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INTRODUCTION TO DATA INTERPRETATION

Data, represented in various forms, is something that a manager has to constantly work with. Hence, it is very rare
to find any managem ententrance exam that does not emphasise the area of Data Interpretation. Data Interpretation
(DI) is an integral part of the CAT exam and has always carried considerable weightage in terms of the number of
questions asked.
(A) Number of questions asked in this area over the previous few years:
TABLE (I) gives an illustration of the number of questions asked from this area over the past four years.

TABLE (I)
Year Number of questions Marks

26 (Section A) Sec-A: each question of 1 mark

2004 (Nov)
12 (Section B) Sec-B: each question of 2 marks

(Retest) 31 Each question of 1 mark

2003
(Nov) 30 Each question of 1 mark

2002 32 Each question of 1 mark

2001 23 Each question of 1 mark

(B) Break up of the types of DI questions asked in CAT over the past four years:
Table (II) gives a clasification of the types of questions asked in this area over the past four years.
TABLE (II)
2004 (Nov) 2003 (Retest) 2003 (Nov) 2002 2001
Type
Sets Qs. Sets Qs. Sets Qs. Sets Qs. Sets Qs.

Only Table 4 16 5 19 7 20 5 24 3 11

Only Bar Graph 1 4 2 5 0 0 1 6 2 9

Only Pie chart 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 1 3

Only Line Graph 1 4 1 3 1 4 0 0 0 0

Combination 0 0 1 4 0 0 0 0 0 0

Other Type 0 0 0 0 1 3 0 0 0 0

(C) Descriptions of types of questions asked:

(1) TABLE: This is the most basic as well as commonly used format for data representation. Usually the data in a
simple table consists of two dimensions only. However more complex tables can be used to represent data having
more than two dimentions. Tables (I) and (II), and the three dimensional chart given below are a couple of such
examples.The data represented in any other format can always be converted into the table format. Hence a certain
level of familarity with this format defnitely helps in tackling questions on any other formats of data representation.
Some other formats of data representation usually encountered are shown below.
(2) Line Graph (3) Bar Graph (4) Pie Chart

Product A
Product B
Productions

Product B

Sales

Product D Product C

Year x Year
Total Prodution
 (5) Spiderweb (6) Stacked Graph (7) Three Dimensional Chart
Product C 

X
Product D

of

Pe
ge

rce
nta

nta
Expenditure

rce
Product E Product B 

ge
Pe

of
Y
ea

Z
rI
II

ar
I  
Ye
 
I

rI
ea
Y

Product A
Product F Year Percentage of Y
(8) Caselet Based: Questions asked in CAT can also be of caselet (information given in verbal / para
format) type where a caselet of length 100-150 words (approximately) could be given.

(D) Types of questions asked in other management entrance exams:

Different types of questions related to Data Interpretation have been asked in management entrance exams other
t h a n
CAT. For example questions on Spider Web have been asked in JMET.

(E) Different ways of attempting questions in DI:

The questions in DI can be solved by
(i) direct calculation
(ii) observation
(iii) elimination
(iv) a combination of more than one of the above mentioned techniques.

DIRECTIONS for question 1: Answer the question on the basis of the following charts.
Per Capita Availability of Te a (gms) in
Chaidesh

600 544 566

487 510
464
400

200

0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Ye ar
(Note: Availability is defined as production less export.)
Production and export of Tea (C haidesh)

207
1995
421

189
1996 561

209
1997 587

215
1998 645

220
1999 660

0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700

Production (million Kg) Export (million Kg)

1. If the land area under tea cultivation in Chaidesh continuously decreased in all four years from 1996 to 1999,
by 10%, 7% , 4% and 1%, respectively, in which year was tea productivity (production per unit of area) the
highest?
(1) 1999 (2) 1998 (3) 1997 (4) 1996
production
Sol.Tea productivity =
Area
When production is maximum and area is minimum, we can say that tea productivity is the maximum. In such
case, calculation of tea productivity for each of the year is not required. Area is the least in year 1999 as
 compared to that in the year 1996, 1997, and 1998. Also, by observation, production is maximum for year
1999. Hence tea productivity is maximum for year 1999. Choice (1)

DIRECTIONS for question 2: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below:

Each point in the graph below shows the profit and turnover data for 12 different companies. Each company
belongs to one of the three industries: textile, cement and steel.


