Professional Documents
Culture Documents
USMLEStep2Lesson1:Cardiology:MyocardialInfarction
Residency Director
Cardiology
Myocardial Infarction
A 52-year-old man comes to the ER with 1 hour of severe chest pain on exertion. He is nauseated and diaphoretic with
slight shortness of breath. The pain does not change with respiration or bodily position. Exam shows normal vitals,
Pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary embolus
Pleuritis
Pericarditis
Pericarditis only
Costochondritis only
: Anterior Wall
Cardiac Enzymes
Wont change what to do, regardless of results (positive or negative) at this time
Cardiac Enzymes
Begins to
Elevate
Lasts
CPKMB
46hr
2days
Troponin
46hr
12wk
Myoglobin
14hr
s
LDH
1224hr
s
Best Answers:
Myoglobin
Troponin
CPK-MB is sensitive and specific, but not as sensitive as myoglobin or as specific as troponin.
Decrease
Mortality
Time
Dependant
Aspirin
YES(25%)
YES
Nitrates
??
?
Morphine(Analgesics)
??
?
Thrombolytic
YES(25%)
YES
-Blockers
YES(1020%)
NO
Special Circumstances
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Angioplasty
o Patients with major bleeding or risk of bleeding
o Patients who cant receive thrombolytics for any reason
o Patients failing thrombolytics and progressing to hemodynamic instability
o Equal in efficacy to thrombolytics
Special Circumstances
ACE Inhibitor
o Patients with decreased left ventricle function or CHF
Lidocaine
o Never as prophylaxis
o All patients who develop major vertricular arrhythmias (ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation)
Pacemakers
Third-degree AV block
USMLEStep2Lesson2:Cardiology:CongestiveHeartFailure
Cardiology
A 67-year-old woman comes to the ER with 1-2 hours of severe shortness of breath. She has a history of
two MIs in the past. She comes with a pizza in one hand and a bag of Doritos in the other, and she is
chewing a sausage. Her respiration rate is 34; BP, 130/82; and PUD, 18. Jugulovenous distention is
present. Chest: rales to apices. Heart:3/6 systolic murmur at Apex 1. S3 gallop. Abd: Enlarged liver.3+
Page |5
Echocardiogram (never used in acute cases): decreased ejection fraction, mitral regurgitation, abnormal
Radionuclide ventriculogram:(MUGA) never use acute scan, most accurate method of assessing
ejection fraction
Give Oxygen
Morphine
Nitrates
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Positive inotropes
Dobutamine
Amrinone
Ace inhibitors - IV
Nitroprusside
Ace inhibitors
Diuretics
Digoxin
Blockers
Reduce mortality
Improve symptoms
USMLEStep2Lesson3:InfectiousDiseases:Intro.to
Antibiotics
Infectious Deseases
Introduction to Antibiotics
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Introduction to Antibiotics
The most important aspect of infectious diseases: ascribe the antibiotics that go with each
group of organisms
Penicillins:
o Oxacillin
o Cloxacillin
o Dicloxacillin
o Nafcillin
First-generation cephalosporins:
o Cefazolin
o Cephalexin
o Cephradine
o Cefadroxil
Clindamycin
infections
Gram-negative Bacilli
For E. coli, Proteus, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Morganella, and Pseudomonas, ALL of following
Aztreonam
Gram-negative Bacilli
For E. coli, Proteus, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Morganella, and Pseudomonas, ALL of following
Anaerobes
Clindamycin
Metronidazole
Imipenem
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Second-generation cephalosporins
Antivirals
Antivirals
Influenza
Oseltamivir, zanamivir
Hepatitis B
Lamivudine or interferon
Hepatitis C
Antifungals
Amphotericin
Candida infections
Azoles
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Onychomycosis
Terbinafine, itraconazole
USMLEStep2Lesson4:CentralNervousSystemInfections
Infectious Deseases
ANY of the CNS infections can present with fever, headache, and
nausea. To determine which one, the question will provide the following
clues:
Meningitis
The patient also has photophobia and nuchal rigidity (stiff neck) on exam.
Encephalitis
ANY of the CNS infections can present with fever, headache, and
nausea. To determine which one, the question will provide the following
clues:
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Abscess
Note: There is considerable overlap between these diseases. If the question state that he has
a stiff neck AND confusion/lethargy AND focal findings, then neither you nor anyone else could
Focal findings
Papilledema
Cell count, chemistry (protein level), gram-stain, and bacterial antigen testing can still give the
Meningitis
Diagnostic testing on lumbar puncture: Everything depends on the specific question asked!
