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Vidyamandir Classes

JEE ENTRANCE EXAM-2016/ADVANCED

P2-16-3-6 PAPER-2 Code : 6


Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 186

Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed.


GENERAL
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told to do so.
2. The paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and the right hand top corner of the back
cover of this booklet.
3. Use the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
4. The paper CODE is printed on the left part as well as the right part of the ORS. Ensure that both these codes are
identical and same as that on the question paper booklet. If not, contact the invigilator for change of ORS.
5. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
6. Write your name, roll number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
7. After breaking the seal of the booklet at 2.00 pm, verify that the booklet contains 36 pages and that all the
54 questions along with the options are legible. If not, contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
8. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET


9. The ORS (top sheet) will be provided with an attached Candidates Sheet (bottom sheet).
The Candidates Sheet is a carbon-less copy of the ORS.
10. Darken the appropriate bubbles on the ORS by applying sufficient pressure. This will leave an impression at the
corresponding place on the Candidates Sheet.
11. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
12. Your will be allowed to take away the Candidates Sheet at the end of the examination.
13. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
14. Write your name, roll number and code of the examination centre, and sign with pen in the space provided for
this purpose on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken the appropriate
bubble under each digit of your roll number.

DARKENING THE BUBBLE ON THE ORS


15. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubble on the ORS.
16. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
17. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as:
18. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way.
19. Darken the bubble ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or un-darken a darkened
bubble.

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PART-I PHYSICS

SECTION I (Maximum Marks : 18)


This section contains SIX questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If, only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 1 In all other cases.

1. There are two Vernier calipers both of which have 1 cm divided into 10 equal divisions on the main scale.
The Vernier scale of one of the calipers (C1 ) has 10 equal divisions that correspond to 9 main scale divisions.
The Vernier scale of the other caliper (C2 ) has 10 equal divisions that correspond to 11 main scale divisions.
The readings of the two calipers are shown in the figure. The measured values (in cm) by calipers C1 and C2 ,
respectively, are :

(A) 2.87 and 2.86 (B) 2.85 and 2.82 (C) 2.87 and 2.87 (D) 2.87 and 2.83

1.(D) Reading of vernier scale C1 can be calculated by the usual method


Reading M .S.R. L.C. V .S.R.
2.8 0.1 7 = 2.87 cm
In second scale C2, length of V .S.D is greater than M .S.D.
So, usual formula will not be applicable.
Let the point where scales coincide be P.

Total reading 2.8 mm x


From figure, x 8 1 mm 7 1.1 mm 0.3 mm
So, Reading 2.83 mm

2. The electrostatic energy of Z protons uniformly distributed throughout a spherical nucleus of radius R is given by
3 Z (Z 1)e 2
E
5 4 0 R
1 15 15
The measured masses of the neutron, 1H , 7 N and 8 O are 1.008665 u, 1.007825 u, 15.000109 u and
15.003065 u, respectively. Given that the radii of both the 15 15
7 N and 8 O nuclei are same, 1u = 931.5 MeV / c 2
(c is the speed of light) and e2 /(4 0 ) 1.44 MeV fm. Assuming that the difference between the binding
15 15
energies of 7 N and 8 O is purely due to the electrostatic energy, the radius of either of the nuclei is : (1 fm
15
10 m)
(A) 2.85 fm (B) 3.03 fm (C) 3.42 fm (D) 3.80 fm

3 7 6e 2 126 e2
2.(C) EN .
5 4 0 R 5 4 0 R

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3 8 7e 2 156 e2
E0 .
5 4 0 R 5 4 0 R

42 e2
E E 0 E N .................. (i)
5 4 0 R
15
Binding energy of 7 N : E1 7 1.007825 8 1.008665 15.000109
15
Binding energy of 8 O: E2 8 1.007825 7 1.008665 15.003065
Difference in B. E. = | E1 E2 | = 1.007825 + 1.008665 + 0.002956 = 0.003796 u
This is equal to E in equation (i)
42 1
0.003796 931.5 (1.44)
5 R
R 3.42 fm

3. The ends Q and R of two thin wires, PQ and RS, are soldered (joined) together. Initially each of the wires has a
length of 1 m at 10C. Now the end P is maintained at 10C , while the end S is heated and maintained at
400C. The system is thermally insulated from its surroundings. If the thermal conductivity of wire PQ is twice
that of the wire RS and the coefficient of linear thermal expansion of PQ is 1.2 10 5 K 1 , the change in length
of the wire PQ is :
(A) 0.78 mm (B) 0.90 mm (C) 1.56 mm (D)
2.34 mm

3.(A)

Since thermal resistance of RS is twice that of PQ, temperature of junction QR will be 140C.
Variation of temperature from P to Q will be linear. Hence, is l l T T0
5
Temperature of center of PQ can be taken as T. i.e. l 1 1.2 105 75 10 = 1.2 65 10 = 0.78 mm
Hence (A)

4. A small object is placed 50 cm to the left of a thin convex lens of focal length 30 cm. A convex spherical mirror
of radius of curvature 100 cm is placed to the right of the lens at a distance of 50 cm. The mirror is tilted such
that the axis of the mirror is at an angle 30 to the axis of the lens, as shown in the figure.

If the origin of the coordinate system is taken to be at the centre of the lens, the coordinates (in cm) of the point
(x, y) at which the image is formed are :
(A) (25, 25 3) (B) (0, 0) (C) (125/ 3, 25 / 3) (D) (50 25 3, 25)

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4.(A) Image formed by lens is at (75, 0).


