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a 3 b2 a 3 b2
observables a, b, c and d as follows : P = .
: P= .
cd cd
4 4
(1) 2gh (2) gh (1) 2gh (2) gh
3 3
3 3
(3) gh (4) 4g / h (3) gh (4) 4g / h
4 4
5. The initial and final temperature of water as 5.
recorded by an observer are (40.6 ± 0.2)ºC and
(40.6 ± 0.2)ºC
(78.3 ± 0.3)ºC. Calculate the rise in temperature (78.3 ± 0.3)ºC.
with proper error limits.
(1) (37.7 ± 0.5ºC) (2) (37.7 ± 0.1ºC) (1) (37.7 ± 0.5ºC) (2) (37.7 ± 0.1ºC)
(3) (118.9 ± 0.5ºC) (4) 28ºC (3) (118.9 ± 0.5ºC) (4) 28ºC
5 5
(1) m / s2 (2) 3 m/s2 (1) m / s2 (2) 3 m/s2
6 6
(3) 10 m/s2 (4) 6 m/s2 (3) 10 m/s2 (4) 6 m/s2
14. A flywheel of mass 50 kg and radius of gyration 14. 50
about its axis of rotation of 0.5 m is acted upon
0.5
by a constant torque of 12.5 N-m, Its angular 12.5
velocity at t = 5 sec is : t = 5
(1) 2.5 rad/sec (2) 5 rad/sec (1) 2.5 / (2) 5 /
(3) 7.5 rad/sec (4) 10 rad/sec (3) 7.5 / (4) 10 /
15. th
A lift is coming from 8 floor and is just about 15. 8
th
4
th
M 2 M 2 M 2 M 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 3 4 3
Key
Filling
17. Find the angle between the vectors (iˆ 2ˆj 3k)
ˆ 17. ˆ (2iˆ ˆj)
(iˆ 2 ˆj 3k)
7b 3 3b 7b 3 3b 7b 3 3b 7b 3 3b
(3) 12 , 12 , 0 (4) 12 , 0, 12 (3) 12 , 12 , 0 (4) 12 , 0, 12
x
A x
D A D
O t
C O t
C
B
B
(1) OA only (2) BC only
(3) CD only (4) OA and CD both (1) OA (2) BC
26. An engine develops 10 KW of power. How (3) CD (4) OA CD
much time will it take to lift a mass of 200 kg 26. 10 KW
200 kg
to a height of 40 m ?
40 m
(1) 4 sec. (2) 5 sec. ?
(1) 4 sec. (2) 5 sec.
(3) 8 sec. (4) 10 sec. (3) 8 sec. (4) 10 sec.
27. A stone is projected in air. Its time of flight 27.
is 3 sec and the range is 150 m. The horizontal 3 sec
150 m
component of velocity of projection of the
?
stone is : (g = 10 m/s2 ) (g = 10 m/s2 )
(1) 22.5 m/s (2) 15 m/s (1) 22.5 m/s (2) 15 m/s
(3) 30 m/s (4) 50 m/s (3) 30 m/s (4) 50 m/s
28. A force of (5 + 3x)N acting on a body of mass 28. 20 kg (5 + 3x)N,
20 kg along the x-axis displaces it from x = 2m x-
x = 2m x = 6m.
to x = 6m. The work done by the force is :-
:-
(1) 20 J (2) 48 J (3) 68 J (4) 86 J (1) 20 J (2) 48 J (3) 68 J (4) 86 J
29. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 29. 500 kg 50 m
50 m with a velocity of 36 km/hr. How much 36 km/hr.
centripetal force is required?
?
(1) 100 N (2) 1000 N (1) 100 N (2) 1000 N
(3) 500 N (4) 200 N (3) 500 N (4) 200 N
200 200
(1) J (2) 16 J 3kg B (1) J (2) 16 J 3kg B
9 9
A 2kg A 2kg
(3) 24 J (4) 36 J (3) 24 J (4) 36 J
31. A ball is dropped from the top of a very high 31.
building. Estimate the magnitude of the
m/s2
acceleration of the ball right after it's collision
with the ground in m/s2 .