NEXT BEST or BEST INITIAL test on CSF is CELL COUNT. (Cell count is not as specific as
Cultures
What is the BEST - Most Accurate - Most Likely to lead to specific diagnosis type of
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question.
Meningitis
A 48-year-old man comes to the ER with 1 day of fever, headache, and nausea. He has
photophobia and a stiff neck. He has no focal neurological deficits or papilledema and is fully
oriented and alert. Lumbar puncture shows an elevated protein, cell count of 3,502, and a
Any type of meningitis can cause an elevated cell count; the differential on the cell count gives more
specific information.
Neutrophils Bacterial:
Rocky Mountain spotted fever: rash on wrists/ankles, moving centrally towards the body
A 48-year-old man comes to the ER with 1 day of fever, headache, nausea. He has
photophobia and a stiff neck. He has no focal neurological deficits or papilledema and is fully
oriented and alert. Lumbar puncture shows an elevated protein, cell count of 3,502, and a
negative gram stain. Culture is sent. The differential shows 92% neutrophils.
A 48-year-old man comes to the ER with 1 day of fever, headache, nausea. He has
photophobia and a stiff neck. He has no focal neurological deficits or papilledema and is fully
oriented and alert. Lumbar puncture shows an elevated protein, cell count of 3,502, and a
negative gram stain. Culture is sent. The differential shows 92% neutrophils.
USMLEStep2Lesson5:PPDTesting
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Infectious Diseases
PPD Testing
PPD Testing
To screen the asymptomatic: do not use as primary method for diagnosing TB in acutely symptomatic
patients
>10 mm induration, not erythema in most patients; >5 mm in HIV+ patients and close contacts
Treat all PPD+ patients if the risk of developing TB is greater than risk of hepatitis from the isoniazid:
ANYONE with severe immune deficiency (eg, HIV, steroid use, leukemia, diabetes, lymphoma)
A 19-year-old, HIV- woman entering college with 8 mm of induration and a negative test last
year.
A 32-year-old, HIV- physician from India who received BCG as a child and has never been
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tested before. She has 12 mm of induration at health screening before starting an internship in
the US.
A 47-year-old HIV+ man who had never been tested before and has 7 mm of induration.
A 95-year-old, HIV-, female nursing home resident who was PPD- last year and has 11 mm of
A 3,725-year-old Egyptian mummy who was PPD- last year and is PPD+ this year.
USMLEStep2Lesson6:HIV
Infectious Diseases
HIV
HIV
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A 37-year-old man comes to your office after having been recently diagnosed with HIV. He
has no symptoms. His physical examination is normal. His CD4 count is 575, and his viral
load is 1,000.
Zidovudine (anemia)
Lamivudine
Nelfinavir
Ritonavir
Indinavir
Saquinavir
Amprenavir
What to start?
A 37-year-old man comes to your office after having been recently diagnosed with HIV. He
has no symptoms. His physical examination is normal. His CD4 count is 575, and his viral
load is 1,000.
A 37-year-old man comes to your office after having been recently diagnosed with HIV. He
has no symptoms. His physical examination is normal. His CD4 count is 275, and his viral
load is 1,000.
A 37-year-old man comes to your office after having been recently diagnosed with HIV. He
has no symptoms. His physical examination is normal. His CD4 count is 575, and his viral
load is 71,000.
A 37-year-old man comes to your office after having been recently diagnosed with HIV. He
has no symptoms. His physical examination is normal. His CD4 count is 175, and his viral
load is 31,000
A 37-year-old man comes to your office after having been recently diagnosed with HIV. He
has no symptoms. His physical examination is normal. His CD4 count is 45, and his viral load
is 31,000.
A 37-year-old man comes to your office after having been recently diagnosed with HIV. He
has no symptoms. His physical examination is normal. His CD4 count is 5, and his viral load
is 371,000
NOTHING!!
USMLEStep2Lesson7:Hematology:MicrocyticAnemia
Hematology
Microcytic Anemia
Microcytic Anemia
A 32-year- old woman presents with several weeks of fatigue. She complains of nothing else.
Symptoms of anemia are largely based on severity not etiology. Iron deficiency with
hematocrit of 28% will give the same symptoms and the anemia of chronic disease,
A 32-year-old woman presents with several weeks of fatigue. She complains of nothing else.
Initial CBC reveals hematocrit of 28%. The other portions of the CBC are normal, and the MCV
is 70 (normal 80-100).
After determining that the patient has anemia, the next most useful step is to determine
the cell size. This is the next easiest clue as to the etiology of the anemia.
Low MCV
Iron deficiency
Sideroblastic
Thalassemia
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High MCV
Folate deficiency
Alcohol
Drug toxicity
Normal MCV
Hemolysis
A 32-year-old woman presents with several weeks of fatigue. She complains of nothing else.