This acts as a virtual image for mirror.
Suppose that mirror is not tilted
Then, for mirror
u 25, V ?, F 50
1 1 1

v 25 50
v 50 cm ..(i)
This image is formed on x-axis
Now, if the mirror is rotated clockwise by 30, image rotates by 60 clockwise. Look at the ray striking the pole of
mirror. This ray rotates by 60. Image lies on this ray. Hence image rotates by 60.
New co-ordinates of image will be x 50 50cos60 25 cm

50 3
y 50sin 60 cm
2
Hence (A)

5. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a movable frictionless piston. Its initial thermodynamic state at pressure
Pi 105 Pa and volume Vi 103 m3 changes to a final state at Pf (1/ 32) 105 Pa and V f 8 103 m3 in an

adiabatic quasi-static process, such that P3V 5 constant. Consider another thermodynamic process that brings
the system from the same initial state to the same final state in two steps: an isobaric expansion at Pi followed by
an isochoric (isovolumetric) process at volume V f . The amount of heat supplied to the system in the two-step
process is approximately :
(A) 112 J (B) 294 J (C) 588 J (D) 813 J

5.(C) In the first process : PV
i i Pf V f

Pi V f
32 8
Pf Vi
5
............. (i)
3
For the two step process
W Pi (V f Vi ) 105 (7 103 )

W 7 10 2 J
f 1 1
U i i)
( Pf V f PV 10 2 10 2
2 1 4
3 3 9
U . 102 102 J
2 4 8
9 47
Q W U Q 7 102 102 10 2 J 588 J
8 8

6. An accident in a nuclear laboratory resulted in deposition of a certain amount of radioactive material of half-life
18 days inside the laboratory. Tests revealed that the radiation was 64 times more than the permissible level
required for safe operation of the laboratory. What is the minimum number of days after which the laboratory can
be considered safe for use?
(A) 64 (B) 90 (C) 108 (D) 120

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dN
6.(C) N 0 64 X where X is the permissible limit of Radioactivity
dt
dN
Laboratory can be considered safe when X N 0 e t
dt
N 0 1 ln 2
N0 et et t ln 64 t 6 ln 2
64 64 t1/ 2
t 6t1/ 2 108 days

SECTION II (Maximum Marks : 32)


This section contains EIGHT questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided
NO incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result in +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in 2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.

7. Two thin circular discs of mass m and 4m, having radii of a and 2a, respectively, are rigidly fixed by a massless,
rigid rod of length l 24 a through their centres. This assembly is laid on a firm and flat surface, and set
rolling without slipping on the surface so that the angular speed about the axis of the rod is . The angular

momentum of the entire assembly about the point O is L (see the figure). Which of the following statement(s)
is (are) true?

(A) The magnitude of angular momentum of the assembly about its center of mass is 17ma 2 / 2
(B) The center of mass of the assembly rotates about the z-axis with an angular speed of / 5

(C) The magnitude of the z-component of L is 55ma 2
(D) The magnitude of angular momentum of center of mass of the assembly about the point O is 81ma 2

7.(AB)

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For (A)
For Angular momentum about CM, we will calculate L about axis marked as (1)
2
ma 2 4m 2a
L1
2 2
17 ma 2
w A is correct
2
For (B)
m a 4 m 2 a 9a
VCM
5m 5
m l 4m 2l
9l
lCM
5m 5
VCM a
about 2
lCM l
a l
Component of along z-axis cos B is correct
l 5a 5
For (C)
Moment of inertia about axis marked as (2)
ma 2 4 m 2 a 2 2 17 ma
2
I2 ml 2 4m 2l 17 ml 2
4 4 4

So, L2 I 2 and net Labout z axis L2 cos L1 sin 80.75m a2 C is incorrect
For (D),
9l 9 a 9l 24
LCM about O 5m VCM 5m 81 ma 2 D is incorrect
5
5 5 5

8. A rigid wire loop of square shape having side of length L and resistance R is moving along the x-axis with a
constant velocity v0 in the plane of the paper. At t 0, the right edge of the loop enters a region of length 3L
where there is a uniform magnetic field B0 into the plane of the paper, as shown in the figure. For sufficiently
large v0 , the loop eventually crosses the region. Let x be the location of the right edge of the loop. Let v( x), I ( x )
and F ( x) represent the velocity of the loop, current in the loop, and force on the loop, respectively, as a function
of x. Counter-clockwise current is taken as positive.

Which of the following schematic plot(s) is(are) correct? (Ignore gravity)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

VMC/Paper-2 6 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced


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8.(BD) At a general position x,


BLV
i
R
B 2 L2V
F
R
dv B 2 L2 B 2 L2 x
mv V V V0
dx R mR
i.e. velocity will decrease linearly.
When the loop is fully within field, force and current will be zero and velocity is constant. While coming out,
current will be clockwise, force backward and velocity will decrease linearly. Hence, (B), (D)

9. In an experiment to determine the acceleration due to gravity g, the formula used for the time period of a periodic
7( R r )
motion is T 2 . The values of R and r are measured to be (60 1) mm and (10 1) mm,
5g
respectively. In five successive measurements, the time period is found to be 0.52 s, 0.56 s, 0.57 s, 0.54 s and
0.59 s. The least count of the watch used for the measurement of time period is 0.01 s. Which of the following
statement(s) is(are) true?
(A) The error in the measurement of r is 10% (B) The error in the measurement of T is 3.57%
(C) The error in the measurement of T is 2% (D) The error in the determined value of g is 11%
0.52 0.56 0.57 0.54 0.59
9.(ABD) Mean time period
5
0.556 0.56sec as per significant figures
Error in reading | Tmean T1 | 0.04
| Tmean T2 | 0.00
| Tmean T3 | 0.01
| Tmean T4 | 0.02
| Tmean T4 | 0.03
Mean error 0.1/ 5 0.02
T 0.02
% error in T 100 100 3.57%
T 0.56
0.001 100
% error in r 10%
0.010
0.001
% error R 100 1.67%
0.060
g ( R r ) T 0.002 100
% error in 100 100 2 2 3.57 4% 7% 11%
g Rr T 0.05

10. Light of wavelength ph falls on a cathode plate inside a vacuum tube as shown in the figure. The work
function of the cathode surface is and the anode is a wire mesh of conducting material kept at a distance d
from the cathode. A potential difference V is maintained between the electrodes. If the minimum de Broglie
wavelength of the electrons passing through the anode is e , which of the following statement(s) is(are) true?
(A) For large potential difference V / e , e is
approximately halved if V is made four times
(B) e decreases with increase in and ph

(C) e increases at the same rate as ph for ph < hc /

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(D) e is approximately halved, if d is doubled

