AIPGME EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 2004AIPGME EXAMINATION QUESTIONS - 2004 1. ‘After radical mastectomy there was injury tothe long thoracic neve, The integrity ofthe nerve can be tested | at the bedside by asking the patient to: ‘A. Shrug the shoulders B. Raise the arm above the head on the affected side | C. Touch the opposite shoulder D. Lifta heavy object from the ground Tung due to all of the following features except: ‘A. Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung | An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge inthe right | | 1 bronchus is more vertical than the | ight princi B left bronchus C. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the! right lung D. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except: ‘A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh | B. Ilioinguinal nerve CC. Subcostal nerve | D. Tliohypogastric nerve | Infection / inflammation of all of the following causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except ! A. Isthmus of uterine tube | B, Inferior part of anal canal C. Bigtoe D. Penile urethra ‘The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and arteries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as : ‘A. Choroid plexus B. Tuberal plexus CC. Pampiniform plexus D. Pectiniform septum The movement at the following joint permits a person to look towards the right or left: | A. Atlanto-occipital joint | B, Atlanto-axial joint C. €2-C3 joint D. C3-C4 joint The first costochoadral joint is a: ‘A. Fibrous joint B. Synovial joint CC. Syndesmosis D. Syncendrosis, 8 ‘The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except A. It is devoid of perichondrium B, Itbas a rich nerve supply C. Itis avascular D. It lacks the capacity to regenerate All of the following are catagorised as secondary lymphoid organs except : A. Lymph nodes B. Spleen C. Thymus D. Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes |. Which of following is the feature of Y chromosome? A. Acrocentric B. Telocentric Ci Submetacentric Di Metacentric the poston of the Hepatic veins and portal vein B Hepatic veins and biliary ducts C. Portal vein and biliary ducts D. Portal vein and hepatic artery The Couinaud’s segmental nomenclature is based on | | | PHYSIOLOGY 12, 13, During acclimatization to high altitude all of the following take place except: ‘A. Increase in minute ventilation B, Increase in the sensitivity of central chemoreceptors C. Increase in the sensitivity of carotid body to hypoxia D. Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the left One intern calculated the concentration of O, in blood. 5 0.0025 mi/ml of blood. Considering atmospheric pressure as 760mmHg, how much approx. O3 tension | could have been in the blood ? | A. 40mmHg | B. 60mmHg | C. 80mmHg D. 100mmHg Patients having acute cardiac failure do not show edema, because ‘A. The plasma oncotic pressure is high | B, There is renal compensation | C.There is an increase in cardiac output D. There isa fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic | pressure15. 19, 20. | | . Before the onset of puberty, the GnRH neurons are ‘= MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aor takes place at the : A. Beginning of systole B. End of isovolumetric contraction CC. End of diastole D. End of diastasis 5. Sertoli cells have receptors for: A. Inhibin B. Luteinizing hormone C. Follicle stimulating hormone D. Melatonin ‘The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to oestrogen in the growing ovarian follicle is: A. Desmolase B. Isomerase C. Aromatase D. Hydroxylase under the inhibitory control of : A. Glycine B. Glutamate C. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) D. Beta-endorphin | In which of the following form the Anti diuretic hormone (ADH) is circulated in plasma : ‘A. Bound to neurophysin-1 B. Bound to neurophysin-II CC. Bound to plasma albumin D. Free form The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is A. Glycine B. Acetylcholine CC. Aspartate D. Glutamate . The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all, of the following except : | A. Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units B. Increasing the number of motor units activated CC. Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor neurons D. Recruiting larger motor units . A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding ‘out base deficitiexcess for blood in a given patient. An ‘experienced senior resident advised a quick method to determine acid base composition of blood based on PCO;, Which of the following is the likely method he suggested to predict acid base composition of blood? A. Red ford normogram B. DuBio’s normogram CC. Goldman constant field equation D. Siggard-Andersen normogram _j 25. 26. 23. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near: ‘A. AUG codon B. UAA codon C. UAG codon D. UGA codon . RNA polymerase does not require : ‘A. Template (ds DNA) B. Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP) C. Divalent metal ions (Mn*", Mg") D. Primer A segment ofa eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature messenger RNA is known as: A. Intron B. Exon C. Plasmid D. TATA box ‘An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy froma single stranded RNA template molecule is known as: A. DNA polymerase B._ RNA polymerase C._ Reverse transcriptase D. Phosphokinase Which of the following can be a homologous substitution for valine in hemoglobin? Isoleucine Glutamic acid Phenylalanine Lysine | poep ‘The transmembrane region of protein is likely to have: ‘A. Astretch of hydrophilic amino acids B. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids C. A disulphide loop D. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids Which of the following group of proteins assist inthe “Yolding’ of other proteins? A. Proteases B. Proteosomes | C. Templates | D. Chaperones | | Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently linked to : A. Clathrin B. Pepsin Laminin D. Ubiquitin ‘Which of the following is a membrane bound enzyme | that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP? |32. 33. 35. 36. 37. “Tyrosine Kinase Polymerase ATP synthase Adenylate cyclase poe Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of Ca" from endoplasmic reticulum ? A. Inositol triphosphate B. Parathyroid hormone CC. 1,25-dihydroxy cholecaleiferol D. Diacylglycerol ‘A ssmall Ca binding protein that modifies the activity | ‘of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca** concentration, is known as: A. Cycline B. Calmodulin C. Collagen D. Kinesin }. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood? A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL c. LDL D. HDL ‘A middle aged woman on oral contraceptives for many years, developed neurological symptoms such as ‘depression, irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8g/dl. Biochemical investigations revealed that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in serum All of the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral ‘contraceptive use except ‘A. Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion B. Neurological symptoms by decreased synthesis of biogenic amines Decreased hemoglobin level Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level ic D. Which of the following elements is known to influence the body’s ability to handle oxidative stress ? A. Calcium’ B. Iron CC. Potassium D. Selenium In which of the following conditions the level of creatinine kinase-1 increases ? ‘Myocardial Ischemia Brain Ischemia Kidney damage Electrical cardioversion paep | | | | | | | | | (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - (38. A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended He develops gas and diarthea frequently. These symptoms do not appears when he cats foods other than dairy products. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient? ‘A. a-amylase B. Begalactosidase CC. arglucosidase D. Sucrase 39. Cytochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins? ‘A. Quarterary structure B. Tertiary structure C. Amino acid sequence D. Loop and tum segments ). Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of: A. Primary structure B. Secondary structure C. Tertiary structure D. Quaternary structure 41, A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6 — biphosphatase_ in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6 — bi- phosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are | observed in this disorder except: | AL Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate | normal Level of fructose 1,6 — biphosphate is lower than normal Less pyruvate is formed Less ATP is generated igher than B. c —_ |42. Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of a | defect in : | A. DNA polymerase IIL B. DNA polymerase I | C. DNA exonuclease D. DNA ligase PATHOLOGY 43. To which of the following family of chemical ‘mediators of inflammation, the Lipoxins belong? A. Kinin system B. Cytokines C. Chemokines D. Arachidonic acid metabolites 44, Which of the following is a procoagulation protein? A. Thrombomodulin |B. Protein C. Protein S D. Thrombin AIPGMEE 2004 - QUESTIONS i804» MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 ‘45. Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene’ | AL Cmye B. Psy C. bel-2 D. bax . The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement ‘membrane i B. Fibronectin C. Collagen type 4 D. Heparan sulphate To which of the following events is ‘good’ outcome in ‘neuroblastoma associated : A. Diploidy B._N-myc amplification C. Chromosome / p depletion D. Trk A expression 55, . Which of the following gene defect is associated with development of medullary carcinoma of thyroid? A. Ret Proto Oncogene B. FAP gene ©. Rb gene D. BRCA I gene Males who are sexually under developled with rudimentary testes and prostate glands, sparse pubic | and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & | feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of: |_| 45, XYY | 46, XY. 46, XXY 46, |. Kinky hair disease is a disorder where an affected child thas peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow, brain | 10 gmvdl B. WBC count < 15000/mm* C. Absolute lymphocyte count < 600 / D. Age<45 yrs. | | ‘A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination | revealed new Q wave with ST segment depression, He suecumed to his illness within 24 hours of admission, ‘The heart revealed presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is ‘most likely to reveal: | ‘A. Edema in between normal myofibres B._Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils C. Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of granulation tissue D. Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden macrophages Serum C3 is persistently low in the following except: A. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis B, Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis C. Lupus nephritis D. Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis ‘complement levels except: | ‘A. Lupus nephritis, B. Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis, C._Diarthea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome D. Post-infections glomerulonephritis those in ceroid histiocytosis by staining positive for: A. Lipids | B. Phosphlipids | CC. Acid fast stain | D. Iron ‘the past 50 years presents with a six months history of a large, fungating, soft papillary lesions in the oral cavity. The lesion has penetrated into the mandible. Lymph nodes are not palpable. Two biopsies taken from the lesion proper show benign appearing papillomatosis with hyperkeratosis and acanthosis{infiltrating the subjacent tissues. The most likely | diagnosis is : A. Squamous cell papilloma B. Squamous cell carcinoma CC. Verrucous carcinoma | D. Malignant mixed tumour ‘The blood in the vessels normally does not clot | because: ‘A. Vitamin K antagonists are present in plasma B. Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen C. Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions D. Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx MICROBIOLOGY 61. Which of the following statement hapten? ‘A. Itinduces brisk immune response B._Itneeds carrier to induce immune response C. It isa T-independent Antigen D._Ithas no association with MHC true about (62. A 20 year old man presented with hemorthagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E.coli is likely to be the causative agent : A. O157:H7 | B. 0159:H7 C. 0107:H7 D. O5S:H7 63. Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis ‘A. Cholera toxin B. Shiga toxin CC. Pertusis toxin D. LT of enterotoxigenic E.coli 64. A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarthoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastro-intestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except A. CFA-1 B. P,-Pili Cc. C82 D. K&S 65. Toxins are implicated as the major pathogenetic mechanism in all of the following bacterial diarrheas except: A. Vibrio cholerae B. Shigella sp C.. Vibrio parahaemolyticus D. Staphylococcus aureus 66. 67. 69, 70. a. 2. , Regarding gas gangrene one of the following is correct: (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2004 > 805 Aman, after skinning a dead animal, developed a | pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion | showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean’s reaction. _ ‘The most likely aetiological agent is: A. Clostridium tetani B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Bacillus anthracis D. Actinomyces sp ‘A farmer presenting with fever off-and on for the past || 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis All of the following serological tests would be helpful inthe diagnosis at this state except: A. Standard Agelutination test B. 2Mercapto-cthanol test C. Complement fixation test D. Coomb’s test ‘A. Itis due to Clostridium Botul B. Clostridial species are gram-negative spore forming anerobes C. The clinical featues are due to the release of D. 1m infection protein endotoxin Gas is invariably present in the muscle compartments. ‘A.30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows gram-positive small to medium coceobaclli that are pleomorphic, occurring in short chains. Direct wet ‘mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is ‘A. Listera monocytogenes | B. Corynebacterium sp. | C. Enterococcus sp. | | D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae ‘A.20 years old male patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows gram negative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for culture would be: ‘A. Thayer-Martin Medium | B. Blood agar with X & V factors | C. Chocolate agar with isovitale X D. Teilurite blood agar ‘The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is: ‘A. Direct fluorescent antibody test B. Enzyme immunoassay CC. Polymerase chain reaction D. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies except: ‘A. Hodgkin's disease B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma CC. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma D. Multiple myeloma806» MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 (73. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract, | infections can be established by all of the following. tests except : A. Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen B. Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings CC. Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enchanced culture D. Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAD antibodies in a single serum specimen All of the following statements are true regarding. poliovirus except : ‘A. Itis transmitted by feco-oral route B. Asymptomatic infections are common in children CC. There is a single serotype causing infection D. Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity . A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is: A. Hepatitis B virus B. Hepatitis C virus C. Hepatitis E virus D. Hepatitis A virus Allof the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except | A. Myocarditis |B. Pleurodynia | C. Herpangina D. Hemorthagic fever ARBO viruses : Yellow fever is endemic in India Dengue virus has only one serotype Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD) is transmitted by | ticks ‘Mosquito of culex vishnoi-complex is the vector of Dengue fever | | | 77. Which of the following statements is true regarding | | > OPP 78. A highly ionized drug : A. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys B. Corsses the placental barrier easily C. Is well absorbed from the intestine | D._Ishighly protein bound 79. In which ofthe following phases of clinical trial of drug ethical clearance is not required? (AS Phase I B. Phase IT C. Phase IIL D. Phase IV 80. 