(
(Assume collision is perfectly elastic & do not
neglect air resistance and g = 9.8 m/s2 )
g = 9.8 m/s2 )
(1) 9.8 m/s2 (2) zero (1) 9.8 m/s2 (2) zero
(3) 19.6 m/s2 (4) None (3) 19.6 m/s2 (4) None
32. A mass of 1 kg is just able to slide down the 32. 1 kg
slope of an inclined rough surface when the
60°
angle of inclination is 60°. The minimum force
necessary to pull the mass up the inclined plane
:-
is :-
(g = 10 m/s2)
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 14.14 N (2) 17.32 N (1) 14.14 N (2) 17.32 N
(3) 10 N (4) 16.66 N (3) 10 N (4) 16.66 N
33. A spring with one end attached to a mass and 33.
other to a rigid support is stretched and
released. Choose the correct statement.
(1) Magnitude of acceleration, when just (1)
released, is maximum
(2) Magnitude of acceleration, when at
(2)
equilibrium position, is maximum
(3)
(3) Speed is maximum when mass is at
equilibrium position
(4) Option (1) and (3) are correct (4) (1) (3)
34. If the potential energy between electron and 34. r
ke 2 ke 2
proton at a distance r is given by U 3 . U 3r 3
-
3r
32 32
(3) rad / s (4) All of above (3) rad / s (4)
4 4
38. A ball collides head on with another stationary
38.
1.5
ball with double of its own mass with a velocity
of 1.5 m/s (Fig.). If the coefficient of resolution
is 0.6 then after the collision their velocities will
0.6
be-
u2=0
u2=0
u1 v1 v2
u1 v1 v2
m m
m m 2m 2m
2m 2m Before Collision After Collision
Before Collision After Collision
(1) –0.1
0.8
(1) – 0.1 m/s. & 0.8 m/s
(2) 0.8
0.1
(2) 0.8 m/s. & 0.1 m/s
(3) 0.1
8
(3) 0.1 m/s. & 8 m/s
(4) 8 m/s. & 0.1 m/s (4) 8
0.1
ML2 ML2
(4) (4)
k k
41. A particle is moving along a circular path with 41.
uniform speed. Through what angle does its
angular velocity change when it completes half
of the circular path?
?
(1) 0º (2) 45º (3) 180º (4) 360º (1) 0º (2) 45º (3) 180º (4) 360º
42. A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a 42. 2m
table such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely
60 cm
from the edge of the table. The total mass of
4 kg
the chain is 4 kg. What is the work done in
pulling the entire chain on the table
-
(1) 7.2 J (2) 3.6 J (1) 7.2 J (2) 3.6 J
(3) 120 J (4) 1200 J (3) 120 J (4) 1200 J
43. The horizontal range of a projectile is 4 3 43.
times its maximum height. Its angle of 4 3
projection will be :- (1) 45º (2) 60º
(1) 45º (2) 60º (3) 90º (4) 30º (3) 90º (4) 30º
44. One end of massless rope, which passes over a 44.
(C)
massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook
P
C while the other end is free. Maximum tension
840
that the rope can bear is 840 N. With what value
60
of maximum safe acceleration (in ms–2) can a man
of 60 kg climb on the rope?
(1) 16 • P
(1) 16 • P
(2) 6 (2) 6
(3) 4 C (3) 4 C
(4) 8 (4) 8
45. When forces F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle 45. F1, F2, F3, m
of mass m such that F 2 and F 3 are mutually
F2 F3
perpendicular, then the particle remains F1
stationary. If the force F1 is now removed then
the acceleration of the particle is-
(1) F1/m (2) F2F3/mF1 (1) F1/m (2) F2F3/mF1
(3) (F2 – F3)/m (4) F2/m (3) (F2 – F3)/m (4) F2/m
8/37 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 H
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Kp Kp
46. log K + log RT = 0 46. log K + log RT = 0
c c
is a relationship for the reaction :-
:-
(1) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 (1) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
(2) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 (2) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
(3) H2 + I2 2HI (3) H2 + I2 2HI
(4) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (4) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
47. If 500 ml of a gas A at 1000 torr and 1000 ml 47. A, 500 ml 1000 torr
of gas B at a 800 torr are placed in a 2 lit B, 1000 ml
800 torr
container, the final pressure will be :- 2 lit
:-
(1) 100 torr (2) 650 torr (1) 100 torr (2) 650 torr
(3) 1800 torr (4) 2400 torr (3) 1800 torr (4) 2400 torr
48. Which among the following is not favourable 48. SO3 :-
for SO3 formation :- 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) H = – 45 kcal
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) H = – 45 kcal (1)
(1) High Pressure (2)
(2) High Temperature
(3) SO3
(3) Decreasing SO3 concentration
(4) Increasing reactant concentration (4)
49. 50 ml of each gas A and of gas B takes 150 49.
