AIPGME EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 2007AIPGME EXAMINATION QUESTIONS - 2007 ANATOMY i | } | |9, Allare true about the trigone of the urinary bladder | 1. Primordial germ cell is derived from: || except ‘A. Ectoderm | ‘A. Mucosa is loosely associated to the underlying B. Mesoderm musculature C. Endoderm B. Mucosa is smooth D. Mesodermal sinus C._Itis lined by transitional epithelium D._Itis derived from the absorbed part of the 2. Movements of pronation & supination occurs in all the mesonephric duct following joints except. ‘A. Superior radio — ulnar joint 10. Supports of the uterus are all except B. Middle radio ~ ulnar joint ‘A. Uterosacral ligament CC. Inferior radio — ulnar joint B. Broad Ligament D. Radio — carpal joint C. Mackenrodts” ligament | D. Levator ani 3. About Posterior cruciate ligament — true statement is ‘A. Attached to the lateral femoral condyle 11. Posterior communicating artery a branch of B. Intrasynovial ‘A. Internal carotid CC. Prevents posterior dislocation of tibia B. External carotid D, Relaxed in full flexion C. Middle cerebral D. Posterior superior cerebellar 4, Structures that pass from thorax to abdomen behind the diaphragm are all except: 12, Which ofthe following is not a branch of Cavernous ‘A. Azygos vein segment of Internal Carotid Artery? B. Aorta ‘A. Cavernous Branch C. Thoracic duct B. Inferior Hypophyseal Branch D. Greater splanchnic nerve C. Meningeal branch D. Ophthalmic branch Most common site of Morgagni Hemi is: A. Left Anterior 13. Difference between typical cervical & thoracic B. Right posterior | vertebral C. Right Anterior | A. Has a triangular body D. Left posterior B. Hasa foramen transversarium | C. Superior articular facet directed backwards & 6. Structure that does not cross the midline is: upwards ‘A. Left gonadal vein D. Hasa large vertebral body B. Leftrenal vein C. Lefttbranchiocephalic vein 14, Which of this part of vertebral canal will show D. Homiazygos vein | secondary curves with concavity backwards? | A. Cervical 7. Porto systemic shunt is not seen in B. Thoracic A. Liver C. Sacral B. Spleen D. Coccyx | C. Anorectum | D. Gastro Esophageal PHYSIOLOGY 8, Injury to the male urethra below the perineal 15, Agranular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the membrane causes urine to accumulate in synthesis of: ‘A. Superficial perineal pouch A. Protein B. Deep perineal pouch B. Lipid CC. Space of retzius C. Carbohydrate | D. Pouch of douglas D.. Vitamin D |376 © MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 16. au 22. 23. 24, The substance that is present in both serum and plasma is : ‘A. Fibrinogen B. Factor VIL 25. C. Factor V D. Factor Il Site of RBC formation in 20 year old healthy male is: A. Flat bones C. Awake state ) D. Stage I NREM sleep Toxic effects of high oxygen tension include all of the following except: A. Pulmonary edema B. Decreased cerebral blood flow C._ Retinal damage D._ CNS excitation and convulsion B. Long bones 26. Which of the following adaptations will be apt to C. Liver increase the work capacity at high altitude: D. Yolk sac ‘A. Increasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise 3. Which of the following is true about fourth heart B. Increasing workload, increasing duration of sound ‘4 exercise ‘A. Can be heard by the unaided ear C. Decreasing workload, increasing duration of B. Frequency is greater than 20 Hz exercise CC. Heard during ventricular filing phase D. Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of D. Heard during ventricular ejection phase ae Heart muscle, true are all except |27. Al ofthe lowing statements are true for ‘Intestinal ‘A. Actas syncitium | B. Has multiple nuclei A Doss ot depend on Gas may ie aes increased by Distension D. Has branching C. Increased by Acetylcholine D. Increased by cholecystokinin |. Broca’s area is concemed with: | i head eee | [2% Wish ofthe fotowing bomone is nt secreted bythe B. Comprehension | i A man fe Lee |B. Angiotensin I 2 mad | C. Exythropoietin The nucleus involved in Papez circuit is: | De eee Petron 29, Males and females show difference in the age of onset pence of puberty. The difference in the age of onset of eee puberty amongst males may be explained by: Bo aioe Onelos oe Thala ‘A. Increased Activin A levels B. Decreased Follistatin levels The mechanism of hearing and memory, include all C._ tnerensed Inbibin levels except D. Easily releasable FSH pool ‘A. Changes in level of neurotransmitter at synapse ae B. Increasing protein synthesis BIOCHEMISTRY C. Recruitment by multiplication of neurons See D. Spatial Reorganization of synapse 30. All ofthe following are true regarding oxygenases except : The processing of short term memory to long term ‘A. Incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen memory is done in: B. Incorporate 1 atom of oxygen A. Prefrontal cortex C. Required for hydroxylation of steroids B. Hippocampus D. Required for carboxylation of drugs. CC. Neocortex D. Amygdala 31, Treatment of Multiple Carboxylase Deficiency is: A. Biotin Delta waves are seen in B. Pyridoxine A. Deep sleep C. Thiamine B. REMsleep D. Folic acid(MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2007 ° 377 32, Basement membrane degeneration is mediated by: B. Negative regulator ‘A. Metalloproteinases C. Constitutive expression B. Oxidases D. Attenuation CC. Elastases D. Hydroxylases 41. C terminal end of androgen receptor is concerned with: A. Ligand binding 33. Which of the following enzymes is stable at acidic pH: B. Increasing bi I half life A. Pepsi A ae, CC. Increasing the affinity of receptor to DNA. . chymotrypsin D. Increasing the level of transcription D. Carboxypeptidase 42. All of the following occur in mitochondria except: 34. Regarding proteoglycans, fase is: [ Pa aaa as ‘A. Chondroitin sulfate is a Proteoglycan | ee | C. Fatty acid oxidation B. They hold less amount of water D. Electron transport chain . ne ae ———= RetatingHMP shal ote owing enue ‘ ‘A. Occurs inthe cytosol 35, Prin piston and spr a be don by al Fy petite ee | AL Chromatography C. It is active in Adipose tissue, Liver and Gonads. |B. Centrifugation D. The oxidative phase generates NADPH and the C._ Electrophoresis | Non oxidative phase generates pyruvate. D. Densitometry ; | 44, Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by 36, Study of multiplication of proteins in disease process hich ofthe following regulating pathways? iscalled: ‘A. Hypoxia Stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by A. Proteomics | increased 2,3 DPG B. Genomics | B. Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase C. Glycomics | C. Hypoxia stimulates release ofall Glycolytic D. Nucleomics | enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane D. Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high PH 37. Protein that precipitates on heating to 45° C and redissolves on boiling is: 45, Dinitrophenol causes: ‘A. Bence Jones Protein ‘A. Inhibition of ATP synthase |B. Gamma globulin B. Inhibition of electron transport |G. Albumin C. Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation D. Myosin D. Accumulation of ATP (38. Nothem blot is used for the separation of: 46. Regarding synthesis of triacyl glycerol in adipose | A. mRNA tissue, all of the following are true except: |B. DNA ‘A. Synthesis from Dihydroxyacetone phosphate |G. Protein B. Enzyme Glycerol kinase plays an important role |. Protein DNA interaction |G. Enzyme Glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase : ' plays an important rote |39. Raging Cytosolic Eukaryotic gen expression ise], Phoshatdt hye ‘A. Capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 40 S paroLocy | Ribosome |B. N formyl methionine tRNA will be the first t— | RNA to come into action 47. Earliest transient change following tissue injury will | C._ EF? shifts between GDP & GTP 7 . | D. Releasing factor releases the polypeptide chain . Neutropeni | | from the P site. B. Neutrophilia CC. Monocytosis | |40. CAP in Lac operon is an example of: D. Lymphocytosis te ia —- acaalmn a)378 © MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 48. 49. 4 50, S a y 2 sl. 92. 53. 34. 55. ‘Oxygen dependent killing is done through ‘A. NADPH oxidase B. Super oxide dismutase C. Catalase D. Glutathione peroxidase Factor present in the final common terminal ‘complement pathway is: A C4 B. C3 c. cs D. Protein B ‘The immunoglobulin involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction is, AL IgE B. IgM C. IgA D. IgG ‘Arthus reaction is what type of hypersensitivity reaction ‘A. Localized immune complex B. Ag-Abreaction C. Compliment mediated D. Abmediated The following protein defects can cause hereditiary spherocytosis except: Ankyrin Paladin Glycophorin C Anion transport protein pomp ALL L; morphology is a malignancy arising from which cell lineage A. Mature B cell B. Precursor B cell C. Immature T cell D. Mixed B cell & T cell Non specific esterase is positive in all the categories of, AML except A. Ms B. My CMs D. Me Bone marrow in AL amyloidosis shows: Bone marrow plasmacytosis Granulomatous reaction Fibrosis, Giant cell formation pomp 56. A diabetic patient is undergoing dialysis. Aspiration done around the knee joint would show, A. Abeta 2 microglobulin B. AA Cc. AL D. Lactoferrin 57. What is the best method for confirming amyloidosis : ‘A. Colonoscopy B._Sigmoidoscopy CC. Rectal biopsy D. Tongue biopsy MICROBIOLOGY 58. Which one of the following is true, ‘A. Agarhas nutrient properties B. Chocolate medium is selective medium C. Addition of selective substances in a solid ‘medium is called enrichment media D. Nutrient broth is a basal medium 59. A young male patient presented with UTI. On urine examination pus cells were found but no organisms. Which method would be best used for culture? Me Coy culture ‘Thayer martin medium LJ. Medium Levinthal Medium pop 60. Components of Innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes: A. NKcells B. Cytotoxic T cells C. Beell D. Memory B cell in chains and hemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism, A. Bile solubility B. Optochin sensitivity C._ Bacitracin sensitivity D. Catalase positi 62, A patient in an ICU is on central venous line for the past one week. He is on ceftazidime and and amikacin, After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 10 | days of therapy. The most likely organism = infection is ‘A. Staphylococcus aureus 61. A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci | | |63. 65. \67. 68. l a Brucella is transmitted by all expect: B. Virdans streptococci | C. Enterococcus faecalis | 1D. Coagulase negative staphylococcus | ‘A farmer presents with pustules, which show Gram Positive Cocci on smear. Culture shows Beta hemolysis, and organisms are Catalase negative. To | show that the identified organism is group A | streptococci, which ofthe following test should be done? A. Bacitracin sensitivity B. Optochin sensitivity C. Novobiocin sensitivity D. Bile solubility Which is not true about vibrio choera: A. Itisnon halophilic B. Grows on simple media C. Man is the only natural host | D. Cannot survive in extracellular environment | | ‘Which of the following bacteria act by increasing C ~ AMP. | A. Vibrio cholera | B. Staphyloccus aureus C. Loli heat stable D. Salmonella All the following statements are true about V. cholera 0139 except: A. Clinical manifestations are similar O1 Eltor strain B. First discovered in Chennai CC. Epidemiologically indistinguishable from 01 Eltor strain D. Produces 01 Lipo polysaccharide An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough, Sputum culture showed growth Charcol Yeast Extract Medium. The organism is A. HL influenza | B. Moraxella cartarthalis C. Legionella D. Burkholderia cepacia | A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned into an ulcer. Which ‘will best help in diagnosis Trichrome Methylene Blue Carbol Fuschin Acid Fast Stain Calcoflour White pop> ‘A. Through the placenta of animals B. Aerosol transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007» 379 . Person to person D. Eating uncooked food 70. Botulinum affects all except: A. Neuromuscular junction B. Preganglionic junction C. Post ganglionic nerves D. CNS 71. With reference to bacteriodes fragilis, the following statements are true except: ‘A. Bacteriodes fragilis isa frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples B. Bacteriodes fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole C. The LPS formed by Bacteriodes fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins D._ Shock and DIC are common in bacteriodes bacterimia 72. Which of the following statement is not true regarding Chlamydia Trachomatis: ‘A. Elementary body is metabolically active B._Itis biphasic C._ Reticulate body divides by binary fission D. Inside the cell it evades phagolysome except: ‘Acquired from bird’s dropings Causes urethreitis Causes pneumonia ‘Treatment is tetracycline 73. All statements are true for Chylamydia psittacosis | pop 74, Rabies is identified by Guameri bodies Negri bodies Cowdry A bodies Cowdry B bodies PHARMACOLOGY 75. All of the following may be associated with Beta2 | agonist treatment except, | ‘A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperglycemia CC. Detrusor relaxation | D. Relaxation of gut and bronchial muscles | pom 76. All ofthe following may be associated with the use of Beta agonist in preterm labour Except: A. Hyperkalemia | B. Hyperglycemia C. Tachycardia D._ Relaxation of uterine muscles380 7. gl. 83. 