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Dr-Noor Ul Basar's First-Aid Tests With Answers in One File
Dr-Noor Ul Basar's First-Aid Tests With Answers in One File
EMBRYOLOGY KEYS
1. Gametes are descendent of?primordial germ cells
2. All primary oocytes are formed in which month of fetal life? 5th month of fetal life
3. Primary oocyte remain dormant in which phase? Prophase I
4. Secondary oocytes is arrested in which phase? Metaphase II
5. Granulosa cells secrete? Estrogen
6. Progesterone stimulates the endometrium of the uterus to enter which phase? Secretory
7. Primordial germ cells derived from? Wall of yolk sac
8. Which cells supply as the stem cell in male throughout reproductive life? Type A
spermatogonia
9. Newly ejavulated sperms are incapable of fertilization until they undergo ? Capacitation
10. Advanced maternal age is risk factor for ? Down syndrome
11. Normally ----- percent of sperms in an ejaculate are grossly deformed? 10%
12. Genetic disorder characterized by hypogonadism and anosmia? Kallmann syndrome
13. Anovulation is often treated with ? Clomiphenec citrate
14. If a girl never begins menstruation the condition is called ? Primary ovarian failure
15. The reaction which occurs when the sperm binds to the zona pellucida of the secondary
oocyte is ? Acrosome reaction
16. Sperm produces ATP from? fructose
17. Blastomeres are totipotent upto which cell stage? 8 cell stage
18. -----refers to a stem cell that can differentiate into ectoderm , mesoderm and endoderm?
Pleuripotency
19. Blastocyst implants which part of uterine wall? Posterior superior wall
20. Trophoblast differentiate into ?? Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotropoblast
21. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy? Ampulla
22. Bilaminar embryonic disk is ? Epiblast and hypo blast
23. The syncytiotropoblast secretes ?? HCG
24. HCG can be assayed on ---- day in maternal urine? 10 day
25. Left/ right axis determination begins with the asymmetric activity of ? Sonic hedgehog
protein
26. Mesoderm further give rise into? Paraxial , intermediate and lateral mesoderm
27. The intermediate mesoderm forms which system? Urogenital system
28. Sclerotic me of somite forms ? Axial cartilage and bone
29. Dura matter is derivative of which germ layer? Mesoderm
30. Adrenal Cortex derivative of which germ cell layer? Mesoderm
31. Chondroma is a tumor arised from remnants of? Notochord
32. Placenta attached to the lower part of uterus covering internal os? Placenta prvia
33. Classic cause of first trimester bleeding ? Ectopic pregnancy
34. Growth hormone of the fetus? Human placental lactogen
35. Hofbauer cells are macrophage like cells found in? Placental membrane
36. In late pregnancy placental membrane is formed by? Syncytiotropoblast and the fetal
capillary endothelium *** ( imp)
37. The near term fetus excrete about ------ of urinue daily? 500mL
38. Potter syndrome lead to which amniotic fluid condition? Oligohyromnios
39. Name the fetal albumin produced by fetal hepatocytes ?? a-fetoprotein
40. Mucus connective tissue of umbelical cord is also called ? Wharton's jelly
41. A light gray shines sac indicates? Omphalocele
42. Vasculogenesis occurs first within extra embryonic visceral mesoderm around yolk sac on
day? 17
43. Hematopoiesis is taken over by liver at which week? Beginning of 5 th week
44. Hemoglobin a2r2 is called ? Fetal hemoglobin
45. Hydroxy urea promotes which hemoglobin?HBF
46. Highly oxygenated blood in fetal circulation is carried by which vessel? Left umbelical vein
47. Ligamentum venosus is the ramnent of ? Ductus venosus
48. Pericardial cavity is formed by which mesoderm? Lateral plate mesoderm
49. Adult structure of bulbus cordis? Smooth part of right and left ventricle
50. Articulopulmonary septum is derivative of? Neural crest cells
51. Abnormal neural crest cell migration such that there is non spiral development f AP septum
lead to? Transposition of great arteries
52. Rib notching on X-ray is feature of ? Postductal coarctation
53. Stapedial artery is derived from which aortic arch? 2nd
54. Adult structure if Vitelline arteries ? Celiac, sup mesenteric and inferior mesenteric
55. Which cardinal vein is not involved in forming IVC ? Anterior cardinal vein
56. Primitive stomach is formed in which week ? 4 week
57. Primitive stomach rotates --%clockwise around its longitudinal axis? 90
58. Which layer of pyloric region hypertrophies in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis ? Mucularis
externa
59. Uncinate process is formed by which bud? Ventral
60. Dubble bubble sign is indicative of? Annular pancreas
61. Midgut derivative are supplied by ? Sup mesenteric artery
62. Physiological umbelical herniation is seen in which week? Beginning of week 6
63. Midgut loops around ----- counterclockwise? 270
64. The urorectal septum fuses with the cloacal membrane at the future site of the anatomical
,???? Perineal body
65. Lower anal canal derived from? Proctoderm
66. Junction between upper and lower anal canal is indicated by ? Pectinate line
67. Ureteric bud is an outgrowth of? mesonephric duct
68. Fetal metanephros is located at vertebral level of? S1-S2
69. Allantois becomes fibrous cord called? Urachnus or median umbelical ligament in adult
70. Most common cause of congenital obstruction of urinary tract ? Ureteropelvic junction
obstruction
71. Most common renal malignancy of childhood? Wilms tumor
72. Nutcracker syndrome occurs when? Left renal vein is compressed between sup mesenteric
artery and abdominal aorta
73. By which week male and female characteristic of the external genitalia can be recognized ?
By week 12
74. Phenotype sexual differentiation is determined by which gene? Sry gene
75. Sry gene encodes for protein called ?testes-determining dactor
76. Vestigial remnants of the mesonephric duct may be found in the adult female called?
Appendix vasuculosa
77. The Phallus forms the ?? Clitoris
78. Urogenital folds forms the? labia minors
79. Testosterone is secreted by which cells? Leydig cells
80. Vestigial remnant of paranesonephric duct is ? Appendix testes
81. The labioscrotal swelling form the? Scrotum
82. Respiratory diverticulum is formed in which week ? 4 week
83. Terminal sac period is the period between? 24-birth
84. Pseudo glandular period is the period? 7-16 weeks
85. The site of the thyroglossal duct is indicated in adult by ? Foramen cecum
86. Ultimobrschail body is derivative of which pouch? 4th
87. Muscle of facial expression derived by? 2 pharyngeal arch
88. No taste bud is present in which part if tongue? Filiform papillae
89. All muscle motor supply is by XII cranial nerve except? Palatoglossus (CN X)
90. Pharyngeal cyst occurs when ----------- persist? Pharyngeal groove2-4
91. Most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue ? Sublingual
92. Cleft palate is which type of genetic disorder ? Multifacrorial
93. Anatomic landmark that distinguishea an anterior cleft palate from posterior cleft palate is?
Incisive foramen
94. Digeorge syndrome occurs due to defect in? 3 and 4 pharyngeal pouches
95. Remnant of notochord is ? Nucleus pulposus
96. Anterior neuro pore closes on? Day 25
97. Posterior neuro pore closes on? Day 27
98. The lumen of neural tube for rise to? Ventricular system
99. Name 3 primary brain vesicles ? Prosen, mesen ad rhombencephalon
100. At birth the conus mudullaris extend to the level of ? L3
101. Myelination of the corticospinal tract is not completed until ? Te end of 2 years
102. Remnants of ratkhe pouch may give rise to a craniophayngioma
103. Arnold chiari malformation occurs when the caudal vermis and tonsils of cerebellum and
medulla herniated through which foramen? Foramen magnum
104. Utricle responds to which acceleration? Linear acceleration
105. Semicircular ducts responds to? Angular acceleration
106. Stapes is derived from which pharyngeal arch ? Pharyngeal arch 2
107. Eye development begins at day? 22
108. The choroid fissure closes during week?? 7 week
109. The extra ocular muscle develops from Mesoderm of which somitomeres? Somitomeres 1,2
and 3
110. Anophthalmia is ? Absence of the eye
111. HPL can be assayed in maternal blood at week? 6
112. Growth hormone of later half of pregnancy? hPL
113. ----used by the fetal testes as a precursor of testosterone synthesis? Progesterone