Initial CBC reveals an hematocrit of 28%; other portions of the CBC are normal, and MCV is 70
(normal 80-100).
What is the next best step in the management of this microcytic patient? (ie: What is the
What is the next best step in the management of this microcytic patient?
Iron Studies
After the iron studies, how would you address other questions about the
specifics of the various low MCV anemias? (What is the most accurate
diagnostic test?)
Iron Deficiency
What is the most specific test? Bone marrow for stainable iron.
Sideroblastic anemia
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What is the most specific test? Prussian blue stain for ringed sideroblasts
Thalassemia
What is the most specific test? Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Iron Deficiency
Iron replacement
Chronic Disease
Sideroblastic anemia
Pyridoxine
Thalassemia trait
No therapy
USMLEStep2Lesson8:Hematology:MacrocyticAnemia
Hematology
Macrocytic Anemia
A 32-year-old woman presents with several weeks of fatigue. Initial CBC reveals an hematocrit
of 28%.
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Symptoms of anemia are largely based on the severity not the etiology. Iron deficiency
with hematocrit of 28% will give the same symptoms and the anemia of chronic disease,
A 32-year-old woman comes to the office with several weeks of fatigue. In addition, she
complains of a sensation of pins and needles in her hands and feet. She drinks almost a quart
of vodka per day. Initial CBC reveals an hematocrit of 28%. The MCV is 120 (normal 80-100).
What is the next best step in the management of this macrocytic patient?
Macrocytic anemia is largely due to either vitamin or folate deficiency, although several
drug toxicities (eg, severe alcoholism, zidovudine or methotrexate use) can do it as well. You
do NOT need neurological symptoms to have anemia from deficiency. However the
presence of neurological symptoms means it cannot be folate deficiency alone. Alcohol can
Peripheral neuropathy
B12 Deficiency
Presence of hypersegmented neutrophils and a low B12 level (NOT a Schilling test).
Folate Deficiency
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Absence of hypersegmented neutrophils and to exclude the B12 and folate deficiency and look
What are the specific tests you would do to determine the specific
etiology of the B12?
Antibodies to intrinsic factor and an elevated gastrin level are characteristic of pernicious
anemia
Schillings test is the least often used but most specific way to determine precisely how a
patient is malabsorbing . Do NOT answer Schillings test if the case gives you the elevated
USMLEStep2Lesson9:Hematology:Hemolysis
Hematology
Hemolysis
Hemolysis
A 42-year-old man is admitted to the hospital because of weakness, fatigue, and dark urine.
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On examination he appears jaundiced with scleral icterus. Initial CBC shows an hematocrit of
28% with a normal MCV. His indirect bilirubin, LDH level and reticulocyte count are all
elevated.
All forms of hemolysis present with elevated LDH levels, reticulocyte count, and indirect
bilirubin. The dark urine can be either from hemoglobin filtered into the urine in intravascular
hemolysis or from the bilirubin alone. Sometimes the MCV can be slightly elevated because
Which clues in the history will tell you which type of hemolytic anemia it
is?
quinidine use
infection, oxidant stress from drugs (eg, dapsone, primaquine, or sulfa) or fava bean ingestion
Which clues in the history will tell you which type of hemolytic anemia it
is?
Which clues in the history will tell you which type of hemolytic anemia it
is?
hemoglobinuria
Hemosiderinuria
Hereditary spherocytosis will not give these because it is extravascular hemolysis. Extravascular means
Which of the following tests is the most specific, most accurate, and
most likely to lead to a definite diagnosis in each of these forms of
anemia?
HUS: Finding renal failure and thrombocytopenia with hemolysis; no specific test
TTP:Finding renal failure, thrombocytopenia, and neurological symptoms and fever with
Which of the following is the best intitial therapy and most definitive
therapy?
splenectomy
PNH:Steroids
TTP:Plasmapheresis
Hereditary spherocytosis:Splenectomy
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USMLEStep2Lesson10:Nephrology:AcuteRenalFailure
Nephrology
An 87-year-old woman with a history of gout and osteoarthritis is found on the floor of her apt.
by her family. It is not clear how long she has been on the floor. She uses NSAIDs for joint
pain. In the ER she is found to be confused. Her temperature is 102 F, pulse is 117, and
systolic BP blood is 92; rales are heard on lung examination. She has a head CT with contrast
to evaluate her confusion and receives penicillin and gentamicin for her pneumonia. She has
no urine output since admission. On hospital day 2 her BUN and creatinine begin to rise.
How many causes of renal failure can you identify in this patient?