84, 85. powers ‘* MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 All of the following are nonselective Beta blockers with additional actions except: A. Carvedilol B. Betoxalol C. Cartelol D. Labetalol . True statement about clonidine are all except, ‘A. Increases parasympathetic outflow B. Decreases sympathetic outflow by blocking central alpha receptor Used in Hypertension Prazosin is used to antagonize side effects of go 5 alpha reductase inhibitor PDE inhibitor Alpha 1a blocker Androgen receptor blocker |. The following drugs may be used in erectile dysfunction except, Phenylephrine ‘Apomorphine Alprostidil PGEL analogues gom> The following drugs are used in obesity except, A. Orlistat B. Sibutaramine CC. Olestra D. Neuropeptide Y Agonist ‘Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist? A. Montelukast B. Zileuton C. Omalizumab D. Nedocromil Which of the following is beneficial in NSAID induced gastric ulcer? A. PGE agonist B. PGE2 agonist C. PGD agonist D. PGF2 agonist All of the following have receptors which are transcription factors, except, A. Insulin B. Estrogen CC. Glucocorticoids D. Vitamin D All are short and rapid acting insulins except. A._Lispro 86. 87. 88, 89, 90. a. 92. 93. B. Aspart C. Glargine D. Glulisine | ‘True about Octreotide are all except : A. Isactive orally B.Supresses growth Hormone secretion C._ Useful for variceal bleeding 1D. Useful in secretory diarthea Which of the following is not an antiepileptic agent: Phenytoin Topiramate Flunarazine Carbamazepine pape All of the following antiepileptic agents act via Nat channel except Vigabatrin Phenytoin Valproate Lamotrigne pow Nestritide is a: Brain natriuretic peptide analogue Endothelin R antagonist Gp Ilb Ia antagonist TNF alpha antagonist pomp Prothombin Time (PT) of a patient is 26, Control PT is 13 seconds and Sensitivity index is 1.41. What will be the INR of this patient: A. 26/13, B. (26/13) x 1.41 Cc. (26/13) 4" D. (26/13) "*t Which of the following is a prodrug? A. Ticlopidine B. Aspirin C. Clopidogrel D. Dipyridamole All ofthe following statements about Heparin are true except ‘A. Causes Alopecia B. Non Teratogenic CC. Releases Lipoprotein Lipase D. Causes Hypokalemia. All ofthe following are GpIIb/IIIa antagonist except: A. Abciximab B. Clopidogrel C. Tirofiban D. Epitifibatide94. The following drug is not useful for MRSA, A. Cefaclor B. Cotrimoxazole CC. Ciprofloxacin D. Vancomycin 95. Orange coloured urine is due to: A. Riffampicin B. INH C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol 96. Nevirapine belongs to the following group ‘A. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor ¢NNRTI) B. Protease inhibitor C. Fusion inhibitor D. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) 97. The following drug has maximum propensity to cause peripheral neuropathy ‘A. Didanosine B. Zidovudine C. Stavudine D. Lamivudine 98. All are true about immunosuppressants except? A. Tacrolimus inhibits calcineurin pathway B. Steroids binds to cytosolic receptors and heat shock proteins C. Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP dehydrogenase D. Sirolimus will block kinase in the IL 2 receptor pathway 99. Which of the following is not an alkylating agent? A. Cyclophosphamide B. 5-FU C. Busulfan D. Chlorambucil 100. The following drug acts by hypomethylation A. Gemcitabine B. Capecitabine C. Decitabine D. Cytosine arabinoside 101. Drug causing hypercoagulability is: L asparginase Busulfan Melphalan. SFU pop 102. Methotrexate is used in high doses ‘A. Osteosarcoma MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2007 © 381 B. Retinoblastoma C. Rhabdomyosarcoma D. Ewing's sarcoma 103. Filgrastim is used in treatment of: A. Anemia B. Neutropenia C. Malaria D. Filarial FORENSIC 104, Spalding sign is seen in A. Drowning B. Maceration C. Mummification D. Starvation 105. Burtonian line is seen with poisoning of ‘A. Mercury B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Zine 106, Acrodynia is associated with Mercury Phenolic acid Oxalic acid Carbolic acid poisoning pomp 107. Mercury will affect which part of the renal tubule A. PCT B. DCT c. CT D. Loop of Henle 108. The drug of choice for mushroom poisoning is: A. Atropine B. Physostigmine C. Adrenaline D. Carbachol Follidol 110, All the following indicators are included in physical quality of life Index (PQLI) except ‘A. Infant mortality rate B. Life expectancy at age one C. Literacy rate D._ Per capita incometa 112, 113, 114. 1s. 116. 117, 18. ‘* MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 - 85% of lung cancer among smokers was due to their smoking. This is an example of A. Attributable risk B._ Relative risk C. Odds ratio D. Population attributable risk. All ofthe following statements are true for Herd ‘immunity except: A. Herd structure is constant B._Itis mostly due to subclinical infection C. Can be acquired by immunisation D. Spread of epidemic is influenced by it Which of the following vaccine is not included in EPI schedule A. DPT B. MMR, Cc. BCG D. OPV Chronic carrier state is seen in all except A. Measles B. Diptheria C. Typhoid D. Gonorrhea Least common complication of measles is A. SSPE B. Pneumonia C. Otitis media D. Keratomalacia Under eradication of congenital rubella syndrome program the first priority group for rubella vaccination is A. Allnon pregnant women of age 15 to 34 B. All adolescent non pregnant girls 15 to 24 years of age C. All female children at one year D. All non pregnant women. Strategies for prevention of Neonatal Tetanus include all of the following except: A. Sclean practices B. Giving penicillin to all the new bons C. 2 doses of TT to all pregnant women D. Immunizing all married women Which is true of BCG vaccination ? A. Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG B The site of injection should be cleaned with spirit CC. Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination D. WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production 119, 120. 121, Which of the following is not transmitted by lice, 122. 