400  Textile
o
300
 o D Cement
Profit

o D D
200  o Steel
o
D o D

100

1000 2000 3000 4000

Turnover

2. For how many companies does the profit exceed 10% of turnover?
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 5

Sol.Profit > 10% of turnover. Here a diagonal line can be drawn which divides the region into two parts. All the
points on to the left of the line indicate the relevant companies.Thus, for such a question, there is no need to
find the profit for each of the companies.

(F) Pitfalls to look out for:

These could be categorized as follows:
(i) Units: It may be required to find an amount in Rs. lakh, but some of the choices may have the
same amount in Rs. crore. Even though the numerical figures may match, the answer will not be correct
unless the final denomination is also correct.

(ii) Rows columns in table: One needs to be alert as to when the numbers have to be taken from a row and
when from a column.

(G) SURPRISES:
Data interpretation in the past has typically seen questions in the form of tables, pie charts, bar graphs etc.,
which involved calculations. In recent years, DI has been more reasoning based rather than calculations based.
For example in CAT 2004, most of the questions in DI were reasoning based while some of the questions
needed to be solved by observation.

(H) Tips on how to prepare for DI:

(1) One must regularly go through different types of newspapers, and magazines and become
familiar with different types of data representations frequently appearing in them.

(2) Enhance speed of calculations: This can be done by becoming conversant with the following:
(i) Multiplication tables upto 20
(ii) Reciprocals of numbers upto 12
(iii) Complements of 100
(iv) Comparison of fractions and other techniques to improve speed and accuracy of calculations.

(3) Speed Tests: Since speed and accuracy play a significant role in CAT, one must pay special attention to
developing calculation skills. For the development of such skills, practising every day (atleast 5 days per
week) for at least 20 minutes is essential. One can distribute the time slots in four different sessions (each
session of 5 minute duration) one each in the morning, afternoon, evening, and night.
 One must mentally practise basic operations like adding, subtracting, multiplying and dividing two numbers.
Also, one must practice converting fractional values into percentage values and vice-versa. One can take
any two random numbers and carry out these operations. One must also practise various approximation
techniques.The following examples suggest a couple of such techniques.
1234
1. x = . Find the approximate decimal equivalent of x.
4781
(1) 0.55 (2) 0.85 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.25

Sol.Here, since the answer choices are not very close to each other one can go ahead with the basic approximation
1234 1200 1
~ = = 0.25 Choice (4)
4781 4800 4
In some cases, the answer choices are quite close to each other, as in the following question.

1243
2. If x = , find x rounded off to two decimal places.
4781
(1) 0.27 (2) 0.23 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.26

Sol.Here, 1/4th of 4781 ~ 1195

1243 - 1195 ~ 48 ~ 1/100 x 4781 = 0.01 of 4781
1243
Therefore ~ 0.25 + 0.01 i.e. 0.26
4781

The above problem can also be solved by a convenient and accurate method commonly known as the Ten-
percentage method. For this one must know how to caluclate 10% and 1% of any given number. We can
arrive at 10% of any given number simply by moving the decimal to the left by one place and 1% by moving
the decimal by two places. After this, the given numerator must be written as a multiple of (10% of denominator)
+ a multiple of (1% of denominator).

