succession
(3) Idea
(4) Step
(5) Label
99.
(1) Affect
(2) Impact
(3) Control
Page 72
(4) Jolt
(5) Shake
100.
(1) Change
(2) Odd
(3) Risk
(4) Likelihood
(5) Option
Page 73
:: Data Analysis and Intelligence ::

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-106) In these questions a number of series is given. After the series a number is
given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to complete the series starting with the given
numbers following the sequence of original series and answer the questions that follows the series.
101. 48 24 36 90 315 1417.5
20 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (d)?
(1) 131.25
(2) 133.75
(3) 136
(4) 140
(5) 142.25
102. 2 11 52 183 430 555
4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (b)?
(1) 92
(2) 98
(3) 82
(4) 88
(5) 96
103. 7 9 21 69 273 1371
6 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (b)?
(1) 19
(2) 22
(3) 18
(4) 20
(5) 17
Page 74
104. 9 8 12 27 92 435
7 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (c)?
(1) 19
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 15
(5) 16
105. 8 9 21 68 279 1404
5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (d)?
(1) 184
(2) 207
(3) 212
(4) 196
(5) 228
106. 4 7 19 73 381 2161
8 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
What will come in place of (c)?
(1) 106
(2) 169
(3) 156
(4) 184
(5) 174
Directions (Q. Nos. 107-112) Study the following table to answer this questions.
Page 75
107. Total number of female employees (manager and officers)

in procurement department is by what percent more than their
male counter part?
(1)9%
(2)79/7 %
(3)45/4%
(4)104/11%
(5)100/11%
108. What is the difference between total number of male

officers in Advertising and Public Relations Departments and
the total number of female managers in these two departments?
(1) 240
(2) 180
(3) 150
Page 76
(4) 200
(5) 220
109. What is the respective ratio between total number of female

managers from Operations and Finance departments and the
total numbers of male officers from these two departments?
(1) 4 : 5
(2) 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 3 : 4
(5) 2 : 3
110. Total number of male officers in Advertising and Sale

departement is what percent of the total number of officers in
the two departments?
(1) 52
(2) 54
(3) 56
(4) 58
(5) 54
111. Total number of female managers in Finance department is

what percent of the total number of male employees in sales
department?
(1) 72.5
(2) 76.25
(3) 40
(4) 82.75
(5) 88.5
112. What is the ratio between of total number of managers in

Public Relation, Finance and Sales, and Operation departments
Page 77
and the total number of officers in Finance Advertising, Sales

and Procurement departments, respectively?
(1) 7 : 8
(2) 11 : 13
(3) 6 : 7
(4) 13 : 15
(5) 13 : 16
Directions (Q. Nos. 113-117) These questions consist of a question and two statements I and Ii given
below it. You have to decide whether the data providing in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option.
113. What is the speed of the train? (in km/h)

I. The car takes 2 h more than the train to cover a distance of 264 km.
II. The train moves 22 km/h faster than the car.
(1) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement Ii alone are sufficient to answer the question
(2) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
(4) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are not
sufficient to answer the question
(5) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not
114. How many students are there in the class?

I. The average weights of the class is 52 kg.
II. If two students weighing 44 kg and 52 kg leave the class and are replaced by two students weighing 64 kg
and 56 kg. The average weight of the class increases by 1.2 kg.
(1) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
Page 78
115. In how many days can 14 men complete a piece of wouk?

I 18 women can complete that work in 24 days.
II. 28 children can complete that work in 56 days.
116. What was the percentage of discount given on the marked

price of the table?
I. 15% profit was earned by selling the table for Rs. 14490. If there were not discount, percent profit would have
been 20%.
II. Cost price of table is Rs. 12600.
(2) If the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
117. What is area of the circle? (in sq cm)