The first step in evaluating a patient with acute renal failure is to determine whether there is a
problem inside the kidney (tubules, glomeruli, vascular) or with the perfusion of the kidney
The fever, tachycardia, relatively low BP, and the fact that she was found on the floor are
Pre-renal
Acute
Tubular
Necrosis
BUN/Creatini
ne
Ratio
> 20:1
10.1
Urine Sodium
Low < 20
High > 40
Urine
Osmolality
High > 500
Low < 350
Do NOT assume that the decreased urine output described is from the renal failure. The renal failure
Damage to the kidney could affect tubules, glomeruli, or vasculature. It is NOT very useful to
think of the diseases as cortical or medullary. Glomerular diseases, eg, lupus, Goodpasture,
Alport syndrome, Berger disease, or even post-streptococcal disease, are unlikely to occur this
acutely and without other history of systemic disease. The same is true of vascular diseases,
eg, polyarteritis nodosa, Wegener granulomatosis, TTP, HUS, or Henoch Schonlein purpura.
Acute renal failure such as this is most often from tubular diseases, which are most often from
An 87-year old woman with a history of gout and osteoarthritis is found on the floor of her
apartment by her family. It is not clear how long she has been on the floor. She uses NSAIDs
for joint pain. In the ER she is found to be confused. Her temperature is 102 F, pulse is 117,
and systolic BP blood is 92; rales are seen on lung examination. She has a heat CT with
contrast to evaluate her confusion and receives penicillin and gentamicin for her
pheumonia. She has no urine output since admission. On hospital day 2 her BUN and
You could simply say that the tubular diseases are from toxins. However, since the
answers to questions concerning initial and best tests and treatments are different, they
Direct Toxins
Gentamicin acts directly as a toxin to the kidney's tubule. Other drugs include amphotericin,
cisplatin, NSAIDs, and cyclosporine. Contrast agents also act in the same way.
Best test: Exclude other causes of renal failure. There is no test to determine the specific
etiology of any toxin-mediated organ toxicity. Biopsy will NOT determine the specific agent.
Direct Toxins:
Best therapy: Stop the offending agent. There is no specific therapy to reverse ANY toxin-
mediated organ damage beyond this. Dialysis does NOT reverse the damage; it supports the
patient while waiting for the kidneys to come back to life on their own.
Penicillin causes damage to the kidney, as it causes an allergic reaction against the kidney
tubule. Other drugs include sulfa drugs, allopurinol, phenytoin, rifampin and NSAIDs.
Keys to recognizing this as the cause of the renal failure are fever and rash, although
Best initial test: Measure blood and urinary eosinophils. IgE levels are not sufficiently
sensitive. Renal biopsy is the most accurate test but should seldom, if ever, be used.
Best initial therapy: Stop the medications. Very severe cases can be treated with steroids.
Crystals:
Uric acid crystals from the gout as well as from oxalate crystals from ethylene glycol ingestion
can also damage the tubules. Look for gout or ethylene glycol ingestion in the history.
Therapy: Either allopurinol for gout or ethanol infusion for the ethylene glycol ingestion.
Pigments:
Myoglobin from rhabdomyolysis and hemoglobin from hemolysis are directly toxic to the tubule.
The fact that this patient was found lying on the floor of her apartment is suggestive of
rhabdomyolysis. Clues to pigments as the cause of the renal failure are hemolysis or muscle
Pigments:
Best initial tests: EKG to exclude signs of life-threatening hyperkalemia and urinalysis to
show dipstick positive for blood with no RBCs on the microscopic examination.
Most accurate and specific tests: Myoglobin in urine and elevated CPK level in blood for
rhabdomyolysis.
Best initial therapy: Hydration and alkalinization of the urine with bicarbonate.
USMLEStep2Lesson11:Nephrology:Hyponatremia
Nephrology
Hyponatremia
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A 59-year-old man with a history of lung cancer 1 cm from his carina is admitted to the hospital
because of mild confusion, which has developed over the past several days. His sodium level
The above also require replacement with free water to drive sodium down
Normal volume:
Addisons disease does not require free water to drive the sodium down.