In this case: 10% of 4781 ~ 478.1 ~ 480, 1% of 4781 ~ 47.8 ~ 50

Note: The level of approximations will depend on the question and the corresponding answer choices. The
final answers must usually compensate for errors in the approximations while selecting the correct answer
choice.
Now approximating 1234 as 1240, we get 2 x (480) + 6 x (50)= 1260 and 2 x (480) + 5 x (50) = 1210.
Since our approximations above were on the higher side, it is clear that our answer must be 26% (as 25% i.e.
1210 < 1234, despite an approximation on the higher side). Hence the correct answer must be 26% i.e. 0.26.
Choice (4)

Finally, the student must bear in mind that practice makes one perfect. Hence one must constantly work on this area
in order to excel in it.
Test Ref: TEP0502 Time: 60 minutes

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: These questions are based on the graphs given below.
Pe rce n tage wise Bre ak-up of the share h olding patte rn of Unite d Le ve r.
(for the pe riod 20th Nov to 20th De c 2003)

Mutual Funds / Banks General Motors (GM)

38% 42%

GDR
2% Others
FII
14%
4%

GDR = Global Depository Receipts FII = Foreign Institutional Investors

Market value of a Unite d Le ver share from Marke t value of a Ge ne ral Motors share from
20th Nov to 20th Dec of 2003 (in $) 20th Nov to 20th De c of 2003 (in $)
370 450

350
400
330

310 350

290 300
270
250
250

230 200
20th Nov 27th Nov 4th Dec 12th Dec 20th Dec 20th Nov 27th Nov 4th Dec 12th Dec 20th Dec

1. What is the percentage increase in the value of GMs holding in United Lever from 10 December 2002 to 10th th

December 2003, given that the value of GMs holding in United Lever as on 10th December 2002 was 124.88
million dollars and the difference between the value of the shares of United Lever held in the form of GDRs
and that of those held by FIIs as on 10th December 2003 was 17.84 million dollars?
(1) 100% (2) 200% (3) 300% (4) Cannot be determined

2. What is the number of shares of United Lever held by Others as on 20th December 2003, given that the
difference between the value of the shares of United Lever held by GM and that held by Mutual Funds/Banks
as on 20th December 2003 was 250 million dollars?
(1) 2.75 million (2) 3 million (3) 3.5 million (4) Cannot be determined

3. Which of the following statements is true as per the graphs given?

(1) The market value of a United Lever share is directly proportional to the market value of a General Motors
hare.
(2) The peak value attained by the United Lever share is exactly 80% of the peak value of the General Motors
share during the period 20th November to 20th December 2003.
(3) The percentage decrease in the value of the United Lever share from 12th December to 20th December
2003 is less than the percentage decrease in the value of the GM share from 27th November to 20th
December 2003.
(4) None of these

4. If the value of shares held by Mutual funds / banks and others together on 27th November 2003 in United
Lever 260.4 million dollars, find the approximate value of shares (in mn$) held by FII on 20th November 2003
in United Lever.
(1)15 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 20

5. What is the percentage increase in the value of shares held by General Motors in United Lever from 4th
December 2003 to 12th December 2003, given that the total number of shares held by Others is 84,350?
(1) 10.6% (2) 11.8% (3) 12.7% (4) 13.8%
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: These questions are based on the table given above in next column.
Engine displacemnet (in cc.)
6. If Cylinder Size (in cc.) = Number of Clinders , what is the maximum Cylinder Size

among the vehicles having a maximum power of less than 100 BHP?
(1) 124.6 (2) 237.5 (3) 182.1 (4) 287.5

7. Approximately what percentage of the cars given in the table cannot finish a rally race which involves 2 legs
each of length 900 km, given that each car is allowed to refuel only once during the rally after the start (all cars
start the rally with a full tank of fuel)?
(1) 25% (2) 26% (3) 27% (4) 20%