A
B,
50 ml
and 200 seconds respectively for diffusing
150 200 sec
through a pin hole under the similar condition.
B
36
A
If moleculer mass of gas B is 36. The
molecular mass of A will be :-
:-
(1) 20.25 (2) 64 (3) 96 (4) 128 (1) 20.25 (2) 64 (3) 96 (4) 128
50. A solution is a mixture of 0.05 M KCl and 50. 0.05 M KCl
0.05 M NaI
0.05 M NaI. The concentration of I¯ in the solution
AgCl
when AgCl just starts to precipitate is equal to:-
I¯ :-
[Ksp(AgCl) = 10–10 M2 ., Ksp(AgI) = 4 × 10–16 M2 ) [Ksp(AgCl) = 10–10 M2 ., Ksp(AgI) = 4 × 10–16 M2 )
(1) 4 × 10–6 M (2) 2 × 10–8 M (1) 4 × 10–6 M (2) 2 × 10–8 M
–7
(3) 2 × 10 M (4) 8 × 10–15 M (3) 2 × 10 M –7
(4) 8 × 10–15 M
51. The compressibility factor of a gas is less than 51. STP
unity at STP therefore. :-
:-
(1) Vm > 22.4 lit (2) Vm < 22.4 lit (1) Vm > 22.4 lit (2) Vm < 22.4 lit
(3) Vm = 22.4 lit (4) Vm = 44.8 lit (3) Vm = 22.4 lit (4) Vm = 44.8 lit
52. The conjugate base of [Al(H2 O)3(OH)3] is :- 52. [Al(H2 O)3 (OH)3] :-
(1) [Al(H2 O)3 (OH)2] – (2) [Al(H2O)3(OH)2O]¯ (1) [Al(H2 O)3 (OH)2] –
(2) [Al(H2O)3(OH)2O]¯
(3) [Al(H2O) 3 (OH)3] ¯ (4) [Al(H2O) 2(OH)4] ¯ (3) [Al(H2O) 3 (OH)3] ¯ (4) [Al(H2O) 2(OH)4] –
53. The radius of a divalent cation m2+ is 94 pm 53.
m2+ 94 pm
and of divalent anion X–2 is 146 pm. Thus mx X–2 146 pm
mx
has :- (1)
(NaCl)
(1) Rock salt (NaCl) structure
(2)
(2) Zinc blende structure
(3) Antifluorite structure (3)
(4) bcc (CsCl) structure (4) bcc (CsCl)
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
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54. Which solution will have pH closer to 1.0 :- 54.
pH
1.0
:-
M M M M
(1) 100 ml of HCl + 100 ml of 10 NaOH (1) 100 ml of HCl + 100 ml of 10 NaOH
10 10
M M M M
(2) 55 ml of HCl + 45 ml of NaOH (2) 55 ml of HCl + 45 ml of NaOH
10 10 10 10
M M M M
(3) 10 ml of HCl + 90 ml of NaOH (3) 10 ml of HCl + 90 ml of NaOH
10 10 10 10
67. The total entropy change for a system and its 67.
surroundings increases, if the process is :-
(1) Reversible (2) Irreversible (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) Exothermic (4) Endothermic
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68. 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 initially 4 moles each of 68. 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
SO2
O2
SO2 & O2 are present, at equilibrium 25% O2 4
25% O2
is used. Total moles at equilibrium are :-
(1) 6.5 (2) 7.0 (3) 8.0 (4) 2.0 (1) 6.5 (2) 7.0 (3) 8.0 (4) 2.0
69. The heat of reaction at constant volume for an 69.
300 K
endothermic reaction in equilibrium is 1200 cal
1200 cal
more than at constant pressure at 300K.