I. The diameter of the circle is 90 cm less than its circumference
II. The radius of the circle is equal to the length of a rectangle whose perimeter in 77 cm.
Page 79
sufficient to anwer the question
Directions (Q. Nos. 118-121) Study the information and answer the given questions.
A bag contains four blue shirts five red shirts and six yellow shirts.s
118. Three shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability

that exactly one of them is blue?
(1) 36/91
(2) 40/91
(3) 44/91
(4) 48/91
(5) 31/91
119. One shirt is drawn randomly. What is the probability that

it is either red or yellow?
(1) 4/15
(2) 7/15
(3) 11/15
(4) 8/15
(5) 13/15
120. Two shirts are drawn randomly. What is the probability

that both of them are blue?
(1) 3/35
(2) 1/35
(3) 2/35
(4) 5/35
(5) 6/35
Page 80
121. If three shirts are drawn random 14, what is the

probability that all the three shirts are of different colour.
(1)24/91
(2)36/91
(3)12/91
(4)42/91
(5)None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 122-126) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions. As a part
of renovation of an office flooring, painting and carpenting of a hall is to be undertaken. The hall has
length 16 m, breadth 12 m and height 5 m. Cost of flooring is Rs. 2250/m2, cost of painting is Rs. 750/m2
and cost of carpenting is Rs. 850/m2.
122. What will the total cost of flooring the hall and painting
the ceiling?
(1) Rs. 560000
(2) Rs. 576000
(3) Rs. 524000
(4) Rs. 580000
(5) Rs. 564000
123. What will be the cost of painting the four walls of the hall
if it has a door of 1.6 m 2.5 m and a window of 0.8 m 1.5 m?
(1) Rs. 190900
(2) Rs. 208000
(3) Rs. 196800
(4) Rs. 198600
(5) Rs. 206100
124. What will be the cost of flooring the hall if the contractor
offered 12% discount on the total cost?
Page 81
(1) Rs. 380160

(2) Rs. 336440
(3) Rs. 328240
(4) Rs. 342320
(5) Rs. 360350
125. While painting the hall it was noticed that one wall on
length side having no door or window required plastering
which will cost Rs. 320/m2. What will be the cost of plastering
and painting that particular wall?
(1) Rs. 85600
(2) Rs. 84400
(3) Rs. 82800
(4) Rs. 86400
(5) Rs. 85200
126. What will be the difference between the cost of painting

the wall on length side and the wall on breath side neither of
the walls has a door or a window?
(1) Rs. 14000
(2) Rs. 15000
(3) Rs. 15600
(4) Rs. 16000
(5) Rs. 14500
Directions (Q. Nos. 127-132) Study the following pie-charts and the information given below them
carefully and answer the questions given.
Page 82
127. The total number of which level employees in both the

organsiation together is maximum?
(1) A
(2) F
(3) C
(4) E
(5) D
128. The difference in the number of employees in the two

organisation of which level is the maximum?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) E
(4) F
(5) C
Page 83
129. The number of C level employees in organisation I is

approximately equal to the number of which level employees
in organisation II?
(1) B
(2) D
(3) F
(4) C
(5) A
130. Number of B level employees in organisation I is less than

that in organisation II by what percent approximately?
(1) 60
(2) 55
(3) 59
(4) 40
(5) 45
131. What is the total number of F level employees in

organisation level I and E level employees in orgainsation II
together?
(1) 7916
(2) 2652
(3) 7116
(4) 8126
(5) 4464
132. The number of A level employees in organisation II is

approximately what percentage of the number of D level
employees in organisation I?
(1) 30
(2) 62
Page 84
(3) 57
(4) 48
(5) 43
Directions (Q. Nos. 133-138) Study the table and answer the given questions :
(Consider each of the given companies equally distributed book among the districutors working with it)
133. What was the average number of books published by

companies A, C and D together?
(1) 5700
(2) 5900
(3) 5500
(4) 5300
(5) 6100
134. Number of books distributed by company B is what

percent of the number of books distributed by company E?
Page 85
135. Among the total number of books distributed by company

D the respective ratio of academic and non-academic books
was 5: 4. What was the number of non-academic books
distributed by company D?
(1) 1200 (2) 1800
(3) 1400
(4) 1500
(5) 1600
136. Number of books received by each distributor working

with company F was what percent more than the number of
books received by each distributor working with company E?
Page 86
Study Kit for RBI Officers in Grade B (General)-DR (Pre.) Exam
What you will get:

100% (Pre.) Syllabus Covered
6 Booklets
1100+ Pages
5000+ MCQs
Our Objectives:
Our sole objective is to help you to score maximum in RBI Officers in Grade B
(General) (Pre.) Exam.