Fuel Consump-
Price on Road
Displacement

Kerb Weight
Boot Space
Number of

Fuel Tank

Tyre Size
Maximum

Capacity
Engine

Front

Rear

(Rs.
Model

A 8 796 39 60 H LS 120 90 1.8 20 740

B 16 997 55 50 LS MS 150 90 3.4 15 900
C 8 997 45 50 LS MS 90 80 3 10 850
D 8 1016 60 30 LS H 140 100 3.3 25 950
E 8 1457 60 80 LS ITA 160 100 3.7 10 1200
F 8 796 58 100 LS LS 100 80 3.4 10 1000
G 8 980 62 120 LS MS 140 80 3 35 1400
H 16 1600 100 140 MS ITA 250 90 4.5 10 1500
I 16 1392 70 200 MS ITA 230 110 4.8 10 1400
J 16 1810 80 300 H MS 300 110 5.2 15 1500
K 16 2600 120 100 H MS 600 120 9.6 6 1750
L 16 2600 120 250 MS ITA 750 120 13.5 8 2200
M 16 2400 90 170 H MS 750 100 6.2 12 1300
N 8 1900 65 290 MS MS 800 90 7.5 10 1750
O 16 3800 220 420 MS LS 1100 140 35 5 3000
P 16 3500 140 300 LS LS 1600 150 5.3 8 3500
Q 16 2500 90 250 ITA ITA 1800 160 7 14 2200
R 16 2200 130 200 LS MS 800 120 18.6 15 1800
S 8 2300 170 175 MS ITA 900 110 12.1 12 2000

H = Hydraulic; LS = Leaf Spring; MS = Mcpherson Struts; ITA = Independent Trailing Arm

8. How many cars here have a boot space to fuel tank capacity ratio of more than 2.9 and whose price is less than Rs.8 lacs?
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 5

9. If all the cars are ranked in the ascending order of the number of revolutions of the tyre required to cover a distance
of 1 km, then find the average fuel consumption for the top six ranked cars?
(1) 11.66 km/litre (2) 9.33 km/litre (3) 10.20 km/litre (4) 6.54 km/litre

10. What is the ratio of the number of vehicles which have a Kerb Weight of less than 1200 kg and also use a leaf
spring in their suspension to the number of vehicles whose Engine Displacement (in cc.) is more than their
Kerb Weight (in kgs)?
(1) 5 : 14 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 2 : 5 (4) 6 : 13

DIRECTIONS for the questions 11 to 15: These 80%

67%
questions are based on the following chart which 70%
60%
65% 62%
60%
expresses the ratio of the cumulative deposits over 50%
different time horizons mentioned to the total asset base
Ratio

40%
of the bank (the asset base of the bank remaining 30% 25%
18% 17%
constant for the entire period). The chart gives the ratios 20%
10%
15% 13%
10%
for five time horizons for two banks, PNB and BOB. 0%
< 3 M onths < 6 M onths < 1 Yr < 3 Y rs < 5 Y rs
T im e H orizons
PNB BOB
11. During which of the following time period is the absolute value of deposits the maximum for BOB?
(1) 3 to 6 months (2) 6 months to 1 yr (3) 1 yr to 3 yrs (4) 3 yrs to 5 yrs

12. Based on the data provided it can, be concluded that:

(1) The deposits in the 3 to 5 years time period is minimum in terms of absolute values for both PNB and
BOB.
(2) The total asset base of PNB is more than that of BOB.
(3) The cumulative deposits in the time horizon of less than 5 years is lower for PNB than BOB.
(4) None of the above can be inferred.

13. If the total asset base of BOB is Rs.500 crore and that of PNB is Rs.750 crore, then the difference between the
cumulative deposits of the two banks for the less than 6 months time horizon is:
(1) Rs.12.50 crore (2) Rs.7.50 crore (3) Rs.15 crore (4) Cannot be determined

14. The total asset base of PNB is 10% higher than that of BOB for the current year. Also, the growth rate of the
total asset base this year is 15% for BOB while the total asset base of PNB fell by 5% in this year. If the ratios
for the given time horizons in the next year are same as that in this year, then which of the following statements
is/are true?
I. The cumulative deposits of BOB in the current year for the less than 5 years time horizon are higher than
the cumulative deposits of PNB for the next year for the same time horizon.
II. In the next year, the total asset base of BOB is higher than that of PNB by approximately 10%.
III. The cumulative deposits of PNB for the less than 3 months time horizon in the current year are higher
than that of PNB for the less than 6 months time horizon in the next year.
(1) I and II (2) I only (3) I, II only (4) I and III only