114. The most potent estrogen is ??? Estradiol
115. Amniocentesis is preferred in which weeks? 14-18 weeks
116. Quickening in a woman first pregnancy in which weeks? 18-20 weeks
117. At week 20 uterine fundus is palpable at the ? Umbilicus
118. Surfactants are produced in which weeks? 25-27
119. Normal baseline fetal heart rate is? 120-160 beats per minute
120. Maximum susceptible period of teratogenicity is? 3-8weeks
121. The most common of CMV fetal infection is ?? Sensineural deafness
122. Teratogenicity of thalidomide is ? Limb defect
123. Fetal hydantoin syndrome is caused by? Phenytoin
124. Aminoglycoside causes which toxicity ? CNVIII
125. Appendages in wrong position is due to mutation in which gene? Hox gene
126. Heart begins to beat in which week? 4 week
127. Absent organ due to absent primordial tissue? Agenesis
128. Incomplete organ development ? Hypoplasia
129. Effect of diethylstilbestrol on fetus? Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
130. Caudal regression syndrome caused by? Maternal diabetes
131. High risk of spontaneous abortion is side effect of vit a excess
132. Decidua basalis is derived from? Endometrium
133. Obliteration of Vitelline duct is in which week? 7th week
134. Yolk sac erythropoisis is in which weeks ? 3-8 weeks
135. Ductus arteriosus contain which blood? Deoxygenated
136. Meninges and spinal cord herniated through spinal cord defect is called?
Meningeomyelocole
137. Dec separation of hemispheres across Midline leads to? Holoprosencephaly
138. Most common site of syringomyelia ? C8-T1
139. PDA is derivative of which aortic arch? 6 aortic arch
140. Arches are derived from which germ layer ? Mesoderm
141. Styloid process is derivative of which branchial arch ? 2nd
142. CN IX supplies which muscle? Stylopharyngeus
143. All intrinsic muscles of larynx are derivative of 6th arch except? Cricothyroid ( 4th arch)
144. Thymus is derivative of which pouch? 3rd pouch
145. Sup parathyroid derivative of which pouch? 4th ( inf 3rd pouch)
146. Posterior 1/3 of tongue formed by? 3and 4 arch
147. Name cranial nerves involving in taste sensation? CN VII,IX,X
148. Muscle of tongue are derived from ? Occipital myotomes
149. Normal remnant of thyroglossal duct? Foramen cecum
150. Cleft lip is due to? Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal process
151. Midgut returns to abdominal cavity in ---- week? 10th week
152. Spleen is ------ in origin? Mesodermal
153.bicorunate uterus result due to
Incomplete fusion of ? Paramesonephric duct
154. Hypospadiasis is due to ----? Failure d urethral folds to close
155. Epispadiasis is due to----? Faulty positioning of genital tubercle
156. Diaphragmatic hernia is due to ? Absence of pleuro-peritoneal membrane
157. Vertebra is derived from? Sclerotome
158. Somites are derived of which mesoderm? Paraxial mesoderm
159. Left umbilical vein will regress to ? Ligamentum Teres
160. Gestational age is estimated from? Crown rump length at 8 weeks
161. Union of 5th lumbar with 1st sacral is called? Saccaralization
162. Structure of 2ndry villus include? Mesoderm , cytotrophoblast and syncitium
163. Amputated leg is the result of? amniotic bands
164. Auditory tube is formed by? 1st and 2nd endodernal pouch
165. Thyroid is derived from ? Endoderm
166. Four chambers of heart are formed by? Endo cardial cushions
167. Strongest layer of small intestine is? Submucosa
168. Erythropoietin are secreted by ? Peritubular interistitium of kidney
169. Which protein maintain red cell shape ? Spectrin
170. Which is not major basic tissues ? Blood
171. Ovary epithelium is ? Simple cuboidal
172. Which structure has 3 layers of muscles? Stomach
173. PDFG is secreted by which part of platelets? Alpha granules
174. Which cells produce antibodies? Plasma cells
175. Most abundant phagocytes in circulation? Neutrophils
176. Submucosal glands are present in ? Deudonum
177. Nissle bodies are? RER
178. Most mucinous acini gland is ? Sublingual glands
179. Calcium releases in muscle from ? Sarcoplamsmic reticulum
180. In Which state maximum HB produces occurs? Pro erythrocyte
181. Average life of Gi epithelium? 2-7 days
182. Basophilia of cell is due to ? RER
183. Which cell release extra cellular fibres and amorphous substance ? Fibroblast
184. Neurons in olfactory tract are ? Bipolar
185. Heparin is released by which cells ? Mast cells
186. Microtubule are part of ? Centrioles
187. Micro filament composed of ? Actin
188. ---- capsule covers the liver? Glisson
189. Signet ring appearance seen in? Adipocyte
190. Osteoclast are present in? Howships lacunae
191. Structural unit of bone? Haversian system
192. Myelin hai ---- percent of protein? 20%
193. Blood group antigen are ??? Carbohydrate
194. Hassal corpuscles feature of? Thymus
195. Hypertrophied pharyngeal tonsil? Adenoid
196. Bruner gland are present in submucosa of? Deudonum
197. Thickest zone of adrenal cortex? Zona fasciculata
198. Which coat is thickest in large veins? Adventitia
199. Ovarian follicles are present in? Cortex of ovary
200. Eosinophils play role in ?? Parasitic infections
=-=
KEYS
IMMUNOLOGY ANSWERS
1. B cells
2. Paracortex
3. Popliteal
4. Superficial inguinal
5. White pulp
6. 3 rd pharyngeal pouch
7. Chr. 6
8. MHC - II
9. B8
10. Perforins and granzyme
11. Plasma cells
12. Thymic cortex
13. Macrophage, dendritic cell, B cell
14. B7 and CD28
15. IL-10
16. Fc
17. Fab
18. IgG
19. IgA
20. Eosinophils
21. IgM and IgD
22. IgG
23. IgE
24. IgG and IgM
25. C5a
26. Hereditary angoidema
27. PNH
28. IgM
29. C3b and IgG
30. C3-C8 def
31. IL-10
32. IL-3
33. IL-6
34. TNF-alpha
35. CD56
36. Rbc
37. CD21
38. Anergy
39. Passive
40. IgE
41. Type 2
42. ? IgG
43. Typed IV
44. Type II
45. Primary biliary cirrhosis
46. Anti RNP
47. Anti histone
48. Fungal ad viral
49. Tyrosine kisane gene
50. IgE
51. 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches
52. Selective IgA deficiency
53. IL-2 receptor
54. Thrombocytopenia , infections and eczema
55. Syngeneic graft
56. Hyperacute rejection
57. Acute rejection
58. CMV
59. TNF-a
60. Erb-B2
61. Daclizumab
62. Type III
63. ATM gene
64. Type IV
65. TypeIII
66. Humoral
67. 3 weeks
68. IL5
69. IL12
70. C5b-9f
71. Monomer
72. Fab
73. APC
74. APC
75. Psoriasis , ankylosing spondylitis , IBD and Reiter syndrome
76. IL-12, IFN-b, IFN-a
77. Celiac
78. Sup inguinal
79. Paracortex
80. IgA
81. Corneal transplant
82. Procainamide
83. Infections
84. Dendritic cells
85. Kidney
86. Western blot
87. Hepatocyte
88. Rheumatoid arthritis
89. ANA
90. Twin
91. NFkb
92. IL-5
93. Rh antigen
94. Ch.21
95. Proteasomes
=-=-
KEYS
MICROBIOLOGY ANSWERS
1. D glutamate
2. Mycoplasma
3. Clostridium diphtheria
4. Nocardia , pseudomonas, mycobacterium tb, bacillus
5. Strep pneumonae, h.influenza, and N meningitidis
6. Strept.pnemonia , H influenza type B , Neisseria
7. Indices TNF and IL-1
8. Vibrio cholerae
9. Borditella pertusis
10. Alpha toxin ( lecithinase)
11. staph aureus
12. Stationary
13. F-
14. Staph aureus
15. Streptococcus pneumonia
16. Streptococcus agalagtae
17. Streptococcus pnemonia
18. Staph epidermidis
19. Strep. Mutans
20. Diphtheria .. Corynebacterium dihphtheria
21. Clostridium botulinum
22. Actinomycetes israili
23. Azithromycin
24. Leprosy
25. Rifampin
26. Urine
27. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
28. O157:H7
29. Klebsiella
30. Yersinia enterocolotica
31. Leptospira interrogans
32. Salmonella typhi
33. Lyme disease
34. Congenital syphillis
35. Coxiella Burnetti
36. Gardenella vaginalis
37. Latex agglutination
38. Coxachivirus A , rocket mountain spotted fever and syphillis
39. Chlamydia trachomatis
40. Mycoplasma pnemonia
41. Para coccidiodomycosis
42. Tinea versicolor
43. Aspergillus fumigatous
44. Mucor and rhizopus
45. Sporthrix schenckii
46. Cryptosporidium
47. Chorioretinitis, hyrocephalus and intracranial calcification
48. Cribriform plate
49. Chaga disease
50. Sodium stibogluconate
51. 72 hrs
52. Enterobius vermicularis
53. .. Wicherereria bancrofti
54. Neurocysticercosis.... Tania solium
55. Onchocerca volvulus
56. Squamous cell carcinoma of bladder
57. Schistosoma mansoni
58. Ethanol
59. Leishmania donovani
60. Clonirchis sinesis
61. Methicillin , naficillin
62. Clavulanic acid, sulbactum, tazobactum
63. Vancomycin
64. Ceftriaxone
65. Cilaststin
66. Nephrotoxicity , Ototoxiicty, teratogen
67. Milk, antacids and iron containing preparation
68. Macrolides
69. Chloremphinicol
70. Dihydrofolate reductase
71. Isoniazid
72. Pyrizinamide
73. Trimethoprim -sulphametoxaZole
74. Rifampin
75. Cryptococcus neoformans
76. Candida albicans
77. Entamoeba histolytica
78. Tsetse fly
79. Muramic acid
80. Secondary
81. Borellia burgdorfori
82. Guilian bar syndrome
83. Listeria monocytosis
84. 121C for 15
85. Corynebacterium diphtheria
86. Inhibitory neurotransmitter in spinal cord
87. PRotein A
88. M.tuberculosis
89. Legionella and fungi
90. Nifurtimox
91. Recombination
92. parvovirus
93. retrovirus
94. Parvovirus ( B19. Virus )
95. CMV
96. EBV virus
97. Rota virus
98. Rhino viruses
99. Aedes mosquito
100. Pox virus
101. Nuclear membrane?
102. Parainfluenza , RSV and rubeola
103. Measle virus
104. Rabies virus
105. Window period
106. Fusion and entry
107. Flulike, feeling fine , falling Count and final crisis
108. Bartonella henslae
109. Toxoplasmosis gondii
110. CMV
111. Staph. Epidermitidis
112. Clostridium botulinum
113. Reheated rice contain toxins? S. Aureus
114. Pseudomonas
115. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli
116. Staph aureus
117. Nessieria gonorrhea
118. Potts disease
119. Female have short urethra
120. Staphylococcus saorophyticus
121. Cat feces
122. PDA, cataract and deafness
123. Scarlet fever
124. VZV
125. Hemophilus ducreyi
126. HPV 6 and 11
127. Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome
128. Staph. Aureus
129. Legionella
130. Corynebacterium diphtheria
131. H. Influenza type B
132. Trophyrema whipplii
133. Lyme disease
134. Form membrane pores
135. Fluconazole
136. Caspofungin
137. Malarsoprol
138. Amantadine
139. Foscarnet
140. Neutropenia
141. Navir
142. Zidovudine
143. Cartilage damage
144. Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor
145. Zidovudine
146. Squalene epoxidase
147. Floroquinolones
148. TMP-SMX
149. Ethambutol
150. Pasteurella multocida
151. Chlamydia trachomatis , N.gonorrhea
152. Klebsiella pneumonia
153. Group b streptococcus > E. coli>listeria
154. Staph. Aureus
155. Rota, adeno and Norwalk virus
156. Yersinia enterocolotica
157. HHV-8
158. Gp 120
159. HAV HEV
160. Ranked virus
161. Parotitis , orchitis and aseptic meningitis
162. Coryza, cough and conjunctivitis
163. F protein
164. Polio, echo, rhino, coxackie and HAV
165. EBV
166. Molluscum contagiousum
167. Pox virus
168. influenza and retrovirus
169. Raltegravir
170. Metronidazole
171. Neurotoxicity and hepatotoxicity
172. Cartilage
173. Clindamycin
174. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
175. HBV
176. Ectopic pregnancy
177. Trichomonas vaginalis
178. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
179. Lactobacillus
180. Kuru
181. Aspergillus fumigatous
182. Streptococci virirdians
183. Cryptococcus neoformans
184. Lymph nodes
185. gp120
186. Anti - HAVAb(igM)
187. Purkinjie
188. Corona virus
189. B cells
190. Fifth disease, erythema infectiosum
191. Ascaris lumbricoid
192. Ivermectin
193. Plasmodium falciparum
194. Frontal lobe
195. Aspergillus fumigatous
196.