Calculate the ratio of equilibrium constants Kp
Kp Kc
and Kc :- (1) 16.48 × 10–3 (2) 1.648 × 10–3
(1) 16.48 × 10–3 (2) 1.648 × 10–3
(3) 164.8 × 10–3 (4) 0.1648 × 10–3
(3) 164.8 × 10–3 (4) 0.1648 × 10–3
70. Van't Hoff factors of aqueous solutions of X, 70. X, Y, Z
1.8, 0.8
Y, Z are 1.8, 0.8 and 2.5. Hence, their (assume 2.5
(
equal concentrations in all three cases) then
:-
correct order is :- (1) : X<Y <Z
(1) B.P. : X < Y < Z
(2) : Z > X > Y
(2) F.P. : Z > X > Y
(3) Osmotic pressure : X = Y = Z (3) : X = Y = Z
(4) Vapour pressure : Y > X > Z (4) :Y >X >Z
71. Which of the following gas posses the largest 71.
internal energy :- (1) 2 He 300 K 1000 L
(1) 2 moles of He gas occuping 1000 L at 300K
(2) 56 kg of nitrogen at 107 pa and 300K (2) 300 K 107 56 kg
(3) 8 g of oxygen at 8 atm and 300 K (3) 300 K 8 8
(4) 1000 mole of argan occuping 40000 L at 900K (4) 1000
900 K 40000L
72. The incorrect relationship according to Raoult's 72.
law for two miscible liquid mixture is :- :-
(1) PT = P°A + (P°B – P°A)XB (1) PT =
P°A + (P°B – P°A)XB
(2) PT = P 'A + P 'B (2) PT =
P 'A + P B'
(3) PT = P°B + (P°A – P°B)XA (3) PT =
P°B + (P°A – P°B)XA
(4) PT = P°A + (P°A – P°B)XA (4) PT =
P°A + (P°A – P°B)XA
73. Above the inversion temperature µ (Joule 73.
µ
thomson coefficient) is:-
(1) Positive (2) Negative (1) (2)
(3) Decrease (4) None (3) (4)
74. Osmotic pressure of 30% solution of glucose 74.
30%
1.20 atm
is 1.20 atm and that of 3.42% solution of cane
3.42%
sugar is 2.5 atm. The osmotic pressure of the
2.5 atm
mixture containing equal volumes of the two
solution will be :-
:-
(1) 2.5 atm (2) 3.7 atm (1) 2.5 atm (2) 3.7 atm
(3) 1.85 atm (4) 1.3 atm (3) 1.85 atm (4) 1.3 atm
75. For a gaseous reaction of 300 K 75. 300 K
H – E = –4.98 kJ assuming that R = 8.3 JK–1 H – E = –4.98 kJ
R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1
mol–1, ng is :-
ng
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) –2 (4) 0 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) –2 (4) 0
12/37 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 H
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PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE (MLP, MLQ, MLR, MLS) 16–03–2013
76. Two volatile liquids A and B forms ideal 76. A
B
solution. In the following graph QR will be
QR
:-
equal to :-
R
R
V.P. S
V.P. S P
P
A Q B (XB=1)
A Q B (XB=1) (X A=1) Mole fraction
(X A=1) Mole fraction
(1) QP + PS + SR (2) QP + QS (1) QP + PS + SR (2) QP + QS
(3) QS + PS (4) QP + PR (3) QS + PS (4) QP + PR
77. The core charge on oxygen is equal to :- 77.
(1) +2 (2) –2 (3) –6 (4) +6 (1) +2 (2) –2 (3) –6 (4) +6
78. A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) 78. (HX) 0.2 20%
is 20%. The freezing point of this solution is
:-
[(KF)water = –1.86 K Kg/mol] (Kf = –1.86 K kg/mol)
(1) – 0.45°C (2) – 0.90°C (1) – 0.45°C (2) – 0.90°C
(3) –0.31°C (4) – 0.53°C (3) –0.31°C (4) – 0.53°C
79. When the value of (n + ) is not more than 3 79. (n + )
3
which of the following subshells is not possible
to exist ? (1) 2s (2) 3s
(1) 2s (2) 3s (3) 3p (4) 2p (3) 3p (4) 2p
80. Consider a binary mixture of volatile liquid. 80. (P A0 = 300 torr, P B0 = 800 torr)
If at XA = 0.4 the vapour pressure of solution X A
= 0.4
is 580 torr. Then the mixture could 580 torr
(PA0 = 300 torr, P B0 = 800 torr)
:-
(1) CH3COCH3 – H2O (1) CH3COCH3 – H2O
(2) C2H5OH + Cyclohexane (2) C2H5OH + Cyclohexane
(3) C6H6 – C6H5CH3 (3) C6H6 – C6H5CH3
(4) nC6H14 – nC7H16 (4) nC6H14 – nC7H16
81. Simultaneous determination of exact position 81.
and momentum of an electron is :-
(1) Possible (1)
(2) Impossible (2)
(3) Sometimes possible sometimes impossible (3)
(4) None of these (4)
82. The maximum number of molecules is present in 82.
:-
(1) 5L of N2 gas at STP (1) STP N2
5L
(2) 0·5 g of H2 gas (2) H2
0·5g
(3) 10 g of O2 gas (3) O2
10 g
(4) 15 L of H2 gas at STP (4) STP H2
15L
83. The energy of a radiation of wavelength 83. 8000Å E
1
8000 Å is E 1 and energy of a radiation of 16000Å
E
2
wavelength 16000Å is E2. What is the relation
between these two :-
(1) E1 = 6E2 (2) E1 = 2E2
(1) E1 = 6E2 (2) E1 = 2E2
E2 E2
(3) E1 = E2 (4) E1 = (3) E1 = E2 (4) E1 =
2 2
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84. In Haber process 30 litres of dihydrogen and 84.