15. By what percent do the deposits of BOB during the 1 to 3 years time period exceed its cumulative deposits
for the less than 1 year time horizon?
(1) 60% (2) 55% (3) 30% (4) None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 20: These questions are based on the line graph given below which gives the
number of graduates passing out of Indian Universities (X), the number of graduates getting U.S. visa (Y) and the
number of students applying to Indian Management Institutes (Z).
Y, Z (in 000's) X (in 000's)
50 160
45 155
40 150
145
35 140
30 135
25 130
20 125
15 120
115
10 110
5 105
0 100
1989 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Y Z X
16. If it is expected that Z will vary directly with Y, then in how many years is contradictory data noticed?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

17. If it is believed that in any year compared to its previous year Z increases or decreases respectively as X
increases or decreases, and it decreases or increases respectively as Y increases or decreases, then in which of
the following years is the belief proved completely wrong?
(1) 1992 (2) 1991 (3) 1995 (4) 1993
18. If it is believed that the relationship between X, Y and Z is best expressed by Z = X - 4Y for any year, the data
for which of the following years best satisfies this relationship?
(1) 1990 (2) 1993 (3) 1989 (4) 1994

19. If it is believed that the relationship between X, Y and Z is best expressed by Z = 0.4X - Y for any year, the data
for which of the following years best satisfies this relationship?
(1) 1989 (2) 1991 (3) 1990 (4) 1994

20. If out of the total number of graduates passing out of Indian universities, those who neither get U.S visas nor
apply to Indian Management Institutes take up other careers, then in which of the following years was the
number of graduates taking up other careers the least?
(1) 1990 (2) 1989 (3) 1994 (4) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 25: These questions are based on the table given below which gives the
details of the performance of eight students - S1 to S8 - in examination consisting of four sections - Verbal Ability,
Quantitative Ability, Reading Comprehension, and Data Interpretation.
Quantitative Reading Data
Student Code Verbal Ability
Ability Comprehension Interpretation

= x net = x net = x net = x net

S1 20 4 19 32 12 29 35 10 32.5 14 8 12

S2 42 8 40 17 4 16 40 10 37.5 20 5 18.75

S3 36 14 32.5 30 12 27 34 16 30 18 4 17

S4 7 4 6 12 8 10 32 12 29 14 4 13

S5 20 30 12.5 11 12 8 18 4 17 10 12 7

S6 40 10 37.5 30 20 25 30 20 25 15 10 12.5

S7 34 10 31.5 24 4 23 35 12 32 18 6 16.5

S8 28 20 2 32 16 28 30 16 26 20 4 19

= Number of questions correct x Number of questions wrong

net Net score in the section
Cut-off Marks
Section Total number of questions in Cut off

Verbal Ability 50 23

Quantitative Ability 50 18

Reading Comprehension 50 22

Data Interpretation 50 10

Note: Students qualify in the test if they score more than or equal to the cut off mark in all the sections. The
sum of the net scores in all four sections together is called Grand Total.

21. Among the students who have qualified what is the maximum Grand Total?
(1) 106.5 (2) 108.5 (3) 100 (4) 103

22. What is the least Grand Total among the students who have qualified?
(1) 100 (2) 96 (3) 94 (4) 96.5

23. Who among the following committed the maximum number of mistakes?
(1) S1 (2) S2 (3) S3 (4) S7
24. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. The person who scored the maximum mark in Reading Comprehension did not qualify in the test.
II. The person who had the maximum Grand Total did not get maximum in any of the individual sections.
III. S8 attempted maximum number of questions among all the students.
(1) Only I (2) Only I and III
(3) All the three statements (4) Only I and II

25. Who among the following answered maximum number of questions correctly?
(1) S8 (2) S7 (3) S5 (4) S6

DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 30: These questions are based on the diagram and information given below.

B 400 E 200 G

1000 100
100 200

600
A 100 J 100
C F H
300

100 100
300

D I
300
Given above is the pipeline network of XYZ Water Works that manages the drinking water supply for a certain
city. Each of the pipeline segments has a maximum capacity of 1000 litres per minute. The slack in any pipeline is
defined as the extra flow required in it to bring it to full capacity. The magnitudes of the flow in some of the
pipelines, along with the directions, and the requirements at some of the hubs are given (both in litres per minute
i.e., lpm). The magnitude and the direction of flow in certain pipelines and the requirements at certain hubs are to
be found.