81 33, . All of the following statements about an aplha~ |. All ofthe following are advantages of using Raloxifen . A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with ‘Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the following conditions except; ‘A. Acute decompensated heart failure B. Hypotension CC. Hypertension D. Erectile dysfuention Which one of the follwing statements about biguanides: is not true? A. Don't stimulate insulin Release B. Decrease hepatic glucose production C._ Renal Dysfunction is not a contraindication for their use D. Can be combined with sulfonylureas. ‘glucosidase inhibitor are tru except ‘A. Reduces intestinal absorbtion of carbohydrates B. Effective in both type 1 & 2 diabetes C. Hypoglycemia is a common & serious side effect D. Can be used with other oral Hypoglycemic Agents All ofthe following Anticancer agents cause bone marrow depression except: ‘A. Chlorambucil B. Daunorubicin C. Doxarubicin D. Flutamide over estrogen in post menopasual women except? ‘A. Reduces fracture rates B. Avoids Endometrial hyperplasia CC. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis D. No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels? A. Ethanol B. Alphaxolone C. Zolpidem D. Buspirone atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min, The most likely drug being administered was: A. Verapamil B. Digoxin C. Greveditol D. Propranolol | Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic amiadarone therapy: Pulmonary Fibrosis Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism Systemic Lupus erythematosus poep(88. A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed ranitidine and sucralfate in the morning hours. Why is this combination incorrect: A. Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action B. Combination of these two drugs produces serious side effects like agranulacytosis C.. Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sueralfite is not able to ac D._ Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine, '89. All the following statements regarding interactions of Jevodopa are correct except: A. InParkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy B. Itisaprodrug C__ Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsomism | . Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and | | its therapeutic potential. | 90, Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a | premature baby is ‘A. Domperidone | BL Metoctopramide C._ Cisapride D. Omeprazole 91. Which of the following actions is ascribed to delta type | of opoid receptors? ‘A. Supraspinal analgesis B. Respiratory depression C. Euphoria D. Reduced intestinal motility 92. Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except A. Head injury B. Asthma C. Hypothyroidism D. Diabetes | | | |93. Which of the following statements is not true regarding | sulfonamides: | A. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT | B. Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide | Administration | C. Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may | cause Kernicterus D. Sulfonamides are of value intreatment of infections due to Norcardia species. empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually aniagonistic in action. . ‘A post operative patient developed septicemia and was | (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2004 = 807 Which one of the following is the most likely ‘combination that was given? ‘A. Vancomycin and Amikacin B, Cephalexin and Gentamicin C. Ampiciliin and Chloramphenicol D. Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of od 110.Disputed matemity can be solved by using the following tests except Blood grouping HLA typing Preciptin test , DNA fingerprinting onp> 11 Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following chemical tests for blood except: ‘A. Benzedine test B. Phenophthalein test CC. Orthotoluidine test D. Teichmann’s test 112.A person was brought by police from the railway platform, He is talking irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. The most probable diagnosis ‘A, Alcohol intoxication B. Carbamates poisoning C, Organophosphorous poisoning D, Dhetura poisoning 113.A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet. Examination reveals presence of ‘Mees’ lines in the nails and rain drop pigmentation in the hands. ‘The most likely causative toxin for the above ‘mentioned symptoms is : A. Lead B. Arsenic C, Thallium D. Mercury 114.Which of the following is the most reliable method of estimating blood alcohol level? A. Cavett’s test B. Breath alcohol anaylzer C. Gas liquid chromatography D. Thin layer chromatography 115.4 39-year old carpenter has taken two bottles of liquor from the local shop. After about an hour he develops confusion, vomiting and blurring of vision. He has been brought to the emergency out patient. He should be gven: A. Naloxone B, Diazepam116,A 34-year old rickshaw puller has been using heroin for the past ten years. One evening his family members found him unconscious. He was brought to the casualty, On examination he had tachycardia, shallow breathing, constricted pupils. His blood pressure was 100/70 mm of Hg. He had brisk bilateral deep tendon reflexes. The planter reflexes were flexor on both sides. ‘Which of the following is the best treatment for him? ‘A. Buprenorphine B. Flumazenil C. Methadone D. Naloxone ‘SPM 117.A study began in 1970 with a group of $000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their alcoho! ‘consumption, The occurrence of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995, This is an example of ‘A. Cross-sectional study B._ Retrospective cohort study C. Concurrent cohort study D. Case-control study | | | 118.All ofthe following are used as proxy measures for incubation period except: ‘A. Latent period B. Period of communicability CC. Serial interval D. Generation time 119.A 3 % year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the following is the best vaccination advice to such a child? A. BCG, DPT;, OPV,, and DPT,, OPV; after 4 weeks B. BCG, DTI, OPV), measles, vitamin A | C. BCG, DPT,, OPV,, measles, vitamin A D. DTj, DT: and booster after I year 120,The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except A. Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect ‘Whole killed bacteria of Bordetella pertussis has an adjuvant effect Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its immunogenecity Presence of H. influenzae type B component increases its immunogenecity B. c D. 121.A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre. She has not had any antenatal visit till now. The best approach regarding ‘tetanus immunization in this case would be to A. Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain to her that it will not protect the new born and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she delivers in the meantime B. Donot waste the TT vaccine as it would anyhow 'be of no use in this pregnancy useful for this pregnancy Give her anti-tetanus Immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine Give one dose of TT and explain that it will not be | MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 « 122. child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub center with complaints of cough and fever. On examination, there was chest indrawing and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is best way to manage the child? A. The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia 809 B. Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home| = care Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier ifthe condition worsens Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose of an antibiotic c. D. 123.The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is = ‘A. Mass Miniature Radiotherapy B. Sputum examination CC. Tuberculin Test D. Clinical examination 124.According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of yellow Fever if the Aedes aegypti index remains below : A. 1% B. 5% C 8% D. 10% 125.All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy except? Breast milk Insect bite Transplacental spread . Droplet infection pop>p 126.All of the following statements about leprosy are true except ‘A. Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there are. ‘more than 5 skin patches B. New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy CA defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6 months or more ‘The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less than 1 per 10,000 population. |. | 127. 10 month old child weighing 8kg has Bitot spots in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this child? A. 2 lakh units intramuscular (IM) on day 0, 14 B. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, 14 CC. 2 lak units IM on day 0, 1 and 14 D. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, 1 and 14 E 3 camer810» MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 128.The current recommendation for breast feeding is, ‘A. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued tll 6 ‘months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods. j B. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4 ‘months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods C. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but itis best avoided in first 2 days D. The baby should be allowed to breast-feed tll one year of age | 129.The following statements about breast milk are true except A. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months B. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70% C. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than | that of cow's milk | D. Itprovides about 65 k cals per 100 ml | | _|130.The following statements are true about Intrauterine devices (TUD) except: ‘A. Multload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD B. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar TUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life | of 5 years. 131.The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except A. Tobring down Total Ferilty Rate (TFR)to replacement levels by 2015 3B. Toseduce the infant Morality Rate 30 per 1000] live births C. To reduce the bilateral Mortality Rate to 100 per D. 100000 live births 100 percent registration of births deaths marriages | and pregnancies 132.Essential component of RCH Programme in India include all of the following except: A. Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies B. Maternal care including antenatal delivery & post- | natal services C. Reduce the under five mortality to half D. Management of reproductive tract infections & sexually transmitted infections. | ve clean practices” under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include all except | A. Clean surface for delivery | | B. Clean hand of the attendant | | C._ New blade for cutting the cord | D. Clean airway 134.Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of | heart diseases include all ofthe following except : A. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption B. Reduction in ft intake to 20-30 percent of caloric intake C._ Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy intake D._ Reduction of cholesterol to below 100mg per 1000 kcal per day 135. Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was introduced, following the recommendation of: A. Srivastava Committee B. Bhore Committee C. Kartar Singh Committee D. Mudaliar Committee | 136.If each value of a given group of observations is maltiplied by 10 the standard deviation ofthe resulting observations is : A. Original std, Deviation x 10 B, Original std. Deviation /10 C. Original std. Deviation ~ 10 D. Original std, Deviation itself | 137.1f the systolic blood pressure in a population has a | mean of 130mmt¥g and a median of 140mm, the | distribution is said to be Symmetrical Positively skewed Negatively skewed Either positively or negatively skewed depending om the Standard deviation pop 138. The table below shows the screening test results of disease Z in relation to the true disease status of the | population being tested : | [Screening [Disease Z Total | | Test Results Positive [400 [200 | 600 Negative | 100 | 600 | 700 | [otal [500 | 800 [1300 ‘The specificity of the sereening test is A. 70% B. 75% C. 79% D. 86% 139.{f prevalence of diabetes is 10%, the probability that three people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is : A. 0.01 B. 0.03 Cc. 0.001 D. 0.003“moderate” and “severe” the scale of measurement used is ‘A. Interval B. Nominal C. Ordinal D. Ratio 141.The usefulness of a ‘screening test’ in a community depends on its A. Sensitivity B. Specificity C. Reliability D. Predictive value MEDICINE 142,Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC is most likely characterized by: ‘A. Significant numbers of schistocytes B.A brisk reticulocytosis C. Decreased coagulation factor levels. D. Significant thrombocytopenia |143.A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor since birth and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis A. Hb electrophoresis, B. Peripheral smear examination C. Osmotic fragility test D. Bone marrow examination ‘transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Anemia of chronic disease C. Hemochromatosis D. Lead poisoning | | 144.Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent | | | |145.Bone marrow transplantation can be used asa treatment forall except : A. Osteopetrosis B. Adrenoleukodystrophy C. Hurler’s syndrome D. Hemochromatosis 146.All of the following statements are true about sickle cell disease except ‘A. Patient may require frequent blood transfusions B. Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before 3 years of age. C. There is positive correlation between cone. HBS and polymerization of HBS. D. Patient presents early in life before 6 months of age. 140.1f the grading of diabetes is classified as “mild,” MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2004 » 811 ‘cardiac temponade except: ‘A. Pulsus paradoxus | B. Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on | echocardiogram | C. Electrical alternans D. Kussmaul’s sign 148. In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is characterized by the presence ofall of the following, except: A. Red cell casts B, Acanthocytes CC. Crenated red cells, D._ Dysmorphie red cells 149,Polycystic disease of the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organs except : A. Lung B. Liver CC. Pancreas D. Spleen 150.A 40 year old man presented with painless hematuria | Bimanual examination revealed a ballotable mass over the right flank. Subsequently right nephrectomy was done and mass was seen to be composed of cells with clear cytoplasm. Areas of hemorrhage and necrosis ‘were frequent, Cytogenic analysis of this mass i likely | to reveal an abnormality of: A. Chromosome 1 B. Chromosome 3 C. Chromosome 11 D. Chromosome 17 151.Which of the following is the drug of first cl ‘Non-Gonococcal Urethritis ? A. Ceftriaxone B. Ciprofloxacin, j CC. Doxyeyeline D. Minocycline for 152.An HIV patient complains of visual disturbances, Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates | and perivascular haemorrhages. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis: ‘A. Herpes simplex virus B. Human herpes virus 8 C. Cytomegalovirus | D. Epstein-Barr (EB) virus | 153. Which one of the following is true regarding HIV. | infection: A. Following needle stick injury infectivity is | reduced by administration of nucleoside analogues) B. D4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression | C. Infected T cells survive for a month in infected | patients D. Inlatent phase HIV has minimal replication812» MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 154. Which of the following is not a nucleoside reverse | transcriptase inhibitor? A. Zalcitabine B. Lamivudine CC. Nevivapine D. Didanosine 155.A known sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis patient currently on INH, rifampicin, pyrizinamide and ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His CD4 count was 100 [iL and viral load was more than 50,000 copies/ml. of the following antiretroviral drug should be avoided: ‘A. Indinavir B. Lamivudin C. Ritonavir D. Efavirenz | 156.HBAIC level in blood explains: ‘A. Acute rise of sugar B. Long terms status of blood sugar | C. Hepatorenal syndrome | _D. Chronic pancreatitis _ |157.A 45-year old woman visited her physician with compiaints of increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also had the symptoms of diminished or impalpable pulses in the feet, besides gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as | follows: | Parameters Fasting Ihr 2hr Blood glucose (mg/dL) 155270205 | Urine glucose we HEH Ketone bodies we ve ve | Which of the following statements is not correct for the | above mentioned case: | ‘A. She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus | B. She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus CC. She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet and exercise could not control the | pathological situation | D. Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus | is useful in predicting the nature of the diabetes. | 158.The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorder is: A TB B. 14 c. TSH D. Thyroglobulin | | | 159.The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following | | administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with | | endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as: | As Jod-Basedow effect |B. Wolff-Chaokoff effect CC. Thyrotoxicosis factitia D. De Quervain's thyroiditis 160.All of the following are true about amiadarone induced | thyroid dysfunction except? ‘A. Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficient areas Hypothyroidism is more common in men Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activity ‘Amiodaraone therapy is associated with reduction of serum T4 levels gon 161.A 28 year old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years), and has oligomenorthoea followed by amenorrohoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is, 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the ‘most appropriate investigation? Serum electrolytes B._ Plasma cortisol C. Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis D. 13,14 and TSH 162. Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing's syndrome? A. Loss of diurnal variation B. Increased ACTH C. Increased plasma Cortisol D. Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol 163.Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all except : A. Chronic renal failure B. Hypothyroidism C. Protein energy malnutrition (PEM) D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 164.4 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorthoea. Her height is 153 ems, weight is SI kg, She has well developed breasts. She has no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? ‘A. Tumer's syndrome B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome C. Premature ovarian failure D. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome 165.A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhea for 3 years along with galactorrhoea, The most likely cause of her symptoms would be: A. Craniopharyngioma B. Prolactinoma C. Meningioma D. Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage 166.4 55-year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest x-ray is normal. The next step in investigation should be: Lung Ventilation perfusion sean Pulmonary arteriography Pulmonary venous wedge angiography Echocardiography pap167-4 20 year old woman presents with bilateral ‘conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin- walled cavity in left lower zone, Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm, red cell casts in the ‘urine and serum creatinine 3mg/dL., What is the most probable diagnosis? ‘A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura B. Polyarteritis nodosa CC. Wegener's granulomatosis D. Disseminated tuberculosis 168.An 18 yr old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable, Blood and urine examinations, ‘ere unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. Takayasu's arteritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) 169.A woman is admitted with complains of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the following investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis except: ‘CD4/CD8 counts in the blood ‘Serum ACE levels CECT of chest Gallium scan pomp 170.An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to hhave a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5 g/dl). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of | 8%, The most likely diagnosis is: A. Multiple myeloma | B. Indolent myeloma | CC. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown | significance D. Waldenstorm's macroglobulinemia 171.A 12 year old girl with tremors and emotional lability has a golden brown discoloration in Descemet's membrane. The most likely diagnosis is: ‘A. Fabry's disease B. Wilson's disease C. Glycogen storage Disease | D. Acute Rheumatic fever | 172, The following is not a feature of Alzheimer's disease: | A. Neurofibrillary tangles | B. Senile (neuritic) plaques CC. Amyloid Angiopathy | D. Lewy bodies MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2004 » 813 (173.Ail of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except: ‘A. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy ‘Acute intermittent porphyria CC. Lead intoxication D. Arsenic intoxication 174. Which of the following viruses is not a common cause of viral encephalitis? ‘A. Herpes simplex virus type 2 B. Japanese encephalitis virus C.Nipah virus D. Cytomegalovirus 1175.A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and right hemiparesis. ‘The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is: ‘A. Acute pyogenic meningitis B. Herpes simplex encephalitis CC. Neurocysticercosis D. Carcinomatous meningitis 176.Which of the following brain tumors does not spread via CSF? A. Germ cell tumors B, Medulloblastoma C._CNS Lymphoma D. Craniopharyngoma 1177.4 15 year old boy with epilepsy on treatment with combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except : A. Weight gain of 5 kg B. Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L C._ Rise in serum ammonia level by 20ug/dL | D. Lymphadenopathy 178.Persistant vomiting most likely causes: ‘A. Hyperkalemia | B. Acidic urine excretion | C. Hypochloraemia | D._ Hyperventilation 179.All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women | | except: | ‘A. Itis due to estrogen mediated sodium retention | B. It isnot related to menstrual cycle | C.. There is increased water retention in upright | position | D. ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases | | |180.1n patients with cirthosis ofthe liver the site of | obstruction in the portal system is in the Hepatic vein Post sinusoidal Extra hepatic portal vein Simusoids popp814 » MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 ic inferior vena cava |B. Infrarenal inferior vena cava CC. Hepatic veins D. Portal veins |182.The short bowel syndrome is characterized by all of the following except : | | | | A. Diarrhea || BL Hypogastrinemia C. Weight loss D. Steatorthoea "|183.Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except: A. Testosterone | B. Prolactin C. Estradiol D. Lutenizing hormone '84.Biopsy from a mole on the foot shows cytologic atypia of melanocytes and diffuse epidermal infiltration by anaplastic ells, which are also present in the papillary and reticular dermis, The most likely diagnosis is: ‘A. Melanoma, Clark level IV B. Congenital melanocytic nevus. C._ Dysplastic nevus. | D. Melanoma, clark level III |185.Chronically lymphadenopathy limb is predisposed to | all of the following except A. Thickening of the skin B. Recurrent soft tissue infections C. Marjolin’s ulcer | D. Sarcoma | 186.First treatment of rupture of varicose veins at the ankle | should be A. Rest in prone position of patient B. Application of a tourniquet proximally C. Application of a tourniquet distally | D.. Direct Pressure and Elevation |187.A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first A. Pulmonary artery B. Bronchial artery C. Pulmonary vein D. Superior vena cava 188.A 60 year old male was diagnosed as carcinoma right lung. On CECT chest there was a tumor of SxS em in upper lobe and another 2x2 cm size tumor nodule in middle lobe. The primary modality of treatment is : A. Radiotherapy C. Surgery | |B. Chemotherapy D._ Supportive treatment (189.Thoracie exter approached through A. Neck B. Chest C. Combined cervico-thoracic route D. Thoracoscopic 190.Panereatitis, pituitary tumor and phacochromocytoma ‘may be associated with: ‘A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid B. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid C. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid D. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid 191.A 20 year old male presented with chronic constipation, headache and palpitations. On examination he had marfanoid habitus, neuromas of tongue, medullated comeal nerve fibers and nodule of 2x2 om size in the left lobe of thyroid gland. This patient is a case of ‘A. Sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid B. Familial medullary carcinoma of thyroid C. MENIIA D. MEN IB 192.The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer ‘A. Medullary type B. Folliculartype CC. Papillary type D. Anaplastic type 193.The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is : A. Tongue B. Floor of mouth CC. Alveobuccal complex D. Lip 194.The most common malignant tumor of adult males in India is : A. Oropharyngeal carcinoma B. Gastric carcinoma C. Colo-rectal carcinoma D. Lung cancer 195.The most common site of intestinal obstruction in gallstone ileus is : A. Jejunum B. Tleum C. Transverse colon D._Sigmoid colon 196. Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best prognosis ? Alcoholic pancreatitis Gall stone pancreatitis Post operative pancreatitis Idiopathic pancreatitis pomp jion of cervical goiter is usually197. injection sclerotherapy is ideal forthe following ‘A. External haemorrhoids | B._ Intemal haemorthoids CC. Prolapsed haemorthoids D. Strangulated haemorrhoids 198.For a rectal carcinoma at Sem from the anal verge the best acceptable operation is A. Anterior resection | |B. Abdominal perineal resection | C. Posterior resection D. Local resection 199. Al of the following are significant risk factors for colonic carcinoma in an adenomatous polyp except: ‘A. Pedunculated polyp. B. Villous histology | C. Size > 2em D. Atypia '200.A 55 year old male presented with painless terminal hematuria. Cystoscopic examination revealed a solitary | papillary tumor. Histopathotogical examination of | completely resected tumor is suggestive of grade IIL | transitional cell eareinoma with no muscle invasion. | Further management of this patient is best done by | A. Just follow up B. Intravesical chemotherapy | C.Intravesical BCG D. Cystectomy |201.Unilateral undescended testis is ideally operated around : ‘A. 2 months of age |B. 6 months of age C. 12. months of age D. 24 months of age hyponatremia ? A. Gastric fistula B. Excessive vomiting C._ Excessive Sweating D. Prolonged Ryle’s tube aspiration | | |202.Which of the following is not an important cause of 203. Which one of the following preservatives is used while | packing catgut suture ? | A. Isopropyl alcohol B. Colloidal iodine C. Glutaraldehyde D. Hydrogen peroxide 204,Which of the following is not an indication of | radiotherapy in leomorphie adenoma of partid: | Involvement of deep lobe 2° histologically benign recurrence Microscopically positive margins ‘Malignant transformation poe> MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 © 815, OBS & GYNAE |205.All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters except: ‘A. Biparietal diameter B. Head circumference C. Transcerebeltar diameter D. Femur length |206.Which of the follo\ the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome. A. Triple sereen test B. Amniocentesis CC. Chorionic villous biopsy D. Ultrasonography 207.Mr. and Mrs, Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down's syndrome. Karyotype of Mrs ‘Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down syndrome. Which of the following investigations will ‘you advise to the parents before the next pregnancy ? ‘A. Triple test B. ac-fetoprotein C. Karyotyping 1D. B-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 208. Which of the following tests on maternal serum is most | useful in distinguishing between open neural tube | defects and ventral wall defects in a fetus? A. Carcinoembryogenic antigen B. Sphingomyelin C.Alpha-feto protein D. Pseudocholinesterase 209,Screening by using maternal serum alpha fetoproteins helps to detect all of the following except: A. Neural tube defects B. Duodenal Artesia C.. Talipes equinovarus D. Omphalocele 210.Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of pregnancy is: ‘A. 63 days B. 72days CC. 88days D. 120 days |211.A case of 35 week pregnancy with Hydramnios and | marked respiratory distress is best treated by: A. Intravenous frusemide B. Saline infusion CC. Amniocentesis D. Anifcial rupture of membranes | | | | | |212.Anti-D prophylaxis should be given in all of the | following conditions except: | A. Medical abortion for 63 days pregnancy B. Amniocentesis at 16 weeks C. Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks D. Manual removal of Placenta| C.. Sickle cell anemia | detection of iron depletion in pregnancy? 816» MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 '213.The consequences of Rh incompatibility are not serious} during first pregnancy because: ‘A. Antibodies are not able to cross placenta Antibody titer is very low during primary immune response IgG generated is ineffective against fetal red cells. Massive hemolysis is compensated by increased erythropoesis. |214. Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the B. c D. ‘Serum iron B. Serum ferritin C.Serum transferrin ‘Serum iron binding capacity 2215.A.37 year multipara construction labourer has a blood picture showing hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of: Iron deficiency | Folic acid deficiency | Malnutrition | Combined iron and folic acid deficiency 216.Alll of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension except: Nifedipine Captopril ‘Methyldopa Hydralazine 217.Which of the following is not an indication for Antiphospholipid antibody testing: A. Three or more consecutive first trimester pregnancy losses Unexplained cerebrovascular accidents Early onset severe pre-eclampsia Gestational Diabetes B. c D. '218.All of the following conditions are risk factor for ‘urinary tract infections in pregnancy except: A. Diabetes B. Hypertension | D.. Vesicoureteral reflux 219.Which of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the first trimester A. Hepatitis B virus B.Syphillis CC. Toxoplasmosis D. Rubella '220.A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in preterm labor. Therapy with antenatal steroids to. induce lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of | the following conditions except: | ‘A. Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 | hrs [B. Pregnancy induced C._ Diabetes mellitus D. Chorioamnionitis 221. All of the following drugs are effective for cervical ripening during pregnancy except: Prostaglandin E> Oxytocin Progesterone Misoprostol pam> 222. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a vaginal pH of 4? ‘A. Atrophie vaginitis, B. Candidal vaginits C. Trichomonas vaginitis D. Gardnella vaginitis 223.The most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in case of Vesicovaginal fistula is: ‘A. Suprapubic needle aspiration B. Midstream clean catch C. Foley's catheter D. Sterile speculum 224.A case of obstructed labour which was delivered by caesarian section complains of cyclical passage of menstrual blood in urine, Which is the most likely site of fistula? A. Urethrovaginal B. Vesico-vaginal C. Vesico-uterine D. Uretero uterine 225. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility and hirsuitism? A. Polycystic ovaries B. Endometriosis, C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Tumer's syndrome |226.A fifty year old woman, presenting with bilateral solid ovarian tumors, has ascitis. Upper gastro-intestinal endoscopy reveals an ulcerative growth in pyloric region of stomach. The most likely diagnosis is: ‘A. Malignant ovarian tumor B. Carcinoma in the small intestine CC. Carcinoma body uterus D. Carcinoma stomach with Kurkenberg's tumor 227.Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage IA, grade [is : A. Radiotherapy Chemotherapy Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy No treatment | B. c D.1228. two month old child is able to ‘A. Show a positive parachute protective reflex B. Hold head steady in seated position C. Lift head and chest off. flat surface with extended elbows D. Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral suspension 229. Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of: A. Klinefelter syndrome B. Tumer syndrome C. Cri du chat syndrome D. Noonan syndrome '230. Ataxia telangiectasia is chracterised by all of the following except : ‘A. Chronic sinopulmonary disease B, Decreased level of a-fetoprotein C. Chromosomal breakage D. IgA deficiency |231.A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical | evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dL and ESR 18mm | Ist hr Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood ‘urea 32 mg/dL. Which ofthe following is the most probable diagnosis in his case? A. Nutritional rickets B. Renal rickets C._Hyperparathyroidism D. Skeletal dysplasia |232.A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to ‘you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability ‘& pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe pallor. Investigation showed Hb-3.8 mg%; | MCV-58 fl; MCH-19.4 pg/cell. Blood film shows | osmotic fragility is normal (target cells and | pormoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid | | marrow. Which of the following is the most likely | | diagnosis? | | A. Iron deficiency anemia | B. Acute lymphoblastic anemia | C. Hemoglobin D disease j D. Hereditary spherocytosis | |233.A 5 year old child presents with history of fever off- | ‘and-on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the | body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. | Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin, The most likely diagnosis is: ‘A. Acute leukemia B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Hypersplenism | D. Aplastic anemia | (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2004 > 817 (234.A five day old, full term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later ballooned atrial septosomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this infant A. Tetralogy of Fallot B. Transposition of great vessels C. Truncus Arteriosus | D. Tricuspid Atresia 235.In which of the following a ‘Coeur en Sabot’ shape of the heart is seen: ‘A. Tricuspid atresia |B. Ventricular septal defect | C. Transposition of great arteries D. Tetralogy of Fallot 236.An infant develops cough and fever. The X-ray | examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of | the following viruses ean be the causative agent except: | A. Parainfluenza viruses | BL Influenza virus A | C.. Respiratory syneytial virus |. Mumps virus |237.In neonatal cholestasis, ifthe serum gamaglutamy/- | transpeptidase (gamma GTP) is more than 600 TU/L, the most likely diagnosis is: A. Neonatal hepatitis B. Choledochal cyst C._ Sclerosing cholangitis D. Biliary atresia 238. The neonatal kidney achieves concentrating ability equivalent to adult’s kidney by: A. One year of age B. Eighteen months of age C. Three to six months of age D. Just before puberty 239.All of the following are neural tube defects except A. Myelomeningocoele B, Anencephaly C. Encephalocele D. Holoprosencephaly 240.All are features of absence seizures except ‘A. Usually seen in childhood B. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG CC. Postictal confusion D. Precipitation by hyperventilation 241.A 10 month old child presents with two weeks history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus, The most likely etiological agent is : Mycobacterium tuberculosis Cryptococcus neoformans Listera monocytogenes Streptococcus pneumoniae pope al AIPGMEE 2004 - QUESTIONS818» MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 242.For which of the following diseases is enzyme replacement therapy available? A. Albinism B._Neimann-Pick disease C. Metachromatic leukodystrophy D. Gaucher's disease 243.Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of: ‘A. Neuromuscular junction B. Sarcolemmal proteins | C. Muscle contractile proteins | D._ Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness. | age) is usually due to the following organisms except: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria meningitidis C.Hemophilus influenzae type B D. Listera monocytogenes deficit hyperactivity disease (ADHD) except A. Lack of concentration B. Impulsivity | C. Mental retardation | D. Hyperactivity | 245.All of the following are essential features of attention | 246.A.25 year old woman had premature rupture of ‘membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the Ist day of birth and went | into shock. The mother had a previous history of | abortion 1 year back. On vaginal swab culture growth ‘of B-haemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On | staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. | Which ofthe following is the most likely etiological | agent? | ‘A. Strptococeus pyogenes | B. Strptococcus agalactiae | C._ Peptostreptococei | D. Enterococcus faecum | | 247. The most common agent associated with neonatal | bacterial meningitis is : A. Haemophilus influenzae type b | B. Neisseria meningitidis | C. Streptococcus pneumoniae | Dz Streptococcus agalactiae 248. Haemophilus influenzae has been isolated from the | CSF of a two year old boy suffering from meningitis ‘The strain is beta-lactamase producing and resistant to chloramphenicol. The most appropriate antimicrobial in such a situation Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination Ciprofloxacin ‘Third-generation cephalosporin ‘Vancomycin pop> _ ORTHOPEDICS 249.An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training | started complaining of pain at postero medial aspect of | both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the | pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most | Tikely diagnosis is: | AL Bearger’s disease |B. Gow C. Lumbar canal stenosis | Di Stress fracture | 250. In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms over | the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between | containing clear fluid. This condition is called as : | A. Delayed union B. Slow union Non union D._ Pseudoarthrosis 251. Aseptic loosening in cemented total hip replacement, ‘occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response to: A. Titanium debris B. High density polythene debris C._N.N-Dimethyltryptamine (DMT) D. Free radicals | | | 252.1n fracture of the olecronon, excision of the proximal fragment is indicated in all ofthe following situations except: A. Old ununited fractures B. Non-articular fractures C. Fracture extending to coronoid process D. Elderly patient | 253. Tuberculosis ofthe spine commonly affects all of the | following parts of the vertebra except: | A. Body |B. Lamina |G. Spinous process |. Pedicle 254, All of the following can be the complications of a | imatunited Colles fracture except : | A. Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon |B. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD) | C. Carpal tunnel syndrome | D. Carpal instability 255.The management of fat embolism includes all of the following except : ‘A. Oxygen. B. Heparinization C. Low Molecular weight dextran D. Pulmonary Embolectomy 256.Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower ‘end of femur must include: A. Radiotherapy, amputation, chemotherapy |B. Surgery alone | C. Chemotherapy + Limb Salvage Surgery + Chemotherapy | D._ Chemotherapy + radiotherapy\QPHTHALMOLOGY 7 257. Maximum density of goblet cells is seen in ‘A. Superior conjunctiva B, Inferior conjunctiva |G. Nasal conjunctiva | D. Temporal conjunctiva | 258.A 10 year old boy presents with severe itching of the eye and a ropy discharge. His symptoms aggravate in summer season. Most likely diagnosis is ? ‘A. Trachoma B. Vernal keratoconjunctvitis C. Acute conjunctivitis D. Blepharitis 259.Ark’s line is seen in : ‘A. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis B. Pterygium . Ocular pemphigoid D. Trachoma | 260, Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer : ‘A. Atropine sulphate eye ointment B, Dexamethasone eye drops CC. Pilocarpine eye drops D. Lignocaine eye drops '261.Polychromatic lusture is seen in : ‘A. Complicated cataract B. Diabetes mellitus C._ Post radiation cataract D. Congenital cataract 262.4 two week old child presents with unilateral cataract. ‘Which of the following statement represents the best ‘management advice ‘A. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four weeks B. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four months C._ The best age to operate him to get the best visual result is four years D._ The eye is already lost, only cosmetic cortection is required 263, Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated with Marfan's syndrome : ‘A. Microcomea |B. Microspherophakia C. Megalocomea D. Ectopia lentis ‘264.Lanatoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts by: ‘A. Decreasing aqueous humour formation B. Increasing uveoscleral outflow Releasing pupillary block D. Increasing trabecular outflow 2 | gs (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2004 = 819 (265.A two months old child presents with epiphora and ‘egurgitation. The most probable diagnos ‘A. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis B. Buphthalmos C. Congenital dacryocys D. Bneysted mucocele 266: oto dynamic therapy” is used in the eye for the following disease : A. Cataract B. Glaucoma § ' C. Uveitis D. Wet AMD (Age related macular degeneration) '267.All are ocular emergencies except ! ; ‘A. Angle closure glaucoma B, Central serous retinopathy C. Retinal detachment D. Central retinal arterial occlusion to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is : ‘A. Retinopathy of prematurity B, Leber’s Hereditary Optic neuropathy C._ Retinitis pigmentosa D. Retinal detachment a 268. The most common condition of inherited blindness due : pee ee om 269.All of the following can cause a white pupillary reflex ee | A. Retinoblastoma B. Cataract | C. Retrolental fibroplasia D. Glaucoma ENT | |270.1n right middle ear pathology Weber's test will be! ‘A. Normal B. Centralised Ci Lateralised to right side D. Lateralised to let side 271. Meniere's disease is characterized by : ‘A. Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus B, Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache C. Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache D. Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss 272.Fordyce's (Spots) Granules in Oral Cavity arise from: ‘A. Mucous glands B, Sebaceous glands C. Taste buds D. Minor salivary glands 273. Which of the following locations show collection of pus in ‘quinsy’: A. Peritonsillar space B, Parapharyngeal space | C. Retropharyngeal space Within the tonsil820 © MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 274. Which of the following statements best represents Bells paralysis ? ‘A. Hemiparesis and contralateral faci paralysis. nerve abducent nerves D. Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye 275.A 30 year old male had severely itchy papula-vesicular lesions on extremities, knees, elbows and buttocks for ‘one year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermoepidermal junction. The most probable diagnosis is : ‘A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bullous pemphigoid CC. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Nummular eczema 276.A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperprigmented ‘macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is : A. Fixed drug eruption B. Lichen planus C._ Urticaria pigmentosa D. Urticarial vasculitis |277.A 25 year old man presents with recurrent episodes of _flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from | A. Seborrheic dermatitis B. Atopic dermatitis CC. Airbome contact dermatitis, D. Nummular dermatitis ANESTHESIA 278.Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children ? A. Enflurane B. Isoflurane C.. Sevoflurane ‘D. Desflurane 279. Which of the following isthe best indication for ‘propofol as an intravenous induction agent ?” A. Neurosurgery B. Day care surgery | C. Patients with coronary artery disease D. In neonates, ‘Combined paralysis of the facial, trigeminal, and | C. Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve | (280-A patient undergoing caesarean section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid block developed ccarpopedal spasm. Lignocain was used as anesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis is : ‘A. Amniotic fluid embolism B._Lignocaine toxicity C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypokalemia 281.A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent ‘numbness and paresthesia in the right forearm and hand, The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all ofthe following except : A. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves B.A tight cast or dressing C. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics D. Tounriget pressure 282. When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all ofthe following treatments may be instituted except: A. Carotid sinus massage B. Adenosine 3-12 mg IV C._ Direct current cardioversion D. Verapamil 5 mg IV | | RADIOLOGY 283.A patient is suspected to have vestibular shwanoma. |The investigation of choice for its diagnos | A. Contrast enhanced CT scan |B. Gadolinum enhanced MRI C. SPECT D. PET scan | 284.In ‘scurvy’ all the following radiological signs are seen | except: ‘A. Pelican spur B. Soap bubble appearance C. Zone of demarcation near epiphysis D. Frenkel’s line | 285.On radiography widened duodenal °C’ loop with | irregular mucosal pattern on upper gastrointestinal | barium series is most likely due to : | A. Chronic pancreatitis |B. Carcinoma head of pancreas | C. Duodenal ulcer |. Duodenal ileus | 286,Which of the following is the most penetration beam? Electron beam 8 MV photons 18 MV photons. Proton beam pomp(287. The radiation tolerance of whole liver is: A. 15Gy B. 30Gy Cc. 40Gy D. 45Gy [288.In which malignancy postoperative radiotherapy is minimally used? A. Head and neck B. Stomach C. Colon D. Soft tissue sarcomas '289. Which of the following is not a CT scan feature of Ill defined outline ofthe pancreas Enlargement of the pancreas Poor contrast enhancement Dilated main pancreatic duct A B. c, D. [290,Which of the following is the classic CT appearance of ‘an acute Subdural hematoma ‘A. _Lentiform-shaped hyperdense lesion B. Cresent-shaped hypodense lesion CC. Cresent-shaped hyperdense lesion D. Lentiform-shaped hypodense lesion [291. The first investigation of choice in a patient with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage should be : ‘A. Non-contrast computed tomography B. CSF examination C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography [292. Radio isotopes are used inthe following techniques except ‘A. Mass spectroscopy B. RIA C. ELISA | D. Sequencing of nucleic acid [PSYCHIATRY [293.Signs of organic brain damage are evident on: A. Bender Gestalt Test B. Rorschach Test C. Sentence Completion Test D. Thematic Apperception Test [294 Miss B, a 27 year old nurse had extracurricular interest in trekking and painting. She broke up relationship with her boy friend. Two months later she lost interest in her hobbies and was convinced that she would not | be able to work again. She thought life was not worth | living and has consumed 60 tablets of phenobarbitone to end her life. She is most likely suffering from: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004» 821 ‘Adjustment disorder — Conversion disorder Depressive disorder Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) poeP '295.A 25-year old housewife came to the Psychiatry out patient department (OPD) complaining that her nose ‘was longer than usual. She felt that her husband did not like her because of the deformity and had developed relationship with the neighbouring girl. Further she complained that people made fun of her. It was not possible to convince her that there was no deformity. Her symptoms include: Delusion Depersonalization Depression Hallucination. pomp '296.A 40-year old man presents to casualty with history of regular and heavy use of alcohol for ten years and morning drinking for one year. The last alcohol intake was three days back. There is no history of head injury || ‘or seizures. On examination, there is no icterus, sign of hepatic encephalopathy or focal neurological sign. The | patient had coarse tremors, visual hallucinations and had disorientation to time. Which of the following is the best medicine to be prescribed for such a patient? | Diazepam Haloperidol Imipramine Naltrexone poe 297.A 30 year old unmarried woman from alow socio- | economic status family believes that a rich boy staying in her neighbouthood is in deep love with her. The boy | clearly denies his love towards this lady. Still the lady insists that his denial is a secret affirmation of his love towards her. She makes desperate attempts to meet the boy despite resistance from her family. She also develops sadness at times when her effort to meet the boy does not materialize. She is able to maintain her | daily routine. She however, remains preoccupied with the thoughts of this boy. She is likely to be suffering : Delusional disorder Depression Mania Schizophrenia pomp |298. The Non-REM (NREM) sleep is commonly associated with: Frequent dreaming | Frequent penile erections Increased blood pressure Night terrors OA iB } ¢ D.— eT 822» MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2004 299.A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of | the fear of being harmed by schoo! mates. He thinks that his classmates laugh at and talk about him, He is even scared of going out to the market. He is most likely suffering from ; A, ‘Anxiety neuros B, Manic Depressive Psychosis C, Adjustment reaction D, Schizophrenia (300,441 year old woman working as an Executive Director is convinced that the management has denied her promotion by preparing false reports about her competence and have forged her signature on sensitive documents so as to convict her. She files a complaint in the police station and requests for security. Despite all this she attends to her work and manages the household, She is suffering from : A. Paranoid Schizophrenia B, Late onset Psychosis C. Persistent Delusional Disorder D, Obsessive Compulsive Disorder