30
30 litres of dinitrogen were taken for reaction 30
which yielded only 50% of the expected product. 50%
What will be the composition of gaseous mixture
:-
under the aforesaid condition in the end : (1) 20
, 20
, 20
(1) 20 litres ammonia, 20 litres nitrogen, 20
litres hydrogen
(2) 10
, 25
, 15
(2) 10 litres ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, 15
litres hydrogen
(3) 20 litres ammonia, 10 litres nitrogen, 30 (3) 20
, 10
, 30
litres hydrogen
(4) 20 litres ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, 15 (4) 20
, 25
, 15
litres hydrogen
85. If Ee, E, Ep represents the kinetic energies of 85.
an electron, alpha particle and a proton Ee, E
Ep
respectively, each moving with same
de-Broglie wavelength then :
(1) Ee = E = Ep (2) Ee > E > Ep (1) Ee = E = Ep (2) Ee > E > Ep
(3) E > Ep > Ee (4) Ee > Ep > E (3) E > Ep > Ee (4) Ee > Ep > E
86. Which has maximum molecules : 86.
(1) 7 gm N2 (2) 2 gm H2 (1) 7 gm N2 (2) 2 gm H2
(3) 16 gm NO2 (4) 16 gm O2 (3) 16 gm NO2 (4) 16 gm O2
87. Which of the following will violates Aufbau 87.
principle as well as pauli's exclusion principle:-
1s 2s 2p 1s 2s 2p
(1) (1)
1s 2s 2p 1s 2s 2p
(2) (2)
1s 2s 2p 1s 2s 2p
(3) (3)
(4) None of these (4)
88. One mole of CO2 contains 88. CO2
(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of C (1) 6.02 × 1023 C
(2) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of O (2) 6.02 × 1023 O
(3) 18.1 × 1023 molecules of CO2 (3) 18.1 × 1023 CO2
(4) 3 gram molecules of CO2 (4) CO2 3
89. Percentage of C, H and N are given as follows 89. C, H N
C = 40%, H = 13.33%, N = 46.67% The C = 40% , H = 13.33%, N = 46.67 %
empirical formula will be –
(1) CH2 N (2) C2 H 4 N (3) CH4 N (4) CH3N (1) CH2 N (2) C2 H 4 N (3) CH4 N (4) CH3N
90. In the reaction 90.
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O() when 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O)()
1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made 1
1
O2
to react to completion.
(1) 1 mole of H2 O is produced (1) 1
H2 O
(2) 1 mole of NO will be produced (2) 1
NO
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed (3)
(4) All the ammonia will be consumed (4)
14/37 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 H
MAJOR TEST
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE (MLP, MLQ, MLR, MLS) 16–03–2013
91. The figures (a), (b) and (c) are of ? 91.
(a), (b) (c)
?
(X) (X)
(a) TMV (b) Volvox (a) TMV (b) Volvox
(Z) (Z)
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
First of all identify the A and B then their
A B
correct function and they are made for which
type of organisms. Which one of these options
is most correct with respect to identification,
:-
uses and about the organisms :- igpku mi;ksx fdu thoksa ds
Identification Uses Made for
fy;s cuk;s
Herbarium For taxonomy Plant species
A
of tkrs gS
(1)
Zoological For taxonomy Animal gcsZfj;e dsoy ikniksa dh oxhZdh
ikni tkfr;ksa
B A
park of animals only species ds fy,s ds fy,
(1)
A
Zoological For taxonomy Animal izzk.kh miou dsoy tUrqvksa dh tUrq tkfr;ksa
park of animals species B
(2) oxhZdh ds fy,s ds fy,
Herbarium For taxonomy Plant species
B izzk.kh miou dsoy tUrqvksa dh tUrq tkfr;ksa
of plants A
Herbarium For taxonomy For both oxhZdh ds fy,s ds fy,
(2)
A of both plants plants and gcsZfj;e dsoy ikniksa dh oxhZdh
ikni tkfr;ksa
B
and animals animals ds fy,s ds fy,
(3)
Zoological For taxonomy For both gcsZfj;e ikni o tUrq nksuksa dho tUrq
ikni
B park of both plants plants and A
oxhZdh ds fy,s nksuksa ds fy,s
and animals animals (3)
izzk.kh miou ikni o tUrq nksuksa
iknidho tUrq
Museum For taxonomy For both B
A of both plants plants and oxhZdh ds fy,s nksuksa ds fy,s
and animals animals laxzgky; ikni o tUrq nksuksaikni
dh o tUrq
(4) A
Zoological For taxonomy For both oxhZdh ds fy,s nksuksa ds fy,s
(4)
B park of both plants plants and izzk.kh miou ikni o tUrq nksuksa
iknidho tUrq
and animals animals B
oxhZdh ds fy,s nksuksa ds fy,s
16/37 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2013 H
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PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE (MLP, MLQ, MLR, MLS) 16–03–2013