Dermatophytes
197. L1,L2 and L3
198. Typhus rash
199. Yersinia pestis
200. O157:H7
=--=-
KEYS
1.lymph drainage of ovaries?? Para aortic lymph nodes
2. Ovarian vessels are in which ligament? Suspensory ligament of ovaries
3. Fallopian tubule epithelium?simple ciliates columnar epithelium
4. Ejaculation caused by?Parasympathetic / sympathetic / pudendal ??? Ans= pudendal
5. FSH is inhibited by? Inhibin
6. Which cells produces anitmullerian hormone ?sertioli cells
7. Spermatogenesis occurs in ???Seminiferous tubules
8. Testosterone and androstenedione are converted to estrogen in ----- and -------??? Adipose
tissue and sertoli cells
9. 5alpha reductase inhibited by which drug? Finesteride
10. Placenta is source of which type of estrogen? Estriol
11. Estrogen receptors are expressed in which part of cell?cytoplasm
12. During menstrual cycle what is responsible for temperature increase? Progesterone
13. Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization ??Metaphase
14. Implantation within wall of uterus occurs which day of fertilization ? 6th day
15. HCG detectable in blood after how many days? 1 week
16. The best test to confirm menopause? Inc FSH
17. Elevated HCG in pathologic states ??? Name them..Hyaditoform mole, choriocarcinoma,
gestational trophoblastic tumors
18. NO Barr body is feature of ?? Turner syndrome
19. Most common form of male pseudohermaphroditism? Androgen insensitivity syndrome
20. Penis at 12 caused in? 5 alpha reductase def
21. Honeycombed uterus seen in ?hyaditoform mole
22. Mortality in eclampsia is due to?? Name 2 causes ??cerebral hemorrhage and ARDS
23. Paninful bleeding in 3rd trimester?abruptio placenta
24. Oligohydromnios can lead to which syndrome? Potter syndrome
25. HPV 18--- E7 gene product inhibits which gene? Rb suppressor gene
26. Koilocytes seen in ???invasive cervical carcinoma
27. Chocolate cysts ?? Treatment?endometriosis ... Danazole
28. Most common gynecological malignancy? Endometrial carcinoma
29. Most common of all tumors In females?Leiomyoma( fibroids
30. Worst prognostic gynecological carcinoma??? Ovarian carcinoma
31. PCOD clinically manifests by?? Amenorrhea, infertility , obesity
32. Most common ovarian mass in young female? Follicular cyst
33. Stroma ovarrii contains ???? Functional thyroid tissue
34. Schiller duval bodies seen in? Yolk sac timor(endo dermal sinus )
35. Call-Exner bodies seen in? Granulosa cell tumor
36. Spindle shaped tumors that are Desmin positive??? Sarcoma botryoides
37. Yolk sac tumor marker?? AFP
38. Krukenberg tumor??GI malignancy that metastasize to ovaries
39. Leaf like projections are seen in which breast tumor?phyllodes tumor
40. Single most important prognostic factor or Breast cancer? Axillary lymph node involvement
41. Most common cause of acute mastitis ??staph aureus
42. Most common cause of breast lump? In female age >25?fibrocystic disease
43. BPH involve which lobe?periurethral lobe ( lat and mid lobe)
44. What is the increased risk of cryptocordisim?prematurity
45. Fried egg appearances seen in?seminoma
46. Bent penid due to acquired fibrous tissue formation ?? Disease?Peyronie disease
47.drug used to treat male pattern baldness?finasteride
48. Drug used in premature uterine contractions? Ritodrine and terbutaline
49. Drug used for breast cancer as well as to treat osteoporosis ?raloxifene
50. Malignant painful worst prognosis testicular germ cell tumor?seminoma
51. Prostatic adenocarcinoma involves which lobe?post lobe( peripheral zone)
52. Comedocarcinoma has which necrosis ??Caseous necrosis
53. Classic stellate morphology shows which Brest carcinoma?invasive ductal
54. Meigs syndrome? Triad??Ovarian fibroma, ascites and hydrothorax
55. Diethyesterbestrol used in pregnancy leads to??? Clear cell carcinoma
56. Ovarian cancer marker? CA 125
57. Dysgerminoma associated with which syndrome? Turner syndrome
58. Ovarian dermoid cyst may contain?? Fat , hair , teeth , bone and cartilage
59. Treatment of endometriosis? Danazol
60.Painless bleeding in any trimester? Placenta prvia
61.5alpha reductase is which type of disorder?? Aut dominant/ Aut recessive/ x linked dominant
/ x linked recessive? Ans= Aut recessive
62. Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until Ovulation? Prophase
63. Blood from ruprtured follicle cases peritoneal irritation that can mimic appendicitis
called??Mittleshmerz
64. Most common site of fertilization in Fallopian tube? Ampulla
65. Luteal day is usually if how many days?? 4 days
66. Spermatogenesis begin at puberty with ??? Spermatogonia
67. Broad ligament contains?? Ovaries , Fallopian tube and round ligament of uterus
68. Ligament of ovary lies ---- to uterus?? Lateral / medial/ front /back?? Ans=Lateral
69. Ovary epithelium?? Simple cuboidal
70. LH surge causes??? Ovulation
=-=
KEYS
1. splenorenal
2. hepatic artery, portal vein, cbd
3. Strongest layer submucosa
4. deudonum
5. Anterior
6. Pelvic
7. Splenic flexure
8. Common hepatic, splenic , left gastric
9. Sup rectal and inferior rectal
10. Inf rectal/
11. III
12. Nerve
13. Femoral
14. Indirect inguinal
15. Phenylalanine and tryptophan
16. Secretin
17. Migratory motor complex
18. Parietal cell
19. Enterokinase
20. Facilitated diffusion
21. B12 and bile salts
22. IgA
23. Heme metabolism
24. Pleomorphic adenoma
25. Achalasia
26. Triad Dysphagia , glossitis iron defiecincy anemia
27. Varices
28. Esophegeal cancer
29. Torphyrema whippelii
30. lactase deficiency
31. ADEK
32. Dermatitis herpetiformans
33. Curling
34. Cushing
35. A
36. Gastric
37. Colon
38. Crohn
39. Diverticulitis,ectopic pregnancy
40. Diverticulitis
41. Sigmoid
42. Meckels diverticulum
43. Down
44. Colonic polyps
45. Deudonal atresia
46. APC
47. APpendix
48. GGT
49. Aspirin
50. Alcoholic hepatitis
51. Colorectal ca
52. RHF
53. Dubin Johnson syn
54. Descement membrane
55. HLA A3
56. Jaundice, fever , RUQ pain
57. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
58. CA 19/9
59. Octreotide
60. Diarrhea
61. Fetal umbelical vein
62. L1
63. Adenocarcinoma
64. Zone III
65. Enterochromaffin like cells
66. Burnners gland
67. Glucuronic acid
68. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
69. Globus sensation
70. Myenteric plexus
71. Lye ingestion and acid reflux
72. Stratified squamous with columnar epithelium
73. Intussusception
74. Sigmoid colon
75. Angiography
76. Carcinoid tumor
77. Liver
78. Due to risk of hemorrhage
79. IVC or heptic veins
80. a1-anti trypsin deficiency
81. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
82. Courvoisier's sign
83. They produce IgA antibodies that combat intramural antigens
84. Smokes food, achlorhydria, chronic gastritis and type A blood group
85. Adhesion
86. Deposition of hemosedrin in the skin
87. Primary biliary cirhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis
88. Amylase and lipase
89. Metronidazole , amoxicillin and PPI
90. Metoclopromide
=-=-
KEYS
1. Coronary artery occlusion most commonly occurs in? LAD
2. Cardiac output =??HR*CO
3. Stroke Volume affected by?? Name three parameters...Contractility, preload, afterload
4. Most posterior part of heart? Left atrium
5. Vasodilators decrease?? Preload/after load?? Ans= afterload
6. EF is the index of? Ventricular contractility
7. Viscosity depends mostly on?? Hematocrit
8. Fixed splitting is seen in? ASD
9. S4 is in? Mid diastole/ late/ early?? Ans= late
10. Period of highest oxygen consumption? isovolumetric contraction
11. Isovolumetric relaxation? Period between aortic valve closing and opening of mitral valve
12. Expiration inc intensity of which side of heart sounds? Left/right??ans=left
13. Murmur of Mitral stenosis is best heard in which area? Mitral area
14. Myxomatoys degeneration causes which valvular lesion? MVP
15. Cardiac muscle action potential has plateau due to ?? Ca influx
16. Rapid repolarization caused by? Massive K efflux
17. Pacemaker action potential occurs in?? SA AV node
18. QRS complex shows?? Ventricular depolarization
19. AV nodal delay is useful because?? Allows time for ventricular filling
20. Lyme disease causes which heart block? 3rd degree
21. Sawtooth appearance?? Atrial flutter
22. Cushing triad?? Hypertension, bradycardia and respiratory depression
23. Aortic arch responds??? And transmits via??? Inc Bp only -- vagus nerve
24. Highest blood flow per gran of tissue??? Kidney
25. Pulmonary vascular hypoxia cause? Vasoconstriction
26. Autoregulation In brain caused by? Co2(ph)
27. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure good approximation of which pressure? Left atrial
pressure
28. Boot shape heart? TOF
29. Preductal coarctation of aorta associated with which congenital syn? Turner syndrome
30. Drug to close PDA? Indomethacin
31. Infant of diabetic mother --- > congenital defect?? transposition of great vessels
32. Hyperplasia onion skinning seen in?? Malignant hypertension
33. Most common site of atherosclerosis ?? Abdominal aorta
34. Thoracic aortic aneurysm associated with? Hypertension
35. Common cause of sudden death first few hours after MI? Arrhythmia
36. Marker for reinfarction? Ck-MB
37. V1-V2 ----> infarction location? Anterioseptal
38. Autoimmune pericarditis after MI? Dressler syndrome
39. Sudden death in young athlete? HOCM
40. Gold standard in first 6 hours of MI? ECG
41. Etiology of dialated cardiomyopathy? Alcohol abuse, beriberi, cocaine use, Chaga disease,
doxuebecin, hemochromatosis
42. Isolated right heart failure is due to??? Cor pulmonale
43. Heart failure cells ? LHF/RHF?? Ans=LHF
44. IV drug abusers endocarditis valves involved? Tricuspid
45. Colon cancer having IE?? Organism?? Strep bovis
46. In rheumatic fever early death die to?? Myocarditis
47. RF which type of hypersensitivity ? Type 2
48. Atrial myxoma involves which site of heart? Left atrium
49.early lesion in rheumatic fever ?? MVP
50. Most frequent primary cardiac tumor on children? Rhabdomyosarcoma
51. Eosinophilia is seen in which vasculitis? Churg Strauss syndrome
52. Pulseless disease? Takayasu arteritis
53. Vasculitis associated with heavy smokers? Buergers disease ( thromboangitis obliterans )
54. Angiosarcoma associated with? chloride, thorium dioxide and arsenic
55. Benign painful , red blue tumor under finger Nails? Glomus tumor
56. Vitamin causing hyperglycemia ? Niacin
57. Torsa de pointes caused by drug??? Name 2 ?quinidine, sotalol and ibutilide
58. Adenosine action time? 15 secs
59. Name 2 important function of digoxin? Inhibition NaK atpase and vagus nerve stimulation
60. Which drugs decrease effect of bad cholesrterol ?? Statins
61. Dysphagia is caused by enlargement of which part of heart? left atrium
62. In JVP a wave shows? Atrial contraction
63. Carotid body responds to dec Po2 at which level ? <60 mmhg
64. Risk of ventricular rupture on which day of post MI??? 2 / 3-7/ 10/ 14??ans= 3-7 (in goljan )
5-10 days in ( first aid)
65. In rheumatic fever antibodies are formed against which protein?? M protein
66. Patient having prosthetic valve having IE ? Agent? Strep epidermidis
67. Cardiac cirrhosis caused by?? RHF/LHF?? Ans= RHF
68. Tree bark appearance ?? Syphilitic heart disease
69. Most common heart tumors?? Metastases
70. Print metal angina?? St elevation / depression?? Ans= St elevation
71. Dirotic notch in aortic pressure curve coincides with which heart sound? S2 heart sound
(second)
72. Structure with richest blood supply?? Carotid body
73. Artificial pacemaker is connected to which part of heart? Right ventricle
74. Aj J point of ECG what happens?? All part of ventricles are depolarized.
75. Principal source of energy to heart in healthy individual is ??? Free fatty acids
76. Myocardial infarction that damages the anterior interventricular septum and the apex ..
Which artery is occluded? Left anterior decending artery
77. Which parameter does the viscosity depends upon?? Hematocrit
78. During physical examination what diagnostic sign might be observed in the neck of a patient
with right heart failure? Elevated jugular venous pressure
79. What is meant by pulses parvus tardus? Pulses are weak, and the strongest part of the
peripheral pulse occurs late after the S1 is heard;
this is because it takes a long time for blood to cross the stenotic aortic valve to fill the vessels.
