Series RLH/1 Set 2 Geen, 30/1/2 aaa. federal ate a agian & Ga Roll No s . ye oe arava fered Candidates must write the Code on the title page of the answer-book, gua sta a ot ge wet 4 aia ye 15 2 wren Hane era aft afte faq me ats seat a ora sen afeanr & ga-ga we pra ota a a fe ea wea F 31 oe BI Bree ar or fora ye eS oes, we aT ais oraya feral Fe wea Bey & fore 15 fire a aay fen ve 81 wea—aa ar fae gala H 10:15 38 PRAT STEM! 10:15 FSS 10:30 aS aw Ger Hac wea wt TSA sik ge safer & dha 8 see—gfeeenr we ats sa we fA Please check that this question paper contains 15 printed pages. Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate. Please check that this question paper contains 31 questions. Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it. 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper! will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book: during this period, aenfera weer SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II afore MATHEMATICS Refit a7 : 3 we] [ fra TH + 90 Time allowed : 3 hours ] [ Maximum marks : 90 [P.7.0.rarer Freer: () wixer orate) (i) FAIR HB TE a at — a, 7, wie ZH feria 8) (iii) Fe 7 F Uen—vey ai are 4 wed 8 | as aw F 6 We 8 Frat 8 yoda 2 we FT Ws a F 10 er arate stat HB) sz 1 wee Karat 8 sede 4 ai TB | (iy) Berger a1 vain afta 2) General Instructions : (All questions are compulsory, (i) The question paper consists of 31 questions divided into four sections ~ A, B, C and D. (iti) Section A contains 4 questions of I mark each, Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each (iv) Use of calculators is not permitted. aa Section A. Fea RST 18 4 aH wee we aT 1 aI Question numbers | to 4 carry 1 mark each. 1. Sst aiaren & sant FS ages we sree GA ee | Peer ara Ae fe GAT TAT Sa UH SISTA BT | A letter of English alphabet is chosen at random. Determine the probability that the chosen letter is a consonant. 30/1/2 weOL 2. orpf 19, PA WI PB, 3 O are Gu a tet coef tees Be vAD BY Soe'8 aH ZOAB #1 aR ferftaa | B arpft 1 In Fig. 1, PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O such that ~ APB = 50°. Write the measure of ZOAB. A Db > Figure 1 3. Bere PH I, x eT y Sead areht tat free, Sad ara wh ey areht ba 3 ne-fig % aT: 30° eT 60° 3 BIO seTE at x = y Ta AAT | The tops of two towers of height x and y, standing on level ground, subtend angles of 30° and 60° respectively at the centre of the line joining their feet, then find x: y. 4. WR x=, feara aeRO 3x? + 2-3 =0 FIG Ba @, tt aT a aa AR | If r= i. is a solution of the quadratic equation 3x? +2kr-3=0, find the value of k. 30/1/2 3 [P.T.O.usa Section B We SEM 5S 10TH wa ITH 2 HHS Question numbers 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each. 5, af AG,2), B22) Ta C2.) WH ara ys wig fat zB = 90°%, tte ara ara FAT | If A(S,2), B(2,-2) and C(-2,f) are the vertices of a right angled triangle with ZB = 90°, then find the value of f. 6 FO ma aay ww we fig TA, ga H Eee tare TP ae TQ Gi me EI fhe fife f OT, Paras PQ a a SHRI 8 | From a point T outside a circle of centre O, tangents TP and TQ are drawn to the circle. Prove that OT is the right bisector of line segment PQ. 7. apf 24, AB Az O ad qa ar ore 8 aan AT Eael tar BI BAR ZA0Q = 58° @ at ZATQ ata aifsra | Ss hye A T arrpfa 2 30/1/2 4In Fig. 2, AB is the diameter of a circle with centre O and-ATiis a tangent) Tf ZAOQ = 58°, find ZATQ. Figure 2 8. fre fee aia ao fee ea Aa: 4x? —4a?x+ (a4 —b4) =0. Solve the following quadratic equation for x : 4x? —4a?x+(at -b*) =0. 9, me orga a afin Fe fig P 24) fig a( £3) om Bes) te ard Taras a feria ara 2 | Bp Si 412 Find the ratio in which the point P G ) divides the line segment joining the points (3.3) and B(2,-5). 10. aria AI 213, 205, 197, --, 37 ar AEA Ve ferftaT | Find the middle term of the A.P. 213, 205, 197, --, 37. 30/1/2 5 [P.T.O.waa Section C We BEM 118 20 am wee we 3 sis F Question numbers 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each. l. arpfi 34, AO = OB@ Te APB aan AQO siege & | ae orphan afta 40 at Sera re dre sete: [2 ete] Q orga 3 In Fig. 3, APB and AQO are semicircles, and AO = OB. If the perimeter of the figure is 40 cm, find the area of the shaded region, [us n= 2| Q P Figure 3 30/1/2 612. w& ate aah ar facia, arf tie oe aemitfia ears Bear & wish. aT HT BL aria A fsa 3.5 ae 8 aan ge fact at aan a gat 1662 wa oe cast att 31 fact A Sar ara Altra | faeha & anhiterean peta det st E10 wf et St Aadinmet mem train) [x= afi A solid wooden toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a cone of same radius. The radius of hemisphere is 3.5 cm and the total wood used in the making of toy is 1662 cm’, Find the height of the toy. Also, find the cost of painting the hemispherical part of the toy at the rate of € 10 per cm?. [ue ae 2) 13, w fy ABC aT age aa Sify frat ACL, -4) 8 aT Aa at om aet qeratl & aea—feig (2, -1) 7a (0, -1) 81 Find the area of the triangle ABC with A(1, ~4) and mid-points of sides through A being (2, -1) and (0, -1). 