96. Which nitrogen base of codon is less specific 96.
for anticodon recognition :-
:-
(1) First Nitrogen base (2) Second nitrogen base (1) (2)
(3) Third nitrogen base (4) Complete codon (3) (4)
97. Study the table given below and identify the 97.
correct option which correctly includes the (A), (A), (B), (C) (D)
:-
(B), (C) and (D) S.N.
S.N. Character Dinoflagellates Chrysophytes Euglenoids Slime moulds
(i) –
(A)
(i) Occur – Both in fresh water Mainly in (A)
as/in marine water Fresh water (ii)
(B) –
(ii) Cell wall Present Present (B) –
Photo- No photo- (iii) a c (C) a b
(iii) synthetic chloro-. a & c (C) chloro- a & b synthetic
pigments phyll phyll pigmetns
Number of (iv) (D) –
(iv)
flagella
(D) No any Two –
Options
A B C D A B C D
(1) Parasites Present chlorophyll chlorophyll (1)
a e a b
a&e a&b
(2) Autotrophs Absent chlorophyll chlorophyll (2)
a e a b
a&e a&b
Saprotrophs Absent chlorophyll
(3) on decaying a&c Two (3) a c
matter
(4) Parasites Present chlorophyll No photosynthetic (4)
in livings a&d pigments a d
98. If 100 types of amino acids are participate in 98.
100
protein synthesis and 12 types of N2 - Bases in
m-RNA 12
m-RNA then single codon of m-RNA m-RNA
composed of how many nitrogen bases :-
:-
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (1) (2) (3) (4)
99. Some structures are given below they are 99.
produced during life cycle of different plant :-
groups :-
(i)
(i) Gemmae
(ii) Protonema (ii)
(iii) Prothallus (iii)
(iv)Haploid endosperm (iv)
(v) Archegonium (v)
(vi) Pollen grains (vi)
(vii) Double fertilization
(vii)
(viii) Fruit formation
(ix) Ovule formation (viii)
(x) Vascular tissues (ix)
What structures can be observed in the life (x)
cycle of vascular cryptogames :-
(1) Gemmae, Prothallus, Archegonium :-
(2) Vascular tissue, Prothallus, Ovule formation (1)
(3) Double fertilisation, Haploid endosperm, (2)
Vascular tissue (3)
(4) Prothallus, Archegonium, Vascular tissue (4)
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100. Which of the following is not a salient features 100.
DNA
of the Double helix structure of DNA :-
:-
(1) It is made of two polynucleotide chain, (1)
where the back bone is constituted by sugar
- phosphate and the bases project inside
(2) The two chains have parallel polarity
(3) The bases in two strands are paired through (2)
hydrogen bond forming base pair (3)
(4) The two chains are coiled in a right handed
fashion (4)
101. How many plants in the list given below are 101.
the members of nonvascular embryophytes :-
:-
Spirogyra, Volvox, Ficus, Polysiphonia,
Polytrichum, Sphagnum, Marchantia,
Funaria, Selaginella, Equisetum.
(1) Six (2) Three (1) (2)
(3) Four (4) Five (3) (4)
102. Deoxyguanosine is a :- 102.
:-
(1) Nucleoside of RNA (1) RNA
(2) Nucleotide of DNA (2) DNA
(3) Nucleoside of DNA (3) DNA
(4) Nucleotide of RNA (4) RNA
103. Find the incorrect statements from the 103.
:-
following:-
(1)
(1) Growth, reproduction and consciousness
are unique features of living organisms
(2) Growth and reproduction are defining (2)
characteristics of living organisms
(3) Metabolism, cellular organisation and (3)
consciousness are defining characters of
livings.