80. Which murmur is often cause by age related calcification? Aortic stenosis
81. What are the most dangerous sequelae or torsa de pointes? Ventricular fibrillation and death
82. Patient with wolf parkinson white syndrome have higher risk of which type of arrhythmia?
Supra ventricular tachycardia
83. An ECG shows no identifiable waves. What is the most likely diagnosis? Ventricular
fibrillation
84. How does neonates with tricuspid atresia remain viable given with severely compromised
circulation? Both ASD and VSD required
85. Six days after having myocardial infarction a patient presents with a new onset murmur ,
which type of murmur is this most likely? Holo systolic murmur of mitral regurgitation
86. Quinine causes symptoms of headache and tinnitus , which collectively called ? Cinchonism
87. Adverse effect of diazoxide? Hyperglycemia secondary to insulin release
88. Name the potentially fatal adverse effect of ibutilide? Torsades de pointes
89. Which ion is infused to treat torsades de pointed and digoxin toxicity? Magnesium
90. Name three toxocities of antiarrhythmatic drug adenosine? Flushing, hypotension and chest
pain
=-=-
=-=-=
KEYS
1.Normal GFR??100 ml/min
2. Renal plasma flow best estimated with? PAH
3. Clearance =? UV/P
4. Hartnup disease deficiency due to ----- and result in -----? Tryptophan and results in pallegra
5. Maximum reabsorption. Is seen in which part of nephron?? Proximal tubule
6. Name the channel on thick ascending loop of henle??? NaKCl
7. Transient action of angiotensin II? Vasoconstriction
8. Aldosterone primarily regulate ?? Volume / osmolarity?? Ans= Volume
9. Macula densa is the part of which tubule? Distal convoluted tubule
10. Potent stimulus for erythropoietin? Hypoxia
11. Renin is secreted by??? B1 effect / b2 effect / a1 effect a2 effect ?? Ans= b1
12. Parathyroid hormone secreted in response to??? Tell 3 points... Dec plasma ca, inc plasma
po4, dec 1,25(0H)
13. ANP is secreted in reposne to??? Inc ventricular pressure/ inc atrial pressure? Ans= inc atrial
pressure
14. Insulin causes ? Hypokalemia / hyperkalemia? Ans= hypokalemia
15. Digitalis block which enzyme?? Na/K ATPase pump
16. U wave on ECG???hypokalemka
17. Low level of magnesium causes ??? Neuromuscular irritability and arrhythmias
18. For every 1 mEq/L Hco3 how much PCO2 increases??? 0.7mmHg
19. Which type of Renal tubular acidosis associated with calcium containing kidney stone ??
1/2/3/4?? Ans= 1
20. Muddy brown cast??? acute tubular necrosis
21. Most common glomerolunephritis globally?? Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)
22. Alport syndrome --- mutation in which collagen??? Type 4 collagen
23. Wagener granulomatous associated with??? C anca / p anca ?? Ans= C anca
24. Apple green birefringes seen in??? Amyloidosis
25. Most common glomerular disease in HIV ? Focal segmental glomerulonephritis
26. Most common glummerular disease in children ?? Minimal change nephropathy
27. Composition of staghorn calculus ??? Ammonium magnesium phosphate
28. Ethylene glycol(antifreeze) or vit c abuse causes which crystal??? Oxalate
29. Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion feature of??? Diabetec glomerolunephritis
30. Radiolucent stone?? Cystine/ calcium/ uric acid??? Ans= uric acid
31. RCC associated with which syndrome??? And tell defect of chromosome number ?? VON
HIPPLE LINDAU... Chromosome 3
32. Secondary polycythemia??? RCC / wilms tumor/ transitional cell carcinoma ?? Ans= RCC
33. Painless hematuria??? Urethral cancer/ bladder cancer / Renal cancer ??? Ans= bladder
carcinoma
34. Most common renal malignancy in early childhood ??? Wilms tumor
35. Thyroidization of kidney involve which cast ?? Neutrophilic / esoniphilic / plasma cells ??
Ans=eosinophilic
36. Diffuse cortical necrosis associated with ??? Obstetric catastrophes and septic shock
34. Most common cause of acute renal failure ??? Acute tubular necrosis
35. ADPKD ? Autosomal recessive / autosomal dominant ??? Ans= Aut dominant
36. Tram track appearance seen in??? Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
37. Erythropoietin is formed by which part of kidney??? Peritubular capillaries
38. Name diuretic causes gout?? Loop diuretics
39. Diuretic drug of choice for hypercalciuria?? Loop / hydrochlorthoazide??
Hydrochlorthoazide
40. Most common intracellular buffer? Haemoglobin/ protien/ bicarbonate /phosphate??? Ans=
Protein
41. Which has highest protein content?? Plasma/HB/plasma protien/PO4??? Ans= Plasma
42. Which of the following has highest clearance? Inulin/PAH/glucose/Na?? Ans= PAH
43. Angiotensin 1 is converted to angiotensin 2 in? Lung capillary endothelium/ kidney / liver??
Ans= lung capillary
44. Which is absorbed passively from the renal tubules ? NH3/Cl/glucose ?? Ans= Cl
45. 65% Na absorption is in ?? Proximal tubule
46. Thirst is dec by? ADH/alcohol/agII?? Ans= ADH
47. Aldosterone escape caused by?? Renin/aldosterone/ANP?? Ans= ANP
48. Normal filtration fraction? 20% / 50% / 30%?? Ans= 20%
49. Charge barrier is lost in? Nephrotic / nephritic?? Ans= nephrotic
50. Ureter passes -----the uterine artery? Above/ under ??? Ans= under
51. Extra cellular volume is measured by? Inulin
52. Glomerular filtration barrier composed of ? 1. Fenestrated capillary endothelium 2. Fused
basement membrane with heparin sulphate 3. Epithelial layer insisting of podocty
53. Clearance>GFR shows?? Net tubular secretion
54. Renal plasma flow best estimates with? PAH
55. Important clinical clue to diabetes mellitus? Glycousuria
56. PTH increases ca reabsorption by which transporter? Ca/Na exchanger
57. Which part of nephron completely impermeable to water? Thick ascending loop of henle
58. 80 percent of Na is reabsorbed in ?? Early proximal tubule
59. NSAIDS can cause acute renal failure by inhibiting the renal production of ???
Prostaglandins
60. JG cells secretes renin in response to? Dec renal pressure, dec Na delivery and inc
sympathetic tone(b1)
61. Peaked T waves are seen in ?? Hyperkalemia
62. Tetany is caused by? Hypocalcemia
63. Name causes of normal anion gap? Diarrhea, glue sniffing , RTA
64. Which Renal tubular acidosis is hyperkalemic?? Type 4 RTA
65. Waxy casts in urine is due to?? Advanced renal disease/ CRF
66. Good pasture syndrome is which type type of hypersensitivity disease? Type II
67. Spike and dome appearance with subepithelial deposits? Membranous glumerulonephritis
68. Hexagonal kidney stone is seen in ? Cystiene
69. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to deletion in chromosome number? 3
70. Acute pyelonephritis affects which part of the kidney? Cortex sparing glomeruli
71. Why is the left kidney harvested for transplantation rather than the right? Because left kidney
hai longer renal vein
72. What are the effects of prostaglandins on the glomerulus ? Dialates the afferent arterioles and
inc GFR
73. How and where amino acids are reabsorbed in nephron? Amino acids are reabsorbed at level
of proximal convoluted tubule by sodium dependent transporters
74. What substance is secreted in early proximal tubule that acts as a buffer? Ammonia
75. Which three ions indirectly reabsorbed in thick ascending loop of henle ? Na K and Cl
76. On which segment of nephron does aldosterone act? Collecting tubule
77. What is the site of action of angiotensin converting enzyme ? Lungs
78. Which cells produce renin in the kidney? Juxtaglomerular cells
79. What is the primary electrolyte disturbance in metabolic acidosis. Serum bicarbonate
80. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of death of which
systemic disease? SLE
81. Name four clinical finding associated with nephritic syndrome? Azotemia, oliguria ,
hypertension and proteinuria .5g/day
82. Kidney stones are most commonly composed of what element? Calcium
83. Name the four components of WAGR complex? Wilms tumor, Aniridia, Genitourinary
malformation and mental motor Retardation
84. What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide? Carbonic anhydride inhibitor
85. Which loop diuretic is used for diuresis for patient allergens to sulfa drugs? Ethacrinic acid
86. What are the effects of hydrochlorthoazide toxicity? Hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia,
hyperurecemia, Dhypercalcemia
87. Mechanism of action of loop diuretic ? NaKCl transporter inhibitor
88. Mechanism of action of angiodema caused by ACE inhibitors? It prevents inactivation of
bradykinin which is potent vasodilator that's leads to angiodema
89. Name four clinical finding associated with nephrotic syndrome? Massive proteinuria
>3.5g/day, edema , fatty casts and hyperlipidemia
90. Name 3 causes of acute tubular necrosis? Renal ischemia , crush injuries and toxins
=-=-=-
Keys
1. Autoantibodies against hemodesmosome caused which disease? Bullous pemphigoid
2. Pudendal nerve block ?? Site?Ischial spine
3. Unhappy triad? Medial colateral ligament , anterior colateral ligament and lateral meniscus
4. Rotator cuff muscles??Supraspinatous, infraspinatous, Teres minor, subscapularis
5. Fall on outstretched hand may cause fracture of ?? scaphoid
6. Wrist drop is caused by injury of? radial
7. Root value injury of Erb Duchenne palsy?? C5-C6
8. Popes blessing sign Is seen in? ulnar
9. Winged scApula?? Muscle and nerve? Serratous anterior- long thoracic nerve
10. Fibula neck fracture ?? Nerve involved?? Common peroneal nerve
11. Fast twitch white fibres and dec mitochondria ... Which type of muscle ? Type 2 muscle
12. Cartilaginous model of bone is first made by which cells? Chondrocytes
13. Person can't jump climd stairs or can't rise from seated position?? Nerve involved? Inf gluteal
nerve (L5-S2)
14. Bone formed directly without cartilage? Woven bone
15. Advanced paternal age related disease? Achondroplasia
16. Erlenmeyer flask bone on X ray? osteopetrosis
17. Normal ca , phosphorus and PTH and inc ALP? Disease?? Disease Paget's disease
18. Vertebral crush fractures usually seen in ???? Osteoporosis
19. Double bubble appearance in ???osteosarcoma (giant cell tumor
20. Onion skin appearance in bone ?? Ewing sarcoma
21. Bouchard nodes involve which phalanges? PIP
22. Rheumatoid arthritis ? Type of reaction? type III
23. Baker cysts? Which side of knee? Behind the knee
24. Sjogren syndrome associated with which type of lymphoma? B Cell lymphoma
25. Crystals in Gout? Mono sodium urate crystals
26. Chromosomal translocation in Ewing sarcoma? 11;22
27. Infectious arthritis ?? Pathogens? s. Aureus , streptococcus , nisserria gonorrhea
28. Reiter syndrome ?? Triad? Conjunctivitis , urethritis, arthritis
29. SLE causes which type of endocarditis? Libman sac endocarditis
30. Non caseating granuloma with elevated serum ACE levels ? Disease ?? Sarcoidosis
31. Pencil in cup deformaty on x ray ? Which disease ? psoriatic arthritis
32. Drug induced lupus?? Antibodies? Anti histone antibodies
33. Schaumman and asteroid bodies??? Sarcoidosis
34. Giant cell arteritis associated with ? Polymyalgica rheumatica
35. Fibromyalgia seen in women of ?? Age range?? 30-50
36. Mechanic hands seen in?? Dermatomyositis
37. Antibodies seen in poly myositis ?? Anti jo antibodies
38. Most common neuromuscular junction disorder?? Myasthenia gravis
39. Crest syndrome involves?? Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon , esophageal dysmotility,
sclerodactyly, telangectasia
40. NMJ disorder associated with small lung cancer?? Name disorder?? Lambart eaton syndrome
41. Auspitz sign seen in?? Psoriasis
42. Allergic contact dermatitis ??? Type IV HSR
43. Mask of pregnancy??? Melasma
44. Honey colored crusting ??? Disease?? Impetigo
45. In scalded skin syndrome exotoxins destroyes which stratum ??? Stratum granulosum
46. In pemphigous vulgaris IGg formed against ?? Desmosomes
47. In Acanthosis nigricans there is hyperplasia of ??? stratum spongiosum
48. Lichen planus associated with which hep?? Hepatitis c
49. Keratin pearls is seen in??Squamous cell carcinoma
50. What is precursor of melanoma?? dysplastic navus
51. Febuxostat inhibits??? Xanthine oxidase
52. Antidote of acetaminophen?? N - acetylecystiene
53. PGI2 function? Platelet aggregation and promote vasodilation
54. Classic triad of sjogren syndrome? Xerophthalmia, xerostomia and arthritis
55. Eccrine gland secretes? Sweat
56. HLA-D4 associated disease?? RhUmatoid arthritis
57. Pseudo gout crystal?? Calcium pyro phosphate
58. Inflammatory bowel disease??Crohn, UC
59. Treatment of sarcoidosis?? Steroids
60. Precursor of squamous cell carcinoma?? Actinic keratosis
61. C7 root is usually compressed by? Cervical disc lesion
62. Name the nerve passes in Guyon canal? Ulnar nerve
63. How many tendons passed in carpel tunnel? 9 tendons
64. Saturday night palsy is caused by which nerve injury? Radial nerve
65. Sign in axillary nerve injury? Flattened deltoid
66. Which bone is called funny bone? Humerus
67. Klumpke's palsy is usually caused by? Cervical rib / pancoast tumor
68. Serratus anterior is supplied by which nerve and what is its root value? Long thoracic nerve
and C567
69. Name thenar muscle? Opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis
70. Sensory deficit in tibial nerve injury is seen in which part of lower limb? Sole of foot
71. Cause of injury of anterior hip dislocation? Obturator nerve
72. What is the source of osteoblast ? Mesenchymal stem cells in periosteum
73. Vit D deficiency in childhood causes ? Rickets
74. MacCune-Albright syndrome is a form of which disease? Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
75. Sunburst pattern on X-ray is seen in ?? Osteosarcoma
76. Heberden's nodes involves which phalanges ? DIP
77. Crystals in pseudo gout ?? Calcium pyro phosphate
78. Infarction of bone and marrow is called? Osteonecrosis
79. Fibromyalgia patients must have how many tender points? >11of 18 tender points
80. Hyper keratosis is due to increase thickness of which skin layer? Stratum corneum
=-=-
THORAX ANATOMY
1. Bones of thoracic wall consists of ??
2. Sternum is which type of ?
3. Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis ?