http://www.bankexamportal.com/study-kit/rbi-grade-b-officer
Study Kit for RBI Assistant Exam
What you will get:
6 Booklets (Reasoning, Aptitude, Computer Knowledge, English Language, Descriptive
Essay)
General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry) with 500+ Multiple
Choice Questions "PDF Copy"
1100+ Pages
5000+ MCQs
Our Objectives:
Our sole objective is to help you to score maximum in RBI Assistant Exam.

http://www.bankexamportal.com/study-kit/rbi-assistant
137. What was the respective ratio between total number of

books distributed by company A and the total number of
books distributed by company C?
(1) 53 : 88
(2) 171 : 176
(3) 53 : 92
(4) 49 : 82
(5) 57 : 92
138. What was the difference between number of books

received by each distributor working with company B and
number of books received by each distributor working with
company F?
Page 87
(1) 252
(2) 260
(3) 264
(4) 268
(5) 256
Directions (Q. Nos. 139-144) Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given :
139. What is the percentage increase in the income of

company Y from 2008 to 2010?
(1) 103/2
(2) 80/3
(3) 100/3
(4) 119/3
(5) 105/4
140. The total income of all the three companies together was
minimum in which of the following years?
(1) 2011
(2) 2008
Page 88
(3) 2009
(4) 2012
(5) 2007
141. In which year was the percentage increase in income of

company Z from the previous year the maximum?
(1) 2010
(2) 2008
(3) 2012
(4) 2011
(5) 2009
142. What is the approximate average income of all the three

companies together in 2011?
(1) Rs. 210 crore
(2) Rs. 240 crore
(3) Rs. 300 crore
(4) Rs. 260 crore
(5) Rs. 250 crore
143. What is the ratio between the total income of all three
companies in 2007 and 2008, respectively?
(1) 5 : 7
(2) 4 : 7
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 4 : 5
(5) 3 : 5
144. The income of company Z in 2010 is what percentage of

income of company y in 2011?
Page 89
Directions (Q. Nos. 145-150) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
Note (i) Profit = Income Expenditure

(ii) Percent Profit = (Profit/Expenditure) = 100
(iii) Loss = Expenditure Income
(iv) Percent Loss = (Loss/Expenditure) = 100
145. What is the total profit earned by the businessman in 2005

and 2008?
(1) 50 thousand
(2) 52 thousand
Page 90
(3) 55 thousand
(4) 58 thousand
(5) 60 thousand
146. What is average profit earned by the businessman in

2005, 2007 and 2009 together? (in Rs. thousand)
(1) 240
(2) 260
(3) 320
(4) 280
(5) 360
147. What is the respective ratio between total profit earned by

the businessman in 2004 and 2009 together and total loss
incurred by him in 2006 and 2008 together?
(1) 13 : 11
(2) 11 : 7
(3) 11 : 9
(4) 15 : 13
(5) 13 : 9
148. Profit earned by the businessman in 2009 is what percent

more than the profit earned by him in 2004?
(1) 162/3
(2) 221/3
(3) 122/3
(4) 142/3
(5) 181/3
149. Expenditure of the businessman increased by what

percent from 2005 to 2008?
Page 91
(1) 92.5
(2) 85
(3) 95
(4) 87.5
(5) 82
150. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in

2006 and 2008 together?
(1) 286/13
(2) 3610/13
(3) 321/13
(4) 384/13
(5) 348/13
Page 92
:: General Awareness, Marketing & Computer Knowledge ::

151. Rules for exchanging data between compuers are called
(1) Programmers (2) Hyperlinks
(3) Hyper actions
(4) Procedure
(5) Protocols
152. As per RBI guidelines, banks are no longer allowed to

penalise its customer for
(1) None-maintainers of minimum balance in cooperative accounts
(2) Non-maintained of minimum balance in current account
(3) Non-maintained of minimum balance in savings account
(4) Bouncing of cheques issued for non-availability of terms
(5) Premature withdrawal of term deposits
153. How many gigabytes are there in a prototype?

