AIPGME EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 2oOooGAIPGME EXAMINATION QUESTIONS - 2006 (avaromy | (PHYSIOLOGY 11. Which of the following is an intra-articular tendon? 9. ‘The normal range of serum osmolality (in mOsm/L) A. Sartorius is B. Semitendinosus A. 27010 285 C. Anconeus | B. 300 t0 320 D. Popliteus C. 35010375 2, Which ofthe following is nota sign of stellate D. 20010250 ‘ganglion block: 10. Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate (A Meiosis | nucleus terminate in the primary visual cortex is: B. Exophthalmus |} AL Layer! | C._ Nasal congestion B. Layer2&3 D. Conjunctival redness © Layers 3, A 43-year-old woman came with a large abscess in the) D. LayerS &6 middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The | | physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days 11, The blobs ofthe visual cortex are associated wi | later the patient noticed that she could not extend her [.. & Ocular dominance right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which of B, Orientation the following are the signs and symptoms of C. Color processing | additional harm? | D. Saccadic eye movements | A. Damage to scalenus medius | | B._ Injury to suprascapular nerve | |12. The parvocellular pathway, fom the lateral geniculate | C. Catto spinal part of accessory nerve | nucleus to the visual cortex, carries signals for the D. Spread of infection to shoulder joint | | __ detection of és A. Movement, depth and flicker |4. Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of: B. Color vision, shape and fine details A. External carotid artery C. Temporal frequency B. Internal maxillary artery D. Luminance contrast C._ Superficial temporal artery | D. Middle cerebral artery | |13. The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human | being depends upon: | ‘5. Inadults, the spinal cord normally ends at: ‘A. Integrity of reflex are | | A. Lower border of LI | |B Muscle power |B. Lower border of L3 | C. Type of muscle fibers CC. Lower border of S1 D. Joint movements in physiological range D. Lower border of LS 14, The frst reflex response to appear as spinal shock (6. Lymphatic drainage of the cervix oceurs by all of the | wears offin humans is: following lymph nodes, except: | A. Tympanic reflex ‘A. Parameterial lymph nodes | B, Withdrawal reflex B. Deep inguinal lymph nodes | C. Neck righting reflex C. Obturator iymph nodes | D. Labyrinthine reflex D. Ext. iliac lymph nodes 15. The hyperkinetic features of the Huntington’s disease 7. All of the following are the components of the white are due to the loss of: pulp of spleen, except: | A. Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system ‘A. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath B. Intrastriatal cholinergic system | B. Beells | CC. GABA-ergie and cholinergic system | C. Antigen presenting cells D. Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system D. Vascular sinus | |16.. The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are presenti |B. Polar bodies are formed during: A. Locus ceruleus ‘A. Spermatogenesis |B. Dorsal raphe |B. Organogenesis | | C. Lateral hypothalamic area | C. Oogenesis | D. Hippocampus D._ Morphogenesis _ ee — ee |23. The prime driving force for counter current multiplier MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 ‘The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by: ‘Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa| Sensing of Cl+ concentration in macula densa Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in afferent arteriole opp system is: ‘A. Medullary hyperosmolarity B._Reabsorption of Na¢ in thick ascending limb C. Action of ADH via aquaporin channels D. Urea recycling Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis? A. Kidneys B. Skin C._ Intestines D. Lungs Calcitonin is secreted by: A. Thyroid gland B. Parathyroid gland C.Adrenal glands D. Ovaries Testosterone production is mainly contributed by: A. Leydig cells B. Sertolie cells, CC. Seminiferous tubules D. Epididymis Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge of, A. Estradiol B. Luteinizing hormone | C. Progesterone D. Follicle stimulating hormone All of the following development events are ‘dependent on the production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except: A. Induction of thymic involution | B. Production of surfactant by type Il alveolar cells | C. Functional thyroid | D. Functional hypothalamopituitary axis | Which of the following secretions has a very high pH?) A. Gastric juice B. Pancreatic juice C. Bile in gall bladder D. Saliva A pilot in Sukhol aircraft is experiencing negative G. Which of the following physiological events will ‘manifest in such situation? A. The hydrostatic pressure in veins of lower limb increases ‘The cardiac output decreases Black out occurs ‘The cerebral arterial pressure rises sop 26. In human being, the least useful phy response to low environmental temperature is: A. Shivering B. Vasoconstriction C._ Release of thyroxine D. Piloerection i, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the activation of: ‘A. Oxidase B. Hydrolase CC. Peroxidase D. Dehydrogenase 28. The ligand-receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because: | A fits age size |B. The vesicle looses its clathrin cost C. Of the acidic pH of the vesicle |. Of the basic pH of the vesicle 1. The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which fuel| | oxidation serves not to produce ATP but to generate | heats: | A Adrenal gland B,_ Skeletal muscle CC. Brown adipose tissue D. Heart |. The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is | A VLDL B. Chylomicrons |G HDL |b. LDL 31. Which one of the following can be a homologous |) substitution for isoleucine in a protein sequence? | A. Methionine B. Aspartic acid . Valine D. Arginine 32. Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compact structures. Sometimes, these folded | structures associate to form homo-or hetero-dimers. | Which one of the following refers to this associated | form? | AL Denatured state B. Molecular aggregation—_ C. Precipitation D. Quaternary structure — | 33. The comparison of the amino acid sequence of ~ Cytochrome C from different species shows many variations. Most of these variations are found: fee mio | | | |40. 41 35. 36. 37. 38, 39. B. Only in helical regions C. Only in strand regions D._ Mainly in loop regions ‘There are more than 300 variants of human hemoglobin gene. Among these only a few are fatal. Hence, the most important factor to be conserved in a protein for its function is the: ‘A. Amino acid sequence B. Ligand binding residues C. Structure D. Environment ‘The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the_ shape ofa cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these proteins is: ‘A. Globular B. Fibrous C. Stretch of beads D. Planar All ofthe following amino acids are converted to succinyl-CoA, except: A. Methionine B. Isoleucine C. Valine D. Histidine ‘The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is: A. Alanine B. Methionine C. Arginine D. Glutamine The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectively as: A. pand q arms B. mandq arms C. qand p arms D. Land s arms Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively: ‘A. Uncondensed B. Condensed C. Overcondensed D. Partially condensed Microsatellite sequence is: A. Small satellite B._ Extra chromosomal DNA C._ Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA. D. Looped-DNA Mitochondrial DNA is: A. Closed circular B._Nicked circular C. Linear D. Open circular 42. 