10.(A) K.Emax of e just after ejection


hc
K .Ei
ph
hc
K.Emax e reaching anode K .E f eV
ph

h 1
For V K .E. f eV e
e 2m eV V

(A) is correct
If & ph increase
K .E f decreases e increases
(B) is incorrect
h
e

2m K .E f
d e d ph
(C) is incorrect
dt dt
e is independent of d (D) is incorrect

11. Consider two identical galvanometers and two identical resistors with resistance R. If the internal resistance of
the galvanometers RC R / 2 , which of the following statement(s) about any one of the galvanometers is(are)
true?
(A) The maximum voltage range is obtained when all the components are connected in series
(B) The maximum voltage range is obtained when the two resistors and one galvanometer are connected in
series, and the second galvanometer is connected in parallel to the first galvanometer
(C) The maximum current range is obtained when all the components are connected in parallel
(D) The maximum current range is obtained when the two galvanometers are connected in series and the
combination is connected in parallel with both the resistors

11.(BC) For (A),

V1 2ig R 2ig RC
For (B),

V2 4ig R ig RC 2ig R 2ig RC 2ig R ig RC V1 ig 2R RC


R
V2 V1 as RC , Hence 2 R RC
2
B is correct
For (C)

R
I1 2ig 2i 2ig 2ig C
R

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For (D)
2i g RC
I 2 ig 2i i g 2
R
RC RC
2ig 2ig 2ig ig
R R
2ig R
I1 RC
R 2
R
I 2 I1 as RC
2
So C is correct

12. While conducting the Youngs double slit experiment a student replaced the two slits with a large opaque plate in
the x-y plane containing two small holes that act as two coherent point sources S1 ,S2 emitting light of
wavelength 600 nm. The student mistakenly placed the screen parallel to the x-z plane (for z > 0) at a distance
D = 3m from the mid-point of S1S2 , as shown schematically in the figure. The distance between the sources
d = 0.6003 mm. The origin O is at the intersection of the screen and the line joining S1 S2 . Which of the
following is(are) true of the intensity pattern on the screen?

(A) Hyperbolic bright and dark bands with foci symmetrically placed about O in the x-direction
(B) Straight bright and dark bands parallel to the x-axis
(C) Semi circular bright and dark bands centered at point O
(D) The region very close to the point O will be dark

12.(CD) At any point on screen, which is at a distance r from O,


in the plane of the screen path difference will
depend only on r.
all such points have same path difference.
bands will have circular shape.
At O, path difference = d 0.6003 mm
2n 1 O
100.5
2
Dark band at O

13. A block with mass M is connected by a massless spring with stiffness constant k to a rigid wall and moves
without friction on a horizontal surface. The block oscillates with small amplitude A about an equilibrium
position x0 ; Consider two cases: (i) when the block is at x0 ; and (ii) when the block is at x x0 A . In both the
cases, a particle with mass m(<M) is softly placed on the block after which they stick to each other. Which of the
following statement(s) is(are) true about the motion after the mass m is placed on the mass M?
M
(A) The amplitude of oscillation in the first case changes by a factor of , whereas in the second
mM
case it remains unchanged
(B) The final time period of oscillation in both the cases is same
(C) The total energy decreases in both the cases
(D) The instantaneous speed at x0 of the combined masses decreases in both the cases

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k k
13.(ABD) ' 0
M m M
When m placed at mean position,
Let velocity of M & m be v ' just after placing the block
By momentum conservation,
M v0 ( M m)v ' M A ( M m) ' A '

A' M M

A M m' M m
When m placed at extreme position,
vM before placing = 0 vM m after placing = 0
extreme position and mean positions remain unchanged
A' A
2
T ' , which is same in both cases.
'
Energy decreases in 1st case, but not in 2nd case.
Velocity at mean position = A which decreases in both cases.

14. In the circuit shown below, the key is pressed at time t = 0.


Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true?
(A) The voltmeter displays 5 V as soon as the key is pressed,
and displays +5V after a long time
(B) The voltmeter will display 0 V at time t = In 2 seconds
(C) The current in the ammeter becomes 1/e of the initial value after 1 second
(D) The current in the ammeter becomes zero after a long time
14.(ABCD)

Just after pressing key,


5 25000i1 0
5 50000i2 0
(As charge in both cap = 0)
i1 0.2 mA i2 0.1 mA
And VB 25000i1 VA VB VA 5V
After a long time, i1 & i2 0 (steady state)
q
5 1 0 q1 200C
40
q2
And 5 0 q2 100C
20
q
VB 2 VA VB VA 5V (A) is correct.
20

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For capacitor 1, q1 200 1 e t 1 C



1 t 1
i1 e mA
5

For capacitor 2, q2 100 1 et 1 C



1 t 1
i2 e mA
10
q
VB 2 i1 25 VA
20
VB VA 5 1 et 5et 5 1 2et

At t n 2 , VB V A 5 1 1 0
(B) is correct.
1 1 3 1
At t = 1, i i1 i2 e 1 e1 .
5 10 10 e
1 1 3
At t = 0, i i1 i2
5 10 10
(C) is correct.
After a long time, i1 i2 0 (D) is correct.

SECTION III (Maximum Marks : 12)


This section contains TWO paragraph.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Paragraph for Questions 15 - 16


A frame of reference that is accelerated with respect to an inertial frame of reference is called a non-inertial frame of
reference. A coordinate system fixed on a circular disc rotating about a fixed axis with a constant angular velocity is

an example of a non-inertial frame of reference. The relationship between the force F rot experienced by a particle of

mass m moving on the rotating disc and the force F in experienced by the particle in an inertial frame of reference is


F rot F in 2m v rot m r

Where v rot is the velocity of the particle in the rotating frame of reference and r is the position vector of the particle
with respect to the centre of the disc.
Now consider a smooth slot along a diameter of a disc of radius R rotating
counter-clockwise with a constant angular speed about its vertical axis
through its center. We assign a coordinate system with the origin at the center
of the disc, the x-axis along the slot, the y-axis perpendicular to the slot and the
VMC/Paper-2 11 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced
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z-axis along the rotation axis k . A small block of mass m is gently

placed in the slot at r R / 2 i at t = 0 and is constrained to move only along
the slot.
15. The distance r of the block at time t is :
R 2 t R t
(A)
4
e
e 2t (B)
4

e et
R R
(C) cos 2t (D) cos t
2 2

15.(B) In the expression Frot Fin 2m(Vrot ) m( r )