(1) 500000 (2) 100000
(3) 1000 (4) 100
(5) 001
154. Subject to compliance of security features the CBS

complaint Urban Cooperative Banks can offer the following
types of internet banking facility to their customers
(1) Non-fund based view only facility
(2) Payment of direct/indirect taxes
(3) Online-fund transfer from one account to another
(4) Online e-commerce facility
(5) Remittance of funds through NEFT/RTGS
155. Anoushka Shankar is a famous Indian
Page 93
(1) Famous music director

(2) Guitarist
(4) Classical singer
(5) Sitarist
156. When a customer likes a product and talks about it, this
becomes an example of
(1) Distalking
(2) Marketing
(3) Favouring
(4) Soliciting
(5) Word of mouth advertising
157. Which of the following is the autobiography of renowned

politician K. Natwar Singh?
(1) Not just an accountant
(2) One life is not enough
(3) My life with Rajiv and Sonia
(4) The substance and the Shadow
158. Basically, the CTS-2010 standards issued by the Reserve

Bank of India are
(1) Cheque forms specifications
(2) Systems specifications
(3) Procedures specifications
(4) Technology specifications
(5) Equipment specification
159. Which of the following instrument is in the hands of the

RBI controls liquidity in the banking systems by regulating the
Page 94
money supply in the hands of tanks that they can pump in

economy?
(1) Cash revenue ratio
(2) Credit deposit ratio
(3) Other than given as options
(4) Capital adequate ratio
(5) CASA ratio
160. Which of the following banks is a public sector banks?

(1) ICICI Bank (2) IDBI Bank
(3) HDFC Bank (4) J & K Bank
(5) PNB Bank
161. The RBI has come out with a new concept of bank licensing termed as the Differentiated Bank License. A differentiated Bank
License will allow a bank to
(1) Open branches in only identified geographical areas

(2) Deal with only an identified class of customers
(3) Offer products only in select
(4) Offer services to specified institutions/customers
(5) Operate on principles of universal banking
162. The mission the Insurance Regulatory and Development

Authority is to protect the interests of the policy holders and
to
(1) Ensure orderly growth of insurance industry
(2) Promote the development of financial infrastructure
(3) Specify listing and transfer of securities
(4) Regulate business of mutual funds
(5) Regulate the money and credit market
Page 95
163. Which of the following schemes aims at tackling

malnutrition and health problems of children below the age of
6 years and their memebers?
(1) Kasturba Gandhi Shishu Sangopan Yojana
(2) Kishore Vaigyanic Yojana
(3) Janani Suraksha Yojana
(5) Integrated Child Development Services
164. Which of the following country(ies) have the word Dinar

in its/official currency?
1. Algeria 2. Iraq
3. Kuwait
(1) 3 and 2
(2) 1 and 2
(3) Only 1
(4) 2 and 3
(5) All of these
165. Shares of a close ended fund is setting at 20% premium

over NAV and its NAV is Rs. 10.00 market price of the
(1) Rs. 10.00
(3) Rs. 11.00
(4) Rs. 12.00 (5) Rs. 8.00
166. Which button inExcel 2007 will automatically add the

contents of a group of cells?
(1) Calculate
(2) Auto add
(3) Auto sum
Page 96
(4) Formula
(5) Redo
167. In which of the following cases services marketing is

resorted to?
(1) production houses
(2) only MNCs
(3) Banks and Insurance companies
(4) Public sector undertakings
(5) Industrial units
168. The SBI has recently launched a new facility called M-

passbook for its retail banking users on its State Bank
Anywhere mobile application. The facility enables users to
(1) Perform e-commerce transactions through their smartphone
(2) Bend requisition for cheque books through their smartphone
(3) Perform internet banking transactions through their smartphone
(4) Indicates view their transaction history on their smartphone
(5) remit funds under RTGS/NEFT through their smartphone
169. .............. indicates the buying process of customers.

(1) Evaluation of alternatives
(2) Separating needs and wants
(3) Purchase decision
(4) Information search
(5) Need recognition
170. The process of writing computer instructing in a

programming language is known as
(1) Instructioning
(2) Coding
Page 97
(3) Algorithming
(4) File
(5) Processing
171. The supply chain that stretches from raw materials to

............ represents a value delivery system.
(1) Final products for final buyers
(2) Warehouses for storage
(3) Production stage
(4) Suppliers
(5) Factory entrance point
172. Market Segmentation means

(1) Making selling arrangement
(2) Grouping sales team
(3) Grouping the customers as per their needs
(4) Grouping bank office staff
(5) Grouping the counter staff
173. An investor who wants to dematerialise his shares needs

to open a demat account with
(1) The securities and Exchange Board of India
(2) The concerned company
(3) Any registered share broker
(4) A recognised stock exchange
(5) A depository participant
174. Which of the following is not parts of buying decision

process of customer?
(1) Seeking discount
(2) Problem recognition
Page 98
(3) Purchase design