14, spf 4H, 12 Sf Sere S we She vig, Fras sre A fear 6 Si 8, H Sad wer @, aver} aaiat set ar 4 Se Sarg aren vig, See ea aT | te as Sta aT TEP ya Gare ara =ifsre | (2-2 a 5=2226%) 30/1/2 7 [P.7.0.In Fig. 4, from the top of a solid cone of height 12 em and ase radius 6 éhnia cone of height 4 cm is removed by a plane parallel to the base. Find the total and V5 = 2236) surface area of the remaining solid, ( Use x= <6cm> Figure 4 15, arpfa 5H, ung & um ste waren sare, recht frat 15 df x 10 ft x 5 aft aaa 7 se are ey Berar Be ae we Frere Rear |e aa Se ag Br ee es [n= sie 30/1/2 8In Fig. 5, from a cuboidal solid metallic block, of dimensions 15 cm = 10 cm * 5 cm, a cylindrical hole of diameter 7 cm is drilled out. Find the surface area of the remaining block. [use n= ie —Zom_ te 1S OM Figure 5 16. apf 6 4, oraifees aa a Same Bre aAfaT | [x = 3.14 efeTTy 30/1/2 9 [P.T.O.In Fig. 6, find the area of the shaded region [Use =3.14] Figure 6 17, we tan & crefig & ww vas & frat ar Sa FT 30° @ sit waa crefsg S afar % rat a1 Sawa stor 45° 31 ale dia 30 Wt Sah A, a vee A Sard aa Rae The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 45°. If the tower is 30 m high, find the height of the building. 18, Pe fee aioe Be 3 we wal SG + 7), a Te AT ifr | ara: Tera 2087 Te Forfa | If the sum of the first m terms of an A.P. is fem +7n), then find its n" term. Hence write its 20" term. 19, a firs fresh at wom Bre Sore aT | Pee AY sere ara APC : @ wawaiimA (i) ated afte a faa At 30/1/2 10Three distinct coins are tossed together. Find the probability of getting (atleast 2 heads (ii)_at most 2 heads 20. p ae AM ara Alfsry, foreach fre Reva eats (p+ Dx? -6(p +1)x+ 3(p+9) =0, p#-1 Sym wan ai ora: aa & aE ara fre | Find that value of p for which the quadratic equation (p+1)x? - 6(p +1)x+3(p+9) =0, p#-1 has equal roots. Hence find the roots’ of the equation, waz Section D WH TET 21S 31 TH wee TH 4 sie Question numbers 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each. 2 angtt 74, 0 a3 aa qu iH mre fag Pa @ eae tad PQ aa PR wa VaR WRT me € FH ZRPQ = 30° 81 shar RS ere tear PQ % ania Wi WE 81 ZROS aT afar | 30/1/2 oat [P.T.O.In Fig. 7, tangents PQ and PR are drawn from an external point P't6'a itcte With centre O, such that ZRPQ = 30°. A chord RS is drawn parallel to the tangent PQ Find ZRQS. Ss \/ R Figure 7 22. fi & wm fag Pa we tan & free ar saa atm 30° 8 aan aR mR aT vases & free a1 Sama IT 60° 8 | ale eases aA chang 5 oh 2 ah ian A Sere ara aifsre | From a point P on the ground the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30° and that of the top of a flag staff fixed on the top of the tower, is 60°. If the length of the flag staff is 5 m, find the height of the tower. 23, Ureeft aw one 8 12 Tae & aeaTa, oneh Sa a eRe F AAA & fa 25003. A START 8 | SHA AH are FT 100 A aaa A site fixe whe aare saa F 20 sere mg | are fre, Pa Fear 12 Bae a TA ae ae aS aw EE As TTT | ‘oaths 8 a4 aT yea afta aia 2? Ramkali required & 2500 after 12 weeks to send her daughter to school. She saved 100 in the first week and increased her weekly saving by % 20 every week. Find whether she will be able to send her daughter to school after 12 weeks, ‘What value is generated in the above situation? 30/1/2 1224. UH aaa Fo 20 are E1 fira 1 B20 aH A Gert Sia BN a te argeear epren Tar | orem ara afare fe Rava me ard a aifeea en @ 23038 at (i) Wasa eT at A box contains 20 cards numbered from 1 to 20. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the number on the drawn card is (i) divisible by 2 or 3 (i) a prime number 25, 2.52 fat ofa ve At afa @ ont Ue deren Tey a wH Soe fe F ot Ta afe a & ora At fioar 40 Sof 8 cen set a2 gee oh ar ser 3.15 Ah ag TAT 2, a ogg ar state Sara ara AAT | Water is flowing at the rate of 2.52 km/h through a cylindrical pipe into a cylindrical tank, the radius of whose base is 40 cm, If the increase in the level of water in the tank, in half an hour is 3.15 m, find the internal diameter of the pipe. 26, 14 Hh eR aon 4 Hh re at GH BHI Ghar wa! gaa | Pach fist wt ate ant ok wave ea a fren at ww 40 Set Sef G8e wa we 1 gC AL hee a aifsre | A well of diameter 4 m is dug 14 m deep. The earth taken out is spread evenly all around the well to form a 40 cm high embankment. Find the width of the embankment. 30/1/2 13 [P.T.O.RS rcastide com ‘A Complete uidefor CBSE students