The third term is radially outward i.e. this goes towards increasing Vrot .
2nd term is perpendicular to edge of slot and is cancelled by Normal reaction from edge of slot.
So, for radial direction:
F m 2 r
m d 2r
m 2 r
dt 2
d 2r
i.e. 2r
dt 2
Solution to this differential equation is r Aet Be t
Where A and B are constants
* for detailed solution of above differential equation see the end of this solution .
R
At t 0, r
2
R
A B
2
dr
Also, Vrot Aet Be t
dt
At t 0, Vrot 0 , so,
R
0 ( A B) A B
4
R t
So, r [e e t ]
4
Hence (B)
* Detailed solution of differential equation
v r
dv
2
a r v v dv 2 r dr
dr
0 R/2

v2 r 2 R2 R 2 dr
2 v r2
2 2 8 4 dt
r t R
dr 2 2
r 2 R2 / 4

dt ln r r R / 4
R/2
R/2 0

r r 2 R2 / 4 R t
ln t r r 2 R2 / 4 e
R/2 2

2
R 2 R t R 2 R t
r2 e R r2 e r 2 R. r et
4 2 4 2

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R2 R t
r R et 1 e 2 t r e et
4 4

16. The net reaction of the disc on the block is :


1
(A) m 2 R cos t j mgk (B)
2

m 2 R e 2t e2t j mgk

1
(C) m 2 R sin t j mgk (D) m R e e j mgk
2 t t
2

16.(D) From previous question, term 2m Vrot
gives normal reaction from edge ( Ne )
dr R t R t
Vrot e et (e e t )
dt 4 4
R t
So, Ne 2 m.
4

e e t .
MR 2 t
Ne
2

e e t j
Normal reaction from bottom of slot mgk
MR 2 t
Net reaction from slot R
2

e et j mgk
Hence (D)

Paragraph for Questions 17 - 18


Consider an evacuated cylindrical chamber of height h having rigid conducting plates at the ends and an insulating
curved surface as shown in the figure. A number of spherical balls made of a light weight and soft material and coated
with a conducting material are placed on the bottom plate. The balls have a radius r << h . Now a high voltage source
(HV) is connected across the conducting plates such that the bottom plate is at V0 and the top plate at V0 .

Due to their conducting surface the balls will get charged, will become
equipotential with the plate and are repelled by it. The balls will
eventually collide with the top plate, where the coefficient of
restitution can be taken to be zero due to the soft nature of the material
of the balls. The electric field in the chamber can be considered to be
that of a parallel plate capacitor. Assume that there are no collisions
between the balls and the interaction between them is negligible.
(Ignore gravity)

17. Which one of the following statements is correct ?


(A) The balls will bounce back to the bottom plate carrying the opposite charge they went up with
(B) The balls will stick to the top plate and remain there
(C) The balls will execute simple harmonic motion between the two plates
(D) The balls will bounce back to the bottom plate carrying the same charge they went up with

17. (A) Balls will gain + ve charge and hence move towards ve plate.

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On reaching ve plate, balls will attain ve charge and come back to + ve plate.
So on, balls will keep oscillating.
But oscillation is not S.H.M.,
As fore on balls is not x.
(A) is correct.

18. The average current in the steady state registered by the ammeter in the circuit will be :
(A) proportional to V01/ 2 (B) zero

(C) proportional to V02 (D) proportional to the potential V0

18.(C) As the balls keep on carrying charge from one plate to another, current will keep on flowing even in steady state.
When at bottom plate, if all balls attain charge q,
kq
V0
r
V r
q 0
k
Inside cylinder, electric field E V0 V0 h
2V0 h .
qE 2hr 2
Acceleration of each ball, a .V0
m km

2h 2h .k m 1 km
Time taken by balls to reach other plate, t
a 2 V0 r
2hrV0
If there are n balls,
nq V r r
Average current, iav n 0 V0 iav V0 2
t k km

PART-II CHEMISTRY

SECTION I (Maximum Marks : 18)


This section contains SIX questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If, only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 1 In all other cases.

19. The correct order of acidity for the following compounds is

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) III > I > II > IV (C) III > IV > II > I (D) I > III > IV > II

19.(A) According to ortho effect ortho substituted benzoic acid is strongest acid among o, m and p substituted benzoic
acid. +M effect of OH decreases acidic strength of benzoic acid. The correct order of acidity is I > II > III > IV.

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20. The major product of the following reaction sequence is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

21. In the following reaction sequence in aqueous solution, the species X, Y and Z, respectively, are :
Ag Ag with time
S2 O32
X
Y
Z
clear solution white precipitate black precipitate

(A) [Ag(S2 O3 )2 ]3 , Ag 2S2 O3 , Ag 2 S (B) [Ag(S2 O3 )3 ]5 , Ag 2SO3 , Ag 2S

(C) [Ag(SO3 )2 ]3 , Ag 2S2 O3 , Ag (D) [Ag(SO3 )3 ]3 , Ag 2SO4 , Ag

Ag Ag
21.(A) S2 O32
[Ag(S2 O3 ) 2 ]3 Ag 2 S s
Ag 2 S2 O3 (s)
X Y Z
Clear solution White black
precipitate precipitate

22. The qualitative sketches I, II and III given below show the variation of surface tension with molar concentration
of three different aqueous solutions of KCl, CH3OH and CH3 (CH 2 )11 OSO3 Na at room temperature. The
correct assignment of the sketches is :

(A) I : KCl II : CH3OH III : CH3 (CH 2 )11 OSO3 Na

(B) I : CH3 (CH 2 )11 OSO3 Na II : CH3OH III : KCl

(C) I : KCl II : CH3 (CH 2 )11 OSO3 Na III : CH3OH

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(D) I : CH3OH II : KCl III :