Note: Every hub except A, which is the only source, has a certain minimum requirement, which for some of the
hubs, is indicated in the rectangles next to the respective hubs. The flow through the pipe line is indicated on the
top of the line.

26. What is the maximum possible requirement (in lpm) that can be met at the hub I?
(1) 1000 (2) 900 (3) 800 (4) 700

27. Find the requirement (in lpm) at the hubs H and B put together.
(1) 200 (2) 300 (3) 500 (4) 600

28. Find the slack (in lpm) in the pipeline joining A to D.

(1) 0 (2) 300 (3) 400 (4) Cannot be determined

29. Find the requirement (in lpm) at hub E.

(1) 200 (2) 300 (3) 100 (4) 400

30. Find the total supply (in lpm) from A if the pipeline connecting D to I has a slack of 400 lpm.
(1) 2400 (2) 2500 (3) 2600 (4) 2700
DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 35: These questions are based on the pie-charts given below which give the
country-wise breakup of the world oil trade by value, for the year 1999.
Imports Exports
Iran Russia USA
14% 13% Iran 10%
Iraq Russia
22%
6% 7%
Japan
17%
India
16%
Others
Others
16% Iraq
USA 9%
25% 45%

All trade transactions are carried out at a constant international price.

Total production of oil in 1999 is worth $1350 billion.
Total exports = 40% of total production (by value).
Total world exports = Total world imports.
Revenue surplus from oil trade for a country = Value of Exports Value of Imports

31. If 10% of Irans exports and 40% of Others exports go to India, with Indias remaining imports coming from
Iraq, then approximately what is the worth of the oil that Iraq exports to India?
(1) $3 bn (2) $30 bn (3) $40 bn (4) Data insufficient

32. Among the following countries, which country gets the maximum revenue surplus from oil trade?
(1) India (2) Russia (3) Iran (4) USA

33. If 10% of Irans exports and 12.5% of Russias exports go to Japan, what percentage of Japans imports come
from Iraq?
(1) 3.17% (2) 7.02% (3) 13% (4) Cannot be determined

34. Which country has the highest revenue surplus to exports ratio?
(1) Iraq (2) Iran (3) Russia (4) Others

35. If Iraq exports an additional $123 billion worth of oil, which is exported (by value) to the various countries in
the ratio of their present shares of world oil imports, then Japans oil imports will bear what ratio to that of
India (approximately) ?
(1) 1.06 : 1 (2) 1.10 : 1 (3) 1.15 : 1 (4) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 36 to 40: These questions are based on the data given below.
 Capital Debt

Promoters Others Fll

s Banks Other

D D D D D
25% 30% 75% 70% 60% 70% 25% 20% 15% 10%

Revenue Expenditur e

Sales Interest on Other Salaries Interest Others

Investment Income on Debt

D D D D D D
80% 70% 5% 10% 15% 20% 35% 40% 15% 20% 50% 40%

Head
Capital 10 15
Debt 30 20

Revenue 20 25

Expenditure 15 20

Actual amounts for the year ending 31/03/03

Proposed / Estimated for the year ending 31/03/04
36. During the year ending 31/03/03, what is the rate of interest paid on the debt taken from FIIs, if the average
rate of interest paid on the debt taken from Banks and Others is 61/4%?
(1) 71/2% (2) 77/9% (3) 81/3% (4) 88/9%

37. If the sales were Rs.100 crores and the interest paid was Rs.10.5 crores, what would be the profit (in Rs. Crore)
earned for the year ending on 31/3/2003 ? (Profit = Revenue Expenditure).
(1) 35 (2) 55 (3) 70 (4) 80

38. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) During the year ending 31/03/04 the promoters propose to increase the capital by 5%.
(2) The proposed sales is Rs.2.50 crore more than the actual sales.
(3) The average rate of interest on debt is expected to decrease by 5 percentage points.
(4) The other income is proposed to be increased by Rs.2 crore.