(4) Living organisms are self replicting, (4)
evolving and self regulating.
104. Which of the following is not a nucleoside of RNA:- 104.
RNA
:-
(1) Cytidine (2) Uridine (1) (2)
(3) Guanosine (4) Deoxyguanosine (3) (4)
105. Which is a group of organisms in which 105.
:-
reproduction is synonymous with growth :-
(1)
(1) Amoeba, Bacteria and Unicellular Algae
(2)
(2) Algae, Fungi and Lichen
(3) Lower organisms (3)
(4) Higher multicellular organisms (4)
A B C A B C
A B C A B C
(1) Metaphase I Anaphase I Telophase I (1) Metaphase I Anaphase I Telophase I
(2) Prophase II Metaphase II Aanaphase II (2) Prophase II Metaphase II Aanaphase II
(3) Metaphase II Anaphase II Telophase II (3) Metaphase II Anaphase II Telophase II
(4) Metaphase I Anaphase II Telophase I (4) Metaphase I Anaphase II Telophase I
117. "As we go lower from kingdom to species the 117. "
number of common characters goes on
"
decreasing"
According to fundamental concepts of
taxonomy the above lines are not correct, so
:-
they can be corrected as :-
(1)
(1) As we go higher from species to kingdom,
the number of common characters goes on
increasing. (2)
(2) As we go higher from species to kingdom,
the number of common characters goes on
decreasing (3)
(3) As we go towards the species, the number
of similar characters goes on decreasing
(4) As we go towards the kingdom, the number (4)
of similar characters goes on increasing
118. How many of the given statement are correct: 118.
(a) Cells are metabolically inactive in quiescent (a)
stage
(b) Sister chromatid separate during anaphase (b)
I of meiosis
(c) Golgi, ER, nucleolus and nuclear envelope (c)
are partially visible at the end of mitotic
prophase
(d) Growth of multicellular organism is due to (d)
mitosis
(e) Anaphase stage is characterised by (e)
centromere split
(f) During telophase chromosome cluster at (f)
opposite pole and loose their identity as
discrete element
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3 (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3
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119. Find the incorrect match 119.
(A) Botanical gardens – Have collection of (A)
living plants
(B) Zoological parks – Have collection of
(B)
living animal
(C) Biological museum – Have collection of
preserved animals (C)
only
(D) Taxonomical keys – Are used for
(D)
identification of
plants only
(1) A & B (2) B & C (1) A & B (2) B & C
(3) C & D (4) A & D (3) C & D (4) A & D
120. Identify the type of chromosome w.r.t. 120.
centromere position :-
A B C A B C
A B C A B C
(1) Telocentric Acrocentric Sub meta (1) Telocentric Acrocentric Sub meta
centric centric
(2) Acrocentric Sub meta Metacentric (2) Acrocentric Sub meta Metacentric
centric centric
(3) Sub-meta Telocentric Acrocentric (3) Sub-meta Telocentric Acrocentric
centric centric
(4) Telocentric Acrocentric Metacentric (4) Telocentric Acrocentric Metacentric
121. By taxonomic keys we can observe or analyse 121.
the characters of not only one member but also
of the other related members because at a time
couplets are used in keys in which acceptance
of only one and rejection of the other character
is there. This practice in taxonomic keys prove
that :-
:-
(1) In keys characters are used in pairs (1)
(couplet)
(2) In keys two opposite options are used for (2)
every member at a time
(3) Keys are generally analytical in nature (3)
(4) Keys are able to explain every organism (4)
A A
B B
C C
A B C A B C
(1) Thylakoid Granum Inner membrane (1) Thylakoid Granum Inner membrane
(2) Thylakoid Granum Stroma lamellae (2) Thylakoid Granum Stroma lamellae
(3) Granum Thylakoid Outer membrane (3) Granum Thylakoid Outer membrane
(4) Thylakoid Stroma Stromas (4) Thylakoid Stroma Stromas
lamellae lamellae
123. An order can be best defined as :- 123.
:-
(1) A group of related species and genera of (1)
differant taxa
(2)
(2) A group of related families which exhibit
a few similar characters
(3) A group of related classes which exhibit a (3)
few similarites
(4) An assemblage of genera related to different
classes (4)
124. Ribosomes are the granular structure first 124.
observed under the electron microscope as
dense particles by :-
(1) Robert brown (2) Flemming (1) (2)
(3) George palada (4) Camilo golgi (3) (4)