CH3 (CH 2 )11 OSO3 Na

22.(D)

For KCl curve - Increase of surface tension for inorganic salts


For CH3OH curve - Decrease of surface tension progressively for alcohols
For CH3 CH 2 11 OSO3 Na curve - Decrease of surface tension before CMC (Critical Micelle Concentration)
and then almost unchanged
23. The geometries of the ammonia complexes of Ni 2 , Pt 2 and Zn 2 , respectively, are :
(A) octahedral, square planar and tetrahedral (B) square planar, octahedral and tetrahedral
(C) tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral (D) octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar

23.(A) [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2 sp3d 2 Octahedral [Pt(NH3 ) 4 ]2 dsp 2 Square planar

[Zn(NH3 )4 ]2 sp3 Tetrahedral


24. For the following electrochemical cell at 298 K,
Pt( s) | H 2 ( g , 1bar) | H ( aq, 1M) || M 4 ( aq), M 2 ( aq ) | Pt(s)
M2 (aq )
RT
E cell 0.092 V when 10 x . Given : E 0 0.151 V; 2.303 0.059 V
M4 (aq ) M 4 / M 2 F

The value of x is :
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) 2
24.(D) E 0cell E c0 E A
0

Anode H2 2H 2e

Cathode M 4 2e
M2
H 2 M4 2H M 2

E 0cell 0.151 0 0.151


2
M 2 H
0.059
0
E cell Ecell log
2 4
M pH
2
0.059 10 x 1
0.092 0.151 log
2 1
0.059
0.059 = log10 x
2
x
log 10 = 2
x=2

SECTION II (Maximum Marks : 32)

VMC/Paper-2 16 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced


Vidyamandir Classes

This section contains EIGHT questions.


Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided
NO incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result in +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in 2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.

25. According to Molecular Orbital Theory,


(A) C22 is expected to be diamagnetic
(B) O22 is expected to have a longer bond length than O2
(C) N 2 and N 2 have the same bond order
(D) He2 has the same energy as two isolated He atoms
25.(AC) (A) is true because all electrons are paired.
60
(B) is false B.O.O2 2, B.O 3
O22 2
(Bond length) Bond length O
O22 2

(C) Both have B.O. = 2.5 (True)


(D) No it will have lesser energy. (False)
26. The CORRECT statement(s) for cubic close packed (ccp) three dimensional structure is(are) :
(A) The number of the nearest neighbours of an atom present in the topmost layer is 12
(B) The efficiency of atom packing is 74%
(C) The number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids per atom are 1 and 2, respectively.
(D) The unit cell edge length is 2 2 times the radius of the atom

26.(BCD) CCP has a packing efficiency of 74%.


The nearest neighbours in the top most layer is 9.
The number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids are 2 and 1 respectively per atom.
The edge length is 2 2 times the radius of atom ( 2 a 4 r )
27. Reagent(s) which can be used to bring about the following transformation is(are) :

(A) LiAlH4 in (C2H5)2O (B) BH3 in THF


(C) NaBH4 in C2H5OH (D) Raney Ni/H2 in THF
27.(C) LiAlH 4 in Et 2O, BH3 in THF & Raney Ni / H 2 in THF reduces aldehydic group, carboxylic acid and ester
groups. NaBH 4 in EtOH reduces only aldehyde groups.
28. Extraction of copper from copper pyrite (CuFeS2) involves
(A) crushing followed by concentration of the ore by froth-flotation

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Vidyamandir Classes

(B) removal of iron as slag


(C) self-reduction step to produce blister copper following evolution of SO2
(D) refining of blister copper by carbon reduction
28.(ABC) CuFeS2
(A) The ore contains sulphide ions so in the purification, concentration is done by froth-floatation process.
(B) 2CuFeS2 O2
Cu 2S 2FeS SO2

2FeS 3O2
2FeO 2SO 2

FeO SiO2
FeSiO3
slag

(C) 2Cu 2 O 2SO 2 Partial oxidation


2Cu 2 S 3O2

2Cu 2 O Cu 2S
6Cu SO 2 Self Reduction
Blister copper
(D) Copper is refined by electrolytic refining
29. The nitrogen containing compound produced in the reaction of HNO3 with P4O10
(A) can also be prepared by reaction of P4 and HNO3
(B) is diamagnetic
(C) contains one N-N bond
(D) reacts with Na metal producing a brown gas
29.(BD) 1. P4 2 0 HNO3 4H3PO 4 20 NO 2 4 H 2 O
Hence, N 2O5 cannot be prepared using P4 and HNO3
2. P4 O10 2HNO3 5H 2 O N 2 O5 4H3PO4
3. N 2 O5 is formed which is diamagnetic and does not have NN bond.
4. N 2O5 Na NaNO3 NO 2 ()
Brown coloured gas

30. Mixture(s) showing positive deviation from Raoults law at 35C is(are) :
(A) carbon tetrachloride + methanol (B) carbon disulphide + acetone
(C) benzene + toluene (D) phenol + aniline
30.(AB) Positive deviation is observed when the interaction between A and B in mixture is weaker than the interaction
between A and B alone.
(Interaction between AA + interaction between BB) > (2interaction between AB).
Benzene and toluene forms an ideal solution while phenol and aniline form a solution showing ve deviation
from Raoult's law.
31. For invert sugar, the correct statement(s) is(are) :
(Given: specific rotations of (+) sucrose, (+) maltose, L-()-glucose and L-(+)-fructose in aqueous
solution are +66, + 140, 52 and + 92, respectively)
(A) invert sugar is prepared by acid catalyzed hydrolysis of maltose
(B) invert sugar is an equimolar mixture of D-(+)-glucose and D-()-fructose
(C) specific rotation of invert sugar is 20
(D) on reaction with Br2 water, invert sugar forms saccharic acid as one of the products