(4) Information search
(5) Evaluation of alternatives
175. Which of the following sets of financial instruments is not

derivatives?
(1) Floors and collars
(2) Future and forwards
(3) Swaps and options
(4) Caps and credit default swaps
(5) Equities and bonds
176. Which of the following pairs of old names and new names
of countries names match of correct?
1. Constantnopie : Istambul
2. Mesopotamia : Parestine
3. Rhodesia : Zimbabwe
(1) Only 1 (2) 1 and 3
(3) All of these (4) Both 1 and 2
(5) 2 and 3
177. Which of the following is described as being too

impersonal of one way communication?
(1) Sales promotion by door-to-door campaign
(2) Personal selling
(3) Direct marketing
(4) Public relations
(5) Advertising
178. A marketing network consists of the company and its
Page 99
(1) Distributors only

(2) Employees only
(3) Supporting stock holders
(4) Shareholders only
(5) Suppliers only
179. Aggressive marketing is the result of

(1) Increased job solution
(2) Outsourcing
(3) Increased marketing staff
(4) Increased competition
(5) Increased production
180. The minimum wage ceiling for becoming a subscriber for

social security schemes run by Employees Provident Fund
Organisation (EPFO) has now been raised to
(1) Rs. 1000 (2) Rs. 7500
(3) Rs. 15000 (4) Rs. 10000
(5) Rs. 1200
181. A(n) ............. analysis and executes each line of source

code in succession, without looking at the entire programme.
(1) Compiler
(2) Device driver
(3) Utility
(4) operating system
(5) Interpreter
182. Value Added Service means

(1) Old products
(2) Extra service in addition
Page 100
(3) Highly valuable products

(4) Low value products
(5) Substituted products
183. Which of the following is not a part of four Ps of

marketing mix?
(1) Place (2) Price
(3) Promotion (4) Product
(5) Person
184. The decisions such as which country to enter in, how to

enter and how to introduce the products are required in
(1) Local markets (2) Global markets
(3) Social markets
(4) Government markets
(5) Service markets
185. ................ indicates working more closely with customers

to add value to the operative.
(1) Gaobasing
(2) Merging
(3) Customer partnering
(4) Re-engineering
(5) Outsourcing
186. Which of the following is a village development project

under which each member of Parliament will take the
responsibility of development physical and institutional is the
infrastructure is the identified village?
(1) Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(2) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
Page 101
(3) Provision of urban

(4) National Social Assistance Programme
(5) Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
187. A device designed to read information encoded into a

small plastic card is
(1) Card puncher
(2) ID puncher
(3) Tape puncher
(4) Badge reader
(5) Magnetic tape
188. The Central government has recently merger of National

Spot Exchange Limited (NSEL) with which of the following?
(1) Bombay Stock Exchange
(2) Financial Technologies of India Limited (FTIL)
(4) National Stock Exchange
(5) Tech Mahindra
189. Which of the following type of credit/debit cards are not

required to be swiped at the Point of Sale (PoS) terminates
instead, they have to be dipped into .............. the device and
the cardholder is required to key in a unique PIN to complete
the transaction.
(1) Magnetic Stripe Base Debit Cards
(2) Magnetic Stripe Base Credit Cards
(3) Chip Based Credit/Debit Cards
(4) Cell Based Credit/Debit Cards
(5) Sim Based Credit/Debit Cards
Page 102
190. The unique mobile money transfer and payment service

M-Pesa is the trademark of
(1) HDFC Bank
(2) IDEA Cellular
(3) Vodafone
(4) ICICI Bank
(5) IDBI Bank
191. The United Nations arm UNHRC acronym stands for