4. Common site or bone marrow biopsy????
5. Name false ribs????
6. Which part is weakest part of rib?
7. The cartilages of the 11 and 12 ribs end in the ??
8. Which type of movement is there in costrocondral joints??
9. The intercostal nerves and blood vessels run between???
10. Nerve supply of diaphragm ?
11. Which structure passes through aortic opening ?
12. Most important muscle of respiration?
13. Caval opening lies at the level of which vertebra?
14. Anterior intercostal veins drains into?
15. Anterior intercostal artery terminate in which intercostal space ?
16. Anterior intercostal artery terminates as?
17. Thymus is supplied by ?
18. Which intercostal nerve is involved in the formation of lower trunk of brachial plexus?
19. Which intercostal nerve supplies the armpit and upper medial side of arm?
20. In coronary artery disease pain refereed to medial side of arm due to?
21. Pericardium heart and roots of great blood vessels are present in which mediastinum?
22. Cricoid cartilage is at the level of which vertebra?
23. Length of trachea???
24. Trachea divides at the level of?
25. Posteriorly trachea contains?
26. Right bronchus before entering the hilum gives?
27. Foreign body tends to enter rt bronchus becoz?
28. Visceral pleura is sensitive to?
29. Left bronchus on entering he hil divides into?
30. What structure separates parietal pleura from thoracic wall?
31. How are lungs attached to mediastinum?
32. Name the lobes of rt lung ?
33. Functional unit of lung is ?
34. Shape of bronchi pulmonary segment?
35. Bronchial arteries are branches of?
36. All lymph nodes living hilum drains into?
37. Lung os supplied by which plexus?
38. Vertical diameter of thoracic cavity is increases by?
39. Quite expiration is which type of process?
40. Pericardium attached Anteriorly to the sternum by the ??
41. Pericardium supplied by which nerve ?
42. Apex of heart lies at the level of which intercostal space?
43. Skeleton of heart consists of?
KEYS
1. Bones of thoracic wall consists of ?? Sternum, the ribs , and the costal cartilage
2. Sternum is which type of ? Flat bone
3. Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis ? T4-5
4. Common site or bone marrow biopsy???? Body of sternum1. Bones of thoracic wall consists
of ?? Sternum, the ribs , and the costal cartilage
2. Sternum is which type of ? Flat bone
3. Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis ? T4-5
4. Common site or bone marrow biopsy???? Body of sternum
5. Name false ribs???? 8,9,10
6. Which part is weakest part of rib? Angle of rib
7. The cartilages of the 11 and 12 ribs end in the ?? Abdominal musculature
8. Which type of movement is there in costrocondral joints?? No movements
9. The intercostal nerves and blood vessels run between??? Internal and innermost intercostal
muscle
10. Nerve supply of diaphragm ? Phrenic nerve
11. Which structure passes through aortic opening ? Aorta , thoracic duct and Azygous vein
12. Most important muscle of respiration? Diaphragm
13. Caval opening lies at the level of which vertebra? T8
14. Anterior intercostal veins drains into? Internal thoracic veins
15. Anterior intercostal artery terminate in which intercostal space ? 6th intercostal space
16. Anterior intercostal artery terminates as? Sup epigastric artery and musculo phrenic artery
17. Thymus is supplied by ? Mediastinal artery of anterior intercostal artery , sup thyroid and inf
thyroid artery
18. Which intercostal nerve is involved in the formation of lower trunk of brachial plexus?
19. Which intercostal nerve supplies the armpit and upper medial side of arm? 2 intercostal nerve
20. In coronary artery disease pain refereed to medial side of arm due to? Intercostobrachial
nerve
21. Pericardium heart and roots of great blood vessels are present in which mediastinum? Middle
mediastinum
22. Cricoid cartilage is at the level of which vertebra?6 th cervical vertebra
23. Length of trachea??? 13cm
24. Trachea divides at the level of? T4-5
25. Posteriorly trachea contains? Esophagous and led recurrent laryngeal nerve
26. Right bronchus before entering the hilum gives? Superior lobar bronchus
27. Foreign body tends to enter rt bronchus becoz? Rt bronchus is wider and shorter
28. Visceral pleura is sensitive to? Stretch
29. Left bronchus on entering he hil divides into? Sup and infer lobar bronchus
30. What structure separates parietal pleura from thoracic wall? Endo thoracic fascia
31. How are lungs attached to mediastinum? By their roots
32. Name the lobes of rt lung ? Upper middle and lower
33. Functional unit of lung is ? Bronco pulmonary segments
34. Shape of bronchi pulmonary segment? Pyramidal
35. Bronchial arteries are branches of? Descending thoracic aorta
36. All lymph nodes living hilum drains into? Tracheobronchial nodes
37. Lung os supplied by which plexus? Pulmonary plexus
38. Vertical diameter of thoracic cavity is increases by? Contraction and descent of the
diaphragm
39. Quite expiration is which type of process? Passive process
40. Pericardium attached Anteriorly to the sternum by the ?? Sternopericardial ligaments
41. Pericardium supplied by which nerve ? Phrenic nerve
42. Apex of heart lies at the level of which intercostal space? 5th intercostal space
43. Skeleton of heart consists of? Fibrous rings
44. Superior vene cava has how many valves? No valve
45. Coronary sinus open into which chamber of heart? Right atrium
46. Greater part of anterior surface of heart is due to? Right ventricle
47. Name the cusps of tricuspid valves ? Anterior , septal and inferior
48. Right coronary artery arises from which sinus? Anterior aortic sinus
49. Pulmonary valve is best heard at? Medial end of 2nd left intercostal space
50. First heart sound is produced by? Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valve
51. The conducting system of heart is composed of which muscle? Modified cardiac muscle
52. Name the pacemaker of heart? Sinuatrial node
53. SA node usually supplied by? Rt coronary artery
54. AV node is located just above which cusp? Septal cusp of tricuspid valve
55. Right bundle branch is supplied by? Lt coronary artery
56. Only route for cardiac impulse to spread from atria to ventricle is? AV bundle
57. Which is the largest branch of rt coronary artery? Marginal branch
58. Lt coronary artery arises from? Left posterior aortic sinus of ascending aorta
59. Which branch if left coronary artery supplies the right and left ventricle ? Anterior
interventricular branch
60. Name the largest vein draining the heart? Coronary sinus
61. Coronary sinus is continuation of?? Great cardiac vein
62. Anterior cardiac vein drain into? Right atrium
63. Brachiocephalic vein is formed by? Union of right subclavian and the right internal jugular
vein
64. Azygous vein drain into which aspect of superior vene cava? Posterior aspect
65. Azygous vein usually formed by? Rt ascending lumbar and right sub costal vein
66. Ligamentum arteriosus is remains of? Ductus arteriosus
67. Intercostal nodes lies at which site of ribs? Head of ribs
68. Brachicephalic nodes drain lymph from ?? Thyroid and the pericardium
69. Thoracic duct begins at the abdomen as a dilated sac called? Cysterna chyli
70. Length of right lymphatic duct is ?? 0.05 inch (1.3cm)
71. The vagus nerves the abdomen through which opening? Esophageal opening
72. Phrenic nerves passes in----- of root of lungs? Front
73. Name the only motor nerve supplying the diaphragm ? Phrenic
74. The first thoracic ganglion fused with the inferior cervical ganglion is called? Stellate
ganglion
75. Middle third of esophagus is supplied by?? Branches of descending thoracic aorta
76. Upper end of esophagous is at level of? C6
77. Enlargement of which part of heart causes esophageal obstruction? Left artrium
78. Esophagogastric junction is at ?? T7
79. The carina is part of ? Trachea
80. Tracheostomy site for 6 years old Child is between ? 3-4 tracheal rings
81. Parietal and fibrous pericardium supplied by which nerve ? Phrenic nerve
82. Right border of the heart is mainly formed by? Right atrium
83. Which vein of heart is located in posterior interventricular sulcus?
Middle cardiac vein
84. 1st rib articulates with which vertebra? T1
85. The longest fives of diaphragm arise from which costal cartilage? 9th constable cartilage
86. The phrenic nerve is separated by inferior vene cava by? Fibrous pericardium
87. Posterior surface of base of heart is entirely formed by? Left atrium
88. SA node is which shaped? Crescent
89. Fallots tetralogy is due to unequal division of?truncus arteriosus