2H O
31.(BC) Maltose 2D-( )-glucose
H O
2
Sucrose D-()-glucose + L -() - fructose
Invert sugar
Specific rotation of invert sugar is 20 (Observed rotation is 52 92 40 , which is for 2 moles of
mixture). On reaction with Br2 water, invert sugar forms gluconic acid as one of the product [HOOC(CHOH)4 CH 2 OH]
32. Among the following, reaction(s) which gives(give) tert-butyl benzene as the major product is(are) :

VMC/Paper-2 18 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced


Vidyamandir Classes

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

SECTION III (Maximum Marks : 12)


This section contains TWO questions.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Paragraph for Questions 33 - 34
Thermal decomposition of gaseous X2 to gaseous X at 298 K takes place according to the following equation:
2 X ( g )
X 2 ( g )
The standard reaction Gibbs energy, r G, of this reaction is positive. At the start of the reaction, there is one
mole of X2 and no X. As the reaction proceeds, the number of moles of X formed is given by . Thus,
equilibrium is the number of moles of X formed at equilibrium. The reaction is carried out at a constant total
1 1
pressure of 2 bar. Consider the gases to behave ideally. (Given : R = 0.083 L bar K mol )
33. The equilibrium constant KP for this reaction at 298 K, in terms of equilibrium , is :
2 2
8 equilibrium 8 equilibrium
(A) (B)
2 equilibrium 42
equilibrium

2 2
4 equilibrium 4 equilibrium
(C) (D)
2 42
equilibrium equilibrium

33.(B)

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Vidyamandir Classes

2X(g)
X 2 (g)
t0 1
eq
t t eq 1 eq
2
eq
1 eq
p x2 2 2 px 2
eq eq
1 1
2 2
2

2 eq

1 eq 2 2

Kp 2 2eq 8eq
eq 2 4 2eq
eq
1 1
2 2 4
1 eq

2

34. The INCORRECT statement among the following, for this reaction, is
(A) Decrease in the total pressure will result in formation of more moles of gaseous X
(B) At the start of the reaction, dissociation of gaseous X2 takes place spontaneously
(C) equilibrium 0.7
(D) Kc 1

34.(C) (A) 2X(g)


It is true statement X 2 (g)

If P is decreased then reaction will move in forward direction according to Le-Chatelier's principle.
(B) It is true statement
At start of reaction Q = 0
G G 0 RT ln Q
If Q = 0
Then G ve, Re action is spontaneous
(D) It is true statement
G 0 ve
RT ln K P G 0
K p 1 since K c K p KC is also less than 1.

Paragraph for Questions 35 - 36


+
Treatment of compound O with KMnO4/H gave P, which on heating with ammonia
gave Q. The compound Q on treatment with Br2/NaOH produced R. On strong
heating, Q gave S, which on further treatment with ethyl 2-bromopropanoate in the
presence of KOH followed by acidification, gave a compound T.
35. The compound R is :

VMC/Paper-2 20 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced


Vidyamandir Classes

(A) (B) (C) (D)


35.(A)
36. The compound T is :
(A) glycine (B) alanine (C) valine (D) serine

PART-III MATHEMATICS

SECTION I (Maximum Marks : 18)


This section contains SIX questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If, only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 1 In all other cases.

1 0 0
37. Let P 4 1 0 and I be the identity matrix of order 3. If Q qij is a matrix such that P 50 Q I ,

16 4 1
q q32
then 31 equals :
q21
(A) 52 (B) 103 (C) 201 (D) 205

1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0
37.(B) P 4 1 0 ; P 8 1 0 ;
2
P 12 1 0 ;
3
P 16 1 0
4
16 4 1 48 8 1 96 12 1 160 16 1
Pattern of element P31 is 16 1, 3, 6,10,......
50th term is 16 1275

VMC/Paper-2 21 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced


Vidyamandir Classes

n2 n
[By observing that Tn of S = 1 + 3 + 6 + 10 + .. is ]
2
1 0 0 0 0 0
P 50
200 1 0 ; QP 50
I 200 0 0
16 1275 200 1 16 1275 200 0
q31 q32 16 1275 200
102 1 103
q21 200
13
1
38. The value of k 1 k
is equal to :
k 1 sin
sin
4 6 4 6
(A) 3 3 (B)
2 3 3 (C) 2
3 1 (D) 2 2 3
k
13
sin k 1 13
4 6 4 6
38.(C) 2 k
= 2 cot 4 k 1 6 cot 4 k 6
k 1 sin
k 1 . sin
k 1
4 6 4 6

13 3 1
= 2 cot cot =
6 1 cot 4 6 = 2 1
4 4 3 1
4 2 3
= 2 1 2 1 2 3 = 2 3 1
2

39. Let bi 1 for i = 1, 2, , 101. Suppose log e b1 log e b2 ........ log e b101 are in Arithmetic Progression (A.P.)
with the common difference log e 2 . Suppose a1 a2 ...... a101 are in A.P. such that a1 b1 and a51 b51 .
If t b1 b2 ..... b51 and s a1 a2 ..... a51 , then
(A) s t and a101 b101 (B) s t and a101 b101
(B) s t and a101 b101 (D) s t and a101 b101

b
39.(B) log e 2 log e (2) b2 2b1
b1
b1 b2 are in G.P. with common ratio, r = 2.
Let a1 b1 y y 1 (given)
and a51 b51 x
51 51
s a1 a51 ( x y )
2 2
t b1[251 1] 251 . b1 b1 = 251 . y y
51 51 y
st x 251 . y y
2 2
Also b51 b1 .250 x y .250
51 53 y 47 53
st x 2. x = x y0 s>t
2 2 2 2
Also a101 2a51 a1 a101 2 x y

(b51 )2 x2
b101
b1 y

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Vidyamandir Classes

2
x2 x 2 2 xy y 2 x y
b101 a101 2x y 0
y y y
b101 a101

2
x 2 cos x
40. The value of 1 ex
dx is equal to :

2
2
2
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 e 2 (D) 2 e 2
4 4

/2
x 2 cos x
40.(A) I 1 ex
dx
/ 2
/ 2
1 1
I x 2 cos x dx dx
0
1 e x
1 e x
/ 2 / 2
/ 2
I x 2 cos x dx x 2 sin x 2 x sin x dx
0
0 0