46. 47. 48. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 2006 © 539 Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base? ‘A. mRNA B. RNA CRNA D. snRNA. The sigma (0) subunit of prokaryotic RNA. polymerase: A. Binds the antibiotic rifampicin B. Is inhibited by a-amanitin C. Specifically recognizes the promoter site D._ Is part of the core enzyme Which one of the following is the complementary sequence of 5" TTAAGCTAC 3"? A. 5° GTACGCTTAA 3° | B. 5° AATTCGCATG 3° C. 5° CATGCGAATT 3” D. 5° TTAAGCGTAC 3° During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki fragments? ‘A. DNA Polymerase I B. DNA Polymerase IL C. DNA Polymerase Ill D. RNA Polymerase | All ofthe following cell types contain the enzyme telemerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except: Germinal Somatic | Hemopoietic ‘Tumor | pop Base substitution mutations can have be following ‘molecular consequence except: ‘A. Changes one codon for an amino acid into anothe codon for that same amino acid | B. Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon of another amino acid CC. Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site D. Codon for one amino acid is changed into a translation termination codon The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta (B)-globin gene that causes sickle: cell anemia, except: | ‘A. Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific | oligonucleotide hybridization | B. Southern blot analysis | C._ DNA sequencing | D._ Northern blot analysis | - =)540 49. 0. Su 2. 33. 54. © MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 ‘Vitamin By; acts as co-enzyme to which one of the following enzymes? A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase B. Homocysteine methyl transferase CC. Glycogen synthase D. G-6-P dehydrogenase All of the following enzymes are regulated by calcium) or calmodulin, except: A. Adenylate cyclase | B. Glycogen synthase | CC. Guanylyl cyclase | D. Hexokinase | A common feature ofall serine proteases is A. Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor B. Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor CC. Cleavage of protein on the carboxyl site of serine D. residues Presence of Ser-Hi active site Asp catalytic triad at the ‘PATHOLOGY | ‘The normal cellular counterparts of oncogenes are important for the following functions, except: ‘A. Promotion of cell cycle progression | B. Inhibition of apoptosis | CC. Promotion of DNA repair | D. Promotion of nuclear transcription Which one of the following is the most significant risk) factor for development of gastric carcinoma? | ‘A. Paneth cell metaplasia B. Pyloric metaplasia | C. Intestinal metaplasia | D. Ciliated metaplasia | ‘When carcinoma of stomach develops secondarily to permicious anemia, it is usually situated in the: ‘A. Prepyloric region B. Pylorus C. Body D. Fundus | Acinic cell carcinomas ofthe salivary gland arise most, often in the: | A. Parotid salivary gland B._ Minor salivary glands | C.Submandibular salivary gland D. Sublingual salivary gland ‘With regard to the malignant behavior of | leiomyosarcoma, the most important criterion is: Blood vessel penetration by tumor cells | ‘Tumor cells in lymphatic channels | Lymphocyte infiltration | The number of mitoses per high power field | (57. The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) | most likely to result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is: ‘A. Apocrine DCIS B. Neuroendocrine DCIS C. Well differentiated DCIS D. Comedo DCIS '58. All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplatic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except A. CD4SRO B. CD43 CC. Myeloperoxidase D. Lysozyme 59, Mantle cell lymphomas are positive forall of the following, except A. CD23 B. CD20 © cps D. CD43 | 60. Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure “| result of hypertrophy of ‘A. Endothelial cells B. Collagen fibers C. Smooth muscle cells | D. Elastic fibers (61. All of the following statements regarding subendo- cardinal infarction are true, except: A. These are multifocal in nature B. These often result from hypotension or shock CC. Epicarditis is not seen D. These may result in aneurysm (62, The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that proceed to, infraction, is approximately: AL 05% B. 5-15% C. 20-30% D. 30-40% 63. The finish type of congenital nephritic syndrome ‘occurs due to gene mutations affecting the following protein: ‘A. Podocin B. Alpha-actinin C.Nephrin | D. CD? activated protein |\mcropioLocy |64. A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin. His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram-negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture? ‘A. Pasteurella spp B. Francisella spp | C. Bartonella spp D. Brucella spp70. 67. 68. (65. “A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat ) agrain godown. After $ days he developed fever and | had axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear was sent to the laboratory to perform a specific staining. Which one of the following staining method would help in the identification of the suspected pathogen: A. Albert staining B. Zxihl-Neelson staining C. MeFadycan’s staining D. Wayson staining ‘Which one of the following statement is true regardin, pathogenicity of Mycobacteria species? 4 A. M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M. bovis tothe humans B. M, Kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis C.-M. Africanum infection is acquired from the environmental source D._M, Marinum is responsible for tubercular lymphadenopathy A VDRL reactive mother gave birth to an infant, All of the following would help in determining the risk of ‘transmission to the infant except: A. TPHA test on the serum sample of the mother B. TPHA test on the serum sample of the infant C. VDRL on the paired serum sample of the infant and mother D. Time interval between the treatment of the mother and her delivery A patient complained of chills and fever following a louse bite 2 weeks before. He had rashes all over the body and was delirious at the time of presentation to the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A provisional diagnosis of vasculitis due to Rickettsial infection was made. Which one of the following can be causative agent: A. Rickettsia typhi B. Rickettsia rickettsiae C.. Rickettsia prowazekii D. Rickettsia akarai The following diseases are associated with Epstein- Barr virus infection, except: Infectious mononucleosis Epidermodysplasia verruciformis Nasopharyngeal carcinoma ral hairy leukoplakia pop> Which of the following parasitic infestation can lead) to malabsorption syndrome? A. Amocbiasis BL Ascariasis CC. Hookworm infestation D. Giardiasis TL | PHARMACOLOGY In. \74. . Misoprostol is a: .. The following statements regarding benzodiazepines MULTIPLE CHOICE Q A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic endophthalmitis on culture yields Gram-positive rox to oval cells, 12-14 m in size, The aspirate on Gram staining shows the presence of pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely aetiological agent? A. Aspergillus B. Rhizopus C. Candida D. Fusarium ‘When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in controlled conditions, itis termed as atrial signifying: A. Efficacy B. Effectiveness C. Efficiency D. Effect modification ‘A. Prostaglandin E1 analogue B._ Prostaglandin E2 analogue C. Prostaglandin antagonist D. Antiprogestin | | Which enzyme is inhibited by aminophylline? ‘A. Monoamine oxidase B. Alcohol dehydrogenase CC. Phosphodiesterase D. Cytochrome P-450 | Bisphosphonates sty: Increasing the osteoid formation | 3 Increasing the mineralization of osteoid | C. Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of | bone | D. Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion | . Which one of the following drugs causes constipation? ‘A. Propranolol B. Verapamil CC. Nitroglycerin D. Captopril elderly and those with liver disease, except ‘A. Lorazepam B. Oxazepam C. Temazepam D. Diazepam | . The following are the benzodiazepines of choice in | | are true except: Binds to both GABA, and GABAg receptors They have active metabolites Decreases nocturnal gastric secretion in human being Extensively metabolized by CYP enzymes3 9 OR542.» MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of: A. Tonic-clonic seizure B. Absence seizure C. Myoclonic seizure D. Simple partial seizure 79. Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence status? A. Sodium valproate B. Phenobarbitone C. Carbamazepine D. Phenytoin Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid metabolism? A. Phenytoin B. Gabapentin C. Phenobarbitone D. Primidone ‘The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is: A. Seizure B. Anxiety C. Hypotension D. Loose stools | .Allare side effects of Clozapine, except A. Granulocytopenia B. Seizures C. Sedation D. Extrapyramidal side effects |. The most common side effect reported with treatment | with haloperidol is: ‘A. Hypotension B. Akathisia CC. Dryness of mouth D. Tic disorder 85. All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis, except: A. Carbapenems B. Monobactams C. Cephamycins D. Nitrofurantoin 86. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides? A. Levobunolol B. Bimatoprost C. Brinzolamide D. Brimonidine 87. All of the following are therapeutic uses of penicillin G, except: Bacterial meningitis Rickettsial infection Syphilis Anthrax pop> lich one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicilin? ‘A. Cephalexin B. Cloxacillin C. Piperacillin D._Dicloxacillin 88. . A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sen testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate excep ‘A. Vancomycin B. Imipenem C.Teichoplanin D. Linezoiid One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is incorrect: A. Itisa prodrug B. Itisa selective uncompetitive and reversible inhibitor €. Italso inhibits calcineurin D. Selectivity inhibits lymphocyte proliferation 91. All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except: A. Nelfinavir B. Saquinavir C. Abacavir D.. Ritonavir 92. Nevirapine is a: A. Protease inhibitor B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor C.Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor D._ Fusion inhibitor Pre-treatment evaluation for lithium therapy should include: ‘A. Fasting blood sugar B. Serum creatinine C._ Liver function tests D. Platelet count 94. All ofthe following are part of the treatment of lithium toxicity, except: ‘Treating dehydration | Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonate | Hemodialysis Using an antagonist pop> FORENSIC 95. Spalding’s sign occurs after: | Birth of live fetus | Death of fetus in uterus ~ Rigo mortis of infant | Cadaverie spasm poprye(96. Scab or crust of abrasion appears brown: A. Between 12-24 hours B. Between 2-3 days C. Between 4-5 days D. Between 5-7 days 97. Which of following tests in used to detect semen? A. Phenolphthalein test B. Reine’s test C. Barberio’s test D. Paraffin test 98, Medical qualifications awarded by institutions outside India and recognized by MCI are registered in: ‘A. First schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956 Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956 Part | of third schedule of Indian Medical Council ‘Act 1956 . Part I of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956 B, iG D. 99. Fingerprint Bureau was first established in: A. England B. China C. India D. Singapore SPM 100, Physical quality of life index is measured by all except: ‘A. Infant mortality B. Life expectancy at age one C. Latency D. Per capita income 101. Alll the statements are true about standardization except: A. Standardization allows comparison to be made between two different populations B. The national population is always taken as the | standard popul C. For direct standardization, age specific rates of the study population are applied to that of the standard population D. For indirect standardization, age specific rates of the standard population are applied to that of the | study population | 102. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trails| isto A. Facilitate double blinding | B. Help ensure the study subjects are representative | of general population Ensure the groups are comparable on base line ‘characteristics Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment tte ca ch MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 543, )3. The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to: f | A. Achieve comparability between study and contol | groups | BL Avoid observer bias | C. Avoid subject bias D. Avoid observer and subject bias 104, All the following are true in a randomized control tral (RCT) except ‘A. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be sit B. Investigator’s bias is minimized by double | blinding C. The sample size required depends on the hypothesis D. The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis, 105. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease and the results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are given below: Disease “Test result | Present ‘Absent + 180 400 - 20 400 ‘Which of the following is the positive predictive value of diagnostic test in that population? A. 45 B31 Cc. 95 D. 50 | 106. Study the following table carefully and answer the following question: Disease | [Test result] Present Absent | + 40 225 - 10 225 What isthe sensitivity of diagnostic test? A 45 B. 20 c 80 D. 50 107. Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary heart disease? ‘A. Apolipoproteins B. VLDL Cc. HDL D. Total lipoproteins 108. Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students? ‘A. School teachers B. Medical officers of health centers C. Ophthalmologists D. Health assistants544° + MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 (09. According to the world Health Organization, the definition of blindness is; ‘A. Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with available correction B. Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with available correction C. Visual acuity < 6/60 in the better eye with best correction D._ Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with best correction 110. As per the 1986-89 NPCB survey, what was the prevalence of blindness in India (at visual acuity 6160 in better eye)? AL 138% B. c. D. 111. The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is: A. Cataract, B. Conjunctivitis C. Refractive error D. Trachoma . According to the World Health Report 2000, India’s health expenditure is: A. 48% of GDP. B. 5.2% of GDP. C. 6.8% of GDP. D. 7%ofG.DP. 113, Indian (economic) real GDP growth for the year 2003 is: A. 60 B65 C78 D. 105 114, In which of the following year the Transplantation of ‘Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India? AL 1994 B. 1996 C. 2000 D. 2002 . The extra energy allowances needed per day during pregnancy isi A. 150 KCals B. 200 Keals C. 300 Keals D. 550 Keals, The premium of the “Community-based Universal Health Insurance Scheme” launched during 2003-04 ranges from: | 118, 119. ‘A. Rs. | per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of seven B. Rs. | per day poor and individual to Rs. 3 per day for a family of seven C. Rs. 2 per day poor and individual to Rs. 12 per day for a family of seven D._ Rs. | per day poor and individual to Rs. 7 per day for a family of seven MEDICINE uy. Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to: ‘A. Inadequate dietary intake B. Defective intestinal abso C. Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum D. Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine In which ofthe following age group myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) are most common? A. 2-10 B. 1520 C. 25-40 D. >50 ‘A 58 years old woman, who had backache and recurrent chest infections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention, He investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3 gm/dl, serum calcium 12.6 mg/dl, phosphate-2.5 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase-100 wi, serum albumin-3 gmvdl, globulin ~7.1 gin/dl and urea-178 mg/d. What is the most likely diagnosis? Lung cancer Disseminated tuberculosis, Multiple myeloma Osteoporosis pop Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma? A. Lytic bone lesions B._Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy C. Bone marrow plasmacytosis > 30% D. °M’ spike > 32% for Ig G, > 23% for IgA B cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia in: A. Presenting at a younger age B. Having a lower total leucocyte count C. Having prominent lymphadenopathy D. Having a shorter survival . All ofthe following statements regarding primary effusion lymphoma are true except: ‘A. It generally presents in elderly patients B. There is often an association with HHV-8 CC. The proliferating cells are NK cells 1D. Patients are commonly HIV positive lima :124, 126. 129. 130. (123. 125. 127. 128. ‘A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops — acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of following i the clinical diagnosis? ‘A. Appendictis B. Leukemic colitis C. Perforation peritonitis D. Neutropenic colitis All ofthe following are major complications of massive transfusion, except: A. Hypokalemi B. Hypothermia C.Hypomagnesemia D. Hypocalcemia All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except ‘A. Increased waist-hip ratio B. Hyperhomocysteinemia C._ Decreased fibrinogen levels D. Decreased HDL levels All ofthe following may occur due to hyperkalemia, except: A. Prolonged PR interval B. Prolonged QRS interval C. Prolonged QT interval D. Ventricular asystole All ofthe following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade except: Kussmaul’s sign Pulsus paradoxus Electrical altemans Right ventricular diastolic collapse on echocardiogram pope All of the following are true for mitral valve prolapse, except: ‘A. Transmission may be as an autosomal dominant trait B. Majority of the case present with features of ‘mitral regurgitation C. The value leaflets characteristically show ‘myxomatous degeneration D. The disease is one of the common cardiovascular manifestations of Marfan’s Syndrome ‘Sudden ca except: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy CC. Eisenmenger’s syndrome D. Ventricular septal defect iac death may occur in all of the following] Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis? A. Staphylococcus albust B. Streptococcus facalis C. Salmonella typhi D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2006 » 545 (131. Mycotic aneurysm is an aneurysm infected because off ‘A. Fungal infection B, Blood-borne infection (intravascular) C. Infection introduced from outside (extravascular) D. Both intravascular and extravascular infection 132. Myoetic abscesses are due to: ‘A. Bacterial infection B. Fungal infection CC. Viral infection D._ Mixed infection 133. A.28 years old woman having limited cutaneous scleroderma for the last 10 years complains of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonary) function tests (PFT) are as follows: PFT. Observed Predicted FVC 2.63 72.82 FEV, 88% 80% DLCO 5.26 16.3 ‘What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? ‘A. Interstitial lung disease B. Pulmonary artery hypertension C. Congestive heart failure D. Bronchiectasis 134, Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with: ‘A. Small cell carcinoma B._ Respiratory bronchiolitis C. Emphysema D. Bronchioltis obliterans organizing pneumonia 135, Which of the following is not a common feature of Anorexia Nervosa? ‘A. Binge eating B. Amennorhea C._ Self perception of being “fat” D. Under weight 136. Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non-cirthotic portal hypertension? A. Chronic liver failure B. Ascites CC. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding D. Encephalopathy 137. Which of the following colonic polyps is not pre- malignant? ‘A. Juvenile polyps B. Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz~ Jeghers Syndrome CC. Villous adenomas D. Tubular adenomas 138, Drug induced lupus can be identified by: A. Anti-histone antibodies B. Double stranded DNA antibodies CC. Antinuclear antibodies D. Anti-SM antibodies ee)546 143, 144, 14s. 146. 140. ‘» MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with: A B. c. D. The presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisae antibody is A B, c D. - Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following] except: A. B, ie D. Joint erosions are nota feature of: A B. ic D. All of the following are the known causes of osteoporosis except: A B. c D. Which of the following is not a feature of | hypercalcemia: A B. ch D. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, Mixed connective tissue disease CREST syndrome Polymyositis surrogate marker of one of the following: Celiac disease Crohi’s disease Ulcerative colitis, Tropical sprue Atherosclerosis Fibromuscular dysplasia Takayasu's arteritis Polyarteritis nodosa Rheumatoid arthritis, Psoriasis Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis ‘Systemic lupus erythematosus Fluorosis Hypogonadism Hyperthyroidism Hyperparathyroidism | Diarrhea | Polyuria | | Depression Vomiting | ‘The most common location of hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage is A B. el D. ‘Subarachnoid space Basal ganglia Cerebellum Brainstem ‘The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is: A B. ie D. Arterio-venous malformation Cavernous angioma ‘Aneurysm Hypertension . Which one of the following agents has been aseocated with hemorrhagic stroke? Phenylpropanolamine Terfenadine Quinidine Fenfluramine J | _ of the following i Glial tumors? . Astrocytomas Medulloblastomas Neurofibromas | Ependymomas A B. ic D, 149. Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly | located in: | Cerebellar hemisphere Thalamus | ‘Temporal lobe Parietal lobe popp 150, ‘one of the following clinical findings excludes diagnosis of polymyositis? Neck muscle involvement Extraocular muscle involvement Dysphagia Abdominal muscle involvement wi the A B c D. 151. A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with suicidal intent. She complains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte is: ‘A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocaleemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypomagnesemia SURGERY 152, The most common malignancy found in Marjolin’s ulcer is: A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma D. Neurotrophic malignant melanoma 153. The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor ifthe site of the tumour is: A. Orbit B._ Para testicular C. Extremity D. Urinary bladder 154, Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for diagnosing: A. Tubercular lymphadenitis, B. Papillary carcinoma thyroid . Plasmacytoma D. Aneurymal bone cyst 155. The following statements a bout thyroglossal eyst are true, except: ‘A. Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life ‘The cystis located within 2 em of the midline Incision and drainage is the treatment of choice ‘The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongue B, cl D.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2006 » 547 156. ‘tumors of the salivary glands, are: 7 164. Biliary stricture developing after laparascopic choice- ‘A. Most common in submandibular gland cystectomy usually occurs at which part ofthe B. Usually malignant ‘common bile duct? CC. Most common in parotid gland | A. Upper D. Associated with caleuli B. Middle | c Lower 157, The most important prognostic factor in breast Seioen ieee D. Allside with equal frequency A. Histological grade of the tumor = B._ Stage ofthe tumor atthe time of diagnosis 165. All of te following modalities can be used for in situ C._ Status of estrogen and progesterone receptors ablation of liver secondaries, except: D. Overexpression of p$3 tumour suppressor gene || A._Ulasoie waves 2 B._ Cryothera 158, In which of the following types of breast carcinoma, leaiciatcnibes S ‘would you consider biopsy of opposite breast? a 5 A. Adenocarcinoma-poorly differentiated | oemmsenstnen™| 2 B. Medullary carcinoma cua cabin cian 166. The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction D. Comedo carcinoma | ine 3 | A. Tuberculosis R 159. The tumor, which may occur inthe residual breast or B. Cancer of stomach 4 overlying skin following wide local excision and Duodenal lymphoma 2 radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is: | Di. Peptic ulcer disease g A. Leiomyosarcoma | 2 Seen | 167, The treatment of choice for the management of Se | careinoma of the anal canal is: ences ‘A. Abdominoperineal resection noc B._ Primary radiotherapy C. Combined radio-and chemotherapy D. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and local excision 160, Referred pain from all ofthe following conditions may be felt along the inner side of right thigh, except: ‘A. Inflamed pelvic appendix B. Inflamed ovaries C. Stone in pelvic ureter || 168, The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer, D. Pelvic abscess is: A. Abdominoperennial resection | 161. Apart from Escherichia coli, the other most common |B. Laser fulgaration | ‘organism implicated in acute suppurative bacterial CC. Chemoradiotherapy PeaDaaetiie | D. Platinum-based chemotherapy | B. Klebsiella C. Peptostreptococeus D. Pseudomonas | | 169. Which of the following drugs is not a part of the ‘Triple Therapy” immunosuppression for post-renal transplant patients? | 162. A patient of postcholecystectomy biliary stricture has} | + Cyclosporine | undergone an ERCP three days ago. Following this B. Azathioprine | ‘she has developed acute cholangitis. The most likely | ©. FK506 | organism is D. Prednisolone | A. Escherichia colli | B. Bacillus fragilis | 170. Which of the following statements is true regarding C.. Streptococcus viridans | | testicular tumors? D. Pseudomonas aerogenosa ‘A. Are embryonal cell carcinomas in 95% of cases B._ Bilateral in up to 10% cases | 163. Which one of the following statements is incorrect CC. Teratomas are more common than seminomas regarding stones in the common bile duct? D. Usually present after 50 years of age | ‘A. Can present with Charcot’s triad | B. Are suggested by a bile duct diameter > 6mm of | | 171. Allen’s testis useful in evaluating: ultrasound | | A. Thoracic outlet compression C. ERCP, sphincterotomy and balloon clearance is |B Presence of cervical rib now the standard treatment | C. Integrity of palmar arch D. When removed by exploration ofthe common i cel act ew bile duets the T-tube can be removed after 3 days es548 © MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 (172. The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous | fistuata is; ‘A. Bacterial infection B. Fungal infection CC. Blunt trauma D._ Penetrating trauma 173. Dacron vascular graft is ‘A. Nontextile synthetic B. Textile synthetic C._ Nontextile biologie D. Textile biotogie 174, Which of the following is not a preferred site for planning vascular access for maintenance hemodialysis? A. Nondominant extremity B. Upper limb C. Radiocephalic AV fistula D. Saphenofemoral fistula 175. The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery as the present time is: A. Transcranial B. Transethmoidal C. Trans-sphenoidal D. Transcallosal 176. Which of the following is not a component of | Glasgow Coma Scale? | A. Eye opening | B. Motor response C. Pupil size D. Verbal response 177. Total score in Glasgow Coma Scale of a conscious | person is: A 8 | B.3 c. 1s D. 10 \OBS & GYNAE 178, The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome: ‘A. 17-OH progesterone B._ Follicular stimulating hormone C. Luteinizing hormone | D. Thyroid stimulating hormone } | 179.Which of the following statements is incorrect | regarding polycystic ovarian disease? levated LH hormone B. Can cause infertility CC. May be associated with abnormal glucose | tolerance test | D. Results in postdated pregnancy . In which of the following genital tract malignancy, the| ‘A'15-year-old female presents with primary | amenorthea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no | axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is: ‘A. Turner's syndrome B. Mullerian agenesis C. Testicular feminization syndrome D. Premature ovarian failure ‘The treatment for a case of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is: A. Estrogens B. Antiandrogens C. ACTH D. Cortisone risk of metastasis to ovary is the least? ‘A. Carcinoma cervix B. Carcinoma endometrium CC. Carcinoma fallopian tube D. Uterine sarcoma ‘The investigation of choice in a 55-year-old postmenopausal woman who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is: A. Pap smear B. Fractional curettage C. Transvaginal ultrasound D. Ca-125 estimation Ina suspected of ovarian cancer, imaging work-up is required for all of the following information, except: ‘A. Defection of adenexal lesion B. Characterization of the lesion CC. Staging D. Assess respectability | . Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of | ureteric injury? ‘A. Vaginal hysterectomy B. Abdominal hysterectomy CC. Wertheim’s hysterectomy D. Anterior colporraphy . A.40-years-old woman presented to the gynecologist | with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There ‘was no discharge from the cervix on the speculum examination, The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was | ‘made based upon all ofthe following findings on microscopy except: | ‘A. Abundance of gram variable coccobacilli | B. Absence of Lactobacilli CC. Abundance of polymorphs | D. Presence of clue cells ‘The most common cause of tubal block in India is Gonorrhea infection Chlamydia infection Tuberculosis Bacterial vaginosis pop. 190, 191. 192 193, All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill ae true, except: A. Inhibition of ovulation B. Prevention of fertilization C. Interference with implantation of fertilized ovum D. Interference with placental functioning ). Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system: ‘A. There is increased incidence of menorrhagia B._ This system can be used as hormone replacement therapy, C.. This method is useful for the treatment of endometerial hyperplasia D. Irregular uterine bleeding can be problem initially. All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genital tract infection in users of progestin — releasing IUDs, except: ‘A. Reduced retrograde menstruation B. Decreased ovulation C. Thickened cervical mucus D. Decidual changes in the endometrium Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all o the following mechanisms, except: A. Delaying/inhibiting ovulation B. Inhibiting fertilization C._ Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg D. Interrupting an early pregnancy Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except: A. Amniotic fluid B. Maternal blood C. Chrionic villi D. Fetal blood Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound? ‘A. Anencephaly B. Inencephaly C. Microcephaly D. Holoprosencephaly |. The best way of diagnosing Trisomy-21 during second! ‘trimester of pregnancy is: A. Triple marker estimation B. Nuchal skin fold thickness measurement C. Chorionic villus sampling D. Amniocentesis At what period does tuberculosis flare up most ‘commonly in a pregnant patient? A. First trimester B. Second trimester C.. Third trimester D. Puerperium MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -2006 * 549 16. Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to ‘undergo torsion during pregnancy? A. Serous eystadenoma B. Macinous cystadenoma CC. Dermoid eyst | D. Theca lutein cyst 197. Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in pregnancy? A. Glioma B. Pituitary adenoma C. Meningioma D. Neurofibroma 198, Which vitamin deficient is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy? A. Vitamin Be B. Vitamin Biz Vitamin A D. Folic acid ‘A primigravida presents to casually at 32. weeks ‘gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should bbe managed by: ‘A. Immediate cesarean section B._ Immediate induction of labor C. Tocolytic therapy D. Magnesium sulphate therapy | 200. The following complications during pregnancy | increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) except ‘A. Hypertension B. Macrosomia C. Twin pregnancy D. Hydramnios Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all of the following except A. Fetal distress B. Hematuria CC. Fresh bleeding per vaginum D. Passage of meconium PAEDIATRICS | 201. 202. A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all of the following except: | A. Stand alone | B. Play peek a boo C. Pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger D. Build a tower of 3-4 cubes 203. A child is below the third percentile for height. His growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Constitutional delay in growth |B. Genetic short stature |G. Primordial dwarfism {__D._Hypopituitarism AIPGMEE 2006 - QUESTIONS550 204. 210. > MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 All of the following are features of prematurity ina | neonate, except: | No creases on sole | Abundant lanugo Thick ear cartilage Empty scrotum pop> . Which of the following is the principal mode of heat exchange in an infant incubator? A. Radiation B. Evaporation C. Convection D. Conduction ‘A. Onset after 6 years of age B. Repetitive behavior C._ Delayed language development D. Severe deficit in social interaction . The following are characteristic of autism except: | All of the following may occur in Down’s syndrome except: Hypothyroidism | Undescended testis Ventricular septal defect Brushfield’s spots, poe Which of the following malformation in a newbom is | specific for maternal insulin dependent diabetes. mellitus? ‘A. Transposition of great arteries | B. Caudal regression | C. Holoprosencephaly | D. Meningmyelocele | | | | | ‘The requirement of potassium is a child is: A. 1-2 mEq/kg B. 4-7 mEq/kg C. 10-12 mEgkg D. 13-14 mEqkg ‘The sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution for malnourished children) is: 90 mmol/L 60 mmoVL 45 mmoVL 30 mmol/L pop |. The most common etiological agent for acute | | bronchiolitis in infancy is: | Influenza virus | Para influenza virus | Rhinovirus | Respiratory syncytial virus | pow 213. 215. 216. 217, 218. With reference to mumps which ofthe following is) true? ‘A. Meningoencephalitis can precede parottis B._ Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids C._ The patient is not infectious prior to clinical parotid enlargement D. Mumps orchitis frequency leads to infertility ‘The earliest indicator of response after starting iron in 4 6-year-old girl with iron deficiency is: ‘A. Increased reticulocyte count B._ Increased hemoglobin C. Increased ferritin D._ Increased serum iron Late onset hemorthagic disease of newborn is characterized by all ofthe following features except: Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babies Onset occurs at 4-12 week of age Intracranial hemorthage can occur. Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at birth has a protective role pop The following features are true for tetralogy of Fallot, except: A. Ventricular septal defect B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Atrial septal defect D. Pulmonary stenosis, Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between: A. Aorta to pulmonary artery B. Aorta to pulmonary vein C.. Subclavian artery to pulmonary vein D.. Subclavian vien to artery In which of the following conditions left atrium is not enlarged: A. Ventricular septal defect B. Atrial septal defect C. Aortopulmonary window D. Patent ductus arteriosus A L-montt-old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, he shows feature of congestive failure. ‘The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is: ‘A. Congenital aortic stenosis, B. Coarctation of aorta CC. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Congenital aortoiliac disease ‘The most important determinant of prognosis in Wilms tumor: A. Stage of disease B. Loss of heterozygosity of chromsome Ip C. Histology D. Age less than one year at presentation(220. A malignant tumor of childhood, that metastasizes to bones most often, is A. Wilm’s tumor B. Neuroblastoma C. Adrenal gland tumors D. Granulose cell tumor of ovary 221. The process underlying differences in expression of a ‘gene, according to which parent has transmitted, is called: ‘A. Anticipation B. Masaicism C._ Non-penetrance D. Genomic imprinting A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face| including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following, except: ‘A. Acchromosomal syndrome B.A teratogenic syndrome C. A mendelian syndrome D. A polygenic syndrome ‘An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, except: A. An Autosomal dominant disorder B. An Autosomal recessive disorder C. A polygenic disorder D. A vertically transmitted disorder 224. In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The ‘mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case? ‘A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive ‘onrnorasnics | | |225, The ideal treatment of bilateral idiopathic clubfoot in a) newbom is: ‘A. Manipulation by mother B, Manipulation and Dennis Brown splint C. Manipulation and casts D. Surgical release 226, All of the following statements are true about development dysplasia (DDH) of the hip, except: A. Itis more common in females B. Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of DDH C._ The hourglass appearance of the capsule may prevent a successful closed reduction D. Twin pregnancy is a known risk factor MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS- 2006» 551 (227. All are true regarding brachial plexus injury, excepr: A. Preganglonc lesions havea beter prognosis thay postganglionic lesions B._Erb’s palsy causes paralysis of the abductors and extemal rotators of the shoulder. C._ In Klumpke’s palsy, Homer's syndrome may be present on the ipsilateral side D. Histamine testis useful to differentiate between the preganglionic and postganglionic lesions 228. “Rugger Jersey Spine” is seen in: Fluorosis Achondroplasia Renal osteodystrophy Marfan’s syndrome pop> 229. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion: ‘A. Ancurysmal bone cyst B. Giant cell tumor C. Fibrous cortical defect D. Simple bone cyst 230. All the statements are true about exotosis, except: ‘A. Itoceurs at the growing end of bone B. Growth continues after skeletal maturity C. It is covered by cartilaginous cap D. Malignant transformation may occur 231. Brown tumors are seen in A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Pigmented villonodular synovitis C. Osteomalacii D._Neurofibromatosis 232. Which of the following malignant tumors is radioresistant? ‘A. Ewing's sarcoma B. Retinoblastoma C. Osteosarcoma D. Neuroblastoma 233. Expansile ytic osseous metastases are characteristics of primary malignancy of: A. Kidney B. Bronchus C. Breast D. Prostate OPHTHALMOLOGY 234, Afferent component of comeal reflex is mediated by: A. Vagus nerve B. Facial nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve552 235. The average distance of the fovea from the temporal | 237. 238. 239, 242. 243. ‘© MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 ‘margin of the optic dise is: A. I disc diameter B. 2 disc diameter C. 3 dise diameter D. 4 disc diameter 5. The retina receives its blood supply from all, except; ‘A. Posterior ciliary artery B. Central retinal artery C. Retinal arteries D. Plexus of Zinn and Haller arteries ‘The magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is: A. Stimes SAFE strategy is recommended for the control of: A. Trachoma B. Glaucoma C._ Diabetic retinopathy D. Cataract Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of comeal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi? ‘A. Itraconazole B. Natamycin CC. Nystatin D. Fluconazole ). Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness? ‘A. Latanoprost B. Timolol CC. Brimonidine D. Dorzolamide |. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma: A. Latanoprost B. Brimonidine CC. Acetazolamide D. Dorzolamide Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given intravitreally? ‘A. Gentamicin B. Vancomycin C. Dexamethasone D. Ceftazidime ‘A.case of Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination? A. Asearly as feasible | | | ~~ C. After 10 years D. Only after visual symptoms develop 244, The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is: ‘A. Retinal hole B. Trauma C. Hypertension D. Diabetes: 245. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxations of the Jens is seen in: ‘A. Marfan’s syndrome B. Homocystinuria C. Hyperinsulinemia D. Ocular trauma 246. In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put in an intraocular lens after cataract surgery? ‘A. Fuch’s heterochromic eyeclitis B. Juvenile rheumatopid arthritis C. Psoriatic arthritis D._ Reiter’s syndrome 247. Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition? ‘A. Lattice dystrophy B. Granular dystrophy C. Macular dystrophy D. Fleck dystrophy 248. Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisis bulbi? A. The intraocular pressure is increased B. Calcification of the tens is common C._ Sclera is thickened D. Size of the globe is reduced 249. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is: A. Neurofibroma B. Meningioma C. Cavernous hemangioma D. Schwannoma 250. Which one of the following statements is incorreet about Optic glioma? ‘A. Has a peak incidence in first decade B. Arises from oligodendrocytes CC. Causes meningeal hyperplasia D. Isassociated with type I neurofirbromatosis |. The most common retinoblastoma is: Thyroid cancer Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Optic glioma Osteosarcoma ‘ond malignant in survivors of pop‘MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS- 2006 + 553 (259. Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa. through the following membrance: | 264. A 6-month-old infant had itchy erythematous papules a parabolic curve | CC. Superior part of the cavity in the superior meatus | | | D. Through olfactory area and exudative lesions on the scalp, face, groins and | axillae for one month. She also had vesicular lesions | 252. The postero superior retraction pocket, ifallowed to ‘A. Thyrohyoiod | progress, will lead to: B. Cricothyroid A. Sensori-neural hearing loss C. Cricotracheal | B. Secondary cholesteatoma D. Crisosternal | CC. Tympanoscelerosis | D. Tertiary cholesteatoma DERMATOLOGY ls 253. A 30-year-old male is having Attic cholesteatoma of 260. A patent had seven iregular hyperpigmented macules left ear with lateral sinus thrombophlebitis. Which of on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented the following will be the operation of choice? macules in the axillae and groins since early ‘A. Intact canal wall mastoidectomy childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is B._ Simple mastoidectomy with Tympanoplasty the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis? Canal wall down mastoidectomy ‘A. Slit-lamp examination of eye D. Mastoidectomy with cavity obliteration B. Measurement of intraocular tension C. Examination of fundus | 254. Which is the investigation of choice in assessing D. Retinal artery angiography hearing loss in neonates? | ‘A. Impedance audiometry 261. Pterygium of nail is characteristcally seen B. Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA) A. Lichen planus | C. Free field audiometry B. Psoriasis | D. Behavioral audioimetry C. Tinea unguium | D. Alopecia areata | |255. Which of the following conditions causes the | | ‘maximum hearing loss? | 262. A 24-year-old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, ‘A. Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper | membrane | back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for B. Disruption of malleus and incus as well tympanic her treatment would be: | membrane A. Acitretin | C. Partial fixation ofthe stapes footplate B. Isotretinoin | ‘D. Otitis media with effusion C. Doxycycline | | D. Azithromycin | |256. Sensorineural deafness may be feature ofall, except: | [7 AL Nailspatella syndrome 263. A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous popular | B._ Distal renal tubular acidosis lesions on face, neck, *V’ area of chest, dorsum of | C. Bartter syndrome | hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more | D. Alport syndrome severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. | | " | ‘The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition | 257. During inspiration the main current of airflow in a ‘would be: | normal nasal cavity is through’ | A. Skin biopsy | ‘A. Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus ina | B. Estimation of IgE levels in blood | parabolic curve CC. Patch test | B. Lower part of the cavity in the inferior meatus in D. Intradermal prick test | | | 258. A 5-year-old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. cn the palms. The most likely diagnosis is On the day of surgery he had running nose, A. Congenital shypilis temperature 37.5°C and dry cough. Which ofthe B._ Seborrheic dermatitis following should be the most appropriate decision for CC. Scabies surgery? D. Psoriasis Aung hima aed ‘Can proceed for surgery ifchest is clear and there| __|265. In which of the following conditions Parakeratosis | is no history at asthma ‘most frequently occurs? C._ Should get X-ray chest before proceeding for A. Actinic keratoses surgery B. Seborrheic keratoses D. Cancel surgery for 3 weeks and patient to be on CC. Molluscum contagiosum | antibiotic D. Basal cell carcinoma554 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 ANAESTHESIA 266. Which of the following is not an indication for | endotracheal intubation? A. Maintenance of a patent airway B. To provide positive pressure ventilation CC. Pulmonary toilet D. Pneumothorax 267. Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the (‘maximum duration of action? | A. Atracurium |B. Vecuronium |. Rocuronium | DL Doxacurium 268. Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choi in renal failure? A. Rapacurium |B. Pancuronium C. Atracurium D. Rocuronium 269, Which one of the following antibacterials should not be, ‘used with d-tubocurarine? | A. Norfloxacin | B. Streptomyci C. Doxyeyeline D. Cefotaxime ‘270. Which one of the following local anesthetics belongs, to the ester group? ‘A. Procaine B. Bupivacaine C. Lignocaine D. Mepivacaine 1271. Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children: A. Methoxyflurane B. Sevoflurane | c. Desflurane D. Isoflurane |272. Which one of the following agents sensitizes the | myocardium to catecholamines? | A. Isoflurane B. Ether | |G. Halothane | _D. Propofol 273. Which of the following statements is not true about | etomidate? | A. Itisan intravenous anesthetic B. It precipitates coronary insufficiency CC. Itinhibits cortisol synthesis D. It causes pain at site of injection 274, Which of the following anesthetic agents does not trigger malignant hyperthermia? A. Halothane B, Isoflurane C. Suxamethonium D. Thiopentone 275, Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most suitable for day care surgery? ‘A. Morphine B. Ketamine CC. Propofol D._ Diazepam 276. Which of the following agents is used for the ‘treatment of postoperative shivering? ‘A. Thiopentone B. Suxamethonium C. Atropine D. Pethidine lar which ort following agents is not used to provide | induced hypotension during surgecy? A. Sodium nitroprusside | B. Hydralazine C. Mephentermine | D. Esmolol 278. A two-month-old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding postoperative pain relief which one of the following is recommended | A. No medication is needed as infant does not feel pain after surgery due to immaturity of nervous system B. Only paracetamol suppository is adequate C. Spinal narcoties via intrathecal route D. Intravenous narcotic infusion is lower dosage RADIOLOGY 279, Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential? A. Electron B. Proton C. Helium ion D. Gamma (/) ~ Photon | 280, Al of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic) | radionucleide, except | A. Phosphorus” B, Strontium’? C. Tridium’? D. Samarium'* 281. Phosphorus” emits: ‘A. Beta particles B. Alfa Particles C. Neutrons D, X-rays(282. Which of the following is used in the treatment of | 16 mm B. Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16 mm C._ Diameter of the descending right puimonary artery > 16 mm D. Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16mm ‘The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm ‘A. Ultrasonography B. Computed tomography C. Magnetic resonance imaging 289. 290. The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is: ‘A. Intravenous urography B. Computed tomography C. Ultrasound D. Magnetic resonance imaging 294, . Bright light treatment has been found to be most (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUI )1. The most accurate investigation for assessing § ventricular function is: A. Multislice CT | B. Echocardiography | C. Nuclear scan | D. MRL | | ‘The most important sign of significance of renal “ stenosis on an angiogram is: ‘A. A percentage diameter stenosis > 70% | B. Presence of collaterals. CC. A systolic pressure gradient > 20 mm Hg across the lesion D. Post-stenotic dilatation of the renal artery | ‘The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in: A. White matter B. Grey matter C. Thalamus D. Basal ganglia Loosening of association is an example of: ‘A. Formal thought disorder B. Schneiderian first rank symptoms CC. Perseveration D. Concrete thinking. All ofthe following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, except: A. Late onset B. Married C._ Negative symptoms D. Acute onset Intense niilisim, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of: | ‘A. Involutional melancholia, | B. Atypical depression C. Somatized depression D._ Depressive stupor ‘Mutism and akinesis in a person, who appears awake | and even alert, is best described as: A. Twilight state B. Oneroid state | C. Stupor D. Delirium effective in treatment of: ‘Anorexia nervosa Seasonal affective disorder Schizophrenia Obsessive compulsive disorder poe LW‘556 = MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - 2006 299. Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used. 7 (300. Paviov’s experiment is an example of: ge) | 3 predominantly in the management of: A. Operant conditioning A. Depression B. Classical conditioning B. Dissociation C. Learned helplessness C. Delusions D. Modelling D. Dementia