90. Lung contain how much bronchi pulmonary segments? 10 segments
91. Body of sternum is also called ? Gladiolus
92. Apex of heart is formed by? Left ventricle
93. Most anterior structure in thoracic inlet is ? Sternohyoid
94. J receptors are present in??? Alveolar interistitium
95. Thoracic duct also called ? Pecquet duct
96. Best guide of inter segmental planes is? Veins draining the segment
97. Sympathetic supply of heart is from ? T1-T5
98. Strongest part of parietal pleura is ?? Costal part
99. Lungs are supplied by? Bronchial arteries
100. Lingula is part of which lobe? Left upper lobe
101. Coronary arteries arises from which aorta? Ascending aorta
102. The largest group of axillary nodes is? Apical
103. Most common site for myocardial infarction is?? Lateral wall of left ventricle
104. Phrenic nerve is which type of nerve? Mixed type
105. Which nerve segment is commonly injured ?? T1
106. Female has which type of respiration? Thoracic type
107. Left bundle branch supplied by? Right coronary artery
108. Complete ossification of body if sternum occurs at? 21 years
109. Pleural pain referred to shoulder by which nerve segment? C345
110. Pretrachial fascia infections spread to? Anterior mediastinum
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1. Professional APCs??
2. Clock face chromatin distribution seen in?
3. CD stand for ?
4. Universal recipient ??
5. Majority of circulating lymphocytes are??
6. Vit K def---- dec synthesis of???
7. Dec ESR? Causes
8. Clopidogrel and tiopidine blocks?
9. Basophils stippling seen in?
10. Oval cells are seen in?
11. In asplenia what bodies are found?
12. Iron def anemia manifests to which syndrome?
13. HBH genes --- deletion of how many genes?
14. Beta thalassemia is due to which type of mutation ?
15. Lead inhibits??
16. Treatment of lead poisoning in kids??
17. Inc homocysteine but normal methylmalonic acid and hypersegmented neutros ??
18. Finding in intravascular hemolysis?
19. Pancytopenia ? Feature?
20. Cause of aplastic anemia ?
21. Hemolytic anemia following oxidative stress ?
22. PNH impaired synthesis of which gene?
23. Sickle cell anemia point mutation of which amino acid?
24. Osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia?? Agent?
25, erythroblastosis fetalis is due to which immunoglobulin?
26. Common cause of macroangiopathic anemia is ??
27. CLL is associated with which autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
28. Treatment of sickle cell anemia?
29. Tea colored urine is seen in which condition?
30. Glanzman thrombosthenia Defect in?
31. Hemophilia defect in which coagulation pathway?
32. TTP --- deficiency of?
33. Causes of DIC?
34. Most common cause of inherited hypercoagubility?
35. Inc risk of thrombotic skin necrosis with hemorrhage following administration of warfarin ?
What is the deficiency ?
36. In DIC what blood component should we give?
35. Cryoprecipitate contain???
36. Hodgkin lymphoma has which characteristic cells ?
37. Inc WBC count with left shift and inc leukocyte alkaline phosphatase? What is this reaction?
38. Which Hodgkin lymphoma has excellent prognosis?
39. Starry sky appearance scene on which lymphoma?
40. Most malignant gammopathy???
41. t(11;14) associated with which lymphoma ?
41. Waldenstrms macroglobulinemia is associated with with which IG?
42. CLL differs from SLL in having ??
43. Philadelphia chromosome is seen in?
44. Vitamin is given as treatment of which malignancy?
45. Name the chromosome translocation which is responsive to vitamin A ?
46. Birbeck granules seen in ?
47. Teardrop cell seen in?
48. In polycythemia Vera which type of mutation seen ?
49. Inappropriate absolute polycythemia is associated with which disease?
50. Patient on heparin what we have to follow?
52. Warfarin toxicity is corrected by?
53. Methotrexate toxicity is reversible by which drug?
54. Drug used for childhood tumors ?
55. Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by?
56. Drug used in breast cancer and is an endometrial antagonist ??
57. Name the drug used in treatment of cml?
58. Name the drug used is glioblastoma multiforme ?
59. Side effects of cisplatin and Carboplatin??
60. Paclitaxel hyper stabilize polymerized microtubles in which phase ?
61. Thrombolytic toxicity is treated with ?
62. A patient on warfarin what will be his follow up?
63. Histocytosis expresses which CD?
64. Burkitt lymphoma is due to activation of which activation ?? And mention it's translocation?
65. Most common gammopathy?
66. Burkitt lymphoma is endemic form in Africa have which lesion?
67. Most common adult NHL?
68. Reed stern Berg cells are which CD+???
69. Constitutional signs and symptoms? Hodgkin/ non Hodgkin lymphoma
70. Defect in platelet plug formation ---- increase what parameter?
71. Treatment of hereditary Spehrocytosis ?
72. Name the tapeworm causing b12 deficiency ?
73. Chipmunk facies are seen in ??
74. Cooleys anemia???
75. Heinz bodies seen in?
76. Helmet cells seen in?
77. Delta granules of platelets secrete?
78. Factor VIII is produced by?
79. Multiple myeloma is a neoplasm of whic cell ?
80. Mast cell stabilizer ?
81. APC cells perform their function via?
82. Universal donor?
83. B blood group person what have on Rbc surface and what in plasma?
84. Master of iron regulatory hormone ?
85. Most common cause of anemia in malignancy?
86. Alcohol is toxic to which organelle ?
87. Form of glutamate for synthesis for folic acid is absorbed in jejunum ??
88. Thymidylate synthase irreversible inhibited by ???
89. Most common cause of vit B 12 def?
90. Most common cause of macrocytosis??
91. Car scratch disease ? Agent
92. Smudge cells are seen in ?
93. Blood antibodies are natural antibodies synthesize in ---- after birth?
94. Burr cells seen in??
95. Sickle cell disease is protective against which disease?
96. Job syndrome is associated with inc of which IG?
97. Dec LAP score is seen in which blood malignancy ?
98. Numerous auer rod cells are seen in ?
99. Painless lymphadenopathy occur almost in all leukemia except?
100. Hereditary spherocytosis is which type of Mendelian disorder?
101. Most sensitive blood cells to radiation exposure are?
102. Gum infiltration is seen in which leukemia?
103. Protozoa causing eosinophilia ???
104. Free vit B12 binds to R binder which is synthesized in ?
105. Only leukemia with thromocytosis?
106. Most common cause of pyridoxine def?
107. Marker for folate or vit b12 def?
108. Aplastic crisis is due to which agent?
109. Heterophile antibodies are which Ig antibodies ?
110. Cns and testicle involvement ? Which malignancy ?
111. Common causes of death in multiple myeloma?
112. Most common cause of qualitative platelet defect?
113. Most sensitive screen for DIC?
114. Most common pathogen transmitted by transfusion ??
115. If factor IX is not available , what is next best choice ?
116. DIC is stimulated by ?
117. Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge at ??
118. Bence jones proteins are derivatives from ?
119. Splenic infarction commonly occurs in ?
120. AIHA is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
121. Iron is stored in the form of ?
122. Best indicator of iron stores is?
123. HB binds with ---- In blood?
124. t(11;22) translocation???
125. Cell surface marks of macrophage ?
KEYS
1. Dendritic cell
2. Plasma cells
3. Cluster of differentiation
4. AB
5. T cells
6. 2,7,9,10 protein c and s
7. Causes? Polycythemia , sickle cell anemia , CCF,
8. ADP Receptor
9. Thalassemia, iron def, lead poisoning , ACD
10. Megaloblastic anemia
11. Howell jolly bodies
12. Plummer Vinson syndrome
13. 3 gene deletion
14. Point mutation
15. Ferrochelatase + ALA dehydratase
16. Succimer
17. Megaloblastic due to folate deficiency
18. Dec haptoglobin, inc LDH, hemoglobinuria
19. Severe anemia, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia
20. Failure or destruction of myeloid stem
21. G6PD def
22. mutant PIGA gene
23. L Glutamic aid with valine
24. Salmonella paratyphi
25, IgG
26. Prosthetic heart valves
27. Cold agglutinin (IGM)
28. Hydroxy urea and BMT
29. Porphyria cutanea tarda
30. GP IIb/IIIa
31. Intrinsic pathway
32. ADAMTS 13
33. Sepsis, trauma, obstetric complication, malignancy
34. Factor V ladien disease
35. Protein c and s
36. FFP
35. Factor VIII and factor XIII
36. Reed-Sternberg cells
37. Leukemoid reaction
38. Lymphocyte predominant
39. Burkitts lymphoma
40. Multiple myeloma
41. Mantle cell lymphoma
41. IGM
42. ? inc peripheral blood lymphocytesis
43. CML
44. AML
45. t(15:17)