125. In potato, brinjal, makoi, lion and leopard 125.
(lion)
(Leopard)
hormany species, genera and families are there
Species Genus Family
(1) Five Three Two (1)
(2) Four Two Three (2)
(3) Five Two Two (3)
(4) Four Three Two (4)
126. (A) Volume of the cell in both prokaryotic and 126. (A)
eukaryotic organisms is occupied by a
semi fluid matrix (B)
(B) It is main arena of cellular activities
These statement (A & B) are true for :
(1) Cell wall (2) Cytoplasm (1) (2)
(3) Nucleoplasm (4) Inclusion body (3) (4)
136. Match the followings & choose correct option: 136.
Coloumn-A Column-B Coloumn-A Column-B
(a) Aleurone layer (i) without
(a) (i)
fertilization
(b) Parthenocarpic (ii) Nutrition (b) (ii)
fruit (c) (iii)
(c) Ovule (iii) Double
(d) (iv)
fertilization
(d) Endosperm (iv) seeds (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
A B A B
C D E C E
D
A B C D E A B C D E
(1) Inter Vacuole Lumen Perforated Simple (1)
cellular end wall pits
space
(2) Inter Vacuole Lumen Bordered Simple (2)
cellular pits pits
space
(3) Vacuole Proto- Pit simple Bordered (3)
plasm cavity pits pits
(4) Cell Thickened Pith Lumen Perforated (4)
wall corners end wall
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149. Production of two types of spores micro (small) 149.
and macro (large) spores which give rise to
male and female gametophytes respectively. ....(a)...... ....(b)....,
This phenomenon is called as....(a)......and occurs
...(c)........(d)......
in the plants....(b)....,...(c)....and....(d).... In the
given paragraph what are a, b, c & d ? a, b, c d ?
(1) (a) – Heterospory (b) – Bryophyta (1) (a) – (b) –
(c) – Pteridophyta (d) – Gymnosperm (c) – (d) –
(2) (a) – Seed habit (b) – Pteridophyta (2) (a) – (b) –
(c) – Gymnosperm (d) – Angiosperm (c) – (d) –
(3) (a) – Heterosporous (b) – Pteridophyta (3) (a) – (b) –
condition
(c) – Gymnosperm (d) – Angiosperm (c) – (d) –
(4) (a) – Seed habit (b) – Bryophyta (4) (a) – (b) –
(c) – Pteridophyta (d) – Gymnosperm (c) – (d) –
150. Identify the component labelled A, B, C and D 150.
A, B, C D
in the diagram below, from the list (i) to (viii). (i) (viii)
Select their correct combination.
(B) (B)
(D) (D)
(C) (C)
(A) (A)
(i) Epidermis (i)
(ii) Resin canal (ii)
(iii) Hypodermis (iii)
(iv) Sclerenchymatous Pericycle (iv)
(v) Metaxylem
(v)
(vi)Protoxylem
(vi)
(vii) Pith
(vii)
(viii) Intra fascicular cambium
The correct components are :- (viii)
(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – vi, D – viii
:-
(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – vi, D – viii
(2) A – vii, B – iv, C – vi, D – viii
(2) A – vii, B – iv, C – vi, D – viii
(3) A – iii, B – v, C – vi, D – vii (3) A – iii, B – v, C – vi, D – vii
(4) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – vii (4) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – vii
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151. (a) Cellular level body 151. (a)
(b) mostly marine (b)
(c) Internal fertilisation (c)
(d) Indirect development (d)
(e) Free living planula larva is present. (e)
In the above given statements which do not suit
to proifera.
(1) a, b, e (2) b, e (3) d, e (4) a, d, e (1) a, b, e (2) b, e (3) d, e (4) a, d, e
152. In the given figure, which of the following 152.
'A'
statements are true about the cells of labelled
region 'A'.
'A' 'A'
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
A B C D A B C D
(1) Adamsia Brachiostoma Dantalium Cockroach (1) Adamsia Brachiostoma Dantalium Cockroach
(2) Aurelia Saccoglossus Antedon Scorpian (2) Aurelia Saccoglossus Antedon Scorpian
(3) Pleurobrachia Ascidia Ophiura Locust (3) Pleurobrachia Ascidia Ophiura Locust
(4) Ctenoplana Salpa Asterias Prawn (4) Ctenoplana Salpa Asterias Prawn