United Nations
(1) Human Rights Council
(2) Human Rights Commission
(3) Human Resources Commission
(5) Human Religious Committee
192. Quantitative Easing as a term which is generally used to

refer to a policy, which is adaptive?
(1) Cause money from the markets
(2) Put a ceiling on the loanable funds of banks
(3) Increase money supply in the economy
(4) Absorb excess supply in the economy
(5) Sell assets to the financial sector
193. United Nations Organisations (UNO) was set upon which

of the following dates?
(1) October 30, 1944
(2) October 31, 1945
(3) October 20, 1944
(4) October 24, 1945
Page 103
194. Product and Brand Management is sometimes

characterised as
(1) Regional systems
(2) Segmental organisation
(3) Geographical systems
(4) Layered organisation
(5) Hub and spoke system
195. The ALU and control unit of most of the microcomputer

are combined and manufactured in a single silicon chip. What
it is called?
(1) ALU
(2) Touchpad
(3) Control Unit
(4) Men chip
(5) Microprocessor
196. Jeffrey Fournie, an American was freed unexpectedly

recently by the government of
(1) North Korea
(3) Syria
(4) South Korea
(5) Taiwan
197. National Chemical Laboratory is located at

(1) New Delhi
(2) Chandigarh
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Pune
Page 104
198. Which of the following is used to write webpages?

(1) HTML
(2) Telnet
(3) HTTP
(4) URL
(5) FTP
199. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS-Office?

(1) Office XP (2) Office 2003
(3) Office 2004
(4) Office Vista
(5) Office 2003
200. URL stands for

(1) Uniform Retail Location
(2) Universal Resource List
(3) Uniform Research Locator
(4) Universal Research List
(5) Uniform Resource Locator
Page 105
IBPS Specialist Officer Study Kit
IBPS PO Study Kit
IBPS Clerk Study Kit
Study Materials for SBI - Probationary Officer Exam
Study Materials for SBI - Clerk Exam
Essay Writing Skills Improvement Programme (EWSIP)
http://bankexamportal.com/study-kit

SBI Bank PO Guide Free E Book

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

SBI Bank PO Guide Free E Book

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Online Coaching for IBPS, SBI Bank Exams

How to prepare for SBI PO Exam with New Pattern

How to crack SBI PO Exam in 30 days

Strategies For English Descriptive Paper

SBI PO Exam Papers - 2015 (Held on: 27-06-2015)

SBI PO Exam Paper - "held on 30-11-2014"

How to prepare for SBI PO Exam with New Pattern

Phase-I: Preliminary Examination:

S. L. Name of Test No. of Questions Marks Duration

Total 100 100

Phase II: Main Examination:

Phase III: Group Discussion (20 marks) & Interview (30

How to crack SBI PO Exam in 30 days

1 Reasoning & Computer Aptitude 45 60 60 minutes

2 Data Analysis & Interpretation 35 60 45 minutes

3 General/Economy/Banking Awareness 40 40 35 minutes

4 English Language 35 40 40 minutes

Total 155 200 3 hours

Strategies For English Descriptive Paper

Read a good English newspaper every day, thoroughly.

Use simple and clear language.

Short sentences are better than long ones.

C) Essay Writing & Paragraph-writing

Follow the tips given below under Precise Writing also.

Mark / underline important ideas & information.

Our character is basically a composite of our habits. ~ Stephen Covey

What you will get:

SBI PO Previous (Pre.) Exam Paper 2015

1. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

2. Which of the, following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

4. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

9. The little for the given passage could be

(a) How to measure the impact of retrofit programmes of energy conservation

(a) only latest technology must be employed

12. Which of the following is true in context of the passage?

(a) As light as a bird

14. The author in the given passage is\

a. availability of sufficient funding is a must

a. He identified the most important machines required

a. Natural disasters will not turn into a catastrophe

a. Many goods are being manufactured quickly without

a. The European Central Bank has said that if all

a. While farmers are struggling

62. (11.92) 2 + (16.01) 2 = ?2 (3.85) 2

What candidate will get:

10 Practice Tests Series with Ans (Worth Rs.499)

Current Affairs Subscription (1 Year Subscription - 12 Pdf Copy)

Some actors are singers.

(c) Fourth to the rigt

(c) The one who likes Computer.

87. How is P related to T?

In a certain code language,

Cinderella shouted for rescue is written as pr co Iy bu

SBI PO Previous (Pre.) Exam Paper 2014

(All the numbers are two-digit numbers)

Step VI is the of the above arrangement as the intended arrangements is obtained.

1. Which element is exactly between style and be in second

2. What is the position of 46 from the right end in the third

3. Which of the following is fifth step of the arrangement based

4. In which, step are the elements be 13 healthy in found in

5. How many steps will be required to complete the given

6. Which elements is eight to left of the elements which is