46. Histiocytosis X
47. Myelofibrosia
48. JAK2 mutation
49. RCC , wilms tumor
50. APTT
52. vit k and FFP
53. leucovorin
54. Dactynomycin
55. Cyclophosphamide
56. Raloxifene
57. Imatinib mesylate
58. Nitrosourase
59. Nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage
60. M PHASE
61. Aminocaproic acid
62. PT, APTT, INR
63. CD1
64. t(8;14) c myc activation
65. Monoclonal gammopathy of undermined significance
66. Jaw lesion
67. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
68. CD15+ And CD 30+
69. Hodgkin lymphoma
70. Bleeding time
71. Splenectomy
72. Diphylobothrium latum
73. Beta thalassemia major
74. Thalassemia major
75. G6PD
76. DIC,TTP HUS, traumatic hemolysis
77. Serotonin, ADP, Ca (SAC)
78. endothelial cell
79. Plasma cell
80. Coromonyl sodium
81. MHC II
82. O
83. Antigen on Rbc surface and A antibody in serum
84. Hepcidin
85. ? ACD
86. Mitochondria
87. Monoglutamate
88. 5 florouracil
89. Pernicious anemia
90. Alcohol access
91. -- Bartonela henslae
92. CLL
93. Payer patches
94. CRF ( dec EPO)
95. Plasmodium falciparum
96. IgE
97. CML
98. Acute premyeolitic leukoemia ----M3
99. Hairy cell leukemia .
100. Autosomal dominant
101. Lymphocyte
102. Acute monocytic leukemia
103. Dientamoeba fragilis
104. Salivary glands
105. CML
106. INH
107. Hypersegmented neutrophils
108. Parvo virus
109. IGM
110. ALL
111. Sepsis and renal failure
112. Aspirin
113. D dimer
114. CMV
115. FFP
116. Thromboplastin
117. Activator X
118. Gamma globulins
119. CML
120. Type 2
121. ferritin
122. Serum ferritin
123. Haptoglobin
124. Ewing sarcoma
125. CD14
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KEYS
1. Astrocyte marker ? GFAP
2. Micro glia origin? Mesoderm
3. Free nerve endings sense?? Pain and temperature
4. Invests single nerve fibre? Endoneuroum
5. Norepinephrine ---location os synthesis??? Locus ceruleus
6. Circadian rhythm nucleus ?? Supra chiasmatic
7. Trigeminal and gustatory pathway relay by which thalamic nucleus?? VPL
8. Destruction of which centre causes hyperphaiga? Ventromedial
9. Input nerves in cerebellum? Climbing and mossy fibres
10. Name deepest nuclei of cerebellum? Lateral to medial? Dentate, emboli form, globos ,
festigial
11. Striatum? Putamen+ caudate
12. Direct pathway has ? D1/D2?? Ans=D1
13. Cogwheel rigidity seen in? Parkisnson disease
14. Chorea is characteristic of ?? Basala ganglia
15. Essential tremors are treated by? B- blockers
16. Hemiballismus characteristic of which lesion? Sub thalamus
17. KLver bucy syndrome? Area of lesion and features? Amygdala------ hyperorality
Hyperphaiga and hyper sexuality
18. Wernickie kosrakoff syndrome involves which thalamic nucleus? Dosro medial nucleus
19. Frontal eyes field lesion?? Eyes look toward / away? Ans= Towards lesion
20. Acute paralysis , dysarthria , Diplopia, and loss of consciousness ?? Disease and common
cause? Central pontine myelenosis------ due to very rapid correction of hyponatremia
21. Non fluent aphasia with intact comprehension? Area involved? Broca area
22. ------ connects broca with wornicke areas? Arcuate fasciculus
23. Cerebral perfusion is normally driven by? PCO2
24. Common site of berry aneurysm with CNIII palsy? Posterior communicating artery
25. Contralateral Hemiperesis , dec contralateral proprioreception and ipsilateral hypoglosal
dysfunction?? Cause?? Anterior spinal artery
26. Charcoat Bouchard microaneurysms associated with? Chronic HTN
27. CT shows bi convex disk not crossing suture line??? What hemorrhage is this ? Epidural
hemorrhage
28. Hemorrhage most commonly caused by systemic HTN ? Intraparynchymal hemorrhage
29. In ischemic brain disease ??? Irreversible damage occurs after how much time? > 5 minutes
30. Brief reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction lasting fewer than 24 hours ?? Transient
ischemic attack
31. CSF is made by-----? And reabsorbed by -----? Choroid plexus----- arachnoid granulation
32. Clinical triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus? Dementia , ataxia and urinary incontience
33. Nerves C1-C7 exist via ??? Intervertebral foramina
34. Subarachnoid space extends to? Lower border of S2
35. 1st order neuron of spinothalamic tract are in? Cell body in the dorsal root ganglion
36. Dorsal column decussates in ? Medulla
37. Poliomyelitis cause destruction of what part on spinal cord? Ant horn of spinal cord
38. Floppy baby at Birth? Disease? Werding Hoffman disease
39. Treatment for Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ? Riluzole
40. Ipsilateral UMN sign below lesion, ipsilateral loss of tactile , vibration below lesion and
contralateral pain temperature loss below lesion? Disease?? Brown Sequard syndrome
41. Dermatome at nipple? T4
42. Movement of head toward one side if cheek or mouth is stroked ? Name reflex?? Rooting
reflex
43. Inferior collilculi associated with?? Auditory
44. Pineal gland secretes? Melatonin
45. Eye movement , pupillary constriction and accommodation is function of which CN? III CN
46. Cranial nerve nuclei located in which portion of brain? Tegmentum
47. Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx and upper esophagus ? Nucleus involves? Nucleus
ambiguous
48. Foramen ovale contains which nerve?? Mandibular nerve
49. Hearing and balance controlled by which nerve? VIII CN
50. Structure passing through jugular foramen ?? IX X XI Jugular vein
51. Cavernous sinus syndrome?? Feature? Ophthalmoplegia , ophthalmic and maxillary sensory
loss
52. CNX lesion? Uvula deviates ---- from side of lesion ? Away
53. Bell's palsy involve which nerve? Facial nerve proper
54. 3 muscles closes jaw... Name them? Masseter , teMporalis and medial pterygoid
55. Epinephrine contraindicated in which glaucoma? Close angle glaucoma
56. Patient problem going downstairs ?? Nerve injured? CN IV
57. Silent painless glaucoma ? Open angle glaucoma
58. Right optic tract lesion causes?? Lt homononous hemianopia
59. Alzheimer's disease most commonly associated with? Down syndrome
60. Parkinsonism with dementia?? Lewy body dementia
61. Charcoat classic triad of MS??? Scanning speech , intentional termites , nystagmus
62. Gold standard investigation for MS? MRI
63. In GBS what step is most critical for treatment and survival? Respiratory support
64. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is commonly due to which deficiency? Arysulfate A def
65. Drug of choice for absence seizures? Ethosuxemide
66. Partial seizures most commonly originate due to which lobe ?? Medial temporal lobe
67. Headache most commonly due to irritation of?? Dura matter
68. Worst headache of my life??? SAH
69. Port wine stains are seen in ? Sturge weber syndrome
70. Cafe -au- lait spots and lisch nodules seen in which disease? NF1 (Von ricklenghausan
disease)
71. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to defect in which chromosome? Chromosome 3
72. Majority of childhood primary tumors are ?? Supra/ infra tentorial??? Ans=Infra tentorial
73. Fried eggs seen in which brain tumor? Oligodendrocyte
74. Psamomma bodies seen in which brain Tumor?? Meningeoma
75. Basal ciliary bodies seen in?Ependymoma
76. Herniation can compress which cerebral artery?? Anterior cerebral artery
77. Most common cause of ring enhancing lesion? Mutation
78. Browning of iris is side effect of which drug? Latanoprosate
79. opoid toxicity is treated with? Naloxone/naltrexone
80. Maintenance programme for opoid addicts done by? Methadone
81.1st line drug for trigeminal neurolgia? Carbamazepine
82. 1st line drug for eclampsia? Mgso4
83. Gingival hyperplasia side effect of which epileptic drug? Phenytoin
84. Barbiturates facilitate GABA A action by ???? Inc duration of Cl channel
85. Benzodiazepine toxicity treated by? Flumazinil
86. Which inhaled anesthetic is hepatotoxic? Halothane
87. Most common drug used for endoscopy? Midazolam
88. Drug used for rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures? Propofol
89. Local anesthetic causing severe cardiovascular toxicity? Bupvicaine
90. Drug used in malignant hyperthermia? Dantrolene
91. Parkinson disease is due to loss of ----neurons?? Dopaminergic neuron
92. Anti parkinson drug also used against influenza A ?? Amantadine
93. Selegiline selectively inhibits ?? MAO-B
94. Sumatriptan contraindicated with? CAD/ prinzmetal angina
95. Haloperidol is antagonist of which receptor? Dopamine receptor
96. Cough suppressor opoid? Dextromethorphan
97. Brain tumor causing polycythemia ?? Hemangioastoma
98. Most common childhood supratentorial tumor? Craniophayngioma
99. 3rd most common primary brain tumor in adult?? Schwannoma
100. Butterfly glioma seen in?? Glioblastoma multiforme
101. Muscle which opens the jaw? Lateral pterygoid
102. What is the test used for CN XI injury? Syrengiomyelia
103. Contralateral paralysis of lower face only?? Which type of lesion os it? UMN lesion
104 Nissle substance are not present in? Axon
105. Taste sensation from posterior 1/3 rd of tongue is carried by which nerve ? IX CN
106. Perinaud syndrome causes paralysis of which gaze?? Conjugate vertical gaze
107. Patellar reflex root value? L3-L4
108. Fredreich ataxia has repeat disorder of which gene ? GAA( fraxatin gene)
109. Tabes dorsalis is consequence of ?? Tertiary syphillis
110. In syringomyelia what is damaged ? Ant white commissure of spinothalamic tract
111. Adult spinal cord extends upto??? Lower border of L2
112. Lateral ventricles connects with 3 ventricle through? Foramina monrro
113. Hemorrhagic stroke is often due to ?? HTN, anti coagulation and cancer
114. Shaken baby cAn lead to which intracranial hemorrhage? Sub dural hemorrhage
115. Sub arachnoid hemorrhage treated with? Nimodipine
116. Nucleus ambiguous effects are specific to which artery stroke? PICA
117. Wernickie area is in which gyrus? Sup temporal gyrus
118. Slow writhling movements specially of fingers ??? Atethosis
119. Lewy bodies composed of? Alpha- synnyclein
120. Neurophysis secretes ?? ADH and OXYTOCIN
121. Ach location of synthesis ? Basal nuclei of mynart
122. Paccinian corpuscles senses? Vibration and pressure
123. Glassopharyngeal nerve motor supply to which muscle ? Stylopharyngeus
124. Pseudoptosis seen in which nerve injury ? 6CN abducent
125. Hypoglosal nerve supply all muscle of tongue except ? Palatoglossus
126. Clarke nucleus are found in which spinal cord tract ? Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
127. Largest nucleus of midbrain ? Substantia nigra
128. Excitatory transmitter in cerebellum? Glutamate
129. Pupillary light reflex centre ?? Pretectal nucleus
130. Most common cns complication after sarcoidosis ?? Facial nerve paralysis
131. Nucleus interposed name of which nuclei? Globos and emboliform
132. In Wilson disease , which part of basal ganglion is suffered ? Putamen
133. Marcus gunn pupil diagnosis made by? Swinging flash light
134. Searching movements involved which eye field ? Searching --- frontal eye field
Tracking ------ occipital eye field
135. Which thalamic nuclei are involved in arousal?midline/ intralaminar
136. Epithalamus consist of ? Pineal body and habenular nuclei
137. Pinealocytes synthesizes ? Name 3 substance ?Melatonin, serotonin and CCK ref kaplan(
453)