/2 2
2 0 2
2 x cos x / 2 cos x dx
2 1 2
4 4 4
0

41. Let P be the image of the point 3, 1, 7 with respect to the plane x y z 3 . Then the equation of the plane
x y z
passing through P and containing the straight line is :
1 2 1
(A) x y 3z 0 (B) 3x z 0 (C) x 4 y 7 z 0 (D) 2x y 0

41.(C) Let image be P( h, k , )


h 3 k 1 7 2[6]
(4)
1 1 1 3
h 1 k 5 3
P (1, 5, 3)
Other point 0(0, 0, 0)

i j k
n 1 5 3 i 4 j 7 k
1 2 1
Plane is x 4 y 7 z 0

42. Area of the region x, y R2 : y


x 3 , 5 y x 9 15 is equal to :

1 4 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 2 3
42.(C) Shaded area = Area of trapezium Area of AED Area of EBC

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Vidyamandir Classes

3 1 4 1
1 15 2 3/ 2 2 3/ 2
3 5 x 3 dx x 3 dx x 3 x 3
2 2 3 3 3 3
4 3
15 2 16 15 3
6
2 3 3 2 2

SECTION II (Maximum Marks : 32)


This section contains EIGHT questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided
NO incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result in +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in 2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.

43. Let P be the point on the parabola y 2 4 x which is at the shortest distance from the center S of the circle

x 2 y 2 4 x 16 y 64 0 . Let Q be the point on the circle dividing the line segment SP internally. Then :
(A) SP 2 5

(B) SQ : QP 5 1 : 2
(C) the x-intercept of the normal to the parabola at P is 6
1
(D) the slope of the tangent to the circle at Q is
2
43.(ACD) S (2, 8), r 4 64 64 2
2t 8
t
t2 2
2t 8 t 3 2t
t=2
P (4, 4)
PS 4 16 20 2 5
SQ = 2

SQ : QP 2 : 2 5 2 1 : 5 1 =
5 1 :4
Normal at point 2x + y = 12
x intercept = 6
VMC/Paper-2 24 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced
Vidyamandir Classes

1
Slope of tangent at Q is .
2
1
44. Let u u1i u2 j u3k be a unit vector in R3 and w
6
i j 2k . Given that there exists a vector v in


R3 such that u v 1 and w u v 1 . Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct ?

(A) There is exactly one choice for such v

(B) There are infinitely many choices for such v
(C) If u lies in the xy-plane then u1 u2
(D) If u lies in the xz-plane then 2 u1 u3

u v 1 | w | | u v | cos 1
44.(BC) w
cos 1 0

is to plane of u & v
w

is u and w
w is v
is to u
w u1 u2 2u3 0
If u in xy plane u3 0
u1 u2 | u1 | | u2 |

If u in xz plane u2 0
u1 2u3 0 | u1 | 2 | u3 |

v
For v w and | u v | 1 | v | sin 1

is angle b/w u and v

v0
So v can take many values where | v | 1 and w

45. Let a , b and f : be defined by f x a cos(| x3 x |) b | x | sin(| x3 x |) . Then f is


(A) differentiable at x = 0 if a = 0 and b = 1
(B) differentiable at x = 1 if a = 1 and b = 0
(C) NOT differentiable at x = 0 if a = 1 and b = 0
(D) NOT differentiable at x = 1 if a = 1 and b = 1

3 3

a cos x x3 bx sin x3 2 0 x h

45.(AB) f x a cos | x x | b | x | sin | x x |


a cos x3 x bx sin x3 x h x 0


a sin x x3 1 3 x 2 b sin x3 x bx cos x3 x 3 x 2 1

f x

a sin x3 x 3x 2 1 b sin x3 x bx cos x3 x 3 x 2 1

Differentiable at x = 0


a cos x3 x bx sin x3 x 1 x 1 h

f x


a cos x x 3 bx sin x3 x 1 h x 1

Differentiable at x = 1
x
n
n n
n n x n x ... x
2 n
46. Let f x lim , for all x > 0. Then
2 2
2 2 n 2 n
n

2

n ! x n x 4 ... x n 2

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Vidyamandir Classes

1 1 2 f ' 3 f '2
(A) f f 1 (B) f f (C) f ' 2 0 (D)
2 3
3 f 3 f 2
x
n
n n
n n x n x ... x
2 n
46.(BC) f x lim , x0
2 2
n n n
n !( x 2 n 2 ) x 2 ... x 2 2

4 n


n
1 n xn x n/2 x n / n
ln f x x lim ln ln ln ... ln
n n n ! x2 n2 2 n2 n2
x x 2
4 n 2
1
1 1 x 1
1 n n
n
1 1 t tx 1
x lim ln ln ... ln ..... x ln dt ln t dt x ln dt
n n 1 2 n t
x2 1

t t 2 x2 1
0 0 0

t2
1
tx 1
g x ln f x x ln dt
0
t 2 x2 1
1
tx 1
x ln dt
2 2
f x e 0 t x 1 tx y
x
1 y
n 1 y 2 dy
e0
1 x
f x f x n
1 x2
1 x
f x 0 if 1
1 x2
1 x2 1 x
x2 x
0 x 1
(B) correct
f 3 4 2
n n
f 3 10
5
f 2 3
n
f 2 5
f 3 f 2
(D) incorrect
f 3 f 2

3
f 2 f 2 . n 0 (C) correct.
5
47. Let f : (0, ) and g : be twice differentiable functions such that f '' and g '' are continuous
f x g x
functions on . Suppose f ' 2 g 2 0, f '' 2 0 and g ' 2 0 . If lim 1, then
x2 f ' x g ' x
(A) f has a local minimum at x = 2 (B) f has a local maximum at x = 2
(C) f '' 2 f 2 (D) f x f '' x 0 for at least one x