123, 126. Case finding in RNTCP is based on Sputum culture Sputum microscopy X-ray chest ‘Mantoux test / PCR a. pop ). Which of the following statements about lepromin test| is not trie A. Itis negative in most children in first 6 months of life B. It isa diagnostic test C._Itisan important aid to classify type of leprosy disease D. BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from| negative to positive | A. Qfever B. Trench fever CC. Relapsing fever D. Epidemic typhus True about endemic typhus ~ | ‘A. Manis the only reservoir of infection | B. Flea is a vector of the disease C. Arash developing into an eschar is charaterstic of the disease D. Culture is the diagnostic modality On SAFE strategy false is ‘A. Screening B. Antibiotics C. Facial hygiene | D. Environmental modification |. All are common cause of blindness in children in India| except, | Malnutrition Ophthalmia neonatorum Glaucoma A B. c. D. Congenital dacryocystitis . BMI to classify obesity should be A 220 B. 230 c. 240 D. 250 Impact and efficiency of iodine control program can be estimated by ‘A. Neonatal thyroxine levels | B. Goiter in pregnant women | C. Goiter in children of age 12 to 18 D. Urinary iodine levels in pregnant women127, 128, 129, 130. 131. 132. 133, 134, ‘Compared with cow's milk, mother's milk has more, A. Lactose B. Vitamin D C. Proteins D. Fat The highest percentages of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in? A. Ground nut oil B. Palmoil C. Margarine D. Soya bean oil Chlorine demand is measured by Horrock’s apparatus Chlorimeter Double pot Berkfeld filter poe All can be incinerated except Cytotoxic Waste. Sharps ‘Anatomical waste Infectious waste pow Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality, rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in : ‘A. Causes of death B. Numerators CC. Age distributions D. Denominators ‘A. Facilitate double blinding B. Help ensure that the study subjects are representative of general population C. Ensure that the groups are comparable on baseline characteristics D. Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment. All of the following are true about cluster sampling except ‘A. Samples are similar to those in Simple Random Sampling B. Isa Rapid and simple method C. The sample size may vary according to study design D. Itisa type of probability sample ‘A data is arranged as satisfied, very satisfied, dissatisfied. This is a A. Normal data B. Ordinal data MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007» C. Interval data D. Ratio data 135. A study was conducted to test if use of herbal tea 383 played any role in prevention of common cold. Data was collected on the number of people who developed cold and those who did not develop cold and this data was tabulated in relation to whether they consumed Herbal tea or not. Herbal tea ‘Consumed | Not consumed [Had cold 12 23 [Did not have a cold 34 38 ‘The analytical test of choice to test this study is: A. Student ~t test (unpaired) B, Student ~t test (paired) C. Chi square test Dz ‘Zitest 136, and ordered 6 tests out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative, To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know A. Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and | specificity of each test ‘You have diagnosed a Patient clinically as having SLE AIPGMEE 2007 - QUESTIONS B. Incidence of SLE and the predictive value of each test C. Incidence and prevalence of SLE D. Relative risk of SLE in the patient MEDICINE 137. Which of the following findings is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia: Increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin Decreased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin Increased TIBC, increased serum ferritin Decreased TIBC, increased serm ferritin pomp 138. A normotensive patient with normal hemoglobin suffered massive blood loss. The following findings ‘would be present in him except: ‘A. Increased PCV B. Increased MCV C. Thrombocytosis D. Reticulocytosis, 139, Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is associated with malignancy of which lineage: Tell Beell Pre Bell Pre T cell pope t_384. © MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007, 140, Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in: A. PNH B. GOPD deficiency C. Acquired aplastic anemia D, Thalassemi 140b.Pancytopenia with hypercellular bone marrow is seen PNH Megaloblastic anemia ‘Acquired aplastic anemia Thalessemia popes |. Bone marrow biopsy is absolutely indicated in, Acute leukemia Megaloblastic anemia Hairy cell leukemia ‘Thalassemia pomp . In PML, all of the following are seen except Retinoic acid is used in treatment 15/17 translocation may be seen CD 15/34 both seen in same cell Associated with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIVC) poz 143. 80 year old, asymptomatic man present with a Total Leucocyte Count of 1 lakh, with 80% lymphocytes and 20% PMC’s, What is the most probable diagnosis? A. HIV B. CML c. CLL D. TB 144, Which of the following statements about Mycosis, fungoides is not true: A. Its the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma B. Pautriers microabscess CC. Indolent course and easily amenable to treatment D. Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral circulation 145. Erythropoietin is increased in all ofthe following conditions except: ‘A. Hepatocellular carcinoma B. Renal cell carcinoma CC. Cerebellar Hemangioblastoma D. Pancreatic carcinoma 146. A patient on aspirin, will show the following finding? Prolonged BT Prolonged PT Prolonged APT Prolonged CT pop 147, 148, 149, 150. 151 ‘The following set of finding is seen in DIVC: ) ‘A. Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin II, increased thrombin-antithrombin III complexes B. Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin IIL . Increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes D. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced Platlets Which is not true regarding Bemard soulier syndrome? A. Ristocetin aggregation is normal B. Aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal C. Large platelets D. Thrombocytopenia ‘The following is the least useful investigation in ‘multiple myeloma: A. ESR B. X-Ray C. Bone scan D. Bone marrow biopsy The following ECG findings are sen in Hypokalemia: A. Increased PR interval with ST depression | B. Increased PR interval with peaked T wave | C. Prolonged QT interval with T wave inversion | D. Decreased QT interval with ST depression CCF is associated with Increase in all of the following, except: A. Right atrial mean pressure B. Serum sodium C. Serum urea D. Serum norepinephrine | . A person with mitral regurgitation and atrial fibrillation presents with syncope. On examination the person has a heart rate of 55. What is the most probable cause ? A. Digitalis toxicity | B, Incomplete heart block | ©. Stroke D. Subarachnoid Haemorrhage and hypotension. Which will be the immediate ‘treatment modality for this patient, ‘A. Intra aortic balloon counter pulsation B. Anticoagulation