39. If 40% of the profit for the year 31/3/2003 is earmarked to pay dividend to 25,000 shareholders holding 100 shares
of Rs.10 each, what are the earnings per share?
(1) Rs.1.20 (2) Rs.0.80 (3) Rs.8.00 (4) Rs.2.40

40. For which of the following is the proposed value for the year ending 31/03/04, as a percentage of the actual
value for the year ending 31/03/03 the highest?
(1) Capital by Others (2) Debt from Others
(3) Expenditure on Salaries (4) Revenue from interest on investment

DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 45: These questions are based on the diagram given below which represents
the distribution of the number of students from a well known institute of CAT coaching in India getting admissions
at five prestigious Institutes of Management in India.

24
IIMA
6
15
IIMB 2
12 8
6 4 7
IIMC 6 5 7 11
1
16 5
IIML 17
8 14
4
IIMI
22

41. Of the students who did not get admission into IIMA but did get admission into IIMC, how many did not get
admission into IIMB or did not get admission into IIML?
(1) 34 (2) 35 (3) 37 (4) None of these

42. How many students are there who got admission into at least one among IIMA and IIMI and also got admission
into at least one among IIMB and IIMC but definitely did not get admission into IIML?
(1) 35 (2) 34 (3) 33 (4) None of these

43. How many students got admission into at least two of the given colleges?
(1) 199 (2) 188 (3) 119 (4) None of these

44. How many students got admission into exactly four of the given colleges?
(1) 25 (2) 30 (3) 32 (4) None of these

45. How many students got admission into exactly two or exactly three of the given colleges?
(1) 87 (2) 90 (3) 91 (4) None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 50: These questions are based on the following table.

The table shows a schedule of 20 topics across three areas, Quantitative Aptitude (Q), Logic (L) and English (E),
to be covered by a student appearing for the SITE exam. In the schedule, any number of topics can be done
simultaneously subject to the only condition that the prerequisite/s for that topic is/are already done.

SCHEDULE OF PREPARATION FOR SITE EXAM

Time for preparation Topics to be necessarily learnt before
Sl.No. Names of the topics (in days) this.

1 Logic Basics (L) 2 Nil

2 Numbers (Q) 3 Nil

3 Number Series (L) 1 Numbers

4 Letter Series (L) 1 Nil

5 Equations (Q) 2 Numbers

6 Progressions (Q) 1 Mixtures

7 Grammar (E) 4 Nil

8 Time and Work (Q) 3 Numbers, Ratios, Equations

9 Analogies (L) 2 Nil

Averages, Ratios, Percentages, Profit

10 Mixtures (Q) 1 and Loss

11 Vocabulary (E) 6 Nil

12 Ratios (Q) 2 Equations

13 Time and Distance (Q) 3 Ratios, Equations

14 Reading Comprehension (E) 5 Nil

15 Venn Diagrams (L) 2 Nil

16 Averages (Q) 1 Numbers, Equations

17 Deductions (L) 2 Nil

18 Percentages (Q) 2 Ratios

19 Paragraph Forming (E) 4 Nil

20 Profit and Loss (Q) 2 Percentages, Ratios

46. What is the minimum number of days required for the complete preparation?
(1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 19 (4) 49

47. How many topics cannot be covered within the first five days of preparation?
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) None of these

48. Manish and Vittal start preparing for Quantitative Aptitude and English respectively on the same day. If Vittal
continues with Quantitative Aptitude after English and Manish continues with Logic after Quantitative Aptitude,
then the person who completes his preparation of the two topics first will do so by how many days? (Assume
that each prepares topics of only one area at a time.)
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

49. For which of the following topics/set of topics is the minimum number of days required for completion the
maximum?
(1) Time and Work
(2) Vocabulary, Grammar and Reading Comprehension
(3) All the Logic topics
(4) Profit and Loss

50. What is the average number of days per topic required at the minimum?
(1) 7/10 (2) 4/5 (3) 9/10 (4) None of these