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f ( x ) g ( x)
47.(AD) Lt 1
x 2 f '( g ) g '( x)
f ( x ) g ( x) f ( x ) g ( x) f '(2) g (2) f (2) g '(2)
Lt 1 1
x 2 f ( x ) g ( x ) f ( x) g ( x) f '(2) g "(2) f "(2) g '(2)
0 f (2) g '(2)
1 f (2) f "(2)
0 f "(2) g '(2)
Option C is incorrect and option D is correct.
Since f '(2) f (2) 0
f has local minima at x = 2 Option A is correct.
1
48. Let a, b and a 2 b 2 0. Suppose S z : z , t , t 0 , where i 1. If z x iy and
a ibt
z S , then (x ,y) lies on
1 1
(A) the circle with radius and centre , 0 for a 0, b 0
2a 2a
1 1
(B) the circle with radius and centre , 0 for a 0, b 0
2a 2a
(C) the x-axis for a 0, b 0
(D) the y-axis for a 0, b 0
48.(ACD)
1 a ibt
S z c, z , t R , t 0 z c, z , t R, t 0
a ibt a 2 b2t 2
As z x iy and z S
a bt
x y
2 2 2
a b t a b2t 2
2

ay
t bx ay 0 t ,b0
bx
a ax 2
x x
a2 y 2 x 2a 2 a2 y 2
a 2 b2
b2 x2
x

ax x 2 y 2 x 2 x2 y2
a
0

1 1
circle centre , 0 , radius for a 0; b 0
2a 2a
For b 0, a 0 equation (i) becomes, y 0 lies on x-axis
For a 0, b 0 equation (i) becomes, x 0 lies on y-axis
49. Let a, , R . Consider the system of linear equations
ax 2 y
3x 2 y
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct ?
(A) If a 3 , then the system has infinitely many solutions for all values of and
(B) If a 3 , then the system has a unique solution for all values of and
(C) If 0 , then the system has infinitely many solutions for a 3
(D) If 0 , then the system has no solution for a 3
a 2
49.(BCD) |A| 2a 6 2 a 3
3 2

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Vidyamandir Classes

2
| A1 | 2
2
a
| A2 | a 3
3
For a 3 | A | 0 system as infinite many solutions and if | A1 | 0 and | A2 | 0
0 Option A is incorrect
If and a 3
A 0 , | A2 | 0 | A1 | 0 System has infinite solutions
For 0 and a 3 | A | 0 | A2 | 0 | A1 | 0
System has no solution Option D in correct
1 1
50. Let f : , 2 R and g : , 2 R be functions defined by f ( x) [ x 2 3] and
2 2
g( x) | x | f ( x) | 4 x 7 | f ( x) , where [y] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to y for y R . Then :
1
(A) f is discontinuous exactly at three points in , 2
2
1
(B) f is discontinuous exactly at four points in , 2
2
1
(C) g is NOT differentiable exactly at four points in , 2
2
1
(D) g is NOT differentiable exactly at five points in , 2
2
50.(BC) f x x 2 3


g x x f x 4x 7 f x x 4x 7 x2 3


f x discontinuous at 1, 2, 3, 2
1
7 5 x 3 2 , 0

7 3 x 3 0, 1

7 3 x 2 1, 2


7 3 x 1 2, 3

7
7 3 x 0 3,
4

5x 7 0 7
4 , 2


3 x 2


Discontinuous at 1, 2, 3, 2

Non differentiable 0, 1, 2, 3, 2
SECTION III (Maximum Marks : 15)
This section contains TWO paragraph.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:

VMC/Paper-2 28 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced


Vidyamandir Classes

Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Paragraph for Questions 51 - 52


Football teams T1 and T 2 have to play two games against each other. It is assumed that the outcomes of the two games

1 1 1
are independent. The probabilities of T1 winning, drawing and losing a game against T 2 are , and , respectively.
2 6 3
Each team gets 3 points for a win, 1 point for a draw and 0 point for a loss in a game. Let X and Y denote the total points
scored by teams T1 and T 2 , respectively , after two games.

51. P (X > Y) is :
1 5 1 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 12 2 12
51.(B) For (X > Y)
Match -1 Match 2 P(X > Y)
1 1
T1 wins T1 wins
2 2
1 1
T1 wins T1 draws
2 6
1 1
T1 draw T1 wins
6 2
1 1 1 5
PX Y
4 12 12 12
52. P (X = Y) is :
11 1 13 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36 3 36 2
52.(C) For (X = Y)
Match -1 Match 2 P(X > Y)
1 1
T1 wins T1 Lose
2 3
1 1
T1 Lose T1 win
3 2
1 1
T1 draw T1 draw
6 6
1 1 1 13
PX Y
6 6 36 36
Paragraph for Questions 53 - 54
x2 y 2
Let F1 x1 , 0 and F2 x2 , 0 , for x1 0 and x2 0 , be the foci of the ellipse
1 . Suppose a parabola having
9 8
vertex at the origin and focus at F 2 intersects the ellipse at point M in the first quadrant and at point N in the fourth
quadrant.

53. The orthocentre of the triangle F1MN is :


9 2 9 2
(A) , 0 (B) , 0 (C) , 0 (D) , 6
10 3 10 3
53.(A) Solving y 2 4 x

x2 42
1
3 8

VMC/Paper-2 29 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced


Vidyamandir Classes

3 3
M 6 N 6
2 2
Equation of altitude through M
5 3
y 6 x
2 6 2
According to figure, orthocentre lies on x = axis
9 9
x orthocentre 0
10 10
54. If the tangents to the ellipse at M and N meet at R and the normal to the parabola at M meets the x-axis at Q, then
the ratio of the area of the triangle MQR to area of the quadrilateral MF1NF2 is :
(A) 3:4 (B) 4:5 (C) 5:8 (D) 2:3
54.(C) Equation of normal at point M
3
y mx 2m m3 ; where m t
6
7
Q 0
2
Equation of tangent at point M is given by
x 3 y. 6
1
9 2 8
x 3 y 6
1
9 2 8
x 6 y 0
3
M 6 R 6 0
2
7 5 6
Q 0 Area of MQR
2 4
1
Area of quadrilateral MF1 NF2 2 2 6 2 6
2
ar. of MQR 5
MF1 NF2
ar. of quad . 8

VMC/Paper-2 30 JEE Entrance Exam-2016/Advanced

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