138. Cells of betz are present in which cortex? Primary motor cortex
139. Lesion of prefrontal lobe produces which syndrome? Frontol lobe syndrome
140. Hippocampus is characterized by how many layers ? 3 layers
=-=-=-
=-=-=
=-=-=
Keys
1. Mammary gland are specialized accessory gland of?? Skin
2. Nipples are surrounded by colored skin called? Areola
3. Increase of breast size is mainly results due to? Deposition of adipose tissue?
4. Lateral thoracic artery and thoracoacromial artery is branch of? Axillary artery
5. Medial quadrant of breasts drain into ? Internal thoracic nodes
6. Name bones of the shoulder girdle? Clavicle and scapula
7. What is the weakest part of clavicle? Junction between the medial 2/3 and lateral 1/3
8. Which part of humerus usually fractured? Surgical neck
9. Capitulum articulates with? Head of radius
10. Most commonly fractured bone of body os ? Clavicle
11. How many carpel bones are there? Eight carpel bones
12. Which nerve is compresses in carpel tunnel symdrome? Median nerve
13. Medial colateral ligament is closely related with? Ulnar nerve
14. Elbow is which type of joint? Hinge joint
15. The carrying angle in females is? 167 degree
16. Wrist is which type of joint? Synovial condyloid joint
17. Axilla is which shaped? Pyramidal
18. Latissimus dorsi is supplied by which nerve? Thoracodorsal nerve
19. Deltoid is supplied by? Axillary nerve
20. Name the muscles of rotator cuff? Subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus and the teres
minor
21. Quadrangular area is bounded medially by? Long head of tricep
22. Which nerve passes through quadrangular area?? Axillary nerve
23. Cubital fossa medial border formed by? Pronater teres
24. Brachialis muscle nerve supply is? Musculoskeletal nerve
25. Interrosi muscles are supplied by? Ulnar nerve
26. In the palm deep fascia is thickened and is called? Palmar aponeurosis
27. Brachioradialia muscle is supplied by which nerve? Radial nerve
28. Which artery begins at the level of first rib? Axillary artery
29. Which muscle divides tha axillary artery into 3 parts? Pectoralis minor
30. 3rd part of axillary artery gives how many branches? 3 branches
31. Name the branch of first part of axillary artery? Highest thoracic artery
32. Brachial artery begins at? Lower border of teres major muscle
33. Which nerves crosses the middle of brachial artery? Median nerve
34. Deep palmar arch is formed by which artery? Radial artery
35. Thoracoacromial artery is branch of ??? Second part of axillary artery
36. The ulnar artery enters the palm from which side of flexor retinaculum ? From the front
37. Pectolaris major is supplied by whoch artery? Thoracoaromial artey
38. Basilic vein arises from which side of arm? Medial side
39. Which vein connects cephalic with basilic vein? Median cubital vein
40. Which nodes recieve lymph from superficial vessels of lateral side of hand,arm , forearm ???
Infraclavicular nodes
41. Which nodes recieve lymph from most of upper limb except lateral side? Lateral nodes
42. Which lymph node recieve lymph from medial fingers, medial part of hand and the medial
side of forearm?? Supratrochlear lymph node
43. Musculocutaneous nerve arises from which cord of brachial plexus? Lateral cord
44. Root valcue of median nerve? C5,6,7,8 and T1
45. Root value of ulnar nerve? C8 T1
46. Root value of axillary nerve? C5 and C6
47. Winged scapula is caused by damage of which nerve? Long thoracic nerve
48. Wrist drop is caused by which nerve injury? Radial nerve injury
49. Claw hand is caused by which nerve injury? Ulnar nerve
50. The extensor indicis muscle is innervated by? Deep branch of ulnar nerve
51. Spinal part of accessory nerve supplies? Sternocleidomastoid and trapiuz muscle
52. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused hy compression of which nerve? Median nerve
53. Sweat gland of upper limb are innervated by? Sympatheic postganglionic nerve fibres
54. Which muscle is mainly responsible for first 15 degree of abduction by shoulder joint ?
Supraspinatus muscle
55. Muscle that will compensate in part of paralysis of the supinator muscle is the bicep brachii
muscle
=-=-=
Keys
1. Word pelvis means?? Basin
2. Bony pelvis is composed of how many bones? 4 bones ... Two hip, sacrum and coccyx
3. Below the brim is which pelvis? True or false pelvis?? True pelvis
4. Pelvic inlet bounded Posteriorly by? Sacral promontoryy
5. During pregnancy the ligament of pelvis are relaxed by which hormones? Estrogen,
progesterone and relaxin
6. Pelvis is which shaped in males? Heart shaped
7. The distance between Ischial tuberosities measure about? 4 inch
8. Anterior pelvic wall is formed by? Pubic bones , pubic rami and symphysis pubis
9. Obturator canal is a gap in? Obturator membrane
10. Sacro spinous ligament is which shaped ? Triangular
11. Pelvic floor is formed by? Pelvic diaphragm
12. The pelvic diaphragm is incomplete on which side? Anteriorly
13. Which fascia is called parametrium in females? Visceral pelvic fascia
14. Sacral plexus lies on posterior pelvic wall in front of which muscle? Piriformis muscle
15. Root value of sciatic nerve? L4-5, S123
16. Gluteus medius muscle supplied by? Superior gluteal nerve
17. Root value of pudendal nerve? S 2,3 and 4
18. Gluteus Maximus is supplied by? Inferior gluteal nerve
19. Obturator nerve emerges from which border of psoas muscle? Medial border
20. Parietal peritonium on the lateral pelvic wall? Obturator nerve
21. Pelvic splanchnic nerves arises from S2,3 and 4
22. Superior hypo gastric plexus is situated in? Front of promontory of the sacrum
23. Common iliac artery divides to external and internal at which point? In front of sacroiliac
joint
24. Deep circumflex iliac artery is branch of? External iliac artery
25. Upper portion of bladder is supplied by? Superior vesical artery
26. Artery to vas deferens arises from? Inferior vesical artery
27. Obturator artery leaves the pelvis through? Obturator canal
28. Internal pudendal artery leaves the pelvis through? Greater sciatic foramen
29. Name the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery? Ilio lumber artery , lateral
sacral arteries and superior gluteal artery
30. Direct communication of the inferior mesenteric artery is? Superior rectal artery
31. Ovarian artery arises from abdominal aorta at the level of? First lumbar vertebra
32. Median sacral artery arises at? Bifurcation of aorta
33. External iliac vein is continuation of? Femoral vein
34. The left ovarian vein drains into? Left renal vein
35. Length of sigmoid colon is? 10-15 inches
36. Sigmoid colon is attached to pelvic wall by? Sigmoid mesocolol
37. Rectum begins in front of which sacrum? 3rd sacral vertebra
38. The lower part of rectum is dialated to form ?? Rectal ampulla
39. In male ureters near termination is crossed by? Vas deferens
40. Ureter has how many constrictions? 3 constrictions
41. Urinary bladder has maximum capacity of approximately? 500 ml
42. Empty bladder is which shaped? Pyramidal
43. Apex of bladder connects with? Median umbilical ligament
44. The neck of bladder point on which side? Inferiorly
45. Internal surface of bladder is called ? Trigone
46. The muscular coat of bladder is which muscle ? Detrussor muscle
47. In male neck of bladder Is held in position by which ligament? Puboprostatic ligament
48. Lymph drians from bladder in?? Internal and external lymph nodes
49. In females neck of bladder is attached by which ligament? Pubovesical ligament
50. Approximate length of vas deferens is ? 45cm
51. Vas deferens joins the duct of seminal vesicle to form? Ejaculatory duct
52. Ejaculatory duct open in which part of urethra? Prostatic part
53. Prostate surround which part of urethra? Prostatic part
54. Lymph drainage of prostate is into? Internal iliac nodes
55. Which plexus supplies the prostate? Inferior hypogastric plexus
56. Ovary is attached to the back of ye broad ligament by? Mesovarium
57. Ovary is covered by modified area of peritonium called? Germinal epithelium
58. Ovary usually lies near the lateral wall of pelvis in a depression called? Ovarian fossa
59. Which ligament of the uterus is the remains of the lower part of Gubernaculum? Round
ligament
60. Lymph drainage of ovary is in? Para aortic nodes
61. After pregnancy ovaries may prolapse into? Pouch of Douglas
62. Which is the narrowest part of the tube? Isthmus
63. Widest part of the uterine tube is? Ampulla
64. The cavity of cervix communicates with the cavity of the body through the? Internal os
65. Forward bending of the uterus on the long axis of vagina? Antiversion
66. Ligament that attaches the cervix to pubic bones? Pubicervical ligaments
67. Lymph from fundus drains into? Para aortic nodes
68. Lower third of the vagina is supported by? Perineal body
69. Vaginal artery is branch of? Internal iliac artery
70. Which plexus supplied the vagina? Inferior hypogastric plexus
71. The pelvic fascia in the region of the uterine cervix is often called? Parametrium
72. Most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity is the? Rectouterine pouch
73. The anterior triangle which contains the urogenital orifices is called? Urogenital triangle
74. The potential space that lies beneath the skin of the perinium is? Superficial perineal pouch
75. In males the superficial perineal pouch contains? Root of penis
76. At the distal end of penis corpus spongiosum expands to form? Glans penis
77. The bulb of penis is continuos Anteriorly with the? Corpus spongiosum
78. The lymph of glans penis drains into? Deep and external iliac nodes
79. Penis is supplied by which nerve? Pudendal nerve
80. Erectile tissue drains into? Internal iliac nodes
81. The ducts of bulborethral glands open into which urethra? Penile urethra
82. Male urethra is divided in which parts? Prostatic, membranous and penile urethra
83. Widest part of urethra is? Prostatic urethra
84. Which is the narrowest part of urethra? External meatus
85. Name the contents of vestibule of the vagina? Clitoris, opening of urethra , vagina
86. Shortest part of urethra is? Membranous urethra
87. The cries of clitoris are covered by? Ischiocavornosus muscles
88. The length of female urethra is? 1.5 inche
89. Upper half of the anal canal is supplied by? Superior rectal artery
90. The lower half of the anal canal is drained into ? Medial group if superficial inguinal nodes
91. Pudendal nerve and the internal pudendal nerves lie in which canal? Pudendal canal
92. The inferior rectal artery originates from the? Internal pudendal artery
93. Then Obturator internus muscle recieved it's nerve supply from? Sacral plexus
94. The sphincter urethrae recieved it's innervation from the? Pudendal nerve
95. The prostatic venous plexus drains into the? Internal iliac veins
96. In most women the Anatomic position of the uterus when bladder empty is? Anteverted and
antiflexed
97. Erections is the response of the activity of the? Parasympathetic nerve
98. Cancer of prostate can metastasize to the skull via the? Vertebral venous plexus
99. Malignant tumors of the trigone of the bladder metastasize to which of the following lymph
nodes? External and internal iliac
100. The internal Anal sphincter recieves it's nerve supply from the? Hypogastric plexuses
101. Right testicular vein drains into? Inferior vena cava
102. Patient feels pain on defection. Nerve involved is? Inferior rectal nerve
103. When the bulbar urethra is injured, urine will leak into? Superficial perineal pouch
104. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a boy? Posterior urethral valve
105. Cervical carcinoma is drained by which lymph node? Both internal and external iliac
106. Tumor of cervix will spread to labius majora via? Round ligament of uterus
107. Ejaculatory duct opens into? Prostatic urethra
108. Carcinoma of prostate drains into? Internal iliac nodes
109. During childbirth, a major bony landmark used for childbirth is the? Ischial spine
110. Female pelvis is also called? Gynecoid
111. What is the landmark for biscop scoring? Ischial spine
112. Weight bearing line passes through? Ischial tuberosity
113. The branch of internal carotid artery which remains in true pelvis throughout its course is?
Middle rectal artery
114. The accessory Obturator artery is a branch of? Inferior epigastric artery
115. To reach the uterus, uterine artery crosses the? Ureter
116. Scrotum drains to which lymph nodes? Superficial inguinal node
117. Ductus deferens end in? Ejaculatory duct
118. Dorsal vein of penis drains into which plexus? Santorini's plexus
119. The most fixed part of uterus is? Cervix
120. The only part of vagina to have peritoneal covering is? Posterior fornix
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