Psychogenic polydipsia
Pseudohyponatremia
Hypothyroidism
A 59-year-old man with a history of lung cancer 1 cm from his carina is admitted to the hospital
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because of mild confusion, which has developed over the past several days. His sodium level
is 119 (normal 135-145). Physical examination reveals normal skin turgor and no
If a normal persons sodium were suddenly driven below normal, the bodys response would be
to immediately shut off all ADH secretion, allowing the maximal amount of free water to be
released. The normal response would be to maximally dilute the urine. The normal response to
hyponatremia would be to have a urine osmolality at the lowest possible amount. The range of
urine osmolarity is 50-1200 mOsm/kg. The normal response would be urine osmolarity around
50 mOsm/kg and urine osmolality less than serum osmolarity. Urine sodium should also be
low.
urine osmolality
A 59-year-old man with a history of lung cancer 1 cm from his carina is admitted to the hospital
because of mild confusion, which has developed over the past several days. His sodium level
is 119 (normal 135-145). Physical examination reveals normal skin turgor and no orthostasis,
edema, or rales. His serum osmolality is 250 mOsm/kg (normal 280-300), urine osmolality
The urine osmolality in this patient is higher than the serum osmolality. Combined with a high
urine sodium level this is confirmatory of SIADH. We do not use ADH levels.
Moderate hyponatremia with mild or moderate neurological symptoms: Saline infusion and
loop diuretic
Severe hyponatremia with severe symptoms: 3% hypertonic saline sometimes combined with
diuretic
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(>1-2 mEq/L/hr)
The patient described above has his sodium corrected by normal saline infusion and a diuretic.
This patients underlying problem probably cant be corrected; lung cancer at the carina
typically cant be resected. Hence, as soon as the saline and diuretic therapy is stopped the
hyponatremia will recur. He will probably not be thrilled with maintaining lifelong fluid restriction.
Demeclocycline to block the effect of the ADH at the level of the kidney tubule on a
chronic basis.
USMLEStep2Lesson12:Nephrology:Hyperkalemia
Nephrology
Hyperkalemia
A 27-year-old man presents to the ER at your hospital after having just taken the physical exam to join the
NY City Fire Department. As part of this exam he must do 50 push-ups followed by suddenly lifting a 175-
lb bag of sand. He then has to run up and down 3 flights of stairs and across a balance beam followed by
50 more push-ups. He comes to see you because of severe muscle pain, muscle tenderness, and dark
The patient seems to have rhabdomyolysis on the basis of severe, sudden exertion. Several tests are
needed: CPK level, urinalysis looking for blood on dipstick, urine microscopic exam, potassium level, and
possibly urine myoglobin level. However, you must choose the MOST URGENT test. No matter how high
the CPK level is, hyperkalemia is more immediately life-threatening. Even if the potassium level is
elevated, it is more important to know whether there are EKG abnormalities from the hyperkalemia, which
The original potassium level (on entry, before therapy) comes back at 7.9 mEq/L. His CPK level is
markedly elevated at 48,000 and the urinalysis is dipstick positive for blood, but no RBCs are seen on
microscopic exam.
Repeat potassium level 2 hours later is 6.8 mEq/L. A further level 2 hours after that is 5.8 mEq/L.
USMLEStep2Lesson13:EmergencyMedicine:Overdose
Emergency Medicine
Overdose
A 25-year-old medical student gets very depressed while preparing for USMLE Step 2. After
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finishing studying at midnight she takes a bottle of pills at 12:15 am in an attempt to commit
suicide. She removes the label from the bottle so no one can determine what she took. After
12:15 she finds that her last practice test score was 87% and she will easily pass. She walks
Gastric emptying with ipecac has limited utility because it must be given within the first hour of
management. Do NOT give ipecac with ingestions of caustic substances since they will burn
Do NOT answer toxicology screen. This takes too long to come back to be useful and it will
not change management. No matter what pills she took, the initial answer in the first hour of
Gastric lavage with an oropharyngeal hose is not very useful, and most awake patients do not
need this and will not tolerate it. Use gastric lavage in patients with an acute overdose who
have an altered mental status in the first hour after a pill ingestion. You cannot give ipecac to
Perform endotracheal intubation with gastric lavage to protect the airway when the
Activated charcoal
Charcoal is useful in almost all overdoses and is not dangerous in anybody. In addition,
charcoal will even remove drug from the body that has already been absorbed into the blood
stream.
A 25-year-old medical student gets very depressed while preparing for USMLE Step 2. After
finishing studying at midnight she takes a bottle of pills at 12:15 am in an attempt to commit
P a g e | 34
suicide. She removes the label from the bottle so no one can determine what she took. At
12:30 am she finds that her last practice test score was 87% and she will easily pass. She
Naloxone
Thiamine
Dextrose
Although you will want to intubate the patient to perform gastric lavage, you
must FIRST give the naloxone, thiamine, and dextrose. If the patient took an
opiate or is hypoglycemic she will awaken immediately. You will NOT have to
do lavage then because the problem will have been solved.
She awakens after being given the naloxone, dextrose and thiamine.
After this management, then toxicology and specific drug levels are used to determine the