CC. Thrombolytic therapy D. Angiography and Primary angioplasty | ‘A patient presents with acute anterior wall infarction | . A.70 year old man develops pneumonia and septicemia, Patient goes into renal failure and has a BP of 70/50 mm of Hg, Drug that should be used to ‘maintain BP is A. Adrenaline155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. B. Ephedrine C.Phenylephrine D. Norepinephrine A patient presents with decreased vital capacity and total lung volume. What is the most probable diagnosis ? A. Bronchiectasis, B. Sarcoidosis, CC. Cystic fibrosis D. Asthma All of the following drugs are commonly used in regimens against H. pylori except: Oxytetracycline Amoxicillin Bismuth Subcitrate Omeprazole com> ‘A patient with H. Pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H.Pylori infection in this person is : Rapid unrease test Urea breath test Endoscopy and biopsy Serum anti H.Pylori ttre pope AA patient presents with chronic small bowel diarrhea, ‘Duodenal biopsy shows villous atrophy. Anti ‘endomysial antibodies and IgA TTG antibodies are positive. What is the treatment of choice ? Giuten free diet Antibiotics Loperamide S-ASA pop> ‘The test used to diagnose Dubin Johnson syndrome i ‘A. Serum transminases B. Bromsulphalein test (BSP) CC. Hippurate test D. Gamma glutamyl transferase level Most common cause of nephrotic range proteinuria in an adult is: Diabetes Mellitus Amyloidosis Hypertensive nephropathy Wegner's Granulomatosis poe ‘A.30 year old man presents with generalized edema and hypertension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm) and microscopic hematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased and he is positive for antihepatitis C antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is: ‘A. Post streptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2007 © 385 B. Mixed cryoglobulinemia CC. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) D. Focal symentat Glomerular sclerosis (FSGS) 161b. A 60 year old woman presents with generalized 162. 163. 167. edema, skin ulceration and hypertension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm) and microscopic haematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased and she is positive for anti- hepatitis C antibodies. The likely diagnosis is: A. PSGN B. Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia CC. Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis D._ Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis Which of the following endocrine tumors is most ‘commonly seen in MEN I? Insulinoma Gastrinoma Glucagonoma Somatostatinoma pop ‘Treatment of choice for Zollinger Ellison Syndrome (ZES) is: A B. Somatostatin analogues CC. Streptozocin D. Sueralfate SIADH is associated with the following drug: Vincristine Erythromycin 5-FU Methotrexate pop> Hypophosphatemia is seen in all except: Acute renal failure Resolving phases of diabetic ketocidosis Respiratory alkalosis / COPD Chronic alcoholism poR> 5. C- ANCA positivity indicates, antibody formed against Proteinase 3 Myeloperoxidase Cytoplasmic antinuclear Antibody Anti centromere Antibody pop> Deposition of Anti ds DNA Ab in kidney, skin, choroid plexus and joints is seen in: SLE Good pasture Scleroderma Raynauds disease pop386 168. 173, 174, 175. ‘* MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 Best marker for drug induced lupus is, A. Anti histone antibodies B. Anti ds DNA CANA D._ Anti Smith Ab All of the following are true about Raynaud's disease except: ‘A. More common in females B. Positive Antinuclear Antibodies CC. Most common cause of raynaud's phenomenon D. Has good prognosis |. The following are components of Kawasaki disease except, ‘A. Punulent conjunctivitis, B. Pedal edema C.Truncal rash D. Pharyngeal congestion Increased ICT is associated with all except, A. Paraparesis, B. Abducent paralysis, C. Headache D. Visual blurring . Pontine Stroke is associated with all except : Bilateral pin point pupil Pyrexia Vagal palsy Quadriparesis pomp Millard Gubler syndrome includes the following except: A. 5" nerve palsy B. 6" nerve palsy C. 7" nerve palsy D. Contralateral hemiparesis All of the following statements are true about Benedikt’s syndrome, except: A. Contralateral tremor B, 3" nerve palsy C. Involvement of the penetrating branch of the basilar artery D. Lesion atthe level of the pons The following are components of Brown Sequard syndrome except ‘A. Ipsilateral extensor plantar response B. Ipsilateral pyramidal tract involvement C. Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement D. Contralateral posterior column involvement 176. 171, 178. Which of the following is the classical CSF finding seen in TBM ? ‘A. Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased ymphocytes B. Increased protein, sugar and lymphocytes C. Decreased protein, increased sugar and lymphocytes D. Increased sugar, protein and neutrophils All of the following organs may be involved in Leprosy except: A. Uterus B. Ovary C. Testes D. Eye ‘Treatment of severe ulnar neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy is: MDT only MDT + steroid Wait and watch, MDT + thalidomide pomp SURGERY 179, 180, 181 182, 183. Chronic Burrowing ulcer is caused by Microaerophilic streptococci Peptostreptococcus Streptococcus viridans Streptococcus pyogenes gop> Which of the following is not a histological variant of thyroid neoplasm? A. Follicular B. Merkel cell C. Insular D. Anaplastic Allof the following are true about Lymphoma of the thyroid except: A. More common in females B. Slow growing C. Clinically confused with undifferentiated tumours D. May present with respiratory distress and dysphagia ‘The following is a maker of Paget's disease of the ‘mammary gland AL S-100 B. HMB 4S CCEA D. Neuron specific enolase Alll of the following statements about Gynaecomastia are true except:‘A. Subcutaneous mastectomy is the init of choice B. Seen in liver disease C. There may be estrogen / testosterone imbalance D. Can be drug induced. 184, Preferred incision for abdominal exploration in Blunt injury abdomen is: A. Always Midline incision B. Depending upon the organ C. Transverse incision D. Paramedian 185. Which of the following statements related to gastric injury is not true? ‘A. Mostly related to penetrating trauma B. Treatment is simple debridement and suturing. C. Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury D. Heals well and fast 186. A patient sustained Traumatic injury to major abdominal vessels. It has been planned to explore the Suprarenal Aorta, the Caeliac Axis, the Superior Mesentric Artery, and the Left Renal Artery. What ‘maneuvre for exposure is recommended: ‘A. Cranial visceral Rotation B. Caudal visceral Rotation C. Left Medial Visceral Rotation D. Right Medical Visceral Rotation 187, All the following polyps are premalignant except A. _Iuvenile polyposis syndrome B. Famillial polyposis syndrome CC. Juvenile polyp D. Peutz jeger syndrome 187b.Which of the following has least malignant potential ‘A. Iuvenile polyps in Juvenile Polyposis Syndrome B. Hamartomatous Polyps in Peutz Jaghers Syndrome CC. Adenomatous Polyps in Familial colonic Polyposis D. Adenomatous polyps in HNPCC 188. Which of the following statement is true about, ‘external haemorrhoids? Painful, below the dentate line Painless, above the dentate line Rubber band ligation is the treatment of choice May be associated with a skin tag pap> 189. The following statement about Pilonidal Sinus is true : ‘A. More common in females B. Mostly congenital MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS- 2007 * 387 C. Prognosis after surgery is poor D. Treatment of choice is surgical exci tract mn of sinus 190. A 60 yr old smoker came with a history of painless ‘gross hematuria for one day. Most logical investigation would be ‘A. Urine routine B. Plain X ray KUB . USGKUB D. Urine microscopy for malignant cytology 191. A patient is brought to the hospital with history of RTA 8 hours back. A few drops of blood were noted at the external urethral meatus. He has not passed urine and his bladder is palpable per abdomen. What is the probable diagnosis: ‘A. Ureteral injury with extravasations of urine in the retro peritoneum B. Urethral injury C. Rupture bladder D. Amuria due to hypovolemia 192. A 50 year old man known to have diabetes presents with, poor urinary stream, hesitancy, difficulty in AIPGMEE 2007 - QUESTIONS micturation and failure to void completely. What is the am diagnosis? A. BPH B. Autonomic neuropathy c. UNL D. Atonic bladder 193. A 50 year old man, known to have diabetes, presents with poor urinary stream, increased frequency of micturation and hesitancy. What is the most likely diagnosis: BPH Autonomic neuropathy url ‘Atonic bladder pop 194, 50 year old male with positive family history of prostate cancer has come to you for a screening test. ‘The most sensitive screening test to pickup prostate cancer is: A. DRE B. PSA C. DRE+PSA D. Endorectal Coil MRI with T;W and T2W images 195, Best prognostic factor for head injury is: A. Glasgow coma scale B. Age C. Mode of injury D. CT388. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 GYNAECOLOGY 196. The shape of a Nulliparous cervix is Circular Transverse Lonitudinal Fimbriated sop "197, Fibroid uterus may present with al ofthe following BD except: Amenorthoea Pelvic mass Infertility Polymenorthea poRPp 198. Most common gestational trophoblastic disease following hydatiform mole is Invasive mole Chorio carcinoma Placental site trophoblastic tumour Placental nodule CORP A. Cacervix B. Ca endometrium c. DUB D. Caovary 100. Most common agent responsible for Ca cervix is: A. HPVI6 B. HPVI8 C. HPV3I D. HPV33 201. Most common ovarian cyst to undergo torsion is: ‘A. Benign cystic teratoma B. Dysgerminoma C. Ovarian fibroma D. Brenners tumour 202. Non contraceptive benefits of OC pills may be seen in all of the following conditions except: A. Ca endometrium B. Ca breasts C. Rheumatoid arthritis D, Endometriosis 203. The following statements are true about Intrauterine devices (IUD) except: ‘A. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD. B. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar C. IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days 204. 208. 206. 207. 208, 209. 210. au. D. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years. Which of the following IUCD's has a life span of 10 i. A. Cu380A B. Cu200 C. NOVA-T D. Multiload ‘An Antihormonal substance used to induce ovulation A. Mefiprestone B. Clomiphene citrate C. Tamoxifen D. Raloxifen Most common site for female tubal sterilization is: A. Isthmus B. Ampulla C. Comua D. Infundibulum Aspiration of sperms from testes is done in: A. TESA B. MESA C. ZIFT D. GIFT ‘Maximum cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in: A. Isttrimester B. Ind trimester C. Labour D. Immediate postpartum period Nuchal translucency at 14 wks is suggestive of Downs syndrome (Trisomy 21) Oesophageal atresia Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18) Foregut duplication cyst poe Ina lady of 32 weeks pregnancy injection dexamethasone is given to prevent; A. RDS B. Neonatal convulsion C. Neonatal jaundice D. Cerebral palsy Bishops score includes all of the following except: A. Dilatation B. Effacement CC. Station of presenting part D._ Interspinous diameter212. On Transvaginal Sonography (TVS) which of the following shapes of cervix indicate imminent preterm labour: psop> oc<4 213. Which of the following Doppler findings in IUGR is associated with worst prognosis: A. Reversal of diastolic flow B. Absence of diastolic flow CC. Absence of systolic flow D. Dicrotic notch 214, Extemal Cephalic Version (ECV) is contraindicated Primigravida . Flexed breech Anaemia . PH popes 215. Caudal Regression Syndrome is seen in babies of ‘mothers having: A. Gestational diabetes B. PIH C. Cardiac disease D. Anaemia 216. A Large Baby is bom. The likely complication in pregnancy is: ‘A. Gestational diabetes B. Gestational hypertension C. Cardiac disease D. Anaemia 217. Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with: ‘A. Recurrent abortions B. Polyhydramnios C. Pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH) D. Prematurity 218. Antiepileptic which is not associated with congenital malformation when used in pregnant woman is: A. Phenytoin B. Phenobarbitone C. Carbamazepine D. Valproate 219. Treatment of choice for ovarian cyst in a postpartum, patient is: ‘A. Immediate removal B. Removal after 2 weeks CC. Removal after 6 weeks D. Removal after 3 months MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 * 389 220. Highest transmission of hepatitis B from mother to fetus occurs if the mother is infected during: Ist trimester Iind trimester rd trimester At the time of implantation gop> PAEDIATRICS 221. A baby has recently developed mouthing but has not developed stranger anxiety, likes and dislikes for food, ‘What is the most appropriate age of this baby” 3 months 5 months 7 months 9 months pop> 2. Which ofthe following milestones develops first? A. Mimror play B. Crawling c D. AIPGMEE 2007 - QUESTIONS Creeping Pincer grasp 223. A 6 year old child has an IQ of 50, Which of the following tasks should the child be able to perform: Identify colours Read a sentence Ride a bicycle Copy a triangle pom 224. Moro’s Reflex disappears at: A. 3 months B. 5 months C. 6 months D. 7months 225. Which of the following reflexes is not present at birth: A. Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex B. Moro's Reflex C. Symmetire Tonic Neck Reflex D. Crossed Extensor Reflex 226. The most common cause of short stature is: A. Constitutional B. Systemic diseases C. Hypothyroidism D. Growth hormone deficiency 27. Which of the following is the best indicator of long, term nutritional status: Mid arm circumference Height for age Weight for age Weight for height pop>390 © MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 228. Most common tumor in children is, Leukemia Lymphoma Wilm’s tumor Neuroblastoma SOR> 229. All of the following syndromes are associated with AML except A. Down's Syndrome B._ Klinefelter’s Syndrome C. Pata Syndrome D. Tumer’s Syndrome 230. All of the following are good prognostic factors for childhood. ALL except: A. Hyperdiploidy B. Female sex C. Pre Bell ALL D, t(12:21) translocation 231. Which of the following is a minor criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever (RF) according to ‘modified Jones criteria? ASO titre Past History of Rheumatic Fever Fever Subcutaneous nodules, pop 232. Which of the following is a component of Pentalogy Of Fallot: A. Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) B. Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) C. Coarctation of Aorta (COA) D. Left Venticular Hypertrophy (LVH) 233. Cardiomyopathy is not a feature of: ‘A. Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy B. Friedriech’s ataxia C. Pompe disease D. Lowe's syndrome 234, Most common mode of treatment of a1 year old child with asthma is: Inhaled short acting beta 2 agonist ral short acting theophylline Oral ketotifen Leukotriene agonist pomp 235. The leukotriene receptor antagonist used in bronchial asthma is: Zafirleukast Zileuton Ketotifen D. Omalizumab op> 236. A child with three days history of upper respiratory tract infection presents with stridor, which decreases ‘on lying down position: ‘What is the most probable diagnosis A. Acute Epiglottitis B. Laryngotracheobronchit C. Foreign body Aspiration D. Retropharyngeal Abscess 237. A newborn has congenital heart failure, which is not improving on treatment. He has bulging anterior fontanelles with a bruit on auscultation. On trans fontanelle USG a hypoechoeic midline mass is seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis, is A. Vein of Galen malformation B. Arachnoid cyst CC. Medulloblastoma D. Encephalocele 238. Most common organism causing meningitis in a 1 year old child, ‘A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. H. influenza C. Listeria D. Neisseria meningitidis 239, Jitteriness can be distinguished from seizures by all of the following except: A. Sensitivity to stimulus B, Frequency of movement C. Abnormality of Gaze D. Autonomic disturbance 240. A child has Microcephaly, Blue eyes, Fair skin, and Mental retardation, Ferric chloride testis positive. ‘What isthe likely diagnosis? ‘A. Phenylketonuria (PKU) B. Homocystinuria CC. Tyrosinosis D. Alkaptonuria 241. Darkening of urine on standing is associated with: ‘A. Alkaptonuria B. Cystinuria CC. Fabry’s disease D. Tyrosinemia 242. Premature baby of 34 wks was delivered. Baby developed bullous lesion on the skin and X- ray shows periosttis. What should be the next investigation? ‘A. VDRL for mother & baby B. ELISA for HIV C. PCR for TB D. Hepatitis surface antigen for mother.243. A child is brought with drowsiness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and seizures. On examination the child has a line on gums. There is history of constipation, Which will be most appropriate drug that should be used in this child? A. EDTA B. DMSA c. BAL D. Pencillamine 244. Cat eye syndrome is A. Partial trisomy 18 B. Partial trisomy 13, . Partial trisomy 21 D, Partial trisomy 22 245. All of the following conditions have Autosomal Dominant Inheritance except: A. Fabry disease B. Marfan's syndrome C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta D. Ehlers Danlos Syndrome 246. In an Autosomal Recessive (AR) disorder, one parent is normal and the other is carrier and the child is also affected. What is the reason? ‘A. Germ line mosaicism B. Genomic imprinting C. Penetration D. Uniparental disomy 247. Pedigree analysis ~ Analyze the following pedigree and give the mode of inheritance ‘Autosomal recessive Autosomal dominant Mitochondrial inheritance X linked dominant Tae 248, Tube cast applied in # around: A. Shoulder B. Hip C. Pelvis D. Knee pop> ORTHOPAEDICS 249. Which is not a deep heat therapy? ‘A. Short wave diathermy B. Infrared therapy MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 * 391 C. Ultra sound therapy D. Interferential therapy 250, Claw hand is caused by lesion involving: ‘A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve D. Posterior interosseous nerve 251, Meralgia parasthetica is due to the involvement of: ‘A. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh B. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh C. Sural nerve D. Femoral nerve 252, All the following nerves are neuropathy except: ‘A. Femoral nerve B. Median nerve C. Ulnar nerve D. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh 253. Bobler’s angle is measured in the fractures involving: ‘A. Calcaneum B. Talus C. Navicular D. Cuboid 254, Most common force involved in fractures of the spine is: A. Flexion B. Extension C._ Rotation D. Compression 255. Mechanism of violence in burst fracture of the spine: A. Compression violence B. Flexion violence C. Extension violence D. Distraction violence 256. Which bone tumor occurs in the epiphysis? Osteoclastoma Ewing's sarcoma Chondro ~ myxoid fibroma Osteosarcoma pomp 257. 15 year old boy presented with a mass in the distal femur. X-ray from the lesion showed features of ‘Codman’s triangle and Sunray appearance. The diagnosis is: ‘A. Osteosarcoma B. Ewing's sarcoma CC. Osteoelastoma D. Chondroblastoma392. © MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 258. Which of he following investigations is not required in| Osteosarcoma, MRI femur Bone marrow biopsy CT chest Bone scan pyop> EE 259. Which of the following is a ‘Pulsating tumor’ of bone: Osteosarcoma Chondrosarcoma Ewing's sarcoma Eosinophilic Granuloma - TONS pomp 3 260. Which of the following is a marker of new bone formation: hs A. Alkaline phosphatase bh B. Acid phosphatase C. Hydroxy proline ni i Telope 261. A patient presents with heterotopic ossification around the knee joint. The laboratory investigation of choice in himis: ‘Serum calcium ‘Serum Alkaline Phosphatase ‘Serum phosphorus ‘Serum Acid phosphatase pomp 262. Which of these muscles undergoes wasting first in osteoarthritis knee? ‘A. Quadriceps only B. Hamstrings only C. Both quadriceps and Hamstrings . Gastronemius OPHTHALMOLOGY 263. Mucopolysacharide Hyaluroniac acid is present in : ‘A. Acqueous Humor B. Vitreous Humor C. Lens D. Comea 264. Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by : A. Myoinositol B. Choline C. Taurine D. Na-K ATPase 265. Which ofthe following does not handle the oxidative damage in lens? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C CC. Glutathione D. Catalase 266. All statements are true about papilloedema except: A. Extracellular edema B._ Disruption of neurofilament C._ Stasis of axoplasmic flow D. Axonal swelling 267. Cherry red spot is seen in all of the following, conditions except, ‘A. GMI gangliosidosis B. Niemann pick disease C._ Krabbe's disease D. Multiple sulfatase deficiency 268, Lamina cribrosa is absent in: A. Morning Glory syndrome B, Nanophthalmia C. Colobama of retina D. Optic nerve agenesis 269. Which of the following conditions has autosomal dominant inheritance: Gyrate Atrophy Best Disease Lawrance Moon Bied! Syndrome Bassen Kornzweig’s Disease pop> 270. A child presents with unilateral proptosis which is compressible and increases on bending forwards. It is non-pulsalite and has no thrill or bruit. MRI shows retroorbital mass with echogenic shadows. The ‘most probable diagnosis is: A. Orbital varix B. Orbital Encephalococle C. Orbital A ~ V malformation D. Neurofibromatosis ENT. 271. Rhinolalia clausa is associated with all of the following except: A. Allergic rhinitis, B. Palatal paralysis C. Adenoids D. Nasal polyps 272. Rhinophyma is associated with: | A. Hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands B. Hypertrophy of sweat glands C._ Hyperplasia of endothelial cells D. Hyperplasia of epithelial cells 273. Common site for CSF Rhinorrhoea is: ‘A. Ethmoidal sinus B. Frontal sinus C. Petrous D. Cribriform plate274. CSF rhinorthoea is diagnosed by Beta 2 microglobulin Beta 2 transferrin Tyroglobulin Transthyretin, poe> 275. In Acoustic neuroma cranial nerve to be involved carliest is AS B7 c. 10 D9 276, Brown sign is seen in: ‘A. Glomus tumor B. Meniere's disease C. Acoustic neuroma D. Otosclerosis 277. Which of the following is true regarding facial nerve palsy associated with Temporal bone fractures: ‘A. Common with Longitudinal fractures B. Common with Transverse Fracture C. Always associated with CSF Otorthea D. Facial nerve injury is always complete ‘SKI 278, The following statement is true for Pityriasis Rosea: A. Self limiting B. Chronic relapsing C. Life threatening infection D. Caused by dermatophytes 279. An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs. Mother has history of bronchial asthma. The probable diagnosis is A. Air bome contact dermatitis, B. Atopic dermatitis C. Seborraehic dermatitis D. Infectious eczematoid dermatitis 280, Tuberculides is seen in A. Lupus vulgaris B. Scrofuloderma C. Lichen serofulosorum D. Tuberculoris Cutis Orificialis, ANAESTHESIA 281. Which one of the following is not an amide linked local anaesthetic: Lignocaine Procaine Bupivacaine Dibucaine pOe> 282, 283. 284. 285, 286. 287. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 2007 + 393 ‘A young boy undergoes eye surgery under day case anesthesia with succinyl choline and propofol and after 8 hours he starts walking and develops muscle pain, What is the likely cause? A. Early mobilization B. Due to the effects of eye surgery C. Succinyl choline D. Propofol An elderly male on ventilator has received atracurium infusion for 3 days. He now develops epileptic fits. Probable cause for his epilepsy is: Allergy to drug ‘Accumulation of Atracurium Accumulation of Laudanosine Ventilator failure pop> Which of the following opioids is not given intrathecally ‘A. Remifentanil B. Morphine C. Sufentanil D. Fentanyl AIPGMEE 2007 - QUESTIONS Centrineuraxial (spinal and epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in ~ A. Platelets < 80,000 B. Patient on aspirin CC. Patient on oral anticoagulants D. Raised intracranial pressure Which of the following is not used in controlling heart rate intraoperatively. A. Propanolol/Metoprolol B. Verapamil C. Esmolol D. Procainamide ‘A non ventilated preterm baby in incubator is under observation. Which is the best way to monitor the baby’s breathing and detect apnea? ‘A. Capnography B._Impedence pulmonometry C. Chest movement monitoring D._ Infrared End Tidal CO» mesurement RADIOLOGY 288. Investigation of choice for a lesion of the temporal bone is: A. X-ray B. USG c. CT D. MRI394 © MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2007 289, A young male is brought unconscious to the hospital R with extemal injuries. CT brain showed No midline ; shift, Basal cistern were compressed with multiple t small Haemorthages. What is the likely diagnos A. Cerebral contusion B, Cerebral laceration C.-Multiple infarcts D._ Diffuse Axonal injuries 290. A 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of the lower limb with difficulty in micturition, CT scan shows an intradural ‘mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The likely iagnosis is: A. Meningioma B. Intradermal Lipoma C._Neuroepithelial Cyst D. Dermoid Cyst 291. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all except: A. Hypoparathyroidism B. Wilson's disease C. Perinatal hypoxia D. Fahr’s syndrome 292. Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all except: Renal failure Patient on metformin Dehydration Obesity pop> 293. Which of the following isotopes is used for RAIU? A. 1123 B. 1125 C131 D. 1132 PSYCHIATRY 294. Delusion is a disorder of Thought Perception Insight Cognition pop> 295, 296, 297. 298, 299, 300. All ofthe following conditions are included in the diagnosis of Bipolar disorder except: ‘A. Mania alone B. Depression alone C. Mania and depression D. Mania and anxiety ‘The drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder Imipramine Fluoxetine Chlopromazine Benzodiazepine pope Most common symptom of alcohol withdrawal is: ‘A. Bodyache B. Tremor C. Diarrhoea D. Rhinorrhea Naltraxone is used in a case of opioid dependence to: ‘A. Prevent respiratory depression B. To treat withdrawal symptom CC. To prevent relapse D. To treat overdose of opi Most common substance of abuse in India is: ‘A. Cannabis B. Tobacco C. Alcohol D. Opium ‘A33 year old child presents with delayed speech and poor concentration. He has difficulty in communication and is not making any friends. The likely diagnosis is: ‘Autism ADHD Specific learning disability Mental retardation pap